Text

Forwards NRC Operator Licensing Exam Rept 50-333/97-09 for Exams Administered on 971103-07
	ML20216B260
Person / Time
Site:	FitzPatrick
Issue date:	03/09/1998
From:	Curley V; NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION I)
To:	; NRC OFFICE OF INFORMATION RESOURCES MANAGEMENT (IRM)
References
	50-333-97-09, 50-333-97-9, NUDOCS 9803130022
	Download: ML20216B260 (1)
	v • d • e

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March 9, 1998 l NOTE T0: NRC Document Control Desk Mail Stop 0-5-D-24

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FROM: $c t I- oa fe n .L Opera';ing Licensi "BranchRpnsingAssistant SUBJECT:

OPERATOR llevendetr 3-7LICENSING 1997 . ATEXAMINATION ADMINJSIERED ON d. R. Fitz t'a7xich' .

' DOCKET #50.dja On vemlea A-7 n 97 Operator Licensing Examinations were administered at the referenced' facility. Attached. you will find the following information for processing through NUDOCS and distribution to the NRC staff, including the NRC PDR: j

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Item #1 - a) Facility submitted outline and initial exam submittal.

designated for distribution under RIDS Code A070.

b) As given operating examination. designated for distribution under RIDS Code A070.

Item #2 - Examination Report with the as given written examination attached, designated for distribution under RIDS Code'IE42.

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December 15, 1997 h p_ (=, bC

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Mr. Michael Site Executive Officer New York Power Authority )

James A. FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant j Post Office Box 41 i Lycoming, NY 13093 l SUBJECT: FITZPATRICK EXAMINATION REPORT 50 333/97-09

Dear Mr. Colomb:

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During the period of November 4-7,1997, the NRC administered initial exams to eight employees of your company who had applied for licenses to operate the James A.

FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant. At the conclusion of the examinations, the prelimi, nary findings were discussed with Mr. Topley and members of your staff.

All eight applicants passed the exams. All applicants were well prepared for the examination.

Your staff developed the initial examinations. However, the quality of your staff's initial input did not meet our expectation. Based on the interaction between the chief examiner and your staff, an acceptable examination was eventually developed and subsequently administered. We hope that the lessons learned will be applied during future examination development efforts.

An unresolved item was identified related to a change made to your Emergency Operating Procedures.

In accordance with 10 CFR 2.700 of the NRC's " Rules of Practice," a copy of this letter and its enclosures will be placed in the NRC Public Document Room (PDR).

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Mr. Michael Should you have any questions regarding this information, please contact Don Florek of my staff at (610) 337-5185 or me at (610) 337-5211.

Sincerely,

Glenn W. Meyer, Chief Operations and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety i

Docket No.: 50-333 License No.: DPR-59 Enclosures: Examination Report 50-333/97-09 s.g.w/ encl: w/o Attachments 1-4:

C. D. Rappleyea, Chairman and Chief Executive Officer )

E. Zeltmann, President and Chief Operating Officer R. Hiney, Executive Vice President for Project Operations J. Knubel, Chief Nuclear Officer and Senior Vice President

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H. P. Salmon, Jr., Vice President of Nuclear Operations W. Josiger, Vice President - Engineering and Project Management J. Kelly, Director - Regulatory Affairs and Special Projects T. Dougherty, Vice President - Nuclear Engineering R. Deasy, Vice President - Appraisal and Compliance Services R. Patch, Director - Quality Assurance G. C. Goldstein, Assistant General Counsel C. D. Faison, Director, Nuclear Licensing, NYPA K. Peters, Licensing Manager ,

R. Locey, Trainira Manager l T. Morra, Executive Chair, Four County Nuclear Safety Committee Supervisor, Town of Scriba C. Donaldson, Esquire, Assistant Attorney General, New York Department of Law P. Eddy, Electric Division, Department of Public Service, State of New York G. T. Goering, Consultant, New York Power Authority J. E. Gagliardo, Consultant, New York Power Authority E. S. Beckjord, Consultant, New York Power Authority F. William Valentino, President, New York State Energy Research and Development Authority J. Spath, Program Director, New York State Energy Research and Development Authority

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Mr. Michael Distribution w/enci and Attachments 1-5:

DRS Master Exam File PUBLIC Nuclear Safety information Center (NSIC) *

Distribution w/ encl: w/o Attachments 1-5:

H. Miller, RA/W. Axelson, DRA (1)

J. Wiggins, DRS D. Screnci, PAO (2)

Nuclear Safety Information Center (NSIC)

PUBLIC NRC Resident inspector Region i Docket Room (with concurrences)

J. Rogge, DRP R. Barkley, DRP R. Junod, DRP D. Florek, Chief Examiner, DRS OL Facility File .

Distribution w/enet: w/o Attachments 1-5: (VIA E-MAIL)

M. Leach, R1 EDO Coordinator S. Bajwa, NRR K. Cotton, NRR W. Dean, OEDO (WMD)

D. Hood, NRR M. Campion, RI Inspection Program Branch, NRR (IPAS)

DOCDESK DOCUMENT NAME: A: FITZ9709.lNS

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m 2 .- ...c- - w- w-m OFFICE Rigg // l Rl/DRP/ l Rl/DRS [ Rl/ l Rl/

NAME l l D"'eff V JRogge GMeyer Qj [

DATE- 12/9597 12f /97 12/pf97

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9 12/ /97 12/ /97 l OFFICIAL RECORD COPY

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. j U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION '

REGION I

Docket No. 50-333 License No. DPR-59 Report No. 97-09 Licensee: New York Power Authority Post Office Box 41 Scriba, New York 13093 Facility Name: James A. FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant Examination Period: November 4-7, 1997 Examiners: D. Florek, Senior Operations Engineer S. Dennis, Operations Engineer C. Sisco, Operations Engineer Approved by: G. Meyer, Chief, Operations and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety iI

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EXAMINATION SUMMARY Examination Report 50-333/97-09 (OL)

Initial exams were administered to four senior reactor operator (SRO) instant applicants and four reactor operator (RO) applicants during the period of November 4-7,1997, at the James A. FitzPatrick (JAF) Nuclear Power Plant.

OPERATIONS All eight applicants passed the exam. All applicants were well prepared for the examination. The JAF training staff and a contractor developed the examination. The quality of the initial submittal was not at the level that met NRC expectations as defir.ed in NUREG 1021. However the JAF training staff responded to the NRC comments on the proposed examination and developed a final examination that was acceptable.

An unresolver' item was identified related to a change made to the Emergency Operating Procedures regarding initiation of isolations that should have occurred but did not.

On the operating test, the examiners noted very good performance regarding team work, use of prints, communication, procedure use, and peer checking. Also, the examiners noted weak performance related to an alternate path task related to the refueling interlock test.

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Reoort Details 05.1 Operator initial Exams a. Scone The examiners administered initial examinations to four RO and four SRO instant applicants in accordance with NUREG-1021, " Examiner Standards," Interim Revision 8. The examinations were prepared by James A. FitzPatrick (JAF) staff and were approved by the NRC. JAF staff administered and graded the written examination. The NRC administered and graded the operating test and concurred with the JAF staff grading of the written examination.

b. Observations and Findinas The results of the initial examinations are summarized below:

I SRO RO Pass / Fail Written 4/O 4/O 8/O

' Operating 4/0 4/O 8/0 l Overall 4/O 4/0 8/O The examinations were prepared by JAF staff. The JAF staff involved with the development of these examinations signed security agreements to ensure the integrity of the initial examination process.

JAF staff submitted their proposed sample plan on August 27,1997. The NRC Chief examiner made minor changes to the submitted sample plan which were made by the JAF staff.

The JAF proposed SRO and RO written examinations were submitted for NRC !

approval on September 25,1997, and the operating tests the following week as agreed by the Chief Examiner. The JAF initial submitted examination was not an examination capable of discriminating between acceptable and unacceptable license candidates and required modification to meet NRC Examiner Standards. The ,

following is a summary of the problems noted with the proposed examination. I

- Simplistic written, JPM and admin questions

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Poor written question distractors which were easily eliminated

- Written questions which did not correlate with the assigned K/A

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Awkwardly worded written and JPM questions

- Written and JPM questions that did not solicit the answer in the answer key

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Double jeopardy questions

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Lack of balance in the written distractors

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More than one correct answer

- Inadequate cues for in-plant JPMs

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JPM and admin questions not writt'en at the SRO level

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JPM questions written as direct look up rather than "open reference" use

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Inadequate operator actions in the proposed simulator scenarios

- Specification of scenario critical tasks

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Inadequate malfunctions to assess each operator in the competency evaluation ,

The NRC examination team held an examination preparation visit the week of September 20,1997. As a result of the NRC and JAF staff interaction, an acceptable examination was developed and administered.

JAF staff administered the written examinations on November 3,1997. The NRC examiners administered the operating examinations in the period of November 4-7,1997.

By letter, dated Nover%r 12,1997, JAF staff provided the grading of. o written examination and identh.1: comments on five questions. A copy of the JAF letter is contained in Attachment 3. The NRC accepted the JAF comments on the written examination as described in Attachment 4. The examiners reviewed the grading of the written examinations and concurred with the grading by JAF staff.

During the walkthrough portion of the operating test, the SRO instant applicants performed poorly in the following task: -

Alternate path task related to the refueling interlock test.

During the operating test, the following items were significant and consistent positive observations.

P&lD, electrical, and logic prints were effectively used by the applicants.

Toimwork within the crews was very good.

Communication within the crews was very good. Crew briefings were concise, timely, and appropriate. The applicants were very poised.

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Procedures, including alarm response procedures, were effectively used during the scenarios.

Effective use of peer checking.

c. Conclusions The applicants were well prepared for the examination, and as a result,8 of 8 applicants passed the examinations and were subsequently issued licenses.

JAF staff did not have a complete understanding of the NRC expectations in the development of their proposed initial examination. Significant interactions between the NRC and JAF staff were required to develop an examination that was consistent with the NRC Examiner Standards, in the end, JAF staff were successful in developing an acceptable examination. !

03.1 Emeraency Operatina Procedures (EOPs)

a. Scope The examiner reviewed the change to EOPs which changed the Emergency Procedure Guideline (EPG) step RC/L-1 from " Initiate each of the following which should have initiated but did not" to " Verify initiation of".

b. Observations and Findinas During the examination the examiners noted that the applicants did not always

" Verify initiation of" during the execution of the EOPs. The examiners noted that the EOPs were revised to change the step as a concurrent step rather than a series step and also " Initiate" was changed to " Verify initiations".

At JAF, in accordance with AP-02.01 " verify initiation" meant "to observe that the associated activities have been performed or that the expected conditions or characteristics exist." This was not the same as " Initiate each of the following which should have but did not". AT JAF " verify" was performed on a concurrent, when available basis by the ROs informing the SRO what actions should have initiated but did not. The SRO was allowed to decide as to whether to initiate those actions. At JAF " ensure" was used to mean initiate each of the following which should have initiated but did not.

The EOP pr.aedure change, dated December 6,1996, which made the change and the resulting plant specific technical guide (PSTG) indicated that this was plant specific terminology and did not specifically identify whether the wording change was meant to be identical in interpretation. In addition,the change from series to concurrent execution of initiate isolations was not specifically addressed.

c. Conclusion An unresolved item was identified for JAF to provide an assessment of whether

" Verify isolations" was meant to be equivalent to " Initiate each of the following -

which should have but did not". If this was not the case, then the procedure j change documentation should be reassessed for completeness and adequacy. In 1 addition the adequacy of the change from series to concurrent, when available execution should be documented. This is unresolved item (50 333/97-09-01)

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E.8 Review of UFSAR Commitments j A recent discovery of a licensee operating their facility in a mentar contrary to the updated final safety analysis report (UFSAR) description highlighted the need for a i special focused review that compares plant practices, procedures and/or parameters )

to the UFSAR descriptions. While performing the examination activities discussed l in this report, the examiner reviewed portions of the UFSAR that related to a main j steam line break accident examination question. The selected examination question -(

reviewed was consistent with the UFSAR. .

l V. Manaaement Meetings l

X1 Exit Meeting Summary j

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At the conclusion of the examination, the examiners discussed their observations of the examination process with members of JAF management. The examinations noted that no simulator fidelity concerns had been observed or identified. JAF management acknowledged the examiner observations.

The JAF personnel present at the exit included the following:

P. Brozenich,' Operations Manager R. Locey, Training Manager !

J. Morris, Initial Program Administrator J. Romanowski, Operations Training Supervisor D. Topley, General Manager, Maintenance Attachments:

1. SRO Examination and Answer Key 2. RO Examination and Answer Key 3. JAF Comments on the Written Examination 4. NRC Resolution of JAF Comments on the Written Examination

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- ATTACHMENT 1 SRO EXAMINATION AND ANSWER KEY l

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NEW YORK POWER AUTHOR!TY EXAMINATION /QUlZ JAME3 A. FITZPATRICK NUCLEAR POWER PLANT COVER SHEET Examination Title: USNRC SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Examination Submitte By:) Mder Date: 11/03/97

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Supervisor Approval: .1.6. Mc EEIS Date: to lt5 97 Authorized Reft:rence 1: ATTACHED Minimum Acceptable Grade: 80 Total Exam Points: 100 )

Grade: Graded By: Time Limit: 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months STUDENT DATA Name: - S.S.#:

Last First M.l.

Employer: NEW YORK POWER AUTHORITY Date:

Department:

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GUIDELINES

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1. Remain quiet during the exam. If you have any questions during the exam, raise l your hand. Your instructor will provide clarification wherever possible. i 2. You are expected to do your own work and not to help anyone else.

3. Use only the authorized reference material.

4. At the completion of this examination, you are to sign the following certification.

I certify all answers contained in this examination are my own. In addition, I have not received nor given any unauthorized assistance, nor have used any unauthorized references.

Student Signature: Date:

SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 1 With the plant operating at 50% power, which one of the following Main Generator faults will cause an automatic reactor scram? ,

a. High Stator Winding Temperature.

b. High Differential Current.

c. Loss ofIsolated Phase Bus Duct Cooling.

d. Low Hydrogen Pressure.

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Question 2 Which one of the following is the reason that the Reactor Mode Switch should be taken out of the RUN position immediately after a Reactor Scram?

a. Enable SRM and IRM rodblocks.

I b. Prevent MSIV isolation.

c. Enable the SDIV high level bypass circuitry, d. Lower the APRM scram setpoint to 15%.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 3 A reactor scram has just occurred followed by a Residual Transfer. Which one of the following describes the operators' concerns regarding the MSIVs under these conditions?

a. Ensure the MSIVs close to minimize the possibility of Main Turbine overspeed.

b. Ensure the MSIVs close to minimize the possibility of Turbine Building contamination.

c. Ensure the MSIVs remain open to minimize Toms heat laad.

d. Ensure the MSIVs remain open to maintain availability of Turbine Sealing steam.

Question 4 Following an automatic HPCI initiation, the operators note that HPCI trips and then later restarts with no operator action. Which one of the following was the cause of the trip?

a. High turbine exhaust diaphragm pressure.

b. High steam flow rate.

c. High RPV level.

d. High HPCI area temperature.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

Question 5 A power ascene on is in progress with the follow.!ng conditions:

. Power le el is 70%.

. Load lir.e is 100%.

. Two Feedwater pumps are operating.

Which one of the following describes when and how the Recire. Pumps will runback if one Feed Pump trips?

a. Immediately runback to minimum speed.

b. When RPV level lowers to 1%.5 inches; runback to minimum speed.

c. Immediately runback to 44% speed.

d. When RPV level lowers to 196.5 inches; runback to 44% speed.

Question 6

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The following conditions exist:

. A Group 11 isolation has occurred due to high Daywell pressure.

. Present Drywell pressure is 5 psig.

. The EMERG OVERR DRYWELL HI PRESS keylock switch on the PCP panel has been taken to its OVERRIDE position.

. No other operator actions have been taken.

Which one of the following describes the CAD isolation valves that can be opened at this -

time?

a. All CAD isolation valves.

b. All CAD isolation valves exupt 27AOV-111 through 118 (CAD vent valves).

c. All CAD isolation valves except 27MOV-113,117,122,123 (CAD purge valves).

d. All CAD isolation valves except 27AOV 131 A/B,132A/B (CAD make-up valves).

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Question 7 The plant is operating at full power when the following occur:

. Generated MWe starts to decrease.

. Reactor power starts to decrease.

Which one of the following could have caused these symptoms?

a. Decrease in grid frequency.

b. Jet Pump malfunction.

c. Loss of feedwater heating.

d. Inadvertent SRV opening.

Question 8 With a high Drywell pressure, Emergency RPV Depressurization is required if Torus Water Level cannot be maintained below PSP (Pressure Suppression Pressure). Which one of the following is the basis for performing an Emergency RPV Depressurization if the Pressure Suppression Pressure Limit is exceeded?

a. To ensure that the vacuum breakers will not become submerged and fail to function.

b. To ensure adequate free volume (airspace) of the Torus for steam suppression, c. To prevent damaging the Torus.

d. To prevent steam from the Drywell bypassing the Suppression Pool.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 9 l

Which one of the following would give positive indication that SRV 'C' is open when its control switch is taken to OPEN? .

a. SRV red light is on, b. SRV white light is on.

I SRV tailpiece temperature rises and stabilizes at 285 *F.

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d. EPIC alarm ' SONIC DET RV-C' RESET is received.

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1-Question 10

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The following conditions exist:

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. A plant transient raised RPV pressure to 1150 psig.

. The SRVs have opened.

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. RPV levelis 150 inches.

Assuming no operator action, which one of the following describes when the SRVs are expected to close?

a. Before RPV pressure decreases below approximately 1050 psig.

b. 120 seconds after the initial transient.

c. After RPV pressure decreases below approximately 50 psig. j d. When both RHR and Core Spray pumps are secured. l l

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 11 A reactor scram occurred but many control rods failed to insert due to a high water level in the Scram Discharge Volume. The APRMs read 9 %. Which one of the following actiuns will be most effective in inserting control rods?

a. Manually initiate ARI.

b. De-energize scram solenoids.

c. Manually insert control rods.

d. Close the CRD Flow Control valve.

Question 12 Following the trip of one Recire. Pump with the reactor at power, the operators have closed the discharge valve of the tripped pump. Which one of the following is the reason that this is done?

a. Stops reverse rotation of the tripped pump.

b. Prevents backflow through the idle Jet Pumps.

c. Prevents runout of the operating Recire. Pump.

d. Lowers the probability of entering the instability region of the power / flow map.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 13 -

The following conditions exist:

Condenser vacuum is 25.1 inches Hg.

Turbine load is 170 MWe.

AOP-31 (Loss of Condenser Vacuum) has been entered.'

Which one of the following actions, by itself, will make it MORE LIKELY that a manual Turbine Trip will be required?

a. Starting the Mechanical Vacuum pumps.

b. Increase load to 255 MWe.

c. Decrease load to 85 MWe.

d. Placing the spare Air Ejector sets in service.

Ques' ion 14 With the plant shutdown, an Emergency Diesel Generator is running and is tied to its bus for load testing. Which one of the following describes the response to a complete loss of offsite power?

a. The Tie Breakers will trip and the diesel will maintain the bus loads. 1 b, The Diesel Output breaker will trip and the diesel will switch to isochronous ,

mode, then the Diesel Output breaker recloses.

c. The Diesel Output breaker will trip and the diesel will switch to droop mode, then the Diesel Output breaker recloses.

d. The Tie breakers and the diesel will trip.

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Question 15 Bus 10400 is powered by the Main Generator via breaker 10402. Which one of the following ways of opening this breaker will not allow closing the Station Reserve breaker 104127 a. Manually opened locally.

b. Manually opened from the control room.

c. Automatically opened on overcurrent.

d. Automatically opened on undervoltage.

Question 16 Which one of the following describes the loads in the 24 VDC Power System?

a. Each load breaker is connected to 48 VDC potential (input) from its associated 124 VDC charger.

b. Half the loads on a124 VDC distribution bus are powered from +24 VDC. The other half are powered from -24 VDC.

c. Each load breaker is connected to 24 VDC potential (input; from its associated 12 VDC charger.

d. Half the loads on a 148 VDC distribution bus are powered from +48 VDC. The other half are powered from -48 VDC.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 17 The following Narrow Range RPV level conditions exist:

'A' indicates 215 inches and is rising slowly. .

'B' indicates 185 inches and is lowering slowly.

e 'C' indicates 214 inches and is rising slowly.

e Feedwater control is selected to the 'A' Column.

Selecting the 'B' RPV Level Column will result in which one of the following effects on level trends?

a. 'A' and 'C' will continue to rise. 'B' will lower.

b. 'A' and 'C' will continue to rise. 'B' will rise.

c. 'A' and 'C' will lower. 'B' will lower.

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d. 'A' and 'C' will lower. 'B' will rise.

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) In which one of the following ways does a loss of 125 VDC Bus 'A' affect the ADS /SRV system?

a. Loss of'A' logic, ADS remains functional.

b. None of the ADS /SRV valves can be opened.

c. The ADS /SRV valves cannot be opened from the remote panel.

d. Only valves F, J, K & L remain fully functional.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 19 AOP-43 (Shutdown From Outside the Control Room) requires the operators to remove RHR pumps 'A' and 'C' from service. Which one of the following describes the reason tha this .

step is necessary?

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l a. Prevent water hammer in the event of a LOCA signal.

b. Prevent inadvertent Drywell spray.

c. Prevent inadvertent LPCI injection.

d. Prevent draining the RPV to the Torus.

Question 20 The following events occur:

. The plant is at 20% power.

. High radiation in the Off Gas system starts the Off Gas Timer.

. No operator action is taken.

Which one of the following will be the most likely cause of an automatic reactor scram?

l a. High Reactor Power.

b. Low RPV Level.

c. MSIV closure.

j d. High RPV Pressure.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 21 Which one of the following describes the use of ESW for Drywell cooling during a LOCA?

a. It is the preferred method.

b. It may be used only on loss of RBCLC.

c. It may be used only if directed by EOP-4.

d. It is prohibited.

Question 22 On a Loss ofInstrument Air pressure during normal plant operation, which one of the following describes if and when the MSIVs will go closed? .

a. Inboards remain open; outboards close immediately.

b. Inboards and outboards close immediately.

c. Inboards close eventually; outboards close immediately.

d. Inboards remain open; outboards close eventually, a

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 23 The following conditions exist:

. A valid Reactor Scram has occurred on low RPV level.

.' The EDGs have auto started in response to high Drywell pressure.

. The Recire. pumps are running at minimum speed as expected.

Which one of the following descri' es the status of the containment isolations?

a. Group I isolated; Group I1 isolated.

b. Group I not isolated; Group II not isolated.

c. Group I isolated; Group II not isolated.

d. Group I not isolated; Group II isolated.

Question 24 During a plant startup RPV pressure is 900 psig. Loss of CRD flow will have which one of the following effects on control rod motion and scram times?

a. Normal rod motion is unaffected and scram times will be within acceptable limits.

b. Normal rod motion is lost and scram times will not meet acceptable limits.

c. Nennal rod motion is unaffected but scram times will not meet acceptable limits.

d. Normal rod motion is lost but scram times will be within acceptable limits.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 25 During power operation with RHR pump 'A' in Torus Cooling, an operator mistakenly manually opens RHR pump 'A' Shutdown Cooling Suction valve (10MOV-15A) locally at -

the valve. Which one of the following describes the expected automatic actions, if any?

a. There will be no automatic actions.

b. When 10MOV-15A reaches 10% open, it will automatically close the 'A' RHR Pump Suction Torus Isolation Valve (10MOV-13A).

c. When 10MOV-15A reaches full open, the RHR Torus Cooling / Torus Spray outboard valve (10MOV-39A) will auto close.

d. The %' RHR pump will trip on low suction pressae.

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Question 26 Which one of the following describes the consequences of spraying the Drywell if Drywell conditions are not in the permissible region of the Drywell Spray Initiation Curve?

a. Water sprayed into the Drywell will turn to steam raising pressure even further.

b. The cold water will put excessive thermal stress on the Drywell which may lead to its failure.

c. The effect is unpredictable and would result in putting the plant in an unanalyzed condition.

d. Drywell pressure would drop more rapidly than could be handled by the vacuum breakers.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION *

l Question 27 l The Reactor Building "entilation system is in operation when the exhaust plenum radiation

l levels exceed 10 cpm. Which one of the following describes the expected response of the Reactor Building Ventilation and SBGT systems to this event?

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a. Reactor Building Ventilation will isolate and neither train of SBGT will start, b. Reactor Building Ventilation will isolate and both trains of SBGT will start. I c. Reactor Building Ventilrti 3n will not isolate and neither train of SBGT will start.

d. Reactor Building Ventilation will not isolate and both trains of SBGT will str -

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Question 28 The following conditions exist:

. A fuel element failure has occurred.

. 01-107AOV-100 (Off Gas Outlet Isolation Valve) is open.

. The Off Gas timer has started.

. The Stack Low Range monitors are reading full upscale.

. The Stack High Range monitors are reading 110 mR/hr.

. Reactor Building Exhaust radiation is reading 22,000 cpm.

These conditions require entry into which one of the following combinations of Emergency Plan EALs and EOPs? l a. Unusual Event and EOP-5.

i b. Unusual Event and EOP-6. I

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c. Alert and EOP-5. ;

d. Alert and EOP-6.

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Question 29 In the event that normal shutdown cooling capability has been lost, which one of the -

following states the minimum shutdown time before Fuel Pool Cooling Assist will provide adequate cooling?

a. Iday, b. 4 days.

c. 7 davs.

d. 9 days.

Question 30 Which one of the following describes why it is important to establish forced Recire, flow during a Loss of Shutdown Cooling event?

a. Coolant stratification may mislead the operators into assuming bulk water temperature is below 212*F.

b. Cooling of the recire loop will produce a reactivity effect when the first recire.

pump is started.

c. Unstable transition boiling at low pressure may cause clad damage.

d. Steam build up in the RHR suction piping will lead to waterhammer when RHR flow is restored.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 31 Which one of the following limits takes precedence during the operation of the SBGT system with the Reactor Building isolated?

a. Maintain RB AP more negative than -0.25 inches of water.

b. Maintain charcoal filter temperatures less than 170 'F.

c. Limit SBGT flow to a maximum of 6000 scfm.

d. . Maintain Reactor Building Ventilation exhaust radiation levels less than 10' cpm.

l Question 32 Following a reactor scram the pressure in the Scram Discharge Volume (SDV) rises to RPV pressure. Which one of the following describes the most likely reason for this condition? )

a. One or more CRDM seals have failed.

b. The scram has not been reset.

c. The SDV vent valves have failed closed, d. The CRDH flow control valve has failed open.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 33 Which one of the following RWM conditions, if any, will prevent insertion of a selected rod using the Emergency In switch? -

a. None, b. Select Error, c. Withdraw block.

d. Insert block.

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Question 34 The following conditions exist:

. The plant is shut down.

. The 'A' RHR loop is in Shutdown Cooling.

. A LPCI initiation signal on low RPV level occurs.

Which one of the following describes the operator actions, if any, which must be taken in order for LPCI 'A' to start injecting?

a. None.

b. Reset the Group 2 isolation, manually start the pump and reset the injection valve isolatioa signal.

c. Mniually align the suction path for the desired pump and reset the LPCI initiation signal d. Manually align the su , tion path for the desired pump, manually start the pump, and reset the injection valve isolvion signal.

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' Question 35'

The following sequence of events has occurred.

. A LOCA has occurred resulting in LPCI injection.

. Offsite power is then lost.

.- EDGs 'B', 'C', & 'D' start and load normally.

. EDG 'A' fails to start.

Under these conditions, which of the following RHR pumps will be running two minutes after the loss of power?

a. All four b. 'B', 'C', & 'D'

c. 'A', 'C', & 'D'

d. 'B'&'D'

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. Question 36

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The follow events occur:

. A low RPV level causes HPCI to stan and inject.

. HPCI is the only available injection system.

. RPV level starts to increase.

. The HPCI Aux. Oil Pump breaker trips. )

Assuming no operator action, which one of the following describes the expected response of HPCl?

a. HPCI will trip when the Aux. Oil Pump breaker trips and can rat restart.

b. HPCI will trip on High Level and can not restart.

c. HPCI will trip on High Level and can restart on low level. l d. HPCI will continue rurming until manually tripped.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 37 The following events have occurred:

. A LOCA has occurred.

. The Core Spray pumps auto started on low level.

. RPV level subsequently recovered to 180 inches.

. The operators tock both Core Spray Pump switches to STOP.

. Drywell pressure is 2.3 psig.

Which one of the following describes the expected response of the Core Spray pumps to these events?

a. After auto-starting they remain on until the initiation logic is reset.

b. They stop when switched to STOP but restart if Drywell pressure increases above their auto-start setpoint.

c. They stop when switched to STOP but restart iflevel decreases below their auto-start setpoint.

d. They stop when switched to STOP and remain off.

Question 38 Which ( ie of the following describes the effect of a loss of 600 VAC power on the Core Spray system?

a. Core Spray pumps will not auto-start when required. They can be started manually.

b. Core Spray pumps cannot be started either automatically or manually.

c. Core Spray pumps will start normally but their discharge valves will not open automa:ically.

d. Core Spray pumps will start normally but will trip on low flow.

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S~aiOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 39 The operator takes the SLC keylock switch to START SYS-A. Pump 'A' receives a start signal but fails to start due to mechanical binding ofits breaker contactor. Which one of the following describes the expected response of the Squib Valves and RWCU system isolation valves to these events?

a. Neither Squib valve will fire; RWCU will not isolate.

b. Only the 'A' Squib valve will fire; RWCU will isolate.

c. Both Squib valves will fire; RWCU will isolate, d. Both Squib valves will fire; RWCU will not isolate.

Question 40 Following a Residual Transfer and prior to the operator taking any actions, which one of the following describes the ability to start the SLC pumps and fire the squib valves?

a. The pumps can be started and the squib valves will fire.

b. The pumps cannot be staned and the squib valves will fire.

c. The pumps can be started and the squib valves will not fire.

d. The pumps cannot be started and the squib valves will not fire.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 41 The plant is operating at 100% power when a Generator Load Reject occurs. Which one of the following describes the RPS input that generates the first expected scram signal? -

a. High RPV Pressure.-

b. High Neutron Flux.

c. Turbine Control Valve Fast Closure, d. Turbine Stop Valve Closure.

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Question 42 The reactor is operating at 25% power. Which one of the following describes the response, if any, of RPS if the 'A' inboard and 'D' outboard MSIVs are closed?

a. Full Scram.

b. Half Scram in Channel 'A'.

c. Half Scram in Channel 'B'.

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d. No effect.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Quesdon 43 A normal plant startup is in progress and the following conditions exist:

. The Reactor Mode Switch is in STARTUP.

. All the IRM range switches are on RANGE 2.

. No IRMs are bypassed.

Which one of the following describes the effect on half scrams or rod blocks, if any, that will occur if the IRM 'A' Mode Switch is placed in the STANDBY position?

a. None, as long as its companion APRM is not downscale, b. Rod Withdrawal Block only.

c. RPS Half Scram only.

d. Rod Withdrawal Block and RPS Half Scram.

Question 44 The following conditions exist: i

. AllIRM Range switches are on RANGE 2.

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. The SRM detectors are partially withdrawn. j

. SRM 'A' reads 80 cps. 4 Which one of the following describes the ability to withdraw SRM 'A' and the status of rod blocks?

a. The detector can be further withdrawn and a rod block exists. j b. The detector can be funher withdrawn and no rod block exists, c. The detector cannot be further withdrawn and a rod block exists.

d. The detector cannot be further withdrawn and no rod block exists.

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Question 45

'A Recirculation Flow Summer fails resulting in zero output. Which one of the following is the highest power level at which the APRM will generate a rod block but not a scram signal?

a. 100 %

b. 75 %

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c. 60 %

d. 50%

Question 46 Assuming no change in vessel inventory, starting the Recire. pumps will affect Fuel Zone and Wide Range RPV level indication in which one of the following ways?

a. Fuel Zone rises; Wide Range rises, b. Fue1 Zone rises; Wide Range lowers.

c. Fuel Zone lowers; Wide Range rises.

d. Fuel Zone lowers; Wide Range lowers.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 47 RCIC is in operation due to a small LOCA. Which one of the following describes the expected position of the RCIC Turbine Governor Valve (13HOV-2) and the RCIC Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve (13MOV-131) if RPV level rises to 222.5 inches?

a. Turbine Governor Valve open; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve closed, b. Turbine Governor Valve closed; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve open.

c. Turbine Governor Valve open; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve elesed open.

d. Turbine Govemor Valve closed; Turbine Steam Inlet Isoleion Valve closed.

i Question 48 1 The following events have occurred:

. An Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) initiation has occurred.

. The initiation signals are still present.

. A blowdown is in progress.

Taking the ADS Normal / Override switches to OVERRIDE and back to NORMAL will have which one of the following effects on the ADS Valves?

a. ADS Valves will close and remain closed.

b. ADS Valves will close then reopen immediately.

c. ADS Valves will close then reopen after 120 seconds.

d. ADS Valves will remain open.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 49 The following conditions exist: )'

. Drywell pressure has risen from 1.8 to 2.5 psig.

. Torus pressure has risen from 0 to 2.5 psig.

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These conditions are symptomatic of which one of the following? I a. SRV cycled to control pressure and an SRV tailpiece failure inside the Torus.

b. Small break LOCA in the Drywell and a Downcomer failure inside the Torus.

c. Small break LOCA in the Drywell and a Torus to Drywell vacuum breaker failed to open.

d. SRV cycled to control pressure and an SRV tailpiece vacuum breaker stuck open.

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Question 50 With the Mode Switch in STARTUP, which one of the following conditions will result in the automatic closure of the MSIVs?

a. RPV Levelis 50 inches.

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b. Steamline pressure is 750 psig.

c. Main Condenser Vacuum is 10 inches Hg.

d. Turbine Stop valves not fully closed.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 51 The plant is in shutdown cooling when a relay failure results in a spurious ADS logic Channel 'A' low-low-low level signal. No other level trips have occurred. Which one of the following describes the effect that this event will have on ADS?

a. ADS willinitiate.

b. ADS will not initiate because the RHR or Core Spray pump running interlock is bypassed in shutdown cooling.

c. ADS will not initiate because both channels are needed for ADS initiation. '

d. ADS will not initiate because there is no low-level trip.

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Question 52

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RFP 'A' hasjust tripped on high reactor vessel level. Which one of the following conditions must be satisfied before the RFP 'A' hydraulic coupling automatically disengages.'

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a. HP and LP stop valves closed. j b. RFP turbine tripped signal sensed.

j c. Turbine speed less than 4 RPM. .

d. MOU and MSC on low speed stops.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 53 The following events occur.

. The plant is operating at full power with the MGUs and Master Controller balanced.

. The Master Controller output slowly fails downscale.

. RPV level lowers to 185 inches at which point the operator takes both MGUs to manual.

. No further operator action is taken.

Which one of the following describes the response of feed flow and RPV level after the MGUs have been shifted to manual?

a. Flow will increase to 100%; Level will increase to 200 inches.

b. Flow will increase to 100%; Level will remain at 185 inches.

c. Flow will increase to greater than 100%; Level will increase to 200 inches.

d. Flow will remain less than 100%; Level will continue to trend down.

Question 54 .

The SBGT system has failed to auto-start in response to a HPCI start signal. Which one of the fol! wing will occur as a result of the failure of SBGT to start?

a. HPCI start up sequence will not complete and the HPCI turbine will not start.

b. The HPCI turbine will start but may trip on High Exhaust Pressure.

c. The HPCI turbine will start but may trip on High HPCI Area Temperature.

d. HPCI flow rate will be limited due to decreased condenser efficiency.

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Question 55 Which one of the following is the reason that operation of an EDG at loads near 2000 KW is to be avoided?

a. Excessive wear on turbocharger drive gears.

b. Main bearing degradation due to inadequate lube oil cooling.

c. Potential Lube oil sump fire due to increased pi. ton blow by.

d. O :rheating ofexhaust system.

Question 56 Following a LOCA with concurrent Loss of Offsite Power, which one of the following will be the first to be reenergized when the 'A' and 'C' EDG breakers close?

a. 'A' ESW Pump.

b. 'A' RHR Pump.

c. 'C' RHR Pump, d. 'A' Core Spray Pump.

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Question 57 The operator withdraws a control rod one notch but the rod position indications show that the !

rod is withdrawing continuously until it reaches full out position. Which one of the ,

following could be the cause of this?

a. Stuck collet piston.

b. High CRDH pressure.

c. Uncoupled rod.

d. Leaking HCU Scram Inlet valve (03AOV-126).

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Question 58 Reactor power is 5%. The RWM is fully operational and has generated a Withdraw Bleck.

Under these conditions, which one of the following is the maximum number of rods with insert errors that could possibly be moved in the withdraw direction?

a. None.

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b. One.

c. Two. .

d. Three.

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Question 59 -

The plant is operating at full power when the following Recire. Pump Seal readings are noted:'

. #1 (inner) Seal Cavity pressure is 1000 psig.

. #2 (outer) Seal Cavity pressure is 150 psig.

Which one of the following will cause these conditions?

a. Nonnal operation of both seals.

b. Failure of both seals.

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c. Partial failure of the #1 seal.

d. Partial failure of the #2 seal.

Question 60 During the startup of the 'A' Recire. Pump the following conditions exist:

. The 'A' Recire. Pump Discharge valve is 85% open.

. The 'B' Recire. Pump Discharge valve is fully open.

. Total Feed Flow is 30%.

. Feedwater Pump 'A' is running; Feedwater Pump 'B' is secured.

. RPV level is 195 inches.

Which one of the following describes the most restrictive Recire. Pump speed limitations currently in effect?

a. Both pumps are limited to 30%.

b. Both pumps are limited to 44%.

c. Pump 'A' is limited to 30%; 'B' is not limited.

d. Pump 'A' is limited to 30%; 'B' is limited to 44%.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 61 The drive mechanism of a fully withdrawn control rod is uncoupled. Which one of the following indications during the coupling check indicates thu the rod is uncoupled?

a. Individual Rod Drift Alarm.

b. Individual Rod Overtravel Alarm.

c. '49' will be displayed in the rod position window.

d. Individual Rod Full Out light remains energized.

Question 62 Three of the eight LPRM detectors supplying an RBM channel have failed downscale. ~

Which one of the following describes the response, if any, of the RBM to these failures?

a. There will be no functional effect since the RBM still has sufficient LPRM inputs to function.

b. The' rod block setpoint will be automatically adjusted downward to compensate for the lost inputs.

c. An Inop. Rod Block will be generated until one detector is bypassed.

d. A Rod Block will be generated until the PUSH TO SETUP pushbutton has been depressed.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 63 Which one of the following describes the effect of spraying the Dywell during a LOCA when Drywell pressure is below 2.7 psig?

a. Unnecessary damage to equipment in the Drywell.

b. Partial de-inerting of the Primary Containment.

c. Inability to vent the Primary Containment.

d. Mechanical failure of the Torus to Drywell vacuum breakers.

Question 64 The operators are unable to reset an inadvertent Group I isolation signa). Which one of the following conditions, ifit existed, would cause this problem?

a. A control switch for one of the MSIVs is in the OPEN position.

b. The Reactor Mode Switch is in RUN. ;

c. The control switches for the Main Steam Line Drain valves are in the OPEN position.

d. The AP across the MSIVs is 125 psid. l i

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SENIOR REACTOR OPEl% TOR EXAMINATION Question 65 During plant operation it is noted that 345 kV bus voltage is 380 kV. Which one of the following is the appropriate response, if any, to this condition? .

a. No response required.

b. Reduce generator output voltage to restore 345 kV bus voltage to normal.

c. Contact the Load Dispatch Center and request that 345 kV bus voltage be reduced.

d. Increase Naerator Isolated Phase Cooling to maximum.

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Question 66 The following sequence of events occurs:

. 600 VAC power is lost for 3 minutes.

. After 600 VAC power is restored,125 VDC power is briefly lost.

. 125 VDC power is then restored.

After restoration of 125 VDC power, which one of the following will be the source, if any, of 120 VAC UPS Instrument Power?

a. Nothing,120 VAC will be deenergized. j l

b. 600 VAC via the UPS MG Set. I c. 600 VAC via the 600/120 VAC transformer. j d. 125 VDC via the UPS MG Set.

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Question 67 Loss of all 125 VDC power would have which one of the following effects on the Emergen;y Diesel Generators?

a. Diesels would auto-start and load.

b. Diesels would auto-start, but would not auto load.

c. Diesels would not start and could not be started at the Engine Control Panel.

d. Diesels would not auto-start but could be staned at the Engine Control Panel.

Question 68 Which one of the following describes the effect of the Control Room Inlet Radiation Monitor channel failing upscale?

a. Alarm only.

b. The Intake and Exhaust dampers close and the Recire, damper opens.

c. The Control Room Supply fans trip and the Exhaust Damper closes.

d. The Emergency Supply fan starts and the Inlet filter system is placed in sen' ice.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EX AMINATION Question 69 Which one of the following describes a potential path for radioactive contamination to the discharge canal during nonnal power operation?

a. Drywell Air Cooler tube leak.

b. . RBCL C Heat Exchanger tube leak.

c. Recombiner condenser tube leak.

d. Main Condenser tube leak.

l Question 70 Which one of the following describes the response of any TIP detector not in its shield when a Group I and Group 11 Containment Isolation Signal occurs?

a. A Group I Isolation will cause the TIP to withdraw to th: Lead Shield position. A Group II has no further effect.

b. A Group I Isolation will cause the TIP to withdraw to the Lead Shield position. A Group II will activate the shear valve if the TIP is still inserted. j

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c. A Group I Isolation will have no effect. A Group II Isolation will actuate the shear valve if the TIP is not withdrawn within 10 minutes.

d. A Group I Isolation will have no effect. A Group II Isolation will cause the TIP to ;

be withdrawn to the Lead Shield position. l l

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_ Question 71 The crew is conducting EOP-5 (Secondary Containment Control) when Reactor Building ventilation isolates on high radiation. The radiation level is subsequently seen tc decrease below the isolation setpoint. Which one of the following describes under what condition, if any, it is permissible to override the high radiation isolation to restart the Reactor Building ventilation system?

a. It is not permissible.

b. Two Reactor Building area temperatures are above maximum normal.

c. After it is confirmed that no primary system is discharging into the Reactor Building.

d. If Reactor Building AP cannot be maintained at a negative pressure with SBGT.

Question 72 While conducting EOP-2 the operators discover that a required action cannot be accomplished. Which one of the following is the appropriate response to this event?

a. Continue to the next step irrespective of the type of step it was.

b. Wait until the step can be accomplished before continuing.

c. Continue to the next step only ifit was a concurrent action step. I d. The decision to continue or wait is only at the discretion of the SM.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Q .;stion 73 The reactor is operating at full power when the following events occur:

. The Turbine Control Valves close. .

. The Turbine Bypass Valves fully open.

. The Reactor Scrams.

. The SRVs open briefly.

Which one of the following could have caused this chain of events?

a. Turbine Load Reference signal has failed downscale.

b. The MSIVs have closed.

c. The Backup (B) Pressure Regulator has failed low.

d. The Maximum Combined Flow Limiter has failed downscale.

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Question 74 The reactor has recently scrammed and the MSIVs are closed. HPCI is maintaining RPV level and pressure. Torus Cooling is not available and Primary Containment Pressure is rising. Which one of the following describes the appropriate considerations if Primary Containment venting becomes necessary?

a. Venting via the Torus will not keep up with decay heat production but will minimize the rate of radioactivity release.

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b. Venting via the Torus will keep up with decay heat production and will minimize the rate of radioactivity release.

c. Venting via the Drywell will not keep up with decsy heat but will minimize the rate of radioactivity release.

d. Venring via the Drywell will keep up with decay heat production and will j minimize the rate of radioactivity release. l

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 75 A scram has occurred due to a transient resulting from a loss of UPS. Not all rods have fully inserted. Which one of the folicwmg should be used to evaluate reactor power to determine if entry into EOP-2 (RPV Cor. trol) is required? !

a. APRM chart recorders.

b. SPDS display. I c. Steam Flow.

d. Number of open SRVs.

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Question 76 The following conditions exist:

. A LOCA has occurred.

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The 'A' RHR is the only low pressure ECCS pump available and is injecting in LPCI mode.

. RPV level -90 inches and is trending down slowly.

. Drywell temperature is 350 'F

. Drywell pressure is 65 psig.

. Torus pressure is 64 psig.

. Torus levelis 21 feet.

Which one the following dercribes the correct decision regarding Drywell and Torus spray? l l

a. Spray the Drywell. Do not the spray Torus. :

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b. Do not the spray Drywell. Spray the Torus.

c. Spray the Drywell. Spray the Torus.

d. Do not spray the Drywell. Do not spray the Torus.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 77 A plant transient has caused a reactor scram followed by a prolonged SRV actuation. Current conditions are:

All control rods are fully inserted.

Reactor pressure 900 psig and rising.

All SRVs are closed.

Torus temperature is 160 'F.

Torus levelis 1I feet.

Under these conditions, RPV pressure must be reduced to no more than which one of the following?

a. 800 psig.

b. 700 psig.

c. 600 psig, d. 400 psig.

Question 'R A LOCA has occurred and the following conditions exist:

o Drywell H 2concentration is 7%.

. Torus H2concentration is 4%.

. Drywell 0. 2concentration is 4%.

. Torus 0 2concentration is 6%.

Which one of the following describes the Torus and Drywell flammability limits?

a. Both the Torus and the Drywell are below the flammable limit. I b. The Torus is above the flammable limit and the Drywell is below the flammable limit.

c. The Drywell is above the flammable limit and the Torus is below the flammable limit.

d. Both the Torus and the Drywell are above the flammable limit.

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Question 79 _

A large LOCA has occurred and the following conditions exist:

. RPV pressure is 50 psig.

. Drywell temperature is 350 'F.

. Narrow Range RPV level indicates 175 inches.

. Refuel Zone level indicates 215 inches.

. Wide Range RPV level indicates 40 inches.

Which one of the following is the correct RPV level?

a. 215 inches.

b, 175 inches.

c. 40 inches.

d. RPV level is unknown.

Question 80 The Appendix R Bypass Switch for 23MOV-15 (HPCI Inboard Containment Isolation) is in the BYPASS position. Which one of the following describes the effect that this will have on HPCI operation?

a. 23MOV-15 will not close on low steam pressure.

b. 23MOV-15 will not operate from panel 09-3.

c. HPCI will not trip on high RPV water level.

d. HPCI will not auto-restart on low RPV level.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 81 During refueling operations, irradiated components may be lifted with an auxiliary hoist.

Which one of the following describes the required method to assure adequate water shielding -

for personnel involved in this operation?

a. Tape markers on the hoist cable to inform the operator when to stop lifting.

b. A jamming device on the cable to prevent hoist movement above the safe level.

c. A Reactor Engineer must participate in all such operations.

d. A secotid SRO must be present on the Refueling Bridge.

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Question 82 EOP-5 (Secondary Containment Control), has been entered due to high area temperatures.

Other Secondary Containment parameters also have been increasing. No primary system is currently discharging into the Secondary Containment. Which one of the following combinations of area temperatures and radiation levels require a reacter shutdown?

a. SLC Pump Area - 140 *F and RWCU HX room radiation level of 1600 mR/hr.

b. RWCU Pump Area radiation level of 800 mR/hr and RWCU HX Room radiation level of 1200 mR/hr.

c. RWCU HX Room temperature of 205 'F and RCIC Room Temperature is 120 'F. -

d. HPCI Room temperature of 150 'F and RCIC Room temperature of 150 'F.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 83 During normal plant operation, the SNO is injured and contaminated. The only on-shin Radiation technician and the SNO both leave site in the ambulance. The CRS is not qualified as fire brigade leader. Which one of the following describes the allowable times to restore the full shift complement?

a. SNO within two hour.,; Rad Tech by end of shift.

b. SNO within two hours; Rad Tech within two hours.

c. SNO by end of shift; Rad Tech within two hours. ;

d. SNO by end of shift; Rad Tech by end of shift.

Question 84 You are the SM and it is brought to your attention that present thermal power is 2560 MWth.

Which one of the following actions, if any, is required as a result of this situation?

a. No action required, this is within tolerance for full power.

b. Adjust power if necessary to assure that the 8-hour average is 2536 MWth or less.

c. Immediately reduce power to 2536 MWth or less and assure that the 8-hour average is 2536 MWth or less.

d. Commence a plant shutdown and issue a verbal report to the NRC within I hour of the discovery of the situation.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION j

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Question 85 Reactor power level is 6% and personnel are in the Drywell. Which one of the following describes the current restrictions on control rod motion?

a. No rod motion is permitted until personnel are clear of the Drywell. )

b. No planned rod motion is permitted but rods may be inserted as needed to terminate unplanned events.

c. There are no restrictions on rod insertion. Withdrawal is prohibited.

d. There are no restrictions on rod motion as long as personnel are not working above elevation 292 ft. in the Drywell.

Question 86 The plant is at full power when Chemistry reports the following SLC parameters:

. Weight % Sodium Pentaborate is 10.5%.

. Net Volume of Solution is 2500 gal.

. Solution temperature is 60 'F.

Which one of the following changes will bring the SLC system into compliance with Tech Specs?

a. Increase solution temperature to 70 'F.

b. Raise the Weight % to 11.2%.

c. Raise the Weight % to 11.2% and the Net Volume to 2550 gallons.

d. Raise the Net Volume to 3000 gallons.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 87 It is day 90 of a continuous full power run when Chemistry reports that the following sample readings have been verified:

. Conductivity is 1 pmho.

. Chloride ion is 0.4 ppm.

Which one of the following actions, if any, is required by Tech Specs?

a. Readings are within specifications, power operation may continue, b. Reduce steam flow to less than 100,000 lb/hr. within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months .

c. Be in the cold condition within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months after reaching a steam flow rate of 100,000 lb/hr.

d. Be in the cold condition within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months .

Question 88 A temporary change to a procedure has been approved by an SRO and implemented. After l

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< the changed procedure had been used, the RPO (Responsible Procedure Owner) disapproved the change. Which one of the following describes the need for a Deviation and Event Report (DER) and whether the change must be withdrawn?

a. DER is required; PORC decides if the change must be withdrawn.

b. DER is required; the change must be withdrawn.

c. DER is not required; PORC decides if the change must be withdravm.

d. DER is not required; the change must be withdrawn.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 89 Use of a Temporary Mod is prohibited for which one of the following applications? l

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a. To correct a design deficiency while a permanent solution is pending.

b. Allow testing of plant equipment.

c. To temporarily compensate for a procedural deficiency.

d. To allow continued operation of essential equipment.

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Question 90 Today is November 3 and the time is 0800. 'A' RHR is inoperable for a planned LCO that began on November 1 at 0800. It is determined that the work cannot be completed before November 12. Which one of the following describes the actions that are required for this condition?

Place the plant in the cold condition no later than 0800 on; a. November 4.

l b. November 8. )

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c. November 9.

d. November 10.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 91-During an outage the plant is in Risk Condition Green. Work is planned which will result in a degradation to Risk Condition Yellow. In addition to the Shift Manager which one of the following lists all of the approvals required, if any, before this work can start?

a. No additional approvals.

b. General Manager of Operations and Planning Manager.

c. Operations Manager and General Manager of Maintenance.

d. ~ Operations Manager and Planning Manager.

Question 92 You are the Core Alteration SRO during fuel offload. An irradiated fuel bundle is being transferred to the Spent Fuel pool when you are required to leave the Reactor Building for a random drug test. The only other SRO on shift is the SM. Which one of the following actions is permitted under these conditions?

a. The bridge operator may complete the move but may not pick up another bundle until your retum.

b. As long as an RO is stationed in the control room, the SM may temporarily assume your function.

c. If qualified, you may tumover and exchange shift positions with the SM. Fuel handling operations may continue.

d. The NYPA Refuel Floor Supervisor may assume your duties. Fuel handling operations may continue.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 93 Which one of the following meets ALARA for performing ajob? ,

a. 1 man accomplishing the job in I hour in a 60 mR/hr field.

b. I man installing shielding for 30 minutes in a 60 mR/hr field and then accomplishing the job in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months in a 6 mR/hr field.

c. 2 men accomplishing the job in 25 minutes in a 60 mR/hr field.

d. 2 men installing shielding for 15 minutes in a 60 mR/hr field and then accomplishing the job in 25 minutes in a 6 mR/hr field.

Question 94 Which one of the following describes the JAF administrative limit for the maximum TEDE which a radiation worker may accumulate in one year with the maximum dose extensions approved?

a. 2 Rem.

b. 3 Rem.

c. 4 Rem.

d. 5 Rem. j i

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 95 Routine makeup nitrogen cupplied to the Drywell to mainiain an inerted state should be supplied by which one of the following train configurations?

a. Train 'A'is preferred.

b. Train 'B' is preferred.

c. Trains 'A' & 'B'should be alternated for each makeup operation.

d. Trains 'A' & 'B'should be operated while cross-connected.

Question 96 You are the Shift Manager / Emergency Director and the following conditions exist:

A non-isolable steam leak is discharging into the Turbine Building. A ground-level release is in progress. Radiological hazards exist outside the plant. A Site Area Emergency has been declared. You have decided to evacuate the site.

Which one of the following describes where you will send non-essential personnel?

a. Nine Mile Training Center.

]

b. State Fairgrounds.

c. Emergency Operating Facility.

d. Niagara Mohawk Service Center.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 97 Foam must not be used for fighting fires in the vicinity of new fuel for which one of the following reasons? ,

a. Voiding of fuel warranty.

b. Corrosive effect on cladding.

c. Danger of criticality.

d. Fouling of heat transfer surfaces.

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Question 98 An Unusual Event has been declared. Which one of the following describes the time limits for notifying off site agencies?

a. USNRC within 15 minutes, state and county within I hour.

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b. USNRC within 15 minutes, state and county within 15 minutes.

c. USNRC within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months , state and county within 15 minutes. .

~ d. USNRC within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months , state and county within I hour.

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SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 99 The following conditions exist:

. An ATWS is in progress.

. The operators have reduced RPV level to -10 inches in accordance with EP-5 (Termination and Prevention of RPV Injection).

. SLC is injecting.

. Reactor power is 1%.

. Torus temperature is 157 'F.

Which one of the following Emergency Plan EALs must be declared and which evacuation must be performed?

a. Site Area Emergency; Radiologically Controlled Area Evacuation, b. General Emergency; Radiologically Controlled Area Evacuation.

c. Site Area Emergency; Protected Area Evacuation.

d. General Emergency; Protected Area Evacuation.

Question 100 EOP-4, ' Primary Containment Control,' Torus Level Control leg, directs the operator to

' Terminate and prevent HPCI operation irrespective of whether adequate core cooling is assured' if Torus level cannot be maintained above 10.75 feet.

Which of the following describes the effect of continued operation of the HPCI system?

Continued operation will:

a. damage the HPCI turbine by supplying high temperature cooling water to the oil system.

b. reduce Torus water level below the safety relief valve T-quenchers.

c. result in a direct discharge of steam into the Torus air space.

d. result in a loss of the last high pressure injection system on high exhaust backpressure.

""* END OF EXAMINATION "*"

LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING * AOP-30 ATTACHMENT 2 Page 1 of 1 CORE DECAY HEAT VS. TIME AFTER SHUTDOWN I

Days after BTU /hr Days after BTU /hr shutdown shutdown 0 6.28E8 21 1.48E7 1 4.79E7 l 22 1.44E7 l 2 3.92E7 l 23 1.42E7 3 3.36E7 l 24 1.39E7 4 2.97E7 l 25 1.36E7 5 2.69E7 l 26 1.33E7 6 2.48E7 l 27 1.31E7 7 2.32E7 l 28 1.28E7 8 2.19E7 l 29 1.26E7 9 2.08E7 l 30 1.24E7 10 2.00E7 l 31 1.22E7 11 1.92E7 l 32 1.20E7 12 1.86E7 l 33 1.18E7 13 1.80E7 l 34 1.16E7 14 1.75E7 l 35 1.14E7 15 1.70E7 l 36 1.12E7 16 1.66E7 l 37 1.10E7 17 1.62E7 l 38 1.09E7 ,

18 1.58E7 l 39 1.07E7 19 1.54E7 l 40 1.06E7 20 1.51E7 l 730 9.13E5 I l

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LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING * AOP-30 ATTACHMENT 3 Page 1 of 1 ALTERNATE COOLING METHODS METHOD APPROXIMATE HEAT LIMITATIONS REMOVAL CAPACITY (BTU /hr)

Decay Heat Removal 3.00E7 * Gates removed between cavity and spent fuel pool Puel Pool Cooling 3.30E6 * Gates removed between cavity and spent fuel pool e RBC must be available

SW must be available Fuel Pool Cooling 2.40E7 * RHR must be available Assist

RHRSW must be available o Gates removed between cavity and spent fuel pool RWCU Blowdown Mode 2.06E6 * No isolation signal present

1 pump running * Makeup source must be

125 gpm blowde,wn flow available (see list below)

125 gpm makeup flow

Main Condenser-or Radwaste must be available RWCU Recire Mode 1.70E6 No isolation signal present RWCU Blowdown Mode 1.00E6 * No isolation signal present

gravity drain * Makeup source must be

50 gpm blowdown flow available (see list below)

50 gpm makeup flow

Main Condenser or Radwaste.

must be available Makeup Sources

Condensate transfer keep-full using Core Spray or RHR

Control Rod Drive System

Condensate /Feedwater

Condensate transfer to skimmer surge tanks (gates removed)

Condensate transfer to fuel pool using DHR (gates removed)

Condensate transfer using service box connections on the refuel floor (gates removed)

Fire Protection System water from local fire hose stations or outside sources

RHR service water cross-tie Fire Water Crosstie Rev. No. 10 Page . 19 of 19

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NEW YORK POWER AUTHORITY EXAMINATION / QUIZ JAMES A. FITZPATRICK NUCLEAR POWER PLANT COVER SHEET Examination Title: USNRC REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Examination Submitte y:sAAr Date: 11/03/97 Supervisor Approval: a

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A .E. mocci.5 Date: roles /97 Authorized Reference . ATTACHED Minimum Acceptable Grade: 80 Total Exam Points: 100 Grade: Graded By: Time Limit: 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months STUDENT DATA Name: S.S.#:

Last First M.I.

Employer: NEW YORK POWER AUTHORITY Date:

Department:

GUIDFLINES 1. Remain quiet during the exam. If you have any questions during the exam, raise your hand. Your instructor wii! provide clarification wherever possible.

2. You are expected to do your own work and not to help anyone else.

3. Use only the authorized reference material. .

4. At the completion of this examination, you are to sign the following certification.

I certify all answers contained in this examination are my own. In addition, I have not received nor given any unauthorized assistance, nor have used any unauthorized references.

Student Signature: Date:

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

' Question 1

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With the plant operating at 50% power, which one of the following Main Generator faults will cause an automatic reactor scram?

a. High Stator Winding Temperature.

b. High Differential Current, c. i.ou ofIsolated Phase Bus Duct Cooling.

d. Low Hydrogen Pressure.

Question 2 An instrument failure has resulte'. , w ator scram from 20% power. The following conditions exist:

. Minimum RPV level react > u of <ches.

. Maximum RPV pressu. ,

'

v 1005 psig.

. _Drywell pressure is 0 psig.

. All APRMs are downscale.

. Two control rods have failed to insert.

Under these conditions, the control rods will be inserted in accordance with which one of the following procedures?

a. AOP-01 (Reactor Scram).

b. EOP-02 (RPV Control).

c. EOP-03 (Failure to Scram).

d. EP-3 (Backup Control Rod Inse tia).

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( . . . . . . . . . _ . _ . . . . . . _ . . . . . . _ . _ . . . . . . . . . . _ . . . . . . . . . . . . . . _ . . . . _ . . . . . _ . . _ . _ . _ . . . . . . . _ . . . . . . . . . . .- . . . . .

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i REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 3 Which one of the following is the reason that the Reactor Mode Switch should be taken out of the RUN position immediately after a Reactor Sciam? ,

a. Enable SRM and IRM rodblocks.

b. Prevent MSIV isolation.

c. Enable the SDIV high-level bypass circuitry.

d. Lower the APRM scram setpoint to 15%.

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Question 4 A reactor scram has just occurred followed by a Residual Transfer. Which one of the following describes the operators' concems regarding the MSIVs under these conditions?

a. Ensure the MSIVs close to minimize the possibility of Main Turbine overspeed.

b. Ensure the MSIVs close to minimize the possibility of Turbine Building contamination, c. Ensure the MSIVs remain open to minimize Torus heat load.

d. Ensure the MSIVs remain open to maintain availability of Turbine Scaling steam.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION *

Question 5 A power ascension is in progress with the following conditions:

. Power levelis 70%.

. Load line is 100%.

. Two Feedwater pumps are operating.

Which one of the following describes when and how the Recire. Pumps will runback if one Feed Pump trips?

a. Immediately runback to minimum speed.

b. When RPV level lowers to 196.5 inches, runback to minimum speed.

c. Immediately runback to 44% speed.

d. When RPV level lowers to 196.5 inches, runback to 44% speed.

Question 6 The following conditions exist:

. A Group 11 isolation has occurred due to high Drywell pressure.

. Present Drywell pressure is 5 psig.

.

The EMERG OVERR DRYWELL HI PRESS keylock switch on the PCP panel has been taken to its OVERRIDE position.

. No other operator actions have been taken.

Which one of the following describes the CAD isolation valves that can be opened at this time?

a. All CAD isolation valves.

b. All CAD isolation valves except 27AOV-111 through 118 (CAD vent valves).

c. All CAD isolation valves except 27MOV-113,117,122,123 (CAD purge valves).

d. All CAD isolation valves except 27AOV 131 A/B,132A/B (CAD make-up valves).

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 7 The plant is operating at full power when the following occur:

. Generated MWe starts to decrease.

. Reactor power starts to decrease.

Which one of the following could have caused these symptoms?

a. Decrease in grid frequency.

b. Jet Pump malfunction.

c. Loss of feedwater heating.

d. Inadvertent SRV opening.

Que: tion 8 With a high Drywell pressure, Emergency RPV Depressurization is required if Torus Water Level cannot be maintained below PSP (Pressure Suppression Pressure). Which one of the following is the basis for performing an Emergency RPV Depressurization if'the Pressure Suppression Pressure Limit is exceeded?

a. To ensure that the vacuum breakers will not become submerged and fail to function.

b. To ensure adequate free volume (airspace) of the Torus for steam suppression.

i c. To prevent damaging the Torus. l l

d. To prevent steam from the Drywell bypassing the Suppression Pool. !

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 9 Which one of the following would give positive indication that SRV 'C' is opot when its h control switch is taken to OPEN7 l

a.~ SRV red light is on.

, b. SRV white light is on.

c. SRV tailpiece temperature rises and stabilizes at 285 *F.

d. EPIC alarm ' SONIC DET RV-C' RESET is received.

Question 10 The following conditions exist:

. A plant transient raised RPV pressure to 1150 psig.

. The SRVs have opened.

. RPV level is 150 inches.

Assuming no operator action, which one of the following describes when the SRVs are expected to close?

a. Before RPV pressure decreases below approximately 1050 psig, b. 120 seconds after the initial transient.

c. After RPV pressure decreases below approximately 50 psig.

d. When both RHR and Core Spray pumps are secured. !

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l' REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

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Question 11 l A reactor scram occurred but many control rods failed to insert due to a high water level in the Scram Discharge Volume. The APRMs read 9 %. Which one of the following actions -

will be most effective in inserting control rods?

a. Manuallyinitiate ARI.

b. De-energize scram solenoids.

c. Manually insert control rods.

d. Close the CRD Flow Control valve.

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Question 12 Following the trip of one Recirc. Pump with the reactor at power, the operators have closed the discharge valve of the tripped pump. Which one of the following is the reason that this is l done?

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a. Stops reverse rotation of the tripped pump.

b. Prevents backflow through the idlejet pumps.

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c. Prevents runout of the operating recirc. pump.

i d. Lowers the probability of entering the instability region of the power / flow map.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION -

Question 13 The following conditions exist:

. Condenser vacuum is 25.1 inches Hg.

. Turbine load is 170 MWe.

.

AOP-31 (Loss of Condenser Vacuum) has been entered.

Which one of the following actions, by itself, will make it MORE LIKELY that a manual Turbine Trip will be required?

a. Starting the Mechanical Vacuum pumps.

b. Increase load to 255 MWe.

c. Decrease load to 85 MWe, d. Placing the spare Air Ejector sets in service.

Question.14 With the plant shutdown, an Emergency Diesel Generator is running and is tied to its bus for load testing. Which one of the following describes the response to a complete loss of offsite power?

a. The Tie Breakers will trip and the diesel will maintain the bus loads.

b. The Diesel Output breaker will trip and the diesel will switch to isochronous mode, then the Diesel Output breaker recloses, c. The Diesel Output breaker will trip and the diesel will switch to droop mode, then the Diesel Output breaker recloses. f l

d. The Tie breakers and the diesel will trip.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 15 Bus 10400 is powered by the Main Generator via breaker 10402. Which one of the following ways of opening this breaker will not allow closing the Station Reserve breaker 10412?

a. Manually opened locally.

b. Manually opened from the control room, c. Automatically opened on overcurrent.

d. Automatically opened on undervoltage.

Question 16 Which one of the following describes the loads in the 24 VDC Power System?

a. Each load breaker is connected to 48 VDC potential (input) from its associated

!24 VDC charger.

b. Half the loads on a 24 VDC distribution bus are powered from +24 VDC. The other half are powered from -24 VDC.

c. Each load breaker is connected to 24 VDC potential (input) from its associated 112 VDC charger, d. Half the loads on a 48 VDC distribution bus are powered from +48 VDC. The other half are powered from -48 VDC.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 17 The following Narrow Range RPV level conditions exist:

. 'A' indicates 215 inches and is rising slowly.

'

. B indicates 185 inches and is lowering slowly.

. 'C' indicates 214 inches and is rising slowly.

. Feedwater control is selected to the 'A' Column.

Selecting the 'B' RPV Level Column will result in which one of the following effects on level trends?

l a. 'A' and 'C' will continue to rise. 'B' will lower.

b. 'A' and 'C' will continue to rise. 'B' will rise.

c. 'A' and 'C' will lower. 'B' will lower.

d. 'A' and 'C' will lower. 'B' will rise.

Question 18 in which one of the following ways does a loss of 125 VDC Bus 'A' affect the ADS /SRV system?

a. Loss of'A' logic, ADS remains functional.

b. None of the ADS /SRV valves can be opened, c. The ADS /SRV valves cannot be opened from the remote panel.

d. Only valves F, J, K & L remain fully functional.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION l Question 19 AOP-43 (Shutdown From Outside the Control Room) requires the operators to remove RHR pumps 'A' and 'C' from service. Which one of the following describes the reason that bis .

step is necessary?

a. Prevent water hammer in the event of a LOCA signal.

b. Prevent inadvertent Drywell spray.

c. Prevent inadvertent LPCI injection.

d. Prevent draining the RPV to the Torus.

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Question 20 The following events occur:

. The plant is at 20% power.

. High radiation in the Off Gas system starts the Off Gas Timer.

. No operator action is taken.

Which one of the following will be the most likely cause of an automatic reactor scram?

a. High Reactor Power, b. Low RPV Level.

c. MSIV closure.

d. High RPV Pressure.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION '

Question 21 Which one of the following describes the use of ESW for Drywell cooling during a LOCA?

a.- It is the preferred method.-

b. It may be used only on loss of RBCLC.

c. It may be used only if directed by EOP-4.

d. It is prohibited.

Question 22 On a Loss ofInstrument Air pressure during normal plant operation, which one of the following describes if and when the MSIVs will go closed?

a. Inboards remain open; outboards close immediately.

{

i b. Inboards and outboards close immediately. I c. Inboards close eventually; outboards close immediately.

d. Inboards remain open; outboards close eventually.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

. Question 23 The following conditions exist:-

. A valid Reactor Scram has occurred on low RPV level.

. The EDGs have auto started in response to high Drywell pressure. ,

. The Recire. pumps are running at minimum speed as expected.

i Which one of the following describes the status of the containment isolations?

a. Group I isolated; Group 11 isolated.

b. Group I not isolated; Group 11 not isolated.

\

c. Group I isolated; Group II not isolated.

d. Group I not isolated; Group II isolated.

Question 24 During a plant startup RPV pressure is 900 psig. Loss of CRD flow will have which one of the following effects on control rod motion and scram times? .

a. Normal rod motion is unaffect.; and scram times will be within acceptable limits.

b. Normal rod motion is lost and scram times will not meet acceptable limits.

c. Normal rod motion is unaffected but scram times will not meet acceptable limits.

d. Normal rod motion is lost but scram times will be within acceptable limits.

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- REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION -

i Question 25 During power operation with RHR pump 'A' in Torus Cooling, an operator mistakenly manually opens RHR pump 'A' Shutdown Cooling Suction valve (10MOV-15A) locally at the valve. Which one of the following describes the expected automatic actions, if any?

a. There will be no automatic actions.

b. When 10MOV-15A reaches 10% open, it will automatically close the 'A' RHR Pump Suction Torus Isolation Valve (10MOV-13A).

c. When 10MOV-15A reaches full open, the RHR Torus Cooling / Torus Spray outboard valve (10MOV-39A) will auto close.

d. The 'A' RHR pump will trip on low suction pressure.

Question 26 Which one orthe following describes the consequences of spraying the Drywell if Drywell conditions are not in the pemtissible region of the Drywell Spray Initiation Curve?

a. Water sprayed into the Drywell will turn to steam raising pressure even further.

b. The cold water will put excessive thermal stress on the Drywell which may lead to its failure.

c. The effect is unpredictable and would result in putting the plant in an unanalyzed condition.

d. Drywell pressure would drop more rapidly than could be handled by the vacuum breakers.

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Question 27 The following conditions exist:

l . The operators are conducting EOP-4. ,

l . HPCI and RCIC are injecting.

l . Torus level is 10.9 ft. and decreasing rapidly.

l Which one of the following actions,if any, must be.taken regarding HPCI and RCIC if Torus level cannot be maintained above 10.75 feet? -

a. Trip both HPCI and RCIC.

b. Trip HPCI, RCIC may remain running.

c. Trip RCIC, HPCI may remain running.

d. Both HPCI and RCIC may remain running.

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Qaestion 28 The Reactor Building Ventilation system is in operation when the exhaust plenum radiation levels exceed 10' cpm. Which one of the following d: scribes the expected response of the Reactor Building Ventilation and SBGT systems to this event?

a. Reactor Building Ventilation will isolate and neither train of SBGT will start.

b. Reactor Building Ventilation will isolate and both trains of SBGT will start.

c. Reactor Building Ventilation will not isolate and neither train of SBGT will start.

d. Reactor Building Ventilation will not isolate and both trains of SBGT will start.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 29

. In the event that normal shutdown cooling capability has been lost, which one of the following states the minimum shutdown time before Fuel Pool Cooling Assist will provide adequate cooling?

a. Iday.

b. 4 days.

c. 7 days.

d. 9 days.

I Question 30 Which one of the following describes why it is important to establish forced Recire. flow during a Loss of Shutdown Cooling event?

a. Coolant stratification may mislead the operators into assuming bulk water temperature is below 212 'F.

b. Cooling of the recire. loop will produce a reactivity effect when the first recire.

pump is started.

c. Unstable transition boisia;; at low pressure may cause clad dam age. l I

d. Steam build up in the RHR s'uction piping will lead to waterhammer when RHR l flow is restored.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 31 l

Which one of the following limits takes precedence during the operation of the SBGT system I with the Reactor Building isolated?

a. Maintain RB AP more negative than -0.25 inches of water.

b. Maintain charcoal filter temperatures less than 170 'F.

c. Limit SBGT flow to a maximum of 6000 scfm.

d. Maintain Reactor Building Ventilation exhaust radiation levels less than 10 cpm.

Question 32 Following a reactor scram the pressure in the Scram Discharge Volume (SDV) rises to RPV'

pressure. Which one of the following describes the most likely reason for this condition?

a. One or more CRDM seals have failed.

b. The scram nas not been reset.

c. The SDV vent valves have failed closed.

d. The CRDH flow control valve has failed open.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 33 Which one of the following RWM conditions, if any, will prevent inseition of a selected rod using the Emergency In Svitch?

a. None.

b. Select Error.

c. Withdraw block.

d. Insert block.

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Question 34

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The following conditions exist:

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. The plant is shut down.

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. The 'A' RHR loop is in Shutdown Cooling. ,

. A LPCI initiation signal on low RPV level occurs. i Which one of the following describes the operator actions, if any, which must be taken in order for LPCI 'A' to start injecting?

a. None.

b. Reset the Group 2 isolation, manually start the pump and reset the injection valve isolation signal.

c. Manually align the suction path for the desired pump and reset the LPCI initiation signal. ;

d. Manually align the suction path for the desired pump, manually start the pump, and reset the injection valve isolation signal.

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- Question 35 i l

The following sequence of events has occurred.

. A LOCA has occurred resulting in LPCI injection. -

. Offsite power is then lost. ,

. EDGs 'B', 'C', & 'D' start and load normally.

. EDG 'A' fails to start. .

Under these conditions, which of the following RHR pumps will be running two minutes after the loss of power? l a. All four b. 'B', 'C', & 'D'

c. 'A', 'C', & 'D'

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d. 'B' & 'D'

Question 36

- The follow events occur:

. A low RPV level causes HPCI to start and inject.

. HPCI is the only available injection system.

. RPV level starts to increase.

. The HPCI Aux. Oil Pump breaker trips.

Assuming no operator action, which one of the following describes the expected response of HPCI?

a. HPCI will trip when the Aux. Oil Pump breaker trips and can not restart.

b. HPCI will trip on High Level and can not restart.

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c. HPCI will trip on High Level and can restart on low level.

d. HPCI will continue mnning until manually tripped.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 37 The following events have occurred:

. A LOCA has occurred.

. The Core Spray pumps auto staned on low level.

. RPV level subsequently recovered to 180 inches.

. The operators took both Core Spray Ptunp Switches to STOP.

. Drywell pressure is 2.3 psig.

Which one of the following describes the expected response of the Core Spray pumps to these events?

a. After auto-starting they remain on until the initiation logic is reset. l I

b. They stop when switched to STOP but restart if Drywell pressure increases above their auto-start setpoint.

c. They stop when switched to STOP but restart iflevel decreases below their auto-start setpoint.

d. They stop when switched to STOP and remain off.

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Question 38 l

Which one of the following describes the effect of a loss of 600 VAC power on the Core l 1. Spray system?

a. Core Spray pumps will not auto-start when required. They can be staned

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manually.

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b. Core Spray pumps cannot be started either automatically or manually.

l c. Core Spray pumps will start normally but their discharge valves will not open l automatically. l l

d. Core Spray pumps will stan normally but will trip on low flow. j l i

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 39 The operator takes the SLC keylock switch to START SYS-A. Pump 'A' receives a start signal but fails to start due to mechanical binding ofits bmake contactor. Which one of the following describes the expected response of the Squib Valves and RWCU system isolation valves to these events?

a. Neither Squib valve will fire; RWCU will not isolate.

b. Only the 'A' Squib valve will fire; RWCU will isolate.

c. Both Squib valves will fire; RWCU will isolate.

d. Both Squib valves will fire; RWCU will not isolate.

Question 40 Following a Residual Transfer and prior to the operator taking any actions, which one of the following describes the ability to start the SLC pumps and fire the squib valves?

a. The. pumps can be started and the squib valves will fire.

b. The pumps cannot be started and the squib valves will fire.

c. The pumps can be started and the squib valves will not fire. 1 d. The pumps cannot be started and the squib valves will not fire.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 41 The plant is operating at 100% power when a Generator Load Reject occurs. Which one of the following describes the RPS input that generates the first expected scram signal?

a. High RPV Pressure, b. High Neutron Flux, c. Turbine Control Valve Fast Closure.

d. Turbine Stop Valve Closure.

Question 42 The reactor is operating at 25% power. Which one of the following describes the response,if any, of RPS if the 'A' inboard and 'D' outboard MSIVs are closed?

a. Full Scram.

b. Half Scram in Channel 'A'.

c. Half Scram in Channel 'B'.

d. No effect.

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Question 43 l

l A normal plant startup is in progress and the following conditions exist:

. The Reactor Mode Switch is in STARTUP. -

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. All the IRM range switches are on RANGE 2.

. No IRMs are bypassed.

Which one f the following describes the efTect on half scrams or rod blocks, if any, that will

! occur if the lxM 'A' Mode Switch is placed in the STANDBY position?

a. None, as long as its companion APRM is not downscale. !

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b. Rod Withdrawal Block only.

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c. RPS Half Scram only.

d. Rod Withdrawal Block and RPS Half Scram. .

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Question 44 The following conditions exist:

. AllIRM Range switches are on RANGE 2.

. The SRM detectors are partially withdrawn. i l . SRM 'A' reads 80 cps.

Which one of the following describes the ability to withdraw SRM 'A' and the status of rod blocks?

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l a. The detector can be further withdrawn and a rod block exists.

b. The detector can be further withdrawn and no rod block exists.

c. The detector cannot be further withdrawn and a rod block exists.

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d. The detector cannot be further withdrawn and no rod block exists.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

_ Question 45 A Recirculation Flow Sununer fails resulting in zero output. Which one of the following is the highest power level at which the APRM will generate a rod block but not a scram signal?

a. 100 %

b. 75 %

c. 60%

d. 50 %

Question 46 Assuming no change in vessel inventory, starting the Recire pumps will affect Fuel Zone and Wide Range RPV level indication in which one of the following ways?

a. Fuel Zone rises; Wide Range rises.

b. Fuel Zone rises; Wide Range lowers.

c. Fuel Zone lowers; Wide Range rises.

d. Fuel Zone lowers; Wide Range lowers.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 47 RCIC is in operation due to a small LOCA. Which one of the following describes the expected position of the RCIC Turbine Governor Valve (13HOV-2) and the RCIC Turbine Steam inlet Isolation Valve (13MOV-131) if RPV level rises to 222.5 inches?

a. Turbine Govemor Valve open; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve open.

b. Turbine Govemor Valve closed; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve open.

c. Turb.6- Governor Valve open; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve closed.

d. Turbine Governor Valve closed; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve closed.

Question 48 The following events have occurred:

. An Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) initiation has occurred. '

. The initiation signals are still present.

. A blowdown is in progress.

Taking the AD'S Normal / Override switches to OVERRIDE and back to NORMAL will have which one of the following effects on the ADS Valves?

a. ADS Valves will close and remain closed.

b. ADS Valves will close then reopen immediately.

c. ADS Valves will close then reopen after 120 seconds.

d. ADS Valves will remain open.

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Question 49 The following conditions exist:

. Drywell pressure has risen from 1.810 2.5 psig.

. Torus pressure has risen from 0 to 2.5 psig.

These conditions are symptomatic of which one of the follow'mg? )

a. SRV cycled to control pressure and an SRV tailpiece failure inside the Torus.

b. Small break LOCA in the Drywell and a Downcomer failure inside the Torus.

c. Small break LOoA in the Drywell and a Torus to Drywell vacuum breaker failed -

to open.

d. SRV cycled to control pressure and an SRV tailpiece vacumn breaker stuck open.

Question 50 With the Mode Switch in STARTUP, which one of the following conditions will result in the automatic closure of the MSIVs?

a. RPV Level is 50 inches.

b. Steamline pressure is 750 psig.

c. Main Condenser Vacuum is 10 inches Hg.

d. Turbine Stop valves not fully closed.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 51 The plant is in shutdown cooling when a relay failure results in a spurious ADS logic Channel 'A' low-low-low level signal. No other level trips have occurred. Which one of the .

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following describes the effect that this event will have on ADS?

a. ADS willinitiate.

b.- ADS will not initiate because the RHR or Core Spray pump running interlock is bypassed in shutdown cooling.

c. ADS will not initiate because both channels are needed for ADS initiation.

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d. ADS will not initiate because there is no low-level trip.

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Question 52 RFP 'A' has just tripped on high reactor vessel level. Which one of the following conditions must be satisfied before the RFP 'A' hydraulic coupling automatically disengages?

a. HP and LP stop valves closed.

b. RFP turbine tripped signal sensed.

c. Turbine speed less than 4 RPM.

d. MGU and MSC on low speed stops.

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-Question 53-

, The following events occur.

. The plant is operating at full power with the MGUs and Master Controller balanced. - ..

. The Master Controller output slowly fails downscale. l

. RPV level lowers to 185 inches at which point the operator takes both MGUs to manual.

. No further operator action is taken.

Which one'of the following describes the response of Feed Flow and RPV level after the MGUs have been shifted to manual?

a. Flow will increase to 100%; Level will increase to 200 inches.

b. Flow will increase to 100%; Level will remain at 185 inches.

c.- Flow will increase to greater than 100%; Level will increase to 200 inches.

d. Flow will remain less than 100%; Level will continue to trend down.

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Question 54 The SBGT system has failed to auto start in response to a HPCI start signal. Which one of I the following will occur as a result of the failure of SBGT to start? ;

I a. HPCI start up sequence will not complete and the HPCI turbine will not start.

i b. The HPCI turbine will start but may trip on High Exhaust Pressure.

. c. The HPCI turbine will start but may trip on High HPCI Area Temperature.

d. HPCI flow rate will be limited due to decreased condenser efficiency.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 55 Which one of the following is the reason that operation of an EDO at loads near 2000 KW is to be avoided?

a. Excessive wear on turbocharger drive gears.

b. Main bearing degradation due to inadequate lube oil cooling.

c. ' Potential Lube oil sump fire due to increased piston blow by.

d. Overheating of exhaust system.

Question 56 Following a LOCA with concurrent Loss of Offsite Power, which one of the Eollowing will be the first to be reenergized when the 'A' and 'C' EDG breakers close?

a. 'A' ESW Pump. -

I b. 'A' RHR Pump.

c. 'C' RHR Pump.

d. 'A' Core Spray Pump.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 57 The operator withdraws a control rod one notch but the rod position indications show that the rod is withdrawing continuously until it reaches full out position. Which one of the following could be the cause of this?

a. Stuck collet piston.

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b. High CRDH pressure.

c. Uncoupled rod.

d. Leaking HCU Scram Inlet valve (03AOV-126).

Question 58 Reactor power is 5%. The RWM is fully operational and has generated a Withdraw Block.

Under these conditions, which one of the following is the maximum number of rods with insert errors that could possibly be moved in the withdraw direction?

a. None.

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b. One.

c. Two.

d. Three.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 59 The plant is operating at full power when the following Recire. Pump Seal readings are noted: .

. #1 (inner) Seal Cavity pressure is 1000 psig.

. #2 (outer) Seal Cavity pressure is 150 psig.

Which one of the following will cause these conditions?

a. Normal operation ofboth seals.

b. Failure of both seals.

c. Partial failure of the #1 seal.

d. Partial failure of the #2 seal.

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Question 60 During the startup of the 'A' Recire. Pump the following conditions exist:

. The 'A' Recire. Pump Discharge valve is 85% open.

. The 'B' Recire. Pump Discharge valve is fully open.

. Total Feed Flow is 30%.

. Feedwater pump 'A' is running; Feedwater pump 'B' is secured.

. RPV levelis 195 inches.

Which one of the following describes the most restrictive Recire. Pump speed limitations currently in effect?

a. Both pumps are limited to 30%.

b. Both pumps are limited to 44%.

c. Pump 'A' is limited to 30%; 'B' is not limited.

d. Pump 'A' is limited to 30%; 'B' is limited to 44%.

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Question 61.

The drive mechanism of a fully withdrawn control rod is uncoupled. Which one of the

. following indications during the coupling check indicates that the rod is uncoupled?

a. Individual Rod Drift Alarm.

b. Individual Rod Overtravel Alarm.

c. '49' will be displayed in the rod position window.

d. Individual Rod Full Out light remains energized.

Question 62 Three of the eight LPRM detectors supplying an RBM channel have failed downscale.

Which one of the following describes the response, if any, of the RBM to these failures?

a. There will be no functional effect since the RBM still has sufficient LPRM irputs to function.

b. The rod block setpoint will be automatically adjusted downward to compensate for the lost inputs.

c. An Inop. Rod Block will be generated until one detector is bypassed.

d. ' A Rod Block will be generated until the PUSH TO SETUP pushbutton has been depressed.

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l l Question 63

! Which one of the following describes the effect of spraying the Drywell during a LOCA when Drywell pressure is below 2.7 psig?

a. Unnecessary damage to equipment in the Drywell.

b. Partial de-inerting of the Primary Containment.

l c. Inability to vent the Primary Containment.

L d. Mechanical failure of the Torus to Drywell vacuum breakers.

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l Question 64 i The operators are unable to reset an inadvertent Group I isolation signal. Which one of the l following conditions, ifit existed, would cause this problem?

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l a. A control switch for one of the MSIVs is in the OPEN position.

b. The Reactor Mode Switch is in RUN.

l l c. The control switches for the Main Steam Line Drain valves are in the OPEN l position.

l d. The AP across the MSIVs is 125 psid.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 65 During plant operation it is noted that 345 KV bus voltage is 380 KV. Which one of the following is the appropriate response, if any, to this condition?

a. No response required.

b. Reduce generator output voltage to restore 345 KV bus voltage to normal.

c. Cor. tact the Load Dispatch Center and request that 345 KV bus voltage be reduced.

d. Increase Generator Isolated Phase Cooling to maximum.

Question 66 The following sequence of events occurs:

. 600 VAC power is lost for 3 minutes.

. After 600 VAC power is restored,125 VDC power is briefly lost.

. 125 VDC power is then restored.

After restoration of 125 VDC power, which one of the following will be the source, if any, of 120 VAC UPS Instrument Power 7 a. Nothing,120 VAC will be deenergized.

b. 600 VAC via the UPS MG Set.

c. 600 VAC via the 600/120 VAC transformer.

d. 125 VDC via the UPS MG Set.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 67 Loss of all 125 VDC power would have which one of the following effects on the Emergency Diesel Generators? ,

a. Diesels would auto-start and load.

b. Diesels would auto-start, but would not auto load.

c. Diesels would not start and could not be started at the Engine Control Panel.

d. Diesels would not auto-start but could be started at the Engine Control Panel.

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Question 68 Which one of the following describes the effect of the Control Room Inlet Radiation Monitor channel failing upscale?

a. Alarm only.

b. The intake and Exhaust dampers close and the Recire. damper opens.

c. The Control Room Supply fans trip and the Exhaust Damper closes. .

d. The Emergency Supply fan starts and the Inlet filter system is placed in service.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 69 Which one of the following describes a potential path for radioactive contamination to the discharge canal during normal power operation?

a. Drywell Air Cooler tube leak.

b. RBCLC Heat Exchanger tube leak.

c. Recombiner condenser tube leak.

d. Main Condenser tube leak.

l Question 70 Which one of the following describes the response of any TIP detector not in its shield when a Group I and Orc * 11 Containment Isolation Signal occurs?

a. A Group I Isolation will cause the TIP to withdraw to the Lead Shield position. A Group II has no further effect.

b. A Group I Isolation will cause the TIP to withdraw to the Lead Shield position. A Group II will activate the shear valve if the TIP is still inserted.

c. A Group I Isolation will have no effect. A Group II Isolation will actuate the shear valve if the TIP is not withdrawn within 10 minutes.

d. A Group I Isolation will have no effect. A Group II Isolation will cause the TIP to be withdrawn to the Lead Shield position.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION I

Question 71

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The crew is conducting EOP-5 (Secondary Containment Control) when Reactor Building ventilation isolates on high radiation. The radiation level is subsequently seen to decrease below the isolation setpoint. Which one of the following describes under what condition, if any, it is permissible to override the high radiation isolation to restart the Reactor Building ventilation system?

a. It is not permissible.

b. Two Reactor Building area temperatures are above maximum normal.

c. After it is confirmed that no primary system is discharging into the Reactor Building.

d. If Reactor Building AP cannot be maintained at a negative pressure with SBGT.

Question 72 l

Inadvertent closure of which one of the following CRD HCU valves will result in the l

inability to scram the affected rod?

l n. Scram Inlet Valve - 126.

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! b. '4nsert Header Isolation - 101.

l c. Exhaust Water Header Isolation - 105.

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d. Withdraw Header Isolation - 102.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 73 l

The plant is operating at 50% power with RCIC testing in progress. Under these conditions, Tech Specs require an immediate reactor scram if Torus temperature reaches which one of the following temperatures?

a. 95'F ,

b. 105'F c. I10'F d. 120 'F Question 74 i

Fuel handling operations are in progress when a Fuel Pool leak is discovered. Which one of l

the following states the initial point at which immediate evacuation of the Refuel Floor i

becomes mandatory? I a. When the presence of the leak is verified. j b. When level decreases below its Tech Spec limit (33 feet).

c. When uncovering of spent fuel is imminent.

d. When uncovering of spent fuel has occurred.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION l

Qucstion 75 A plant stettup is in progress and Recire. pump speed is 30%. APRM readings are as listed below: .

. Channel A 2.3%

. Channel B 4.0%

. Channel C 5.0%

. Channel D 4.7%

. Channel E 2.4%

. Channel F 5.1%

If the Reactor Mode Switch is placed in RUN, which one of the following describes the ability to raise power with control rods and/or recire. flow?

a. The power can be raised using rods or recire flow.

b. Power can be raised using rods only.

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c. Power can be raised using recire, only.

d. Power cannot be raised.

Question 76 The plant is operating at full pov.er when the pressure compensation for the in service RPV level column is lost. Which one of the following describes the effect that this will have on actual RPV water level?

a. RPV level will lower until a reactor scram occurs, b. RPV level will lower (by about 12 inches) and stabilize.

I c. RPV level will rise until a reactor scram occurs.

d. RPV level will rise (by about 12 inches) and stabilize.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 77 The plant is at full power and the 'A' Pressure Regulator is in control. Failure of which one of the following inputs to the EHC Pressure Regulators will have the smallest impact on RPV pressure?

a. 'A' Pressure Regulator throttle pressure fails high.

b. 'A' Pressure Regulator throttle pressure fails low.

c. 'B' Pressure Regulator throttle pressure fails high.

d. 'B' Pressure Regulator throttle pressure fails low.

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Question 78 The plant is operating at full power when RBCLC flow to the RWCU system is lost. Which one of the following is the expected response of the system isolation and the Holding pumps to this event?

a. The system will not isolate; The Holding pumps will start.

b. The system will isolate; The Holding pumps will trip.

c. The system will not isolate; The Holding pumps will trip.

d. The system will isolate; The Holding pumps will start.

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REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 79 The plant is at 70% power with all Condensate, Condensate Booster, and Feed pumps running. Which one of the following describes the expected plant response to the trip of one Condensate pump?

a. The remaining pumps will remain in service and RPV level will not be affected.

b. One Feed pump will trip on low suction pressure but RPV level will not be affected.

c. One Feed pump will trip on low suction pressure and RPV level will decrease.

d. One Condensate Booster pump will trip but RPV level will not be affected.

Question 80 Which one of the following describes the purpose of the Reactor Steam supply to the Off Gas Hydrogen Recombiner?

a. Dilutes hydrogen to below the explosive limit. !

b. Increase temperature which improves efficiency of recombination.

c. Improves removal of radioactive iodines from gas stream.

d. Improves cooling of the charcoal filters during accident conditions.

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- Question 81 Fire Main use during a fire on site caused its pressure to lower to 90 psig for 30 seconds.

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Pressure subsequently recovered to 120 psig where it has remained for the past 10 minutes.

Assuming no operator action concerning the Fire Pumps, which one of the following identifies the Fire pumps that should be running at this time?

a. Makeup Pump only.

b. Makeup Pump and Motor Driven Fire Pump only.

c. Makeup Pump, Motor Driven Fire Pump and One Diesel Driven Fire Pump only.

d. Makeup Pump, Motor Driven Fire Pump and Both Diesel Driven Fire Pumps.

Question 82 The following air pressures exist in the Instrument and Service Air headers:

. Instrument Air is 100 psig.

. Service Air is 90 psig.

Unoer these conditions, which one of the following describes the expected position of the Instrument to Service Air Isolation valve (39FCV-110) and the Breathing Air Isolation valve (39FCV-111)?

a. Both will be open.

b. FCV-110 will be open. FCV-11I will be closed.

c. FCV-110 will be closed. FCV-111 will be open.

d. Both will be closed.

Page 41 of 50

""* EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE *""

REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 83 An RBCLC Makeup Tank Level annunciator is alarming due to a high level. Which one of

-

the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

a. Tube leak in the RBCLC heat exchanger.

b. Tube leak in the RWCU NRHX.

c. RBCLC low-low pressure.

d. RHR pump seal cooler leak.

J Question 84 During normal power operation, which one of the following sources can be used for emergency makeup to the Spent Fuel Pool?

a. CRD.

b. Condensate Transfer.

c. Core Spray. .

d. RHR Service Water, i

.

Page 42 of 50

"*" EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE *""

. ,

REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

'

Question 85 t

The Reactor Mode switch is in the REFUEL position, and the Refueling Platform (bridge) is over the Reactor Vessel. Which one of the following would cause a Rod Block under these conditions? I a. The Auxiliary Hoist is loaded.

b. The Fuel Grapple is in the FULL UP position.

c. The Service Platform Hoist is unloaded and not FULL UP.

d. All rods are Full-In, except for a selected rod at position 02.

Question 86 In accordance with AP-02.04, which one of the following activities requires an instruction or procedure to perform?

a. Checking a relay energized or deenergized.

b. Changing a fish basket.

c. Checking an oil sump level, j d. Opening drain valves within a PTR boundary.

.

Page 43 of 50

- - - - EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE *****

REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

,

Question 87 During normal plant operations, you have been assigned to perform a routine task that is govemed by a Reference Use procedure without step signoffs. .Which one of the following describes the requirements for procedure review and reference?

a. No prior review of the procedure is required. Reference to the procedure during the task is not required.

b. Review the procedure prior to performing the task. Reference to the procedure during the task is not required.

c. Review the procedure prior to performing the task. Refer to the procedure prior to performing each step.

d. No prior review of the procedure is required. Refer to the procedure prior to performing each step.

Question 88 The plant is at full power when ST-SD (APRM Calibration) shows that the AGAF for an APRM is 1.02. Which one of the following describes the significance of this reading?

a. There is no significance if FRP is greater than MFLPD.

b. The reactor will scram at a higher power than allowed.

'

c. The reactor will scram at a lower power than required.

d. The APRM has too few inputs.

Page 44 of 50

"*** EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE ""*

RI ACTOROPERATOREXAMINATION .

Question 89 Operation with a high hotwell level (>l 12 inches) is likely to have which one of the following consequences?

a. Condenser tube damage due to high tube vibration.

b. Condenser Air Removal pump damage due to high moisture intake.

c. Unmonitored release to the lake via the Cire. Water system.

d. Condensate pump damage due to runout.

Question 90 You are hanging a PTR on a circuit breaker and the PTR form has a slash through the first check block (' Initials first') for that component. Which of the following describes the meaning of the slash on the PTR form?

a. This is a replacement for a lost tag.

b. No independent verification is required.

c. Dual concurrent verification is required.

d. The position of the circuit breaker is not being changed.

Page 45 of 50

"" EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE ""* ,

i l

REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 91 The scram times of 136 control rods have been measured and average 3.50 seconds to position 04. What is the slowest scram tirne that the remaining control rod can have and still -

satisfy the requirements of Tech Specs?

a. 3.554 sec.

b. 3.764 sec, c. 7.000 sec.

d. 10.900 sec.

.

Question 92 During fuel handling operations the operator in the control room notes that the SRMs are reading below 3 cps. Under which one of the following conditions, if any, may fuel handling continue?

a. The plant has been shutdown for more than 90 days.

b. A core spiral offload is in progress. -

c. A control rod blade replacement is in progress.

d. None. Fuel handling must always be terminated if SRMs fall below 3 cps.

.

Page 46 of 50

"*" EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE ""'

'

REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 93 l

A task in the RCA requires that you enter a Very High Radiation Area during normal plant operations. Which one of the following describes the minimum key (s) and RWP coverage requirements necessary to enter the area?

a. Single key from radiation Protection; Non-routine RWP b. Single key from Shift Manager; Operations standing RWP.

c. One key from Radiation Protection and one key from Shift Manager; Non-routine RWP.

d. One key from Radiation Protection and one key from Shift Manager; Operations standing RWP.

Question 94 You are wearing single PCs while working in the Reactor Building when immediate evacuation of the Reactor Building is directed over the Gaitronics. You should remove your PCs at which one of the following places?

a. Your current location when you hear the announcement.

b. Area Normal Step Off Pad.

c. Prior to entering the Reactor Building Airlock.

d. Admin Building RCA Access Point.

Page 47 of 50

* *" EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE "* * *

)

REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION Question 95 You are NCOI performing a shutdown from outside the Control Room. When you arrive at Panel 25RSP you report successful completion of all actions you were required to perform at other lo.:ations. Which one of the following actions remains to be accomplished?

a. Tripping the Main Turbine.

b. Closing the MSIVs.

I c. Closing the HPCI outboard steam supply.

d. Tripping the Recire. pumps.

Question 96 An Alert has been declared and the operators are conducting EOP-6 (Radioactivity Release Control). Which one of the following is a type of accident that this EOP is designed to mitigate?

a. Dropped fuel bundle in the Spent Fuel Pool.

b. Radwaste spill in the Radwaste Building.

c. Main Steam leak in the Turbine Building.

.

d. Fire in the SBGT filters.

Page 48 of 50

"*" EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE "*"

REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION-Question 97 Following a failure to scram an operator has been directed to implement EP-3 (Backup Control Rod Insertion) at Panels 09-15 and 09-17 to remove and replace fuses. Which one of the following describes the desired outcome of this evolution?

a. Open the scram inlet and outlet valves.

b. Deenergize the RPS power supply buses.

c. Vent and Drain the Scram Discharge Volume.

d. Reset RPS.

Question 98 The reactor is operating at full power when the following events occur:

. The Turbine Control Valves close.

. The Turbine Bypass Valves fully open.

. The Reactor Scrams.

. The SRVs open briefly.

Which one of the following could have caused this chain of events?

a. Turbine Load Reference signal has failed downscale.

b. The MSIVs have closed.

c. The Backup (B) Pressure Regulator has failed low.

d. The Maximum Combined Flow Limiter has failed downscale.

Page 49 of 50

"** * EXAMINATION CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE "*"

m REACTOR OPERATOR EXAMINATION

!

Question 99 A scram has occurred due to a transient resulting from a loss of UPS. Not all rods have fully

~

inserted. Which one of the following should be used to evaluate reactor power to determine .

l if entry into EOP-2 (RPV Control) is required?

l a. APRM chart recorders.

b. SPDS display.

c. Steam Flow.

d. Number of open SRVs.

.

Question 100 The following conditions exist:

. A LOCA has occurred at 100% power.

. EPIC is not available.

. 16TI-107 and 108 both indicate 256 *F.

. Drywell pressure on panel 09-3 indicates 40 psig.

. RPV 09-5 Wide Range indicates 40 inches.

. RPV 09-3 Fuel Zone Recorder indicates -130 inches.

Which one of the following describes the use of the Fuel Zone Recorder and the Wide Range :

Instruments?

NOTE: Figures 4.7 and 4.8 of EOP-4 are provided.

.

a. Neither the Fuel Zone Recorder nor the Wide Range is usable.

b. Fuel Zone Recorder is usable; Wide Range is not usable.

c. Fuel Zone Recorder is not usable; Wide Range is usable.

d. Both the Fuel Zone Recorder and the Wide Range are usable.

Page 50 of 50 l * *"* END OF EXAMINATION * * * * *

.

LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING * AOP-30 ATTACHMENT 2 Page 1 of 1 CORE DECAY HEAT VS. TIME AFTER SHUTDOWN Days after BTU /hr Days after BTU /hr shutdown shutdown 0 6.28E8 21 1.48E7 1 4.79E7 l 22 1.44E7 2 3.92E7 l 23 1.42E7 3 3.36E7 l 24 1.39E7 4 2.97E7 l 25 1.36E7 5 2.69E7 l 26 1.33E7 l

'

6 2.48E7 27 1.31E7 7 2.32E7 l 28 1.28E7 8 2.19E7 l 29 1.26E7 9 2.08E7 l . 30 1.24E7 10 2.00E7 l 31 1.22E7 11 1.92E7 l 32 1.20E7 12 1.86E7 l 33 1.18E7 13 1.80E7 l 34 1.16E7 14 1.75E7 l 35 1.14E7 15 1.70E7 l 36 1.12E7 16 1.66E7 l 37 1.10E7 17 1.62E7 l 38 1.09E7 18 1.58E7 l 39 1.07E7 19 1.54E7 l 40 1.06E7 20 1.51E7 l 730 9.13E5 Rev. No. 10 Page 18 of 19

's ,

LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING * AOP-30 ATTACHMENT 3 Page 1 of 1 ALTERNATE COOLING METHODS METHOD -

APPROXIMATE HEAT LIMITATIONS i REMOVAL CAPACITY (BTU /hr)

Decay Heat Removal 3.00E7 * Gates removed between cavity and spent fuel pool Fuel Pool Cooling 3.30E6 * Gates removed between cavity and spent fuel pool i

RBC must be available

SW must be available

. Fuel Pool Cooling 2.40E7 * RHR must be available Assist

RNRSW must be available e Gates removed between cavity and spent fuel pool RWCU Blowdown Mode 2.06E6 * No isolation signal present-

1 pump running * Makeup source must be

225 gpm blowdown flow -

available (see list below)

125 gpm snakeup flow

Main Condenser.or Radwaste must be available RWCU Recirc Mode 1.70E6 No isolation signal present RWCU Blowdown Mode 1.00E6 * No isolation signal present

gravity drain * Makeup source must be

50 gpm blowdown flow available (see list below)

50 gpm makeup flow .

Main Condenser or Radwaste must be available Makeup sources

Condensate transfer keep-full using Core Spray or RHR

Control Rod Drive System

Condensate /Feedwater

Condensate transfer to skiauner surge tanks (gates removed)

Condensate transfer to fuel pool using DHR (gates removed)

Condensate transfer using service box connections on the refuel floor (gates r2 moved)

Fire Protection System water from local fire hose stations or outside sources

RHR service water cross-tie

Fire Water Crosstie

.

Rev. No. 10 Page 19 of 19

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b An R. v;er levelinstrument rnav not be used if either of th3 following conditions exists:

+ An instrurnent run terrporature is at or above the RPV Saturation Terrporature (Fig 4.7)

. The instrurnent roads at or below its Minimum Usable indcating Level (Fig 4.8)

FIGURE 4.7 RPV SATURATION TEMPERATURE e00

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RO ANSWER KEY 1) B 26) D 51) D 76) D 2) A 27) B 52) C 77) D.

i 3) B 28) B 53) B 78) D -

4) B 29) C 54) C 79) A 5) D 30) A 55) A 80) A 6) D 31) DELETED 56) A 81) C 7) B 32) B 57) A 82) C 8) C 33) D 58) D 83) B 9) DB 34) D 59) D 84) B 10) A 35) C 60) D 85) A 11) C 36) B 61) OR B 86) D 12) A 37) D 62) *

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ATTACHMENT 2

RO EXAMINATION AND ANSWER KEY l

,

ATTACHMENT 3 JAF COMMENTS ON WRITTEN EXAMINATION

. r RO 009 SRO 009 During the post-examination review, it was discovered that the key contained an incorrect answer, D vice the correct answer, B. This was a typographical error that occurred while balancing the examination di. tractors. The first submittal (attached) indicated the answer correctly.

Distractor. A is incorrect because the red light on indicates that the pilot solenoid is energized, not that the main valve is open.

l Distractor C is incorrect because the SRV tailpiece would rise to approximately 380

!

degrees if the valve were open.

Distractor D is incorrect because the EPIC alarm RESET condition indicates that the high noise level condition associated with an open SRV has cleared.

I The key was changed from D to B to correct this error.

!

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010 TIER 1 GROUP 1/1 LICENSE LEVEL RS KNOWLEDGE LEVEL L ANSWER A

-

Which one of the following would give positive indication that an SRV is currently open as a result of an automatic actuation caused by high RPV pressure?

a. White acoustic monitor light is on.

b. Tailpiece temperature is 235 *F.

c. Tailpiece temperature is 310 *F.

d. Red valve open light is on.

295025 HIGH REACTOR PbSSURE 2.4.03 l Ability to identify post-accident instrumentation.

IMPORTANCE 3.5/3.8 10CFR55.41(6)/() 10CFR55.43( )/() SOURCE 10CFR55 REASON REFERENCE SDLP-16B, Page 40 ,

ATTACHMENT

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LESSON PLAN SDLP-16B OBJECTIVE 1.01 NOTES

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CHANGES FROM ORIGINAL OUTLINE ORIGINAL SYSTEM / EVENT # ORIGINAL K/A#

REASON FOR CHANGE KNOWLEDGE LEVEL L-Lower (Recall) H= Higher LICENSE LEVEL R=RO S=SRO RS=Both SOURCE N=New Question B= Exam Bank (Not seen before) S-Bank (Seen in training program) M= Modified 10CI'R55 listings are the sub-paragraph numbers under 10CFR 55 4 I (for ROs) or 55.43 (for SROs) addressed by this question.

10CFR$$ reference is listed as (Assigned by K/A Manual) / (Assigned by question author)

Group and imponance are listed as RO/SRO values

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RO 031 SRO031 This question was deleted from the examination. During the post-examination review it was determined that the question had no correct answer. The limits stated form an envelope that bounds the operation of the system and no direction exists to violate one limit at the expense of another.

a. _ OP-20, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM, directs: IF reactor building differential pressure is less negative than --0.25 inches water, THEN ensure that SGT Train A (B) is in service per Subsection D.l(2).' No direction is given allowing this limit to be violated to meet other limits.

b. OP-20, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM, directs if the high temperature annunciator is received then the affected train is shutdown and cooling flow for the charcoal filters established using the other train.2 No direction is given allowing this limit to be violated to meet other limits.

c. OP-20, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM, directs: Ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125F1-106A(B).3 No direction is given allowing this limit to be violated to meet other limits.

ONO, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM, revision 22, steps D.I.6 on pg.1 I, D.2.6 on pg.13, G.5.2 on pg. 28 and G.6.2 on pg. 29,

OP-20, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM, revision 22, steps G.I .4 on pg. 20 and G.2.4 on pg.

21.

OP-20, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM, revision 22, steps D.1.5.b on pg.11, D.2.5.b on pg.

13, G.5.3 on pg. 28 and G.6.3 on pg. 29.

1 ARP 09-75 2-16 ANNUNCIATOR SGT SYS B LEGEND ACT CHAR ..

mP HI CONTROLLED COPY SENSOR / 01-125TS-1*? SCT FILTEA TRAIN "B" CHARCOAL FILTER TEMP !

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TRIP POINT SWITCH (l' f)

CAUSE Heat from decay of fission products adsorbed by charcoal filters.

AUTOMATIC None ACTION OPERATOR 1. Refer to OP-20, Standby Cas Treatment System,

. ACTION section C for actions to be taken.

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l Rev. No. 3 PORC Meeting No.90-088 Date 08/29/90 Page 1 of 1 l

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ARP 09-75-1-16

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ANNUNCIATOR SCT SYS A l j

LEGEND ACT CHAR j

TEMP i HI SENSOR / 01-125TS-12A SGT FILTER TRAIN "A" CHARCOAL FILTER TEMP TRIP POINT SWITCH (170*F)

c.- r-n ni t.ED COPY CAUSE Heat from decay of fission products adsorbed by charcoal filters. ,

AUTOMATIC None ACTION OPEFATOR 1. Refer to OP-20, Standby Gas Treatment System, ACTION section C for actions to be taken.

Rev. No. 4 PORC Meeting No.90-088 Date 08/29/90 Page 1 of 1

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NEW YORK POWER AUTHORITY JAMES A. FITZPATRICK NUCLEAR POWER PLANT OPERATING PROCEDURE STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * .

OP-20 REVISION 22 i REVIEWED BY: PLANT OPERATING REVIEW COMMITTEE MEETING NO. NA DATE NA APPROVED BY: - e DATE /2[T[74 RESPON5)BLE P'ROCED OWNER APPROVED BY: km0 -- - DATE 11 V f6

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P % MAlfAGER

EFFECTIVE DATE: December 4, 1996 FIRST ISSUE D FULL REVISION D LIMITED REVISION 8

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REFERENCE USE * * T I

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********.**.**.**..****** yync COPY # g* *.* ***.* ES

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WITH TEMPORARY CHA

TECHNICAL

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NOT UPDATEDBEFERENCE USE i

PERIODIC REVIEW DUE DATE 2/13/98 .

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * CP-20

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REVISION SUMMARY SHEET REV. NO. CHANGE AND REASON FOR CHANGE 22 Added Precaution C.2.1 to require Reactor Building Ventilation be isolated before performing any of the following activitics. This action is necessary to comply with the requirements of safety evaluation JAF-SE-96-071:

Fuel hanuling

Core alterations

Movement of heavy loads over the spent fuel pool or open reactor cavity

Placing RX MODE switch in START & HOT STBY, without Primary Containment Integrity in effect 21 1. Added Subsections G.8 and G.9 to provide guidance for operation of the Standby Gas Treatment System during filter testing.

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2. Added Subsection G.10 to provide guidance for operation cf the Standby Gas Treatment System during filter sampling. (PCR dated 3/26/96)

20 1. Added Subsection G.7, to provide steps for operating SBGT when secondary containment penetrations are opened or degraded per PCR #10 dated 10/25/95.

2.. Changed description of activated charcoal in

Section-B, System Description per PCR #9 dated 7/10/95.

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. Revised Precaution C.2.2 to ine'.ude time limits per PCR #8 dated 7/10/95 and J. Dunham.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 2 of 45

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I STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 l

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l TABLE OF CONTENTS l SECTION PAGE

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A. REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4

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B. SYSTEM DESCRIPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 C. PLANT OPERATING REQUIREMENTS . . . .. . . . . . . . . . . 7 l D. STARTUP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9 E. NORMAL OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14 F. SHUTDOWN . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16 G. SPECIAL PROCEDURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19 H. ATTACHMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36 1. REFERENCES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37 2. TABLE 1 - VALVE LINEUP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38 3. TABLE 2 - MAJOR COMPONENT POWER SUPPLIES . . . . . . 43

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 A. REQUIREMENTS A.1 Technical Specifications Volume 1A Sections 3.7.B, 3.7.C and 4.7.C Volume 1B Section 3.8 A.2 Commitments None A.3 Validation Validated per ODSO-35.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 4 of 45

l STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 i B. SYSTEM DESCRIPTION The Standby Gas Treatment System includes two identical filter tra',ns. Each filter train is a full capacity system -

that has the ability to maintain reactor building to i

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atmosphere differential pressure more negative than negative O.25 inches water gauge.

Each filter train includes the.following:

Demister: Removes entrained moisture, and in conjunction with the air heater, maintains humiolty less than 70% at the inlet to the charcoal filter.

39 KW Electric Air Heater: Maintains humidity less than 70% at the inlet to the charcoal filter.

Prefilter: Removes particles.

High Ef ficiency Particulate Absolute Pre-Filter (HEPA) :

Designed to be capable of removing at least 99.97% of the 0.3 micron particles which impinge on the filter, however credit is only taken for 90% removal capability.

Activated Charcoal Filter: Removes in excess of 95% of the iodine in the air stream, with 10% of the iodine in the form of methyl iodide, with air entering the charcoal

- filter at less than *iO% humidity. Charcoal filter material is iodide or T2DA impregnated activated carbon.

High Efficiency Particulate Absciute Af^er-Filter (HEPA) :

Designed to be capable of removir.g at least 99.97% of the 0.3 micron particles which impinge on the filter, however credit is only taken for 90% removal capability.

Fan: Provides the differential pressure to draw gases through the train for treatment. The fan discharges to the stack.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 5 of 45

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 Each filter train can take suction from one or more of the following suction supplies:

Reactor Building above 369' elevation

Reactor Building below 369' elevation

Drywell vent connections

Torus vent connections

HPCI gland seal exhauster

Main Steam Leakage Collection System

Auxiliary Gas Treatment System Standby gas treatment trains are cross-tied at the fan suctions to allow drawing cool air over the charcoal filter of the inactive train to remove decay heat.

T'he Standby Gas Treatment System auto-initiates when any of the following conditions occur:

Reactor Building Ventilation above 369' elevation exhaust duct radiation high-high: PCIS logic A sensors start A train; PCIS logic B sensors start B train

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Reactor Building Ventilation below 369' elevation exhaust duct radiation high-high: PCIS logic A sensors start A train; PCIS logic B sensors start B train

Drywell pressure high (2.7 psig increasing) : Both trains start

RPV water level low (177 inches decreasing) : PCIS logic A sensors start A train; PCIS logic B sensors start B train

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HPCI auto-initiation: Both trains start The Standby Gas Treatment System can be manually placed in service from panel 09-75 in the Control Room.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 6 of 45 l

l STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 C. PLANT OPERATING REQUIREMENTS C.1 Prerequisites C.1.1 System valves are lined up per Attachment 2, with exceptions approved by the Shift Manager.

c.1.2 System power supplies are lined up per Attachment 3, with exceptions approved by the Shift Managen.

c.1.3 The following systems are in operation per their respective operating procedure, with exceptions approved by the shift Manager:

4160 V and 600 V Normal And Emergency AC Power Distribution per OP-46A

Process Radiation Monitoring System per OP-31

Fire Protection System per OP-33.

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Fev. No. 22 Page 7 of 45

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 C.2 Precautions I l

C.2.1 !

Reactor building ventilation shall be isolated before performing any of the following activities.

This action is necessary to comply with the requirements of safety evaluation JAF-SE-96-071:

Fuel handling I

e Core alterations

Movement of heavy loads over the spent fuel pool or open reactor cavity

Placing RX MODE switch in START & HOT STBY, without Primary Containment Integrity in effect C.2.2 During normal operation, 27MOV-120 (containment ;

exhaust to standby gas treatment isol valve) shall remain closed when primary containment is required per Tech Spec 4.7.B.4.

C.2.3 Operating a SGT train with the charcoal filters installed to vent paint fumes, welding fumes, or smoke could damage the charcoal filter. Guidelines to prevent possible charcoal filter damage from

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paint fumes are as follows:

Painting shall stop during periods of SGT operation.

Painting shall stop whenever Reactor Building ventilation is isolated, unless SGT will not be '

required for 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months following the completion of painting.

SGT should not be run for at least 30 minutes following the completion of painting.

If a SGT lun is desired within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months following painting, Peactor Building Ventilation should not be isolated until the end of the SGT run.

SGT runs are kept as short as possible within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months following painting.

C.2.4 To prevent plugging of the spray nozzles from debris caused by rust or corrosion, the fire protection water supply spray header between i 76FCV-107A/B and the spray nozzles shall be drained i following system actuation.

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Rev. !!c. 22 Page 8 of 45

. 1 STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20

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D.- STARTUP i TABLE OF CONTENTS SUBSECTION g D.1 Train A Startup . . . . . . . . . . . . , , . . . . . , lo D.2 Train B Startup . . . . . . . . . . . . . . , , . , , , 12 l

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Rev. No. 22 Page 9 of 45

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 D.1 Train A Startup CAUTION Operating a standby gas treatment train with the charcoal filters installed to vent paint fumes, welding fumes, or smoke could damage the charcoal filter. See Precaution C.2.2.

D.1.1 Ensure open at least one of the follcaing valves:

ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12 D.1.2 Ensure open TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A.

D.1.3 Verify the 'ollowing:

Comoonent Status ,

TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A Running

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A Open

TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A Closed

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A On D.1.4 IF standby gas treatment is being placed in service to support any of the following:

Torus venting

Drywell venting

HPCI operation

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Main Steam Leakage Collection System operation

Auxiliary Gas Treatment System operation THEN ensure required standby gas treatment suction valves are lined up.per the applicable procedure prior to proceeding to Step D.1.5.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 10 of 45 l

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM 0 OP-20 l

D.1.5 IF SGT Train B is shutdown, I THEN perform the following: l j

a. Verify open TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B.

NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2A (SGT fan A suct isol valve).

b. Ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

D.1.6 IF RB DIFF PRESS 01-125DPI-100A or B indicates less negative than - 0.25 inches water, TEEN ensure SGT Train B is in service per Subsection D.2.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 11 of 45

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STANDBY GAS TREA'.WENT SYSTEM * OP-20 D.2 Train B Startup -

CAUTION Operating a standby gas treatment train with the charcoal filters installed to vent paint fumes, welding fumes, or smoke could damage the charcoal filter. See Precaution C.2.2.

D.2.1 Ensure open at least one of the following valves:

ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12 D.2.2 Ensure open TRAIN B INLET 01-125MOV-14B.

D.2.3 Verify the following:

Comoonent Status

TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B Running

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B Open

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TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B Closed

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5B On D.2.4 IF standby gas treatment is being placed in service to support any of the following:

Torus venting

Drywell venting

HPCI operation

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Main Steam Leakage Collection System operation

Auxiliary Gas Treatment System operation I TREN ensure required standby gas treatment suction valves are lined up per the applicable procedure prior to proceeding to Step D.2.5.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 12 of 45

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I STANDBY GAS TREATMENT' SYSTEM * OP-20 D.2.5 IF SGT Train A is shutdown, THEN perform the following: ;

a. Verify open TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A.

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NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2B (SGT fan B suct isol valve). .

b. Ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

D.2.6 IF RB DIFF PRESS 01-125DPI-100A or B indicates less negative than - 0.25 inches water, TEEN ensure SGT Train A is in service per Subsection D.1.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 13 of 45 I

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 E. NORMAL OPERATION E.1 The Standby Gas Treatment System is normally maintained in the following standby lineup:

Valves lined up per Attachment 2 Component power supplies lined up per Attachment 3

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Panel 09-75 indications and controls as follows:

Valves Common To Both SGT Trains Comoonent Status ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11 . . . . . . . . . Closed BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12 . . . . . . . . . Closed Train A Standbv Lineun Comoonent Status AIR HTR 01-125E-5A . . . . . White light on, red light off HPCI GLAND SEAL SUCT 01-125MOV-13A . . . . . . . . Closed

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TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A . . . . . . . . . . . Open TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A . . . . . . . . . . . Closed 1 J

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Closed TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A . . . . . . . . . . . . . Shutdown Train B Standbv Lineuo

Component Status AIR HTR 01-125E-5B . . . . . White light on, red light off HPCI GLAND SEAL SUCT 01-125MOV-13B . . . . . . . . Closed TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B . . . . . . . . . . . Open TRAIN B INLET 01-125MOV-14B . . . . . . . . . . . Closed FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Closed TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B . . . . . . . . . . . . . Shutdown

,Section ( E continued on next page)

Rev. No. 22 Page 14 of 45 i

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * *

OP-20 E. (Cont)

E.2 Whenever standby gas treatment is in service, monitor the following parameters per ODSo-17:

Prefilter differential pressure: maximum 0.75 inches water gauge on 01-125DPIS-1A(B)

HEPA filter differential pressure: maximum 1.5 inches water gauge on 01-125DPIS-2A(B)

Carbon filter differential pressure: maximum 1.5 inches water' gauge on 01-125DPIS-3A(B)

After filter differential pressure: maximum 1.5 inches water gauge'on 01-125DPIS-4A(B)

SGT flow on 01-125FI-106B: 3000 to 6000 scfm

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Rev. No. 22 Page 15 of 45 q

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 F. SHUTDOWN TABLE OF CONTENTS SUBSECTION PAGE F.1 Train A Shutdown . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17 F.2 Train B Shutdown . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18 l

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Rev. No. 22 Page 16 of 45 l

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 F.1 Train A Shutdown *

F.1.1 Ensure SGT Train A operation is not required.

F.1.2 IF SGT Train B is shutdown, . l THEN ensure closed the following valves: J l

DW TORUS EXH TO SGT ISOL VLV 27MOV-121 (at panel 27PCP)

DW/ TORUS EXH TO SGT ISOL VLV 27MOV-120 (at panel 27PCP)

HPCI GLAND SEAL SUCT 01-125MOV-13A

HPCI GLAND SEAL SUCT 01-125MOV-13B

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ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12

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F.1.3 Close TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A.

F.1.4 Verify the following: !

Comoonent $1gug

TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A Shutdown !

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A . Closed

TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A Open

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A Off

White light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A On F.1.5 IF SGT Train B is in service, !

TEEN ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm i on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2B (SGT fan B suct isol valve).

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Rev. No. __ 22 Page 17 of 45

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 F.2 Train B Shutdown -

F.2.1 Ensure SGT Train B operation is not required.

F.2.2 IF SGT Train A is shutdown, THEN ensure closed the following valves:

DW TORUS EXH TO SGT ISOL VLV 27MOV-121 (at panel 27PCP)

DW/ TORUS EXH TO SGT ISOL VLV 27MOV-120 (at panel 27PCP)

HPCI GLAND SEAL SUCT 01-125MOV-13A

HPCI GLAND SEAL SUCT 01-125MOV-13B e ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12 F.2.3 Close TRAIN B INLET 01-125MOV-14B.

F.2.4 Verify the following:

Comoonent Status

- * TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B Shutdown

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B Closed

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TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B Open 1

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5B Off

White light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5B On F.2.5 IF SGT Train A is in service,

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TEEN ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2A (SGT fan A suct isol valve) .

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM 0 OP-20 G. SPECIAL PROCEDURES TABLE OF CONTENTS SUBSECTION PAGE G.1 Train A Charcoal Filter Cooling . . . . . . . . . . . . 20 G.2 Train B Charcoal Filter Cooling . . . . . . . . . . . . 21 G.3 Train A Charcoal Filter Fire Protection Water Spray . . 22 G.4 Train B Charcoal Filter Fire Protection Water Spray . . 25 G.5 Train A Auto-Initiation Verification . . . . . . . . . . 28 G.6 Train B Auto-Initiation Verification . . . . . . . . . . 29 G.7 Maintenance of Secondary Containment Integrity with a Degraded or Open Reactor Building Penetration . . . . 30 G.8 SGT Train A Operation During Filter Testing . . . . . . 31 G.9 SGT Train B Operation During Filter Testing . . . . . . 33 G.10 SG'.' Train Operation During Filter Sampling . . . . . . . 35

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 G.1 Train A Charcoal Filter Cooling G.1.1 IF amber SBGT A WTR SPRAY SYS HI TEMP light is on at panel FPP, THEN exit Subsection G.1 and proceed to Subsection G.3.

G.1.2 WHILE performing the following steps, periodically monitor annunciator 09-75-1-16 SGT SYS A ACT CHAR TEMP HI.

G.1.3 Ensure SGT Train B is in service per Subsection D.2.

G.1.4 IF SGT Train A is in service, THEN shutdown SGT Train A as follows:

a. Close TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A.

b. Verify the following:

Comoonent Status

TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A Shutdown

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A Closed

TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A Open

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A Off

White light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A On G.1.5 Ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2B (SGT fan B suct isol valve).

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 G.2 Train B Charcoal Filter Cooling G.2.1 IF amber SBGT B WTR SPRAY SYS HI TEMP light is on at panel FPP, THEN exit Subsection G.2 and proceed to .

Subsection G.4. 1 G.2.2 WHILE performing the following steps, periodically monitor annunciator 09-75-2-16 SGT SYS B ACT CHAR TEMP HI. 1 G.2.3 Ensure SGT Train A is in service per Subsection D.1.

G.2.4 IF SGT Train B is in service, THEN shutdown SGT Train B as follows:

a. Close TRAIN B INLET 01-125MOV-14B.

b. Verify'the following:

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Component Status

TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B Shutdown

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B Closed

. * TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-1008 Open

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5B Off

White light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5B On G.2.5 Ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2A (SGT fan A suct isol valve). -

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Rev. No. 22 Page 21 of ., 45

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 NOTE: The amber SBGT A WTR SDRAY SYS HI TEMP light will come on and an alarm bell will ring at panel FPP when the temperature setpoint of the charcoal filter heat detector is reached. SGT Train A charcoal filter water spray is a manually actuated system.

G.3 Train A Charcoal Filter Fire Protection Water Spray G.3.1 Shutdown SGT Train A as follows:

a. Close TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A.

b. Verify the following:

Comoonent Status

TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A Shutdown l

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A Closed

TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A Open

Red light AIR HTR 01-125E-5A Off G.3.2 Initiate water spray per Step a, b, or c:

a. To initiate water spray from panel FPP in Control Room, perform the following:

1) Depress SBGT A Spray System INIT pushbutton, 2) Verify red SBGT A WTR SPRAY SYS VLV OPEN light is on.

b. To initiate water spray from local breakglass station, break glass or remove retainer ring from SGT Train A breakglass station and verify button pops out, c. To initiate water spray from flow control valve emergency release station, pull down SGT Train A emergency release lever. ;

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Rev. No. 22 Page 22 of 45

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 CAUTION To prevent plugging of the spray nozzles from debris caused by rust or corrosion, the water spray header between 76FCV-107A and the spray nozzles shall be drained following system actuation.

G.3.3 WHEN train A water spray is no longer required, perform the following:

a. Close 76 FPS-123 (west SGT sprinkler supply gate 3 vdivC).

b. Drain fire protection supply header in SGT Room as follows:

1) Connect hose to fire protection supply header low point drain located by charcoal filter side panel.

2) Route hose to nearest floor drain.

3) Open fire protection supply header drain valve.

c. Drain 76FCV-107A flow control station header as follows:

1) Connect hose to drain header located under flow control valve.

2) Route hose to nearest floor drain or suitable container.

3) Open MAIN DRAIN and AUXILIARY DRAIN valves.

NOTE 1: Scaffolding may be necessary to reach overhead supply header drain plug.

NOTE 2: Supply header drain plug is located approximately 20 feet above and north of 71MCC-142 and panel 66HV-3B.

d. Drain fire protection supply header as follows:

1) Connect funnel and hose under supply header drain plug.

2) Route hose to nearest floor drain or suitable container.

, 3) Remove. supply header drain plug.

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 e. WHEN supply header is drained, perform the following:

1) Close SGT Room supply header drain valve and disconnect hose.

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2) Close MAIN DRAIN and AUXILIARY DRAIN valves for 76FCV-107A (flow control valve) and disconnect hose.

3) Install overhead supply header drain plug and disconnect funnel and hose.

f. Ensure WEST SGT TRAIN A SPRINKLER 3REAK GLASS STATION 76BGS-19 retaining ring and glass cover are installed.

g. Ensure closed emergency release lever for 76FCV-107A.

h. Depress plunger on drip check valve for 76PS-107A located by funnel to depressurize pressure switch.

i. Depress RESET pushbutton at panel 76CP-107A.

a j. Open the priming valve for 76FCV-107A and verify pressure rises on 76PI-107AB.

k. WHEN pressure on 76PI-107AB is stable, close priming valve for 76FCV-107A.

1. Crack open 76 FPS-123 and verify pressure rises on 76PI-107AA.

m. WHEN pressure is stable on 76PI-107AA, fully open 76 FPS-123.

n. Verify the following at panel 76CP-107A:

Red FLOW CONTROL VALVE OPEN light is off

Red GATE VALVE OPEN light is on o. Verify the following at panel FPP:

Green HDR VLV TROUBLE light is off

Red VLV OPEN light is on

Amber SBGT A WTR SPRAY SYS HI TEMP light is off

.

Rev. No. 22 Page 24 of 45

.

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * *

OP-20 NOTE: The amber SBGT B WTR SPRAY SYS HI TEMP light will come on and an alarm bell will ring at panel FPP when the temperature setpoint of the charcoal filter heat detector is reached. S3T Train B charcoal filter water spray is'a manually actuated system. .

G.4 Train B Charcoal Filter Fire Protection Water Spray G.4.1 Shutdown SGT Train B as follows:

a. Close TRAIN B INLET 01-125MOV-14B.

b. Verify the following:

Component Status

TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B Shutdown

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B Closed

TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B Open .

Red light AIR HTR 01-125E-5B Off G.4.2 Initiate water spray per Step a, b, or c:

a. To initiate water spray from panel FPP in

- Control Room, perform the following:

1) Depress SBGT B INIT pushbutton.

2) Verify red SBGT B WTR SPRAY SYS VLV OPEN light is on.

b. To inir.iate water spray from local breakglass station, break glass or remove retainer ring from SGT Train B breakglass stution and verify

,

button pops out.

. .

c. To initiate water spray from flow control valve emergency release station, pull down SGT Train B emergency release lever.

-

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Rev. No. 22 Page 25 of 45 I

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 CAUTION To prevent plugging of the spray nozzles from debris caused by rust or corrosion, the water spray '.eader

. between 76FCV-107B and the spray nozzles shall be drained following system actuation.

G.4.3 WHEN train B water spray is no longer required, perform the following:

a. Close 76 FPS-122 (east SGT sprinkler supply gate valve).

b. Drain fire protection supply header in SGT Room as follows:

1) Connect hose to fire protection supply header low point drain located by charcoal filter side panel.

2) Route hose to nearest floor drain.

3) Open fire protection supply header drain valve.

c. Drain 7GFCV-107B flow control station header as

-

follows:

1) Connect hose to drain header located under flow control valve.

2) Route hose to nearest floor drain or !

suitable container. I 3) Open MAIN DRAIN and AUXILIARY DRAIN valves.

NOTE 1: Scaffolding may be necessary to reach

overhead supply header drain plug. )

l NOTE 2: Supply header drain plug is located approximately 20 feet above and north of 71MCC-142 and panel 66HV-3B.

d. Drain fire protection supply header as follows:

1) Connect funnel and hose under supply header drain plug. l i

2) Route hose to nearest floor drain or suitable container.

<

, 3) Remove supply header drain plug.

Rev. No. 22 Page 26 of 45

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 e. WHEN supply header is drained, perform the following:

1) Close SGT Room supply header drain valve and j disconnect hose. .

l 2) Close MAIN DRAIN and AUXILIARY DRAIN valves for 76FCV-107B (flow control valve) and disconnect hose.

3) Install overhead supply header drain plug and disconnect funnel and hose.

f. Ensure EAST SGT TRAIN B SPRINKLER BREAK GLASS STATION 76BGS-20 retaining ring and glass cover are installed.

g. Ensure closed emergency release lever for 76FCV-107B.

l h. Depress plunger on drip check valve for 76PS-107B located by funnel to depressurize pressure switch.

i. Depress RESET pushbutton at panel 76CP-107B.

j. Open the priming valve for 76FCV-107B and verify

-

pressure rises on 76PI-107BB. <

k. WHEN pressure on 76PI-107BB is stable, close priming valve for 76FCV-107B.

1. Crack open 76 FPS-122 and verify pressure rises on 76PI-107BA.

m. WHEN pressure is stable on 76PI-107BA, fully i open 76 FPS-122. !

-

n. Verify the following at panel 76CP-107B:

Red FLOW CONTROL VALVE OPEN light is off

Red GATE VALVE OPEN light is on o. Verify the following at panel FPP:

Green HDR VLV TROUBLE light is off

Red VLV OPEN light is on

Amber SBGT B WTR SPRAY SYS HI TEMP light is off

.

Rev. No. 22 Page 27 of 45

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 G.5 Train A Auto-Initiation Verification

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G.5.1 Verify the following:

Comnonent Status

AIR HTR 01-125E-5A White light is on, red light is on

ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11 Open

TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A Closed

TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A Open

)

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A Open

TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A Running G.5.2 IF reactor building differential pressure is less negative than - 0.25 inches water, THEN ensure SGT Train B is in service per i Subsection D.2.

G.5.3 IF SGT Train B is shutdown, ,

THEN ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

A NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2A (SGT fan A suct isol valve) .

G.5.4 IF both SGT trains are in service, THEN one SGT train may be shutdown per Subsection F.1 or F.2, at the Shift Manager's discretion.

.

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l Rev. No. 22 Page 28 of 45 l

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20

.

G.6 Train B Auto-Initiation Verification G.6.1 verify the following:

Comoonent Status -

AIR HTR 01-125E-5B White light is on,

. red light is on

BELOW EL 369' SUCT'01-125MOV-12 Open

TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B Closed

TRAIN B INLET 01-125MOV-14B Open

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B Open

TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B Running G.6.2 IF reactor building differential pressure ,

is less negative than - 0.25 inches water, TEEN ensure SGT Train A is in service per Subsection D.1.

G 6.3 IF SGT Train A is shutdown, TREN ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

'

NOTE: SGT flow rate is adjusted by throttling 01-125SGT-2B (SGT fan B suct isol valve).

G.6.4 IF both SGT trains are in service, THEN one SGT train may be shutdown per Subsection F.1 or F.2, at the Shift Manager's discretion.

.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 29 of 45

_

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 G.7 Maintenance of Secondary Containment Integrity with a Degraded or Open Reactor Building Penetration G.7.1 Place SBGT train in service per Section D.

G.7.2 Isolate reactor building ventilation as follows: j a. Depress the following pushbuttons at panel 09-75:

RB VENT ISOL A

RB VENT ISOL B b. Verify isolation per Section G of OP-51A.

G.7.3 Prior to opening a secondary containment penetration notify the SM and Fire Protection Supervisor of the following:

Penetration identification number

Penetration area and elevation G.7.4 Establish communications between work site and j control room.

-

G.7.5 WHEN secondary containment penetration is open, verify the following:

Flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A (B)

RB DIFF PRESS 01-125DPI-100A(B) indicates GREATER THAN negative 0.25 inches water G.7.6 IF reactor building differential pressure cannot be

maintained GREATER TRAN negative 0.25 inches water, THEN reseal secondary containment penetration.

G.7.7 IF reactor building differential pressure can be maintained GREATER TRAN negative 0.25 inches water, THEN restore from reactor building isolation per Section G of OP-51A.

G.7.8 WHEN secondary containment penetration is closed and maintenance is complete, nstore from reactor

building isolation per Secti G of OP-51A.

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Rev. No. 22 Page 30 of 45

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STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM 0 OP-20 G.8 SGT Train A Operation During Filter Testing b

G.8.1 Ensure open the following valves:

ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12 G.8.2 Open TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A.

G.8.3 Verify the following:

TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A is running

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A is open

' TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A is c?osed

~

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A is on G.8.4 IF flow rate is n t 6000 to 6100 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A, THEN throttle 01-125SGT-2A to establish 6000 to 6100 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-10EA.

G.8.5 WHEN testing is complete, perform the following:

,

a. Ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A by throttling 01-125SGT-2A.

b. Close TRAIN A INLET 01-125MOV-14A.

G.B.6 Verify the following:

TRAIN A FN 01-125FN-1A is stopped

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15A is closed I

TRAIN A CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100A i is open 1

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A is off

'

White light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5A is on

.

Rev. No. 22 Page 31 of 45

)

.

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 G.8.7 IF testing of SGT trains is complete, THEN close the following valves:

ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12

.

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',. >

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Rev. No. 22 Page 32 of 45 l

-,

l

l STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 l

!

G.9 SGT Train B Operation During Filter Testing G.9.1 Ensure open the following valves:

ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12 G.9.2 Open TRAIN E INLET 01-125MOV-14B.

G.9.3 Verify the following:

TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B is running

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B is open

TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B is closed

Red light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5B *

is on G.9.4 IF flow rate is not 6000 to 6100 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A, THEN throttle 01-125SGT-2B to establish 6000 to 6100 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A.

. G.9.5 WHEN testing is complete, perform the following:

a. Ensure flow rate is 3000 to 6000 scfm on SGT FLOW 01-125FI-106A by throttling 01-125SGT-2B.

b. Close TRAIN B INLET 01-125MOV-14B.

G.9.6 Verify the following:

'

TRAIN B FN 01-125FN-1B is stopped

,

FN DISCH 01-125MOV-15B is closed

TRAIN B CLG VLV 01-125MOV-100B is open

Red light for AIR HTR 01-12SE-5B is off

White light for AIR HTR 01-125E-5B is on

.

Rev. No. 22 Page 33 of 45

"

.

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 G.9.7 IF testing of SGT trains is complete, THEN close the following valves:

ABOVE EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-11

BELOW EL 369' SUCT 01-125MOV-12

\

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Rev. No. 22 Page 34 of 45 L. )

STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM * OP-20 G.10 SGT Train Operation During Filter Sampling G.10.1 IF SGT Train A will be sampled, THEN perform the following:

a. Declare SGT Train A inoperable per ODSO-34.

b. Ensure SGT Train A is shutdown per Section F.

c. Close 01-125SGT-3A (SGT train A fan 1A suct cross-tie isol valve).

d. WHEN sampling of SGT Train A is complete, perform the following:

1) Open 01-125SGT-3A.

2) IF it is desired to operate SGT Train A, THEN startup SGT Train A per Section D.

3) Consider declaring SGT Train A operable per ODSO-34.

G.10.2 IF SGT Train B will be sampled, THEN perform the following:

a. Declare SGT Train B inoperable per ODSO-34.

b. Ensure SGT Train B is shutdown per Section F.

c. Close 01-125SGT-3B (SGT train B fan IB suct cross-tie isol valve).

d. WHEN sampling of SGT Train B is complete, perform the following:

1) Open 01-125SGT-3B.

2) IF it is desired to operate SGT Train B, THEN startup SGT Train B per Section D.

3) Consider declaring SGT Train B operable per ODSO-34.

.

Rev. No. 22 Page 35 of 45

RO 044 SRO 944 During the post-examination review, it was discovered that the key contained an incorrect answer, D vice the correct answer, A.

Distractor B is incorrect because an SRM reading less than 100 cps whose detector is not full in will generate a rod withdrawal block.

Distractors C and D are incorrect because detector motion is never blocked.

The key was changed from D to A to correct this error.

t

-

SDLP-07B KEY AIDS a) Purpose - to allow the operator to swap recorder indication from IRM J to APP.M/RBM on startups or back to IRM on shutdowns.

b) Positions - IRM-OFF-APRM (RBM) -

!

(1) RBM A(B)/IRM G(D)

(2) All other APRM/IRM i 3) Bypass Switches ,

a) Allows operator to bypass an Inop LOR 1.05.a.4.1 IRM channel. LOR 1.11.b.10 b) Joystick type c) Allow bypassing only one IRM per RPS channel at a time.

'

d) One switch for Channels A, C, E and G e) One switch for Channels B, D, F and H 6. Interlocks a. SRM 1) Retract Permissive Interlock for detector withdrawal.

a) Interlock between:

(1) SRM Log Count Rate (2) SRM Detector Position

(3) IRM Range Switches b) Interlock does not stop detector movement.

c) Interlock will cause a rod block if the following conditions are met:

(1) SRM detector not full in And (2) SRM count rate <100 cps. l l

d) Interlock is bypassed when:

s.

-44-J

ANNUNCIATOR ROD ARP 09-5-2-2 LEGEND WITHDRAWAL BLOCK DEVICE NA SETPOINT NA Reference: ESK-10P. 1.84-101 CAUSES e Any Reactor Mode Switch position:

- APRM high flux

- APRM inoperative

- RBM high flux (if reactor power is above 30%)

- RBM inoperative (if reactor power is above 30%)

- Recirc Flow Comparator trip

- Recirc Flow Converter upscale or inoperative

- CRD Hydraulic System SDIV level high l

- RPIS malfunction 1

- RWM withdraw block (below 20% reactor power)

- SDIV high water level trip bypassed j

e Reactor Mode Switch in Run

- APRM downscale

- APRM upscale (flow biased) l

- RBM downscale (if reactor power is greater than 30%) ;

.

e Reactor Mode Switch in Startup/ Hot Standby:

- APRM upscale (12%) l

- Refuel platform over core )

- Service platform hoist loaded p r< < v m < <

"r9n n ,

i g

'

(Continued on next page)

i

{" "' l ' '

Rev. No. 3 PORC Meeting No. NA Date 6/23/95 Page 1 of 3

U ANNUNCIATOR ROD ARP 09-5-2-2 LEGEND WITHDRAWAL BLOCK CAUSES (Cont)

Reactor Mode Switch in Startup/ Hot Standby or Refuel:

- SRM detectors not fully inserted in the core with count rate below 100 cps, and associated IRM range switch on ,

range 2 or below. ,

. - SRM high flux

- Refueling interlocks

- SRM inoperative

- IRM downscale (bypassed on range 1)

- IRM high flux

- IRM detector not full in

- IRM inoperative e Reactor Mode Switch in Refuel:

.

- Refueling platform near or over the core with a load on the 1, fuel platform hoist, or fuel grapple not full up

- Service platform hoist loaded

- Gelection of a second control rod with any other rod not

'

full in

,

- SDIV high water level trip bypassed f i

- Rod select power turned off or no rod selected

- Refuel platform power turned off e Reactor Mode Switch in Shutdown:

-

Reactor Mode switch in shutdown AUTOMATIC ACTIONS Rod withdrawal block i

i l

(Continued on next page) j Rev. No. 3 PORC Meeting No. NA Date 6/23/95 Page 2 of 3 J

._

.

.. * -

ANNUNCIATOR ROD ARP O9-5-2-2 LEGEND WITHDRAWAL BLOCK PROCEDURE 1. Determine cause of rod block at panel 09-5.

2. Correct cause of alarm prior to attempting to withdraw control rods. -

j

!

. 1 I

,

i

.

4 Rev. No. 3 PORC Meeting No. NA Date 6/23/95 Page 3 of 3 e

,

SRO 647 During the administration of the examination, a typographical error was noted in that distractors A and C were the identical. Distractor C was changed from:

.

Turbine Govemor Valve open; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve closed.

to:

Turbine Governor Valve open; Turbine Steam Inlet Isolation Valve open.

This corrected the typographical error but necessitated a key change for the SRO exam from C to A. The determination to change distractor C vice distractor A was based on the fact that some candidates had already recognized A to be a conect answer and marked their answer sheets to reflect their choice.

.

RO 061 SRO O61 During the post-examination review, it was discovered that there were two correct answers given for the question.

The rod drift indication however is not referenced as a symptom of an uncoupled control rod in the applicable procedure, AOP-25, UNCOUPLED CONTROL ROD. 'Ihat procedure states the symptom:

An overtravel alarm is received during a coupling check of control rod."

Both the ROD DRIFT and ROD OVERTRAVEL' annunciators will alarm if the respective condition exists for any of the 137 control rods. Each of the control rods also has an individual rod drift light on the full core display. There is actually no " Individual" Rod Overtravel alarm as the question asks nor is there an " individual" Rod Drift alarm (there are however, individual rod drift lights). This ambiguity apparently led the

!

candidates to associate individual in the sense of "an alarm caused by moving an individual rod." That perspective, coupled with the procedural symptom makes B also a correct answer.

The answer key was changed to reflect either A or B as a correct answer.

.

AOP-25, UNCOUPLED CONTROL ROD, revision 4, Section A., pg. 4.

N- ,

. .. . . . .. . . .

. . . __

ANNUNCIATOR ROD DRIFT ARP 09-5-2-3 LEGEND

.

DEVICE Not applicable SETPOINT Not applicable CAUSES 1. A control rod that is not selected moves off a latched even numbered position.

2. A control rod that is selected moves off an even numbered position or past an odd numbered position after rod sequence timer has stopped.

AUTOMATIC ACTIONS None PROCEDURE

,

Enter AOP-27, Control Rod Drift *.

033: 3 8 Rev. No. 7 PORC Meeting No. NA Date 1/17/96 Page 1 of 1

>

I

'ARP 09-5-2-4 ANNUNCIATOR ROD OVERTRAVEL'

LEGEND-

_

SENSOR / Reed switch S-50 located 3" past full out position TRIP POINT

'

.CAUSE' CRD and rod NOT coupled AUTOMATIC None ACTION

.

P OPERATOR Refer to F-AOP-25, Uncoupled Control Rod *

ACTION

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l l.

.

Rev. No. 2 PORC Meeting No. ff7- // Z.

Date /2/h2 37 Page 1 of 1 t

.. .

UNCOUPLED CONTROL ROD * AOP-25 A. SYMPTOMS '

.

An overtravel alarm is received during a coupling check of control rod.

Lack of a noticeable change in neutron monitoring

-

indication during rod movement.

B. AUTOMATIC ACTIONS :

None

.

r

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Rev No. 4 Page 4 of 9 d

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ATTACHMENT 4 ^

NRC RESOLUTION OF JAF COMMENTS ON WRITTEN EXAMINATION RO-9, SRO-9 Accepted error in answer key. The key was changed from D to B.

i RO-31, SRO-31 Accepted comment. Question was deleted from the examination. i RO-44, SRO-44 Accepted error in answer key. The key was changed from D to A SRO 47 Accepted change in answer key to reflect change announced during examination administration to correct that A and C were the same answer. The key was changed from C to A RO-61,SRO-61 Accepted comment that there were two correct answers. The J4 answer key was changed to reflect either A or B as correct answers.

.

\ )

IR 05000333/1997009

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Dear Mr. Colomb:

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1997 Quarterly Integrated 1Q (0) 2Q (0) 3Q (0) 4Q (0) Assessments Mid Cycle End of Cycle 7(0) 8(0) 9(0) 10(0) 11(0) 99(0) Security 201(0) Operator Exams Emergency Planning Other

IR 05000333/1997009

Text

Dear Mr. Colomb:

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