ML16132A400

2016-04 Final Written Exam

ML16132A400
Person / Time
Site:	Diablo Canyon
Issue date:	04/25/2016
From:	Vincent Gaddy Operations Branch IV
To:	Pacific Gas & Electric Co
References
Download: ML16132A400 (143)

Text

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Diablo Canyon RO Written Examination Applicant Information Name: ANSWER KEY Date: 15 April, 2016 Facility/Unit: Diablo Canyon Region: I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination, you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent. Examination papers will be collected 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> after the examination begins.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results Examination Value __________ Points Applicants Score __________ Points Applicants Grade __________ Percent

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Diablo Canyon SRO Written Examination Applicant Information Name:ANSWER KEY Date: 15 April, 2016 Facility/Unit: Diablo Canyon Region: I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets.

To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items. Examination papers will be collected 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after the examination begins.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results RO/SRO-Only/Total Examination Values / / Points Applicants Scores / / Points Applicants Grade / / Percent

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Multiple Choice (Fill in your choice) NAME:_ANSWER KEY__

If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank and initial.

51. A B C D 76. A B C D

52. A B C D 77. A B C D

53. A B C D 78. A B C D

54. A B C D 79. A B C D

55. A B C D 80. A B C D

56. A B C D 81. A B C D

57. A B C D 82. A B C D

58. A B C D 83. A B C D

59. A B C D 84. A B C D

60. A B C D 85. A B C D

61. A B C D 86. A B C D

62. A B C D 87. A B C D

63. A B C D 88. A B C D

64. A B C D 89. A B C D

65. A B C D 90. A B C D

66. A B C D 91. A B C D

67. A B C D 92. A B C D

68. A B C D 93. A B C D

69. A B C D 94. A B C D

70. A B C D 95. A B C D

71. A B C D 96. A B C D

72. A B C D 97. A B C D

73. A B C D 98. A B C D

74. A B C D 99. A B C D

75. A B C D 100. A B C D DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 0

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 003 A3.05 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RCPS, Tier # 2 including: RCP lube oil and bearing lift pumps Group # 1 K/A # 003 A3.05 Rating 2.7 Question 01 The control room operator starts the lift oil pump for RCP 1-1.

One minute later, the operator attempts to start RCP 1-1 and notes RCP 1-1 red light is OFF and the green light is LIT.

This indication is:

A. unexpected. This in an indication that lift oil pressure is less than the interlock pressure of 255 psig.

B. unexpected. This in an indication that lift oil pressure is less than the interlock pressure of 800 psig.

C. expected. The lift oil pump must run for a minimum of 2 minutes prior to starting the RCP.

D. expected. The lift oil pump must run for a minimum of 4 minutes prior to starting the RCP.

Proposed Answer: C. expected. The lift oil pump must run for a minimum of 2 minutes prior to starting the RCP.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The oil lift pump must run for 2 minutes and oil pressure greater than 500 psig before the pump will start. 255 psid is the minimum dp for starting and RCP.

B. Incorrect: Oil lift pressure must be at least 500 psig to be able to start the RCP.

C. Correct. The oil lift pump must run for 2 minutes and oil pressure greater than 500 psig before the pump will start.

D. Incorrect. Time is two minutes, not four.

Technical

References:

LA6, page 26 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 35738 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the RCP Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #S-47185 X New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 004 A1.06 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in Tier # 2 parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with Group # 1 operating the CVCS controls including: VCT level K/A # 004 A1.06 Rating 3.0 Question 02 Unit 1 reactor is at full power with the plant in a normal lineup.

VCT level transmitter LT-112 fails to 90% level.

Actual VCT level will start to lower and will continue to lower until the actual VCT level reaches:

A. 0%. An automatic swap over to the RWST will NOT occur.

B. 5%. An automatic swap over to the RWST will occur.

C. 14%. Auto makeup will raise VCT level until the actual level reaches 24%.

D. 14%. Auto makeup will raise VCT level until the actual level reaches 87%.

Proposed Answer: A. 0%. An automatic swap over to the RWST will NOT occur.

Explanation:

A. Correct. L112 indication exceeds the 87% trip open signal setpoint for LCV-112A (letdown is diverted to radwaste) causing VCT level to drop. Auto makeup would not occur because that is controlled by LT112, which is failed high. Level continues to drop until the VCT is empty. Auto transfer to the RWST does not occur because it requires both channels L112 and L114 at 5%.

B. Incorrect. An automatic swap over to the RWST will NOT occur because it requires both level channels at 5%. Plausible because 5% is the setpoint that causes auto swap over, and after a few minutes of borated water addition, RCS temperature would be seen to lower.

C. .Incorrect. Auto makeup will not occur because it is controlled by the failed channel which is failed high. Plausible because it may be thought that channel L-111 will cause auto makeup when actual VCT level lowers to 14%, in which case auto makeup would automatically stop at 24%

D. Incorrect. Auto makeup will not occur because it is controlled by the failed channel which is failed high. Plausible because it may be thought that channel L-111 will cause auto makeup when actual VCT level lowers to 14%, and it may not be realized that letdown is already diverted.

Technical

References:

OIM B-1-4; LB-1A CVCS Rev 16, page 31 of 81 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40449 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the CVCS Question Source: Bank # S-86165 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 005 K1.12 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Tier # 2 effect relationships between the RHRS and the following systems: Group # 1 Safeguard pumps K/A # 005 K2.12 Rating 3.1 Question 3 A large break LOCA occurred on Unit 1. The operators have begun aligning for cold leg recirculation.

The operator has just opened 8804B, RHR Heat Exchanger 1-2 Discharge to Charging and SI Pumps Suction valve.

The following valves have been operated prior to opening 8804B:

1. 8974B, SI Pps Recirc Stop valve - Close

2. 8982B, RHR Pp 1-2 Suct From Contmt Recirc Sump - Open

3. 8700B, RHR Pump Suction Isolation - Close Which of the valves operated were necessary to open 8804B?

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Proposed Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 Explanation:

purpose of 8804A/B (RHRS) is to provide the ability to supply the suction of the SI Pumps and CCPs (safeguard pumps) with cooled RHR system water.

Interlock:

open if:

• 8974A or B, SIP recirc valve, is closed, and

• 8701 or 8702, loop suction valve, is closed, and

• 8982B is open (which can only occur when 8700B is closed)

A. Incorrect. this is only 1 of the 3 valves operated that are part of the interlock to open 8804B.

B. Incorrect. These two valves are part of the interlock to open 8804B, but 8982B cannot be open without closing 8700B, the option of 8974B and 8982B only is incorrect as there is a choice which includes all three valves.

C. Incorrect. this is only 1 of the 3 valves operated that are part of the interlock to open 8804.

D. Correct. 8974A and 8974B open would allow transfer of containment sump water to be diverted to the RWST. Interlocks are provided to prevent transferring either containment sump or RCS water to the RWST, and to ensure that the RHR is in SI recirc alignment. To open 8804B requires 1) 8701 or 8702 closed (normally closed and not operated in the recirc procedure), 2) 8974A or B closed, and 3) 8982B to be open, which requires 8700B closed.

Technical

References:

E-1.3, OIM page B-3-1, LB-2, Electrical schematic 437605 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None DCPP L141 Exam Rev 3

Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the RHR System.

(35317)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 3

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 005 K6.03 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the Tier # 2 following will have on the RHRS: RHR heat exchanger Group # 1 K/A # 005 K6.03 Rating 2.5 Question 04 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is in MODE 5

• Both trains for RHR are in service

• Total RHR flow is 3000 gpm (both RHR pumps running)

Instrument air pressure to HCV-637, 1-2 RHR Heat Exchanger outlet valve, has just been lost.

RHR flow to loop 3 and 4 cold legs will:

A. rise to a maximum flow limited by a mechanical stop.

B. lower to zero.

C. rise to runout conditions.

D. lower to a minimum flow limited by a mechanical stop.

Proposed Answer: A. rise to a maximum flow limited by a mechanical stop.

Explanation:

A. Correct. RHR heat exchanger outlet valves (HCV-637 and 638) are fail open valves. With HCV-637 open (to its stop) flow can rise to between 3976 gpm and < 4319 gpm, limited by a mechanical stop. Flow to the loops will rise.

B. Incorrect. HCV-637 will fail open raising flow. Plausible because it may be thought that the valve will fail closed on loss of air as there is not a mechanical stop on closing.

C. Incorrect. HCV-637 will fail open raising flow. However, it is limited by a stop to prevent runout. If this is not known, runout is a logical answer.

D. Incorrect. HCV-637 will fail open raising flow. Plausible because it may be thought that both Heat Exchangers supply all loops and when HCV-637 fails closed, flow will be reduced. If thought there is a mechanical stop to ensure some minimum flow (like there is for opening), then this is a logical answer.

Technical

References:

LB-2 Residual Heat Removal System Rev 18 page 20; OIM B-3-1 ECCS Composite Drawing References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the RHR system (20950)

Question Source: Bank # A-1008 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 006 A3.08 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the ECCS, Tier # 2 including: Automatic transfer of ECCS flowpaths Group # 1 K/A # 006 A3.08 Rating 4.2 Question 5 Safety Injection has actuated.

The following indications are noted on Safety Injection portion of Monitor Light Box C:

• 8107 ON

• 8108 OFF

• 8801A OFF

• 8801B ON

• 8803A OFF

• 8803B ON Notes:

1. 8107, 8108: Normal Charging Line isolation valves

2. 8801A, 8801B, 8803A, 8803B: Charging Injection isolation valves Which of the following are represented by these indications?

NORMAL CHARGING CHARGING INJECTION A. Isolated In service B. Isolated Isolated C. In service In service D. In service Isolated Proposed Answer: A. Isolated; In service Explanation:

A. Correct. White Lights OFF indicate valves are in their required position for SI. Normal Charging isolation valves are in series, only one is required closed to isolate the flowpath (either 8107 or 8108 OFF will satisfy this). 8108 is off, so normal charging is isolated.

Charging Injection isolation valves are aligned in parallel pairs which are in series (8801A and B in parallel with each other. These are in series with 8803A and B which are also in parallel with each other). A flowpath exists if at least one of the 8801s and one of the 8803s are open (White Lights OFF). 8801A and 8803A are open so an open flowpath exists, charging injection is in service.

B. Incorrect because charging injection is in service. Plausible because the light indications could be misinterpreted.

C. Incorrect because normal charging is isolated. Plausible because the light indications could be misinterpreted.

D. Incorrect because normal charging is isolated and charging injection is in service.

Plausible because the light indications could be misinterpreted.

Technical

References:

EOP E-0, Appendix E; EOP E-1, Appendix P pages 25, 26, 27, picture MLB C.

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Learning Objective: Describe the operation of the Emergency Core Cooling System. (8051)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 006 A4.08 ECCS Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in Tier # 2 the control room: ESF system, including reset Group # 1 K/A # 006 A4.08 Rating 4.2 Question 06 GIVEN:

• SI occurred due to a steam break downstream of the MSIVs

• The B train RTB is closed

• RCS pressure is 1900 psig and increasing

• Pressurizer level is 35% and increasing

• Narrow range levels in all Steam Generators are 30%

• Steam generator pressures are approximately 900 psig and stable

• The crew has entered E-1.1, SI Termination The operator pushes both SI Reset pushbuttons.

Following the operator action, what should be the status of PK02-02, SI Initiate and PK08-21, SI Actuate alarms?

PK02-02, PK08-21 SI Initiate SI Actuate A. OFF ON B. ON OFF C. OFF OFF D. ON ON Proposed Answer: C. OFF OFF Explanation:

PK02-02 and 08-21 are not impacted by the failure of one RTB to open (and generate a P-4 signal). PK02-02 will be clear because there is no actuation signal at this time. PK08-21 is after a time delay and the SI is reset. P-4 is not part of this circuit (inputs into Auto SI Block, PK-8-22).

A incorrect. PK08-21 is not impacted by the RTB still closed. Plausible if the reset/block circuitry is not fully understood.

B incorrect. The SI initiate, while downstream of the Auto SI Blocked circuitry, the "and" box requires either P-4 or no auto SI signal present to have "0" output. There is still an input due to the RTB still closed, but no auto signal present. PK02-02 will be clear.

C correct. PK02-02 will be clear and PK08-22 will clear, and remain clear, when SI is taken to reset (time delay has passed and switch to "RESET" generates a "1" output to reset SI and clear the alarm). NOTE, it will take longer than 65 seconds to get thru E-0 to E-1.1, therefore, the timer blocking reset is no longer part of the circuit.

D incorrect. The P-4 prevents one train of SI from blocking (one train of auto SI would not be blocked), but does not impact the two alarms addressed here.

Technical

References:

Operator Information Manual page B-6-5; LPE1B, page 51.

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Learning Objective: Given an industry event, assess DCPP applicability with regard to DCPP design, operation, and improving operator performance. (41844)

Question Source: NRC Bank # DCPP NRC Exam 04/2007 #13 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 007 G2.1.20 - PRT: Ability to interpret and execute procedure Tier # 2 steps Group # 2 K/A # 007 G2.1.20 Rating 4.6 Question 07 GIVEN:

• A leaking Pressurizer PORV has been isolated by the crew

• PK05-25, PRT PRESS LVL/TEMP is in alarm due to high PRT temperature (140°F)

• PRT level (62%) and pressure (7 psig) are slowly rising In accordance with AR PK05-25, PRT PRESS/LVL/TEMP, PRT temperature is lowered by:

A. venting the PRT to the Vent Header.

B. ensuring RCS-1-PCV-472, PRT Vent to Vent Header, closes.

C. filling the PRT using primary water, then draining, if required, to the RCDT.

D. draining the PRT to the Containment Structure Sump, refilling with primary water to the high level alarm, and draining again.

Proposed Answer: C. filling the PRT using primary water, then draining, if required, to the RCDT Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible. The temperature is lowered by adding primary water to the PRT.

Isolating the leaking PORV would prevent a further increase in the temperature.

B. Incorrect.This is an automatic action that occurs at 10 psig and has no effect on cooling the PRT.

C. Correct - In accordance with the AR PK step 2.1.6, primary water introduction is used to cool the quench volume, once quenched, the PRT is drained if level is high.

D. Incorrect - The volume is cooled first with primary water and then drained, not vice versa.

Technical

References:

AR PK05-25 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40576 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the PRT system Question Source: Bank # 01/2010 L081 NRC Q6 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 008 K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Group # 1 the CCWS will have on the following: Loads cooled by CCWS K/A # 008 K3.01 Rating 3.4 Question 08 Unit 1 is at full power, at the middle of core life.

Instrument air is lost to TCV-130, Letdown Heat Exchanger CCW outlet.

Which of the following describes the effect on letdown system temperature and the potential reactivity effect?

Letdown temperature _________ and reactor power ___________.

A. lowers; rises B. lowers; lowers C. rises; rises D. rises; lowers Proposed Answer: A. lowers; rises Explanation:

TCV-130 fails open on of instrument air. Failing open causes CCW flow through the heat exchanger to increase and letdown temperature to decrease.

A. Correct. TCV-130 fails open. This will lower letdown temperature. At full power, MTC is negative, lowering letdown temperature removes boron from letdown, which is a positive reactivity effect and power will rise.

B. Incorrect. Letdown temperature will lower but the effect is to remove boron. Boron is released (and power lowers) if letdown temperature rises.

C. Incorrect. The valve fails open, not closed. Power will rise due to lowering temperature.

D. Incorrect. The valve fails open, not closed and power rises not lowers.

Technical

References:

LPA-9 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: State which way air operated valves fail on loss of air. (9842)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 027AK3.03 Knowledge of the reasons for the following Group # 1 responses as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control K/A # APE 027 AK3.03 Malfunctions: Actions contained in EOP for PZR PCS Rating 3.7 malfunction Question 09 Unit 1 is 7% power.

The crew has entered OP AP-13, Malfunction of Reactor Pressure Control System due to Pressurizer spray valve, PCV-455B, failing open. The operator is unable to close the spray valve.

Which of the following actions will be taken by the crew?

A. Trip the reactor and stop both RCP 1-1 and 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B.

B. Trip the reactor and stop ONLY RCP 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B.

C. Stop ONLY RCP 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B and perform a plant shutdown per OP L-5, Plant Cooldown From Minimum Load to Cold Shutdown.

D. Stop both RCP 1-1 and 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B and perform a plant shutdown per OP L-5, Plant Cooldown From Minimum Load to Cold Shutdown.

Proposed Answer: A. Trip the reactor and stop both RCP 1-1 and 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B.

Explanation:

A. Correct. OP AP-13 directs that both RCPs are tripped to ensure flow thru the failed spray valve. Additionally, if the spray valve is open and cannot be closed, direction is to trip the reactor and then stop both pumps.

B. Incorrect. While PCV-455B comes off loop 2, two RCPs are stopped to ensure flow thru the spray valve is terminated, however, if its felt that any forced flow will continue flow thru the spray valve, then stopping all the RCPs would be an action to stop that flow.

C. Incorrect. Both RCPs are stopped. There is a step to perform a plant shutdown if manual control is not effective in controlling RCS pressure between 2210 to 2260 psig.

D. Incorrect. Both RCPs are tripped, but despite being below the power that stopping RCPs would be an automatic reactor trip, the reactor is tripped before stopping the pumps. There is a step to perform a plant shutdown if manual control is not effective in controlling RCS pressure between 2210 to 2260 psig.

Technical

References:

OP AP-13, References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3477N - Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of OP AP-13 to mitigate an event in progress.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO K5.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following Tier # 2 concepts as the apply to the RPS: DNB Group # 1 K/A # 012 K5.01 Rating 3.3 Question 10 Which of the following lists includes two reactor trips which protect against DNB?

A. Overpower T, Loop Low Flow B. Overpower T, Low PZR Pressure C. Overtemperature T, Loop Low Flow D. Overtemperature T, Power Range Hi Flux Proposed Answer: C. Overtemperature T, Loop Low Flow Explanation:

A. Incorrect because the OPT Trip does not protect against DNB. Plausible because loop low flow is DNB related.

B. Incorrect because the OPT Trip does not protect against DNB. Plausible because low pressure is DNB related.

C. Correct. The trips which protect against DNB are:

• Overtemperature T

• Loop Low Flow

• RCP Breaker

• RCP Bus Undervoltage

• RCP Bus Underfrequency

• PZR Low Pressure D. Incorrect PR high flux does not protect against DNB. Plausible because OTT is DNB related.

Technical

References:

OIM B-6-4a, -4b References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe Reactor Protection System components. (7373)

Question Source: Bank # P-23676 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 013 K6.01 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the Group # 1 following will have on the ESFAS: Sensors and detectors K/A # 013 K6.01 Rating 2.7 Question 11 GIVEN:

• Unit 2 is at 100% power

• A Containment pressure channel that inputs to High Containment Pressure SI and Containment Spray is declared inoperable

• The remaining Containment pressure channels remain OPERABLE

• Required actions per OP AP-5, U1&2, Malfunction of Eagle 21 Protection, have been completed

• To meet the Technical Specification LCO for the failed channel:

o The "High Containment" pressure bistable is placed in "TRIP" o The "High-High Containment Pressure" bistable is placed in "BYPASS" The MINIMUM remaining coincidences for ESF actuations (SI and Containment Spray) from the remaining OPERABLE Containment pressure channels are:

Safety Containment Injection Spray A. 1/2 1/2 B. 1/2 2/3 C. 2/3 1/2 D. 2/3 2/3 Proposed Answer: B. 1/2; & 2/3 Explanation:

A. Incorrect. High Containment Pressure SI actuation is 2 of 3 channels and Containment Spray is 2 of 4 channels. The remaining coincidence is then 1 of 2 for SI and 2 of 3 for Containment Spray because the bistable for the failed channel is in bypass, will not trip.

This answer could be true if it is thought that both are 2 of 3, with one in bypass, it would require the remaining 2 to cause actuation.

B. Correct. High pressure is the SI bistable, and in trip. the remaining coincidence is 1 of the 2 remaining channels. High-high is normally 2 of 4. With one channel in BYPASS, the coincidence is reduced to 2 of 3.

C. Incorrect. SI coincidence is normally 2 of 3, while Containment Spray is 2 of 4. If believes the logic is 2/4 and 2/3, (the logic is reversed), this answer is correct.

D. Incorrect. This would be correct if the candidate assumes the 4 channels input to both signals. This would cause actuation, but is not the minimum coincidence.

Technical

References:

OIM pages B-6-5 and B-6-8, Technical Specification 3.3.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 41313 - Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Eagle-21/SSPS DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question Source: Bank # NRC Exam 03/2012 L091C (Q10) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 013 ESFASA4.02 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in Group # 1 the control room: Reset of ESFAS channels K/A # 013 A4.02 Rating 4.3 Question 12 GIVEN:

• The crew is performing the actions of E-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, following a trip due to a seismic event

• Both reactor trip breakers are open

• RCS temperature is 547°F The operator depresses the FDWTR ISOL RESET pushbuttons on VB3.

What is the response of the following indications?

Monitor Light Box C PK09-11, FWI Red light Feedwater Isolation A. Goes OUT Stays LIT B. Goes OUT Goes OUT C. Stays LIT Stays LIT D. Stays LIT Goes OUT Proposed Answer: B. Goes OUT Goes OUT Explanation:

• P-4 (reactor trip and bypass breakers being open) with 2 of 4 loop Tave <554°, causes a feedwater isolation alarm PK 09-11. This causes FRVs and FRV bypass valves to close. The red FWI light will illuminate for monitor light box C. This signal can be manually reset even if the 2 signals are still present.

• If no SI or P-14 signal was received the FWI signal can be reset by simply pressing the manual reset buttons (even if the trip breakers are still open and Tave still <554°. PK 09-11 will clear and the red FWI light will go out. The FRVs or bypass valves can now be opened normally.

A. Incorrect because the PK will also go out, since no SI signal is present.

B. Correct. The FWI red light and PK will go out.

C. Incorrect because both the red light and annunciator will go out.

D. Incorrect because the FWI red light will go out.

Technical

References:

LB-6A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Reactor Protection System. Feed water Isolation Actuation Signals Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 022 K1.01 - Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 1 effect relationships between the CCS and the following systems: K/A # 022 K1.01 SWS/cooling system Rating 3.5 Question 13 Which of the following lists ALL Unit 2 Containment Fan Coolers cooled by CCW Vital Header A?

A. 2-1 and 2-2 B. 2-3 and 2-4 C. 2-1, 2-2 and 2-5 D. 2-3, 2-4 and 2-5 Proposed Answer: B. 2-3 and 2-4 Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 2-1 and 2-2 are two of the three on header B.

B. Correct. Only two CFCUs are cooled by header B, 2-3 and 2-4 C. Incorrect. These three are cooled by header A D. Incorrect. 2-3 and 2-4 are cooled by header B, but 2-5 is cooled by header B.

Technical

References:

LH-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe CFCU components.

• Component Cooling Water Supply (37580)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 026 K4.06 - Knowledge of CSS design feature(s) and/or Group # 1 interlock(s) which provide for the following: Iodine scavenging K/A # 026 K4.06 via the CSS Rating 2.8 Question 14 A design basis LOCA occurs and Containment Spray actuates.

Which of the following completes the statements below:

1) If there is at least 60% level in the Sodium Hydroxide tank when containment spray actuates, post-LOCA, the minimum pH in Containment Sump will be _____________.

2) For the Containment Spray Eductor valves, CS-8994A and B, to automatically open, an SI signal _____ required.

A. 1) 8.0 2) is B. 1) 9.5 2 ) is C. 1) 8.0 2) is NOT D. 1) 9.5 2) is NOT Proposed Answer: C. 1) 8.0 2) is NOT Explanation:

The NaOH tank is designed to deliver sufficient solution to establish a minimum pH in the Containment sump of 8.0 if at least 60% level is maintained. A full tank with NaOH of 32%

establishes an upper limit in the sump of 9.5. The basic pH helps the spray droplets entrain gaseous fission products, particularly iodine.

An SI signal is required to open the CS pump discharge valves and start the CS pumps. SI is NOT required to open the eductor valves, they open on high-high containment pressure.

A. Incorrect. pH is correct. SI is not required.

B Incorrect. pH is not correct (maximum) and SI is not required. (Both incorrect)

C Correct. minimum pH is 8.0 and SI is NOT required.

D Incorrect. pH is incorrect (maximum). SI is NOT required (correct)

Technical

References:

LI-2, OIM page B-6-8 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain significant Containment Spray System design features and the importance to nuclear safety. (40802)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 026 G2.4.11 - Containment Spray - Knowledge of abnormal Group # 1 condition procedures. K/A # 026 G2.4.11 Rating 4.0 Question 15 GIVEN:

• The crew is performing E-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation

• Containment Spray is in operation

• Both trains of RHR are in service

• The crew is aligning RHR to supply containment spray Which of the following is the train of RHR the crew will attempt to align and what would cause the crew to have to align the other train of RHR to CS?

RHR pump _____ is normally aligned; however, the other pump will be aligned if _______

during the normal alignment.

1. 8809A, RHR to Cold Legs 1 and 2 cannot be closed

2. 8809B, RHR to Cold Legs 3 and 4 cannot be closed

3. 9003A, RHR pump 1-1 to Spray Header A cannot be opened

4. 9003B, RHR pump 1-2 to Spray Header B cannot be opened A. 1-1; 1 only B. 1-1; 1 OR 3 C. 1-2; 2 only D. 1-2; 2 OR 4.

Proposed Answer: B. 1-1; 1 OR 3 Explanation:

Question requires candidate to know what pump is the preferred pump and then what abnormal condition would cause the crew to address the failure of one of the valves to align the alternate train (RNO of step 16.g)

A. Incorrect. RHR pump 1-1 is aligned first and Train B is the alternate. If either 8809A or 9003A malfunction, the RNO is performed and train B is aligned using 8809B and 9003B.

B. Correct. RHR pump 1-1 is aligned first and Train B is the alternate. If either 8809A or 9003A malfunction, the RNO is performed and train B is aligned using 8809B and 9003B.

C. Incorrect. RHR pump 1-2 is aligned if there is a malfunction while placing RHR pump 1-1 in service D. Incorrect. RHR pump 1-2 is aligned if there is a malfunction while placing RHR pump 1-1 in service. Plausible because either train can be aligned, however, RHR pump 1-1 is the pump aligned first.

Technical

References:

E-1.3 step 16 g. RNO References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37579 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the CSS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 039 K1.04 - Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 1 effect relationships between the MRSS and the following systems: K/A # 039 K1.04 RCS temperature monitoring and control Rating 3.1 Question 16 The plant is being cooled down from minimum load to cold shutdown per OP L-5, Plant Cooldown From Minimum Load to Cold Shutdown.

When 2 of 4 _______ channels reach 543°F, the operator must go to "BYPASS INTLK" to be able to continue to use steam dump group(s) _________.

A. Tcold; I only B. Tavg; I only C. Tcold; I and IV D. Tavg; I and IV Proposed Answer: B. Tavg; I only Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Tcolds are used to trend RCS temperature when RCPs are not running, however, for P-12, Tavg is always used, regardless of RCP status.

B. Correct. Tavg is the input to close ALL steam dumps. Only the group I valves are used to continue the cooldown by using the bypass interlock.

C. Incorrect. Tavg is used.

D. Incorrect. The group IV valves do go closed at P-12 and can be used by using their individual controllers, but they are not enabled to work by bypassing P-12.

Technical

References:

LC-2B References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37810 -Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Steam Dump System Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 059 A1.03 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 1 effect relationships between the MFW and the following systems: K/A # 059 A1.03 Power level restrictions for operation of MFW pumps and valves Rating 2.7 Question 17 Unit 2 is at 10% power.

At 10% power, _______ steam supplies the Main Feedwater pump and the _______ valves control feed flow.

A. HP; Main Feedwater Regulating B. HP; Feedwater Regulating Bypass C. LP; Main Feedwater Regulating D. LP; Feedwater Regulating Bypass Proposed Answer: B. HP; Feedwater Regulating Bypass Explanation:

A. Incorrect. at low power, the LP valves are full open but there is not enough pressure to run the MFP, the HP valves open to supply steam to the MFP. At this power, main feedwater is still on the bypass valves.

B. Correct. at low power, the LP valves are full open but there is not enough pressure to run the MFP, the HP valves open to supply steam to the MFP. At this power, main feedwater is still on the bypass valves.

C. Incorrect. While the LP valves are open, they are not supplying steam pressure for pump operation.

D. Incorrect. While the LP valves are open, they are not supplying steam pressure for pump operation.

Technical

References:

LC-8A, OP L-3, OP L-4 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 4966 - Describe the operation of the MFW system Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 061 K5.01 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the Group # 1 following concepts as they apply to AFW: Relationship between K/A # 061 K5.01 AFW flow and RCS heat transfer Rating 3.6 Question 18 GIVEN:

• The reactor trips from 100% power

• Steam generator narrow range levels are 12% and rising The crew is at step 4 of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection and about to go to E-0.1, Response to Reactor Trip.

Per E-0 step 4 and its basis, total AFW flow should be maintained ___________ 435 GPM to A. greater than, adequately remove decay heat B. less than, minimize RCS cooldown C. greater than, make up for steam generator shrink D. less than, prevent a low pressure safety injection Proposed Answer: A. greater than, adequately remove decay heat Explanation:

A. Correct - AFW flow is necessary for secondary heat sink. If SG level is in the narrow range in at least one SG, a heat sink is available. Therefore, AFW flow is needed only to maintain level.

B. Incorrect - While the SG level will initially shrink, it is not the basis for the AFW flow requirement.

C. Incorrect - SG level may shrink out of the narrow range but this is not the reason for the minimum AFW flow rate.

D. Incorrect - once a heat sink is established, the operator takes control of AFW to control the RCS cooldown.

Technical

References:

E-0 App E & Background Document References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 8430 - Explain significant Auxiliary Feed Water System design features and the importance to nuclear safety.

Question Source: Bank # NRC Exam 11/2012 (L111 #15) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 061 A3.04 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the AFW, Group # 1 including: Automatic AFW isolation K/A # 061 A3.04 Rating 4.1 Question 19 Unit 2 trips from full power. All AFW pumps start.

Five minutes after the reactor trip, PT-433, AFW Pp 2-2 discharge pressure transmitter, is reading zero. There are no PCS alarms.

MDAFW pump 2-2 Steam Generator Level Control valves, LCV-110 and LCV-111, will indicate:

A. 100% valve position; the "LCV-110 and LCV-111 Pp Running Intlk Byp C/O" switch should be cut in to allow control of these valves.

B. 100% valve position; the controllers should be taken to Manual to restore control of these valves.

C. 0% valve position; the valves will need to be operated locally.

D. 0% valve position; the controllers should be taken to Manual to restore control of these valves.

Proposed Answer: D. 0% valve position; the controllers should be taken to Manual to restore control of these valves.

Explanation:

PT-433 monitors AFW pump 22 discharge pressure for runout protection. When the pressure signal fails low, the low pressure is converted to a simulated high level signal. The high select circuit applies this signal to the level controller and a signal is sent to close level control valves LCV-110 and 111. Note: Placing the hand controller on the vertical board in manual will regain control of the valves.

NOTE: normal, at power indications are pump discharge of 0 and valves at 100%.

A. Incorrect. It is unnecessary to cut in the pump breaker interlock bypass because the pump is running (breaker is closed - interlock is satisfied) and power is therefore applied to the LCVs. Plausible, this is the normal condition of the discharge and valve position indications additionally, a loss of power to the controller (which would be indicated by a PCS alarm) and restoration would have an indication of 100% demand.

B. Incorrect. Valves close. Plausible, this is the normal condition of the discharge and valve position indications additionally, a loss of power to the controller (which would be indicated by a PCS alarm) and restoration would have an indication of 100% demand.

C. Incorrect. power is available to the valves, local operation is not necessary.

D. Correct. The PT provides actual pump discharge pressure to the control circuit. The control circuit converts the pump discharge pressure signal to an equivalent valve position limit signal (low pressure of 1065 psig will limit valve full closed, high pressure of 1203 psig will limit valve full open). This signal (demand) is sent to the low select circuit. This input is used as run out protection for the pump, and will cause the valve to close on low pump DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

discharge pressure. The end result is 0% valve position (approximately, may be a negative number) indicating that the valves are closed.

Technical

References:

LD-1, OP O-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37635 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Auxiliary Feed Water System.

• MDAFW Pump LCVs LCV-110, LCV-111, LCV-113, and LCV-115 Question Source: Bank #A-0692 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 062 A2.05 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 1 malfunctions or operations on the ac distribution system; and (b) K/A # 062 A2.05 based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or Rating 2.9 mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Methods for energizing a dead bus Question 20 GIVEN:

• The crew is performing the actions of ECA-0.0, Loss of All Vital AC Power

• PK16-15, DSL GEN 11 SHUTDOWN RELAY TRIP, is lit due to Diesel Generator 1-1 trip on overspeed when off site power was lost

• Maintenance on the diesel has been completed and the diesel is available to start

• The diesel control switch is in AUTO

• The output breaker for Diesel Generator (D/G) 1-1 is open An operator is performing ECA-0.3, Restore 4 kV Buses.

Which of the following is the expected response of diesel generator and its output breaker when the operator presses the D/G Shutdown Rly and Alarm Reset pushbutton on Vertical Board 4?

A. The diesel will start automatically. The output breaker will automatically close after the diesel starts.

B. The diesel will start automatically. The output breaker will remain open and must be closed by the operator after the diesel starts.

C. The diesel will not automatically start but can now be started in MANUAL. The output breaker will automatically close after the diesel starts.

D. The diesel will not automatically start but can now be started in MANUAL. The output breaker will remain open and must be closed by the operator after the diesel starts.

Proposed Answer: A. The diesel will start automatically. The output breaker will automatically close after the diesel starts.

Explanation:

A. Correct. Once the relay is reset, the diesel will start due to the automatic transfer to diesel signal still present. When the diesel starts, the breaker will automatically close.

B. Incorrect. The breaker will close automatically once the diesel is up to speed. Plausible if its thought that the reset starts the diesel but now because its not an auto start, the breaker is closed (as it is for surveillance).

C. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate believes that simply resetting the relay only removes the block and allows the diesel to be started.

D. Incorrect. Plausible if it is believed the diesel must be manually started, then the need to manually close the breaker is also a possibility.

Technical

References:

LJ-15, PK16-15, ECA-0.3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37725 - Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Diesel Generator System DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question Source: Bank NRC 07/2011 (L091 #10) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 063 K2.01 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Group # 1 Major DC loads K/A # 063 K2.01 Rating 2.9 Question 21 GIVEN:

• Vital DC Bus 1-2 is de-energized.

• 480V bus G is de-energized.

What effect, if any, will this event have on the capability of the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feed Pump 1-1 to automatically start and feed all four Steam Generators?

A. AFW Pump 1-1 auto starts and associated LCVs will still function normally.

B. AFW Pump 1-1 will NOT be capable of an auto start but associated LCVs will still function normally.

C. AFW Pump 1-1 auto starts, but the LCVs are de-energized.

D. AFW Pump 1-1 will NOT be capable of an auto start and all associated LCVs are deenergized.

Proposed Answer: D. AFW Pump 1-1 will NOT be capable of an auto start and all associated LCVs are deenergized.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. TDAFP will not auto start, no DC power available to open FCV-95 and the LCV-s are de-energized due to loss of bus G. Plausible if DC bus is either not known or thought to be one of the other 2 buses. Plausible to think that loss of power would cause the TDAFW to start.

B. Incorrect. TDAFP will not auto start, no DC power available to open FCV-95.

Additionally, power is lost to the LCVs (DC) and will not operate.

C. Incorrect. The LCV-s are de-energized due to loss of bus G. The AFW pump is not capable of an auto start.

D. Correct. Appendix B of AP-23, Loss of Vital DC Bus, discusses the equipment lost based on the loss of Vital Bus 1-2, FCV-95 will not open, DC power supply and TDAFP LCVs will be open and deenergized (Bus G).

Technical

References:

OP AP-23 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain the consequences of loss of DC vital bus. (7116)

Question Source: Bank #13 L061 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 064 A2.16 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 1 malfunctions or operations on the ED/G system; and (b) based on K/A # 064 A2.16 those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate Rating 3.3 the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of offsite power during full-load testing of ED/G Question 22 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power

• STP M-9A1, Diesel Engine Generator 1-1 Routine Surveillance Test, is in progress

• Diesel Generator 1-1 is fully loaded A Main Unit trip occurs.

The diesel breaker____________________ and the operator should ________________.

A. remains closed; open the breaker and shutdown the diesel.

B. remains closed; place the D/G Mode Sel switch in AUTO.

C. opens; shutdown the diesel.

D. opens; verify all buses transfer to startup.

Proposed Answer: B. remains closed; place the D/G Mode Sel switch in AUTO.

Explanation:

The main unit trip causes the aux transformer breaker to open (the plant is now divorced from the 500 kV switchyard. The main unit trip causes a turbine trip, which will trip the reactor. Buses sensing the loss of 500 kV will transfer to startup when low voltage is sensed. However, the bus being carried by the diesel does not experience a "low voltage" condition because the diesel breaker does not open. The bus with the diesel is now being powered solely by the diesel, not offsite power, as such the diesel must be returned to the ISOC mode of control by placing the switch from MANUAL to AUTO.

A. Incorrect. The diesel breaker remains closed. The bus remains energized. The operator must place the diesel in ISOC (Auto).

B. Correct. At full power, the diesel will be paralleled thru the aux transformer. When the main unit trips, the aux breaker will open. The operator ensures the aux breaker is open and places the mode select switch in AUTO to place the diesel back into "isochronous" mode to carry the bus.

C. Incorrect. The breaker remains closed and the action is to return the diesel switch to AUTO.

D. Incorrect. The breaker remains closed and the diesel carries the bus, it does not transfer to startup as no low voltage condition is sensed on that bus.

Technical

References:

STP M-9A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 6408 Describe significant precautions and limitations associated with the Diesel Generator System Question Source: Bank #

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 064 A4.07 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the Group # 1 control room: Transfer ED/G (with load) to grid K/A # 064 A4.07 Rating 3.4 Question 23 The crew is about to parallel a diesel generator to startup for a load test.

When the diesel is paralleled to startup:

1. What will be the mode of operation?

2. How will the operator raise load?

A. 1. Isochronous

2. Voltage Control switch B. 1. Droop

2. Voltage Control switch C. 1. Isochronous

2. Manual Speed Control switch D. 1. Droop

2. Manual Speed Control switch Proposed Answer: D. Droop; Manual Speed Control switch Explanation:

A. Incorrect. When paralleled, started in MANUAL (droop mode). Voltage control raises/lowers MVAR.

B. Incorrect. The diesel is started in MANUAL (droop) however, voltage adjust is for MVAR, speed picks up load.

C. Incorrect. Started in MANUAL (droop)

D. Correct. Frequency drops, speed must be raised.

Technical

References:

LJ-6B References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 6437 - Describe the operation of Diesel Generator system Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 073 K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Group # 1 the PRM system will have on the following: Radioactive effluent K/A # 073 K3.01 releases Rating 3.6 Question 24 A discharge of a gas decay tank is in progress.

RE-22, Gaseous Radwaste Discharge Header radiation monitor loses power.

Which of the following describes the indication on the radiation monitor and its effect on the release?

A. The monitor reads low, 10 CPM, and RCV-17, GDTS to Plant Vent, closes.

B. The monitor reads high, 106 CPM, and RCV-17, GDTS to Plant Vent, closes.

C. The monitor reads low, 10 CPM, and FCV-410, GDTS Outlet Header to Plant Vent, closes.

D. The monitor reads high, 106 CPM, and FCV-410, GDTS Outlet Header to Plant Vent, closes.

Proposed Answer: A. The monitor reads low, 10 CPM, and RCV-17, GDTS to Plant Vent, closes.

Explanation:

A. Correct. When power is lost, the monitor fails low, but the auto action associated with RE-22 occur - RCV-17 closes. The bottom of the scale is 10 cpm.

B. Incorrect. The monitor fails low, but plausible that it fails high if its known the isolation occurs. High end of scale is 106 cpm.

C. Incorrect. FCV-410 is upstream of RE-22, it would also isolate the discharge (but is not the valve associated with RE-22). Monitor does fail low.

D. Incorrect. The monitor fails low and RCV-17, not FCV-410 closes.

Technical

References:

STG G4A, LG-2, AR PK11-21 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the Radiation Monitoring System. (37878)

Question Source: Bank (note changes; attach parent) Modified NRC 04/2007 (#38 L051) X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.13 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 076 K2.01 - K2.01 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the Group # 1 following: Service water (DCPP - ASW) K/A # 076 K2.01 Rating 2.7 Question 25 What are the power supplies for the Unit 1 Auxiliary Saltwater Pumps, 1-1 and 1-2?

ASW 1-1 ASW 1-2 A. Bus F Bus G B. Bus F Bus H C. Bus G Bus H D. Bus H Bus F Proposed Answer: A. Bus F / Bus G Explanation:

A. Correct. ASW pumps are powered from bus F (1-1) and G (1-2)

B. Incorrect. This would be correct for SI pumps.

C. Incorrect. This would be correct for Containment Spray Pumps D. Incorrect. This would be correct for AFW pumps.

Technical

References:

OIM J-1-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 5339 -State the power supplies to ASW system components Question Source: Bank #25 L081 01/2010 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 078 K4.01 Knowledge of IAS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) Group # 1 which provide for the following: Manual/automatic transfers of K/A # 078 K4.01 control. Rating 2.7 Question 26 Unit 1 was at 100% power when a total loss of Instrument Air and LP Nitrogen occurred.

Which of the following describes the action(s) necessary to control the 10% steam dumps using the backup air bottles?

A. Place the AUTO/MANUAL controller in MANUAL and use the increase/decrease pushbuttons, only.

B. Use the OPEN/CLOSE switch, only.

C. Cut-in toggle switch and place the AUTO/MANUAL controller in MANUAL and use the increase/decrease pushbuttons.

D. Cut-in toggle switch and use the OPEN/CLOSE switch.

Proposed Answer: D. Cut in toggle switch and use OPEN/CLOSE switch.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The toggle switch is required, however, the controller is not in the circuit.

B. Incorrect. The open/close switch is in the circuit by using the toggle switch.

C. Incorrect. OPEN/CLOSE switch usage is required, not AUTO/MANUAL controller.

D. Correct. Requires toggle switch cut in, and OPEN/CLOSE switch used.

Technical

References:

LC-2B References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Steam Dump System. (37810)

Question Source: Bank #54 NRC L031 02/2005 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 103 K3.03 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Group # 1 the containment system will have on the following: Loss of K/A # 103 K3.03 containment integrity under refueling operations Rating 3.7 Question 27 Unit 1 is in MODE 6.

An issue with Containment Purge Exhaust valve, RCV-11, causes the Shift Foreman to enter Technical Specification LCO 3.9.4, Containment Penetrations, and suspend CORE ALTERATIONS to satisfy the LCO.

Which of the following evolutions would have to be stopped because it is a CORE ALTERATION?

1. Lifting the reactor vessel head

2. Coupling the RCCA drive shafts

3. Disconnecting incore thermocouples A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3 Proposed Answer: B. 2 only Explanation:

A. Incorrect. lifting the head, while part of the reactor vessel but not a fuel, source, or reactivity control component B. Correct. in the vessel and a reactivity control component C. Incorrect. Incore thermocouples are not a fuel, source, or reactivity control component D. Incorrect. Incore thermocouples are not a fuel, source, or reactivity control component Technical

References:

TS Definitions, LCO 3.9.4, OP L-6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 9696 - Define Technical Specification items found in the Definitions Section Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #P-30406 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 103 G2.4.8 Containment: Knowledge of how abnormal operating Group # 1 procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs. K/A # 103 G2.4.8 Rating 3.8 Question 28 GIVEN:

• Containment Pressure o Peak = 7.2 psig o Current pressure = 2.2 psig

• Containment Rad Rate:

o Peak = 3.0 x 106 o Current = 1.5 x 105

• Rad Dose:

o Current = 3.1x 105 The crew is performing the step 31.b in ECA-0.0, Loss of All Vital AC Power:

31. SELECT Recovery Procedure:

b. Check PZR Level - GREATER THAN b. GO TO EOP ECA-0.2, LOSS OF ALL 12% [40%] AC POWER RECOVERY WITH SI REQUIRED.

c. Check SI Equipment c. GO TO EOP ECA-0.2, LOSS OF ALL

• No ECCS pumps running AC POWER RECOVERY WITH SI REQUIRED.

If pressurizer level is 15%, which action should be taken by the crew and why?

A. Stay in the Action/Expected Response and go to 31.c; only one parameter exceeded the adverse containment setpoint and it is now less than the setpoint.

B. Stay in the Action/Expected Response and go to 31.c; two parameters exceeded the adverse containment setpoint and both are now less than the setpoint.

C. Perform the RNO; one parameter is above the adverse containment setpoint (two are less than the setpoint).

D. Perform the RNO; two parameters are above the adverse containment setpoint (one parameter is not).

Proposed Answer: C. Perform the RNO; one parameter is above the adverse containment setpoint (two are less than the setpoint)

Explanation:

KA is how abnormal Containment procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs. The abnormal procedure is the adverse containment setpoints, the rules for usage and the subsequent use of the setpoints.

The adverse containment setpoints are as follows:

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Containment Pressure GREATER THAN 3 PSIG (VB1, PAM1)

OR Containment Rad rate GREATER THAN 105 R/HR (PAM2)

OR Rad dose GREATER THAN 106 R (RR 30/RR 31, PAM1)

Except for the dose, once the value drops below the setpoint, the use of normal parameters is restored. In this case, containment pressure has dropped to less than its setpoint, however, rad rate is greater than its setpoint (dose is less). The action is to use the bracketed [40%] value, and go to the RNO.

A. Incorrect. Adverse setpoint must be used.

B. Incorrect. One parameter, rad rate, is above setpoint.

C. Correct. One setpoint is still exceeded, the RNO is the proper action.

D. Incorrect. Only one parameter is exceeded.

Technical

References:

E-0 foldout page, ECA-0.0 step 31, LPE-RULE References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain the use of adverse containment parameters during EOP usage Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 001 A3.02 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CRDS, Tier # 2 including: Rod height Group # 2 K/A # 001 A3.02 Rating 3.7 Question 29 Unit 1 control rods are ARO at 230 steps.

A load rejection occurs and control rods begin to insert. When the rod motion stops, the following Control Bank D rod heights are displayed on DRPI:

Group step counters indicate as follows:

Group 1 - 189 Group 2 - 190 What is the status of the Control Bank D rod alignment?

A. 1 rod is misaligned, 8 rods are in alignment B. 3 rods are misaligned, 6 rods are in alignment C. 5 rods are misaligned, 4 rods are in alignment D. 6 rods are misaligned, 3 rods are in alignment Proposed Answer: A. 1 rod is misaligned, 8 rods are in alignment Explanation:

Have to determine/know that each indicated position is in 6 step increments and a rod is misaligned if 12 steps from its respective bank step counter F2 is at 192 - 3 steps out B6 is at 204 steps - 14 steps out B10 is at 186 - 6 steps out F14 is at 180 steps - 10 steps out DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

K14 is at 198 - 9 steps out P10 is at 192 - 2 steps out P6 is at 180 steps - 9 steps K2 is at 198 - 8 steps out out H8 is at 192 - 2 steps out A. Correct. A rod is misaligned if it is greater than 12 steps from its respective group step counter. Only B6 is out. The remaining rods in CBD are in alignment.

B. Incorrect. By inspection of the indication, it appears B6, P6 and F14 could be out of alignment.

C. Incorrect. If greater than 6 steps are used as the criteria or determining the number of rods at 12 steps or greater from each other.

D. Incorrect. If 6 steps or greater is used.

Technical

References:

STP I-1A and VB2 (in question)

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the operation of the Rod Control System. (40755)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 002 A2.03 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 2 malfunctions or operations on the RCS; and (b) based on those K/A # 002 A2.03 predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the Rating 4.1 consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of forced circulation Question 30 Unit 2 reactor power is 30% and the crew is raising power.

PK05-01, RCP No. 21 alarms. The operator notes the blue light and green lights are on, the red light is out for RCP 2-1.

Which of the following describes the expected flow indication in Loop 1 and the action to be taken by the crew?

A. Flow of approximately 0%; verify the reactor automatically tripped B. Flow of approximately 0%; manually trip the reactor C. Flow of approximately 30%; verify the reactor automatically tripped D. Flow of approximately 30%; manually trip the reactor Proposed Answer: D. Flow goes to approximately 30%; manually trip the reactor.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Reverse flow in the loop will cause flow to go to approximately 30%. Power is below P-8, and will not automatically trip.

B. Incorrect. Reverse flow in the loop will cause flow to go to approximately 30%.

C. Incorrect. Power is less than P-8, a manual trip per AR PK05-02 is required. Operation with less than 4 RCPs is not allowed.

D. Correct. Flow goes to approximately 30% and a trip is required.

Technical

References:

TH18T, AR PK05-01, OIM B-6-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7927 - Given initial conditions and assumptions, determine if a reactor trip or safety injection actuation is required Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank NRC 04/2007 (#30 L051) X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 011 A4.04 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control Tier # 2 room: Transfer of PZR LCS from automatic to manual control Group # 2 K/A # 011 A4.04 Rating 3.2 Question 31 Which of the following describes the effect of placing either HC-459 or FCV-128 in MANUAL and how % charging flow is tracked?

NOTE:

HC-459D, Pressurizer Level Controller FCV-128, CCP Flow Controller A. Placing FCV-128 in MANUAL shifts HC-459D to MANUAL. HC-459D demand output will track actual % charging flow value.

B. Placing HC-459D in MANUAL shifts FCV-128 to MANUAL. HC-459D demand output will track actual % charging flow value.

C. Placing HC-459D in MANUAL shifts FCV-128 to MANUAL. FCV-128 % flow setpoint value will track actual % charging flow.

D. Placing FCV-128 in MANUAL shifts HC-459D to MANUAL. HC-459D setpoint will track actual % charging flow value.

Proposed Answer: A. Placing FCV-128 in MANUAL shifts HC-459D to MANUAL. HC-459D demand output will track actual % charging flow value.

Explanation:

Must know two knowledge items about the controllers. One, if FCV-128 is taken to MANUAL, HC-459 also transfers to MANUAL. Two, with both in MANUAL,demand output from HC-459D and %flow setpoint on FCV-128 will track %charging flow .

A. Correct. FCV-128 to manual will shift HC-459 to Manual. With both in MANUAL,demand output from HC-459D will track %charging flow .

B. Incorrect. First part is incorrect, plausible that as the master controller, it would shift the slave controller to manual. Second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. First part is incorrect, plausible that as the master controller, it would shift the slave controller to manual. Second part is correct.

D. Incorrect. First part is correct. Setpoint for HC-459D is still from auctioneered high Tavg.

Technical

References:

OP O-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the operation of the Pressurizer, Pressure & Level Control System.

(4585)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 015 K6.02 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the Group # 2 following will have on the NIS: Discriminator/compensation K/A # 015 K6.02 circuits Rating 2.6 Question 32 A plant startup is in progress.

Intermediate Range channel N35 is overcompensated.

How will the channels overcompensation affect its operation as the startup progresses?

The channel will begin to come on scale:

A. lower in the Source Range and indicate higher at 100% power.

B. lower in the Source Range but indicate correctly at 100% power.

C. higher in the Source Range and indicate lower at 100% power.

D. higher in the Source Range but indicate correctly at 100% power.

Proposed Answer: D. higher in the Source Range but indicate correctly at 100% power.

Explanation:

A incorrect - at power gamma has very little effect on IR indication.

B incorrect - undercompensation will cause the IR to see gammas and indication to come on scale lower in the source range. At power, gamma will not affect indication.

C incorrect - IR responds later due to cutting out neutrons as well as gammas, however, once at power, indications will be normal.

D. Correct. The IR will not respond until a higher source range level. Once in the power range, indication will be unaffected.

Technical

References:

OIM B-4-3, LB-4 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 5992 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the NIS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank NRC 02/2009 (#59 L061C) X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 017 K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Group # 2 the ITM system will have on the following: Natural circulation K/A # 017 K3.01 indications Rating 3.5 Question 33 The crew is verifying natural circulation is established in accordance with E-0.1, Reactor Trip Response. Subcooling, as displayed on VB2, is 40°F. All thermocouples are reading 570°F.

How, if at all, will failure of one thermocouple, (high or low), affect the current subcooling indication on VB2?

A single thermocouple failure, A. high or low, will affect subcooling indication.

B. high will affect indication; low failure will not affect indication.

C. low will affect indication; high failure will not affect indication.

D. high or low, will not affect subcooling indication.

Proposed Answer: B. high will affect indication; low failure will not affect indication.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Unlike wide range pressure, which is used to determine train specific subcooling, only the highest temperature is used. A low failure would not affect indication.

B. Correct. The highest temperature, Thot or thermocouple is fed to the Subcooled Margin Monitor for determining subcooling.

C. Incorrect. Subcooling uses the highest temperature.

D. Incorrect. With PCS components, once a parameter is out of range, it is automatically deselected. Subcooling determination is not part of the PCS instrumentation.

Technical

References:

LA-2D, E-0.1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe RVLIS components.

• Subcooled Margin Monitor Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 027 K2.01 Containment Iodine Removal System: Knowledge of Group # 2 bus power supplies to the following: Fans K/A # 027 K2.01 Rating 3.1 Question 34 Which of the following lists the power supply for the Containment Iodine Removal fans?

A. 480 VAC 12I and 12J B. 480 VAC 13D and 13E C. 480 VAC H and G D. 480 VAC F and G Proposed Answer: A. 480 VAC 12I and 12J Explanation:

The actual power supply is non vital, the candidate should know they are non-vital (unlike vital power supplies)

A. Correct. Per the "required knowledge" of the PK, the power supply is non-vital 12I and J which are located.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because this MCC is non-vital but has loads such as pressurizer heaters and rod drive MG sets.

C. Incorrect. Not vital power.

D. Incorrect. Not vital power.

Technical

References:

LH-3, OIM J-1-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the Iodine Removal System.

(5241)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 028 A1.02 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in Group # 2 parameter (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with K/A # 028 A1.02 operating the HRPS controls including: Containment pressure Rating 3.4 Question 35 The crew is evaluating placing the hydrogen recombiners in service per E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

1) What is the maximum hydrogen concentration, allowed by the step in E-1, for the crew to place the hydrogen recombiners in service at this time?

2) According to the bases for the step, the concern is ignition of the hydrogen could cause a

_________________ if it ignited.

A. 1) 4.0%; 2) spike in containment pressure B. 1) 4.0%; 2) loss of ECCS equipment C. 1) 3.5%; 2) spike in containment pressure D. 1) 3.5%; 2) loss of ECCS equipment Proposed Answer: C. 1) 3.5%; 2) spike in containment pressure Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 4.0% is the design limit of the recombiners in service. It is part of the caution prior to the step, DCPP limits placing the unit(s) in service to 3.5%.

B. Incorrect. 4.0% is the design limit of the recombiners in service. It is part of the caution prior to the step, DCPP limits placing the unit(s) in service to 3.5%.

C. Correct. Maximum allowed is 3.5%. Concern is if concentrations are high enough and there is an ignition source, a pressure spike could cause a challenge to containment integrity.

D. Incorrect. The concern per the bases is containment integrity (although feasible some equipment would be damaged).

Technical

References:

E-1 and background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain hydrogen formation, limits, and concerns in Containment. (7094)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 035 K1.01 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 2 effect relationships between the S/GS and the following systems: K/A # 035 K1.01 MFW/AFW systems Rating 4.2 Question 36 GIVEN:

• A Unit 1 plant startup is in progress per OP L-3, Secondary Plant Startup

• The reactor is at 19% power with a Main Feedwater Pump in service A steam generator level control malfunction results in S/G 1-2 level exceeding 90%. All other steam generator levels are on program.

Which of the following automatic AFW pump starts will occur?

A. The motor driven AFW pumps will immediately start. The TDAFW pump will not be started.

B. The motor driven AFW pumps will start after a time delay. The TDAFW pump will not be started.

C. All AFW pumps will immediately start.

D. All AFW pumps will start following a time delay.

Proposed Answer: A. The motor driven AFW pumps will immediately start. The TDAFW pump will not be started.

Explanation:

A. Correct. Steam Generator Level > 90% is P-14. This Trips both Main feed Pumps resulting in an immediate start signal to Motor Driven pumps only. The TDAFW pump will not be started.

B. Incorrect. Although steam generator levels are not low, the AFW pumps (MDAFW) will start due to the trip of the MFW pumps.

C. Incorrect. Only the Motor Driven AFW pumps start on Trip of Main Feed Pumps.

D. Incorrect. Only the Motor Driven AFW pumps start on Trip of Main Feed Pumps. A time delay is only associated with the low-low steam generator start signal below 50% power Technical

References:

OIM B-6-2, D-1-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40559 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the steam generators Question Source: Bank # 19 L081 (NRC Exam 1/2010) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 072 A1.01 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in Group # 2 parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with K/A # 072 A1.01 operating the ARM system controls including: Radiation levels Rating 3.4 Question 37 GIVEN:

• Both units are at full power

• All Control Room Vent Train Mode Selector Switches are in Mode 1.

Control Room Vent Intake radiation monitors, 1-RE-25 and 1-RE-26, go into high alarm.

Control Room Press Intake radiation monitors, 1-RE-51 and 52, are not in alarm.

Which of the following describes the effect on the Control Room Ventilation System lineup?

A. The system switches to Mode 3 and S-99, Unit 1 Pressurization Fan, starts.

B. The system switches to Mode 3 and S-97, Unit 2 Pressurization Fan, starts.

C. The system switches to Mode 4 and S-99, Unit 1 Pressurization Fan, starts.

D. The system switches to Mode 4 and S-97, Unit 2 Pressurization Fan, starts.

Proposed Answer: D. The system switches to Mode 4 and S-97, Unit 2 Pressurization Fan, starts.

Explanation:

The predicted parameter for the KA is the alignment of the Control Room ventilation system to prevent exceeding 10CFR dose in the CR due to high radiation.

A. Incorrect. Mode 3 is a full recirc mode of operation, originally designed for chlorine.

However, its plausible to think a full recirc mode would be preferred if there is high radiation. (no pressurization fans start in Mode 3)

B. Incorrect. Incorrect. Mode 3 is a full recirc mode of operation, originally designed for chlorine. However, its plausible to think a full recirc mode would be preferred if there is high radiation. (no pressurization fans start in Mode 3)

C. Incorrect. The opposite unit pressurization fan starts. The Unit 1 fan could start if there is radiation at the suction of Unit 2 fan.

D. Correct. The mode switches to mode 4 and the opposite unit pressurization fan starts.

Technical

References:

LH-5 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Control Room Ventilation System - Mode 4 Operation Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.11 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 079 K4.01 - Knowledge of SAS design feature(s) and/or Group # 2 interlock(s) which provide for the following: Cross-connect with K/A # 079 K4.01 IAS Rating 2.9 Question 38 Instrument air (IA) has been aligned to supply Service air (SA) through automatic cross-tie valve, PCV-114.

Which of the following describes how PCV-114 responds to a leak that develops on the service air header?

PCV-114 closes on:

A. low IA pressure.

B. low SA pressure.

C. high IA flow.

D. high SA flow.

Proposed Answer: A. low IA pressure.

Explanation:

A. Correct. PCV closes on low IA pressure.

B. Incorrect. Closes on lowering IA pressure. Its plausible to believe its SA pressure that causes isolation.

C. Incorrect. Plausible that high flow, due to a leak, causes isolation.

D. Incorrect. Plausible that high flow, due to a leak, causes isolation.

Technical

References:

LK-1, STG K-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the basic flow path of the Compressed Air System. (7227)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 007 G2.2.44 - Reactor Trip - Stabilization - Group # 1 Recovery: Ability to interpret control room indications to K/A # EPE 007 G2.2.44 verify the status and operation of a system, and Rating 4.2 understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.

Question 39 GIVEN:

• The crew has entered E-0.1, Reactor Trip Response

• Startup power has been lost

• Highest Core Exit Thermocouple is 590°F and stable

• RCS pressure is 2050 psig

• All Steam Generator pressures approximately 985 psig and stable

• RCS Hot leg temperatures are 595°F and stable

• RCS Cold Leg temperatures are 540 - 545°F and stable The crew is verifying natural circulation.

Natural circulation:

A. exists and may be enhanced by opening the condenser dump valves.

B. exists and may be enhanced by opening the SG atmospheric dump valves.

C. does NOT exist, but may be established by opening the SG atmospheric dump valves.

D. does NOT exist, but may be established by opening the Condenser Steam Dump Valves.

Proposed Answer: B. exists and may be enhanced by opening the SG atmospheric dump valves.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. With the loss of offsite power to startup, the circ pumps are not available therefore, condenser steam dumps are not available.

B. Correct. Saturation for 985 psig (1000 psia), is 544.6 °F. 540 - 545 meet the criteria that Tcolds at saturation temperature for S/G Pressure (within meter readability).

C. Incorrect. the delta T is large which may cause the candidate to believe natural circ is not established and Thots are well above Tsat for steam generator pressure. However, a large delta T, approaching full power delta T should be expected once natural circ is established.

Tcolds should be at Tsat for the steam generators, not Thot.

D. Incorrect. Condenser dumps are not available and natural circ is established.

Technical

References:

E-0.1 step 10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 5810 - Identify the parameters used to verify natural circulation flow Question Source: Bank # NRC-45992 (not DCPP exam) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 009 EA2.11 - Ability to determine or interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to a small break LOCA: Containment K/A # EPE 009 EA2.11 temperature, pressure, and humidity (N/A) Rating 3.8 Question 40 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power

• Pressurizer level is 45% and lowering at 2%/minute

• RCS pressure is 1980 psig and lowering at 10 psig/minute

• All pressurizer heaters are energized

• Containment Pressure is 1.3 psig and rising at approximately 0.2 psig/minute

• Containment temperature is 108°F and rising at approximately 1°F/min

• The crew is performing AP-1, Excessive Reactor Coolant System Leakage In 10 minutes, the reactor will be tripped and SI will ________________ and the Main Steam Isolation valves will be ____________________. (Assume no change in the parameter trends.)

A. not have actuated; closed B. not have actuated; open C. have actuated; open D. have actuated; closed Proposed Answer: C. have actuated; open Explanation:

Containment pressure SI will occur when pressure rises an additional 1.3 psig, at 0.2 psi/min, it would take about 9 minutes to reach 3.0 psig. In 10 minutes, RCS pressure will be approximately 1930 psig.

A. Incorrect. RCS pressure in 10 minutes will be 1930 psig - above the RCS low pressure SI setpoint (1850 psig). If the rise in containment pressure is missed, this would be correct if its thought containment pressure is a main steam line isolation (it does occur on Phase B).

B. Incorrect. RCS pressure will be above SI setpoint however, containment pressure setpoint will have been reached (incorrect). The MSIVs will be open (correct).

C. Correct. Containment pressure will be 3.3 psig and above the SI setpoint. The MSIVs do close on containment pressure but its high-high (Phase B) containment pressure, not high containment pressure, so they will still be open.

D. Incorrect. Containment pressure in 10 minutes will be 3.3 psig. SI setpoint is 3 psig (correct), however, the MSIVs will be OPEN.

Technical

References:

AP-1, OIM B-6-4b B-6-5 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3465 - Identify and discuss RCS leakage paths, including means used to detect and identify leaks.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 011 EA1.04 - EA1.04 Ability to operate and monitor Group # 1 the following as they apply to a Large Break LOCA: ESF K/A # EPE 011 EA1.04 actuation system in manual Rating 4.4 Question 41 A design basis LOCA has occurred.

Phase A and Phase B did NOT actuate as required.

1. What is the minimum required action to manually actuate Phase A?

2. What is the minimum required action to manually actuate Phase B?

A. 1. ONE Phase A switch to Actuate.

2. ONE Phase B switch to Actuate.

B. 1. ONE Phase A switch to Actuate.

2. BOTH Phase B switches to Actuate.

C. 1. BOTH Phase A switches to Actuate.

2. ONE Phase B switch to Actuate.

D. 1. BOTH Phase A switches to Actuate.

2. BOTH Phase B switches to Actuate.

Proposed Answer: B. ONE Phase A switch to Actuate. 2. BOTH Phase B switches to Actuate.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Unlike some signals which are train specific, such as Phase A, or SI, to actuate Phase B, BOTH switches must be taken to ACTUATE.

B. Correct. For phase A, either switch will actuate both trains, for Phase B, both switches are required.

C. Incorrect. Both Phase B switches required and for Phase A, only one required.

D. Incorrect. Both switches required phase B and both phase A would work but it is not the minimum required.

Technical

References:

OOIM B-6-7 and B-6-8 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Reactor Protection System. (37048)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 015/017 - Knowledge of the interrelations between the Group # 1 Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) K/A # APE015/017 and the following: RCP seals AK2.07 Rating 2.9 Question 42 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

Which of the following RCP seal parameters would indicate a FAILURE of the # 2 Seal?

1. 1 Seal Leakoff Flow (gpm) RCDT Level Trend A. 2.0 Trending Up B. 0.5 No Change C. 2.0 No Change D. 0.5 Trending Up Proposed Answer: D. 0.5 Trending Up Explanation:

A. Incorrect because indicated No. 1 seal leakoff flow would be low, as a significant portion of the flow would be going through the No. 2 seal to the RCDT instead of to the VCT.

Plausible because RCDT level would be trending up.

B. Incorrect because RCDT level would be trending up. Plausible because indicated No. 1 seal flow would be lower.

C. Incorrect because RCDT level would be trending up and indicated No. 1 seal leakoff flow would be lower. Plausible because actual No. 1 seal leakoff would not be significantly affected. However, indicated leakoff flow would be less.

D. Correct. No. 1 seal leakoff flow would be allowed to flow through the failed No. 2 seal to the RCDT. As a result, indicated No. 1 seal leakoff flow to the VCT would be less, and RCDT level would be trending up.

Technical

References:

OP AP-28 pages 7 and 16, 17 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 6137 - Explain effects of RCP seal failures.

Question Source: Bank NRC 01/2010 (#1 L081) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 022 AK1.02 - Knowledge of the operational implications of Group # 1 the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Reactor Coolant K/A # APE 022 Makeup: Relationship of charging flow to pressure differential AK1.02 between charging and RCS Rating 2.7 Question 43 GIVEN:

• The plant is in MODE 5, solid RCS conditions

• One train of RHR in service

• Letdown Pressure Control Valve, PCV-135, is in AUTO

• RHR Letdown Flow is being maintained via CVCS to RHR valve, HCV-133

• Charging Flow control is in MANUAL

• LTOP orifice is in service

• Charging pump 1-3 is running Charging pump 1-3 trips. The crew closes PCV-135.

The crew is preparing to place CCP 1-1 in service.

Prior to starting CCP 1-1, which of the following actions should be taken to minimize the pressure transient when the pump is started?

A. Set HCV-133 to 100%.

B. Align the LTOP orifice to the 1-1 CCP.

C. Open PCV-135 to 40% demand in MANUAL.

D. Throttle FCV-128, Charging Flow Control valve, significantly.

Proposed Answer: D. Throttle FCV-128, Charging Flow Control valve, significantly.

Explanation:

KA is to test the relationship of charging and RCS pressure. When the 1-3 is running the LTOP orifice is in service to reduce the discharge pressure of the charging system. This orifice is only on the 1-3 pump. Starting another CCP requires "significant throttling" to preclude a high flow condition, if solid, this would result in a pressure transient A. Incorrect. Opening HCV-133 would not help the transient as PCV-135 is closed.

B. Incorrect. This is the device that limits the discharge pressure, however, it is only in the flowpath for charging pump 1-3.

C. Incorrect. 40% demand is what the valve is set to when restoring letdown. In manual, it would not be able to respond to rising pressure.

D. Correct. The discharge pressure of CCP 1-1 is not limited by the LTOP orifice. With the low RCS pressure and high discharge pressure, the high DP would result in a high flow rate into a solid RCS.

Technical

References:

OIM B-1-1, B-1A:V References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the CVCS. (40449)

Question Source: Bank #

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 025 AK2.05 Knowledge of the interrelations between Group # 1 the Loss of Residual Heat Removal System and the K/A # APE025 AK2.05 following: Reactor building sump Rating 2.6 Question 44 The crew has entered ECA-1.3, "Sump Blockage Guideline."

The operator has been instructed to throttle RHR Flow Control valves, HCV-637 and HCV-638.

Per the ECA-1.3 bases, why would it be necessary to throttle these valves?

A. Maintain flow less than 1500 gpm.

B. Delay depletion of RWST inventory.

C. Prevent/stop cavitation of the running RHR pump.

D. Maintain less than 57 amps on the running RHR pump.

Proposed Answer: C. Prevent/stop cavitation of the running RHR pump.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 1500 gpm is a limit in some operating procedures, such as draining to mid-loop (A-2:III).

B. Incorrect. This is a goal of ECA-1.3 and there are a number of steps, such as 8 through 11 dealing with flow from the RWST and makeup to the RWST. Throttling would reduce flow and could be believed conserves inventory C. Correct. The valves are throttled if there is indication of cavitation or to prevent cavitation when establishing recirculation flow.

D. Incorrect. 57 amps is a limit in E-1.3 Technical

References:

EOP ECA-1.3 Sump Blockage Guideline steps 1 and 7; EOP E-1.3 Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation step 9; EOP ECA-1.1 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation page 1; OP A.2.III Reactor Vessel - Draining to Half Loop / Half Loop Operations with Fuel in Vessel step 5.8; LPE-1C page 50 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps for ECA-1.3 (46462)

Question Source: Bank NRC 03/2012 (#44 L091C) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 026 AK3.04 Knowledge of the reasons for the following Group # 1 responses as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling K/A # APE026 AK3.04 Water: Effect on the CCW flow header of a loss of CCW Rating 3.5 Question 45 Unit 1 is at full power.

A large leak on CCW header C results in the crew closing the CCW inlet and outlet valves to the header.

Which of the following actions would be expected due to the loss of CCW flow to header C?

The plant will be ___________ due to the isolation of CCW flow to the ____________.

A. tripped; RCP thermal barriers B. tripped; RCP lube oil coolers C. shutdown; RCP thermal barriers D. shutdown; RCP lube oil coolers Proposed Answer: B. tripped; RCP lube oil coolers Explanation:

Both the thermal barriers and the lube oil coolers will lose cooling. As long as seal injection is in service, the effect of the loss of cooling to thermal barriers is minimal. However, the loss of cooling to the lube oil coolers will cause the RCP motor temperatures to rise and the reactor is tripped (and all RCPs stopped).

A. Incorrect. CCW to the thermal barriers is isolated but a trip is not required.

B. Correct. Due to the loss of cooling to the lube oil coolers, AP-11 requires a reactor trip (and subsequent stopping of RCPs)

C. Incorrect. Because its the non-vital header and seal injection is in service, its plausible to think a shutdown is performed.

D. Incorrect. A shutdown is less of a transient and the header is non-vital, so a shutdown is plausible.

Technical

References:

AP-11 section E pages 17 & 18, LF-2 page 28 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 35490 Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the CCW system Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 027AK3.03 Knowledge of the reasons for the following Group # 1 responses as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control K/A # APE 027 AK3.03 Malfunctions: Actions contained in EOP for PZR PCS Rating 3.7 malfunction Question 46 GIVEN:

The crew is performing the actions of E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture Efforts to depressurize the RCS using pressurizer spray valves or PORVs have been unsuccessful The crew has attempting to establish Auxiliary Spray to depressurize the RCS.

Delta-T should not exceed ______ to prevent thermal shock of the ________________.

A. 320°F; aux spray line B. 300°F; aux spray line C. 320°F; pressurizer spray nozzle D. 300°F; pressurizer spray nozzle Proposed Answer: C. 320°F; pressurizer spray nozzle Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The limit is for the pressurizer spray valve (nozzle), not the aux spray line. The aux spray valve opened, (8145 OR 8148) is left open to limit thermal fatigue to one cycle, however, the delta-T limit is for the pressurizer spray valve (nozzle).

B. Incorrect. This is the limit between the liquid space and the loop 2 hot leg to prevent thermal stratification.

C. Correct. The limit is 320°F, to limit thermal stress of the pressurizer spray valve (nozzle).

D. Incorrect. Correct component, but this delta T is for thermal stratification.

Technical

References:

E-3 caution and step 23, A-2:IX, E-3 Background, LPE-3 (page 25)

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the Pressurizer, Pressure &

Level Control System. (36926).

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 029 EA1.02 - Ability to operate and monitor the Group # 1 following as they apply to a ATWS: Charging pump K/A # EPE 029 EA1.02 suction valves from RWST operating switch Rating 3.6 Question 47 GIVEN:

• The reactor fails to automatically trip and the crew enters FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS

• VCT level is 24%

• All RCPs are running

• Main Feedwater pumps are running

• Both Motor Driven AFW pumps are running The operator is establishing emergency boration in accordance with FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS.

What action will the operator take to initiate emergency boration?

A. Initiate Safety Injection, then check the red lights LIT for RWST Outlet valves, 8805A and B, and the green lights LIT for VCT Outlet Valves, LCV-112B and C, and verify least 90 gpm charging flow.

B. Take the control switches for RWST Outlet valves 8805A or B to OPEN, then, when the RED light is lit (and GREEN light out), take control switch for VCT Outlet Valves, LCV-112B or C to CLOSE and verify at least 90 gpm charging flow.

C. Check the Red lights LIT for VCT Outlet Valves, LCV-112B and C and align for normal boration of at least 30 gpm.

D. Place the control switch for Emergency Borate valve, 8104, to OPEN until the RED light is ON and ensure at least 30 gpm emergency boration flow.

Proposed Answer: B. Take the control switches for RWST Outlet valves 8805A and B to OPEN, when RED lights are LIT, take control switches for VCT Outlet Valves, LCV-112B and C to CLOSE and verify at least 90 gpm charging flow.

Explanation:

Meets KA in that the lights are part of the switch circuit. .

A. Incorrect. Auto swapover has not occurred (low VCT level or SI). Procedure directs aligning RWST and establishing at least 90 gpm charging flow.

B. Correct. If MFP's are running, no SI has occurred. Because VCT level is above 5%, no auto swapover has occurred. The procedure directs opening 8805 A (OR) B and closing VCT isolations, 112B (OR) C.

C. Incorrect. This is the normal alignment in AP-6, Emergency Boration (and the action that would be performed if unable to establish flow from the RWST in FR-S.1)

D. Incorrect. This is the action for alternate flowpath in AP-6, Emergency Boration.

Technical

References:

FR-S.1, AP-6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40448 - Describe the controls, indications, and alarms associated with the DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

CVCS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 038 G2.1.28 - SGTR: Knowledge of the purpose and Group # 1 function of major system components and controls. K/A # EPE038 G2.1.28 Rating 4.1 Question 48 A Steam Generator Tube Rupture has occurred and EOP E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, has been entered. Depressurization of the RCS is in progress.

The PRIMARY purpose of opening the RCS sprays valves, or PORVs, to depressurize the RCS is for which of the following?

A. To establish sub-cooling and prevent ruptured steam generator overfill.

B. To establish sub-cooling and collapse voids that may occur in the reactor vessel head.

C. To minimize break flow and collapse voids that may occur in the reactor vessel head.

D. To minimize break flow and establish pressurizer level.

Proposed Answer: D. To minimize break flow and establish pressurizer level.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Subcooling is minimized in this step.

B. Incorrect. Subcooling is minimized as RCS pressure lowers. Head void formation is not a concern for a SGTR.

C. Incorrect. Head void formation is not a concern for a SGTR and actually may occur during depressurization.

D. Correct. Break flow is minimized by lowering RCS pressure to lower than ruptured steam generator pressure. Also, pressurizer level should be established as injection flow rises.

Technical

References:

EOP E-3 (Steam Generator Tube Rupture), LPE-3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920F - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (E-3 series)

Question Source: Bank NRC 01/2010 (#47 L081) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 040 AA2.02 -Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Steam Line Rupture: K/A # APE 040 AA2.02 Conditions requiring a reactor trip Rating 4.6 Question 49 Unit 1 is at 100% power.

The following events occur:

• PK09-02, SG 1-2 PRESS, LVL, FLOW alarms.

• Steam flow from the 1-2 Steam Generator has risen above feed flow

• Steam Generator 1-2 level is 67% and rising

• Reactor power is rising

• Turbine load is stable Which of the following states the probable failure and the action that should be taken by the crew?

A. A steam flow channel has failed, go to AP-5, Malfunction of Eagle 21 Protection or Control Channel.

B. A main feedwater regulating valve controller is malfunctioning, place the controller in MANUAL and attempt to restore level.

C. A Steam Generator Safety has opened, trip the reactor.

D. A Steam Generator Safety has opened, reduce turbine load as necessary to maintain reactor power less than 100% while taking corrective action.

Proposed Answer: C. A Steam Generator Safety has opened, trip the reactor.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect, no channel failure has occurred (reactor power and steam flow increasing)

B. Incorrect. While level is rising, it is due to swell (increasing steam flow), not a problem with the main feed reg valve.

C. Correct. Given the plant conditions, an increase in steam flow has occurred. A steam generator safety passes sufficient steam flow to cause a steam/feed flow mismatch and swell due to increased steam flow. If a safety has opened at power, it is below the setpoint where it should be closed. Per AR PK09-02, if a steam generator safety is open, the action is to trip the reactor.C incorrect, no channel failure has occurred (reactor power and steam flow has increased).

D. Incorrect, the action to take is trip the reactor, (it cannot be isolated).

Technical

References:

AR PK09-02, SG 1-2 PRESS, LVL, FLOW References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40559 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the steam generators Question Source: Bank NRC 04/2007 (#35 L051) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 054 AA1.01 Ability to operate and / or monitor the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of Main Feedwater K/A # APE 054 AA1.01 (MFW): AFW controls, including the use of alternate AFW Rating 4.5 sources Question 50 The crew is performing the actions of FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Which of the following describes the setpoint for switching AFW suction to an alternate source and what is the preferred alternate source?

A. 10% CST level; FWST B. 33% CST level; FWST C. 10% CST level; Raw Water Reservoir D. 33% CST level; Raw Water Reservoir Proposed Answer: A. 10% CST level; FWST Explanation:

A. Answer A correct - setpoint for switchover is 10%, preferred source IAW OP D-1:V is the FWST.

B. Answer B incorrect - setpoint is 10%. 33% is the (RWST) cold leg recirc switchover setpoint.

C. Answer C incorrect - RWR is the second preferred source.

D. Answer D incorrect - setpoint is 10%, RWR is the second preferred source.

Technical

References:

FR-H.1 Fold Out Page, and OP D-1:V References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3850 - Describe system interrelationships between the AFW system and other plant systems Question Source: Bank NRC 02/2009 (L061 #49) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 055 EK1.02 Knowledge of the operational Group # 1 implications of the following concepts as they apply to the K/A # EPE 055 EK1.02 Station Blackout: Natural circulation cooling Rating 4.1 Question 51 The crew is performing ECA-0.0, Loss of All Vital AC Power, step 18, DEPRESSURIZE Intact Steam Generators To Reduce RCS Pressure To Inject Accumulators.

Which of the following conditions, monitored during the depressurization, would cause the crew to stop the depressurization in order to ensure natural circulation is not interrupted?

A. RCS cold leg temperatures lower to less than 310°F.

B. Steam generator pressures lower to less than 300 psig.

C. RCS Loop 1 hot leg temperature stabilizes.

D. Pressurizer level goes offscale low.

Proposed Answer: B. Steam generator pressures lower to less than 300 psig.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. temperature limit ensures a challenge to RCS integrity does not occur.

B. Correct. Caution prior to the step states: Accumulator Nitrogen injection into the RCS may occur if S/Gs are Depressurized to LESS THAN 200 PSIG. From the bases: Steam generators should be depressurized to maximize delivery (into the RCS) of the water contained in the SI accumulators while minimizing delivery of nitrogen. Maintaining steam generator pressures above a value that prevents introduction of a significant volume of nitrogen into the RCS ensures that accumulator nitrogen will not impede natural circulation. Depressurization is stopped at 300 psig prevents this from occurring.

C. Incorrect. Indication of a stagnated/inactive loop is not in the criteria for terminating the cooldown in ECA-0.0. However, it is plausible because guidance in EOP E-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown, calls for reducing the cooldown rate by half if this occurs.

D. Incorrect. Note in the step states: PZR Level may be lost and Reactor Vessel Upper Head VOIDING may occur due to depressurization of S/Gs. Depressurization SHOULD NOT be stopped to prevent these occurrences.

Technical

References:

ECA-0.0, ECA-0.0 background for step 17 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920G - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (ECA-0 series) including: Bases for TCOAs with operator actions of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less.

Question Source: Bank NRC 04/2007 (#50 L051) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 057 AK3.01 - Knowledge of the reasons for the Group #

following responses as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC K/A # APE 057 AK3.01 Instrument Bus: Actions contained in EOP for loss of vital Rating 4.1 ac electrical instrument bus Question 52 Unit 1 is performing a plant startup. Reactor power is 6%.

PY-11 loses power. The operator notes the following:

1. Source Range, N energized and reading high

2. Intermediate Range, N deenergized

3. Power Range, N deenergized Which of the failures listed above generated a trip signal and caused the crew to enter E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection?

A. 1, only.

B. 2, only.

C. 1 and 2.

D. 2 and 3.

Proposed Answer: B. 2, only.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. While the source range is energized, P-6 isstill blocking the SR high flux trip.

B. Correct. Loss of power to N35 causes it to fail low AND trip the bistable for IR High Flux trip (1 or 2) and because power is less than 10%, the reactor trips.

C. Incorrect. The source range will not cause a trip.

D. Incorrect. The trip bistables for the power range channel will energize, but no coincidence will be met, only the IR will cause a trip.

Technical

References:

OP AP-4, Section A and Attachment 1.

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain the consequences of loss of vital instrument bus. (4274)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Redsox16 Level RO Examination Outline Cross-Reference Tier # 1 APE 058 AA1.02 Ability to operate and / or monitor the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of DC Power: Static K/A # APE 058 AA1.02 inverter dc input breaker, frequency meter, ac output Rating 3.1 breaker, and ground fault detector Question 53 The plant is at full power.

PK 19-19, UPS Failure alarms. Inverter input voltages have not changed and there are no other alarms.

Which of the following has occurred?

A. Loss of a bypass regulating transformer B. Loss of UPS AC output to a PY panel C. The AC input breaker for an inverter has opened D. The DC input breaker for an inverter has opened Proposed Answer: D. The DC input breaker for an inverter has opened Explanation:

A. Incorrect. No change in voltage, however, it is not a failure of the UPS. PK19-18 alarms.

B. Incorrect. While it alarm PK19-19, output voltage would be zero and the PY de-energized,with multiple alarms.

C. Incorrect. PK19-18, not PK19-19, alarms, not a failure input and voltage would be slightly lower.

D. Correct. Loss of DC alarms PK19-19 but voltage does not change due to the inverter still supplied by the AC source, which is at a slightly higher voltage.

Technical

References:

ARPK19-18, 19-19, J-10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37807- Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Instrument AC System Question Source: Bank NRC 07/2011 (#13 L091) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E04 EK2.1 Knowledge of the interrelations between the (LOCA Group # 1 Outside Containment) and the following: Components, and K/A # E04 EK2.1 functions of control and safety systems, including Rating 3.5 instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Question 54 The crew is performing ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment.

The operator is instructed to close 8809A, RHR to Cold Legs 1 and 2.

Which of the following describes the condition(s) that must be met to close 8809A NOTE:

8701 - RCS RHR Suct LP4 HL 8702 - RCS RHR Suct LP4 HL 8703- RHR to hot legs 1 and 2 A. 8701 or 8702 closed only.

B. 8701 or 8702 closed AND series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN".

C. 8703 closed AND series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN".

D. Series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN", only.

Proposed Answer: D. Series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN", only.

Explanation:

All 3 valves are verified closed (step 1) prior to operating 8809A (step 2). However, none of these prevent operation of 8809A. Only the series contactor must be cutin.

A incorrect. These valves are in series and are interlocked when placing RHR in service. They are verified closed in the step before operating 8809A, but are not interlocked with the valve.

B incorrect. The series contactor must be closed but the valves are not interlocked.

C incorrect. 8703 is not interlocked with 8809A.

D correct\. One contact on each phase closes, which allows AC to be applied to the motor when the switch is taken to the open or close position. The contactors are normally "cutout" to prevent inadvertent operation. The only requirement to operate 8809A is to take the contactor to "cutin".

Technical

References:

LB-2, ECA-1.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the RHR System.

Question Source: Bank (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E11 EA2.2 - Ability to determine and interpret the following as Group # 1 they apply to the (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation). K/A # E11 EA2.2 Adherence to appropriate procedures and operation within the Rating 3.4 limitations in the facilitys license and amendments.

Question 55 Unit 1 has experienced a Loss of Coolant Accident. The crew has entered ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Recirculation due to loss of both RHR Pumps.

They are performing step 13, "Establish One Train Of SI Flow.

In accordance with ECA-1.1, which of the following alignments for Charging Pumps (CCP) and Safety Injection Pumps (SIP) would be acceptable?

A. CCP 1-3 and SIP 1-2 running B. CCP 1-1 and SIP 1-1 running C. CCP 1-2 and SIP 1-2 running D. CCP 1-3 and SIP 1-1 running Proposed Answer: C. CCP 1-2 and SIP 1-2 running Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Either CCP 1-1 or 1-2 should be running during accident conditions, although CCP 1-3 is functional, it is the non-ECCS CCP. Plausible because CCP 1-3 and SIP 1-2 are powered from different buses, which meets the guidance in the note prior to step 13.

B. Incorrect - The note before step 13 provides guidance to leave pumps in alternate trains running. This refers to power supplies such that if a single power supply was lost, that all running equipment would not be simultaneously lost. CCP 1-1 and SIP 1-1 are both from bus F and does not meet the alternate train guidance.

C. Correct - CCP 1-2 and SIP 1-2 meet the alternate train requirement because they are powered from Vital 4 kV buses G and H respectively.

D. Incorrect - Either CCP 1-1 or 1-2 should be running. CCP 1-3 is the non-ECCS CCP.

Plausible because CCP 1-3 is powered from bus G (train B) and SIP 1-1 is from bus F (train A).

Technical

References:

ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Recirculation, Revision 24 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps for ECA-1.1. (42460)

Question Source: Bank (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E05 G2.4.18 - Loss of Secondary Heat Sink: Knowledge of the Group # 1 specific bases for EOPs. K/A # E05 G2.4.18 Rating 3.3 Question 56 GIVEN:

• The crew has transitioned out of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection

• PK08-21, Safety Injection Actuation is ON

• Charging injection flow is 210 gpm

• RCS pressure is 2285 psig and rising

• RCS temperature is 550°F and rising

• Total Aux feed flow is 0 gpm

• Steam generator narrow range levels are offscale low

• Steam generator wide range levels are 33% and lowering Why will the RCPs be tripped under these conditions?

A. so natural circulation can be established.

B. so bleed and feed can be immediately established.

C. to prevent core uncovery if they trip later in the event.

D. to delay the time until bleed and feed must be initiated.

Proposed Answer: D. to delay the time until bleed and feed must be initiated.

Explanation:

Given the conditions, a determination must be made that a loss of secondary heat sink has occurred and then determine the reason the RCPs are tripped in FR-H.1 A. Incorrect. Removing RCP heat input to the RCS is the reason. Plausible because natural circulation must now be established and is adequate to remove decay heat.

B. Incorrect. If bleed and feed must be established, tripping RCPs is an action on the foldout page, however, its to remove the heat input.

C. Incorrect. Removing RCP heat input to the RCS is the reason. This is the reason they are tripped for a small LOCA.

D. Correct. RCPs are stopped to reduce heat input to the RCS to make the water in the SGs last longer, to delay the time until RCS bleed and feed must be initiated.

Technical

References:

FR-H.1 & background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Hs) (7920N)

Question Source: Bank # B-0063 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 024 G2.4.6 - Emergency Boration: Knowledge of EOP Group # 2 mitigation strategies. K/A # APE024 G2.4.6 Rating 3.7 Question 57 Which of the following lists the first three (3) boration options from MOST preferred to LEAST preferred to mitigate a positive reactivity event in accordance with OP AP-6, Emergency Boration?

1. Emergency boration valve, CVCS-8104.

2. VCT makeup system, FCV-110A.

3. RWST, SI-8805A/B A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 2 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 3, 1 Proposed Answer: C. 2, 1, 3 Explanation:

Per OP AP-6 Four Emergency Boration Methods

1. Start VCT makeup control in BORATE, Set BA flow SP > 30 gpm

2. Open Emergency Borate valve, CVCS-8104.

3. Swap charging pump suction to RWST & verify at least 90 gpm charging flow.

4. Locally open Manual Emergency Borate valve, CVCS-8471 (100' Blender Room).

A. Incorrect. The Emergency Borate valve is the second preferred choice. Plausible because the procedure is named "Emergency Boration."

B. Incorrect. 8104 is second preferred.

C. Correct. The preferred order is makeup; 8104 then RWST D. Incorrect. RWST is the least preferred of the 3 listed Technical

References:

OP AP-6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of the abnormal operating procedure to mitigate an event in progress. Order of emergency boration.

(3477)

Question Source: Bank # P-68694 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 028 AA2.09 - Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 2 following as they apply to the Pressurizer Level Control K/A # APE028 AA2.09 Malfunctions: Charging and letdown flow capacities Rating 2.9 Question 58 GIVEN:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power Letdown flow is 75 gpm CCP 1-3 is the only running charging pump FT-128 fails HIGH.

Which of the following completes the statements?

1. With no operator action, in approximately ________ minutes, PK 05-21, PZR LEVEL HI/LOW will alarm.

2. The operators should place FCV-128 CENT CHG PPS FLOW CONT in MANUAL and

_________ output to restore Pressurizer Level A. 4 to 5 minutes; lower B. 7 to 8 minutes; lower C. 3.5 to 4.5 minutes; raise D. 7 to 8 minutes; raise Proposed Answer: C. 3.5 to 4.5 minutes; raise Explanation:

FT-128 failing high causes FCV-128 to go full CLOSED. Level will drop and HC-459D output will rise to attempt to maintain level. With FCV-128 full closed, there is zero charging flow and the net loss from the RCS is 75 gpm. The level deviation of 5% is approximately 300 gallons (60 gallons/%). It will take 4 minutes to get the deviation alarm. NOTE: FI-128 would indicate 200 gpm (based on FT-128 failing high)

A. Incorrect. 150 gpm (design flow) - 87 gpm = 4.76 minutes.

B. Incorrect. 125 gpm (normal flow) - 87 gpm = 7.89 minutes.

C. Correct. ALL charging flow is lost as FCV-128 goes full closed. The net is 75 gpm (still have seal return), this time is 4 minutes.

D. Incorrect. If its assumed flow goes to minimum flow established by HC-459D when in Auto and there is a large level deviation of 47 gpm. there is a net loss of 40 gpm and the time would be 7.5 minutes Technical

References:

AR PK 5-21 PZR LEVEL HI/LOW; STP R-10C page 14, LA-4A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2b

Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2b

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E06 EK3.3 - Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses Group # 2 as they apply to degraded core cooling: Manipulation of controls K/A # E06 EK3.3 required to obtain the desired operating results during abnormal Rating 4.0 and emergency situations.

Question 59 The crew is performing the actions of EOP FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling.

The operator is directed to trip _____ RCP(s) in order to ___________.

A. 2; limit the heat input from two RCPs during a degraded core cooling condition B. 1; limit the heat input from one RCP during a degraded core cooling condition C. 2; preserve two pumps from damage that may occur during operation under highly voided conditions D. 1; preserve one pump from damage that may occur during operation under highly voided conditions Proposed Answer: D. 1; preserve one pump from damage that may occur during operation under highly voided conditions Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Only 1 RCP is stopped. Limiting heat input is an issue for FR-H.1.

B. Incorrect. Limiting heat input is an issue for FR-H.1.

C. Incorrect, Only 1 RCP is stopped.

D. Correct. One pump is stopped (preferably #2) due to operating in a highly voided condition. The other RCPs continue to provide single or two phase flow thru the core.

Technical

References:

LPE-C, FR-C.2 background, H.1 background, E-0.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920M - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Cs).

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank # B-0556 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 076 AA2.01 -Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 2 following as they apply to the High Reactor Coolant Activity: K/A # APE 076 Location or process point that is causing an alarm AA2.01 Rating 2.7 Question 60 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power. The following conditions exist:

• 75 gpm letdown is in service

• Charging pump 1-3 is running

• RCS Water Inventory Balance results this shift indicate 0.12 gpm identified leakage

• The Vibration/Loose Parts Monitor has been alarming, and fuel damage has resulted in high RCS activity equivalent to 1% clad failure.

• The crew is preparing to take the unit off line.

Which of the following radiation monitors would be expected to be in alarm for this scenario?

A. RM-30, 31 Containment High Range RM-4 Charging Pump 1-3 Room B. RM-12 Containment Gas RM-4 Charging Pump 1-3 Room C. RM-30, 31 Containment High Range RM-71, 72, 73 and 74 Main Steam Lines D. RM-12 Containment Gas RM-71, 72, 73 and 74 Main Steam Lines Proposed Answer: B. RM-12 Containment Gas; RM-4 Charging Pump 1-3 Room Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Containment high range radiation monitors RM30 and 31 are designed to come on scale (1 R/hr) when immersed in airborne radiation from a LOCA inside Containment.

They are located outside the secondary shield on the 140 ft elevation. They would not come on scale without a gross release of activity to the Containment atmosphere. Plausible because a 1% clad gap release to the coolant would cause a significant increase in radiation levels inside the secondary shield, and it may be thought that the monitors would respond to this. Also, the Charging Pump Room area monitor would be expected to respond.

B. Correct. RM-11 and 12 respond to venting RCS inside containment with normal RCS activity. 1% clad gap activity would raise RCS gross activity. A small amount of RCS leakage inside containment would cause RM-11 and RM-12 respond and go into alarm.

The activity of the RCS would be reduced somewhat by the letdown demineralizers, but activity would still be high. When this higher activity is passed through the running charging pump, the area monitor in the pump room would be expected to respond, (albeit delayed).

C. Incorrect. Containment high range radiation monitors RM30 and 31 would not come on scale without a gross release of activity to the Containment atmosphere (see explanation for answer choice A). Plausible because RM-71, 72, 73 and 74 are known to respond to high DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

activity levels in containment (LBLOCA), but in this case, the activity is largely contained within the RCS piping and would not produce the shine necessary for them to respond.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because RM-12 is expected to respond, and because RM-71 through 74 are known to respond to high activity levels in containment (LBLOCA), but in this case, the activity is largely contained within the RCS piping and would not produce the shine necessary for them to respond.

Technical

References:

LG-4A page 66 of 74 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37878 -Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the RMS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.9 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO E02 EK2.2 - SI termination: Knowledge of the interrelations Tier # 1 between SI termination and the following: Facilitys heat removal Group # 2 systems, incl primary coolant, emergency coolant, decay heat K/A # E02 EK2.2 removal systems, and relations between the proper operation of Rating 3.5 these systems to the operation of the facility.

Question 61 The primary SI Termination parameter used in the EOPs is __________ because it is the most direct indication that adequate ______ .

A. Pressurizer Level; inventory exists in the RCS.

B. Pressurizer Level; core heat removal is being maintained.

C. RCS subcooling; inventory exists in the RCS.

D. RCS subcooling; core heat removal is being maintained.

Proposed Answer: D. RCS subcooling; core heat removal is being maintained.

Explanation:

From the Executive Volume: From WOG SI Termination/Reinitiation: An indication of RCS subcooling, preferably at the core exit, is used in all SI termination criteria steps within the ERGs. Subcooling is the most direct indication available that core cooling is being adequately maintained. It also provides an indication that adequate secondary heat sink is being provided.

Core exit thermocouples are used in the ERGs to determine RCS subcooling because they provide the most direct indication of conditions at the hottest point in the RCS and they are not as susceptible to single loop effects, such as an isolated steam generator.

A. Incorrect. Two separate indications of RCS inventory are used in SI termination criteria steps, level and reactor vessel level. Pressurizer level should be relied on only with hot leg or core exit subcooling present. In SI termination steps in the ERGs, pressurizer level is only checked after adequate RCS subcooling is confirmed.

B. Incorrect. In SI termination steps in the ERGs, pressurizer level is only checked after adequate RCS subcooling is confirmed. Subcooling is the key criterion.

C. Incorrect. Two separate indications of RCS inventory are used in SI termination criteria steps, level and reactor vessel level. Subcooling is an indication of core heat removal, but is not a direct indication of RCS inventory.

D. Correct. An indication of RCS subcooling, preferably at the core exit, is used in all SI termination criteria steps within the ERGs. Subcooling is the most direct indication available that core cooling is being adequately maintained.

Technical

References:

Executive Volume: SI Termination/Reinitiation References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: State the criteria for SI termination (7685)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank # A-1035 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E13 EK1.3 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the Group # 2 following concepts as they apply to the (Steam Generator K/A # E13 EK1.3 Overpressure). Annunciators and conditions indicating signals, Rating 3.0 and remedial actions associated with the (Steam Generator Overpressure Question 62 The Heat Sink CSF has a YELLOW "GO TO H.2," (Response to Steam Generator Overpressurization), due to pressure in one steam generator rising to 1145 psig.

In accordance with the procedure, the crew is going to cooldown the RCS to less than _____

using the other three steam generators. This temperature corresponds to the ________.

A. 554°F; lowest steam generator safety valve opening setpoint B. 559°F; lowest steam generator safety valve opening setpoint C. 554°F; saturation temperature for criterion for entering FR-H.2 D. 559°F; saturation temperature for criterion for entering FR-H.2 Proposed Answer: A. 554 °F; lowest steam generator safety valve opening setpoint Explanation:

Cooling down to 554 is a remedial action, the fact that it corresponds to the lowest safety valve setpoint is the operational implication. The steam generator safety valves open at: 1065 psig, 1078 psig, 1090 psig, 1103 psig and 1115 psig.

A. Correct. The setpoint for the lowest steam safety valve is 1065 psig (1080 psia) for a Tsat of 554F.

B. Incorrect. 559 °F is saturation temperature for 1130 psia, which is the H.2 criterion of 1115 psig (and the pressure for the highest safety valve setpoint)

C. Incorrect. 554 °F is the saturation temperature for the lowest safety valve opening pressure of 1065 psig.

D. Incorrect. 559 °F is saturation temperature for 1130 psia which is the H.2 criterion of 1115 psig.

Technical

References:

LC-2A, LPEH, FR-H.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Hs) (7920N)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E15 EK1.2 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the Group # 2 following concepts as they apply to the (Containment Flooding): K/A # E15 EK1.2 Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures Rating 2.7 associated with containment flooding.

Question 63 Entry into FR-Z.2, Response to Containment Flooding is via a _________ path and the reason for the level criterion in step 1 of the procedure is to ______________.

A. magenta; prevent equipment damage.

B. magenta; limit containment sump dilution.

C. yellow; limit containment sump dilution.

D. yellow; prevent equipment damage.

Proposed Answer: A. magenta; prevent equipment damage.

Explanation:

A. Correct. FR-Z.2 is entered only on a magenta path. The yellow paths are for FR-Z.3.

The purpose of FR-Z.2 is to prevent flooding of equipment needed for safe shutdown of the plant.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because FR-Z.2 is entered only on a magenta path, and level above flooding criteria could mean dilution with a non-borated water source.

C. Incorrect. FR-Z.2 is entered only on a magenta path. Plausible because level above flooding criteria could mean dilution with a non-borated water source.

D. Incorrect. FR-Z.2 is entered only on a magenta path. Plausible because it is for prevention of equipment damage from flooding.

Technical

References:

FR-Z.2 background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3551R - Explain the general purpose/function (including MACs) of EOPs (FR-Zs)

Question Source: Bank (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E16 G2.4.20 - High Containment Radiation: Knowledge of the Group # 2 operational implications of EOP warnings, cautions, and notes. K/A # E16 G2.4.20 Rating 3.8 Question 64 GIVEN:

A LOCA has occurred Containment pressure is 2 psig The crew is performing the yellow path actions of FR-Z.3, Response to High Containment Radiation Level In accordance with FR-Z.3, the Shift Foreman is consulting with the TSC about starting the containment spray pumps Which of the following:

1. lists a radiation monitor that drives entry into FR-Z.3?

2. in accordance with the background for FR-Z.3, states the potential undesirable effect of starting the containment spray pumps?

NOTE:

RM Containment Area High Range Monitor RM-44A - Containment Exhaust A. 1. RM-30 2. Challenge the lower limit of containment pressure of -5.5 psig B. 1. RM-44A 2. Challenge the lower limit of containment pressure of -5.5 psig C. 1. RM-30 2.Challenge the lower limit of containment pressure of -3.5 psig D. 1. RM-44A 2. Challenge the lower limit of containment pressure of -3.5 psig Proposed Answer: C. 1. RM-30 2. Challenge the lower limit of containment pressure of -3.5 psig Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The negative pressure design limit for containment is -3.5 psig.

B. Incorrect. Radiation monitors RM-30 and 31 are the monitors that are criteria for entering FR-Z.3. The negative pressure design limit for containment is -3.5 psig.

C. Correct. Radiation monitors RM-30 and 31 are the monitors that are criteria for entering FR-Z.3. The negative pressure design limit for containment is -3.5 psig.

D. Incorrect. Radiation monitors RM-30 and 31 are the monitors that are criteria for entering FR-Z.3, not RM-44A and B.

Technical

References:

LPE-ZI, F-0, FR-Z.3 & background, LPE-ZI References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain the basis of emergency procedure steps. (7920Q)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #P-29660 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E08 EA1.2 - Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as Group # 2 they apply to the (RCS Overcooling). Operating behavior K/A # E08 EA1.2 characteristics of the facility. Rating 3.2 Question 65 GIVEN:

• The crew has transitioned from E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, to E-2, Faulted Steam Generator isolation, to FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition

• RCS pressure initially lowered to 800 psig and is 1000 psig and rising

• All ECCS pumps are running

• RVLIS Full range indicates 65% and rising

• RVLIS Dynamic range indicates 25% and stable The crew is checking if SI can be terminated.

The crew will _______ SI based on RVLIS ______.

A. reset; Full range B. reset; Dynamic range C. not reset; Full range D. not reset; Dynamic range Proposed Answer: A. reset; Full range Explanation:

The crew will be monitoring Full range of RVLIS based on no RCPs running. The setpoint is 60%, therefore, the crew will reset SI. RCPs will have been tripped based on RCS pressure less than 1300 psig and high head injection pumps running.

A. Correct. SI will be reset, full range is above 60%.

B. Incorrect. The dynamic range is used if RCPs are running, they are not. Note: The value for dynamic is above the procedure setpoint.

C. Incorrect. Full range is correct, the setpoint is 60%. Plausible to believe the setpoint must be closer to 100%.

D. Incorrect. Dynamic range is above setpoint but is not used when no RCPs are running.

Technical

References:

OIM A-2-2, FR-P.1, LA-2D References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Ps). (7920P)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.1.5 - Ability to use procedures related to shift staffing, such as Group # 1 minimum crew complement, overtime limitations, etc. K/A # 2.1.6 Rating 2.9 Question 66 According to OP1.DC37, Plant Logs, which of the following is the preferred operator for filling the Ops Responder position?

A. Turbine watch B. Auxiliary building watch C. Non-regen polisher watch D. Intake watch Proposed Answer: C. Non-regen polisher watch Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Turbine building watch is one of the possibilities listed but not the preferred.

B. Incorrect. Aux Building watch is one of the possibilities listed but not the preferred.

C. Correct. Per OP1.DC37, the preferred watchstander is an available Work Control Lead, then an extra operator, followed by the non-regen polisher watch.

D. Incorrect. Outside rounds (intake watch) is plausible because of the nature of the watch, but not listed as an option.

Technical

References:

OP1.DC37 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.1.19 - Ability to use plant computers to evaluate system or Group # 1 component status. K/A # 2.1.19 Rating 3.9 Question 67 Which of the following PPC Addressable Points Quality Codes colors would indicate a "BAD" (B) data point?

A. White B. Dark blue C. Magenta D. Orange Proposed Answer: C. Magenta Explanation:

A. Incorrect. White is used on RI or RD (rate of increase/decrease) points.

B. Incorrect. Dark blue is (?I) is uncertain/inserted input data.

C. Correct. Magenta "B" is a BAD data point. For scanned points, sensor or communication failure; for calculated point, not enough good inputs to be valid.

D. Incorrect. Orange is Bad/Out for Maintenance (M) or uncertain/out for maintenance (?M)

Technical

References:

system lesson LB-10A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7457 Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the SPDS Question Source: Bank DCPP Bank systems question S-34517 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.1.29 - Knowledge of how to conduct system lineups, such as Group # 1 valves, breakers, switches, etc. K/A # 2.1.29 Rating 4.1 Question 68 An operator is tasked with performing a breaker operation that if performed incorrectly could result in a significant reduction in power.

In accordance with OM15.ID8, Human Performance Error Prevention Tools, which of the following human performance tools requires the performer and verifier to reference the guiding document separately and mutually agree on the following?

• Component

• Expected equipment condition prior to action

• Action to take

• Equipment condition to achieve A. Peer checking B. Concurrent verification C. Independent verification D. Correct Component Verification Proposed Answer: B. Concurrent verification Explanation:

OM15.ID8, step 9.5.1 Concurrent verification shall be used if improper equipment manipulation can result in any of the following:

• Fuel damage

• Loss of a safety function

• Loss of reactivity control

• Death or disabling injury

• Overexposure to ionizing radiation

• Plant trip or unintended significant reduction in power

• Severe equipment damage or property loss

• OP1.ID5 Step 5.7.1.a

• Uncontrolled discharge or emission of harmful substances A. Incorrect. Peer check is performed by two operators, but at the same time and place to prevent an error by the performer.

B. Correct. CV is a series of actions taken by two workers working together, at the same time and place, to separately confirm the condition of a component before, during, and after an action, when consequences of an incorrect action would lead to immediate and irreversible harm to the plant or personnel.

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

C. Incorrect. A series of actions taken by at least two workers working separately and independently to confirm the condition of a component after the performer places it in that condition.

D. Incorrect. A comparison of the working documents to the equipment tags and labels to ensure the correct components has been located prior to operating equipment or beginning work.

Technical

References:

OM15.ID8 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the expectations for the use of Human Error Prevention Tools.

(41665)

Question Source: Bank # P-33379 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.2.3 - Knowledge of the design, procedural, and operational Group # 2 differences between units. K/A # 2.2.3 Rating 3.8 Question 69 Which of the following are the maximum allowable cooldown rates for Unit 1 and Unit 2 in E-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown?

A. The rates for Unit 1 and Unit 2 are the same, (25 °F/hour).

B. The rates for Unit 1 and Unit 2 are the same, (50 °F/hour).

C. The Unit 1 rate is half of the Unit 2 rate, (U1 - 25 °F/hour / U2 - 50 °F/hour).

D. The Unit 1 rate is twice of the Unit 2 rate, (U1 - 50 °F/hour / U2 - 25 °F/hour).

Proposed Answer: C. The Unit 1 rate is half of the Unit 2 rate, (U1 - 25 °F/hour / U2 - 50

°F/hour).

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Unit difference, max rate for U2 is 50 F/hr B. Incorrect. Unit difference, max for U1 is 25 F/hr, U2 is 50 F/hr C. Correct. Correct rates for Unit1 and Unit 2 D. Incorrect. Correct rates but for wrong units.

Technical

References:

E-0.2 (unit 1 and 2)

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920C - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (E-0.2 series)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #69 L091 NRC (07/2011) X New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.2.12 - Knowledge of surveillance test procedures Group # 2 K/A # G2.2.12 Rating 3.7 Question 70 Both units are at full power.

The operator is performing routine surveillance control room checks.

The following step is being performed:

12.5.2 - Check all current RCS accumulator levels are 59% [52%] AND 75% [82%].

What is the significance of the bracketed 52% and 82% values?

A. These are the Technical Specification limits.

B. These are the Remote Shutdown values.

C. These are the limits if using control board meters and not the PPC.

D. These are the values for the other unit.

Proposed Answer: A. These are the Technical Specification limits.

Explanation:

The acceptance criteria are given in the subsection for each verification. The Technical Specification limits, if different than the acceptance criteria, are shown in brackets [ ]. The acceptance criteria take into account instrument inaccuracies, gauge readability and other uncertainties.

A. Correct. Brackets are used to denote TS limits if different from the acceptance criteria.

B. Incorrect. There are meters on the remote shutdown panels, but the routine checks do not check them.

C. Incorrect. Either can be used, values are the same.

D. Incorrect. When a procedure applies to either unit, the unit 2 values are included (but in parenthesis, not brackets).

Technical

References:

STP I-1A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 45712 - Demonstrate the ability to make log entries and correct mistakes on log entries.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.2.22 -Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and Group # 2 safety limits. K/A # 2.2.22 Rating 4.0 Question 71 What is the maximum allowable RCS pressure, and the action required, if this limit is exceeded in MODE 2, in accordance with Safety Limit SL 2.1.2, RCS Pressure?

A. 2500 psig; restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within one hour B. 2500 psig; restore pressure within 5 minutes C. 2735 psig: restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within one hour D. 2735 psig: restore pressure within 5 minutes Proposed Answer: C. 2735 psig: restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within one hour Explanation:

A. Incorrect. This is the design pressure. Action is correct for exceeding limit.

B. Incorrect. This is the design pressure. Action listed is correct for exceeding the limit in Modes 3-5.

C. Correct. 2735 is design pressure (2500) x 110%. Action is to restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

D. Incorrect. Action is to restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, however the pressure is correct. Action listed is correct for exceeding the limit in MODE 3-5.

Technical

References:

SL 2.1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 9701 -Explain Technical Specification 2.1 & 2.2 (Safety limits)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.3 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.3.4 - Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal or Group # 3 emergency conditions. K/A # 2.3.4 Rating 3.2 Question 72 Which of the following would be the highest exposure a male operator could receive in a year without requiring an extension above the DCPP administrative guideline?

A. 490 mrem B. 1450 mrem C. 1950 mrem D. 2475 mrem Proposed Answer: C. 1950 mrem Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 500 mrem is the limit for declared pregnant worker.

B. Incorrect. If thought the admin guideline limit was 1500 mrem C. Correct. Admin guideline is 2000 mrem. To exceed, need an extension.

D. Incorrect. Would be correct if its thought the admin guideline is half (2500 mrem) the federal limit (5000 mrem).

Technical

References:

RP1.ID6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.12 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.3.12 - Knowledge of radiological safety principles pertaining Group # 3 to licensed operator duties, such as containment entry K/A # 2.3.12 requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked Rating 3.2 high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

Question 73 Unit 1 is at full power.

An operator is preparing to enter Unit 1 containment for a non-emergency entry.

In accordance with RCP D-230, Radiological Control for Containment Entry, as part of exposure control for the operator, who shall maintain possession of the MIDS keys during the containment entry?

A. The operator making the entry B. The Unit 1 Shift Foreman (or designee)

C. The Work Control Shift Foreman (or designee)

D. The Radiation Protection Foreman (or designee)

Proposed Answer: D. The Radiation Protection Foreman (or designee)

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. While it may seem that having the operator control the key would be a positive control, the keys shall be in the possession of the RP Foreman (or designee)

B. Incorrect. The SFM authorizes entry and controls keys, but not the MIDS keys.

C. Incorrect. The WCSFM is responsible for authorizing work packages, but does not control the MIDS keys.

D. Correct. The RP foreman shall be in possession of the keys (or designee).

Technical

References:

RCP D-230 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.12 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.4.2 - Knowledge of system set points, interlocks and automatic Group # 4 actions associated with EOP entry conditions. K/A # 2.4.2 Rating 4.5 Question 74 Unit 1 is at 8% power when steam leak develops on the 1-4 Steam Generator, upstream of the MSIV.

Two minutes later, the MSIVs are closed, and the following conditions exist:

• The reactor has tripped

• RCS temperature 547°F and lowering slowly

• RCS pressure 1925 psig and lowering slowly

• 1-4 Steam Generator narrow range level 12% and rising slowly

• 1-4 Steam Generator pressure 500 psig and lowering slowly What trip signal(s) could have caused the reactor trip?

A. Pressurizer low pressure, only.

B. Low-low steam generator level or Safety Injection.

C. Low-low steam generator level, only.

D. Safety Injection, only.

Proposed Answer: D. Safety Injection, only.

Explanation:

Candidate must know the setpoint for P-11, the trips blocked by P-11 and recall that the low-low steam generator level trip has a time delay below 50% power. This results in delaying the trip past the two minutes given in the question. Additionally, low steamline pressure SI, enabled above P-11, generates a reactor trip.

A. Incorrect. The P-7 trips are blocked. Therefore, low pressure reactor trip will not occur.

B. Incorrect. The time delay on low-low steam generator level is longer than 120 seconds at low power, SI will occur.

C. Incorrect. The low-low steam generator trip has not timed out.

D. Correct. Steamline low pressure is enabled above P-11 and SI will occur. When SI actuates, a reactor trip occurs.

Technical

References:

PK08-02, LB-6A, OIM B-6-2, B-6-4b References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37048 - Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the RPS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.4.3 - Ability to identify post accident instrumentation. Group # 4 K/A # 2.4.3 Rating 3.7 Question 75 Which of the following is monitored on PAM1?

A. Pressurizer Level B. Auxiliary Feedwater Flow C. Steamline Pressure D. Reactor Cavity Sump Level Proposed Answer: D. Reactor Cavity Sump Level Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Not monitored on PAM1 B. Incorrect. Not monitored on PAMS 1 C. Incorrect. Not on PAMS1 (vertical board)

D. Correct. (WR) Containment Sump level is monitored by PAMS 1 Technical

References:

LB-10, Post-Accident Monitoring System References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the PAMS.

- PAMS Panel 1 Question Source: Bank # 74 NRC L081 (1/2010) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Small Break LOCA: Ability to evaluate plant performance Tier # 1 and make operational judgments based on operating Group # 1 characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument K/A # EPE009 G2.1.7 interpretation. Rating 4.7 Question 76 GIVEN:

• The crew is performing E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, Step 9, CHECK If RHR Pps Should Be Stopped

• RCPs are secured

• MSIVs are closed

• No ECCS CCPs are running

• RCS pressure is 600 psig and stable

• Applicable RVLIS level is 85%

The BOPCO reports one incore thermocouple is reading 800°F and rising rapidly. Two other incore thermocouples are reading 2300°F. All other incore thermocouples are reading approximately 510°F.

What action should be taken by the Shift Foreman?

A. Exit E-1 and go to FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling and attempt to restore high head ECCS flow.

B. Exit E-1 and go to FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling and attempt to restore high head ECCS flow.

C. Continue with E-1 until the transition to E-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation is required.

D. Continue with E-1 until transitioning to E-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

Proposed Answer: D. Continue with E-1 until transitioning to E-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

Explanation:

Due to the RCS pressure, a small break has occurred. The SRO must understand the instrument reading is invalid and that it takes 5 TC's to warrant entry into the C.1 or C.1 The correct procedure transition is to E-1.2 in a few steps when RCS pressure is checked to be stable and above 300 psig.

This supports the KA by testing the SROs "assessment of plant conditions" for the appropriate procedure to be used for a small break, based on RCS pressure, incore temperatures and the interpretation of the validity of the false challenge to Core Cooling.

OP1DC10 step 5.1.5 states that when available, operators shall use redundant indications to check parameter validity. Also, in attachment 9, operator fundamentals, states "Validate the accuracy and proper function of indications through multiple independent means, if available, avoiding undue focus on any single indicator."

A. Incorrect. Good operator fundamentals (use of diverse indications) shows that the thermocouple failure is an instrument failure and not a challenge to Core Cooling.

Additionally the RED path is not correct. To be a RED challenge to Core Cooling, RVLIS DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

level would have to be less than 32%

B. Incorrect. While the temperature is above the entry setpoint for the MAGENTA Core Cooling Critical Safety Function, it is a single instrument and not valid. If there were corroborating thermocouples, this would be correct.

C. Incorrect. This is a small break (RCS pressure above RHR shutoff head pressure) and as such, the transition will be to the Post LOCA Cooldown EOP (E-1.2) in a few steps.

D. Correct. RCS pressure is above 300 psig and the Tcold indication is not valid, the proper procedure for recovery will be to transition to E-1.2 for small break LOCA recovery.

Technical

References:

E-1, E-1 background, F-0 (Core Cooling), OP1.DC10, FR-C.1, FR-C.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 APE026 AA2.06 - Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling K/A # APE026 AA2.06 Water: The length of time after the loss of CCW flow to a Rating 3.1 component before that component may be damaged Question 77 GIVEN:

Unit 1 reactor is at 100% power A 200 gpm CCW leak occurs CCW makeup is NOT available Per the bases for LCO 3.7.7, Vital Component Cooling Water (CCW) System, which of the following describes the minimum time the surge tank is designed to provide system make-up, and what the minimum time is based on?

A. 20 minutes; time until there is damage to RCP seals due to the loss of cooling.

B. 20 minutes; time until there is system impairment due to the water loss.

C. 5 minutes; time until there is damage to RCP seals due to the loss of cooling.

D. 5 minutes; time until there is system impairment due to the water loss.

Proposed Answer: B. 20 minutes; time until there is system impairment due to the water loss.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Tech spec bases states that the surge tank volume provides a minimum of 20 minutes before the system becomes impaired. Incorrect reason. AP-11 states RCPs could be damaged in as little as 5 minutes if all cooling is lost. This will not occur until after the system is impaired.

B. Correct. Tech Spec Bases 3.7.7 states that 20 minutes based on a non-mechanistic leakage rate of 200 gpm, for operators to locate and isolate the leak or realign the CCW system into two separate vital loops before the system becomes impaired due to water loss.

C. Incorrect. According to the bases, the time is 20 minutes to take action. AP-11 states RCPs could be damaged in as little as 5 minutes if all cooling is lost. This will not occur until after the system is impaired.

D. Incorrect. Time is 20 minutes. Reason is correct.

Technical

References:

TS bases B3.7.7 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 9694G -Apply TS 3.7 Technical Specification bases 3477L - Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of OP AP-11 to mitigate an event in progress including: Bases for TCOAs with operator actions of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less.

Question Source: Bank #L081 #78 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 EPE029 G2.2.25 - ATWS: Knowledge of the bases in Group # 1 Technical Specifications for limiting conditions for K/A # EPE029 G2.2.25 operations and safety limits Rating 4.2 Question 78 According to the bases of ECG 4.1, ATWS Mitigation System Actuation Circuitry, which of the following constitute(s) the basis for the automatic actions that occur when AMSAC actuates?

1. Complete Loss of Feedwater

2. Loss of Offsite Power

3. Complete Loss of Load A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3 Proposed Answer: C. 1 and 3 Explanation:

Note: AMSAC is a licensing requirement specified by 10 CFR 50.62 A. Incorrect. Loss of Feedwater is one of the accidents, but complete loss of load is the other.

B. Incorrect.Loss of offsite power is not part of the basis.

C. Correct. Secondary side heat removal accidents result in the highest challenge ATWS scenario (complete loss of load and complete loss of Feedwater)

D. Incorrect. The LOOP is the most threatening primary side heat removal accident but not part of the basis.

Technical

References:

ECG 4.1, LMCDFRS References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 11301 - Describe the categories of events evaluated and the limiting parameters for the ATWS accident analysis.

66039 - Apply the requirements of System 4 ECGs Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 APE 057 AA2.20 - Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument K/A # APE057 AA2.20 Bus: Interlocks in effect on loss of ac vital electrical Rating 3.9 instrument bus that must be bypassed to restore normal equipment operation Question 79 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power

• IY-12 inverter input voltage is 0 VDC

• The Operator in the field reports:

o "IN SYNC (P3) light is OFF o "OUT OF SYNC (P11) light is ON The crew is using OP J-10:IV, Instrument AC - Transfer of Vital Power Supply to transfer PY12 to TRY12.

1) For the current plant conditions, what section of OP J-10:IV, will the crew perform to transfer PY12 to TRY12?

2) After the transfer is made to TRY-12, what will be the status of PY-12?

(Operable/Inoperable)?

A. 1. Section 6.7 Transferring PY12 from IY12 (Normal Source) to TRY12 (Bypass Source)

2. PY-12 is Inoperable B. 1. Section 6.7 Transferring PY12 from IY12 (Normal Source) to TRY12 (Bypass Source)

2. PY-12 is Operable C. 1. Section 6.17, Forced Transfer of PY Panel to Bypass with a Failed Sync Board

2. PY-12 is Inoperable D. 1. Section 6.17, Forced Transfer of PY Panel to Bypass with a Failed Sync Board

2. PY-12 is Operable Proposed Answer: D. 1. Section 6.17, Forced Transfer of PY Panel to Bypass with a Failed Sync Board / 2. PY-12 is Operable Explanation:

The transfer section may be RO knowledge, but the SRO knowledge is the operability of the PY once it is powered from its alternate source. Its plausible that being on an alternate source could be considered powered but not operable until realigned back to its inverter.

A. Incorrect. The correct section is 6.17 due to being out of sync. Addtionally, per the Bases B3.8.9 states: The 120 VAC vital buses are arranged in four buses and are normally powered from the inverters. The alternate power supply for the 120 VAC vital buses are Class 1E constant voltage source transformers powered from the same bus as the associated inverter.

An OPERABLE 120 VAC vital bus electrical power distribution subsystems require the associated buses to be energized to their proper voltage from the associated inverter via inverted DC voltage, inverter using internal AC source, or Class 1E constant voltage DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

transformer. Therefore, the inverter is OPERABLE after the transfer.

B. Incorrect. The transfer will be made using section 6.17. The PY, once powered, is considered OPERABLE.

C. Incorrect, The transfer will be made using section 6.17, however, the PY, once powered, is considered OPERABLE.

D. Correct. This is method of forcing the transfer due to being out of sync. Additionally, the PY will be OPERABLE after the transfer.

Technical

References:

Tech Spec 3.8.7, 3.8.9 and bases, J-10:IV, LJ10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the operation of the Instrument AC System. (6242)

Discuss significant Technical Specifications and Equipment Control Guidelines associated with the Instrument AC System. (9694, 9697, 9633)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 E04 LOCA Outside Containment: Knowledge of the bases Group # 1 for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation K/A # E04 G2.4.23 during emergency operations. Rating 4.4 Question 80 The crew is performing the actions of ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment.

A few minutes after isolating the second train of RHR, the following conditions exist:

ECCS flow is stable RCS pressure is 400 psig and stable Which of the following actions should be taken by the Shift Foreman?

A. Go to E-1.1, SI Termination.

B. Go to ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

C. Go to E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, then go to E-1.1, SI Termination.

D. Go to E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, then go to E-1.2, Post-LOCA Cooldown Depressurization.

Proposed Answer: B. Go to ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

Explanation:

To answer this question, the SRO must know and understand the bases which explains what the expected response is if the LOCA is isolated and the procedures that can be entered from ECA-1.2.

A. Incorrect. The bases for ECA-1.2 states: This step instructs the operator to check RCS pressure to determine if the break has been isolated by previous actions. If the break is isolated in Step 2, a significant RCS pressure increase will occur due to the SI flow filling up the RCS with break flow stopped. The operator transfers to E-1, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLANT, if the break has been isolated, for further recovery actions.

If the break has not been isolated, the operator is sent to ECA-1.1, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION, for further recovery actions since there will be no inventory in the sump. However, going to E-1.1 is plausible because if the break is/was isolated, as they would do for a leak while in E-1.

B. Correct. Because pressure has not responded, the break is not isolated, ECA-1.1 is the appropriate procedure. The objective of the loss of ECR guideline is threefold: 1) to continue attempts to restore emergency coolant recirculation capability, 2) to delay depletion of the RWST by adding makeup fluid and reducing outflow, and 3) to depressurize the RCS to minimize break flow and cause SI accumulator injection.

C. Incorrect. The break is not isolated. The operator transfers to E-1, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLANT, if the break has been isolated, for further recovery actions and then to E-1.1 if there are no other complications. If the break has not been isolated, the operator is sent to ECA-1.1, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION, for further recovery actions since there will be no inventory in the sump.

D. Incorrect. The break is not isolated, therefore a transition to E-1 is not correct. However, if DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

its thought the break is not isolated and the course of action is the same as a small RCS break, then the transition to E-1.2 would plausible.

Technical

References:

E-0, ECA-1.1 and 1.2 & background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event Question Source: Bank NRC Exam L091 #100 07/2011 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 E11 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc.: Facility conditions Group # 1 and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal K/A # E11 EA2.1 and emergency operations Rating 4.2 Question 81 The crew is performing ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

The LOCA worsens and containment pressure rises and the Containment Integrity Critical Safety Function Status Tree (CSFST) is MAGENTA.

The Shift Foreman should:

A. Remain in ECA-1.1; the CSFSTs are not applicable in ECA-1.1.

B. Go to FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure, and take the Z.1 actions to start the Containment Spray pumps.

C. Remain in ECA-1.1; a transition to FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure, is not made unless a containment integrity RED path exists.

D. Go to FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure, but operate the Containment Spray pumps in accordance with ECA-1.1.

Proposed Answer: D. Go to FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure but operate the Containment Spray pumps in accordance with ECA-1.1 Explanation:

If the Containment Integrity CSF is MAGENTA, no spray pumps are in operation. The rules for transitioning to a valid CSF challenge apply while in ECA-1.1. However, the a goal of ECA-1.1 is to conserve RWST inventory. ECA-1.1 has much less stringent guidance for operating the spray pumps. As a result, FR-Z.1 states that if ECA-1.1 is in effect, the spray pumps are operated in accordance with ECA-1.1. The actions for Z.1 is to start spray pumps and CFCUs.

A. Incorrect. Unlike other procedures, such as E-1.3 or ECA-0.0, the status trees are still monitored for possible challenges to a CSF. A transition to Z.1 is warranted.

B. Incorrect. An early step in Z.1 is:

CHECK If Containment Spray Is Required:

a. Check IF EOP ECA-1.1, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION is the procedure in effect.

b. Operate Containment Spray as directed by EOP ECA-1.1, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION C. Incorrect. The correct action is to go to Z.1 BUT operate the pumps IAW ECA-1.1. ECA-1.1 limitations for operating the spray pumps apply but the magenta path should be entered and spray pumps may be operated at pressures less than the RED path (50 psig).

D. Correct. The transition is warranted and the spray pumps are operated using the guidance of ECA-1.1.

Technical

References:

ECA-1.1, FR-Z.1, E-1.3, ECA-0.0 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 APE024 AA2.04- Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 2 following as they apply to the Emergency Boration: K/A # APE 024 AA2.04 Availability of BWST (BAST - DCPP) Rating 4.2 Question 82 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power

• RCS Tave is 547°F

• RCS boron concentration is 300 ppm

• 2 Control Rods are stuck out

• Boric Acid Storage Tank (BAST) #1 is in service and level is 96%

• Boric Acid Storage Tank (BAST) #2 level is 96%

• RWST level is 96%

The crew initiates emergency boration through the preferred flow path in accordance with OP AP-6, Emergency Boration.

When the required boration is complete, what ECG or Technical Specification action, if any, should be taken?

NOTE: assume a 1 ppm change requires 9 gallons of 4% boric acid A. Makeup to the BAST but no Technical Specification or ECG ACTION is required.

B. Makeup to the RWST but no Technical Specification or ECG ACTION is required.

C. Within one hour, restore the RWST to OPERABLE status.

D. Within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />, restore the Boric Acid Storage system to OPERABLE status.

Proposed Answer: D. Within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />, restore the Boric Acid Storage system to OPERABLE status.

Explanation:

The SRO must determine the following:

Amount of ppm change - AP-6 states: Borate 400 ppm per stuck rod OR borate to 2000 - 2400 ppm boron concentration, whichever is less. (for current plant condition, 300 ppm +

800 ppm = 1100 final concentration).

What the "normal source" is in OP AP makeup using the CVCS makeup controller.

Thumb rule (GFES) for a ppm change - 9 gallons/ppm for BAST. (This correlates to approximately 27 gallons/ppm if using the RWST - about a 3/1 ratio due to differences in boron concentration)

Amount of inventory required. #stuck rods x required ppm change x thumb rule = 2 x 400 ppm x 9 gals/ppm = 7200 gallons (21600 is assuming RWST)

Change in BAST level = (95% level) 14964 gallons - 7200 = 7764 gallons remaining which is less than the requirement in ECG 8.9.

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

A. Incorrect. The combined levels of the BAST is 14964 gallons. If the conversion of ppm to gallons is not done and 800 is used, then the assumed level would be 14114 gallons. Still above the requirements of ECG 8.9 B. Incorrect. If the thumb rule for the BAST is used, then 7200 gallons would be the calculated change, which is still above the required 455300 gallons of LCO 3.5.4 (463534

- 7200 = 456334 gallons)

C. Incorrect. If its assumed the RWST are the alternate source and the math correctly calculated, this would be the answer. 463354 - 21600 = 441934 gallons D. Correct. The required level of 14042 gallons will not be met and the LCO action must be taken to restore the BAST to OPERABLE status within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

Technical

References:

ECG 8.9, Tech Spec 3.5.4, STP C-20, OP AP-6.

References to be provided to applicants during exam: ECG 8.9 (LCO only), Tech Spec 3.5.4, BAST and RWST level tables from C-20 Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 036 AA2.02 Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 2 following as they apply to the Fuel Handling Incidents: K/A # APE 036 AA2.02 Occurrence of a fuel handling incident Rating 4.1 Question 83 Unit 1 refueling is in progress. An assembly is being withdrawn from the core.

1. Which of the following manipulator crane interlocks help to prevent fuel damage while the assembly is being withdrawn from the core?

2. If gas bubbles are observed coming to the surface when the assembly is removed, what action should the Refueling SRO direct?

A. Upper slow zone; Place the fuel assembly into a supported core location.

B. Overload; Lower the assembly as low as possible in the refueling cavity.

C. Upper slow zone; Lower the assembly as low as possible in the refueling cavity.

D. Overload; Place the fuel assembly into a supported core location.

Proposed Answer: D. Overload; Place the fuel assembly into a supported core location.

Explanation:

A incorrect. The slow speed is active when the gripper is engaged and the assembly (in the manipulator) is entering the core area, it stops the hoist and the JOG must be used to lower the hoist. Plausible if its known hoist level stops, which could be interpreted as an assembly causing the motion to stop. Location is correct.

B incorrect, the red overload light would signify difficulty in withdrawing the assembly. The action taken is incorrect, but plausible if its known the first action op AP-21 is to "suspend fuel movement" which is then interpreted as stop right now, not complete the movement to place the assembly in a "safe location" which would be back into the core.

C incorrect, slow zone is hoist travel not a problem with withdrawing an assembly, location is to place it in a safe location, ie the core (or upender).

D Correct, the indication is correct. The action taken is also correct. The damaged assembly is placed back into the core, ideally in a supported location.

Technical

References:

AP-21, LB-8 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective - 6619 - Explain the actions for fuel damage, actual or suspected Question Source: Bank #83 L051 NRC Exam 04/07 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO APE060 G2.4.44 - Accidental Gaseous Radwaste: Tier # 1 Knowledge of emergency plan protective action Group # 2 recommendations. K/A # APE060 G2.3.44 Rating 4.4 Question 84 GIVEN:

• Gas Decay Tank 1-1 ruptures

• 1-RM-87 initially reads 1 E+1 uCi/cc

• 15 minutes later, 1-RM-87 rises to 3 E+1 uCi/cc and rising slowly When is the Shift Manager required to notify the US Coast Guard of applicable Protective Action Recommendations?

A. At the SAE declaration, after notifying the county, state and NRC.

B. At the GE declaration, after notifying the county, state and NRC.

C. At the SAE declaration, after notifying the county and state but prior to notifying the NRC.

D. At the GE declaration, after notifying the county and state but prior to notifying the NRC.

Proposed Answer: D. At the GE declaration, after notifying the county and state but prior to notifying the NRC.

Explanation:

PARs are declared for GE (unless dose assessment or field measurements exceed PAG criteria.

This could be the case if the EOF is manned. If this was the case, the SM would not be making the call).

Recent plant change to PARs removed any PAR below GE. Previously, at SAE PARs were possible.

A. Incorrect. USCG is not notified until after notifying the county and state, at the GE level.

Desired outcome is all are notified within 15 minutes. This is done prior to notifying the NRC.

B. Incorrect. Correct level of PAR declaration.County and state notifications made first and the Coast Guard is done prior to the NRC.

C. Incorrect. Required at the GE level, notification sequence is correct.

D. Correct. USCG is notified after county and state at the GE level (above 2.0 E+1) and prior to the NRC.

Technical

References:

LEP-2, LEP-3, EP-G3, EAL wall chart (All page)

References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 42287 - As described in EP G-3, state the requirements for the following:

Initial Notifications (Time Critical)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 E16 G2.4.41 - High Containment Radiation: Knowledge of Group # 2 the emergency action level thresholds and classifications. K/A # E16 G2.4.41 Rating 4.6 Question 85 GIVEN:

• A design break LOCA has occurred

• RCS pressure is 50 psig

• Containment pressure spiked to 30 psig

• Currently Containment pressure is 23 psig and lowering slowly

• Bus H is de-energized

• Containment radiation as read on RM-30 is 22 R/hr

• Containment radiation as read on RM-31 is 17 R/hr

• Heat Sink Critical Safety Function Status Tree is RED Which of the following EAL classifications should be made by the Shift Manager?

A. GE due to loss of three barriers B. GE due to loss of two barriers and potential loss of the third barrier C. SAE due to loss of two barriers D. SAE due to potential loss of two barriers Proposed Answer: C. SAE due to loss of two barriers Explanation:

Current Status of the 3 Barriers:

YES - Loss of Fuel Cladding (RM-30 > 20 R/hr) Note, loss is EITHER RM-30 OR RM-31 (both not required)

NO - Potential Loss of Fuel Cladding - Heat Sink - RED - not met as heat sink not required for large LOCA YES - Loss of RCS (RM-30 or RM-31 >6 R/hr) (or Loss due to RCS leak rate greater than makeup as indicated by loss of subcooling (as there is for a LOCA)

NO - Containment Barrier: One train of spray and required CFCUs operating and there is not an "unexplained containment pressure drop"

( NOTE: loss of bus H causes the loss of 1 containment spray pump and 1 CFCU, therefore there is a train of containment spray and greater than 2 CFCUs running)

A. Incorrect. Containment is not affected. The lowering pressure (Containment Loss (1)) is due to spray and not an "unexplained Containment pressure drop following initial increase".

B. Incorrect. Containment is not affected. Containment pressure is greater than 22 psig, but one train of spray is in service. Also, there is a potential loss of fuel cladding but as cladding is already counted as "Loss", it is not a third barrier to count the MAGENTA as the potential loss.

C. Correct. RM-30 above 6 R/hr and 20 R/hr results in loss of two barriers (Fuel and RCS)

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

D. Incorrect. There is only one "potential loss" - (RCS leak greater than capacity of one charging pump in the normal charging mode), but if the heat sink RED was assumed to be a potential loss, or the containment pressure (7) was assumed to be met, then this would also be correct.

Technical

References:

EAL charts Hot, LEP2 page 49 References to be provided to applicants during exam: EAL charts Learning Objective: Given indications of an event, use EP G-1 to classify the event with 100%

accuracy within 15 minutes. (42285)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO 005 G2.2.25 - RHR: Knowledge of the bases in Technical Tier # 2 Specifications for limiting conditions for operations and Group # 1 safety limits. K/A # 005 G2.2.25 Rating 4.2 Question 86 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is in MODE 5

• An initial RCS drain is being performed

• Current RCS level is 110 feet

• Narrow range steam generator levels are 65%

• One loop of RHR is in operation

• Both RHR pumps are OPERABLE The running RHR pump trips on overcurrent.

Which of the following describes:

1) The LCO that applies, and

2) The required ACTION A. 1) LCO 3.4.7 applies.

2) Within one hour restore an RHR loop to service or immediately enter ACTIONs B.1 and B.2.

B. 1) LCO 3.4.7 applies.

2) Immediately enter LCO 3.4.7 ACTIONs B.1 and B.2.

C. 1) LCO 3.4.8 applies.

2) Within one hour restore an RHR loop to service or immediately enter ACTIONs A.1 and B.1 and B.2.

D. 1) LCO 3.4.8 applies.

2) Immediately enter ACTIONs A.1 and B.1 and B.2.

Proposed Answer: D. 1) LCO 3.4.8 applies. 2) Immediately enter ACTIONs A.1 and B.1 and B.2.

Explanation:

SRO must know that the BASES for the note is to allow for testing and not applicable to cases such as a pump trip. Additionally, knowledge of the bases for the applicable LCO - loops filled definition.

NOTE 1 bases:

Note 1 permits all RHR pumps to be removed from operation for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. The circumstances for stopping both RHR pumps are to be limited to situations when the outage time is short and core outlet temperature is maintained at least 10°F below saturation temperature. The NOTE prohibits boron dilution with coolant at boron concentrations less than required to assure the SDM of LCO 3.1.1 is maintained, or draining operations when RHR forced flow is stopped.

Loops Filled:

"Loops filled" is a condition in which natural circulation can be used as a backup means of decay heat removal if forced circulation via RHR is lost. RCS loops are considered filled when DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

the RCS is capable of being pressurized to at least 150 psig, no gas has been directly injected into the RCS, and the RCS has not been drained below 112 ft A. Incorrect. LCO 3.4.7 does not apply and NOTE 1 time does not apply. It could appear that because no gas has been injected and the RCS could be pressurized (head in place) - its plausible to think that heat removal could occur due to reflux cooling that the definition of "not filled" is mid-loop (known as reduced inventory).

B. Incorrect. The loops are not filled therefore, LCO 3.4.8 applies. Because there is no RHR loop in operation, ACTION B must be entered without delay. If loops were filled, this would be the correct answer.

C. Incorrect. Despite level being just below the top of hot legs at 110 feet, the loops are not filled. Actions taken are both A and B. The note does not apply.

D. Correct. The loops are not filled. Both ACTIONs A and B apply.

Technical

References:

LCO 3.4.7 and 3.4.8 and Bases References to be provided to applicants during exam: LCO 3.4.7 and 3.4.8 Learning Objective: 9694D -Apply TS 3.4 Technical Specification bases Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 006 A2.06 - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the Group # 1 following malfunctions or operations on the ECCS; and (b) K/A # 006 A2.06 based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, Rating 3.5 control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Water hammer Question 87 Unit 1 is at full power. Per the requirements of SR 3.5.2.3, Verify ECCS piping is full of water, the crew is verifying ECCS inspection points have detectable water levels by performing STP M-89, ECCS System Venting.

It is determined that ECCS inspection point SI-1-114, Safety Injection to Hot Leg, Downstream 8802A (Intermediate head injection to RCS hot legs 3&4 valve) is NOT FULL.

1) Which of the following describes the basis for SR 3.5.2.3?

2) What Technical Specification action should be taken by the Shift Foreman to address the SI-1-114, NOT FULL, condition?

A. 1) Prevent water hammer of ECCS piping. 2) Enter LCO 3.0.3.

B. 1) Prevent gas binding of the running CCP. 2) Enter LCO 3.0.3.

C. 1) Prevent water hammer of ECCS piping. 2) Enter TS 3.5.2, Action A.

D. 1) Prevent gas binding of the running CCP. 2) Enter TS 3.5.2, Action A.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) Prevent water hammer of ECCS piping. 2) Enter TS 3.5.2, Action A.

Explanation:

M-89 checks for minimum water levels at all ECCS vent (inspection) locations. These levels represent the levels which can challenge the ECCS and RCS components by voiding, water hammer, pump cavitation, gas binding or pumping of non-condensable gases into the reactor vessel following an SI signal or during shutdown cooling.

Candidate must determine the bases - (both are part of the SR Bases) and also the vent point is DOWNSTREAM of the valve, and only the SI train is inoperable, therefore, as such, only LCO 3.5.2 Action A is applicable.

A. Incorrect. Only the train is affected, (supported by note in M-89 table, "Train AOT").

Reason is correct.

B. Incorrect. The impact is only on the SI train. Additionally, the bases states the potential is for non-running pumps. Finally, per the table in M-89, for charging pumps, the impact is "void migration" which means the impact is a void being transferred to another location.

C. Correct. The impact is water hammer (per the bases) and only the train is impacted, so 3.5.2, Action A applies.

D. Incorrect. Does not impact the CCP, the point is downstream of the valve in the SI header.

Gas binding is discussed in bases but the charging pump is not impacted.

Technical

References:

STP-89 Attachment 9.1 and LCO 3.5.2 and bases References to be provided to applicants during exam: LCO 3.5.2 Learning Objective: 9694E - Apply TS 3.5 Technical Specification bases DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.3 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO 008 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Tier # 2 malfunctions or operations on the CCWS, and (b) based on Group # 1 those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or K/A # 008 A2.02 mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or Rating 3.5 operations: High/low surge tank level Question 88 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power.

• AR PK01-07 "CCW SYS SURGE TK LVL/MK-UP" alarms

• CCW Surge Tank Level instruments, LI-139 and LI-140, are reading 0%

• Both CCW Pump amps are swinging at a cycle of 1 to 2 amps

• The nuclear operator reports there is no discernible increase in pump noise

• Leak location identification is in progress Which of the following OP AP-11, Malfunction of Component Cooling Water System, actions are required?

A. Per section C, CCW System Outleakage, trip the reactor and all RCPs, and enter E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

B. Per section C, CCW System Outleakage, trip both CCW pumps, then trip the reactor and all the RCPs and enter E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

C. Per Section F "Loss of Surge Tank", isolate surge tank on Unit 1 and cross-tie the vital and non-vital headers to Unit 2.

D. Per Section F "Loss of Surge Tank", isolate surge tank on Unit 1 and cross-tie only the vital headers to Unit 2.

Proposed Answer: A. Per section C, CCW System Outleakage, trip the reactor and all RCPs, and enter E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

Explanation:

A. Correct. The RNO for section has the reactor tripped when surge tank level is off-scale low.

CCW pumps are monitored for cavitation. Cavitation is swings of much greater amplitude and increased noise as bubbles collapse in the impeller. Slight oscillation are signs of vortexing.

B. Incorrect.If level is off scale low, (continuous action), then the reactor is tripped and RCP tripped. The action is then to monitor the CCW pumps for cavitation. Currently not cavitating, but vortexing. Plausible to pumps if its believed the pumps are cavitating and then trip the reactor etc. Additionally, IF it was desired to trip the CCW pumps as a conservative action, they would not be tripped until after the reactor is tripped and RCPs tripped (would not trip the CCW pumps and CAUSE a loss of CCW with the reactor at power).

C. Incorrect. Until the leak is isolated, appendix F cannot be performed and is generally done if damage is to the surge tank D. Incorrect. Appendix F supplies all of CCW not just vital trains and cannot be performed until the leak is isolated and is generally done if damage is to the surge tank.

Technical

References:

OP AP-11 section C & F, GFES text LFC2, pumps References to be provided to applicants during exam: None DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Learning Objective: 3477L - Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of OP AP-11 to mitigate an event in progress including: Bases for TCOAs with operator actions of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 012 G2.2.22 - RPS: Knowledge of limiting conditions for Group # 1 operations and safety limits. K/A # 012 G2.2.22 Rating 4.7 Question 89 Unit 1 is in MODE 2 performing a plant startup.

A review of surveillance paperwork finds that the setpoint for the Power Range High Flux Low trip for Power Range N43 is out of tolerance. The actions of OP AP-5, Malfunction of Eagle 21 Protection or Control Channel, are complete.

Which of the following describes:

1) If entry into MODE 1 is permitted.

2) The accident or condition that is the basis for the setpoint of the Power Range High Flux Low trip.

A. 1) The plant may enter MODE 1.

2) Steamline break B. 1) The plant may enter MODE 1.

2) Positive reactivity addition excursion from low power C. 1) The plant may NOT enter MODE 1.

2) Steamline break D. 1) The plant may NOT enter MODE 1.

2) Positive reactivity addition excursion from low power Proposed Answer: B. 1) The plant may enter MODE 1. 2) Positive reactivity addition excursion from low power Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Per LCO 3.0.4 the plant may change modes because there is not a shutdown requirement in ACTION E as there is, for instance, in ACTION B. The accident is rod bank withdrawal. Over Power DT is a trip for protection from a steamline break. This is plausible because the worst case steamline break (for return to criticality) occurs at low power when the secondary inventory is greatest.

B. Correct. Because there is not a shutdown requirement in LCO 3.3.1 ACTION E which states that the only required action is to place in trip in 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />. Once that is done, the plant has met the LCO. Per the bases, the accident is rod bank withdrawal.

C. Incorrect. Mode change can be made.

D. Incorrect. Mode change can be made.

Technical

References:

LCO 3.0.4, 3.3.1 ACTION E and bases References to be provided to applicants during exam: TS 3.3.1 Learning Objective: 9694C - Apply TS 3.3 Technical Specification bases.

Question Source: Bank X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #S-1308 New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 062 A2.11 - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 1 malfunctions or operations on the ac distribution system; and (b) K/A # 062 A2.11 based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or Rating 4.1 mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Aligning standby equipment with correct power source (D/G)

Question 90 GIVEN:

• A loss of all AC power had occurred on Unit 1

• Estimated time for offsite power restoration is 26 hours3.009259e-4 days <br />0.00722 hours <br />4.298942e-5 weeks <br />9.893e-6 months <br />

• ASW pump 1-1 is out of service

• Diesel Generator 1-1 has been started and aligned to its vital 4 kV bus in accordance with ECA-0.3, Restore 4 kV Buses

• Diesel generator 1-1 load is 2.30 MWe

• Unit 2 is at full power

• Unit 2 ASW pump 2-1 is running

• Unit 2 ASW pump 2-2 is in standby ASW 1-2 has max demand of 375 KW.

Which actions should the taken by the Shift Foreman to restore ASW to Unit 1?

A. Refer to OP AP-10, Loss of Auxiliary Salt Water, to crosstie ASW and Circ Water Bays through ASW pump 1 bay valve, FCV-432, and Demusseling valve, FCV-604.

B. Obtain permission from Emergency Director, perform Appendix X, Crosstie of Vital Bus, then start ASW pump 1-2.

C. Refer to OP AP-10, Loss of Auxiliary Salt Water to cross-connect Unit 1 and Unit 2 ASW systems through cross-tie valve, FCV-601.

D. Obtain permission from Site Emergency Coordinator, perform Appendix X, Crosstie of Vital Bus, then start ASW pump 1-2.

Proposed Answer: C. Refer to OP AP-10, Loss of Auxiliary Salt Water to cross-connect Unit 1 and Unit 2 ASW systems through cross-tie valve, FCV-601.

Explanation:

Load limit is 2.6 MW. 2.300 + .375 = 2.675 MW. Site Emerg Coordinator permission required.

The SM or SFM would obtain this approval and direct the cross-tie of the buses. Due to the length of time to potential power restoration, the ASW pump will have to be on the diesel essentially continuously and the 2 hr/24 hour limit of 2860 cannot be assumed to apply but the continuous rating of 2600 would be the limit that applies (also exceeds 2000 hr/year rating of 2750)

A. Incorrect. This is a step in OP AP-10 if amps on a running ASW pump is not steady and the pump is cavitating (AP-10, step 2 RNO)

B. Incorrect. The Site Emergency Coordinator authorization is required however, the limit would be exceeded and the pump would not be started. Performing Appendix X would not result in restoration of ASW to Unit 1.

C. Correct. Note (***) in appendix Q that If an ASW Pp cannot be energized, Then refer to OP AP-10 to cross-connect units through FCV-601.

DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

D. Incorrect. TSC (SEC) approval required however the continuous limit of 2600 kw would be exceeded. ASW could not be restored to Unit 1 by starting a Unit 1 pump, it must be cross-tied to Unit 2.

Technical

References:

ECA-0.3 appendix Q and X, OP AP-10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 017 G2.2.23 - In-core Temperature Monitor: Ability to Group # 2 track Technical Specification limiting conditions for K/A # 017 G2.2.23 operations. Rating 4.6 Question 91 Unit 1 is at full power. Thermocouples 1 and 7 are inoperable.

The following sequence of events occur:

• At 0800 on 04/01, Thermocouple 42 and 2 are declared inoperable

• At 1200 on 04/04, Thermocouple 47 and 11 are declared inoperable Which of the following describes the LCO 3.3.3 actions, if any, to be taken for each thermocouple failure?

When Thermocouple 42 & 2 When Thermocouple 47 & 11 Fail Fail A. No action required ACTION A, due by 1200, 05/04 B. ACTION A, due by 0800, 05/01 ACTION A, due by 1200, 05/04 C. ACTION A, due by 0800, 05/01 ACTION C, due by 0800, 04/08 D. No action required ACTION C, due by 0800, 04/08 Proposed Answer: A. No action required ACTION A, due by 1200, 05/04 Explanation:

A. Correct. All thermocouples are in Quadrant 1. 1 and 7 are Train A and B respectivel.TC 42 is one of 3 remaining in the interior for Train A and TC 2 is one of 2 remaining in the outer for train A. When they fail, there are still 2 in the interior and one in the perimeter. The requirement is 4 OPERABLE, two in each train, therefore, no action is required as ALL train B TCs are OPERABLE (meeting the 4 per quadrant) and the two per train (one inner and one outer is required). When 47 and 11 fail, no there is only one in the train and LCO 3.3.3, condition A applies.

B. Incorrect. No entry required for the failure of 42 and 2. Action A could apply twice as NOTE at entry to LCO states: Separate Condition entry is allowed for each Function. This allows multiple entry into an ACTION for each time it entered.

C. Incorrect. No entry required for failure of 42 and 2.

D. Incorrect. While there are greater than 4 OPERABLE TCs for quadrant I, there are not the required number for Train A and the ACTION must be taken. Because there are more than 4 TCs still OPERABLE, although not on Train A, it is plausible to believe the LCO is still met.

Technical

References:

Tech Spec 3.3.3, STP R-27A appendix 9.3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: Tech Spec 3.3.3 and only Appendix 9.3 of STP R-27A Learning Objective: 9697C -Apply TS 3.3 Technical Specification LCOs.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 033 A2.03 - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the Group # 2 following malfunctions or operations on the Spent Fuel K/A # 033 A2.03 Pool Cooling System; and (b) based on those predictions, Rating 3.5 use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Abnormal spent fuel pool water level or loss of water level Question 92 GIVEN:

• PK11-04, Spent Fuel Pool LVL/Temp alarms

• Operators are shuffling spent fuel in the Spent Fuel Pool for an upcoming outage The operator in the Fuel Handling Building reports that Spent Fuel Pool level is currently lowering slowly through a leak in the Spent Fuel Pool door.

1. Per OP AP-22, Spent Fuel Pool Abnormalities, which of the following is the preferred method of makeup to the Spent Fuel Pool?

2. According to the Technical Specification bases for B3.7.15, Spent Fuel Storage Pool Water Level, what is the minimum amount of water required for shielding when a spent fuel assembly is being moved?

A. 1. RWST. 2. Eight feet.

B. 1. RWST. 2. Twenty three feet.

C. 1. Ionics. 2. Eight feet.

D. 1. Ionics. 2. Twenty three feet.

Proposed Answer: A. 1. RWST 2. Eight feet.

Explanation:

A. Correct. RWST is the preferred source when borated water is needed to makeup to the SFP

- as is the case for a leak. Additionally, the bases for the level is eight feet.

B. Incorrect. RWST is the preferred source for leakage, however, the level is 8 feet. A common knowledge item is there is a required 23 feet of water required in the SFP. This is for an accident to an assembly laying on the SFP racks for iodine decontamination.

Additionally, 23 feet of water is to lower general area dose rates.

C. Incorrect. Ionics is the preferred source for boiling or evaporation makeup.

D. Incorrect. Ionics is for boiling or evaporation.

Technical

References:

OP AP-22, B3.7.15 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 034 A1.01 - A1.01 Ability to predict and/or monitor Group # 2 changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) K/A # 034 A1.01 associated with operating the Fuel Handling System Rating 3.2 controls including: Load limits Question 93 While a bowed fuel assembly is being loaded into the core, the Refueling SRO observes the SLACK CABLE light energize.

Which of the following would be an indication that the fuel assembly was properly loaded onto the core plate and not hung up on an adjacent assembly?

A. Underload light is also lit.

B. Z-Z tape indicates the full down.

C. Minimal load indicated on the fuel cell.

D. Verification that the assembly has been lowered on index.

Proposed Answer: B. Z-Z tape indicates the full down.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. underload would be encountered for both situations.

B. Correct. per OP B-8DS2,6.9.13 indications are:

• Minimal load is indicated on the load cell

• SLACK CABLE light is ON

• TUBE DOWN light is ON

• Z Z tape indicates full down

• Expected Gemco position for down on core plate C. Incorrect. this indication could indicate either condition.

D. Incorrect. if the assembly is bowed, it may have to be loaded off-index (as stated in precaution 5.4.11.a:If a fuel assembly being lowered is bowed or out of plumb such that the bottom nozzle is off the core location when the crane is indexed, or if the top of an adjacent assembly is violating the space for an assembly being lowered, it may be necessary to move the crane off index to permit entry into the core.) Additionally, just a verification that the assembly was on index does not mean it is on the core plate.

Technical

References:

OP B-8SD2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 36964 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Fuel Handling system Question Source: Bank #91 NRC Exam 2/2009 (L061C) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.7 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.1.37 - Knowledge of procedures, guidelines, or Group # 1 limitations associated with reactivity management. K/A # G2.1.37 Rating 4.6 Question 94 According to OP1.ID3, Reactivity Management, which of the following evolutions require a reactivity brief:

1. Transferring letdown filters

2. Starting or stopping a circulating water pump

3. Placing a cation bed back in service last used five days ago A. 1 and 2, only B. 1 and 3, only C. 2 and 3, only D. 1 and 2 and 3 Proposed Answer:

A. 1 and 2 only Explanation:

A. Correct. placing a cation bed in service when last placed in service less than a week before does not require a reactivity brief. The other evolutions do.

B. Incorrect. If a cation bed has been out of service for less than a week, no brief is required C. Incorrect. Cation bed does not require a brief.

D. Incorrect. Cation bed does not require a brief.

NOTE: all answers are used 3 times, thinking any one is not done, will rule out 3 answers, but you have to know which one does not. Otherwise, all 3 require a brief would seem the logical answer.

Technical

References:

OP1.ID3, step 5.2.4 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 67250 -Describe reactivity management requirements and expectations Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.3 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.1.5 - Ability to use procedures related to shift staffing, Group # 1 such as minimum crew complement, overtime limitations, K/A # 2.1.5 etc. Rating 3.9 Question 95 Both units are at full power.

In accordance with OP1.DC37, Plant Logs, which of the following lists the watch positions from the MOST preferred to the LEAST preferred for filling the Shift Technical Advisor (STA) function?

Assume all are STA qualified 1.) Both Units' Shift Foremen 2.) Shift Manager 3.) Work Control Shift Foreman A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 1, 3 C. 2, 3, 1 D. 1, 3, 2 Proposed Answer: C. 2 , 3,1 Explanation:

A. Incorrect. U1 and U2 SFM as STA is the last preferred option.

B. Incorrect. The Shift Manager is always the first preferred option but Both Units SFM is the last preferred option.

C. Correct. The Shift Manager is always the first preferred option followed by the WCSFM, then both Units Shift Foremen.

D. Incorrect. U1 and U2 SFM as STA is the last preferred option.

Technical

References:

OP1.DC37 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.2.7 - Knowledge of the process for conducting special or Group # 2 infrequent tests. K/A # G2.2.7 Rating 3.6 Question 96 Which of the following would normally be considered an Infrequently Performed Task or Evolution (IPTE) in accordance with OP1.ID4, Conduct of Infrequently Performed Tests or Evolutions?

1. Reducing power per OP L-8, "Separating from the Grid While Maintaining Reactor Power Less Than 30%

2. An evolution that significantly reduces reactor safety margins as determined by the Operations Manager

3. A quarterly surveillance associated with a moderate increase in risk for a plant trip

4. Plant startup after a refueling outage A. 2 and 3, only B. 1 and 2, only C. 1, 3 and 4, only D. 1, 2 and 4, only Proposed Answer: D. 1, 2 and 4 Explanation:

Per OP1. ID3, an IPTE:

2.3 In addition, planned operations activities may meet the definition for an IPTE.

Examples of this type of activity are:

• Removing the turbine from service for balance shots.

• Performing an alignment for the first time on systems, which could affect nuclear safety or generation.

• Planned entries into TS 3.0.3.

• Reducing power per OP L-8, "Separating from the Grid While Maintaining Reactor Power Less Than 30%."

Infrequently Performed Tests or Evolutions (IPTE): Activities typically performed less frequently than quarterly, which, if not properly conducted or when producing unexpected results, have a high potential to:

3.1.1 Significantly reduce margins of safety as determined by the operations manager.

3.1.2 Introduce operational transients.

3.1.3 Introduce reactor trips.

Further on:

5.1.3 The following plant procedures provide guidance for screening work activities:

b. AD8.DC55 provides guidance for evaluating risk during MODES 5 and 6, and when designation as an IPTE is appropriate. The Outage Safety Plan designates IPTEs. For example, mid-loop operations and plant startup are normally IPTEs.

A. Incorrect. Quarterly surveillance does not meet definition of IPTE DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

B. Incorrect. startup is also normally an IPTE, C. Incorrect. Quarterly surveillance does not meet definition of IPTE.

D. Correct. These evolutions are normally considered IPTE Technical

References:

OP1.ID4, OP L-8 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 33440 - Identify the responsibilities associated with various participants in the conduct and oversight of infrequently performed tests and evolutions.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.3 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.2.12 - Knowledge of surveillance procedures. Group # 2 K/A # G2.2.12 Rating 4.1 Question 97 At 1200 a piece of Technical Specification equipment is declared inoperable.

Per the ACTION of the LCO, the crew is required to do an initial surveillance within one hour and then every 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> thereafter. It was initially performed at 1305 and again at 2145.

Which of the following describes the performance of the surveillances? (Including any allowable extensions.)

The 1305 surveillance _____ done within the required time; the 2145 surveillance _____ done within the required time.

A. was; was B. was not; was C. was; was not D. was not; was not Proposed Answer: B. was not; was Explanation: Per SR 3.0.2 - The specified Frequency for each SR is met if the Surveillance is performed within 1.25 times the interval specified in the Frequency, as measured from the previous performance or as measured from the time a specified condition of the Frequency is met. For Frequencies specified as "once," the above interval extension does not apply.

If a Completion Time requires periodic performance on a "once per ..." basis, the above Frequency extension applies to each performance after the initial performance.

Therefore, the initial surveillance must be done within one hour (1300) and the subsequent surveillances must be done within 1.25 x 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> (10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />) or 2300.

A. Incorrect. the initial surveillance must be done within one hour (no extensions). The second surveillance would be within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> (plus 25%) of the initial completion or 2305.

B. Correct. The initial is not within the required time. The subsequent time is within the 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> after the initial completion.

C. Incorrect. Initial time is too late (no extension allowed for initial completion).

D. Incorrect. No extension for initial time and second surveillance is within allowed time..

Technical

References:

SR 3.0.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 9700 -Explain LCO 3.0 & SR 3.0 general requirements Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.3.4 - Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under Group # 3 normal or emergency conditions. K/A # G2.3.4 Rating 3.7 Question 98 In accordance with EP RB-2, Emergency Exposure Guidelines, the maximum whole body exposure (TEDE) for Radiological Assessment Sampling and Property Saving (mitigating damage to valuable property) is:

Radiological Assessment Property Saving A. 5 rem 5 rem B. 5 rem 10 rem C. 10 rem 15 rem D. 10 rem 25 rem Proposed Answer: B. 5 rem 10 rem Explanation:

The SRO (SM) is responsible for authorizing emergency exposure until the EOF/TSC is activated.

A. Incorrect. This is the limit for radiological assessment. Plausible because there are emergency exposures that are the same (dose saving and lifesaving)

B. Correct. This is the limit for radiological and property saving C. Incorrect. property saving is 10 rem and radiological is 5 rem D. Incorrect. Limits for property and life saving respectively Technical

References:

RB-2 attachment 9.6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 7954 - State the emergency dose limits Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank # P-33433 X New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.4 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.4.5 - Knowledge of the organization of the operating Group # 4 procedures network for normal, abnormal, and emergency K/A # G2.4.5 evolutions. Rating 4.3 Question 99 GIVEN:

• Reactor trip and safety injection from 100% power due to a break upstream of Aux FWP 1-1 Stm Lead 2 valve, FCV-37

• All MSIVs have closed

• The operator reports increasing radiation on RM-73, Main Steam Line radiation monitor

• PK11-18, MAIN STM LINE HI RAD is ON Which of the following procedure flowpaths should the Shift Foreman utilize to properly address the current plant conditions?

NOTE:

• E-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation

• E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture

• ECA-3.1, SGTR With Loss of Reactor Coolant - Subcooled Recovery Desired A. E-3, only B. E-2 to E-3, only C. E-2 to E-3 to ECA-3.1 D. E-3 to E-2 and back to E-3 Proposed Answer: B. E-2 to E-3, only Explanation:

A. Incorrect. A misdiagnosis of leak location would lead to the belief the steam break was isolated with MSIVs closed OR the leak can be isolated by closing FCV-37. If it was isolated, this would be correct.

B. Correct, E-3 is performed after the faulted SG is isolated in E-2. Also, the to enter ECA-3.1 would be if the faulted steam generator was also ruptured (it is not), therefore, the crew will only go from E-2 to E-3 C. Incorrect, although there is a faulted SG, it is not the ruptured SG, so a transition to ECA-3.1 is not appropriate.

D. Incorrect, although there is a transition to E-2 from the E-3 foldout page, this would mean an improper transition to E-3 was made from E-0.

Technical

References:

E-0, E-2, E-3, OVID 106704 sheet 4 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event Question Source: Bank #100 L051 2/2007 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 NOTE: changes made to valve FCV-37 AND RM-73 radiation monitor to reflect plant nomenclature DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2

Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.4.11 - Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures. Group # 4 K/A # G2.4.11 Rating 4.2 Question 100 In accordance with OP1.DC10, Conduct of Plant Operations, which of the following is a responsibility of the Shift Foreman during an Abnormal Plant Operation?

A. Provide direction and supervision of the unit while maintaining an overall view of the plant situation.

B. Evaluate the relative risk to the plant by determining if plant conditions are improving, stabilizing or degrading.

C. Activate the emergency plan and assume emergency response command and control until relieved D. Ensures crew diagnostics are correct, proper procedure is being used and proper prioritization of tasks.

Proposed Answer: A. Provide direction and supervision of the unit while maintaining an overall view of the plant situation.

Explanation:

All responsibilities listed are SRO responsibilities, but each SRO position has unique responsibilities A. Correct. This is the responsibility of the SFM. (step 5.2.2.c.1)

B. Incorrect. Responsibility of the STA/IA. (step 5.2.3.c.2)

C. Incorrect. Responsibility of the SM (step 5.2.1.e.1.

D. Incorrect. Responsibility of the SM (step 5.2.1.e.1.a).

Technical

References:

OP1.DC10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 41661 -Describe the duties of the WCSFM/STA during abnormal conditions Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Exam Rev 2