Text

April 2021 Administered Written Exam
	ML22215A186
Person / Time
Site:	Dresden
Issue date:	05/14/2021
From:	Chuck Zoia; NRC/RGN-III/DRS/OLB
To:	; Exelon Generation Co
	Zoia C
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ML20136A316	List: ML22215A181; ML22215A185; ML22215A186;
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	Download: ML22215A186 (242)
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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 1 ID: 27685 Points: 1.00 What is the estimated time that the Unit 3 250 VDC Safety Related batteries will carry the normal DC loads plus all DC loads required for safe shutdown on ONE unit and operations required to limit the consequences of a design basis event on the OTHER unit during a loss of all AC power?

A. 30 minutes B. 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months C. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months D. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months Answer: C Answer Explanation The battery of the 250 VDC Safety Related system has sufficient capacity to supply normal dc loads plus all dc loads required for safe shutdown on ONE unit and operations required to limit the consequences of a design basis event on the OTHER unit for a period of 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months .

ILT EXAM Page: 1 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 1 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27685 User-Defined ID: 27685 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 1 - 295004.K1.04 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE263LN002.01

Reference:

UFSAR 8.3.2.1.1, DGA - 3 K/A: 295004.K1.04 2.8 / 2.9 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF D.C.

POWER: Effect of battery discharge rate on capacity.

CFR: 41.8 to 41.10 Safety Function: 6 PRA: Yes Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2011 Cert Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible because 30 minutes is the time frame to complete load shed in order to insure that the system has sufficient capacity to supply normal dc loads plus all dc loads required for safe shutdown on ONE unit and operations required to limit the consequences of a design basis event on the OTHER unit for a period of 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months , can be met.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months is the Tech Spec LCO for a loss of a 250Vdc battery system.

C. Correct - The battery of the 250 VDC Safety Related system has sufficient capacity to supply normal dc loads plus all dc loads required for safe shutdown on ONE unit and operations required to limit the consequences of a design basis event on the OTHER unit for a period of 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months .

D. Incorrect - Plausible because the Unit 2 and 3 safety related 250-V batteries are lead calcium batteries which utilize 120 cells having a nominal 8-hour rating of 1495 ampere-hours based on a minimum terminal voltage of 210-V when discharged to 1.75 volts per cell (vpc) at 77 degrees F and a fully charged specific gravity of 1.215.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 2 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 2 ID: 27686 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a Scram and Turbine/Generator trip occurred.

Instrument Air is ___(1)___ the extraction steam non-return check valves to prevent ___(2)___.

A. (1) applied to (2) turbine overspeeding B. (1) applied to (2) condenser overpressurization C. (1) vented off (2) turbine overspeeding D. (1) vented off (2) condenser overpressurization Answer: C Answer Explanation IA is vented off on a turbine trip to prevent steam flow from the FW heaters back to the main condenser, through the turbine, causing the turbine to overspeed.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 2 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27686 User-Defined ID: 27686 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 2 - 295005.K2.05 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 4 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE260LN001.12

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-6 B-10,11,12 DOA 5600-01, UFSAR 10.2.2 K/A: 295005.K2.05 2.6 / 2.7 K/A: Knowledge of the interrelations between MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR TRIP and the following: Extraction steam system.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 3 PRA: No Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 08-1 NRC, 11-1 Cert Explanation:

A. Incorrect - IA is vented off on a turbine trip to prevent steam flow from the FW heaters back to the main condenser, through the turbine, causing the turbine to overspeed. The first part is plausible because many of our air operated valves are air to actuate. The second part is correct.

B. Incorrect - IA is vented off on a turbine trip to prevent steam flow from the FW heaters back to the main condenser, the issue is not condenser overpressurization. The first part is plausible because many of our air operated valves are air to actuate. Part two is plausible because overpressurization of the main condenser is a concern at the plant, which is why the condenser has atmospheric relief diaphragms installed to protect it. If too much steam is supplied to the main condenser, it could results in a an increase in Main Condenser pressure and cause these diaphragms to rupture.

The steam from the extraction check valves, in the example given, is sent to the main condenser, after going through the turbine, but is too small to have a direct impact on main condenser pressure.

C. Correct - IA is vented off on a turbine trip to prevent steam flow from the FW heaters back to the main condenser, through the turbine, causing the turbine to overspeed.

D. Incorrect - Part one is correct. While air is vented off the issue is not condenser overpressurization, the concern is turbine overspeed.

Part two is plausible because overpressurization of the main condenser is a concern at the plant, which is why the condenser has atmospheric relief diaphragms installed to protect it. It too much steam is supplied to the main condenser, it could results in a an increase in Main Condenser pressure and cause these diaphragms to rupture. The steam from the extraction check valves, in the example given, is sent to the main condenser, after going through the turbine, but is too small to have a direct impact on main condenser pressure.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 5 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 3 ID: 27687 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100%.

DSSP 0100-CR, SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE - CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION, has been entered.

Unit Supervisor directs initiation of the U3 Isolation Condenser and evacuation of the Main Control Room.

Which of the following 903-3 panel switches must be re-positioned, at a MINIMUM, to initiate the U3 Isolation Condenser?

A. 1 ONLY B. 3 ONLY C. 1 AND 2 D. 3 AND 4 Answer: B Answer Explanation With the Iso Cond in a normal system lineup, both the outlet isolation valves (Drywell inboard and outboard) are open, along with the Drywell inboard inlet isolation valve. The Drywell outboard inlet isolation (3-1301-3) is in the normal closed position and will be the only valve that will need to be re-positioned.

ILT EXAM Page: 6 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 3 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27687 User-Defined ID: 27687 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 3 - 295016.A1.09 Num Field 1: 23687 Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE207LN001.05

Reference:

DSSP 0100-CR, DOP 1300-03 K/A: 295016.A1.09 4.0 / 4.0 K/A: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to CONTROL ROOM ABANDONMENT : Isolation/emergency condenser(s): Plant-Specific CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 7 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 10-1 NRC, 18-1 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - With the Iso Cond in a normal system lineup, both the outlet isolation valves (Drywell inboard and outboard) are open. This is plausible since this vlv must be in the open position to allow system flow.

B. Correct - With the Iso Cond in a normal system lineup, both the outlet isolation valves (Drywell inboard and outboard) are open, along with the Drywell inboard inlet isolation valve. The Drywell outboard inlet isolation (3-1301-3) is in the normal closed position and will be the only valve that will need to be re-positioned.

C. Incorrect - With the Iso Cond in a normal system lineup, both the outlet isolation valves (Drywell inboard and outboard) are open. This is plausible since these valves must be in the open position to allow system flow.

D. Incorrect - While both the Iso Condenser 3 and 4 vlv must be open for system flow, the 3-1301-4 is normally open and would not require repositioning This is plausible since this vlv must be in the open position to allow system flow.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 7 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 4 ID: 27844 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when a manual SCRAM was initiated due to a plant transient.

The US has directed use of MSL drain valves to reduce RPV pressure, per DEOP 0500-07, ALTERNATE EMERGENCY DEPRESSURIZATION SYSTEMS, What are the expected Main Control Room MSL drain valve indications BEFORE and AFTER the evolution?

(1) Initially all valve position indicating lights are...

(2) Upon completion all valve position indicating lights are...

A. (1) RED.

(2) GREEN, except the 2-220-3 MSL DRN VLV will be RED B. (1) RED for valves inside the primary containment and GREEN for valves outside primary containment.

(2) RED.

C. (1) GREEN.

(2) RED, except the 2-220-3 MSL DRN VLV will be GREEN D. (1) GREEN for valves inside the primary containment and RED for valves outside primary containment.

(2) RED.

Answer: C Answer Explanation The MSL drain valves are normally closed in Mode 1, and would be opened to reduce pressure in DEOP 0500-07. When closed they indicate GREEN. When open they indicate RED. The 2-220-3 vlv is not opened in DEOP 0500-07, and so will remain GREEN.

ILT EXAM Page: 8 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 4 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27844 User-Defined ID: 27844 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 4 - 295025.A1.01 Num Field 1: 27825 Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 9 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE239LN001.11

Reference:

DOA 1000-01 K/A: 295025.A1.01 2.9 / 3.0 K/A: Ability to operate or monitor the following as they apply to HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE: Main steam line drains CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 3 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 18-1 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - This is the correct lighting configuration, except for MOV 2-0220-3, which is not opened and will remain GREEN.

Plausible - Plausible because this is the correct lighting configuration for the valves, except for MOV 2-0220-3. Additionally, this is the normal configuration for these valves during startup, when all four valves are open.

B. Incorrect - All valves are RED except for the 2-0220-3 valve, which remains closed and is GREEN.

Plausible - Because the student may confuse the green board concept. This is the inverse of the correct lighting configuration, except for MOV 2-0220-3 which remains closed and is GREEN.

Additionally, all four valves are operated together during startup, so it is plausible that all would have the same indication.

C. Correct - The MSL drain valves are normally closed in Mode 1, and would be opened to reduce pressure in DEOP 0500-07. When closed they indicate GREEN. When open they indicate RED. The 2-220-3 vlv is not opened in DEOP 0500-07, and so will remain GREEN.

D. Incorrect - This is the inverse of the correct lighting configuration.

Plausible - Because the student may confuse the green board concept. This is the inverse of the correct lighting configuration.

Note: Dresden utilizes a green board concept. Normal positions of valves are indicated by green lights. This tests the candidate's knowledge of the lineup at during normal operation and in different modes.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 10 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 5 ID: 27691 Points: 1.00 With the Reactor experiencing an ATWS condition, COLD SHUTDOWN BORON WEIGHT is defined as the amount of boron necessary to maintain the Reactor shutdown with which of the following additional conditions?

A. Xenon free core RPV water level +8 to -59 inches B. Xenon free core RPV water level is at the high level trip setpoint.

C. 72 hour8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months shutdown Xenon RPV water level +8 to -59 inches D. 72 hour8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months shutdown Xenon RPV water level is at the high level trip setpoint.

Answer: B Answer Explanation Per EPG Rev 3, Appendix B, section 18.2, Cold Shutdown Boron Weight is defined as the amount of boron necessary to shutdown the reactor and maintain a shutdown condition with the following conditions:

RPV water level is at the high level trip setpoint, No xenon is present in the reactor core.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 5 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27691 User-Defined ID: 27691 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 5 - 295037.K3.05 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE211LN001.01

Reference:

UFSAR section 9.3.5, BWROG EPGs/SAGs, Appendix B, section 18.2, EPG B-17-9 K/A: 295037.K.3.05 3.2 / 3.7 K/A: Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN: Cold shutdown boron weight: Plant-Specific.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 1 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2009 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible because part one is correct, part 2 is the normal operating level.

B. Correct - Per EPG Rev 3, Appendix B, section 18.2, Cold Shutdown Boron Weight is defined as the amount of boron necessary to shutdown the reactor and maintain a shutdown condition with the following conditions: RPV water level is at the high level trip setpoint, No xenon is present in the reactor core.

C. Incorrect - Plausible because 72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months after shutdown Xenon is considered near zero, and part 2 is the normal operating level.

D. Incorrect - Plausible because 72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months after shutdown Xenon is considered near zero, part 2 is correct.

NOTE: Per the above documents Cold Shutdown Boron Weight is defined as the amount of boron necessary to shutdown the reactor and maintain it shutdown condition under the following conditions: RPV water level is assumed as normal operating level, Xenon is at equilibrium, and Recirc system in service.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 12 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 6 ID: 27884 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

A large, unisolable Torus leak has occurred, and Torus level is rapidly lowering.

All available ECCS pumps are injecting to maintain RPV level.

The Field Supervisor reports that all ECCS pumps are cavitating.

The NSO would expect to see __________ ECCS pump amps.

A. ERRATIC B. NO CHANGE in C. SUSTAINED LOW D. SUSTAINED HIGH Answer: A Answer Explanation With inadequate NPSH to LPCI pumps, the ECCS pumps will exhibit erratic pump amps.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 6 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27884 User-Defined ID: 27827 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 6 - 295030.K1.02 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29501LK003

Reference:

DEOP 0100, OP-DR-103-102-1002 K/A: 295030.K1.02 3.5 / 3.8 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to LOW SUPPRESSION POOL WATER LEVEL: Pump NPSH CFR: 41.8 to 41.10 Safety Function: 5 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Comments:

A - CORRECT. With inadequate NPSH to LPCI pumps, the ECCS pumps will exhibit erratic pump amps.

B - INCORRECT - The ECCS pumps will experience erratic pump amps.

Plausible the candidate must recognize that there is a direct link between pump cavitation and indicated pump amps.

C- INCORRECT - The ECCS pumps will exhibit erratic pump amps.

Plausible because this is what an ECCS pump would exhibit if it were gas bound.

D - INCORRECT - The ECCS pumps will exhibit erratic pump amps.

Plausible because this is what an ECCS pump would exhibit with runout.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 14 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 7 ID: 27697 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when 125 VDC Bus 2A-1 was de-energized.

What is the IMMEDIATE impact on the Isolation Condenser?

The Isolation Condenser will receive a __________.

A. FULL INITIATION signal ONLY.

B. FULL INITIATION signal AND a half ISOLATION signal.

C. FULL ISOLATION signal ONLY.

D. FULL ISOLATION signal AND a half INITIATION signal.

Answer: D Answer Explanation The isolation condenser isolation and initiation logic is de-energize to actuate. The isolation logic only requires one division to actuate, and the initiation logic requires both divisions. Upon a loss of either division of 125 VDC power, the Isolation Condenser will receive a full Group 5 isolation signal, and a half initiation signal.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 7 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27697 User-Defined ID: 27697 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 7 - 207000.K6.08 Num Field 1: 2005 Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE207LN001.12

Reference:

DOA 6900-03, DOP 6900-02 K/A: 207000.K6.08 3.5/3.7 K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the ISOLATION (EMERGENCY) CONDENSER: D.C.

power: BWR-2,3 CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 4 Pedigree: Bank History: 2017 NRC Level: Memory Explanation:

A - INCORRECT: Only a half initiation signal will occur, and there will also be a full isolation signal.

Plausible because isolation logic only requires one divisor of logic to actuate for a full isolation signal to occur, and the candidate must recognize the difference between the isolation and initiation logic. Also, the lack of an isolation signal is plausible because some other equipment, for example HPCI isolation logic, is energize to actuate.

B - INCORRECT. A full isolation and half initiation signal will occur.

Plausible because this is the exact opposite of what will occur. If initiation and isolation words were swapped, this would be correct.

C - INCORRECT - A half initiation signal will also occur.

Plausible because the answer is partially correct, and the lack of an initiation signal is also plausible because some other equipment, for example HPCI initiation logic, is energize to actuate.

D - CORRECT - The isolation condenser isolation and initiation logic is de-energize to actuate. The isolation logic only requires one division to actuate, and the initiation logic requires both divisions. Upon a loss of either division of 125 VDC power, the Isolation Condenser will receive a full Group 5 isolation signal, and a half initiation signal.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 16 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 8 ID: 27736 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 is operating at near rated power with a Control Rod selected for movement.

APRM 3 failed downscale.

APRM 5 failed downscale.

RBM ___(1)___ is downscale In order to withdraw rods, the operator is required to bypass APRM(s) _____(2)_____.

A. (1) 7 (2) 3 ONLY B. (1) 8 (2) 3 ONLY C. (1) 7 (2) 3 AND 5 D. (1) 8 (2) 3 AND 5 Answer: C Answer Explanation Although APRM 3 must be bypassed to clear the RBM INOP condition, APRM 5 must be bypassed to allow control rod withdrawal due to the additional control rod block present.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 8 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27736 User-Defined ID: 27736 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 8 - 215002 A3.03 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 215LN002.06

References:

DAN 902(3)-5 C-6, DOP 0700-11, DOA 0700-03, DAN 902(3)-5 C-3 K/A: 215002.A3.03 3.1 / 3.1 K/A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the ROD BLOCK MONITOR SYSTEM ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations:

Loss of associated reference APRM channel: BWR-3,4,5 CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 7 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 15-1 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - RBM 7 reference ARPM is downscale. Bypassing APRM 3 will force APRM 2 into the reference position for RBM 7. APRM 5 downscale will initiate an additional rod block and must be cleared or bypassed before control rods can be withdrawn. Plausible because APRM 3 needs to be bypassed as well as APRM 5.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because RBM 8 alternate reference APRM has been lost. No issues with proper operation of RBM 8 will result from conditions in the stem. This requires the candidate to display knowledge of APRM reference channel relationships with RBMs.

C. Correct - Although APRM 3 must be bypassed to clear the RBM INOP condition, APRM 5 must be bypassed to allow control rod withdrawal due to the additional control rod block present.

D. Incorrect - APRMs 3 and 5 must be bypassed to clear the rod blocks (RBM and APRM downscale). Plausible because RBM 8 has lost the alternate reference APRM given stem conditions. Normal reference APRM (4) is not affected.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 18 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 9 ID: 27713 Points: 1.00 Chemistry has reported that high coolant activity exists on Unit 2 and a fuel element failure is suspected.

If site assembly is required, which of the following actions is required per DGA-16, COOLANT HIGH ACTIVITY - FUEL ELEMENT FAILURE, to prevent excessive personnel exposure?

A. Isolating Recirc sample lines B. Isolating the Isolation Condenser C. Isolating HPCI steam supply lines D. Isolating HPCI steam drains to the condenser Answer: D Answer Explanation Per DGA 16 Caution: Assembly area inside the RPA is near the feed pumps, which is against the Condenser shield wall. Any flow of radioactive water to the Condenser would increase dose rates in this area.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 9 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27713 User-Defined ID: 27713 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 9 - Generic 2.3.14 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29501LK049

Reference:

DGA 16 K/A: Generic.2.3.14 3.4 / 3.8 K/A: Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities.

CFR: 41.12 Safety Function: 9 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 11-1 NRC, 15-1 NRC, 16-1 Cert Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Recirc sample drains also do not go to the Condenser.

Plausible because recirc sample drains could contain highly activated water in this case. The student must understand the reason for the isolation, due to the location of the assembly area..

B. Incorrect - Isolation Condenser drains do not go to the Condenser.

The student must understand the reason for the isolation, due to the location of the assembly area..

Plausible because isolation condenser sample drains could contain highly activated water in this case. The student must understand the reason for the isolation, due to the location of the assembly area.

C. Incorrect - Isolating HPCI steam flow would block the leakage to the condenser, but would render HPCI unavailable, so this action would not be appropriate Plausible because isolating HPCI steam lines would isolate one potential source of increased dose in the condenser in this situation.

D. Correct - Per DGA 16 Caution: Assembly area inside the RPA is near the feed pumps, which is against the Condenser shield wall. Any flow of radioactive water to the Condenser would increase dose rates in this area.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 20 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 10 ID: 27719 Points: 1.00 Which of the following temporary directives can be issued and controlled by use of a STANDING ORDER?

A. Describe the method of operating a system in place of an existing procedure.

B. Change the order of performance steps to a test procedure in lieu of a procedure change.

C. Require increased monitoring to be utilized when remote indication of a radiation monitor is lost.

D. Provide guidance on actions to take for inoperable equipment which conflict with the Technical Specification requirements.

Answer: C Answer Explanation OP-AA-102-104 directs Standing Orders: Are longer-term, written directions from Operations Management to Shift Crews which include but are not limited to: Non-routine station/unit operating condition; Temporary administrative requirements; Authorities and responsibilities not included in procedures.

ILT EXAM Page: 21 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 10 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27719 User-Defined ID: 27719 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 10 - Generic 2.1.15 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29900LK180

Reference:

OP-AA-102-104, AD-AA-101 K/A: G.2.1.15 2.7/3.4 K/A: Knowledge of administrative requirements for temporary management directives, such as standing orders, night orders, operations memos, etc.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: N/a Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2017 NRC Comments:

A - Incorrect. OP-AA-102-104 directs Standing Orders: Shall not conflict with existing procedures. Plausible because they can include enhancements in frequency or additional administrative requirements while performing procedures.

B - Incorrect. Temporary changes to procedures (including test procedures) are controlled by AD-AA-101. OP-AA-102-104 directs Standing Orders: Shall not be used as a substitute for procedures.

Plausible because it can institute authorities and responsibilities not included in procedures.

C - Correct. OP-AA-102-104 directs Standing Orders: Are longer-term, written directions from Operations Management to Shift Crews which include but are not limited to: Non-routine station/unit operating condition; Temporary administrative requirements; Authorities and responsibilities not included in procedures.

D - Incorrect. OP-AA-102-104 directs Standing Orders: Shall not conflict with technical specifications. Plausible because they can require additional administrative requirements that are not part of tech specs.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 22 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 11 ID: 27845 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

A manual SCRAM was inserted.

APRM downscales are NOT illuminated.

The Unit Supervisor directed injecting with SBLC per the Hard Card.

The NSO placed the SBLC keylock switch in the SYS 1 position and reported the following SBLC indications 15 seconds later:

3A Pump light is illuminated.

3A Squib light is illuminated.

3B Pump light is NOT illuminated.

3B Squib light is illuminated.

Flow light is extinguished.

Currently, ___(1)___ boron is injecting and the next action required is to ___(2)___ .

A. (1) NO (2) inject with alternate SBLC B. (1) NO (2) take the SBLC keylock switch to the SYS 2 position C. (1) 40 gpm (2) verify that the RWCU system isolated D. (1) 80 gpm (2) verify that the RWCU system isolated Answer: B Answer Explanation With the light indications given, the 3A SBLC pump is running, but no squibs have fired. Therefore, there is no boron being injected.

With the failure of the 3A Squib to fire, as indicated by the light still being illuminated, the correct action is to take the SBLC keylock switch to the Sys 2 position.

ILT EXAM Page: 23 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 11 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27845 User-Defined ID: 27845 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 11 - 211000.A2.02 Num Field 1: 27732 Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE211LN001.12

Reference:

DOP 1100-02, DEOP 400-5 K/A: 211000.A2.02 3.6 / 3.9 K/A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL SYSTEM ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Failure of explosive valve to fire.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 1 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - (1) The first part of the answer is correct. (2) the required action per the hard card is to take the SBLC keylock switch to the Sys 2 position. Plausible because if SBLC fails to inject after the keylock switch is taken to Sys 2, then alternate SBLC injection would be required..

B. Correct - (1) With the light indications given, the 3A SBLC pump is running, but no squibs have fired. Therefore, there is no boron being injected. (2) With the failure of the 3A Squib to fire, as indicated by the light still being illuminated, the correct action is to take the SBLC keylock switch to the Sys 2 position.

C. Incorrect - (1) Currently, no boron injection is occurring (2) the required action is to place the SBLC keylock switch in the Sys 2 position.

Plausible because (1) 40 gpm is the correct injection rate if a SQUIB had fired. (2) this is a valid action, but it is not the NEXT required action.

D. Incorrect - (1) Currently, no boron injection is occurring (2) the required action is to place the SBLC keylock switch in the Sys 2 position.

Plausible because (1) 80 gpm is the nominal injection rate for use of SBLC in for Level Control when an ATWS is not occurring. (2) this is a valid action, but it is not the NEXT required action.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 24 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 12 ID: 27893 Points: 1.00 U2 and U3 were at 100% power with RB Ventilation running.

Reactor Building differential pressure was -0.6 inWC and steady.

THEN a HELB occurred in the Reactor Building.

Reactor Building differential pressure rose rapidly to -0.4 inWC, and continued to rise.

If this trend continues, the Secondary Containment Tech Spec Limit will be reached at _____(1)_____

inWC.

By design, if Reactor Building differential pressure reaches approximately +2.2 inWC, the _____(2)_____

will trip.

A. (1) -0.25 (2) SUPPLY fans ONLY B. (1) -0.25 (2) SUPPLY fans AND EXHAUST fans C. (1) -0.30 (2) SUPPLY fans ONLY D. (1) -0.30 (2) SUPPLY fans AND EXHAUST fans Answer: A Answer Explanation The secondary containment differential pressure limit is greater than or equal to 0.25 inWC vacuum, per TS 3.6.4.1.

If secondary containment differential pressure reaches approximately 2.2 psig, the RB SUPPLY fans will trip ONLY.

ILT EXAM Page: 25 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 12 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27893 User-Defined ID: BOTH SUPPLY AND EXHA Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 12 - 295035 K1.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE 288LN001.03

Reference:

TS 3.6.4.1, DAN 923-5-C-1, DOP 5750-02 K/A: 295035 K1.01 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Secondary Containment High Differential Pressure: Secondary containment integrity.

CFR: 41.8 to 41.10 Safety Function: 5 Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. CORRECT - (1) The secondary containment differential pressure limit is greater than or equal to 0.25 inWC vacuum, per TS 3.6.4.1. (2)

If secondary containment differential pressure reaches approximately 2.2 psig, the RB SUPPLY fans will trip ONLY.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) Only the supply fans will trip.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) Both Supply and Exhaust fans have automatic trips. ONLY the supply fan trips for a positive pressure condition.

C. INCORRECT - (1) The secondary containment differential pressure limit is greater than or equal to 0.25 inWC vacuum, per TS 3.6.4.1. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) this is the value for the Rx Bldg DP Low alarm.

(2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT - (1) The secondary containment differential pressure limit is greater than or equal to 0.25 inWC vacuum, per TS 3.6.4.1. (2)

Only the supply fans will trip.

Plausible because (1) this is the value for the Rx Bldg DP Low alarm.

(2) Both Supply and Exhaust fans have automatic trips. ONLY the supply fan trips for a positive pressure condition.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 26 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 13 ID: 27753 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power, when a spurious Group I initiation occurred.

With NO Operator action, what would be an indication of a successful scram signal being generated by RPS?

A. Annunciator 902-5 D-15, CHANNEL B RX SCRAM is lit and solid ONLY.

B. Annunciator 902-5 D-10, CHANNEL A RX SCRAM is lit and flashing ONLY.

C. Annunciator 902-5 C-1, WEST SCRAM INST VOL NOT DRAINED is lit and solid.

D. Annunciator 902-5 A-1, SCRAM VLV AIR SUPPLY PRESS LO, is lit and flashing.

Answer: D Answer Explanation Upon a scram signal, the scram dump, backup scram and scram pilot valves reposition to bleed pressure from the scram air header (allowing rods to move into the core). When the scram air header pressure bleeds off, DAN 902-5 A-1 will be lit and flashing (since no operator action was taken to acknowledge the alarms.)

ILT EXAM Page: 27 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 13 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27753 User-Defined ID: 27753 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 13 - 212000.A3.07 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE201LN001.10

Reference:

DAN 902-5 A-1 K/A: 212000.A3.07 3.6 / 3.6 K/A: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM including: SCRAM air header pressure.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 7 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - For a successful SCRAM to occur, annunciator 902-5 D-10, CHANNEL A RX SCRAM annunciator would also be alarming.

Plausible because this alarm would be in with a full RPS scram signal.

It is incorrect because it would also be in for a Channel B Half Scram with no rod movement.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because this alarm would be in with a full RPS scram signal. It is incorrect because it would also be in for a Channel B Half Scram with no rod movement.

C. Incorrect - SCRAM INST VOL HI LVL ROD BLOCK would not insure an automatic RPS SCRAM actuation has occurred. Plausible because this alarm could come in with an RPS actuated SCRAM.

D. Correct - Upon a scram signal, the scram dump, backup scram and scram pilot valves reposition to bleed pressure from the scram air header (allowing rods to move into the core). When the scram air header pressure bleeds off, DAN 902-5 A-1 will be lit and flashing (since no operator action was taken to acknowledge the alarms.)

Note: The distractors with lit and solid are incorrect because with no operator action, this would indicate no change in annunciator status.

The distractors with manual scram are incorrect, because this was an automatic scram (without operator action).

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 28 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 14 ID: 27735 Points: 1.00 A LOCA has occurred on Unit 3. Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) 3 has loaded onto Bus 34-1.

However, Bus 34-1 voltage has just dropped to 3700 VAC.

Assuming Bus 34-1 voltage remains constant, which of the following loads on Bus 34-1, if any, will trip after 5 minutes?

1. 480 VAC Bus 39

2. 3C & 3D LPCI Pumps

3. 3B & 3C Shutdown Cooling Pumps

4. 3B RBCCW Pump A. 1 AND 4 ONLY.

B. 2 AND 3 ONLY.

C. 1, 2, 3 AND 4.

D. NO loads will trip.

Answer: D Answer Explanation The 5-minute timer is out of the circuit due to the EDG breaker being closed. Therefore, no loads will trip.

ILT EXAM Page: 29 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 14 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 4 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27735 User-Defined ID: 27735 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 14 - 264000 K3.03 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 262LN001.12

Reference:

DOP 6500-27, DAN 903-8 D-4, DOA 6500-08 K/A: 264000.K3.03 4.1/4.2 K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the EMERGENCY GENERATORS (DIESEL/JET) will have on following:

Major loads powered from electrical buses fed by the emergency generator(s).

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 6 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2013 NRC, 2015 Cert Explanations:

A. Incorrect - No loads will trip due to the low voltage condition.

Plausible because both Bus 39 and 3B RBCCW pp are powered by Bus 34-1 and would trip on undervoltage without the U3 EDG connected to the bus.

B. Incorrect - No loads will trip due to the low voltage condition..

Plausible because the LPCI pumps and SDC pumps would trip, when Bus 34-1 tripped, if the EDG was not loaded on the bus.

C. Incorrect - No loads will trip due to the low voltage condition.

Plausible because some of the loads supplied by Bus 39 will shed, but the Bus itself will stay energized.

D. Correct - the 5-minute timer is out of the circuit due to the EDG breaker being closed. Therefore, no loads will trip.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 30 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 15 ID: 27725 Points: 1.00 Both units were operating at 100% power.

The following annunciators were received simultaneously:

902-3 A-3, RX BLDG VENT CH B RAD HI HI

902-3 F-14, RX BLDG VENT CH A RAD HI HI Three minutes after the annunciators were received, which of the following is the expected flow for the Standby Gas Treatment System (SBGT)?

A. 300 SCFM B. 3600 SCFM C. 4200 SCFM D. 5000 SCFM Answer: C Answer Explanation With a high radiation condition in the exhaust of the Reactor Building Ventilation (as indicated by the two annunciators), the Reactor Building Ventilation will trip. When this trip occurs, the SBGT treatment system will auto start. With an auto start, the normal expected flow is 4000 scfm plus or minus 10 percent. With 300 scfm ambient air passing through the standby unit, the required range for flow is 3900 to 4700 scfm indicated on SBGT DISCH FLOW, FI 7540-13.

ILT EXAM Page: 31 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 15 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27725 User-Defined ID: 27725 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 15 - 295038.A1.06 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE261LN001.06

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-3 A-3, DAN 902(3)-3 F-14, DOP 7500-01 K/A: 295038.A1.06 3.5 / 3.6 K/A: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE: Plant Ventilation.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 9 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 08-1 NRC, 09-1 Cert, 18-1 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - With both channels Hi Hi, Rx Bldg Vent will trip and the selected SBGT train will start and flow will be approximately 4200 scfm. This is plausible if it is not recognized that the setpoint for the 2 alarms in the stem are the same as the auto start setpoint of the SBGT system.

B. Incorrect - 3600 is plausible due to the fact that if the individual subtracts the 300 scfm for ambient air instead of adding to the 3900 required range flow would indicate 3600 scfm.

C. Correct - With a high radiation condition in the exhaust of the Reactor Building Ventilation (as indicated by the two annunciators),

the Reactor Building Ventilation will trip. When this trip occurs, the SBGT treatment system will auto start. With an auto start, the normal expected flow is 4000 scfm plus or minus 10 percent. With 300 scfm ambient air passing through the standby unit, the required range for flow is 3900 to 4700 scfm indicated on SBGT DISCH FLOW, FI 7540-13.

D. Incorrect - Plausible because this is what flow indicates when reverse flow from the other train is added after swapping SBGT trains for cooling.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 32 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 16 ID: 27695 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is Shutdown with Recirc system secured.

Reactor Water Level is 46 inches

Reactor Water Temperature is 200 degrees F

2C Shutdown Cooling is lined up to the Fuel Pool Cooling system

2A and 2B Shutdown Cooling are running at full flow, lined up to the vessel

2B Shutdown Cooling pump trips on overcurrent What are the operational concerns based on the present plant conditions?

A. Reactor vessel temperature stratification may occur and result in vessel heatup and pressurization.

B. Water level is close to the +48 inches limit, whereby maintaining at or below +48 inches ensures natural recirculation flow through the core.

C. Reactor Recirculation loop temperatures will lag vessel temperatures due to the long loop transit times associated with natural loop circulation.

D. The reactor vessel metal temperature will lag behind actual water temperature. This may cause vessel shell to flange differential temperature to exceed 140F.

Answer: A Answer Explanation With no RR pumps running there is no loop circulation, natural or otherwise. The loop(s) that SDC is lined up to still actively draw water across temperature elements, so there is no "lag".

RPV/L must be above +48, not below, to enhance natural circulation.

ILT EXAM Page: 33 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 16 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27695 User-Defined ID: 27695 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 16 - 205000.K3.03 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE205LN001.06

Reference:

DOP 1000-03 K/A: 205000.K3.03 3.8/3.9 K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SHUTDOWN COOLING SYSTEM (RHR SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE) will have on following: Reactor temperatures (moderator, vessel, flange)

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 4 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2013 Cert Comments:

A. Correct - With no RR pumps running there is no loop circulation, natural or otherwise. The loop(s) that SDC is lined up to still actively draw water across temperature elements, so there is no "lag".RPV/L must be above +48, not below, to enhance natural circulation.

B. Incorrect - RPV/L must be above +48, not below, to enhance natural circulation. Plausible because with recirc running or 2 SDC pumps running, 46 inches would be OK.

C. Incorrect - The loop(s) that SDC is lined up to, still actively draw water across temperature elements, so there is no "lag". Plausible because this would be true is level was above +48 inches.

D. Incorrect - The value of 140F is no longer a tech spec number, but a large temperature mismatch between the shell and flange is still a concern when flooding up. Plausible because due to a plugged bottom head drain. There is Dresden OPEX for this event.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 34 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 17 ID: 27738 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100% power when the following timeline of events occurred:

00:00:00 - Drywell pressure rose to 8.5 psig.

00:03:00 - Torus Sprays were established with ALL four LPCI pumps operating.

00:03:15 - Annunciator 903-8 F-5, 4 KV BUS 34-1 OVERCURRENT, alarmed.

00:03:30 - Annunciator DG 2/3A B-2, DIESEL ENGINE MAIN BRG OIL PRESS, alarmed.

At time 00:04:00, the LPCI system would have _______ supplying Torus Spray flow.

A. NO pumps B. the A and B pumps ONLY C. the C and D pumps ONLY D. ALL four pumps Answer: B Answer Explanation When Drywell pressure exceeded 2.0 psig, the reactor will scram and the EDGs will auto start (but NOT close into their respective buses). The subsequent overcurrent condition on Bus 34-1 will cause it to separate from its current source of power (Bus 34) but the EDG output breaker is not allowed to close in to re-energize Bus 34-1. This causes the C and D pumps to become de-energized, leaving only the A and B pumps supplying flow.

ILT EXAM Page: 35 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 17 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27738 User-Defined ID: 27738 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 17 - 230000 G2.4.31 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 36 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE203LN001.12

Reference:

12E-3304, DAN 902-8 F-5 K/A: 230000.G2.4.31 4.2/4.1 K/A: Knowledge of annunciator alarms, indications, or response procedures: RHR/LPCI. Torus/Suppression Pool Spray Mode.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 5 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2010 NRC Explanations:

A. Incorrect - With an auto start signal DIESEL ENGINE MAIN BRG OIL PRESS LOW does not cause a trip of the 2/3 EDG. Plausible because 34-1 OVERCURRENT will trip the C and D pumps. A and B would trip on Lo oil pressure without a auto start of the 2/3 EDG.

B. Correct - When Drywell pressure exceeded 2.0 psig, the reactor will scram and the EDGs will auto start (but NOT close into their respective buses). The subsequent overcurrent condition on Bus 34-1 will cause it to separate from its current source of power (Bus 34) but the EDG output breaker is not allowed to close in to re-energize Bus 34-1. This causes the C and D pumps to become de-energized, leaving only the A and B pumps supplying flow.

C. Incorrect - The subsequent overcurrent condition on Bus 34-1 will cause it to separate from its current source of power (Bus 34) but the EDG output breaker is not allowed to close in to re-energize Bus 34-1.

Plausible because the U3 EDG is running just cannot close on to the faulted bus. If 2/3 EDG was not an auto start it would have tripped.

D. Incorrect - When Drywell pressure exceeded 2.0 psig, the reactor will scram and the EDGs will auto start (but NOT close into their respective buses). The subsequent overcurrent condition on Bus 34-1 will cause it to separate from its current source of power (Bus 34) but the EDG output breaker is not allowed to close in to re-energize Bus 34-1. This causes the C and D pumps to become de-energized, leaving only the A and B pumps supplying flow. Plausible because both the u3 and 2/3 EDGs are running and available.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 37 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 18 ID: 27871 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred resulting in an ATWS.

Water level initially dropped to -70 inches, and is being maintained between -150 and -170 inches.

The Operating team has just bypassed the interlocks for the MSIV low RPV water level AND Off Gas high radiation isolations.

What is an indication that the interlocks have been bypassed?

A. The GROUP 1 isolation can be reset.

B. The Off Gas SJAE suction valves automatically open.

C. Annunciator 902-5 B-13, CHANNEL A/B RPV LVL LO, can be reset.

D. The MSIVs automatically open, UNLESS a valid MSL high rad signal is present.

Answer: A Answer Explanation The MSIV LO-LO LEVEL BYPASS KEYLOCKS in BYBASS per the above procedure bypass the Lo-Lo RPV water level Group 1 signal. This permits the Group 1 Isolation to be reset with a Lo-Lo RPV water level.

ILT EXAM Page: 38 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 18 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27871 User-Defined ID: 27871 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 18 - 223002.K4.08 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field: 2009 Cert Comments: Objective: 29502LK077

Reference:

DAN 902-5 B-13, DEOP 0500-02, 12E-2501 sht 1 and 2, DAN 902(3)-5 D-4 K/A: 223002.K4.08 3.3 / 3.7 K/A: Knowledge of PRIMARY CONTAINMENT ISOLATION SYSTEM/NUCLEAR STEAM SUPPLY SHUT-OFF design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Manual defeating of selected isolations during specified emergency conditions.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 5 PRA: No Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2010 NRC, 2012 NRC Explanation:

A. Correct - The MSIV LO-LO LEVEL BYPASS KEYLOCKS in BYPASS per the above procedure bypass the Lo-Lo RPV water level Group 1 signal. This permits the Group 1 Isolation to be reset with a Lo-Lo RPV water level.

B. Incorrect - The Off Gas suction valves are not affected by these jumpers. Plausible because the Chimney isolation valve is affected and can be reopened.

C. Incorrect - The low level annunciator cannot be reset when these keylocks are placed in bypass. Plausible because the -59 annunciators GROUP 1 ISOLATION INITIATED annunciator can be reset.

D. Incorrect - The MSIVs do NOT auto open (these jumpers prevent their closure).

Plausible because there are types of equipment that will automatically reposition if the signal causing them to close is reset.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 39 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 19 ID: 27835 Points: 1.00 Operations is performing a LIVE bus transfer between Bus 24-1 and 34-1, in accordance with DOP 6500-08, BUS 24-1 TO BUS 34-1 TIE BREAKER OPERATION, with the following conditions:

Unit 2 will be picking up load from Bus 34-1.

BUS 34-1 & BUS 24-1 TIE ACB has been closed.

The synchroscope switch has been place in ON for BUS 24-1 & BUS 34-1 TIE ACB.

The voltage difference between the buses is 40 Volts.

The synchroscope is within 2 degrees of vertical (358 degrees).

The voltage AND phase limits __________ currently met for closing the BUS 24-1 & BUS 34-1 TIE ACB cross-tie breaker.

During this evolution, the MAXIMUM allowed amperage FROM Bus 24 TO Bus 24-1 is __________

amps.

A. are 350 amps B. are 600 amps C. are NOT 350 amps D. are NOT 600 amps Answer: B Answer Explanation Conditions are met for closing the breaker. The voltage difference is within 50 volts, and the phase difference on the synchroscope is within 5 degrees. Therefore, the cross tie can be closed.

Per DOP 6500-08, the maximum amperage limit from bus 24 to 24-1 during this evolution is 600 amps.

ILT EXAM Page: 40 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 19 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27835 User-Defined ID: 27835 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 19 - 262001.A4.04 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 26204LK009

Reference:

DOP 6500-08 K/A: 262001.A4.04 3.6 / 3.7 K/A: Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Synchronizing and paralleling of different A.C. supplies CFR: 41.7 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT (1) The first part of the answer is correct. (2) the amperage limit from Bus 24 to Bus 24-1 is 600 amps.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) 350 amps is the maximum amperage limit through the cross tie, with both cross ties in service.

B. CORRECT - (1) Conditions are met for closing the breaker. The voltage difference is within 50 volts, and the phase difference on the synchroscope is within 5 degrees. Therefore, the cross tie can be closed. (2) Per DOP 6500-08, the maximum amperage limit from bus 24 to 24-1 during this evolution is 600 amps.

C. INCORRECT (1) Conditions are met for closing the breaker. (2) the amperage limit from Bus 24 to Bus 24-1 is 600 amps.

Plausible because (1) if the phase difference were greater than 5 degrees, or the voltage difference were above 50 volts, this would be correct (2) 350 amps is the maximum amperage limit through the cross tie, with both cross ties in service.

D. INCORRECT (1) Conditions are met for closing the breaker. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) if the phase difference were greater than 5 degrees, or the voltage difference were above 50 volts, this would be correct (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 41 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 20 ID: 27728 Points: 1.00 The SPDS screen RADIATION RELEASE box will be _______ if the Liquid effluent radiation output signal is above the action setpoint.

A. RED B. BLUE C. CYAN D. YELLOW Answer: A Answer Explanation The Radiation Release box will be RED: This color is used for an SPDS parameter in Alarm condition.

ILT EXAM Page: 42 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 20 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27728 User-Defined ID: 27728 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 20 - 295017 A1.05 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 283LN002.03

Reference:

DOP 9950-17 K/A: 295017.A1.05 2.7/3.2 K/A: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE: SPDS/ERIS/CRIDS/DGS; Plant-Specific CFR: 41.7 Level: Memory Safety Function: 9 PRA: No Pedigree: Bank History: 2013 Cert, ILT 14-1 NRC, 15-1 CERT Explanation:

A - CORRECT. The Radiation Release box will be RED: This color is used for an SPDS parameter in Alarm condition.

B - INCORRECT. The correct answer is RED.

Plausible because the radiation release box will be blue if there are NOT a sufficient number of required instrumentation channels operable for monitoring a given SPDS parameter.

C - INCORRECT. The correct answer is RED.

Plausible because the radiation release box will be cyan if any of the SPDS calculated values for the above parameters is invalid.

D - INCORRECT. The correct answer is RED.

Plausible because yellow indicates a pre-alarm condition (low and high).

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 43 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 21 ID: 27702 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

Annunciator 902-3 C-15, ADS MAIN DC PWR FAILURE is in alarm.

ERV position indicating lights are OFF on the 902-3 panel.

RPV pressure is 500 psig and lowering 10 psig/minute.

Drywell pressure is 1.8 psig and rising 0.1 psig/minute.

ADS INHIBIT SWITCH is positioned to AUTO.

RPV level is -30 inches and lowering 10 inches/minute.

When will Low Pressure ECCS pumps FIRST inject?

A. In 4 minutes B. In 5 minutes C. In 11 minutes D. In 20 minutes Answer: D Answer Explanation At this time, RPV pressure has lowered below the shutoff head of low pressure ECCS pump, which is approximately 350 psig. 20 min x 10 psig per minute = 200 psig. 500 psig - 200 psig is 300 psig.

ILT EXAM Page: 44 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 21 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27702 User-Defined ID: 27702 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 21 - 218000.K3.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 218LN001.12A

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-3 C-15, B-13, D-8 K/A: 218000.K3.01 4.4*/4.4*

K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the ADS will have on the following: Restoration of reactor water level after a break that does not depressurize the reactor when required CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 3 PRA: Yes Pedigree: Bank History: 2017 NRC Level: High Explanation:

A - INCORRECT. Due to loss of ADS DC power, ADS valves will not open for the 2 min timer.

Plausible because this time corresponds to ADS 2 minute timer being exceeded, assuming the TS DW pressure value of < = 1.81 psig, and two minutes to actuate.

B - INCORRECT. Due to loss of ADS DC power, ADS valves will not open for the 2 min timer.

Plausible because this is because this time corresponds to ADS 2 minute timer being exceeded, assuming the nominal DW pressure value of 2.0 psig, and two minutes to actuate.

C - INCORRECT. Due to loss of ADS DC power, ADS valves will not open for the 8.5 min timer.

Plausible because this time corresponds to the timeout of the 8.5 minute ADS timer, which would initiate ADS if it had power.

D - CORRECT. At this time, RPV pressure has lowered below the shutoff head of low pressure ECCS pump, which is approximately 350 psig. 20 min x 10 psig per minute = 200 psig. 500 psig - 200 psig is 300 psig.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 45 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 22 ID: 27701 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power, when the following occurs:

Bus 25 de-energizes due to a fire in the main feed breaker.

Bus 29 experiences an overcurrent condition.

What effect (if any) does this have on the APRM channels?

Channels 1, 2, 3 will be (1) and channels 4, 5, 6 will be (2) .

A. (1) Energized (2) Energized B. (1) Energized (2) De-energized C. (1) De-energized (2) Energized D. (1) De-energized (2) De-energized Answer: C Answer Explanation With a loss of Bus 29, MCC 29-2 is de-energized. MCC 29-2 powers RPS MG set B which powers RPA Bus A. RPS Bus A supplies APRM channels 1,2, and 3.

RPS Bus B is powered by RPS MG A, which is powered by MCC 28-2. RPS Bus B powers APRM 4,5 and 6.

ILT EXAM Page: 46 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 22 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27701 User-Defined ID: 27701 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 22 - 215005.K2.02 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE215LN005.02

Reference:

DOA 0500-05 K/A: 215005.K2.02 2.6/2.8 K/A: Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: APRM channels.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 7 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2017 NRC Explanation:

A - INCORRECT. (1) De-energized - Bus 29 feeds MCC 29-2 which supplies power to RPS bus A. RPS Bus A supplies APRM channels 1,2, and 3. (1) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) the candidate must determine what power is lost and (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

B - INCORRECT. (1) De-energized - Bus 29 feeds MCC 29-2 which supplies power to RPS bus A. RPS Bus A supplies APRM channels 1,2, and 3. (2) Energized - RPS Bus B is still energized, since it is powered by RPS A MG Set comes from bus 28-2. Therefore, APRM 4, 5 and 6 are energized.

This is plausible because it is the opposite of the actual condition. The RPS MG sets are labled opposite from the RPS Buses (RPS MG A powers RPS Bus B).

C - CORRECT. (1) With a loss of Bus 29, MCC 29-2 is de-energized.

MCC 29-2 powers RPS MG set B which powers RPA Bus A. RPS Bus A supplies APRM channels 1,2, and 3. (2) RPS Bus B is powered by RPS MG A, which is powered by MCC 28-2. RPS Bus B powers APRM 4,5and 6.

D - INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) APRM 4, 5 and 6 are still energized.

This is plausible because (1) the first part of the question is correct and (2) MCC 25-2 is a reserve power supply to the RPS MG sets.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 47 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 23 ID: 27706 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100% power when the feed breaker to the Unit 3 250 VDC Turbine Building MCC 3 tripped.

This will cause a loss of power to the . . . . .

A. HPCI System, 3-2303-AOP U3 AUX OIL PUMP B. Isolation Condenser, 2-1301-3 U2 RX INLET ISOL VLV C. Isolation Condenser, 3-1301-3 U3 RX INLET ISOL VLV D. Turbine oil System, 2-5350-ESOP U2 EMERG OIL PUMP Answer: B Answer Explanation The 250 VDC systems are cross connected and that with the feed breaker to the Unit 3 250 VDC Turbine Building MCC 3 tripped it causes a loss of power to the U2 RB MCCs 2A and 2B. The 2-1301-3 U2 RX INLET ISOL VLV is powered from RB MCC 2A.

ILT EXAM Page: 48 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 23 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27706 User-Defined ID: 27706 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 23 - 263000.K2.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE263LN001.12

Reference:

DOA 6900-04, DOP 6900-01 K/A: 263000.K2.01 3.1 / 3.4 K/A: D.C. Electrical Distribution: Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Major D.C. loads.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 6 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2008 NRC Comments:

A. INCORRECT - The 3-2303-AOP U3 HPCI AUXILIARY OIL PUMP is unaffected and still has has power.

Plausible because the 250 VDC systems are cross connected.

B. CORRECT - the 250 VDC systems are cross connected and that with the feed breaker to the Unit 3 250 VDC Turbine Building MCC 3 tripped it causes a loss of power to the U2 RB MCCs 2A and 2B. The 2-1301-3 U2 RX INLET ISOL VLV is powered from RB MCC 2A.

C. INCORRECT -MOV 2-1301-3 has lost power. However, Unit 3 has not.

Plausible because The 2-1301-3 U2 RX INLET ISOL VLV is powered from RB MCC 2A.

D. INCORRECT - The 2-5350-ESOP U2 Emergency seal oil pump is powered from BOP 250 VDC MCC #2.

Plausible because the this is powered by a 250 VDC battery system, just not the one that has lost power.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 49 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 24 ID: 27828 Points: 1.00 An operator will be performing an independent verification of valve positions as part of a clearance order.

How will valve positions be verified?

To VERIFY that a valve is OPEN, the valve will be manually operated _____(1)_____.

To VERIFY that a valve is CLOSED, the valve will be manually operated _____(2)_____.

A. 1) in the OPEN direction ONLY

2) in the CLOSE direction ONLY B. 1) in the OPEN direction ONLY

2) slightly in the OPEN direction, then returned to the original CLOSED position C. 1) slightly in the CLOSE direction, then returned to the original OPEN position

2) in the CLOSE direction ONLY D. 1) slightly in the CLOSE direction, then returned to the original OPEN position

2) slightly in the OPEN direction, then returned to the original CLOSED position Answer: C Answer Explanation To check a valve in the OPEN direction, it is taken slightly in the closed direction, then returned to the original position.

To check a valve closed, it is taken in the CLOSE direction only.

ILT EXAM Page: 50 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 24 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27828 User-Defined ID: 27828 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 24 - Generic.2.2.13 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 51 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29900LK012

Reference:

HU-AA-101, OP-AA-109-101, OP-AA-108-101-1001 K/A: Generic.2.13 4.1 / 4.3 K/A: Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: NEW History: N/A Comments:

Note: Procedures OP-AA-109-101 and HU-AA-101 define what type of verification will be used for placing or removing a clearance order. OP-AA-108-101-1001 specifies how the component will be verified. The operator performing the specified verification method (which in this case would be independent verification) must understand how the specified position verification will be performed.

A. INCORRECT - (1) to check a valve in the OPEN direction, it is taken slightly in the closed direction, then returned to the original position. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) this is similar to what is done for checking a valve closed (2) the second part is correct.

B. INCORRECT - (1) (1) to check a valve in the OPEN direction, it is taken slightly in the closed direction, then returned to the original position. (2) to check a valve closed, it is taken in the CLOSE direction only.

Plausible because (1) this is similar to what is done for checking a valve closed (2) this is similar to what is done to check a valve open.

C. CORRECT - (1) to check a valve in the OPEN direction, it is taken slightly in the closed direction, then returned to the original position. (2) to check a valve closed, it is taken in the CLOSE direction only.

D. Incorrect - (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) to check a valve closed, it is taken in the CLOSE direction only.

Plausible because (2) the first part of the answer is correct (2) this is similar to what is done to check a valve open.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 52 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 25 ID: 27722 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is in Mode 5 with the Reactor Cavity flooded to 4 inches below cavity ventilation ducts.

Main Steam Line (MSL) Plugs are installed in all four MSLs.

RWCU System is available.

U2 NSO is maintaining Reactor Water temperatures 100°F to 110°F in accordance with shift turnover.

Current reactor water temperature is 108°F.

Fuel Pool Gates were just installed one hour ago.

Reactor Core has just been refueled ten hours ago.

2A Shutdown Cooling (SDC) Pump is OOS.

2B SDC Pump is aligned to the Reactor Vessel.

2C SDC Pump is aligned to the Unit 2 Fuel Pool Cooling System.

THEN the 2B SDC Pump trips on overcurrent.

Which ONE of the following actions should be taken to provide decay heat removal comparable to the amount lost due to the trip of the 2B SDC Pump?

A. Maximize 2C SDC Pump flow rate.

B. Initiate RWCU System to maximum system flow.

C. Utilize feed and bleed with a CRD pump and Main Steam Line Drains.

D. Maximize LPCI System injection to RPV with CCSW cooling on the LPCI heat exchanger.

Answer: B Answer Explanation Maximize RWCU (10 MWth) is comparable to 2B SDC Pump (8 MWth) so initiating RWCU is the best choice given.

ILT EXAM Page: 53 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 25 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27722 User-Defined ID: 27722 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 25 - 295021 K1.01 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective:29501LK046

Reference:

DOA 1000-01 K/A: 295021 K1.01 3.6/3.8 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING: Decay heat CFR: 41.8 to 41.10 Safety Function: 4 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - 2C SDC Pump would be ineffective since the Fuel Pool Gates were just installed and therefore this pump is NOT tied to refuel cavity.

Plausible because if 2C was not needed for Fuel Pool cooling it could be realigned to the cavity.

B. CORRECT - Maximize RWCU (10 MWth) is comparable to 2B SDC Pump (8 MWth) so initiating RWCU is the best choice given.

C. INCORRECT - the MSL Drain flow path is NOT an option since MSL steam plugs are installed blocking off any drain flow down the MSLs to the inlet of the MSL drains.

Plausible because CRD as a feed and Main Steam Line as a bleed is a good choice if the MSL plugs were not installed.

D. INCORRECT - LPCI pumps would flood cavity getting contaminated water into the vent ducts with no drain flow path set.

Plausible because this would be effective if the gates were not installed allowing for a feed and bleed flowpath.

Required

Reference:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 54 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 26 ID: 27707 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at near rated power, during the month of November, with the following set of conditions:

Dresden cooling lake has a temperature of 70oF.

The 2A TBCCW pump and 2A TBCCW heat exchanger are in operation.

The TBCCW temperature controller is currently set at 80oF Then a failure of the TBCCW system 2-3905 Temperature Control Valve (TCV) positioner results in a loss of air to the valve actuator.

How will the TBCCW system respond AND what parameter (if any) is of primary concern?

A. TBCCW system temperature LOWERS; NO parameter of concern.

B. TBCCW system temperature LOWERS; Pumpback Air Compressor temperature.

C. TBCCW system temperature RISES; Bus Duct temperature.

D. TBCCW system temperature RISES; Exciter Cooler air temperature.

Answer: A Answer Explanation Upon a loss of IA to the TCV, the valve will fail open allowing full service water flow to the heat exchanger. This will cause TBCCW shell side outlet temperature to lower.

ILT EXAM Page: 55 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 26 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27707 User-Defined ID: 27707 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 26 - 400000.K6.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 208L-S1-05

Reference:

P&ID M-22, DOP 6800-01 K/A: 400000.K6.01 2.7 / 2.8 K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the CCWS: Valves.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 8 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanations:

A. CORRECT - Upon a loss of IA to the TCV, the valve will fail open allowing full service water flow to the heat exchanger. This will cause TBCCW shell side outlet temperature to lower. Since Dresden lake temperature is at 70oF, the TBCCW outlet temperature will not lower below 70oF, which is an allowable temperature per DOP 3800-01, Turbine Building Closed Cooling Water Operation. Therefore, with a failed open TCV, none of the listed equipment would be impacted, and there is no parameter of concern.

B. INCORRECT - The pumpback air compressor uses RBCCW not TBCCW.

Plausible because part 1 is correct and part 2 requires knowledge of the cooling medium affected.

C. INCORRECT - TBCCW temperature would decrease not increase as the the TCV fails open allowing more service water flow.

Plausible because it requires knowledge of the fail position of the TCV on loss of instrument air, and bus duct temperature would be a concern if TBCCW temperature were to rise.

D. INCORRECT - TBCCW temperature would decrease not increase as the TCV fails open allowing more service water flow.

Plausible because it requires knowledge of the fail position of the TCV on loss of instrument air.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 56 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 27 ID: 27724 Points: 1.00 A transient has occurred on Unit 2 producing the following indications:

Drywell pressure is 1.4 psig and rising slowly.

Drywell Temperature is 170 degrees and rising slowly.

The feed breaker from Bus 24-1 to Bus 29 has spuriously tripped open.

Bus 29 is de-energized.

What actions should be taken to address the rising drywell temperature?

A. Spray the Torus.

B. Start another RBCCW Pump.

C. Energize Bus 29 from Bus 28 to restart Drywell Coolers.

D. Bypass interlocks per DEOP 0500-02 and start all available Drywell Coolers.

Answer: C Answer Explanation No interlocks are preventing starting all drywell coolers, only the loss of power to Bus 29. DEOP 0200-01 has you start all available Drywell coolers, and to do that you must re-energize Bus 29 from Bus 28.

ILT EXAM Page: 57 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 27 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27724 User-Defined ID: 27724 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 27 - 295028.G2.1.23 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29502LK014

References:

DGA 12, DEOP 200-1, DEOP 0500-02 K/A: 295028.G2.1.23 4.3/4.4 K/A: Ability to perform specific system and integrated plan procedures during all modes of plant operation: HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE.

Safety Function: 5 CFR: 41.7/45.6 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanations:

A. INCORRECT - Starting Torus Sprays will not reduce Drywell Temperature.

Plausible because DEOP 200-1 entry conditions have been met, and the torus sprays are used for prior to initiating DW Spray.

However, that is not the appropriate action right now. Drywell pressure has not exceeded 2 psig, so starting DW coolers is the appropriate action..

B. INCORRECT - Starting an additional RBCCW pump would not provide sufficient cooling and no procedural bases.

Plausible because additional RBCCW flow would increase cooling to the Drywell Coolers that were still running on Bus 28.

C. CORRECT - No interlocks are preventing starting all drywell coolers, only the loss of power to Bus 29. DEOP 0200-01 has you start all available Drywell coolers, and to do that you must re-energize Bus 29 from Bus 28.

D. INCORRECT - here are currently no interlocks preventing the restart of Drywell coolers.

Plausible because if drywell pressure had exceeded 2 psig, bypassing the coolers would be appropriate. DEOP 200-1 provides guidance to bypass interlocks per DEOP 500-2 and restart Drywell coolers.

Required

References:

None ILT EXAM Page: 58 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 28 ID: 27698 Points: 1.00 A transient has occurred on Unit 2 requiring RPV injection with low pressure ECCS systems.

The Unit Supervisor has directed you to maximize injection with Core Spray.

LPCI is unavailable.

NO high pressure injection sources are available.

RPV pressure is 90 psig.

What is the expected TOTAL flowrate of injection into the RPV once Core Spray is maximized?

A. 4,500 gpm B. 9,000 gpm C. 18,000 gpm D. 27,000 gpm Answer: B Answer Explanation Each CS pump is required to generate 4500 gpm flowrate against an RPV pressure of 90 psig. 2 core spray pumps x 4500 gpm = 9000 gpm. TSG-2 gives 4500 gpm for each CS and LPCI pump.

ILT EXAM Page: 59 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 28 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27698 User-Defined ID: 27698 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 28 - 209001.A1.03 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 209LN001.03

Reference:

TS 3.5.1, UFSAR 6.3.2.1.3.1, TSG-2 K/A: 209001.A1.03 3.8/3.9 K/A: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the LOW PRESSURE CORE SPRAY SYSTEM controls including: Reactor water level CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 2 PRA: Yes Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2017 NRC Explanation:

A - INCORRECT. The correct answer for this question is 9000 gpm.

Plausible because this would be correct for a single CS pump. 4500 gpm x 1 pump = 4500 gpm.

B - CORRECT. Each CS pump is required to generate 4500 gpm flowrate against an RPV pressure of 90 psig. 2 core spray pumps x 4500 gpm = 9000 gpm. TSG-2 gives 4500 gpm for each CS and LPCI pump.

C - INCORRECT. The correct answer for this question is 9000 gpm.

Plausible because this would be correct for 4 LP ECCS pumps (i.e.

LPCI). Per TSG-2, RPV & CONTAINMENT DEOP/SAMG ACTION LEVEL ASSESSMENT, each LPCI pump can provide approximately 4500 gpm. 4 LPCI pumps x 4500 gpm = 18,000 gpm.

D - INCORRECT. The correct answer for this question is 9000 gpm.

Plausible because this would be correct for all LP ECCS pumps (CS and LPCI). 2 core spray pumps x 4500 gpm = 9000 gpm. 4 LPCI pumps x 4500 gpm = 18000 gpm. Total injection flow is 27000 gpm.

REQUIRED

REFERENCE:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 60 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 29 ID: 27699 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power.

Annunciator 902-8 D-6, 480V BUS 20, 25 THRU 29 DC POWER FAILURE, is in alarm.

ONLY the control power feed breaker from the Normal 125 VDC bus to Bus 29 has tripped.

Bus 29 and 125VDC Bus 2B-1 remain energized.

THEN a Loss of Coolant Accident occurs.

HPCI has automatically started and is injecting at rated flow.

Reactor pressure is at 200 psig and lowering.

Reactor water level is -160 inches and lowering.

Which LPCI pumps are injecting into the reactor?

A. NO LPCI pumps are injecting B. ONLY the 2A and 2B LPCI pumps are injecting C. ONLY the 2C and 2D LPCI pumps are injecting D. ALL LPCI pumps are injecting Answer: D Answer Explanation 125 VDC control power to Bus 29 is used for all breakers on Bus 29, including the breaker going to MCC 28-7/29-7. Without control power, all of the breakers on those buses will remain in the state they lost power in. When the LOCA occurs, the Unit will scram and the Unit Aux Transformer (UAT) will de-energize. All electrical loads will automatically fast transfer to the Reserve Aux Transformer (RAT),

without any loss of power. The LPCI Injection valves are powered from swing MCC 28-7/29-7, which is normally aligned to Bus 29. When Bus 29 loses control power, the MCC will no longer have control power to open the breaker from Bus 29. Because all LPCI pump buses are energized from the RAT and MCC 28-7/29-7's source bus has power, all LPCI pumps and LPCI injection valves operate correctly. With Reactor pressure less than 325 psig, the injection valves will open and all LPCI pumps will inject.

ILT EXAM Page: 61 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 29 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27699 User-Defined ID: 27699 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 29 - 203000.K2.03 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 62 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE203LN001.08

Reference:

DOP 1500-03 K/A: 203000.K2.03 2.7*/2.9*

K/A: RHR/LPCI: Injection Mode: Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Initiation logic.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 2 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2017 NRC Explanation:

A - INCORRECT - ALL LPCI pumps are injecting.

Plausible if the loss of control power to Bus 29 will cause the breakers on Bus 29 to trip. A failure of Bus 29 to supply MCC 28-7/29-7 would cause the LPCI injection valves to remain shut.

B - INCORRECT - ALL LPCI pumps are injecting.

Plausible if assumed that 125 VDC power to the LPCI B loop initiation logic was lost. If LPCI B loop logic power were lost, only the A and B LPCI pumps would start. 125 VDC Bus 2B-1 provides power to LPCI B initiation logic. 125 VDC Bus 2B-1 provides control power to Bus 29.

C - INCORRECT - ALL LPCI pumps are injecting. Plausible if 125 VDC power to the LPCI A loop initiation logic was lost. If LPCI A loop logic power were lost, only the C and D LPCI pumps would start. 125 VDC Bus 2A-1 provides power to LPCI A initiation logic.

D - CORRECT - 125 VDC control power to Bus 29 is used for all breakers on Bus 29, including the breaker going to MCC 28-7/29-7.

Without control power, all of the breakers on those buses will remain in the state they lost power in. When the LOCA occurs, the Unit will scram and the Unit Aux Transformer (UAT) will de-energize. All electrical loads will automatically fast transfer to the Reserve Aux Transformer (RAT), without any loss of power. The LPCI Injection valves are powered from swing MCC 28-7/29-7, which is normally aligned to Bus

29. When Bus 29 loses control power, the MCC will no longer have control power to open the breaker from Bus 29. Because all LPCI pump buses are energized from the RAT and MCC 28-7/29-7's source bus has power, all LPCI pumps and LPCI injection valves operate correctly.

With Reactor pressure less than 325 psig, the injection valves will open and all LPCI pumps will inject.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 63 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 30 ID: 27842 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power with 2/3B SBGT operating, and U2 and U3 Reactor Building ventilation secured, when a loss of Bus 29 occurred.

What IMMEDIATE Containment impact is there with this loss?

A. Drywell temperature begins to rise.

B. Drywell to Torus D/P becomes smaller.

C. Reactor Building D/P becomes smaller.

D. Reactor Building temperature begins to rise.

Answer: A Answer Explanation The loss of Bus 29 de-energizes three of the seven Drywell Coolers (C, D, E) causing both temperature and pressure to rise in the Drywell.

ILT EXAM Page: 64 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 30 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27842 User-Defined ID: 27842 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 30 - 295012.K2.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE262LN001.12

Reference:

DAN 923-5 E-1, 12E-2306, DANs 902-5 G-5, 902-4 G-17 K/A: 295012.K2.01 3.4 / 3.5 K/A: Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE and the following: Drywell ventilation.

CFR: 41.7 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2008 NRC Comments:

A. CORRECT: The loss of Bus 29 de-energizes three of the seven Drywell Coolers (C, D, E) causing both temperature and pressure to rise in the Drywell.

B. INCORRECT: The correct answer is drywell temperature begins to rise Plausible because of the complexities of the drywell to torus D/P controls, and the potential for the controller to be impacted on loss of power.

C. INCORRECT: The correct answer is drywell temperature begins to rise Plausible because this would be true if the 2/3A SBGT had been running.

D. INCORRECT: The correct answer is drywell temperature begins to rise.

Plausible because if reactor building ventilation had been running, a loss of Bus 29 would have caused some fans to trip, and reactor building temperature to begin to rise.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 65 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 31 ID: 27778 Points: 1.00 A Temporary Change is being prepared for a Dresden Operating Procedure per AD-AA-101, PROCESSING OF PROCEDURES AND T&RMs.

The Temporary Change ....

A. is valid for up to 120 days from implementation.

B. must be approved by the Corporate Functional Area Manager (CFAM) prior to use.

C. must be approved by a Station Qualified Reviewer AND a qualified SRO prior to use.

D. requires a full review, approval, and authorization be performed within 7 days of implementation.

Answer: C Answer Explanation Per AD-AA-101, To allow use, OBTAIN an approval signature from a Station Qualified Reviewer (management SQR for MW sites) and an approval signature from a qualified Senior Reactor Operator (SRO) on the approval form ILT EXAM Page: 66 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 31 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27778 User-Defined ID: 27778 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 31 - Generic 2.2.06 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29900LP048

References:

AD-AA-101 K/A: Generic 2.2.06 3.0/3.6 K/A: Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: N/A PRA: No Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Comments:

A. INCORRECT - Temporary procedures are valid for up to 90 days.

Plausible because the candidate must be familiar with the requirements, and because there are other administrative requirements that allow up to 120 days. For example, per EP-AA-120-F-01, changes to Emergency Plan require training within 120 days of implementation.

B. INCORRECT - the CFAM is not required to approve site specific procedures.

Plausible because T&RM require CFAM approval for any non-permanent site specific revs to fleet standard procedures and T&RMs.

C. CORRECT - Per AD-AA-101, To allow use, OBTAIN an approval signature from a Station Qualified Reviewer (management SQR for MW sites) and an approval signature from a qualified Senior Reactor Operator (SRO) on the approval form AD-AA-101-F-10 D. INCORRECT - Full approval is required within 14 days.

Plausible because full review, approval and authorization of the temporary procedure change using approval form AD-AA-101-F-01 per this procedure within 14 days of Temporary Change approval.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 67 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 32 ID: 27712 Points: 1.00 The Reactor Water Cleanup pump room was recently surveyed.

General area radiation of 105 mrem/hr

Smearable contamination of 1100 dpm/100cm2 (beta-gamma)

How should the area be posted IAW RP-AA-18, RADIOLOGICAL POSTING AND LABELING PROGRAM DESCRIPTION?

A. "Caution - High Radiation Area" ONLY.

B. "Caution - Locked High Radiation Area" ONLY.

C. "Caution - High Radiation Area" AND "Caution - Contaminated Area" D. "Caution - Locked High Radiation Area" AND "Caution - Contaminated Area" Answer: C Answer Explanation A high rad area is an area that could result in reception of deep dose rate equivalent that meets or exceeds 100 mrem/hr at 30 cm. A Contaminated Area is 1000 dpm/cm2 or greater.

ILT EXAM Page: 68 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 32 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27712 User-Defined ID: 27712 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 32 - Generic 2.3.7 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: ACAD 00-007.10, NGET

Reference:

RP-AA-376, NISP-RP-004, RP-AA-18 K/A: Generic 2.3.7 3.5 / 3.6 K/A: Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions.

CFR: 41.12 Safety Function: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Justification for Memory: Reactor Operators are required to know this information (NGET)

Explanation:

A. Incorrect - A high rad area is an area that could result in reception of deep dose rate equivalent meets or exceeds 100 mrem/hr but less than 1000 mrem/hr at 30 cm. A Contaminated Area is 1000 dpm/cm2 or greater. Plausible because part 1 is correct but also determine that the contamination limit is met.

B. Incorrect - Locked High Rad area is required for areas meets or exceeds 1000 mrem/hr.

Plausible because High Radiation limit is exceeded. Must know what level causes a LOCKED Hi Rad area.

C. Correct - A high rad area is an area that could result in reception of deep dose rate equivalent that meets or exceeds 100 mrem/hr at 30 cm. A Contaminated Area is 1000 dpm/cm2 or greater.

D. Incorrect - Locked High Rad area is required for areas which meet or exceed 1000 mrem/hr. Contaminated areas are areas in which contamination levels meet or exceed 1000 dpm/100cm2. Plausible because answer is partially correct, and operators must know what level causes a LOCKED Hi Rad area. Part 2 is correct.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

NONE None ILT EXAM Page: 69 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 33 ID: 27696 Points: 1.00 A small LOCA has occurred on Unit 2.

HPCI system automatically initiated.

HPCI is maintaining RPV level and pressure.

Annunciator 902-3 A-12, HPCI COND STG TK LVL LO LO, alarms.

How will the HPCI system respond?

A. MOV's 2301-4 (Steam Isol Valve), 2301-5 (Steam Isol Valve), 2301-6 (CST Suction Valve), and 2301-8 (Pp Discharge Valve) ALL Close.

B. MOV 2301-3 (Turb Stm Supply Valve) Closes, THEN MOV's 2301-35 and 2301-36 (Torus Suction Valves) Open.

C. MOV's 2301-35 and 2301-36 (Torus Suction Valves) Open, THEN MOV 2301-6 (CST Suction Valve) Closes.

D. MOV's 2301-35 and 2301-36 (Torus Suction Valves) Close, THEN MOV 2301-6 (CST Suction Valve) Opens.

Answer: C Answer Explanation CST LO LO level below 11 feet generates a suction swap to the torus from the CSTs. The 2301-35 & 36 valves open first to prevent loss of suction to HPCI. Then the 2301-6 valve closes.

ILT EXAM Page: 70 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 33 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27696 User-Defined ID: 27696 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 33 - 206000.K4.19 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 206L-S1-05h

References:

DAN 902(3)-3 A-12 K/A : 206000.K4.19 3.7/3.8 K/A: Knowledge of HIGH PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM design features and/or interlocks provide for the following:

Automatic transfer of HPCI pump suction.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 4 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The 2301-4 and 5 vlvs do not close on LO LO CST level.

Plausible because this combination of valves does close for HPCI BOOST PP SUCT PRESS LO during a non-emergency start.

B. Incorrect - The 2301-3 vlv does not close under these conditions.

Plausible because the 2301-35 & 36 vlvs listed are correct and the other vlv would be closed if an auto initiation signal was not received.

C. Correct - CST LO LO level below 11 feet generates a suction swap to the torus. The 2301-35 & 36 valves open first to prevent loss of suction to HPCI. Then the 2301-6 valve closes.

D. Incorrect - Plausible because must recognize normal valve lineup is to CST. There is no auto swap back to the CSTs.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 71 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 34 ID: 27721 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100% power when an Instrument Air system pipe ruptured, causing Instrument Air pressure to drop rapidly to 0 psig.

The FWRVs will fail ___(1)___ .

If the FWRV's fail, RPV water level is dropping, and feedwater is needed for injection while executing the DEOPs, actions are required to ___(2)___ .

A. (1) immediately; (2) valve in Main Bank Nitrogen bottles, per DOA 4700-01, INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM FAILURE B. (1) immediately; (2) install handwheels and manually operate the FWRVs, per DOA 0600-01, TRANSIENT LEVEL CONTROL C. (1) after 30 minutes; (2) valve in Main Bank Nitrogen bottles, per DOA 4700-01, INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM FAILURE D. (1) after 30 minutes; (2) install handwheels and manually operate the FWRVs, per DOA 0600-01, TRANSIENT LEVEL CONTROL Answer: D Answer Explanation Per the critical component failure table in the Loss of Inst Air DOA, the FWRVs will operate on their backup nitrogen source for 30 minutes after a loss of Inst Air. The DOA for transient level control states that if the FWRVs can not be opened due to loss of air, and feedwater/alternate injection systems are required by the DEOPs, then operate the valves manually as directed by the Unit Supervisor.

ILT EXAM Page: 72 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 34 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27721 User-Defined ID: 27721 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 34 - 295019.G.2.4.8 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE278LN001.12

Reference:

DOA 4700-01, DOA 0600-01 K/A: 295019.G.2.4.8 3.8 / 4.5 K/A: Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 8 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2012 NRC; 2010 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - due to nitrogen backup system the FWRVs do not fail immediately. Plausible because without backup nitrogen the valves will fail as is immediately. The nitrogen bottles are normally left open.

B. Incorrect - due to nitrogen backup system the FWRVs do not fail immediately. Plausible because without backup nitrogen the valves will fail as is immediately. Part 2 is correct.

C. Incorrect - the backup nitrogen supply is normally valved in and the valves will fail as is after 30 minutes. Plausible because part 1 is correct. Part 2 would be correct if the nitrogen bottles were not normally open.

D. Correct - Per the critical component failure table in the Loss of Inst Air DOA, the FWRVs will operate on their backup nitrogen source for 30 minutes after a loss of Inst Air. The DOA for transient level control states that if the FWRVs can not be opened due to loss of air, and feedwater/alternate injection systems are required by the DEOPs, then operate the valves manually as directed by the Unit Supervisor.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 73 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 35 ID: 27710 Points: 1.00 Per HU-AA-1211, PRE JOB BRIEFINGS, what is the HIGHEST level of authority required to attend an Infrequent Plant Activity (IPA) briefing?

A. Unit Supervisor B. Shift Manager C. Manager Operations Services D. Operations Director Answer: D Answer Explanation Procedure HU-AA-1211 states that Senior Line Management approves evolutions that require IPA briefings.

ILT EXAM Page: 74 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 35 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27710 User-Defined ID: 27710 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 35 - Generic 2.1.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29900LK119

Reference:

HU-AA-1211, OP-AA-101-111, MA-AA-716-015 K/A: Generic.2.1.01 3.7 / 3.8 K/A: Knowledge of conduct of operations requirements.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible because the Unit Supervisor can approve all briefs up to and including HLAs. Because this is an Infrequent Plant Activity Brief, a Senior Manager approval is required.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because the Shift Manager can approve all briefs up to and including HLAs. Because this is an Infrequent Plant Activity Brief, a Senior Manager approval is required.

C. Incorrect - Plausible because the Manager Operations Services is an Operations Manager but not a Senior Line Manager. Because this is an Infrequent Plant Activity Brief, a Senior Manager approval is required.

D. Correct - Procedure HU-AA-1211 states that Senior Line Management approves evolutions that require HLA/IPA briefings.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 75 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 36 ID: 27739 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

BOTH radiation detectors in the off-gas system 30 minute holdup volume have failed downscale.

What is the effect, if any, on the Off Gas system?

A. ALL Off Gas valves stay in their normal operating position.

B. Holdup line drain valve AND chimney isolation valve close after 15 minutes.

C. Chimney isolation valve closes AND pressurized drain tank pump trips after 15 minutes.

D. SJAE suction valves AND pressurized drain tank discharge valve close after 15 minutes.

Answer: A Answer Explanation The off-gas high radiation logic requires both radiation detectors above the high-high or one above the high-high with the other downscale, and after a 15 minute timer (with the logic still satisfied), chimney isolation valve closes, the holdup volume drain valve close, pressurized drain tank discharge valve closes which trips the PDT pumps. Both rad monitors downscale will NOT cause any off gas components to change state.

ILT EXAM Page: 76 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 36 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27739 User-Defined ID: 27739 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 36 - 272000 K3.05 Num Field 1: 2005 Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 77 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 272LN001.06

References:

DAN 902-54 B-8, 12E - 2489 K/A: 272000.K3.05 3.5/3.7 K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the RADIATION MONITORING System will have on following: Offgas system.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 9 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: NRC 2008 Explanation:

A. Correct - The off-gas high radiation logic requires both radiation detectors above the high-high or one above the high-high with the other downscale, and after a 15 minute timer (with the logic still satisfied),

chimney isolation valve closes, the holdup volume drain valve close, pressurized drain tank discharge valve closes which trips the PDT pumps. Both rad monitors downscale will NOT cause any off gas components to change state.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because this would be true if one of the rad monitors failed upscale and the other had exceeded a high setpoint or both had exceeded the high setpoint.

C. Incorrect - Plausible because this would be true if one of the rad monitors failed upscale and the other had failed downscale or both had exceeded the high setpoint.

D. Incorrect - is incorrect since the SJAE suction valve does not go closed based on rad monitor input, only closes based on SJAE steam supply pressure.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 78 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 37 ID: 27737 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

The 2A Pumpback Compressor is OOS

Annunciator 902-4 E-16, 2A-B PUMPBACK COMPRESSOR TRIP alarms.

Shortly afterwards, the following annunciators alarm:

902-4 D-16, PUMPBACK SYS PRESS LO

902-4 A-16, DRYWELL PNEU SPLY TANK PRESS LO

902-4 B-16, DRYWELL PNEU SPLY TROUBLE What is the expected plant response?

A. The INBOARD Main Steam Isolation Valves close.

B. PCV 2-8599-556, 'Drywell/Torus DP Control Valve', OPENS to maintain Drywell to Torus DP.

C. AO 2-4723, 'Drywell N2 Backup Supply Isolation Valve' OPENS to maintain Drywell to Torus DP.

D. AO 2-4723, 'Drywell N2 Backup Supply Isolation Valve' OPENS to supply equipment in the Drywell.

Answer: D Answer Explanation On low nitrogen pressure, sensed at the receiver, an open signal is sent to the DW Pneumatic Nitrogen Backup Valve, AO 2-4723.

ILT EXAM Page: 79 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 37 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27737 User-Defined ID: 27737 Cross Reference Number: LIH Topic: 37 - 223001 A4.10 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 223LN003.06

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-4 D-16, B-16, A-16, E-16 K/A: 223001.A4.10 3.2/3.2 K/A: Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Drywell nitrogen makeup.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 5 Level: HIGH Pedigree: NEW History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - AO 2-4723 will automatically open to supply nitrogen to the MSIVs, and they will not go closed.

Plausible because if the AO did not open, the inboard MSIVs would go shut.

B. INCORRECT - PCV 2-8599-556, Drywell / Torus DP Control Valve will close.

Plausible because this valve does automatically open, but in this case it will close since the issue is nitrogen to the DW pneumatics.

C. INCORRECT - AO 2-4723 does not control DW to Torus DP.

Plausible because AO 2-4723 does open, but this is for supplying DW equipment.

D CORRECT - On low nitrogen pressure, sensed at the receiver, an open signal is sent to the DW Pneumatic Nitrogen Backup Valve, AO 2-4723.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 80 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 38 ID: 27727 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 and Unit 3 are operating at 100% power when Transmission Systems Operations (TSO) notifies the Control Room that the predicted post Unit trip with LOCA switchyard voltages are:

Unit 2: 325 KV

Unit 3: 350 KV What are the required actions from the Operating team AND the reason for these actions?

A. Adjust TR 32 Tap Changer; to restore system operability B. Adjust TR 32 Tap Changer; to reduce circulating currents C. Adjust TR 86 Tap Changer; to restore system operability D. Adjust TR 86 Tap Changer; to reduce circulating currents Answer: C Answer Explanation Given the voltages, only Unit 2 is below the procedural setpoint. TR-86 would be adjusted for Unit 2. The actions are to adjust the TR-86 Tap Changer (to position 31) to raise VOLTS (not VARs) to restore system operability.

ILT EXAM Page: 81 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 38 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27727 User-Defined ID: 27727 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 38 - 700000 G2.4.45 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 82 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE262LN003.12

Reference:

DOA 6500-12 K/A: 700000.G2.4.45 4.1/4.3 K/A: Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm: Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 6 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2012 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Given the voltages, only Unit 2 is below the procedural setpoint. TR-32 would be adjusted for Unit 3. Plausible because this would be necessary if U3 was outside the limits. Part 2 is correct.

B. Incorrect - Given the voltages, only Unit 2 is below the procedural setpoint. TR-32 would be adjusted for Unit 3. Plausible because this would be necessary if U3 was outside the limits. Part 2 would be correct if adjusting for amps instead of voltage.

C. Correct - Given the voltages, only Unit 2 is below the procedural setpoint. TR-86 would be adjusted for Unit 2. The actions are to adjust the TR-86 Tap Changer (to position 31) to raise VOLTS (not VARs) to restore system operability.

D. Incorrect - Given the voltages, only Unit 2 is below the procedural setpoint. TR-86 would be adjusted for Unit 2. The actions are to adjust the TR-86 Tap Changer. Plausible because part 1 is correct. Part 2 would be correct if adjusting for amps instead of voltage.

K/A Justification: Notification from Transmission Systems Operations (TSO) OR the Nuclear Duty Officer (NDO) that current OR predicted post Unit trip with LOCA loading switchyard voltage (Low Contingency Voltage) has reached the State Estimator alarm limit(s) shown below:

Normal Plant Operation:

Transformer LTC in Auto Mode:

< 327.3 kV OR > 2.0% Contingency Voltage Drop for Unit 2

< 325.2 kV OR > 1.7% Contingency Voltage Drop for Unit 3 REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 83 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 39 ID: 27856 Points: 1.00 BOTH Units were operating at 100% power when the following alarms came in:

XL3 alarm device 81-01, SMOKE DET. 2-4135-501, AEER ABOVE 902-34 SMOKE EPIP

XL3 alarm device 81-16, SMOKE DET. 2-4135-516, AEER ABOVE 902-33 SMOKE EPIP ONE MINUTE LATER:

1) __________ discharging in the AEER.

2) The AEER ventilation dampers __________.

A. 1) ONLY Halon is

2) must be MANUALLY closed B. 1) ONLY Halon is

2) will AUTOMATICALLY close C. 1) CO2 AND Halon are

2) must be MANUALLY closed D. 1) CO2 AND Halon are

2) will AUTOMATICALLY close Answer: B Answer Explanation Halon injects 60 seconds after 2 or more XL3 81-01 to 81-26 areas alarm. CO2 must be manually initiated.

The AEER ventilation dampers position closed automatically when two or more smoke detectors alarm.

ILT EXAM Page: 84 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 39 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27856 User-Defined ID: 27856 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 39 - 600000.A2.05 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 85 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 286LN002.06

Reference:

XL3 DAN's 81-01 and 81-16 K/A: 600000.A2.05 2.9 / 3.0 K/A: Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: Ventilation alignment necessary to secure the affected area.

Safety Function: 8 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Comments:

This question meets the K/A because XL3 is a computer which receives inputs from plant fire monitors. Distracters are plausible based on multiple systems cause alarms to actuate without system response.

This question demands the candidate understand what the alarms are telling them and demonstrate knowledge of the logic associated.

A) INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the AEER ventilation dampers automatically close when two or more smoke detector alarms occur.

Plausible because (2) the first part of the answer is correct (2) there are other ventilation systems, such as Smoke Purge, that require dampers to be manually positioned.

B) CORRECT: (1) Halon injects 60 seconds after 2 or more XL3 81-01 to 81-26 areas alarm. CO2 must be manually initiated. (2) the AEER ventilation dampers position closed automatically when two or more smoke detectors alarm.

C) INCORRECT: (1) Halon injects 60 seconds after 2 or more XL3 81-01 to 81-26 areas alarm. CO2 must be manually initiated. (2) the AEER ventilation dampers automatically close when two or more smoke detector alarms occur.

Plausible because (1) CO2 can also discharge into the AEER, and it automatically injects in the EDG rooms.(2) there are other ventilation systems, such as Smoke Purge, that require dampers to be manually positioned.

D) INCORRECT: (1) Halon injects 60 seconds after 2 or more XL3 81-01 to 81-26 areas alarm. CO2 must be manually initiated. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) CO2 can also discharge into the AEER, and it automatically injects in the EDG rooms.(2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Required

References:

NONE None ILT EXAM Page: 86 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 40 ID: 27708 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when the following occurred:

The TR-22 Sudden Pressure Relay device activated.

The Aux Power system "fast transfer" FAILED to occur.

Immediately after the sudden pressure relay tripped, which Condensate/Condensate Booster pumps (if any) would have electrical power available?

A. NONE B. Only "A" and "B" C. Only "C" and "D" D. ALL Answer: B Answer Explanation A Sudden Pressure Relay actuation on TR-22 will cause it to de-energize. With failure of aux power to transfer, Div 2 power is lost. With only Div 1 powered, "A" and "B" are the only pumps powered.

ILT EXAM Page: 87 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 40 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27708 User-Defined ID: 27708 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 40 - 256000.K2.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE259LN001.03

Reference:

Electrical Print 12E-2370, DOP 3300-E1 K/A: 256000.K2.01 2.7 / 2.8 K/A: Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: System pumps.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 2 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2007 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The TR-22 sudden pressure relay would cause the loss of Bus 22 and Bus 24. A and B Condensate pumps are powered from Bus 23, and would not be affected. Plausible because this is true for C and D and must know that the fast transfer failure would not take out bus 23.

B. Correct - a Sudden Pressure Relay actuation on TR-22 will cause it to de-energize. With failure of aux power to transfer, Div 2 power is lost. With only Div 1 powered, "A" and "B" are the only pumps powered.

C. Incorrect - The TR-22 sudden pressure relay would cause the loss of Bus 22 and Bus 24. A and B Condensate pumps are powered from Bus 23, and would not be affected. Plausible because must understand the normal aux power line-up, automatic actions on a sudden pressure relay, and power supply to C and D Condensate pumps.

D. Incorrect - The TR-22 sudden pressure relay would cause the loss of Bus 22 and Bus 24. A and B Condensate pumps are powered from Bus 23, and would not be affected. Plausible because this would be correct if the fast transfer happened as designed.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 88 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 41 ID: 27756 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was at 100% power when a transient occurred.

ONE MINUTE LATER:

Annunciator 903-5 B-13 CHANNEL A/B RPV LVL LO is illuminated.

Annunciator 903-5 H-5 RPV PRESS HI is illuminated.

MSIVs are closed.

RPV level is 12 inches and lowering 1 inch per minute.

RPV pressure is 1050 and rising 10 psig per minute.

All rods are in.

EHC hydraulic pressure is 0 psig.

A spurious (1) has occurred. The FIRST action is to (2) .

A. (1) Group 1 (2) lower RPV pressure by opening the bypass valves B. (1) Group 1 (2) lower RPV pressure by initiating the Iso Condenser C. (1) Group 2 (2) raise RPV water level by injecting with HPCI D. (1) Group 2 (2) raise RPV water level by injecting with feedwater Answer: B Answer Explanation With the MSIVs closed, and no Group 1 setpoints being exceeded, this is a spurious Group 1. From the stem of the question, the Group 2 isolation is not spurious, since we have an RPV level Lo alarm.

With RPV level still in the normal band, and RPV pressure high, pressure is the first concern. Since bypass valves are not available, initiating the Isolation Condenser is the correct choice.

ILT EXAM Page: 89 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 41 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27756 User-Defined ID: 27756 Cross Reference Number: LIH Topic: 41 - 295020.G2.4.46 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29501LK019

Reference:

DEOP 100 K/A: 295020 G2.4.46 4.2/4.2 K/A: Ability to verify that the alarms are consistent with the plant conditions: Inadvertent Containment isolation.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 5 & 7 Level: High Pedigree: MODIFIED History: 03-01 NRC (2004)

Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the bypass valves are not available with the MSIVs shut.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct, (2) bypass valves are used for normal pressure control after a scram, and this would be the correct answer if MSIVs were open.

B. CORRECT - (1) With the MSIVs closed, and no Group 1 setpoints being exceeded, this is a spurious Group 1. From the stem of the question, the Group 2 isolation is not spurious, since we have an RPV level Lo alarm. (2) With RPV level still in the normal band, and RPV pressure high, pressure is the first concern. Since bypass valves are not available, initiating the Isolation Condenser is the correct choice.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the answer is a spurious Group 1 (2) the correct answer is initiating the isolation condenser.

Plausible because (2) the RPV level is currently above, and approaching the setpoint for a group 2 and (2) raising water level with HPCI is available, but with level still in band it is not the first priority.

D. INCORRECT - (1) the answer is a spurious Group 1 (2) the correct answer is initiating the isolation condenser.

Plausible because (2) the RPV level is above, and approaching the setpoint for a group 2 and (2) raising water level with feedwater is available, but with level still in band it is not the first priority.

Required Reference(s): None None ILT EXAM Page: 90 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 42 ID: 27873 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was at 100% power when a transient occurred.

RPV pressure is 650 psig and steady.

Torus water level is 15 feet and steady.

Drywell Pressure is 8 psig and rising slowly.

Torus temperature is indicating 180oF and rising slowly.

Bus 33 and 34 are de-energized and efforts to energize them have been unsuccessful.

What is the NEXT action that is required?

A. Vent containment.

B. Initiate Torus sprays.

C. Start all Torus cooling.

D. Performing Emergency Depressurization.

Answer: D Answer Explanation The HCTL curve is being exceeded and therefore blowdown is required.

ILT EXAM Page: 91 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 42 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27873 User-Defined ID: 27873 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 42 - 295026.A2.01 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29502-06

Reference:

DEOP 100 and 200-1, DEOP 0400-01 K/A: 295026.A2.01 4.1 / 4.2 K/A: Suppression Pool High Water Temperature: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SUPPRESSION POOL HIGH WATER TEMPERATURE: Suppression pool water temperature.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 5 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2008 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The HCTL curve is already being exceeded and therefore emergency depressurization is required. Venting is performed to stay below 2 psig, when approaching 60 psig, or when a decision has been made to vent early in order to restore and maintain adequate core cooling or to reduce total offsite dose. None of these conditions apply.

Plausible because this would be correct if torus/drywell pressure conditions were different (for example, if we were approaching the primary containment pressure limit,; or if pressure were less than 2 psig) .

B. Incorrect - Performing Emergency Depressurization is the NEXT action, due to exceeding HCTL.

Plausible because with drywell pressure at 8 psig, torus sprays do need to be initiated. However, with HCTL being exceeded, they are not the NEXT action required.

C. Incorrect - Torus cooling is unavailable because CCSW has no electrical power (33 and 34 de-energized).

Plausible because running torus cooling is a strategy to lower torus temperature to prevent the need to blowdown.

D. Correct - The HCTL curve is being exceeded and therefore blowdown is required.

RO justification: The ROs are required to know entry into DEOP including the different criteria for entering Blowdown.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

DEOP 0200-1 without entry conditions.

ILT EXAM Page: 92 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 43 ID: 27704 Points: 1.00 Both Units were operating at 100% power when a transient occurred, with Drywell pressure stabilizing at 3.5 psig.

'A' SBGT system was in STBY.

'B' SBGT system was in PRI.

INITIALLY the NSO observed the following:

The 2/3B SBGT Fan indication was RED.

The 2/3B SBGT Heater indication was RED.

System flow is normal.

SEVERAL SECONDS LATER the NSO observed that the 2/3B SBGT Heater indication changed from RED to GREEN.

What is the expected status of SBGT System, TWO minutes after the above indications were observed?

1. The 2/3A SBGT system is __________.

2. The 2/3B SBGT system is __________.

A. (1) OFF (2) OFF B. (1) OFF (2) RUNNING C. (1) RUNNING (2) OFF D. (1) RUNNING (2) RUNNING Answer: C Answer Explanation From the stem, the 2/3B SBGT has started. When the running "B" train trips, with the switch positions give, the 'A' train will auto start.(2) With a valid initiation signal and the switches in the above configuration, the 'B' train has started and will trip upon a heater trip (green indication).

ILT EXAM Page: 93 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 43 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27704 User-Defined ID: 27704 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 43 - 261000.A3.02 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE261LN001.06

Reference:

DAN 923-5 B-6 K/A: 261000.A3.02 3.2 / 3.1 K/A: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM including: Fan start.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 9 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2009 NRC Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) The "A" train will be running. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) The candidate must understand that SBGT trip logic, with the switch positions given, will cause an auto start of the "A" train, upon trip of the "B" train. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

B. INCORRECT - (1) The "A" train will be running. (2) the "B" train will be off.

Plausible because (1) The candidate must understand that SBGT trip logic, with the switch positions given, will cause an auto start of the "A" train, upon trip of the "B" train. (2) Part 2 is plausible because the candidate must recognize that a trip of the B heater trips the B train.

C. CORRECT - (1) From the stem, the 2/3B SBGT has started. When the running "B" train trips, with the switch positions give, the 'A' train will auto start.(2) With a valid initiation signal and the switches in the above configuration, the 'B' train has started and will trip upon a heater trip (green indication).

D. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the B train will trip on a loss of heater.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) Part 2 is plausible because the candidate must recognize that a trip of the B heater trips the B train.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 94 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 44 ID: 27688 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100% power when Bus 33-1 tripped on overcurrent.

The 3A Pumpback compressor will have . . . . .

A. NO cooling water flow supplied to it.

B. FULL cooling water flow supplied to it.

C. PARTIAL cooling water flow supplied to it from 3A RBCCW Pump ONLY.

D. PARTIAL cooling water flow supplied to it from 3B RBCCW Pump ONLY.

Answer: B Answer Explanation Unit 3 Pumpback air compressors are cooled by UNIT 2 (not Unit 3), therefore there is no impact on cooling.

When Bus 33-1 is de-energized, the 3A RBCCW pump would lose electrical power, but there is no loss of cooling to the 3A pumpback compressor.

ILT EXAM Page: 95 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 44 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27688 User-Defined ID: 27688 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 44 - 295018.A2.04 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 223LN001.03

Reference:

DOA 3700-01, DOP 1600-19 K/A: 295018.A2.04 2.9 / 2.9 K/A: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING WATER: System flow.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 8 Level: Low Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: U3 Pumpback compressor is cooled by U2 RBCCW.

Plausible because this is a common misconception, and would be correct if a U2 RBCCW pump was impacted.

B. CORRECT: Unit 3 Pumpback air compressors are cooled by UNIT 2 (not Unit 3), therefore there is no impact on cooling.

When Bus 33-1 is de-energized, the 3A RBCCW pump would lose electrical power, but there is no loss of cooling to the 3A pumpback compressor.

C. INCORRECT: Unit 3 Pumpback air compressors can ONLY be supplied from UNIT 2 (not Unit 3).

Plausible because there are power supply differences between units, for example 2C SDC is powered from Bus 23-1, but 3C SDC pump is powered from 34-1.

D. INCORRECT: The 3A pumpback compressor will have full cooling flow.

Plausible because 3A RBCCW pump is powered from Bus 33-1, leaving only 3B powered.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 96 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 45 ID: 27694 Points: 1.00 Per the UFSAR, during a DBA LOCA, the reason for having LPCI pumps operating with Torus cooling placed in service following reactor vessel flooding is to __________

A. ensure adequate mixing of the Torus water immediately.

B. maintain Torus water level in the normal operating band.

C. terminate the rise in Torus temperature immediately.

D. terminate the rise in Torus temperature after several hours.

Answer: D Answer Explanation Per the above UFSAR section 6.2.1.3.4.1 page 6.2.33, during a DBA LOCA, the reason for having LPCI pumps operating with Torus cooling placed in service following Reactor vessel flooding is to terminate the increase in Torus temperature after several hours.

ILT EXAM Page: 97 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 45 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27694 User-Defined ID: 27694 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 45 - 295013.K3.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE203LN001.01

Reference:

UFSAR 6.2, DOP 1500-02 K/A: 295013.K3.01 3.6 / 3.8 K/A: Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH SUPPRESSION POOL TEMPERATURE: Suppression pool cooling operation.

CFR: 41.5 PRA: N/A Safety Function: 5 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2010 NRC Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - The reason is to terminate the increase in Torus temperature after several hours.

Plausible because thermal mixing in the torus is mentioned in the UFSAR, but is not the reason torus cooling is placed in service following reactor vessel flooding in a DBA LOCA.

B. INCORRECT - The reason is to terminate the increase in Torus temperature after several hours.

Plausible because LPCI pumps can be used to pump down torus level.

Minimizing heatup also limits the amount of swell.

C. INCORRECT - The reason is to terminate the increase in Torus temperature after several hours.

Plausible because the LPCI system would immediately be in service in a DBA LOCA, but the primary function early in the event is makeup to the reactor. The heat load at the onset is greater than the capacity of Torus Cooling Hx.

D. CORRECT - Per the above UFSAR section 6.2.1.3.4.1 page 6.2.33, during a DBA LOCA, the reason for having LPCI pumps operating with Torus cooling placed in service following Reactor vessel flooding is to terminate the increase in Torus temperature after several hours.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 98 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 46 ID: 27733 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 is in STARTUP with power ascension in progress.

IRM 11 indicates 70 on range 6.

The IRM CH 11 RANGE SWITCH should be taken to range (1) and the recorder will now read (2) .

A. (1) 7 (2) 7.0 B. (1) 7 (2) 70 C. (1) 5 (2) 7.0 D. (1) 5 (2) 70 Answer: A Answer Explanation IRM must be ranged up to 7.

Ranges 6 and 7 vary by a factor of 10, so ranging the IRM up would change the indication on the recorder to 7.0.

ILT EXAM Page: 99 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 46 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27733 User-Defined ID: 27733 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 46 - 215003 A4.03 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 100 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 215LN003.11

Reference:

DOP 0700-02, DIP 0700-09 K/A: 215003 A4.03 3.6/3.4 K/A: Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: IRM range switches.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 7 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 03-1 NRC NOTE: At Dresden, changes to the IRM range switch cause a shift in both the displayed range and (for even to odd range switch position changes ONLY) a change in the displayed value of the reading. For change from an odd range switch position to an even range switch position, the value of the reading remains the same, but the indication range changes. For example, if the range switch were on range 1, with a value of 35 indicated, the displayed value would be shown on a 0-40 scale. Changing the IRM range switch to position 2 would still result in 35 being indicated, but it would be displayed on a 0-125 scale. When the IRM switch was taken from range 2 (even position) to range 3 (odd position) the value of 35 would then change to 3.5, and would be indicated on a 0-40 indicated range.

Explanation:

A. CORRECT - (1) IRM must be ranged up to 7. (2) Ranges 6 and 7 vary by a factor of 10, so ranging the IRM up would change the indication on the recorder to 7.0.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the recorder will read 7.0.

Plausible because (1) part 1 is correct (2) and part 2 would be true if the switch did not move.

C. INCORRECT - (1) IRM must be ranged up to 7. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) The student could mix up which way to range during a startup and (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT - (1) IRM must be ranged up to 7. (2) the recorder will read 7.0.

Plausible because (1) The student could mix up which way to range during a startup and (2) part 2 would be true if the switch did not move.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 101 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 47 ID: 27734 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 is operating at 75% power with FWLC in MEDIAN with a setpoint of 30 inches.

Narrow range A level indicator indicates 28 inches.

Narrow range B level indicator indicates 30 inches.

Medium range A level indicator indicates 31 inches.

Medium range B level indicator indicates 31 inches.

THEN Narrow range B level transmitter's output goes BAD QUALITY.

The Feedwater Regulating Valves __________.

A. are unaffected by this failure.

B. lock-up until a level transmitter is selected by the operator.

C. close slightly to lower level, then return to the previous position.

D. will open slightly to raise level, then return to the previous position.

Answer: D Answer Explanation NR 'A', NR 'B', MR 'A' are the 3 transmitters that feed into FWLC. When in median control, the transmitter in the middle is in control. This example starts with NRB in control, and which then fails. FWLC defaults to NR 'A' if available when one level signal fails. NR 'A' indicated 28, so FWLC will open the FRVs to get measurement up to setpoint. NR 'A' indication will be brought up to 30, then the valves will return to their previous position and stabilize when feed flow equals steam flow and reactor level stabilizes at 30 as indicated by NR 'A' ILT EXAM Page: 102 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 47 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27734 User-Defined ID: 27734 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 47 - 259002 A1.02 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 103 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 259LN002.12

References:

DOA 0600-01 and DOP 0600-06 K/A: 259002 A1.02 3.8/3.8 K/A: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM controls including: Reactor feedwater flow.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 2 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - Since the transmitter that was in control failed, the system will default to NR A, and the FWRVs will open up slightly to raise NR A level to 30 inches, then return to the previous position.

Plausible because if the failure were on MR 'B', then no change would have occurred.

B. INCORRECT - FWRVs will open up slightly to raise NR 'A' level to 30 inches, then return to the previous position.

Plausible because there are other conditions, like loss of air or loss of control signal to the valve, that will cause lock up.

C. INCORRECT - the FWRVs will open up slightly to raise NR 'A' level to 30 inches, then return to the previous position.

Plausible because this is what would occur if the FWLC system selected MR 'A' instead of NR 'A' on a bad quality signal.

D. CORRECT - NR 'A', NR 'B', MR 'A' are the 3 transmitters that feed into FWLC. When in median control, the transmitter in the middle is in control. This example starts with NRB in control, and which then fails.

FWLC defaults to NR 'A' if available when one level signal fails. NR 'A' indicated 28, so FWLC will open the FRVs to get measurement up to setpoint. NR 'A' indication will be brought up to 30, then the valves will return to their previous position and stabilize when feed flow equals steam flow and reactor level stabilizes at 30 as indicated by NR 'A' REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

NONE None ILT EXAM Page: 104 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 48 ID: 27851 Points: 1.00 The purposes of a REACTOR SCRAM include which of the following?

The purpose(s) of the SBLC SYSTEM include which of the following?

Reactor SCRAM:

1. Minimizing the energy that must be absorbed, and prevent criticality following a Loss Of Coolant Accident (LOCA)

2. Preserving the integrity of the primary system.

3. Preserving the integrity of the fuel cladding.

SBLC SYSTEM:

4. Bringing the reactor to a shutdown condition from full power at any time during core life independent of the Control Rod Drive Hydraulic System.

5. Serving as a backup to the reactor SCRAM function of RPS.

A. 1 and 2 ONLY 4 ONLY B. 1 and 2 ONLY 4 AND 5 C. 1, 2 AND 3 4 ONLY D. 1, 2 AND 3 4 AND 5 Answer: C Answer Explanation A reactor scram is designed to: "Preserve the integrity of the fuel cladding, Preserve the integrity of the primary system, and Minimize the energy that must be absorbed, and prevent criticality following a Loss Of Coolant Accident (LOCA).

"The purpose of SBLC is to "bring the reactor to a shutdown condition from full power at any time during core life independent of the Control Rod Drive Hydraulic System.". SBLC is NOT designed to act as a backup to RPS, due to the amount of time SBLC takes to perform its function.

ILT EXAM Page: 105 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 48 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27851 User-Defined ID: 27851 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 48 - 295006 K3.02 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 106 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 212LN001.01, DRE211N001.01

Reference:

UFSAR 4.6.1, UFSAR 6.0 K/A: 295006 K3.02 4.1/4.2 K/A: Knowledge of the reason for the following responses as they apply to SCRAM: Reactor power response.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 1 Level: Memory Pedigree: MODIFIED History: 03-1 NRC Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) The purpose also includes preserving the integrity of the fuel cladding, (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) two of the three answers are correct. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

B. INCORRECT - (1) The purpose also includes preserving the integrity of the fuel cladding, (2) SBLC is NOT designed to act as a backup to RPS, due to the amount of time SBLC takes to perform its function.

Plausible because (1) two of the three answers are correct and (2)

SBLC is a reactivity system, and it is a common misconception that it serves as a backup to RPS.

C. CORRECT - (1) A reactor scram is designed to: "Preserve the integrity of the fuel cladding, Preserve the integrity of the primary system, and Minimize the energy that must be absorbed, and prevent criticality following a Loss Of Coolant Accident (LOCA). (2) "The purpose of SBLC is to "bring the reactor to a shutdown condition from full power at any time during core life independent of the Control Rod Drive Hydraulic System.". SBLC is NOT designed to act as a backup to RPS, due to the amount of time SBLC takes to perform its function.

D. INCORRECT - (1) The first part of the answer is correct, (2) SBLC is NOT designed to act as a backup to RPS, due to the amount of time SBLC takes to perform its function.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct and (2)

SBLC is a reactivity system, and it is a common misconception that it serves as a backup to RPS.

K/A Justification: This first part of the question directly addresses the K/A since it discusses the purpose of the SCRAM and the what is being protected by the power response of the SCRAM: (i.e. (1) Minimizing the energy that must be absorbed, and prevent criticality following a Loss Of Coolant Accident (LOCA); (2) Preserving the integrity of the primary system; (3) Preserving the integrity of the fuel cladding).

Required Reference(s): None None ILT EXAM Page: 107 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 49 ID: 27761 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power when an instantaneous failure of the sensing lines on the 'A' Recirculation Pump FLOW ELEMENT occurs, causing the sensed dP to go to zero psid.

What is the expected response?

A. A rod block due to a 7.5% difference between flow converters.

B. A 'failure to null' rod block due to reduced slope and bias setpoints on both RBMs.

C. A half scram from 'A' RPS due to Hi-Hi trips on APRMs 1, 2, and 3; 'B' RPS remains reset.

D. A full scram due to Hi-Hi trips on all APRMs.

Answer: D Answer Explanation The failed flow element will affect both flow converters identically, since both flow converters 'sum' the loop flow from A and B Recirc Loops. With the output of both flow converters being reduced by 50%

instantaneously, the flow control trip reference line for all APRMs and RBMs would likewise reduce instantaneously. The lower flow control trip reference line on all APRMs at 100% power would result in a full scram.

ILT EXAM Page: 108 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 49 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 4 Difficulty: 5.00 System ID: 27761 User-Defined ID: 27761 Cross Reference Number: LCH Topic: 49 - 215005.K1.16 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 109 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE215LN005.12

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-5 D-13, DAN 902(3)-4 A-3 K/A: 215005 K1.16 3.3/3.4 K/A: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between AVERAGE POWER RANGE MONITOR/LOCAL POWER RANGE MONITOR SYSTEM and the following: Flow converter/comparator network.

CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 Safety Function: 7 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Since both flow converters are affected equally a mismatch will not occur.

Plausible because only sensing lines on the A Recirc pump were affected.

B. Incorrect - The failure to null is not correct as this is related to the INOP function and is not affected.

Plausible because both flow converters are affected equally this will impact both RBM's.

C. Incorrect - Both channels A and B would see APRM Hi-Hi and a full scram would occur.

Plausible because a half scram on A would occur and only sensing lines on the A Recirc pump were affected.

D. Correct - The failed flow element will affect both flow converters identically, since both flow converters 'sum' the loop flow from A and B Recirc Loops. With the output of both flow converters being reduced by 50% instantaneously, the flow control trip reference line for all APRMs and RBMs would likewise reduce instantaneously. The lower flow control trip reference line on all APRMs at 100% power would result in a full scram.

Required reference(s): None None ILT EXAM Page: 110 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 50 ID: 27762 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when the 2C RFP tripped.

Recirc Pumps will start to runback to 68% speed _____(1)_____.

The FIRST operator action, if required, is to _____(2)_____.

A. 1) IMMEDIATELY.

2) reset Speed Hold per DOP 0202-16, REACTOR RECIRCULATION SYSTEM MANUAL HOLD AND LOCAL MANUAL OPERATION.

B. 1) when RPV level falls below +25 inches.

2) reset Speed Hold per DOP 0202-16, REACTOR RECIRCULATION SYSTEM MANUAL HOLD AND LOCAL MANUAL OPERATION.

C. 1) IMMEDIATELY.

2) insert CRAM rods per DGP 03-04, CONTROL ROD MOVEMENTS, to reduce FCL below the MELLA boundary.

D. 1) when RPV level falls below +25 inches.

2) insert CRAM rods per DGP 03-04, CONTROL ROD MOVEMENTS, to reduce FCL below the MELLA boundary.

Answer: D Answer Explanation IF steam flow is > 9.8 Mlbm/hour, THEN both reactor recirc pumps will start to runback to 68% (actual) speed when reactor water level falls below 25 AND less than three RFPs are running. IF the Unit is operating above the MELLLA boundary, THEN insert CRAM rods (DGP 03-04) to reduce the FCL below the MELLLA boundary.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 50 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27762 User-Defined ID: 27762 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 50 - 202001.A2.12 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 112 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 202LN001.06

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-6 F-7, DAN 902(3)-4 H-6 K/A: 202001.A2.12 3.6/3.8 K/A: Ability to predict the impacts of the following on the RECIRCULATION SYSTEM; and base on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Loss of reactor feedwater.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 1 Pedigree: New History: N/A Level: High Explanation:

A - INCORRECT: (1) a runback will not commence until RPV water level falls below 25 inches. (2) the first required action is to insert CRAM rods, if needed, to reduce FCL below the MELLA boundary.

Plausible because (1) this would be correct for a trip of a Condensate pump with Feedwater flow greater than 10.3 mlbm/hr. (2) Speed Hold can be reset, but the first REQUIRED action is to insert control rods to restore FCL returned below MELLA boundary, if needed.

B - INCORRECT. (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the first required action is to insert CRAM rods, if needed, to reduce FCL below the MELLA boundary.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) Speed Hold can be reset, but the first REQUIRED action is to insert control rods to restore FCL returned below MELLA boundary, if needed.

C - INCORRECT. (1) a runback will not commence until RPV water level falls below 25 inches. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) this would be correct for a trip of a Condensate pump with Feedwater flow greater than 10.3 mlbm/hr. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D - CORRECT. IF steam flow is > 9.8 Mlbm/hour, THEN both reactor recirc pumps will start to runback to 68% (actual) speed when reactor water level falls below 25 AND less than three RFPs are running. IF the Unit is operating above the MELLLA boundary, THEN insert CRAM rods (DGP 03-04) to reduce the FCL below the MELLLA boundary.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 113 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 51 ID: 27831 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when annunciator 902-4 D-23, 2A TARGET ROCK RELIEF VLV INOP alarmed.

The alarm can NOT be reset.

The 2-0203-2A, "2A Target Rock" CLOSE position indication is ILLUMINATED The 2-0203-2A, "2A Target Rock" __________, and the "2A Target Rock" will NOT function in the

_________ mode.

A. has lost power relief B. has lost power safety C. bellows has ruptured relief D. bellows has ruptured safety Answer: D Answer Explanation The alarm, and its failure to reset, indicates that the bellows has ruptured on the 2A Target Rock. This means that the target rock valve will not operate in SAFETY mode.

ILT EXAM Page: 114 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 51 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27831 User-Defined ID: 27831 Cross Reference Number: LIH Topic: 51 - 239002 K.5.02 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE239LN001.06 Reference(s): DAN 902(3)-4 D-23, DAN 902(3)-3 C-15 K/A: 239002 K5.02 3.7/3.8 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to RELIEF/SAFETY VALVES: Safety function of SRV operation.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 3 Level: High Pedigree: NEW History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) Since the target rock has position indication, it has not lost power. (2) the valve will still operate in the relief mode.

Plausible because (1) there is other equipment in the plant which will still have position indication, even if power to operate the equipment is lost (2) this would be true if power had been lost to the relief valve.

B. INCORRECT - (1) Since the target rock has position indication, it has not lost power. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) there is other equipment in the plant which will still have position indication, even if power to operate the equipment is lost. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the valve will still operate in the relief mode.

Plausible (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the candidate must recognize the impact of the alarm, and that the safety function is the only function impacted..

D. CORRECT - The alarm, and its failure to reset, indicates that the bellows has ruptured on the 2A Target Rock. This means that the target rock valve will not operate in SAFETY mode.

Required

Reference:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 115 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 52 ID: 27891 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 is shutdown and depressurizing using the Isolation Condenser. The cooldown began at 0315 and reactor vessel temperatures in the log are as follows:

Time Temp 0315 520 F 0330 490 F 0345 463 F 0400 442 F 0415 425 F Based on the above information, __________.

A. the cooldown rate is lowering, so MO 3-1301-3 RX INLET ISO VLV should be throttled closed.

B. the maximum allowable cooldown rate was violated and the applicable notifications should be made.

C. the initial cooldown rate was excessive, so MO 3-1301-3 RX INLET ISO VLV was throttled closed.

D. the cooldown rate is lowering, so MO's 3-1301-17, VENT VLV and 3-1301-20, VENT VLV should be opened.

Answer: C Answer Explanation Per DOP 1300-03 cooldown rate shall NOT exceed 100 degrees per hour. During the first 15 minutes the rate was too high and, if unchanged, would have exceeded the maximum allowed cooldown rate. Per the DOP IF RPV depressurization OR cooldown is too fast, THEN lower Isolation Condenser flow by throttling MO 2(3)-1301-3, RX INLET ISOL, closed.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 52 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 1 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27891 User-Defined ID: 27764 Cross Reference Number: LIH Topic: 52 - 207000.K5.09 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 207LN000.03

Reference:

DRE207LN001 K/A: 207000.K5.09 3.7 / 4.0 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to ISOLATION (EMERGENCY) CONDENSER:

Cooldown rate.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 4 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A.. INCORRECT: Throttling the 3-1301-3 vlv closed is not needed, as it would only further lower the cooldown rate.

Plausible because Cooldown rate is lowering, and is currently below the 100 degree per hour limit.

B. INCORRECT: the cooldown rate is taken over a one hour period and therefore has not been exceeded.

Plausible because in the first 15 minutes cooldown was 30 degrees.

This is equivalent to 120 degrees per hour if not adjusted.

C. CORRECT: Per DOP 1300-03 cooldown rate shall NOT exceed 100 degrees per hour. During the first 15 minutes the rate was too high and, if unchanged, would have exceeded the maximum allowed cooldown rate. Per the DOP IF RPV depressurization OR cooldown is too fast, THEN lower Isolation Condenser flow by throttling MO 2(3)-1301-3, RX INLET ISOL, closed.

D. INCORRECT: the vent valves are not opened during normal operation.

Plausible because the purpose of the isolation condenser vent valves is to prevent gas binding during standby conditions, and gas binding would result in reduced cooling capability.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 117 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 53 ID: 27766 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when 2-0501-A-2A1, 2A RPS MG SET 2A-1 EPA BKR, tripped.

The following HALF Group Isolations will occur _______.

A. 1 and 3 ONLY B. 1 and 2 ONLY C. 2 and 3 ONLY D. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Answer Explanation Loss of MCC 28-2 causes a loss of RPS MG Set A, which de-energizes RPS channel B. Per DOA 0500-05, IF RPS Bus B is lost, THEN: PCIS Group 2, 3 Channel B Isolation relays trip.

ILT EXAM Page: 118 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 53 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27766 User-Defined ID: 27766 Cross Reference Number: LI Topic: 53. 223002 K6.08 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE223LN005.03

Reference:

DOP 0500-03, DOA 0500-05 K/A: 223002 K6.08 3.5/3.7 K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the PRIMARY CONTAINMENT ISOLATION SYSTEM/NUCLEAR STEAM SUPPLY SHUT-OFF: Reactor protection system.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 5 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - Group 1 does not receive an initiation signal on a loss of RPS Bus B. Plausible because group three is correct and group 1 would be correct for a loss of RPS Bus A.

B. INCORRECT - Group 1 does not receive an initiation signal on a loss of RPS Bus B. Plausible because group two is correct and group 1 would be correct for a loss of RPS Bus A.

C. CORRECT - When the 2A1 EPA breaker tripped, it de-energized RPS channel B. Per DOA 0500-05, IF RPS Bus B is lost, THEN: PCIS Group 2, 3 Channel B Isolation relays trip.

D. INCORRECT - Group 1 does not receive an initiation signal on a loss of RPS Bus B. Plausible because this would be correct for a loss of RPS Bus A.

Required Reference(s): None None ILT EXAM Page: 119 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 54 ID: 27860 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

Drywell pressure is 1.28 psig and steady.

Recirc Pumps are still running.

RPV pressure is 910 psig.

RPV level is -10 inches and lowering With regard to ATWS ARI and the Recirc System ONLY, and assuming NO operator action:

(1) If RPV water level continues to drop, at which of the following levels will the Reactor Recirc pumps FIRST have a trip signal?

(2) When a trip signal is received, the recirc pumps will trip __________.

A. (1) -35 inches (2) IMMEDIATELY.

B. (1) -35 inches (2) after a 9 SECOND time delay.

C. (1) -59 inches (2) IMMEDIATELY.

D. (1) -59 inches (2) after a 9 SECOND time delay.

Answer: D Answer Explanation The ATWS ARI circuit will trip any running recirc pumps when level reaches -59 inches nominal (-51 inches actual).

The trip is delayed for 9 seconds.

ILT EXAM Page: 120 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 54 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27860 User-Defined ID: 27860 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 54 - 295031.K2.09 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE202LN001.06

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-5 A-8 K/A: 295031.K2.09 3.3/3.4 K/A: Knowledge of the interrelations between REACTOR LOW WATER LEVEL and the following: Recirculation system CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 2 Pedigree: New Level: Memory History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) the ATWS ARI circuit will trip any running recirc pumps when level reaches -59 inches nominal (-51 inches actual).

(2) the trip occurs after a delay of 9 seconds.

Plausible because (1) this is two feet below the FWRV spargers, which is the level that we must lower the RPV below during an ATWS. (2) the ARI valves are immediately activated.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the ATWS ARI circuit will trip any running recirc pumps when level reaches -59 inches nominal (-51 inches actual).

(2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) this is two feet below the FWRV spargers, which is the level that we must lower the RPV below during an ATWS. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the trip occurs after a delay of 9 seconds.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the ARI valves are immediately activated.

D. CORRECT - (1) the ATWS ARI circuit will trip any running recirc pumps when level reaches -59 inches nominal (-51 inches actual).

(2) The trip is delayed for 9 seconds.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 121 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 55 ID: 27769 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is performing a Reactor Startup.

Initial count rate on the 902-5 Panel SRMs indicates 2000 cps.

Which of the following conditions would prohibit use of the Notch Override Switch when withdrawing rods, until the unit is in a steaming condition?

Notching rods out between position _____(1)_____, after SRM counts reach _____(2)_____.

A. (1) 04 and 32 (2) 8000 cps B. (1) 04 and 32 (2) 16000 cps C. (1) 04 and 36 (2) 8000 cps D. (1) 04 and 36 (2) 16000 cps Answer: D Answer Explanation To minimize the occurrence of Short Periods while withdrawing control rods, the Notch Override Switch shall be used in the following manner: The Notch Override Switch shall not be used between positions 04 and 36 after the Source Range Monitor count rates have experienced 3 doublings (8 times the initial count rate) until the unit is in a steaming condition (one bypass valve partially OPEN or the unit on-line).

The QNE will record the SRM count rates during startup and will inform the NSO when the notch override restrictions are to be implemented as per DGP 01-01.

ILT EXAM Page: 122 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 55 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27769 User-Defined ID: 27769 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 55 - 215004.G2.2.44 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 20102LK003

Reference:

DGP 01-01, DEOP 0500-05 K/A: 215004.G2.2.44 4.2/4.4 K/A: ability to interpret control room indication to verify the status and operation of a system and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions: Source-Range Monitor.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 7 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: (1) notch limitations after 3 doublings are between Notch positions 04 and 36 (2) three doublings would be 16000 cps.

Plausible because (1) 04 is correct and 32 is the upper range for intermediate rods. (2) 8000 cps is equal to the original count rate, plus 3 x 2000 cps.

B. INCORRECT: (1) notch limitations after 3 doublings are between Notch positions 04 and 36 (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) 04 is correct and 32 is the upper range for intermediate rods. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) three doublings would be 16000 cps.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) 8000 cps is equal to the original count rate, plus 3 x 2000 cps.

D. CORRECT: To minimize the occurrence of Short Periods while withdrawing control rods, the Notch Override Switch shall be used in the following manner: The Notch Override Switch shall not be used between positions 04 and 36 after the Source Range Monitor count rates have experienced 3 doublings (8 times the initial count rate) until the unit is in a steaming condition (one bypass valve partially OPEN or the unit on-line). The QNE will record the SRM count rates during startup and will inform the NSO when the notch override restrictions are to be implemented as per DGP 01-01.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 123 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 56 ID: 27832 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when 2A Off Gas system flow on the 902-7 panel rose from 145 to 180 scfm continued to slowly rise.

Annunciator 902-7, C-13 2A OFF GAS SYS FLOW HI / LO, alarmed

Annunciator 902-7, D-13, OFF GAS FILT DP HI, alarmed

Main Condenser Vacuum was at 25.0 inches and slowly lowering

DOA 3300-02, MAIN CONDENSER VACUUM, was entered

1. What actions are directed by DOA 3300-02?

2. Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, STRATEGIES FOR SUCCESSFUL TRANSIENT MITIGATION, the operating team MUST insert a manual SCRAM when Main Condenser pressure lowers to _______ inHg.

A. 1) bypass the filter building

2) 22.5 B. 1) bypass the filter building

2) 23.0 C. 1) start the condenser vacuum pump

2) 22.5 D. 1) start the condenser vacuum pump

2) 23.0 Answer: A Answer Explanation DOA 3300-02 directs bypassing the filter building if high offgas flow exits OP-DR-103-102-1002 provides guidance to SCRAM the reactor at 22.5 inHG.

ILT EXAM Page: 124 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 56 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27832 User-Defined ID: 27832 Cross Reference Number: LIH Topic: 56 - 295002.K1.04 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 271LN001-12

Reference:

DANs 902(3)-7 C-13 & D-13, DOA 3300-02 K/A: 295002.K1.04 3.0/3.3 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications the following concepts as the apply to LOSS OF MAIN CONDENSER VACUUM: Increased off gas flow.

CFR: 41.8 to 41.10 Safety Function: 3 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. CORRECT - (1) DOA 3300-02 directs bypassing the filter building if high offgas flow exits (2) OP-DR-103-102-1002 directs SCRAMMING the reactor at 22.5 inHG.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the team may scram at 23.0 inHG, but they do not have to until vacuum reaches 22.5 inHg.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) this is the main condenser low vacuum alarm setpoint.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the condenser vacuum pump is not started if the mode switch is in RUN (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) this would be directed by DOA 3300-02 if the mode switch were in STARTUP (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT - (1) the condenser vacuum pump is not started if the mode switch is in RUN (2) the team may scram at 23.0 inHG, but they do not have to until vacuum reaches 22.5 inHg.

Plausible because (1) this would be directed by DOA 3300-02 if the mode switch were in STARTUP (2) this is the main condenser low vacuum alarm setpoint.

Required

Reference:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 125 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 57 ID: 27773 Points: 1.00 Both Units were operating at 100% power.

The Unit 2 Torus Area Radiation Monitor (ARM) and West CRD Module ARM readings are trending up at rate of 50 mrem/min.

902-3 A-1, RX BLDG RAD HI is in alarm.

NO other Reactor Building ARMs are in alarm.

Reactor Building ventilation isolated on BOTH units, and 2/3 A SBGT auto started.

What is the cause for this radiological change?

A. HPCI steam line rupture.

B. 2C Main Steam Line rupture.

C. Shutdown Cooling Pump suction line break.

D. RBCCW line break to Pumpback Air Compressors.

Answer: A Answer Explanation HPCI line break is the only choice for this rapid change in radiation as it's steam line runs through the Torus area on the west side of the Rx Building.

ILT EXAM Page: 126 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 57 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27773 User-Defined ID: 27773 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 57 - 295033.A2.03 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE288LN001.12

Reference:

DAN 902(3)-3 A-1 K/A: 295033.A2.03 3.7 / 4.2 K/A: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH SECONDARY CONTAINMENT AREA RADIATION LEVELS:

Cause of high area radiation.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 9 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. Correct - HPCI line break is the only choice for this rapid change in radiation as it's steam line runs through the Torus area on the west side of the Rx Building.

B. Incorrect - Main Steam line break would be contained in the DW or X-area and ARMs in the Rx Building would be unaffected by this line break.

Plausible because main steam contains N-16 and other radioactive emitters.

C. Incorrect - SDC pump suction line break would NOT affect the area ARMs in this event due to the SDC system would be isolated at rated power.

Plausible because if SDC was in service then the affected areas would be similar.

D. Incorrect - RBCCW system in NOT highly radioactive system and would NOT cause that rapid of rad condition in the West CRD and Torus areas.

Plausible because RBCCW is used in the reactor building, and drywell.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 127 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 58 ID: 27774 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power, when MCC 29-1 tripped on overcurrent.

1. __________ level indications fail low.

2. A half scram will occur on RPS Channel __________

A. 1) Medium Range 'A' AND Fuel Zone 'A'

2) 'A' B. 1) Medium Range 'A' AND Fuel Zone 'B'

2) 'A' C. 1) Medium Range 'B' AND Fuel Zone 'A'

2) 'B' D. 1) Medium Range 'B' AND Fuel Zone 'B'

2) 'B' Answer: B Answer Explanation Loss of MCC 29-1 will cause a loss of ATS Panel 2202-73B. Both MR A and FZ B are powered from ATS B and will be lost. This causes MR A level to fail low, causing an RPS channel A 1/2 scram.

ILT EXAM Page: 128 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 58 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27774 User-Defined ID: 27774 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 58 - 295003.G2.1.7 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE216LN002.12

References:

DOP 6800-05, DAN 902(3)-4 H-20 K/A: 295003.G2.1.7 4.4/4.7 K/A: Ability to evaluate plan performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation: Partial or Complete Loss of AC Power.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 6 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation(s):

A. INCORRECT - (1) the answer is MR A and FZ B (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) MR A is correct, making the answer partially correct. Must know the relationships of water level instruments between MR and FZ (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

B. CORRECT - Loss of MCC 29-1 will cause a loss of ATS Panel 2202-73B. Both MR A and FZ B are powered from ATS B and will be lost. This causes MR A level to fail low, causing an RPS channel A 1/2 scram.

C. INCORRECT - (1) this is the reverse of the correct answer (2) RPS channel A half scram will occur.

Plausible because (1) this would be true if Bus 28-1 had tripped on overcurrent. (2) if MR B had lost power, then this would be correct.

D. CORRECT - (1) MR B will not fail (2) a RPS Channel A half scram will occur.

Plausible because (1) the trip of bus 29-1 causes a loss of power to ATS cabinet 220-273B. Easy to make the tie that MR B and FZ B are affected. (2) if MR B had lost power, this would be correct.

Required Reference(s). None None ILT EXAM Page: 129 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 59 ID: 27892 Points: 1.00 Both Units are operating at 100% power.

Maintenance has requested permission to bring a truck load of materials out of the Reactor Building following a refuel outage.

1) Which Unit's trackway would be used to remove this equipment from the RB without impacting Secondary Containment?

2) If the inner door of the selected trackway is OPEN, which of the following issues would REQUIRE operations to notify the work group to close and latch the door?

1. Tornado Warning Issued for the vicinity

2. Reactor Building DP exceeds the TS limit

3. SBGT system operating due to unplanned secondary containment isolation signal A. 1) Unit 2

2) 1 & 2 ONLY B. 1) Unit 2

2) 1, 2, & 3 C. 1) Unit 3

2) 1 & 2 ONLY D. 1) Unit 3

2) 1, 2 & 3 Answer: B Answer Explanation Per DAP 13-03 UNIT 2 REACTOR BUILDING INTERLOCK DOOR ACCESS CONTROL, IF any of the following conditions occur WHEN an interlock door is open, THEN the Operations Department should have the responsible work group close AND latch the door:

a. A tornado warning is issued for the vicinity by the National Weather Service.

b. Reactor building dP drops to < -0.25 inWC as read at local dP indicators on Refuel Floor. Refer to actions for DAN 923-5 C-1, RX BLDG DP LO.

c. The SBGT system is operating because of an unplanned secondary containment isolation signal.

ILT EXAM Page: 130 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 59 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27892 User-Defined ID: 27775 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 59 - 290001.K4.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 131 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE223LN001.3n

References:

DAP 13-03 K/A: 290001.K4.01 3.5/3.8 K/A: Knowledge of SECONDARY CONTAINMENT design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Personnel access without breaching secondary containment.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 5 Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) The answer is 1, 2 and 3 Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) part 1 and 2 are correct but also so is part 3.

B. CORRECT - (1) Both units have a trackway that can allow access to the reactor building from outside. Only Unit 2 has design features on the inner door that allow personnel or equipment to be moved through the trackway without impacting secondary containment. (2) Per DAP 13-03 UNIT 2 REACTOR BUILDING INTERLOCK DOOR ACCESS CONTROL, IF any of the following conditions occur WHEN an interlock door is open, THEN the Operations Department should have the responsible work group close AND latch the door:

1. A tornado warning is issued for the vicinity by the National Weather Service.

2. Reactor building dP drops to < -0.25 inWC as read at local dP indicators on Refuel Floor. Refer to actions for DAN 923-5 C-1, RX BLDG DP LO.

3. The SBGT system is operating because of an unplanned secondary containment isolation signal.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the answer is Unit 2 (2) The answer is 1, 2 and 3 Plausible because (1) Unit 3 has a material access into the reactor building sized to receive a truck. The candidate must recognize that it only has one airtight door, and cannot be used to bring equipment or personnel in without impacting secondary containment (2) part 1 and 2 are correct but also so is part 3.

Plausible because part 2 and 3 are correct but also need part 1.

D. INCORRECT - (1) the answer is Unit 2 (2) The second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) Unit 3 has a material access into the reactor building sized to receive a truck. The candidate must recognize that it only has one airtight door, and cannot be used to bring equipment or personnel in without impacting secondary containment (2) The second part of the answer is correct.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 132 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 60 ID: 27776 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 is in SHUTDOWN, with NO Recirc pumps running.

RPV water temperature is 300oF.

3A SDC pump is running and aligned to the RPV.

3B SDC pump is running and aligned to the FPC system.

3C SDC pump is running and aligned to the RPV.

If Recirc Loop water temperature rises to 373°F, what action is required?

A. Control RPV water temperature/pressure per DOA 1000-01, RESIDUAL HEAT REMOVAL ALTERNATIVES ONLY.

B. Control RPV water temperature/pressure per DOA 1000-01, RESIDUAL HEAT REMOVAL ALTERNATIVES AND monitor fuel storage pool water level once per hour per DOA 1900-01, LOSS OF FUEL POOL COOLING.

C. Align 3B SDC pump to the RPV to control RPV water temperature/pressure per DOP 1000-03, SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE OF OPERATION ONLY.

D. Align 3B SDC pump to the RPV to control RPV water temperature/pressure per DOP 1000-03, SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE OF OPERATION AND monitor fuel storage pool water level once per hour per DOA 1900-01, LOSS OF FUEL POOL COOLING.

Answer: A Answer Explanation When the SDC Pump suction temperature (Recirc Loop Temp) exceeds 339oF, the pumps lined up to the RPV (3A and 3C) trip. 3B pump will NOT trip, as it still has suction from the Fuel Pool Cooling system.

Entry into DOA 1000-01 is the only required entry.

ILT EXAM Page: 133 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 60 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27776 User-Defined ID: 27776 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 60 - 233000K.1.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 134 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE205LN001.06

Reference:

DOA 1000-01, DOA 1900-01, DAN 903-4 B-23 K/A: 233000.K1.01 2.6/2.9 K/A: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between FUEL POOL COOLING AND CLEAN-UP and the following: Shutdown cooling system.

CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 Safety Function: 9 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2010 NRC Explanation:

A. Correct - When the SDC Pump suction temperature (Recirc Loop Temp) exceeds 339oF, the pumps lined up to the RPV (3A and 3C) trip.

3B pump will NOT trip, as it still has suction from the Fuel Pool Cooling system. Entry into DOA 1000-01 is the only required entry.

B. Incorrect - SDC Pump suction temperature 339 degrees F and rising will cause a trip of the 3A and 3C SDC pumps. The 3B SDC pump being tied to the FPC system will not trip. Plausible because all three SDC pumps have the same high temperature setpoint and if it was in a normal lineup this would be correct. The FPC high temperature trip is based on Fuel pool temp of 130 degrees F.

C. Incorrect - Aligning 3B SDC to the RPV would not be sufficient to replace the cooling from the loss of both 3A and 3C. Plausible because 3B could be lined up to the FPC system to help with heat removal. Only 1 SDC pump can be lined up to FPC at a time.

D. Incorrect - Aligning 3B SDC to the FPC system would not be sufficient to replace the cooling from the loss of both 3A and 3C.

Plausible because 3B could be lined up to the FPC system to help with heat removal. If the 3B SDC pump tripped on suction temp when lined up to FPC this would be correct for entering loss of FPC.

K/A Justification: The shutdown cooling system is designed to be able to line it up to the fuel pool in order to augment the fuel pool cooling system. This requires installing a spool piece, and physically separating the SDC suction and discharge of the SDC pump aligned to the fuel pool from the normal SDC flow path. The operator must recognize that although 3B SDC pump is aligned and running to the fuel pool, the high recirc loop temperature condition listed in the stem will NOT cause a trip of the 3B SDC pump; and therefore there is no impact to the fuel pool. The appropriate action, based on the stem of the question, is to address the loss of decay heat removal from the RPV using DOA 1000-01.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 135 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 61 ID: 27780 Points: 1.00 Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, STRATEGIES FOR SUCCESSFUL TRANSIENT MITIGATION, which of the following actions would Reactor Operators be ALLOWED to perform from MEMORY?

(1) Initiate SBLC (2) Manually operate ADS valves (3) Run Recirc Pumps back to minimum (4) Take manual control of a controller that has failed in auto A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4 Answer: D Answer Explanation Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, Manual operation of ADS valves and taking manual control of a controller that has failed in auto can be performed from memory. Initiating SBLC; and running recirc pumps back to minimum are performed using the DGP 02-03 SCRAM hardcard, and are not done from memory.

ILT EXAM Page: 136 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 61 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27780 User-Defined ID: 27780 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 61 - Generic.2.4.12 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 137 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29800LK065

Reference:

OP-DR-103-102-1002 , DGP 02-03 K/A: Generic.2.4.12 4.0 / 4.3 K/A: Knowledge of general operating crew responsibilities during emergency operations CFR: 41.10, 45.12 PRA: No Safety Function: N/A License Level: Reactor Operator Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 19-1 Cert Explanation:

A - Incorrect - Initiating SBLC is done per the hard card, taking manual control of a controller that has failed in auto can be performed from memory.

Plausible because securing SBLC is allowed to be performed from memory and item 4 is correct.

B - Incorrect. Running Recirc Pumps back to minimum is performed using the DGP 02-03 SCRAM hardcard, and is not done from memory.

Plausibility - Item 2 is correct. Item 3 is a easy, non-complex action performed by following the DGP 02-03 hard card. It has been frequently been noted to be performed from memory by operators, and is therefore a valid distractor.

C - Incorrect. Running recirc pumps back to minimum is performed using the DGP 02-03 SCRAM hardcard, and is not done from memory. Initiating SBLC is done per the hard card.

Plausibility - Item 3 is an easy, non-complex action performed by following the DGP 02-03 hard card. It has been frequently been noted to be performed from memory by operators, and is therefore a valid distractor. SBLC is allowed to be secured from memory but not initiated.

D - Correct - Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, Manual operation of ADS valves and taking manual control of a controller that has failed in auto can be performed from memory. Initiating SBLC; and running recirc pumps back to minimum are performed using the DGP 02-03 SCRAM hardcard, and are not done from memory.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 138 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 62 ID: 27781 Points: 1.00 The main control room receives a report of a fire near the Unit 3 Isolation Condenser 3-1301-3 valve room. The control room sounds the fire alarm and directs the fire brigade to assemble.

1. At minimum, __________ fire brigade members are required to be on-site.

2. The closest fire equipment cart to the area of the fire would be located in __________.

A. 1) 5

2) Unit 3 Reactor Building 545' elevation, West side B. 1) 5

2) Unit 2/3 Turbine Building 517' elevation, by the Cardox tank C. 1) 6

2) Unit 3 Reactor Building 545' elevation, West side D. 1) 6

2) Unit 2/3 Turbine Building 517' elevation, by the Cardox tank Answer: A Answer Explanation Per the TRM, there are 5 members on the fire brigade. The fire was reported near the Iso Cond 3 valve room, which is located on the second floor of the U3 reactor building. The closest fire cart would be the Unit 3 reactor building 545' elevation.

ILT EXAM Page: 139 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 62 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27781 User-Defined ID: 27781 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 62 - Generic.2.4.26 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 286LN00217

Reference:

TRM 5.0.a, DFPS 4114-12 K/A: Generic.2.4.26 3.1 / 3.6 K/A: Knowledge of facility protection requirements, including fire brigade and portable fire fighting equipment usage.

CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 8 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2006 NRC, 2009 Cert Explanation:

A. CORRECT - (1) Per the TRM, there are 5 members on the fire brigade. (2) The fire was reported near the Iso Cond 3 valve room, which is located on the second floor of the U3 reactor building. The closest fire cart would be the Unit 3 reactor building 545' elevation.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the closest fire equipment cart would be located on the U3 RB 545' elevation, west side.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) There is a fire cart located in the TB 517 area near the Cardox tank but not the closest to the area of the fire.

C. INCORRECT - (1) 5 fire brigade members are required to be on site. (2)

Plausible because (1) a 6th person (normally an SRO) will be sent to the area of the fire. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT - (1) 5 fire brigade members are required to be on site. (2) the closest fire equipment cart would be located on the U3 RB 545' elevation, west side.

Plausible because (1) a 6th person (normally an SRO) will be sent to the area of the fire. (2) There is a fire cart located in the TB 517 area near the Cardox tank but not the closest to the area of the fire.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 140 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 63 ID: 27782 Points: 1.00 Per OP-DR-108-101-1002, OPERATIONS DEPARTMENT STANDARDS AND EXPECTATIONS, how are TEMPORARILY disabled nuisance alarms tracked?

A. Alarm is documented in a Work Request, and a yellow dot placed on annunciator window B. Alarm is documented in a Work Request, and an orange tag is placed on annunciator window C. Alarm is documented in the Turnover, and a green dot placed on annunciator window D. Alarm is documented in the Turnover, and an orange tag is placed on annunciator window Answer: C Answer Explanation OP-DR-108-101-1002 directs documentation in the Turnover and application of a green dot to annunciator window.

ILT EXAM Page: 141 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 63 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27782 User-Defined ID: 26946 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 63 - Generic.2.2.43 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 39900LK002

Reference:

OP-DR-108-101-1002, OP-AA-103-102 K/A: G.2.2.43 3.0/3.3 K/A: Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2017 NRC Explanation:

A - Incorrect. OP-DR-108-101-1002 directs documentation in the Turnover. Plausible because a yellow dot is reserved for control rod abnormalities.

B - Incorrect. OP-DR-108-101-1002 directs documentation in the Turnover. Plausible because an orange tag is used for a control room work request.

C - Correct. OP-DR-108-101-1002 directs documentation in the Turnover and application of a green dot to annunciator window for temporarily disabled nuisance alarms.

D - Incorrect. OP-DR-108-101-1002 directs application of green dot to annunciator window. Plausible because an orange tag is used for a control room work request.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 142 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 64 ID: 27785 Points: 1.00 Unless an alternate location is approved by RP Supervision, dosimetry shall be worn on the chest between the waist and shoulders when the whole body is exposed to a uniform radiation field.

The DLR (Dosimeter of Legal Record) shall be worn in close proximity (i.e. hands width) of the SRD (Secondary Dosimeter).

Unless specified by Radiation Protection Management:

1. The DLR should be worn on the __________ of the protective clothing.

2. The SRD should be worn on the __________ of the protective clothing.

A. 1) inside

2) outside B. 1) inside

2) inside C. 1) outside

2) inside D. 1) outside

2) outside Answer: A Answer Explanation Per RP-AA-210 Unless an alternate location is approved by RP Supervision, dosimetry shall be worn on the chest between the waist and shoulders when the whole body is exposed to a uniform radiation field.

1. The DLR shall be worn in close proximity (i.e. hands width) of the SRD.

2. The beta window shall be facing outward (away from the body).

Unless specified by Radiation Protection Management:

1. The SRD should be worn on the outside of the protective clothing.

2. The DLR should be worn on the inside of the protective clothing.

ILT EXAM Page: 143 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 64 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27785 User-Defined ID: 27785 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 64 - Generic 2.3.5 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 144 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: Generic Rad Worker LP, objective 32

Reference:

RP-AA-210 K/A: Generic 2.3.5 2.9/2.9 K/A: Ability to use radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments personnel monitoring equipment, etc.

CFR: 41.11 Safety Function: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. Correct - Per RP-AA-210 Unless an alternate location is approved by RP Supervision, dosimetry shall be worn on the chest between the waist and shoulders when the whole body is exposed to a uniform radiation field.

1. The DLR shall be worn in close proximity (i.e. hands width) of the SRD.

2. The beta window shall be facing outward (away from the body).

Unless specified by Radiation Protection Management:

1. The SRD should be worn on the outside of the protective clothing.

2. The DLR should be worn on the inside of the protective clothing.

B. INCORRECT - The SRD shall be worn on the outside of protective clothing.

Plausible because they are both to be worn on close proximity and wearing both inside of the protective clothing is plausible.

C. INCORRECT - The DLR shall be worn on the inside of protective clothing, and the SRD should be worn on the outside of the protective clothing.

Plausible because getting them reversed is plausible for the primary and secondary dosimeter.

D. INCORRECT - The DLR shall be worn on the inside of protective clothing.

Plausible because they are both to be worn on close proximity, and wearing both outside of the protective clothing is plausible.

Required Reference(s): None None ILT EXAM Page: 145 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 65 ID: 27786 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

What impact will a loss of ESS have on the APRMs?

Power will be lost to __________.

A. APRM's 1, 2 and 3 B. APRM's 4, 5 and 6 C. recorder RR 2-0750-10A, "APRM 1/3 - IRM 11/13" D. recorder RR 2-0750-10B, "APRM 4/5 - IRM 15/17" Answer: C Answer Explanation Per DOA 6800-01 ESS is the power supply to 5 panel recorders for APRMs 1,2,3. Instrument Bus powers the recorder for APRMs 4,5,6. Per DOA 0500-05 RPS Bus A supplies power to APRM channel 1,2,3 cabinet and RPS B supplies power to APRM channel 4,5,6 cabinet ILT EXAM Page: 146 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 65 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27786 User-Defined ID: 27786 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 65 - 262002.K1.19 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE262LN005.12

References:

DOA 6800-01, DOA 0500-05, DOP 6800-01 K/A: 262002.K1.19 2.9/3.1 K/A: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between UNINTERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (AC/DC) and the following: Power range neutron monitoring system.

CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 Safety Function: 6 Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible because RPS, ESS, and Instrument Bus all supply power to different components related to APRMs. Must determine which division and which components are supply by each.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because RPS, ESS, and Instrument Bus all supply power to different components related to APRMs. Must determine which division and which components are supply by each.

C. Correct - Per DOA 6800-01 ESS is the power supply to 5 panel recorders for APRMs 1,2,3. Instrument Bus powers the recorder for APRMs 4,5,6. Per DOA 0500-05 RPS Bus A supplies power to APRM channel 1,2,3 cabinet and RPS B supplies power to APRM channel 4,5,6 cabinet D. Incorrect - Plausible because RPS, ESS, and Instrument Bus all supply power to different components related to APRMs. Must determine which division and which components are supply by each.

K/A Justification: Unit 2 ESS is an uninterruptable power supply that is fed from Bus 29, 250 VDC MCC #2, Bus 25 and MCC 28-2 via a rectifier, inverter, static switch and ABT. This question tests the knowledge of the impact to APRMs if ESS was lost.

Required Reference(s): None None ILT EXAM Page: 147 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 66 ID: 27787 Points: 1.00 A call was received from an industrial plant informing the site that a toxic gas release has occurred and impact to Dresden is expected in 5 minutes.

Per DOA 0010-12, TOXIC GAS/CHEMICAL RELEASE FROM NEARBY CHEMICAL FACILITY, which of the following actions may be taken from memory?

A. Align Main Control Room Ventilation to PURGE MODE.

B. Don MSA Air Packs AND activate the breathing air system.

C. Isolate Main Control Room by placing CRM ISOL switch to ISOLATE.

D. Place CRM AIR FLTR UNIT BOOSTER FANS to ON, at 923-5 panel.

Answer: C Answer Explanation DOA 0010-12 directs placing CRM ISOL switch to isolate given the conditions of the stem. This isolates the MCR HVAC from outside air.

ILT EXAM Page: 148 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 66 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27787 User-Defined ID: 27787 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 66 - 290003.K5.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29501LK078

Reference:

DOA 0010-12 K/A: 290003.K.5.01 3.2/3.5 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to CONTROL ROOM HVAC: Airborne contamination (e.g. radiological, toxic gas, smoke) control. Control Room Ventilation.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 9 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 15-1 NRC Comments:

A - Incorrect. Plausible because this would be the correct action if there was toxic gas or smoke in the MCR. This maximizes the flow of outside air - not the desired outcome in this situation.

B - Incorrect. Plausible because donning MSA packs is an immediate operator action for toxic gas in the MCR. This DOA is not executed with the conditions in the stem C - Correct. DOA 0010-12 directs placing CRM ISOL switch to isolate given the conditions of the stem. This isolates the MCR HVAC from outside air.

D - Incorrect. Plausible because DOA 0010-12 directs placing CRM AIR FLTR UNIT BOOSTER FANS to OFF at 923-5 panel vs ON.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 149 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 67 ID: 27853 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when one of the jet pump flow indicators suddenly became SIGNIFICANTLY more stable than the others.

What plant impact would the NSO expect to see for this condition?

Indicated total core flow would _____(1)_____, with a corresponding _____(2)_____ in core thermal power, main generator electrical output, and core differential pressure.

A. 1) rise

2) rise B. 1) rise

2) drop C. 1) drop

2) rise D. 1) drop

2) drop Answer: B Answer Explanation One indication of a failed jet pump is an individual flow indicator that is significantly more stable than the others. Per DOA 0201-01, if a jet pump failed, indicated core flow RISE, with a corresponding DROP in core thermal power, main generator electrical output, and core differential pressure.

ILT EXAM Page: 150 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 67 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 1.00 System ID: 27853 User-Defined ID: 27853 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 67 - 295001.A2.04 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 151 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE202LN001.12

Reference:

DOA 0201-01 K/A: 295001.A2.04 3.0 / 3.1 K/A: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF FORCED CORE FLOW CIRCULATION: Individual Jet Pump Flows: Not BWR-1&2 CFR: 41.10 Safety Function: 1 Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) these parameters would drop.

Plausible (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) this would be correct if the rise in total core flow were actual instead of just indicated.

B. CORRECT: One indication of a failed jet pump is an individual flow indicator that is significantly more stable than the others. (1) Per DOA 0201-01, if a jet pump failed, indicated total core flow will rise (2) with a corresponding drop in core thermal power, main generator electrical output, and core differential pressure.

C. INCORRECT: (1) Indicated total core flow would rise (2) These parameters would drop..

Plausible because (1) This is the opposite of what would actually occur.

If the candidate recognizes that there are indications of a failed jet pump, but mixes up indicated and actual total core flow changes, then this would be a reasonable answer (2) A failed jet pump causes indicated total core flow to rise, but actual total core flow to drop. If the student recognizes that indicated and actual total core flow behave in an opposite manner, then the dropping indicated total core flow in the first part of this answer would mean actual total core flow rose, and a rise in these parameters would be a reasonable answer.

D. INCORRECT: (1) Indicated total core flow would rise (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) This is the opposite of what would actually occur.

If the candidate recognizes that there are indications of a failed jet pump, but mixes up indicated and actual total core flow changes, then this would be a reasonable answer (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 152 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 68 ID: 27791 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 Core Alterations are in progress.

The mode switch is in REFUEL.

All control rods are fully inserted.

The refuel platform is near the core.

The fuel grapple is LOADED and is NOT fully up.

SUDDENLY control rod D-5 unlatches and drifts out.

1. Movement of the fuel grapple __________ be blocked in both directions.

2. Refuel Platform travel to the core __________ be blocked A. (1) will (2) will B. (1) will (2) will NOT C. (1) will NOT (2) will D. (1) will NOT (2) will NOT Answer: A Answer Explanation (1) Per DFP 0800-01, with the refuel platform near / over the core, all rods not in, and the fuel grapple unloaded and fully up, there is NO block applied to raising or lowering the fuel grapple. (2) Per DFP 0800-01, with the refuel platform near / over the core, all rods not in, and the mono hoist loaded, there IS a block applied to raising the mono hoist.

ILT EXAM Page: 153 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 68 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27791 User-Defined ID: 27791 Cross Reference Number: LI Topic: 68 - 295023.K2.04 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 154 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE201LN002.06

Reference:

DOS 0800-01 K/A: 295023.K2.04 IR: 3.2 / 3.4 K/A: Knowledge of the interrelations between REFUELING ACCIDENTS and the following: RMCS / Rod Control and information system.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 1 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation: With control rod D-5 drifting out, the condition of "All Rods Fully Inserted" is no longer met.

A. CORRECT: (1) Per DOS 0800-01, with the refuel platform near /

over the core, all rods not in, and the fuel grapple loaded, there is a block applied to raising or lowering the fuel grapple. (2) Per DOS 0800-01, with the refuel platform near / over the core, all rods not in, and the grapple loaded and not fully up, there is a block applied the travel of the refuel platform to the core.

B. INCORRECT: (1) The first part of the answer is correct. (2) given the conditions in the stem, there is a block applied platform travel towards the core.

Plausible because (1) The first part of the answer is correct. . (2) if the fuel grapple were not loaded and were fully up, this would be correct.

C. INCORRECT: (1)There is a block applied to the fuel grapple, in both directions. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) if the fuel grapple were not loaded and were fully up, this would be correct. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT: (1) here is a block applied to the fuel grapple, in both directions. (2) Per DOS 0800-01, with the conditions given in the stem, there is a block on refuel platform travel towards the core..

Plausible because (1) if any of the conditions for the block were to change, this would be correct. (2) if any of the conditions for the block were to change, this would be correct..

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 155 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 69 ID: 27792 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

Drywell pressure is 48 psig and rising slowly.

Torus bottom pressure is 55 psig and rising slowly.

Primary containment water level is 27 feet and rising slowly.

The Unit Supervisor has directed venting of the primary containment per DEOP 0500-04, CONTAINMENT VENTING, to maintain containment pressure below the Primary Containment Pressure limit.

The NSO will initially align the primary containment vent system to vent from the ____(1)____, via the

_____(2)_____.

A. (1) torus (2) standby gas train B. (1) torus (2) augmented primary containment vent C. (1) drywell (2) standby gas train D. (1) drywell (2) augmented primary containment vent Answer: A Answer Explanation With torus level less than 30 feet, DEOP 0500-04 directs venting from the torus. DEOP 0500-04 directs venting via the SBGT system initially. The Augmented Primary Containment Vent system is only used if SBGT flow is NOT enough to control and maintain containment pressure below the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

ILT EXAM Page: 156 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 69 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27792 User-Defined ID: 27792 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 69 - 295024.K3.07 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 157 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29502LK063

Reference:

DEOP 0500-04 K/A: 295024.K3.07 3.5 / 4.0 K/A: Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE: Drywell venting CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 5 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Comments:

A. CORRECT: (1) with torus level less than 30 feet, DEOP 0500-04 directs venting from the torus (2) DEOP 0500-04 directs venting via the SBGT system initially. The Augmented Primary Containment Vent system is only used if SBGT flow is NOT enough to control and maintain containment pressure below the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

B. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the Augmented Primary Containment Vent system is only used if SBGT flow is NOT enough to control and maintain Drywell Pressure below the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) this would be true if the SBGT was not available, or if it could not control and maintain containment pressure below the PCP limit.

C. INCORRECT: (1) with torus level below 30 feet and the ability to vent from the torus available, venting would be done from the torus.

Venting from the drywell is only done if venting from the torus is not available (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) this would be true if torus level were above 30 feet or venting from the torus were not available (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT: (1) with torus level below 30 feet and the ability to vent from the torus available, venting would be done from the torus.

Venting from the drywell is only done if venting from the torus is not available (2) the Augmented Primary Containment Vent system is only used if SBGT flow is NOT enough to control and maintain Drywell Pressure below the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

Plausible because (1) this would be true if torus level were above 30 feet or venting from the torus were not available (2) this would be true if the SBGT was not available, or if it could not control and maintain containment pressure below the PCP limit.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 158 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 70 ID: 27794 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when annunciator 902-3 A-3, ROD DRIFT, alarmed.

CRD E-4 is drifting out.

The Unit Supervisor directed entry into DOA 0300-05, INOPERABLE OR FAILED CONTROL ROD DRIVES.

(1) The NSO will __________ to drive CRD E-4 in to notch position zero (00), and then release the switch.

(2) After the EMERGENCY ROD IN switch is released, the ROD OUT SETTLE light __________

illuminate.

A. (1) use EMERG ROD IN ONLY (2) will B. (1) use EMERG ROD IN ONLY (2) will NOT C. (1) bypass the RWM, THEN use EMERG ROD IN (2) will D. (1) bypass the RWM, THEN use EMERG ROD IN (2) will NOT Answer: D Answer Explanation Per DOA 0300-05, the required action for a drifting rod is to bypass the RWM, and drive the rod to 00 using EMERGENCY ROD IN.

When using EMERGENCY ROD IN, the rod settle function is automatically bypassed.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 70 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27794 User-Defined ID: 27794 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 70 - 201001 K4.10 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 160 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE201LN002.06

Reference:

DOP 0400-01, DOA 0300-05 K/A: 201001 K4.10 K/A: Knowledge of the CONTROL ROD DRIVE HYDRAULIC SYSTEM design features(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following:

Control of rod movement (HCU directional control valves).

CFR: 41/7 Safety Function: 1 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A A. INCORRECT: (1) Per DOA 0300-05, the RWM would also be bypassed (2) when using EMERGENCY ROD IN, the rod settle function is bypassed.

Plausible because (1) the RWM is not normally bypassed, and would not be bypassed for CRAM rod or normal control rod movement Also, not bypassing the RWM for rod drifts is a common misconception among ILT students (2) this would be true if the ROD IN switch was used B. INCORRECT: (1) Per DOA 0300-05, the RWM would also be bypassed (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) the RWM is not normally bypassed, and would not be bypassed for CRAM rod or normal control rod movement Also, not bypassing the RWM for rod drifts is a common misconception among ILT students (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) when using EMERGENCY ROD IN, the rod settle function is automatically bypassed.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) this would be true if the ROD IN switch was used.

D. CORRECT: (1) Per DOA 0300-05, the required action for a drifting rod is to bypass the RWM, and drive the rod to 00 using EMERGENCY ROD IN (2) when using EMERGENCY ROD IN, the rod settle function is automatically bypassed.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 161 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 71 ID: 27795 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is performing a startup per DGP 01-01, UNIT STARTUP.

The reactor is critical.

The NSO notched control rod E-5 from 24 to 26.

Reactor period stabilized at 110 seconds.

The highest reading SRM instrument CURRENTLY indicates 1 x 104 cps.

(1) What is the doubling time?

(2) When is power expected to reach approximately 4 x 104 cps?

(1) (2)

A. 76.4 seconds 153 seconds B. 76.4 seconds 229 seconds C. 158.4 seconds 153 seconds D. 158.4 seconds 229 seconds Answer: A Answer Explanation Reactor period is given. Doubling time = Reactor Period / 1.44. Therefore, doubling time = 110 seconds

/ 1.44 = 76.4 seconds. From the stem, power doubles twice, therefore the time to reach the stated power level is doubling time x 2 = 76.4 x 2 = 153 seconds.

ILT EXAM Page: 162 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 71 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27795 User-Defined ID: 27795 Cross Reference Number: G.2.1.7 Topic: 71 - 201002 A1.04 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 20102LK033

Reference:

DGP 1-1 K/A: 201002 A1.04 3.6 / 3.5 K/A: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the REACTOR MANUAL CONTROL SYSTEM controls, including: Overall reactor power.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 1 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A A. CORRECT: (1) Reactor period is given. Doubling time = Reactor Period / 1.44. Therefore, doubling time = 110 seconds / 1.44 = 76.4 seconds. (2) From the stem, power doubles twice, therefore the time to reach the stated power level is doubling time x 2 = 76.4 x 2 = 153 seconds.

B. INCORRECT: (1) The first part of the answer is correct (2) the estimated time to reach the stated power level is 153 seconds.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the difference between the final and initial power level is 3 x 104 cps. That is 3 times the initial power level. 76.4 seconds x 3 = 229 seconds.

C. INCORRECT: (1) doubling time is 76.4 seconds. (2) the estimated time to reach the stated power level is 153 seconds.

Plausible because (1) this is the value they will calculate if they assume reactor period X 1.44 = doubling time (2) From the stem, power doubles twice, therefore the time to reach the stated power level is doubling time x 2 = 76.4 x 2 = 153 seconds.

D. INCORRECT: (1) doubling time is 76.4 seconds. (2) the estimated time to reach the stated power level is 153 seconds.

Plausible because (1) this is the value they will calculate if they assume reactor period X 1.44 = doubling time (2) the difference between the final and initial power level is 3 x 104 cps. That is 3 times the initial power level. 76.4 seconds x 3 = 229 seconds.

Required references: None None ILT EXAM Page: 163 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 72 ID: 27857 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 and Unit 3 were in Mode 4 when the U3 250 VDC battery failed.

The Unit Supervisor has directed repowering MCC 3, MCC 2A AND MCC 2B IAW DOA 6900-04, FAILURE OF UNIT 2(3) 250 VDC POWER SUPPLY.

There is NO damage to the MCCs.

In order to restore power to these MCC's, copper links will be obtained from the __________ and installed in 250 VDC MCC __________ .

A. Control Room 2A ONLY B. Operations Storage Room 2A ONLY C. Control Room 2A AND 3A D. Operations Storage Room 2A AND 3A Answer: B Answer Explanation Per DOA 6900-04, the copper links are stored in the Operations Storage Room.

Per DOA 6900-04, in order to restore power to 250 VDC MCC 3, 2A and 2B upon a loss of the U3 250 VDC battery, with no damage to the MCC, you install copper links in 250 VDC MCC 2A.

ILT EXAM Page: 164 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 72 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27857 User-Defined ID: 27857 Cross Reference Number: LC Topic: 72 - 263000.G2.1.30 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29800LK039; 29800LK040; 29800LK041

References:

DOA 6900-4 K/A :263000.G2.1.30 4.4/4.0 K/A: Ability to locate and operate components, including local controls:

D.C. Electrical Distribution.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 6 Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanations:

A. INCORRECT - (1) the links are normally located in the Operations Storage Room. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) other DOA equipment is stored in lockers in the control room (2) the second part of the answer is correct. (2)

B. CORRECT - (1) Per DOA 6900-04, the copper links are stored in the Operations Storage Room. (2) per DOA 6900-04, in order to restore power to 250 VDC MCC 3, 2A and 2B upon a loss of the U3 250 VDC battery, with no damage to the MCC, you install copper links in 250 VDC MCC 2A.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the copper links are stored in the Operations Storage Room (2) the correct answer is 250 VDC MCC 2A ONLY.

Plausible because (1) other DOA equipment is stored in lockers in the control room (2) links can be installed in MCC 3A, and we are repowering equipment on both units (MCC #3 and MCC 2A and 2B).

C. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the correct answer is 250 VDC MCC 2A ONLY.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) links can be installed in MCC 3A, and we are repowering equipment on both units (MCC #3 and MCC 2A and 2B).

K/A Justification: The 250 VDC system is cross connected between the units and knowledge of the location of the main and feed breakers is required to answer this question. The order is dependent on removing power sources prior to installing links and re-energizing.

Required

References:

None ILT EXAM Page: 165 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 73 ID: 27804 Points: 1.00 Both Units are at 100% power.

The 2/3B train of SBGT is operating as a result of an automatic initiation

The 2/3A train is in STANDBY Then a contract laborer inadvertently breaks the instrument air line to the 2/3B SBGT Flow Control Damper.

SBGT flow would go ___(1)___ . Operator actions to ___(2)___ must be taken.

A. (1) up (2) secure 2/3B SBGT per DAN 923-5 B-6,STBY GAS TRT SYS B TROUBLE.

B. (1) up (2) manually start the 2/3A SBGT and secure the 2/3B SBGT per DOP 7500-01, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM OPERATION.

C. (1) down (2) secure 2/3B SBGT per DAN 923-5 B-6,STBY GAS TRT SYS B TROUBLE.

D. (1) down (2) manually start the 2/3A SBGT and secure the 2/3B SBGT per DOP 7500-01, STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM OPERATION.

Answer: B Answer Explanation The SBGT Flow Control Damper will fail safe (full Open) upon a loss of instrument air or control power.

This will cause a high flow condition. Per procedure the correct action is to start the standby train manually and secure the running train.

ILT EXAM Page: 166 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 73 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27804 User-Defined ID: 27804 Cross Reference Number: O Topic: 73 - 261000.A2.06 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 261LN001-03

Reference:

DAN 923-5 B-6, DOA 4700-01 K/A: 261000.A2.06 2.9/2.9 K/A: Ability to predict the impact of the following on the STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM: and based on those predictions use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations. Valves CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 9 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Flow would go up on a loss of air to the dampers. The running system does not trip on high flow, therefore the standby system would not auto start. Plausible because part 1 is correct and this would be correct if the damper failed closed.

B. Correct - The SBGT Flow Control Damper will fail safe (full Open) upon a loss of instrument air or control power. This will cause a high flow condition. Per procedure the correct action is to start the standby train manually and secure the running train.

C. Incorrect - Flow would go up due to the failure position of the damper. Plausible because part one would be correct if the damper failed closed on a loss of instrument air. Part 2 would be correct if the damper failed closed and system flow was low.

D. Incorrect - Flow would go up due to the failure position of the damper. Plausible because part 2 is correct and part one would be correct if the damper failed closed on a loss of instrument air.

Required references: None None ILT EXAM Page: 167 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 74 ID: 27806 Points: 1.00 Both Units were operating at 100% power, with the following equipment Out of Service:

2B EHC Pump

2A Instrument Air Compressor

3C Instrument Air Compressor Then a transient occurred, causing the following:

Bus 27 Main Feed Breaker tripped.

U2 Main Instrument Air receiver developed a leak.

How will the plant respond?

A. RWCU system flow will be interrupted.

B. EHC discharge pressure will lower to zero psig C. The ESS Bus will be supplied by the ALTERNATE feed.

D. The 2A South Turbine Building Supply Fan will become de-energized.

Answer: A Answer Explanation With a loss of Bus 27, the 2B IAC will be lost. That combined with the 2A IAC being O.O.S. will cause a loss of all Instrument Air compressors on Unit 2. As pressure decreases, the PCV and FCV will close on the RWCU system, interrupting flow.

ILT EXAM Page: 168 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 74 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27806 User-Defined ID: 27806 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 74 - 300000.K5.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE278LN001.12

Reference:

DOA 4700-01, DOS 6700-04, DOP 0500-03 K/A: 300000.K5.01 2.5 / 2.5 K/A: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM: Air compressors.

CFR: 41.5 Safety Function: 8 Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2010 NRC Explanation:

A. Correct - With a loss of Bus 27, the 2B IAC will be lost. That combined with the 2A IAC being O.O.S. will cause a loss of all Instrument Air compressors on Unit 2. As pressure decreases, the PCV and FCV will close on the RWCU system, interrupting flow.

B. Incorrect - EHC pressure will not lower to zero psig since the 2A EHC is still powered from Bus 25. Plausible because this would be correct for a loss of Bus 25 vs Bus 27.

C. Incorrect - The ESS Bus will not transfer to the alternate feed since the normal supply of Bus 29 is still energized. Plausible because this would be true for Bus 29 vs Bus 27 trip.

D. Incorrect - The 2A South Turbine Bldg Supply Fan will not de-energize since it is powered from Bus 28. Plausible because this would be true for a Bus 28 trip vs a Bus 27 trip.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 169 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 75 ID: 27810 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a complete loss of instrument air occurred.

All EDGs are operating as required.

Torus Cooling is established

All 4KV Buses are energized.

Cooling water to the Control Room Emergency Ventilation system is provided by ___(1)___.

System valves will be realigned ___(2)___ .

A. (1) Service Water (2) manually B. (1) Service Water (2) automatically C. (1) Containment Cooling Service Water (2) manually D. (1) Containment Cooling Service Water (2) automatically Answer: D Answer Explanation Per DOP 5750-05 on a loss of instrument air, the cooling water valves to the RCU fail as follows:

XCV-2/3-5741-048A, CCSW SUPPLY, fails open AND the XCV-2/3-5741-048B, SERVICE WATER SUPPLY, fails closed. This will cause a loss of normal cooling to the RCU from service water and an automatic swap to CCSW, because it is already running for Torus Cooling.

ILT EXAM Page: 170 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 75 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27810 User-Defined ID: 27810 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 75 - 288000.K6.02 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 288LN003.12b

Reference:

DOP 5750-05 K/A: 288000.K6.02 2.5/2.5 K/A: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the PLANT VENTILATION SYSTEMS: Applicable component cooling water system.

CFR: 41.7 Safety Function: 9 Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A - Incorrect - Service water is the normal cooling supply but is lost due to the XCV-2/3-5741-048B, SERVICE WATER SUPPLY, failing closed.

Plausible because this is the normal cooling supply to the RCU. Must recognize the failure position for valves.

B - Incorrect - Service water is the normal cooling supply but is lost due to the XCV-2/3-5741-048B, SERVICE WATER SUPPLY, failing closed.

Plausible because this is the normal cooling supply to the RCU and the valves do realign automatically on a loss of instrument air.

C - Incorrect - Containment Cooling Service water is correct but this happens automatically. Plausible because CCSW is correct and must recognize that the supply valve is air operated and fails to the open position.

D - Correct - Per DOP 5750-05 on a loss of instrument air, the cooling water valves to the RCU fail as follows: XCV-2/3-5741-048A, CCSW SUPPLY, fails open AND the XCV-2/3-5741-048B, SERVICE WATER SUPPLY, fails closed. This will cause a loss of normal cooling to the RCU from service water and an automatic swap to CCSW, because it is already running for Torus Cooling.

Required

References:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 171 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 76 ID: 27861 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

During a review of installed Temporary Configuration Change Packages (TCCPs) on Unit 2 the Unit Supervisor notes that a TCCP was installed on a safety related component 15 days ago.

This jumper is in direct support of troubleshooting performed under a Work Order, and is in support of maintenance.

The work order package does NOT have a 10CFR50.59 review.

Assuming the reactor remains at power, this jumper may remain installed a MAXIMUM of __________

additional days before a 10CFR50.59 review MUST be completed.

A. 15 B. 45 C. 75 D. 90 Answer: C Answer Explanation 75 days plus 15 days = 90 days. IAW LS-AA-104-1000 4.2.2, a temporary alternation is exempt from performing a 50.59 review as long as it is in direct support of maintenance. Temporary alternations that support maintenance include jumpering terminals, lifting leads, etc. An approved procedure must exist (CC-AA-112) for tracking and controlling the 90 day period. Otherwise at a minimum a 50.59 screening must be performed. CC-AA-112 step 2.5 declares: although the "90 days from the current date" is conservative, the addition of this date will result in a "flag" in the schedule that reflects the earliest possible date that the temporary configuration change has to be removed, UNLESS the maintenance activity that it supports is completed sooner. Note, that MR90s are required to be removed when the maintenance activity is completed or within 90 days of the temporary change installation, whichever comes first. 50.59 uses terms like "90 days at power" and not just 90 days. While "90 days at power" are the absolute limits, the ability to control the limits of temporary change installation is based on just 90 days. The reason for using 90 days and not taking credit for the "at power" is that the NEI guidance has defined "at power" as beginning when the reactor goes critical. The difficulty in controlling duration limits based on a "reactor criticality date" that may come earlier or later than scheduled introduces a variable that is difficult to use in establishing an easily identified removal date. Risk considerations associated with the temporary change are addressed as part of the maintenance activity being performed.

Procedure WC-AA-101 governs the risk evaluation for the for the on-line maintenance activity. MR90 work orders should have the term 'MR90' in their title to further identify that it is a Maintenance Rule (a)(4) temporary change.

ILT EXAM Page: 172 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 76 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27861 User-Defined ID: 27716 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 76 - Generic 2.2.05 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 173 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29900LK148

Reference:

LS-AA-104-1000 (Rev 14), CC-AA-102 K/A: Generic 2.2.05 2.2 / 3.2 K/A: Knowledge of the process for making design or operating changes to the facility.

CFR: 43.3 PRA: No Level: Memory Pedigree: MODIFIED History: 14-1 NRC, 18-1 NRC, 19-1 CERT Comments:

A. INCORRECT - 15 days plus 15 days is 30 days. This is less than the 90 day requirement This is time normally allowed to complete a 50.59 screening when assigned.

B. INCORRECT - 15 days plus 45 days is 60 days. This is less than the 90 day requirement This is plausible if the candidate believes 90 days will require a 50.59 screening, and subtracts 30 days from the allowed time in order to do the 50.59 screening. 90 days - 60 days is 30 days.

C. Correct - 75 days plus 15 days = 90 days. IAW LS-AA-104-1000 4.2.2, a temporary alteration is exempt from performing a 50.59 review as long as it is in direct support of maintenance. Temporary alterations that support maintenance include jumpering terminals, lifting leads, etc. An approved procedure must exist (CC-AA-112) for tracking and controlling the 90 day period. Otherwise at a minimum a 50.59 screening must be performed. CC-AA-112 step 2.5 declares:

although the "90 days from the current date" is conservative, the addition of this date will result in a "flag" in the schedule that reflects the earliest possible date that the temporary configuration change has to be removed, UNLESS the maintenance activity that it supports is completed sooner. Note, that MR90s are required to be removed when the maintenance activity is completed or within 90 days of the temporary change installation, whichever comes first. 50.59 uses terms like "90 days at power" and not just 90 days. While "90 days at power" are the absolute limits, the ability to control the limits of temporary change installation is based on just 90 days. The reason for using 90 days and not taking credit for the "at power" is that the NEI guidance has defined "at power" as beginning when the reactor goes critical. The difficulty in controlling duration limits based on a "reactor criticality date" that may come earlier or later than scheduled introduces a variable that is difficult to use in establishing an easily identified removal date. Risk considerations associated with the temporary change are addressed as part of the maintenance activity being performed. Procedure WC-AA-101 governs the risk evaluation for the for the on-line maintenance activity. MR90 work orders should have the term 'MR90' in their title to further identify that it is a Maintenance Rule (a)(4) temporary change.

D. INCORRECT - 15 days plus 90 days = 105 days. This is greater than the 90 day requirement.

Plausible if the candidate does not consider the 15 days that have already elapsed, or believes it is 90 days from discovery.

SRO CRITERIA: 10CFR55.43(b)(3) - Facility licensee procedures required to obtain authority for design and operating changes in the facility.

Required

References:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 174 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 77 ID: 27843 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power, with BUS 25 OOS, when the U2 ESS inverter output suddenly dropped below 100 VAC.

The ESS UPS responded as expected.

A SCRAM did NOT occur.

(1) The Unit Supervisor will declare that ESS is CURRENTLY __________.

(2) Once ESS INVERTER output voltage is restored to normal, ESS __________ to its normal source.

A. (1) operable.

(2) must be MANUALLY transferred B. (1) operable.

(2) will AUTOMATICALLY transfer C. (1) NOT operable.

(2) must be MANUALLY transferred D. (1) NOT operable.

(2) will AUTOMATICALLY transfer Answer: C Answer Explanation As the output voltage of the inverter fell below 100 volts AC, the ESS bus will swap to its alternate source.

Normally this low voltage would cause a swap of power to Bus 25 (via the static switch), but with Bus 25 out of service, the power seeking ABT will swap to MCC 28-2. With ESS on 28-2, per the TS 3.8.7 bases document, it is not operable since it is not powered by a Safety Related, Division 1 power source.

When it is desired to return the system to NORMAL power, the ESS ABT will need to be reset by placing the AUTO BUS TRANSFER RESET toggle switch to RESET per DOP 6800-01. DOA 6800-01 is not entered, since ESS power was not lost.

ILT EXAM Page: 175 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 77 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27843 User-Defined ID: 27843 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 77 - 262002.A2.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 176 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE262LN005.12

Reference:

DANs 902(3)-8 E-8, DOP 6800-01, DOA 6800-01, TS Bases 3.8.7 K/A: 262002.A2.01 2.6 / 2.8 K/A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the UNINTERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (A.C./D.C.) ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Under voltage.

CFR: 43.5 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A A. INCORRECT: (1) The ESS ABT will transfer to MCC 28-2. Per the TS 3.8.7 basis document, the ESS bus is only operable when it is powered by a Safety Related, Division 1 Power source. (2) The second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) This would be correct if ESS were on the 250 VDC supply. Also, Bus 28-2 is a safety related power supply. It is just not on the correct division. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

B. INCORRECT: (1) ESS is NOT operable while powered from Bus 28-2. (2)

The ESS ABT is power seeking, and will not automatically transfer back to the normal source. It must be manually transferred.

Plausible because (1) This would be correct if ESS were on the 250 VDC supply. Also, Bus 28-2 is a safety related power supply. It is just not on the correct division. (2) There are other ABTs that are normal seeking. The candidate must recognize that this ABT is power seeking. Also, the static switch in ESS will automatically return to the normal source if power is restored.

C: CORRECT: (1) As the output voltage of the inverter fell below 100 volts AC, the ESS bus will swap to its alternate source. Normally this low voltage would cause a swap of power to Bus 25 (via the static switch), but with Bus 25 out of service, the power seeking ABT will swap to MCC 28-2. With ESS on 28-2, per the TS 3.8.7 bases document, it is not operable since it is not powered by a Safety Related, Division 1 power source. (2) When it is desired to return the system to NORMAL power, the ESS ABT will need to be manually transferred by placing the AUTO BUS TRANSFER RESET toggle switch to RESET per DOP 6800-01.

D. INCORRECT: (1) The first part of the answer is correct. (2) The ESS ABT is power seeking, and will not automatically transfer back to the normal source. It must be manually transferred.

Plausible because (1) The first part of the answer is correct. (2) There are other ABTs that are normal seeking. The candidate must recognize that this ABT is power seeking. Also, the static switch in ESS will automatically return to the normal source if power is restored.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(2) - Facility operating limitations in the Technical Specifications and their bases.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 177 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 78 ID: 27850 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 is in Mode 4 with SDC in operation.

Reactor water temperature is 172°F and steady

3A SDC pump is aligned to the Reactor

3B SDC pump is aligned to the Reactor

3C SDC pump is off THEN the 3A and 3B SDC Pumps TRIP, and the following annunciators alarm:

903-4 A-21, SDC PERMISSIVE TRIP UNIT FAILURE

903-5 D-5, GROUP 3 ISOLATION INITIATED

903-4 B-23, SDC PUMP TRIP The Aux NSO reports that the following instruments have FAILED on the 903-18 panel:

3-0640-13A, U3 SDC Pressure Indicating Switch

3-0640-13B, U3 SDC Pressure Indicating Switch TEN MINUTES LATER, the NSO reports that reactor water temperature is 182°F and rising steadily (1) How long does the operating team have before they enter MODE 3?

(2) To prevent entry into Mode 3, the Unit Supervisor will direct the NSO to__________.

A. (1) 18 minutes (2) DOP 1000-07, ALTERNATE SHUTDOWN COOLING, start MAXIMUM torus cooling, and cooldown using LPCI and an ERV B. (1) 18 minutes (2) ENTER DOA 1000-01, RESIDUAL HEAT REMOVAL ALTERNATIVES, bypass the Reactor Pressure SDC Isolation Logic, reset the Group 3, and then restart Shutdown Cooling C. (1) 30 Minutes (2) DOP 1000-07, ALTERNATE SHUTDOWN COOLING, start MAXIMUM torus cooling, and cooldown using LPCI and an ERV D. (1) 30 Minutes (2) ENTER DOA 1000-01, RESIDUAL HEAT REMOVAL ALTERNATIVES, bypass the Reactor Pressure SDC Isolation Logic, reset the Group 3, and then restart Shutdown Cooling Answer: D Answer Explanation Mode 3 will be entered when RPV temperature reaches 212F. The heatup rate is 10F / 10 min = 1 F per min. Therefore, with RPV temperature at 182F, it will be 30 minutes before Mode 3 is entered.

DOA 1000-01 will be entered. Per this DOA, if SDC isolated due to two or more failed Reactor Pressure instruments on the 903-18 panel, then, per Attachment A of the DOA, bypass the failed Reactor Pressure instruments, reset the the GROUP 2&3 ISOL RESET switch on the 903-5 panel then restart the SDC system.

ILT EXAM Page: 178 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 78 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27850 User-Defined ID: 27850 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 78 - 295021 A2.01 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 179 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29501LK046

Reference:

DOA 1000-01, DOP 1000-07, OP-AA-108-117-1001 K/A: 295021.A2.01 3.5 / 3.6 K/A: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING: Reactor water heatup / cooldown rate.

CFR: 43.5 Safety Function: 4 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: NEW History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: (1) the time until Mode 3 is entered is 30 minutes. (2) the correct procedure to enter is DOA 1000-01.

Plausible because (1) 18 minutes is the time until 200 F is reached. 200 F is used for loss of cooling in the SFP, to calculate "Time to Boil", in OP-AA-108-117-1001. (2) DOP 1000-07 is a valid method to cool the reactor on a loss of shutdown cooling. However, it is not used until DOA 1000-01 has been proven to be ineffective. In this case, DOA 1000-01 has appropriate actions that will allow restoring SDC.

B. INCORRECT: (1) the time until Mode 3 is entered is 30 minutes. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) 18 minutes is the time until 200 F is reached. 200 F is used for loss of cooling in the SFP, to calculate "Time to Boil", in OP-AA-108-117-1001. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the correct procedure to enter is DOA 1000-01.

Plausible (1) first part of the answer is correct. (2) 18 minutes is the time until 200 F is reached. 200 F is used for loss of cooling in the SFP, to calculate "Time to Boil", in OP-AA-108-117-1001. (2) DOP 1000-07 is a valid method to cool the reactor on a loss of shutdown cooling. However, it is not used until DOA 1000-01 has been proven to be ineffective. In this case, DOA 1000-01 has appropriate actions that will allow restoring SDC.

D. CORRECT: (1) Mode 3 will be entered when RPV temperature reaches 212F. The heatup rate is 10F / 10 min = 1 F per min. Therefore, with RPV temperature at 182F, it will be 30 minutes before Mode 3 is entered. (2) DOA 1000-01 will be entered. Per this DOA, if SDC isolated due to two or more failed Reactor Pressure instruments on the 903-18 panel, then, per Attachment A of the DOA, bypass the failed Reactor Pressure instruments, reset the the GROUP 2&3 ISOL RESET switch on the 903-5 panel then restart the SDC system.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: DOA 1000-01 and DOP 1000-07 are both valid procedures for addressing loss of SDC, depending on plant conditions at the time. The SRO would evaluate plant conditions in the stem of the question and determine that not all actions related to DOA 1000-07 have been attempted, therefore, entry into DOP 1000-07 was not appropriate; and restoring SDC per the actions in Attachment A of DOA 1000-07 was the only correct action at this time.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 180 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 79 ID: 27741 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

Torus level is 13 feet.

Both Recirc Pumps have tripped.

Torus sprays are operating.

Torus bottom pressure is 11 psig and steady.

RPV level is 10 inches and rising slowly.

RPV pressure is 880 psig and lowering slowly.

Drywell pressure is 6 psig and rising slowly.

Drywell temperature is 340oF and rising slowly.

Drywell sprays have NOT been attempted.

Which of the following actions is required to be directed NEXT per the DEOPs?

A. Spray the Drywell.

B. Trip Drywell Coolers.

C. Perform an RPV Blowdown.

D. Vent the Primary Containment.

Answer: C Answer Explanation RPV blowdown required due to being above the drywell temperature limit of 338 F, with no ability to restore and hold.

ILT EXAM Page: 181 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 79 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27741 User-Defined ID: 27741 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 79 - 295028 G.2.1.20 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 29502LK015

Reference:

DEOP 200-1 K/A: 295028.G2.1.20 4.6 / 4.6 K/A: High Drywell Temperature: Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

CFR: 43.5 Safety Function:5 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2008 NRC, 14-1 NRC Exam, 15-1 CERT Comments:

A - Incorrect. Drywell sprays are not permissible (per Figure K)

Plausible because starting Drywell Sprays is a required action prior to blowdown on high DW Temperature. In this case, DW sprays are not available due to violating Figure K.

B - Incorrect. Tripping Drywell Coolers would not be performed NEXT, since we are outside Figure K, drywell coolers should have already tripped, and drywell sprays cannot be operated.

Plausible because tripping drywell coolers is the correct next action if drywell sprays were available for use.

C - Correct. RPV blowdown required due to being above the drywell temperature limit of 338 F, with no ability to restore and hold.

D - Incorrect. There is no direction to vent containment at this point in DEOP 200-1. Venting per DEOP 1600-01 is not appropriate due to the conditions in the stem, and we have not met the conditions of the override to vent early using DEOP 0500-04.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

DEOP 200-1 with entry conditions blanked out.

ILT EXAM Page: 182 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 80 ID: 27834 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when a transient occurred.

ALL MSIVs spuriously closed except MSIV 2-203-1A and MSIV 2-203-2A.

DAN 902-5 D-4, GROUP 1 ISOLATION INITIATED, is NOT illuminated

Reactor Power is 30% and steady.

RPV water level is -20 inches and slowly rising.

Drywell pressure is 3.5 psig and slowly lowering.

Torus temperature is 108 °F and steady.

The Unit Supervisor will DIRECT _____(1)_____ AND Terminating and Preventing RPV injection until

_____(2)_____.

A. 1. CLOSING MSIV 2-203-1A AND MSIV 2-203-2A

2. RPV level is -35 inches or less B. 1. CLOSING MSIV 2-203-1A AND MSIV 2-203-2A

2. reactor power is less than 6%, RPV water level reaches TAF, or all ADSV's stay closed C. 1. BYPASSING MSIV Low Level AND Off Gas High Rad isolation interlocks

2. RPV level is -35 inches or less D. 1. BYPASSING MSIV Low Level AND Off Gas High Rad isolation interlocks

2. reactor power is less than 6%, RPV water level reaches TAF, or all ADSV's stay closed Answer: C Answer Explanation With one main steam line still open, bypassing MSIV Low Level AND Off Gas High Rad isolation interlocks per DEOP 500-2 is correct. With RPV water level above -35 inches, and power above 6% as indicated by the APRM downscales not being illuminated, the required action is to terminate and prevent until level reaches -35 inches, per DEOP 0400-05.

ILT EXAM Page: 183 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 80 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? Yes Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27834 User-Defined ID: 27834 Cross Reference Number:

To pi 80 - 295037 G2.4.6 c:

N u

m Fi el d

1:

N u

m Fi el d

2:

Te xt Fi el d:

ILT EXAM Page: 184 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comm Objective: 29502LP025 ents:

Reference:

DEOP 400-5, OP-DR-103-102-1002 K/A: 295037.G2.4.6 3.7/4.7 K/A: SCRAM Condition Present and Reactor Power Above APRM Downscale or Unknown: Knowledge of EOP mitigation strategies.

CFR: 43.5 Safety Function: 1 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: (1) The stem of the question shows that one main steam line open, and DEOP 0400-05 directs bypassing the main steam line low level and off gas high rad isolations. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) OP-DR-103-102-1002 has guidance to taken manual action for automatic isolations that failed to occur. The stem of the question does not have any information that would show that MSIVs had an automatic action that failed to occur, and the candidate must recognize that, in this case, containment is threatened and that DEOP 0400-05 directs bypassing the MSIV low level and Off Gas High Rad isolations to maintain the condenser as a heat rejection path outside of containment. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

B. INCORRECT: (1) The stem of the question shows that one main steam line open, and DEOP 0400-05 directs bypassing the main steam line low level and off gas high rad isolations. (2) the required action is to terminate and prevent until level reaches -35 inches.

Plausible because (1) OP-DR-103-102-1002 has guidance to taken manual action for automatic isolations that failed to occur. The stem of the question does not have any information that would show that MSIVs had an automatic action that failed to occur, and the candidate must recognize that, in this case, containment is threatened and that DEOP 0400-05 directs bypassing the MSIV low level and Off Gas High Rad isolations to maintain the condenser as a heat rejection path (2) the second part of the answer would be correct if torus temperature were greater than 110F.

C. CORRECT: (1) With one main steam line open, as indicated by the stem of the question, DEOP 0400-05 directs bypassing the main steam line low level and off gas high rad isolations. (2) With RPV water level above -

35 inches, and power above 6% as indicated by the APRM downscales not being illuminated, the required action is to terminate and prevent until level reaches -35 inches per DEOP 0400-05.

D. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the required action is to terminate and prevent until level reaches -35 inches.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the second part of the answer would be correct if torus temperature were greater than 110F.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: Per ES-401, Attachment 2, section II.E, 10CFR55.43(b)(5) includes the selection of a procedure or section of a procedure to mitigate or recover or which to proceed. In the associated question, the decision NOT to isolate the MSIVs that failed to close would be an SRO level decision. Normally, for a failure of an isolation valve to close, the correct action would be to isolate the valves that failed to function. The SRO must recognize that the need to protect containment overrides the need to close an MSIV that failed to close spuriously, and which has no indication of a valid Group 1 isolation signal. In this case containment is threatened and the guidance in DEOP 0400-05 for bypassing the MSIV low level and Off Gas High Rad isolations would be the correct choice in order to maintain the condenser as a heat rejection path outside of containment. Additionally, at Dresden the SRO makes the decision whether to terminate and prevent to -35 inches or to TAF.

ILT EXAM Page: 185 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

DEOP 0400-05, with the entry conditions blanked out.

ILT EXAM Page: 186 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 81 ID: 27770 Points: 1.00 Unit 3 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

20 Minutes Later:

RPV level is below TAF.

Fuel damage is suspected.

Drywell pressure is 6 psig and rising slowly.

Hydrogen and Oxygen monitoring is in progress.

Torus H2 concentration is 0.2% and is rising by 0.1% every 1 minutes.

Drywell H2 concentration is 0.5% and is rising by 0.1% every 2 minutes.

Torus and Drywell Oxygen concentration is 3.0% and steady.

When is containment FIRST required to be sampled for radioactivity?

A. Immediately B. In 2 minutes C. In 8 minutes D. In 10 minutes Answer: C Answer Explanation At T=8 minutes Torus hydrogen levels will reach 1% and primary containment atmosphere sampling will be required per DEOP 0200-01. ((0.2%) + (8 min x 1%) per minute = 1.0% Hydrogen concentration).

ILT EXAM Page: 187 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 81 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27770 User-Defined ID: 27770 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 81 - 500000 G.2.4.21 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 188 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29502LK016

Reference:

DEOP 200-1 K/A: 500000.G.2.4.21 4.0/4.6 K/A: High Containment Hydrogen Concentration: Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc.

CFR: 41.7 /43.5 / 45.12 Safety Function: 5 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Comments:

A - INCORRECT: The earliest time that primary containment atmosphere sampling will be required per DEOP 0200-01 is at 8 minutes, when Torus hydrogen concentration reaches 1%.

Plausible because DEOP 0200-01 requires immediately sampling oxygen concentration and hydrogen concentration in containment if the H2 or O2 monitor is unavailable.

B - INCORRECT: The earliest time that primary containment atmosphere sampling will be required per DEOP 0200-01 is at 8 minutes, when Torus hydrogen concentration reaches 1%

Plausible because this corresponds the time when Torus H2 concentration and DW H2 concentration (if added together) reach 1%.

C - CORRECT: At T=8 minutes Torus hydrogen levels will reach 1%

and primary containment atmosphere sampling will be required per DEOP 0200-01. ((0.2%) + (8 min x 1%) per minute = 1.0% Hydrogen concentration).

D - INCORRECT: The earliest time that primary containment atmosphere sampling will be required per DEOP 0200-01 is at 8 minutes, when Torus hydrogen concentration reaches 1%.

Plausible because this corresponds to the time when DW hydrogen concentration reaches 1%.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

DEOP 200-1, with entry conditions blanked out.

None ILT EXAM Page: 189 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 82 ID: 27749 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

IMD informs the control room that Division 2 Automatic Depressurization System Initiation Timer has failed and will not perform its function.

How is the ADS system impacted and what TS LCO actions, if any, are REQUIRED?

A. Division 2 ADS logic system ONLY is inoperable.

Restore Division 2 ADS logic to operable within 96 hours0.00111 days 0.0267 hours 1.587302e-4 weeks 3.6528e-5 months .

B. Division 2 ADS logic system ONLY is inoperable.

Restore Division 2 ADS logic to operable within 8 days.

C. Both Division 1 AND Division 2 ADS logic systems are inoperable.

Declare ADS valves inoperable within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

D. Both Division 1 AND Division 2 ADS logic systems remain operable.

No TS LCO actions required.

Answer: B Answer Explanation With the failure of the ADS initiation timer, Division 2 ADS will not actuate when required. Division 2 ADS logic is inoperable and must be restored within 8 days per TS 3.3.5.1 condition G.2 ILT EXAM Page: 190 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 82 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27749 User-Defined ID: 27749 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 82 - 218000.G2.2.36 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE218LN001.07

Reference:

TS 3.3.5.1, 12E-2462 Sheet 1, TS 3.3.5.1 Bases K/A: 218000.G2.2.36 3.1 / 4.2 K/A: Automatic Depressurization System: Ability to analyze the effect of maintenance activities, such as degraded power sources, on the status of limiting conditions for operations.

CFR: 43.2 Safety Function: 3 PRA: Yes Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2016 NRC Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The first part of the answer is correct. Div 2 ADS timer must be restored within 8 days.

Plausible because the 96 hour0.00111 days 0.0267 hours 1.587302e-4 weeks 3.6528e-5 months time requirement would apply if HPCI or IC were also inoperable.

B. Correct - With the failure of the ADS initiation timer, Division 2 ADS will not actuate when required. Division 2 ADS logic is inoperable and must be restored within 8 days per TS 3.3.5.1 condition G.2 C. Incorrect - Division 1 ADS valves are not inoperable. Therefore 3.3.5.1 Condition G.1 does not apply.

This is plausible because there are systems where a single failure would inop both divisions, and the student must recognize that there are two ADS timers (one per division). If both ADS valve divisions are inoperable, then the 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months LCO is the correct answer.

D. Incorrect - TS 3.3.5.1 Table 1 requires 1 channel per function for the ADS initiation timer. With this the Division 2 timer inoperable, Division 2 ADS valves are now inoperable.

This is plausible due to the various combinations of failures that will maintain ADS system function.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(2) - Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

TS 3.3.5.1 with Table 3.3.5.1 allowable values blanked out ILT EXAM Page: 191 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 83 ID: 27772 Points: 1.00 Which of the following events are required to be reported to the Plant Manager, Station Security, and the Senior Resident Inspector per OP-AA-106-101, SIGNIFICANT EVENT REPORTING?

A. A hazardous material incident.

B. Initiation of a Prompt Investigation.

C. An unexpected significant plant transient.

D. A report of a suspicious and malicious activity directed at plant safety.

Answer: D Answer Explanation Per OP-AA-106-101 if there is suspicion of activity directed at plant safety or security the following individuals must be notified: Plant Manager, Station Security, and Senior Resident Inspector.

ILT EXAM Page: 192 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 83 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27772 User-Defined ID: 27772 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 83 - Generic.2.4.30 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 193 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29900LK152

Reference:

OP-AA-106-101 K/A: Generic.2.4.30 -- / 4.1 K/A: Knowledge of events related to system operation/status that must be reported to internal organizations or external agencies, such as the State, the NRC, or the transmission system operator.

Safety Function: N/A CFR: 43.5 PRA: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: 2010 NRC, 19-1 NRC SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: At Dresden, the responsibility for Significant Event Reporting falls on the Shift Manager, and the SRO's are also expected to be familiar with these reportability requirements. This is not an RO level function at Dresden.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect - An unplanned shutdown or load reduction requires notification of Plant Manager and Senior Resident Inspector but not Station Security.

Plausible because 2 of 3 are correct and security may be needed to control access to certain areas during a shutdown.

B. Incorrect - A prompt investigation requires notification of Plant Manager and Senior Resident Inspector but not Station Security.

Plausible because 2 of 3 are correct and an investigation could include security.

C. Incorrect - An unexpected significant plant transient requires notification of Plant Manager and Senior Resident Inspector but not Station Security. Plausible because 2 of 3 are correct and security may be needed to limit access to affected area.

D. Correct - Per OP-AA-106-101 if there is suspicion of activity directed at plant safety or security the following individuals must be notified:

Plant Manager, Station Security, and Senior Resident Inspector.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 194 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 84 ID: 27783 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

No condensate or feedwater pumps are currently running.

The HPCI aux oil pump failed to start and cannot be started manually.

RPV pressure is 840 psig and lowering slowly.

RPV level is -37 inches and lowering slowly.

The U2 CRD FCV has failed closed.

The Unit Supervisor will direct the NSO to _____(1)_____.

A. crosstie CRD from Unit 3 per DEOP 0500-03, ALTERNATE WATER INJECTION.

B. restart condensate and feed pumps per DOA 0600-01, TRANSIENT LEVEL CONTROL.

C. start only ONE SBLC pump per DOP 1100-02, INJECTION OF STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL.

D. line up CRD injection using Reactor Head Cooling per DEOP 0500-03, ALTERNATE WATER INJECTION.

Answer: D Answer Explanation Given the stem of the question, the only appropriate high pressure injection method is to inject using CRD through the Head Spray system. The Unit Supervisor will direct injecting via Head Spray per DEOP 0500-03.

ILT EXAM Page: 195 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 84 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27783 User-Defined ID: 27783 Cross Reference Number: LIH Topic: 84 - 295022 A2.02 Num 0.00 Field 1:

Num 0.00 Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 196 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comment Objective: DRE29502LK061.f s:

Reference:

DRE295L-S15, DEOP 0500-03 K/A: 295022.A2.02 3.3/3.4 K/A: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to LOSS OF CRD PUMPS: CRD System Status CFR: 43.5 Safety Function: 2 Level: High Pedigree: NEW History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: With the 3A CRD FCV failed closed, we will be unable to cross tie CRD from Unit 3.

Plausible because if the FCV had not failed, using CRD cross tie would be a valid option.

The belief that CRD cross tie can be used for injection, with the CRD FCV failed shut, is a common misconception.

B. INCORRECT: Per the stem of the question, no condensate pumps are operating.

Although it is physically possible to start the condensate pumps, and procedural guidance exists in DOA 0600-01 to allow starting and stopping available RFP(s) and condensate/booster pumps "if available", The supervisor would direct not restarting pumps due to the potential for water hammer.

Plausible because procedural guidance under DOA 0600-01 exists to allow starting /

stopping condensate and feed pumps if available, and they physically can be started.

Additionally, if any condensate pumps had not tripped, then condensate and feed pumps would be restarted as needed per DOA 0600-01.

C. INCORRECT: Per the stem of the question, we are in DEOP 0100. Therefore, injection using SBLC for level is appropriate, but BOTH SBLC pumps would be started.

Plausible because if the plant were in an ATWS, then only ONE SBLC pump would be started.

D. CORRECT: Given the stem of the question, the only appropriate high pressure injection method is to inject using CRD through the Head Spray system. The Unit Supervisor will direct injecting via Head Spray per DEOP 0500-03.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: This question requires the evaluation of injection capability, recognition of which systems will be effective at this pressure, and selection of injection using the preferred and alternate injection systems. The selection of preferred and alternate injection systems in DEOP 0100 is the SRO's task. Restarting condensate and feed pumps can physically be done from the main control room, and there is procedural guidance in DOA 0600-01 allowing restart of of these pumps if conditions allow; however the SRO would not direct starting them due to recognizing the potential for significant water hammer. Starting one SBLC pump can physically be performed, and procedural guidance exists to start a single pump, but two pumps are required when not in an ATWS, CRD can be cross tied, but with the CRD flow controller failed closed, this would not allow injection using the CRD cross tie. Given the stem of the question, the only appropriate high pressure injection method available is to inject using CRD through the Head Spray system, using DEOP 0500-03.

Required

Reference:

None ILT EXAM Page: 197 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 85 ID: 27784 Points: 1.00 A spent fuel cask is being moved on Unit 2.

The following events occur:

Reactor Building Overhead Crane Radiation Monitor High Radiation alarms locally.

Refuel Floor ARM High Radiation alarms locally.

Overhead Crane dose rates are measured at 40 mr/hr.

Refuel Floor dose rates are measured at 120 mr/hr.

Which of the following describe the effect of the above conditions?

_____(1)_____ and the Reactor Building Overhead Crane movement is inhibited in the hoist raise

_____(2)_____.

A. (1) SBGT has started (2) function ONLY B. (1) SBGT has started (2) AND lower function C. (1) The Reactor Building Ventilation system is running (2) function ONLY D. (1) The Reactor Building Ventilation system is running (2) AND lower function Answer: A Answer Explanation DFP 0850-03 states RB Vent isolates and SBGT starts with Refuel Floor Rad > 100 mr/hr and RB Crane hoist raise is inhibited > 30 mr/hr.

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EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 85 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27784 User-Defined ID: 27784 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 85 - Generic.2.3.15 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 299L042

Reference:

DFP 0850-03 K/A: Generic 2.3.15 / 2.9 K/A: Knowledge of radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, personnel monitoring equipment, etc.

CFR: 43.4, 43.7 Safety Function: 9 PRA: No Level: High Pedigree: Bank History: 2012 NRC, 2016 NRC Comments:

A. Correct - DFP 0850-03 states RB Vent isolates and SBGT starts with Refuel Floor Rad > 100 mr/hr and RB Crane hoist raise is inhibited

> 30 mr/hr.

B. Incorrect - The RB Crane lower function is not inhibited > 30 mr/hr.

Plausible because SBGT has started due to Refuel Floor Rad and the Reactor Building Overhead Crane main or auxiliary hoist raise function is inhibited on a high radiation setpoint of 30 mrem/hr.

C. Incorrect - RB Vent isolates with Refuel Floor rad >100 mr/hr.

Plausible because must know that SBGT starts and RB Vent trips at greater than 100 mr/hr on refuel floor and part 2 is correct.

D. Incorrect - RB Vent isolates with Refuel Floor rad >100 mr/hr.

Plausible because must know that SBGT starts and RB Vent trips at greater than 100 mr/hr on refuel floor. Reactor Building Overhead Crane main or auxiliary hoist raise function is inhibited on a high radiation setpoint of 30 mrem/hr.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(7): Knowledge of fuel handling facilities and procedures.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 199 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 86 ID: 27885 Points: 1.00 Per OP-AA-103-101, CONTROL ROOM ACCESS CONTROL, Access to the Control Room is the ultimate responsibility of and shall be controlled by the Unit Supervisor. Permission must be obtained from the WEC supervisor prior to entering the Control Room.

Which of the following have unlimited access to the Control Room during normal and abnormal operations?

A. Training Manager B. Work Week Manager C. Nuclear Oversight Manager D. Instrument Maintenance Manager Answer: C Answer Explanation Per OP-AA-103-101 the following personnel have unlimited access to the control room during normal and abnormal operations: The SVP, Station Manager, Ops Managers, Regulatory personnel, NOS Personnel, On-shift operators, and Security performing rounds. All others must check in with the WEC prior to accessing the control room.

ILT EXAM Page: 200 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 86 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27885 User-Defined ID: 27789 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 86 - Generic 2.1.13 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 39900LK002

Reference:

OP-AA-103-101 K/A: Generic.2.1.13 2.5 / 3.2 K/A: Knowledge of facility requirements for controlling vital/controlled access.

CFR: 43.5 Safety Function: N/A PRA: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible because the Training Manager oversees training of new licensed operators, who perform on-the-job training in the MCR.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because the WWM has daily interactions with the control room during execution of the work week.

C. Correct - Per OP-AA-103-101 the following personnel have unlimited access to the control room during normal and abnormal operations:

SVP, Station Manager, Ops Managers, Regulatory personnel, NOS personnel, On-shift operators, and Security performing rounds. All others must check in with the WEC prior to accessing the control room.

D. Incorrect - Plausible because IMD Managers are responsible for providing oversight to maintenance activities in the main control room.

SRO Justification: At Dresden, the approval to enter the Main Control Room is given to the Unit Supervisors and Shift Managers only. The WEC supervisor may allow an individual to enter the MCR doorway, but they remain in the vestibule until allowed by either Unit Supervisor to enter the control room itself. This responsibility is not delegated to the RO license level.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Required Reference(s): None ILT EXAM Page: 201 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 87 ID: 27859 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when RPV level reached 0" 30 SECONDS LATER:

DGP 02-03, REACTOR SCRAM, Hard Card actions are being taken.

ARI has been actuated at the 902-5 panel.

Multiple rods are still withdrawn.

Recirc Pumps are running at minimum speed.

ALL APRM downscale lights are ILLUMINATED.

The Unit Supervisor ___(1)___ direct tripping Recirc Pumps, because ___(2)___.

A. (1) will (2) they did not trip on ARI initiation.

B. (1) will (2) this will provide a prompt reduction in power.

C. (1) will NOT (2) reactor power is below 6%.

D. (1) will NOT (2) Recirc Pumps are required for proper boron mixing.

Answer: C Answer Explanation Per DEOP 0400-05, recirc pumps are not tripped if power is less than 6%. Reactor power is below 6%

with ALL 4 APRM downscales lit.

With recirc pumps at minimum speed, and power below 6%, the recirc pumps will not be tripped per DEOP 0400-05. Per the EOP-DEOP TB, at this low a power level the small amount of power reduction obtained by tripping the recirc pumps does not outweigh the impact of tripping the pumps.

ILT EXAM Page: 202 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 87 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27859 User-Defined ID: 27859 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 87 - 202002.G.2.4.09 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 203 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29502LK046.C

Reference:

EOP-DEOP TB, DGP 02-03, DEOP 0400-05 K/A: 202002.G.2.4.09 3.8 / 4.2 K/A: Recirculation Flow Control System: Knowledge of low power/shutdown implications in accident (e.g. loss of coolant accident or loss of residual heat removal) mitigation strategies.

CFR: 43.5 PRA: Yes Safety Function: 1 Pedigree: MODIFIED Level: High History: 18-1 NRC SRO Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) the recirc pumps will NOT be tripped. This is only required if reactor power is above 6% (APRM downscales). Since all APRM downscale lights are illuminated, this is not required., (2) If manually initiated from the control room, the RR pumps do not trip on ARI actuation.

Plausible because (1) if power were above 6%, the recirc pumps would be tripped. (2) ARI does Recirc pumps if automatically initiated via logic.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the recirc pumps will NOT be tripped. This is only required if reactor power is above 6% (APRM downscales). Since all APRM downscale lights are illuminated, this is not required., (2) although this may cause a prompt reduction in power at this power level, it is not the correct action.

Plausible because (1) if power were above 6%, the recirc pumps would be tripped. (2) this would be correct if power were above 6%,

and may be correct at in the current condition, depending on the power level.

C. CORRECT - (1) Per DEOP 0400-05, recirc pumps are not tripped if power is less than 6%. Reactor power is below 6% with ALL 4 APRM downscales lit. (2) With recirc pumps at minimum speed, and power below 6%, the recirc pumps will not be tripped per DEOP 0400-05. Per the EOP-DEOP TB, at this low a power level the small amount of power reduction obtained by tripping the recirc pumps does not outweigh the impact of tripping the pumps.

D. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) Reactor power is below 6% with ALL 4 APRM downscales lit. The recirc pumps are not required for proper boron mixing, and boron would not be injected with the conditions listed, and with power below 6%.

SRO Justification: The SRO is required to determine if recirc pumps are to be tripped during an ATWS, and will instruct the NSO to perform this action, if appropriate.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 204 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 88 ID: 27821 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power, when the HPCI system was declared INOPERABLE.

In accordance with the technical specification, the Unit 2 Isolation Condenser must be verified OPERABLE and (1) .

The Tech Spec Bases for the action is (2) .

A. (1) Restore HPCI system to OPERABLE status within 7 days.

(2) Ensure core cooling will be automatically provided at most reactor operating pressures.

B. (1) Restore HPCI system to OPERABLE status within 7 days.

(2) Ensure core cooling will be manually provided at most reactor operating pressures.

C. (1) Restore HPCI system to OPERABLE status within 14 days.

(2) Ensure core cooling will be automatically provided at most reactor operating pressures.

D. (1) Restore HPCI system to OPERABLE status within 14 days.

(2) Ensure core cooling will be manually provided at most reactor operating pressures.

Answer: C Answer Explanation TS LCO 3.5.1 Condition G states with HPCI system inoperable you must verify by administrative means the IC system is OPERABLE immediately, and Restore HPCI system to OPERABLE status within 14 days. The bases states: In this condition (HPCI Inop), adequate core cooling is ensured by the Operability of the redundant and diverse low pressure ECCS injection/spray subsystems in conjunction with ADS. ALSO, the IC System will automatically provide core cooling at most reactor operating pressures. Verification of IC Operability is therefore required immediately when HPCI is inoperable."

ILT EXAM Page: 205 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 88 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27821 User-Defined ID: 27821 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 88 - 206000.G.2.2.25 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: 206LN001.07

Reference:

TS 3.5.1 K/A: 206000.G.2.2.25 3.2 / 4.2 K/A: High Pressure Coolant Injection: Knowledge of the bases in Technical Specifications for limiting conditions for operations and safety limits CFR: 43.2 Safety Function: 2 & 4 Level: High Pedigree: MODIFIED History: 2017 NRC Explanation:

A - Incorrect. HPCI must be restored in 14 days per TS 3.5.1. Plausible because the bases is correct.

B - Incorrect. HPCI must be restored in 14 days. Plausible because if HPCI and one or more ADS valves inoperable TS 3.0.3 must be entered immediately.

C - Correct. TS LCO 3.5.1 Condition G states with HPCI system inoperable you must verify by administrative means the IC system is OPERABLE immediately, and Restore HPCI system to OPERABLE status within 14 days. The bases states: In this condition (HPCI Inop),

adequate core cooling is ensured by the Operability of the redundant and diverse low pressure ECCS injection/spray subsystems in conjunction with ADS. ALSO, the IC System will automatically provide core cooling at most reactor operating pressures. Verification of IC Operability is therefore required immediately when HPCI is inoperable."

D - Incorrect. (1) is correct. (2) is bases for LPCI. Plausible HPCI must be restored in 14 days.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(2) - Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 206 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 89 ID: 27796 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when an ATWS occurred.

1. Which of the following Torus Bottom pressures and Torus levels would require a Rx Blowdown?

2. Why is this action taken?

A. (1) 23 psig and 12 feet.

(2) This is greater than the maximum primary containment pressure at which ADSVs can be opened and will remain open.

B. (1) 23 psig and 12 feet.

(2) This is greater than the highest torus pressure at which initiation of RPV depressurization will not result in exceeding the Primary Containment Pressure Limit before RPV pressure drops to the Decay Heat Removal Pressure.

C. (1) 26 psig and 16 feet.

(2) This is greater than the maximum primary containment pressure at which ADSVs can be opened and will remain open.

D. (1) 26 psig and 16 feet (2) This is greater than the highest torus pressure at which initiation of RPV depressurization will not result in exceeding the Primary Containment Pressure Limit before RPV pressure drops to the Decay Heat Removal Pressure.

Answer: B Answer Explanation When plotted on Figure L Pressure Suppression Pressure this would exceed the threshold for a blowdown per DEOP 200-1. Per The EOP-TB the reason for blowdown is that Figure L is the highest torus pressure at which initiation of RPV depressurization will not result in exceeding the PCPL before RPV pressure drop to the Decay Heat Removal Pressure.

ILT EXAM Page: 207 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 89 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 4 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27796 User-Defined ID: 27796 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 89 - 295010.G2.1.32 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 208 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29501LK009 (SRO) only

References:

EOP - TB, DEOP 200-1 K/A: 295010.G2.1.32 /4.0 K/A: Ability to explain and apply system limits and precautions: High Drywell Pressure.

CFR: 43.2 Safety Function: 5 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) this is the basis for PCPL, not PSP.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) This is the bases for Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

B. CORRECT - (1) When plotted on Figure L Pressure Suppression Pressure this would exceed the threshold for a blowdown per DEOP 200-1. (2) Per The EOP-TB the reason for blowdown is that Figure L is the highest torus pressure at which initiation of RPV depressurization will not result in exceeding the PCPL before RPV pressure drop to the Decay Heat Removal Pressure.

C. INCORRECT - (1) when plotted on Fig L this would not exceed the threshold for a blowdown. (2) This is the bases for Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

Plausible because (1) 26 psig is correct if torus is at normal level of approximately 15 feet. (2) This is the bases for Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

D. INCORRECT - (1) when plotted on Fig L this would not exceed the threshold for a blowdown. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because even though when plotted on Fig L this would not exceed the threshold for a blowdown, 26 psig is correct if torus is at normal level of approximately 15 feet. The second part is the bases for Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(2) - Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.

K/A justification: The issue of concern is Drywell Pressure. At Dresden, torus bottom pressure is used for PSP, but the driver is rising DW pressure. Torus Bottom pressure is just DW pressure plus the standing head of water in the torus.

Required reference(s): DEOP 200-1 with entry conditions blanked out None ILT EXAM Page: 209 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 90 ID: 27840 Points: 1.00 Both Units were operating at 100% power when a small fire occurred behind the 902-5 panel.

The following procedures were entered:

DOA 0010-10, FIRE/EXPLOSION

DSSP 0010-01, DETERMINING SAFE SHUTDOWN PATHS FOR EXTENSIVE PLANT DAMAGE 10 MINUTES LATER:

The fire is NOT out, but has NOT grown larger.

The FIN team is assisting operations in de-energizing the cause of the fire.

SMOKE PURGE has been initiated, and MSA air packs donned by Main Control Room operators.

There is light smoke in the Main Control Room.

All control room panels can still be monitored and operated.

_____(1)_____ be SCRAMMED, and the Unit Supervisor MUST direct entry into _____(2)_____ .

A. (1) U2 ONLY (2) DGP 02-03, REACTOR SCRAM B. (1) BOTH units (2) DGP 02-03, REACTOR SCRAM C. (1) U2 ONLY (2) DSSP 0100-CR, HOT SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE - CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION D. (1) BOTH units (2) DSSP 0100-CR, HOT SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE - CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION Answer: A Answer Explanation Per DOA 0010-10, action must be taken to SCRAM the reactor on the affected unit, if a fire is located in Main Control Room Panels 902(3)-5, 902(3)-15 OR 902(3)-17, and it can NOT be extinguished 10 minutes, The required action is to SCRAM the affected reactor (U2) AND enter DGP 02-03.

ILT EXAM Page: 210 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 90 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 4 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27840 User-Defined ID: 27840 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 90 - 600000.A2.13 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 211 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE29501LK080

References:

DOA 0010-10 K/A: 600000.A2.13 --/3.8 K/A: Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: Need for emergency plant shutdown.

CFR: 43.5 Safety Function: 8 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. CORRECT - (1) Per DOA 0010-10, action must be taken to SCRAM the reactor on the affected unit, if a fire is located in Main Control Room Panels 902(3)-5, 902(3)-15 OR 902(3)-17, and it can NOT be extinguished 10 minutes, (2) The required action is to SCRAM the affected reactor (U2) AND enter DGP 02-03.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) only the unit affected by the fire (U2) must be scrammed.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) If the conditions of the fire required a MCR evacuation, then BOTH units would need to be scrammed..

C. INCORRECT - (1) DGP 02-03 must be entered (2) the second part of the answer is correct..

Plausible because (1) if the fire were more severe, causing loss of critical equipment or spurious operation of equipment on unit 2, or forcing operators to leave the MCR, then this would be correct (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT - (1) DGP 02-03 must be entered (2) only the unit affected by the fire (U2) must be scrammed..

Plausible because (1) if the fire were more severe, causing loss of critical equipment or spurious operation of equipment on unit 2, or forcing operators to leave the MCR, then this would be correct (2) If the conditions of the fire required a MCR evacuation, then BOTH units would need to be scrammed.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 212 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 91 ID: 27751 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 70% power, with a power increase in progress, when Chemistry notified the Control Room of a significant increase in Iodine level in the Reactor coolant sample.

Which of the following actions is the Unit Supervisor required to direct?

A. Verify the Mechanical Vacuum pump is tripped.

B. Reduce power to keep activity level below the monitor's trip point.

C. Stop any power changes until the iodine concentration stabilizes, then continue the power ascension.

D. Stop any power changes until determined that the increase in iodine concentration is NOT from fuel failure, then continue the power ascension.

Answer: D Answer Explanation Power should not be increased until it has been determined that failed fuel is NOT the cause of the increase.

ILT EXAM Page: 213 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 91 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27751 User-Defined ID: 27751 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 91 - Generic.2.1.37 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 214 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29501LK050

Reference:

DGA-16 K/A: Generic.2.1.37 4.3 / 4.6 K/A: Knowledge of procedures, guidelines, or limitations associated with reactivity management.

CFR: 43.6 Safety Function: 9 Level: Memory Pedigree: Bank History: N/A Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Verifying the Mechanical Vacuum pump is tripped is NOT required unless MSL radiation is > 3000 mR/hr.

Plausible because this would be a correct action if the increased activity caused a steam line high rad.

B. Incorrect - Reduce power to keep activity level below the monitors trip point is NOT required unless MSL or Offgas high radiation alarms annunciate.

Plausible because this is a correct action to reduce power with recirc and rods if above MSL or OFF GAS hi rad alarms.

C. Incorrect - If Iodine concentration significantly spikes the cause must be determined prior to restarting the power changes.

Plausible because if the Off Gas system will reset then the action is to hold at power level until further instructions are received from the US.

D. Correct - Power should not be increased until it has been determined that failed fuel is NOT the cause of the increase.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: Per ES-401, Attachment 2, section II.E, 10CFR55.43(b)(5) includes the selection of a procedure or section of a procedure to mitigate or recover or which to proceed. In the associated question, the Unit Supervisor must identify the actions needed in order to mitigate the significant increase in iodine level in the reactor coolant.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

None ILT EXAM Page: 215 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 92 ID: 27799 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power.

1200, the Unit 2 NSO began performing DOS 1600-03, UNIT 2 QUARTERLY VALVE TIMING.

1330, a NORMALLY OPEN air-operated containment isolation valve FAILED to stroke in the CLOSED direction.

1500, the Unit Supervisor completed the failed surveillance paperwork and the surveillance was logged as UNSAT.

The valve was last satisfactorily tested 30 days ago at 0900.

When does the Technical Specification COMPLETION TIME for the REQUIRED ACTIONS start?

A. TODAY at 1200 B. TODAY at 1330 C. TODAY at 1500 D. 30 DAYS AGO at 0900 Answer: B Answer Explanation LCO 3.0.2: "LCO 3.0.2 establishes that upon discovery of a failure to meet an LCO, the associated ACTIONS shall be met. The Completion Time of each Required Action for an ACTIONS Condition is applicable from the point in time that an ACTIONS Condition is entered."

ILT EXAM Page: 216 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 92 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27799 User-Defined ID: 27799 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 92 - Generic 2.2.21 Num Field 1: 2005 Num Field 2:

Text Field:

Comments: Objective: DRE299LN001-04

References:

LCO 3.0.2 K/A: Generic 2.2.21 --/4.1 K/A: Knowledge of pre and post-maintenance operability requirements.

CFR: 43.2 Safety Function: N/A PRA: N/A Level: MEMORY Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: Plausible because the examinee may determine the time clock starts when the surveillance procedure commences.

B. CORRECT LCO 3.0.2: "LCO 3.0.2 establishes that upon discovery of a failure to meet an LCO, the associated ACTIONS shall be met. The Completion Time of each Required Action for an ACTIONS Condition is applicable from the point in time that an ACTIONS Condition is entered." In this case, the LCO completion time starts when the containment isolation valve failed to close.

C. INCORRECT: Plausible because the examinee may determine the time clock starts when the paperwork is complete and the log entry is made.

D. Incorrect: Plausible because the examinee may determine the time clock start must take past OPERABILITY into consideration and move the COMPLETION TIME to the last known date of OPERABILITY.

SRO Justification: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(2), Facility operating limitations in the TS and their bases. This question requires the SRO to apply their knowledge of LCO Completion Times to a given set of circumstances.

ROs do not perform this action.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 217 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 93 ID: 27809 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when a transient occurred.

FIFTEEN MINUTES LATER:

A manual scram was inserted.

Reactor Power is 3% and steady.

RPV pressure is 900 psig and steady.

RPV water level is being maintained at - 40 inches with Feedwater.

MAXIMUM Torus Cooling has been established.

Torus bottom pressure is 5 psig and steady.

Torus water level is at 9 feet, 6 inches and steady.

Torus bulk water temperature is 126oF and slowly lowering.

(1) The LPCI pumps may experience pump damage due to violating the Vortex Limit __________.

(2) The Unit Supervisor will direct the NSO to __________.

A. (1) ONLY (2) lower the rate of Torus Cooling to prevent equipment damage B. (1) ONLY (2) continue MAXIMUM Torus Cooling, regardless of the potential for pump damage C. (1) AND the NPSH Limit (2) lower the rate of Torus Cooling to prevent equipment damage D. (1) AND the NPSH Limit (2) continue MAXIMUM Torus Cooling, regardless of the potential for pump damage Answer: C Answer Explanation Maximum Torus Cooling means that LPCI pumps are operating in torus cooling mode at a total of 20,000 gpm. At that flow rate, Figure X applies for NPSH limits, and each pump is operating at 5,000 gpm. With that flow rate, torus bottom pressure at 5 psig, and torus temperature at 126 F, we are violating the NPSH curve (Figure X).

With torus temperature above 95 F, the requirement to start all torus cooling in DEOP 0200-01, TT-3 applies. However, with the conditions given (low power ATWS, below 6%, torus temperature at 126 F and lowering) Maximum Torus Cooling is not required. Therefore, the SRO would direct lowering the cooling flow until the vortex and NPSH limits were not being exceeded.

ILT EXAM Page: 218 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 93 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27809 User-Defined ID: 27809 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 93 - 219000.G04.20 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 219 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29501LP02

Reference:

EOP-DEOP TB, DEOP 0200-01 K/A: 219000.G04.20 3.8 / 4.3 K/A: RHR/LPCI: Torus/Suppression Pool Cooling Mode: Knowledge of the operational implications of EOP warnings, cautions, and notes.

CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 Safety Function: 5 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Comments:

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: The first part of the question, assessing whether the Vortex or NPSH curves are being exceeded, is an SRO ONLY Learning Objective: 29501LP02:

"Given a set of conditions for the containment and the ECCS systems, utilize the ECCS Vortex Limits and the ECCS NPSH Limits curves to determine if the curves are being violated (SRO ONLY)" The second part of the question is SRO Only Criteria:

10CFR55.43(b)(5). The conditions given require the SRO to assess the impact of exceeding the NPSH on the plant, and to determine which portion of the procedure they will use (maximum torus cooling, or reduced torus cooling).

Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: (1) NPSH limits are also being exceeded (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) if the LPCI pumps were operating at a total flow less than 10,750 gpm, this answer would be correct. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

B. INCORRECT: (1) NPSH limits are also being exceeded (2) with torus temperature above 95 degrees.

Plausible because (1) if the LPCI pumps were operating at a total flow less than 10,750 gpm, this would be correct. (2) the SRO will direct lowering torus cooling flow rate until the NPSH and vortex limits are met, in order to protect the LPCI pumps.

Plausible because (1) if the LPCI pumps were operating at a total flow less than 10,750 gpm, this answer would be correct. (2) this would be correct if LPCI were being used for injection, and were required for adequate core cooling.

C. CORRECT: (1) Maximum Torus Cooling means that LPCI pumps are operating in torus cooling mode at a total of 20,000 gpm. At that flow rate, Figure X applies for NPSH limits, and each pump is operating at 5,000 gpm. With that flow rate, torus bottom pressure at 5 psig, and torus temperature at 126 F, we are violating the NPSH curve (Figure X). (2) with torus temperature above 95 F, the requirement to start all torus cooling in DEOP 0200-01, TT-3 applies. However, with the conditions given (low power ATWS, below 6%, torus temperature at 126 F and lowering) Maximum Torus Cooling is not required. Therefore, the SRO would direct lowering the cooling flow until the vortex and NPSH limits were not being exceeded.

D. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the SRO will direct lowering torus cooling flow rate until the NPSH and vortex limits are met, in order to protect the LPCI pumps.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) this answer would be correct if LPCI were being used for injection, and was required for adequate core cooling.

ILT EXAM Page: 220 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

DEOP 0200-01, with entry conditions blanked out.

94 ID: 27889 Points: 1.00 With regard to procedural hierarchy, the actions prescribed in the DEOP Flowcharts will take precedence over actions prescribed in the Abnormal Operating Procedures __________.

Once the DEOP flowcharts have been exited, and the SAMGs are being executed, any subsequent DEOP entry conditions _________ require re-entry into the DEOP flowcharts.

A. (1) ONLY.

(2) will B. (1) ONLY.

(2) will NOT C. (1) AND the Technical Specifications (2) will D. (1) AND the Technical Specifications (2) will NOT Answer: D Answer Explanation Per the EOP-DEOP TB, actions prescribed in the DEOPs take precedence over actions specified in other plant procedures, including the AOPs and Technical Specifications Per EOP-DEOP TB, Once the SAMGs are entered, the DEOP flowcharts are no longer applicable and additional DEOP entry conditions should be disregarded until the SAMGs are exited.

ILT EXAM Page: 221 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 94 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 2.00 System ID: 27889 User-Defined ID: 27801 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 94 - Generic 2.4.16 Num Field 1: `

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 222 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29502LK011

Reference:

EOP-DEOP TB K/A: Generic 2.4.16 3.5/4.4 K/A: Knowledge of EOP implementation hierarchy and coordination with other support procedures or guidelines such as, operating procedures, abnormal operating procedures, and severe accident management guidelines.

Safety Function: N/A CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 PRA: N/A Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanations:

A. INCORRECT - (1) Per the EOP-DEOP TB, actions prescribed in the DEOPs take precedence over actions specified in other plant procedures, including the AOPs and Technical Specifications. (2) Per EOP-DEOP TB, Once the SAMGs are entered, the DEOP flowcharts are no longer applicable and additional DEOP entry conditions should be disregarded until the SAMGs are exited.

Plausible because (1) Actions required by Technical Specifications take precedence over actions required by other administrative and normal operating procedures (2) normally, any DEOP entry condition will require re-entry into that DEOP. The SAMGs are the only case where this is not true.

B. INCORRECT - (1) Per the EOP-DEOP TB, actions prescribed in the DEOPs take precedence over actions specified in other plant procedures, including the AOPs and Technical Specifications (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) Actions required by Technical Specifications procedures take precedence over actions required by other administrative and normal operating procedures (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) Per EOP-DEOP TB, Once the SAMGs are entered, the DEOP flowcharts are no longer applicable and additional DEOP entry conditions should be disregarded until the SAMGs are exited.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) normally, any DEOP entry condition will require re-entry into that DEOP. The SAMGs are the only case where this is not true.

D. CORRECT - (1) Per the EOP-DEOP TB, actions prescribed in the DEOPs take precedence over actions specified in other plant procedures, including the AOPs and Technical Specifications (2) Per EOP-DEOP TB, Once the SAMGs are entered, the DEOP flowcharts are no longer applicable and additional DEOP entry conditions should be disregarded until the SAMGs are exited.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: The SRO makes the determination of when to exit the DEOPs and enter the SAMGs. Additionally, the SRO applies Technical Specifications, and recognizes the hierarchy between them and the EOPs.

Required references: None ILT EXAM Page: 223 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 95 ID: 27852 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power with Fuel Zone B level indication OOS when a transient occurred.

Narrow Range B AND Medium Range A level indications SUDDENLY began to lower, and then went DOWNSCALE, with all other RPV level indicators remaining steady.

Drywell pressure was 1.23 psig and slowly rising.

A manual SCRAM was inserted.

20 MINUTES LATER:

Bus 28 has tripped on overcurrent.

Reactor Building Temperature is 182 F.

Drywell temperature is 170 F.

Narrow Range A level indication reads -43 inches and slowly lowering.

Wide Range level indication reads -52 inches and slowly lowering.

(1) The most likely cause for Narrow Range B and Medium Range A is a leak on the combined

__________ leg of these level instruments.

(2) The Unit Supervisor will direct the NSO to __________.

A. (1) VARIABLE (2) restore / maintain RPV level at +8 to +48 inches per DEOP 0100, RPV Control B. (1) VARIABLE (2) EXIT DEOP 0100, RPV CONTROL, and ENTER DEOP 0400-01, RPV FLOODING C. (1) REFERENCE (2) restore / maintain RPV level at +8 to +48 inches per DEOP 0100, RPV Control D. (1) REFERENCE (2) EXIT DEOP 0100, RPV CONTROL, and ENTER DEOP 0400-01, RPV FLOODING Answer: B Answer Explanation Medium Range B and Narrow Range A have a common variable leg tap on the RPV. From fundamentals, we know that this leg is has a lower pressure than the variable leg due to a standing column of water. Level is measured by the difference in pressure between these two legs. When a leak occurs on the variable leg, it causes the pressure in the leg to go down, resulting in the DP between the reference leg and variable leg getting large, and level indication lowering, with no actual change in level.

From the stem of the question, NR B and MR A have failed DOWNSCALE due to a leak on the reference leg; FZ B is OOS; FZ A and MR B have failed low due to loss of Bus 28; and Wide Range and NR A are both below the minimum usable level of Detail C, due to RB temperature being above 170 F, and Drywell temperature being between 101 and 200 F. Therefore, there are no accurate level indications, and the only correct action is to exit DEOP 100, and enter DEOP 0400-01.

ILT EXAM Page: 224 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 95 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 3 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27852 User-Defined ID: 27852 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 95 - 216000.A2.03 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 225 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Com Objective: DRE216LN001-12 ment

References:

DEOP 100, DEOP 0010, EOP-DEOP TB s: K/A: 216000.A2.03 3.0 / 3.1 K/A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Nuclear Boiler Inst.; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Instrument line leakage CFR: 43.5 Safety Function: 7 PRA: No Level: HIGH Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the required action is to exit DEOP 0100, and enter DEOP 0400-01.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the candidate must correctly determine the impact of power loss on the level instruments to know what indications have been lost, and if DW temperature or RB temperature were lower, or indicated level higher, then the NR A and WR instruments would be on scale still and tracking each other. This would make this answer correct.

B. CORRECT: (1) Medium Range B and Narrow Range A have a common variable leg tap on the RPV. From fundamentals, we know that this leg is has a lower pressure than the variable leg due to a standing column of water. Level is measured by the difference in pressure between these two legs.

When a leak occurs on the variable leg, it causes the pressure in the leg to go down, resulting in the DP between the reference leg and variable leg getting large, and level indication lowering, with no actual change in level. (2) From the stem of the question, NR B and MR A have failed DOWNSCALE due to a leak on the reference leg; FZ B is OOS; FZ A and MR B have failed low due to loss of Bus 28; and Wide Range and NR A are both below the minimum usable level of Detail C, due to RB temperature being above 170 F, and Drywell temperature being between 101 and 200 F. Therefore, there are no accurate level indications, and the only correct action is to exit DEOP 100, and enter DEOP 0400-01.

C. INCORRECT: (1) the correct answer is a leak on the variable leg (2) the correct answer is exiting DEOP 0100 and entering DEOP 0400-01.

Plausible because (1) the candidate must understand the type of transmitter design that is used at Dresden, and the impact of a leak on the level indication. (2) the candidate must correctly determine the impact of power loss on the level instruments to know what indications have been lost, and if DW temperature or RB temperature were lower, or indicated level higher, then the NR A and WR instruments would be on scale still and tracking each other. This would make this answer correct D. INCORRECT: (1) the correct answer is a leak on the variable leg (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) the candidate must understand the type of transmitter design that is used at Dresden, and the impact of a leak on the level indication. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: Although the SRO would solicit input from the operating team, he is the one who makes the decision to enter flooding.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

DEOP 0100 with entry conditions blanked out.

ILT EXAM Page: 226 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 96 ID: 27814 Points: 1.00 U2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

2A CS pump tripped on OVERCURRENT.

BOTH CRD pumps are injecting.

BOTH SBLC pumps are injecting.

NO other high pressure feed is available.

RPV pressure is 480 psig and slowly lowering.

RPV water level is -172 inches and slowly lowering.

The Unit Supervisor just directed entry into DEOP 0400-02, EMERGENCY DEPRESSURIZATION.

The ADS valves have NOT yet been opened.

(1) Is Adequate Core Cooling CURRENTLY assured?

(2) Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, STRATEGIES FOR SUCCESSFUL TRANSIENT MITIGATION, which of the following is the MINIMUM ECCS injection lineup that the Unit Supervisor will direct to ensure that adequate injection capability exists to restore RPV level above TAF?

A. (1) No (2) Inject with ALL available LPCI pumps ONLY B. (1) No (2) Inject with ALL available LPCI AND CS pumps C. (1) Yes (2) Inject with ALL available LPCI pumps ONLY D. (1) Yes (2) Inject with ALL available LPCI AND CS pumps Answer: A Answer Explanation With pressure below 500 psig, and water level at -172 inches, level is below MSCRWL and above MZIRWL. With RPV water level below the MSCRWL, but above the MZIRWL, and injection still occurring via CRD and SBLC, then adequate core cooling cannot be assured, Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, with one CS pump unavailable, the MINIMUM ECCS injection that will ensure that adequate injection capability exists to restore RPV level above TAF is FOUR LPCI pumps.

ILT EXAM Page: 227 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 96 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 4 Difficulty: 4.00 System ID: 27814 User-Defined ID: 27814 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 96 - 295031 A2.04 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 228 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29501LK110

Reference:

DEOP 100, OP-DR-103-102-1002, EOP-DEOP TB K/A: 295031 A2.04 4.6* / 4.8*

K/A: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to Reactor Low Water Level: Adequate core cooling CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 PRA: Yes Safety Function: 2 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. CORRECT: (1) With pressure below 500 psig, and water level at -172 inches, level is below MSCRWL and above MZIRWL. With RPV water level below the MSCRWL, but above the MZIRWL, and injection still occurring via CRD and SBLC, then adequate core cooling cannot be assured, (2) Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, with one CS pump unavailable, the MINIMUM ECCS injection that will ensure that adequate injection capability exists to restore RPV level above TAF is FOUR LPCI pumps.

B. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, with one CS pump unavailable, the minimum ECCS injection that will ensure that adequate injection capability exists to restore RPV level above TAF is FOUR LPCI pumps.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) if less than four LPCI pumps were available, this would be correct.

C. INCORRECT: (1) With pressure below 500 psig, and water level at -172 inches, level is below MSCRWL and above MZIRWL. With RPV water level below the MSCRWL, but above the MZIRWL, and injection still occurring via CRD and SBLC, then adequate core cooling cannot be assured, (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) if pressure was above 500 psig OR no injection was occurring, this would be correct. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

D. INCORRECT: (1) With pressure below 500 psig, and water level at -172 inches, level is below MSCRWL and above MZIRWL. With RPV water level below the MSCRWL, but above the MZIRWL, and injection still occurring via CRD and SBLC, then adequate core cooling cannot be assured, (2) Per OP-DR-103-102-1002, with one CS pump unavailable, the minimum ECCS injection that will ensure that adequate injection capability exists to restore RPV level above TAF is FOUR LPCI pumps.

Plausible because (1) if pressure was above 500 psig OR no injection was occurring, this would be correct. (2) if less than four LPCI pumps were available, this would be correct.

SRO Justification: The SRO determines the minimum injection lineup when below TAF or when adequate core cooling is not being met.

SRO Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None ILT EXAM Page: 229 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 97 ID: 27841 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 and Unit 3 were at 100% power when the control room had to be abandoned.

Before leaving the MCR, the U2 NSO reported that 2-1301-1, RX OUTLET ISOL, indicates CLOSED.

The Unit Supervisor will DIRECT an operator to re-open valve 2-1301-1, RX OUTLET ISOL, in accordance with _____(1)_____.

Once the Isolation Condenser has been initiated, makeup to the isolation condenser shell side MUST be started within _____(2)_____ minutes.

A. 1) TSG-3, OPERATIONAL CONTINGENCY ACTION GUIDELINES

2) 10 B. 1) TSG-3, OPERATIONAL CONTINGENCY ACTION GUIDELINES

2) 20 C. 1) DSSP 0100-CR, HOT SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE - CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION

2) 10 D. 1) DSSP 0100-CR, HOT SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE - CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION

2) 20 Answer: D Answer Explanation The correct procedure is DSSP 0100-CR. The DSSP contains actions to restore this valve, and the actions must be followed as written in order to meet the required actions and time lines needed for fire safe shutdown. Although TSG-3 has similar actions, it is a support procedure that is not required to be entered, and which is used to support the emergency response organization for beyond design basis accident conditions not specifically addressed in operating procedures.

Per DSSP 0100-CR, isolation condenser makeup must be initiated within 20 minutes of initiating the isolation condenser.

ILT EXAM Page: 230 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 97 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 2 Difficulty: 3.00 System ID: 27841 User-Defined ID: 27841 Cross Reference Number: LI Topic: 97 - 295016.G2.4.34 Num Field 1: 0.00 Num Field 2: 0.00 Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 231 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE277LN001.05

Reference:

DSSP 0100-CR K/A: 295016.G2.4.34 --/4.1 K/A: Knowledge of RO tasks performed outside the main control room during an emergency and the resultant operational effects: Control Room Abandonment.

CFR: 43.5 Safety Function: 7 Level: Memory Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT - (1) the correct procedure is DSSP 0100-CR (2) the required time is 20 minutes.

Plausible because (1) TSG-3 has similar actions for reopening 2-1301-

1. (2) For control room abandonment, DSSP 0100-CR is entered. This procedure has other actions that must be completed within 10 minutes.

B. INCORRECT - (1) the correct procedure is DSSP 0100-CR (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) TSG-3 has similar actions for reopening 2-1301-

1. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT - (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) the required time is 20 minutes.

Plausible because (1) The first part of the answer is correct (2) For control room abandonment, DSSP 0100-CR is entered. This procedure has other actions that must be completed within 10 minutes.

D. CORRECT - (1) - The correct procedure is DSSP 0100-CR. The DSSP contains actions to restore this valve, and the actions must be followed as written in order to meet the required actions and time lines needed for fire safe shutdown. Although TSG-3 has similar actions, it is a support procedure that is not required to be entered, and which is used to support the emergency response organization for beyond design basis accident conditions not specifically addressed in operating procedures. (2) Per DSSP 0100-CR, isolation condenser makeup must be initiated within 20 minutes of initiating the isolation condenser.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Required

References:

None None ILT EXAM Page: 232 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 98 ID: 27816 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power with the SBLC storage tank level initially at 3800 gallons when a transient occurred.

Reactor power is 32% and steady.

Drywell Pressure is 5 psig and steady.

RPV pressure is 940 psig and steady.

RPV level is being maintained between TAF and MSCRWL with feedwater.

The NSO placed the SBLC keylock switch in the SYS 1 position.

After 10 minutes the NSO reported a SBLC storage tank level of 3625 gallons.

(1) In response to the NSO's report, the Unit Supervisor will direct the NSO to __________ per DOP 1100-01, INJECTION OF STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL..

(2) If all rods are inserted TWO MINUTES LATER, the Unit Supervisor will direct the NSO to __________

SBLC injection.

A. (1) place the SBLC keylock switch to the "SYS 2" position (2) secure B. (1) place the SBLC keylock switch to the "SYS 2" position (2) continue C. (1) continue to monitor the SBLC system for proper operation (2) secure D. (1) continue to monitor the SBLC system for proper operation (2) continue Answer: B Answer Explanation Each SBLC pump has a 40 gpm capacity. With SBLC injecting for 10 minutes, the SBLC tank level should indicate 400 gallons lower. The actual value is 175 gallons, showing the 2A SBLC pump is degraded. The appropriate action is to select the other pump, by placing the keylock switch in SYS 2.

Based on the conditions in the stem, core damage is possible, because we are maintaining level below TAF. Per DOP 1100-02, with RPV level below TAF, the entire contents of the SBLC tank should be injected prior to securing SBLC.

ILT EXAM Page: 233 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 98 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27816 User-Defined ID: 27816 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 98 - 211000 A2.08 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 234 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: DRE211LN001.02

Reference:

DOP 1100-02, DEOP 0100, DEOP 0400-05 K/A: 211000 A2.08 4.1* / 4.2*

K/A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the SBLC; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Failure to SCRAM CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.6 Safety Function: 1 Pedigree: New Level: High History: N/A Explanation:

A. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) Per DOP 1100-02, with RPV level below TAF, the entire contents of the SBLC tank should be injected prior to securing SBLC.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct. (2) if RPV level had not gone below TAF, this would be the correct answer.

B. CORRECT: (1) each SBLC pump has a 40 gpm capacity. With SBLC injecting for 10 minutes, the SBLC tank level should indicate 400 gallons lower. The actual value is 175 gallons, showing the 2A SBLC pump is degraded. The appropriate action is to select the other pump, by placing the keylock switch in SYS 2. (2) based on the conditions in the stem, core damage is possible, because we are maintaining level below TAF. Per DOP 1100-02, with RPV level below TAF, the entire contents of the SBLC tank should be injected prior to securing SBLC.

C. INCORRECT: (1) based on the stem of the question, the 2A SBLC pump is degraded. Therefore, the correct action to take is to select the other SBLC pump by placing the keylock switch in SYS 2. (2) Per DOP 1100-02, with RPV level below TAF, the entire contents of the SBLC tank should be injected prior to securing SBLC.

Plausible because (1) If the tank level had been approximately 3400 gallons, this would have been the correct answer. (2) if RPV level had not gone below TAF, this would be the correct answer.

D. INCORRECT: (1) based on the stem of the question, the 2A SBLC pump is degraded. Therefore, the correct action to take is to select the other SBLC pump by placing the keylock switch in SYS 2. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) If the tank level had been approximately 3400 gallons, this would have been the correct answer. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: When all rods are inserted, following initiation of SBLC during an ATWS, the SRO determines whether conditions that could result in core damage have occurred, and whether to secure SBLC injection or to inject the entire contents of the tank before securing it.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None.

ILT EXAM Page: 235 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 99 ID: 27818 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 10% power with the Mode Switch in STARTUP when an automatic SCRAM occurred.

ALL APRM downscale lights are LIT.

RPV level is at -8 inches and slowly rising.

Control Rod G-8 is at notch position 12.

All other Control Rods inserted to notch position 04.

The CRD Flow Control Valve has failed closed.

All eight SCRAM Solenoid Group Lights (A1 through A4 and B1 through B4) are EXTINGUISHED.

The Unit Supervisor will direct the NSO to ENTER DEOP 0100, RPV CONTROL _____(1)_____, and direct _____(2)_____.

A. (1) ONLY (2) pulling SCRAM fuses B. (1) ONLY (2) performing repeated SCRAMS / RESETS C. (1) and then EXIT DEOP 0100 and ENTER DEOP 0400-05, FAILURE TO SCRAM (2) pulling SCRAM fuses D. (1) and then EXIT DEOP 0100 and ENTER DEOP 0400-05, FAILURE TO SCRAM (2) performing repeated SCRAMS / RESETS Answer: D Answer Explanation DEOP 0100 is entered due to low RPV water level. With one rod beyond notch position 04, and more than one rod out, the reactor cannot be verified to remain shutdown under all conditions. Therefore, DEOP 0100 is exited and DEOP 0400-05 is entered.

This is a hydraulic ATWS, and performing SCRAM / RESETS is the correct action to address the failure to SCRAM. Pulling SCRAM fuses will have no effect, since the extinguished SCRAM solenoid lights indicate that power is already removed.

ILT EXAM Page: 236 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 99 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27818 User-Defined ID: 27818 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 99 - 295006 A2.02 Num Field 1:

Num Field 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 237 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comments: Objective: 29502LE005

Reference:

DEOP 0500-05, DGP 02-03, DEOP 0100, DEOP 0400-05 K/A: 295006 A2.02 4.3 / 4.4 K/A: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SCRAM: Control rod position CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 PRA: Yes Safety Function: 1 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A: INCORRECT: (1) DEOP 0400-05 is also entered. (2) the failure to scram is due to a hydraulic ATWS, therefore SCRAM / RESET SCRAM is the correct action.

Plausible because (1) if control rod G-8 was at notch position 04 or less, then this answer would be correct. (2) this answer would be correct if all eight SCRAM solenoid lights were LIT, instead of being extinguished.

B: INCORRECT: (1) DEOP 0400-05 is also entered. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) if control rod G-8 was at notch position 04 or less, then this answer would be correct. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

C. INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) the failure to scram is due to a hydraulic ATWS, therefore SCRAM / RESET SCRAM is the correct action.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) this answer would be correct if all eight SCRAM solenoid lights were LIT, instead of being extinguished.

D: CORRECT: (1) DEOP 0100 is entered due to low RPV water level.

With one rod beyond notch position 04, and more than one rod out, the reactor cannot be verified to remain shutdown under all conditions.

Therefore, DEOP 0100 is exited and DEOP 0400-05 is entered. (2) this is a hydraulic ATWS, and performing SCRAM / RESETS is the correct action to address the failure to SCRAM. Pulling SCRAM fuses will have no effect, since the extinguished SCRAM solenoid lights indicate that power is already removed.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: The SRO determines whether entry into DEOP 0400-05 is required during a condition where all rods are not inserted.

Additionally, the SRO determines what type of rod insertion method to use when in an ATWS.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

None ILT EXAM Page: 238 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO ILT EXAM Page: 239 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO 100 ID: 27819 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

A significant leak exists on the 2A LPCI pump seal.

The 2A LPCI pump and 2B Core Spray pump are the ONLY injection sources, and are injecting at FULL FLOW.

The Equipment Operator reports that LPCI Corner Room water level is at 0 inches, and is rising about 1 inch every 10 minutes.

DEOP 0300-01, SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL, was entered.

RPV water level is at -130 inches and is lowering at 1 inch a minute.

RPV pressure is 65 psig and steady.

(1) Per the requirements of DEOP 0300-01, SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL, the Unit Supervisor will INITIALLY direct __________.

(2) If NO other injection sources become available, the Unit Supervisor will direct EXITING all DEOP Flowcharts, and ENTERING the SAMGs when RPV level INITIALLY drops _________.

A. (1) continuing to inject with the 2A LPCI pump AND the 2B Core Spray pump (2) to MSCRWL B. (1) continuing to inject with the 2A LPCI pump AND the 2B Core Spray pump (2) below 2/3 Core Height C. (1) securing the 2A LPCI Pump, AND closing the 2-1501-5A, PP SUCT VLV to isolate the seal leak (2) to MSCRWL D. (1) securing the 2A LPCI Pump, AND closing the 2-1501-5A, PP SUCT VLV to isolate the seal leak (2) below 2/3 Core Height Answer: B Answer Explanation From the stem of the question, it will be 80 minutes until max safe level is exceeded in the LPCI corner room. With LPCI needed to help maintain RPV water level, water level slowly rising in the LPCI corner room, and DEOP 0300-01 being entered, the Unit Supervisor will choose to continue injection with LPCI since the requirement to isolate all discharges into the affected areas is over ridden by the need to keep injection for DEOP actions. The Unit Supervisor will keep injecting with LPCI while trying to restore or line up other injection sources per DEOP 0500-03, ALTERNATE WATER INJECTION SYSTEMS.

With a Core Spray pump at full flow, we would have adequate core cooling until RPV level fell below 2/3 Core Height. We would not enter SAMGs until RPV water level could no longer be held and maintained at or above 2/3 core height.

ILT EXAM Page: 240 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Question 100 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice? No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete: 0 Difficulty: 0.00 System ID: 27819 User-Defined ID: 27819 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: 100 - 203000 A2.07 Num Field 0.00 1:

Num Field 0.00 2:

Text Field:

ILT EXAM Page: 241 of 242 07 April 2021

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 20-1 (2021-301) NRC Exam - SRO Comment Objective: 29503LK002 s:

Reference:

DEOP 0300-01, DEOP 0100 K/A: 203000 A2.07 3.0 / 3.1 K/A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the RHR/LPCI: Injection Mode; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Pump seal failure CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.6 PRA: Yes Safety Function: 2 Level: High Pedigree: New History: N/A Explanation:

A: INCORRECT: (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) SAMGs would not be entered until RPV level falls below 2/3 Core Height.

Plausible because (1) the first part of the answer is correct (2) if we did not have a core spray pump at least 4750 gpm, this would be correct.

B. CORRECT: (1) From the stem of the question, it will be 80 minutes until max safe level is exceeded in the LPCI corner room. With LPCI needed to help maintain RPV water level, water level slowly rising in the LPCI corner room, and DEOP 0300-01 being entered, the Unit Supervisor will choose to continue injection with LPCI since the requirement to isolate all discharges into the affected areas is over ridden by the need to keep injection for DEOP actions. The Unit Supervisor will keep injecting with LPCI while trying to restore or line up other injection sources per DEOP 0500-03, ALTERNATE WATER INJECTION SYSTEMS (2) with a Core Spray pump at full flow, we would have adequate core cooling until RPV level fell below 2/3 Core Height. We would not enter SAMGs until RPV water level could no longer be held and maintained at or above 2/3 core height.

C. INCORRECT: (1) the Unit Supervisor will continue to inject with LPCI and Core Spray, since they are needed for other DEOP actions. (2) SAMG entry is not required until we can no longer restore and hold RPV level at or above 2/3 core height.

Plausible because (1) if other injection sources were available, and LPCI were not required in order to help maintain adequate core cooling, this would be correct. (2) if we did not have a core spray pump at least 4750 gpm, this would be correct.

D: INCORRECT: (1) the Unit Supervisor will continue to inject with LPCI and Core Spray, since they are needed for other DEOP actions. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

Plausible because (1) if other injection sources were available, and LPCI were not required in order to help maintain adequate core cooling, this would be correct. (2) the second part of the answer is correct.

SRO Only Criteria: 10CFR55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

SRO Justification: The SRO would make the determination that adequate core cooling was not being met, and could not be re-established in a timely manner. They also make the determination when to secure ECCS injection.

REQUIRED

REFERENCES:

DEOP 0300-01, and DEOP 0100, with entry conditions blanked out ILT EXAM Page: 242 of 242 07 April 2021

ML22215A186

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