ML080910135

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Exam 05000259/2008301, 05000260/2008301, 05000296/2008301 - Final RO Written Exam
ML080910135
Person / Time
Site: Browns Ferry  Tennessee Valley Authority icon.png
Issue date: 03/25/2008
From:
NRC/RGN-II
To:
References
50-259/08-301, 50-260/08-301, 50-296/08-301
Download: ML080910135 (79)


See also: IR 05000259/2008301

Text

Final Submittal

(Blue Paper)

FINAL RO

WRITTEN EXAMINATION

ES-401, Rev. 9 Site-Specific RO Written Examination Form ES-401*7

Cover Sheet

u.s. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

Site-Specific RO Written Examination

Applicant Information

Name:

Date: March 25, 2008 Facility/Unit: Browns Ferry

Region: I / II / III/IV Reactor Type: W / CE / BW / GE

Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions

Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of

the answer sheets. To pass the examination, you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00

Applicant Certification

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicant's Signature

Results

Examination Value Points

Applicant's Score Points

Applicant's Grade _ _ _ _ Percent

ANSWER KEY REPORT

for 0610 RO Final Examination Test Form: 0

1 RO 203000A1.01 1 1.00 MCS C

2 RO 205000K4.02 1 1.00 MCS C

3 RO 206000K6.09 1 1.00 MCS C

4 RO 209001K5.04 1 1.00 MCS B

5 RO 211000AK2.01 1 1.00 MCS A

6 RO 212000K6.03 1 1.00 MCS B

7 RO 215003A4.04 1 1.00 MCS D

8 RO 215004A3.03 1 1.00 MCS D

9 RO 215005A2.03 1 1.00 MCS D

10 RO 217000K2.03 1 1.00 MCS C

11 RO 218000K1.05 1 1.00 MCS B

12 RO 218000G2.1.24 2 1.00 MCS C

13 RO 223002A2.06 1 1.00 MCS A

14 RO 223002A3.01 2 1.00 MCS D

15 RO 239002A3.03 1 1.00 MCS B

16 RO 239002A4.08 1 1.00 MCS B

17 RO 259002A4.03 2 1.00 MCS A

18 RO 261000K3.03 1 1.00 MCS A

19 RO 262001K4.04 1 1.00 MCS B

20 RO 262002A1.02 1 1.00 MCS C

21 RO 263000K1.02 1 1.00 MCS D

22 RO 264000K5.06 2 1.00 MCS A

23 RO 300000K2.02 1 1.00 MCS D

24 RO 300000K3.01 1 1.00 MCS C

25 RO 400000G2.4.31 1 1.00 MCS A

26 RO 400000A2.02 1 1.00 MCS D

27 RO 201003K3.03 2 1.00 MCS A

28 RO 201006K4.09 1 1.00 MCS B

29 RO 202001K6.09 1 1.00 MCS A

30 RO 215001A1.01 1 1.00 MCS D

31 RO 216000K1.10 1 1.00 MCS D

32 RO 219000K2.02 1 1.00 MCS C

33 RO 226001A4.12 1 1.00 MCS B

34 RO 234000G2.4.50 1 1.00 MCS C

35 RO 245000K6.04 1 1.00 MCS B

36 RO 268000A2.01 2 1.00 MCS B

37 RO 272000K5.01 1 1.00 MCS A

38 RO 290003A3.01 2 1.00 MCS D

39 RO 295001G2.1.14 1 1.00 MCS A

40 RO 295001AK3.01 1 1.00 MCS A

41 RO 295003AA2.01 1 1.00 MCS B

42 RO 295004AK1.03 1 1.00 MCS A

43 RO 295005AA1.04 1 1.00 MCS C

44 RO 295006AK3.05 1 1.00 MCS B

45 RO 295016AA2.04 2 1.00 MCS D

46 RO 295018AK2.01 2 1.00 MCS C

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :29:33 AM 1

ANSWER KEY REPORT

for 0610 RO Final Examination Test Form: 0

47 RO 295019AA2.02 1 1.00 MCS A

48 RO 295021G2.4.50 1 1.00 MCS A

49 RO 295023AK1.02 1 1.00 MCS C

50 RO 295024G2.1.33 2 1.00 MCS D

51 RO 295025EK2.08 1 1.00 MCS B

52 RO 295026EA2.01 2 1.00 MCS A

53 RO 295028EK3.04 2 1.00 MCS A

54 RO 295030EAl.06 2 1.00 MCS D

55 RO 295031G2.4.6 1 1.00 MCS A

56 R0295037EK2.111 1.00 MCS A

57 RO 295038EKl.0l 1 1.00 MCS C

58 RO 600000AA1.08 1 1.00 MCS B

59 RO 295009AK2.01 1 1.00 MCS D

60 RO 295012G2.2.22 2 1.00 MCS A

61 RO 295015AKl.02 1 1.00 MCS C

62 RO 295020AK3.08 1 1.00 MCS B

63 RO 295032EAl.0l 1 1.00 MCS B

64 RO 295033EA2.01 1 1.00 MCS D

65 RO 295035EA2.02 1 1.00 MCS B

66 RO GENERIC 2.1.33 1 1.00 MCS C

67 RO GENERIC 2.1.16 1 1.00 MCS C

68 RO GENERIC 2.1.18 2 1.00 MCS D

69 RO GENERIC 2.2.13 1 1.00 MCS B

70 RO GENERIC 2.2.33 2 1.00 MCS B

71 RO GENERIC 2.3.10 1 1.00 MCS D

72 RO GENERIC 2.3.9 1 1.00 MCS B

73 RO GENERIC 2.4.47 1 1.00 MCS B

74 RO GENERIC 2.4.15 1 1.00 MCS C

75 RO GENERIC 2.4.8 1 1.00 MCS C

SECTION 1 ( 75 items) 75.00

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :29:34 AM 2

Name: 0610 RO Final Examination


Form: 0

Version: 0

1. Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 2 has experienced a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA).
  • Drywell sprays are required in accordance with 2-EOI-2 flowchart.

Which ONE of the following plant conditions must exist prior to opening BOTH the

Residual Heat Removal (RHR) SYS I Inboard AND Outboard Drywell Spray Valves?

A. RPV level MUST be greater than (-)155 inches (Emergency Range) with ONLY

the the CONT SPRAY VLV SEL SWITCH in SELECT.

B. RPV level MUST be greater than (-)162 inches (Post Accident Range) with ONLY

the CONT SPRAY VLV SEL SWITCH in SELECT.

C. RPV level is greater than (-)183 inches (Post Accident Range) with ONLY the

CONT SPRAY VLV SEL SWITCH in SELECT.

D. RPV level is less than (-)200 inches (Post Accident Range) with ONLY the 2/3

CORE HEIGHT KEYLOCK BYPASS SWITCH in BYPASS.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:55 AM 1

0610 RO Final Examination

2. Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

  • Reactor level (+)20 inches
  • Reactor pressure 45 psig
  • Drywell pressure 1.7 psig

Which ONE of the following describes which modes of Residual Heat Removal (RHR)

are capable AND available for use?

A. Low Pressure Coolant Injection (LPCI), Drywell Sprays, and Shutdown Cooling.

B. Suppression Pool Cooling, Suppression Pool Sprays, and Shutdown Cooling.

C. Suppression Pool Cooling, Low Pressure Coolant Injection, and Shutdown

Cooling.

D. Low Pressure Coolant Injection (LPCI), Drywell Sprays, and Supplemental Fuel

Pool Cooling.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:55 AM 2

0610 RO Final Examination

3. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 reactor water level initially lowered to (-)69 inches.
  • Conditions required entry into EOI-1, "RPV Control" and EOI-2, "Primary

Containment ControL"

Injection Valve (FCV-73-44) was manually closed and HPCI was placed in

pressure control to remove decay heat.

  • Subsequently, Condensate Storage Tank (CST) level dropped below 6800

gallons.

Which ONE of the following describes the status of the HPCI system (assume no other

operator actions have occurred)?

A. HPCI would be operating in pressure control with suction from the CST.

B. HPCI would be pumping to the CST with suction from the Suppression Pool.

C. HPCI would be operating at shutoff head with suction from the Suppression Pool.

D. The HPCI turbine would trip on overspeed due to loss of suction during the

transfer.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:55 AM 3

0610 RO Final Examination

4. Which ONE of the following describes the basis for the reason that the Core Spray

System is NOT on the list of preferred systems for low pressure injection for level

restoration if all control rods are NOT inserted during EOI execution?

A. Cold water from Core Spray creates a rapid pressure reduction and cooldown

rates CANNOT be controlled.

B. Core Spray injects directly onto fuel bundles inside the shroud which could

damage fuel and cause a power excursion.

C~ Core Spray injection creates a steam blanket at the top of the fuel bundles which

inhibits heat transfer via steam flow past the fuel.

D. Core Spray does NOT provide sufficient flow to maintain adequate core cooling if

an ATWS power level greater than or equal to 80% occurs.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:55 AM 4

0610 RO Final Examination

5. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 1 is operating at 100 % power.
  • A fire inside the board causes a loss of the '1 B' 480V Shutdown Board.
  • Fire Protection reports that the fire cannot be extinguished.
  • The Unit Supervisor (US) directs a manual scram.
  • NOT ALL control rods insert, and the following conditions are noted:

- Reactor Power 15%

- Suppression Pool Temperature 108°F and rising

  • The 'A' 4kV Shutdown Board deenergized due to an electrical fault when '1 A'

RHR pump was started for Suppression Pool cooling lAW EOI-2.

Which ONE of the following describes the action and method of injecting boron into the

reactor?

Transfer the ("--1_...) to alternate and inject Standby Liquid Control

(SLC) using the (2......) _

)

A. '1A' 480V Shutdown Board; '1 A' SLC Pump.

B. '1 B' 480V Shutdown Board; '1 B' SLC Pump.

C. '1A' 480V Reactor MOV Board; '1 A' SLC Pump.

D. '1 B' 480V Reactor MOV Board; '1 B' SLC Pump.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:55 AM 5

0610 RO Final Examination

6. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Reactor Water Level Normal Control Range Instrument, 2-LIS-3-203A, has

failed downscale.

Which ONE of the following describes the Analog Trip System Response?

(1)

The trip relay will be __________ and the contact in the Reactor Protection System

(RPS) Logic will be (2)

)

A. de-energized; closed

B. de-energized; open

c. energized; closed

D. energized; open

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:55 AM 6

0610 RO Final Examination

7. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 3 reactor startup preparations are in progress with NO rods withdrawn.

functional surveillance.

  • No IRMs are currently bypassed.
  • The Instrument Mechanic technician has placed the "INOP INHIBIT" toggle

switch for the 'H' Channel IRM in the "INHIBIT" position.

Which ONE of the following describes the IRM trip function that is bypassed as a result

of this action?

A. IRM "High Voltage Low" INOP TRIP is bypassed.

B. IRM "Loss of.+/- 24 VDC" INOP TRIP is bypassed.

C. IRM "Module Unplugged" INOP TRIP is bypassed.

D. IRM "Mode Switch Out of Operate" INOP TRIP is bypassed.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:55 AM 7

0610 RO Final Examination

8. Given the following plant conditions:

  • A reactor startup is in progress following refueling, with ALL 8 Reactor

Protection System (RPS) Shorting Links removed.

  • The reactor is approaching criticality.
  • An electronic failure in the 'B' Source Range Monitor (SRM) drawer results in

an SRM HIGH/HIGH output signal.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant response?

A. A Rod Out Block ONLY.

B. A Rod Out Block and 1/2 Scram ONLY.

c. A "SRM HIGH/HIGH" alarm ONLY.

D. A Full Reactor Scram.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:55 AM 8

0610 RO Final Examination

9. Which ONE of the following describes the expected response due to a "FAULT" in an

Average Power Range Monitor (APRM) channel and the required action(s) in

accordance with 01-94B, "APRM System" to address this condition?

An APRM channel (1) will result in an INOP trip to (2)

To continue plant operation, bypassing the APRM (3) required.

)

A. Critical Fault; ONLY the respective 2/4 logic module voters; is NOT

B. Non-critical Fault; ONLY the respective 2/4 logic module voters; is NOT

C. Non-critical Fault; ALL four of the 2/4 logic modules voters; is

D. Critical Fault; ALL four of the 2/4 logic modules voters; is

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 9

0610 RO Final Examination

10. Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

  • The Control Room has been evacuated.

ECCS Inverter) occurs.

Assuming no further operator action, which ONE of the following describes the RCIC

system response? .

The RCIC Flow Controller


A. lowers to minimum in auto ONLY.

B. raises to maximum in manual ONLY.

C. lowers to minimum in either manual OR auto mode.

D. raises to maximum in either manual OR auto mode.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 10

0610 RO Final Examination

11. Given the following plant conditions:

  • The Unit 1 and 2 Control Rooms have been abandoned.

placed in EMERGENCY.

Which ONE of the following describes the operation of the SRVs associated with the

Automatic Depressurization System (ADS)?

The associated ADS valves will OPEN


A. upon receipt of an ADS initiation signal.

B. in Safety mode, if their respective pressure setpoints are exceeded.

C. in Relief mode, if reactor pressure exceeds the relief mode setpoint.

D. if their respective control switches, on Panel 9-3, are placed in' OPEN.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 11

0610 RO Final Examination

12. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is at rated power.
  • A loss of '2A' 250 Volt RMOV Board has occurred.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the Unit 2 Automatic

Depressurization System (ADS) valves and ADS logic?

A. BOTH Div I & II ADS logics are operable.

ALL ADS valves will operate automatically.

ALL ADS valves can be manually operated.

B. BOTH Div I & II ADS logic is NOT operable.

NO ADS valves will operate automatically.

Four (4) ADS valves can be operated manually.

c. Div I ADS logic operable; Div II ADS logic is NOT operable.

ALL ADS valves will actuate automatically.

ALL ADS valves can be operated manually.

D. Div I ADS logic operable'IDiv II ADS logic is NOT operable.

ADS logic is ONLY capable of opening 4 ADS valves automatically.

Four (4) ADS valves can be operated manually.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 12

0610 RO Final Examination

13. Given the following plant conditions:

  • During performance of 2-SR-3.3.1.1.13, "Reactor Protection and Primary

Containment Isolation Systems Low Reactor Water Level Instrument

Channel B2 Calibration," 2-LIS-3-203D fails to actuate.

  • It is determined that the failure is due to an inoperable switch and a

replacement is NOT available for 4 days.

  • The Shift Manager has directed to place the inoperable channel in a tripped

condition per 2-01-99, "Reactor Protection System."

Which ONE of the following describes how this is accomplished per 2-01-99, "Reactor

Protection System" and the effect on Unit status?

A. Remove the fuse associated with 2-LIS-3-203D. A half scram will result and NO

Primary Containment Isolation Valves will realign.

B. Remove the fuse associated with 2-LIS-3-203D. A half scram will result and PCIS

Groups 2, 3 and 6 Inboard Isolation Valves will close.

C. Place a trip into the Analog Trip Unit associated with 2-LIS-3-203D. NO half

scram will result; however, ALL Primary Containment Isolation Valves will realign.

D. Place a trip into the Analog Trip Unit associated with 2-LIS-3-203D. A half scram

will result and PCIS Groups 2, 3 and 6 Outboard Isolation Valves will close.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 13

0610 RO Final Examination

14. Accident conditions on Unit 1 have resulted in an EOI-directed Emergency

Depressurization. Reactor pressure is currently 106 psig. ALL systems function as

designed.

Regarding the High Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System, which ONE of the

following statements describes the current status of the respective indications on the

Containment Isolation Status System (CISS) Panel and Panel 9-3 (assume ALL

instruments/controls actuate at the setpoint)?

The 'amber' HPCI AUTO-ISOL LOGIC A/B lights, on Panel 9-3, are (1)

The 'amber' (HPCI) PCIS LOGIC A/B INTITIATION lights, on the CISS Panel, are

(2)

The 'green' (HPCI) pels LOGIC A/B SUCCESS lights, on the CISS Panel, are

(3)

(1 )

A. Extinguished. Extinguished. Extinguished.

B. Illuminated. Illuminated. Illuminated.

C. Illuminated. Extinguished. Illuminated.

D. Extinguished. Illuminated. Illuminated.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 14

0610 RO Final Examination

15. Given the following plant conditions:

  • The reactor is operating at 100 % power and 1000 psig.

'1-4' lifting and failing to reseat.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected SRV tailpipe temperature?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 15

0610 RO Final Examination

16. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is operating at 1000/0 power.
  • A complete loss of Drywell Control Air occurs (BOTH headers).
  • NEITHER crosstie with Containment Atmosphere Dilution (CAD), nor plant

Control Air, can restore system pressure.

Which ONE of the following statements describes the effect on pneumatically operated

valves inside the Primary Containment in accordance with 2-AOI-32A-1, "Loss of

Drywell Control Air?"

A. ALL MSRV's can still be cycled five times due to the air system check valve

arrangement.

B. ONLY ADS MSRVs can still be cycled five times due to the air system

accumulator and check valve arrangement.

C. Inboard MSIVs can be opened one time due to the air system accumulator and

check valve arrangement.

D. Inboard MSIVs will remain OPEN due to spring pressure until closed by a valid

isolation signal.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 16

0610 RO Final Examination

17. Which ONE of the following describes the indications and controls available when the

Unit Operator transfers the Unit 1 Reactor Feedwater Startup Level Controller from

MANUAL to AUTO?

The Auto/Manual (1) light extinguishes and the (2) light illuminates.

The controller is now controlling in (3) Element with the controller output

changed from (4)

)

A. Amber; Blue; Single; Demand output to Level Setpoint output.

B. Amber; Blue; Single; Level Setpoint output to Demand output.

C. Blue; Amber; Three; Level Setpoint output to Demand output.

D. Blue; Amber; Three; Demand output to Level Setpoint output.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 17

0610 RO Final Examination

18. Unit 2 has experienced a LOCA with the following plant conditions:

  • Drywell pressure is 51 psig and rising.
  • Suppression Chamber (Torus) water level is 18.5 feet.
  • An Emergency Depressurization has been conducted.
  • The Torus is being vented through Standby Gas Treatment (SGT) 'A' train.
  • Standby Gas Trains 'B' and 'c' are INOPERABLE due to common mode

failures.

IF Standby Gas Train 'A' were to suffer the same common mode failure under these

conditions, which ONE of the following would be the next sequential, EOI-directed step

to exhaust the primary containment atmosphere?

Vent the (_1.....

) _ _ in accordance with 2-EOI Appendix 13, "Emergency Venting

Primary Containment," . . (_2)

.. _

REFERENCE PROVIDED

(1 )

A. Torus; via the Hardened Wetwell Vent System.

B. Torus; allowing the Primary Containment Vent Ducts to fail.

C. Drywell; via the Hardened Wetwell Vent System.

D. Drywell; allowing the Primary Containment Vent Ducts to fail.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:56 AM 18

0610 RO Final Examination

19. Given the following plant electrical distribution alignment:

  • 4kV Shutdown Bus 1 '43' Switch is in MANUAL.
  • ALL 4kV Shutdown Board '43' Switches are in AUTO.
  • A fault on 'A' 4kV Unit Board de-energizes 4kV Shutdown Bus 1.

Which ONE of the following represents how and when the 'A' 4kV Shutdown Board

alternate supply breaker will auto close?

A (1 ) transfer occurs when (2) voltage decays to less than

30%.

(1 )

A. fast; 4kV Shutdown Bus 1

B. slow; 4kV Shutdown Bus 1

c. fast; 'A' 4kV Shutdown Board

D. slow; 'A' 4kV Shutdown Board

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:57 AM 19

0610 RO Final Examination

20. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 3 is in a normal lineup.
  • The following alarm is received:

- UNIT PFD SUPPLY ABNORMAL

  • It is determined that the alarm is due to the Unit 3 Unit Preferred AC

Generator Overvoltage condition

Which ONE of the following describes the result of this condition?

Unit 3 Breaker 1001 (1) . Unit 2 Breaker 1003 (2_.)__; and the

Motor-Motor-Generator (MMG) set (3)

(1 )

A. trips OPEN; is interlocked OPEN; automatically shuts down.

B. is interlocked OPEN; trips OPEN; automatically shuts down.

C. trips OPEN; is interlocked OPEN; continues to run without excitation.

D. is interlocked OPEN; trips OPEN; continues to run without excitation.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:57 AM 20

0610 RO Final Examination

21. Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding the '2B' 250VDC Battery

Charger?

A. The normal power supply is '2A' 480V Shutdown Board.

B. Can supply (directly from the Unit 2 Battery Board Room) any of the six Unit &

Plant 250VDC Battery Boards.

C. Load shedding can NOT be bypassed until the Load Shed signal has been reset.

D. Load shedding can be bypassed by placing the "Emergency ON Select Switch" in

the "EMERGENCY ON" Position.

Thursday, March 20, 200811:16:57 AM 21

0610 RO Final Examination

22. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is operating at 100 otic> Power.
  • No Equipment is Out of Service.
  • A large-break LOCA occurs in the drywell and the following conditions exist:

- Drywell Pressure peaked at 28 psig and is currently at 20 psig.

- Reactor Pressure is at 110 psig.

- Reactor Water Level is at (-)120 inches.

- Offsite power is available.

Which ONE of the following describes the associated equipment and proper loading

sequence?

A. '2B' RHR Pump and '2B' Core Spray Pump start 7 seconds after the accident

signal is received.

RHRSW pumps lined up for EECW start 28 seconds after the accident signal is

received.

B. '2C' RHR Pump and '2C' Core Spray Pump start 7 seconds after the accident

signal is received.

RHRSW pumps lined up for EECW start 28 seconds after the accident signal is

received.

C. '2A' RHR Pump starts immediately and '2A' Core Spray Pump starts 7 seconds

after the accident signal is received.

RHRSW pumps lined up for EECW start 14 seconds after the accident signal is

received.

D. '2C' RHR Pump and '2C' Core Spray Pump start 14 seconds after the accident

signal is received.

RHRSW pumps lined up for EECW start 14 seconds after the accident signal is

received.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:57 AM 22

0610 RO Final Examination

23. Which ONE of the following lists the current power supplies to the Control and Service

Air Compressor motors?

A. 'A' and 'B' are fed from 480V Common Board #1

'c' and '0' from 480V Shutdown Boards '1 B' & '2B', respectively

'G' from 4KV Shutdown Board 'B' and 480V Shutdown Board '2A'

'E' from 480V Common Board #1

B. 'A' and '0' are fed from 480V Common Board #1

'B' and 'C' from 480V Shutdown Boards '1 B' & '2B', respectively

'G' from 4KV Shutdown Board 'B' and 480V RMOV Board '2A'

'F' from 480V Common Board #3

C. 'A' is fed from 480V Shutdown Board '1 B'

'B' and 'F' from 480V Common Board #3

'c' from 480V Shutdown Board '1 A'

'0' from 480V Shutdown Board '2A'

'G' from 4KV Common Board #2

o. 'A' is fed*from 480V Shutdown Board '1 B'

'B' and 'c' from 480V Common Board #1

'0' from 480V Shutdown Board '2A'

'G' from 4KV Shutdown Board 'B' and 480V RMOV Board '2A'

'E' from 480V Common Board #3

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:57 AM 23

0610 RO Final Examination

24. A LOCA has occurred on Unit 1 and the Drywell is being vented to the Standby Gas

Treatment System (SBGT), when a loss of the Control Air System occurs.

Which ONE of the following describes the impact of the loss of air, on the operation of

DRYWELL VENT INBD ISOL VALVE (1-FCV-64-29), and PATH 'B' VENT FLOW

CONT VALVE (1-FCV-84-19)?

Both vent valves 1-FCV-64-29 & 1-FCV-84-19 will fail CLOSED and- - - - - -

A. will automatically re-open as soon as INST GAS SELECTOR VALVE

(1-PCV-84-33) automatically swaps to CAD Nitrogen Storage Tank 'A.'

B. must be manually re-opened as soon as INST GAS SELECTOR VALVE

(1-PCV-84-33) automatically swaps to CAD Nitrogen Storage Tank 'A.'

C. will automatically re-open as soon as CAD SYSTEM 'A' N2 SHUTOFF VALVE

(0-FCV-84-5) is manually opened from Main Control Room Panel 1-9-54.

D. must be manually re-opened as soon as CAD SYSTEM 'A' N2 SHUTOFF VALVE

(0-FCV-84-5) is manually opened from Main Control Room Panel 1-9-54.

Thursday, March 20,200811:16:57 AM 24

0610 RO Final Examination

25. Unit 3 is at rated power with the following indications:

  • RECIRC PUMP MTR 'B' TEMP HIGH (3-XA-9-4B, Window 13).
  • RBCCW EFFLUENT RADIATION HIGH (3-XA-9-3A, Window 17).
  • RBCCW SURGE TANK LEVEL HIGH (3-XA-9-4C, Window 6).
  • RX BLDG AREA RADIATION HIGH (3-XA-9-3A, Window 22).
  • Recirc Pump Motor '3B' Winding and Bearing Temperature Recorder

(3-TR-68-84) is reading 170°F and rising.

  • RBCCW Pump Suction Header Temperature Indicator (3-TIS-70-3) is reading

104°F and rising.

  • RWCU NON-REGENERATIVE HX DISCH TEMP HIGH (3-XA-9-4C, Window

17).

  • Area Radiation Monitor RE-90-13A and RE-90-14A are in alarm reading 55

mr/hr and rising.

Which ONE of the following describes the actions that should be taken in accordance

with plant procedures?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

Enter 3-EOI-3, "Secondary Containment Control" and _

A. Trip and isolate '3B' Recirc Pump.

Enter 3-AOI-68-1A "Recirc Pump Trip/Core Flow Decrease OPRMs Operable."

B. Trip and isolate '3B' Recirc Pump.

Commence a normal shutdown in accordance with 3-GOI-1 00-12A, "Unit

Shutdown."

C. Trip RWCU pumps and isolate the RWCU system.

Commence a normal shutdown in accordance with 3-GOI-1 00-12A, "Unit

Shutdown."

D. Trip RWCU pumps and isolate the RWCU system.

Close RBCCW Sectionalizing Valve 3-FCV-70-48 to isolate non-essential loads

and maximize cooling to '3B' Recirc Pump.

Thursday, March 20,200811:16:57 AM 25

0610 RO Final Examination

26. Unit 2 is operating at 1000/0 power, and the following annunciators are received:

  • DRYWELL EQPT DR SUMP TEMP HIGH (2-XA-55-4C, Window 16)
  • RBCCW SURGE TANK LEVEL LOW (2-XA-55-4C, Window 13)
  • RBCCW 2-FCV-70-48 CLOSED (2-XA-55-4C, Window 19)

Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the Reactor Building Closed

Cooling Water (RBCCW) System and the required actions?

A. RBCCW flow to the RWCU Non-Regenerative Heat Exchanger has been lost.

Enter 2-AOI-70-1, "Loss of RBCCW" and immediately trip the RWCU pumps and

ISOLATE the RWCU system.

B. RBCCW flow to the Drywell has been lost.

Enter 2-AOI-70-1, "Loss of RBCCW" and remove the RWCU pumps from service

IF RBCCW suction temperature cannot be maintained below 105°F.

C. RBCCW flow to the Drywell has been lost.

Enter 2-AOI-70-1 , "Loss of RBCCW" and immediately trip the RWCU pumps.

D. RBCCW flow to the RWCU Non-Regenerative Heat Exchanger has been lost.

Enter 2-AOI-70-1, "Loss of RBCCW" and remove the RWCU pumps from service

IF RBCCW suction temperature cannot be maintained below 105°F.

Thursday, March 20,200811:16:57 AM 26

0610 RO Final Examination

27. Unit 1 has experienced a failure of both CRD pumps.

Which ONE of the following PROCEDURAL reactor pressure limits should be adhered

to, as required by 1-AOI-85-3, "CRD System Failure," and what is the basis for the

limit?

A. 890 psig reactor pressure.

This would be the lowest pressure a scram can be ensured due to the loss of

accumulators.

B. 890 psig reactor pressure.

This would be the lowest pressure a scram can be ensured in the event of a loss

of CRD pumps.

C. 940 psig reactor pressure.

This would be the lowest pressure a scram can be ensured due to the loss of

accumulators.

D. 940 psig reactor pressure.

This would be the lowest pressure a scram can be ensured in the event of a loss

of CRD pumps.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:57 AM 27

0610 RO Final Examination

28.

Which ONE of the following describes how the Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM) System

INITIALIZATION is accomplished?

A. INITIALIZATION occurs automatically when the RWM is unbypassed.

B. INITIALIZATION must be performed manually when the RWM is unbypassed.

c. INITIALIZATION occurs automatically every 5 seconds while in the transition

zone.

D. INITIALIZATION must be performed manually when power drops below the Low

Power Setpoint (LPSP).

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:58 AM 28

0610 RO Final Examination

29. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 3 is operating at 35% power with 'A' & 'c' Reactor Feed Pumps (RFP)

running and 'B' RFP idling.

  • Both Recirculation Pump speeds are 53%.
  • The 'A' RFP trips, resulting in the following conditions:

REACTOR WATER LEVEL ABNORMAL (2-ARP-9-5A Window 8).

REACTOR CHANNEL 'A' AUTO SCRAM (2-ARP-9-5B Window 1).

REACTOR CHANNEL 'B' AUTO SCRAM (2-ARP-9-5B Window 2).

  • Indicated Reactor Water Level drops to (-)43 inches before 'B' RFP is brought on

line to reverse the level trend and level is stabilized at (+)33 inches.

Which ONE of the following describes the final condition of both Recirculation Pumps?

A. Running at 28% speed.

B. Running at 45% speed.

C. Running at 53% speed.

D. Tripped on ATWS/RPT signal.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:58 AM 29

0610 RO Final Examination

30. Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

  • Preparations are in progress to commence a startup following a refueling

outage.

  • The Drywell Close-out inspection is in progress with three personnel inside the

Drywell.

  • Reactor Engineers have begun running Traversing In-Core Probe (TIP) traces.
  • RX BLDG AREA RADIATION HIGH (2-XA-9-3A, Window 22) is in alarm.
  • Area Radiation Monitor 2-RM-90-23, "TIP Drive Area R.B" indicates 16 mr/hr.

Which ONE of the following describes the required actions?

A. This is an expected indication while running TIP traces, therefore TIP operation

may continue.

B. Verify the TIP mechanism automatically shifts to REVERSE mode and begins a

full retraction.

C. Manually retract the detector in FAST speed to the In-Shield position and close

the ball valve.

D. This is NOT an expected indication while running TIP traces. Evacuate the Unit-2

Drywell and Reactor Building.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:58 AM 30

0610 RO Final Examination

31. Which ONE of the following indicates how raising recirculation flow affects the

Emergency System (Wide Range) 3-58A/58B and Normal Control Range Level

Indicators (e.g., LI-3-53) on Panel 9-5?

Emergency System Range indication will {_1)_ _ and the Normal Control Range

indication will (2)

(1 )

A. indicate lower; indicate lower.

B. NOT be affected; indicate higher.

C. indicate higher; NOT be affected.

D. indicate lower; NOT be affected'.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:58 AM 31

0510 RO Final Examination

32. Given the following plant conditions:

Suppression Pool Cooling.

  • A Loss of Off-Site Power has occurred.
  • Unit 1 experiences a LOCA which results in a Common Accident Signal

(CAS) initiation on Unit 1.

Which ONE of the following describes the current status of Unit 2 RHR system and

what actions must be taken to restore Suppression Pool Cooling on Unit 2?

A. ALL four RHR pumps receive a trip signal. Place RHR Loop II in Suppression Pool

Cooling IMMEDIATELY.

8. '2A' and '2C' RHR Pumps are tripped. '28' and '2D' pumps are unaffected. NO

additional action is required.

C. ALL four RHR pumps receive a trip signal. Place RHR Loop II in Suppression Pool

Cooling after a 50-second time delay.

D. '28' and '2D' RHR Pumps are tripped. '2A' and '2C' pumps are unaffected. Place

RHR Loop I in Suppression Pool Cooling IMMEDIATELY.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:58 AM 32

0610 RO Final Examination

33. Which ONE of the following sets of parameters below must ALWAYS be addressed to

determine when it is appropriate to spray the drywell?

A. - Drywell pressure

- Drywell temperature

- Suppression Chamber Air Space temperature

- Suppression Pool Temperature

B. - Drywell pressure

- Drywell temperature

- Suppression Pool level

- Reactor water level

C. - Drywell pressure

- Drywell temperature

- Reactor water level

- Suppression Chamber Air Space temperature

D. - Drywell pressure

- Drywell temperature

- Reactor water level

- Suppression Pool Temperature

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:58 AM 33

0610 RO Final Examination

34. Given the following Unit-1 plant conditions:

  • Fuel movement is in progress for channel change-out activities in the Fuel

Prep Machine.

  • Gas bubbles are visible coming from the de-channeled bundle.
  • An Area Radiation Monitor adjacent to the Spent Fuel Storage Pool begins

alarming.

Which ONE of the following describes the IMMEDIATE action(s) to take per

1-AOI-79-1, "Fuel Damage During Refueling?"

Immediately STOP fuel handling, then~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

A. notify the Control Room to sound the Containment Evacuation Alarm.

B. notify RADCON to monitor & evaluate radiation levels.

C. evacuate ALL non-essential personnel from the Refuel Floor.

D. obtain Reactor Engineering Supervisor's recommendation for movement and

sipping of the damaged fuel assembly.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:58 AM 34

0610 RO Final Examination

35. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is operating at 100 % power.
  • Main Generator is at 1150 MWe.

Which ONE of the following describes the required action and reason if Generator

hydrogen pressure drops to 45 psig?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A. Reduce generator load below 1000 MWe. Pole slippage may occur at this

generator load.

B. Reduce generator load below 1000 MWe. Sufficient cooling capability still exists at

this hydrogen pressure.

C. Reduce excitation to obtain a power factor of 1.00 to maintain current generator

load. Pole slippage may occur at this power factor.

D. Reduce excitation to obtain a power factor of 1.00 to maintain current generator

load. Sufficient cooling capability still exists at this hydrogen pressure.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:58 AM 35

0610 RO Final Examination

36. Given the following plant conditions:

  • BFN is in the process of discharging the Waste Sample Tank to the Unit 1

Condensate Storage Tank.

  • While moving resin containers, a forklift operator accidently punctures the

discharge line 4 feet downstream of 0-RR-90-130 (Radwaste Effluent Radiation

Monitor).

  • Water immediately begins spraying out of the rupture.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected system response?

The discharge will ~~~~(1~)~~~~becausethe~~~~(~2~)~~~~

A. (1) automatically terminate without any additional operator action;

Radwaste Discharge Isolation Valve will ONLY auto close on HIGH effluent

radiation.

B. continue until manually terminated per 0-01-77a, "Waste Collector/Surge

System Processing;"

Radwaste Discharge Isolation Valve will. auto close on LOW CCW flow or

HIGH effluent radiation.

C. (1) automatically terminate without any additional operator action;

Radwaste Discharge Isolation Valve will ONLY auto close on LOW CCW flow.

D. (1) continue until manually terminated per 0-01-77a, "Waste Collector/Surge

System Processing;"

Radwaste Discharge Isolation Valve will ONLY auto close on HIGH effluent

radiation.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:58 AM 36

0610 RO Final Examination

37. Given the following plant conditions:

  • The operator has transferred the hydrogen controller from

"Power Determined Setpoint" mode to "Operator Determined Setpoint"

mode.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant response if reactor power is reduced?

Main Steam Line radiation levels will {1_) the lowering of reactor

power due to {_2__

) _

)

A. rise in opposition to; a rise in volatile Ammonia production.

B. lower in response to; a reduction in Nitrogen concentration.

C. lower in response to; a reduction in Hydrogen concentration.

D. rise in opposition to; a rise in Nitrite and Nitrate production.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:58 AM 37

0610 RO Final Examination

38. Given the following plant conditions:

  • High radiation has been detected in the air inlet to the Unit 3 Control Room.
  • Radiation Monitor RE-90-259B is reading 275 cpm above background.

Which ONE of the following describes the Control Room Emergency Ventilation

(CREV) System response?

A. NEITHER CREV unit will automatically start at the current radiation level.

B. BOTH CREV units will automatically start with suction from the normal outside air

path to Elevation 3C.

C. The Selected CREV unit will automatically start and will continue to run until

Control Bay Ventilation is restarted; then, it will automatically stop.

D. The Selected CREV unit will automatically start. The Standby CREV unit will

begin to auto-start; but, will ONLY run if the selected CREV unit fails to develop

sufficient flow.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 38

0610 RO Final Examination

39. Given the following plant conditions:

  • You are the At-The-Controls (ATC) operator on Unit 1.
  • Unit 1 is operating at full power when 1A Recirculation pump tripped.
  • The Unit Supervisor has directed you to carry out the actions of 1-AOI-68-1 A,

"Recirc Pump Trip/Core Flow Decrease OPRMs Operable."

Which ONE of the following describes the action(s) that require assistance from

outside organizations?

A. Perform the actions of 1-SR-3.4.1 (SLO), "Reactor Recirculation System Single

Loop Operation."

B. Use the ICS screens VFDPMPA(VFDPMPB) and VFDAAL(VFDBAL) to determine

the cause of the Recirc Pump trip/core flow decrease.

C. Perform the actions of 0-TI-464, Reactivity Control Plan.

D. Use the ICS screens associated with the Recirc Drive and Recirc Pump/Motor

1A(1 B) on ICS and RECIRC PMP MTR 1A & 1B WINDING & BRG TEMPS,

1-TR-68-71 to determine the cause of the Recirc Pump trip.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 39

0610 RO Final Examination

40. Which ONE of the following describes the Reactor Water Level response following a

single Recirc Pump trip from 100 % power?

A. Rises initially due to swell, then returns to normal.

B. Lowers initially due to shrink, then returns to normal.

c. Rises initially due to swell and remains high due to a lower power level.

D. Lowers initially due to shrink and remains lower due to the loss of core voids.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 40

0610 RO Final Examination

41. Given the following plant conditions:

  • All three units were at 100 % rated power when the 500KV PCB 5234 (Trinity

1 feed to Bus 1 Section 1) tripped and failed to auto close.

  • The signal which caused the Power Circuit Breaker (PCB) trip can NOT be

reset.

  • The Chattanooga Load Coordinator has issued a Switching Order directing

BFN to open Motor Operated Disconnect (MOD) 5233 and 5235 to isolate

500KV PCB 5234 for troubleshooting.

Which ONE of the following describes your response to this Switching Order and the

basis for that response?

ENSURE the PK block for PCB 5234 is (1) to prevent (_2) _

)

A. removed; electrical arcing across the MOD contacts while being

opened.

B. removed; actuating the breaker failure logic and tripping the

remainder of the PCBs on Bus 1.

C. installed; actuating the breaker failure logic and tripping the

remainder of the PCBs on Bus 1.

D. installed; electrical arcing across the MOD contacts while being

opened.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:59 AM 41

0610 RO Final Examination

42. Given the following plant conditions:

  • A reactor startup is in progress on Unit 3 and reactor power is on

IRM Range 7.

  • The operator observes the following indications:

- SRM DOWNSCALE ( 3-XA-9-5A, Window 6)

- IRM CH 'A', 'C', 'E', 'G' HI-HI / INOP (3-XA-9-5A, Window 33)

- IRM CH 'A', 'C', 'E', and 'G' indicate downscale.

Which ONE of the following power sources, if lost, would cause these failures?

A. +/-24V DC Power Distribution Panel

B. +/-48V DC Power Distribution Panel

C. 120V AC RPS Power Supply Distribution Panel

D. 120V AC Instrument and Control Power Distribution Panel

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 42

0610 RO Final Examination

43. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at 1000/0 rated power when the Desk Unit Operator notices that

number 3 Main Turbine Stop Valve (MTSV) position indication is reading

50%.

  • Numbers 1, 2, and 4 MTSV position indications all read 100 % *
  • Maintenance investigation determines that the cause of the MTSV position

indicator failure is due to a mechanical failure of the Linear Variable

Differential Transformer (LVDT).

Which ONE of the following describes the effect on Main Turbine/Generator operation?

A. The RPS logic contact for the #3 MTSV will NOT function so a turbine trip will NOT

initiate a scram.

B. The RPS logic contact is already OPEN for the #3 MTSV so a turbine trip will

initiate a scram.

c. The Generator output breaker will NOT automatically open on a turbine trip.

D. The Generator output breaker will automatically open on a turbine trip.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 43

0610 RO Final Examination

, 44. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Power ascension is in progress on Unit 3 with the Main Turbine on line.

that two (2) Turbine Bypass Valves are OPEN.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the plant?

Regarding the UFSAR Chapter 14 analyses for a turbine trip, the above condition is

(1) conservative than the assumptions used in the UFSAR because

(2)

A. more; it lowers the peak vessel pressure for a design basis transient in regard

to peak cladding temperature.

B. less; it raises the actual power level at which the RPS reactor scram on

turbine trip is enabled.

C. more; it lowers the peak vessel pressure for a design basis transient in regard

to transition boiling.

D. less; it raises the actual power level for a design basis transient in regard to

peak cladding temperature.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 44

0610 RO Final Examination

45. In accordance with 3-AOI-100-2, "Control Room Abandonment", a Suppression Pool

Temperature limit of less than or equal to --.i1.L°F has been established. The basis for

this limit is (2)  ?

)

A. 110°F; to prevent damage to the RCIC turbine from overheated lube oil, which is

cooled by the Suppression Pool water.

B. 110°F; to prevent exceeding the design basis maximum allowable values for

primary containment temperature or pressure.

C. 120 of; to prevent damage to the RCIC turbine from overheated lube oil, which is

cooled by the Suppression Pool water.

D. 120 of; to prevent exceeding the design basis maximum allowable values for

primary containment temperature or pressure.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :16:59 AM 45

0610 RO Final Examination

46. Which ONE of the following lists of components would lose cooling upon closure of

valve 2-FCV-70-48, "RBCCW NON-ESSENTIAL LOOP ISOLATION VALVE?"

A. Recirculation Pump Seals

Reactor Building Equipment Drain Sump

RWCU Sample Cooler

B. Drywell Atmospheric Coolers

Recirculation Pump Seals

Drywell Equipment Drain Sump Heat Exchanger

C. Spent Fuel Pool Cooling Heat Exchanger

Reactor Building Equipment Drain Sump

RWCU Sample Cooler

D. Drywell Equipment Drain Sump Heat Exchanger

Reactor Building Equipment Drain Sump

Recirculation Pump Seals

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 46

0610 RO Final Examination

47. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 was at 100 % power when a transient occurred which resulted in a

reactor scram.

  • After stabilizing the unit, the scram signal is RESET.
  • All eight (8) Scram Solenoid Group lights are ON.
  • Approximately ten minutes later, the following conditions are present:

- Raw Cooling Water (RCW) Low Pressure Alarm

- CRD charging water High Pressure Alarm

- Outboard MSIVs CLOSED, Inboard MSIVs are OPEN

- Scram Discharge Volume (SDV) Vents and Drain Valves are CLOSED

- Scram Solenoid Air Valves are OPEN

Which ONE of the following describes the cause for the event?

A. Loss of Control Air.

B. Loss of both RPS busses.

C. Loss of Drywell Control Air.

D. Loss of 9-9 cabinet 5, Unit Non-Preferred.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :16:59 AM 47

0610 RO Final Examination

48. Given the following plant conditions:

standby readiness.

  • A leak occurs in the RPV, which results in the following conditions:

- RPV level at 0 inches and slowly lowering

- Drywell Pressure at 3.0 psig and slowly rising

- RHR Pumps 'A' and 'c' TRIPPED

Which ONE of the following describes the minimum actions required to align RHR

Loop II for injection to the RPV?

A.. After FCV-74-47 OR FCV-74-48 is closed, push the RHR SYS II SD CLG INBD

INJECT ISOL RESET 2-XS-74-132.

B. After FCV-74-47 AND FCV-74-48 are closed, start RHR Loop II pumps, reset

PCIS, and open the inboard injection valve.

C. After FCV-74-47 OR FCV-74-48 is closed; reset PCIS, push the RHR SYS II SD

CLG INBD INJECT ISOL RESET 2-XS-74-132, and open the inboard injection

valve.

D. After FCV-74-47 AND FCV-74-48 are closed, reset PCIS, push the RHR SYS II

SD CLG INBD INJECT ISOL RESET 2-XS-74-132, and open BOTH injection

valves.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 48

0610 RO Final Examination

49. Fuel loading is in progress on Unit 1 when you notice an unexplained rise in Source

Range Monitor (SRM) count rate and an indicated positive reactor period after lowering

a fuel bundle into the core.

Which ONE of the following actions is an appropriate response in accordance with

1-AOI 79-2, "Inadvertent Criticality During Incore Fuel Movements?"

A. EVACUATE all personnel from the refuel floor ONLY.

B. Manually SCRAM the reactor ONLY.

C. Move the fuel assembly away from the reactor core.

D. EVACUATE all personnel from the refuel floor AND manually SCRAM the reactor.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 49

0610 RO Final Examination

50. During operation at 1000/0 power a complete failure of both seals on Recirculation

Pump 'B' increases Drywell Pressure to 2.0 psig.

Which ONE of the following is the Reactor Coolant System status resulting from this

condition?

The amount of the leak is approximately (1) and is classified as _ _(_2__

) __

leakage in accordance with Technical Specifications.

)

A. 30 gpm; Identified leakage

B. 30 gpm; Unidentified leakage

C. 60 gpm; Identified leakage

D. 60 gpm; Unide'ntified leakage

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 50

0610 RO Final Examination

51. Unit 2 has experienced an inadvertent Main Steam Isolation Valve (MSIV) closure and

subsequent reactor scram. Consequently, RCIC was placed in level control and is also

maintaining reactor pressure 900 to 1000 psig with the MSIVs still isolated.

Given these plant conditions, the digital Electro-Hydraulic Control (EHC) System is in

(1) Pressure Control mode with the pressure setpoint set at (2) psig.

)

A. Reactor; 700

B. Header; 700

C. Reactor; 970

D. Header; 970

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :17:00 AM 51

0610 RO Final Examination

52. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is currently testing SRVs at full power with current conditions as

follows:

- Suppression pool level: 15 feet

- Reactor pressure: 980 psig

- Suppression pool single element temperature: 112°F

- Suppression pool bulk temperature: 96°F

Which ONE of the following describes the required action?

A. Enter EOI-2, "Primary Containment Control" and Operate ALL available

Suppression Pool Cooling.

B. Enter EOI-1, "RPV Control" then SCRAM the reactor ONLY.

C. Enter EOI-2, "Primary Containment Control" and suspend testing of SRVs.

D. Enter EOI-1, "RPV Control" then SCRAM the reactor and inject SLC.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 52

0610 RO Final Examination

53. Given the following plant conditions:

  • A Loss of Off-site power has occurred in conjunction with a small LOCA on

Unit 2.

  • Plant conditions are as follows:

- Reactor Water Level (+) 20 inches, steady

- Average Drywell Temperature 189°F, slowly rising

- Suppression Chamber Pressure 9 psig , steady rising

- Emergency Diesel Generators Connected to 4 KV Sd Bds

- Reactor pressure 800 psig

  • The Unit Supervisor directs you to ensure all DW cooling is in service.

Which ONE of the following conditions would you expect for the drywell cooling

systems?

A. ALL Drywell coolers are operating;

Both RBCCW pumps are operating.

B. No Drywell coolers are operating;

Only 1 RBCCW pump is operating.

C. ALL Drywell coolers are operating;

Only 1 RBCCW pump is operating.

D. No Drywell coolers are operating;

Both RBCCW pumps are operating.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :17:00 AM 53

0610 RO Final Examination

54. Given the following plant conditions:

  • A LOCA has caused gross fuel failure due to sustained level below TAF on

Unit 3.

  • The Site Emergency Director (SED) / SRO has approved implementation of

EOI Appendix 18, "Suppression Pool Water Inventory Removal and

Makeup." to return level to the normal band for implementation of SAMG

strategies.

  • While performing EOI Appendix 18 via the RHR Drain Pump, the RHR Drain

pump inadvertantly tripped.

  • Suppression Pool level is (-)3.5 inches and steady.

Which ONE of the following describes the next appropriate action(s)?

A. Open the HPCI Min Flow Valve.

B. Continue draining the Suppression Pool by directing the water to Radwaste.

C. Continue draining the Suppression Pool by directing the water to the Main

Condenser.

D. Secure the drain path alignment.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 54

0610 RO Final Examination

55. Given the following plant conditions:

a Group I Isolation.

  • ALL control rods fully insert as reactor water level immediately drops below

Level 2.

  • BOTH Recirc Pumps trip.
  • HPCI automatically initiates but immediately isolates due to a ruptured inner

turbine exhaust rupture diaphragm.

  • RCIC is currently tagged out of service to repair an oil leak.
  • EOI-1, RPV Control, is entered.

The remaining high pressure injection systems are unable to maintain reactor water

level which is currently at (-)150 inches and lowering.

Which ONE of the following contingency procedures would be the next EOI procedure

to execute?

A. 2-EOI-C1, "Alternate Level Control."

B. 2-EOI-C2, "Emergency RPV Depressurization" ONLY.

C. 2-EOI-C4, "RPV Flooding."

D. 2-EOI-C5, "Level/Power Control. II

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 55

0610 RO Final Examination

56. A hydraulic ATWS has occurred on Unit 2 and the Operator At-The-Controls is

inserting control rods in accordance with the following:

  • EOI Appendix 1D, "Insert Control Rods Using Reactor Manual Control System,"
  • EOI Appendix 2, "Defeating ARI Logic Trips."

During execution of these appendices, ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

A. ALL potential Control Rod Insert Block signals are bypassed.

B. Rod Drift indication is received once rod motion has begun.

C. Stabilizing Valves are OPEN to provide increased drive water pressure.

D. ALL Reactor Manual Control System (RMCS) timer functions are bypassed except

for the Settle Bus Timer.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 56

0610 RO Final Examination

57. Given the following plant conditions:

  • You have volunteered for a team, dispatched from the Operations Support

Center (OSC), that will enter the Reactor Building and attempt to energize

'20' 480V RMOV board.

  • Due to environmental and radiological conditions present in the Reactor

Building, Radiation Protection personnel provide each team member with a

Sodium Chloride (NaCI) and Potassium Iodide (KI) tablet during the briefing.

Which ONE of the following describes the benefit of ingesting Potassium Iodide prior to

the Reactor Building entry?

Potassium Iodide will reduce the (1) and Sodium Chloride will reduce the (2) .

A. ('1) risk of dehydration and heat stress.

absorption of radioactive Iodine by the thyroid.

B. ) absorption of radioactive Iodine in the lungs.

absorption of radioactive Strontium in the bones.

C. absorption of radioactive Iodine by the thyroid.

risk of dehydration and heat stress

D. ) absorption of radioactive Strontium in the bones.

absorption of radioactive Iodine in the lungs.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:00 AM 57

0610 RO Final Examination

58. Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate fire extinguishing agent for the

specific class of fire that will minimize subsequent damage to equipment?

A. Water used on Class 'B' fires.

B. Low pressure C02 used on Class 'c' fires.

C. Dry Chemical (PKP) used on Class 'C' fires.

D. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) used on Class 'A' fires.

Thursday, March 20, 200811:17:01 AM 58

0610 RO Final Examination

59. Given the following Unit 1 plant conditions:

  • Due to multiple high pressure injection system failures, 1-EOI-C1, "Alternate

Level Control" has been entered.

  • RHR Pump '1 A' is running and lined up for LPCI injection.
  • Core Spray Pumps '1 B' and '1 D' are running and lined up for injection.
  • Drywell Temperature is 240 OF and rising slowly.

Which ONE of the following conditions describes the appropriate point where

Emergency Depressurization may be performed in accordance with 1-EOI-C1,

"Alternate Level Control?"

Post Accident Flooding Range Level Instrument, 3-LI-3-52, is reading (1) with

reactor pressure at (2)

REFERENCES PROVIDED

(1 )

A. (-)205 inches; 350 psig

B. (-)210 inches; 500 psig

C. (-)220 inches; 900 psig

D. (-)225 inches; 800 psig

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:01 AM 59

0610 RO Final Examination

60. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is Operating at full power.
  • Ground isolation is in progress on 2C 480 Volt RMOV Board.
  • Troubleshooting will require the Drywell Blowers, that are powered from this

board, be removed from service.

Which ONE of the following is the highest Drywell Air Temperature before

troubleshooting should be stopped and the reason for this limitation.

Maintain Drywell Air Temperature at or below (1) to ensure (2)

A. (1) 150 of;

the Design Basis Analysis remains valid by limiting the initial conditions.

B. (1) 150 of;

equipment for accident mitigation is available under accident conditions.

the Design Basis Analysis remains valid by limiting the initial conditions.

D. (1) 160 of;

equipment for accident mitigation is available under accident conditions.

Thursday, March 20,200811:17:01 AM 60

0610 RO Final Examination

61. Which ONE of the following describes why the Automatic Depressurization System

(ADS) is inhibited once Standby Liquid Control injection has begun in accordance with

EOI-1, "RPV Control" path RC/Q?

A. The operator can control reactor vessel pressure better than ADS.

B. ADS actuation would impose a severe pressure and temperature transient on the

reactor vessel.

C. Severe core damage from a large power excursion could result.

D. If only steam driven high pressure injection systems are available, an ADS

actuation could lead to a loss of adequate core cooling.

Thursday, March 20,200811:17:01 AM 61

0610 RO Final Examination

62. Unit 2 was at 1000/0 rated power when a spurious Group I Isolation occurred. The

pressure transient caused a small-break LOCA to occur inside the Drywell.

Which ONE of the following describes the basis for actions with respect to 12 psig

Suppression Chamber Pre'ssure?

A. Drywell sprays must be initiated prior to this pressure to prevent opening the

Suppression Chamber to Reactor Building vacuum breakers and de-inerting the

containment.

B. Drywell sprays must be initiated above this pressure because almost all of the

nitrogen and other non-condensible gases in the drywell have been transferred to

the torus and chugging is possible.

C. Above this pressure indicates that almost all of the nitrogen and other

non-condensible gases in the torus have been transferred to the drywell air space

and Suppression Chamber Sprays will be ineffective.

D. Above this pressure indicates that almost all of the nitrogen and other

non-condensible gases in the drywell have been transferred to the torus so

initiating Drywell Sprays may result in containment failure.

Thursday, March 20, 200811:17:01 AM 62

0610 RO Final Examination

63. Given the following plant conditions:

steam line fail to isolate.

  • The reactOr scrams and ALL rods fully insert.
  • Steam Leak Detection Panel 9-21 indications are as follows:

- 2-TI-1-60A 320 of

- 2-TI-1-60B 323 of

- 2-TI-1-60C 337 of

- 2-TI-1-60D 318 of

  • NO other temperature indications are alarming.
  • Area Radiation Monitor indications are as follows:

- 2-RM-90-22A indicates 1000 mr/hr

- 2-RM-90-21A indicates 730 mr/hr

- 2-RM-90-20A indicates 800 mr/hr

  • NO other Area Radiation Monitors are alarming.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate operator actions and the reason

for those actions?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A. Emergency depressurize the reactor due to two (2) areas being above Max Safe

in 2-EOI-3, "Secondary Containment Control."

B. Enter 2-EOI-1, "RPV Control" due to one (1) area being above Max Safe in

2-EOI-3, "Secondary Containment Control."

C. Rapidly depressurize the reactor due to one (1) area above Max Safe and one (1)

area approaching Max Safe in 2-EOI-3, "Secondary Containment Control."

D. Enter 2-GOI-1 00-12A, "Unit Shutdown" and commence a normal cooldown due to

a primary system discharging outside Primary Containment.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:01 AM 63

0610 RO Final Examination

64. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is at 1000/0 rated power.

Reactor Building.

  • Area Radiation Monitors in the Reactor Building read as follows:

Reactor Building Elevation 593 >1000 mRlhr

Reactor Building Elevation 565 West 800 mRlhr

Reactor Building Elevation 565 East 850 mRlhr

Reactor Building Elevation 565 Northeast >1000 mRlhr

All other Reactor Building areas NOT ALARMED

  • Approximately one (1) minute later, RWCU is successfully isolated.

Which ONE of the following describes the required action that MUST be directed by

the Unit Supervisor and/or Shift Manager?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A. Enter 2-EOI-1, "RPV Control" and initiate a Reactor Scram.

B. Scram the reactor and Emergency Depressurize the reactor.

C. Rapidly depressurize the reactor, to the Main Condenser, with the Main Turbine

Bypass Valves.

D. Enter 2-GOI-1 00-12A, "Unit Shutdown" and commence a normal shutdown /

cooldown.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:01 AM 64

0610 RO Final Examination

65. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 is at 100 % power.

the Backwash Receiving Tank ruptured.

  • The RWCU system has been isolated.

- ALL Reactor and Refuel Zone radiation monitors trip on high radiation.

- ONLY Standby Gas Treatment (SGT) train 'c' can be started. It is

operating at 10,000 scfm and taking suction on the Refuel and Reactor

Zones.

- Refuel zone pressure: (-)0.12 inches of water

- Reactor zone pressure: (+)0.02 inches of water

- AREA RADIATION LEVELS

RB EL 565 W, 565 E, 565 NE: 250 mr/hr

RB EL 593 upscale

RB EL 621 upscale

Which ONE of the following describes the required action and the type of radioactive

release in progress?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A. Initiate a shutdown per 2-GOI-100-12A, "Unit Shutdown." An Elevated radiation

release is in progress.

B. Initiate a shutdown per 2-GOI-1 00-12A, "Unit Shutdown." A Ground-level radiation

release is in progress.

C. Scram the reactor and Emergency Depressurize the RPV. An Elevated radiation

release is in progress.

D. Scram the reactor and Emergency Depressurize the RPV. A Ground-level radiation

release is in progress.

Thursday, March 20,200811:17:01 AM 65

0610 RO Final Examination

66. Which ONE of the following describes the protective function(s) required to be

OPERABLE for the specified mode and/or condition?

(Each list is NOT all inclusive)

A. Starting up in Mode 2 with IRM's on range 1 to 2:

IRM Hi Scram function

Banked Position Withdrawal Sequence (BPWS)

Rod Block Monitor (RBM)

APRM Hi (setdown - 15%).

B. Starting up in Mode 2 with APRM downscales clear:

APRM Hi (setdown - 15%)

APRM Hi (120%)

Mode Switch - Shutdown position

Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM).

c. Shutting down in Mode 2 with IRM's on range 1 to 2:

IRM Hi Scram function

Banked Position Withdrawal Sequence (BPWS)

Manual Scram pushbuttons

Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM).

D. Shutting down in Mode 2 with average SRM readings at -5x10.1 cps:

IRM Hi Scram function

APRM Hi (setdown - 15%)

OPRM upscale trip

Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM).

Thursday, March 20, 200811:17:01 AM 66

0610 RO Final Examination

67. Which ONE of the following announcements is the correct method for making an

announcement using the Plant Paging System in accordance with OPDP-1, "Conduct

of Operations?"

A. "This is a drill. All personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high

radiation, all personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high

radiation. "

B. "This is a drill. All personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high

radiation. This is a dri11."

C. "This is a drill. All personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high

radiation, all personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high radiation.

This is a drilL"

D. "All personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high radiation. This is a

drill. All personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high radiation. This

is a drilL"

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:01 AM 67

0610 RO Final Examination

68. Which ONE of the following is the appropriate method for documenting a "Late Entry"

in the Operator's Station Log in accordance with OPDP-1, "Conduct of Operations"

after the log turnover has been completed?

Each "Late Entry" SHALL contain the words LATE ENTRY, __(_1__ )_ (2) , and

the entry that was missed from the previous shift.

A. (1) The Current Time.

(2) The operator's name who missed the original entry.

B. (1) The operator's name on shift when the "Late Entry" was made.

(2) The time the entry should have been made.

C. (1) The operator's name on shift when the "Late Entry" was made.

(2) The operator's name who missed the original entry.

D. (1) The Current Time.

(2) The time the entry should have been made.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:02 AM 68

0610 RO Final Examination

69. In accordance with SPP-10-2, "Clearance Procedure to Safely Control Energy," which

ONE of the following describes the requirements when placing a clearance on

Air-Operated Valves (AOVs)?

An Air-Operated Valve that fails _

A. "OPEN" on loss of air, shall have its air supply electrically or mechanically isolated

and the air supply must be tagged.

B. "OPEN" on loss of air, shall be held closed with a gagging device that is tagged as

a clearance boundary.

C. "AS-IS" on loss of air shall NOT be used for blocking purposes until it is verified

closed and a gagging device installed.

D. "CLOSED" on loss of air shall NOT be considered closed for blocking purposes

unless it is held closed with a gagging device.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :17:02 AM 69

0610 RO Final Examination

70. Given the following plant conditions:

- A reactor startup is in progress with power currently at 3%

- Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM)is latched into Group 8 (12 control rods)

- Group 9 rods are the same rods as Group 8.

- Sequence Control: ON

- Group 8 Limits: 08-12

- Group 9 Limits: 12-16

Which ONE of following sets of conditions describes when the RWM will automatically

latch up to Group 9?

A. ALL rods EXCEPT 1 in group 8 are withdrawn to Notch 12 and the final rod is

withdrawn to Notch 14.

ALL rods EXCEPT 2 in group 8 are withdrawn to Notch 12, and a rod in group 9 is

selected.

B. ALL rods in group 8 have been withdrawn to Notch 12 and a rod in group 9 is

selected.

ALL rods EXCEPT 2 in group 8 are withdrawn to Notch 12, and a rod in group 9 is

selected.

C. ALL rods EXCEPT 1 in group 8 are withdrawn to Notch 12 and the final rod is

withdrawn to Notch 14.

All rods in group 8 are withdrawn to Notch 12 and the in-sequence rod in group 9

has NOT been selected.

D. All rods in group 8 are withdrawn to Notch 12 and the in-sequence rod in group 9

has NOT been selected.

ALL rods EXCEPT 1 in group 8 are withdrawn to Notch 12 and the final rod is

withdrawn to Notch 14.

Thursday, March 20,200811:17:02 AM 70

0610 RO Final Examination

71. Given the following conditions at a work site.

Airborne activity: 3 DAC

Radiation level: 40 mr/hr

Radiation level with shielding: 10 mr/hr

Time to place shielding: 15 minutes

Time to conduct task with respirator: 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />

Time to conduct task without respirator: 30 minutes

Assume the following:

- the airborne dose with a respirator will be zero (0).

- a dose rate of 40 mr/hr will be received while placing the shielding.

- all tasks will be performed by one worker.

- shielding can be placed in 15 minutes with or without a respirator.

Which ONE of the following would result in the lowest whole body dose?

A. Conduct the task WITHOUT a respirator or shielding.

B. Conduct the task with a respirator and WITHOUT shielding.

C. Place the shielding while wearing a respirator and conduct the task with a

respirator.

D. Place the shielding while wearing a respirator and conduct the task WITHOUT a

respirator.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :17:02 AM 71

0610 RO Final Examination

72. Unit 2 reactor shutdown is in progress and primary containment de-inerting has been

authorized.

Which ONE of the following is the basis for preventing the simultaneous opening of

BOTH the SUPPR CHBR ATM SPLY INBD ISOLATION VLV (2-FCV-64-19) and the

DRYWELL ATM SUPPLY INBD ISOLATION VLV (2-FCV-64-18 ) during the

performance of this evolution?

A~ To prevent the high flow rate from causing unplanned damage to the

non-hardened ventilation ducts during a LOCA.

B. To prevent the possibility of overpressurizing the primary containment during a

LOCA.

C. To prevent release of the drywell atmosphere through an unmonitored ventilation

flow path during a LOCA.

D. To prevent creating a high differential pressure between the drywell and the torus

air space during a LOCA.

Thursday, March 20,2008 11 :17:02 AM 72

0610 RO Final Examination

73. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Reactor pressure is being maintained at 25 psig.
  • Temperature near the water level instrument run in the Drywell is 265 of.
  • The Shutdown Vessel Flooding Range Instrument (LI-3-55) is reading (+)35".

Which ONE of the following describes the highest Drywell Run Temperature at which

the LI-3-55 reading (+)35 inches is considered valid?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A. 200 of

B. 250 of

c. 265 of

D. 300 of

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:02 AM 73

0610 RO Final Examination

74. Given the following plant conditions:

  • Unit 2 has scrammed and multiple control rods failed to insert.
  • The Unit Supervisor has entered 2-EOI-1, "RPV Control", and

2-EOI-C-5, "Level/Power Control."

  • You have been designated to assist the crew by performing EOI Appendicies

as they are assigned.

Which ONE of the following precludes the use of a handheld radio to communicate

with Control Room personnel?

A. 2-EOI Appendix 2 in the 2A Electrical Board Room.

B. 2-EOI Appendix 16H at the '2C' 250V RMOV Board.

C. 2-EOI Appendix 1C in the Auxiliary Instrument Room.

D. 2-EOI Appendix 1B on the Reactor Building 565' Elevation.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:02 AM 74

0610 RO Final Examination

75. Which ONE of the following describes the use of Event-Based procedures during

Symptom-Based Emergency Operating Instructions (EOI) execution?

Event-Based procedures are _

A. NOT used during Symptom-Based EOI execution.

B. ONLY used if specifically directed by an EOI flowchart step.

c. ONLY used if they do NOT interfere with EOI implementation.

D. MUST be used if equipment or plant status require their implementation.

You have completed the test!

Thursday, March 20, 2008 11 :17:02 AM 75