ML040120613
| ML040120613 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Turkey Point  |
| Issue date: | 01/15/2004 |
| From: | Ernstes M Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch |
| To: | Stall J Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch |
| References | |
| 50-250/03-301, 50-251/03-301 50-250/03-301, 50-251/03-301 | |
| Download: ML040120613 (112) | |
See also: IR 05000250/2003301
Text
Final Submittal
TURKEY POINT DEC. 2003
EXAM 50-25012003-301
DECEMBER 3 - 15,2003
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2083-301 Questions
1. 001K3.01 001
Which ON of the following describes the initial response of the unit to a dropped rad
at 100% reactor power assuming the unit does not trip?
A. Pressurizer level increases and letdown flow decreases.
B.' Pressurizer level decreases and letdown flow decreases.
C. Pressurizer level increases and letdown flow increases.
5. Pressurizer level decreases and letdown flow increases.
Question Source: Surry 2002-301 NRC Exam
Distractor Analysis:
B - Correct; the initial response of the plant to a dropped rod is for pressure,
temperature and power to decrease. The decrease in reactar pressure will cause a
reduction in d/p across the letdown orifices and hence a decrease in Rowrate.
A, C, & D ~ Incorrect; each distractor has one component in the AND statement that is
incorrect based on piant response described above.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:26 PM
1
The following conditions exist on Unit 4:
-All Reactor Coolant Pumps (RCPs) are running.
- Reactor Power is being held at 45% per a request from Chemistry
- NIS Power Range Channels read:
N41 = 44%; N42 = 46%; N43 = 45%; N44 = 46%
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the RPS if the high pressure root
line for RCS flow on LOOP 'B' breaks? (Disregard any effects on containment.)
WPS will see a:
A,' low flow signal on all channels of 'f3' LOOP and will send a reactor trip signal.
B. low flow signal for only one channel of 'B' LOOP flow and give annunciator B-1/2,
C. high flow signal on only one channel of 'B' LOOP. No reactor trip will occur.
B. high flow signal on all channels of 'B' LOOP and therefore will be unable to process
a low flow reactor trip for 'B' LOOP.
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; A single high pressure root line is common for all three flow transmitters. If
this line fails, the pressure differential between it and the three low pressure root lines
will drop, causing all three flow transmitters to generate low flow signals. Thus, the
loop instrumentation will fail safe (produce a loop low flow signal) and since reactor
power is above P-8 (45%) on 2/4 power channels, a reactor trip signal will be
generated.
B - Incorrect; The high pressure root line is common to all three transmitters. Each flow
transmitter has its own low pressure root line.
C - Incorrect; The low pressure root line failing shows up as an increased flow rate.
D - Incorrect; The low pressure root line failing shows up as an increased flow rate.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:26 PM
2
QUESYIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
3. 004Ai.04 001
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Which QNE of the following is the basis for reducing charging flow to the minimum
required to maintain RCP Seal Injection following a loss of 120V Vital Instrument Panel
3P06, as required by Step 32, of 3-ONOQ-003.6, "Loss of 120V Vital Instrument Panel
3P06?"
A. Reducing charging flow assures proper back pressure on the RCP # 2 seal and
ensures the # 2 seal is not cocked.
8. Reducing charging flow extends the time for recovery without tripping the Reactor
on high pressurizer level.
C:' Minimizing the fill rate of the pressurizer extends the time for recovery without lifting
a pressurizer PORV due to compressing the bubble.
D. Minimizing charging pump speed ensures that a loss of charging does not occur
due to low oil pressure to ensure that WCP Seal Injection is maintained.
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Distractor Analysis:
A. Incorrect. This is the basis for having RCS pressure greater than 325 psig.
B. incorrect. In this case pressurizer level is not a cuncern because pressure will
increase to the PQRV setpoint prior to pressurizer level trip criteria being reached.
C. Correct. The loss of 3P06 directly affects the normal control of the pressurizer
pressure and level. Operator attention is necessary to maintain the pressurizes in
normal level and pressure.
13.
Incorrect. Operational experience at PTN has shown that Charging pumps are
prone to auto trip on (ow oil pressure when the speed of the charging pump is reduced
to low values of less than 20% demand .
Tuesday. January 06,2U04
3:42:26 PM
3
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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4. 004A4 19 001
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Which ONE of the following describes the operation of the letdown isolation valve,
LCV-460, from the control room?
(Assume the NormallBypass, keylock switch is in Normal.)
A: bCV-460 cannot be closed unless all orifice isolation valves (CV-200s) are shut
first.
B. LCV-460 cannot be opened unless an orifice isolation valve (CV-200s) is open.
C. When pressurizer level is less than 14%, LCV-460 will shut followed by the shutting
,
of all orifice isolation valves (CV-200s).
D. LCV-460 must be closed prior to opening any orifice isolation valve (CV-200s).
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; Per SDQl3/SYS.046,047 10/16/02 Pages 16 & 18
3 - Incorrect; LCV-460 must be fully open prior to being able to open the CV-200s
6 - Incorrect: PZR c 14% will cause CV-200s to close then LCV-460 will close
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D - Incorrect; hCV-460 must be open prior to opening any orifice isolation valve
Tuesday. January 06,2004
2 4 2 2 7 PM
4
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
5. 00SA4.02 001
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Unit 3 is in Mode 5 on RHR cooling. The temperature out of the RHR heat exchanger
is being maintained at 125 OF.
Which ONE of the following describes the normal operation of HCV-758. RHR Heat
Exchanger Outlet Flow Control Valve. and FCV-605, WHR Heat Exchanger Bypass
Flow Control Valve?
A HCV-358 automatically modulates to maintain heat exchanger outlet temperature
and FCV-605 automatically modulates to maintain total RHR flow.
B. HCV-758 must be manually adjusted to maintain total RHR flow and FCV-605
automatically modulates to maintain heat exchanger outlet temperature.
CY HCV-758 must be manually adjusted to maintain heat exchanger outlet temperature
and FCV-605 automatically modulates to maintain total RHR flow.
8. HCV-758 automatically modulates to maintain heat exchanger outlet temperature
and FCV-605 must be manually adjusted to maintain total RHR flow.
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T u e s t i o n Source: Turkey Point exam bank question #I
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; HCV-758 does not automatically modulate
B - Incorrect; HCV-758 is used to control heat exchanger outlet temperature and
FCV-605 is used to maintain total RHR flov\\r.
C - Correct; Per SD021/SYS.050,062,064 41/79/02 Pages 12 & 25
D
~ Incorrect; HCV-758 does not automatically modulate however, FCV-605 does
Tuesday, Janiiaiy 06, 2004 3:42:27
5
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
6. oow2 4 49 oai
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Which ONE of the following is the correct group of immediate operator actions for a
loss of RHR, in accordance with 3-ONOP-050, Loss of RHR?
and check that the Loop RHR Pump Suction Stop Valves are OPEN.
B. Have a local operator maintain communication with the control room; have a local
operator stay near the WHR pump until normal RHR flow is restored; and check thal
the RHR Discharge To Cold Leg Isolation Valves are OPEN.
C. Have a local operator maintain communication with the control room and check
RHR pump amps locally for signs of cavitation; calculate RCS heatup rate;
determine the time required to reach saturation in RCS; and check that the Loop
RHR Pump Suction Stop Valves are OPEN.
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Tuesday, January 06,2004 34227 PM
6
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Distractor analysis:
A- Correct; PTN procedure 3-ONOP-050, Loss of WHW, Steps I through 3 are
IMMEDIATE ACTION steps. They include the following:
5ispatch An Operator To Monitor RHR Pumps As Follows:
a. Obtain radio
b. Monitor RHR pump locally
c. Maintain communication with control room
d. Stay near RHR pump until normal RHW Row is restored
Monitor RCS Heatup Rate As Follows:
a. Plot core exit temperture every minute for 5 minutes
b. Calculate RCS heatup rate
c. Determine time required to reach saturation in RCS
d. Report results to unit RCO and NPS
e. Repeat this step every 15 minutes until RHR cooling is Restored
Check Loop 36 RHR Bump Suction Stop Valves _I OPEN:
Verify RHR Discharge Bo Cold beg Isolation Valves are OPEN is step 4.
Verify that the RHR Pump is not Cavitating is step 6.
Reference: 3-ONOP-050, boss of RHW, Page 6-8.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
7
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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7. 00hK6 03 001
Control room operators are responding to a boss of Coolant Accident (LOCA). An
operator monitoring the critical safety function status trees observes a RED path on
CORE COOLING indicating implementation of EOP-FR-C. I
~ Response to Inadequate
Core Cooling.
Which ONE of the following is the FIRST action to be taken if HHS1 flow cannot be
established to restore core cooling?
A. 5epressurine the RCS to inject accumulators.
3. Increase AFW flow to maximum.
C. Depressurize the WCS to allow low head safety injection.
D I Start charging pumps to deliver maximum flow.
Question Source: Turkey Point exam bank question #I
.I
.26.47.3.4,M
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; This is performed later in FR-C.1
B - Incorrect: This is not addressed in FR-C.1
C - Incorrect; No guidance given for depressurization of the RCS
D Correct; Per FR-C.1 Page 7 Step 3 RNO (Procedure approval date 4/3/02)
Tuesday. January 06.2004 3:42:28 PM
8
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
-
8. 00781 01 001
Unit 4 letdown relief valve, RV-203, lifted and has subsequently been closed and
reseated. When RV-203 lifted, annunciator A 7/1, PRESSURIZER RELIEF TANK HI
TEMPIHI LEVEL HI PRESS/LOW LEVEL, alarmed.
The following conditions currently exist in the PKT:
- Temperature is 130 OF
- Pressure is 15 psig
- bevel is 85%
Which ONE of the following describes the action that should be performed first in order
to restore the PRT parameters?
A. Reduce PRT temperature.
5:' Reduce PRT level.
C. Reduce PRT pressure.
D. Obtain a grab sample from the PRT.
Distractor Analysis:
A - incorrect; The PKT temperature is reduced by increasing level to 83% then lowering
it to 68% as needed. The PRT is already greater than 83% therefore, level will have to
initially be lowered
5 - Correct; Per OP-041.3 (Approval date 3/4/02)
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C- Incorrect; initial step in reducing the PWT pressure is to verify that PRT level is
between 68% and 83%. The PRT is already greater than 83% therefore, levei will have
to initially be lowered.
B - Incorrect; The PRT should not be opened for taking grab samples at this high
pressure. There is no requirernentfdirection for taking PRT grab samples prior to
restoring PRT parameters.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
9
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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9. 007EK2 02 001
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The following events occur on Unit 4 while the Turbine Test Handle is in TEST:
- A loss of feed water has occurred.
- Reactor trip breaker 'A is open.
- Reactor trip breaker 'B' failed to open.
- AMSAC has actuated.
Which ONE of the following will cause the turbine auto stop oil to dump?
A.' AMSAC via solenoid 20 ASB.
C. Reactor trip breakers via solenoid 20 ASB.
D. Reactor trip breakers via solenoid 20 AST.
Distractor Analysis:-
A - Correct; Per SD 127/SYS. 089A dated 11/10/99 Pages 20 & 24 & Figures34 & 14A
B - Incorrect; Due to the Turbine Test Handle being in TEST, the signal will not
propegate to dump auto stop oil from solenoid 20 AST.
C - Incorrect; Since RTB 'B' failed to open it will not send the desired signal to the 20
ASB solenoid.
D ~ Incorrect; Due to the Turbine Test Handle being in TEST, the signal will not
propegate to dump auto stop oil from solenoid 20 AST.
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Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
10
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
10. 007G2.1 14001 __
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3-OP-042 3, Pressurizer Relief Tank, Step 7.4.2.7 directs an operator to be "stationed
at the Waste/Boron Panel to operate the PWT drain to sump valve LCV-3-10038 if
necessary "while removing air from the PRT following maintenance.
Which ONE of the following is the basis for dispatching a plant operator to the
Waste/Boron Panel?
et will ensure that if a:
A,* rapid pressure increase occurs, the drain valve could be immediately opened.
B. rapid level decrease occurs, the drain valve could be immediately closed.
C. vacuum is drawn in the PRT, the drain valve could be immediately closed.
B. tevel increase begins, the drain valve could be immediately opened.
Bistractor analysis:
A - Correct; The PRT Drain to Sump, LCV-3-10038, switch is located on the WIB panel
in the Auxiliary Building. Stationing of an operator at the panel will ensure that should a
rapid pressure increase occure, the drain valve could be immediately openend.
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Reference: 3-QP-041.3, Pressurizer Relief Tank, Step 7.4.2.7, Page 15;
3-BD-OQ-041.3 Preessurizer Relief Tank: Page 8.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
11
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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13. 008AG2.4 21 001
The crew is responding in accordance with E-I, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant
Pressurizer level has risen continuously even though the RCS pressure has been
dropping steadily. All Reactor Coolant pumps are in operation.
Which ONE of the following leak locations is consistent with the plant conditions just
described?
Weld break on:
A. the pressurizer sample line.
3. one of the CRDM nozzle penetrations.
C I the line to Pressurizer PORV Block valve MQV-536.
D. the Charging header connection to the RCS.
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #I
. I 26.27.1.3,M
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; A weld break in the pressurizer sample line would be releasing water
resulting in a decrease in water level inventory.
B - Incorrect; A weld break on the CRDM nozzle penetration would be releasing water
resulting in a decrease in water level inventory.
C
~ Correct; This break would be releasing steam, causing the pressure decrease yet
not resulting in a loss of water inventory.
D - Incorrect; A weld break on the charging header connection would be releasing
water resulting in a decrease in water level inventory.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
12
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
12. 008G2 1 28 001 _ _
The following conditions exist on Unit 4 in Mode 1:
- 4A CCW pump is running.
- 4B CCW pump VPB Control Switch IS in AUTO.
- 4C CCW pump is aligned to Train 'A with its VPB Control Switch in AUTO.
The 4A CCW pump momentarilly experiences an overcurrent condition and the 4A
CCW pump trips.
Which ONE of the following describes the automatic actions that take place to restore
ccw flow?
The CCW pumps will sequentially start with the:
A. 4B CCW pump starting first after a 20 second time delay and the 4C CCW pump
starting 30 seconds after the 48 CCW pump start if needed to further increase
discharge flow rate.
B. 4B CCW pump starting first after a 20 second time delay and the 4C CCW pump
starting 10 seconds after the 4B CCW pump start if needed to further increase
discharge flow rate.
CY 48 CCW pump starting first after a 20 second time delay and the 4C CCW pump
starting 10 seconds after the 4B CCW pump start if needed to further increase
discharge pressure.
B. 48 CCW pump starting first after a 10 second time delay, the 4B CCW pump
starting 10 seconds after the 4A CCW pump start, and the 4C CCW pump starting
10 seconds after the 4B CCW pump start if needed to further increase discharge
pK@sSUr@.
Tuesday, JenuaQf 06, 2004 3:42:28 PM
13
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The 46 CCW pump has a total time delay of 30 seconds from the time the
4A CCW pump tripped, as stated the total time to the start of the 4C CCW pump is 50
seconds.
B - incorrect; The CCW pump starts are triggered off of discharge pressure not
discharge flow.
C - Correct; When CCW discharge pressure drops below 73 psig following the 4 8 CCW
pump trip a time delay starts on the other CCW pumps to prevent simultaneous starting
of the CCW pumps. The 4B CCW pump sta& 29 seconds after discharge pressure
drops below 73 psig and the 4C CCW pump will start 10 seconds later if discharge
pressure has not reached 73 psig.
Per SD 040/(SYS. 930) dated 9/5/02, Pages 17-19 and figures 4A, 48 , and 4C.
D - Incorrect; This is the correct starting sequence and times for the starting of the
CCW pumps however, the 4A CCW pump will not attempt to automatically restart after
an overcurrent trip.
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:28 PM
14
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
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13. 008KI 04031
Unit 3 is at 100% power when the following events occur in the order shown:
- PRMS channels 8-1 7A/I 7B alarm.
- CCW HEAD BANK level increases rapidly.
- Annunciator A 1/1, RCP THERMAL BARR CQQblNG WATER HI FLOW,
- Pressurizer level decreases and the running charging pump speed goes to
-Annunciator A 9/4, PZR LO LEVEUHEATER QFF/LTDN SECURED, alarms
alarms and seals in.
maximum,
and seals in.
Which ONE of the following describes the event that has occurred?
A,* An RCQ thermal barrier leak has occurred and MOV-626, RCP Thermal Barrier
Outlet, valve has failed to close.
B. An RCP thermal barrier leak has occurred and protective functions have responded
as designed.
C. A CVCS letdown non-regenerative tube has burst and LCV-460, High Press b1D
IsoI, valve has failed to close.
D. A CVC§ letdown non-regenerative tube has burst and protective functions have
responded as designed.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; RCS water is flowing into the CCW system. The source is an RCP thermal
barrier based on annunciator A 21'1. MQV-626 has failed to close based on the fact that
A lil has sealed in. All other parameters are consistent with RCS leakage in excess of
130 gpm.
B - Incorrect; MQV-626 has failed to close based on the fact that A 111 has sealed in.
Plausible because the source of the leak is an RCP thermal barrier.
C - Incorrect; due to the presence of annunciator A 111 sealed in. Plausible because
all of the other symptoms are consistent with a non-regen HX tube burst.
D - Incorrect; due to the presence of annunciator A 1/1 sealed in. Plausible because all
of the other symptoms are consistent with a non-regen HX tube burst.
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:28
15
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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14. 010K2 02 001
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The following have been verified after receiving Alarms associated with the Loss of a
12OV Vital Instrument Panel:
- Pressurizer Master Controller AutoIManual Station is in Auto lockup
~ Both Pressurizer Spray valves AutolManual Stations are in Auto lockup
- 3 6 Feedwater Regulating valve is in Auto lockup.
Which ONE of the following identifies the Vital Instrument Panel that has been lost?
A. 3P09
B. 3P08
C. 3P07
Distractor Analysis:
A, B, C - Incorrect; The listed component controllers do not receive power from these
sources .
B - Correct; Per ONOP-003.6 approval date 10/7/02. 3P06 is the power supply to the
PZW spray valve controller. PZW press controller, and S/G 'C' Feed Reg valve.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
16
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
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A large break LOCA occurred while Unit 4 was operating at loo% power. The
operators are responding per E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason the RCO verifies the Feedwater
Isolation signal closed the Main and Bypass Feedwater Control valves in Step 5 of
E O ?
A," To minimize the potential for WCS cooldown due to S/G overfill.
B. To ensure the subsequent availability of AFW flowpaths.
C. To ensure the subsequent availability of secondary heat sink water sources.
B. To minimize Steam Generator pressure drop to ensure adequate steam pressure is
available for AFW pump operation.
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Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # 1 .I
,2621.6.5.M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; Correct per Basis document for EOP-E-0 dated 2/22/02.
B - Incorrect; Plausible since AFW flow paths are not affected by this step
C - Incorrect; Plausible since elimination of the large feedwater pumping source will
consewe water sources.
D - Incorrect; Plausible since isolation of the steam generator will prevent/minimize the
pressure drop.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28
17
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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16. 012Ci2 1 33 001
Which ON of the following statements describes the correct actions, in accordance
with ONOP-049.1, Deviation or Failure of Safety Related or Reactor Protection
Channels, if plant conditions are such that all bistables cannot be tripped due to an
undesired ESF actuation?
Assume the Unit is in Mode 1
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A. Immediately enter Technical Specification 3.0.3 and shutdown/cooidown until a
Mode is entered in which the Technical Specification is not applicable.
B. Commence a shutdown to place the Unit in Mode 3 within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> and trip all
required bistables upon entry into Mode 3.
6. Bo not trip any associated bistables and follow actions of Technical Specifications
for those bistabies not tripped.
D! Place only the bistables which will not cause an ESF actuation in the tesvtripped
position and follow Technicai Specifications for those bistables not tripped.
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Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # 1 .I
.25.43.3.5,M
Bistractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; immediate entry into TS 3.0.3 is not warranted. Facility has 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> to fix
the problem associated with the B/S that are unable to be tripped.
B Incorrect; T.S do not require a shutdown to Mode 3, a shutdown is not required until
it is definatively known that T.S. action statements can not be met.
C - Incorrect; B/S that can be tripped without causing an undesired ESF actuations are
to be place in the trip position.
B - Correct; Per ONQP-049.1 (dated 1/26/03) step 5.4 CAUTION statement and
Lesson Plan LP6902523 Page 8 (dated 1 '1/30/00). Trip all B/S that can be tripped
without causing an undesired ESF actuation, Then the B/S not tripped 00s channel
will have to be fixed within the 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> or the Unit powedmode will have to be reduced
to a level where operability of the channel is no longer required.
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:28 PM
18
Unit 3 Reactor power has been stabilized at 1x10-8 amps when the following occurs:
- PT-444, Pressurizer Pressure Control Channel, fails high.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the plant to this condition?
(Assume no operator action)
A. A reactor trip will occur at 1835 psig due to low pressurizer pressure.
B." SI actuation will occur at 1730 psig due to low pressurizer pressure.
C. Pressurizer pressure will decrease and pressurizer heaters will energize and
compensate for the pressure decrease.
B. Pressurizer pressure will stabilize when POKV PC-455C is shut at 2000 psig by the
protective channels supplying the "block auto open" signal.
Distractor Analysis:
A ~ Incorrect; Reactor trip will not occur at this low power level (since power is less than
P-10) on low FZR pressure.
5 - Correct; Si will occure due to pressure continuing to decrease as a result of the
spray valves still being open as a result of PP-444 failing high. Per SD 0091SYS.041C
dated 9/23/02.
C - Incorrect; Pressurizer heaters are turned off by the PT-444 failing low and are
therefore unavailable for pressure restoration.
B - Incorrect; This action occure but pressure continues to decrease as a result of the
spray valves staying open and no PZW heaters.
Tuesday January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
19
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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18. 015AA1.22 001
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Which ONE of the foilowing indications wouid be indicative of only an RCP Number 2
seal failure?
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A. RCP Therm81 Barrier Low Differential Pressure.
B.' RCP High Standpipe level.
C. RCP Thermal Barrier Cooling Water High temperature.
B. WCP Seal beakoff High Flow.
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # 1 .I
24.8.5.14,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; This would be due to a #I
RCP seal Failure
3 - Correct; High RCP Standpipe Level is indicative of a #2 RCP Seal. ARP G-2/1
dated 7/23/02
C - Incorrect; This would be due to a #I
RCP seal Failure
B - Incorrect; This would be due to a #I
WCP seal Failure
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TlJeSday, January 06,2004 3:42:28
20
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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19. 015K1 01 001
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Which ONE of the following describes NIS Power Range Channel 4 (N-44) function in
comparison with the other Power Range Channels?
A. Power Range Channels 1, 2, and 3 provide input to the Rod Control system
whereas Power Range Channel 4 does not.
B. Power Range Channel 4 is the only channel that provides input to the Overpower
Rod Stop.
C. Power Range Channel 4 is the only channel that provides input to the OQDT and
OTBT runback circuitry.
D I Power Range Channels 1 , 2, and 3 provide input to the OPDT and OTDT reactor
trips whereas Power Range Channel 4 does not.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Channel 4 is the only channel that provides the input to the rod control
system.
B - Incorrect; Overpower Rod Stop occurs whenever any one PR channel exceeds
103%.
C - Incorrect; Channel 4 is the only channel that does not provide the input to the
runback circuitry.
D - Correct; Channel 4 does not provide input toi the OTBT and OPDT trips. Per
SD004 dated 4/74/03 page 58.
Tuesday, Januaty 06,2004
3:42:28 PM
21
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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20. OIhA2 04 001
Units 3 and 4 are at 100% power when annunciator F-1/2, VITAL AC BUS INVERTER
TROUBLE. alarms as a result of '3C' Vital Inverter low output voltage.
Which ONE of the following describes the status of Vital Instrument bus '3P06'
following receipt of the alarm and identifies the procedure operators will use tu restore
normal plant configuration?
A. '3P06' is de-energized.
Restore plant configuration using 3-ONOP-003.6, Loss of 120V Vital Instrument
Panel 3P06.
B. '3P06' is de-energized.
Restore plant configuration using 0-OP-003.3, 120V Vital Instrument AC System
C. '3P06' is powered from the CVT.
Restore plant configuration using ONOP-003.6, Loss of 12QV Vital Instrument
Panel 3P06.
D I '3P06' is powered from the CVT.
Restore plant configuration using 0-OP-003.3, 120V Vital Instrument AC System.
_
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_ _ -
_
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_
Question Source: Question developed from facili@iput
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; 3P06 is not de-energized. A successful swap to the CVT should occur.
Plausible because before the existance of the CVTs, the bus would have been
de-energized and power would have been restored using ONOP-003.6.
B - Incorrect; 3P06 is not de-energized. A successful swap to the CVT should occur.
Plausible because before the existance of the CVYs, the bus would have been
de-energized. Plant configuration IS restored per OP-003.3.
C - Incorrect; 3P076 is energized from the CVT however, system configuration will be
restored using OP-003.3.
D _. Correct; 3P076 is energized from the CVT. System configuration will be restored
using OP-003.3 either section 7.4 or 7.5. ARP F-112 operator action #2 (approval date
7/23/02) and OP-003.3 sections 7.4 & 7.5 (approval date 10/12100)
Tuesday. January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
22
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
~~
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21. 017A401 001
Unit 4 is in Mode 5 on RHR cooling with 'A RHR pump in service. The 'B' RHR pump
was taken out of service 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> ago for replacement of a bearing that was
overheating.
The 'A
RHR pump has tripped on overcurrent and the crew has entered BNOP-050,
Loss of RHR.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions required to monitor WCS heatup rate
per ONOP-050?
A,! Plot core exit temperature every minute for 5 minutes. Repeat every 15 minutes
until RHR cooling is restored.
B. Plot That every minute for 5 minutes. Repeat every 15 minutes until RHR cooling is
restored.
6. Plot core exit temperature every minute for 5 minutes. Repeat every 15 minutes
until natural circulation is verified established.
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D. Plot That every minute for 5 minutes. Repeat every 15 minutes until natural
circulation is verified established.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; Actual in core temperature is monitored from the control room and plotted
until RHR cooling has been restored. Per QNOP-050 dated 10/16/98C
B
~ Incorrect; Thot is not plotted per ONOP-050
C - Incorrect; Even though natural circulation may be established, ONOQ-050 requires
the heatup continue to be plotted until RHR cooling is restored.
D - incorrect; This is a combination of distractors B and C and is incorrect for both
reasons listed above.
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:28
23
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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22. 022A4.03 001
-
Which ONE of the following describes the operation of the Normal Containment
Coolers (NCCs)?
A. The NCC is started by placing the control switch in the ON position, the NCC fan
starts and its associated suction and discharge dampers open automatically on the
start signal.
BP The NCC is started by placing the control switch in the ON position, the NCC fan
starts and its associated discharge damper automatically opens on the start signal.
C. The NCC discharge damper is manually opened, the control switch is placed in the
ON position lo start the NCC.
D. The NCC is started by placing the control switch in the ON position, the NCC fan
starts and its associated discharge damper will fully open when fan discharge flow
increases above a pre-set flowrate.
~~
D i s t r a c t o r Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The Normal Containment Cooling units do not have suction dampers, only
discharge dampers.
B - Correct; The discharge dampers automatically open from the start signal of the
associated fan unit. SD-029/SYS.053,055,056,057,058 dated 10/18/00, pages 11
~ 12
& 22.
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C - Incorrect; The dampers do not have manual operation capability.
D - Incorrect; The dampers are not flow opening dampers as are the CRDM cooling unit
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
24
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
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23. 022AA2 02 001
3-ONOP-047.1. Loss of Charging Flow In Modes 1 Through 4. Step 4.1, states to
"Attempt to reestablish charging."
Which ONE of the following statements is correct if charging flow is lost due to
charging pump failure?
The operator should try to start:
A. only an operable charging pump. If charging is reestablished, then normal
operation can continue.
B.' any available charging pump, even if it is not operable. If charging is reestablished,
then normal operation can continue.
C. only an operable charging pump. If charging is reestablished prior to closing
Excess Letdown and WCP Seal Return Isolation Valve, MOV-3-6386, normal
operation can continue.
B. any available charging pump. even if it is not operable provided that all post
1
maintenance testing had been completed when the event occurred.
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Distractor analysis:
B - Correct; If charging flow is lost due to pump failure the operator should try to place
any Charging Pump in service, even if it is not operable as defined in Tech Specs, but
still capable of delivering flow. An example of this situation would be a pump that has
had maintenance performed, but the Post Maintenance Testing had not been
completed when the event occurred.
Reference: BB-ONOP-047.1 Loss of Charging Flow In Modes 1 Through 4, Page 3;
3-ONOP-047.1 Loss of Charging Flow In Modes 1 Through 4, Page 5.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
25
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
24. 024AA2.(16 001
~
A control room evacuation has occurred and the crew is performing the actions of
ONOP-105, Control Room Evacuation. The Unit 3 RCO is emergency borating from
the Boric Acid Storage Tanks (BAST) per Attachment 3, Step 23 of ONOQ-105 using
the 38 Charging pump.
- The 38 Charging pump speed controller is set at 12 psig.
- RCP Seal leakage is constant at 42 gpm.
- Emergency boration has been in progress for 100 minutes.
After 100 minutes of emergency borating the 38 Charging pump speed controller is
changed to 6 psig.
Which ONE of the following identifies approximately how many minutes (in addition to
the 100 minutes) the RCQ will need to emergency borate with the controller set at 6
psig to satisfy the requirements of Step 23 of ONOP-I05 for borating from the BAST?
Assume the RCP Seal leakage remains constant at 12 gpm
(References Provided)
A. 36 minutes for a total of 136 minutes of emergency boration.
B. 71 minutes for a total of 171 minutes of emergency boration.
C I 100 minutes for a total of 208 minutes of emergency boration.
B. 136 minutes for a total of 236 minutes of emergency boration.
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Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:28 PM
26
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Question Source: Modified from Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #2.3.25.52.4.3,M
Bistractor Analysis:
A -Incorrect; An additional 36 minutes will bring the total boration time to 136 minutes
which is the required boration time if the 3B CCP speed controller was not changed.
The applicant would select this answer if unaware that the boration flow was affected
by the adjustment. In the case the RCS would be under borated therefore not meeting
the requirements of Step 23 of ONOP-105.
E3 - Incorrect; A total of 5576 gals must be charged into the RCS. 12 gpm leaks through
the RCP seals this is 1200 gals over the 200 minutes charged so far. This means a
total of 7208 gals must charged into the RCS (5576 + 1200). At a charging Row rate of
53.2 gpm (flow rate for 12 psig speed controller, ONQP-105 Enclosure 9) for 100
minutes, 5320 gals has been charged this means that 1888 gals are left to be charged
(9208-5320). With a new flow rate of 26.6 gpm (flow rate for 6 psig speed controller,
ONOP-105 Enclosure 9) an additional 72 minutes is required (1888/26.6). In the case
the RCS would be under borated therefore not meeting the requirements of Step 23 of
ONOP-1 05.
G - Gorrect; Using the work sheet in Enclosure 10 of ONOP-105 the applicant can work
backwards to determine the number of minutes required to charge the additional
amount into the RCS at the reduced flow rate. 100 minutes of charging at 53.2 gpm is
5320 gals total. 1200 gals has leaked out via the RCP seal at 12 gprn for 100 minutes.
5320-1200=4120gals total charged into the RCS. A total of 5576 gals must be charged
in from the BAST to satisfy the requirements of Step 23 of ONOP-105 this means that
1456 gals still must be charged in (5576-4120). At 26.6 gprn charging and 12 gpm
leakage, a total of 14.6 gpm is going into the RCS. 1456/14.6=100 minutes of
additional charging needed.
B - Incorrect; The applicant may notice that the new charging flow rate is half of what it
was before the adjustment (53.2 gpm vs 26.6 gpm). The applicant may believe that in
order to borate the same amount it will take twice as long (Le. an additional 136
minutes). This will unnecessarily overborate the RCS.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28
27
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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25. 025hK3.01 001
~~~
Unit 3 is in Mode EJ? "COLD SHUTDOWN," with the following plant conditions:
All CET's read 195 OF and are stable.
- 'A' S/G's secondary side manway is in the process of being removed.
- 'B' and '6'
SI6 Narrow range levels are 20%.
- 'B' and 'C' S/G secondary water temperatures are 20 OF higher than RCS cold
leg temperatures.
- L8-3-462,
PRZ Level Cold Calib., is at 15%.
-All RCP's are off.
- RCS pressure is 325 psig and stable.
- Train 'A' RHR is in service.
- Train 'B' RHR is inoperable for repairs.
- All systems aligned in their normal configuration for the present plant
conditions.
A loss of 'A RHR pump has just occurred and cannot be restored. RCS temperature is
increasing.
Which ONE of the following is the preferred method for heat removal under these
conditions in accordance with ONOP-050, "LOSS of RHR?
A. One train of SI valves aligned for injection and a High-Head Safety Injection pump
running, spill through the Pressurizer POWVs.
B. Charging Pump injecting fiow through the normal charging line, spill through the
Pressurizer PQRVs.
CY Natural Circulation RCS flow with all available SIG steam dump to atmosphere
valves open, Standby Feedwater flow established.
D. An RCP running with forced RCS flow with all available S/G steam dump to
atmosphere valves open, Standby Feedwater flow established.
Tuesday. January 06,2004 3:42:28 PNI
28
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Question Source: Farley 20Oq-301 NRC Exam
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; This is an alternate RCS feed and bleed cooling method per ONOF-041.8
if secondary heat sink can not be established in ONOP-050 (Le. at least two S/G
available) and temperature is INCREASING.
B - Incorrect; This charging lineup is established per ONOQ-041.8 for increasing RCS
inventory on a sustained loss of RHR during reduced inventory conditions. The bleed
path is the correct RCS bleed path if secondary heat sink can not be established in
ONOP-050 (i.e. at least two S/G available).
C - Correct; This is the preferred method per ONOP-050 (approval date 2/22/02) with a
loss of both RHR pumps.
D - Incorrect; An RCP would not be started in ONOP-050 until after natural circulation
has been established and RCS cold leg temperatures are greater than 295 OF and S/G
temperatures are within 10 OF of RCS Tcold.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28 PM
29
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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26. 026A2 03 001
Unit 3 is at 100% power with the 35 Containment Spray Pump tagged out-of-service
for maintenance.
The unit experiences a design basis LOCA with the following conditions present:
- Containment pressure
30 psig increasing
- 3A Containment Spray Pump
Failed due to a seized shaft
- 3A Emergency Containment Cooler (38 EGC) Running
3C Emergency Containment Cooler (3C ECC) Failed to auto start
- EOP-E-0 Reactor Trip or Safety Injection
Immediate actions complete
The STA informs you, as the §BO, that containment pressure is above the pressure foi
an ORANGE. path to EO$-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Pressure.
Which ONE of the following describes the action that must be performed and the
reason for this action?
A. Continue in E-0 and manually start the '38' and '3C' ECCs to ensure that
Containment pressure will not exceed equipment qualification envelopes.
5. Enter FR-Z.4 and manually start the '3C' ECC to ensure that Containment pressure
will not exceed equipment qualification envelopes.
CY Continue in E-Q and manually start the '36' ECC to ensure that Containment
pressure will not exceed Containment Design pressure.
D. Enter FR-Z.l and manually start the '36' EGG to ensure that Containment pressure
will not exceed Containment Design pressure.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:28
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; 3 ECC running exceeds the heat load of the CCW system and is
prohibited by procedures.
B - Incorrect; FW-Z.1 should not be entered until directed by E-0 at Step 27 for a
Faulted SiG. During a design basis LOCA without a Containment Spray pump running
it can not be ensured that Containment pressure will not exceed the equipment
qualification envelopes.
C ~ Correct; E-0 (approval date 2/22/02) Step 11 directs the operation of 2 ECC.
§5-029/SYS.053,055,056,057',058 dated I0/18/00, page 8. states, in part, that 2 of the
3 ECC could provide the heat removal capability to maintain post accident containment
temperature and pressure below the design values.
D - Incorrect; Status trees will indicate an ORANGE path on high containment pressure
(>20 psig). FR-Z.1 (approval date 2/22/02C) Step 10 directs the operation of 2 ECC.
However, FR-Z.l should not be entered until directed by E-0 at Step 27 for a Faulted
SIG.
Tuesday. January 06,2004
3:42:28 PM
31
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-307 Questions
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27. 026K4 04 001
Unit 3 experienced a LOCA. Operators have responded with the EOP network and
have just reset SI in E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. Containment pressure
subsequently exceeds 20 psig.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Containment Spray pumps
and their discharge MOVs?
A. Both Containment Spray pumps will start. Both MOV-880A & 5 will open.
B. Both Containment Spray pumps will start. Neither MQV-880A & B will open.
CY Neither Containment Spray pump will start. Both MOV-880A & 5 wilj open.
D. Neither Containment Spray pump will start. Neither MOV-880A & 5 will open.
Question Source: Turkey Point Question Bank Question # I .I
26.21.3.16,M
Distractor Analysis:
A, 5 & D - Incorrect; Spray pumps will not start and the MOVs will open.
C - Correct; The removal of the S signal through the reset of the SI signal takes the
signal away from the sequencers. Without the sequencer the CS pumps will not
receive a start signal solely from the containment high pressure P signal. DW6s
5610-T-bl sheet 31A; 5613-T-bl sheet 1 2 4 5610-T-h1 sheet 11.
Tuesday, January OB, 2004 3:42:29 PM
32
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
28. 027AG2.2.15 001
ONOP-041.5, Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunction, contains a caution prior to
Step 1 that states "The Master Controller should be operated carefully (Normal
controller output for 2235 psig is 42.5 percent demand; 92 percent demand will open
PCV-3-455C)."
Which ONE of the following describes why the Master Controller must be operated in
this fashion?
Pressurizer pressure does not affect the Master Controller's output when operating:
A. in MANUAL. Pressurizer pressure responds to the input to PCV-3455C.
B. in AUTO. Pressurizer pressure responds to the input to PCV-3-455C.
CY in MANUAL. Pressurizer pressure responds to the output demand of PC-3-4443.
D. in AUTO. Pressurizer pressure responds to the output demand of PC-3-444J.
~~~
Distractor Analysis:
C - Correct; PTN background document 3-BD-ONOP-041.5 stales that "The
Pressurizer Pressure Master Controller MANUAL M8BE is not related to system
pressure. Pressure follows the output demand of PC-3-444J. The controller must be
operated carefully to prevent inadvertently causing protective functions to actuate."
Reference: ONOP-041.5, CAUTION prior to Step 1 and PTN background document
3-BB-ONOP-041.5, Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunction.
Tuesday, Janualy 06, 2004 3:42:29 PM
33
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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29. 027AK2.03 001
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Unit 4 is operating at 90% power with all controls in Automatic.
PT-444 begins to drift down.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect this will have on PC-444J, Pressurizer
Pressure Master Controller, output, and the system response as a result of this failure?
PC-444J output will:
A,' decrease, pressurizer heaters output will increase, and actual RCS pressure will
increase.
B. increase, pressurizer heater output will lower, spray valves will open, and actual
RCS pressure will decrease.
C. increase, pressurizer heater output will increase,and actual RCS pressure will
increase.
B. decrease, pressurizer heater output will lower, spray valves will open, and actual
RCS pressure will decrease.
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~
~~~
Question Source: Turkey Point 2002-301 NRC Exam
bP 6902109 enabling objective # 6.
A. Correct, as PT-444 drifts down the master controller will attempt to raise pressure to
return it to setpoint, output will decrease, heaters will energize and actual RCS
pressure will rise.
B. Incorrect, PC-444J output will decrease, heater output will rise in an attempt to raise
RCS pressure.
C. Incorrect, controller output will decrease.
D. Incorrect, Pressurizer heater output will increase and actual RCS pressure will
increase.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
34
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
~~ 30. 027Kfi 01 001
~~
Which ONE of the following describes the design and purpose of the Emergency
Containment Filters (ECF)?
The ECF units contain ...
A,' both high efficiency particle filters and charcoal filters which remove iodine from the
Containment atmosphere post LQCA and provide cooling to the charcoal filters
while the iodine decays.
3. only high efficiency particle filters which remove 95% of all fission products from the
containment atmosphere post LOCA and provide cooling to the filters while the
fission products decay.
C. only charcoal filters which removes iodine from the containment atmosphere post
LQCA and provide cooling to the charcoal filters while the iodine decays.
5. both high efficiency particle filters and charcoal filters which remove iodine from the
containment atmosphere post LOCA and provide backup for containment spray
Containment pressure reduction.
-
B s t o r Analysis:
A - Correct; SD-029/SYS.053,055,056,059,058 dated 70/18/00, pages 16 and 17.
3 - Incorrect; The ECF do not contain only high efficiency particle filters and will not
remove all fission products from containment.
C - Incorrect; ECF units also contain high efficiency particle filters for elemental Iodine
removal.
D Incorrect; The ECFs are not backup for containment spray, containment spray is
backup for the loss of ECF fans.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
35
QUSTIQNS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
31. 0 2 8 ~ ~ 2
4 31 on1
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During operation at 100% reactor power, the following annunciators alarmed:
- A-8/4, PZR LO-LO LEVEL ALERT
- A-913, PZR CONTRQL HllLO LEVEL
- A-9/4. PZR LO LEVEhlHEATER CUTOFF1LTDN SECURED
The operator noticed that L[-459A, Pressurizer bevel instrument has failed low.
Pressurizer level is no longer on program.
Which ONE of the following describes the rewired actions.?
A. Place the CHANNEL SELECT PRESSURIZER LEVEL CQNTROL switch in the CH
1&2 position and restore letdown and heaters to service using ONOP-041.6,
Pressurizer Level Control Malfunction,
13."
Piace the CHANNEL SELECT PRESSURIZER LEVEL CONTROL switch in the CH
2&3 position and restore letdown and heaters to service using ONOP-041.6,
Pressurizer Level Control Malfunction.
C. Place the CHANNEL SELECT PRESSURIZER LEVEL CONTROL switch in the CH
1&3 position, and start additional charging pumps to restore pressurizer level.
D. Start additional charging pumps to restore pressurizer level and restore letdown
and heaters to service using ONOP-041.6, Pressurizer Level Control Malfunction,
and take action using ONOP-049.1, Deviation or Failure of Safety Related
Protection Channels.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
36
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Question Source: Modified from Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #I
.I
.25.54.1.1 ,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - incorrect; The failed channel is Channel I and must be deselected by placing the
Channel Select Pressurizer Level Control switch in a Dosition other than channel I.
B - Correct; Per the ARP for A-914, approval date 7/23/02, if problem is due to an
instrument failure LID and heaters are restored per ONOP-041 .e, and ONOQ-041.6
immediate action is to deselect the failed channel. Charging should back off and level
will restore to program.
C - Incorrect; The failed channel is Channel I and must be deselected by placing the
Channel Select Pressurizer Level Control switch in a position other than channel I.
Additional charging pumps should nbl be started since the failed low channel will result
in a level higher than program.
D - Incorrect; Pressurizer level will be higher than program for this event. Adding
additionat charging pumps fs an incorrect response when level is high.
Tuesday, January 06,2004
3:42:29 PM
37
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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32. 029A3.01 001
With a containment purge in progress the following events automatically happen:
~ Containment Purge supply and exhaust fans tripped.
- Containment Purge supply and exhaust valves shut.
Which ONE of the following could cause the above events?
A. Control Room HVAC Intake Hi Radiation, RAl 6643, in alarm.
B:' Manual initiation of Safety Injection.
6. Plant Vent Gas Monitor, channel R-14, in alarm.
B. Automatic Phase B Containment Isolation Signal.
Msdified from Turkey Point 2000-301 NWC exam.
Facility Enabling Objective EQ#6 of kP6902129
Distractor Analysis:
A - incorrect; Control Room HVAC alarm causes Control Room Ventilation Isolation but
does not cause Containment Ventilation Isolation.
B - Correct; Manual initiation of Safety injection will result in Containment ventilation
isolation actuation
C - Incorrect; Containment ventilation isolation actuates from Unit specific 8-1 1 and
8-12 not from the combined Unit 8-14 vent stack radiation monitor.
B - Incorrect; Containment ventilation isolation actuates only from manual push button
for Phase B
,
,
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Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:29
38
The following events occurred in the order shown:
I
- The crew is responding to an ATWS.
- FR-§.I, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS, has been entered.
- The RCO has started alignment for emergency boration per Step 4 of FR-S.1.
~ The RCO has taken the switch for MOV-350, Emergency Boration Valve, to
- The reactor is tripped and all rods fully insert.
- MOV-350 Valve Position Indication on the control board indicates GREEN.
OPEN.
Which ONE of the following describes the next action(s) required of the operators per
FR-S. 1 ?
A. Emergency boration is no longer required and the switch for MOV-350 should be
taken back to the CLOSED position.
B. Open HCV-121, Charging Flow to Regen Heat Exchanger, verify Loop A Charging
Isolation, CV-310A, is open and establish greater than 60 gpm boration flow on
Fl-7 10.
C' Open FCV-1138, Boric Acid to Biender, FCV-113E3, Blender Flow to Charging
Pump, and Manual Emergency Boration Valve, 3-356. Then close FCV-2 138.
8. Take the switch for MOV-350 back to CLOSE and dispatch an Operator to verify
the breaker to MOV-350 is closed and re-attempt to open MOV-350.
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BlstracKr Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Operators must continue in FR-S.2 even after the reactor is tripped.
E3 - Incorrect; These are the actions associated with MOV-350 indicating OPEN. The
VPI given in the stem is that of the valve still being SHUT.
C - Correct; MQV-350 VPI show that the system is not aligned for emergency boration.
These are the actions of FR-S.l (approval date 4/15/99) Step 4.d RNO. This lines up
the alternate boration flow path, which is required when MOV-350 will not operate.
B - Incorrect; MOV-350 has power to the motor as evident by the VPI. These actions
are not recognized by procedure.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
39
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
34. 029ECi2 1 7 001
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Unit 3 is at 100% reactor power when the following occurs:
- An RCS leak has caused Pressurizer pressure to decrease to 1950 psig.
- Power remains near 98% and efforts to manually trip the reactor ilre
unsuccessfu~.
The operators are performing Step 1 of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, when
Pressurizer level decreases to 10%.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct direction to give the crew?
A. Continue with E-0 and manually initiate SI.
7
B. Transition to FR-S.Z , Response to Nuclear Power GenerationlATWS and manually
initiate SI.
C. Continue with E-0 and BO NOT manually initiate SI.
(31 Transition to FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power GenerationlATWS and DO NOT
manually initiate SI. ~-
~-
~-
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Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #1 .3.26.46.1.7,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; SI actuation criteria per the E-0 foid out page is inability to maintain
greater than 10% pzr level, a crew transition to FR-S.l is required to mitigate the
ATWS .
B - Incorrect; The crew must immediately transition to FR-SI to mitigate the ATWS, the
foldout page criteria for E-0 no longer applies while in FR-S.l. FR-S.1 has no
instructions for manually initiating SI, only to verify SI equipment alignment per E-0 if an
SI signal occurs.
C - Incorrect; The crew must immediately transition to FR-S.1. If the crew remained in
E-0, no guidance is given to mitigate the ATWS.
D - Correct; The crew must immediately transition to FR-S.1. FR-S.1 has no
instructions for manually initiating SI, only to verify SI equipment alignment per E-0 if an
SI signal occurs. The E-Q foldout page criteria for initiating SI does not apply whiie in
FK-S.I.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
40
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
- __
____
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35. 032AKI 01 001
~
I&C just completed a surveillance on the high voltage power source to the Source
Range (Sa) nuclear instruments. I&C determined the voltage was 1800 Vdc, (200 Vdc
lower than the normal 2000 Vdc).
Which ONE of the following describes the effect (and the reason) this lower than
normal voltage has on SR nuclear instrument performance.
SR indication will ...
A. ... not be affected because the high voltage only suppiies power to the electronic
circuitry of the amplifier.
B. ... increase because the reduced voltage in the high voltage power supply results in
more ion pairs reaching the electrodes due to lower potential applied to the
detector.
C. ... decrease because smaller pulses are generated by the alpha decay of U235 and
gamma interactions.
5: ... decrease because the reduced voltage in the high voltage power supply results in
fewer ion pairs reaching the electrodes due to lower potential applied to the
detector.
Tuesday, Januaiy 06,2004
3:42:29 PM
41
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Question Source: Vogtle NRC Exam 2001-301
Bistractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Indicated power would decrease. The high voltage is set at 2000 Vdc in
the plateau of SD004 Figure 15 so that small variations in high voltage will not greatly
effect the count rate sensed by the detector. 200 Vdc decrease is not a small variation.
B - incorrect; Indicated would decrease because the fewer ions would be measured
due to the lower voltage.
6 - Incorrect; Pulses generated by the alpha decay are unaffected by the voltage,
measurement of those pulses is affected.
D - Correct; The high voltage is set at 2000 Vdc in the plateau of SB004 Figure 15 so
that small variations in high voltage will not greatly effect the count rate sensed by the
detector. 200 Vdc decrease is not a srnail variation i.e. Large enough to cause
annunciator B-4/3 to alarm under normal operation and require deselecting the affected
channel. The lower voltage places the detector lower on the Figure 15 curve showing
that the indicated count rate will be less than expected. SB-004, dated 4/14/02, Pages
23, 26, 27, 30 & Figure 15.
Tuesday. Janualy 06,
2004 3:42:29 PM
42
QU%:ST[ONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
36. 037AG2 1 20 RkPI ACE 001
___
~
The Unit is operating at 100% power. Intermediate Range channel N36 is tagged out
of service because of a power supply problem. Subsequently, IR channel N35 fails.
1&6 informs you that it will take approximately 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> or longer to fix N36.
Which ONE of the following action@) should be taken with respect to plant operation?
,
A. Do not change plant power level until at least one 18 channel is restored to
operable status.
B. Proceed to HOT STANDBY condition within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. The reactor must bc
shutdown under these circumstances.
C I Place the N35 IR channel LEVEL TRIP switch in the BYPASS position, and
continue normal plant power operations.
D. Verify the N35 la channel LEVEL TRIP switch in the NORMAL position, and
continue normal plant power operations.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; IR indication is not relied upon at this power level therefore not restrictions
on power level exist.
I3 - Incorrect; These are the actions set out in ONOP-059.7 however, these actions are
only applicable when below P-IO.
C - Correct; Actions in ONOP559.7 (approval date 3/26/83]
have the LEVEL TRIP
switch placed in the BYPASS position. Normal operation is not prohibited by the loss of
both 18 indications at this power level.
B - Incorrect; Even though power operation may continue, the drawer needs to be
taken 00s by placing its Level Trip Switch in BYPASS.
Tuesday, January 06.2004 3:42:29 PM
43
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
-
-~
37. 073'22 1.25 001
__ -
Which ONE of the following design features of the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling (SFPC)
system mitigates inadvertent draining of the Spent Fuel Pool?
A. All piping system openings, including pumps and valves, are located at or above
the top of the fuel assemblies.
B. The SFPC suction piping is provided with an anti-siphon hole.
C. The SFPC demineralizer water supply valve automatically opens on a SFP low level
alarm.
D I The SFPC discharge piping is provided with an anti-siphon hole.
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #I
.I
.24.F4.3.8,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; This will not mitigate the inadvertant draining of the SFP
B - Incorrect; The syphon break is not in the suction piping
C - Incorrect; This is the normal makeup source but the valve does not auto open on
lowering level in the SFP.
D - Correct; This design feature of having a 1/2 inch hole in the discharge piping
functions as a break to prevent the inadvertant syphoning of the water out of the SFP
should a leak develop in the SFPC system.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PPA
44
QUESTIONS REBQRP
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
38. o m 2 1.7 001
I
- -
~
Which ONE of the following is correct in accordance with procedure 3-ONOP-033.2,
Refueling Cavity Seal Failure?
This procedure will:
A. provide instructions for placing alternate cooling pumps in service to ensure levels
can be maintained.
3. instruct the operator to stop all fuel movement within the SFP in the event SFP lev
decreases below the siphon holes.
C. instruct engineering support to be required to re-establish an adequate flowpath fa
level restoration.
D I NOT allow irradiated fuel to be placed in the RCC change out baskets until an
engineering evaluation is completed.
~ _ _
Distractor analysis:
Bistractors A, B, and C were found in BD-ONOP-033.1, Spent Fuel Pit (SFP)
cooling
system Malfunction, Page 4.
D - Correct; In accordance with 3-BD-ONOP-833.2, Refueling Cavity Seal Failure, with
the present design of the refueling cavity and the RCC change out baskets, approx 12
inches of irradiated fuel would be above the terminal water level in the event of a
complete Reactor to refueling cavity seal failure, consequently irradiated fuel will not be
placed in the RCC change out baskets until an Engineering Evaluation has been
completed.
Reference: 3-BB-ONOP-033.2, Refueling Cavity Seal Failure: Page 3.
3-ONOP-033.2, Refueling Cavity Seal Failure, Page 4, BB-ONOP-033.1 I Page 4.
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:29 PM
45
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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39. 039K1 09 001
Which QNE of the following describes how the Main Steam bine radiation monitor,
DAM-1, can be used to identify a ruptured Steam Generator?
A:' The DAM-1 system monitors all six S/Gs simultaneously and has manual valves
that must be operated and the display checked.
5. The operator can access the DAM-1 and SPING-4 information through ERDADS to
I
determine the affected S/G, no local manipulation is necessary.
C. The affected Unit's DAM-1 system monitors the three SiGs simultaneously and has
manual valves that must be operated and the display checked.
D. The local display on DAM-1 can be checked since it has flow and radiation display
locally for each sample line, no local manipulation is necessary.
-
~
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; Per SD068/.SYS.066,067, dated 11/08/00, page 37 states that the DAM-1
has been installed as a common steam lime radiation monitor. Sample lines from all
six S/Gs run simultaneously through the detector. To identify a ruptured S/G, manual
isolation valves must be operated and the display checked.
5 - Incorrect; ERBADS does process the information from the DAM-7 and SPING-4.
The DAM-1 data displayed will show an elevated reading which will not identify the
affected SIG. The SPING-4 will most likely show an elevated reading for the affected
Units SJAE although this identifies the unit. it does not identify the SiG.
C - Incorrect; There is only one DAM-4 unit that monitors all six WGs.
D - Incorrect; At the DAM-? there is a local display that does show individual fiow for
each sample fine but only a common radiation display. The individual flow indication
will only verify that the SIGs are providing a sample flow to the DAM-1 detector.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
46
Which ONE of the following is a fundamental reason for keeping water out of the Main
Steam lines?
A. Water in the lines increases the corrosion and wear product buildup.
B. Water elimination decreases heat losses therefore increasing plant efficiency.
CY Water in the lines increases the possibility of detrimental water hammer.
B. Water elimination reduces the number of steam traps required.
Question
Turkey
-~
Point Exam Bank Question -~
- 1.1.24.11.3.11.M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Water buildup may cause increased corrosion and wear product although
will not be instrumental in the buildup.
I3 - Incorrect; Water build up will not have an appreaciable decrease in plant efficiency.
C - Correct; Water build up could cause water hammer affects that could range from
broken pipe hangers to Turbine blade impingement to pipe ruptures.
B - Incorrect; Steam traps are used to reduce the amount Water in the lines, Water
elimination is not used to reduce the number of traps required.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29
47
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
-
-
42. 040AA1 23 001
Unit 3 has experienced a steam line break outside of containment downstream of the
MSIVs. The crew unsuccessfully attempted to close the MSlVs in Step 13 of E-0,
Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
The SRO transitions to 2,
Faulted Steam Generator Isolation, and then to ECA-2 1
Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators.
The crew has just established feedwater flow to the Steam Generators using the 3 8
Main Feedwater Pump when the RCO reports the following update on Steam
Generator Pressures:
3A SIG
35 SIG
3 c SIG
PI-474 decreasing
PI484 stable
Pi-494 increasing
PI-475 decreasing
PI485 decreasing
PI-495 increasing
PI-476 decreasing
PI-486 stable
PI496 stable
Which ONE of the following describes the actions required?
A. Stay in ECA9.1.
B.' Return to 2
C. Transition to E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.
D. Transition to ES-0.0, Rediagnosis.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Foldout page criteria in ECA-2.1 states that any time that SI6 pressure
starts to increase then transition to E-2.
B - Correct; The stem puts the applicant in the begining steps of ECA-2.1, namely step
2. The foldout page criteria (approval date 4130102) for transferring to E-2 has been
satisfied and the recommendation should be for a transition.
C - Incorrect; This transition is made if any SIG level increases in an uncontrolled
manner. The stem has not indicated that level is increasing in an uncontrolled manner.
~~~~~
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D - Incorrect; There is no need to transition to rediagnosis since these indications are
clearly addressed in the foldout page of ECA-2.1.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
48
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
___
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42. 041.42 02 001
Given the following:
- Unit 3 is at 100% power.
- A failure in the steam dump control circuitry cause 'I steam dump to condense!
valve lo slowly open.
Which ONE of the following describes the approximate power level the plant could
reach, and what action@) will mitigate the event ?
Power could rise to approximately:
~
I
A. 103%.
Insert control rods to maintain power less than 100%.
B. 103%.
Reduce turbine load to maintain power less than 100%.
C. 107%.
Insert euntrol rods to maintain power less than 100%.
D I 109%.
Reduce turbine load to maintain power less than 100%.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Power level is too low. One SDTC valve has approx. 7% steam flow
capability. Additionally, the correct response to secondary induced power transients is
reduce turbine load per ADM-200.
B - Incorrect; Power level is too low. One SBTC valve has approx. 7% steam fiow
capability,
C - Incorrect; The correct response to secondary induced power transients is reduce
turbine load Der ADM-200.
B - Correct; One SBTC valve has approx. 7% steam flow capability. Additionally, the
correct response to secondary induced power transients is reduce turbine load pel'
ADM-200.
Reference: 0-ADM-200, Section 5.6.8.27. SD-105, Steam Bump System, Page 107
Tuesday. January 06.2004 3:42:29 PM
49
QUESTIONS RPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
43. 041.42 - 03 001
Unit 3 has experienced a loss of Instrument Air.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct operation of the Unit 3 Steam Bump
to Atmosphere valves?
Operate the Steam Dump to Atmosphere valve controllers in ....
A! MANUAL only. If operated in AUTO, the valves will remain closed.
B. MANUAL only. If operated in AUTO, the valves will fail open.
C. AUTO only. If operated in MANUAL, the valves will remain closed
D. AUTO only. If operated in MANUAL, the valves will fail open.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; SDTA valves lose their pressure input as as air pressure drops to the PT
providing the signal. In AUTO, the valve controllers would see lower than actual
pressure resulting in the valves remaining closed if left in AUTO. Reference:
0-ONOP-013, FO Page Item #I. 5613-M-3013, Sheet 4 Zones A6 & A8
3 - Incorrect; If left in AUTO, the valves would remain closed, not fail open. Plausible,
because the procedure directs the SDTA valves be operated in MANUAL only.
C - Incorrect: the procedure directs the SDTA valves be operated in MANUAL only.
Plausible because the failure mode of the SDTA valves is failed closed and the
controller has nitrogen backup and will still function.
D - Incorrect; the procedure directs the SDTA valves be operated in MANUAL only.
Plausible because the controller has nitrogen backup and will still function.
I
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Tuesday. January 06,
2004 3:42:29 PM
50
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-304 Questions
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44. 051AG2 2 2 001
Unit 4 startup is in progress following a refueling outage. The turbine load was being
increased per GOP-301, Hot Standby to Power Operation, when Annunciator E-5/3,
CONDENSER LO VACUUM, alarmed.
Both sets of SJAE's are in service and the hogging jet is in service. Turbine load is
currently at 300 MWe and condenser vacuum is 24 inches Hg and stable.
Which ONE of the following actions should be taken by the crew to respond to this
event?
A. Secure from the load increase and immediately start reducing load per GOP-103,
Power Operation to Hot Standby.
5. Secure from the load increase, stabilize the plant at the current power level, and
monitor condenser vacuum.
C. Monitor condenser vacuum and continue with the load increase.
D:' Trip the reactor and turbine and perform the immediate actions of EOP-E-0,
Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
___
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__
Bistractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; These are the actions that wouid be performed if the condenser vacuum
was in the operating range of ONOP-014, Enclosure 1 and vacuum stibl decreasing with
the hogging jet in service.
B - Incorrect; These are the actions that would be performed if the condenser vacuum
was in the operating range of ONOP-014, Enclosure 1.
C - Incorrect; The load increase should be stopped. Increasing load at this point on the
ONOP-014 Endosure 1 graph will increase the allowable vacuum.
D - Correct; The 24 inches of Hg places the condenser vacuum in the do not operate
range of ONOP-014, Enclosure 1 graph. Per ONOP-014 (approval date 10/10/00) Step
5.4.
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:29 PM
51
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-3Q1 Questions
45. 054AKl 01 001
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~
Unit 3 experienced an event 2 minutes ago and the following conditions now exist:
- Reactor power is 100% and stable.
- RCS Tavg is at normal operating temperature and STABLE.
- RCS pressure is at normal operating pressure and STABLE.
- Containment pressure is LNCREASING.
The following conditions now exist on Unit 3 Steam Generators:
"A"
"B"
T'
Steam Flow
STABLE
STABLE
STABLE
Feed Flow
PEGGED HIGH STABLE
STABLE
Pressure
STABLE
STABLE
STABLE
Level
DECREASING
STABLE
STABLE
Which ONE of the following events is in progress?
A. 3A Feed Flow indicator has failed HIGH.
B.' Main Feed Line break INSIDE containment.
C. Main Steam Line break INSIDE containment.
D. 3A Main Feedwater Regulating valve has failed OPEN.
Question Source: Farley NRC Exam 2001-301
__
___
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__
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~~
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Containment pressure is increasing.
5 - Correct; All indications support this conclusion.
C - Incorrect; Tavg is stable.
B - Incorrect; Containment pressure is increasing and S/G level is decreasing.
Tuesday, Janualy 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
52
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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46. 055EA2.03 001
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Unit 3 is experiencing a Loss of All AC Power. The crew is performing the actions of
ECA-0.0, Loss of All AC Power. The operators have been unable to restore power.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions required for the safeguards
equipment and why?
A. The control switches for the safeguards equipment are placed in Pull-to-Lock to
prevent the possibility of an uncontrolled cooldown and depressurization of the RCS
when power is restored.
B.'
The control switches for the safeguards equipment are placed in Pull-to-Lock to
prevent a potential bus overload when power IS restored.
C. The control switches for the safeguards equipment are verified to be in automatic
alignment on the 4KV bus(es) that get power back so if SI is required, it will occur
without operator action.
B. The control switches for the safeguards equipment for ONE train are placed in
Pull-to-hock and the control switches for the other train are verified to be in
automatic. This ensures alignment for injection without operator action.
-~~ - -~
- - _ _ -
- -
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The action is correct but the reason is incorrect.
B - Correct; Operators are required to place the control switches for the safeguards
equipment in Pull-to-Lock (ECA-0.0 (approval date2/22/02) Step 1 a ) to prevent the auto
starting on a possible weak power source (ECA-0.0 Basis Document). This action
permits the operator to evaluate the status of the restored 4Kv bus and sequence loads
onto the bus consistant with bus status and plant conditions.
C - Incorrect; This action has the potential to overload the energized 4 Kv bus when
power is restored consequently complicating the mitigation efforts.
D
s Incorrect; both trains of safeguards equipment are placed in Pull-to-hock.
Tuesday. January 06,2004
3:42:29 PM
53
QUSTIQNS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
47.
055kG2 4 22 titi1
_ _ ~
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Unit 4 is operating at 100% power with the 4A EDG out of service when the fallowing
sequence of events occur:
- The operators respond to an ATWS using FR-S.1, "Response to Nuclear
- The reactor trips due to a loss of off-site power.
-The 4B EDG locks out and cannot be restarted.
Power Generation/ATWS."
Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response?
A. Complete the actions of FR-S.l and then go to ECA-0.0, "boss of A!l AC Power.
Power will be restored to a 4KV bus using the appropriate QNQP upon completion
of ECA-0.0.
B. Complete the actions of FW-S.1 and then go to ECA-0.0, "Loss of AI& AC Power."
Power will be restored to a 4KV bus using the appropriate QNQP while performing
the actions of ECA-0.0.
C. Stop performance of FR-S.1 and immediately go to ECA-0.0, "Loss of All AC
Power." Power will be restored to a 4KV bus using the appropriate BNQP upon
completion of ECA-0.0.
D I Stop performance of FR-S.1 and immediately ga to ECA-0.0, "Loss of All AC
Power." Power will be restored to a 4KV bus using the appropriate ONQP while
performing the actions of ECA-0.0.
__
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-~
__
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # I .I
.26.20.5.3,M
Distractor Anaiysis:
A ~ Incorrect; FR-S.Z assumes at least one emergency 4KV bus has power. When both
busses are deenergized, ECA-0.0 takes precedence over FR-S.1. Operators should
not wait until completion of ECA-0.0 to repower a bus.
E - Incorrect; FR-S.1 assumes at least one emergency 4KV bus has power. When both
busses are deenergized, ECA-0.0 takes precedence over FR-S.1.
C - Incorrect; Operators should not wait until completion of ECA-0.0 to repower a bus.
D - Correct; ABM-21 1 (approval date 8/17/00), step 5.1.2 and step 5.13.2 first example;
and ECA-0.0 (approval date 2/22/02), step 'I 0 RNQ.
Tuesday. January 06,2004
3:42:29 PM
54
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
~
48. 056AA1 24 001
~
Unit 4 has lost off-site power and is maintaining MODE 3 steady-state conditions.
Which ONE of the following is an indication that Natural Circulation is successfully
occurring in the WCS?
A. WCS subcooling indication is decreasing.
El. S/G pressure indications are increasing.
CY Core Exit thermocouple temperatures are decreasing
5. RCS hot leg temperatures are increasing.
Qblestion Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # 1 .I
.26.23.3.11 ,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Subcooling indication should not be decreasing.
E - Incorrect; S/G pressure should not be increasing.
C - Correct; Obvious sign of natural circulation is the CEB displaying a decreasing
trend.
D - Incorrect; Hot leg temperatures should not be increasing.
Tuesday. Janualy 06,2004 3:42:29 PIW
55
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
49. 056C~2 I 2 001
__
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___
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Which ONE of the following describes the purpose and function of the Seal Water to
the Condensate Pump(s) and when operators must ensure it is in service?
A. Provides a seal between the atmosphere and the vacuum in the condenser which
prevents air introduction into the condenser and is required to be in service only
when a condensate pump is in service.
B. Serves to iubricate the seal faces and the upper condensate pump bearings to
prevent excessive wear and is required to be in service only when a condensate
pump is in service.
C. Serves to lubricate the seal faces and the upper condensate pump bearings to
prevent excessive wear and provides a seal to prevent the introduction of air into
the condensate system which could cause condensate pump cavitation and is
required to be in service any time there is a vacuum in the condenser, a
condensate pump is running and the pump discharge valve is open.
8: Provides a seal between the atmosphere and the vacuum in the condenser which
prevents air introduction into the condenser, it also serves Lo lubricate the seal
faces and the upper condensate pump bearings to prevent excessive wear and is
required to be in service any time there is a vacuum in the condenser and the pump
suction valve is open.
~~
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; This is a correct reason for the system however, when it is required to be
in service is incorrect. If a vacuum exists in the condenser and the suction valve is
open the seal water must be in service regaurdless of weather the pump is running
B - incorrect; This is a correct reason for the system however, when it is required to be
in service is incorrect.
C - Incorrect; It does not prevent air intro into the condensate system, it will not result in
pump cavitation. If a vacuum exists in the condenser and the suction valve is open the
seal water must be in service regaurdless of weather the pump is running or the
discharge valve is open.
D - Correct; The seal water system provides for both the functions and is fundamental
to prevent the air introduction into the condenser. SDI 12/SYS.073,074 dated 4/10/00,
Page 10.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:29 PM
56
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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50. 057M2 19001
Unit 3 is at 100% power with all systems in normal alignment when 120V Vital
Instrument panel 3P09 loses power.
In the absence of operator response, which ON of the following describes the
response of Unit 3 S/G narrow range levels?
A. 3A S/G: Trending toward program level
38 S/G: Lowering Uncontrollably
3C S/G: Trending toward program level
8.' 3 8 S/G: Trending toward program level
3B SIG: Rising klncontrollably
3C SIG: Trending toward program level
C. 3A SIG: Rising Uncontrollably
3B SIG: Trending toward program level
3C S/G: Trending toward program level
D. 3A SIG: Lowering Uncontrollably
38 SIG: Trending toward program level
3C S/G: Trending toward program level
Distractor Analysis:
A ~ Incorrect; 38 S/G level will be rising uncontrollably due to the cyclic runback
induced by the failure.
B - Correct; 38 S/G level will be rising uncontrollably due to the cyclic runback induced
by the failure. 3A and 3C S/G levels will remain at 60% (unaffected by the failure).
C - Incorrect; 3A S/G level will be stable at 60% and 3B level will be rising
uncontrollably.
B - Incorrect; 3A S/G level will be stable at 60% and 38 level will be rising
uncontrollably.
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:30 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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51. 058AA2 0; IN1
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Unit 3 is at 100% power. A loss of BC Bus 3D01 occurs. OR-site power is still
available.
Which ONE of the following wilt occur as a result of the loss of 3D01 BC Bus?
A. Loss of AFW pump 'C' control and protection.
B.' All Main Steam Isolation Valves will close.
C. The 38 Emergency Diesel Generator will lose BC ~ O W ~ F .
B. All Safeguards actuation will be lost.
Question Source: Modified from Turkey Point Exam Ba&QuesCon # I .I
.25.53.2.1 ,M
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; This would be a result of a loss of the 3823 DC bus.
B - Correct; Per ONQP-003.4 (approval date 1/21/99) Section 3.0. As a result of the
loss of the DC power source 3D01~
MSlVs Channel A air solenoid valves de-energize.
This lost load will result in the C ~ O S U F ~
of the MSIVs.
C - Incorrect; 3B EDG will remain operable. 38 ED6 DC power is supplied by the
3B23 DC bus.
B - Incorrect; Safegaurds actuation train B is supplied from the 3D23 BC bus.
Tuesday. January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
5a
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
~
52. 059K4.16 001
~~
Which ONE of the following conditions will result in a Main Feedwater pump trip?
A. " A Main Feedwater pump will trip if the lube oil pressure decreases to 7 psig
B. "A" and "3" Main Feedwater pumps will trip on a wide range SIG HI level trip signal
of 93%.
C. "B" Main Feedwater pump will trip if suction pressure decreases to 250 psig for 9 5
seconds .
BY "A" Main Feedwater pump will trip if a loss of voltage condition occurs on " A
41 60Kv bus.
~~
___
Question Source: North Anna NRC Exam 2002-301
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; trip at 3 psig
B - Incorrect; trip on narrow range at 80%
C - Incorrect; trip at suction press of <200 psig for 9 5 secs
D - Correct; SB 112/SYS.073,074 dated 4/10/00 Pages 16, 19 & 20
Tuesday. January 06,2004 3:42:30 Phil
59
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
- -~
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53. 061A1 01 001
I
I
Unit 4 has experienced a loss of feedwater at 100% reactor power which resulted in a
reactor trip. The transient has also resulted in a break in the RCS which has caused
Containment temperature to increase to 185 OF. The crew is performing the actions of
E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
The crew has experienced problems with controlling Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) flow
and have one AFW pump running. Operators are working to get a second AFW pump
running. The crew has initiated the monitoring of Critical Safety Functions using F-O,
Critical Safety Function Status Trees.
Which ONE of the following describes when the limits for establishing bleed and feed
cooling have been reached?
A. Narrow range level in any Steam Generator drops below 32% with AFW flow less
than 345 gpm to that Steam Generator.
3. Wide range level in any Steam Generator drops below 22% with AFW flow less
than 345 gpm to that Steam Generator.
CY Narrow range level in all Steam Generators drops below 32% with total AFW Row
less than 345 gpm.
D. Wide range level in all Steam Generators drops below 22% reguardless of AFW
flow.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Bistractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Narrow range level must be below 32% in all SlGs with total AFW flow
less than 345 gpm.
5 - Incorrect; Wide range level in any S/G less than 22% with total AFW flow less than
345 gprn.
C - Correct; With narrow range level in all S/G less than 32% and total AFW flow less
than 345 gprn without the ability to immediately restore it then F&B must be established
to prevent exceeding the design limits of the core. The condition of having narrow
range level in all SlGs less than 32% coupled with total AFW flow less than 345 gpm
under adverse containment conditions (>I80 OF) will force the entry into FR-H.l
FR-H.l (approval date 4/30/02) caution prior to step 2 supported by the basis
document for FW-H.1.
B - Incorrect; The criteria for F&B is not contingent only on S/G level, but also AFW
flow.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
61
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
54. 061AA2.05 001
r
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Unit 3 is in a refueling outage, currently performing refueling operations, when
containment radiation Area Monitor Rl-3-1402B reaches 12 mremlhr. The RCO
identifies the alarming channel on ARMS Panel 8-30,
Which ONE of the following describes the correct priority of operator response?
A. 1) Notify HP to survey the area.
2) Using the page, notify personnel to clear the area.
3) Confirm validity of the alarm by pressing the HIGH alarm PB on Panel 8-30,
B. 1) Confirm validity of the alarm by pressing the HIGH alarm PB on Panel R-30.
2) Using the page, notify personnel to clear the area.
3) Notify HP to survey the area.
C. 1) Using the page, notify personnel to dear the area.
2) Confirm validity of the alarm by pressing the HIGH alarm PB on Panel R-30.
3) Notify HP to survey the area.
B I I)
Using the page, notify personnel to clear the area.
2 ) Notify HP to survey the area.
3) Confirm validity of the alarm by pressing the HIGH alarm PB on Panel R-30.
___
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__
__
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Highest priority is to warn personnel in the area.
B - Incorrect; Highest priority is to warn personnel in the area.
C - Incorrect; HP should be notified prior to confirming the validity of the alarm.
D - Correct; Per the immediate actions of 3-QNOP-066, Steps 4.1-5.1, approval date
4/21/98
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30
62
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
~~~~~~~~~~~~~
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55. 061K6.02 001
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Which ONE of the foliowing would be a consequence of fire involving the " A Auxiliary
Feedwater (AFW) pump, rendering it inoperable?
A. Unit 3 safe shutdown capability would be compromised because there would be
inadequate AFW flow for decay heat removal.
B.' Unit 3 safe shutdown capability would NOT be compromised because adequate
AFW flow would remain available for decay heat removal.
C. Both Standby Feedwater pumps must be verified operable within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> and Unit 3
must be placed in Mode 3 within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> for compliance with Technical
Specification action requirements.
B. Unit 3 would be required to be in at least Mode 3 in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> and in Mode 4 within
the following 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> for compliance with Technical Specification action
requirements.
Distractor Analysis:
A ~ Incorrect; Fire only effects that pump, 2 AFW pumps remain operable which is
adeauate for heat removal needs.
B - Correct; 2 AFW pumps remain operable which is adequate for heat removal needs.
C - Incorrect; These are the actions for both trains of AFW being affected. Niether train
is inoperable according to Table 3.9-3 of TS section 3.7 for Auxiliary Feedwater
System.
D - Incorrect; These are the TS actions for a single train being affected.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
63
QLIESVIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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56. 06ZAI 01
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OOI
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With both units initially at 100% power, operators were forced to evacuate the control
room. Bath units are stable in Mode 3 with all initial actions of ONOQ-105, Control
Room Evacuation, having been completed successfully.
All sequencers have been disabled.
A loss of offsite power occurs.
Which ON of the following describes the required operator actions PRIOR to closing
the '3B' Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) breaker?
A. At the EDG panel 3C12B, the EDG Master Control switch must be placed to
NORMAL.
B. At the EDG panel 3C12B, the EDG Synchronizing switch must be placed in OFF.
C. At the Alternate Shutdown Panel, transfer switches for the '38' 4Kv bus loads and
associated Load Center loads must be placed in REMOTE.
B I At the Alternate Shutdown Panel, control switches for the '35' 4Kv bus loads and
associated Load Center loads must be placed in STOPTTRIP.
~
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # I .T .25.52.4.22,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect because the EDG Master Control Switch is not placed in NORMAL.
B - Incorrect because the ED6 Sync switch will be placed in ON, not OFF.
C - Incorrect because the transfer wwitches at the ASP are placed in LOCAL, not
REMOTE.
D - Correct; Per ONOQ-I05 (approval date 4/24/02) Attachment 1, NOTE prior to Step
8 this action must be performed to prevent EDG failure.
Tuesday. January 06; 2004 3:42:30 PM
64
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
57. 062A3.04 001
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A Vital Instrument inverter developed a fault that caused auto-transfer. After the
transfer, the fault immediately cieared.
Which ONE of the following describes the automatic operation of the inverter?
(Assume the RETRANSFER switch is in its normal position)
The AUTOMATIC STATIC TRANSFER switch transferred the load to the ....
A. CVT. The load must be manually transferred back to the NORMAL inverter.
B. SPARE inverter. The load must be manually transferred back to the NORMAL
inverter.
C!' CVT and automatically transferred back to the NORMAL inverter.
B. SPARE inverter and automatically transferred back to the NORMAL inverter.
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question M.7.24.39.6.3,M
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Bistractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The load will transfer to the CVT but will not have to be manually
transferred back since this will happen automatically.
B - incorrect: The load will transfer to the CVT not the SPARE inverter.
C - Correct; The ioad will automatically transfer to the CVT when the fault occurs and
will automatically transfer back to its preferred normal source when the fault clears. SD
144/(SYS.Q03) dated 2/3/03, Pages 16, 19 & 20.
I
- Incorrect; The load will transfer to the CVT not the SPARE inverter
Tuesday, January 06.2004 3:42:30 PM
65
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
58. 062AK3 03 001
~
All AC power was lost on Unit 4 and subsequently restored to one 4Kv bus. The crew
has made a transition to ECA-0.2, boss of All AC Power Recovery With SI Kequired.
Which ONE of the following describes the operator action(s) contained in ECA-0.2 with
regards to safeguards equipment?
Operator actions in accordance with ECA-0.2 will:
A. cause the sequencer to load on the SI equipment in the proper order.
3. manually start safeguards equipment in the same order as would the sequencer
C. verify proper safeguards equipment lineup using E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety
Injection.
8: manually start ICW and CCW pumps first to provide cooling to the other safeguards
equipment prior to their operation.
-~
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #4.f.26.50 3.1 .M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; ECA-0.2 actions do not setup for sequencer activation.
B - Incorrect; The actions to start equipment in ECA-0.2 are not in the same order as
the sequencer.
C ~ Incorrect; ECA-0.2 provides its own guidance in this area
D
~ Correct; Per ECA-0.2 (approval date 2/22/02) steps 5 & 6.
Tuesday. January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
66
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
59. 063K3 02 001
Which ONE of the following identifies the AFW steam supply MOVs that may be
deenergized in the event of a loss of vital DC power?
A. MOV-1403, 38 Stm Supply tu Aux Feedwater Pumps
MOV-1404, 3B Stm Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
MOV-1405, 36 Stm Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
B. MOV-2404, 38 Stm Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
MOV-I405,3C Stm Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
CY MOV-1403,3A Stm Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
MOV-I405,3C Strn Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
D. MOV-I403,3A Stm Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
MOV-1404, 3B Stm Supply to Aux Feedwater Pumps
Question Sourck: Turkey Point 2000-301 NR6 Exam
Distractor Analysis:
A, I3 & D - Incorrect; MOV-1404 power supply is from 30833 AC power source
C - Correct; BKR 4301-28 off 4D0? 225 Volt Vital DC> powers MOV-1403
BKR 3D01-27 off 3D01 125 Volt Vital DC, powers MOV-1405
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
67
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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60. 064.43 07 001
Which ONE of the following describes the sequencer operation if an Si actuation
occurs while the sequencer is sequencing on boss of Off-site Power (LOOP) loads?
A. The sequencer opens then re-closes the DG output breaker and subsequently
loads all SI and LOOP equipment.
El. The LOOP signal will lock uut the SI signal and no additional SI equipment is
loaded.
Cy The sequencer resets and then sequences all SI and LOOP equipment.
B. SI mode sequence begins after the LOOP sequence times out and then the
additional SI equipment is loaded.
~
Question Source: Turkey Point Question Bank # 1.1.24.57.c23, M
Bistractor Analysis:
A ~ Incorrect; Sequencer will not open the DG output bkr
B - Incorrect; The LOOP will not result in a lock-out of the SI signal
C - Correct; Per SBISO/SYS.024 dated 7/24/00 pages 14,17, & 18
D - Incorrect; This occurs after the sequencer is complete, the stem states that the
sequencer is sequencing.
Tuesday, Januaty 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
68
~
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0-ONOP-013, Loss of Instrument Air, states to Determine the Actual Instrument Air
A. If either unit is experiencing symptoms of a loss of Instrument Air AND system
pressure reaches 95 psig and is still decreasing, trip the affected unit's reactor and
start the temporary diesel air compressor.
E%. If Instrument Air pressure reaches 95 psig and is still decreasing OR the available
Instrument Air compressor(s) islare unable to restore pressure, then trip the
affected unit(s).
C. If Instrument Air pressure cannot be maintained above 90 psig AND nitrogen
backup systems cannot be maintained, then trip the affected unit(§).
DY If tnstrument Air pressure reaches 65 psig and is still decreasing AND the available
Instrument Air Compressor(s) is/are unable to restore pressure, then trip the
affected unit@).
Reference: 0-ONOP-013, Loss of Instrument Air, Page%.
Maintain Instrument Air pressure greater thatn 65 psig on Fl-*-1444 (VPA). If pressure
is less that 65 psig AND the available Instrument Air Compressor(s) is/are unable to
restor pressure, THEN trip the affected unit(§) and enter 34-EOP-E-0 while continuing
with this procedure.
Instrument Air pressure less that 95 psig then dispatch an operator the check operation
of Instrument Air Compressor After Coolers. If the cooler is not operating properly,
THEN place the other unit's Instrument Air Compressorjs) in service.
Tuesday, January 06,2004
3:42:30 PM
69
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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62. 064AA2.13 001
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Unit 3 is at 108% power when an alarm is received on the fire panel for the Auxiliary
Transformer. Subsequently annunciators F514, AUX TRANSFORMER PANEL
TROUBLE and 16/6 XFMR HYDROGEN SEAL OIL DELUGE OPERATING, alarm.
Investigation reveals a major fire on the Unit 3 Auxiliary Transformer.
Which ONE' of the following actions should be directed by the NPS?
A,' Transfer loads to the Startup Transformer, shutdown rapidly using QNOP-100, Fast
Load Reduction.
B. Remain on the Auxiliary Transformer, commence a shutdown using GO$-103,
Power Operation to Hot Standby.
C. Transfer loads to the Startup Transformer, commence a shutdown using GOP-103,
Power Operation to Hot Standby.
D. Remain on the Auxiliary Transformer> parallel the '3A and '36'
Emergency Diesel
Generators to their respective buses for backup power. Shutdown rapidly using
ONOP-100, Fast Load Reduction.
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Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #1 .I
.25.22.3.3,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; IAW ONOP-092.2, Auxiliary Transformer Malfunction, loads should be
transferred off of the burning transformer and a fast load reduction performed.
ONOP-092.2, approval date 4/14/00, Steps 1 and 44.
B - Incorrect; Load should be transferred off of the burning transformer. The plant
should be shutdown using the fast load reduction vice slowly shutting down per
GOQ-1 03.
C - Incorrect; The plant should be shutdown using the fast load reduction vice slowly
shutting down per GOP-103.
D - Incorrect; Load should be transferred off of the burning transformer,
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
70
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
63. 067AK1.02 001
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There is a fire in the hydrogen generator cooling system. Initial fire fighting efforts
caused the Fire Main header pressure to drop to 81 p i g . The Fire Main pressure
slowly increased and has subsequently stabilized at 87 psig.
Which ONE of the following describes the current status of the fire pumps?
A. The Diesel Fire pump auto started and the Electric Fire pump remained in standby.
B. The Electric Fire pump auto started, then the Diesel Fire pump auto started.
6' The Electric Fire pump auto started and the Diesel Fire pump remained in standby.
D. The Diesel Fire pump auto started, then the Electric Fire pump auto started.
Question Source: Modified from Vogtle NWCExam 2002-301 and Turkey Point Exam
Bank Question #I
.I
.24.43.5.17,M
~
_ _
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The Riesel Fire pump does not auto start until pressure drops to between
70 and 80 psig. Fire main pressure never decreased to this setpoint.
B - Incorrect; The Electric Fire pump would have started since it receives an auto start
signal when fire main pressure drops to between 80 and 88 psig. The Riesel Fire pump
would not have auto start until pressure drops to between 70 and 80 psig. Fire main
pressure never decreased to this setpoint.
C - Correct; The Electric Fire pump would have started since it receives an auto start
signal when fire main pressure drops to between 80 and 88 psig.
SB159/SYS.016,019,091 dated 6/9/03 Pages 17 & 18.
D - Incorrect; The Diesel Fire pump would not have auto start until pressure drops to
between 70 and 80 psig. Fire main pressure never decreased to this setpoint.
Tuesday, Janualy 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
71
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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64. 071K1.06 001
~-
A release is in progress from Waste Gas Decay Tank 'A'. A loss of Instrument bus
3P08 occurs.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect that this failure will have on the Waste
Gas discharge in progress?
(Assume all systems operate normally.)
RCV-014, Waste Disposal System Gas Decay Tank Discharge valve, will ....
A. automatically close due to loss of power resulting in the trip of the Auxiliary Building
exhaust fans.
B.' automatically close due to loss of power to $i?M%?-l4, Plant Vent Gas Monitor.
0.
have to be manually closed since the loss of power resulted in the loss of automatic
protection from PWMS-R-14, Plant Vent Gas Monitor.
D. have to be manually closed since the loss of power resulted in the loss of power to
the Waste Boron Recycle Panel.
Question Source: Modified from Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # I .I
25.60.3.19,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The loss of power to the 3P08 Instrument bus will not resu[t in the tripping
of the Aux Bldg Exh fans however, if the fans did trip it would result in the closure of
RCV-014.
B - Correct; boss of the 3P08 Instrument bus results in the loss of power to the R-14
monitor which results in the automatic closure of RCV-014.
C - Incorrect; WCV-044 will automatically shut if all systems operate normally.
Automatic protection from R-14 does occur this is why RCV-014 will automatically
close.
B - incorrect; RCV-014 will automatically shut if all systems operate normally.
Tuesday. January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
72
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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65. 073K5.01 001
The Waste Disposal Liquid release line radioactivity monitor PRMS (R-28) uses
a
and causes
when its high radiation alarm setpoint is
reached
A. G-M tube; Liquid Effluent Discharge valve, WCV-18, to automatically close
3.
G-M tube; no automatic action
Cy Scintillation detector; Liquid Effluent Discharge valve, RCV-18, to automatically
close
B. Scintillation detector; no automatic action
Question Source: Modified from Turkey Point Exam Bank Questions #I
.I
.24.68.6.24,M
& #I
.I
.24.68.6.13.M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Wrong detector type.
5
~ Incorrect; Wrong detector type and incorrect action.
C - Correct; Per SD068/SYS.066,067 dated 11/08/00, pages 29 & 38
D - Incorrect; Wrong action
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
73
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
66.
071FG2 4 16 001
__
Unit 3 has experienced a reactor trip and safety injection due to a Large Break Loss of
Coolant Accident (LOCA).
The following complications have occurred:
-Three control rods have failed to fully insert.
- Only the 'A' AFW pump has started and problems with its turbine is limiting
- Containment Spray pumps have failed to start.
- The crew has been able to get only one Emergency Containment Cooler unit
feedwater flow.
running.
The crew is at Step 22 of E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, for verifying proper
AFW flow, preparing to transition to FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat
Sink, per the Step 22 RNO.
The STA reports the following Critical Safety Function status per FR-F.0, Criticai Safety
Function Status Trees:
- Subcriticality is ORANGE
- Core Cooling is RED
- Heat Sink is RE5
- Containment ks RED
Which ONE of the following is the correct procedure to implement based on the above
information?
A. FR-S.l, Response to Nuclear Power GeneratiodATWS, based on the Subcriticality
ORANGE path.
3.'
FR-C.l Response to Inadequate Core Cooling, based on the Core Cooling RED
path.
C. FR-H.1 based on the Heat Sink RED path and the direction from E-0 Step 22 RNO.
D. FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure, based on the Containment RED
path.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The 3 rods stuck out gives credence to this distractor however, IAW
FR-F.0 ORANGE paths do not have priority over RED paths
B - Correct; FR-F.0 hierarchy states that the RED path on core cooling takes
precidence.
C - Incorrect; The trouble in the AFW system gives credence to this distractor along
with E-0, Step 22 RNO. IAW FR-F.0, RED paths require the immediate stopping of the
procedure in effect and initiating the functional recovery procedure.
D - incorrect; The problems with the containment spray and ECC add credence to this
distractor however, IAW FR-F.0 the RE5 path on containment pressure does not have
priority over the core cooling R E 5 path.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
~ 67. O%A? 01 001
~~
Unit 3 is at 100% power with the '3C' 1CW Pump out of service. Annunciator E-2/2,
TURB BEARING HI TEMP, is in alarm.
The SNPO reports a massive grass influx has resulted in ICW/CCW and ICWITPCW
basket strainer clogging.
The following conditions exist:
- Component Cooling Water heat exchanger outlet temperature is currently
- Turbine bearing temperatures are 181 OF and slowly increasing.
- '3A and '3B'
TPCW heat exchangers are at 4200 gpm ICW flow.
- 'SA', '3B, and '36' CCW heat exchangers are at 3000 gpm ICW flow each.
118 O F and stable.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions that should be taken due to the
above conditions?
A,' Trip the reactor and turbine and enter EOP-EO, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
B. Reduce turbine load as necessary to return temperatures within normal bands and
implement ONOP-011, Screen Wash System/Bntake Malfunction.
C. Increase cooling water flow to the turbine lube oil cooler to reduce bearing
temperatures and implement ONOP-01 I,
Screen Wash Systemllntake Malfunction.
D. Enter into Technical Specification 3.0.3 and commence a reactor shutdown per
GOP-103, Power Operation to Hot Standby.
Distractor Analysis:
A = Correct; Conditions on the turbine bearing are degrading and the Annunciator -2/2
trip criteria for has been met due to bearing temperatures unable to be maintained
below 180 OF.
B - Incorrect; Correct action if temperature problem was with the TPCW and
maintainable below 180 OF.
C - Incorrect; This is the action to reduce the turbine bearing temperature and should
be initiated if the temperature were able to be maintained less than the trip criteria.
D: Incorrect, Correct for total flow of ICW dropping below minimum flow rate of 12,400
gpm for more than 5 minutes.
76
Tuesday. January 06, 2004 3:42:30 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
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68. 076K4.02 001
I
Unit 3 is at 100% power. The 'B' Intake Cooling Water (ICW) pump breaker is racked
out when an SI signal occurs.
I
Which ON of the following describes the ICW pumps that will receive an automatic
start signal?
A. 'A only.
B. 'C'only.
C. 'A and 'C' if the 'D' bus is aligned to 'A bus.
D? 'A and 'C' if the '8'
bus IS aligned to 'B' bus.
Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question # I .I
.24.54.6.11 ,M
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; With the 'B' ICW breaker racked out and open the 'C' ICW pump will
receive a start signal and start.
B - Incorrect; 'A ICW pump will receive a start signal.
C - Incorrect; With the 'B' bus aligned to the 'A bus the 'C' ICW pump will not start.
D - Correct; Per logic diagrams 5610-T-L1 sheet 29A and 139A and SD165/SYS.019
dated 17/11/02 pages 9 and 11.
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Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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69. 04RK3 01 001
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Which ONE of the following will cause letdown orifice isolation valve, CV-20QA, to
close?
A,? Loss of Instrument Air to Containment.
B. Manual initiation of Safety Injection.
I
C. VCT level increase to 86%.
D. Annunciator A-9/3, PZW CONTROL HllLO LEVEL, alarms under no load conditions.
Question Source: Turkey Point Bank Question #I .I
24.13.6.60,M. Two distractors
changed from those originally specified in the bank question. Original distractors did
not appear credible.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; Per SD013/SYS.046,04? dated 10/16/02, Page 18. Loss of control air to
containment will close the orifice isolation valves since they are air to open fail close
valves.
B - Incorrect; Manual initiation of SI does not activate Phase A. Phase A signal will
result in the closure of the orifice isolation valves.
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C - incorrect; VCt level increase will result in level divert but will not cause the orifice
isolation valves to close.
B - Incorrect; No load PZR level is 22.2%. Pressurizer control hi/lo level annuciator
alarms at 5% below program level i.e. 17%. Letdown orifice isolation occurs at 14%.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 34230 PM
7%
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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70. 078~4.02 001
Unit 3 and Unit 4 Instrument Air systems are in their normal alignment with both units
operating at 100% reactor power. The Instrument Air system on Unit 3 develops a leak
and pressure in the system starts to decrease.
Which QNE of the following describes the actions that will occur as a result of the
Instrument air pressure decrease?
Instrument Air header isolation valves CV-3-1605 and CV-4-1605 will automatically
throttle:
A. closed to protect Unit 4 and Service Air supply valve 40-2059 will automatically
open to supply Service Air to the Unit 3 Instrument Air system.
5.' closed to protect Unit 4 and Service Air supply valve 40-2059 should be manually
opened to supply Service Air to the Unit 3 Instrument Air system.
C. open in an attempt to raise Unit 3 Instrument Air pressure and Service Air supply
valve 40-2059 should be manually opened to supply Service Air to the Instrument
Air system if Instrument Air pressure drops below 75 psig.
B. open in an attempt to raise Unit 3 Instrument Air pressure and Service Air supply
valve 40-2059 will automatically open to supply Service Air to the Instrument Air
system if Instrument Air pressure drops below 75 psig.
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Valve 40-2059 must be manually opened, Service Air is not automatically
supplied to the Instrument Air system on decreasing pressure.
E! - Correct; The Unit Instrument Air systems are normally cross-connected through
open valves, CV-3-1605 and CV4-1605, these valves automatically throttle close at 88
psig and are fully closed at 75 psig. Service Air can be supplied lo the Instrument Air
system to increase pressure, valve 40-2059 must be manually opened.
C - Incorrect; CV-3-1605 and CV-4-1605 are normally open valves that throttle close on
decreasing pressure to ensure both units are not affected by the air leak.
D - Incorrect; CV-3-1605 and CV-4-1605 are normally open valves that throttle close on
decreasing pressure to ensure both units are not affected by the air ieak. Valve
40-2059 must be manually opened, Service Air is not automatically supplied to the
Instrument Air system on decreasing pressure.
Tuesday. January 06,2004 34230 PM
79
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
71.
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086K5.04 001 -
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Which ONE of the following describes the type of fire suppression system that is
installed in the Inverter Rooms (Zones 1088 and 108B) and what are the hazards to
personnel if they are in the room during system actuation?
A. A deluge manual sprinkler system is installed. An electical shock hazard exists due
to the large amounts of water used to combat the fire.
B. An automatic high pressure wet pipe system is installed. An electicak shock hazard
exists due to the large amounts of water used to combat the fire.
C I An automatic halon system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard exists due to the
oxygen scavenging attributes of the halon.
D. A manual Carbon Dioxide (C02) system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard exists
due to the resulting heavy concentrations of CO2.
Distractor Analysis:
A ~ Incorrect; no sprinkler system
B - Incorrect; no wet sprinkler system
C - Correct; SD 153/SYS.016,017,091 Dated 6/9/03
D - Incorrect; no dry pipe system
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:30 PM
80
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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72. 103A3 01 001
Which ONE of the following describes the complete action an AUTOMATIC safety
injection signal will have on the Unit 3 Containment systems?
A. Close all containment isolation Phase 'B'
valves, stop the containment purge fans
and start the 'A and 'C' ECCs.
B. Close all containment isolation Phase 'B' valves, start the containment purge fans
and start the 'A,
'B', and 'C' ECCs.
C:' Close all containment isolation Phase 'A valves, stop the containment purge fans
and start the 'A and 'C' ECCs.
5. Close all containment isolation Phase 'A' valves, start the containment purge fans
and start the 'A , 'E, and 'C' ECCs.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Phase B does not actuate on an SI signal
E3 - Incorrect; Phase B does not actuate on an SI signal and only one ECCs per train
C - Correct; SD-029, Containment Ventilation and Heat Removal systems
D Incorrect; all three ECCS do not get started, only one per train.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
81
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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73. G? I I 1 001
7-
Unit 3 is currently at 100% reactor power. Annunciator G d / l , AXIAL FLUX T.S. LIMIT
EXCEEDED, has just been declared inoperable. l&C does not expect to get the parts
needed for repair of the annunciator for several days.
Which ONE of the following describes the operator action(s) required?
A. Reduce thermal power to less than 50% within 30 minutes and reduce the Power
Range Neutron Flux - High Trip setpoint to less than or equal to 55% within the nexl
4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.
B.' Monitor and log the indicated AFD at ieast once per hour for the first 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> and
at least once per 30 minutes thereafter.
C. Monitor and log the indicated RPI at least once per hour for the first 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> and a1
least once per 30 minutes thereafter.
D. Reduce thermal power to less than 50% within 30 minutes and implement
ONQQ-059.4, Excess Axial Flux Difference.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; These are the actions requied by TS if the AFD is out of specification not
just the annunciator.
B - Correct; These are the actions required for the annunciator being inoperable as
required by TS 3.2.1
C - Incorrect; The WPI is not the required perameter to be checked, the required
parameter is AFD.
B - Incorrect; These are the actions requied per the annunciator if the AFB is out of
specification.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
82
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
74. ci2 1 20 001
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Which ONE of the following describes the use of the foldout page in EOPs and
ONOQs?
The foldout page contains information or action steps that are:
A. only applicable while executing steps in the right-hand column of the procedure in
use.
8. only applicable while executing steps in the left-hand column of the procedure in
use.
C. applicable during the execution of any step in the procedure in use, unless stated
otherwise by the SRO.
D I applicable during the execution of any step in the procedure in use, unless stated
otherwise in the procedure.
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Question Source: Turkey Point exam bank question #I
.I
.26.20.1.2.M
Distractor Analysis:
A hcorrect; Foldout page is applicable at all times during the procedure usage.
3 - Incorrect; Foldout page items are also applicable while executing RNO steps.
C - Incorrect; Foldout page items are applicable at all times unless specified by the
procedure and there execution is not at the discretion of the SRO.
B - Correct; 0-ADM-217 section 5.6, states that foldout page items are applicable at
any procedure step unless stated otherwise in the procedure.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
83
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
75.
Ci? 1 27 001
Which ONE of the following completes the description of the ECCS design basis 7
single
failure criteria for the injection phase of an accident?
The ECCS is designed to withstand any single
intended safety function.
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failure and still perform its
A,' active
I
B. passive
C. active or passive
Distractur analysis:
A - Correct; can handle only an active failure
B - Incorrect; Not just passive
C - Incorrect: Not both
D ~ Incorrect; can nut handle either active or passive
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:3'i
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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76. G2 1 33 001
The following conditions exist on Unit 3, while in Mode 3 with operators preparing for a
reactor startup:
-The Shift Manager receives word that the containment air lock has failed the
leakage rate surveillance test due to excessive air lock leakage.
Which ONE of the following is correct concerning the containment personnel access
airlock?
(Reference Provided)
Restore the air lock to OPERABLE status within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> or be in COLD SHUTDOWN
within the following:
A,' 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />. Entry into MODE 2 is mat permissible.
B. 36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br />. Entry into MODE 2 is not permissible.
C. 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />. Entry into MODE 2 is permissible.
D. 36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br />. Entry into MODE 2 is permissible.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; The unit must be in cold shutdown within 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />. Tech Spec Bases does
not allow the 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> to be in Hot Stby because the unit is already in Mode 3.
Additionally, Tech Spec 3.0.4 does not allow a Mode change for these conditions.
Ea - Incorrect; The unit must be in cold shutdown within 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />. Tech Spec Bases
does not allow the 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> to be in Hot Stby because the unit is already in Mode 3.
Additionally, Tech Spec 3.0.4 does not allow 8 Mode change for these conditions.
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C - incorrect; The unit must be in cold shutdown within 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />. Additionally, Tech
Spec 3.0.4 does not allow a Mode change for these conditions.
B - Incorrect; Tech Spec Bases does not allow the 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> to be in Hot Stby because
the unit is already in Mode 3. Additionally, Tech Spec 3.0.4 does not allow a Mode
change for these conditions.
Reference: TS Sections 3.0.4 & 3.6.1.3; ABM 536, Pg 23
Tuesday, Janualy 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
85
QUESTIONS RPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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77. (i2.1 33 SECOND 001
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Unit 4 is in Mode 1, being shutdown when the following conditions are noted:
- Pressurizer pressure: 2205 psig
- RCS dissolved 0 2 :
0.05 ppm
- 4A S/G tube leakage: 0.5 gpm
543 OF
Which ON of the following identifies the Tech. Spec. Limiting Condition for Operation
that is NOT satisfied?
5. PS 3.4.7, Chemistry
CY TS 3.4.6.2, Operational Leakage
D. TS 3.1 .I
.4,
Minimum Temperature for Criticality
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; BS 3.2.5 is satisfied because pressurizer pressure is >220O psig
B - Incorrect; TS 3.4.7 is satisfied because 0 2 concentration is > 0.1 ppm
C - Correct; TS 3.4.6.2 is not satisfied because the 4A SIG tube leakage is > 500 gpd
(0.33 gpm).
D - Incorrect; TS 3.1 .I
.4 is satisfied because the lowest RCS loop temp is > 541 F.
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Reference: TS 3.2.5, 3.4.7, 3.4.6.2, 3.1.1.4
Tuesday, Januaty 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
86
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
98. G2.2.11 001
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Which ONE of the following describes a procedure change that would be allowed to be
approved as a One Time Only OTSC?
A Changing a definition in 0-EPIP-20101, Duties of the Emergency Coordinator.
B.' Changing an instruction in an Administrative Procedure.
C. Deleting a form contained in an Operations Surveillance Procedure for an operator
log taken via the NOMS Program.
D Changing a responsibility in a Quality Instruction (Ql) procedure.
Distractor analGis:
A - incorrect; ADM-102 does not allow OTSCs to b e written on EPlPs.
B - Correct; Changing Admin procedures via an OTSC is allowed if the change is made
using a one-time-only OTSC
C - Incorrect; ADM-102 does not allow OPSCs to be written on forms contained in
NOMS program.
5 - Incorrect; ADM-102 does not allow OTSCs to be written on Qls.
Reference: ADM-103, Steps 5.1.2 & 5.7.3
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Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
87
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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79. G2 2 17 001
The unit IS at l00% power with all safety-related systems, structures, and components
Which ONE of the emergent maintenance items below MUST be considered Priority
"AA" maintenance per 0-ADM-701, "Control of Plant Work Activities" ?
A. "A" Charging Pump must be removed from service for motor repair.
B. Surveillance testing has not been performed on the "8"
Containment Spray Pump
within its required surveillance interval.
C. The "A" Auxilliary Feedwater Pump is inoperable due to a bearing failure.
D! Two RPls are determined to be inoperable.
Question Source: Modified from Summer 2000-301 NRC Exam
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; 30 day action statement with other unit in Mode 1,2 and 3
B - Incorrect; Missed surveillance does not meet criteria for "AA" PWO.
C - Incorrect; 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> action statement for this failure. See tech specs - 3.5.2,
3.6.1.3,
3.7.1.1, 3.7.1.2
D - Correct; 2 RPls OOS represents a TS 3.0.3 situation. "AA" priority PWO needed.
Tuesday, Janualy 06,2004 3:42:31 Phi
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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80. G2 2 27 001
Refueling operations are in progress on Unit 3 when the following takes place:
- Annunciator X-4/1, ARMS HI RADIATION, alarms
- Area Radiation Monitor, R-7, in the Spent Fuel Pit is the affected channel
Operators quickly entered ONOP-066, High Area Radiation Monitoring System Alarm,
and determined that the high alarm is not valid and the R-7 has failed.
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the Refueling operations in progress?
Refueling operations ...
A. ... are unaffected and may continue without restrictions.
B.' ... shall be stopped immediately. Refueling operations can continue if a portable
radiation monitor with an alarm is used in the Spent Fuel Pit.
C. ... shall be stopped until HP has compketed surveys to ensure there is no source of
high radiation in the Spent Fuel Pit area.
D. _.. shall be stopped immediately. Refueling Operations can continue ONLY after
ARM R-7 has been repaired and declared OPERABLE.
Distractor Analysis:
A ~ Incorrect; OP-0381, Preperation for Refueling Activities, step 5.2.2.2
is not satisfied
therefore the operations cannot continue.
3 - Correct; refueling operations shall be stopped immediately when the annunciator
alarms, the limitations of not having the detector availabie to provide alarms is not to
allow refueling operations until the portable detector is made available. OP-038.1,
Approval date 2/28/03.
C - Incorrect; HP is required to start performing surveys until the alarm is determined to
be invalid, at which time they can terminate the performance of the surveys.
D - Incorrect; do not need to wait for the repair of R-7 if a portable detector is made
available.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
89
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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Which ONE of the following correctly identifies the maximum Spent Fuel Pool ( FP)
temperature allowed for the Commencement of refueling core off-load AND the SFP
temperature at which core off-load shall be suspended?
Start Off-Load
Stop Off-Load
A.
120 OF
190 OF
B.
120 QF
140 OF
C.
200 O F
170 OF
B I
100 OF
140 OF
A - Incorrect; The correct limits are IOOF and 14OF respectively. Plausible because
170F is a temperature limitation related to shutdown of the SFP cooling system for
maintenance.
El - Incorrect; The correct limits are 1OOF and 140F respectively. Plausible because
14OF is a correct limit per 3-OP-038.1, CAUTION prior to Step 5.2.215.
C - Incorrect; The correct limits are IOOF and 14BF respectively. Plausible because
100F is a correct limit per 3-OP-038.1, Step 5.2.2.15 and because 170F is a
temperature limitation related to shutdown of the SFP cooling system for maintenance.
D - Correct; The correct limits are 1OOF and 240F respectively. IOOF is a correct limit
per 3-QP-038.1, Step 5.2.2.15 and 140F is a correct limit per 3-OF-038.1, CAUTION
prior to Step 5.2.2.15.
Reference: 3-OP-038.1, Step 5.2.2.15 and CAUTION
Tuesday, January 06, 2004 3:42:31 PM
90
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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82. ~ 2 . 2
34 001
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Operators are reducing unit load with the control rods in AUTO
During the load reduction, Tref decreases to 4 OF below Tavg.
Based on this Tavg/Tref mismatch, which ONE of the following identifies the speed at
which rods should be inserting?
A. 8 slepdmin.
B. 24 stepshin.
CY 40 steps/min.
D. 42 stepshin.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; 8 stepshin is the rate associated with 3F mismatch.
E3 - Incorrect; 24 stepshin is the rate associated with 3.5F mismatch.
C - Correct; 40 steps/min is the rate associated with 4F mismatch.
D
~ Incorrect; 92 stepshin is the rate associated with 5F mismatch.
Reference: SD-005, Full Length Rod Control, Figure 14
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91
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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83. ti2 3 10 001
Given the following conditions at a work site:
- Radiation level is 40 mrernlhr
- Radiation level with shielding is 10 mrernlhr
- Time for one worker to install and remove shielding is 15 minutes
- Time to conduct the task with one worker is 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />
- Time to conduct the task with two workers is 20 minutes
Assumptions:
- A dose rate of 40 mrem/hr will be received while installing and removing the
- Shielding is installed and removed by one worker only.
shielding.
Which ONE of the following would result in the lowest total whole body dose?
Conduct the task with:
A l two workers with shielding.
B. two workers without shielding.
C. one worker with shielding.
B. one worker without shielding.
Distractor analysis:
A - Correct; 10 mrern (placing shielding) f 3.33 mrem (conduct task) each worker =
16.7 rnrern.
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B - Incorrect; 13.33 rnrem (conduct task) each worker = 26.7 mrem.
C - Incorrect; 10 mrern (placing shielding) f 10 mrern (conduct task) = 20 mrem.
D _. Incorrect; 40 mrern (conduct task) = 40 mrem.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
92
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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84.
G2 3 4 IIkI'L ACFMENT 001
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A plant worker is unconscious and presumed badly injured in a Very High Radiation
Area.
A 50-year-old volunteer member of the rescue team is attempting to reach the man.
The rescuer has already received a whole body exposure of 4 REM.
Which ONE of the following identifies the additional allowable exposure the rescue
worker may receive in this rescue attempt?
A. 1 REM
B. 6REM
C. 24 REM
A. Incorrect because there is no dose limit to save a life. PIausible because 5 REM is
listed in Enclosure limit associated with Emergency Worker Exposure Limits.
8. Incorrect because there is no dose limit to save a life. Plausible because 10 REM is
listed in Enclosure limit associated with Emergency Worker Exposure Limits.
C. Incorrect because there is no dose limit to save a life. Plausible because 25 REM is
listed in Enclosure limit associated with Emergency Worker Exposure Limits.
B. Correct because there is no limit to save a life. Note that the injured person is in a
Very High Radiation Area which is defined as an area with dose rate in excess of 500
RADSlhr. making this a life saving rescue.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
93
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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85. (32.3.9 001
Which ONE of the following describes an operational concern associated with initiating
a containment purge?
An uncontrolled radioactive release can result if the:
A. Containment Purge Exhaust Isolation Valves (POV-2602 & POV-2603) are opened
before the Containment Purge Supply Isolation Valves (POV-2600 & POV-2601)
are opened.
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B. Containment Purge Exhaust fan is started without the equipment hatch and
emergency hatch secured and at least one personnel door is closed.
CY Containment Purge Supply fan is started without the equipment hatch and
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emergency hatch secured and at least one personnel door is closed.
D. Containment Purge Exhaust fan is started before the Containment Purge Supply
Fan.
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Bistractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The exhaust isolation valves are opened before the supply isolation
valves prior to commencing containment purge.
B - Incorrect; The potential for uncontrolled radioactive release exists if the supply fan is
started, not the exhaust fan.
C - Correct; Per the CAUTION prior to step 5.1.2.9
of 0-OP-053, Containment Purge
System.
D - Incorrect; The purge exhaust fan is started before the purge supply fan.
Reference: 0-OQ-053, Containment Purge System, CAUTION prior to Step 5.1 2.9.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
94
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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86. (i? 4.18 001
Which ON of the following describes the basis for isolating feedwater to a faulted
Steam Generator in EOP-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation?
A. Prevent inadequate Auxiliary Feedwater flow to the intact Steam Generators,
B." Minimize RCS cooldown and mass energy release.
C. To ensure a steam supply to the Auxiliary Feedwater pumps.
B. Prevents cold feeding of a hot dry Steam Generator which could result in a Steam
Generator tube rupture.
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Question Source: Turkey Point Exam Bank Question #I
.1.?66:34.4.1 ,M- ~'
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; Excessive AFW flow to a faulted S/G is prevented by flow restrictions in
the AFW lines.
B - Correct; Per EOP-E-2 (approval date 4/15/99) basis document PTN procedure step
4 and WOG step 4
C - Incorrect; Steam to the AFW pumps will be via an intact S/G unless there is no
intact S/G in which case a faulted S/G is fed.
D - Incorrect; The procedures have provisions for feeding dry S/Gs if no others are
intact.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
95
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2803-301 Questions
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89. (3
4 45 001
Unit 3 is at 100% reactor power when the following annunciators are received
- B-2/2, POWER RANGE UPPER BET HI FLUX DEV/AUIO DEFEAT.
- B-6/4, POWER RANGE CHANNEL. DEVIATION
- B-9/2, AXIAL FLUX TILT
- B-9/3, SHUTDOWN ROD OFF TOQ/DEVIATION
QNOP-028.3, Dropped WCC.
D. Control Rod H-8 (bank 'D', middle of the cere) fully dropped. implement
ONOP-028.3, Dropped RCC.
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Which ONE of the following describes the event that has occurred and the appropriate
action to be taken?
A:' Control Rod B-10 (bank 'B',edge of the core) dropped to 10 steps. Implement
ONOP-028.1, RCC Misalignment.
B. Control Rod H-8 (bank ID', middle of the core) dropped to 110 steps. Implement
ONOP-028.1, RCC Misalignment.
B - Incorrect; Rod H-8 is from the control group Le. not consistant with B-9/3.
C - Incorrect; If rod would have fully dropped annunciator B-7/1, NIS/RPI ROD DROP
ROD STOP, would have alarmed.
D - Incorrect; Rod H-8 is from the control group Le. not consistant with B-9/3. If rod
would have fully dropped annunciator B-7/1, NISIRPI ROD DROP ROD STOP, would
have alarmed.
Tuesday, Janualy 06: 2004 3:42:31 PM
96
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
88. (i2.4.46 001
The following events have occurred:
- All Main Steam Isolation valves (MSIVs) and bypass valves closed.
~ Containment Isolation Phase 'B' actuated.
~ Sequencer equipment begins to load.
- Containment Spray pumps started.
Which ONE of the following was the initiating event?
A,' High pressure inside Containment.
B. High Steam flow coincident with bo Bavg only.
(3. High Steam flow coincident with either Lo S/G pressure OF Lo Tavg.
D. High Steam line differential pressure coincident with Lo Pressurizer pressure.
Distractor AnalysTs:
A - Correct; MSlV closure coincident with Phase 5 isolation can only occur as a result
of high containrnnet pressure. Drawing 5610-T-%1, SYS 63, Rev 26, Safeguards
actuation & Steam line actuation.
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B - Incorrect; This will not cause a Phase B isolation.
C - Incorrect: Neither of these will result in a Phase B isolation.
B - Incorrect: Neither of these will cause a Phase 5 isolation.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
Which ONE of the following identifies the Major Action Categories in their proper order
for responding to a Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR) using EQP-E-3, "Steam
Generator Tube Rupture"?
A. Identify and isolate the ruptured Steam Generator.
Depressurize RCS to restore inventory.
Cool down to establish KCS subcooling margin.
Terminate SI to stop primary to secondary leakage.
Prepare for cooldown to cold shutdown.
B. Identify and isolate the ruptured Steam Generator.
Cool down to establish RCS subcooling margin.
Terminate SI to stop primary to secondary leakage.
Depressurize RCS to restore inventory.
Prepare for cooldown to cold shutdown.
C Identify and isolate the ruptured Steam Generator.
Coo1 down to establish RCS subcooiing margin.
Depressurize RCS to restore inventory.
Prepare for cootdown to cold shutdown.
Terminate SI to stop primary to secondary leakage.
D' Identify and isolate the ruptured Steam Generator.
Cool down to establish RCS subcooling margin.
Depressurize RCS to restore inventory.
Terminate SI to stop primary to secondary leakage.
Prepare for cooldown to cold shutdown.
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; The cooldown to establish subcooling must take place prior to the
depressurization to restore inventory.
B - Incorrect; SI should not be terminated until RCS inventory is restored.
C - Incorrect; The preparation for cooldown to cold shutdown is the last major action
category to be accomplished.
D - Correct; Per the LP 6902339, TP-2 and EQP-E-3 Response to SGTR.
98
QU:STIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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90. WEOZFK3.4 001
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Step 7 of EOP-ES-I .I
SI Termination, states tu check if Containment Spray should be
stopped. Step 7.c of ES-1 .I
states to verify that containment Temperature is less than
122 OF.
Which ONE of the following is correct concerning the 122 QF temperature limit for
resetting the Containment Spray signal?
The
Therefore, the 122 O F Containment Spray termination criterion
the shorter duration event.
event is a much shorter duration event than the
event.
apply for
A. Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA); Main Steam Line Break (MSLB); does NOT
B. Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA); Main Steam Line Break (MSLB); does
C! Main Steam Line Break (MSLB); Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA); does NOT
D. Main Steam Line Break (MSLB); LOSS of Coolant Accident (LOCA); does
Distractor Analysis:
A & B - Incorrect; LOCA is of longer duration due tu high volume and large amount of
water added by the SI activation lo keep the core covered.
C - Correct; The MSLB event is a much shorter duration event than the design basis
LOCA. Therefore, the 222 OF containment spray termination criterion does not apply
Basis document for EOP-ES-1 .I,
dated 1/3/02, Page 18, WOG step 8.
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D - Incorrect; The 122 QF containment spray termination criterion does not apply.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
99
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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91. WF04F422001
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EOP-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment. Step1 directs the operator to check RWR
pump suction stop valves, MOV-950 and 751, position on the alternate shutdown
panel.
Which ONE of the following is the basis for checking the valve position on the alternate
shutdown panel?
A,' Power is removed from the RHR loup suction valves. Therefore, control room
position indication lights are also de-energized.
B. Control room indication is not reliable because actual valve position and indicated
valve position are not linked. All alternate shutdown valve positions are powered
from a vital BC source. Actual position is equal to indicated position.
C. RHR pump suction stop valves can only be manipulated from the alternate
shutdown panel because any flow path which is isolated to stop a LOCA outside
containment is required tu be maintained isolated during subsequent recovery
actions.
D. RHW pump suction stop valves have no Control Room position indicating lights.
The only place valve position can be verified is at the alternate shutdown panel.
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Bistractor Anaiysis:
A ~ Correct; At Turkey Point, power is removed from RHR loop suction valves. In this
condition, Control morn position lights are also de-energized. Substep 'a"' was added
to use the indicator lights on the Alternate shutdown panel to determine valve positions.
Due to the addition of Substep 'a', a single RNO action is not feasible. Each
subsequent substep was provided with an appropriate RNO.
Reference: BD-EO$-ECA-1.2. LOCA Outside Containment, Page 8; EOP-ECA-1.2,
LOCA Outside Containment, Page 5.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
100
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
__ 92. WF04IX2 4 iR 001
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EOP-ECA-1.2, LQCA Outside Containment, Step 3, states "Check If Break Is isolated.'
If the break is not isolated, Step 3 directs you to EOP-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency
Coolant Recirculation, Step 1.
Which ONE of the following is the reason the WNO column directs you to
EOPICA-1 .I,
Step I ?
A. RCS water level is approaching mid-loop which will cause the RHR pumps to
cavitate.
B. A phase " A isolation caused a loss of Instrument Air in containment.
Subsequently, emergency coolant recirculation is not available until Phase "A" has
been reset.
CY There is no inventory in the containment sump.
B. A Containment Ventilation Isolation signal caused a loss of Instrument Air in
containment. Subsequently, emergency coolant recirculation is not available until
the Containment Ventilation Isolation signal has been reset.
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Distractor Analysis:
C - Correct; The operator transfers to E-I , Loss Of Reactor Or Secondary Coolant, if
the break has been isolated, for further recovery actions. If the break has not been
isolated, the operator is sent to ECA-1 .I,
Loss Of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, for
further recovery actions since there will be no inventory in the sump.
A. Incorrect
B. Incorrect, instrument air is not isolated by a containment isolation signal although an
SI signal is received which causes a Phase 'A' isolation and contianment vent isolation.
83. Incorrect, instrument air is not isolated by a containment isolation signal although an
SI signal is received which causes a Phase 'A' isolation and contianment vent isolation.
Reference: BD-EQP-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, Step 3, Pages 9-10, PTN
3-EOP-ECA-1.2, LQCA Qutside Containment, Page 6.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 34231 PM
101
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-302 Questions
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93. WEOSEAI 1 001
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EOP-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, Step 1 states: "Check if
Secondary Heat Sink is Required."
Which ONE of the following statements is correct for a Large Break Loss of Coolant
Accident (LOCA) where the RCS will depressurize below intact SIG pressures?
A,' The secondary heat sink is NOT required and actions to restore secondary heat
sink are NOT necessary.
B. Feed and bleed MUST be established within 30 minutes and before intact SI6 wide
range level reaches 22%.
C. Feedwater MUST be established prior to intact SIG wide rmge levels reaching 22%
to avoid thermal stress damage to the S/G(s).
8. Feed and bleed MUST be established within 30 minutes or before core exit
thermocouples reach 900 O F
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Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; Before implementing actions to restore flow to the SIGs, the operator
should check if secondary heat sink is required. For larger LOCA break sines, the RCS
will depressurize below the intact SIG pressures. The SiGs no longer function as a
heat sink and the core decay heat is removed by the RCS break flow. For this range of
LOCA break sizes, the Secondary heat sink is NOT required and actions to restore
secondary heat sink are NOT necessary. The operator should then transfer back to the
procedure and the step in effect, to address the issue that was driving the response to
the event prior to the transition to FK-H.1.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
102
QUESTIONS RPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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94. Wli05EA2.2 KEPI.AC2EMEN 00 1
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Qperators are performing EQP-FR-H.l, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink,
and have successfully initiated Bleed and Feed.
The BOP subsequently announces secondary heat sink is restored using "A" Standb
Steam Generator Feed Pump.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response?
Ar Continue performing FR-H.? to completion.
B. Return to procedure and step in effect when feed flow is verified to be > 345 gpm.
C. Return to procedure and step in effect when narrow range level in any S/G is 5 64
[32%].
B. Return to procedure and step in effect only when narrow range levels in all S/Gs
are > 6% [32%].
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References: FR-H.l, step 7, 27
A. Correct because after Bleed and Feed is estabalished, Fr-H.2 must be completed to
ensure SI redcrction/termination and PQRV closure are completed. Restoration of
secondary heat sink is not enough to transition from FR-H.1 beyond step 12 of the
procedure.
B. Incorrect because after Step 12 restoration of secondary heat sink is not enough to
transition from FR-H.1. Plausible because 345 gpm is a normal indicator of adequate
heat sink.
C. Incorrect because after Step 72 restoration of secondary heat sink is not enough to
transition from FR-H.1. Plausible because 6% in any S/G is a normal indicator of
adequate heal sink.
D. Incorrect because after Step 12 restoration of secondary heat sink is not enough to
transition from FR-H.1. Plausible because > 6% in all S/Gs is a goal of the procedure.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
95. WF.fl7lX2.4.35 001
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A Steam Generator Tube Rupture and a Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred.
EOP-ECA-3.2, SGTR With LOCA - Saturation Recovery Desired, Step 6, states
"Initiate RCS Cooldown to Cold Shutdown by dumping steam to the condenser from
the intact SG(s)."
SGs "B" and "C" are NOT available.
SG "A" is faulted and ruptured.
Which ONE of the following actions is correct if the steam dump to condenser control
system is not functioning from the control room?
A. Immediately isolate the accumulators locally and depressurize the RCS to 700 psig
and reinitiate SI.
B. Immediately isolate the accumulators locally and depressurize the RCS to less than
250 psig and commence WHR shut down cooling.
C I If WHR is NOT in service, then manually dump steam (using steam dump to
atmosphere valves) from the "A" SG.
D. Check RHR in service then manually dump steam (using steam dump to
atmosphere valves) from the "A" SG.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:3? PM
QUESTIQNS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Distractor Analysis:
C - Correct; The RCS must be cooled and depressurized to cold shutdown conditions
as quickly as possible to miflimize both leakage of reactor coolant and radiological
releases from the ruptured steam generator. This step established a 180 degreelhr
cooldown rate, which balances the need for rapid RCS cooldown with the concern of
PTS of the reactor vessel. The preferred method is steam release from the intact SG to
the condenser since this conserves feedwater supply and minimizes radiological
releases. If steam dump to the condenser is unavailable, atmospheric steam releases
via the intact SG steam dump to atmosphere valve provides an alternative means of
cooling the RCS. In the unlikely event that no intact SG is available, one must select
either a faulted SG or ruptured SG to cool the 86s until the RHR system can support
further cooldown to cold shutdown.
A: Incorrect
B: Incorrect
D: Incorrect
Reference: PTN procedure 3-EQP-ECA-3.2, SGTR With LQCA - Saturation Recovery
Desired, Step 6. BD-EOP-ECA-3.2, Page 21.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:31 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
96. WFOXEK3 2 001
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EOP-FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition, states in
Step 7, to "Check If SI Should Be Terminated."
Which ONE of the following events may result in a condition where analysis shows SI
flow may NOT be able to be terminated?
A,*
Small Break Loss of Coolant Accident (SBLOCA).
B. Ruptured Steam Generator.
6. Stearn line break upstream of the MSIVs.
D. Steam line break downstream of the MSIVs.
Distractor Analysis:
A - Correct; Per FR-P.1 Step 7 basis.
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B, C & D: Incorrect; These events are not listed in the basis as a transient that will
preclude SI termination. Plausible because events are likely to cause conditions
resulting in entry into FR-B.1.
Reference: PTN procedure 3-EOP-FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized
Thermal Shock Condition, Step 7, BD-EOP-FR-P.1, Page 19.
Tuesday, January 06,2004
3:42:32 PM
106
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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97. WEIOEK2 2 001
EOP-ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Cooldown With Stearn Void in Vessel (Without
RVLMS). Step 6 states "Establish Pressurizer Levei To accommodate Void Growth."
Prior to this step, there is a note that states "Saturated conditions in the pressurizer are
required to be established before trying to decrease pressurizer level."
Which ONE of the following choices is correct with respect to the thermodynamic
relationship between Pressurizer pressure and Pressurizer level and their effect on the
plant?
If the Pressurizer is not saturated, decreasing Pressurizer level (using charging and
letdown) will cause the Pressurizer pressure to
than if the Pressurizer
were saturated. Though the Pressurizer pressure still decreases when level is reduced
under saturated conditions, the rate of decrease is -
since vapor is created as the
pressure drops.
A. increase slower:
faster
B. increase slower;
slower
C. decrease faster;
faster
5: decrease faster;
slower
Distractor Analysis:
D - Correct; To reduce the PZR level in a controlled manner, saturated conditions
shoud first be established. If the PZW is not saturated, decresing PZR level (using
charging and letdown) will cause the PZR pressure to decrease faster than if the PZR
were saturated. Though the PZR pressure still decreases when level is reduced under
saturated conditions, the rate of decrease is slower since vapor is created as the
pressure drops.
A: Incorrect
B: Incorrect
C: Incorrect
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Reference: PTN prodecure 3-EOP-ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Csoldown With Steam
Void In Vessel (Without WVLMS), note prior to Step 6, B5-EOP-ES-0.4, Page 20.
Tuesday. January 06,2004 3:42:32 PM
107
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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98. WEI i
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2 001
EOP-ECA-1 .I,
Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, Step 12 directs operators to
"Verify NO Backflow from RWST to Sump."
Which ONE of the following identifies the condition with the minimum number of open
valves in which backflow from the KWST to the containment sump could exist?
A,' Both Recirculation sump suction line valves MOV-860A AND MOV-861A are OQEh
when both WHR Pump Suction Isol. valves MOV-8628 AND MOV-862B are OPEN.
5. Both Recirculation sump suction line valves MOV-860A AND MOV-860B are OPEh
when both RHR Pump Suction Isol. valves MOV-86% AND MOV-862B are OPEN.
C. Either Recirculation sump suction line valve MOV-860A OR MOV-8618 is OPEN
when either RWR Pump Suction IsoI. valve MQV-8628 OR MOV-862B is OPEN.
D. Either Recirculation sump suction line valve MOV-860A OR MOV-8608 is OPEN
when either RHR Pump Suction IsoI. valve MOV-8628 OR MOV-862B is OPEN.
A - Correct; Per Step 12 of ECA-I .I,
a flowpath fromthe RWST to the containment
sump exist when MOV-860A and MOV-861A are open when both MOV-8628 and
MOV-862B are open.
B Incorrect; MOV-860A and MOV-860B open at the same time does not define a path
from the RWST to the containment sump.
C - Incorrect; The lineup described does not define a path from the RWST to the
containment sump.
D ~ Incorrect; The lineup described does not define a path from the RWST to the
containment sump.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:32 PM
I 0 8
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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99. WE12EK2.2 001
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EQP-ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators, Step 40, states
"Verify SI Flow NOT Required."
i
Which ONE of the following describes the basis for this step?
The combination of -
ensures that RCS conditions are under adequate operator
control. Loss of control will require §I flow.
A. pressurizer level and narrow range SG level
B. subcooling and adequate core flow
CY subcooling and pressurizer level
B. adequate core Row and wide range §G level
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Distractor Analysis:
C - Correct; The cornbination of subcooling and PRZ level ensures that RCS conditions
are under adequate operator control. Loss of control will require SI flow.
Reference: PTN procedure 3-EOP-ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of All
Steam Generators, Step 40; BD-EQP-ECA-2.1~ Page 66.
Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:32 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
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100. WEI4EK3.1001
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Operators are performing EOP-ECA-1 .I,
Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation,
and have established two Emergency Containment Coolers (ECCs) and one
Containment Spray pump (CSP) running as directed by ECA-I .I.
Containment pressure subsequently exceeds 20 psig and operators transition to
EOP-FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure.
Step 8 of FR-Z.l directs operators to start the second CSP.
Step 10 of FR-Z.1 directs operators to verify ECCs running.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response to the directions
given by FR-Z.1 ?
A. Start the second CSP as directed by FW-Z.1.
Verify only two ECCs are running.
B. Start the second CSP as directed by FR-Z.1.
Verify three ECCs are running.
C I Maintain only one CSP running.
Verify only two ECCs are running.
B. Maintain only one CSP running.
Verify three ECCs are running.
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Tuesday, January 06,2004 3:42:32 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Turkey Point Final Exam 2003-301 Questions
Distractor Analysis:
A - Incorrect; ECA-1 .I
has precedence over Fa-%.I as it relates to CSP operation. The
second CSP may not be started per the CAUTION. Plausible because verifying two
ECCs running is correct.
B - Incorrect; ECA-1 .I
has precedence over FR-Z.1 as it relates to CSP operation. The
second CSP may not be started per the CAUTION. Plausible because verifying three
ECCs running would provide maximum ECC cooling potential for this containment
overpressure procedure. However, three ECCs may not be run.
C - Correct; ECA-1.2 has precedence over FR-Z.1 as it relates to CSP operation. The
second CSP may not be started per the CAUTION. Additionally, verifying two ECCs
running is correct.
D - incorrect; Three ECCs may not be run. Plausible because the second CSP may
not be started per the CAUTION.
Reference: PTN procedure 3-EOP-FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure,
Step 8; BD-EOP-FE-Z.1, Page 14 & 15.
Tuesday, January 06. 2004 3:42:32 PM