ML14350A125

Brunswick Initial Exam 2014-301 Draft RO Written Exam

ML14350A125
Person / Time
Site:	Brunswick
Issue date:	12/16/2014
From:	NRC/RGN-II
To:	Progress Energy Carolinas
Shared Package
ML14350A180	List: ML14350A124 ML14350A125 ML14350A131 ML14350A134 ML14350A137 ML14350A155 ML14350A158 ML14350A161 ML14350A168 ML14350A173
References
50-324/14-301, 50-325/14-301 50-324/OL-14, 50-325/OL-14
Download: ML14350A125 (167)

Text

1. 201002 1 The initial SRM count rates are as observed below.

The Unit Two control room staff is ready to withdraw control rods for a reactor startup.

Which one of the following identifies when criticality is expected to be achieved IAW 0GP-02, Approach To Cr iticality and Pressurization of the Reactor?

A. At ~800 cpm B. At ~1000 cpm C. At ~3200 cpm D. At ~6400 cpm

Answer: D K/A: 201002 REACTOR MANUAL CONTROL SYSTEM A1 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the REACTOR MANUAL CONTROL SYSTEM controls including: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5) 04 Overall reactor power RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/3.5

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-307-A, Obj. B6 - GP-02, Approach to Criticality and Pressurization of the Reactor: List the indications that the reactor is critical in accordance with GP-02 (LOCT)

Reference:

none Cog Level: hi

Explanation: As a rule of thumb, five "doubles" in the neutron count rate will yield criticality. Initial count rate 200 cpm 1st double = 400 cpm 2nd double = 800 cpm 3rd double = 1600 cpm 4th double = 3200 cpm 5th double = 6400 cpm Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because a common error is to count the initial readings as one of the doubling values with that logic this would be three doublings which is when single notching of control rods is required as the operators approach criticality.

Choice B: Plausible because this value is the current reading times 5.

Choice C: Plausible because a common error is to count the initial readings as one of the doubling values with that logic this would be five doublings.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

2. 201003 1 Unit Two is in MODE 2 starting up after a refueling outage.

The 2A CRD Pump has tripped and the oper ator is unable to restart the pump.

The following conditions exist:

Reactor water level 187 inches Reactor power Range 8 on all IRM's Reactor pressure 700 psig Charging water pressure 700 psig Reactor temperature 505°F 2B CRD Pump Out-of-service

Which one of the following identifies when a m anual scram is required to be inserted IAW 0AOP-02.0, Control Rod Malfunction/Misposition?

A. If a single control rod scrams.

B. If there are nine or more inoperable rods.

C. If A-05 (3-2)

Rod Drift alarms due to a single control rod drift.

D. If A-07 (6-1) CRD Accum Lo Press Hi Level alarms due to low pressure.

Answer: D K/A: 201003 CONTROL ROD AND DRIVE MECHANISM A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the CONTROL ROD AND DRIVE MECHANISM; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) 09 Low reactor pressure RO/SRO Rating: 3.2/3.4

Pedigree: Bank, last used on the 2003 NRC exam (modified answer to match current procedure)

Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-302-B, Obj 4 - Given plant conditions, determine the required supplementary actions IAW 0AOP-02, Control Rod Malfunction/Misposition. (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: Could not write question to both parts of the K/A so wrote the question to the higher cognitive part. If reactor pressure is less than 950 psig and charging water pressure is less than 940 psig upon the first HCU low pressure alarm immediately insert a manual scram.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is an action in the AOP if more than one control rod scrams.

Choice B: Plausible because the scram is required if any control rod has scrammed and the total inoperable and scrammed rods is greater than nine

Choice C: Plausible because this is an action in the AOP if more than one control rod drifts.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

3. 201006 1 Unit One is operating at 32% power when one of the four Main Steam Line Flow Transmitter inputs to the Feedwater Level Control System has failed downscale.

Which one of the following identifies the effect this will have, if any, on the RWM?

The RWM will:

A. display BYPASSED.

B. provide alarms ONLY.

C. provide alarms and enforce rod blocks.

D. NOT provide alarms or enforce rod blocks.

Answer: B K/A: 201006 ROD WORTH MINIMIZER SYSTEM (RWM) K6 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the ROD WORTH MINIMIZER SYSTEM (RWM): (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7) 05 Steam flow input

RO/SRO Rating: 2.7/2.7

Pedigree: New Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-07.1, Obj 3 - Describe the operation of the RWM above and below the Low Power Setpoint (LPSP) and the Low Power Alarm Point (LPAP), including the setpoints and where the input signal originates.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: Transition zone is set when steam flow is between 19.1% and 27.8%. With power initially at 32%, a single steam flow indicator failing will result in a total steam flow signal lowering to 24%. At 24% steam flow alarms are active but rod blocks are not enforced.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the RWM may need to be bypassed if power was dropped to less than 19.1%.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because if power was such that the failure caused power to drop below 19.1% this would be correct.

Choice D: Plausible because with power at 32% alarms and rod blocks are not provided.

SRO Basis: N/A

4. 203000 1 The BOP operator is aligning RHR Loop B to tr ansfer water from the Suppression Pool to the Auxiliary Surge Tank.

Which one of the following identifies how far the suppression pool level is expected to drop if 3,100 gallons is transferred IAW 1O P-17, Residual Heat Removal System Operating Procedure?

A. ~1/2 inch B. ~11/2 inch C. ~4 inches D. ~5 inches

Answer: A K/A: 203000 RHR/LPCI: INJECTION MODE A1 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the RHR/LPCI: INJECTION MODE controls including: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5) 05 Suppression pool level

RO/SRO Rating: 3.8/3.7

Pedigree: New Objective: AOI-CLS-LP-006, Obj 2 - Draw/Discuss the flow path/circuit path associated with the Liquid Radwaste System to include the major components, normal, abnormal, and secondary flow paths, and interrelationships with other systems. x. Auxiliary Surge Tank

Reference:

none Cog Level: hi

Explanation: One inch in the suppression pool corresponds to approximately 6,200 gallons in the normal operating band.

The Aux Surge Tank is 7460 gallons/foot or 622 gallons/inch.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because if the math is performed incorrectly this value can be obtained. Choice C: Plausible because this is the normal level band range (-27 inches to -31 inches) for the suppression pool. Choice D: Plausible because the aux surge tank changes 622 gal/inch which would be ~5 inch change.

SRO Basis: N/A

5. 203000 2 Unit Two was operating at rated power when a LOCA occurred. ADS has automatically initiated and reactor pressure is lowering.

Which one of the following identifies the highest reactor pressure that will allow RHR injection flow to be seen on E11-FI-R603B, RHR System B Flow?

A. ~400 psig.

B. ~300 psig.

C. ~200 psig.

D. ~100 psig.

Answer: C K/A: 203000 RHR/LPCI: INJECTION MODE A3 Ability to monitor automatic operations of the RHR/LPCI: INJECTION MODE including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7) 03 Pump discharge pressure RO/SRO Rating: 3.7/3.6

Pedigree: NRC 2008 exam question

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-017, Obj 7 - Given plant conditions, determine if the RHR System should automatically initiate in the LPCI mode.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge

Explanation: As reactor pressure continues to decrease, the discharge of the RHR Pumps should overcome reactor pressure at approximately 200 psig, allowing the flowpath to continue into the Reactor Recirculation System discharge lines.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is the approx. the reactor pressure that the discharge valve gets an open signal at.

Choice B: Plausible because this is the reactor pressure that Core Spray will inject at.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because this is the pressure needed to satisfy the pump running logic for ADS.

SRO Basis: N/A

6. 205000 1 Unit Two is in day 4 of a refueling outage with RHR Loop 2B operating in Shutdown Cooling IAW 2OP-17, Residual Heat Remo val System Operating Procedure.

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

The lowest reactor pressure that will cause a Group 8 isolation is (1) psig.

The Group 8 isolation pressure signal (2) cause E11-F015 B, Inboard Injection Vlv to auto close?

A. (1) ~135 (2) will

B. (1) ~135 (2) will NOT

C. (1) ~200 (2) will

D. (1) ~200 (2) will NOT

Answer: B K/A: 205000 SHUTDOWN COOLING SYSTEM (RHR SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE) K4 Knowledge of SHUTDOWN COOLING SYSTEM (RHR SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE) design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7) 05 Reactor cooldown rate

RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/3.7 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-017, Obj. 14 - Given plant conditions, determine if a Shutdown Cooling isolation should have occurred.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High

Explanation: Reactor pressure rising is an indication of a heat up rate in the reactor. If pressure rises to 130.8 psig then an isolation signal will be generated for the SDC suction isolation valves (F008 & F009). If level is low then the F015 also would close. 200 psig is the shutoff head of the RHR pumps.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because 135 psig is correct and if level was also low then the F015 would close.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because 200 psig is the shutoff head for the RHR pumps and if level was also low then the F015 would close.

Choice D: Plausible because 200 psig is the shutoff head for the RHR pumps and the F015 valve will not close on a pressure signal.

SRO Basis: N/A

7. 206000 1 During accident condition on Unit Two the following plant conditions exist:

RPV water level -30 inches Reactor power 4%

Suppr pool temp 142°F Suppr pool level -24 inches

HPCI operation is required.

Which one of the following identifies: (1) the preferred suction source for HPCI and (2) the reason that suct ion source is preferred?

A. (1) Suppression pool. (2) To prevent continued rise in suppression pool level.

B. (1) Suppression pool. (2) To provide a warmer source of injection to the reactor.

C. (1) CST. (2) To prevent damage to the HPCI pump due to cavitation.

D. (1) CST. (2) To prevent overheating of HP CI lubricating and control oil.

Answer: D K/A: 206000 HIGH PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the HIGH PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) 08 High suppression pool temperature: BWR-2,3,4 RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/4.2

Pedigree: Bank question Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-019, Obj 3 - Given plant conditions, predict how the HPCI System will respond to the following events: y. High Suppression Pool temperature

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge Explanation:

The lube oil and control oil for both HPCI and RCIC are cooled by the water being pumped. Very high lube oil temperatures can result in loss of lubricating qualities in the oil and thus cause damage to the bearings. Suction for HPCI and RCIC is aligned to the Condensate Storage Tank (CST) if it is available. The HPCI automatic suction transfer logic can be defeated to allow this lineup if necessary provided suppression pool temperature is approaching 140°F.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because at high level in the torus it does transfer and if the temperature was <140°F this would be correct.

Choice B: Plausible because at high level in the torus it does transfer and if the temperature was <140°F this would be correct and the suppression pool water is warmer than the CST.

Choice C: Plausible because transferring to the CST is correct and level at -24 inches might be considered low.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: N/A

8. 206000 2 Which one of the following identifies the Unit Two HPCI turbine speed control power supply? A. 125 VDC Panel 3A B. 125 VDC Panel 3B C. 125 VDC Panel 4A D. 125 VDC Panel 4B

Answer: C K/A: 206000 HIGH PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM K2 Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7) 04 Turbine control circuits: BWR-2,3,4

RO/SRO Rating: 2.5/2.7

Pedigree: New Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-019, Obj 14c - State the power supplies (bus and voltage) for the following HPCI System components: HPCI Flow Controller

Reference:

None Cog Level: Memory Explanation:

The turbine speed control, both the 24 VDC power supply which powers the flow controller and the 52.5 VDC power supply which powers the instrumentation, is powered from Distribution Panel 3(4)A.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this panel supplies Unit One HPCI.

Choice B: Plausible because one of the isolation logics on Unit One is powered from here.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because one of the isolation logics is powered from here.

SRO Basis: N/A

9. 209001 1 Unit Two is operating at rated power when the following alarm is received:

A-01 (2-10)

Core Spray Loop A Sys Press Low

Which one of the following identifies the impact of this c ondition on the Core Spray System?

A. Core Spray Pump A may caus e piping damage, if started.

B. Core Spray Pump A is incapable of producing an ADS Logic permissive signal, if started.

C. E21-F005A, Inboard Inject Valve, will immediately open if the Core Spray Initiation Logic is actuated.

D. E21-F004A, Outboard Inject Valve, can be opened while E21-F005A, Inboard Inject Valve, is open.

Answer: A K/A: 209001 LOW PRESSURE CORE SPRAY SYSTEM K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to LOW PRESSURE CORE SPRAY SYSTEM: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.3) 05 System venting

RO/SRO Rating: 2.5/2.5 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-018, Obj 6 - Describe how "water hammer" is minimized in the Core Spray System.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge Explanation:

Core Spray Discharge Pressure <10.8 psig causes the listed annunciator, indicating that piping may no longer be properly filled and vented. Voided piping may be damaged by starting the Core Spray Pump.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because this would be true if Core Spray or RHR Pump Running (115 psig) were failed low Choice C: Plausible because this would be true if Reactor Pressure below 410 psig failed low.

Choice D: Plausible because this would be true if Reactor Pressure below 410 psig and the valves were reversed, 5 can be opened if the 4 is opened first.

SRO Basis: N/A

10. 211000 1 The OATC observes the following indications after initiating SLC during an ATWS.

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

Squib valve (1) has failed to fire.

IAW 2OP-05, Standby Liquid System Operating Procedure, the OATC is required to (2) .

A. (1) A (2) place the CS-S1, SLC Pump A & B, in the PUMP A RUN position

B. (1) A (2) leave the CS-S1, SLC Pump A & B, in the PUMP A/B RUN position

C. (1) B (2) place the CS-S1, SLC Pump A & B, in the PUMP A RUN position

D. (1) B (2) leave the CS-S1, SLC Pump A & B, in the PUMP A/B RUN position

Answer: C K/A: 211000 STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL SYSTEM A4 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8) 02 SBLC control switch

RO/SRO Rating: 4.2/4.2 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-005, Obj 13 - Predict the effect of the following on the Standby Liquid Control System, and based on those predictions use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: a. Failure of one or both squib valves to fire. (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: Hi

Explanation: The SLC squib valve continuity lights are normally lit and go out when fired on SLC initiation. Per OP-05, if one squib valve fails to fire, two pump SLC operation may still continue provided reactor pressure is below 1184 psig, which it is not.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the st udent may think that the light is illu minated when the squib valve fires and securing 1 pump is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because the st udent may think that the light is illu minated when the squib valve fires and if reactor pressure was lower this would be correct.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because the B squib did not fire and if reactor pressure was lower this would be correct. SRO Basis: N/A

11. 212000 1 Which one of the following identif ies which RPS MG Set and EPA breakers that trip on a loss of 480 VAC Substation E7?

RPS MG Set (1) EPA breakers (2) .

A. (1) A (2) 1 & 2 ONLY

B. (1) B (2) 3 & 4 ONLY

C. (1) A (2) 1 & 2 and alternate source EPA breakers 5 & 6

D. (1) B (2) 3 & 4 and alternate source EPA breakers 5 & 6

Answer: C K/A: 212000 REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM K2 Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7) 01 RPS motor-generator sets

RO/SRO Rating: 3.2/3.3 Pedigree: Systems bank

Objective: CLS-LP-03 Obj 18a - State the power supplies for the following: RPS MG Set A

Pedigree: 10-1 NRC Exam

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Memory

Explanation: Power for the Motor Generator Sets is tapped off two phases of the normal 480 VAC MC 1CA/1CB (2CA/2CB) power supply for the motor through a stepdown transformer (480V to 120V) from E5/E6 (E7/E8). Selectable reserve power to the Bus is provided from 120 VAC 1E5(2E7) or 1E6(2E8), and is normally selected to Division I. In the event that either RPS M-G Set fails to operate, the alternate power source must be manually selected.

Two EPAs in series are installed downstream of the generator output breaker for each Motor Generator Set and the alternate power supply for the RPS buses. Bus A is protected by EPA-1 and -2; Bus B by EPA-3

and -4. Alternate power is protected by EPA-5 and -6

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because A MG set is lost along with EPA breakers 1 & 2, but these are not the only EPA breakers to trip.

Choice B: Plausible if the examinee picks the wrong power supply and EPA brea kers 3 & 4 are powered from RPS MG Set B.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible if the examinee picks the wrong power supply and EPA breakers 3 & 4 are powered from RPS MG Set B.

SRO Basis: N/A

12. 214000 1 Unit Two is operating at rated power when A-05 (1-2) CRD Hyd Temp High annunciates and the OATC observes the following CRD indications.

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

A-05 (1-2) CRD Hyd Temp High setpoint is (1) °F.

The APP will provide guidance to adjust C11-FC-R600, CRD Flow Controller, in the (2) direction.

A. (1) 350 (2) open

B. (1) 350 (2) closed

C. (1) 340 (2) open

D. (1) 340 (2) closed

Answer: C K/A: 214000 ROD POSITION INFORMATION SYSTEM A4 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8) 03 Control rod drive temperature RO/SRO Rating: 2.8/2.7

Pedigree: New Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-008, Obj 8 - Given plant conditions, predict the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the CRDH System: m. Cooling Water Flow

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation:

The alarm setpoint for the annunciator is 340°F. There is an action it exceeds 350°F notifying an engineer to perform a PT). raising flow would require the controller to be opened. The Drive water control valve (F003) could also be closed to raise the flow.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because 250°F is addressed in the APP and open is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because 250°F is addressed in the APP and if the question asked for the operation of the drive water control valve (F003) this would be correct.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because 340°F is correct and if the question asked for the operation of the drive water control valve (F003) this would be correct.

SRO Basis: N/A

13. 215003 1 Which one of the following comp letes the statement below?

The Intermediate Range Monitor (IRM) detectors may be positioned full in (1) , full out (2) , or any intermediate position.

A. (1) 18 inches above the core centerline (2) bottom of the core

B. (1) 18 inches above the core centerline (2) 24 inches below the core

C. (1) at the core centerline (2) bottom of the core

D. (1) at the core centerline (2) 24 inches below the core

Answer: B K/A: 215003 INTERMEDIATE RANGE MONITOR (IRM) SYSTEM K1 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between INTERMEDIATE RANGE MONITOR (IRM) SYSTEM and the following: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8) 07 Reactor vessel

RO/SRO Rating: 3.0/3.0 Pedigree: Bank, from Nine Mile Point 2008 NRC exam

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-009-A, Obj. 2 - State the purpose and/or function of the following components pertaining to the SRM and IRM systems as applicable: b. Drive Unit

Reference:

None

Cog Level: fundamental knowledge Explanation:

Both the SRM and IRM detectors are positioned within the reactor core by means of detector insert and retract mechanism which is controlled from the reactor control benchboard. The detectors may be positioned full in (18 inches above the core centerline), full out (24 inches below the core), or any

intermediate position Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because bottom of active fuel is also another common reference point and a plausible misconception

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanationPlausible because Choice C: Plausible because core centerline is a common reference point and can be a plausible misconception, and bottom of active fuel is also another common reference point and a plausible misconception

Choice D: Plausible because core centerline is a common reference point and can be a plausible misconception.

SRO Basis: N/A

14. 215004 1 The reactor has just been declared critical during a reactor startup IAW 0GP-02, Approach To Criticality and Pressurizati on of the Reactor, with SRM channel A bypassed. A-05 (2-2) Rod Out Block and A-05 (2-3) SRM Upscale/Inop are in alarm.

As the operator attempts to withdraw SRM B detector is stu ck and will not retract from the full in position.

Which one of the following comp letes the statement below?

Rods cannot be withdrawn until the IRMs are ranged to Range or above.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 7 D. 8 Answer: D K/A: 215004 SOURCE RANGE MONITOR (SRM) SYSTEM K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SOURCE RANGE MONITOR (SRM)

SYSTEM will have on following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.4) 02 Reactor manual control RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.4 Pedigree: Bank, last used on the 2008 NRC exam Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-009.1, Obj 10 - Given plant conditions, predict the response of the SRM/IRM system to a malfunction/failure of the following systems/components: e. Detector Drive motor

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: SRM Channel B detector is stuck. Since the reactor is critical power will contin ue to increase until the heating range is reached (range 7 to 8 of IRMs). The SRM rod block is at 2 X 10 5 counts/second. Only one SRM channel at a time can be bypassed (unlike IRMs) and SRM A is already bypassed due to a low voltage supply which is an inop trip. When SRM B goes above the rod block setpoint, the alarm procedure directs the operator to bypass SRM B, but bypassing SRM B would require unbypassing A and would not get rid of the rod block. Some SRM rod blocks (downscale and detector retract) are bypassed with IRMs on range 3 or above, but the upscale high and inop rod blocks are not bypassed until IRMs are on range 8 or above. Some of the wording in different documents states bypass when greater than range 2 or 7 for their respective blocks.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible since the setpoint for downscale and detector retract is greater than range 2.

Choice B: Plausible since the setpoint downscale and detector retract is range 3 or above.

Choice C: Plausible since the setpoint for the Upscale is greater than range 7.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

15. 215004 2 A plant startup is in progress. The OATC was withdrawing SRMs when a control rod block occurred. The following nuclear instrument indications are noted:

SRM Counts Position IRM Counts Range A 95 Mid Position A 25/125 3 B 190 Mid Position B 65/125 2 C 6x10 4 Full In C 35/125 3 D 155 Mid Position D 15/125 3 E 12/125 2 F 55/125 3 G 30/125 2 H 25/125 3

Which one of the following actions will clear the control rod block?

A. Inserting SRM A.

B. Withdrawing SRM C.

C. Ranging IRM G ONLY to range 3.

D. Ranging IRM B and G to range 3.

Answer: A K/A: 215004 SOURCE RANGE MONITOR (SRM) SYSTEM K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to SOURCE RANGE MONITOR (SRM) SYSTEM : (CFR: 41.5 / 45.3) 03 Changing detector position RO/SRO Rating: 2.8/2.8

Pedigree: New Objective:

CLS-LP-09.1 Obj. 9 - Describe the insertion/withdrawal of the SRM detectors, including the following: a. Reason for maintaining counts between 125 and 2x10 5

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation:

To clear the rod block SRM must be above 125 counts or the divisional IRMs must be > range 3, or the mode switch in RUN. Inserting SRM A to get counts around 125 will cause the rod block to clear.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because SRM A does need to be withdrawn and C is above the old setpoint for the upscale alarm. (recent change, old setpoint was 5x10 4). Choice C: Plausible because IRM G is a Div I IRM below range 3, but IRM G is also less than range 3. If all Div II IRMs are above range 3 then the rod block from SRM Retract Permissive in would be bypassed Choice D: Plausible because IRM B & G are below range 3. This would still leave IRM E on Div I below range 3. If all Div I IRMs are above range 3 then a rod block from SRM Retract Permissive would be bypassed on Div I.

SRO Basis: N/A

16. 215005 1 Unit Two is operating at rated po wer with the following conditions:

A-05 (2-2)

Rod Out Block In alarm A-05 (4-8)

OPRM Trip Enabled NOT in alarm A-06 (2-8) APRM Upscale NOT in alarm A-06 (5-7) Flow Ref Off Normal In alarm Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

A total recirc flow channel has failed (1) .

IAW APP A-06 (5-7) Flow Ref off Normal, the OATC will (2) the affected APRM.

A. (1) downscale (2) bypass

B. (1) downscale (2) place the mode switch in INOP for

C. (1) upscale (2) bypass

D. (1) upscale (2) place the mode switch in INOP for

Answer: C K/A: 215005 AVERAGE POWER RANGE MONITOR/LOCAL POWER RANGE MONITOR SYSTEM A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the AVERAGE POWER RANGE MONITOR/LOCAL POWER RANGE MONITOR SYSTEM ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) 06 Recirculation flow channels upscale

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.5

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-009.6, Obj 6e - Given plant conditions, predict the response of the PRNMS to a malfunction/failure of the following systems/components: Recirc Flow Module (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: These are the only two alarms that annunciate for a channel failing upscale. If it were to fail downscale APRM upscale, APRM upscale Trip/Inop, and OPRM enabled alarms would annunciate. The APP has the operator bypass the APRM. The action to place the mode switch in INOP is from OI-18 to place the channel in a tripped condition.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because these alarms do annunciate on failing downscale and bypassing the APRM is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because these alarms do annunciate on failing downscale and this is the action for placing the channel in a tripped condition.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because upscale is correct (only these two alarms would be received) and this is the action for placing the channel in a tripped condition.

SRO Basis: N/A

From OI-18 for placing the APRM in Trip Condition:

17. 216000 1 A reactor vessel instrument reference leg (with both level and pressure instruments) has CRD backfill in service.

A blockage of reference leg causes the instrument piping outside containment to equalize with CRD pressure.

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

The blockage will cause indicated level on the affected level instruments to (1) .

An expected pressure alarm for these conditions would be (2) .

A. (1) lower (2) A-04 (1-8)

Steam Line Lo Press A B. (1) lower (2) A-07 (3-2)

Reactor Press High C. (1) rise (2) A-04 (1-8)

Steam Line Lo Press A D. (1) rise (2) A-07 (3-2)

Reactor Press High

Answer: B K/A: 216000 NUCLEAR BOILER INSTRUMENTATION A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the NUCLEAR BOILER INSTRUMENTATION ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) 02 Instrument line plugging

RO/SRO Rating: 2.9/3.0

Pedigree: Bank Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-001.2, Obj 5 - Explain the effect that the following will have on reactor vessel level and/or pressure indications: k) Instrument line plugging (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: fundamental knowledge

Explanation: Brunswick does not have a procedure for a plugged instrument line, so this question was only written to the predicting the effect on level indication and predicting the annunciator that would come in for the pressure instrument. The Chief examiner agreed with this testing philosophy.

Reference leg pressurization to CRD system (charging header) pressure causes pressure instruments to trend high, pressurizing reference leg causes level instrument DP to rise and indicated level to lower.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because indicated level would be lowering and if the student correlates the same logic as the level then they would believe that pressure would also lower.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because reference leg pressure does go up but this creates a higher dp which causes level to indicate lower and if the student correlates the same logic as the level then they would believe that pressure would also lower.

Choice D: Plausible because reference leg pressure does go up but this creates a higher dp which causes level to indicate lower.

SRO Basis: N/A

18. 217000 1 Given the following plant conditions wit h RCIC in pressure control mode:

RCIC controller output 70%

E51-F022, Bypass to CST Vlv. Throttled RCIC Flow 300 gpm RPV pressure 810 psig, slowly lowering RCIC controller Automatic set @ 300 gpm

Which one of the following identifies two independent actions that will stabilize RPV pressure?

The RO can throttle the E51-F022 in t he ____(1)____ direction, or by ____(2)____ the RCIC Flow Controller auto setpoint.

A. (1) open (2) lowering

B. (1) open (2) raising

C. (1) close (2) lowering

D. (1) close (2) raising

Answer: A K/A: 217000 REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM (RCIC) A4 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8) 07 Reactor pressure RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/3.8

Pedigree: Modified a bank question that was last used on the 2010-1 NRC exam.

Objective: CLS-LP-016-A Obj. 17 - Describe how the following evolutions are performed during operation of the RCIC system: b.Adjusting RCIC flow in the reactor pressure control mode.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation: There are two ways to raise RPV pressure with the conditions given. One way is to open the 22 valve, thereby increasing the size of the hole and forcing the turbine to work less to deliver the same flowrate. The second is to lower the controller setpoint thereby causing the turbine to work less by forcing less flow through the same size hole.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because opening the F022 is correct and the student could have a misconception about the operation of the controller.

Choice C: Plausible because the student could have a misconception on the operation of the F022 valve and lowering the controller is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because if the operator ws trying to lower reactor pressure this would be correct.

SRO Basis: N/A 2010-1 Exam question:

19. 217000 2 Unit Two has inserted a manual scram.

Suppression Pool temperature is 90°F and rising due to HPCI/RCIC usage Suppression Pool level is -25 inches CST level is 21 feet

Which one of the following identifies: (1) the lowest Suppression Pool Temperature that requires PCCP entry and (2) the current suction source for the RCIC system?

A. (1) 96°F.

(2) CST.

B. (1) 96°F. (2) Suppression Pool.

C. (1) 106°F.

(2) CST.

D. (1) 106°F. (2) Suppression Pool.

Answer: A K/A: 217000 REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM (RCIC) G2.04.04 Ability to recognize abnormal indications for system operating parameters that are entry-level conditions for emergency and abnormal operating procedures. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.5/4.7

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-016, Obj 5 - Given plant conditions, predict the RCIC System response to the following conditions: g. High/low Suppression Pool water level.

h. Low CST level.

Reference:

None Cog Level: Hi

Explanation: 95°F is the entry condition for PCCP, 105°F is also an entry condition if RCIC is being run for surviellances. The CST is the normal suction for RCIC. It does transfer to the suppression pool on low level in the CST. The HPCI system has an auto transfer to the suppression pool on hi level in the suppression pool, but RCIC does not.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because >95 is correct and the HPCI system does transfer on high torus level.

Choice C: Plausible because >105 is correct if RCIC testing is in progress and the CST is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because >105 is correct if RCIC testing was in progress and the HPCI system does transfer on high torus level.

SRO Basis: N/A

20. 218000 1 Which one of the following completes the statements below concer ning operation of the SRVs?

(1) causes annunciation of A-03 (1-10)

Safety / Relief Valve Open.

Upon receipt of this alarm, at least one SRV (2) will be illuminated on the apron section of RTGB Panel P601.

A. (1) High temperature on recorder B2l-TR-6l4 (2) red light ONLY

B. (1) High temperature on recorder B2l-TR-6l4 (2) red and amber lights

C. (1) Activation of a SRV sonic detector (2) red light ONLY

D. (1) Activation of a SRV sonic detector (2) red and amber lights

Answer: D K/A: 218000 AUTOMATIC DEPRESSURIZATION SYSTEM A3 Ability to monitor automatic operations of the AUTOMATIC DEPRESSURIZATION SYSTEM including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7) 03 ADS valve acoustical monitor noise

RO/SRO Rating: 3.7/3.8 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-020, Obj 5 Describe the operation of the SRVs for both an overpressure condition and a manual/ADS actuation.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High

Explanation: This alarm input is from the Sonic detectors and the alarm A-03 (1-1) Safety or Depress Vlv Leaking is from the temperature recorder. The red light indicates the valve is open and the amber light is a memory light.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because high temperature causes a different alarm and the red light is illuminated.

Choice B: Plausible because high temperature caus es a different alarm and both lights are illuminated

Choice C: Plausible because the sonic detector does cause the alarm and the red light is illuminated.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

21. 219000 1 Which one of the following states the normal elec trical power supply to the following Unit One RHR Suppression Pool Cooling valves?

(1) 1-E11-F024A, RHR Torus Cooling Isolation Valve (2) 1-E11-F028A, RHR Torus Spray Valve

A. (1) E5 (2) E5 B. (1) E5 (2) E7 C. (1) E7 (2) E5 D. (1) E7 (2) E7

Answer: B K/A: 219000 RHR/LPCI: TORUS/SUPPRESSION POOL COOLING MODE K2 Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7) 01 Valves

RO/SRO Rating: 2.5/2.9 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-017, Obj. 17b - List the normal and emergency power sources for the following: RHR MOVs

Reference:

None Cog Level: Memory

Explanation: In order to establish suppression pool cooling the flowpath is through the F024 and F028 valves.

Power for the E11-F024A comes from E5 through 1XA MCC. Power for the E11-F028A comes from E7 through 1XA-2 MCC.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because both of these are Unit One Division I power to RHR Loop A valves.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because these are the reverse of the correct answer.

Choice D: Plausible because these are the Unit Two Division I power SRO Basis: N/A

22. 223002 1 Unit Two is operating at power with DG3 under clearance for maintenance activities. Bus E3 Master/Slave Breakers trip.

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

The (1) RWCU isolation valve auto closes.

Technical Specification LCO 3.6.1.3, Primary Containment Isolation Valves (PCIVs), states each PCIV, except (2) , shall be OPERABLE.

A. (1) Inboard (2) reactor building-to-suppre ssion chamber vacuum breakers B. (1) Inboard (2) main steam isolation valves (MSIVs)

C. (1) Outboard (2) reactor building-to-suppre ssion chamber vacuum breakers D. (1) Outboard (2) main steam isolation valves (MSIVs)

Answer: C K/A: 223002 PRIMARY CONTAINMENT ISOLATION SYSTEM/NUCLEAR STEAM SUPPLY SHUT-OFF G2.02.36 Ability to analyze the effect of maintenance activities, such as degraded power sources, on the status of limiting conditions for operations. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.1/4.2

Pedigree: Bank, last used on 2008 NRC Makeup Exam

Objective: LOi-CLS-LP-014, Obj 9 - Given plant conditions, predict how the following will affect the RWCU System: m. Loss of AC power. (LOCT)

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation:

RWCU System outboard isolation logic contains contacts which opens when the NRHX outlet temperature exceeds its setpoint (135 °F, Only G31-F004 closes). The temperature sensing element is powered from 1AB-RX (2AB-RX) which is normally aligned to Division I AC. On a loss of this power, the Outboard, Division II, PCIS valve isolates. The RWCU Inboard and Outboard isolation valves are MOVs. The Inboard valve is powered from 480 Vac MCC XC, and the Outboard valve from 250 Vdc MCC XDB.

LCO 3.6.1.3 Each PCIV, except reactor building-to-suppression chamber vacuum breakers, shall be OPERABLE.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the inboard valves have lost power and if they were solenoid operated they would have closed.

Choice B: Plausible because the inboard valves have lost power and if they were solenoid operated they would have closed and the MSIV leakage not within limit is excepted in the action statements.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because MSIV leakage not within limit is excepted in the action statements.

SRO Basis: N/A

23. 230000 1 During a line break inside the dr ywell, plant conditions are:

RPV water level 200 inches RPV pressure 800 psig Drywell pressure 12 psig

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

In order to initiate Suppression Pool Sprays, operation of the "2/3 Core Height LPCI Initiation" keylock override switch is (1) .

The Suppression Pool Spray valves (2) automatically close when drywell pressure lowers below 2.7 psig.

A. (1) required (2) will

B. (1) required (2) will NOT

C. (1) NOT required (2) will

D. (1) NOT required (2) will NOT

Answer: B K/A: 230000 RHR/LPCI: TORUS/SUPPRESSION POOL SPRAY MODE A3 Ability to monitor automatic operations of the RHR/LPCI: TORUS/

SUPPRESSION POOL SPRAY MODE including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7) 01 Valve operation

RO/SRO Rating: 2.5/2.9 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-300-K, Obj. 07 - Explain how the absence of a LPCI LOCA signal affects Drywell/Suppression Pool Spray operation.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Hi Explanation: Without a LPCI signal this keylock would be required to open the spray valves. If a LPCI signal is present and DW pressure lowers to less than 2.7 psig the valves will auto close, without the LPCI signal the close signal does not get energized. The 2/3 core height override (Lacka LOCA switch) and the closure logic is a common misconception in initial training.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the keylock is required and the valves will not auto close unless a LOCA is present.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because the students typically have a misconception of the switch (Lack of LOCA) and the valves will close if a LOCA signal is present.

Choice D: Plausible because the students typically have a misconception of the switch (Lack of LOCA) and the valves will not auto close unless a LOCA is present.

SRO Basis: N/A

24. 239002 1 Which one of the following identifies the loads that c an be supplied by the Backup Nitrogen System?

A. Inboard MSIVs, SRV Accumulators, and Hardened Wetwell Vent Isolation valves.

B. Inboard MSIVs, Suppression Chamber to Drywell Vacuum Breakers, and Hardened Wetwell Vent Isolation valves.

C. SRV Accumulators, Reactor Building to Suppression Chamber Vacuum Breakers, and Hardened Wetwell Vent Isolation valves.

D. SRV Accumulators, Suppression Chamber to Drywell Vacuum Breakers, and Reactor Building to Suppressi on Chamber Vacuum Breakers

Answer: C K/A: 239002 RELIEF/SAFETY VALVES K1 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between RELIEF/SAFETY VALVES and the following: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8) 05 Plant air systems

RO/SRO Rating: 3.1/3.3

Pedigree: Bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-046, Obj. 5 - List the pneumatic loads supplied by the Nitrogen Backup System

Reference:

none

Cog Level: fundamental Knowledge Explanation:

Following a Core Spray LOCA and subsequent containment isolation signal, the PNS (or RNA) supply to the Drywell will be isolated. Unde r these conditions, the Nitrogen Backup System supplies the SRV accumulators inside the Drywell and CAC-V16, CAC-V17, CAC-V7, and CAC-V216 valves outside the Drywell. No other loads inside the Drywell will be supplied by the Nitr ogen Backup System. This ensures operability of the ADS Valves, the Reactor Building to Suppression Pool Vacuum Breakers, and the Wetwell Vents during all postulated accident conditions.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because Inboard MSIVs are in the DW and have accumulators associated with them.

Choice B: Plausible because Inboard MSIVs are in the DW and have accumulators associated with them.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because the REactor Bldg vacuum breakers are supplied but the Torus to DW breakers are not.

SRO Basis: N/A

25. 239002 2 Which one of the following identifies the affect that a loss of E8 will have on the Unit Two Safety Relief Valve (SRV) system?

A. Inability to manually o perate SRV's from the RTGB B. Inability to manually o perate SRV's from the RSDP C. Loss of SRV position indication on the RTGB D. Loss of SRV position indication on the RSDP

Answer: C K/A: 239002 RELIEF/SAFETY VALVES K6 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RELIEF/SAFETY VALVES : (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7) 03 A.C. power

RO/SRO Rating: 2.7/2.9

Pedigree: Bank, last used on 2008 NRC exam

Objective:

CLS-LP-20, Obj. 15c. Given plant conditions, predict how ADS/SRVs will be affected by the following: Loss of AC power.

Reference:

None Cog Level: low

Explanation: SRV position indication on the RTGB is powered thru the acoustic sensors which are powered from E6/E8.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Incorrect. powered from 125 VDC

Choice B: Incorrect. powered from 125 VDC

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Incorrect. powered from 125 VDC

SRO Basis: N/A

26. 245000 1 Unit Two is being shutdown for entry in to the main gener ator for repairs.

Which one of the following completes the statement below concerning the flowpath for

purging the Main Generator IAW 2OP-27.

3, Generator Gas System Operating Procedure?

Carbon Dioxide exits through the (1) distribution tube in the main generator while (2) is admitted th rough the other distribution tube.

A. (1) upper (2) Hydrogen

B. (1) upper (2) Service Air

C. (1) bottom (2) Hydrogen

D. (1) bottom (2) Service Air

Answer: B K/A: 245000 MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR AND AUXILIARY SYSTEMS K1 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR AND AUXILIARY SYSTEMS and the following: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8) 07 Plant air systems

RO/SRO Rating: 2.5/2.5 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-027.3, Obj 3 - Describe the flow path for the Main Generator Gas System

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge Explanation:

Hydrogen is purged by CO2 which is then purged by service air. the CO2 enters through the bottom distribution tube and hydrogen is vented through the top distribution tube. Then spool pieces are removed and Service Air will use the bottom distribution tube while CO2 is vented out of the hydrogen distribution tube.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the upper tube is correct and for startup CO2 does purge hydrogen.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because the bottom tube is the CO2 distribution tube and for startup CO2 does purge hydrogen.

Choice D: Plausible because the bottom tube is the CO2 distribution tube and Service Air is correct.

SRO Basis: N/A

27. 256000 1 Unit Two is operating at 30%

power when a Heater Drain (HD) Deaerator level controller failure results in HD Deaerator level rising to 62 inches.

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

MVD-LV-266 / 267, Deaerator Extraction Line MRVs, are (1) .

EX-V11 / V12, 9th Stage Extraction Steam Non Return Valves, are (2) .

A. (1) open (2) open

B. (1) open (2) closed

C. (1) closed (2) open

D. (1) closed (2) closed

Answer: B K/A: 256000 REACTOR CONDENSATE SYSTEM K4 Knowledge of REACTOR CONDENSATE SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7) 06 Control of extraction steam

RO/SRO Rating: 2.8/2.8 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-034, Obj 7 - Given plant conditions, describe the automatic feedwater heater level control actions for the following: c. High-High Feedwater Heater/Heater Drain Deaerator level

Reference:

None Cog Level: high

Explanation: On hi-hi level (60 inches) in the deaerator the NRV close and the MRV open.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the MRVs do open and the normal position of the NRVs is open.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because this is the normal position of these valves.

Choice D: Plausible because the normal position of MRVs is closed and the NRVs do close

SRO Basis: N/A

28. 259001 1 Unit Two is performing plant heatup and pressurization with the reactor at 250 psig.

Reactor Feed Pump (RFP) 2A indicate s 185 RPM with the following status:

Suction valve is open Recirc valve is open

Discharge valve is closed

UA-04 (1-2)

RFP A Turbine Tripped is clear HPU oil pressure is 275 psig Reactor water level is 200 inches

A-07 (2-2)

Reactor Water Level High / Low is in alarm The operator depresses the RFPT A Start push button on XU-1 panel.

Which one of the following identifies how the 2A RFP will respond?

A. Rolls to 1000 RPM.

B. Rolls to 2450 RPM.

C. Remains at 185 RPM.

D. Trips on emergency shutdown logic.

Answer: A K/A: 259001 REACTOR FEEDWATER SYSTEM K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to REACTOR FEEDWATER SYSTEM : (CFR: 41.5 / 45.3) 03 Turbine operation

RO/SRO Rating: 2.8/2.8 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-32.3, Obj 5 - State the purpose/function of the following RFPT Governor controls: k. XU-2, RFPT RESET Pushbutton

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High

Explanation:

The RFPT A(B) START pushbutton permissive light will be illuminated when all of the following conditions are met: - Reactor feed pump has been reset at Panel XU Reactor feed pump suction pressure is normal

- RFPT A(B) HPU hydraulic pressure is greater than 175 psig - RFP A(B) SUCTION VLV, COD-V49(COD-V50), is full open - RFP A(B) RECIRC VLV, FW-FV-V46(V47), is full open

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because after rolling the turbine then the procedure has the operator roll the turbine to 2450 rpms.

Choice C: Plausible because if any of the conditions are changed this would be correct.

Choice D: Plausible because on high level (206 inches) would provide a trip and level is high just not high enough.

SRO Basis: N/A

29. 259002 1 Given the following plant conditions on Unit One:

MODE 2 at 6% power RPV pressure is 800 psig SULCV is in Auto (40% valve demand)

Master Level Controller is in Manual set at 187 inches

A loss of UPS V7A results in blank displays on the Startup Level and Master Level Controllers.

Which one of the following identifies the response of the SULCV and the effect on reactor water level based on the above conditions?

The SULCV will:

A. close and the reactor will scram on low reactor water level.

B. open and the running Reactor Feed Pump will trip on high level.

C. remain at 40% valve demand position irrespective of reactor level changes.

D. change valve position as required to maintain reactor water level at 187 inches.

Answer: D K/A: 259002 REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM will have on following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.4 to 45.8) 07 Reactor water level indication

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.4 Pedigree: Bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-032-C, Obj. 7b - Given plant conditions, predict the effect a loss of or malfunction or misoperation of the DFCS will have on the following: b. RPV level and/or level indication (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: Feedwater control receives redundant power from DC distribution (panel 3B). Controllers are UPS only resulting in loss of operator interface with feedwater control system, but control system will function to maintain last demanded level.

Loss of UPS V7A will remove the capability to control the system from the specific control stations but will continue to function automatically from the logic control circuits. Loss of UPS V9A, 125VDC 3B, or 125VDC 3A will arm the associated High Level Trip circuit which would satisfy the two out of three logic needed to trip the Main and Reactor Feedpump Turbines on high level. Any power loss will initiate the "Feedwater Trouble" annunciator and the APP should be referenced.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because on a loss of air the valve fails closed of on a loss of signal it may be thought that the level signal would be zero demand.

Choice B: Plausible because some valves do fail open.

Choice C: Plausible because some valves do fail as-is.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

30. 261000 1 Unit One primary containm ent venting is being performed IAW 1OP-10, Standby Gas Treatment System Operat ing System with the following plant status:

1-VA-1F-BFV-RB, SBGT DW Suct Damper Open 1-VA-1D-BFV-RB, Reactor Building SBGT Train 1A Inlet Valve Closed 1-VA-1H-BFV-RB, Reactor Building SBGT Train 1B Inlet Valve Closed

Which one of the following completes the statements below concerning the predicted

SBGT response if drywell pr essure reaches 1.9 psig?

1-VA-1F-BFV-RB (1) .

Both 1-VA-1D-BFV-RB and 1-VA-1H-BFV-RB (2) .

A. (1) auto closes (2) auto open

B. (1) auto closes (2) remain closed

C. (1) remains open (2) auto open

D. (1) remains open (2) remain closed

Answer: A AK/A: 261000 STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM K1 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM and the following: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8) 11 Primary containment pressure

RO/SRO Rating: 3.2/3.3 Pedigree: Bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-004.1, Obj 5 - List the signals and setpoints that will cause a Secondary Containment isolation

Reference:

None

Cog Level: high Explanation:

The filter train fans will automatically start on High Drywell Pressure. The following actions occur: 1) SBGT Reactor Building suction dampers (1D-BFV-RB and 1H-BFV-RB) open, 2) SBGT DW Suct Damper (F-BFV-RB) closes.

The SBGT Train A/B Suction & Discahrge Valves on U1 do not auto open. These valves on U2 do auto open, so there could be a misconception on these valves (inlet vs suction dampers).

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because 1F does auto close and SBGT Train 1A/B Suction Valves (1C & 1E) on Unit One only do not auto open

Choice C: Incorrect since SBGT will auto realign from primary containment to the Reactor Building on system initiation

Choice D: Incorrect since SBGT will auto realign from primary containment to the Reactor Building on system initiation and SBGT Train 1A/B Suction Valves (1C & 1E) on Unit One only do not auto open SRO Basis: N/A

31. 262001 1 The following sequence of events occur on Unit Two:

1156 Reactor scram due to high drywell pressure 1158 Off-site power is lost, DG4 locks out 1200 Reactor water level drops below LL2 1202 Bus E2 cross-tie breaker is placed to MAINT 1204 Reactor water level drops below LL3 1206 Bus E4 cross-tie breaker is placed to MAINT 1208 Reactor pressure lowers to 410 psig

Which one of the following identifies the earlies t time that E4 is allowed to be energized from E2 IAW 0AOP-36.1, Loss of Any 4160V Buses or 480V E-Buses?

A. 1206 B. 1208 C. 1214 D. 1216 Answer: D K/A: 262001 A.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION A4 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the A.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) 02 Loss of coolant accident RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/3.9

Pedigree: New Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-050-B, Obj. 13c - Given plant conditions, determine if the following breakers could be closed: E1 to E3 (or E2 to E4) cross-tie breakers

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: In the Maint position, there is a 10 minute trip on LOCA signal from either unit. The 10 minute timer cannot start until the breaker is placed to Maint since there is no DC control power with the switch in Norm. The bus E2 breaker 10 minute timer will not start when the switch is placed to maint since there is not yet a LOCA signal. the LOCA signal is received at 1204 which starts the 10 minute timer for the E2 breaker (which can be closed at 1214). The timer for the E4 breaker starts at 1206 so that breaker cannot be closed until 1216. (this predicts based on the LOCA when the ten minute timer starts (effect) and per the procedure when the breaker can be closed)

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this would be correct if no LOCA signal was present.

Choice B: Plausible because this is 10 minutes from the LOOP, and when the LOCA signal is in from high DW pressure with low reactor pressure.

Choice C: Plausible because this is 10 minutes from the LOCA signal.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

32. 262002 1 The indications and status of the UPS System are:

Primary Inverter Standby Inverter Load on UPS (DS10)

OFF OFF Load on Inverter (DS151)

OFF ON Load on Alternate (DS152)

ON OFF Alt Source Failure (DS11)

OFF OFF Manual Bypass Switch (S1)

NORM BYP TEST Which one of the following identifies the status of UPS System Loads?

A. de-energized.

B. powered from the primary inverter.

C. powered from the standby inverter.

D. powered from the alternate source.

Answer: D K/A: 262002 UNINTERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (A.C./D.C.) K6 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the UNINTERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (A.C./D.C.) : (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7) 03 Static inverter

RO/SRO Rating: 2.7/2.9 Pedigree: Bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-052, Obj. 5 - Given plant conditions, determine the lineup of the primary UPS, the Standby UPS, and their reserve sources. (LOCT)

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High

Explanation: The primary unit is in service with its output connected to the UPS distribution system. Its rectifier receives 480 VAC power from a Division I emergency distribution panel. A 250 VDC from DC Switchboard 1A (2A) is supplied in parallel with the rectifier output to power the inverter should the normal AC source be lost. The alternate AC source from the standby unit is available at the static transfer switch to pick up the loads if the inverter output is lost.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this would be true on a loss of AC under these conditions Choice B: Plausible because this is the normal power supply Choice C: Plausible because this would be correct if the standby was in series with the primary as the original design was.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

33. 263000 1 Which one of the following completes the statements below regarding 125/250 VDC Station Distribution?

In the equalize charge mode, the charger output voltage is at a (1) voltage when compared to the fl oat charge mode.

The 125 VDC batteries are sized to supply emergency power at a 150 amp rate

for (2) hours.

A. (1) lower (2) 8 B. (1) lower (2) 10 C. (1) higher (2) 8 D. (1) higher (2) 10

Answer: C K/A: 263000 D.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION A1 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the D.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION controls including: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5) 01 Battery charging/discharging rate

RO/SRO Rating: 2.5/2.8 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-051, Obj. 13 - Describe the location and operation of Battery Chargers 1B-1, 1B-2, 2B-1, and 2B-2 AC Power Transfer Switches.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge

Explanation: The float mode voltage for the 125 VDC battery charger is ~135 volts while in equalize the charger output is ~140 volts. The design of the batteries is for 150 amps for 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the student may have a knowledge deficiency on which (float vs equalize) value is for equalize and the 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because the Caswell Beach batteries are rated for 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> and the student may have a knowledge deficiency on which (float vs equalize) value is for equalize.

Choice C: Correct answer, see explanation.

Choice D: Plausible because higher is correct and the Caswell Beach batteries are rated for 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />.

SRO Basis: N/A

34. 264000 1 During an ATWS on Unit Two, RPV level is being controlled at Top of Active Fuel.

The RHR pumps have been overridden OFF.

A fault then occurs on Bus 2C which results in loss of Bus E4.

Which one of the following identifies the RHR pump response as DG4 re-energizes Bus E4? A. RHR pumps 2B and 2D both remain overridden off.

B. RHR pumps 2B and 2D both restart 10 seconds later.

C. RHR pump 2D restarts 10 seconds later, RHR pump 2B remains off.

D. RHR pump 2B restarts 10 seconds later, RHR pump 2D remains off.

Answer: D K/A: 264000 EMERGENCY GENERATORS (DIESEL/JET) K4 Knowledge of EMERGENCY GENERATORS (DIESEL/JET) design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7) 05 Load shedding and sequencing

RO/SRO Rating: 3.2/3.5 Pedigree: Bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-17, Obj 7 - Given plant conditions, determine if the RHR System should automatically initiate in the LPCI mode.

Reference:

none

Cog Level: High

Explanation: The RHR System will automatically start in the LPCI mode of operation in response to either of two initiation signals: reactor vessel low level (LL3) or drywell high pressure with reactor vessel low pressure. All RHR Pumps automatically start 10 seconds from receipt of the initiation signal if the Emergency busses are energized (off-site power available). If off-site power is not available, the pumps automatically start 10 seconds from the time the Emergency Diesel Generators re-energize its' bus.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because they were overridden prior to DG4 re-energizing E4.

Choice B: Plausible because if E2 is also re-energized this would be correct.

Choice C: Plausible because if it is determined that E1-2A, E2-2B, E3-2C, & E4-2D are the power supplies then this would be correct.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

35. 271000 1 Unit Two is operating at rated powe r with Offgas Train A in full load. A tube rupture occurs inside the Offgas Aftercondenser.

Which one of the following parameters will lower/diminish in response to this event?

A. Aftercondenser Outlet Temperature B. Offgas Filter differential pressure C. Main condenser vacuum D. Aftercondenser Level

Answer: C K/A: 271000 OFFGAS SYSTEM K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the OFFGAS SYSTEM will have on following: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.3) 01 Condenser vacuum

RO/SRO Rating: 3.5/3.5

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-030, Obj 6 - Given the necessary plant conditions, describe the effect that each of the following will would have on the Condenser Air Removal/Augmented Offgas System:

(LOCT) j. (LOCT) Loss or failure of the Condensate System

Reference:

None Cog Level: hi

Explanation: The reason is simply due to the "back-pressure" placed on the Offgas stream flow felt all the way back through the Offgas system to the Condenser as a result of the flooded condenser.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because when the condenser floods, cooling water recirculation (i.e., heat transfer of BTUs away from the condenser) essentially stops; the "pool" of water in the shell-side becomes ineffective, causing a rise in the Offgas outlet temperature (i.e., less cooling of the Offgas stream through the condenser shell)

Choice B: Plausible because the d/ps will increase not lower.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because level will rise, not lower.

SRO Basis: N/A

36. 290001 1 Which one of the following identifies the action that is requi red to be taken in response to annunciator UA-05 (1-9) Fan Clg Unit CS Pump Rm A Inl Press Lo

? IAW the APP, the reactor operator will open:

A. SW-V105, Nuc SW Supply Vlv.

B. SW-V101, Conv SW Supply Vlv.

C. SW-V143, Well Water Supply Vlv.

D. SW-V117, Nuc SW to Vital header Vlv.

Answer: D K/A: 290001 SECONDARY CONTAINMENT G2.04.31 Knowledge of annunciator alarms, indications, or response procedures. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.3)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.2/4.1 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-043, Obj 9 - Describe the operation of the Core Spray and RHR Room Coolers including any limitations on operation.

Reference:

None Cog Level: hi

Explanation: These alarms are for low pressure in the vital header which supplies cooling to the ECCS Room Coolers. The APP requires opening the SW-V111 or SW-V117 valve. The other valves are SW valves associated with the RHR SW system.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is a SW valve associated with the RHR SW system and the valves are located in close proximity to the V117 and are operated for initiating RHR SW.

Choice B: Plausible because this is a SW valve associated with the RHR SW system and the valves are located in close proximity to the V117 and are operated for initiating RHR SW.

Choice C: Plausible because this is a SW valve associated with the RHR SW system and the valves are located in close proximity to the V117 and are operated for initiating RHR SW.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: N/A

37. 295001 1 A reactor recirc pump has tripped on Unit Two.

Which one of the following comple tes the statement below for determining stability region compliance?

The primary indication of total core flow is determined using:

A. Core Support Plate Delta-P.

B. PPC Point U2NSSWDP (WDP).

C. Total Core Flow recorder (R613).

D. PPC Point U2CPWTCF (WTCF).

Answer: D K/A: 295001 PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF FORCED CORE FLOW CIRCULATION AK1 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF FORCED CORE FLOW CIRCULATION:(CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) 02 Power/flow distribution RO/SRO Rating: 3.3/3.5

Pedigree: New Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-302-C, Obj 7 - Given plant conditions and AOP-03.0, determine the required supplementary actions. (LOCT)

Reference:

None

Pedigree: Bank

Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge Explanation:

Process Computer Point U2CPWTCF when validated, is the primary indication of total core flow, and should be used for stability region compliance. The recorder will read lower than the PPC points. If WTCF is not validated then WDP can be used. If WTCF and WDP are not valid then

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this indication is used if WTCF and WDP are not available. Attachment in the AOP to correlate this to core Flow.

Choice B: Plausible because this indication is used if WTCF is not available.

Choice C: Plausible because this indication is available on the P603 panel.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

38. 295003 1 Both Units were operating at rated power when ALL switchyard PCB position indications turn green.

Diesel Generator status:

DG1 Running loaded DG2 Under clearance DG3 Running loaded DG4 Tripped on low lube oil pressure

Which one of the following identifies the AOP(s) that Unit One and Unit Two are required to perform?

Unit One is required to per form (1) . Unit Two is required to per form (2) .

A. (1) 0AOP-36.1, Loss of Any 4160V Buses or 480V E-Buses (2) 0AOP-36.2, Station Blackout

B. (1) 0AOP-36.1, Loss of Any 4160V Buses or 480V E-Buses (2) 0AOP-36.1, Loss of An y 4160V Buses or 480V E-Buses C. (1) 0AOP-36.2, Station Blackout (2) 0AOP-36.2, Station Blackout

D. (1) 0AOP-36.2, Station Blackout (2) 0AOP-36.1, Loss of An y 4160V Buses or 480V E-Buses

Answer: B K/A: 295003 PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF A.C. POWER AA2 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF A.C. POWER : (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13) 05 Whether a partial or complete loss of A.C. power has occurred

RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/4.2 Pedigree: Bank, last used on 2010-1 NRC exam Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-303-A, Obj 1 - Given plant conditions and control room indications, determine if AOP 36.2, Station Blackout Procedure, should be entered.

Reference:

none Cog Level: High

Explanation: This meets the KA because the student will have to determine that all green lights is a LOOP on BOTH Units then determine that neither unit is in Station Blackout since each unit has a running and loaded D/G available.

Switchyard PCB green position indication shows all PCB are OPEN, which indicates Loss of ALL offsite power.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because examinee could misdiagnose unit specific D/G availability

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because examinee could misdiagnose unit specific D/G availability

Choice D: Plausible because examinee could confuse a "loss of off-site power on both units" as an entry condition for AOP-36.2 on both units

SRO Basis: N/A From AOP-36.1:

From AOP-36.2:

39. 295004 1 Which one of the following identifies how the manually initiated, automatically executed, fast bus transfer capability is affe cted following a loss of 125V DC Panel 9A?

The fast bus transfer will ____(1)____ if attempted for 4 KV Bus 1B. The fast bus transfer will ____(2)____

if attempted for 4 KV Bus 1C.

A. (1) occur (2) NOT occur

B. (1) occur (2) occur

C. (1) NOT occur (2) NOT occur

D. (1) NOT occur (2) occur

Answer: A K/A: 295004 PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF D.C. POWER AA1 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF D.C. POWER: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6) 03 A.C. electrical distribution

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.6 Pedigree: Bank, last used on the 2010-1 NRC exam Objective:

CLS-LP-50.1 Obj 7 - Given plant conditions, predict the effect a loss of DC control power will have on the 4160 VAC System.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Hi

Explanation:

Distractor Analysis:

BOP Bus 1B has AUTO control power transfer capability where 1C and 1D do not.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation.

Choice B: Plausible because the auto transfer of control power will occur on 1B, but will not on 1C and D. Recent plant mods have removed some of the auto transfer capabilities on some of the DC control power arrangements (E-busses require a manual transfer of control power).

Choice C: Plausible because the auto bus transfer will not occur on 1C and D, but it will on 1B. Recent plant mods have removed some of the auto transfer capabilities on some of the DC control power arrangements.

Choice D: Plausible because the examinee may have the logics reversed.

SRO Basis: N/A

40. 295005 1 Which one of the following completes the statements below concerning the bases for the Reactor Protection System initiating a scram on Turbine Trip / Turbine Stop Valve closure?

Anticipates the pressure, neutron flux, and heat flux rise due to the (1) in voids.

The scram reduces the energy that must be absorbed to ensure the (2) safety limit is not exceeded.

A. (1) increase (2) MCPR

B. (1) increase (2) Reactor Coolant System pressure

C. (1) decrease (2) MCPR

D. (1) decrease (2) Reactor Coolant System pressure

Answer: C K/A: 295005 MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR TRIP AK1 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR TRIP : (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) 01 Pressure effects on reactor power

RO/SRO Rating: 4.0/4.1 Pedigree: Bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-026, Obj 5 - Describe the operation of the following Main Turbine related components: a. Turbine Stop Valves.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge

Explanation: The purpose of this scram is to anticipate the pressure, neutron flux, and heat flux increases that would result from closure of the Turbine Stop Valves. The pressure increase from turbine stop valve closure would increase reactivity due to steam void collapse and acts to protect the MCPR safety limit.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because they may think backwards as a reduction in power will cause an increase in voids and MCPR is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because they may think backwards as a reduction in power will cause an increase in voids and there is an increase in pressure.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because decrease is correct and there is an increase in pressure.

SRO Basis: N/A From TS Bases B3.3.1.1

41. 295006 1 Unit Two was manually scrammed with the following indications.

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

(1) ATWS has occurred.

The reactor (2) remain s hutdown under all condi tions without boron.

A. (1) A hydraulic (2) will

B. (1) A hydraulic (2) will NOT

C. (1) An electrical (2) will

D. (1) An electrical (2) will NOT

Answer: B K/A: 295006 SCRAM AK1 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to SCRAM: (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) 02 Shutdown margin RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.7

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-003, Obj. 14 - Given plant conditions and control room indications, determine whether a reactor scram has actuated properly.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Hi Explanation:

A hydraulic ATWS is indicated by the blue scram lights being energized but a failure of the rods to insert. This makes the electrical ATWS choices wrong.

Since greater than 10 rods are not fully inserted (at position 02 or greater) the reactor will not remain shutdown under all conditions without boron Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is a hydraulic ATWS and if one more rod was inserted then this would be correct.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because if the blue scram lights were not lit this would be correct and if one more rod was inserted then this would be correct.

Choice D: Plausible because if the blue scram lights were not lit this would be correct SRO Basis: N/A

42. 295008 1 Following a reactor scram on Unit One, plant conditions are:

Reactor water level 220 inches, rising Reactor pressure 350 psig, steady Drywell ref leg temp 205°F, steady

Which one of the following identifies the indicated level (on level indicator N027A/B) that corresponds to the bottom of the Main Steam Lines?

(Reference provided)

A. 240 inches B. 245 inches C. 250 inches D. 255 inches

Answer: D K/A: 295008 HIGH REACTOR WATER LEVEL AA2 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH REACTOR WATER LEVEL: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13) 01 Reactor water level

RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/3.9 Pedigree: Bank question

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-300C, Obj 10 - Given plant conditions and the Reactor Scram Procedure, determine the required operator actions. (LOCT)

Reference:

0EOP-01-UG, Att. 6, Figure 21

Cog Level: high

Explanation: Using the upper line (Ref Leg Temp >200°F) of MSL elevation correction graph at 350 psig, corrected MSL elevation is at 255" requiring closure of MSIVs.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is symetrical with the other plausibe answers.

Choice B: Plausible because this would be correct if ref leg was <200°F.

Choice C: Plausible because this is the normal level of the MSL.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

43. 295014 1 Unit Two is operating at 60% when Reactor Recirculation Pump 2A speed begins to slowly rise.

Which one of the following identifies an immediate action required IAW 2AOP-03.0, Positive Reactivity Addition?

A. Depress 2A VFD Stop pushbutton.

B. Depress the Man Runback pushbutton.

C. Depress 2A Emerg Stop A pushbutton.

D. Depress 2A VFD Lower Fast pushbutton.

Answer: C K/A: 295014 INADVERTENT REACTIVITY ADDITION AK1 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to INADVERTENT REACTIVITY ADDITION : (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) 06 Abnormal reactivity additions

RO/SRO Rating: 3.8/3.9

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-302-C, Obj. 6 - List the Immediate Operator Actions required in accordance with AOP-03.0, Positive Reactivity Addition. (LOCT)

Reference:

none

Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: The procedure directs using the Emerg Stop pushbutton thereby tripping the pump to remove the positive reactivity addition.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is a 2A VFD control but is not directed to be used by the procedure.

Choice B: Plausible because this is a 2A VFD control that is directed to be used by the procedure to prevent a reactor scram.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because this is a 2A VFD control that is used normally to lower the speed of the pump but is not directed to be used by the procedure.

SRO Basis: N/A

44. 295015 1 Which one of the following completes the statements below IAW LEP-02, Alternate Control Rod Insertion?

The RWM is bypassed using a (1) .

The reason that the RWM is bypassed is because the (2) .

A. (1) keylock switch (2) Emergency Rod In Notch Override s witch will not work when an Insert Block exists B. (1) joystick (2) Emergency Rod In Notch Override s witch will not work when an Insert Block exists C. (1) keylock switch (2) Mode Switch in Shutdown generates a Control Rod Block D. (1) joystick (2) Mode Switch in Shutdown generates a Control Rod Block

Answer: A K/A: 295015 INCOMPLETE SCRAM AK3 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to INCOMPLETE SCRAM: (CFR:

41.5 / 45.6) 01 Bypassing rod insertion blocks

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.7 Pedigree: Bank, last used on the 2010-1 NRC Exam Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-007, Obj. 2d - State the purpose(s) of the following RWM components: Bypass Switch

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge

Explanation: LEP-02 is the procedure the we use to insert rods that have failed to insert on a scram. Direction is given to bypass the RWM which is accomplished by using a keylock switch in the RWM display console. The RWM is bypassed to override the RWM Enforced Insert Block, allowing rods to be inserted using the Emergency Rod In Notch Override Switch.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because many other components are bypasses using a joystick controller.

Choice C: Plausible if examinee confuses the "Shutdown" withdraw block with an insert block.

Choice D: Plausible because many other components are bypasses using a joystick controller. Plausible if examinee confuses the "Shutdown" withdraw block with an insert block.

SRO Basis: N/A

45. 295016 1 Which one of the following systems used during plant shutdown from outside the control room has both flow indication and flow control capability at the Remote Shutdown Panel?

A. CRD B. RCIC C. RHR Loop B D. RHRSW Loop B

Answer: B K/A: 295016 CONTROL ROOM ABANDONMENT AK2 Knowledge of the interrelations between CONTROL ROOM ABANDONMENT and the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.8) 01 Remote shutdown panel RO/SRO Rating: 4.4/4.5

Pedigree: Systems bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-062, Obj. 3 - List the systems that can be controlled from the Remote Shutdown Panel or local control stations. Obj. 4 - List the plant parameters that can be monitored from the Remote Shutdown Panel.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Memory Explanation:

The Remote Shutdown Panel has a flow indicating controller for RCIC that allows the operator to monitor and adjust RCIC system flow. RHR flow is indicated at the Remote Shutdown panel but adjusted by the MCC operator by throttling valves at the MCC while flow is monitored at the Remote Shutdown Panel. RHR SW is also adjusted at the MCC while monitoring RHR SW pump amps or NSW pump discharge pressure. CRD is operated from the associated switchgear

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because since CRD is operated during control room abandonment to augment level control and provide cooling to CRD mechanisms

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because RHR is operated during control room abandonment for suppression pool cooling and shutdown cooling and has flow indication on the Remote Shutdown Panel Choice D: Plausible because RHR SW must be operated during control room abandonment for support of the RHR system

SRO Basis: N/A

46. 295018 1 Unit Two is performing a reactor startup.

The following events occur prior to rolling the main turbine:

Bus 2C experiences a fault and trips Unit Two NSW header ruptures in the Service Water Building All Unit Two Service Water pumps suppl ying the NSW Header are manually tripped Which one of the following identifies the status of the Diesel Generators and the cooling water supply?

A. ONLY DG4 is running with cooling water supplied from the Unit One NSW Pumps.

B. ONLY DG4 is running with cooling wate r supplied from the Unit Two CSW Pumps C. DG2 is running with cooling water supplied from the Unit One NSW Pumps and DG4 is running with cooling water suppli ed from the Unit One NSW Pumps.

D. DG2 is running with cooling water supplied from the Unit One NSW Pumps and DG4 is running with cooling water suppli ed from the Unit Two CSW Pumps.

Answer: C K/A: 295018 PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING WATER AA1 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING WATER : (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6) 01 Backup systems

RO/SRO Rating: 3.3/3.4 Pedigree: mod from 2012 NRC exam (changed the unit, DGs and the BOP bus)

Objective: AOI-CLS-LP-043, Obj. 6c - Discuss the automatic functions/interlocks associated with the Service Water System: Diesel Generator Cooling Water Supply Valves

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High

Explanation: Divisional start signal will auto start both DG2 and 4. If service water pressure upstream of the jacket water heater exchanger remains below 5.6 psig for 30 seconds then the alternate unit supply valve (in this case Unit 1) will open and the normal supply valve will close. Since DG2 service water is normally from Unit 1, and Unit 1 service water system is intact, the normal supply from Unit 1 will remain in service. For DG4, the Unit 2 service water header is depressurized due to the rupture, therefore cooling water for DG 4 will align to the U1 NSW header.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because if 2C 4160 deenergizes while UAT is energized (Unit online or in UAT backfeed), then only DG4 would start on loss of E-Bus voltage. U1 nuclear service water will automatically supply the diesel due to loss of U2 nuclear service water.

Choice B: Plausible because if 2C 4160 deenergizes while UAT is energized (Unit online or in UAT backfeed), then only DG4 would start on loss of E-Bus voltage. Without a casualty, conventional service water may be available to supply the nuclear header if aligned manually or aligned for auto start on the nuclear header.

Choice C: Correct answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because UAT is deenergized during startup prior to synchronizing the generator to the grid. If 2C 4160 deenergizes while UAT is deenergized then a divisional DG start would result (DG 2 & 4).

SRO Basis: N/A

Question from 2012:

From SD-39.0, Emerg ency Diesel Generators

47. 295019 1 During operation at rated power with the in strument air NOT cro ss-tied, the following indication is observed:

Assuming the situation continues to degrade at the current rate, which one of the following represents the earliest time that the MSIVs may start drifting closed IAW 0AOP-20.0, Pneumatic (Air/

Nitrogen) System Failures?

A. 1203 B. 1208 C. 1210 D. 1212 Answer: B K/A: 295019 PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR G2.04.47 Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.2/4.2

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-046-A, Obj. 14 - Predict the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Pneumatic System would have on plant operation.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: Based on the rate that the air pressure is dropping (5#/min) at 1203 pressure would be 95#, 1208 - 70#,

1210 - 60#, and 1212 - 50#. IAW the AOP the MSIVs may start drifting at 70#.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the procedure identifies that at 95# a scram would be inserted.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because the procedure identifies that at 60# alot of valves begin to fail.

Choice D: Plausible because the procedure identifies that at 50# SA/IA crosstie begins to fail closed.

SRO Basis: N/A

48. 295021 1 Unit Two is in Cold Shutdown with both Reactor Recirculation pumps shutdown.

Shutdown Cooling (SDC) has been established using RHR Loop B.

Which one of the following completes the stat ement below for a loss of shutdown cooling under the above conditions IAW 0AOP-15.0, Loss of S hutdown Cooling?

RPV Level must be raised to at least (1) inches to establish (2) .

A. (1) 254 (2) natural circulation

B. (1) 254 (2) feed and bleed evolutions

C. (1) 200 (2) natural circulation

D. (1) 200 (2) feed and bleed evolutions

Answer: C K/A: 295021 LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING AK1 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING : (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) 02 Thermal stratification

RO/SRO Rating: 3.3/3.4 Pedigree: Previous, used on the 2010-2 exam.

Objective: CLS-LP-302-L Obj. 5b, State the reason(s) for the following actions taken during a loss of Shutdown Cooling: b. Maintaining reactor water level >200 inches

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: IAW AOP-15 level is raised to 200 - 220 inches to establish natural circulation. 254 inches is the level for establishing flow through the MSL to the SRVs back to the torus. Feed and bleed systems do not require a level increase IAW the procedure.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because 254 inches is a level that is addressed in AOP-15 and natural circulation is the reason for raising level.

Choice B: Plausible because 254 inches is a level that is addressed in AOP-15 and feed and bleed is directed in this procedure but it does not require level to be raised.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because 200 inches is correct and feed and bleed is directed in this procedure but it does not require level to be raised.

SRO Basis: N/A

49. 295023 1 Which one of the following is a Plant Design Feature credited for minimizing the radiological impact of a Design Bases Refueling Accident IAW the Updated Final Safety Analysis Report (UFSAR)?

A. Control Building Ventilation Radiation Monitoring System auto start of CREV.

B. Reactor Building Ventilation Radiation Monitoring System auto start of SBGT.

C. Refueling Bridge Boundary Zone Control System preventing fuel movements into forbidden areas.

D. Spent Fuel Pool and Cooling System maintaining spent fuel pool level greater than 23 feet over irradiated fuel.

Answer: B K/A: 295023 REFUELING ACCIDENTS AK2 Knowledge of the interrelations between REFUELING ACCIDENTS and the following: (CFR:41.7/45.8) 03 Radiation monitoring equipment RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.6

Pedigree: Previous, last used on the 2010-2 exam.

Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-109, Obj 9 - Decide which feature(s) of facility design act to mitigate the consequences of the following: a. Refueling Accident

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge Explanation:

Plant design features credited during a RFA are the reactor building radiation monitors provide detection and isolation AND SBGT provide venting and filtering.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the dose consequence calculation for the fuel handling accident does not credit automatic start of CREVS, however, it does assume that CREVS is manually initiated within 20 minutes of a dropped/damaged fuel assembly.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because this is a true statement but is not a design feature credited during FHA.

Choice D: Plausible because this is an initial condition assumption for a FHA but not a design feature credited.

SRO Basis: N/A

50. 295024 1 The following conditions exist on Unit Two:

Drywell pressure 2 psig Drywell temperature 180°F Reactor water level 95 inches Reactor pressure 450 psig Drywell Cooler Override Switch position NORMAL

Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

The Drywell Cooler fans (1) running.

The DW Lower Vent Dampers are in the (2) position.

A. (1) are (2) MIN B. (1) are (2) MAX C. (1) are NOT (2) MIN D. (1) are NOT (2) MAX

Answer: B K/A: 295024 HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE EA1 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6) 14 Drywell ventilation system

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.5 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-004-A, Obj 5a - Describe the following as they relate to the Drywell Cooling System: Signals and setpoints that automatically trip the Drywell Coolers.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation: On a LOCA signal (LL3 or HI DW Press with Low reactor pressure) the cooling fans will trip. On low scram air header pressure the dampers realign to the MAX position.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because no LOCA signal exist and the normal position of these dampers are in the MIN position. On a scram (low scram air header pressure these realign to the MAX position.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because if a LOCA signal existed then the fans would have tripped and the normal position of these dampers are in the MIN position. On a scram (low scram air header pressure these realign to the MAX position.

Choice D: Plausible because if a LOCA signal existed then the fans would have tripped and the dampers have realigned to the MAX position.

SRO Basis: N/A

51. 295025 1 A loss of off-site power occurs on Unit Two with the following plant conditions:

Reactor water level 200 inches - stable HPCI In MAN in pressure control RCIC Tripped, ready for restart Reactor pressure 1125 psig and rising

If reactor pressure is allowed to continue to rise, which one of the following identifies the reason the HPCI system will trip?

A. Turbine overspeed B. High reactor water level C. Steam Line High Flow D. High turbine exhaust pressure

Answer: B K/A: 295025 HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE EK3 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) 03 HPCI operation

RO/SRO Rating: 3.8/3.8 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-019, Obj 3 - Given plant conditions, predict how the HPCI System will respond to the following events: m. High RPV water level

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High

Explanation: With reactor pressure rising an SRV will open which will cause about a 10 swell in level. With level at 200 inches a trip of HPCI will occur at about 206 inches. All of the other distractors are also trips but would not be caused by high reactor pressure.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because with pressure rising the student may think that the HPCI turbine may overspeed.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because this is a trip of the system and exhaust pressure would be higher than normal.

Choice D: Plausible because this is a trip of the system and exhaust pressure would be higher than normal.

SRO Basis: N/A

52. 295026 1 Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

The purpose of the RHR Heat Exchangers is to re ject heat from the suppression pool to the (1) System.

In order to increase an est ablished cooldown rate of t he suppression pool IAW 2OP-17, Residual Heat Removal System Operating Procedure, throttle (2) E11-F048A, HX 2A Bypass Valve.

A. (1) Service Water (2) open

B. (1) Service Water (2) closed

C. (1) Reactor Building Closed Cooling Water (2) open

D. (1) Reactor Building Closed Cooling Water (2) closed

Answer: B K/A: 295026 SUPPRESSION POOL HIGH WATER TEMPERATURE G2.01.28 Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls. (CFR:

41.7)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.1/4.1

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-017, Obj. 15 - Describe how the reactor cool down rate is controlled when the RHR system is in the Shutdown Cooling mode.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation:

RHR Service water is the cooling medium for the RHR system. RBCCW does cool almost all other systems in the reactor building.

Throttling closed the bypass valve will provide more flow through the heat exchanger thereby providing more cooling. The student must know the flowpath to know this. If the bypass valve is on the cooling water side then this would provide a heatup not a cooldown.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because SW is the cooling medium and if the valve is opened it provides the opposite answer from the desired answer thereby testing the students understanding of how the system works. Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because RBCCW cools almost all components in the Rx Bldg and if the valve is opened it provides the opposite answer from the desired answer thereby testing the students understanding of how the system works.

Choice D: Plausible because RBCCW cools almost all components in the Rx Bldg and closed is correct.

SRO Basis: N/A

53. 295028 1 During an accident, reactor pressure and drywel l reference leg area temperature are in the Unsafe region of the Reactor Saturation Limit.

Which one of the following reac tor water level instruments are least likely to become unreliable due to reference leg flashing?

A. Fuel zone B. Wide Range C. Narrow Range D. Shutdown Range

Answer: B K/A: 295028 HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE EK2 Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE and the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.8) 03 Reactor water level indication RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/3.8

Pedigree: Bank

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-001.2, Obj 5 - Explain the effect that the following will have on reactor vessel level and/or pressure indications: d) Reference/variable leg flashing (LOCT)

Reference:

none

Cog Level: high

Explanation: During emergency conditions the Wide Range water level instruments may be used to determine reactor water level. However, Emergency Operating Procedures Caution 1 must be referenced to determine operability. The major portion of the reference leg is located in the reactor building and therefore, reactor building temperature is used in determining operability of the instruments. The REACTOR SATURATION LIMIT GRAPH is applicable to the Wide Range level instruments because of the small amount of reference leg located within the Drywell. The instruments may still be considered operable, even in the UNSAFE region, if level is greater than 20 inches

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Incorrect because this instrument has a long reference leg vertical drop in the drywell and would be unreliable if the reference leg flashed due to elevated drywell temperature.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Incorrect because this instrument has a long reference leg vertical drop in the drywell and would be unreliable if the reference leg flashed due to elevated drywell temperature.

Choice D: Incorrect because this instrument has a long reference leg vertical drop in the drywell and would be unreliable if the reference leg flashed due to elevated drywell temperature.

SRO Basis: N/A

54. 295030 1 With Unit One at rated power, the following control room indications are observed:

A-01 (3-7) Suppression Chamber Lvl Hi/Lo in alarm ERFIS indication Which one of the following comp letes the statements below?

The suppression chamber water level is (1) .

This (2) requi re entry into an LCO 3.6.2.2, Suppression Pool Water Level, Action Statement.

A. (1) low (2) does

B. (1) low (2) does NOT

C. (1) high (2) does

D. (1) high (2) does NOT

Answer: A K/A: 295030 LOW SUPPRESSION POOL WATER LEVEL G2.02.38 Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license. (CFR: 41.7 / 41.10 / 43.1 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/4.5

Pedigree: New Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-004.1, Obj 8 - Given plant conditions and Technical Specifications, including the Bases, TRM, ODCM and COLR, determine whether given plant conditions meet minimum Technical Specifications requirements associated with the Secondary Containment system. (LOCT)

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation: The alarm tells the operator the value is out of norm High or low. ERFIS indication turns red at -31 inches and would also turn red for a high level (-27 inches). converting the feet to inches indicates that this level is -32 inches which is low. the TS requires level to be within -27 to -31 inches, so this would require entry into the TS.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because this is a low alarm and the red indication is for EOP entry condition not TS entry.

Choice C: Plausible because this is a low not high alarm

Choice D: Plausible because this is a low not high alarm and the red indication is for EOP entry condition not TS entry.

SRO Basis: N/A

55. 295031 1 During an accident, Unit Tw o plant conditions are:

Reactor water level -35 inches, lowering Reactor pressure 900 psig Drywell average temp 185°F Drywell ref leg temp 215°F Injection sources None available

Under these conditions, which one of the following is the LO WEST RPV water level that still assures adequate core cooling is being maintained?

(Reference provided)

A. -45 inches B. -60 inches C. -72.5 inches D. -82.5 inches

Answer: C K/A: 295031 REACTOR LOW WATER LEVEL EA2 Ability to determine and/or interpret the follo wing as they apply to REACTOR LOW WATER LEVEL: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13) 03 Reactor pressure

RO/SRO Rating: 4.2/4.2 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-300-G, Obj 12 - Given plant conditions and 0EOP-01-UG Reactor Water Level Caution (Caution 1), determine reactor water level relative to Low Level 4 (LL4) and Low Level 5 (LL5). (LOCT)

Reference:

0EOP-01-UG Attachment 6, Figures 17A, 18A & 19A.

Cog Level: hi

Explanation: Since there is no correlation for determining reactor pressure from level indication, but there is from in opposite direction the chief examiner agreed that this question can be asked to meet the K/A.

Adequate core cooling exists per EOP-UG if RPV level is above LL5 with no injection, LL4 if there is injection to the reactor.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is TAF with DW above 200°F.

Choice B: Plausible because this is LL4 with DW above 200°F.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation.

Choice D: Plausible because this would be correct if no injection source was available with DW below 200°F.

SRO Basis: N/A

56. 295032 1 Unit Two is operating at rated power.

The following ERFIS indications are obs erved ten minutes into the event:

Which one of the following identifies the status of the HPCI and RCIC systems based on the conditions above?

A. HPCI ONLY is isolated.

B. RCIC ONLY is isolated.

C. Both HPCI and RCIC are isolated.

D. Neither HPCI nor RCIC are isolated.

Answer: A K/A: 295032 HIGH SECONDARY CONTAINMENT AREA TEMPERATURE EK2 Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH SECONDARY CONTAINMENT AREA TEMPERATURE and the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.8) 04 PCIS/NSSSS

RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/3.8

Pedigree: New Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-012, Obj 6 - Given plant conditions, determine if a Group Isolation should occur.

(LOCT)

Reference:

None

Cog Level: high Explanation:

Group 4 (HPCI) and 5 (RCIC) isolation on steam leak detection comes from Steam Leak Detection NUMAC modules (which provide area temperature monitoring, alarms and isolations). The leak is in the steam tunnel area (also known as mini steam tunnel, SPDS/ERFIS uses the term mini steam tunnel). Steam Tunnel area temperature channels of the NUMACs provide input to both group 4 and group 5 isolation logic circuits. The isolation setpoints are 165°F or 190°F dependent on instrument and t he isolation setpoint has been exceeded. Since HPCI and RCIC steam lines both exit primary containment in the steam tunnel area, and to prevent simultaneous loss of HPCI and RCIC on a high steam tunnel area temperature, RCIC incorporates a 27 minute time delay on high steam line area temperature.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because the logic is the same for both systems with the e xception of the time delay, so the student may get this concept backwards.

Choice C: Plausible because the group 4 and 5 isolation logic signal setpoints have been exceeded with the exception of the time delay for RCIC.

Choice D: Plausible because the student may think that both systems have a time delay or that the isolation is on Max Safe conditions.

SRO Basis: N/A

57. 295033 1 Which one of the following radiation annunciators requires entry into RRCP?

A. UA-03 (1-6) RBCCW Liquid Process Rad High B. UA-03 (2-3)

Rx Bldg Roof Vent Rad High C. UA-03 (2-7)

Area Rad Rx Bldg High D. UA-03 (4-5)

Process Rx Bldg Vent Rad High Answer: B K/A: 295033 HIGH SECONDARY CONTAINMENT AREA RADIATION LEVELS G2.04.45 Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm. (CFR: 41.10/43.5/45.3/45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.1/4.3

Pedigree: Bank, Last used 2010-1 NRC Exam (Changed one distractor)

Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-300-N Obj. 2 - Given plant conditions , determine if 0EOP-04-RRCP should be entered.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: fundamental Knowledge Explanation: All of these alarms deal with rad conditions in secondary containment but only the Rx Bldg Roof Vent is an entry condition for RRCP.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is a process system but the Service Water effluent is the entry condition not RCC.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because this is a precursor/e ffect of the other entry condition. (Blue bar alarm)

Choice D: Plausible because this annunciator provides indication of Secondary Containment abnormal rad conditon and is easily confused with the roof vent alarm.

SRO Basis: N/A

58. 295034 1 Unit Two is at rated power when the following annunciators are received:

UA-03 (5-2)

Process Off-Gas Rad High UA-03 (4-5)

Process Rx Bldg Vent Rad High UA-03 (3-5)

Process Rx Bldg Vent Rad Hi-Hi

Which one of the following identifies the automatic actions that should occur?

A. PASS sample valves close and AOG-HCV-102, AOG System Bypass Valve, shuts (if open).

B. Group 6 initiation and AOG-HCV-102, AOG S ystem Bypass Valve, shuts (if open).

C. Process Off-Gas Timer initiation and SBGT initiation.

D. Group 6 isolation and SBGT initiation.

Answer: D K/A: 295034 SECONDARY CONTAINMENT VENTILATION HIGH RADIATION EK2 Knowledge of the interrelations between SECONDARY CONTAINMENT VENTILATION HIGH RADIATION and the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.8) 03 SBGT RO/SRO Rating: 4.3/4.5 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-010, Obj. 4 - Given plant conditions determine if SBGTs should have initiated. (LOCT)

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High Explanation:

The only alarm that has an auto action in the ones given is (5-4) which will isolate Rx Bldg Vent, start SBGT, and cause a Grp 6 isolation. A Process Off-Gas Rad Hi-Hi will start the timer and close the 102.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because PASS does isolate but Process Off-Gas Rad Hi-Hi (not the High) will close the 102.

Choice B: Plausible because a Group 6 does occur but Process Off-Gas Rad Hi-Hi (not the High) will close the 102.

Choice C: Plausible because Process Off-Gas Rad Hi-Hi (not the High) initiates the timer and SBGT does initiate.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: N/A

59. 295036 1 Following a complete loss of RBCCW, a manual reactor scram was inserted.

Following the scram, the Scram Discharge Volume ruptured.

Plant conditions are:

Drywell average temp 190°F Drywell pressure 2.3 psig Rx Bldg 20' south temp 195°F

UA-12 (1-4) South RHR Rm Flood Lvl Hi-Hi is in alarm UA-12 (1-3) South CS Rm Flood Lvl Hi-Hi is in alarm Which one of the following identifies the operator ac tion required by SCCP?

A. Perform emergency depressurization.

B. Reset RPS to isolate t he primary system discharge.

C. Commence a reactor cooldo wn not to exceed 100°F/hr.

D. Rapidly depressurize to the main condenser irrespective of cooldown rate.

Answer: A K/A: 295036 SECONDARY CONTAINMENT HIGH SUMP/AREA WATER LEVEL EA1 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to SECONDARY CONTAINMENT HIGH SUMP/AREA WATER LEVEL : (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6) 03 Radwaste

RO/SRO Rating: 2.8/3.0 Pedigree: Bank, last used 2008 NRC exam

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-300-M, Obj 8c - Given plant conditions and the Secondary Containment Control Procedure, determine if any of the following are required: Emergency Depressurization (LOCT)

Reference:

None

Cog Level: high

Explanation: With the inability of the sumps to keep up with leakage (Radwaste) and two areas above max safe (flood level hi-hi alarms) with a primary system discharge (SDV) requires emergency depressurization. One of the steps in SCCP states to isolate all systems discharging into the area but RPS cannot be reset due to high drywell pressure.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because this would be an option to stop the leak but with the current conditions (hi DW press) this cannot be done.

Choice C: Plausible because this would be an option before the second area reach its max safe level.

Choice D: Plausible because this would be an option before the second area reach its max safe level or the student believes that the SDV is not a primary system.

SRO Basis: N/A

60. 295037 1 An ATWS condition currently exists on Unit Two with the following plant conditions:

Reactor Power 4% Reactor pressure controlled by EHC Drywell pressure 2.1 psig Reactor water level 95 inches LEP-02 Section 3 jumpers have just been installed

Which one of the following completes the statements below concerning the required actions prior to resetting RPS IAW LEP-02, Alternate Control Rod Insertion, Section 3?

ARI is placed to (1) and then RESET. The SDV Vents and Drains are confirmed to be (2) .

A. (1) NORM (2) open

B. (1) NORM (2) closed

C. (1) INOP (2) open

D. (1) INOP (2) closed

Answer: D K/A: 295037 SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN EA1 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6) 01 Reactor Protection System RO/SRO Rating: 4.6/4.6

Pedigree: New Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-300-J, Obj 6 - Given plant conditions and which steps have been completed, determine required operator actions in accordance with EOP-01-LEP-01,02, 03. (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

LEP-02 section 3 is for performing resetting of the scram and then re-scramming. After the jumpers are installed which bypass the scram signals, ARI is inhibitted, the current conditions have an ARI signal on LL2, so resetting would not work. The SDV V&D are confirmed to be closed prior to resetting the scram to make sure there is not an open pathway from the vessel when the scram is reset.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the ARI RESET switch is taken to reset, but the system is placed to INOP first. After the scram is reset then the SDV V&D are opened.

Choice B: Plausible because the ARI RESET switch is taken to reset, but the system is placed to INOP first.

Choice C: Plausible because after the scram is reset then the SDV V&D are opened

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: N/A

61. 295038 1 Unit Two has experienced a leak in the stea m tunnel and the control building ventilation has realigned.

Which one of the following identifies: (1) in what location will 1 mR/hr cause annunciator UA-03 (6-7) Area Rad Control Room High and (2) the reason the control bu ilding ventilation has realigned?

A. (1) Control room. (2) To protect all Main Control Room personnel from elevated radiological conditions by processing intake air through the filter trains.

B. (1) Control room. (2) To protect personnel working in all areas of the control bu ilding from elevated radiological conditions by processing intake air through the filter trains.

C. (1) Ventilation intake duct. (2) To protect all Main Control Room personnel from elevated radiological conditions by processing intake air through the filter trains.

D. (1) Ventilation intake duct. (2) To protect personnel working in all areas of the control building from elevated radiological conditions by processing intake air through the filter trains.

Answer: A K/A: 295038 HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE EK3 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) 03 Control room ventilation isolation

RO/SRO Rating: 3.7/3.9 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-037, Obj. 4 - Given plant conditions determine if signals exist that would cause the following to automatically start/open: (LOCT) a. Emergency Recirculation Fans

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Hi

Explanation: The CB HVAC isolates on 1mR in the control room or 7mR in the intake plenum and starts the CREV to filter the air for the control room only. The battery room fans continue to run but the cable spread and Mech Equip Room fans trip.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because 1 mR/hr in the control room is correct and even though the CBHVAC isolates the CREV starts to protect only the control room personnel not all control building personnel.

Choice C: Plausible because the ventilation intake does provide a an isolation signal at 7 mR/hr and the control room personnel is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because the ventilation intake does provide a an isolation signal but it is set for 7 mR/hr not 1 mR/hr and even though the CBHVAC isolates the CREV starts to protect only the control room personnel not all control building personnel.

SRO Basis: N/A

62. 300000 1 Unit Two is in MODE 3 following a seismic event with the following plant conditions:

Reactor level 55 inches Reactor pressure 500 psig Drywell pressure 9 psig

UA-01 (4-4) Instr Air Press-Low in Alarm UA-01 (4-5)

Service Air Press-Low in Alarm UA-01 (1-2)

RB Inst Air Receiver 2B Press Low in Alarm Which one of the following complete s the statements below?

RNA-SV-5481, Div II Backup N2 Rack Isol Vlv, is (1) .

RNA-SV-5261, Div II Non-Inrpt RNA, is (2) .

A. (1) open (2) open B. (1) open (2) closed C. (1) closed (2) open

D. (1) closed (2) closed

Answer: A K/A: 300000 INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM will have on the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6) 01 Containment air system

RO/SRO Rating: 2.7/2.9 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-046-A, Obj. 7 - Given plant conditions, determine the effect(s) that the following conditions will have on the Pneumatic System: (LOCT) b. Low Instrument Air/Pneumatic Nitrogen (IAN/RNA/PNS) Header pressure

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

On a loss of pneumatics (<95#, as indicated by the UA-01 (1-2) alarm)) or a LOCA signal (<45 inches or >1.7 psig with <410#) the nitrogen Backup valves will open. The RNA isolation valve (5261) only closes on a LOCA signal.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because 5481 does open and the student may believe (common misconception) the RNA isolation also occurs

Choice C: Plausible because the LOCA siganl is not present so the student may believe the valves stay in thier normal position.

Choice D: Plausible because the student may get the logic backward for the iolstion valves.

SRO Basis: N/A

63. 400000 1 Unit One was operating at rated power when a loss of the SAT occurs with the following plant conditions:

Reactor water level 120 inches Reactor pressure 320 psig Drywell pressure 13 psig DG1 Running loaded DG2 Tripped/Unavailable

Which one of the following completes the statements below concerning the operation of the RBCCW system?

A & C RBCCW pumps (1) running.

RCC-V-28 and RCC-V-52, DW Header Equipment Isolation Valves, (2) .

A. (1) are (2) auto closed

B. (1) are (2) remain open

C. (1) are NOT (2) auto closed

D. (1) are NOT (2) remain open

Answer: D K/A: 400000 COMPONENT COOLING WATER SYSTEM (CCWS) A3 Ability to monitor automatic operations of the CCWS including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7) 01 Setpoints on instrument signal levels for normal operations, warnings, and trips that are applicable to the CCWS RO/SRO Rating: 3.0/3.0 Pedigree: Bank, last used on 2007 NRC exam

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-021, Obj. 7 - List the signals that trip and lockout the RBCCW Pumps

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: A LOCA (hi DW with low reactor pressure) concurrent with Div I LOOP (primary L/O) trips A & C, no power for B (E2). RCC-V-28 and RCC-V-52 are primary containment isolation valves though they have no auto close feature. RBCCW HXs SW Inlet vlavles (SW-103/106) do auto close

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because if the student does not pick up on the LOCA signal this would be correct but the RCC valves do not auto close even though they are primary containment isolation valves. The RBCCW HXs SW Inlet vlavles (SW-103/106) do auto close though.

Choice B: Plausible because if the student does not pick up on the LOCA signal this would be correct.

Choice C: Plausible because there are no pumps running but the RCC valves do not outo close. The RBCCW HXs SW Inlet vlavles (SW-103/106) do auto close though.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: N/A

From SD-21

64. 600000 1 A Unit One reactor building fire has occurred affecting safe shutdown Train B equipment.

Which one of the following identifies a component that is classified as ASSD Train B Equipment IAW 0ASSD-00, User's Guide?

A. CSW Pump 2C B. NSW Pump 1B C. HPCI System D. RHR Pump 1A

Answer: B K/A: 600000 PLANT FIRE ON SITE AA2 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: 04 The fire's extent of potential operational damage to plant equipment RO/SRO Rating: 2.8/3.1

Pedigree: New Objective:

CLS-LP-304-09-4, Obj 5 - Given ASSD procedures, determine if a power source or equipment is classified as ASSD Train A or ASSD Train B. (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: All of the listed equipment is Train A with the exception of NSW Pump B.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because CSW pump 2C is train A not Train B.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because HPCI is train A not Train B.

Choice D: Plausible because RHR Pump 1A is train A not Train B.

SRO Basis: N/A

65. 700000 1 During rated power operat ion, plant status is:

UA-06 (1-2)

Gen Under Freq Relay in alarm Generator frequency is 59.2 Hertz

Which one of the following identifies why the turbine must be tri pped if frequency remains at its present value?

To prevent damage to the:

A. Generator.

B. Main Transformer.

C. Low Pressure Turbine.

D. High Presure Turbine.

Answer: C K/A: 700000 GENERATOR VOLTAGE AND ELECTRIC GRID DISTURBANCES AK3 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to GENERATOR VOLTAGE AND ELECTRIC GRID DISTURBANCES: (CFR: 41.4, 41.5, 41.7, 41.10 / 45.8) 01 Reactor and turbine trip criteria

RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/4.2 Pedigree: Bank

Objective: none

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: Determines that frequency is low and is limited to five minutes of operation for this condition. A Caution from AOP-22, Grid Disturbances states the damage could occur in the low pressure blades.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because system voltage will change but during grid disturbances.

Choice B: Plausible because system voltage will change but during grid disturbances low voltage conditions will accompany the low frequency condition.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because the damage is in the low pressure blades not the high pressure.

SRO Basis: N/A

66. G2.01.25 1 A grid disturbance occurs with the fo llowing Unit One pl ant parameters:

Generator Load 980 MWe Generator Reactive Load 160 MVARs, out Generator Gas Pressure 50 psig

Which one of the following identifies the available options that will place the Unit within the Estimated Capability Curve?

(Reference provided)

A. Raise Gas Pressure or lower MWe.

B. Raise Gas Pressure or raise MVARs.

C. Raise Gas Pressure or lower MVARs.

D. Lower MWe or lower MVARs.

Answer: A K/A: G2.01.25 Ability to interpret reference materials, such as graphs, curves, tables, etc. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/4.2 Pedigree: Bank, last used on the 2008 NRC Exam

Objective:

CLS-LP-27, Obj. 9 - Given the Generator estimated capability cu rves, hydrogen pres sure and either MVARS, MW, or power factor, determine the limit for MW and MVARS.

Reference:

1OP-27 Figure 1 Cog Level: High

Explanation: Based on the conditions the student should plot the current location on the graph. Plot MWe along the bottom and MVARs up the side. Where these two points intersect, based on 50 psig gas pressure line is outside of the safe area. (Must be inside the curve to be safe) Lowering MWe or raising gas pressure are the only options. Lowering or raising MVARs would still be out side the curve.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because see explanation Choice C: Plausible because see explanation

Choice D: Plausible because see explanation

SRO Basis: N/A

67. G2.01.27 1 Which one of the following comp letes the statement below concerning the purpose of the High Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System IAW Technical Specifications Bases?

HPCI is designed to provide sufficient coolant injection to maintain the reactor core covered during a (1)

Loss-Of-Coolant-Accident to maintain fuel cladding temperatures below (2) .

A. (1) small break (2) 1800°F B. (1) small break (2) 2200°F C. (1) large break (2) 1800°F D. (1) large break (2) 2200°F Answer: B K/A: G2.01.27 Knowledge of system purpose and/or function (CFR: 41.7)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/4.0

Pedigree: Bank, last used on 2010-1 NRC Exam Objective: CLS-LP-019, Obj. 1 - State the purpose of the High Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System.

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge

Explanation: The High Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System was designed to provide sufficient coolant injection to maintain the Reactor core covered during a small line break Loss-Of-Coolant-Accident (LOCA) which does not result in rapid vessel depressurization, thus maintaining fuel cladding temperatures below 2200°F. The original design basis of the HPCI System was to provide part of the Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS) function. HPCI system operation mitigated small break LOCAs where the depressurization function [Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) / SRVs] was assumed to fail.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because small break is correct, and 1800°F is the number for if adequate core cooling can not be maintained by core submergence.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because HPCI is a high capacity, high pressure injection system which is easily mistaken for large break LOCA makeup requirements, and 1800°F is the number for if adequate core cooling can not be maintained by core submergence.

Choice D: Plausible because HPCI is a high capacity, high pressure injection system which is easily mistaken for large break LOCA makeup requirements, and 2200°F is the temperature that cladding will not exceed with core submergence.

SRO Basis: N/A

68. G2.01.31 1 TIP traces are in progress with all TIP drawer Mode Switches in Auto.

A small steam leak in containment causes drywell pressure to rise to 2.7 psig.

Which one of the following predicts the final TIP ball valve position indication(s) and also identifies all available location(s) for verifying their position?

A. Green light indication illuminated on eac h TIP drawer at Back Panel P607 ONLY.

B. White Valve Light illuminated on each TIP drawer at Back Panel P607 ONLY.

C. Red light indication illu minated on P601 Panel and on each TIP drawer at Back Panel P607.

D. Green light indication illuminated on P601 Panel and a white Valve Light illuminated on each TIP drawer at Back Panel P607.

Answer: D K/A: G2.01.31 Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.6/4.3 Pedigree: Bank, last used on 2008 NRC Exam Objective:

CLS-LP-09, Obj. 5b. explain the effects of the following on the TIP System: High Drywell Pressure

Reference:

None

Cog Level: High

Explanation: If drywell pressure reac hes the PCIS Gp 2 isolation setpoint of 1.7 psig, TIP logic will initiate an automatic probe retract to the in-shield position and the TIP ball valves will auto close. Indication of TIP ball valve position can be found on the P601 panel in the control room and the TIP back panel P607. The back panel indication white light is illuminated if the ball valve is closed (there is one on each drawer). The P601indication is re d if any one of the 4 ball valves are open, and green if all 4 of the ball valves are closed.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because a green light typically indicates a valve is closed, but the back panel lights are white.

Choice B: Plausible because these are illuminated but the P601 panel also has lights.

Choice C: Plausible because the red light would be on if no isolation had occurred.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: N/A

P601 indication:

(Note: the open indication is red)

On the Drive Control Unit on P607:

On the Valve Monitors on P607:

69. G2.02.03 1 Which one of the following Scra m Immediate Operator actions has a different setpoint between Unit One and Unit Two?

A. Tripping of the main turbine.

B. Tripping of the first feed pump.

C. Master level controller setpoint setdown.

D. Placing the reactor mo de switch to Shutdown.

Answer: D K/A: G2.02.03 (multi-unit license) Knowledge of the design, procedural, and operational differences between units. (CFR: 41.5 / 41.6 / 41.7 / 41.10 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.8/3.9 Pedigree: Last used on 08 NRC Exam

Objective: CLS-LP-300-C, Obj. 2 - List the immediate operator actions for a reactor scram

Reference:

None

Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge Explanation: The mode switch on Unit Two is not placed to shutdown until steam flow is less than 3 Mlbs/hr. This requirement does not exist on Unit One.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is an operator immediate action but is not a design difference between the units.

Choice B: Plausible because this is an operator immediate action but is not a design difference between the units.

Choice C: Plausible because this is an operator immediate action but is not a design difference between the units.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: N/A

70. G2.02.13 1 IAW OPS-NGGC-1301, Equipment Clearance, wh ich one of the following identifies who can waive the requirement for a double valve isolation?

A. Assistant Operations Manager - Shift B. Maintenance Manager C. Work Week Manager D. Plant Manager Answer: A K/A: G2.02.13 Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.1/4.3

Pedigree: New

Objective: OPI1301N, Obj. 3 - Determine the responsibilities of selected personnel for each clearance posistion.

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental knowledge

Explanation: The AOM - Shift is required to authorize this not using double isolation valves when required.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because Maintenance supervision is required to release a clearance.

Choice C: Plausible because the WWM is notified for changes to approved clearances.

Choice D: Plausible because Outage and Scheduling organization falls under the Plant Manager.

SRO Basis: N/A From OPS-NGGC-1301:

71. G2.02.41 1 A. (1) Full open (2) energized B. (1) Full open (2) de-energized

C. (1) NOT full open (2) energized

D. (1) NOT full open (2) de-energized

Answer: A K/A: G2.02.41 Ability to obtain and interpret station electrical and mechanical drawings. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.12 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.5/3.9 Pedigree: New

Objective: OPS-CLS-LP-111-A, Obj. 7 - Given a system wiring diagram, correctly interpret various logics.

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: Cannot test on obtaining the controlled document so only wrote the question on interpreting the logic, this was agreed upon with the CE.

According to the switch development chart the 33 contact is closed for position 1 when the valve limit switches indicate the valve is in the full open position. the 42/O contacts are b contacts and is open when this relay is energized.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation.

Choice B: Plausible because the first part is correct and this contact is a b contact meaning that it is closed when the relay is de-energized, instead of the usual closing when energized.

Choice C: Plausible because if the examinee thinks that the darken lines on the switch development table means that this is not where the contact is closed. Part 2 of this answer is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because if the examinee thinks that the darken lines on the switch development table means that this is not where the contact is closed and this contact is a b contact meaning that it is closed when the relay is de-energized, instead of the usual closing when energized.

SRO Basis: N/A

72. G2.03.13 1 Which one of the following completes t he following statements IAW 0OI-01.03, Non-Routine Activities, Section 5.

6.1, Primary Containment Access.

The TIP system (1) required to be placed under clearance.

A clearance to prevent the withdrawal of control rods (2) required.

A. (1) is (2) is B. (1) is (2) is not

C. (1) is not (2) is D. (1) is not (2) is not

Answer: B K/A: G2.03.13 Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as response to radiation monitor alarms, containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc. (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.9 / 45.10)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.8 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-201-D covers 0OI-01.03 but not specific to clearance requirements for DW entry at power.

Reference:

None

Cog Level: fundamental knowledge Explanation:

IAW OI-01.03 the TIP system is required to be under clearance and power can not be increased but no clearance is required.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because a clearance on the TIP system is required and a power increase is not permitted but a clearance on rod withdrawal is not required.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because not all systems that affect rad conditions in the DW are placed under clearance and a power increase is not permitted but a clearance on rod withdrawal is not required.

Choice D: Plausible because not all systems that affect rad conditions in the DW are placed under clearance.

SRO Basis: N/A

73. G2.03.14 1 Unit Two is in MODE 1 when the following alarms and indications occur:

UA-23 (2-6) Main Steam Line Rad Hi In alarm RWCU Conductivity Recorder rising reactor water conductivity Reactor power remains steady No other annunciators are in alarm

Inititiation of which one of the following identifies the cause of these conditions?

A. Zinc injection.

B. Resin injection.

C. Hydrogen injection.

D. Noble metals injection.

Answer: B K/A: G2.03.14 Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities. (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.10)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.8 Pedigree: New Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-014, Obj. 10 - Given plant conditions, predict how a failure of the RWCU System will affect the following: a. Reactor coolant conductivity. (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: Fundamental Knowledge

Explanation: Resin, Hydrogen, and Noble metals injections all cause a rise in rad levels. Hydrogen injection will require the main steam line rad monitors to be adjusted based on the higher background readings. Noble metals injection will cause an initial increase and is performed after the unit ihas been running for greater than 100 days. Zinc injection is performed in to the feedpump suction but does not cause any increase in radiation. Radioactivity release procedure asks if it is a resin intrusion as indicated by rising conductivity.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this is an injection into the feedwater system and takes up binding sites in the corrosion layer of the piping, leaving few locations for the Cobalt isotopes to plate out, thus lowering after shutdown rad levels.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because this is an injection into the feedwater system that would cause a rise in rad readings but would not cause the conductivity alarm.

Choice D: Plausible because this is an injection into the feedwater system that would initially cause a rise in rad levels but would not cause the conductivity alarm.

SRO Basis: N/A

74. G2.04.09 1 Alternate shutdown cooling us ing SRV's has been establishe d IAW 0AOP-15.0, Loss of Shutdown Cooling. SRV B21-F013B is currently open. The cooldown rate is approaching 100°F/hr. The CRS has directed you to lower the cool down rate.

Which one of the following completes the st atement below IAW the 0AOP-15.0 cooldown table above?

The RO can lower the cooldown rate by closing B21-F013B and opening

.

A. B21-F013A B. B21-F013C C. B21-F013J D. B21-F013K

Answer: B K/A: G2.04.09 Knowledge of low power/shutdown implications in accident (e.g., loss of coolant accident or loss of residual heat removal) mitigation strategies. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.8/4.2 Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-302-L, Obj. 3 - Given plant conditions and AOP-15.0, Loss of Shutdown Cooling, determine the required supplementary actions.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: IAW the table the top corresponds to the highest cooldown rate and the bottom of the table represent the lowest cooldown rate. SRV's within the same block produce a similar cooldown rate. To lower the cooldown rate (heatup) would require opening a SRV in a block lower than the current block, SRV C.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because this SRV is in the table but it is within the same block as SRV B so no change in the cooldown rate would occur.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice C: Plausible because this SRV is in the table but it is a block above the cuurent one which would increase the cooldown not lower the cooldown.

Choice D: Plausible because this SRV is in the table but it is within the same block as SRV B so no change in the cooldown rate would occur.

SRO Basis: N/A

75. G2.04.21 1 Unit Two was at power when a trip and lockout of BOP Bus 2B required insertion of a manual reactor scram. Shortly after the sc ram, the following i ndications are noted:

Drywell pressure 1.4 psig, rising Average drywell temp 140°F, rising

Which one of the following comp letes the statement below?

The crew will be required to enter (1) and isolate Recirc Pu mp (2) .

A. (1) 0AOP-14.0 (2) 2A B. (1) 0AOP-14.0 (2) 2B C. (1) PCCP (2) 2A D. (1) PCCP (2) 2B

Answer: A K/A: G2.04.21 Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc. (CFR: 41.7 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.0/4.6

Pedigree: New

Objective: LOI-CLS-LP-302-D, Obj. 2 - Given plant conditions and AOP-14.0, determine the required supplementary actions.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High

Explanation: Seal pressures should indicate approximately reactor pressure (both seals) following pump trip due to auto closure of the seal staging valve. Low seal pressures indicate seal failure. Either AOP-14 or PCCP will direct a recirc pump be isolated with indication of seal failure. Since drywell pressure is below 1.7 psig and drywell average temperature is below 150°F, no PCCP entry condition exists.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation

Choice B: Plausible because AOP-14 is correct and this is the indications for a failed seal #1 on 2B RR pump Choice C: Plausible because if the DW pressure or temperature was slightly higher than PCCP would be correct and this is the correct pump to trip.

Choice D: Plausible because if the DW pressure or temperature was slightly higher than PCCP would be correct and this is the indications for a failed seal #1 on 2B RR pump.

SRO Basis: N/A