ML22193A312

2021 QC Ile Proposed Written Exam-RO and SRO

ML22193A312
Person / Time
Site:	Quad Cities
Issue date:	05/05/2021
From:	Randy Baker NRC/RGN-III/DRS/OLB
To:	Exelon Generation Co
Baker R
Shared Package
ML20139A014	List: ML22193A299 ML22193A300 ML22193A301 ML22193A303 ML22193A305 ML22193A308 ML22193A310 ML22193A311 ML22193A312
References
Download: ML22193A312 (188)

Text

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 1 ID: 2164404 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when 2A Recirc Pump Trips.

Annunciator 902-5 H-1, OPRM TROUBLE/INOP, has actuated.

What Immediate Operator Action is required?

A. Stop all reactivity changes.

B. Manually SCRAM the reactor.

C. Raise recirc flow to exit ICA Region II.

D. Insert all withdrawn CRAM rods.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 1 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Immediate operator actions of QCOA 0700-03 is to hold power constant.

Distractor 1: Plausible because manual scram would be correct if instabilities were observed.

Incorrect due to no instabilities in stem.

Distractor 2: Plausible because inserting CRAM rods is a subsequent action. Incorrect because immediate operator actions have not been completed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because raising recirc flow to exit the instability region is an action in QCOA 0202-4 REACTOR RECIRC PUMP TRIP- SINGLE PUMP. Incorrect due to this being only valid if both recircs are operating.

Reference:

QCOA 0700-03 Rev 9, QCOA 0202-04 Rev 08 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295001.AA1.06 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF FORCED CORE FLOW CIRCULATION: Neutron monitoring Importance: 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 /45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 2 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 2 ID: 2164405 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

The following annunciators are in alarm:

901-8 A1 4KV MAIN FEED BREAKER TRIP 901-8 D3 4KV BUSES 13/14 LOW VOLTAGE 901-8 F3 4 KV BUS OVRCUR TRIP 901-8 A7 DIESEL GEN #1 TROUBLE 901-8 B7 DIESEL GEN #1 AUTO START AUTO START BLOCK What event occurred? (1)

What are appropriate actions to take? (2)

A. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 14.

(2) Verify Unit 1 EDG starts to energize Bus 14-1 B. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 13.

(2) Verify Unit 1 EDG starts to energize Bus 13-1 C. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 14.

(2) Verify 1/2 EDG starts to energize Bus 14-1 D. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 13.

(2) Verify 1/2 EDG starts to energize Bus 13-1 Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 3 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 While alarms elude to Bus 13 and 14, the EDG alarms are normal for the auto start of U1 EDG loading on to 14-1.

Distractor 1: Plausible due to EDG's being connected to "Dash Buses". Incorrect due to the 1/2 EDG is connected to BUS 13-1 and 13, though alarms indicated describe U1 EDG.

Distractor 2: Plausible due to EDG's being connected to "Dash Buses". Incorrect due to the 1/2 EDG is not connected to BUS 14-1, nor are the alarms describing 1/2 EDG.

Distractor 3: Plausible due to EDG's being connected to "Dash Buses". Incorrect due to the U1 EDG not connected to BUS 13-1/13.

Reference:

4E-1654D, 4E-1656H Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295003.AA2.01- Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF AC POWER: Cause of partial or complete loss of AC power.

Importance: 3.4 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 4 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 3 ID: 2167763 Points: 1.00 Both Units are at 100% power when Unit 1 experiences a loss of TB Res Bus 1B-1.

Two minutes later, the Unit 1 drywell pressure is at 2.5 psig.

How is the Unit 1 EDG affected?

A. Starting circuit power for the diesel will be lost and Unit 1 EDG must be manually started from the control room.

B. Control power for the Unit 1 EDG output breaker will be lost and the Unit 1 EDG will be running unloaded.

C. Unit 1 EDG cannot be started automatically or manually from the control room. A local start must be performed.

D. Starting circuit power for the diesel will automatically swap to TB Res Bus 2B-1 and the 1 EDG will auto-start.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 5 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer: TB Res Bus 1B-1 feeds the starting circuit and field flash for the Unit 1 EDG. Unit 1 EDG can still be started with the U1 DIESEL GEN CONTROL SWITCH.

Distractor 1: Plausible because control power for 14-1 swaps from 1B-1 to 6A-1. Incorrect because Unit 1 EDG has no ABT.

Distractor 2: Plausible because control power for the Unit 1 EDG auto start and load will be lost.

Incorrect because the auto start capability for the Unit 1 EDG is the ONLY loss.

Distractor 3: Plausible because loss of control power removes remote capability for components. Incorrect because 1B-1 only removes the auto start function, the Unit 1 EDG can still be started with the U1 DIESEL GEN CONTROL SWITCH.

Reference:

QOA 6900-09 rev 21, QCOA 6600-16 rev 4 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295004.G2.4.49- Ability to perform without reference to procedures those actions that require immediate operation of system components and controls.

Importance: 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 6 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 4 ID: 2164407 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 26% reactor power during a plant startup.

DFWLC is in 3-element control Feedwater flow is 2.8 Mlbm/Hr Which of the following is expected to occur NEXT if the Main Turbine trips AND the Turbine Bypass Valves fail CLOSED?

A. Indicated RPV water level will lower due to the collapse in core voids.

B. A scram will occur due to FASTC header pressure lowering to < 460 psig.

C. DFWLC will shift to single-element control due to the reduction in feed flow.

D. PCIS will initiate a Group I isolation due to lowering main steam line pressure.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 7 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 The increase in pressure will cause voids to collapse and a reduction of indicated level. This will result in a rapid power increase and a full RPS trip from APRM high flux or RPV high pressure which will cause level to lower even more due to the collapse in voids following the scram Distractor 1: Plausible because scram signal from FASTC. Incorrect due to the low FASTC header pressure scram is bypassed when < 38.5% power.

Distractor 2: Plausible because DWFLC does shift to single-element automatically when Feed Flow lowers to <1.8 Mlbm/Hr. Incorrect because this would happen after indicated RPV level has shrunk due to the collapse of voids.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Group 1 isolation signal is on lowering pressure < 785 psig.

Incorrect because with the Bypass valves failing to open, steam line pressure will rise.

Reference:

UFSAR QDC 15.02 Rev 15 Reference provided during examination: None.

Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295005.AK1.03- Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR TRIP: Pressure effects on reactor level.

Importance: 3.5 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.8 / 41.9 / 41.10 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2011 Quad ILT Cert Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 8 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 5 ID: 2164408 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 has scrammed from full power 3 minutes ago.

NO operator actions have been taken.

Which of the following describes the current status of the on-service CRD Flow Control Valve (AO 1-302-6A(B) FLOW CONT VLV) and the major flowpath of CRD water under these conditions?

The CRD Flow Control Valve will be A. fully open with system flow directed to the accumulators.

B. fully closed with system flow directed to the accumulators.

C. fully open with system flow directed to cooling water header.

D. fully closed with system flow directed to cooling water header.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 9 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 This is the expected response of the CRD system following a scram. Since the flow element is on the discharge of the pump and the FCV is on the "inlet" to the drive and cooling water headers, when the accumulators are discharged from the scram, all flow will be diverted to the accumulators. The flow element will sense high flow and subsequently shut the FCV (attempting to maintain its setpoint), lowering cooling water and drive water flow to minimum.

Distractor 1: Plausible because CRD hydraulic supplies both the accumulators and cooling water header. Incorrect because FCV will close to ensure flow to refill accumulators.

Distractor 2: Plausible because CRD hydraulic supplies both the accumulators and cooling water header. Incorrect because open FCV would divert some flow to cooling water header.

Distractor 3: Plausible because CRD hydraulic supplies both the accumulators and cooling water header. Incorrect because closed FCV forces flow to accumulators.

Reference:

QCOP 0300-01 rev 35, UFSAR 4.6.3 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295006.AK2.03- Knowledge of the interrelations between SCRAM and the following: CRD hydraulic system.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 10 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 6 ID: 2164409 Points: 1.00 Why is the turbine tripped during the execution of QOA 0010-05, PLANT OPERATION WITH THE CONTROL ROOM INACCESSIBLE?

A. To ensure that reactor pressure is maintained at the relief valve setpoint.

B. To ensure the turbine AND generator get separated from the grid.

C. To ensure the reactor is scrammed.

D. To ensure the heaters trip, thus aiding in the attempt to cool down the reactor.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 11 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per QOA 0010-05, the turbine and generator are locally tripped to protect the machines from an electrical transient and to ensure the plant is in a safe condition.

-The turbine cannot help with pressure control due to the MSIVs being shut and no steam going to the turbine. {a step in the procedure has students verify a group one occurs at ~785 psig}

-The turbine cannot be physically overspeed without steam to turn the rotors.

-The heaters trip due to the MSIVs being closed, not due to the turbine trip.

Distractor 1: Plausible because a turbine trip at power would cause a pressure increase.

Incorrect because procedure prefers using Group 1 isolation to lower pressure and maximize time until at the relief setpoint.

Distractor 2: Plausible because tripping the turbine will scram the reactor. Incorrect because QOA 0010-05 directs scramming the reactor from Auxiliary Electrical Room.

Distractor 3: Plausible because tripping the turbine will isolate extraction steam to feedwater heaters. Incorrect because cooldown is accomplished by cycling relief valves.

Reference:

QOA 0010-05 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 205016.AK3.02- Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to CONTROL ROOM ABANDONMENT: Turbine trip.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 /45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 12 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 7 ID: 2164411 Points: 1.00 Both Units are at 100% power when a total loss of TBCCW has occurred.

QCOA 3800-03, TOTAL FAILURE OF THE TBCCW SYSTEM, has been entered and executed.

Reactor pressure is 650 psig and LOWERING.

Reactor water level is -70" and LOWERING.

Which of the following contain ONLY systems that are IMMEDIATELY AVAILABLE for:

(1) RPV water level control?

(2) RPV pressure control?

A. (1) CRD (2) Turbine bypass valves B. (1) SSMP (2) HPCI C. (1) Core Spray (2) RCIC D. (1) HPCI (2) RWCU Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 13 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Systems listed in QCOA 3800-03 require no support from the TBCCW system. SSMP cooling is via service water fed room coolers, HPCI is not cooled by TBCCW.

Distractor 1: Probable because both are a source of level and pressure control. Incorrect because RWCU is isolated less than 0" RWL.

Distractor 2: Probable because both are a source of level and pressure control. Incorrect because CRD is cooled by TBCCW and secured.

Distractor 3: Probable because both are a source of level and pressure control. Incorrect because pressure is too high for core spray.

Reference:

QCOA 3800-03 rev 15 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295018.AA1.02- Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING WATER: System loads.

Importance: 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/ 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 14 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 8 ID: 2164412 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following Instrument Air (IA) lineup:

1A compressor running 1/2B compressor shutdown 1/2 compressor OOS for maintenance U2 compressor running Which of the following describes the expected automatic IA system response if the 1A compressor unloader valve fails in the unloaded position?

A. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure rises until the 1A compressor trips.

B. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure lowers until the 1/2B compressor starts to maintain pressure.

C. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure rises until a relief valve lifts.

D. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure lowers until the Service Air Backup Valve opens to supply Unit 1.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 15 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Lowering IA pressure will result in automatic opening of the SA to IA backup valve AO 1-4799-221(little joe). The unloading valve failing open will not cause pressure to rise.

Distractor 1: Plausible because a failed unloading valve will affect pressure of the Instrument Air system. Incorrect because there is no auto start feature for the 1/2B compressor.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a failed unloading valve will affect pressure of the Instrument Air system. Incorrect because the 1A Instrument Air compressor does not trip on high pressure.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a failed unloading valve will affect pressure of the Instrument Air system. Incorrect because the unloader valve failing will cause pressure to lower.

Reference:

QOA 4700-06 rev 29 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295019.AA2.01- Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR: Instrument air system pressure.

Importance: 3.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 16 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 9 ID: 2164413 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was in Mode 3 with the RHR Loop 'A' of Shutdown Cooling (SDC) in service and both Reactor Recirc pumps running when a small LOCA occurred in the drywell.

Drywell pressure is 2.6 psig and rising Reactor water level is -10 inches and lowering In accordance with plant procedures, what is the MINIMUM action that must be taken to allow the LPCI injection valve (MO 1-1001-29) for the loop selected to OPEN?

A. NO action is required. Verify LPCI injection valves automatically open.

B. Place the ISOL VLV RESET switch on the 901-5 panel to INBD and then to OUTBD.

C. Depress RESET FOR GRP 2 ISOL VLV 1-1001-29 pushbutton on the 901-3 panel for the loop selected for injection.

D. MANUALLY open the MO 1-1001-29 valve for the loop selected for injection using the control switch at the 901-3 panel.

Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 17 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Since a PCI Group 2 signal is in (< 0"), the RHR 29A/B valves close when RHR is in a Shutdown Cooling lineup, (i.e. MO 47 and MO 50 valves open). They will NOT auto-open on a LPCI injection signal until the Group 2 interlock is cleared from the 29 valves.

Distractor 1: Plausible since the RHR 29 valves will open for injection normally when < 325 psig. Incorrect because the PCI Group 2 signal will keep the 1-1001-29A valve closed.

Distractor 2: Plausible since the ISOL VLV RESET switch resets group 2 and 3 signals when the signal is no longer present. Incorrect because RWL is < 0".

Distractor 3: Plausible since Core Spray injection valves (another low pressure ECCS source) can be manually opened once < 325 psig. Incorrect because no procedural guidance to open 1-1001-29A valve in this scenario.

Reference:

QCOA 1000-02 Rev 21 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295021.G2.4.9- Knowledge of low power/shutdown implications in the accident (e.g. loss of coolant accident or loss of residual heat removal) mitigation strategies.

Importance: 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2011 Quad ILT Cert Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 18 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 10 ID: 2164414 Points: 1.00 Core Alterations are in progress:

Rad Protection has assured that the dose levels during bundle movements are acceptable for personnel entry into drywell.

An irradiated fuel bundle being moved from the reactor cavity to the Spent Fuel Pool becomes ungrappled and falls into the reactor vessel downcomer area between the vessel wall and the shroud.

Bundle integrity is maintained.

Which of the following describes the person at the greatest risk for radiation exposure?

A. A Mechanic working on SRVs.

B. The Refuel SRO on the Bridge.

C. An EMD Technician working on the SBLC Skid.

D. A Mechanic working on a Torus to Drywell Vacuum Breaker.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 19 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 The Mechanic working on the SRVs is the closest to the dropped fuel bundle due to LOCATION in the drywell. The least amount of shielding is present between the SRVs and the dropped bundle.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the refuel bridge is directly above the fuel when moving.

Incorrect because of the increased shielding from the fuel pool.

Distractor 2: Plausible because SBLC level is adjacent to the annulus. Incorrect because the increased shielding due to being in the reactor building.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Torus to Drywell Vacuum Breaker is in the drywell. Incorrect because of increased shielding from distance, concrete, and torus.

Reference:

M-8 Rev C, QCFHP 0100-01 Rev 37 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295023.AK1.01- Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts are the apply to REFUELING ACCIDENTS: Radiation exposure hazards.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.8 / 41.9 / 41.10 SRO Justification: None Question Source: Bank Question History: 2011 Quad ILT Cert Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 20 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 11 ID: 2164415 Points: 1.00 A LOCA has occurred.

Indicated RPV level is -130" and stable.

Torus pressure is 10 psig and rising slowly.

Which of the following actions is required in order to initiate Drywell and Torus Sprays?

Place the...

A. CNMT CLG 2/3 LVL AND ECCS INIT BYP SWITCH 18 to OFF.

B. CONTAINMENT CLG PERMISSIVE SWITCH 17 to ON.

C. CONTAINMENT CLG PERMISSIVE SWITCH 17 to OFF.

D. CNMT CLG 2/3 LVL AND ECCS INIT BYP SWITCH 18 to MANUAL OVERRIDE.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 21 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Switch 17 in the ON position bypasses the interlock that closes MO 1(2)-1001-23A/B, -26A/B,

-34A/B, -36A/B, and -37A/B on a LPCI initiation signal. Since RPV level is -130", this is the required position for the switch in order to spray the Drywell or to spray or cool the Torus.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the CONTAINMENT CLG PERMISSIVE SWITCH must be manipulated. Incorrect because it is normally in off.

Distractor 2: Plausible because containment logic must be bypassed with a switch to spray drywell. Incorrect because RWL is greater than -191"(2/3 core height).

Distractor 3: Plausible because containment logic must be bypassed with a switch to spray drywell. Incorrect because RWL is greater than 191"(2/3 core height), and OFF is the normal position.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-30 Rev 31 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295024.EK2.15- Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE and the following: Containment spray logic: Plant-Specific Importance: 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: None Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 22 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 12 ID: 2164417 Points: 1.00 What is the reason for the 1200 psig trip of the recirculation pumps from the ATWS system.

A. To ensure a greater boron concentration remains in the core.

B. This results in a faster reduction of power and less chance of core damage.

C. This minimizes chances of recirculation pump riser brace failure.

D. This reduces core flow to zero since heat removal capabilities are no longer needed.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 23 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Tripping recirculation pumps would cause a rapid reduction of core flow and a corresponding increase in core moderator voids which would reduce core power.

Distractor 1: Plausible because there is a loss of forced circulation. Incorrect because heat removal will still be needed.

Distractor 2: Plausible because boron would be in injected in this condition. Incorrect because boron will be coupled with tripping recirculation pumps to lower power.

Distractor 3: Plausible because riser brace failure about 78% is a precaution of recirculation pump operation. Incorrect because this is a precaution for single loop operation and both pumps will be tripped.

Reference:

UFSAR section 15.8, QCOA 0202-04 rev 48 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295025.EK3.02 - Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE: Recirculation pump trip: Plant-Specific Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 24 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 13 ID: 2164420 Points: 1.00 A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has occurred on Unit 1.

Bus 13 and 14 are backfed from Bus 13-1 and 14-1 respectively.

RPV pressure at 700 psig with a cooldown in progress Torus temperature is 120°F and RISING slowly "A" RHRSW Pump flow at 3600 gpm "A" and "B" RHR Pumps in Torus Cooling Mode with the MO 1-1001-36A valve throttled open establishing a 12,000 gpm flowrate.

Which of the following methods will be used to the MAXIMUM amount of Torus Cooling IAW QCOP 1000-09?

A. Start Torus Cooling on the "B" RHR Loop.

B. Start the "B" RHRSW Pump and establish a flowrate of 7500 gpm.

C. Throttle open the MO 1-1001-36A, TORUS H2O TEST VLV.

D. Throttle open the MO 1-1001-5A, RHR HX SW DISCH VLV.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 25 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Starting B loop of Torus Cooling is procedurally allowed and at least 3600 gpm flowrate could be established.

Distractor 1: Plausible because starting another RHRSW pump will increase flowing through RHRSW side of the system. Incorrect because a second RHRSW pump is not allowed while the EDG is loaded to the Bus with 2 RHR pumps already running and procedural guidance in subsequent steps is to maintain flow < 7200 gpm for two pump operation.

Distractor 2: Plausible because opening 1-1001-36A valve will increase from through RHR side of system. Incorrect because with the given conditions, the MO-1-1001-36A valve is full open.

The flow gauge is indicated 12,000 gpm which is full scale. No significant flow increase will be attained by attempting to open the valve further.

Distractor 3: Plausible because opening the 1-1001-5A valve will increase flow on the RHRSW side of the system. Incorrect because per QCOP 1000-04, Limitations and Actions E.2, A sustained flow rate of > 3600 gpm per RHR Service Water Pump is NOT recommended.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-09 rev 28, QCOA 6100-03 rev 42 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295026.EA1.01 - Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to SUPPRESSION POOL HIGH WATER TEMPERATURE: Suppression pool cooling Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 26 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 14 ID: 2164479 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred resulting in a rapid depressurization.

RPV Pressure 25 psig Drywell Temperature 300°F Drywell Pressure 20 psig Torus Temperature 120°F Indicated level may be (1) than actual level due to a (2) D/P across the reference and variable leg.

A. (1)higher (2)lower B. (1)lower (2)lower C. (1)lower (2)higher D. (1)higher (2)higher Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 27 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer Explanation Reference leg flashing reduces the amount of water in that leg which results in a lower pressure on that side of the transmitter, therefore indicated level is higher than actual. The resulting D/P across the transmitter is now also lower than it initially was before the loss of water in the reference leg because the comparative heights between the reference and variable legs are closer.

Distractor 1: Plausible because changes in drywell and RPV conditions WILL have an effect on RWL indication. Incorrect because a lower d/p across a transmitter causes indicated RWL to go up.

Distractor 2: Plausible because changes in drywell and RPV conditions WILL have an effect on RWL indication. Incorrect because a higher d/p across a transmitter will cause indicated RWL to go lower but, reference leg flashing would cause a lower d/p across the transmitter.

Distractor 3: Plausible because changes in drywell and RPV conditions WILL have an effect on RWL indication. Incorrect because a higher d/p across a transmitter will cause indicated RWL to go down.

Reference:

EOP/SAMG Technical Basis Vol. 1 6.5.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295028.EA2.03 - Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE: Reactor water level Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 28 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 15 ID: 2164480 Points: 1.00

- Reactor was scrammed with one rod stuck at position 48.

- Reactor Building d/p is +0.5".

- RPV level is +30 inches.

- Drywell pressure is 2.50 psig.

- Primary containment oxygen is 3%.

- Torus level is +1.0".

- Drywell temperature is 140°F.

QGA 1 must be entered and the immediate operator actions are to 2 A. (1) 100 (2) take the RX MODE SELECT switch to SHUTDOWN per GCGP 2-3 REACTOR SCRAM.

B. (1) 101 (2) initiate ARI, inhibit ADS, and run back recirc to minimum.

C. (1) 200 (2) Start torus sprays in accordance with QCOP 1000-30 POST-ACCIDENT RHR OPERATION.

D. (1) 300 (2) operate area coolers and Reactor Building vents.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 29 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 DW air temperature is above the QGA 200 entry condition. No other QGA entries are met.

Distractor 1: Plausible because all indications given are possible QGA entry conditions and actions. Incorrect because with one rod out, the reactor can be verified to be shutdown, therefore QGA 101 would not be entered..

Distractor 2: Plausible because all indications given are possible QGA entry conditions and actions. Incorrect because spraying the torus is not an immediate operator action Distractor 3: Plausible because all indications given are possible QGA entry conditions and actions. Incorrect because operating room coolers and vents is not an immediate operator action.

Reference:

QGA 100 rev 13 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295030.G2.4.1 - Knowledge of EOP entry conditions and immediate action steps.

Importance: 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 30 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 16 ID: 2164481 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 has experienced a LOCA.

RPV level is -151" and steady.

2A Core Spray pump is the only source of injection at 4500 gpm.

Drywell Pressure is 12 psig.

Drywell Temperature is 280°F (1) What is the mechanism to ensure adequate core cooling?

(2) What are the MINIMUM requirements to maintain this method of core cooling?

A. (1) Spray Cooling (2) Core Spray at 3500 gpm and Reactor Water Level -214" B. (1) Spray Cooling (2) Core Spray at 3700 gpm and Reactor Water Level -191" C. (1) Submergence (2) Core Spray at 3500 gpm and Reactor Water Level -214" D. (1) Submergence (2) Core Spray at 3700 gpm and Reactor Water Level -191" Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 31 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Adequate spray cooling, assuming a bounding axial power shape, is provided when design spray flow requirements are satisfied (at least one Core Spray loop injecting at or above 3700 gpm) and RPV water level is at or above the jet pump suctions

(-191 in.). The covered portion of the core is then cooled by submergence while the uncovered portion is cooled by the spray flow.

Distractor 1: Plausible as it is a method of adequate core cooling. Incorrect because flow is not high enough for steam cooling and -214" is minimum for steam cooling without injection.

Distractor 2: Plausible as it is a method of adequate core cooling. Incorrect because submergence is above -142" Distractor 3: Plausible as it is a method of adequate core cooling. Incorrect because submergence is above -142"

Reference:

EOP/SAMG Technical Basis, Vol. 1 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295031.EK1.01 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to REACTOR LOW WATER LEVEL: Adequate core cooling.

Importance: 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.8 /41.9 / 41.10 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 32 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 17 ID: 2166043 Points: 1.00 Actuating the ARI system by arming and simultaneously depressing both MANUAL INITIATION pushbuttons for ONE division ONLY will...

A. not trip either of the Recirc Pumps.

B. automatically trip only one Recirc Pump immediately.

C. automatically trip both Recirc Pumps after a 9 second time delay.

D. automatically trip only one Recirc Pump after a 9 second time delay.

Answer: A Answer Explanation ARI manual initiation only actuates the ARI valves to vent the scram air header. Tripping the recirculation pumps only occurs from the ATWS trip circuitry at 1200 psig and -59" RWL for 9 seconds.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this is the automatic ATWS response. Incorrect because immediate trip only occurs with ATWS automatic high reactor pressure trip.

Distractor 2: Plausible because this is the automatic ATWS response. Incorrect because delayed trip only occurs with ATWS automatic low-low reactor water level trip.

Distractor 3: Plausible because this is the automatic ATWS response. Incorrect because delayed trip only occurs with ATWS automatic low-low reactor water level trip.

Reference:

4E-6577F, Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295037.EK2.03 - Knowledge of the interrelations between SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN and the following:

ARI/RPT/ATWS: Plant-Specific.

Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 33 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 18 ID: 2166098 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power when the following annunciators alarm:

902-5 C-9 CHANNEL A MAIN STEAM LINE HIGH FLOW 902-5 C-16 CHANNEL B MAIN STEAM LINE HIGH FLOW Which Primary Containment Group Isolation is in?

What is the reason for this specific isolation?

A. Group 1 Prevents the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the primary containment.

B. Group 1 Prevents the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the reactor vessel.

C. Group 2 Prevents the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the reactor vessel.

D. Group 2 Prevents the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the primary containment.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 34 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per section 7.3.2 of the UFSAR the group 1 isolation prevents the excessive loss of reactor coolant and the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the nuclear system process barrier (reactor vessel).

Distractor 1: Plausible because Group 2 isolation does prevent the release of significant amounts of radioactive material. Incorrect because it prevents release from the primary containment.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Group 1 isolation does prevent the release of significant amounts of radioactive material. Incorrect because it prevents release from the reactor vessel.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Group 2 isolation does prevent the release of significant amounts of radioactive material. Incorrect because the alarms indicate a Group 1 isolation is present.

Reference:

UFSAR rev 15 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295038.EK302- Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE: System isolations Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 35 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 19 ID: 2164484 Points: 1.00 Both Units are at 100% power.

If smoke is detected in the control room return air duct the control room ventilation system will automatically...

A. shift to the 100% outside air mode (smoke purge).

B. trip the "A" train and auto start the "B" train.

C. shift to the 100% recirculation mode.

D. continue normal air handling operation.

Answer: A Answer Explanation Smoke Detected in Other Than the Outside Air Intake of the A AHU Places the "A" AHU into the 100% outside air mode (Smoke Purge) by closing damper 121 and opening dampers 120 and 122. When this occurs solenoid valve EP-3 is energized to admit steam to the reheat coil to maintain fan, 1/2-5795-10, suction temperature at 52 F. Should the temperature at the reheater face drop to 35 F, solenoid valve EP-4 is energized to fully open the steam supply valves.

Distractor 1: Plausible because smoke detection can cause shift to 100% recirculation mode.

Incorrect because this only occurs if detected on inlet.

Distractor 2: Plausible because B train of CR HVAC would not respond to smoke detection.

Incorrect because "B" train of CR HVAC is not normally running.

Distractor 3: Plausible because upon a trip of "A" train of CR HVAC, "B" train would auto start.

Incorrect because "A" train will not trip on smoke detection.

Reference:

QCOP 5750-09 rev 65 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 600000.AA1.05 - Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: Plant and control room ventilation systems.

Importance: 3.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 36 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 20 ID: 2164485 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power but the grid has become unstable.

Bus 13-1 and 14-1 voltages have lowered to 90% of nominal.

Which of the following describe how Busses 13-1 and 14-1 and their associated Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) respond to operation in this condition?

The associated EDGs will...

A. remain in standby. Buses 13-1 and 14-1 will operate indefinitely in this condition as long as bus voltages remain above 70% nominal.

B. remain in standby. After 5 minutes Bus 13-1 and 14-1 main feed breakers will trip, the EDGs will auto-start and re-energize their respective bus.

C. auto-start. Bus 13-1 and 14-1 main feed breakers will trip immediately and the EDGs will re-energize their respective bus.

D. auto-start. After 5 minutes Bus 13-1 and 14-1 main feed breakers will trip and the EDGs will re-energize their respective bus.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 37 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 901-8 E-5 4KV BUS 13-1/14-1 VOLTAGE DEGRADED Second level UV on ECCS BUS 13-1/14-1, Setpoint - Approximately 3913-3899V, with 5 minutes time delay and 7 seconds inherent time delay, Device TDR-13-1.

7-second timer starts, after 7-second times out, a 5-minute timer starts. If 5-minute timer times out OR a LOCA signal is sensed by Core Spray logic (2.5# or -59"), the second level UV relay TRIPS the first level UV relay for the associated ECCS bus. Annunciator input comes from initiation of 5-minute timer.

Distractor 1: Plausible because EDG will stay in standby initially after the lowering voltage condition. Incorrect because after 5 mins the EDG will start and load to buses 13-1/14-1.

Distractor 2: Plausible because low voltage is an auto start of an EDG. Incorrect because second level undervoltage has a 5 min delay timer before starting and loading the EDG.

Distractor 3: Plausible because low voltage is an auto start of an EDG. Incorrect because second level undervoltage has a 5 min delay timer before starting and loading the EDG.

Reference:

QOA 6500-08/09 rev 16/19, QOA 900-8 E-5/G-12 rev 6/10 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 700000.AA2.09 - Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to GENERATOR VOLTAGE AND ELECTRIC GRID DISTURBANCES: Operational status of emergency diesel generators.

Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.5 / 45.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 38 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 21 ID: 2166395 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

Drywell pressure 11 psig Reactor water level -65" Reactor pressure 400 psig Which of the following describes the response of "A" Core Spray Pump Discharge Pressure from its stand-by value to this point in the accident?

"A" Core Spray Pump Discharge Pressure has risen to...

A. just below pump shutoff head because Core Spray Pump flow is through the Core Spray discharge header relief valve.

B. to pump shutoff head because NO flowpaths are available for the Core Spray Pump.

C. to just above reactor pressure because the Core Spray Pump is injecting into the Reactor.

D. just below pump shutoff head because Core Spray Pump flow is through the minimum flow valve.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 39 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer: The A Core Spray pump runs on minimum flow until RPV pressure drops below 325 psig when the inject valve opens.

Distractor 1: Plausible because if no flow path opened, the discharge relief valve would lift, causing flow to RBEDT. Incorrect because min flow valve would open to direct water to the torus.

Distractor 2: Plausible because core spray pumps would sit at shutoff head with no flow path.

Incorrect because the min flow valve would open and cause discharge pressure to drop below shutoff head.

Distractor 3: Plausible because if injecting, discharge pressure would be at reactor pressure.

Incorrect because injection valves are closed at high reactor pressure above 325 psig.

Reference:

QCOA 1400-01 rev 12 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295007.AK2.04 - Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE and the following: LPCS.

Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 40 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 22 ID: 2164487 Points: 1.00 What is the reason for the automatic runback of the Reactor Recirculation Pumps?

The Recirc Pump runback to (1) prevents (2) .

A. (1) 70% core flow (2) a RPV low water level scram on a loss of a Reactor Feed Pump at high power B. (1) 32% speed when its discharge valve is NOT fully open (2) excessive axial thrust across the pump C. (1) 70% core flow (2) runout of a Reactor Feed Pump when <3 are operating above 90% power D. (1) 32% speed when its discharge valve is NOT fully open (2) riser brace failure Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 41 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 The runback to a speed equivalent to 70% rated core flow is designed to prevent a reactor scram on low level in the event of a RFP or Condensate pump trip at higher powers. Higher power is defined as > 85% steam flow and 90% feed flow.

Distractor 1: Plausible because there is a run back to 32% speed. Incorrect because single loop operations at a pump speed above 78% (not 32%) could lead to riser brace failure.

Distractor 2: Plausible because there is a run back to 32% speed. Incorrect because this is a flow limiter interlock at 32% speed when the Recirc pump discharge valve is closed. This prevents excessive axial thrust across the pump. It is not a runback. Closing the discharge valve after it is fully open will trip the Recirc pump.

Distractor 3: Plausible because there is a run back to 70%. Protection against RFP runout is based on individual or combined pump flows. This runback occurs only on auto-trip of a running RFP.

Reference:

QCOP 0600-21 rev 22 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295009.AK3.01- Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to LOW REACTOR WATER LEVEL: Recirculation pump run back: Plant-Specific.

Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 42 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 23 ID: 2164488 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

Over the last two days:

Drywell Pressure is SLOWLY RISING Drywell Average Temperature is Steady Drywell Floor Drain Sump calculated in leakage is Steady Drywell Equipment Drain Sump calculated in leakage is Steady What is the cause of these indications?

A. Nitrogen purge/makeup pressure controller, PIC 2-1640-11, drifting open.

B. The degradation of a recirc pump inner seal.

C. An accumulator air leak on an outboard MSIV.

D. A small packing leak on steam line drain valve MO 2-0220-1.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 43 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per QCOA 0201-01, failure of PIC 2-1640 would cause drywell pressure to rise. The answer is also the only condition that could cause a DW pressure to increase but not the sumps.

Distractor 1: Plausible because MSIV accumulator air leak could cause rising drywell pressure.

Incorrect because outboard MSIV is not in drywell.

Distractor 2: Plausible because steam line drain valve is in the drywell. Incorrect because a small packing leak is within the capacity of the drywell coolers to control and drywell sump in leakage is steady.

Distractor 3: Plausible because recirculation pump seal failure would increase drywell temperature and pressure. Incorrect because both the inner and outer seal must fail for this to occur.

Reference:

QCOA 0201-01 rev 30 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295010.AA1.03- Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE: Nitrogen makeup: Plant-Specific.

Importance: 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 44 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 24 ID: 2166443 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100% when a manual scram was inserted. After the scram, full core display rod position indication for rod G-14 is blank and RWM indicates ??. The rest of the rods are fully inserted.

The reactor (1) stay shut down under all conditions and control rod G-14 must be (2) .

A. (1) will (2) individually scrammed B. (1) will not (2) individually scrammed C. (1) will not (2) manually inserted to 00 D. (1) will (2) manually inserted to 00 Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 45 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Declaring the reactor shut down can also be done by verifying that the rod pattern is conservative with respect to the shutdown margin test as shown by all rods inserted to position 00 except one which can be at any position.

Individually scramming a rod is a subsequent step if manual insertion is unsuccessful.

Distractor 1: Plausible because individually scramming a control rod will drive it to 00. Incorrect because procedure dictates manually driving in control rods first.

Distractor 2: Plausible because individually scramming a control rod will drive it to 00 and control rods not scramming leaves positive reactivity in the core. Incorrect because only one rod is not below position 04.

Distractor 3: Plausible because control rods not scramming leaves positive reactivity in the core. Incorrect because only one rod is not below position 04.

Reference:

QCGP 2-3 rev 99, QCAP 0200-10 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295015.AA2.02- Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to INCOMPLETE SCRAM: Control rod position.

Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 46 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 25 ID: 2164490 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

1A CRD pump is out of service.

A report of smoke in the area of the 1B CRD pump motor vents.

What actions are required?

A. Continue normal operation, until multiple accumulator alarms are received, then commence a normal unit shutdown.

B. Trip the 1B CRD pump and scram the reactor when more than one accumulator alarm is received.

C. Cross-tie the CRD pump discharge to the other units' CRD system, and continue normal operation.

D. Cross-tie the CRD pump discharge to the other unit's CRD system, and commence shutdown.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 47 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per step D.5, if in mode 1 or 2 and two or more accumulator trouble alarms are received with 900 psig or greater, restore charging water header pressure to 940 psig or greater. If cannot restore charging water pressure within 20 minutes, place Reactor Mode Switch to shutdown position and enter QCGP 2-3.

Distractor 1: Plausible because CRD cross tie would restore pressure to Unit 1 CRD system.

Incorrect because this is only as directed by QGA or SAMG.

Distractor 2: Plausible because action must be taken upon receiving multiple accumulator alarms. Incorrect because normal shutdown would cause you to violate technical specifications.

Distractor 3: Plausible because CRD cross tie would restore pressure to Unit 1 CRD system.

Incorrect because this is only as directed by QGA or SAMG.

Reference:

QCOA 0300-01 rev 18 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295022.G2.1.20- Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

Importance: RO 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 48 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 26 ID: 2164611 Points: 1.00 The max safe values for temperature, radiation, and water level in the reactor building per QGA-300 "SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL" are based on the highest values:

A. at which protection for personnel and equipment needed for safe shutdown of the plant can be assured.

B. at which equipment can be considered operable the UFSAR.

C. expected to be seen during an accident.

D. at which equipment can be considered operable by the Technical Specifications.

Answer: A Answer Explanation If temperatures of Secondary Containment Control approach their maximum safe operating value, adequate core cooling, containment integrity, safety of personnel, or continued operability of equipment required for safe shutdown can no longer be assured.

Distractor 1: Plausible because max safe values can only be exceeded in an accident. Incorrect because not addressing safe shutdown of plant.

Distractor 2: Plausible because UFSAR does analyze equipment during various states of operation and casualty. Incorrect because max safe values exceed exclusion area parameters per the EPG.

Distractor 3: Plausible because operating temperatures are part of technical specification operating basis. Incorrect because during an accident, the safe shutdown of the reactor is the greater priority than operational technical specifications.

Reference:

BWROG EPG's/SAG's appendix B pg B-II-4-13 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295032.EK1.01- Knowledge of the operational limitations of the following concepts as they apply to HIGH SECONDARY CONTAINMENT AREA TEMPERATURE: Personnel protection Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.8 / 41.9 / 41.10 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 49 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 27 ID: 2164612 Points: 1.00 When Reactor Building vent exhaust radiation is above 3 mr/hr, QGA 300, SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL, requires the verification of Reactor Building Ventilation isolation and the initiation of the Standby Gas Treatment System.

What is the reason for this action?

A. Maintains a positive pressure in the reactor building.

B. Provides a ground level release.

C. Ensures an elevated release.

D. Directs the radioactive discharge to the Primary and Secondary Containment.

Answer: C Answer Explanation Along with maintaining a negative d/p with atmosphere, SBGT discharges to the main chimney, thus providing for elevated release of radioactive materials discharged through SBGT.

Distractor 1: Plausible because SBGT provides a controlled release of radiation from the reactor building. Incorrect because the release is elevated.

Distractor 2: Plausible because SBGT provides a controlled release of radiation from the reactor building. Incorrect because the release is directed to the chimney.

Distractor 3: Plausible because SBGT is used to maintain pressure in secondary containment.

Incorrect because negative pressure is maintained.

Reference:

BWROG EPG's/SAG's appendix B pg B.II-4-5-5 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295034.EK2.04- Knowledge of the interrelations between SECONDARY CONTAINMENT VENTILATION HIGH RADIATION and the following: Secondary containment ventilation Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 50 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 28 ID: 2164613 Points: 1.00 A UNIT 1 LOCA is in progress:

Drywell temperature is 300F.

Drywell pressure is 10 psig.

Torus pressure is 9.5 psig Reactor water level is -65 inches.

Reactor pressure is 350 psig.

RHR Loop B is selected for injection When reactor pressure lowers to < 325 psig, the NSO reports MO 1-1001-29B valve is NOT opening.

What action will open the RHR 29B valve?

A. Depress the RESET FOR GRP 2 ISOL VLV 1-1001-29 pushbutton B. Depress the LPCI LOOP SEL LOGIC RESET pushbutton C. Reset the Group II isolation using the ISOL VLV RESET switch on the 901-5 panel D. Depress the LPCI INITIATION RESET pushbutton Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 51 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per QCOA 1000-04 step B.3.a.2.a IF MO 1(2)-1001-29A/B on the selected loop fails to open, THEN depress RESET FOR GRP 2 ISOL VLV 1(2)-1001-29 pushbutton.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this will reset any LPCI auto initiation interlocks on RHR and RHRSW. Incorrect because this resets torus/drywell spray valves, torus cooling, and RHRSW pumps.

Distractor 2: Plausible because this would allow them to reopen upon a Group II isolation during shutdown cooling operations. Incorrect because shutdown cooling is not in progress, nor is a Group 2 able to be reset.

Distractor 3: Plausible because this will reset LPCI Loop Select interlocks on Recircualtion and LPCI injection valves. Incorrect because this will just cause LPCI loop select logic to select the same loop and take no other actions.

Reference:

QCOA 1000-04 rev 20 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 203000.A4.05- Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Manual initiation controls.

Importance: RO 4.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 / 45.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 52 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 29 ID: 2164631 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is shutdown and decay heat is being removed via the 2A RHR Loop in Shutdown Cooling (SDC).

The 2B loop of RHR is tagged out and drained.

The 2A RHR pumps trips, and the 2B RHR pump will NOT start.

The problem with the 2A RHR pump has been corrected and the 2A RHR pump is now available for service.

The following conditions are reported:

MO 2-1001-47, SDC HDR DOWNSTREAM SV, is CLOSED MO 2-1001-50, SDC HDR UPSTREAM SV, is CLOSED Annunciator 902-3 E-15, SHUTDOWN COOLING LOW PRESS PERM, is CLEAR Reactor water level is +31 inches and rising slowly Which of the following lists the MINIMUM actions, if any, that must be taken PRIOR to re-opening the SDC Isolation valves and starting the 2A RHR pump?

A. REDUCE reactor pressure to < 100 psig AND depress the ISOL VLV RESET pushbutton B. REDUCE reactor pressure to < 100 psig ONLY C. RESET the SDC Isolation logic ONLY D. NO action is required Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 53 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 With no RHR pumps running, decay heat will cause reactor pressure to rise. When pressure exceeds 100 psig, the Shutdown Cooling Low Pressure Permissive alarm clears, indicating that an RHR pump CANNOT be started while aligned for Shutdown Cooling. Reactor pressure must be reduced to less than 100 psig and the isolation logic manually reset before a RHR pump is permitted to start.

Annunciator 902-3 E-15 actual setpoint is 118 psig. Reducing reactor pressure to less than 100 psig will cause the annunciator to alarm. Per QCOA 1000-02, step D.9.c.(3)(c): "WHEN Reactor pressure is <100 psig AND alarm 901(2)-3 E-15, SHUTDOWN COOLING LOW PRESS, is received, THEN: Reset isolation by taking ISOL VLV RESET switch at Panel 901(2)-5 to both INBD and OTBD; Depress both RESET FOR GRP ISOL VLV 1(2)-1001-29A/B pushbuttons; Restart Shutdown Cooling per QCOP 1000-05."

Distractor 1 is incorrect: Plausible because the SDC Isolation logic must be reset. Incorrect because low press perm alarm being clear does not mean that a RHR pump start is permitted.

Distractor 2 is incorrect: Plausible because the isolation logic need only be reset if there were a Group 2 Isolation signal. Incorrect because there is no indication of a Group 2 Isolation from the stem.

Distractor 3 is incorrect: Plausible because no group 2 is present and pump trip has been corrected. Incorrect because 902-3 E-15 needs to be in to open the 47 and 50 valves to start the 2A RHR pump.

Reference:

QCOA 1000-02 Rev 20, QCOP 1000-05 Rev 54, QCAN 901(2)-3 E-15 Rev 8.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 205000.A2.06- Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the SHUTDOWN COOLING SYSTEM(RHR SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE); and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: SDC/RHR pump trips.

IMPORTANCE: 3.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: Quad Cities 2012 ILT Exam, 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 54 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 30 ID: 2166699 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is in MODE 4.

Reactor coolant temperature is 112°F and slowly lowering with Shutdown Cooling on.

Per QCOP 1000-05, SHUTDOWN COOLING OPERATION, which surveillance procedure must be entered?

A. QCOS 1600-48, UNIT 2 OUTAGE PCI GROUP 2 ISOLATION TEST B. QCOS 0300-22, FUEL CHANNEL DISTORTION MONITORING C. QCOS 0201-02, PRIMARY SYSTEM BOUNDARY THERMAL LIMITATIONS D. QCOS 0201-05, REACTOR COOLANT CONTINUOUS CONDUCTIVITY MONITORING SURVEILLANCE Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 55 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per QCOP 1000-05 E.25, If reactor is in MODE 4 AND Reactor coolant temperature is less than 113 degrees, then QCOS 0201-02 must be entered.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this is a cold shutdown outage required surveillance. Incorrect because not required by shutdown cooling operation procedure and does not have a parameter threshold prompt.

Distractor 2: Plausible because procedure would be performed to verify conductivity during reactor coolant temperature change. Incorrect because this is performed shiftly vice after a threshold has been reached.

Distractor 3: Plausible because outage procedure for RHR system which has Group 2 effected valves. Incorrect because performing surveillance would remove shutdown cooling from service.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-05 rev 62 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 205000.G2.2.12- Knowledge of surveillance procedures.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 56 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 31 ID: 2164633 Points: 1.00 What is the fail position of the following HPCI system valves upon a loss of Instrument Air?

(1) Drain valves to the Main Condenser AO-2301-29 and -30 (2) Drain valves to the HPCI Sump AO-2301-64 and -65 A. (1) Closed (2) Open B. (1) Closed (2) Closed C. (1) Open (2) Closed D. (1) Open (2) Open Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 57 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per QOA 4700-06, Instrument Air supplies all HPCI air-operated valves. On a loss of instrument air, the motive force for the AO valves is lost. These valves fail in such a manner that they are lined up for HPCI injection. FC/FC Distractor 1: Plausible because not all HPCI valves fail close on loss of instrument air. Incorrect because HPCI drain valves to the condenser fail closed.

Distractor 2: Plausible because not all HPCI valves fail close on loss of instrument air. Incorrect because HPCI drain valves to the condenser and HPCI sump fail closed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because not all HPCI valves fail close on loss of instrument air. Incorrect because HPCI drain valves to the HPCI sump fail closed.

Reference:

QOA 4700-06 rev 29 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 206000.K1.13- Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between HIGH PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM and the following: Main condenser:

BWR-2,3,4 Importance: 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.2 / 41.9 / 45.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 58 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 32 ID: 2164636 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a loss of 125 VDC Bus 1B occurs.

A casualty occurs resulting in:

Reactor water level is +19" and lowering.

Reactor pressure is 850 psig and lowering.

Drywell pressure is 4 psig and rising.

How will the Unit 1 Core Spray systems respond?

A. "B" loop will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow, while "A" loop will NOT auto-initiate but can be manually started.

B. "A" loop will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow, while "B" loop will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow.

C. "B" loop will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow, while "A" loop will will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow..

D. "A" loop will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow, while "B" loop will NOT auto-initiate but may be manually started.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 59 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 References 4E-1430 Sheets 1 and 2. "A" loop RHR is not affected (control power from bus 1A-1). "B" loop Pump Control power is from the respective 4KV Bus 125 VDC logic power via bus 1B-1 (bus 1B feeds 1B-1) and the valves from the 480 VAC Control Power transformers.

Breakers on bus 14-1 will work because DC control power auto swaps to SBO 125 VDC.

Distractor 1: Plausible because 1A and 1B are both power supplies of Core Spray Initiation logic. Incorrect because the loss of 1B will remove automatic Core Spray Initiation to division 2.

Distractor 2: Plausible because 1A and 1B are both power supplies of Core Spray Initiation logic. Incorrect because the loss of 1B will remove automatic Core Spray Initiation to division 2.

Distractor 3: Plausible because 1A and 1B are both power supplies of Core Spray Initiation logic. Incorrect because the loss of 1B will remove automatic Core Spray Initiation to division 2.

Reference:

4E-1430 sh 1+2, QOA 6900-09 rev 21 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 209001.K2.03- Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Initiation logic Importance: 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 60 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 33 ID: 2164639 Points: 1.00 A pinhole leak has developed on the SBLC injection piping, inside of the two concentric pipes.

What effect will this have on the following:

Actual Core Plate D/P will (1) .

Indicated Core Plate D/P will (2) .

A. (1) remain unchanged (2) remain unchanged B. (1) lower (2) rise C. (1) lower (2) lower D. (1) remain unchanged (2) lower Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 61 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Actual core plate d/p is driven by flow in the core and will not change from a small leak in the SBLC injection piping. Indicated core plate d/p will lower due to some amount of higher pressure being felt inside of the lower pressure piping.

Distractor 1: Plausible because core plate d/p would not change. Incorrect because indicated core plate d/p would change from a leak on a shared instrument line.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a large leak between both sides of the core plate would cause lower d/p. Incorrect because this leak in instrument piping will not change core flow and pressure.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a large leak between both sides of the core plate would cause lower d/p. Incorrect because this leak in instrument piping will not change core flow and pressure.

Reference:

M-35 sht 1.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 211000.K3.03- Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL SYSTEM will have on the following: Core plate differential pressure indication.

Importance: 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.4 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 62 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 34 ID: 2164642 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a transient occurs requiring a manual scram to be inserted.

If the reactor cannot be scrammed before the Control Room is evacuated IAW QOA 0010-05 PLANT OPERATION W ITH THE CONTROL ROOM INACCESSIBLE, how does the procedure direct the scram be accomplished?

A. Vent the Scram Air Header.

B. Pull the Scram Fuses from the 901-15 and 901-17 panels.

C. Open the circuit breakers in the RPS Distribution Panels which feed the 901-15 and 901-17 panels.

D. De-energize buses 18 and 19.

Answer: C Answer Explanation Per QOA 0010-05 opening the breakers which power the 901(2)-15/17 panels need to be opened in the Auxiliary Electrical Room.

Distractor 1: Plausible because venting the scram air header would scram the reactor. Incorrect because it is not directed in the procedure.

Distractor 2: Plausible because removing power from 18/19 will scram the reactor. Incorrect because it is not directed in the procedure.

Distractor 3: Plausible pulling the scram fuses from the 15/17 panels will scram the reactor.

Incorrect because it is not directed in the procedure.

Reference:

QOA 0010-05 rev 26 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 212000.K4.07- Knowledge of the REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Manual system activation (trip)

Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 63 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 35 ID: 2164643 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 Reactor startup is in progress.

The reactor is critical, but below the point of adding heat.

IRM 11 is reading 60 on range 4.

When ranging IRM 11, the switch is taken to range 3.

What is the expected IRM indication and plant response?

A. The indicator will lower on scale and no further plant response is expected.

B. The indicator will be pegged high and only a Rod Block will be received.

C. The indicator will be pegged downscale and only a Rod Block will be received.

D. The indicator will be pegged high and a Rod Block and 1/2 SCRAM on RPS "A" will be received.

Answer: D Answer Explanation When ranging down, there is a larger gain applied to the IRM. Due to this, the instrument will peg high. This will cause a scram signal at 121/125 of full scale and rod block at 105/125 of full scale.

Distractor 1: Plausible because ranging IRM's will change the meter reading. Incorrect because ranging down applies a larger gain therefore, high reading.

Distractor 2: Plausible because ranging IRM's will change the meter reading. Incorrect because ranging down applies a larger gain therefore, high reading.

Distractor 3: Plausible because ranging IRM's will change the meter reading. Incorrect because the mode switch is not in RUN therefore, the 1/2 SCRAM is active.

Reference:

UFSAR 7.6.1.4, QCOP 0700-02 rev 21, QCAN 901-5 C-10 rev 6 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 215003.K5.01- Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to INTERMEDIATE RANGE MONITOR (IRM) SYSTEM: Detector operation Importance: 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.3 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 64 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 36 ID: 2164644 Points: 1.00 In which of the following sets of conditions will the IRM DOWNSCALE rod block be bypassed?

A. Range Switch on Range 1 OR Mode Switch in "RUN".

B. Range Switch on Range 1 OR Mode Switch in "SHUTDOWN".

C. Range Switch on Range 3 or below OR Mode Switch in "RUN".

D. Range Switch on Range 3 or below OR Mode Switch in "STARTUP".

Answer: A Answer Explanation All IRM rod blocks are bypassed with the mode switch in run IRM downscale rod block is bypassed when the IRM is on range 1 Distractor 1: Plausible because IRM in Range 1 would bypass the rod block. Incorrect because the rod block is active with the mode switch in shutdown.

Distractor 2: Plausible because IRM Range 3 does bypass a rod block. Incorrect because it is the SRM rod block which is bypassed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because IRM Range 3 does bypass a rod block. Incorrect because it is the SRM rod block which is bypassed. Also, incorrect because the rod block is active with the mode switch in shutdown.

Reference:

QCAN 901(2)-5 C-5 rev 5 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 215003.A3.04- Ability to monitor automatic operation of the INTERMEDIATE RANGE MONITOR (IRM) SYSTEM including: Control rod block status Importance: 3.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 65 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 37 ID: 2164645 Points: 1.00 A reactor startup is in progress with the IRM's on range 6 and the SRM's still partially inserted. A reactor scram occurs, and the operator acknowledges the following annunciators while executing QCGP 2-3.

SRM HI OR INOP SRM DOWNSCALE SRM SHORT PERIOD CHANNEL A(B) SRM HI HI NEUTRON MONITOR A(B) SPLY VOLTAGE HI / LO After several minutes the NSO observes the SRM's are fully inserted and reading downscale. Which of the following is the reason for the plant response?

A. A loss of 24 / 48 VDC power resulted in an SRM DOWNSCALE scram signal and reading.

B. The reactor scram resulted from a SHORT PERIOD of <20 sec. The DOWNSCALE reading and annunciator are indicated because all control rods are inserted. The remaining annunciators occurred as the SRM's were driving in.

C. A voltage spike in the power supply to the SRM's resulted in a >5.0 E05 cps reading which resulted in a reactor scram.

D. A total loss of 24 / 48 VDC caused a full reactor scram and the SRM indications.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 66 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Symptoms are all those found QOA 6900-03. Both buses would have to be lost to result in a reactor scram.

Distractor 1: Plausible because a voltage spike which caused that reading would a reactor scram. Incorrect because you would not get a spike in both divisions at the same time which would be required to get a reactor scram.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a loss of 24/48V would cause a SRM DOWNSCALE. Incorrect because this would not cause the scram.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a short period could be obtained during the fast indicated power change which accompany given alarms. Incorrect because SHORT PERIOD would not cause the scram automatically.

Reference:

QOA 6900-03 rev 14 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 215004.K6.02- Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the SOURCE RANGE MONITOR (SRM) SYSTEM: 24/48 volt DC power Importance: 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 67 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 38 ID: 2164646 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 has been operating steady state at 2810 MW(th).

The NSO records APRM readings on the 902-37 panel as follows:

APRM 1 = 93.0%

APRM 2 = 95.0%

APRM 3 = 92.0%

APRM 4 = 97.0%

APRM 5 = 96.0%

APRM 6 = 98.0%

What are the MINIMUM actions required?

A. Recalibrate APRM's 1, 3, and 6. APRM 3 must be recalibrated within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> to avoid declaring APRM 3 inoperable.

B. Recalibrate APRM's 3 and 6 ONLY, as time allows.

C. Bypass APRM's 3 and 6.

D. Recalibrate APRMs 3 and 6 both within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> or enter LCO 3.3.1.1 Condition A.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 68 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 The power level based on 2810/2957 is 95%. The allowable band would be +2% to -1%.

APRMs 1, 3, and 6 are not within the band and calibration would be required per QCTS 910-07.

In addition, since APRMs 3 is >2% lower than calculated reactor power, then tracking per TS 3.3.1.1. Note 2 is required.

Distractor 1: Plausible because APRM 3 and 6 are greater than 2% different than reactor power. Incorrect because APRM 1 is 2.5% below reactor power. APRM 3 is greater than 2%

lower than actual reactor power, therefore it needs to be adjusted within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

Distractor 2: Plausible because APRM 3 and 6 are greater than 2% different than reactor power. Incorrect because the APRM does not become INOP if indicated power is greater than reactor power.

Distractor 3: Plausible because action for failed or INOP APRM is to bypass. Incorrect because both channels are not INOP upon discovery.

Reference:

QCTS 910-07 rev 23, TS 3.3.1.1 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 215005.A1.07- Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the AVERAGE POWER RANGE MONITORING/LOCAL POWER RANGE MONITORING SYSTEM controls including: APRM (gain adjustment factor)

Importance: 3.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.5 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 69 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 39 ID: 2164647 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 RCIC automatically started and is maintaining reactor water level at -40 inches.

Annunciator 901-4 F-15, RCIC TURBINE BEARING OIL PRESSURE LOW Annunciator 901-4 E-15, RCIC GOVERNOR END BEARING HIGH TEMP Annunciator 901-4 F-14, RCIC COUPLER END BEARING HIGH TEMP Unit 1 EO reports that RCIC lube oil pressure is 3 psig and LOWERING despite efforts to restore pressure.

Unit 1 RCIC oil levels are all normal.

No other injection sources are available.

Regarding the continued operation of RCIC, A. Continue RCIC operation and dispatch an EO to manually throttle the Trip Throttle Valve as directed per 1300-04 RCIC TURBINE BEARING OIL LOW PRESSURE OR OIL HIGH TEMPERATURE.

B. Continue RCIC operation and dispatch an EO to add oil to the RCIC Lube Oil Reservoir per QCOA 1300-04 RCIC TURBINE BEARING OIL LOW PRESSURE OR OIL HIGH TEMPERATURE.

C. Shut down RCIC System per QCOP 1300-05, RCIC SYSTEM SHUTDOWN.

D. IMMEDIATELY trip the RCIC Turbine and perform QCOP 1300-05, RCIC SYSTEM SHUTDOWN.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 70 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 When oil pressure is lost, spring pressure on the governor will cause this valve to open.

Continued operation of the RCIC turbine will have to be controlled by manually throttling the trip throttle valve.

Distractor 1: Plausible because tripping RCIC is required on a loss of oil pressure during testing. Incorrect because testing is not being conducted.

Distractor 2: Plausible because RCIC operation will continue due to it being needed for core cooling. Incorrect because oil is only added when oil level is low.

Distractor 3: Plausible because RCIC would be shut down due to the low oil pressure condition.

Incorrect due to RCIC being needed for core cooling.

Reference:

QCAN 901-4 E-15/F-14/F-15. QCOA 1300-04 rev 10 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 217000.A2.08- Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM (RCIC); and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Loss of lube oil cooling.

Importance: 3.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 71 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 40 ID: 2164648 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 has experienced a small line break LOCA with a loss of all RFPs.

HPCI is OOS.

RCIC auto-starts and injects into the vessel.

RCIC operates for several minutes and then trips.

Several minutes later, RCIC restarts and injects into the vessel.

Assuming NO operator action, what was the cause of the RCIC Turbine trip?

A. High Reactor Water Level.

B. High Turbine Exhaust Pressure.

C. Low Pump Suction Pressure.

D. Turbine Overspeed.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 72 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 The K/A is the ability to monitor automatic RCIC turbine operation. The question asks the examinee to determine which of the turbine trips will automatically reset and allow an automatic restart of the RCIC turbine. RCIC is designed to run on an initiation signal of -59"until tripping off on +48" and then auto restarting at -59" again. The rest of the trips require operator action.

Distractor 1: Plausible because high turbine exhaust pressure is a RCIC turbine trip. Incorrect because this turbine trip does not auto reset.

Distractor 2: Plausible because low pump suction pressure is a RCIC turbine trip. Incorrect because this turbine trip does not auto reset.

Distractor 3: Plausible because turbine overspeed is a RCIC turbine trip. Incorrect because this turbine trip does not auto reset.

Reference:

QCOA 1300-01 rev 18 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 217000.A3.02 Ability to monitor automatic operations of the REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM (RCIC) including: Turbine startup Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2016 ILT NRC exam, 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 73 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 41 ID: 2164681 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) and a small-line-break Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA) occurred.

All control rods have fully inserted.

Reactor pressure is being controlled automatically by relief valves.

RCIC is injecting at 400 gpm but HPCI has tripped and is unavailable.

RPV water level is -49" and lowering at 10" per minute.

Drywell pressure is 2.0 psig and rising at 0.5 psig per minute.

Both Emergency Diesel Generators have started but neither closed on to their respective bus.

Assuming no operator action, how will the Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) relief valves respond?

The ADS relief valves will A. NOT automatically open.

B. automatically open in 60 seconds.

C. automatically open in 170 seconds.

D. automatically open in 570 seconds.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 74 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 With a loss of off-site power and a failure of the EDGs to load on their busses, the ECCS pumps do not have a power supply, so they will not start. One of the requirements for ADS to auto blowdown is a Low pressure ECCS pump running.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the auto blowdown timer would start after -59" reactor water level and either 2.5 psig drywell pressure or 8.5 minutes elapsed. Incorrect because in 60 seconds both RPV level and Drywell pressure will be at their ADS initiation setpoints.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the auto blowdown timer would start after -59" reactor water level and either 2.5 psig drywell pressure or 8.5 minutes elapsed. Incorrect because in 60 seconds, ADS initiation conditions will be satisfied and the 110 second timer will start but, If the RHR pumps or CS pumps are not running, the ADS SRVs will not open.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the auto blowdown timer would start after -59" reactor water level and either 2.5 psig drywell pressure or 8.5 minutes elapsed. Incorrect because Incorrect because In 60 seconds, ADS initiation conditions will be satisfied and the 110 second timer will start but, If the RHR pumps or CS pumps are not running, the ADS SRVs will not open.

Reference:

QCAN 901(2)-3 C-15 Rev 7 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 218000.A3.04- Ability to monitor automatic operations of the AUTOMATIC DEPRESSURIZATION SYSTEM including: Primary containment pressure.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2009 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 75 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 42 ID: 2164682 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

HPCI raised water level from -30 inches to +10 inches RWL had been at +10 inches for several minutes when the following annunciators alarmed:

-902-3 H-2, AREA HI TEMP STEAM LEAK DETECTION

-902-3 D-9, HPCI GRP 4 PCI VLVS AC DIV ISOL

-902-3 D-10, HPCI GRP 4 PCI VLVS DC DIV ISOL

-902-3 C-10, HPCI GRP 4 PCI VLVS NOT OPEN RPV water level is now -70" Which of the following describes the MINIMUM actions to re-establish HPCI injection?

A. Reset AC and DC trip logic, manually open the MO 2-2301-4 and MO 2-2301-5 valves, and depress and hold the "HPCI TURB TRIP RESET" pushbutton.

B. Reset AC and DC trip logic, and manually open the MO 2-2301-4 and MO 2-2301-5 valves ONLY.

C. Reset the AC and DC trip logic ONLY.

D. Reset AC and DC trip logic, then depress and hold the HPCI MANUAL INITIATION pushbutton.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 76 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 QCOA 2300-04 explains the process of resetting a HPCI isolation. No manual signal is required.

Rx Level is low enough that HPCI has an auto-start already.

The steam supply MOVs have to be manually opened and the AC/DC logic reset.

HPCI has isolated, no trip signal is keeping HPCI from running, just the lack of steam flow.

Distractor 1: Plausible because HPCI will restart if water level is below -59"and turbine trip is reset. Incorrect because HPCI is isolated.

Distractor 2: Plausible because HPCI has an auto-start signal and will attempt to inject upon reset of trip. Incorrect because 2-2301-4/5 valves do not automatically open.

Distractor 3: Plausible because HPCI has an auto-start signal and will attempt to inject upon reset of trip. Incorrect because the AC/DC trip logic is an isolation, not a trip.

Reference:

QCOA 2300-04 rev 25 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 223002.A4.03- Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Reset system isolations.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5-45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 77 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 43 ID: 2164683 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when relief valve 1-203-3C fails open.

After 2 minutes, which of the following indications would follow this casualty?

A. Megawatts Electric lowers, Reactor pressure unchanged, Reactor water level rises B. Torus Temperature rises, Reactor pressure unchanged, Reactor water level rises C. Megawatts Electric lowers, Torus Temperature rises, Reactor Pressure unchanged D. Megawatts Electric lowers, Torus Temperature rises, Reactor water level rises Answer: C Answer Explanation Indications of a failed open relief valve are turbine steam flow decrease, generator output decrease, torus water temperature increase. Reactor power, level, and pressure will initially change, but will return to same values.

Distractor 1: Plausible because MW electric lowers, torus temperature rises, and reactor water level initially rises. Incorrect because after 5 minutes, reactor water level will be restored to normal.

Distractor 2: Plausible because MW electric lowers, reactor pressure would be unchanged, and reactor water level initially rises. Incorrect because after 5 minutes, reactor water level will be restored to normal.

Distractor 3: Plausible because torus temperature rises, reactor pressure would be unchanged and reactor water level initially rises. Incorrect because after 5 minutes, reactor water level will be restored to normal.

Reference:

QCOA 0203-01 rev 13 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 239002.A1.07- Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the RELIEF/SAFETY VALVES controls including: Turbine load.

Importance: 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.5 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 78 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 44 ID: 2164685 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was just scrammed and MSIV's shut due to the loss of condenser. Unit 2 NSO opens the 2-0203-3B relief valve to control reactor pressure.

When 2-0203-3B control switch is taken back to AUTO, the following annunciators alarm:

902-3 D-13, ELECT RELIEF VALVE 3A/3B OPEN 902-3 E-14, ACOUSTIC MON SAFETY RLF VALVES OPEN 902-3 E-16, VALVE LEAK DET SYS HIGH TEMP After taking the 2-0203-3B control switch to OFF with no change, the next action is to:

A. 2-203-3B key switch is cycled between MANUAL and AUTO B. Start Torus Cooling.

C. Scram the Reactor.

D. Pull the 4 fuses for the 2-203-3B valve.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 79 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 The IMMEDIATE OPERATOR ACTION of taking control switch to off is complete. The next step is to cycle the keyswitch between manual and off.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the reactor will be required to be scrammed. Incorrect because this is only after torus temperature reaches 95F.

Distractor 2: Plausible because torus cooling will be required to be started.

Distractor 3:

Reference:

QCOA 0203-01 rev 13 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 239002.G2.4.50- Ability to verify system alarm setpoints and operate controls identified in the alarm response manual.

Importance: 4.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 80 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 45 ID: 2164698 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

2A RFP trips on overcurrent. RPV water level is lowering at 7 inches per minute.

With NO operator action, which one of the following describes the plant response after one minute?

A. FWLC has shifted to runout flow control.

B. Recirc Pumps have runback to 32% speed.

C. The reactor has scrammed on RPV low water level.

D. Recirc Pumps have runback to 63% speed.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 81 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 At 100% power, three RFP's are running. Upon a trip on OC, there is no standby pump to start.

The conditions of an auto trip of a feed resulting in less than 3 RFP's running with greater than 85% steam flow will result in a recirc runback to 70% power or 63% pump speed.

Distractor 1: Plausible because feedwater flow with 2 RFP at rated power is insufficient to maintain level, therefore the 2 running feed pumps will be at maximum flow. Incorrect because max flow obtained is 10.5 Mlbm/hr which is less than setpoint of 11.2 Mlbm/hr.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a recirc runback to 32% is a protective feature of the DFWLC system. Incorrect because this occurs when feedwater flow is less than 1.95 Mlbm/hr.

Distractor 3: Plausible because if pump is required to be manually tripped, reactor would scram due to low level with no action. Incorrect because recirc runback would protect the reactor from scram.

Reference:

QCOP 0600-21 rev 22 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 259002.K1.05- Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM and the following: Reactor feedwater system.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.2-41.9 / 45.7-45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 82 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 46 ID: 2164695 Points: 1.00 A LOCA has occurred on Unit 2.

Torus venting is in progress using the B SBGTS.

RPV water level -25 inches and slowly lowering RPV pressure 500 psig and slowly lowering Drywell pressure 268°F and slowly lowering Drywell pressure 20 psig and slowly lowering Torus pressure 18 psig and slowly lowering Torus level +5.0 inches and stable Bus 19 has tripped. Which of the following actions is required?

Which of the following actions is required?

A. Start the "A" Standby Gas Treatment Train.

B. Vent the Torus using the Reactor Building Ventilation system.

C. Vent the Torus through the APCV system.

D. Start drywell coolers.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 83 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Per QCOP 1600-13 IF Drywell OR Torus pressure is < 25 psig, THEN vent Primary Containment through SBGT using the 2-inch vent lines. Per flowchart of Attachment A, SBGT is required to be started first.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Torus to RB Vent is a viable vent path. Incorrect because with a LOCA the RB Vents would not be used.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the torus to the APCV system is a viable vent path. Incorrect because primary containment pressure needs to be greater than 25 psig or have permission to exceed release rates.

Distractor 3: Plausible because drywell coolers will lower primary containment pressure.

Incorrect because drywell temperature went above 260F.

Reference:

QCOP 1600-13 rev 32 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 261000.K3.03- Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM will have on the following: Primary containment pressure: Mark I&II Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 84 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 47 ID: 2167636 Points: 1.00 Which 345 KV breakers will open in response a single phase fault causing a trip of line 0404?

A. 1-11 and 1-3 ONLY.

B. 1-11, 1-3, and 3-4.

C. 1-11, 10-11, and 1-3.

D. 1-3 and 3-4 ONLY.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QOA 6400-01 provides a drawing of the ring bus showing L 0404 between breakers 1-11 and 1-3. QOA 6400-02 for line failure indicates breakers tied to the line will open on a fault (step E.2.a.).

Distractor 1: Plausible because 345 KV trip scheme will trip multiple breakers in series to protect from a fault condition. Incorrect because this would only occur if breaker is faulted and local breaker backup is activated.

Distractor 2: Plausible because 345 KV trip scheme will trip multiple breakers in series to protect from a fault condition. Incorrect because this would only occur if breaker is faulted and local breaker backup is activated.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a 345 KV line fault will cause the two closest breakers to isolate, protecting the rest of the 345 KV ring bus. Incorrect because these two breakers protect line 405.

Reference:

QOA 6400-01 rev 11, QOA 6400-02 rev 11 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 262001.K2.01- Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Off-site sources of power.

Importance: 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 85 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 48 ID: 2164700 Points: 1.00 Which of the following conditions will cause the 480 VAC MCC 18/19-5 feed breaker to auto-transfer?

(Assume that the electric plant is in a NORMAL lineup)

A. Undervoltage on Bus18.

B. Overvoltage on MCC 18/19-5.

C. Undervoltage on MCC 18/19-5.

D. Overvoltage on Bus 19.

Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 86 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: In a normal electric plant lineup, Bus 19 feeds MCC 18/19-5.

Case 1 If Bus 19(29) is lost, MCC will auto-transfer to Bus 18(28) within a band of > 13 seconds to < 26 seconds, (per QCOS 6700-01). The low end requirement (i.e., 13 seconds) prevents a premature transfer by allowing sufficient time for the normal power supply (i.e., the unit diesel) to start and power the bus. The high end requirement (i.e., 26 seconds) is a LOCA analysis input assumption.

Case 2 After EDG on Bus 14-1 for 2 seconds, if the MCC being fed by Unit EDG and an under/overvoltage, under/over frequency occur, the MCC will auto-transfer to Bus 18(28) immediately with no time-delay. This protects the MCC loads against an EDG voltage regulator failure.

Distractor 1: Plausible because an undervoltage condition will cause an auto-transfer.

Incorrect because MCC 18/19-5 is normally fed from Bus 19. An undervoltage condition on Bus 18 while in the normal lineup has no effect on the MCC.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the overvoltage on MCC 18/19-5 will result in a feed breaker swap. Incorrect because this only occurs if the EDG is feeding Bus 14-1.

Distractor 3: Plausible because an overvoltage condition will cause an auto-transfer.

Incorrect because this only occurs if the EDG is feeding MCC 18/19-5 and the overvoltage is sensed at MCC 18/19-5.

Reference:

4E-1373B, 4E-1681X, QCOS 6700-01, rev.18 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 262001 K4.03 AC Electrical Distribution: Knowledge of AC ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Interlocks between automatic bus transfer and breakers.

Importance: 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 87 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 49 ID: 2164701 Points: 1.00 Evaluate which of the following component failures would result in the ESS UPS inverter being supplied from the station 250 VDC system ?

A. Rectifier B. Inverter C. Regulator D. ABT Answer: A Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QOA 6800-03, step B.1:

Automatic transfer of UPS from normal AC to U1(2) 250 V battery on loss of feed from Bus 18(28).

Distractor 1: Plausible because an Inverter failure will switch the feed to the UPS Static Switch.

Incorrect because a failure of the Inverter will leave Bus 17 as the sole power supply to the Static Switch and the ESS Bus.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a Regulator failure while supplying the Static Switch would result in a power supply transfer. Incorrect because Bus 18 would supply the Static Switch and the ESS Bus.

Distractor 3: Plausible because an ABT failure swaps the feed to the ESS Bus. Incorrect because the ESS Supply returns to the UPS. The preferred power supply from the UPS Static Switch is Bus 18.

Reference:

4E-1811B, QOA 6800-03 rev.50 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 262002 K4.01 Uninterruptable Power Supply (AC/DC): Knowledge of UNINTERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (AC/DC) design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Transfer from preferred power to alternate power Importance: 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 88 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 50 ID: 2164702 Points: 1.00 Both units are operating at 100% power with the Unit 1 Safety-Related 125 VDC battery undergoing an equalization charge per QCOP 6900-51, Unit 1 Battery Equalizing Charges.

During the battery charge, the battery room ventilation system tripped due to an overcurrent condition.

What, if any, are the initial implications of the above failure?

A. Hazardous levels of Hydrogen may accumulate.

B. Rising room temperature will cause battery voltage to lower.

C. Increased evaporation due to higher room temperature will affect cell specific gravity.

D. No significant effects on battery performance or room habitability.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 89 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per QCOS 6900-01, Station Battery Weekly Surveillance, step E.1:

Battery Room ventilation should be in operation to remove liberated hydrogen gas from the room to prevent an explosion.

Distractor 1: Plausible because higher ambient temperature lowers battery life. Incorrect because a loss of Battery Room ventilation does not cause a significant temperature deviation.

Distractor 2: Plausible because increased evaporation of the electrolyte will affect specific gravity. Incorrect because a loss of Battery Room ventilation does not cause a significant temperature deviation.

Distractor 3: Plausible because battery performance is not significantly altered. Incorrect because habitability in terms of the safety concern with increased Hydrogen levels is affected.

Reference:

QCOS 6900-01 rev.34 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 263000 K5.01 DC Electrical Distribution: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to D.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION: Hydrogen generation during battery charging Importance: 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.3 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 90 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 51 ID: 2164796 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power. An Equipment Operator on rounds calls the control room and reports that the Unit 1 EDG Lube Oil Pump is NOT running.

What impact, if any, does this have on operation of the Unit 1 EDG?

A. None, the Lube Oil Pump does not operate when the EDG is shutdown.

B. Damage to the engines major load bearing components may occur on a fast start.

C. Damage to the Turbocharger may occur on a fast start.

D. EDG speed control will be unstable due to insufficient oil pressure.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 91 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer Explanation: Per QCOA 6600-15 step E.2.a:

The circulating oil system provides for continuous pre-lubrication of the engines major load bearing components and, in conjunction with the immersion heater (jacket water system),

pre-heating for the engine. The system ensures proper lubrication is available upon a fast start and also maintains the lube oil cooler, lube oil filter and associated piping full of oil, which ensures adequate lubrication on engine start.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Governor is hydraulically operated. Incorrect because the shaft driven Booster Oil pump charges the Governor accumulators on a start.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the Turbocharger requires pre-lubrication and warming to prevent damage on engine startups. Incorrect because the Turbo Circ Oil Pump provides the pre-lubrication and warming.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the EDG has several shaft driven oil pumps, ie.(Main Oil pump, Piston Oil pump, Governor Booster oil pump, etc.), that are not running with the EDG in standby.

Incorrect because the Lube Oil pump is electrically driven and is required to run continuously to provide pre-lubrication.

Reference:

QCOA 6600-15, rev.07 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 264000 K6.03 Emergency Generators (Diesel/Jet) EDG: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the EMERGENCY GENERATORS (DIESEL/JET):

Lube oil pumps.

Importance: 3.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 92 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 52 ID: 2164797 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power when the following annunciators alarmed.

912-1 A-11, UNIT 1A INST AIR LOW PRESS 912-1 A-12, 1A SERV AIR BACKUP VLV OPEN 1A INST AIR RCVR PRESS is 80 psig and slowly lowering.

UNIT 1 SCRAM AIR is 85 psig and steady Which of the following must be done immediately in response to these conditions?

A. Dispatch an operator to open the 1-4799-223, SERV AIR TO INST AIR PCV BYP VLV.

B. Dispatch an operator to open the Service Air Backup Valve, PCV 1-4799-221.

C. Start all available Instrument Air and Service Air Compressors.

D. Insert a manual scram on Unit 1.

Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 93 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per QOA 4700-06, Loss of Instrument Air, the immediate operator action is to start all available IA and SA compressors. A manual scram is not required because scram air header pressure is > 55 psig and stable.

Distractor 1: Plausible because inserting a scram is required if scram air header pressure is <

55 psig or control rods begin to drift. Incorrect because scram air header pressure is reported at 85 psig and steady.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the service air backup valve opens at ~88 psig air receiver pressure. Incorrect because it is already opened as verified by annunciator 912-1 A-12.

Dispatching an operator is not necessary for this action.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is a subsequent action in QOA 4700-06. Incorrect because it is not the first action that is required.

Reference:

QOA 4700-06 rev.29 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 300000 2.4.31 Instrument Air: Knowledge of annunciator alarms, indications, or response procedures.

Importance: 4.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 45.3 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 94 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 53 ID: 2164798 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a Service Water leak occurs.

The NSO places the Unit 1 Service Water Header Isolation Switch on the 912-1 panel to CLOSE.

Assuming the leak is isolated, which of the following indications for the TBCCW system temperature and pressure is EXPECTED?

A. Temperature rises Pressure rises B. Temperature rises Pressure remains the same C. Temperature remains the same Pressure remains the same D. Temperature remains the same Pressure lowers Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 95 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Placing the Unit 1 Service Water header isolation valve to CLOSE will shut the following valves:

MO 1-3903A, TBCCW HX MO 1-3903B, TBCCW HX MO 1-3904, U1 ASD COOLERS SW DISCH VLV MO 1-3905, U1 STATOR SW SUPPLY With Service Water isolated to the TBCCW heat exchangers, TBCCW temperature will rise.

The TBCCW expansion tank provides a surge volume for the system to compensate for thermal expansion and contraction of the system. The tank is normally vented to atmosphere to prevent over pressurization of the system as volume changes occur due to temperature changes keeping system pressure approximately constant. Tank level is automatically controlled by an air operated level control valve (LCV) that opens to provide make-up water from the clean demineralized header Distractor 1: Plausible because system temperature will rise. This would be parameter trend for a closed system. Incorrect because system pressure remains steady as the expansion tank is vented to atmosphere.

Distractor 2: Plausible because system pressure does remain steady. Incorrect because system temperature rises due the loss of Service Water to the TBCCW Heat Exchanger.

Distractor 3: Plausible because system pressure and temperature response are consistent with a TBCCW leak. Incorrect because the leak is not on the TBCCW side, it is on the Service Water side of the system.

Reference:

QCOA 3900-01 rev.26, UFSAR Section 9.2.7 rev.05 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 KA: 400000.A1.03 Component Cooling Water: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the CCWS controls including: CCW pressure.

Importance: 2.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.5 Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 96 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 54 ID: 2164799 Points: 1.00 A Unit 1 reactor startup is in progress.

Control rod E-14 has been FULLY withdrawn from the core using the Rod Movement Control Switch.

After the rod has settled the indications are as follows:

The Full Core Display will indicate (1) .

The Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM) will indicate (2) .

A. (1) 00 (2) --

B. (1) 48 (2) ++

C. (1) 00 (2) ++

D. (1) 48 (2) --

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 97 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: A fully withdrawn control rod will be indicated by 48 on the Full Core Display and ++ on the RWM.

Distractor 1: Plausible because ++ is the correct indication on the RWM. Incorrect because 00 is the FULL IN indication on the Full Core Display.

Distractor 2: Plausible because 48 is the correct indication on the Full Core Display. Incorrect because (--) is an overtravel in (beyond 00) indication on the Full Core Display.

Distractor 3: Plausible because both indications are for a control rod at an end of travel position.

Incorrect because they are both FULL IN indications.

Reference:

QCGP 4-1 rev.50 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 201003 A3.01 Control Rod and Drive Mechanism: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the CONTROL ROD AND DRIVE MECHANISM including: Control rod position Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 98 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 55 ID: 2164800 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is performing a reactor startup and all IRMs are on Range 7.

Control rod H-15 is selected for movement.

Control rod position as indicated on the RWM is at position 10 and it is MAGENTA in color.

If the Rod Movement Control Switch (RMCS) is taken to the ROD IN position, control rod H-15 will...

A. insert into the core because there NO rod movement blocks applied.

B. insert into the core because it has a Withdraw Block ONLY applied.

C. NOT move because it is OOS and has Insert and Withdraw Blocks applied.

D. NOT move because it has an Insert Block applied.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 99 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Magenta represents an INSERT ERROR. Any control rod inserted one or more notches beyond its insert limit will cause an insert block to be issued for all rods except:

rods with withdraw errors rods in the current sequence step Withdraw blocks will be issued for all rods except rods with insert errors.

Distractor 1: Plausible because placing the RMCS to ROD IN will insert a control rod one or more notches. Incorrect because the control rod has an insert block applied by the RWM as indicated by its magenta color.

Distractor 2: Plausible because placing the RMCS to ROD IN will insert a control rod one or more notches. Incorrect because the control rod has an Insert Block not a Withdraw Block applied. The rod would appear red if it had a withdraw error.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is correct that the rod will not move. Incorrect because the rod status is not OOS. An OOS rod appears light blue (cyan) in color.

Reference:

QCOP 0207-01 rev.32 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 201006 A4.05 Rod Worth Minimizer - Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Rod insert error indication: plant specific Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 100 of 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 56 ID: 2164801 Points: 1.00 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

Reactor is scrammed.

Reactor water level is 34".

The 1A and 1B RWCU pumps are running with total flow at 480 gpm The 1A and 1B RWCU demins are online at 240 gpm each.

The MO-1-1201-78 (REJECT TO CNDSR SHUTOFF VLV) is OPEN Using P&ID M-47, complete the statement below.

If the FCV 1-1239, CU REJECT FCV is opened, steady-state Demin flow will (1) and Non-Regenerative Heat Exchanger outlet temperature will (2) .

A. (1) lower (2) rise B. (1) rise (2) lower C. (1) remain the same (2) rise D. (1) remain the same (2) lower Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 101 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: The Demin flow controllers will maintain flow at the flow controller setpoint. Since water is rejected from the outlet of the filter/demins (or from the discharge of the RWCU pumps), cooling flow decreases through the regenerative heat exchanger. This will raise the NRHX outlet temperature.

M-47 Sheet 1 - Diagram of Reactor Water Clean-up Piping and QCOP 1200-07.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Non-Regen Hx outlet temperature rises. Incorrect because the Demin flow will remain the same.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Demin flow would rise if not for the individual Demin Flow Controllers. Incorrect because Demin flow will remain the same and Non-Regen Hx outlet temperature rises.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Demin flow does remain the same. Incorrect because the Non-Regen Hx outlet temperature rises.

Reference:

M-47 Sheet 1 rev. AH, QCOP 1200-07 rev.38 Reference provided during examination: M-47 Sheet 1, Diagram of RWCU Piping Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 204000 2.4.47 Reactor Water Cleanup: Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material.

Importance: 4.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 102 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 57 ID: 2167261 Points: 1.00 Select the statement describing the operation of the Traversing In-Core Probe (TIP) system:

A. TIP's are gas filled direct ionization chambers which produce an axial flux profile used to calibrate the LPRMs.

B. TIP's are gas filled fission chambers which produce an axial flux profile used to calibrate LPRMs.

C. TIP's are gas filled fission chambers which produce an axial flux profile used to calibrate the APRMs.

D. TIP's are gas filled direct ionization chambers which produce an flux profile used to calibrate the APRMs.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 103 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: A traversing incore probe (TIP) may be inserted in the core to obtain an axial neutron flux distribution at each LPRM detector location. The information obtained from the TIP is used to calibrate the LPRM system and to provide a relative flux distribution for the core to the process computer.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the TIP detectors are gas filled fission detectors. Incorrect because the Process Computer Thermal Heat Balance is used to calibrate the APRMs.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the TIPs are used to calibrate the LPRMs. Incorrect because the detectors are gas filled fission chambers.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the TIP detector is a gas filled (Argon) detector. Incorrect because the are not direct ionization chambers and are not used to calibrate APRMs.

Reference:

Quad Cities UFSAR Section 07.06 Core and Vessel Instrumentation, rev.12 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 215001 K1.01 Traversing In-Core Probe: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between TRAVERSING IN-CORE PROBE and the following: Local power range monitors.

Importance: 2.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 104 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 58 ID: 2164803 Points: 1.00 A half core ATWS with a Group I isolation has occurred on Unit 2.

Aux power transferred when the Main Turbine tripped.

Torus Cooling is operating on both loops with all RHR and RHRSW pumps running.

An overcurrent fault on Bus 23-1 causes Bus 23-1 to deenergize.

How is the Torus Cooling lineup affected?

A. The 2C and 2D RHR AND RHRSW pumps will be deenergized.

All other Unit 2 RHR and RHRSW pumps are RUNNING.

B. The 2A and 2B RHR pumps will be deenergized.

The 2C and 2D RHR pumps and ALL RHRSW pumps will be RUNNING.

C. The 2A and 2B RHRSW pumps will be deenergized.

All other Unit 2 RHR and RHRSW pumps are RUNNING.

D. The 2A and 2B RHR AND RHRSW pumps will be deenergized.

All other Unit 2 RHR and RHRSW pumps are RUNNING.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 105 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Overcurrent on Bus 23-1 trips and locks out all power sources to the bus.

Bus 23-1 is the only power supply to 2A and 2B RHR pumps. No other buses have lost power therefore all RHR and RHRSW pumps are running EXCEPT 2A and 2B RHR pumps.

Distractor 1: Plausible because 2A and 2B RHR pumps are de-energized. Incorrect because the 2A and 2B RHRSW pumps are not de-energized.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a one loop of RHR and RHRSW pumps will remain energized.

Incorrect because it is the "B" Loop (2C and 2D RHR and RHRSW pumps) that remains energized.

Distractor 3: Plausible because two (2) pumps on Division I will be de-energized. Incorrect because it is the RHR pumps that are de-energized, not the RHRSW pumps.

Reference:

QCOA 6500-05 rev.00 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 219000 K2.02 RHR/LPCI: Torus/Suppression Pool Cooling Mode- Knowledge of the electrical power supplies to the following: Pumps Importance: 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 106 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 59 ID: 2164955 Points: 1.00 A steam line break inside the Drywell has occurred on Unit 2.

The crew is taking actions per QGA 100 and QGA 200.

RPV pressure: 800 psig and lowering at 5.0 psig per minute RPV water level: +30 inches and stable Drywell pressure: 8 psig and rising at 1.0 psig per minute Torus pressure: 6 psig and rising at 1.0 psig per minute Drywell temperature: 183°F and rising at 2.0°F per minute Torus temperature: 83°F and rising at 1.0°F per minute Torus level: 14 ft and steady The ANSO has reported that Drywell sprays CANNOT be started on either loop.

If the containment parameters continue to trend as indicated above, the (1) curve will be reached FIRST.

The Unit Supervisor will direct a Blowdown to (2) .

A. (1) PCPL (2) maintain ADS valve operability.

B. (1) PSP (2) prevent exceeding the Torus design load limit.

C. (1) PCPL (2) prevent exceeding the Torus design load limit.

D. (1) PSP (2) maintain ADS valve operability.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 107 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per the QCNPS QGA/SAMG Technical Bases:

The Pressure Suppression Pressure (PSP) is the lesser of:

The highest suppression chamber pressure which can occur without steam in the suppression chamber airspace.

The highest suppression chamber pressure at which initiation of RPV depressurization will not result in exceeding the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

The highest suppression chamber pressure which can be maintained without exceeding the suppression pool boundary design load if SRVs are opened.

Based on the given rates:

PSP will be exceeded at 16.5 psig Torus pressure in ~ 10.5 minutes.

PCPL is exceeded at 55 psig Torus pressure in ~49 minutes.

The HCTL is exceeded at 195°F Torus temperature and 250 psig RPV pressure which occurs in

~110 minutes.

Distractor 1: Plausible because PCPL will be exceeded with no further action. PCPL is the maximum containment pressure at which ADS valves can be opened and will remain open.

Incorrect because PSP limit will be reached before the PCPL.

Distractor 2: Plausible because PCPL will be exceeded with no further action. Incorrect because the PSP limit will be reached first under these conditions and the PSP curve is the highest suppression chamber pressure which can be maintained without exceeding the suppression pool boundary design load if SRVs are opened.

Distractor 3: Plausible because PSP limit will be exceeded first. Incorrect because PCPL is the maximum containment pressure at which ADS valves can be opened and will remain open.

Reference:

EOP/SAMG Technical Basis Vol. I Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 226001 K3.03 RHR/LPCI Containment Spray Mode: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the RHR/LPCI: CONTAINMENT SPRAY SYSTEM MODE will have on following: Containment/drywell/suppression chamber components, continued operation with elevated pressure and/or temperature and/or level.

Importance: 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.4 Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 108 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 60 ID: 2167223 Points: 1.00 What system normally provides makeup water to the Fuel Pool Cooling system?

A. Condensate Transfer B. Domestic Water C. Contaminated Condensate Storage Tanks (CCSTs)

D. Clean Demin Answer: A Answer Explanation Answer explanation: During normal operations condensate transfer is aligned to the skimmer surge tank to raise level, per QCOP 0010-12 step F.5. Clean demin and Domestic water have no direct piping to the system and would have to be added via hoses.

Distractor 1: Plausible because it is a water supply that can be used with plant systems, ie.

cooling water to Instrument Air Compressors (QCOP 4700-13). Incorrect because it is not used for Fuel Pool Cooling makeup.

Distractor 2: Plausible because water can be rejected from the Fuel Pool System to the CCSTs, (QCOP 1900-05). Incorrect because it is not used as a makeup supply for the Fuel Pool Cooling system.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is part of the plant makeup water system along with the CCSTs. Incorrect because it does not supply makeup water to the Fuel Pool Cooling system.

Reference:

QCOP 0010-12 rev.05 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 233000 K4.06 Fuel Pool Cooling/Cleanup: Knowledge of FUEL POOL COOLING AND CLEAN-UP design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Maintenance of adequate pool level Importance: 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 109 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 61 ID: 2167219 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a total LOSS of EHC resulted in a reactor scram. occurred.

RCIC was manually started and is injecting at rated flow RPV water level is +30 inches and stable.

Reactor pressure 1020 psig and slowly rising.

Torus temperature is 92°F and rising 1°F every 10 minutes.

The Unit Supervisor has directed an RPV cooldown?

Which of the following systems will result in the LEAST amount of heat addition to the Torus?

A. HPCI in pressure control mode.

B. Main Steam Line Drains.

C. Main Turbine Bypass valves.

D. Main Steam Relief valves.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 110 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: RCIC is maintaining RPV water level and adding heat to the Torus causing Torus temperature to rise. Starting a cooldown using the Main Steam Line Drains provides a direct path of steam flow to the Main Condenser.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the HPCI system is an alternate decay heat removal system.

Incorrect because HPCI exhaust to the Torus and is therefore a heat addition.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Main Turbine Bypass valves are normally used for a reactor cooldown. Incorrect because the loss of EHC will prevent operation of the bypass valves.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Main Steam Relief Valves are an alternate decay heat removal system. Incorrect because it results in the largest heat addition to the Torus.

Reference:

QCOP 0250-05 rev.09, Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 239001 K5.09 Main and Reheat Steam: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to MAIN STEAM AND REHEAT STEAM SYSTEM: Decay heat removal.

Importance: 3.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.3 Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 111 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 62 ID: 2164959 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is currently at 60% power on the 82% FCL. with a load increase from in progress per QCGP 3-1REACTOR POWER OPERATIONS, when 2B1 and 2C1 Feedwater Heaters trip.

In accordance with QCOA 3500-01, FEEDWATER TEMPERATURE REDUCTION WITH MAIN TURBINE ONLINE, which of the following actions should be taken to limit the power increase?

A. Reduce Recirc Pump Speed by at least 30%.

B. Place extraction valve control switches in PULL TO STOP and HOLD to minimize feedwater temperature drop.

C. Insert a Reactor Scram.

D. Insert control rods in sequence to target-in position to maintain the FCL < the MELLLA boundary.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 112 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: QCOA 3500-01, FEEDWATER TEMPERATURE REDUCTION WITH MAIN TURBINE ONLINE, Immediate Operator Actions are:

C.1. Initiate Emergency Power Reduction to limit the power increase.

C.2. Place extraction valve control switches in PULL TO STOP and hold to minimize feedwater temperature decrease with US concurrence.

Tripping feedwater Heaters in one string lowers D Heater outlet temperature ~ 15 F and raise reactor power ~ 2 to 5%.

Distractor 1: Plausible because an emergency power reduction may involve inserting control rods. Incorrect because based on the current conditions, inserting control rods to stay within the MELLLA boundary is not necessary.

Distractor 2: Plausible because inserting a reactor scram is an immediate operator action per QCOA 3500-01. Incorrect because it's required only if reactor power cannot be maintained <

105%. The transient would only raise reactor power in the 2 to 5% range.

Distractor 3: Plausible because an emergency power reduction involves reducing Recirc flow.

Incorrect because reducing Recirc flow by 30% with the current plant conditions would place operation outside of the MELLLA boundary. Additionally, a 30% speed reduction would only be necessary for a minimum D Heater outlet temperature reduction of 51 to 75 degrees F per QCOA 3500-01 step D.2.a.

Reference:

QCOA 3500-01 rev.44 Reference provided during examination: Power Flow Map for Normal Feedwater Temperature Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 259001 K6.04 Feedwater: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the REACTOR FEEDWATER SYSTEM: Extraction steam.

Importance: 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 113 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 63 ID: 2167076 Points: 1.00 With the Cardox system in a normal standby lineup, what is the effect of actuating the CO2 Local Manual Throw Station for the U-1 EDG room?

A. CO2 will enter the room as soon as the local manual throw station outside the diesel room is actuated.

B. CO2 will flow up to the closed diesel room injection nozzles but will NOT be discharged until thermal detectors in the room open the nozzles.

C. CO2 will charge the line up to the diesel room but will NOT be discharged until the local diesel room actuation pushbutton is pressed.

D. CO2 will NOT enter the diesel room until the local manual throw station at the Cardox Tank is actuated.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 114 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: QCOP 7600-01 step F.2 provides the steps to manually actuate the Cardox system to the DG Rooms. Step F.2.a. is using the pushbutton which simulates the DG high temperature signal (225 F) to initiate the system. In this manner all interlocks, ie. Room Vent Dampers close and the Vent Fan is interlocked off. If the pushbutton fails, then backup method is using both the Local Manual Throw Stations at the DG Room and near the Cardox Tank per step F.2.c. The Discharge valve at the Cardox Tank and the DG Room must be opened. The manual throw station at the Cardox Tank charges the entire Header to ALL DG Rooms. Opening the valve at the DG Room using the Local Throw Station will flood the Room, however, the interlocks on the Room Vent Dampers and Fan are not in effect.

Distractor 1: Plausible because actuation of the electro-manual pushbutton at the DG Room will immediately start filling the room with CO2. Incorrect because the Local Manual Station is the backup to the pushbutton and requires operation of two controllers to inject CO2.

Distractor 2: Plausible because actuation of the Master Controller near the Cardox tank charges the entire Header to ALL DG Rooms. Incorrect because the Local Manual Station at the DG Room when actuated will immediately start filling the room with CO2.

Distractor 3: Plausible because actuation of the Master Controller near the Cardox tank charges the entire Header to ALL DG Rooms. Incorrect because the Local Manual Station at the DG Room is used to fill the room and NOT the pushbutton.

Reference:

QCOP 7600-01 rev.11 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 286000 A1.05 Fire Protection: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM controls including: System lineups.

Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.5 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 115 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 64 ID: 2164961 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power.

Annunciator 901-3 G-3, RX BLDG VENT CHANNEL A HI HI RADIATION, alarms.

Reactor Building Vent fans are running.

1/2 B SBGTS is running.

What action is required per QCAN 901-3 G-3 REACTOR BUILDING VENT RADIATION MONITOR CHANNEL A HIGH HIGH RADIATION?

A. STOP the 1/2 B SBGTS train.

B. CLOSE Unit 1 and Unit 2 Reactor Building Vent Isolation Dampers.

C. Place Unit 1 and Unit 2 Reactor Building Supply and Exhaust Fan control switches in PTL ONLY.

D. CLOSE Unit 1 Reactor Building Vent Isolation Dampers ONLY.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 116 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Both Reactor Building Vent Channels downscale is an initiation signal for Reactor Building ventilation to isolate and Standby Gas Treatment System to start. The stem indicates that while SBGTS started, the isolation of Reactor Building ventilation failed to occur.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the SBGTS would be secured if the initiation signal was invalid.

Incorrect because the SBGTS cannot be secured until the initiation signal is cleared.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the Reactor Building Supply and Exhaust Fans should have tripped. Incorrect because the Isolation Dampers for both Units should also be closed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Unit 1 Reactor Building Isolation Dampers should have closed.

Incorrect because both Units Isolation Dampers should have closed.

Reference:

QOA 5750-07 rev.12, QCAN 901-3 G-3 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 288000 A2.04 Plant Ventilation: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the PLANT VENTILATION SYSTEMS and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: High radiation: Plant Specific Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 117 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 65 ID: 2164962 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a manual scram was inserted due to a loss of RBCCW.

Given the normal RRV water level transient resulting from a scram, which of the following indications would be present?

A. Recirc Sample Valves AO 1-220-44 and AO 1-220-45 CLOSED lights are LIT.

B. 1A FLOOR DRN RESET and 1B FLOOR DRN RESET lights are OFF.

C. HPCI Steam Isolation Valves MO 1-2301-4 and MO 1-2301-5 CLOSED lights are LIT.

D. RCIC Steam Supply Isolation Valves MO 1-1301-16 and MO 1-1301-17 CLOSED lights are LIT.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 118 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: On a reactor scram from full power, RPV water level can be expected to drop to approximately -20 to -25 inches and recover to 30 inches. This will result in Group II and Group III isolations (0 inches RPV water level). Per QCAP 0200-10 Attachment D, the Reactor Building Sump Pumps are interlocked OFF as indicated by the 901-5 Panel Indicating Lights off.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Recirc Sample Valves close on a Low-Low level Group I isolation. Incorrect because RPV water level does not lower to -59 inches on a normal reactor scram from full power.

Distractor 2: Plausible because HPCI Steam Isolation Valves close on a Group IV isolation.

Incorrect because the isolation signals are not on RPV water level. (Low RPV pressure, High HPCI Room temperature, High HPCI Steam line flow)

Distractor 3: Plausible because RCIC Steam Supply Isolation Valves close on a Group V isolation. Incorrect because the isolation signals are not on RPV water level. Low RPV pressure, High RCIC Room temperature, High RCIC Steam line flow)

Reference:

QCAP 0200-10 rev.57 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 290001 A3.01 Secondary Containment: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the SECONDARY CONTAINMENT including: Secondary containment isolation.

Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 119 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 66 ID: 2164963 Points: 1.00 Prior to entering the control room, maintenance personnel need permission from (1) .

Upon entering the control room, maintenance personnel need permission from (2) to cross the DESIGNATED line.

A. (1) NSO (2) US B. (1) WEC SRO (2) SM C. (1) US (2) NSO D. (1) WEC SRO (2) US Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 120 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per OP-AA-103-101, CONTROL ROOM ACCESS CONTROL, step 4.1.4:

OBTAIN permission from the WEC Supervisor prior to entering the Control Room.

Exemptions to this are listed above or specifically authorized by the Unit Supervisor (Control Room Supervisor) (i.e. QNE coverage during Startups or prompt response by support groups for emergent concerns).

Per step 4.1.7: Personnel shall remain behind the designated line until approval for admittance is granted by the appropriate Unit Supervisor (Control Room Supervisor).

Distractor 1: Plausible because the US does grant permission to cross the black line in the Control Room and the RO must grant permission to enter the zone of control. Incorrect because the WEC SRO must give permission to enter the control room.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the WEC SRO grants permission to enter the control room.

Incorrect because the Unit Supervisor grants permission to cross the black line.

Distractor 3: Plausible because entrance into control room areas are granted by the US and NSO. Incorrect because the authorization for entrance into the control room and beyond the black line are granted by the WEC SRO and US respectively.

Reference:

OP-AA-103-101 rev.01 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.1.13 Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of facility requirements for controlling vital/controlled access.

Importance: 2.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.9 / 45.10 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT Exam Bank Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 121 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 67 ID: 2164964 Points: 1.00 If the Unit 1 Nuclear Station Operator (NSO) is directing a surveillance from the Control Room and a step requires an Equipment Operator (EO) to operate a valve LOCALLY.

How would this be recorded on the NSO's master copy of the surveillance?

A. The NSO enters their initials ONLY.

B. The NSO enters the EO's initials ONLY.

C. The EO enters their initials ONLY after the surveillance is completed.

D. The NSO enters the EO's initials followed by a slash (/) and then the NSO's initials.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 122 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per HU-AA-104-101 step 4.7.3: If a step sign-off is made by someone other than the Performer, then indicate both the Procedure Reader and the Performer in the sign off. Indicate in the sign off who performed the action followed by a slash (/) and then the reader who signed off the step. Example: Equipment Operator DM tells NSO JB that the valve is closed. The NSO initials the valve is closed as: DM/JB.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this is a proper method of place keeping when the action was performed by the NSO only. Incorrect because the step was performed remotely by the EO and requires documentation of the actual performer as well.

Distractor 2: Plausible if the EO had the Master Surveillance sheet. Incorrect because the NSO is signing completion of the step for the EO and must indicate so by use of the (/).

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is permissible to transfer signatures when the field copy is the master copy and becomes contaminated or deteriorated. Incorrect because in this case the master copy is in the control room and proper place keeping requires that steps are signed off immediately after completion.

Reference:

HU-AA-104-101 rev.07 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.1.18 Conduct of Operations: Ability to make accurate, clear, and concise logs, records, status boards, and updates.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 45.12 / 45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 123 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 68 ID: 2164965 Points: 1.00 A startup is in progress on Unit 1 Highest initial SRM count rate was 60 cps The reactor is NOT critical Turbine Bypass Valves are shut Under which one of the following conditions is the use of NOTCH OVERRIDE procedurally PROHIBITED?

Withdrawing rods from position...

A. 12 to 24 with SRM counts at 180 cps.

B. 36 to 48 with SRM counts at 450 cps.

C. 12 to 24 with SRM counts at 800 cps.

D. 36 to 48 with SRM counts at 1440 cps.

Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 124 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per QCGP 1-1 caution on page 54 of rev 124:

To minimize the risk of inadvertent short periods, NOTCH OVERRIDE shall NOT be used:

Between positions 06 and 36 from the time the count rate on the SRM with the highest initial reading has doubled 3 times (8 times initial reading) until the Reactor is critical and at least one Bypass Valve is partially open.

With an initial count rate of 60, notch override is not allowed between 480 cps (8 times 60) until critical. Therefore with count rates above 480 notch override is not allowed.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the count rate is 3 times the initial count rate and the rod movement (12 to 24) is within the restricted bounds. Incorrect because the count rate is less than 3 doublings (8 times the count rate) and NOTCH OVERRIDE is allowed.

Distractor 2: Plausible because with count rates above 480 cps (3rd doubling) where NOTCH OVERRIDE is prohibited. Incorrect because the rod movement (36 to 48) allows NOTCH OVERRIDE even after the 3rd doubling.

Distractor 3: Plausible because with count rate at 1440 cps is above the 3rd doubling where NOTCH OVERRIDE is prohibited. Incorrect because the rod movement (36 to 48) allows NOTCH OVERRIDE even after the 3rd doubling.

Reference:

QCGP 1-1 rev.124 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.1.37 Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of procedures, guidelines, or limitations associated with reactivity management.

Importance: 4.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.1 / 43.6 / 45.6 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 125 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 69 ID: 2166938 Points: 1.00 QCGP 1-1, NORMAL UNIT 1 STARTUP, is in progress at step F.1 to test the Rod Block function of the RWM.

All control rods are at 00.

Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM) MODE switch is in NORMAL.

No Control Rod drifts are present.

Control Rod H-8 is an out-of-sequence rod.

In order to withdraw control rod H-8 from position 00 to position 02, the RX MODE SELECT switch must be in (1) and SELECT BLOCKS must be (2) .

A. (1) SHUTDOWN (2) DISABLED B. (1) SHUTDOWN (2) ENABLED C. (1) START/HOT STBY (2) ENABLED D. (1) START/HOT STBY (2) DISABLED Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 126 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: To allow control rods to be withdrawn, the RX MODE SELECT switch must be in START/HOT STBY (shutdown position results in a rod block). To allow an out-of-sequence control rod to be withdrawn from 00, Select Blocks must be disabled. This is discussed in the RWM pre-start up checks in QCGP 1-1, NORMAL UNIT 1 STARTUP.

Distractor 1: Plausible the RWM Select Blocks must be disabled to allow selection of an out-of-sequence rod. Incorrect because with the Rx Mode Select switch in SHUTDOWN, a control rod block is issued for all rods, preventing rod H-8 from withdrawal and testing the RWM Rod Block function.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the RWM Select Block function is normally enabled. Incorrect because with the Rx Mode Select switch in SHUTDOWN, a control rod block is issued for all rods and with Select Blocks enabled (normal condition), an out-of-sequence control rod will immediately receive a withdraw block.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Mode Switch in Start/Hot STBY allows a rod to be withdrawn. Incorrect because with Select Blocks enabled (normal condition), an out-of-sequence control rod will immediately receive a withdraw block, preventing the RWM Rod Block function test.

Reference:

QCGP 1-1 rev.124 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.2.1 Equipment Control: Ability to perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including operating those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity.

Importance: 4.5 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5 / 41.10 / 43.5 / 43.6 / 45.1 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2011 Quad ILT Cert Exam, 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 127 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 70 ID: 2164967 Points: 1.00 Concerning recorder manipulation as part of daily rounds, whose permission, if any, is needed before equipment with an EST tag can be operated?

A. Nuclear Station Operator B. Instrument Maintenance Supervisor C. No additional permission is required D. Unit Supervisor Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 128 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per OP-AA-108-101, CONTROL OF EQUIPMENT AND SYSTEM STATUS, section 4.4 reads as follows:

4.4. Manipulation of EST Components:

NOTE: If manipulation is required as part of daily rounds, then SRO permission is not required.

4.4.1. OBTAIN permission from a SRO prior to manipulating any component with an EST, where position is controlled by an ACPS.

Distractor 1: Plausible because RO and/or SRO permission is required for hanging and removing ESTs. Incorrect because permission is not required for manipulation of equipment as part of daily rounds.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Instrument Maintenance is responsible for recorder repairs,etc.

Incorrect because IM permission is not required.

Distractor 3: Plausible because SRO permission is required prior to manipulating any component with an EST, where position is controlled by an ACPS. Incorrect because it is not required for manipulation of equipment as part of daily rounds.

Reference:

OP-AA-108-101 rev.15 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.14 Equipment Control: Knowledge of the process for controlling equipment configuration or status.

Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.3 / 45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 129 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 71 ID: 2165035 Points: 1.00

- Reactor Mode Switch in REFUEL.

- All control rods are inserted to position 00.

- Reactor water temperature is 130F.

- All reactor head closure bolts are fully tensioned.

What operational mode is the plant in?

A. Mode 2 B. Mode 3 C. Mode 4 D. Mode 5 Answer: A Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per TS Table 1.1-1, With the Mode switch in REFUEL and all head bolts tensioned, the reactor is in Mode 2.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Mode Switch is not in RUN and the RPV Head Closure Bolts are fully tensioned. Incorrect because the Mode Switch must be in Shutdown for Mode 3 and RPV coolant temperature is < 212 F.

Distractor 2: Plausible because RPV coolant temperature is < 212 F. Incorrect because the Mode Switch must be in Shutdown for Mode 4.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Mode Switch is in Refuel. Incorrect because all RPV Head Closure Bolts are tensioned.

Reference:

TS Table 1.1-1 Amendment 279/274 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.35 Equipment Control: Ability to determine Technical Specification Mode of Operation.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 130 of 137 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 72 ID: 2165036 Points: 1.00 You are an operator currently working in the reactor building on an assigned task during a refuel outage.

The RWP controlling your task includes the following information:

RWP Dose Limit: 300 mrem ED Dose Alarm: 240 mrem Dose Rate Alarm 800 mrem/hr The actual dose rate in your work area is 60 mrem/hr.

You have accumulated 192 mrem and require more time in the area to complete the task.

Which of the following describes your response to the given situation while maximizing your time working on the task and also meeting the requirements of RP-AA-1008, UNESCORTED ACCESS TO AND CONDUCT IN RADIOLOGICALLY CONTROLLED AREAS, and why?

A. Continue to work in the area for 48 minutes or less, because the requirement is to exit the area WHEN receiving a cumulative dose alarm.

B. Exit the area BEFORE your accumulated dose has exceeded the ED Dose Alarm setpoint.

C. Continue to work in the area for another 60 minutes. This allows sufficient margin to the dose limit of 300 mrem to allow a safe exit from the work area.

D. Continue to work in the area until the dose limit of 300 mrem is reached because you have approval by Radiation Protection per the RWP.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 131 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: RP-AA-1008, Unescorted Access to and Conduct in Radiologically Controlled Areas step 4.3.5. Leave the RCA when electronic dosimetry is approaching or has reached 80% of the accumulated dose alarm set point.

Distractor 1: Plausible because 48 minutes results in a cumulative dose or 240 mrem which does not exceed 80% of the limit. Incorrect because the requirement is to leave before the alarm setpoint. The cumulated dose received may exceed 80% based on the time it takes to exit the area.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the dose limit of 300 mrem is not exceeded. Incorrect because the requirement is to leave the are before the dose alarm setpoint.

Distractor 3: Plausible because approval of 300 mrem is stated on the RWP. Incorrect because the requirement is to leave the are before the dose alarm setpoint.

Reference:

RP-AA-1008 rev.09 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.3.7 Radiation Control: Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions.

Importance: 3.5 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.12 / 45.10 Question Source: Bank Question History: LaSalle 2007 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 132 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 73 ID: 2165037 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is performing a normal reactor shutdown to allow personnel to enter the Drywell.

In accordance with RP-QC-465, DRYWELL & TORUS ENTRY, which of the following Containment conditions meet Drywell entry requirements for ALL elevations?

A. O2 concentration is 18.5%, Reactor power is 5%.

B. O2 concentration is 19.5%, Reactor power is 50%.

C. O2 concentration is 21%, Reactor power is 5%.

D. O2 concentration is 26%, Reactor power is 50%.

Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 133 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per RP-QC-466 step 4.7.2.: Primary Containment is considered de-inerted when two consecutive air samples, taken at least 30 minutes apart on Drywell and Torus, meet the following: oxygen concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%.

Per RP-AB-462 step 5.1.1.:

Maximum Reactor Power Thresholds

1. >40%- Primary Containment Air lock where personnel do not break the plane of the Primary Containment Air lock (Inner, Drywell side) Door Threshold

2. 40%- lower elevations below recirculation suction and discharge nozzles.

3. 10%- middle elevations (includes nozzle penetration levels) and below top of fuel.

4. 5%- upper elevations above top of fuel and no bio-shield.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the power threshold is correct. Incorrect because 02 concentration is < 19.5%.

Distractor 2: Plausible because 02 concentration is > 19.5%. Incorrect because Reactor power is > 40%.

Distractor 3: Plausible because 02 concentration is > 19.5%. Incorrect because Reactor power is > 40%.

Reference:

RP-QC-465 rev.11, R RP-AB-462 rev.02 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.3.13 Radiation Control: Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as response to radiation monitor alarms, containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

Importance: 3.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.9 / 45.10 Question Source: Bank Question History: Vermont Yankee 2010 ILT NRC Exam, Quad Cities 2012 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 134 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 74 ID: 2165038 Points: 1.00 During an emergency condition, operator actions that DEVIATE from plant Technical Specifications are needed to protect the health and safety of the public.

In accordance with HU-AA-104-101, PROCEDURE USE AND ADHERENCE, these actions require at a minimum...

A. approval of a licensed Senior Reactor Operator.

B. concurrence of a second licensed reactor operator.

C. approval of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).

D. approval of a licensed Senior Reactor Operator and the Shift Manager.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 135 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per HU-AA-104-101 Step 4.8.4.: The licensee may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or a Technical Specification in an emergency when:

1. The action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety, and

2. No action consistent with license conditions and Technical Specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent, and

3. As a minimum a licensed Senior Reactor Operator has approved the licensee action prior to taking the action.

Distractor 1: Plausible because many operator actions in general, require a peer check as a minimum. Incorrect because procedurally required action are not outside of Technical Specifications.

Distractor 2: Plausible because NRC notification is required for deviations from Technical Specifications. Incorrect because the notification is required within an hour and is not a requirement to respond to an emergency jeopardizing the health and safety of the public.

Distractor 3: Plausible because either the Senior Reactor Operator or Shift Manager could approve the action. Incorrect because both approvals are not required.

Reference:

HU-AA-104-101 rev.07 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.4.12 Emergency Procedures / Plan: Knowledge of general operating crew responsibilities during emergency operations.

Importance: 4.0 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10 / 45.12 Question Source: Quad ILT Exam Bank Question History: 2011 Quad ILT Cert Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 136 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 75 ID: 2165039 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when the NSO acknowledges and reports the following alarm:

901-5 H-3, ANNUN DC POWER FAILURE The alarm is also reported by the ANSO on several other control room panels.

If these alarms are due to a loss of ALL annunciators in the Control Room, which of the following responses is within the guidance of plant procedures?

A. Insert a manual Reactor scram.

B. Maintain Reactor power constant.

C. Commence a normal Reactor shutdown.

D. Reduce Reactor power to less than 38.5% rated thermal power.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 137 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO Test ID: 346626 Answer explanation: Per QCAN 901(2)-5, when annunciator DC power fails, procedural direction is to monitor Reactor/Main Turbine parameters and minimize changes in plant status.

Distractor 1: Plausible because it places the plant in a safe/ shutdown state. Incorrect because a manual scram does not minimize changes in plant status and will result in conditions that will not alarm in the control room.

Distractor 2: Plausible because it places the plant in a safe/shutdown state. Incorrect because a manual scram does not minimize changes in plant status and will result in conditions that will not alarm in the control room.

Distractor 3: Plausible because lowering Reactor power below 38.5% (Pbypass) allows the plant to accommodate a Main Turbine trip and avert an RPV pressure transient. Incorrect because it does not minimize changes in plant status and may result in alarming conditions that will not alarm in the control room.

Reference:

QCAN 901(2)-5 H-3 rev.03 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.4.32 Emergency Procedures / Plan: Knowledge of operator response to loss of all annunciators.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 138 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 76 ID: 2166717 Points: 1.00 Per QGA 500-4, RPV FLOODING, which of the following provides acceptable "Minimum Core Steam Flow" (MCSF) requirements and what is the bases for achieving these conditions?

A. (1) RPV pressure 800 psig, 2 3 ADS valve open (2) Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 1500°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

B. (1) RPV pressure 500 psig, 4 ADS valves open (2) Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 2200°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

C. (1) RPV pressure 800 psig, 3 ADS valves open (2) Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 2200°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

D. (1) RPV pressure 500 psig, 4 ADS Valves open (2) Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 1500°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 139 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: The lowest pressure at which steam flow through open ADS valves is sufficient to preclude any clad temperature from exceeding 1500°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

Distractor 1: Plausible because RPV pressure and open ADS valves satisfy QGA 500-4 Detail P3 requirements. Incorrect because the bases is to maintain fuel cladding temperature below 1500 F not 2200 F.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the basis statement is correct. Incorrect because RPV pressure and open ADS valves do NOT satisfy QGA 500-4 Detail P3 requirements.

Distractor 3: Plausible because RPV pressure and open ADS valves satisfy QGA 500-4 Detail P3 requirements. Incorrect because the bases is to maintain fuel cladding temperature below 1500 F not 2200 F.

Reference:

EPGs/SAGs Appendix B Vol. I, rev.4 Reference provided during examination: QGA 500-4 Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295001 2.4.18 Partial or Complete Loss of Forced Core Flow Circulation: Knowledge of the specific bases for EOPs.

Importance: SRO 4.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.1/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 140 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 77 ID: 2164398 Points: 1.00 Both units are operating at rated power when annunciator 902-8 A-6, BATTERIES UNDERVOLTAGE, alarms.

An EO is dispatched and reports Unit 2 125VDC battery voltage is reading 124.5 VDC and the in-service charger has failed.

Until an operable charger is placed in service and voltage restored, Unit 2 is in a (1) Tech Spec Action Statement.

The duration of this Action Statement is based on (2) .

A. (1) 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> (2) the low probability of a DBA occurring during this time period.

B. (1) 7 day (2) the low probability of a DBA occurring during this time period.

C. (1) 7 day (2) the capacity, reliability and capability of the remaining 125 VDC subsystem.

D. (1) 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> (2) the capacity, reliability and capability of the remaining 125 VDC subsystem.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 141 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: From SR 3.8.4.1, part (b): "Verify battery terminal voltage on float charge is: > 125.9 VDC for each 125 VDC subsystem." This condition is not met, so the US would enter TS 3.8.4 Condition D, "Division 1 or 2 125 VDC electrical power subsystem inoperable for reasons other than Conditions B or C."

TS 3.8.4 Action Statement D.1: "Restore Division 1 or 2 125 VDC electrical power subsystem to OPERABLE status," with a completion time of 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

From B3.8.4, Action Statement D.1 and D.2: "The Completion Time of Required Action D.1 to restore the 125 VDC electrical power subsystem to OPERABLE status is based on the capacity, reliability and capability of the remaining 125 VDC subsystem."

Distractor 1: Plausible because the 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> completion time is correct. Incorrect because the basis stated does not apply to the TS 3.84 Condition D.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the basis statement is correct. Incorrect because the completion time applies to Unit 1.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the completion time is correct for Unit 1. Incorrect because the basis statement and completion time are in error.

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.8.4 Amendment 245/240, B 3.8.4-8 rev.0 Reference provided during examination: LCO 3.8.4 (LCO and applicability statements deleted) and surveillance requirements.

Cognitive Level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295004 AA2.02 Partial or Complete Loss of D.C. Power: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF DC POWER: Extent of partial or complete loss of DC power.

Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 142 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 78 ID: 2167838 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 has experienced a reactor scram and a loss of off-site power.

A fire is reported in the U-1 Cable Tunnel.

The Unit Supervisor has determined that normal and emergency plant procedures are insufficient to control the event.

Which Safe Shutdown Procedure, if any, should the Unit Supervisor direct the crew to enter?

A. QCARP 0030-01, TB-III INJECTION WITH SSMP AND BRINGING THE UNIT TO COLD SHUTDOWN.

B. QCARP 0060-02, CT-2 INJECTION WITH SSMP AND BRINGING THE UNIT TO COLD SHUTDOWN.

C. No QCARPs are required.

D. QCARP 0060-01, CT-1 INJECTION WITH SSMP AND BRINGING THE UNIT TO COLD SHUTDOWN.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 143 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: From QCOA 0010-12 attachment D, the Unit 1 cable tunnel is in area CT-1. QCARP 0060-01 addresses a fire in CT-1.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Cable Tunnel runs adjacent to some TB-III areas. Incorrect because the U-1 Cable Tunnel has a specific assigned area, (CT-1).

Distractor 2: Plausible because other procedures also are used to shutdown the reactor outside of the control room, ie. QOA 0010-05, Plant Operation with the Control Room Inaccessible.

Incorrect because the QCARPS specifically address plant fires.

Distractor 3: Plausible because CT-2 (QCARP 0060-02) also addresses a Cable Tunnel fire.

Incorrect because it is for a Unit 2 Cable Tunnel fire.

Reference:

QCOA 0010-12 rev.51 Reference provided during examination: QCOA 0010-12 Attachment D Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295016 2.4.8: Control Room Abandonment: Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

Importance: SRO 4.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 144 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 79 ID: 2164396 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is in Hot Shutdown.

RPV water level is +30 inches RPV water temperature is 190 F RPV pressure is 97 psig 1B Recirc Pump is running.

Shutdown Cooling is running on A RHR Loop at 4500 gpm.

MO 1-1001-16A, A RHR HX BYP VLV, is fully closed.

Moments later the NSO reports:

1B Recirc Pump has tripped RPV water temperature is 195 F.

RPV pressure has increased by 4 psig.

What action is required to be taken FIRST?

A. Shutdown Cooling has isolated. Raise RPV water level to +90 to +100 inches per QCOP 0201-02, FILLING THE REACTOR VESSEL/ REACTOR CAVITY USING A CONDENSATE BOOSTER PUMP VIA THE FEEDWATER SYSTEM.

B. Secure Shutdown Cooling AND reverse heat exchanger flow per QCOP 1000-04, RHR SERVICE WATER SYSTEM OPERATION.

C. Raise RWCU reject flow per QCOP 1200-07, RWCU SYSTEM COOLANT REJECT.

D. Raise RHR Shutdown Cooling flow to 5000 gpm per QCOP 1000, SHUTDOWNN COOLING OPERATION.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 145 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Reactor pressure rising above 100 psig, will isolate the 1-1001-47/50 valves on interlock. The conditions are such that vessel stratification is occurring. Per QCOP 1000-05, Shutdown Cooling Operation, E.17, when both recirc pumps are off maintain RPV water level > 90 inches to prevent stratification. Per QCOA 1000-02, Loss of Shutdown Cooling, raising RPV water level and starting a feed and bleed can prevent stratification from occurring.

Distractor 1: Plausible because SDC is not lowering RPV water temperature and RHR flow is adequate. Incorrect because there is no indication of RHR Heat Exchanger fouling.

Distractor 2: Plausible because increasing SDC flow increases heat removal. Incorrect because the priority is to raise RPV water level.

Distractor 3: Plausible because starting a feed and bleed is a compensatory action if vessel stratification is occurring. Incorrect because RPV water level should be raised to at least +90 inches before a feed and bleed is started.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-05 rev.62, QCOA 1000-02 rev.21 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295021 AA2.06 Loss of Shutdown Cooling: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING: Reactor pressure.

Importance: SRO 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 146 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 80 ID: 2164395 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at rated power when a leak developed on the 1A Recirc Pump discharge line. Plant conditions 30 minutes later are:

Mode switch is in SHUTDOWN.

All rods are in.

RPV pressure is 725 psig and lowering.

RPV water level is -149 inches and holding.

Drywell pressure is 8 psig and rising.

RWCU system failed to isolate and cannot be manually isolated.

All other automatic actions occurred as designed.

What emergency classification should be made for Unit 1?

A. CG6, General Emergency B. FG1, General Emergency C. FS1, Site Area Emergency D. FA1, Alert Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 147 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: The conditions indicate a potential loss of the FC barrier (RPV water level

-149 Inches) and a loss of the RCS barrier (DW pressure > 2.5 psig due to RCS leakage). The Containment barrier is still intact because no Secondary Containment area is at a Max Safe radiation or temperature due to the failure of the RWCU system to isolate. With a potential loss of FC and a loss of RCS, the criteria for a Site Area Emergency is met.

Distractor 1: Plausible because a primary system RWCU) failed to automatically isolate and could not be manually isolated with challenges the Containment barrier. Incorrect because no path (breach) to secondary containment exists.

Distractor 2: Plausible because RPV water level is < -142 inches for > 30 minutes AND a Containment Challenge Indication (unplanned rise in containment pressure). Incorrect because the Unit is not in Mode 4 or 5.

Distractor 3: Plausible because there is a loss of the RCS barrier. Incorrect because there is also a potential loss of the FC barrier.

Reference:

EP-AA-1006 Addendum 3, rev.08 Reference provided during examination: EP-AA-1006, Hot and Cold Matrix Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295024 2.4.41 High Drywell Pressure: Knowledge of the emergency action level thresholds and classifications.

Importance: SRO 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.11 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 148 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 81 ID: 2166476 Points: 1.00 A full core ATWS with a Group I isolation has occurred on Unit 2.

Reactor power is 25%

RPV pressure 900 psig and steady.

RPV water level -80 inches.

Torus water temperature 145°F and rising.

Torus Pressure is 18 psig.

Drywell pressure is 20 psig.

Torus water level 15.5 feet.

One loop of RHR in Torus cooling at 7000 gpm.

What action(s) must have the HIGHEST priority?

A. Start Torus and Drywell Sprays per QCOP 1000-30, POST-ACCIDENT RHR OPERATION.

B. Reduce RPV pressure to 700 psig per QCOP 0203-01, REACTOR PRESSURE CONTROL USING MANUAL RELIEF VALVE ACTUATION.

C. Start another loop of Torus Cooling per QCOP 1000-30, POST-ACCIDENT RHR OPERATION.

D. Re-open the MSIVs per QCOP 0250-01, PRESSURIZING THE MAIN STEAM LINES.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 149 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: The QGA 101 Pressure Leg Override directs the SRO to lower RPV pressure when Torus temperature cannot be held below HCTL in QGA 200. The action to lower RPV pressure to stay below HCTL is therefore prioritized over other Primary Containment Control actions.

Distractor 1: Plausible because re-opening the MSIVs and using the Main Turbine Bypass Valves for RPV pressure control reduces heat input into the containment. Incorrect because it will not immediately restore Torus temperature within HCTL.

Distractor 2: Plausible because it's an action directed in the QGA 200 Temperature Leg.

Incorrect because it will not immediately restore Torus temperature within HCTL.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is directed in QGA 200 when Torus pressure exceeds 5 psig.

Incorrect because it will not restore Torus temperature within HCTL.

Reference:

QGA 101 rev.17 Reference provided during examination: QGA 200, QGA 101 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295026 EA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SUPPRESSION POOL HIGH WATER TEMPERATURE: Suppression pool level.

Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 150 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 82 ID: 2167681 Points: 1.00 Generation Dispatch has informed the Shift Manager that the System Grid is RED.

Unit 1 is at 75% power.

Generator Load is 715 MWe.

Grid frequency is 59.2 Hz and slowly LOWERING.

Main Turbine Bypass valves are CLOSED.

Which of the following actions should be directed FIRST?

A. Transfer Main Generator voltage control from AUTO to MAN per QCOP 6000-07.

B. Insert a manual Reactor scram, trip the Generator and enter QCGP 2-3.

C. Raise Generator load to 985 MWe per QCGP 3-1.

D. Initiate an emergency power reduction per QCGP 3-1 to 25% rated thermal power and trip the Main Turbine.

Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 151 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Per QCOA 6000-02 step D.6.b.. Maintaining high load is providing the power to the grid to help maintain the frequency as high as possible.

Distractor 1: Plausible because swapping to Manual mode results in a constant field voltage possibly adding some protection to the Generator. Incorrect because this will not have any effect on stabilizing the grid.

Distractor 2: Plausible because an emergency power reduction is an action taken per QCOA 6000-02 for abnormally low grid frequency. Incorrect because this is done only if Main Turbine Bypass Valves are open.

Distractor 3: Plausible because these are actions to protect the Main Generator and reactor.

Incorrect because the reactor is protected from an underfrequency condition by the RPS EPA relays (55.8-56.2 Hz).

Reference:

QCOA 6000-02 rev.22 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 700000 2.1.32 Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: Ability to explain and apply system limits and precautions.

Importance: SRO 4.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.2 /45.12 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 152 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 83 ID: 2164328 Points: 1.00 Which plant conditions (Drywell pressure, Drywell temperature) would allow initiation of Drywell sprays in accordance with QGA 200?

(1) 4 psig, 200°F (2) 13 psig, 600°F (3) 10 psig, 400°F (4) 22 psig, 400°F A. (1) ONLY B. (3) ONLY C. (2) and (3) ONLY D. (2), (3), and (4)

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 153 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per the EPGs, initiating Drywell sprays is allowed when conditions are to the right of the line on the DSIL curve. Initiating sprays to the left of the line could result in a pressure drop below atmospheric causing vacuum breakers to open or damage to primary containment.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the parameters are within the graph and on one side of the curve. Incorrect because the parameters must be to the right of the curve to allow DW spray initiation.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the parameters are on the graph and to the right of the curve.

Incorrect because it is not the ONLY set of parameters the allows initiation of DW sprays.

Distractor 3: Plausible because both parameter sets are on the graph and on the correct side of the curve. Incorrect because it is not the ONLY parameter set to the right of the curve allowing DW spray initiation.

Reference:

BWROG EPGs/SAG Appendix B Vol. II, rev.4 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295012 AA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE: Drywell pressure.

Importance: SRO 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 154 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 84 ID: 2164327 Points: 1.00 A LOCA has occurred on Unit 2.

RPV pressure is 590 psig and LOWERING at 10 psig/minute.

RPV level is -80" and being maintained with HPCI and RCIC.

Torus water level is 16 ft and RISING at 6"/minute DW temperature is 235 degrees F and RISING at 0.5 degrees/minute.

DW pressure is 7 psig and RISING at 1 psig/minute with both loops of Drywell sprays operating.

Torus pressure 5.5 psig and RISING at 1 psig/minute with "A" loop Torus sprays operating.

Assuming NO ADDITIONAL operator actions, which of the following QGA actions will be required FIRST, and why?

A. Stop injection with HPCI and RCIC to prevent raising Torus level.

B. Stop Drywell sprays to prevent exceeding the primary containment negative pressure capability.

C. Initiate an RPV blowdown to allow low pressure ECCS systems to inject and thereby preventing injection from systems outside of primary containment.

D. Initiate reactor blowdown to prevent exceeding Primary Containment Pressure Suppression Limit (PSP).

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 155 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: With the given plant conditions, Torus water level will be at 17ft in two minutes.

Per QGA 200 - Torus Level branch:

IF you cannot HOLD level below 17ft (vacuum breakers), THEN:

1. Stop drywell sprays.

2. Stop injection from outside the primary containment not needed for core cooling or to shut down the reactor.

Drywell sprays are stopped high Drywell temperatures to prevent damage to DW due to Torus level covering the vacuum breakers. Operating sprays with the vacuum breakers submerged could cause the containment differential pressure capability to be exceeded. The Primary Containment Pressure and Drywell Temperature branches permit spray initiation only if torus water level is below 17 ft.

Distractor 1: Plausible because an RPV blowdown will be required before violating the PSP limit. Incorrect because Torus pressure will not exceed the PSP limit for another ~12 minutes.

A blowdown based on DW temperature reaching 280 F will take over one hour.

Distractor 2: Plausible because HPCI and RCIC are normally lined up with suction from the CCSTs. Incorrect because both are required to maintain core cooling, and both systems would have already transferred suction sources to the ECCS suction header due to high Torus level.

Distractor 3: Plausible because injection from HPCI / RCIC will eventually be lost as the RPV depressurizes and RPV level lowers. Incorrect because HPCI and RCIC are not presently drawing suction from outside of primary containment. Suction path is from the Torus.

Reference:

Quad Cities Nuclear Power Station QGA/SAMG Technical Bases, Draft A2 Reference provided during examination: QGA 200.

Cognitive Level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A:295029 2.1.7 High Suppression Pool Water Level: Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgements based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

Importance: SRO 4.7 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5/43.5/45.12/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None.

QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 156 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 85 ID: 2164326 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a leak in the Torus develops:

RPV water level 30 inches and steady RPV pressure 1000 psig and steady Torus level -2 inches and steady Torus level has been stable for 20 minutes and is being maintained per QCOP 1600-12, TORUS NORMAL LEVEL CONTROL, FILL AND DRAIN PROCEDURE DIRECTORY.

Moments later, the Unit 2 Admin NSO reports the following FAS alarms: 14 UNIT 1 HPCI VAULT FIRE 16 UNIT 1 HPCI VAULT DELUGE TROUBL An EO dispatched to the Reactor Building basement reports:

Basement Area (Torus) water level is +1 inch and slowly rising.

No leakage was seen in RHR and Core Spray Pump Rooms.

HPCI Deluge System has actuated.

Per QGA 200 and QGA 300 which of the following actions must be directed?

A. Shutdown the reactor per QCGP 2-1.

B. Secure the HPCI Deluge System.

C. Secure the Torus water addition.

D. Verify Reactor Building Floor and Equipment Drain Sumps are operating.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 157 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: QGA 300 directs continued operation of floor drain sumps to maintain level below the HI alarm setpoint. Plant conditions are not present to require execution of the other QGA actions listed.

Distractor 1: Plausible because it is a QGA 300 action for high water levels due to leakage of a non-primary system. Incorrect because it requires verification of two (2) areas above max safe water level.

Distractor 2: Plausible because QGA 300 directs isolating systems discharging into affected areas. Incorrect because Torus filling is a required QGA 200 action.

Distractor 3: Plausible because QGA 300 directs isolating systems discharging into affected areas. Incorrect because the HPCI Deluge is required to suppress the fire.

Reference:

QGA 200 rev.13, QGA 300 rev.14 References provided during examination: QGA 200 and QGA 300.

Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295036 EA2.03 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SECONDARY CONTAINMENT HIGH SUMP AREA WATER LEVEL: Cause of the high water level.

Importance: SRO 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 158 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 86 ID: 2164325 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is in Mode 3.

Annunciator 901-5-H-6, STANDBY LIQ SQUIB VALVE CIRCUIT FAIL, alarms.

Squib A Valve Continuity Light is NOT lit.

Both SBLC Pump indicating lights are OFF.

The FLOW Indicating light is NOT lit.

The "A" Squib Valve Continuity Monitor Ammeter indicates ZERO.

Instrument Maintenance has informed the Unit Supervisor that repair and testing will take two shifts.

What of the following actions, if any, are required?

A. Restore SLC subsystem A to operable status within 7 days.

B. No action required.

C. Restore one SLC subsystem to operable status within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.

D. Be in MODE 3 within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 159 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Per TS 3.1.7 Bases, a SBLC subsystem consists of an operable pump, explosive valve, associated piping and valves and instrumentation and controls. The A Squib (explosive) valve is inoperable as indicated by the Continuity Ammeter reading of 0 milliamps.

TS 3.1.7 Condition A applies, 7 days to return the subsystem to operable status.

Distractor 1: Plausible because repair time exeeds the competion time (8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />) to return at least one subsystem to operable status. Incorrect because only one subsystem is inoperable.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the required completion time is 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> to return at least one subsystem to operable status. Condition C does not have to be entered immediately. Incorrect because only one subsystem is inoperable.

Distractor 3: Plausible because one operable explosive valve is capable of supplying full flow (both pumps) to the reactor. Incorrect because of TS 3.1.7 Bases definition of an operable subsystem.

Reference:

TS 3.1.7 Bases rev.33, TS 3.1.7 LCO Amendment 233/229 Reference provided during examination: TS 3.1.7 LCO Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 211000 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL SYSTEM; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Failure of explosive valve to fire.

Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/43.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowingsystems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None.

QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 160 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 87 ID: 2164324 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

RPS A is to be placed on the Reserve Power Supply in preparation for a weekend outage.

Prior to de-energizing RPS A, the breaker for MO 2-1201-2, RWCU RECIRC PUMPS SUCTION ISOL VLV will be opened to prevent its closure to keep the system pressurized.

Which of the following Technical Specification entries are required for this evolution?

A. TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A, ONLY.

B. TS 3.3.8.2 Condition A and Condition B.

C. TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A, ONLY.

D. TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A and TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 161 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A is entered because the Reactor Building Ventilation system isolates when RPS A or B is de-energized. The Rx Bldg.Vent Radiation monitors are then inoperable because they are unable to monitor Reactor Building exhaust ventilation. The RPS MG Set EPAs are not considered inoperable and perform their function when the MG Set control switch is taken to trip. TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A is entered because the MO 2-1201-2 valve is a PCIV and is made inoperable when its breaker is opened.

Distractor 1: Plausible because TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A entry is required due to an inoperable RWCU suction valve. Incorrect because TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A entry is also required due to inoperable RB Vent Rad Monitors.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the RPS A MG Set is shut down tripping the EPAs. Incorrect because they operate as designed and are not considered inoperable.

Distractor 3: Plausible because TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A entry is required due to inoperable RB Vent Rad Monitors. Incorrect because TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A is also required.

Reference:

TS 3.6.1.3 Amendment 199/195, TS 3.3.6.2 Amendments 199/195 and 273/268, QCOP 7000-04 rev.08 Reference provided during examination: TS 3.6.1.3, TS 3.3.6.2, TS 3.3.8.2 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 212000 2.1.23 RPS Reactor Protection: Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.

Importance: SRO 4.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.2/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 162 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 88 ID: 2164323 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when the following annunciators alarm:

- 901-8 B-8, 120/240 AC ESS SERV BUS LOW VOLTAGE

- 901-8 F-8, ESS SERV UPS TROUBLE

- 901-8 E-9, ESS SERV BUS ON EMERG SPLY (1) What is the status of the ESS Bus?

(2) Which action has the HIGHEST priority?

A. (1) MCC 18-2 is powering the ESS Bus.

(2) Enter QCOA 0600-01, FEEDWATER REGULATOR LOCKUP and reset the A FRV.

B. (1) MCC 18-2 is powering the ESS Bus.

(2) Enter QOS 6800-03,120/240 VAC ESSENTIAL SEVICE BUS FAILURE and reopen the SJAE suction valves.

C. (1) Bus 17 is powering the ESS Bus.

(2) Enter QCOA 3500-01, FEEDWATER TEMPERATURE REDUCTION WITH MAIN TURBINE ONLINE and maintain reactor power < 105%.

D. (1) Bus 17 is powering the ESS Bus (2) Enter restart the RWCU system per QCOP 1200-11, RWCU SYSTEM STARTUP AND OPERATION.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 163 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: The annunciators given indicate that ESS is being fed by MCC 18-2 through the ABT. When this transfer occurs, there is a momentary loss of power to the ESS bus which cause all feedwater heaters to trip, RWCU system isolates, SBGTS initiates, A FRV lockup, and the SJAE suction valves to close. The priority action is to reopen the SJAE suction valves before Main Condenser back pressure reaches 8 in Hg resulting in a Main Turbine trip and reactor scram.

Distractor 1: Plausible because MCC 18-2 is supplying the ESS Bus and the A FRV is locked up. Incorrect because RPV water level will be controlled by the B FRV which remains in AUTO.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the Feedwater Heaters will trip on a loss of the ESS Bus.

Incorrect because the ESS Bus is supplied by MCC 18-2 and a transfer to Bus 17 via the Static Switch would not cause an actuation/isolation.

Distractor 3: Plausible because RWCU isolates on a loss of the ESS Bus. Incorrect because the ESS Bus is supplied by MCC 18-2 and a transfer to Bus 17 via the Static Switch would not cause an actuation/isolation.

Reference:

QOA 6800-03 rev.50, QOA 900-8 E-9 rev.03 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 262002 A2.01 Uninterruptable Power Supply (AC/DC) Ability to (a) predict impacts of the following on the UNITERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (AC/DC), and (b) based on those predictions , use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Under voltage.

Importance: SRO 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/43.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 164 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 89 ID: 2164322 Points: 1.00 Both Units are in Mode 1.

At 1000 on June 1, Unit 1 EDG is declared INOPERABLE.

At 1400 on June 2, Unit 1/2 EDG is declared INOPERABLE.

At 1500 on June 2, Unit 1 EDG is restored to OPERABLE status.

When would Unit 1 be required to start a shutdown if the DG 1/2 is NOT returned to operable status?

A. 1000 on June 8 B. 1000 on June 9 C. 1400 on June 9 D. 1400 on June 10 Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 165 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Since the first inoperability is fixed first, and the second inoperability was concurrent with the first, a Completion Time extension of 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> can be applied to the original Completion Time for TS 3.8.1, Required Action B.4. (1.0 Use and Application, 1.3 Completion Times.)

Distractor 1: Plausible because an inoperable DG is a 7 day LCO and the initial inoperability is 1000 June 1. Incorrect because it does not account for the additional 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> allowed for concurrent inoperabilities.

Distractor 2: Plausible the 1/2 DG inoperability is entry into a 7 day LCO and the U1 DG has been returned to operable status. Incorrect because the time clock must start from the first inoperability and include an additional 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it correctly determines total LCO time as 7 days plus the additional 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />. Incorrect because the time clock must start be from the first inoperability, not the second.

Reference:

TS 3.8.1 Cond. B, Amendment 275/270, TS 1.3 (Example 1.3-2), Amendment 267/262 Reference provided during examination: TS 3.8.1 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 264000 2.2.40 Emergency Generators (Diesel/Jet): Ability to apply Technical Specifications for a system.

Importance: SRO 4.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.2/43.5/45.3 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 166 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 90 ID: 2164261 Points: 1.00 Both Units are operating at 100% power with the following Instrument Air Compressor (IAC) line-up:

1/2B IAC - running 1/2 IAC - running 1A IAC - standby U2 IAC - OOS The 1/2B IAC trips and the following annunciators alarm:

912-1 D-11, UNIT 1/2B INST AIR LOW PRESS 912-1 A-11, UNIT 1A INST AIR LOW PRESS 912-1 A-12, 1A SERV AIR BACKUP VLV OPEN The NSO has peformed the immediate operator actions of QOA 4700-06, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR and dispatched an EO to the IACs. Moments later the NSO reports:

912-1 A-9, U-1A AIR DRYER FAILURE has alarmed.

The EO has reported that 1A IAC outlet pressure is low.

Instrument Air Receiver pressures are approximately 78 psig and slowly lowering.

Which of the following actions should be DIRECTED FIRST?

A. Scram the reactor and enter QCGP 2-3, REACTOR SCRAM.

B. Line-up the Diesel Driven Air Compressor per QCOP 4700-12, ALTERNATE INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM RECOVERY.

C. Close the 1-3207A, FW TO LO FLOW OUTLET ISOL VLV, per QOA 4700-06, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR.

D. Open the 1A Instrument Air Dryer Bypass 1-4799-549A per QOA 4700-06, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 167 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: QOA 4700-06, directs opening the 1-4799-549A if there is indication of a problem with the filters or dryers. In this case the report of a low outlet pressure on the 1A IAC and the absence of annunciator 912-1 A-9 alarm which indicates the air dryer to not auto swap.

Distractor 1: Plausible because it is an action directed by QOA 4700-06 for a loss of Instrument Air. Incorrect because the scram criteria of < 55 psig Scram Air Header pressure or 2 or more rods drifting has not occured.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the existing plant Instrument Air equipment is becoming unavailable, ie. only one functioning IAC. Incorrect because the delivery time for the Air compressor may be 8-12 hours and setup time may take 1 or more shifts.

Distractor 3: Plausible because QOA 4700-06 directs closing the 1-3207A if Instrument Air pressure cannot be maintained > 75 psig. Incorrect because the plant is at 100% power and both FWRV are controlling RPV water level. If the LFFRV were to fail open, the FRVs would compensate preventing a transient.

Reference:

QOA 4700-02 rev.18, QOA 4700-03 rev 12, QOA 4700-06 rev.29 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 300000 A2.01 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Air dryer and filter malfunctions.

Importance: SRO 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/43.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 168 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 91 ID: 2167842 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is in Mode 5.

The fourth fuel assembly is being inserted into a fuel cell in the core during refueling operations.

The core load is 95% complete.

SRM 21 has jumped 500 counts and is rising.

SRMs 22, 23, and 24 are all slowly rising.

What is the status of the Reactor and what direction should be given to the Fuel Handling crew?

A. Subcritical. Remove the fuel assembly and place it back in the spent fuel pool.

B. Supercritical. Stop all fuel movements and investigate the cause.

C. Subcritical. Continue insertion of the fuel assembly, this indication is normal.

D. Supercritical. Raise the fuel assembly to full up and then stop.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 169 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Increasing SRM count with no rod movement indicates the reactor is supercritical.

QCFHP 0110-02 C.1. provides the following direction to take if inadvertent criticality occurs:

C.1. Stop all fuel movement AND do NOT attempt to raise OR lower Grapple.

C.2. Request Control Room Operator to scram Reactor.

C.3. Direct the Unit Reactor Operator to evacuate Reactor Building AND control access to the Reactor Building (including Drywell).

Distractor 1: Plausible because the SRM response is unexpected and removing the bundle would return the core back to the initial reactivity state. Incorrect because SRM indication is that of an inadvertent criticality condition.

Distractor 2: Plausible because completing the fuel move with no indication of an inadvertent criticality is procedurally correct. Incorrect because SRM indication is that of an inadvertent criticality condition.

Distractor 3: Plausible because SRM indication is that an inadvertent criticality has occurred and removing the fuel bundle would return the core back to a subcritical state. Incorrect because the procedural direction is to "stop all fuel movement and do not attempt to raise or lower Grapple."

Reference:

QCFHP 0110-02, rev.04 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 234000 A1.03 Fuel-Handling Equipment: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the FUEL HANDLING EQUIPMENT controls including:

core reactivity level Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.5 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 170 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 92 ID: 2167775 Points: 1.00 A radwaste discharge from the River Discharge Tank (RDT) is in progress.

Annunciator 2212-4 G-4, RADWASTE EFFLUENT RAD MONITOR FAILURE, alarms.

The discharge is terminated.

Chemistry has been notified.

What condition(s) must be met in order to continue the discharge?

A. Grab samples taken hourly and the discharge can continue immediately.

B. At least 2 independent samples are analyzed and the release rate calculations and discharge valve lineup are independently validated by 2 technically qualified members of facility staff.

C. Grab samples taken every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> and instrument returned to service in 30 days.

D. Discharge rate is calculated every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, the verifications are logged in the Shift Manager logs and the instrument is made operable within 30 days.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 171 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Per CY-QC-170-301 ODCM:

12.2.1 Radioactive Liquid Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation REC 12.2.1 The effluent monitoring instrumentation in Table 12.2.1-1 shall be OPERABLE with alarm setpoints set to ensure the limits of REC 12.3.1 are not exceeded. The instrument alarm setpoints shall be determined in accordance with the ODCM.

Per Table 12.2.1-1, Condition D is entered.

Condition D: Liquid Radwaste Effluent Gross Activity Monitor with less than the minimum number of OPERABLE channels.

Required Actions are:

D.1 Perform RSR 12.3.1.1 on at least two independent samples of the tanks contents. AND D.2 Perform independent verification of release rate calculations and discharge line valve line-up using at least two technically qualified members of the facility staff. AND D.3 Return instrument channel to OPERABLE status.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the total radioactivity in the tank has been calculated and approved prior to release. Incorrect because the 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> sampling applies to an inoperable Liquid Radwaste Flow Rate Monitor.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the total radioactivity in the tank has been calculated and approved prior to release. Incorrect because station procedures direct terminating the discharge immediately along with required actions per the ODCM.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Required Action D.3.states the completion time for returning the instrument to operable status is 30 days. Incorrect because 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> grab samples are not required.

Reference:

CY-QC-170-301 ODCM, rev.14 Reference provided during examination: CY-QC-170-301 ODCM, pages 43-46 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 2 Group: 1 2 K/A: 268000 2. 3 2.38 Radwaste: Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.

Importance: SRO 4.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/41.10/43.1/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowingsystems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 172 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 93 ID: 2164259 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when the following occurs:

Annunciator 901-3 D-2, OFF GAS HI RADIATION, alarms.

The NSO reports count rate has doubled on both SJAEs.

Chemistry reports that the H2 concentration in the Off-Gas Holdup Line is >4%.

What action is required?

A. Obtain a reactor coolant grab sample within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.

B. Be in MODE 3 within the next 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

C. Scram and isolate the Main Steam Lines.

D. Restore Hydrogen concentration to within limits within 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 173 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer Explanation: Per TLCO 3.7.e Condition A, with the H2 concentration >4% in the Holdup Line, the required action is to restore H2 concentration back to limits within 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />.

Distractor 1: Plausible because is a required action for high Off Gas activity per QCOA 1700-04. Incorrect because the reactor coolant and recombiner outlet activity sample must be obtained within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

Distractor 2: Plausible because TS 3.7.6 Condition B required action is to place the unit in Mode 3 within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> if the Off-Gas activity is not reduced to within limits within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />. Incorrect because the TS Off-Gas activity limit is based on a gross failure of the Off-Gas system.

Distractor 3: Plausible because actions for Off-Gas HI-HI alarm is to insert a scram, close the MSIVs, and isolate the Off-Gas system. Incorrect because the Off-Gas HI-HI condition is not present.

Reference:

TRM TLCO 3.7.e., rev.0., TS 3.7.6 Bases, rev.31 Reference provided during examination: TRM section 3.7 Plant Systems, TS section 3.7.6 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 271000 A2.04 Offgas: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on OFFGAS SYSTEM; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Offgas system high radiation Importance: SRO 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/43.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 174 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 94 ID: 2164258 Points: 1.00 What are the requirements in regard to general plant tours made by the Shift Manager?

The Shift Manager is required to...

A. tour the Control Room first to ensure the units are stable.

B. remain within 10 minutes of the Control Room.

C. contact the Control Room at least every 10 minutes by telephone or radio while on tour.

D. turn over authority as the Shift Manager to another SRO prior to touring the plant..

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 175 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Per OP-AA-101-111, Step 4.1.20 The Shift Manager shall remain withing 10 minutes of the Control Room.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Shift Manager is required to tour the Control Room daily.

Incorrect because it is not a requirement prior to performing a plant tour.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the Shift Manager is required to be within 10 minutes of the control room. Incorrect because there is no requirement to contact the control room every 10 minutes.

Distractor 3: Plausible because other license positions, Unit Supervisor, Unit RO must perform turnovers prior to leaving their post (ie. mid-shift relief). Incorrect because the Shift Manager maintains authority/ responsibility even when touring the plant.

Reference:

OP-AA-101-111 rev.12, OP-AA-112-111 rev.16 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.1.4 Knowledge of individual licensed operator responsibilities related to shift staffing, such as medical requirements, "no-solo" operation, maintenance of active license status, 10CFR55, etc.

Importance: SRO 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.2 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 176 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 95 ID: 2168855 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

As the Work Execution Center (WEC) SRO, you are reviewing a Work Order to repair the Unit 1 HPCI Auxiliary Oil Pump, 1-2308.

Part of the review includes the final checks on HPCI performance that will be needed prior to declaring the HPCI System OPERABLE.

In which procedure do you find general guidance on the checks to be performed?

A. MA-MW-716-010-1000-F-06, QUAD CITIES STATION WORK PACKAGE QUALITY VERIFICATION CHECKLIST B. MA-AA-716-012, POST MAINTENANCE TESTING.

C. MA-AA-1000, CONDUCT OF MAINTENANCE MANUAL.

D. OP-AA-108-115, OPERABILITY DETERMINATIONS.

Answer: B Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 177 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: This procedure provides standard process guidance on requirements and expectations to ensure that when any maintenance or configuration change is performed, that (1) the original deficiency is corrected, (2) no new deficiency has been created as a result of maintenance activities or configuration change, and (3) equipment will perform its intended function when returned to service.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this document defines the process for determination of operability of SSCs included in Tech Specs and SSCs that perform required support functions for SSCs that are required to be operable by TSs. Incorrect because it does not offer guidance or address specific requirements for a PMT.

Distractor 2: Plausible becaues this document defines the methodology for reviewing, approving, and implementing specific Maintenance guidance across Exelon Nuclear. Incorrect because it does not address PMT requirements.

Distractor 3: Plausible because this document assures PMTs are accounted for in the Work Package. Incorrect because it does not address specific requirements or guidance for the PMT.

Reference:

MA-AA-716-012 Rev 20 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.21 Knowledge of pre- and post-maintenance operability requirements.

Importance: SRO 4.1 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.2 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Exam Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43(b)5 Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 178 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 96 ID: 2164255 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at rated power.

While performing QOS 0005-01, Operations Department Weekly Summary of Daily, the NSO reports Drywell temperature sensor 2-5741-43A has failed.

All other temperature sensors in the same area are reading correctly.

The failed sensor feeds Point 8 on recorder 2-2340-9, DRYWELL TEMPERATURE RECORDER at the 902-3 panel and also inputs to Annunciator 902-3 H-4, DRYWELL HIGH AIR TEMPERATURE.

Which of the following methods should be directed to track and identify the inoperable alarm point?

A. Place a TCC Tag on TR 2340-9, identifying the defective indicator per CC-AA-112, Temporary Configuration Changes.

B. Install a temporary label on the defective indicator per OP-AA-116-101, Equipment Labeling.

C. Post an Information Tag adjacent to the defective indicator per OP-AA-109-101, Personnel and Equipment Tagout Process.

D. Place an Equipment Deficiency Tag adjacent to the defective indicator per OP-AA-108-105, Equipment Deficiency Identification and Documentation.

Answer: D Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 179 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Per OP-AA-108-105, Shift Supervision shall ensure the following exist to support continued plant operation:

1. The level of personnel and plant safety is not compromised.

A. Evaluate the impact on plant OR B. If personnel or plant safety is at risk because of the degraded component, it shall be removed from service.

2. The status of the degraded component (or train) is identified via an Equipment Status Tag on the control switch for the component (or train).

Distractor 1: Plausible because CC-AA-112 would be used if the alarm were disabled by the operator or if a temporary modification were to be put in place to monitor the indication.

Incorrect because the sensor is inoperable and only requires repair.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a temporary labels are used used to identify equipment.

Incorrect because they are not used to convey status or operation.

Distractor 3: Plausible because OP-AA-109-101, Clearance and Tagging, is used to either prevent or control operation. Incorrect because the process is designed for personnel protection while performing work on systems.

Reference:

OP-AA-108-105 rev 11, OP-AA-108-105-1001 rev 7, QCAN 901(2)-3 H-4 rev 7 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.43 EQUIPMENT CONTROL: Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms.

Importance: SRO 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Used on 2016 ILT NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 180 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 97 ID: 2168796 Points: 1.00 An Appendix R fire has occurred on Unit 2.

The Unit Supervisor is directing actions per QCARP 0050-02.

The EO dispatched to align RCIC for injection calls back and reports that the RCIC Room is roped off as a contaminated area.

What direction should be given to complete the task?

A. Enter the contaminated area and align RCIC for injection.

B. Obtain Shft Manager approval to enter the room without protective clothing.

C. Do not enter the RCIC Room until a Radiation Protection Technician is there to assist.

D. Don proctective clothing, then align RCIC for injection.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 181 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Per QCARP 0050-02, step E.8.a.:

Strict adherence to normal Radiation Protection practices is NOT required. Contaminated areas may need to be entered without standard protective clothing. Radiation Protection barriers may be bypassed to access necessary equipment.

Distractor 1: Plausible because protective clothing is normally required to enter a contaminated area. Incorrect because emergency situations allow for crossing step off pads without donning protective clothing.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the fire may have changed radiological conditions throughout the plant. Incorrect because emergency conditions allow for bypassing requirements to enter a contaminated area.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Shift Manager approval is required for some activities.

Incorrect because the emergency situation allows for bypassing such approvals.

Reference:

QCARP 0050-02 rev.39 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.3.14 Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities.

Importance: SRO 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.12/43.4/45.10 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 182 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 98 ID: 2168747 Points: 1.00 A hydraulic ATWS has occurred on Unit 2.

1/2 of the control rods failed to scram.

The NSO is driving control rods from the 902-5 panel Initial SBLC tank level was 85% and is now at 78%.

The Main Condenser is available.

The ANSO reports the 2A TBCCW pump has tripped and the 2B TBCCW pump is out of service.

Which actions should the SRO direct?

A. (1) Maintain RPV pressure band of 800 to 1000 psig.

(2) Control RPV water level between -162 and -35 inches.

B. (1) Maintain RPV pressure band of 800 to 1000 psig.

(2) Trip the CRD pump and individually scram control rods.

C. (1) Lower and maintain RPV pressure at 700 psig.

(2) Raise RPV wter level to +40 inches and trip the Reactor Feed Pumps.

D. (1) Lower RPV pressure to 700 psig.

(2) Close the MSIIVs.

Answer: A Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 183 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer explanation: Per QGA 101, with reactor power > 5%, level band B (-162 to -35 inches) is the correct action. An RPV pressure band of 350 to 1000 psig is allowed, however, per OP-QC-103-102-1002, Quad Cities Strategies for Successful Transient Mitigation, recommends an initial pressure band of 800 to 1000 psig. The lower limit of 800 psig will not complicate level interpretation from the charts. The upper limit of 1000 psig is a round number below 1040 psig.

QGA actions are prioritized over QCOA actions. QCOA 3800-03 for the loss of TBCCW directs lowering RPV pressure to 700 psig and closing the MSIVs. This removes the Main Condenser as a heat sink and presents a challenge to primary containment.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the RPV pressure band is correct and directed by the QGAs.

Incorrect because the CRD pumps are not to be tripped until all rods are inserted, even if they eventually trip due to loss of TBCCW.

Distractor 2: Plausible because QCOA 3800-03 directs lowering RPV pressure to 700 psig.

Incorrect because the QGA direction in the pressure leg is to control reactor pressure between 800 and 1000 psig.

Distractor 3: Plausible because QCOA 3800-03 directs lowering RPV pressure to 700 psig and closing the MSIVs. Incorrect because QGA 101 directs a different pressure band and has actions to miantain the MSIVs open and use the Main Condenser as a heat sink.

Reference:

QGA 101 rev.17, QCOA 3800-03 rev.15, OP-QC-103-102-1002 rev.01 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.4.23 Knowledge of the bases for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation during emergency operations.

Importance: SRO 4.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 184 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 99 ID: 2164252 Points: 1.00 A Site Area Emergency condition exists due to a high offsite release rate on Unit 2.

(1) What is the PREFERRED source of Wind Speed and Direction?

(2) What is the time requirement to notify the State and Local Agencies?

A. (1) Contracted Weather Service -- Murray and Trettel.

(2) Within 15 minutes of discovery of the E-Plan plant conditions.

B. (1) The National Weather Service.

(2) Within 15 minutes of discovery of the E-Plan plant conditions.

C. (1) The Site Radiological Effluent panel of the Plant Parameter Display computer program (PPDS).

(2) Within 15 minutes of declaration of the E-Plan classification.

D. (1) Wind Speed and Direction meters on the 912-4 panel.

(2) Within 15 minutes of declaration of the E-Plan classification.

Answer: C Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 185 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Answer Explanation: EP-MW-114-100, Midwest Region Off-Site Notifications, requires state notifications are completed with in 15 minutes of:

a. Declaring an emergency

b. Emergency Classification escalation

c. Issuing or changing Protective Action Recommendations (PARs)

d. A radioactive release or a change in radioactive release status Meteorological data is obtained from sources in the order listed below:

- PPDS data

- Control Room Meteorological Instruments

- Contracted Weather Service - Murray and Trettel

- National Weather Service (NWS)

- Direct Observation Estimate- Estimation of the wind direction by direct observation of outside conditions.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the NWS is a procedural option. Incorrect because NWS is not the most preferred source and the time clock start is in error.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Murray and Trettel contracted weather service is a procedural option. Incorrect because the time clock start is in error.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Control Room Instrumentation is a procedural option. Incorrect because the Wind Speed and Direction meters on the 912-4 panel at Quad Cities are not accurate.

Reference:

EP-AA-114-100 Rev 20 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 KA: 2.4.38: Ability to take actions called for in the facility emergency plan, including supporting or acting as emergency coordinator if required.

Importance: SRO 4.4 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.11 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 186 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 100 ID: 2168856 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 10% reactor power, performing a normal reactor startup, when the following sequence of events occurred:

A control rod was selected to be withdrawn from position '00' to position '12'.

Because the control rod was difficult to move from position '00', the NSO used "Double Clutching" The NSO performed the double clutching procedure and immediately released the 'ROD MOVEMENT CONTROL switch' and 'ROD OUT NOTCH OVERRIDE switch' when the rod started to move.

The rod settled at position 06.

In accordance with QCGP 4-1, Control Rod Movements and Control Rod Sequence:

(1) Did the actions to move the control rod from position '00' comply with the requirements for the use of the continuous control rod withdrawal feature?

(2) Which method(s) may be used to withdraw the control rod to position '12'?

A. (1) NO, the requirements were NOT met.

(2) Single notch to position '12' ONLY B. (1) NO, the requirements were NOT met.

(2) Continuous rod withdrawal to position '10', then single notch to position '12' C. (1) Yes, the requirements were met.

(2) Single notch to position '12' ONLY D. (1) Yes, the requirements were met.

(2) Continuous rod withdrawal to position '10', then single notch to position '12' Answer: C Answer Explanation Answer explanation: The Operations Standards and Expectations section on Conservative Decision Making requires that plant procedures incorporate steps for reactivity changes only in a deliberate, carefully controlled manner. That requirement is reflected in QCGP 4-1 Step E.17.

The note in step E17.a allows use of the continuous control rod withdrawal feature for rods that are difficult to move from Full-In. Section E.17.b dis-allows continuous rod movement, either in or out, for rod movement of 3 notches or less.

Distractor 1: Plausible because single notching is required when the target position is 3 notches or less. Incorrect because continuous withdrawal is allowed for rods that are difficult to withdraw from full in.

Distractor 2: Plausible because single notch is used from position 10 to 12. Incorrect because continuous withdrawal was not pernitted from position 06 to 10. Continuous withdrawal was only allowed from full-in.

Distractor 3: Plausible because continuous withdrawal is allowed from full-in. Incorrect because it was not allowed from position 06.

Reference:

QCGP 4-1 rev.50, OP-AA-101-111-1001, rev.25, QCOA 0300-02, rev.24 Reference QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT provided during examination: None Page: 187 of 188 19 March 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO Test ID: 346627 Cognitive level: Memory High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 KA: 2.1.39 Knowledge of conservative decision making practices.

Importance: 4.3 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.12 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2021 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 188 of 188 19 March 2021