ML22193A286

2021 QC Ile Administered RO and SRO Written Exam-Final

ML22193A286
Person / Time
Site:	Quad Cities
Issue date:	06/14/2021
From:	Randy Baker NRC/RGN-III/DRS/OLB
To:
Baker R
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ML20139A019	List: ML22193A093 ML22193A105 ML22193A107 ML22193A286 ML22193A287
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Download: ML22193A286 (199)

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Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 1 ID: 2164404 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when 2A Recirc Pump Trips.

Annunciator 902-5 H-1, OPRM TROUBLE/INOP has actuated, and the alarm will not reset.

What Immediate Operator Action is required?

A. Manually SCRAM the reactor.

B. Insert all withdrawn CRAM rods.

C. Raise recirc flow to exit Instability Region II.

D. Monitor Nuclear Instruments for oscillations.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 1 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Immediate operator actions of QCOA 0202-04 IF any oscillations in SRM period or LPRM/APRM levels which indicate core instability are observed, THEN manually scram Reactor.

Distractor 1: Plausible because manual scram would be correct if instabilities were observed.

Incorrect due to no instabilities in stem.

Distractor 2: Plausible because inserting CRAM rods is a subsequent action. Incorrect because immediate operator actions have not been completed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because raising recirc flow to exit the instability region is an action in QCOA 0202-4 REACTOR RECIRC PUMP TRIP- SINGLE PUMP. Incorrect due to this being only valid if both recircs are operating.

Reference:

QCOA 0202-04 Rev 48 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295001.AA1.06 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF FORCED CORE FLOW CIRCULATION: Neutron monitoring Importance: 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 /45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 2 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 2 ID: 2164405 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred.

The following annunciators are in alarm:

• 901-8 A1 4KV MAIN FEED BREAKER TRIP

• 901-8 D3 4KV BUSES 13/14 LOW VOLTAGE

• 901-8 F3 4 KV BUS OVRCUR TRIP

• 901-8 A7 DIESEL GEN #1 TROUBLE

• 901-8 B7 DIESEL GEN #1 AUTO START AUTO START BLOCK What event occurred? (1)

What are appropriate actions to take? (2)

A. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 14.

(2) Verify Unit 1 EDG starts to energize Bus 14-1 B. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 14.

(2) Verify 1/2 EDG starts to energize Bus 14-1 C. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 13.

(2) Verify 1/2 EDG starts to energize Bus 13-1 D. (1) An overcurrent trip of Bus 13.

(2) Verify Unit 1 EDG starts to energize Bus 13-1 Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 3 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: While alarms elude to Bus 13 and 14, the EDG alarms are normal for the auto start of U1 EDG loading on to 14-1.

Distractor 1: Plausible due to EDG's being connected to BUS 13-1(1/2) or 14-1(U1EDG).

Incorrect due to the 1/2 EDG is not connected to BUS 14-1, nor are the alarms describing 1/2 EDG.

Distractor 2: Plausible due to EDG's being connected to BUS 13-1(1/2) or 14-1(U1EDG).

Incorrect due to the 1/2 EDG is connected to BUS 13-1 and 13, though alarms indicated describe U1 EDG.

Distractor 3: Plausible due to EDG's being connected to BUS 13-1(1/2) or 14-1(U1EDG).

Incorrect due to the U1 EDG not connected to BUS 13-1/13.

Reference:

4E-1654D, 4E-1656H, QOA 900-8 A-1 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295003.AA2.01- Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF AC POWER: Cause of partial or complete loss of AC power.

Importance: 3.4 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 4 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 3 ID: 2167763 Points: 1.00 Both Units are at 100% power when Unit 1 experiences a loss of TB Res Bus 1B-1.

Two minutes later, the Unit 1 drywell pressure is at 2.5 psig.

How is starting of the Unit 1 EDG affected?

A. Logic power for the diesel will automatically swap to TB Res Bus 2B-1 and the 1 EDG will auto-start.

B. Logic power for the diesel will be lost and Unit 1 EDG must be manually started from the control room.

C. Control power for the Unit 1 EDG output breaker will be lost and the Unit 1 EDG will be running unloaded.

D. Unit 1 EDG cannot be started automatically or manually from the control room. A local start must be performed.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 5 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: TB Res Bus 1B-1 feeds the starting circuit and field flash for the Unit 1 EDG. Unit 1 EDG can still be started with the U1 DIESEL GEN CONTROL SWITCH.

Distractor 1: Plausible because control power for 14-1 swaps from 1B-1 to 6A-1. Incorrect because Unit 1 EDG has no ABT.

Distractor 2: Plausible because control power for the Unit 1 EDG auto start and load will be lost. Incorrect because the auto start capability for the Unit 1 EDG is the ONLY loss.

Distractor 3: Plausible because loss of control power removes remote capability for components. Incorrect because 1B-1 only removes the auto start function, the Unit 1 EDG can still be started with the U1 DIESEL GEN CONTROL SWITCH.

Reference:

QOA 6900-09 rev 21, QCOA 6600-16 rev 4 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295004.G2.4.49- Ability to perform without reference to procedures those actions that require immediate operation of system components and controls.

Importance: 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 6 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 4 ID: 2164407 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 26% reactor power during a plant startup.

• DFWLC is in 3-element control

• Feedwater flow is 2.8 Mlbm/Hr Which of the following is expected to occur NEXT if the Main Turbine trips AND the Turbine Bypass Valves fail CLOSED?

A. A scram will occur due to FASTC header pressure lowering to < 460 psig.

B. DFWLC will shift to single-element control due to the reduction in feed flow.

C. PCIS will initiate a Group I isolation due to lowering main steam line pressure.

D. Indicated RPV water level will lower due to the collapse of voids in the core.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 7 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: The increase in pressure will cause voids to collapse and a reduction of indicated level. This will result in a rapid power increase and a full RPS trip from APRM high flux or RPV high pressure which will cause level to lower even more due to the collapse in voids following the scram Distractor 1: Plausible because scram signal from FASTC. Incorrect due to the low FASTC header pressure scram is bypassed when < 38.5% power.

Distractor 2: Plausible because DWFLC does shift to single-element automatically when Feed Flow lowers to <1.8 Mlbm/Hr. Incorrect because this would happen after indicated RPV level has shrunk due to the collapse of voids.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Group 1 isolation signal is on lowering pressure < 785 psig. Incorrect because with the Bypass valves failing to open, steam line pressure will rise.

Reference:

UFSAR QDC 15.02 Rev 15, QCOA 5650-01 rev 21 Reference provided during examination: None.

Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295005.AK1.03- Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR TRIP: Pressure effects on reactor level.

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.8 / 41.10 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2011 Quad ILT Cert Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 8 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 5 ID: 2164408 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was scrammed per QCGP 2-3, REACTOR SCRAM, from 100% power 3 minutes ago.

The NSO has not attempted to reset the scram.

Which of the following describes the status of the CRD Flow Control Valve, AO 1-302-6A FLOW CONT VLV, and the major flowpath of CRD water under these conditions?

A. Fully open with system flow directed to the accumulators.

B. Fully closed with system flow directed to the accumulators.

C. Fully open with system flow directed to cooling water header.

D. Fully closed with system flow directed to cooling water header.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 9 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: This is the expected response of the CRD system following a scram.

Since the flow element is on the discharge of the pump and the FCV is on the "inlet" to the drive and cooling water headers, when the accumulators are discharged from the scram, all flow will be diverted to the accumulators. The flow element will sense high flow and subsequently shut the FCV (attempting to maintain it's setpoint), lowering cooling water and drive water flow to minimum.

Distractor 1: Plausible because CRD hydraulic supplies both the accumulators and cooling water header. Incorrect because FCV will close to ensure flow to refill accumulators.

Distractor 2: Plausible because CRD hydraulic supplies both the accumulators and cooling water header. Incorrect because open FCV would divert some flow to cooling water header.

Distractor 3: Plausible because CRD hydraulic supplies both the accumulators and cooling water header. Incorrect because closed FCV forces flow to accumulators.

Reference:

QCOP 0300-01 rev 35, UFSAR 4.6.3 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295006.AK2.03- Knowledge of the interrelations between SCRAM and the following: CRD hydraulic system.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 10 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 6 ID: 2164409 Points: 1.00 Why is the turbine tripped during the execution of QOA 0010-05, PLANT OPERATION WITH THE CONTROL ROOM INACCESSIBLE?

A. To ensure the reactor is scrammed.

B. To ensure the turbine AND generator get separated from the grid.

C. To ensure that reactor pressure is maintained at the relief valve setpoint.

D. To ensure the heaters trip, thus aiding in the attempt to cool down the reactor.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 11 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QOA 0010-05, the turbine and generator are locally tripped to protect the machines from an electrical transient and to ensure the plant is in a safe condition.

-The turbine cannot help with pressure control due to the MSIVs being shut and no steam going to the turbine. {a step in the procedure has students verify a group one occurs at ~785 psig}

-The turbine cannot be physically overspeed without steam to turn the rotors.

-The heaters trip due to the MSIVs being closed, not due to the turbine trip.

Distractor 1: Plausible because tripping the turbine will scram the reactor. Incorrect because QOA 0010-05 directs scramming the reactor from Auxiliary Electrical Room.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a turbine trip at power would cause a pressure increase.

Incorrect because procedure prefers using Group 1 isolation to lower pressure and maximize time until at the relief setpoint.

Distractor 3: Plausible because tripping the turbine will isolate extraction steam to feedwater heaters. Incorrect because cooldown is accomplished by cycling relief valves.

Reference:

QOA 0010-05 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 205016.AK3.02- Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to CONTROL ROOM ABANDONMENT: Turbine trip.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 /45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2020 QDC ILT NRC Exam Q.6 Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 12 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 7 ID: 2164411 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a total loss of TBCCW has occurred.

QCOA 3800-03, TOTAL FAILURE OF THE TBCCW SYSTEM, has been entered and completed.

• Reactor pressure is 650 psig and LOWERING.

• Reactor water level is -70" and LOWERING.

Which of the following contain ONLY systems that are IMMEDIATELY AVAILABLE for:

(1) RPV water level control?

(2) RPV pressure control?

A. (1) CRD (2) Turbine bypass valves B. (1) Core Spray (2) RCIC C. (1) HPCI (2) RWCU D. (1) SSMP (2) HPCI Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 13 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation CRD System listed in QCOA 3800-03 require cooling from the TBCCW system. SSMP cooling is via service water fed room coolers, HPCI is not cooled by TBCCW.

Distractor 1: Probable because both are a source of level and pressure control. Incorrect because CRD is cooled by TBCCW and secured.

Distractor 2: Probable because both are a source of level and pressure control. Incorrect because pressure is too high for core spray.

Distractor 3: Probable because both are a source of level and pressure control. Incorrect because RWCU is isolated less than 0" RWL.

Reference:

QCOA 3800-03 rev 15 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295018.AA1.02- Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING WATER: System loads.

Importance: 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/ 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 14 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 8 ID: 2164412 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the Instrument Air (IA) lineup started per QCOP 4700-01 INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM STARTUP:

• 1A compressor running

• 1/2B compressor shutdown

• 1/2 compressor OOS for maintenance

• U2 compressor running Per QCOP 4700-01, which of the following describes the expected automatic IA system response if the 1A compressor unloader valve fails in the unloaded position?

A. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure rises until a relief valve lifts.

B. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure rises until the 1A compressor trips.

C. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure lowers until the 1/2B compressor starts to maintain pressure.

D. Unit 1 Instrument Air pressure lowers until the Service Air Backup Valve opens to supply Unit 1.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 15 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Lowering IA pressure will result in automatic opening of the SA to IA backup valve AO 1-4799-221(little joe). The unloading valve failing open will not cause pressure to rise.

Distractor 1: Plausible because a failed unloading valve will affect pressure of the Instrument Air system. Incorrect because the unloader valve failing will cause pressure to lower.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a failed unloading valve will affect pressure of the Instrument Air system. Incorrect because the 1A Instrument Air compressor does not trip on high pressure.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a failed unloading valve will affect pressure of the Instrument Air system. Incorrect because there is no auto start feature for the 1/2B compressor.

Reference:

QOA 4700-03 rev 12, QCOP 4700-01 rev 23 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295019.AA2.01- Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR: Instrument air system pressure.

Importance: 3.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 16 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 9 ID: 2164413 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was in Mode 3 with the RHR Loop 'A' of Shutdown Cooling (SDC) in service and both Reactor Recirc pumps running when a small LOCA occurred in the drywell.

• Drywell pressure is 2.6 psig and rising

• Reactor water level is -10 inches and lowering In accordance with QCOA 1000-04 LPCI AUTOMATIC INITIATION, what is the MINIMUM action that must be taken to allow the LPCI injection valve (MO 1-1001-29) for the loop selected to OPEN?

A. NO action is required. Verify LPCI injection valves automatically open.

B. Place the ISOL VLV RESET switch on the 901-5 panel to INBD and then to OUTBD.

C. MANUALLY open the MO 1-1001-29 valve for the loop selected for injection using the control switch at the 901-3 panel.

D. Depress RESET FOR GRP 2 ISOL VLV 1-1001-29 pushbutton on the 901-3 panel for the loop selected for injection.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 17 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Since a PCI Group 2 signal is in (< 0"), the RHR 29A/B valves close when RHR is in a Shutdown Cooling lineup, (i.e. MO 47 and MO 50 valves open). They will NOT auto-open on a LPCI injection signal until the Group 2 interlock is cleared from the 29 valves.

Distractor 1: Plausible since the RHR 29 valves will open for injection normally when < 325 psig. Incorrect because the PCI Group 2 signal will keep the 1-1001-29A valve closed.

Distractor 2: Plausible since the ISOL VLV RESET switch resets group 2 and 3 signals when the signal is no longer present. Incorrect because RWL is < 0".

Distractor 3: Plausible since Core Spray injection valves (another low pressure ECCS source) can be manually opened once < 325 psig. Incorrect because no procedural guidance to open 1-1001-29A valve in this scenario.

Reference:

QCOA 1000-02 Rev 21, QCOA 1000-04 Rev 20 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1/1 K/A: 295021.G2.4.9- Knowledge of low power/shutdown implications in the accident (e.g. loss of coolant accident or loss of residual heat removal) mitigation strategies.

Importance: 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: 2011 Quad ILT Cert Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 18 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 10 ID: 2164414 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is in Mode 5 for a refueling outage:

• Rad Protection has assured that the dose levels during bundle movements are acceptable for personnel entry into drywell.

• An irradiated fuel bundle being moved from the reactor cavity to the Spent Fuel Pool becomes ungrappled and falls into the reactor vessel downcomer area between the vessel wall and the shroud.

• Bundle integrity is maintained.

QCOA 0010-08 DRYWELL EVACUATION has been entered.

Which of the following describes the person at the greatest risk for radiation exposure?

A. The Refuel SRO on the Bridge.

B. A Mechanic working on SRVs.

C. An EMD Technician working on the SBLC Skid.

D. A Mechanic working on a Torus to Drywell Vacuum Breaker.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 19 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation The Mechanic working on the SRVs is the closest to the dropped fuel bundle due to LOCATION in the drywell. The least amount of shielding is present between the SRVs and the dropped bundle.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the refuel bridge is directly above the fuel when moving.

Incorrect because of the increased shielding from the fuel pool.

Distractor 2: Plausible because SBLC level is adjacent to the annulus. Incorrect because the increased shielding due to being in the reactor building.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Torus to Drywell Vacuum Breaker is in the drywell. Incorrect because of increased shielding from distance, concrete, and torus.

Reference:

M-8 Rev C, QCFHP 0100-01 Rev 37, QCOA 0010-08 rev 4 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295023.AK1.01- Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts are the apply to REFUELING ACCIDENTS: Radiation exposure hazards.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.8 / 41.10 SRO Justification: None Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 20 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 11 ID: 2164415 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• A LOCA has occurred.

• Indicated RPV level is -130" and stable.

• Torus pressure is 10 psig and rising slowly.

Per QCOA 1000-30, POST-ACCIDENT RHR OPERATION, which of the following actions is required in order to initiate Drywell and Torus Sprays?

Place the...

A. CONTAINMENT CLG PERMISSIVE SWITCH 17 to ON.

B. CONTAINMENT CLG PERMISSIVE SWITCH 17 to OFF.

C. CNMT CLG 2/3 LVL AND ECCS INIT BYP SWITCH 18 to MANUAL OVERRIDE.

D. CNMT CLG 2/3 LVL AND ECCS INIT BYP SWITCH 18 to OFF.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 21 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Switch 17 in the ON position bypasses the interlock that closes MO 1(2)-1001-23A/B, -26A/B, -

34A/B, -36A/B, and -37A/B on a LPCI initiation signal. Since RPV level is -130", this is the required position for the switch in order to spray the Drywell or to spray or cool the Torus.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the CONTAINMENT CLG PERMISSIVE SWITCH must be manipulated. Incorrect because it is normally in off.

Distractor 2: Plausible because containment logic must be bypassed with a switch to spray drywell. Incorrect because RWL is greater than -191"(2/3 core height).

Distractor 3: Plausible because containment logic must be bypassed with a switch to spray drywell. Incorrect because RWL is greater than 191"(2/3 core height), and OFF is the normal position.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-30 Rev 31 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295024.EK2.15- Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE and the following: Containment spray logic: Plant-Specific Importance: 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: None Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 22 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 12 ID: 2164417 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when the unit was scrammed for high drywell pressure.

The scram was unsuccessful and QGA 101 RPV CONTROL (ATWS) was entered.

An inadvertent Group 1 occurred, and reactor pressure reached 1200 psig, causing the recirculation pumps to trip.

How does the 1200 psig trip of the recirculation pumps support the actions of QGA 101?

A. To ensure a greater boron concentration remains in the core.

B. This minimizes chances of recirculation pump riser brace failure.

C. This results in a faster reduction of power and less chance of core damage.

D. This reduces core flow to zero since heat removal capabilities are no longer needed.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 23 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Tripping recirculation pumps would cause a rapid reduction of core flow and a corresponding increase in core moderator voids which would reduce core power.

Distractor 1: Plausible because boron would be in injected in this condition. Incorrect because boron will be coupled with tripping recirculation pumps to lower power.

Distractor 2: Plausible because riser brace failure about 78% is a precaution of recirculation pump operation. Incorrect because this is a precaution for single loop operation and both pumps will be tripped.

Distractor 3: Plausible because there is a loss of forced circulation. Incorrect because heat removal will still be needed.

Reference:

UFSAR section 15.8, QGA 101 SR-0303-K01 STATE the purpose(s) of the Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)

System including applicable design bases.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1/1 K/A: 295025.EK3.02 - Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE: Recirculation pump trip: Plant-Specific Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 24 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 13 ID: 2164420 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100% power when a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) occurred.

• Bus 13 and 14 are backfed from Bus 13-1 and 14-1 respectively.

• RPV pressure at 700 psig with a cooldown in progress.

• Torus temperature is 120°F and RISING slowly.

• "A" RHRSW Pump flow at 3600 gpm.

• "A" and "B" RHR Pumps in Torus Cooling Mode with the MO 1-1001-36A valve throttled open establishing a 12,000 gpm flowrate.

Which of the following methods will be used to MAXIMIZE Torus Cooling IAW QCOP 1000-09 TORUS COOLING START UP AND OPERATION?

A. Start Torus Cooling on the "B" RHR Loop.

B. Start the "B" RHRSW Pump and establish a flowrate of 7500 gpm.

C. Throttle open the MO 1-1001-36A, TORUS H2O TEST VLV.

D. Throttle open the MO 1-1001-5A, RHR HX SW DISCH VLV.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 25 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Starting B loop of Torus Cooling is procedurally allowed and at least 3600 gpm flowrate could be established.

Distractor 1: Plausible because starting another RHRSW pump will increase flowing through RHRSW side of the system. Incorrect because a second RHRSW pump is not allowed while the EDG is loaded to the Bus with 2 RHR pumps already running and procedural guidance in subsequent steps is to maintain flow < 7200 gpm for two pump operation.

Distractor 2: Plausible because opening 1-1001-36A valve will increase from through RHR side of system. Incorrect because with the given conditions, the MO-1-1001-36A valve is full open. The flow gauge is indicated 12,000 gpm which is full scale. No significant flow increase will be attained by attempting to open the valve further.

Distractor 3: Plausible because opening the 1-1001-5A valve will increase flow on the RHRSW side of the system. Incorrect because per QCOP 1000-04, Limitations and Actions E.2, A sustained flow rate of > 3600 gpm per RHR Service Water Pump is NOT recommended.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-09 rev 28, QCOA 6100-03 rev 42 QDC Objective: SR-1000-K21 (Freq: LIC=B) Given an RHR system operating mode and various plant conditions, PREDICT how key RHR/RHRSW system and/or plant parameters will respond to manipulation of the RHR/RHRSW system local/remote controls:

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295026.EA1.01 - Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to SUPPRESSION POOL HIGH WATER TEMPERATURE: Suppression pool cooling Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 26 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 14 ID: 2164479 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a transient occurred resulting in a rapid depressurization.

RPV Pressure 25 psig Drywell Temperature 300°F Drywell Pressure 20 psig Torus Temperature 120°F Per QGA 100, Indicated level may be ____(1)____ than actual level due to a ___(2)___ D/P across the reference and variable leg.

A. (1)higher (2)higher B. (1)higher (2)lower C. (1)lower (2)lower D. (1)lower (2)higher QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 27 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer: B Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Reference leg flashing reduces the amount of water in that leg which results in a lower pressure on that side of the transmitter, therefore indicated level is higher than actual. The resulting D/P across the transmitter is now also lower than it initially was before the loss of water in the reference leg because the comparative heights between the reference and variable legs are closer.

Distractor 1: Plausible because changes in drywell and RPV conditions WILL have an effect on RWL indication. Incorrect because a higher d/p across a transmitter will cause indicated RWL to go down.

Distractor 2: Plausible because changes in drywell and RPV conditions WILL have an effect on RWL indication. Incorrect because a lower d/p across a transmitter causes indicated RWL to go up.

Distractor 3: Plausible because changes in drywell and RPV conditions WILL have an effect on RWL indication. Incorrect because a higher d/p across a transmitter will cause indicated RWL to go lower but, reference leg flashing would cause a lower d/p across the transmitter.

Reference:

QGA/SAMG Technical Basis Vol. 1 6.5.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295028.EA2.03 - Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE: Reactor water level Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 28 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 15 ID: 2164480 Points: 1.00

• Reactor was scrammed with one rod stuck at position 48.

• Reactor Building d/p is +0.5".

• RPV level is +30 inches.

• Reactor Power is less than IRM Range 7.

• Drywell pressure is 1.5 psig.

• Primary containment oxygen is 3%.

• Torus level is -2.2".

• Drywell temperature is 140°F.

(1) What QGA is entered?

(2) What is the first operator action to be taken?

A. (1) 100 (2) Take the RX MODE SELECT switch to SHUTDOWN per QCGP 2-3 REACTOR SCRAM.

B. (1) 101 (2) Initiate ARI, inhibit ADS, and run back recirc pumps to minimum speed.

C. (1) 200 (2) Raise torus level per QCOP 1600-12 TORUS NORMAL LEVEL CONTROL, FILL AND DRAIN PROCEDURE DIRECTORY.

D. (1) 300 (2) Operate area coolers and Reactor Building vents.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 29 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Torus level less than 2.0 inches is a QGA 200 entry condition. Raising Torus level per QCOP 1600-12 is the first actionable step taken in QGA 200.

Distractor 2: Plausible because all indications given are possible QGA entry conditions and actions. Incorrect because QGA 100 is not entered.

Distractor 1: Plausible because all indications given are possible QGA entry conditions and actions. Incorrect because with one rod out, the reactor can be verified to be shutdown, therefore QGA 101 would not be entered.

Distractor 3: Plausible because all indications given are possible QGA entry conditions and actions. Incorrect because operating room coolers and vents is not an immediate operator action.

Reference:

QGA 100 rev 13 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295030.G2.4.1 - Low Suppression Pool Water Level: Knowledge of EOP entry conditions and immediate action steps.

Importance: 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 30 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 16 ID: 2164481 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

• RPV level is -151" and steady.

• 2A Core Spray pump is the only source of injection at 4500 gpm.

(1) What is the mechanism to ensure adequate core cooling?

(2) What are the MINIMUM requirements to maintain this method of core cooling?

A. (1) Spray Cooling (2) Core Spray at 3700 gpm and Reactor Water Level -191" B. (1) Spray Cooling (2) Core Spray at 3500 gpm and Reactor Water Level -214" C. (1) Submergence (2) Core Spray at 3700 gpm and Reactor Water Level -191" D. (1) Submergence (2) Core Spray at 3500 gpm and Reactor Water Level -214" Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 31 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Adequate spray cooling, assuming a bounding axial power shape, is provided when design spray flow requirements are satisfied (at least one Core Spray loop injecting at or above 3700 gpm) and RPV water level is at or above the jet pump suctions

(-191 in.). The covered portion of the core is then cooled by submergence while the uncovered portion is cooled by the spray flow.

Objective: SR-0001-K09 (Freq: LIC=B)

DESCRIBE the purpose of the following QGA curves/tables or key parameters:

a. QGA Detail A, RPV Water Level Instruments

1. Figure RPV Saturation Curve

2. Table C, RPV Level Instrument Criteria

b. Detail: L-1 Preferred Injection Subsystems

c. Detail: L-2 Alternate Injection Subsystems

d. Detail: L-3 Injection Subsystems

e. Detail: P-1 Alternate RPV Pressure Control Systems

m. Figure: Minimum Pre-Depressurization RPV Water Level (MPDL)

n. QGA Table T, Reactor Building Area Temperatures

o. QGA Table R, Reactor Building Area Radiation Levels

p. QGA Table W, Reactor Building Area Water Levels

q. QCAP 0200-10 Attachments S,T,U,V and W, RHR and CS NPSH Curves Distractor 1: Plausible as it is a method of adequate core cooling. Incorrect because flow is not high enough for steam cooling and -214" is minimum for steam cooling without injection.

Distractor 2: Plausible as it is a method of adequate core cooling. Incorrect because submergence is above -142" Distractor 3: Plausible as it is a method of adequate core cooling. Incorrect because submergence is above -142"

Reference:

EOP/SAMG Technical Basis, Vol. 1 page 3-1, Definition of Adequate Core Cooling.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 1/1 K/A: 295031.EK1.01 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to REACTOR LOW WATER LEVEL: Adequate core cooling.

Importance: 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.8 / 41.10 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 32 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 17 ID: 2202299 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 90% power when a manual scram was inserted due to a loss of both Recirc Pumps.

• RPV pressure is 940 psig

• RPV water level is -30 inches and recovering

• Control Rods did NOT insert

• All 8 RPS scram solenoid group indicating lights are LIT

• CRD drive water pressure is 280 psig

• All Blue Scram Valve lights are NOT LIT What action will be performed FIRST to insert control rods in accordance with QCOP 0300-28, Alternate Control Rod Insertion?

A. Vent the scram air header.

B. Arm and depress the ARI pushbuttons.

C. Bypass the RWM and manually insert control rods using the Reactor Manual Control System.

D. De-energize the RPS scram solenoids by removing the associated fuses at the 902-15 and 902-17 panels.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 33 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: QCOP 0300-28, Alternate Control Rod Insertion, is an abnormal procedure used for inserting control rods when rods did not insert normally on a reactor scram condition (ATWS).

The conditions given in the stem indicate an Electric ATWS, with all RPS Group Solenoids lit.

The initial actions for a failure to scram are directed per QCGP 2-3 Attachment K. These are placing the Mode Switch to Shutdown which has already been done in the question stem and then to actuate both Divisions of ARI.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this method is directed in QCOP 0300-28 for an Electric ATWS.

Incorrect because actuating Division I and Division II of ARI will also depressurize the scram air header and can be done at the 902-5 panel.

Distractor 2: Plausible because this method is directed in QCOP 0300-28 and will be successful with an Electric ATWS. Incorrect because this method inserts one control rod at a time and is an action taken after actuating ARI per QCGP 2-3 Attachment K.

Distractor 3: Plausible because this method is directed in QCOP 0300-28 for an Electric ATWS.

Incorrect because it is not the first action taken on a failure to scram.

Reference:

QCGP 2-3 rev. 100, QCOP 0300-28 rev. 34 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295037.EK2.03 - Knowledge of the interrelations between SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN and the following:

ARI/RPT/ATWS: Plant-Specific.

Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content:

SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 34 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 18 ID: 2166098 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power when the following annunciators alarm:

• 902-5 C-9 CHANNEL A MAIN STEAM LINE HIGH FLOW

• 902-5 C-16 CHANNEL B MAIN STEAM LINE HIGH FLOW Which Primary Containment Group Isolation has actuated?

What is the reason for this specific isolation?

A. Group 1 Prevents the excessive loss of reactor coolant from the vessel.

B. Group 2 Prevents the excessive loss of reactor coolant from the vessel.

C. Group 1 Prevents the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the primary containment.

D. Group 2 Prevents the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the primary containment.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 35 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: QCAN 902-5 C-9/C-16 are indicative of a Group 1 isolation. Actions Per section 7.3.2 of the UFSAR the group 1 isolation prevents the excessive loss of reactor coolant and the release of significant amounts of radioactive material from the nuclear system process barrier (reactor vessel).

Distractor 1: Plausible because Group 2 isolation does prevent the release of significant amounts of radioactive material. Incorrect because it prevents release from the primary containment.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Group 1 isolation does prevent the release of significant amounts of radioactive material. Incorrect because it prevents release from the reactor vessel.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Group 2 isolation does prevent the release of significant amounts of radioactive material. Incorrect because the alarms indicate a Group 1 isolation is present.

Reference:

UFSAR rev 15 7.3.2.2.4, QCAN 902-5 C-9/C-16 rev 12 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 295038.EK3.02- Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE: System isolations Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 36 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 19 ID: 2202215 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 and Unit 2 are operating at 100% power with the Control Room HVAC Train A in operation.

A FIRE occurs in the Service Building and smoke is detected in the RETURN air duct to the A Train AHU.

Per QCOP 5750-09, CONTROL ROOM VENTILATION SYSTEM, the NSO will...

A. start the A or B AFU Booster Fan.

B. shift to the 100% recirculation mode.

C. dispatch an EO to place/verify the system in Smoke Purge Mode.

D. trip the "A" Control Room HVAC train to auto start the "B" Control Room HVAC train.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 37 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Smoke Detected in Other Than the Outside Air Intake of the A AHU Places the "A" AHU into the 100% outside air mode (Smoke Purge) by closing damper 121 and opening dampers 120 and 122. When this occurs solenoid valve EP-3 is energized to admit steam to the reheat coil to maintain fan, 1/2-5795-10, suction temperature at 52 F. Should the temperature at the reheater face drop to 35 F, solenoid valve EP-4 is energized to fully open the steam supply valves.

Distractor 1: Plausible because smoke detection can cause the system to shift to 100%

recirculation mode. Incorrect because this only occurs if smoke is detected at the inlet.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the AFU draws outside air and supplies it to the control room envelope. Incorrect because it does not purge the smoke from the control room atmosphere.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the CR HVAC, "B" train is designed for habitability during accident conditions. Incorrect because it operates on 100% Recirc mode and would not purge smoke from the control room envelope.

Reference:

QCOP 5750-09 rev 65 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 600000.AA1.05 - Plant Fire On Site: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: Plant and control room ventilation systems.

Importance: 3.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 38 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 20 ID: 2164485 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power.

Bus 13-1 and 14-1 voltages are 90% of nominal.

How will Busses 13-1 and 14-1 and their associated Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) respond to this condition?

A. The EDG will remain in standby.

Busses 13-1 and 14-1 will operate indefinitely in this condition as long as bus voltages remain above 75% nominal.

B. After 5 minutes Bus 13-1 and 14-1 main feed breakers will trip, the EDGs will auto-start and re-energize their respective bus.

C. The EDGs will immediately auto-start.

Bus 13-1 and 14-1 main feed breakers will trip immediately and the EDGs will re-energize their respective bus.

D. The EDGs will immediately auto-start.

After 5 minutes Bus 13-1 and 14-1 main feed breakers will trip and the EDGs will re-energize their respective bus.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 39 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: 901-8 E-5, 4KV BUS 13-1/14-1 VOLTAGE DEGRADED Second level UV on ECCS BUS 13-1/14-1, Setpoint - Approximately 3913-3899V (93%), with 5 minutes time delay and 7 seconds inherent time delay, Device TDR-13-1.

7-second timer starts, after 7-second times out, a 5-minute timer starts. If 5-minute timer times out OR a LOCA signal is sensed by Core Spray logic (2.5# or -59"), the second level UV relay TRIPS the first level UV relay for the associated ECCS bus. Annunciator input comes from initiation of 5-minute timer.

Distractor 1: Plausible because EDG will stay in standby initially after the lowering voltage condition. Incorrect because after 5 mins the EDG will start and load to buses 13-1/14-1.

Distractor 2: Plausible because low voltage is an auto start of an EDG. Incorrect because second level undervoltage has a 5 min delay timer before starting and loading the EDG.

Distractor 3: Plausible because low voltage is an auto start of an EDG. Incorrect because second level undervoltage has a 5 min delay timer before starting and loading the EDG.

Reference:

QOA 6500-08/09 rev 16/19, QOA 900-8 E-5/G-12 rev 6/10 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/1 K/A: 700000.AA2.09 - Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to GENERATOR VOLTAGE AND ELECTRIC GRID DISTURBANCES: Operational status of emergency diesel generators.

Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.5 / 45.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 40 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 21 ID: 2166395 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

• Drywell pressure 11 psig

• Reactor water level -65"

• Reactor pressure 400 psig Which of the following describes the response of "A" Core Spray Pump Discharge Pressure from its stand-by value to this point in the accident?

"A" Core Spray Pump Discharge Pressure has risen to ...

A. pump shutoff head because NO flow paths are available for the Core Spray Pump.

B. just above reactor pressure because the Core Spray Pump is injecting into the Reactor.

C. just below pump shutoff head because Core Spray Pump flow is through the minimum flow valve.

D. just below pump shutoff head because Core Spray Pump flow is through the Core Spray discharge header relief valve.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 41 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: The A Core Spray pump runs on minimum flow until RPV pressure drops below 325 psig when the inject valve opens.

Distractor 1: Plausible because if injecting, discharge pressure would be at reactor pressure.

Incorrect because injection valves are closed at high reactor pressure above 325 psig.

Distractor 2: Plausible because if no flow path opened, the discharge relief valve would lift, causing flow to RBEDT. Incorrect because min flow valve would open to direct water to the torus.

Distractor 3: Plausible because core spray pumps would sit at shutoff head with no flow path.

Incorrect because the min flow valve would open and cause discharge pressure to drop below shutoff head.

Reference:

QCOA 1400-01 rev.12 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/2 K/A: 295007.AK2.04 - Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE and the following: LPCS.

Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 42 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 22 ID: 2164487 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 has entered QCGP 2-3 REACTOR SCRAM, on low reactor water level.

While performing this procedure, the NSO must verify automatic action of the recirculating pumps due to the scram.

(1) What speed/flow does the recirc pump runback to?

(2) What is the reason for this runback?

A. (1) 32% speed (2) To protect the recirculation pump from cavitation.

B. (1) 32% speed (2) To prevent excessive axial thrust across the pump.

C. (1) 70% core flow (2) To protect the recirculation pump from cavitation.

D. (1) 70% core flow (2) To prevent excessive axial thrust across the pump.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 43 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: On a scram, the FWLCS lowers feedwater flow to less than 1.95 Mlb/hr which causes the recirculation pumps to runback to minimum speed (32%), in order to protect the recirculation pump from cavitation.

Distractor 1: Plausible because there is a run back to 32% speed. Incorrect because because axial thrust is a danger at the flow limiter interlock at 32% speed when the Recirc pump discharge valve is closed.

Distractor 2: Plausible because there is a run back to 32% speed. Incorrect because this runback is to 32% speed, not 70% core flow.

Distractor 3: Plausible because there is a run back to 70%. Protection against RFP runout is based on individual or combined pump flows. Incorrect because this is a flow limiter interlock at 32% speed when the Recirc pump discharge valve is closed. Also the runback is to 32% speed, not 70% core flow

Reference:

QCOP 0600-21 rev 22, QCGP 2-3 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295009.AK3.01- Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to LOW REACTOR WATER LEVEL: Recirculation pump run back: Plant-Specific.

Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 44 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 23 ID: 2164488 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

Over the last two days:

• Drywell Pressure is SLOWLY RISING

• Drywell Average Temperature is steady

• Drywell Floor Drain Sump calculated in leakage is steady

• Drywell Equipment Drain Sump calculated in leakage is steady What is the cause of these indications?

A. The degradation of a recirc pump inner seal.

B. An accumulator air leak on an outboard MSIV.

C. Nitrogen purge/makeup pressure controller, PIC 2-1640-11, drifting open.

D. A small packing leak on steam line drain valve MO 2-0220-1.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 45 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QCOA 0201-01, failure of PIC 2-1640 would cause drywell pressure to rise. The answer is also the only condition that could cause a DW pressure to increase but not the sumps.

Distractor 1: Plausible because recirculation pump seal failure would increase drywell temperature and pressure. Incorrect because both the inner and outer seal must fail for this to occur.

Distractor 2: Plausible because MSIV accumulator air leak could cause rising drywell pressure.

Incorrect because outboard MSIV is not in drywell.

Distractor 3: Plausible because steam line drain valve is in the drywell. Incorrect because a small packing leak is within the capacity of the drywell coolers to control and drywell sump in leakage is steady.

Reference:

QCOA 0201-01 rev 30 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/2 K/A: 295010.AA1.03- Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE: Nitrogen makeup: Plant-Specific.

Importance: 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 46 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 24 ID: 2166443 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100% when a manual scram was inserted. After the scram, full core display rod position indication for rod G-14 is blank and RWM indicates "??". The rest of the rods are fully inserted.

The reactor (1) stay shut down under all conditions and per QCGP 2-3 REACTOR SCRAM, control rod G-14 must be (2) .

A. (1) will (2) individually scrammed B. (1) will (2) manually inserted to 00 C. (1) will not (2) individually scrammed D. (1) will not (2) manually inserted to 00 Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 47 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Declaring the reactor shut down can also be done by verifying that the rod pattern is conservative with respect to the shutdown margin test as shown by all rods inserted to position 00 except one which can be at any position. GCGP F.2.c.2 requires manually CRD drive water pressure and attempting to manually insert the rod.

Individually scramming a rod is a subsequent step if manual insertion is unsuccessful.

Distractor 1: Plausible because individually scramming a control rod will drive it to 00. Incorrect because procedure dictates manually driving in control rods first.

Distractor 2: Plausible because individually scramming a control rod will drive it to 00 and control rods not scramming leaves positive reactivity in the core. Incorrect because only one rod is not below position 04.

Distractor 3: Plausible because control rods not scramming leaves positive reactivity in the core. Incorrect because only one rod is not below position 04.

Reference:

QCGP 2-3 rev 99, QCAP 0200-10 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/2 K/A: 295015.AA2.02- Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to INCOMPLETE SCRAM: Control rod position.

Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 48 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 25 ID: 2202298 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with the core fully loaded.

• ONE control rod is fully withdrawn

• All other control rods are fully inserted

• 1A CRD pump has tripped

• 1B CRD pump is OOS

• CRD Charging Water header pressure is 0 psig

• NO CRD Accumulator Low Pressure alarms are present What action is required per QCOA 0300-01, CONTROL ROD DRIVE PUMP FAILURE?

A. Place both CRD Pump Suction Filters in operation.

B. Immediately secure all Reactor Recirc Pumps.

C. Immediately initiate action to fully insert the withdrawn control rod.

D. Immediately suspend CORE ALTERATIONS except for control rod insertion and fuel assembly removal.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 49 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: In Modes 3, 4, or 5 QCOA 0300-01 requires any withdrawn control rod to be inserted anytime there is no CRD pump running.

The absence of any CRD Accumulator alarms indicates that accumulator pressure is greater than 940 psig.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this is an action in QCOA 0300-01. Incorrect because there is no indication of CRD pump suction low pressure given in the stem.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Reactor Recirc Pump seal injection is lost, and continued operation of the pumps may cause seal damage. Incorrect because time permits taking efforts to restore seal injection, i.e. CRD cross tie.

Distractor 3: Plausible because core alterations should stop immediately. Incorrect because the action does not include fuel assembly removal, thereby permitting two reactivity additions.

Reference:

QCOA 0300-01 rev 18 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295022.G2.1.20- Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

Importance: RO 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 50 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 26 ID: 2164611 Points: 1.00 The max safe values for temperature, radiation, and water level in the reactor building provided in QGA-300, SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL, are based on the highest values:

A. expected to be seen during an accident.

B. at which equipment can be considered operable by the Technical Specifications.

C. at which equipment needed for safe shut down of the plant be considered operable by the UFSAR.

D. at which protection for personnel and equipment needed for safe shutdown of the plant can be assured.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 51 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: If temperatures of Secondary Containment Control approach their maximum safe operating value, adequate core cooling, containment integrity, safety of personnel, or continued operability of equipment required for safe shutdown can no longer be assured.

Distractor 1: Plausible because max safe values can only be exceeded in an accident.

Incorrect because not addressing safe shutdown of plant.

Distractor 2: Plausible because operating temperatures are part of technical specification operating basis. Incorrect because during an accident, the safe shutdown of the reactor is the greater priority than operational technical specifications.

Distractor 3: Plausible because UFSAR does analyze equipment during various states of operation and casualty. Incorrect because max safe values exceed exclusion area parameters per the EPG.

Reference:

Quad Cities Nuclear Power Station QGA/SAMG Technical Bases rev 0 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 1/2 K/A: 295032.EK1.01- Knowledge of the operational limitations of the following concepts as they apply to HIGH SECONDARY CONTAINMENT AREA TEMPERATURE: Personnel protection Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.8 / 41.10 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 52 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 27 ID: 2164612 Points: 1.00 When Reactor Building vent exhaust radiation is above 3 mr/hr, QGA 300, SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL, requires the verification of Reactor Building Ventilation isolation and the initiation of the Standby Gas Treatment System.

What is the reason for this action?

A. Ensures an elevated processed release.

B. Provides a ground level processed release.

C. Maintains a positive pressure in the reactor building.

D. Directs the radioactive discharge to the Primary and Secondary Containment.

Answer: A Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Along with maintaining a negative d/p with atmosphere, SBGT discharges to the main chimney, thus providing for elevated release of radioactive materials discharged through SBGT.

Distractor 1: Plausible because SBGT provides a controlled release of radiation from the reactor building. Incorrect because the release is elevated.

Distractor 2: Plausible because SBGT is used to maintain pressure in secondary containment.

Incorrect because negative pressure is maintained.

Distractor 3: Plausible because SBGT provides a controlled release of radiation from the reactor building. Incorrect because the release is directed to the chimney.

Reference:

Quad Cities Nuclear Power Station QGA/SAMG Technical Bases rev 0 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295034.EK2.04- Knowledge of the interrelations between SECONDARY CONTAINMENT VENTILATION HIGH RADIATION and the following: Secondary containment ventilation Importance: 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 53 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 28 ID: 2202134 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

• Drywell pressure is 5 psig.

• Torus pressure is 3 psig.

• Reactor pressure is 800 psig.

• MO 1-202-5B, PMP DISCH VLV is closed.

• MO 1-202-5A, PMP DISCH VLV is open.

• MO 1-1001-28A, OUTBD LPCI INJ VLV is open.

• MO 1-1001-28B, OUTBD LPCI INJ VLV is open.

Per QCOA 1000-04, LPCI AUTOMATIC INITIATION, which RHR Loop is selected for injection and what action is required?

A. (1) RHR Loop A (2) Close MO 1-202-5A, PMP DISCH VLV B. (1) RHR Loop A (2) Close MO 1-001-28B, OUTBD LPCI INJ VLV C. (1) RHR Loop B (2) Close MO 1-202-5A, PMP DISCH VLV D. (1) RHR Loop B (2) Close MO 1-1001-28A, OUTBD LPCI INJ VLV Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 54 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QCOA 1000-04, LPCI Automatic Initiation, the Recirc Pump Discharge valve closes on the intact loop, ie. the Recirc loop selected for injection. Both Recirc pumps are tripped, however, the Recirc Pump Discharge valve on the damaged loop is not given a close signal.

The RHR injection valves MO 1-1001-28A/B get open signals. In this case the B RHR loop is selected for injection and MO 1-1001-28B receives an open signal. The opposite RHR loop injection valve receives a close signal, (MO 1-1001-28A).

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Recirc pump discharge valve on the selected loop receives a closed signal. Incorrect because the B Recirc loop is selected for injection.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the LPCI outboard injection valve should receive a closed signal if the A RHR loop was selected for injection. Incorrect because the B RHR loop is selected for injection.

Distractor 3: Plausible because B Recirc Loop is the selected loop for injection. Incorrect because the opposite loop Recirc pump discharge valve is not closed.

Reference:

QCOA 1000-04 rev 20 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 203000.A4.05- Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Manual initiation controls.

Importance: RO 4.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 55 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 29 ID: 2164631 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is shutdown and decay heat is being removed via the 2A RHR Loop in Shutdown Cooling (SDC).

The 2B loop of RHR is tagged out and drained.

The 2A RHR pump trips, and the 2B RHR pump will NOT start.

The problem with the 2A RHR pump has been corrected and the 2A RHR pump is now available for service.

The following conditions are reported:

• MO 2-1001-47, SDC HDR DOWNSTREAM SV, is CLOSED

• MO 2-1001-50, SDC HDR UPSTREAM SV, is CLOSED

• Annunciator 902-3 E-15, SHUTDOWN COOLING LOW PRESS PERM, is CLEAR

• Reactor water level is +31 inches and rising slowly Which of the following lists the MINIMUM actions, if any, that must be taken PRIOR to re-opening the SDC Isolation valves and starting the 2A RHR pump?

A. NO action is required.

B. RESET the SDC Isolation logic ONLY.

C. REDUCE reactor pressure to < 100 psig ONLY.

D. REDUCE reactor pressure to < 100 psig AND reset using the ISOL VLV RESET switch.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 56 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: With no RHR pumps running, decay heat will cause reactor pressure to rise. When pressure exceeds 100 psig, the Shutdown Cooling Low Pressure Permissive alarm clears, indicating that an RHR pump CANNOT be started while aligned for Shutdown Cooling.

Reactor pressure must be reduced to less than 100 psig and the isolation logic manually reset before a RHR pump is permitted to start.

Annunciator 902-3 E-15 actual setpoint is 118 psig. Reducing reactor pressure to less than 100 psig will cause the annunciator to alarm. Per QCOA 1000-02, step D.9.c.(3)(c): "WHEN Reactor pressure is <100 psig AND alarm 901(2)-3 E-15, SHUTDOWN COOLING LOW PRESS, is received, THEN: Reset isolation by taking ISOL VLV RESET switch at Panel 901(2)-

5 to both INBD and OTBD; Depress both RESET FOR GRP ISOL VLV 1(2)-1001-29A/B pushbuttons; Restart Shutdown Cooling per QCOP 1000-05."

Distractor 1 is incorrect: Plausible because no group 2 is present and pump trip has been corrected. Incorrect because 902-3 E-15 needs to be in to open the 47 and 50 valves to start the 2A RHR pump.

Distractor 2 is incorrect: Plausible because the isolation logic need only be reset if there were a Group 2 Isolation signal. Incorrect because there is no indication of a Group 2 Isolation from the stem.

Distractor 3 is incorrect: Plausible because the SDC Isolation logic must be reset. Incorrect because low press perm alarm being clear does not mean that a RHR pump start is permitted.

Reference:

QCOA 1000-02 Rev 20, QCOP 1000-05 Rev 54, QCAN 901(2)-3 E-15 Rev 8.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 205000.A2.06- Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the SHUTDOWN COOLING SYSTEM(RHR SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE); and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: SDC/RHR pump trips.

IMPORTANCE: 3.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: Quad Cities 2012 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 57 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 30 ID: 2166699 Points: 1.00

• Unit 2 is in MODE 4.

• Reactor coolant temperature is 112°F and slowly lowering.

• Shutdown Cooling is in operation on B loop.

1A RHR pump and 1C RHR Service Water pump have been taken out of service for repairs.

QCOS 1000-24 SHUTDOWN COOLING OUTAGE REPORT is entered to determine if two subsystems of Shutdown Cooling are operable.

(1) Division 1 of Shutdown Cooling is:

(2) Division 2 of Shutdown Cooling is:

A. (1) Operable (2) Operable B. (1) Operable (2) Inoperable C. (1) Inoperable (2) Operable D. (1) Inoperable (2) Inoperable Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 58 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QCOS 1000-24 is required to be entered with a component of SDC being INOP. Per step B.1, two loops are required to be operable, THEN both RHR pumps in one loop (and two RHR service water pumps) or one RHR pump (and one RHR service water pump) in each of the two loops must be operable.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this is a cold shutdown outage required surveillance. Incorrect because not required by shutdown cooling operation procedure and does not have a parameter threshold prompt.

Distractor 2: Plausible because procedure would be performed to verify conductivity during reactor coolant temperature change. Incorrect because this is performed once per shift vice after a threshold has been reached.

Distractor 3: Plausible because outage procedure for RHR system which has Group 2 effected valves. Incorrect because performing surveillance would remove shutdown cooling from service.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-05 rev 62, QCOS 1000-24 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Low Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 205000.G2.2.12- Shutdown Cooling: Knowledge of surveillance procedures.

Quad Cities Objective: SR-1000-K29 (Freq: LIC=I) Given RHR/RHRSW system key parameter indications and various plant conditions, DETERMINE, from memory, if the RHR/RHRSW system Tech Spec LCOs have been met.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 45.13 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 59 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 31 ID: 2164633 Points: 1.00 What is the fail position of the following HPCI system valves upon a loss of Instrument Air?

(1) Drain valves to the Main Condenser AO-2301-29 and -30 (2) Drain valves to the HPCI Sump AO-2301-64 and -65 A. (1) Open (2) Open B. (1) Open (2) Closed C. (1) Closed (2) Open D. (1) Closed (2) Closed Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 60 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QOA 4700-06, Instrument Air supplies all HPCI air-operated valves.

On a loss of instrument air, the motive force for the AO valves is lost. These valves fail in such a manner that they are lined up for HPCI injection. FC/FC.

Distractor 1: Plausible because not all HPCI valves fail close on loss of instrument air. Incorrect because HPCI drain valves to the condenser fail closed.

Distractor 2: Plausible because not all HPCI valves fail close on loss of instrument air. Incorrect because HPCI drain valves to the HPCI sump fail closed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because not all HPCI valves fail close on loss of instrument air. Incorrect because HPCI drain valves to the condenser and HPCI sump fail closed.

Reference:

QOA 4700-06 rev 29 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 206000.K1.13- Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between HIGH PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM and the following: Main condenser: BWR-2,3,4 Importance: 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.2 / 41.9 / 45.7,8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 61 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 32 ID: 2164636 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a loss of 125 VDC Bus 1B occurs.

A casualty occurs resulting in:

• Reactor water level is +19" and lowering.

• Reactor pressure is 850 psig and lowering.

• Drywell pressure is 4 psig and rising.

How will the Unit 1 Core Spray systems respond?

A. Both Core Spray loops will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow.

B. Neither loop of Core Spray will auto-initiate but both loops can be manually started.

C. "B" loop will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow, while "A" loop will NOT auto-initiate but can be manually started.

D. "A" loop will auto-initiate and run on minimum flow, while "B" loop will NOT auto-initiate but may be manually started.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 62 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: References 4E-1430 Sheets 1 and 2. "A" loop RHR is not affected (control power from bus 1A-1). "B" loop Pump Control power is from the respective 4KV Bus 125 VDC logic power via bus 1B-1 (bus 1B feeds 1B-1) and the valves from the 480 VAC Control Power transformers. Breakers on bus 14-1 will work because DC control power auto swaps to SBO 125 VDC.

Distractor 1: Plausible because 1A and 1B are both power supplies of Core Spray Initiation logic. Incorrect because the loss of 1B will remove automatic Core Spray Initiation to division 2.

Distractor 2: Plausible because 1A and 1B are both power supplies of Core Spray Initiation logic. Incorrect because the loss of 1B will remove automatic Core Spray Initiation to division 2.

Distractor 3: Plausible because 1A and 1B are both power supplies of Core Spray Initiation logic. Incorrect because the loss of 1B will remove automatic Core Spray Initiation to division 2.

Reference:

4E-1430 sh 1+2, QOA 6900-09 rev 21 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 209001.K2.03- Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Initiation logic Importance: 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 63 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 33 ID: 2164639 Points: 1.00 A pinhole leak has developed on the SBLC injection piping, inside of the two concentric pipes.

Actual Core Plate D/P will (1) .

Indicated Core Plate D/P will (2) .

A. (1) lower (2) rise B. (1) lower (2) lower C. (1) remain unchanged (2) lower D. (1) remain unchanged (2) remain unchanged Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 64 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Actual core plate d/p is driven by flow in the core and will not change from a small leak in the SBLC injection piping. Indicated core plate d/p will lower due to some amount of higher pressure being felt inside of the lower pressure piping.

Distractor 1: Plausible because core plate d/p would not change. Incorrect because indicated core plate d/p would change from a leak on a shared instrument line.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a large leak between both sides of the core plate would cause lower d/p. Incorrect because this leak in instrument piping will not change core flow and pressure.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a large leak between both sides of the core plate would cause lower d/p. Incorrect because this leak in instrument piping will not change core flow and pressure.

Reference:

M-35 sh 1.

Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 211000.K3.03- Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL SYSTEM will have on the following: Core plate differential pressure indication.

Importance: 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.4 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 65 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 34 ID: 2164642 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is 100% power.

A Control Room evacuation is required.

If the reactor cannot be scrammed from the 90(2)-5 panel, what method is directed by QOA 0010-05 PLANT OPERATION WITH THE CONTROL ROOM INACCESSIBLE to insert the scram?

A. Vent the Scram Air Header.

B. De-energize buses 18 and 19.

C. Pull the Scram Fuses from the 901-15 and 901-17 panels.

D. Open the circuit breakers in the RPS Distribution Panels which feed the 901-15 and 901-17 panels.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 66 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QOA 0010-05 opening the breakers which power the 901(2)-15/17 panels need to be opened in the Auxiliary Electrical Room.

Distractor 1: Plausible because venting the scram air header would scram the reactor.

Incorrect because it is not directed in the procedure.

Distractor 2: Plausible because removing power from 18/19 will scram the reactor. Incorrect because it is not directed in the procedure.

Distractor 3: Plausible pulling the scram fuses from the 15/17 panels will scram the reactor.

Incorrect because it is not directed in the procedure.

Reference:

QOA 0010-05 rev 26 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 212000.K4.07- Knowledge of the REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Manual system activation (trip)

Importance: 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 67 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 35 ID: 2164643 Points: 1.00

• Unit 1 Reactor startup is in progress.

• The reactor is critical, but below the point of adding heat.

• IRM 11 is reading 60 on range 4.

• When ranging IRM 11, the switch is taken to range 3.

What is the expected IRM indication and plant response?

A. HI-HI light is lit and a Rod Block ONLY.

B. HI-HI light is lit with a Rod Block and a 1/2 SCRAM on RPS.

C. DN SCL OR INOP light is lit and Rod Block ONLY.

D. IRM is on scale and no further plant response is expected.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 68 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: When ranging down, there is a larger gain applied to the IRM. Due to this, the instrument will peg high. This will cause a scram signal at 121/125 of full scale and rod block at 105/125 of full scale.

Distractor 1: Plausible because ranging IRM's will change the meter reading. Incorrect because the mode switch is not in RUN therefore, the 1/2 SCRAM is active.

Distractor 2: Plausible because ranging IRM's will change the meter reading. Incorrect because ranging down applies a larger gain therefore, high reading.

Distractor 3: Plausible because ranging IRM's will change the meter reading. Incorrect because ranging down applies a larger gain therefore, high reading.

Reference:

UFSAR 7.6.1.4, QCOP 0700-02 rev 21, QCAN 901-5 C-10 rev 6 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 215003.K5.01- Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to INTERMEDIATE RANGE MONITOR (IRM) SYSTEM: Detector operation Importance: 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.3 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 69 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 36 ID: 2164644 Points: 1.00 In which of the following sets of conditions will the IRM DOWNSCALE rod block be bypassed?

A. Range Switch on Range 1 OR Mode Switch in "RUN".

B. Range Switch on Range 1 AND Mode Switch in "SHUTDOWN".

C. Range Switch on Range 3 or below AND Mode Switch in "RUN".

D. Range Switch on Range 3 or below OR Mode Switch in "STARTUP".

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 70 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: All IRM rod blocks are bypassed with the mode switch in run IRM downscale rod block is bypassed when the IRM is on range 1 Distractor 1: Plausible because IRM in Range 1 would bypass the rod block. Incorrect because the rod block is active with the mode switch in shutdown.

Distractor 2: Plausible because IRM Range 3 does bypass a rod block. Incorrect because it is the SRM rod block which is bypassed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because IRM Range 3 does bypass a rod block. Incorrect because it is the SRM rod block which is bypassed. Also, incorrect because the rod block is active with the mode switch in shutdown.

Reference:

QCAN 901(2)-5 C-5 rev 5 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 215003.A3.04- Ability to monitor automatic operation of the INTERMEDIATE RANGE MONITOR (IRM) SYSTEM including: Control rod block status Importance: 3.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 71 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 37 ID: 2164645 Points: 1.00 A reactor startup is in progress on Unit 1 with the IRM's on range 6 and the SRM's still partially inserted.

A reactor scram occurs, and the operator acknowledges the following annunciators while executing QCGP 2-3;

• 901-5 A-4 SRM HI OR INOP

• 901-5 C-4 SRM DOWNSCALE

• 901-5 E-5 SRM SHORT PERIOD

• 901-5 B-12 SRM CHANNEL HIGH HIGH

• 901-5 F-4/G-4 NEUTRON MONITOR A(B) SPLY VOLTAGE HI / LO After several minutes the SRM's are fully inserted and reading downscale.

Which of the following is the reason for the plant response?

A. A total loss of 24 / 48 VDC power supply.

B. A loss of only one 24 / 48 VDC power supply.

C. A voltage spike in one 24/48 VDC power supply resulted in a >5.0 E05 cps.

D. SRM SHORT PERIOD of <20 sec.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 72 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Symptoms are all those found QOA 6900-03. Both buses would have to be lost to result in a reactor scram.

Distractor 1: Plausible because a voltage spike which caused that reading would a reactor scram. Incorrect because you would not get a spike in both divisions at the same time which would be required to get a reactor scram.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a loss of 24/48V would cause a SRM DOWNSCALE. Incorrect because this would not cause the scram.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a short period could be obtained during the power change which accompany given alarms. Incorrect because SHORT PERIOD would not cause the scram automatically.

Reference:

QOA 6900-03 rev 14 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 215004.K6.02- Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the SOURCE RANGE MONITOR (SRM) SYSTEM: 24/48 volt DC power Importance: 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 73 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 38 ID: 2164646 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 has been operating steady state at 2810 MWt.

APRM readings on the 902-37 panel as follows:

• APRM 1 = 93.0%

• APRM 2 = 95.0%

• APRM 3 = 92.0%

• APRM 4 = 97.0%

• APRM 5 = 96.0%

• APRM 6 = 98.0%

What are the MINIMUM actions required?

A. Bypass APRM's 3 and 6.

B. Recalibrate APRM's 1, 3 and 6 ONLY, as time allows.

C. Recalibrate APRMs 3 and 6 both within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> or enter LCO 3.3.1.1 Condition A.

D. Recalibrate APRM's 1, 3, and 6. APRM 3 must be recalibrated within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> to avoid declaring APRM 3 inoperable.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 74 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: The power level based on 2810/2957 is 95%. The allowable band would be +2% to -1%. APRMs 1, 3, and 6 are not within the band and calibration would be required per QCTS 910-07. In addition, since APRMs 3 is >2% lower than calculated reactor power, then tracking per TS 3.3.1.1. Note 2 is required.

Distractor 1: Plausible because action for failed or INOP APRM is to bypass. Incorrect because both channels are not INOP upon discovery.

Distractor 2: Plausible because APRM 3 and 6 are greater than 2% different than reactor power. Incorrect because APRM 1 is 2.5% below reactor power. APRM 3 is greater than 2%

lower than actual reactor power, therefore it needs to be adjusted within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

Distractor 3: Plausible because APRM 3 and 6 are greater than 2% different than reactor power. Incorrect because the APRM does not become INOP if indicated power is greater than reactor power.

Reference:

QCTS 910-07 rev 23, TS 3.3.1.1 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 215005.A1.07- Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the AVERAGE POWER RANGE MONITORING/LOCAL POWER RANGE MONITORING Importance: 3.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.5 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 75 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 39 ID: 2164647 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

RCIC automatically started and is maintaining reactor water level at -40 inches.

• Annunciator 901-4 F-15, RCIC TURBINE BEARING OIL PRESSURE LOW

• Annunciator 901-4 E-15, RCIC GOVERNOR END BEARING HIGH TEMP

• Annunciator 901-4 F-14, RCIC COUPLER END BEARING HIGH TEMP

• RCIC lube oil pressure is 3 psig and LOWERING despite efforts to restore pressure.

• Unit 1 RCIC oil levels are all normal.

• No other injection sources are available.

Regarding the operation of RCIC, A. Shut down RCIC System per QCOP 1300-05, RCIC SYSTEM SHUTDOWN.

B. IMMEDIATELY trip the RCIC Turbine and perform QCOP 1300-05, RCIC SYSTEM SHUTDOWN.

C. Continue RCIC operation and dispatch an EO to manually throttle the Trip Throttle Valve as directed per QCOA 1300-04 RCIC TURBINE BEARING OIL LOW PRESSURE OR OIL HIGH TEMPERATURE.

D. Continue RCIC operation and dispatch an EO to add oil to the RCIC Lube Oil Reservoir per QCOA 1300-04 RCIC TURBINE BEARING OIL LOW PRESSURE OR OIL HIGH TEMPERATURE.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 76 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: When oil pressure is lost, spring pressure on the governor will cause this valve to open. Continued operation of the RCIC turbine will have to be controlled by manually throttling the trip throttle valve.

Distractor 1: Plausible because RCIC would be shut down due to the low oil pressure condition. Incorrect due to RCIC being needed for core cooling.

Distractor 2: Plausible because tripping RCIC is required on a loss of oil pressure during testing. Incorrect because testing is not being conducted.

Distractor 3: Plausible because RCIC operation will continue due to it being needed for core cooling. Incorrect because oil is only added when oil level is low.

Reference:

QCAN 901-4 E-15/F-14/F-15. QCOA 1300-04 rev 10 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 217000.A2.08- Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM (RCIC); and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Loss of lube oil cooling.

Importance: 3.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 77 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 40 ID: 2164648 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100%.

A small line break LOCA with a loss of all RFPs occurred.

• HPCI is OOS.

• RCIC auto-starts and injects into the vessel.

• RCIC operates for several minutes and then trips.

• Several minutes later, RCIC restarts and injects into the vessel.

Assuming NO operator action, what was the cause of the RCIC Turbine trip?

A. Turbine Overspeed.

B. High Reactor Water Level.

C. Low Pump Suction Pressure.

D. High Turbine Exhaust Pressure.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 78 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: The K/A is the ability to monitor automatic RCIC turbine operation.

The question asks the examinee to determine which of the turbine trips will automatically reset and allow an automatic restart of the RCIC turbine. RCIC is designed to run on an initiation signal of -59"until tripping off on +48" and then auto restarting at -59" again. The rest of the trips require operator action.

Distractor 1: Plausible because turbine overspeed is a RCIC turbine trip. Incorrect because this turbine trip does not auto reset.

Distractor 2: Plausible because high turbine exhaust pressure is a RCIC turbine trip. Incorrect because this turbine trip does not auto reset.

Distractor 3: Plausible because low pump suction pressure is a RCIC turbine trip. Incorrect because this turbine trip does not auto reset.

Reference:

QCOA 1300-01 rev 18 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 217000.A3.02 Ability to monitor automatic operations of the REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM (RCIC) including: Turbine startup Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2016 ILT NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 79 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 41 ID: 2164681 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 100% power when a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) and a small LOCA has occurred.

• All control rods have fully inserted.

• Reactor pressure is being controlled automatically by relief valves.

• RCIC is injecting at 400 gpm but HPCI has tripped and is unavailable.

• RPV water level is -49" and lowering at 10" per minute.

• Drywell pressure is 2.0 psig and rising at 0.5 psig per minute.

• Both Emergency Diesel Generators have started but neither closed on to their respective bus.

Assuming no operator action, how will the Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) relief valves respond?

The ADS relief valves will A. NOT automatically open.

B. automatically open in 60 seconds.

C. automatically open in 170 seconds.

D. automatically open in 570 seconds.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 80 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: With a loss of off-site power and a failure of the EDGs to load on their busses, the ECCS pumps do not have a power supply, so they will not start. One of the requirements for ADS to auto blowdown is a Low pressure ECCS pump running.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the auto blowdown timer would start after -59" reactor water level and either 2.5 psig drywell pressure or 8.5 minutes elapsed. Incorrect because in 60 seconds both RPV level and Drywell pressure will be at their ADS initiation setpoints.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the auto blowdown timer would start after -59" reactor water level and either 2.5 psig drywell pressure or 8.5 minutes elapsed. Incorrect because in 60 seconds, ADS initiation conditions will be satisfied and the 110 second timer will start but, If the RHR pumps or CS pumps are not running, the ADS SRVs will not open.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the auto blowdown timer would start after -59" reactor water level and either 2.5 psig drywell pressure or 8.5 minutes elapsed. Incorrect because Incorrect because In 60 seconds, ADS initiation conditions will be satisfied and the 110 second timer will start but if the RHR pumps or CS pumps are not running, the ADS SRVs will not open.

Reference:

QCAN 901(2)-3 C-15 Rev 7 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 218000.A3.04- Ability to monitor automatic operations of the AUTOMATIC DEPRESSURIZATION SYSTEM including: Primary containment pressure.

Importance: 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: Bank Question History: 2009 QDCILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 81 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 42 ID: 2164682 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.

HPCI raised water level from -30 inches to +10 inches RWL had been at +10 inches for several minutes when the following annunciators alarmed:

• 902-3 H-2, AREA HI TEMP STEAM LEAK DETECTION

• 902-3 D-9, HPCI GRP 4 PCI VLVS AC DIV ISOL

• 902-3 D-10, HPCI GRP 4 PCI VLVS DC DIV ISOL

• 902-3 C-10, HPCI GRP 4 PCI VLVS NOT OPEN RPV water level is now -70" Which of the following describes the MINIMUM actions to re-establish HPCI injection?

A. Reset the AC and DC trip logic ONLY.

B. Reset AC and DC trip logic, then depress and hold the HPCI MANUAL INITIATION pushbutton.

C. Reset AC and DC trip logic, and manually open the MO 2-2301-4 and MO 2-2301-5 valves ONLY.

D. Reset AC and DC trip logic, manually open the MO 2-2301-4 and MO 2-2301-5 valves, and depress and hold the "HPCI TURB TRIP RESET" pushbutton.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 82 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: QCOA 2300-04 explains the process of resetting a HPCI isolation. No manual signal is required.

Rx Level is low enough that HPCI has an auto-start already.

The steam supply MOVs have to be manually opened and the AC/DC logic reset.

HPCI has isolated, no trip signal is keeping HPCI from running, just the lack of steam flow.

Distractor 1: Plausible because HPCI has an auto-start signal and will attempt to inject upon reset of trip. Incorrect because the AC/DC trip logic is an isolation, not a trip.

Distractor 2: Plausible because HPCI has an auto-start signal and will attempt to inject upon reset of trip. Incorrect because 2-2301-4/5 valves do not automatically open.

Distractor 3: Plausible because HPCI will restart if water level is below -59"and turbine trip is reset. Incorrect because HPCI is isolated.

Reference:

QCOA 2300-04 rev 25 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 223002.A4.03- Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Reset system isolations.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5-45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 83 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 43 ID: 2164683 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when relief valve 1-203-3C fails open.

After 2 minutes, which of the following indications would follow this casualty?

A. Megawatts Electric lowers, Torus Temperature rises, Reactor water level rises B. Megawatts Electric lowers, Torus Temperature rises, Reactor Pressure unchanged C. Reactor Power lowers, Reactor pressure unchanged, Reactor water level rises D. Reactor Power lowers, Torus Temperature rises, Reactor pressure unchanged Answer: B Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Indications of a failed open relief valve are turbine steam flow decrease, generator output decrease, torus water temperature increase. Reactor power, level, and pressure will initially change, but will return to same values.

Distractor 1: Plausible because MW electric lowers, torus temperature rises, and reactor water level initially rises. Incorrect because after 2 minutes, reactor water level will be restored to normal.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Reactor pressure would be unchanged, and reactor water level initially rises and reactor power lowers. Incorrect because after 2 minutes, reactor water level and reactor power will return to initial value.

Distractor 3: Plausible because torus temperature rises, reactor pressure would be unchanged and reactor water level initially lowers. Incorrect because after 2 minutes, reactor power will return to initial value.

Reference:

QCOA 0203-01 rev 13 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 239002.A1.07- Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the RELIEF/SAFETY VALVES controls including: Turbine load.

Importance: 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.5 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 84 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 44 ID: 2164685 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 has scrammed from 50% power due to a spurious Group I Isolation. The NSO places 2-0203-3B relief valve in MANUAL to control reactor pressure.

When 2-0203-3B control switch is taken back to AUTO, the following annunciators are in alarm:

• 902-3 D-13, RELIEF VALVE 3A/3B OPEN

• 902-3 E-14, ACOUSTIC MON SAFETY RLF VALVES OPEN

• 902-3 E-16, VALVE LEAK DET SYS HIGH TEMP What is the first required action?

A. Start Torus Cooling.

B. Pull the 4 fuses for the 2-203-3B valve.

C. Place 2-203-3B key switch in OFF ONLY.

D. Cycle 2-203-3B key switch between MANUAL and AUTO Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 85 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: QCAN 901(2)-3 D-13 requires switch to placed or verified in AUTO. If this fails to seat the valve, QCOA 0203-3B is entered. The IMMEDIATE OPERATOR ACTION is to place the key switch to off. The next step is to cycle the keyswitch between manual and off.

Distractor 1: Plausible because torus cooling will be required to be started. This is a subsequent action for a failed relief valve to seat.

Distractor 2: Plausible because this is the normal method of indication for closing the valve 2-203-3B. Incorrect because this is only indicating power is available to close the valve, not the position of the valve.

Distractor 3: Plausible because this step may be taken per QCOA 0203-01. Incorrect because it is a subsequent action.

Reference:

QCOA 0203-01 rev 13, QCAN 901(2)-3 D-13 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 239002.G2.4.50- Safety Relief Valves: Ability to verify system alarm setpoints and operate controls identified in the alarm response manual.

Importance: 4.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 86 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 45 ID: 2164698 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

2A RFP trips on overcurrent.

RPV water level is lowering at 7 inches per minute.

With NO operator action, which of the following describes the plant response after one minute?

A. FWLC has shifted to runout flow control.

B. Recirc Pumps have runback to 63% speed.

C. Recirc Pumps have runback to 32% speed.

D. The reactor has scrammed on RPV low water level.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 87 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: At 100% power, three RFP's are running. Upon a trip on OC, there is no standby pump to start. The conditions of an auto trip of a feed resulting in less than 3 RFP's running with greater than 85% steam flow will result in a recirc runback to 70% core flow or 63%

pump speed if reactor water level drops below 26 inches in 46 seconds.

Distractor 1: Plausible because feedwater flow with 2 RFP at rated power is insufficient to maintain level, therefore the 2 running feed pumps will be at maximum flow. Incorrect because max flow obtained is 10.5 Mlbm/hr which is less than setpoint of 11.2 Mlbm/hr.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a recirc runback to 32% is a protective feature of the DFWLC system. Incorrect because this occurs when feedwater flow is less than 1.95 Mlbm/hr.

Distractor 3: Plausible because if Recirc pump is required to be manually lowered in speed, reactor would scram due to low level with no action. Incorrect because recirc runback would protect the reactor from scram.

Reference:

QCOP 0600-21 rev 22 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 259002.K1.05- Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM and the following: Reactor feedwater system.

Importance: 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.2-41.9 / 45.7-45.8 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 88 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 46 ID: 2164695 Points: 1.00 A LOCA has occurred on Unit 2.

Torus venting is in progress using the B SBGTS.

• RPV water level -25 inches and slowly lowering

• RPV pressure 500 psig and slowly lowering

• Drywell temperature 268°F and slowly lowering

• Drywell pressure 20 psig and slowly lowering

• Torus pressure 18 psig and slowly lowering

• Torus level +5.0 inches and stable Bus 19 has tripped.

Which of the following actions is required?

A. Start drywell coolers.

B. Vent the Torus through the APCV system.

C. Start the "A" Standby Gas Treatment Train.

D. Vent the Torus using the Reactor Building Ventilation system.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 89 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QCOP 1600-13 IF Drywell OR Torus pressure is < 25 psig, THEN vent Primary Containment through SBGT using the 2-inch vent lines. Per flowchart of Attachment A, SBGT is required to be started first. Bus 19 is the power supply to 'B' SBGT.

Distractor 1: Plausible because drywell coolers will lower primary containment pressure.

Incorrect because drywell temperature went above 260F.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the torus to the APCV system is a viable vent path. Incorrect because primary containment pressure needs to be greater than 25 psig or have permission to exceed release rates.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Torus to RB Vent is a viable vent path. Incorrect because with a LOCA the RB Vents would not be used.

Reference:

QCOP 1600-13 rev 32 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 261000.K3.03- Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM will have on the following: Primary containment pressure: Mark I&II Importance: 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5 / 45.6 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 90 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 47 ID: 2167636 Points: 1.00 Which 345 KV breakers will open in response to a fault causing a trip of line 0404?

A. 1-11, 1-3, and 3-4.

B. 1-3 and 3-4 ONLY.

C. 1-11 and 1-3 ONLY.

D. 1-11, 10-11, and 1-3.

Answer: C Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: QOA 6400-01 provides a drawing of the ring bus showing L 0404 between breakers 1-11 and 1-3. QOA 6400-02 for line failure indicates breakers tied to the line will open on a fault (step E.2.a.).

Distractor 1: Plausible because 345 KV trip scheme will trip multiple breakers in series to protect from a fault condition. Incorrect because this would only occur if breaker is faulted and local breaker backup is activated.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a 345 KV line fault will cause the two closest breakers to isolate, protecting the rest of the 345 KV ring bus. Incorrect because these two breakers protect line 405.

Distractor 3: Plausible because 345 KV trip scheme will trip multiple breakers in series to protect from a fault condition. Incorrect because this would only occur if breaker is faulted and local breaker backup is activated.

Reference:

QOA 6400-01 rev 11, QOA 6400-02 rev 11 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: Group: 2/1 K/A: 262001.K2.01- Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Off-site sources of power.

Importance: 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 SRO Justification: N/A Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 91 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 92 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 48 ID: 2164700 Points: 1.00 Both Units are at 100% power.

Which of the following conditions will cause the 480 VAC MCC 18/19-5 feed breaker to auto-transfer?

A. Overvoltage on Bus 19.

B. Overvoltage on MCC 18/19-5.

C. Undervoltage on Bus18.

D. Undervoltage on MCC 18/19-5.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 93 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: In a normal electric plant lineup, Bus 19 feeds MCC 18/19-5.

Case 1 If Bus 19(29) is lost, MCC will auto-transfer to Bus 18(28) within a band of > 13 seconds to < 26 seconds, (per QCOS 6700-01). The low end requirement (i.e., 13 seconds) prevents a premature transfer by allowing sufficient time for the normal power supply (i.e., the unit diesel) to start and power the bus. The high end requirement (i.e., 26 seconds) is a LOCA analysis input assumption.

Case 2 After EDG on Bus 14-1 for 2 seconds, if the MCC being fed by Unit EDG and an under/overvoltage, under/overfrequency occur, the MCC will auto-transfer to Bus 18(28) immediately with no time-delay. This protects the MCC loads against an EDG voltage regulator failure.

Distractor 1: Plausible because an overvoltage condition will cause an autotransfer. Incorrect because this only occurs if the EDG is feeding MCC 18/19-5 and the overvoltage is sensed at MCC 18/19-5 Distractor 2: Plausible because the overvoltage on MCC 18/19-5 will result in a feed breaker swap. Incorrect because this only occurs if the EDG is feeding Bus 14-1.

Distractor 3: Plausible because an undervoltage condition will cause an autotransfer.

Incorrect because MCC 18/19-5 is normally fed from Bus 19. An undervoltage condition on Bus 18 while in the normal lineup has no effect on the MCC.

Reference:

4E-1373B, 4E-1681X, QCOS 6700-01, rev.18 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 262001 K4.03 AC Electrical Distribution: Knowledge of AC ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Interlocks between automatic bus transfer and breakers.

Importance: RO 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 94 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 49 ID: 2164701 Points: 1.00 Evaluate which of the following component failures would result in the ESS UPS inverter being supplied from the 250 VDC system?

A. ABT B. Rectifier C. Inverter D. Regulator Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 95 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QOA 6800-03, step B.1:

Automatic transfer of UPS from normal AC to U1(2) 250 V battery on loss of feed from Bus 18(28).

Distractor 1: Plausible because an ABT failure swaps the feed to the ESS Bus. Incorrect because the ESS Supply returns to the UPS. The preferred power supply from the UPS Static Switch is Bus 18.

Distractor 2: Plausible because an Inverter failure will switch the feed to the UPS Static Switch.

Incorrect because a failure of the Inverter will leave Bus 17 as the sole power supply to the Static Switch and the ESS Bus.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a Regulator failure while supplying the Static Switch would result in a power supply transfer. Incorrect because Bus 18 would supply the Static Switch and the ESS Bus.

Reference:

4E-1811B, QOA 6800-03 rev.50 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 262002 K4.01 Uninterruptable Power Supply (AC/DC): Knowledge of UNINTERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (AC/DC) design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Transfer from preferred power to alternate power Importance: RO 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 96 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 50 ID: 2164702 Points: 1.00 Both units are operating at 100% power with the Unit 1 Safety-Related 125 VDC battery undergoing an equalization charge per QCOP 6900-51, UNIT 1 BATTERY EQUALIZING CHARGES.

During the battery charge, the battery room ventilation system tripped due to an overcurrent condition.

What, if any, are the initial implications of the above failure?

A. Hazardous levels of Hydrogen may accumulate.

B. Rising room temperature will cause battery voltage to lower.

C. No significant effects on battery performance or room habitability.

D. Increased evaporation due to higher room temperature will affect cell specific gravity.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 97 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QCOS 6900-01, Station Battery Weekly Surveillance, step E.1:

Battery Room ventilation should be in operation to remove liberated hydrogen gas from the room to prevent an explosion.

Distractor 1: Plausible because higher ambient temperature lowers battery life. Incorrect because a loss of Battery Room ventilation does not cause a significant temperature deviation.

Distractor 2: Plausible because battery performance is not significantly altered. Incorrect because habitability in terms of the safety concern with increased Hydrogen levels is affected.

Distractor 3: Plausible because increased evaporation of the electrolyte will affect specific gravity. Incorrect because a loss of Battery Room ventilation does not causes a significant temperature deviation.

Reference:

QCOS 6900-01 rev.34 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 263000 K5.01 DC Electrical Distribution: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to D.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION: Hydrogen generation during battery charging Importance: RO 2.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.3 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 98 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 51 ID: 2164796 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power. An Equipment Operator on rounds calls the control room and reports that the Unit 1 EDG AC Lube Oil Pump is NOT running.

What impact, if any, does this have on operation of the Unit 1 EDG?

A. Damage to the Turbocharger may occur on a fast start.

B. EDG speed control will be unstable due to insufficient oil pressure.

C. None, the Lube Oil Pump does not operate when the EDG is shutdown.

D. Damage to the engines major load bearing components may occur on a fast start.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 99 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per QCOA 6600-15 step E.2.a:

The circulating oil system provides for continuous pre-lubrication of the engines major load bearing components and, in conjunction with the immersion heater (jacket water system), pre-heating for the engine. The system ensures proper lubrication is available upon a fast start and also maintains the lube oil cooler, lube oil filter and associated piping full of oil, which ensures adequate lubrication on engine start.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Turbocharger requires pre-lubrication and warming to prevent damage on engine startups. Incorrect because the Turbo Circ Oil Pump provides the pre-lubrication and warming.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the Governor is hydraulically operated. Incorrect because the shaft driven Booster Oil pump charges the Governor accumulators on a start.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the EDG has several shaft driven oil pumps, ie.(Main Oil pump, Piston Oil pump, Governor Booster oil pump, etc.), that are not running with the EDG in standby.

Incorrect because the Lube Oil pump is electrically driven and is required to run continuously to provide pre-lubrication.

Reference:

QCOA 6600-15, rev.07 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 264000 K6.03 Emergency Generators (Diesel/Jet) EDG: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the EMERGENCY GENERATORS (DIESEL/JET): Lube oil pumps.

Importance: RO 3.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/45.7 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 100 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 52 ID: 2164797 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power when the following annunciators alarmed:

• 912-1 A-11, UNIT 1A INST AIR LOW PRESS

• 912-1 A-12, 1A SERV AIR BACKUP VLV OPEN 1A INST AIR RCVR PRESS is 80 psig and slowly lowering.

Unit 1 SCRAM AIR is 85 psig and steady.

Which of the following must be done immediately in response to these conditions?

A. Insert a manual scram on Unit 1.

B. Start all available Instrument Air and Service Air Compressors.

C. Dispatch an operator to open the Service Air Backup Valve, PCV 1-4799-221.

D. Dispatch an operator to open the 1-4799-223, SERV AIR TO INST AIR PCV BYP VLV.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 101 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QOA 4700-06, Loss of Instrument Air, the immediate operator action is to start all available IA and SA compressors. A manual scram is not required because scram air header pressure is > 55 psig and stable.

Distractor 1: Plausible because inserting a scram is required if scram air header pressure is <

55 psig or control rods begin to drift. Incorrect because scram air header pressure is reported at 85 psig and steady.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the service air backup valve opens at ~88 psig air receiver pressure. Incorrect because it is already opened as verified by annunciator 912-1 A-12.

Dispatching an operator is not necessary for this action.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is a subsequent action in QOA 4700-06. Incorrect because it is not the first action that is required.

Reference:

QOA 4700-06 rev.29 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 300000 2.4.31 Instrument Air: Knowledge of annunciator alarms, indications, or response procedures.

Importance: RO 4.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/45.3 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 102 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 53 ID: 2164798 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a Service Water leak occurs.

The NSO places the Unit 1 Service Water Header Isolation Switch on the 912-1 panel to CLOSE.

Assuming the leak is isolated, which of the following indications for the TBCCW system temperature and pressure is EXPECTED?

A. Temperature rises Pressure rises B. Temperature rises Pressure remains the same C. Temperature remains the same Pressure lowers D. Temperature remains the same Pressure remains the same Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 103 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Placing the Unit 1 Service Water header isolation valve to CLOSE will shut the following valves:

MO 1-3903A, TBCCW HX MO 1-3903B, TBCCW HX MO 1-3904, U1 ASD COOLERS SW DISCH VLV MO 1-3905, U1 STATOR SW SUPPLY With Service Water isolated to the TBCCW heat exchangers, TBCCW temperature will rise.

The TBCCW expansion tank provides a surge volume for the system to compensate for thermal expansion and contraction of the system. The tank is normally vented to atmosphere to prevent over pressurization of the system as volume changes occur due to temperature changes keeping system pressure approximately constant. Tank level is automatically controlled by an air operated level control valve (LCV) that opens to provide make-up water from the clean demineralized header Distractor 1: Plausible because system temperature will rise. This would be parameter trend for a closed system. Incorrect because system pressure remains steady as the expansion tank is vented to atmosphere.

Distractor 2: Plausible because system pressure and temperature response are consistent with a TBCCW leak. Incorrect because the leak is not on the TBCCW side, it is on the Service Water side of the system.

Distractor 3: Plausible because system pressure does remain steady. Incorrect because system temperature rises due the loss of Service Water to the TBCCW Heat Exchanger.

Reference:

QCOA 3900-01 rev.26, UFSAR Section 9.2.7 rev.05 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 1 KA: 400000.A1.03 Component Cooling Water: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the CCWS controls including: CCW pressure.

Importance: RO 2.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.5 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 104 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 54 ID: 2164799 Points: 1.00 A Unit 1 reactor startup is in progress.

Control rod E-14 has been FULLY withdrawn from the core using the Rod Movement Control Switch.

After the rod has settled the indications are as follows:

The Full Core Display will indicate ___(1)___.

The Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM) will indicate ___(2)___.

A. (1) 00 (2) ++

B. (1) 00 (2) --

C. (1) 48 (2) ++

D. (1) 48 (2) --

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 105 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: A fully withdrawn control rod will be indicated by 48 on the Full Core Display and ++ on the RWM.

Distractor 1: Plausible because ++ is the correct indication on the RWM. Incorrect because 00 is the FULL IN indication on the Full Core Display.

Distractor 2: Plausible because both indications are for a control rod at an end of travel position. Incorrect because they are both FULL IN indications.

Distractor 3: Plausible because 48 is the correct indication on the Full Core Display. Incorrect because (--) is an overtravel in (beyond 00) indication on the Full Core Display.

Reference:

QCGP 4-1 rev.50 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 201003 A3.01 Control Rod and Drive Mechanism: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the CONTROL ROD AND DRIVE MECHANISM including: Control rod position Importance: RO 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/45.7 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 106 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 55 ID: 2164800 Points: 1.00

• Unit 1 is performing a reactor startup and all IRMs are on Range 7.

• Control rod H-15 is selected for movement.

• Control rod position as indicated on the RWM is at position 10 and it is MAGENTA in color.

If the Rod Movement Control Switch (RMCS) is taken to the ROD IN position, control rod H-15 will...

A. NOT move because it has an Insert Block applied.

B. insert into the core because NO rod blocks applied.

C. insert into the core because it has a Withdraw Block ONLY applied.

D. NOT move because it is OOS and has Insert and Withdraw Blocks applied.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 107 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Magenta represents an INSERT ERROR. Any control rod inserted one or more notches beyond its insert limit will cause an insert block to be issued for all rods except:

• rods with withdraw errors

• rods in the current sequence step Withdraw blocks will be issued for all rods except rods with insert errors.

Distractor 1: Plausible because placing the RMCS to ROD IN will insert a control rod one or more notches. Incorrect because the control rod has an insert block applied by the RWM as indicated by its magenta color.

Distractor 2: Plausible because placing the RMCS to ROD IN will insert a control rod one or more notches. Incorrect because the control rod has an Insert Block not a Withdraw Block applied. The rod would appear red if it had a withdraw error.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is correct that the rod will not move. Incorrect because the rod status is not OOS. An OOS rod appears light blue (cyan) in color.

Reference:

QCOP 0207-01 rev.32 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 201006 A4.05 Rod Worth Minimizer - Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Rod insert error indication: plant specific Importance: RO 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 108 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 56 ID: 2164801 Points: 1.00 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

• Reactor is scrammed.

• Reactor water level is 34".

• The 1A and 1B RWCU pumps are running with total flow at 480 gpm

• The 1A and 1B RWCU demins are online, in AUTO, at 240 gpm each.

• The MO-1-1201-78 (REJECT TO CNDSR SHUTOFF VLV) is OPEN Using P&ID M-47, complete the statement below.

If the FCV 1-1239, CU REJECT FCV is opened, steady-state Demin flow will __(1)__ .

Non-Regenerative Heat Exchanger outlet temperature will __(2)__.

A. (1) lower (2) rise B. (1) rise (2) lower C. (1) remain the same (2) rise D. (1) remain the same (2) lower Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 109 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: The Demin flow controllers will maintain flow at the flow controller setpoint. Since water is rejected from the outlet of the filter/demins (or from the discharge of the RWCU pumps), cooling flow decreases through the regenerative heat exchanger. This will raise the NRHX outlet temperature.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Non-Regen Hx outlet temperature rises. Incorrect because the Demin flow will remain the same.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Demin flow would rise if not for the individual Demin Flow Controllers. Incorrect because Demin flow will remain the same and Non-Regen Hx outlet temperature rises.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Demin flow does remain the same. Incorrect because the Non-Regen Hx outlet temperature rises.

Reference:

M-47 Sheet 1 rev. AH, QCOP 1200-07 rev.38 Reference provided during examination: M-47 Sheet 1, Diagram of RWCU Piping Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 204000 2.4.47 Reactor Water Cleanup: Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material.

Importance: RO 4.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.12 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 110 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 57 ID: 2167261 Points: 1.00 Select the statement describing the operation of the Traversing In-Core Probe (TIP) system:

A. TIP's are gas filled fission chambers which produce an axial flux profile used to calibrate LPRMs.

B. TIP's are gas filled fission chambers which produce an axial flux profile used to calibrate the APRMs.

C. TIP's are gas filled direct ionization chambers which produce an axial flux profile used to calibrate the LPRMs.

D. TIP's are gas filled direct ionization chambers which produce an axial flux profile used to calibrate the APRMs.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 111 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: A traversing incore probe (TIP) may be inserted in the core to obtain an axial neutron flux distribution at each LPRM detector location. The information obtained from the TIP is used to calibrate the LPRM system and to provide a relative flux distribution for the core to the process computer.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the TIP detectors are gas filled fission detectors. Incorrect because the Process Computer Thermal Heat Balance is used to calibrate the APRMs.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the TIPs are used to calibrate the LPRMs. Incorrect because the detectors are gas filled fission chambers.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the TIP detector is a gas filled (Argon) detector. Incorrect because the are not direct ionization chambers and are not used to calibrate APRMs.

Reference:

Quad Cities UFSAR Section 07.06 Core and Vessel Instrumentation, rev.12 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 215001 K1.01 Traversing In-Core Probe: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between TRAVERSING IN-CORE PROBE and the following: Local power range monitors.

Importance: RO 2.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 112 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 58 ID: 2164803 Points: 1.00 An ATWS with a Group I isolation has occurred on Unit 2.

• Aux power transferred when the Main Turbine tripped.

• Torus Cooling is operating on both loops with all RHR and RHRSW pumps running.

An overcurrent fault on Bus 23-1 causes Bus 23-1 to deenergize.

How is the Torus Cooling lineup affected?

A. The 2A and 2B RHRSW pumps will be deenergized.

All other Unit 2 RHR and RHRSW pumps are RUNNING.

B. The 2A and 2B RHR pumps will be deenergized.

The 2C and 2D RHR pumps and ALL RHRSW pumps will be RUNNING.

C. The 2A and 2B RHR AND RHRSW pumps will be deenergized.

2C and 2D RHR and RHRSW pumps are RUNNING.

D. The 2C and 2D RHR AND RHRSW pumps will be deenergized.

2A and 2B RHR and RHRSW pumps are RUNNING.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 113 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Power supply to 2A/B(C/D) RHR pumps is Bus 23-1(24-1) power supply to 2A/B(C/D) RHRSW is 23(24). Overcurrent on Bus 23-1 trips and locks out all power sources to the bus. Bus 23-1 is the only power supply to 2A and 2B RHR pumps. No other buses have lost power therefore all RHR and RHRSW pumps are running EXCEPT 2A and 2B RHR pumps.

Distractor 1: Plausible because two (2) pumps on Division I will be de-energized. Incorrect because it is the RHR pumps that are de-energized, not the RHRSW pumps.

Distractor 2: Plausible because 2A and 2B RHR pumps are de-energized. Incorrect because the 2A and 2B RHRSW pumps are not de-energized.

Distractor 3: Plausible because a one loop of RHR and RHRSW pumps will remain energized.

Incorrect because it is the "B" Loop (2C and 2D RHR and RHRSW pumps) that remains energized.

Reference:

QCOA 6500-05 rev.00 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 219000 K2.02 RHR/LPCI: Torus/Suppression Pool Cooling Mode- Knowledge of the electrical power supplies to the following: Pumps Importance: RO 3.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 114 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 59 ID: 2164955 Points: 1.00 A steam line break inside the Drywell has occurred on Unit 2.

The crew is taking actions per QGA 100 and QGA 200.

• RPV pressure: 800 psig and lowering at 5.0 psig per minute

• RPV water level: +30 inches and stable

• Drywell pressure: 8 psig and rising at 1.0 psig per minute

• Torus pressure: 6 psig and rising at 1.0 psig per minute

• Drywell temperature: 183°F and rising at 2.0°F per minute

• Torus temperature: 83°F and rising at 1.0°F per minute

• Torus level: 14 ft and steady The ANSO has reported that Drywell sprays CANNOT be started on either loop.

If the containment parameters continue to trend as indicated above, the ___(1)___ curve will be reached FIRST.

The Unit Supervisor will direct a Blowdown to ___(2)___.

A. (1) PSP (2) maintain ADS valve operability.

B. (1) PSP (2) prevent exceeding the Torus design load limit.

C. (1) PCPL (2) maintain ADS valve operability.

D. (1) PCPL (2) prevent exceeding the Torus design load limit.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 115 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per the QCNPS QGA/SAMG Technical Bases:

The Pressure Suppression Pressure (PSP) is the lesser of:

• The highest suppression chamber pressure which can occur without steam in the suppression chamber airspace.

• The highest suppression chamber pressure at which initiation of RPV depressurization will not result in exceeding the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.

• The highest suppression chamber pressure which can be maintained without exceeding the suppression pool boundary design load if SRVs are opened.

Based on the given rates:

PSP will be exceeded at 16.5 psig Torus pressure in ~ 10.5 minutes.

PCPL is exceeded at 55 psig Torus pressure in ~49 minutes.

The HCTL is exceeded at 195°F Torus temperature and 250 psig RPV pressure which occurs in

~110 minutes.

Distractor 1: Plausible because PSP limit will be exceeded first. Incorrect because PCPL is the maximum containment pressure at which ADS valves can be opened and will remain open.

Distractor 2: Plausible because PCPL will be exceeded with no further action. PCPL is the maximum containment pressure at which ADS valves can be opened and will remain open.

Incorrect because PSP limit will be reached before the PCPL.

Distractor 3: Plausible because PCPL will be exceeded with no further action. Incorrect because the PSP limit will be reached first under these conditions and the PSP curve is the highest suppression chamber pressure which can be maintained without exceeding the suppression pool boundary design load if SRVs are opened.

Reference:

EOP/SAMG Technical Basis Vol. I Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 226001 K3.03 RHR/LPCI Containment Spray Mode: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the RHR/LPCI: CONTAINMENT SPRAY SYSTEM MODE will have on following: Containment/drywell/suppression chamber components, continued operation with elevated pressure and/or temperature and/or level.

Importance: RO 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 / 45.4 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 116 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 60 ID: 2167223 Points: 1.00 What system normally provides makeup water to the Fuel Pool Cooling system?

A. CCST's B. Clean Demin C. Domestic Water D. Condensate Transfer Answer: D Answer Explanation Answer explanation: During normal operations condensate transfer is aligned to the skimmer surge tank to raise level, per QCOP 0010-12 step F.5. Clean demin and Domestic water have no direct piping to the system and would have to be added via hoses.

Distractor 1: Plausible because it is part of the plant makeup water system along with the CCSTs. Incorrect because it does not supply makeup water to the Fuel Pool Cooling system.

Distractor 2: Plausible because water can be rejected from the Fuel Pool System to the CCSTs, (QCOP 1900-05). Incorrect because it is not used as a makeup supply for the Fuel Pool Cooling system.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is a water supply that can be used with plant systems, ie.

cooling water to Instrument Air Compressors (QCOP 4700-13). Incorrect because it is not used for Fuel Pool Cooling makeup.

Reference:

QCOP 0010-12 rev.05 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 233000 K4.06 Fuel Pool Cooling/Cleanup: Knowledge of FUEL POOL COOLING AND CLEAN-UP design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Maintenance of adequate pool level Importance: RO 2.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 117 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 61 ID: 2167219 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a total LOSS of EHC resulted in a reactor scram.

• RCIC was manually started and is injecting at rated flow.

• RPV water level is +30 inches and stable.

• Reactor pressure 1020 psig and slowly rising.

• Torus temperature is 92°F and rising 1°F every 10 minutes.

The Unit Supervisor has directed an RPV cooldown.

Which of the following systems will result in the LEAST amount of RPV cooldown?

A. Main Steam Line Drains.

B. Main Steam Relief valves.

C. Main Turbine Bypass valves.

D. HPCI in pressure control mode.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 118 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: RCIC is maintaining RPV water level and adding heat to the Torus causing Torus temperature to rise. Starting a cooldown using the Main Steam Line Drains provides a direct path of steam flow to the Main Condenser.

Distractor 1: Plausible because Main Steam Relief Valves are an alternate decay heat removal system. Incorrect because it results in the largest heat addition to the Torus.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Main Turbine Bypass valves are normally used for a reactor cooldown. Incorrect because the loss of EHC will prevent operation of the bypass valves.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the HPCI system is an alternate decay heat removal system.

Incorrect because HPCI exhaust to the Torus and is therefore a heat addition.

Reference:

QCOP 0250-05 rev.09, Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 239001 K5.09 Main and Reheat Steam: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to MAIN STEAM AND REHEAT STEAM SYSTEM: Decay heat removal.

Importance: RO 3.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.3 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 119 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 62 ID: 2164959 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is currently at 60% power on the 82% FCL with a load increase in progress when the 2B1 and 2C1 Feedwater Heaters trip.

In accordance with QCOA 3500-01, FEEDWATER TEMPERATURE REDUCTION WITH MAIN TURBINE ONLINE, which of the following IMMEDIATE operator actions should be taken to limit the reactivity addition?

A. Insert a Reactor Scram.

B. Reduce Recirc Pump Speed by at least 30%.

C. Insert control rods in sequence to target-in position to maintain the FCL < the MELLLA boundary.

D. Place extraction valve control switches in PULL TO STOP and HOLD to minimize feedwater temperature drop.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 120 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: QCOA 3500-01, FEEDWATER TEMPERATURE REDUCTION WITH MAIN TURBINE ONLINE, Immediate Operator Actions are:

C.1. Initiate Emergency Power Reduction to limit the power increase.

C.2. Place extraction valve control switches in PULL TO STOP and hold to minimize feedwater temperature decrease with US concurrence.

Tripping feedwater Heaters in one string lowers D Heater outlet temperature ~ 15 F and raise reactor power ~ 2 to 5%.

Distractor 1: Plausible because inserting a reactor scram is an immediate operator action per QCOA 3500-01. Incorrect because it's required only if reactor power cannot be maintained <

105%. The transient would only raise reactor power in the 2 to 5% range.

Distractor 2: Plausible because an emergency power reduction involves reducing Recirc flow.

Incorrect because reducing Recirc flow by 30% with the current plant conditions would place operation outside of the MELLLA boundary. Additionally a 30% speed reduction would only be necessary for a minimum D Heater outlet temperature reduction of 51 to 75 degrees F per QCOA 3500-01 step D.2.a.

Distractor 3: Plausible because an emergency power reduction may involve inserting control rods. Incorrect because based on the current conditions, inserting control rods to stay within the MELLLA boundary is not necessary.

Reference:

QCOA 3500-01 rev.44 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 259001 K6.04 Feedwater: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the REACTOR FEEDWATER SYSTEM: Extraction steam.

Importance: RO 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/45.7 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 121 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 63 ID: 2167076 Points: 1.00 With the Cardox system in a normal standby lineup, what is the effect of actuating the CO2 Local Manual Throw Station for the U-1 EDG room?

A. CO2 will enter the room as soon as the local manual throw station outside the diesel room is actuated.

B. CO2 will NOT enter the diesel room until the local manual throw station at the Cardox Tank is actuated.

C. CO2 will charge the line up to the diesel room but will NOT be discharged until the local diesel room actuation pushbutton is pressed.

D. CO2 will flow up to the closed diesel room injection nozzles but will NOT be discharged until thermal detectors in the room open the nozzles.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 122 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: QCOP 7600-01 step F.2 provides the steps to manually actuate the Cardox system to the DG Rooms. Step F.2.a. is using the pushbutton which simulates the DG high temperature signal (225 F) to initiate the system. In this manner all interlocks, ie. Room Vent Dampers close and the Vent Fan is interlocked off. If the pushbutton fails, then backup method is using both the Local Manual Throw Stations at the DG Room and near the Cardox Tank per step F.2.c. The Discharge valve at the Cardox Tank and the DG Room must be opened. The manual throw station at the Cardox Tank charges the entire Header to ALL DG Rooms. Opening the valve at the DG Room using the Local Throw Station will flood the Room, however, the interlocks on the Room Vent Dampers and Fan are not in effect.

Distractor 1: Plausible because actuation of the electro-manual pushbutton at the DG Room will immediately start filling the room with CO2. Incorrect because the Local Manual Station is the backup to the pushbutton and requires operation of two controllers to inject CO2.

Distractor 2: Plausible because actuation of the Master Controller near the Cardox tank charges the entire Header to ALL DG Rooms. Incorrect because the Local Manual Station at the DG Room is used to fill the room and NOT the pushbutton.

Distractor 3: Plausible because actuation of the Master Controller near the Cardox tank charges the entire Header to ALL DG Rooms. Incorrect because the Local Manual Station at the DG Room when actuated will immediately start filling the room with CO2.

Reference:

QCOP 7600-01 rev.11 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 286000 A1.05 Fire Protection: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM controls including: System lineups.

Importance: RO 3.2 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.5 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 123 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 64 ID: 2164961 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• Annunciator 901-3 G-3, RX BLDG VENT CHANNEL A HI HI RADIATION, alarms.

• Reactor Building Vent fans are running.

• 1/2 B SBGTS is running.

What action is required per QCAN 901-3 G-3 REACTOR BUILDING VENT RADIATION MONITOR CHANNEL A HIGH HIGH RADIATION?

A. STOP the 1/2 B SBGTS train.

B. CLOSE Unit 1 Reactor Building Vent Isolation Dampers ONLY.

C. CLOSE Unit 1 and Unit 2 Reactor Building Vent Isolation Dampers.

D. Place Unit 1 and Unit 2 Reactor Building Supply and Exhaust Fan control switches in PTL ONLY.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 124 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Both Reactor Building Vent Channels downscale is an initiation signal for Reactor Building ventilation to isolate and Standby Gas Treatment System to start. The stem indicates that while SBGTS started, the isolation of Reactor Building ventilation failed to occur.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the SBGTS would be secured if the initiation signal was invalid.

Incorrect because the SBGTS cannot be secured until the initiation signal is cleared.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Unit 1 Reactor Building Isolation Dampers should have closed. Incorrect because both Units Isolation Dampers should have closed.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Reactor Building Supply and Exhaust Fans should have tripped. Incorrect because the Isolation Dampers for both Units should also be closed.

Reference:

QOA 5750-07 rev.12, QCAN 901-3 G-3 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 288000 A2.04 Plant Ventilation: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the PLANT VENTILATION SYSTEMS and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: High radiation: Plant Specific Importance: RO 3.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.6 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 125 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 65 ID: 2164962 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a manual scram was inserted due to a loss of RBCCW.

A Group 2 isolation has occurred.

Which of the following indications would be present?

A. 1A FLOOR DRN RESET and 1B FLOOR DRN RESET lights are OFF.

B. Recirc Sample Valves AO 1-220-44 and AO 1-220-45 CLOSED lights are LIT.

C. HPCI Steam Isolation Valves MO 1-2301-4 and MO 1-2301-5 CLOSED lights are LIT.

D. RCIC Steam Supply Isolation Valves MO 1-1301-16 and MO 1-1301-17 CLOSED lights are LIT.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 126 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: On a reactor scram from full power, RPV water level can be expected to drop to approximately -20 to -25 inches and recover to 30 inches. This will result in Group II and Group III isolations (0 inches RPV water level). Per QCAP 0200-10 Attachment D, the Reactor Building Sump Pumps are interlocked OFF as indicated by the 901-5 Panel Indicating Lights off.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Recirc Sample Valves close on a Low-Low level Group I isolation. Incorrect because RPV water level does not lower to -59 inches on a normal reactor scram from full power.

Distractor 2: Plausible because HPCI Steam Isolation Valves close on a Group IV isolation.

Incorrect because the isolation signals are not on RPV water level. (Low RPV pressure, High HPCI Room temperature, High HPCI Steam line flow)

Distractor 3: Plausible because RCIC Steam Supply Isolation Valves close on a Group V isolation. Incorrect because the isolation signals are not on RPV water level. Low RPV pressure, High RCIC Room temperature, High RCIC Steam line flow)

Reference:

QCAP 0200-10 rev.57 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 290001 A3.01 Secondary Containment: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the SECONDARY CONTAINMENT including: Secondary containment isolation.

Importance: RO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/45.7 Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 127 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 66 ID: 2164963 Points: 1.00 Prior to entering the control room, maintenance personnel need permission from ___(1)___.

Upon entering the control room, maintenance personnel need permission from ___(2)___ to cross the DESIGNATED line.

A. (1) US (2) NSO B. (1) NSO (2) US C. (1) WEC SRO (2) SM D. (1) WEC SRO (2) US Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 128 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per OP-AA-103-101, CONTROL ROOM ACCESS CONTROL, step 4.1.4:

Due to the control room being vital, OBTAIN permission from the WEC Supervisor prior to entering the Control Room.

Exemptions to this are listed above or specifically authorized by the Unit Supervisor (Control Room Supervisor) (i.e. QNE coverage during Startups or prompt response by support groups for emergent concerns).

Per step 4.1.7: Personnel shall remain behind the designated line until approval for admittance is granted by the appropriate Unit Supervisor (Control Room Supervisor).

Distractor 1: Plausible because the US does grant permission to cross the black line in the Control Room and the RO must grant permission to enter the zone of control. Incorrect because the WEC SRO must give permission to enter the control room.

Distractor 2: Plausible because entrance into control room areas are granted by the US and NSO. Incorrect because the authorization for entrance into the control room and beyond the black line are granted by the WEC SRO and US respectively.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the WEC SRO grants permission to enter the control room.

Incorrect because the Unit Supervisor grants permission to cross the black line.

Reference:

OP-AA-103-101 rev.01 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.1.13 Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of facility requirements for controlling vital/controlled access.

Importance: RO 2.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.9/45.10 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 129 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 67 ID: 2164964 Points: 1.00 The Unit 1 Nuclear Station Operator (NSO) is directing a surveillance from the Control Room and a step requires an Equipment Operator (EO) to operate a valve LOCALLY.

How would this be recorded on the NSO's master copy of the surveillance?

A. The NSO enters their initials ONLY.

B. The NSO enters the EO's initials ONLY.

C. The EO enters their initials ONLY after the surveillance is completed.

D. The NSO enters the EO's initials followed by a slash (/) and then the NSO's initials.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 130 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per HU-AA-104-101 step 4.7.3: If a step sign-off is made by someone other than the Performer, then indicate both the Procedure Reader and the Performer in the sign off. Indicate in the sign off who performed the action followed by a slash (/) and then the reader who signed off the step. Example: Equipment Operator DM tells NSO JB that the valve is closed. The NSO initials the valve is closed as: DM/JB.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this is a proper method of place keeping when the action was performed by the NSO only. Incorrect because the step was performed remotely by the EO and requires documentation of the actual performer as well.

Distractor 2: Plausible if the EO had the Master Surveillance sheet. Incorrect because the NSO is signing completion of the step for the EO and must indicate so by use of the (/).

Distractor 3: Plausible because it is permissible to transfer signatures when the field copy is the master copy and becomes contaminated or deteriorated. Incorrect because in this case the master copy is in the control room and proper place keeping requires that steps are signed off immediately after completion.

Reference:

HU-AA-104-101 rev.07 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.1.18 Conduct of Operations: Ability to make accurate, clear, and concise logs, records, status boards, and updates.

Importance: RO 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/45.12/45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 131 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 68 ID: 2164965 Points: 1.00

• A startup is in progress on Unit 1

• Highest initial SRM count rate was 60 cps

• The reactor is NOT critical

• Turbine Bypass Valves are shut During of the following conditions is the use of NOTCH OVERRIDE procedurally PROHIBITED?

Withdrawing rods from position...

A. 12 to 24 with SRM counts at 180 cps.

B. 36 to 48 with SRM counts at 450 cps.

C. 12 to 24 with SRM counts at 800 cps.

D. 36 to 48 with SRM counts at 1440 cps.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 132 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QCGP 1-1 caution on page 54 of rev 124:

To minimize the risk of inadvertent short periods, NOTCH OVERRIDE shall NOT be used:

Between positions 06 and 36 from the time the count rate on the SRM with the highest initial reading has doubled 3 times (8 times initial reading) until the Reactor is critical and at least one Bypass Valve is partially open.

With an initial count rate of 60, notch override is not allowed between 480 cps (8 times 60) until critical. Therefore, with count rates above 480 notch override is not allowed.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the count rate is 3 times the initial count rate and the rod movement (12 to 24) is within the restricted bounds. Incorrect because the count rate is less than 3 doublings (8 times the count rate) and NOTCH OVERRIDE is allowed.

Distractor 2: Plausible because with count rates above 480 cps (3rd doubling) where NOTCH OVERRIDE is prohibited. Incorrect because the rod movement (36 to 48) allows NOTCH OVERRIDE even after the 3rd doubling.

Distractor 3: Plausible because with count rate at 1440 cps is above the 3rd doubling where NOTCH OVERRIDE is prohibited. Incorrect because the rod movement (36 to 48) allows NOTCH OVERRIDE even after the 3rd doubling.

Reference:

QCGP 1-1 rev.124 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.1.37 Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of procedures, guidelines, or limitations associated with reactivity management.

Importance: RO 4.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.1/43.6/45.6 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 133 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 69 ID: 2166938 Points: 1.00 QCGP 1-1, NORMAL UNIT 1 STARTUP, is in progress at step F.1 to test the Rod Block function of the RWM.

• All control rods are at 00.

• Rod Worth Minimizer (RWM) MODE switch is in NORMAL.

• No Control Rod drifts are present.

• Control Rod H-8 is an out-of-sequence rod.

In order to withdraw control rod H-8 from position 00 to position 02, the RX MODE SELECT switch must be in __(1)__ and SELECT BLOCKS must be __(2)__.

A. (1) SHUTDOWN (2) DISABLED B. (1) SHUTDOWN (2) ENABLED C. (1) START/HOT STBY (2) ENABLED D. (1) START/HOT STBY (2) DISABLED Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 134 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: To allow control rods to be withdrawn, the RX MODE SELECT switch must be in START/HOT STBY (shutdown position results in a rod block). To allow an out-of-sequence control rod to be withdrawn from 00, Select Blocks must be disabled. This is discussed in the RWM pre-start up checks in QCGP 1-1, NORMAL UNIT 1 STARTUP.

Distractor 1: Plausible the RWM Select Blocks must be disabled to allow selection of an out-of-sequence rod. Incorrect because with the Rx Mode Select switch in SHUTDOWN, a control rod block is issued for all rods, preventing rod H-8 from withdrawal and testing the RWM Rod Block function.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the RWM Select Block function is normally enabled. Incorrect because with the Rx Mode Select switch in SHUTDOWN, a control rod block is issued for all rods and with Select Blocks enabled (normal condition), an out-of-sequence control rod will immediately receive a withdraw block.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Mode Switch in Start/Hot STBY allows a rod to be withdrawn. Incorrect because with Select Blocks enabled (normal condition), an out-of-sequence control rod will immediately receive a withdraw block, preventing the RWM Rod Block function test.

Reference:

QCGP 1-1 rev.124 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.2.1 Equipment Control: Ability to perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including operating those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity.

Importance: RO 4.5 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5/41.10/43.5/43.6/45.1 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 135 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 70 ID: 2164967 Points: 1.00 Concerning recorder manipulation as part of daily rounds, whose permission, if any, is needed before equipment with an EST tag can be operated?

A. Unit Supervisor B. Nuclear Station Operator C. No additional permission is required D. Instrument Maintenance Supervisor Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 136 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per OP-AA-108-101, CONTROL OF EQUIPMENT AND SYSTEM STATUS, section 4.4 reads as follows:

4.4. Manipulation of EST Components:

NOTE: If manipulation is required as part of daily rounds, then SRO permission is not required.

4.4.1. OBTAIN permission from a SRO prior to manipulating any component with an EST, where position is controlled by an ACPS.

Distractor 1: Plausible because SRO permission is required prior to manipulating any component with an EST, where position is controlled by an ACPS. Incorrect because it is not required for manipulation of equipment as part of daily rounds.

Distractor 2: Plausible because RO and/or SRO permission is required for hanging and removing ESTs. Incorrect because permission is not required for manipulation of equipment as part of daily rounds.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Instrument Maintenance is responsible for recorder repairs, etc. Incorrect because IM permission is not required.

Reference:

OP-AA-108-101 rev.15 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.14 Equipment Control: Knowledge of the process for controlling equipment configuration or status.

Importance: RO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.3/45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 137 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 71 ID: 2165035 Points: 1.00

• Reactor Mode Switch in REFUEL.

• All control rods are inserted to position 00.

• Reactor water temperature is 130°F.

• All reactor head closure bolts are fully tensioned.

What operational mode is the plant in?

A. Mode 2 B. Mode 3 C. Mode 4 D. Mode 5 Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 138 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per TS Table 1.1-1, With the Mode switch in REFUEL and all head bolts tensioned, the reactor is in Mode 2.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Mode Switch is not in RUN and the RPV Head Closure Bolts are fully tensioned. Incorrect because the Mode Switch must be in Shutdown for Mode 3 and RPV coolant temperature is < 212 F.

Distractor 2: Plausible because RPV coolant temperature is < 212 F. Incorrect because the Mode Switch must be in Shutdown for Mode 4.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Mode Switch is in Refuel. Incorrect because all RPV Head Closure Bolts are tensioned.

Reference:

TS Table 1.1-1 Amendment 279/274 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.35 Equipment Control: Ability to determine Technical Specification Mode of Operation.

Importance: RO 3.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.7/41.10/43.2/45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 139 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 72 ID: 2165036 Points: 1.00 You are an operator currently working in the reactor building on an assigned task during a refuel outage.

The RWP controlling your task includes the following information:

• RWP Dose Limit: 300 mrem

• ED Dose Alarm: 240 mrem

• Dose Rate Alarm 800 mrem/hr The actual dose rate in your work area is 60 mrem/hr.

You have accumulated 192 mrem and require more time in the area to complete the task.

Which of the following meets the requirements of RP-AA-1008, UNESCORTED ACCESS TO AND CONDUCT IN RADIOLOGICALLY CONTROLLED AREAS, and why?

A. Exit the area BEFORE your accumulated dose has exceeded the ED Dose Alarm setpoint.

B. Continue to work in the area for 48 minutes or less, because the requirement is to exit the area WHEN receiving a cumulative dose alarm.

C. Continue to work in the area until the dose limit of 300 mrem is reached because you have approval by Radiation Protection per the RWP.

D. Continue to work in the area for another 60 minutes. This allows sufficient margin to the dose limit of 300 mrem to allow a safe exit from the work area.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 140 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: RP-AA-1008, Unescorted Access to and Conduct in Radiologically Controlled Areas step 4.3.5. Leave the RCA when electronic dosimetry is approaching or has reached 80% of the accumulated dose alarm set point.

Distractor 1: Plausible because 48 minutes results in a cumulative dose or 240 mrem which does not exceed 80% of the limit. Incorrect because the requirement is to leave before the alarm setpoint. The cumulated dose received may exceed 80% based on the time it takes to exit the area.

Distractor 2: Plausible because approval of 300 mrem is stated on the RWP. Incorrect because the requirement is to leave the are before the dose alarm setpoint.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the dose limit of 300 mrem is not exceeded. Incorrect because the requirement is to leave the are before the dose alarm setpoint.

Reference:

RP-AA-1008 rev.09 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.3.7 Radiation Control: Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions.

Importance: RO 3.5 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.12/45.10 Question Source: Bank Question History: LaSalle 2007 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 141 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 73 ID: 2165037 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is performing a normal reactor shutdown to allow personnel to enter the Drywell.

In accordance with RP-QC-465, DRYWELL & TORUS ENTRY, which of the following Containment conditions meet Drywell entry requirements for ALL elevations?

A. O2 concentration is 18.5%, Reactor power is 5%.

B. O2 concentration is 19.5%, Reactor power is 50%.

C. O2 concentration is 21%, Reactor power is 5%.

D. O2 concentration is 26%, Reactor power is 50%.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 142 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per RP-QC-466 step 4.7.2.: Primary Containment is considered de-inerted when two consecutive air samples, taken at least 30 minutes apart on Drywell and Torus, meet the following: oxygen concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%.

Per RP-AB-462 step 5.1.1.:

Maximum Reactor Power Thresholds

1. >40%- Primary Containment Air lock where personnel do not break the plane of the Primary Containment Air lock (Inner, Drywell side) Door Threshold

2. 40%- lower elevations below recirculation suction and discharge nozzles.

3. 10%- middle elevations (includes nozzle penetration levels) and below top of fuel.

4. 5%- upper elevations above top of fuel and no bio-shield.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the power threshold is correct. Incorrect because 02 concentration is < 19.5%.

Distractor 2: Plausible because 02 concentration is > 19.5%. Incorrect because Reactor power is > 40%.

Distractor 3: Plausible because 02 concentration is > 19.5%. Incorrect because Reactor power is > 40%.

Reference:

RP-QC-465 rev.11, R RP-AB-462 rev.02 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.3.13 Radiation Control: Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as response to radiation monitor alarms, containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

Importance: RO 3.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.12/43.4/45.9/45.10 Question Source: Bank Question History: Vermont Yankee 2010 ILT NRC Exam, Quad Cities 2012 ILT NRC Exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 143 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 74 ID: 2165038 Points: 1.00 During an emergency condition, operator actions that DEVIATE from plant Technical Specifications are needed to protect the health and safety of the public.

In accordance with HU-AA-104-101, PROCEDURE USE AND ADHERENCE, these actions require at a minimum...

A. approval of a licensed Senior Reactor Operator ONLY.

B. concurrence of a second licensed Reactor Operator.

C. approval of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).

D. approval of a licensed Senior Reactor Operator and the Shift Manager.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 144 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per HU-AA-104-101 Step 4.8.4.: The licensee may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or a Technical Specification in an emergency when:

1. The action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety, and

2. No action consistent with license conditions and Technical Specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent, and

3. As a minimum a licensed Senior Reactor Operator has approved the licensee action prior to taking the action.

Distractor 1: Plausible because many operator actions in general, require a peer check as a minimum. Incorrect because procedurally required action are not outside of Technical Specifications.

Distractor 2: Plausible because NRC notification is required for deviations from Technical Specifications. Incorrect because the notification is required within an hour and is not a requirement to respond to an emergency jeopardizing the health and safety of the public.

Distractor 3: Plausible because either the Senior Reactor Operator or Shift Manager could approve the action. Incorrect because both approvals are not required.

Reference:

HU-AA-104-101 rev.07 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 KA: 2.4.12 Emergency Procedures / Plan: Knowledge of general operating crew responsibilities during emergency operations.

Importance: RO 4.0 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/45.12 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 145 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 75 ID: 2165039 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when the NSO acknowledges and reports the following alarm:

• 901-5 H-3, ANNUN DC POWER FAILURE The alarm is also reported by the ANSO on several other control room panels.

Per QCAN 901-5 ANNUN DC POWER FAILURE, which action is required?

A. Insert a manual Reactor scram.

B. Minimize Reactor power changes.

C. Commence a normal Reactor shutdown.

D. Reduce Reactor power to less than 38.5% rated thermal power.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 146 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM RO FINAL Test ID: 349706 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QCAN 901(2)-5, when annunciator DC power fails, procedural direction is to monitor Reactor/Main Turbine parameters and minimize changes in plant status.

Distractor 1: Plausible because it places the plant in a safe/ shutdown state. Incorrect because a manual scram does not minimize changes in plant status and will result in conditions that will not alarm in the control room.

Distractor 2: Plausible because it places the plant in a safe/shutdown state. Incorrect because a manual scram does not minimize changes in plant status and will result in conditions that will not alarm in the control room.

Distractor 3: Plausible because lowering Reactor power below 38.5% (Pbypass) allows the plant to accommodate a Main Turbine trip and avert an RPV pressure transient. Incorrect because it does not minimize changes in plant status and may result in alarming conditions that will not alarm in the control room.

Reference:

QCAN 901(2)-5 H-3 rev.03 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): RO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.4.32 Emergency Procedures / Plan: Knowledge of operator response to loss of all annunciators.

Importance: RO 3.6 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 147 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 76 ID: 2166717 Points: 1.00 Per QGA 500-4, RPV FLOODING, which of the following provides acceptable "Minimum Core Steam Flow" (MCSF) requirements and what is the bases for achieving these conditions?

A. RPV pressure 500 psig, 4 ADS Valves open.

Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 1500°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

B. RPV pressure 500 psig, 4 ADS valves open.

Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 2200°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

C. RPV pressure 800 psig, 2 ADS valve open.

Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 1500°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

D. RPV pressure 800 psig, 2 ADS valves open.

Provides sufficient flow through open ADS valves to prevent any clad temperature from exceeding 2200°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 148 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: The lowest pressure at which steam flow through open ADS valves is sufficient to preclude any clad temperature from exceeding 1500°F even if the reactor core is not completely covered.

Distractor 1: Plausible because RPV pressure and open ADS valves satisfy QGA 500-4 Detail P3 requirements. Incorrect because the bases is to maintain fuel cladding temperature below 1500 F not 2200 F.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the basis statement is correct. Incorrect because RPV pressure and open ADS valves do NOT satisfy QGA 500-4 Detail P3 requirements.

Distractor 3: Plausible because RPV pressure and open ADS valves satisfy QGA 500-4 Detail P3 requirements. Incorrect because the bases is to maintain fuel cladding temperature below 1500 F not 2200 F.

Reference:

EPGs/SAGs Appendix B Vol. I, rev.4 Reference provided during examination: QGA 500-4 Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295001 2.4.18 Partial or Complete Loss of Forced Core Flow Circulation: Knowledge of the specific bases for EOPs.

Importance: SRO 4.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.1/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used previously on NRC exam.

Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 149 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 77 ID: 2164398 Points: 1.00 Both units are operating at 100% power when annunciator 902-8 A-6, BATTERIES UNDERVOLTAGE, alarms.

An EO is dispatched and reports Unit 2 125VDC battery voltage is reading 124.5 VDC and the in-service charger has failed.

Until a charger is placed in service and voltage restored, Unit 2 is in a (1) Tech Spec Action Statement.

The duration of this Action Statement is based on (2) .

A. (1) 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> (2) the low probability of a DBA occurring during this time period.

B. (1) 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> (2) the capacity, reliability and capability of the remaining 125 VDC subsystem.

C. (1) 7 day (2) the low probability of a DBA occurring during this time period.

D. (1) 7 day (2) the capacity, reliability and capability of the remaining 125 VDC subsystem.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 150 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: From SR 3.8.4.1, part (b): "Verify battery terminal voltage on float charge is: > 125.9 VDC for each 125 VDC subsystem." This condition is not met, so the US would enter TS 3.8.4 Condition D, "Division 1 or 2 125 VDC electrical power subsystem inoperable for reasons other than Conditions B or C."

TS 3.8.4 Action Statement D.1: "Restore Division 1 or 2 125 VDC electrical power subsystem to OPERABLE status," with a completion time of 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

From B3.8.4, Action Statement D.1 and D.2: "The Completion Time of Required Action D.1 to restore the 125 VDC electrical power subsystem to OPERABLE status is based on the capacity, reliability and capability of the remaining 125 VDC subsystem."

Distractor 1: Plausible because the 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> completion time is correct. Incorrect because the basis stated does not apply to the TS 3.84 Condition D.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the completion time is correct for Unit 1. Incorrect because the basis statement and completion time are in error.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the basis statement is correct. Incorrect because the completion time applies to Unit 1.

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.8.4 Amendment 245/240, B 3.8.4-8 rev.0 Reference provided during examination: LCO 3.8.4 and surveillance requirements.

Cognitive Level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295004.AA2.02 Partial or Complete Loss of D.C. Power: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF DC POWER: Extent of partial or complete loss of DC power.

Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam.

Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 151 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 78 ID: 2167838 Points: 1.00

• Unit 1 has experienced a reactor scram and a loss of off-site power.

• A fire is reported in the U-1 Cable Tunnel.

• The Unit Supervisor has determined that normal and emergency plant procedures are insufficient to control the event.

Which Safe Shutdown Procedure, if any, should the Unit Supervisor direct the crew to enter?

A. No QCARPs are required.

B. QCARP 0060-02, CT-2 INJECTION WITH SSMP AND BRINGING THE UNIT TO COLD SHUTDOWN.

C. QCARP 0060-01, CT-1 INJECTION WITH SSMP AND BRINGING THE UNIT TO COLD SHUTDOWN.

D. QCARP 0030-01, TB-III INJECTION WITH SSMP AND BRINGING THE UNIT TO COLD SHUTDOWN.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 152 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: From QCOA 0010-12 attachment D, the Unit 1 cable tunnel is in area CT-1. QCARP 0060-01 addresses a fire in CT-1.

Distractor 1: Plausible because other procedures also are used to shutdown the reactor outside of the control room, ie. QOA 0010-05, Plant Operation with the Control Room Inaccessible. Incorrect because the QCARPS specifically address plant fires.

Distractor 2: Plausible because CT-2 (QCARP 0060-02) also addresses a Cable Tunnel fire.

Incorrect because it is for a Unit 2 Cable Tunnel fire.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Cable Tunnel runs adjacent to some TB-III areas.

Incorrect because the U-1 Cable Tunnel has a specific assigned area, (CT-1).

Reference:

QCOA 0010-12 rev.51 Reference provided during examination: QCOA 0010-12 Attachment D Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295016 2.4.8: Control Room Abandonment: Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

Importance: SRO 4.5 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 153 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 79 ID: 2164396 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is in Cold Shutdown.

• RPV water level is +30 inches.

• RPV water temperature is 190°F.

• RPV pressure is 97 psig.

• 1B Recirc Pump is running.

• Shutdown Cooling is running on A RHR Loop at 4500 gpm.

• MO 1-1001-16A, A RHR HX BYP VLV, is fully closed.

• RHRSW Pressure is 150 psig.

Moments later the NSO reports:

• 1B Recirc Pump has tripped.

• RPV water temperature is 195°F.

• RPV pressure has increased by 4 psig.

What action is required to be taken FIRST?

A. Raise RWCU reject flow per QCOP 1200-07, RWCU SYSTEM COOLANT REJECT.

B. Raise RHR Shutdown Cooling flow to 5000 gpm per QCOP 1000-05, SHUTDOWNN COOLING OPERATION.

C. Secure Shutdown Cooling AND reverse heat exchanger flow per QCOP 1000-04, RHR SERVICE WATER SYSTEM OPERATION.

D. Raise RPV water level to +90 to +100 inches per QCOP 0201-02, FILLING THE REACTOR VESSEL/ REACTOR CAVITY USING A CONDENSATE BOOSTER PUMP VIA THE FEEDWATER SYSTEM.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 154 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Reactor pressure rising above 100 psig, will isolate the 1-1001-47/50 valves on interlock. The conditions are such that vessel stratification is occurring. Per QCOP 1000-05, Shutdown Cooling Operation, E.17, when both recirc pumps are off maintain RPV water level > 90 inches to prevent stratification. Per QCOA 1000-02, Loss of Shutdown Cooling, raising RPV water level and starting a feed and bleed can prevent stratification from occurring.

Distractor 3: Plausible because starting a feed and bleed is a compensatory action if vessel stratification is occurring. Incorrect because RPV water level should be raised to at least +90 inches before a feed and bleed is started.

Distractor 2: Plausible because increasing SDC flow increases heat removal. Incorrect because there is adequate RHRSW pressure and the priority is to raise RPV water level.

Distractor 1: Plausible because SDC is not lowering RPV water temperature and RHR flow is adequate. Incorrect because there is no indication of RHR Heat Exchanger fouling.

Reference:

QCOP 1000-05 rev.62, QCOA 1000-02 rev.21 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295021 AA2.06 Loss of Shutdown Cooling: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING: Reactor pressure.

Importance: SRO 3.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 155 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 80 ID: 2164395 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 was at 100% power when a leak developed on the 1A Recirc Pump discharge line.

Plant conditions 30 minutes later:

• Mode switch is in SHUTDOWN.

• All rods are in.

• RPV pressure is 725 psig and lowering.

• RPV water level is -149 inches and holding.

• Drywell pressure is 8 psig and rising.

• RWCU system failed to isolate and cannot be manually isolated.

All other automatic actions occurred as designed.

What emergency classification will be made for Unit 1?

A. FS1, Site Area Emergency B. FA1, Alert C. CG6, General Emergency D. FG1, General Emergency Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 156 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: The conditions indicate a potential loss of the FC barrier (RPV water level

-149 Inches) and a loss of the RCS barrier (DW pressure > 2.5 psig due to RCS leakage). The Containment barrier is still intact because no Secondary Containment area is at a Max Safe radiation or temperature due to the failure of the RWCU system to isolate. With a potential loss of FC and a loss of RCS, the criteria for a Site Area Emergency is met.

Distractor 1: Plausible because RPV water level is < -142 inches for > 30 minutes AND a Containment Challenge Indication (unplanned rise in containment pressure). Incorrect because the Unit is not in Mode 4 or 5.

Distractor 2: Plausible because a primary system RWCU) failed to automatically isolate and could not be manually isolated with challenges the Containment barrier. Incorrect because no path (breach) to secondary containment exists.

Distractor 3: Plausible because there is a loss of the RCS barrier. Incorrect because there is also a potential loss of the FC barrier.

Reference:

EP-AA-1006 Addendum 3, rev.08 Reference provided during examination: EP-AA-1006, Hot and Cold Matrix Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295024 2.4.41 High Drywell Pressure: Knowledge of the emergency action level thresholds and classifications.

Importance: SRO 4.6 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.11 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 157 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 81 ID: 2166476 Points: 1.00 A full core ATWS with a Group I isolation has occurred on Unit 2.

• Reactor power 25%.

• RPV pressure 900 psig and steady.

• RPV water level -80 inches.

• Torus water temperature 145°F and rising.

• Torus Pressure 18 psig.

• Drywell pressure 20 psig.

• Torus water level 15.5 feet.

• One loop of RHR in Torus cooling at 7000 gpm.

What action has the HIGHEST priority?

A. Re-open the MSIVs per QCOP 0250-01, PRESSURIZING THE MAIN STEAM LINES.

B. Start Torus and Drywell Sprays per QCOP 1000-30, POST-ACCIDENT RHR OPERATION.

C. Start another loop of Torus Cooling per QCOP 1000-30, POST-ACCIDENT RHR OPERATION.

D. Reduce RPV pressure to 700 psig per QCOP 0203-01, REACTOR PRESSURE CONTROL USING MANUAL RELIEF VALVE ACTUATION.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 158 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: The QGA 101 Pressure Leg Override directs the SRO to lower RPV pressure when Torus temperature cannot be held below HCTL in QGA 200. The action to lower RPV pressure to stay below HCTL is therefore prioritized over other Primary Containment Control actions.

Distractor 1: Plausible because re-opening the MSIVs and using the Main Turbine Bypass Valves for RPV pressure control reduces heat input into the containment. Incorrect because it will not immediately restore Torus temperature within HCTL.

Distractor 2: Plausible because it is directed in QGA 200 when Torus pressure exceeds 5 psig.

Incorrect because it will not restore Torus temperature within HCTL.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it's an action directed in the QGA 200 Temperature Leg.

Incorrect because it will not immediately restore Torus temperature within HCTL.

Reference:

QGA 101 rev.17 Reference provided during examination: QGA 200, QGA 101 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 295026 EA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SUPPRESSION POOL HIGH WATER TEMPERATURE: Suppression pool level.

Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 159 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 82 ID: 2167681 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 75% power.

Generation Dispatch has informed the Shift Manager that the System Grid is RED.

• Generator Load is 715 MWe.

• Grid frequency is 59.2 Hz and slowly LOWERING.

• Main Turbine Bypass valves are CLOSED.

Which of the following actions will be directed FIRST?

A. Raise Generator load to 985 MWe per QCGP 3-1.

B. Insert a manual Reactor scram, trip the Generator and enter QCGP 2-3.

C. Transfer Main Generator voltage control from AUTO to MAN per QCOP 6000-07.

D. Initiate an emergency power reduction per QCGP 3-1 to 25% rated thermal power and trip the Main Turbine.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 160 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QCOA 6000-02 step D.6.b.. Maintaining high load is providing the power to the grid to help maintain the frequency as high as possible.

Distractor 1: Plausible because these are actions to protect the Main Generator and reactor.

Incorrect because the reactor is protected from an underfrequency condition by the RPS EPA relays (55.8-56.2 Hz).

Distractor 2: Plausible because swapping to Manual mode results in a constant field voltage possibly adding some protection to the Generator. Incorrect because this will not have any effect on stabilizing the grid.

Distractor 3: Plausible because an emergency power reduction is an action taken per QCOA 6000-02 for abnormally low grid frequency. Incorrect because this is done only if Main Turbine Bypass Valves are open.

Reference:

QCOA 6000-02 rev.22 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 1 K/A: 700000 2.1.32 Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: Ability to explain and apply system limits and precautions.

Importance: SRO 4.0 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.2 /45.12 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 161 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 83 ID: 2164328 Points: 1.00 Which sets plant conditions would allow initiation of Drywell sprays in accordance with QGA 200?

Drywell Pressure Drywell Temperature (1) 4 psig 200°F (2) 10 psig 400°F (3) 12 psig 550°F (4) 22 psig 400°F A. (1) ONLY B. (3) ONLY C. (2) and (3) ONLY D. (2), (3), and (4)

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 162 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per the EPGs, initiating Drywell sprays is allowed when conditions are to the right of the line on the DSIL curve. Initiating sprays to the left of the line could result in a pressure drop below atmospheric causing vacuum breakers to open or damage to primary containment.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the parameters are within the graph and on one side of the curve. Incorrect because the parameters must be to the right of the curve to allow DW spray initiation.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the parameters are on the graph and to the right of the curve.

Incorrect because it is not the ONLY set of parameters the allows initiation of DW sprays.

Distractor 3: Plausible because both parameter sets are on the graph and on the correct side of the curve. Incorrect because it is not the ONLY parameter set to the right of the curve allowing DW spray initiation.

Reference:

BWROG EPGs/SAG Appendix B Vol. II, rev.4 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295012 AA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE: Drywell pressure.

Importance: SRO 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 163 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 84 ID: 2164327 Points: 1.00 A LOCA has occurred on Unit 2.

• RPV pressure is 590 psig and LOWERING at 10 psig per minute.

• RPV level is -80 inches and being maintained with HPCI and RCIC.

• Torus water level is 16 ft and RISING at 6 inches per minute

• DW temperature is 235 degrees F and RISING at 0.5 degrees/minute.

• DW pressure is 7 psig and RISING at 1 psig per minute with both loops of Drywell sprays operating.

• Torus pressure 5.5 psig and RISING at 1 psig per minute with "A" loop Torus sprays operating.

Assuming NO ADDITIONAL operator actions, which of the following QGA actions will be required FIRST, and why?

A. Stop injection with HPCI and RCIC to prevent raising Torus level.

B. Initiate an RPV blowdown to allow low pressure ECCS systems to inject.

C. Stop Drywell sprays to prevent exceeding the primary containment negative pressure capability.

D. Initiate an RPV blowdown to prevent exceeding Primary Containment Pressure Suppression Limit (PSP).

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 164 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: With the given plant conditions, Torus water level will be at 17ft in two minutes.

Per QGA 200 - Torus Level branch:

IF you cannot HOLD level below 17ft (vacuum breakers), THEN:

1. Stop drywell sprays.

2. Stop injection from outside the primary containment not needed for core cooling or to shut down the reactor.

Drywell sprays are stopped high Drywell temperatures to prevent damage to DW due to Torus level covering the vacuum breakers. Operating sprays with the vacuum breakers submerged could cause the containment differential pressure capability to be exceeded. The Primary Containment Pressure and Drywell Temperature branches permit spray initiation only if torus water level is below 17 ft.

Distractor 1: Plausible because HPCI and RCIC are normally lined up with suction from the CCSTs. Incorrect because both are required to maintain core cooling, and both systems would have already transferred suction sources to the ECCS suction header due to high Torus level.

Distractor 2: Plausible because injection from HPCI / RCIC will eventually be lost as the RPV depressurizes and RPV level lowers. Incorrect because HPCI and RCIC are not presently drawing suction from outside of primary containment. Suction path is from the Torus.

Distractor 3: Plausible because an RPV blowdown will be required before violating the PSP limit. Incorrect because Torus pressure will not exceed the PSP limit for another ~12 minutes.

A blowdown based on DW temperature reaching 280 F will take over one hour.

Reference:

Quad Cities Nuclear Power Station QGA/SAMG Technical Bases, Draft A2 Reference provided during examination: QGA 200.

Cognitive Level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 2 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5/43.5/45.12/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used previously on NRC exam.

Comments: None.

QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 165 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 85 ID: 2164326 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a leak in the Torus develops:

• RPV water level 30 inches and steady

• RPV pressure 1000 psig and steady

• Torus level -2 inches and steady Torus level has been stable for 20 minutes and is being maintained per QCOP 1600-12, TORUS NORMAL LEVEL CONTROL, FILL AND DRAIN PROCEDURE DIRECTORY.

Moments later, the Unit 2 Admin NSO reports the following FAS alarms:

• 81-14 UNIT 1 HPCI VAULT FIRE

• 81-16 UNIT 1 HPCI VAULT DELUGE TROUBL An EO dispatched to the Reactor Building basement reports:

• Basement Area (Torus) water level is 2 inches and slowly rising.

• No leakage was seen in RHR and Core Spray Pump Rooms.

• HPCI Deluge System has actuated.

Per QGA 200 and QGA 300 which of the following actions must be directed?

A. Secure the HPCI Deluge System.

B. Shutdown the reactor per QCGP 2-1 NORMAL UNIT SHUTDOWN.

C. Verify Reactor Building Floor and Equipment Drain Sumps are operating.

D. Secure the Torus water addition per QCOP 1600-12 TORUS NORMAL LEVEL CONTROL, FILL AND DRAIN PROCEDURE DIRECTORY Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 166 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: QGA 300 directs continued operation of floor drain sumps to maintain level below the HI sump alarm setpoint. Plant conditions are not present to require execution of the other QGA actions listed.

Distractor 1: Plausible because QGA 300 directs isolating systems discharging into affected areas. Incorrect because the HPCI Deluge is required to suppress the fire.

Distractor 2: Plausible because it is a QGA 300 action for high water levels due to leakage of a non-primary system. Incorrect because it requires verification of two (2) areas above max safe water level.

Distractor 3: Plausible because QGA 300 directs isolating systems discharging into affected areas. Incorrect because Torus filling is a required QGA 200 action.

Reference:

QGA 200 rev.13, QGA 300 rev.14 References provided during examination: QGA 200 and QGA 300.

Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 1 Group: 2 K/A: 295036 EA2.03 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SECONDARY CONTAINMENT HIGH SUMP AREA WATER LEVEL: Cause of the high water level.

Importance: SRO 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 167 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 86 ID: 2164325 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is in Mode 3.

Annunciator 901-5-H-6, STANDBY LIQ SQUIB VALVE CIRCUIT FAIL, alarms.

• Squib A Valve Continuity Light is NOT lit.

• Both SBLC Pump indicating lights are OFF.

• The FLOW Indicating light is NOT lit.

• The "A" Squib Valve Continuity Monitor Ammeter indicates ZERO.

Instrument Maintenance has informed the Unit Supervisor that repair and testing will take two shifts.

Which of the following actions, if any, are required?

A. Be in MODE 3 within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

B. Restore SLC subsystem A to operable status within 7 days.

C. Restore one SLC subsystem to operable status within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.

D. No action required due to system still able to provide full SLC flow.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 168 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per TS 3.1.7 Bases, a SBLC subsystem consists of an operable pump, explosive valve, associated piping and valves and instrumentation and controls. The A Squib (explosive) valve is inoperable as indicated by the Continuity Ammeter reading of 0 milliamps.

TS 3.1.7 Condition A applies, 7 days to return the subsystem to operable status.

Distractor 1: Plausible because repair time exceeds the completion time (8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />) to return at least one subsystem to operable status. Incorrect because only one subsystem is inoperable.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the required completion time is 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> to return at least one subsystem to operable status. Condition C does not have to be entered immediately.

Incorrect because only one subsystem is inoperable.

Distractor 3: Plausible because one operable explosive valve is capable of supplying full flow (both pumps) to the reactor. Incorrect because of TS 3.1.7 Bases definition of an operable subsystem.

Reference:

TS 3.1.7 Bases rev.33, TS 3.1.7 LCO Amendment 233/229 Reference provided during examination: TS 3.1.7 LCO Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 211000 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the STANDBY LIQUID CONTROL SYSTEM; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Failure of explosive valve to fire.

Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None.

QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 169 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 87 ID: 2164324 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

RPS A is to be placed on the Reserve Power Supply in preparation for a weekend outage.

Prior to de-energizing RPS A, the breaker for MO 2-1201-2, RWCU RECIRC PUMPS SUCTION ISOL VLV will be opened to prevent its closure to keep the system pressurized.

Which of the following Technical Specification LCOs will you enter before the evolution?

A. TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A, ONLY.

B. TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A, ONLY.

C. TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A and TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A.

D. TS 3.3.8.2 Condition A and Condition B.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 170 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A is entered because the Reactor Building Ventilation system isolates when RPS A or B is de-energized. The Rx Bldg.Vent Radiation monitors are then inoperable because they are unable to monitor Reactor Building exhaust ventilation. The RPS MG Set EPAs are not considered inoperable and perform their function when the MG Set control switch is taken to trip. TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A is entered because the MO 2-1201-2 valve is a PCIV and is made inoperable when its breaker is opened.

Distractor 1: Plausible because TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A entry is required due to inoperable RB Vent Rad Monitors. Incorrect because TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A is also required.

Distractor 2: Plausible because TS 3.6.1.3 Condition A entry is required due to an inoperable RWCU suction valve. Incorrect because TS 3.3.6.2 Condition A entry is also required due to inoperable RB Vent Rad Monitors.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the RPS A MG Set is shut down tripping the EPAs. Incorrect because they operate as designed and are not considered inoperable.

Reference:

TS 3.6.1.3 Amendment 199/195, TS 3.3.6.2 Amendments 199/195 and 273/268, QCOP 7000-04 rev.08 Reference provided during examination: TS 3.6.1.3, TS 3.3.6.2, TS 3.3.8.2 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 212000 2.1.23 RPS Reactor Protection: Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.

Importance: SRO 4.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.2/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 171 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 88 ID: 2201735 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is at 100% power when the following annunciators alarm:

• 901-8 B-8, 120/240 AC ESS SERV BUS LOW VOLTAGE

• 901-8 F-8, ESS SERV UPS TROUBLE

• 901-8 E-9, ESS SERV BUS ON EMERG SPLY (1) What is the status of the ESS Bus?

(2) Which action has the HIGHEST priority?

A. (1) MCC 18-2 is powering the ESS Bus.

(2) Enter QOA 6800-03,120/240 VAC ESSENTIAL SEVICE BUS FAILURE and reopen the SJAE suction valves.

B. (1) MCC 18-2 is powering the ESS Bus.

(2) Enter QCOA 3500-01, FEEDWATER TEMPERATURE REDUCTION WITH MAIN TURBINE ONLINE and initiate an emergency power reduction to limit the power increase.

C. (1) Bus 17 is powering the ESS Bus.

(2) Enter QCOA 3500-01, FEEDWATER TEMPERATURE REDUCTION WITH MAIN TURBINE ONLINE and initiate an emergency power reduction to limit the power increase.

D. (1) Bus 17 is powering the ESS Bus.

(2) Enter QOA 6800-03,120/240 VAC ESSENTIAL SEVICE BUS FAILURE and reopen the SJAE suction valves.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 172 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: The annunciators given indicate that ESS is being fed by MCC 18-2 through the ABT. When this transfer occurs, there is a momentary loss of power to the ESS bus which cause all feedwater heaters to trip, RWCU system isolates, SBGTS initiates, A FRV lockup, and the SJAE suction valves to close. The priority action is to reopen the SJAE suction valves before Main Condenser back pressure reaches 8 in Hg resulting in a Main Turbine trip and reactor scram.

Distractor 1: Plausible because MCC 18-2 is supplying the ESS Bus and the A FRV is locked up. Incorrect because RPV water level will be controlled by the B FRV which remains in AUTO.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the Feedwater Heaters will trip on a loss of the ESS Bus.

Incorrect because the ESS Bus is supplied by MCC 18-2 and a transfer to Bus 17 via the Static Switch would not cause an actuation/isolation.

Distractor 3: Plausible because RWCU isolates on a loss of the ESS Bus. Incorrect because the ESS Bus is supplied by MCC 18-2 and a transfer to Bus 17 via the Static Switch would not cause an actuation/isolation.

Reference:

QOA 6800-03 rev.50, QOA 900-8 E-9 rev.03, QCOA 3500-01 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 262002 A2.01 Uninterruptable Power Supply (AC/DC) Ability to (a) predict impacts of the following on the UNITERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY (AC/DC), and (b) based on those predictions , use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Under voltage.

Importance: SRO 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 173 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 89 ID: 2164322 Points: 1.00 Both Units are in Mode 1.

• At 1000 on June 1, Unit 1 EDG is declared INOPERABLE.

• At 1400 on June 2, Unit 1/2 EDG is declared INOPERABLE.

• At 1500 on June 2, Unit 1 EDG is restored to OPERABLE status.

When would Unit 1 be required to start a shutdown if the Unit 1/2 EDG is NOT returned to operable status?

A. 1000 on June 8 B. 1000 on June 9 C. 1400 on June 9 D. 1400 on June 10 Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 174 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Since the first inoperability is fixed first, and the second inoperability was concurrent with the first, a Completion Time extension of 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> can be applied to the original Completion Time for TS 3.8.1, Required Action B.4. (1.0 Use and Application, 1.3 Completion Times.)

Distractor 1: Plausible because an inoperable DG is a 7 day LCO and the initial inoperability is 1000 June 1. Incorrect because it does not account for the additional 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> allowed for concurrent inoperabilities.

Distractor 2: Plausible the 1/2 DG inoperability is entry into a 7 day LCO and the U1 DG has been returned to operable status. Incorrect because the time clock must start from the first inoperability and include an additional 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Distractor 3: Plausible because it correctly determines total LCO time as 7 days plus the additional 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />. Incorrect because the time clock must start be from the first inoperability, not the second.

Reference:

TS 3.8.1 Cond. B, Amendment 275/270, TS 1.3 (Example 1.3-2), Amendment 267/262 Reference provided during examination: TS 3.8.1 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 1 K/A: 264000 2.2.40 Emergency Generators (Diesel/Jet): Ability to apply Technical Specifications for a system.

Importance: SRO 4.7 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.2/43.5/45.3 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 175 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 90 ID: 2164261 Points: 1.00 Both Units are operating at 100% power with the following Instrument Air Compressor (IAC) line-up:

1/2B IAC - running 1/2 IAC - running 1A IAC - standby U2 IAC - OOS The 1/2B IAC trips and the following annunciators alarm:

• 912-1 D-11, UNIT 1/2B INST AIR LOW PRESS

• 912-1 A-11, UNIT 1A INST AIR LOW PRESS

• 912-1 A-12, 1A SERV AIR BACKUP VLV OPEN The NSO has performed the immediate operator actions of QOA 4700-06, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR and dispatched an EO to the IACs. The NSO reports:

• 912-1 A-9, U-1A AIR DRYER FAILURE has alarmed.

• 1A IAC outlet pressure is low.

• Instrument Air Receiver pressures are approximately 78 psig and slowly lowering.

Which of the following actions will be DIRECTED FIRST?

A. Scram the reactor and enter QCGP 2-3, REACTOR SCRAM.

B. Close the 1-3207A, FW TO LO FLOW OUTLET ISOL VLV, per QOA 4700-06, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR.

C. Open the 1A Instrument Air Dryer Bypass valve 1-4799-549A per QOA 4700-06, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR.

D. Line-up the Diesel Driven Air Compressor per QCOP 4700-12, ALTERNATE INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM RECOVERY.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 176 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: QOA 4700-06, directs opening the 1-4799-549A if there is indication of a problem with the filters or dryers. In this case the report of a low outlet pressure on the 1A IAC and the absence of annunciator 912-1 A-9 alarm which indicates the air dryer to not auto swap.

Distractor 1: Plausible because it is an action directed by QOA 4700-06 for a loss of Instrument Air. Incorrect because the scram criteria of < 55 psig Scram Air Header pressure or 2 or more rods drifting has not occurred.

Distractor 2: Plausible because QOA 4700-06 directs closing the 1-3207A if Instrument Air pressure cannot be maintained > 75 psig. Incorrect because the plant is at 100% power and both FWRV are controlling RPV water level. If the LFFRV were to fail open, the FRVs would compensate preventing a transient.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the existing plant Instrument Air equipment is becoming unavailable, ie. only one functioning IAC. Incorrect because the delivery time for the Air compressor may be 8-12 hours and setup time may take 1 or more shifts.

Reference:

QOA 4700-02 rev.18, QOA 4700-03 rev 12, QOA 4700-06 rev.29 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 300000 A2.01 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Air dryer and filter malfunctions.

Importance: SRO 2.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 177 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 91 ID: 2167842 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is in Mode 5.

The fourth fuel assembly is being inserted into a fuel cell in the core during refueling operations.

The core load is 95% complete.

• SRM 21 has jumped 500 counts and is rising.

• SRMs 22, 23, and 24 are all slowly rising.

What is the status of the Reactor and what direction should be given to the Fuel Handling crew?

A. Critical. Stop all fuel movements and investigate the cause.

B. Critical. Raise the fuel assembly Grapple to full up and then stop.

C. Subcritical. Continue insertion of the fuel assembly, this indication is normal.

D. Subcritical. Remove the fuel assembly and place it back in the spent fuel pool.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 178 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Increasing SRM count with no rod movement indicates the reactor is supercritical.

QCFHP 0110-02 C.1. provides the following direction to take if inadvertent criticality occurs:

C.1. Stop all fuel movement AND do NOT attempt to raise OR lower Grapple.

C.2. Request Control Room Operator to scram Reactor.

C.3. Direct the Unit Reactor Operator to evacuate Reactor Building AND control access to the Reactor Building (including Drywell).

Distractor 1: Plausible because SRM indication is that an inadvertent criticality has occurred and removing the fuel bundle would return the core back to a subcritical state. Incorrect because the procedural direction is to "stop all fuel movement and do not attempt to raise or lower Grapple."

Distractor 2: Plausible because completing the fuel move with no indication of an inadvertent criticality is procedurally correct. Incorrect because SRM indication is that of an inadvertent criticality condition.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the SRM response is unexpected and removing the bundle would return the core back to the initial reactivity state. Incorrect because SRM indication is that of an inadvertent criticality condition.

Reference:

QCFHP 0110-02, rev.04 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 234000 A1.03 Fuel-Handling Equipment: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the FUEL HANDLING EQUIPMENT controls including:

core reactivity level Importance: SRO 3.9 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.5 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used previously on NRC exam.

Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 179 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 92 ID: 2167775 Points: 1.00 A radwaste discharge from the River Discharge Tank (RDT) is in progress.

• Annunciator 2212-4 G-4, RADWASTE EFFLUENT RAD MONITOR FAILURE, alarms.

• The discharge is terminated.

• Chemistry has been notified.

What condition must be met in order to continue the discharge?

A. Grab samples taken hourly and the discharge can continue immediately.

B. Grab samples taken every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> and instrument returned to service in 30 days.

C. Discharge rate is calculated every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, the verifications are logged in the Shift Manager logs and the instrument is made operable within 30 days.

D. At least 2 independent samples are analyzed, and the release rate calculations and discharge valve lineup are independently validated by 2 technically qualified members of facility staff.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 180 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 181 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer explanation: Per CY-QC-170-301 ODCM:

12.2.1 Radioactive Liquid Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation REC 12.2.1 The effluent monitoring instrumentation in Table 12.2.1-1 shall be OPERABLE with alarm setpoints set to ensure the limits of REC 12.3.1 are not exceeded. The instrument alarm setpoints shall be determined in accordance with the ODCM.

Per Table 12.2.1-1, Condition D is entered.

Condition D: Liquid Radwaste Effluent Gross Activity Monitor with less than the minimum number of OPERABLE channels.

Required Actions are:

D.1 Perform RSR 12.3.1.1 on at least two independent samples of the tanks contents.

AND D.2 Perform independent verification of the release rate calculations and discharge line valve line-up using at least two technically qualified members of the facility staff.

AND D.3 Return instrument channel to OPERABLE status.

Distractor 1: Plausible because Required Action D.3.states the completion time for returning the instrument to operable status is 30 days. Incorrect because 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> grab samples are not required.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the total radioactivity in the tank has been calculated and approved prior to release. Incorrect because the 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> sampling applies to an inoperable Liquid Radwaste Flow Rate Monitor.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the total radioactivity in the tank has been calculated and approved prior to release. Incorrect because station procedures direct terminating the discharge immediately along with required actions per the ODCM.

Reference:

CY-QC-170-301 ODCM, rev.14 Reference provided during examination: CY-QC-170-301 ODCM, pages 43-46 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 268000 2.2.38 Radwaste: Knowledge of conditions and limitation in the facility license.

Importance: SRO 4.3 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.11/43.4/45.10 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 182 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 183 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 93 ID: 2164259 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when the following occurs:

• Annunciator 901-3 D-2, OFF GAS HI RADIATION, alarms.

• The NSO reports count rate has doubled on both SJAEs.

• Chemistry reports that the H2 concentration in the Off-Gas Holdup Line is >4%.

What action is required?

A. Be in MODE 3 within the next 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

B. Scram and isolate the Main Steam Lines.

C. Restore Hydrogen concentration in limits within 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />.

D. Chemistry obtains a reactor coolant grab sample within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.

Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 184 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: Per TLCO 3.7.e Condition A, with the H2 concentration >4% in the Holdup Line, the required action is to restore H2 concentration back to limits within 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />.

Distractor 1: Plausible because TS 3.7.6 Condition B required action is to place the unit in Mode 3 within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> if the Off-Gas activity is not reduced to within limits within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

Incorrect because the TS Off-Gas activity limit is based on a gross failure of the Off-Gas system.

Distractor 2: Plausible because actions for Off-Gas HI-HI alarm is to insert a scram, close the MSIVs, and isolate the Off-Gas system. Incorrect because the Off-Gas HI-HI condition is not present.

Distractor 3: Plausible because is a required action for high Off Gas activity per QCOA 1700-

04. Incorrect because the reactor coolant and recombiner outlet activity sample must be obtained within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

Reference:

TRM TLCO 3.7.e., rev.0., TS 3.7.6 Bases, rev.31 Reference provided during examination: TRM section 3.7 Plant Systems, TS section 3.7.6 Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 2 Group: 2 K/A: 271000 A2.04 Offgas: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on OFFGAS SYSTEM; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Offgas system high radiation Importance: SRO 4.1 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.5/45.6 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 185 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 94 ID: 2164258 Points: 1.00 What are the requirements regarding general plant tours made by the Shift Manager?

The Shift Manager is required to...

A. remain within 10 minutes of the Control Room.

B. tour the Control Room first to ensure the units are stable.

C. turnover STATION EMERGENCY DIRECTOR authority to another qualified individual.

D. contact the Control Room at least every 10 minutes by telephone or radio while on tour.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 186 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: OP-AA-105-102, step 4.1.1, Maintain an active license by actively performing the functions of RO or SRO. Per OP-AA-101-111, Step 4.1.20, one of the functions of the Shift Manager is that The Shift Manager shall remain withing 10 minutes of the Control Room.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the Shift Manager is required to tour the Control Room daily.

Incorrect because it is not a requirement prior to performing a plant tour.

Distractor 2: Plausible because other license positions, Unit Supervisor, Unit RO must perform turnovers prior to leaving their post (ie. mid-shift relief). Incorrect because the Shift Manager maintains authority/ responsibility even when touring the plant.

Distractor 3: Plausible because the Shift Manager is required to be within 10 minutes of the control room. Incorrect because there is no requirement to contact the control room every 10 minutes.

Reference:

OP-AA-101-111 rev.12, OP-AA-112-111 rev.16 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.1.4 Knowledge of individual licensed operator responsibilities related to shift staffing, such as medical requirements, "no-solo" operation, maintenance of active license status, 10CFR55, etc.

Quad Cities Objective: SR-OPS-K6 (Freq: LIC=I N=I) DESCRIBE the requirements to maintain an Active License per OP-AA-105-101 and OP-AA-105-102.

Importance: SRO 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.2 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used on previous NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 187 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 95 ID: 2168856 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 was at 10% reactor power, performing a normal reactor startup, when the following sequence of events occurred:

• A control rod was selected to be withdrawn from position '00' to position '12'.

• Because the control rod was difficult to move from position '00', the NSO used "Double Clutching"

• The NSO performed the double clutching procedure and immediately released the 'ROD MOVEMENT CONTROL switch' and 'ROD OUT NOTCH OVERRIDE switch' when the rod started to move.

• The rod settled at position 06.

In accordance with QCGP 4-1, Control Rod Movements and Control Rod Sequence:

(1) Did the actions to move the control rod from position '00' comply with the requirements for the use of the continuous control rod withdrawal feature?

(2) Which method(s) may be used to withdraw the control rod to position '12'?

A. (1) NO, the requirements were NOT met.

(2) Single notch to position '12' ONLY B. (1) NO, the requirements were NOT met.

(2) Continuous rod withdrawal to position '10', then single notch to position '12' C. (1) Yes, the requirements were met.

(2) Single notch to position '12' ONLY D. (1) Yes, the requirements were met.

(2) Continuous rod withdrawal to position '10', then single notch to position '12' Answer: C QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 188 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: The Operations Standards and Expectations section on Conservative Decision Making requires that plant procedures incorporate steps for reactivity changes only in a deliberate, carefully controlled manner. That requirement is reflected in QCGP 4-1 Step E.17. The note in step E17.a allows use of the continuous control rod withdrawal feature for rods that are difficult to move from Full-In. Section E.17.b dis-allows continuous rod movement, either in or out, for rod movement of 3 notches or less.

Distractor 1: Plausible because single notching is required when the target position is 3 notches or less. Incorrect because continuous withdrawal is allowed for rods that are difficult to withdraw from full in.

Distractor 2: Plausible because single notch is used from position 10 to 12. Incorrect because continuous withdrawal was not permitted from position 06 to 10. Continuous withdrawal was only allowed from full-in.

Distractor 3: Plausible because continuous withdrawal is allowed from full-in. Incorrect because it was not allowed from position 06.

Reference:

QCGP 4-1 rev.50, OP-AA-101-111-1001, rev.25, QCOA 0300-02, rev.24 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 KA: 2.1.39 Knowledge of conservative decision making practices.

Importance: 4.3 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.12 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used previously on NRC exam.

Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 189 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 96 ID: 2168855 Points: 1.00 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

• As the Work Execution Center (WEC) SRO, you are reviewing a Work Order to repair the Unit 1 HPCI Auxiliary Oil Pump, 1-2308.

• Part of the review includes the final checks on HPCI performance that will be needed prior to declaring the HPCI System OPERABLE.

In which procedure do you find guidance on the checks to be performed?

A. MA-AA-716-012, POST MAINTENANCE TESTING.

B. OP-AA-108-115, OPERABILITY DETERMINATIONS.

C. MA-AA-1000, CONDUCT OF MAINTENANCE MANUAL.

D. MA-MW-716-010-1000-F-06, QUAD CITIES STATION WORK PACKAGE QUALITY VERIFICATION CHECKLIST Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 190 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: This procedure provides standard process guidance on requirements and expectations to ensure that when any maintenance or configuration change is performed, that (1) the original deficiency is corrected, (2) no new deficiency has been created as a result of maintenance activities or configuration change, and (3) equipment will perform its intended function when returned to service.

Distractor 1: Plausible because this document defines the process for determination of operability of SSCs included in Tech Specs and SSCs that perform required support functions for SSCs that are required to be operable by TSs. Incorrect because it does not offer guidance or address specific requirements for a PMT.

Distractor 2: Plausible because this document defines the methodology for reviewing, approving, and implementing specific Maintenance guidance across Exelon Nuclear. Incorrect because it does not address PMT requirements.

Distractor 3: Plausible because this document assures PMTs are accounted for in the Work Package. Incorrect because it does not address specific requirements or guidance for the PMT.

Reference:

MA-AA-716-012 Rev 20 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.21 Knowledge of pre- and post-maintenance operability requirements.

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.2 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used previously on NRC exam.

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43(b)5 Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 191 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 97 ID: 2164255 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

While performing QOS 0005-01, Operations Department Weekly Summary of Daily Surveillances, the NSO reports Drywell temperature sensor 2-5741-43A has failed.

All other temperature sensors in the same area are reading correctly.

The failed sensor feeds Point 8 on recorder 2-2340-9, DRYWELL TEMPERATURE RECORDER at the 902-3 panel and also inputs to Annunciator 902-3 H-4, DRYWELL HIGH AIR TEMPERATURE.

Which of the following methods will be directed to track and identify the inoperable alarm point?

A. Install a temporary label on the defective indicator per OP-AA-116-101, Equipment Labeling.

B. Place a TCC Tag on TR 2340-9, identifying the defective indicator per CC-AA-112, Temporary Configuration Changes.

C. Post an Information Tag adjacent to the defective indicator per OP-AA-109-101, Personnel and Equipment Tagout Process.

D. Place an Equipment Deficiency Tag adjacent to the defective indicator per OP-AA-108-105, Equipment Deficiency Identification and Documentation.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 192 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per OP-AA-108-105, Shift Supervision shall ensure the following exist to support continued plant operation:

1. The level of personnel and plant safety is not compromised.

A. Evaluate the impact on plant OR B. If personnel or plant safety is at risk because of the degraded component, it shall be removed from service.

2. The status of the degraded component (or train) is identified via an Equipment Status Tag on the control switch for the component (or train).

Distractor 1: Plausible because temporary labels are used to identify equipment. Incorrect because they are not used to convey status or operation.

Distractor 2: Plausible because CC-AA-112 would be used if the alarm were disabled by the operator or if a temporary modification were to be put in place to monitor the indication.

Incorrect because the sensor is inoperable and only requires repair.

Distractor 3: Plausible because OP-AA-109-101, Clearance and Tagging, is used to either prevent or control operation. Incorrect because the process is designed for personnel protection while performing work on systems.

Reference:

OP-AA-108-105 rev 11, OP-AA-108-105-1001 rev 7, QCAN 901(2)-3 H-4 rev 7 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: Memory Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.2.43 EQUIPMENT CONTROL: Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms.

10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.13 Importance: SRO 3.3 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: 2016 ILT NRC exam Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 193 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 98 ID: 2168796 Points: 1.00 An Appendix R fire is occurring.

The Unit Supervisor is directing actions per QCARP 0050-02.

The EO dispatched to align RCIC for injection calls back and reports that the RCIC Room is roped off as a contaminated area.

What direction will be given to complete the task?

A. Don protective clothing, then align RCIC for injection.

B. Enter the contaminated area and align RCIC for injection.

C. Obtain Shift Manager approval to enter the room without protective clothing.

D. Do not enter the RCIC Room until a Radiation Protection Technician is there to assist.

Answer: B QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 194 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QCARP 0050-02, step E.8.a.:

Strict adherence to normal Radiation Protection practices is NOT required. Contaminated areas may need to be entered without standard protective clothing. Radiation Protection barriers may be bypassed to access necessary equipment.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the fire may have changed radiological conditions throughout the plant. Incorrect because emergency conditions allow for bypassing requirements to enter a contaminated area.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Shift Manager approval is required for some activities.

Incorrect because the emergency situation allows for bypassing such approvals.

Distractor 3: Plausible because protective clothing is normally required to enter a contaminated area. Incorrect because emergency situations allow for crossing step off pads without donning protective clothing.

Reference:

QCARP 0050-02 rev.39 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.3.14 Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities.

Importance: SRO 3.8 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.12/43.4/45.10 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e.,

how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 195 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 99 ID: 2168747 Points: 1.00 A hydraulic ATWS has occurred on Unit 2.

• 1/2 of the control rods failed to scram.

• The NSO is driving control rods from the 902-5 panel

• Initial SBLC tank level was 85% and is now at 78%.

• The Main Condenser is available.

The ANSO reports the 2A TBCCW pump has tripped and the 2B TBCCW pump is out of service.

Which actions will the SRO direct?

A. (1) Maintain RPV pressure band of 800 to 1000 psig.

(2) Control RPV water level between -162 and -35 inches.

B. (1) Maintain RPV pressure band of 800 to 1000 psig.

(2) Trip the CRD pump and individually scram control rods.

C. (1) Lower RPV pressure to 700 psig.

(2) Close the MSIVs.

D. (1) Lower RPV pressure at 700 psig.

(2) Raise RPV water level to +40 inches and trip the Reactor Feed Pumps.

Answer: A QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 196 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer explanation: Per QGA 101, with reactor power > 5%, level band B (-162 to -35 inches) is the correct action. An RPV pressure band of 350 to 1000 psig is allowed, however, per OP-QC-103-102-1002, Quad Cities Strategies for Successful Transient Mitigation, recommends an initial pressure band of 800 to 1000 psig. The lower limit of 800 psig will not complicate level interpretation from the charts. The upper limit of 1000 psig is a round number below 1040 psig.

QGA actions are prioritized over QCOA actions. QCOA 3800-03 for the loss of TBCCW directs lowering RPV pressure to 700 psig and closing the MSIVs. This removes the Main Condenser as a heat sink and presents a challenge to primary containment.

Distractor 1: Plausible because QCOA 3800-03 directs lowering RPV pressure to 700 psig and closing the MSIVs. Incorrect because QGA 101 directs a different pressure band and has actions to maintain the MSIVs open and use the Main Condenser as a heat sink.

Distractor 2: Plausible because the RPV pressure band is correct and directed by the QGAs.

Incorrect because the CRD pumps are not to be tripped until all rods are inserted, even if they eventually trip due to loss of TBCCW.

Distractor 3: Plausible because QCOA 3800-03 directs lowering RPV pressure to 700 psig.

Incorrect because the QGA direction in the pressure leg is to control reactor pressure between 800 and 1000 psig.

Reference:

QGA 101 rev.17, QCOA 3800-03 rev.15, OP-QC-103-102-1002 rev.01 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 K/A: 2.4.23 Knowledge of the bases for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation during emergency operations.

Importance: SRO 4.4 10 CFR 55 Content: 41.10/43.4/45.13 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: New Question History: N/A Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 197 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 100 ID: 2164252 Points: 1.00 A Site Area Emergency condition exists due to a high offsite release rate on Unit 2.

(1) What is the PREFERRED source of Wind Speed and Direction?

(2) What is the time requirement to notify the State and Local Agencies?

A. (1) The National Weather Service.

(2) Within 15 minutes of discovery of the E-Plan plant conditions.

B. (1) Contracted Weather Service -- Murray and Trettel.

(2) Within 15 minutes of discovery of the E-Plan plant conditions.

C. (1) Wind Speed and Direction meters on the 912-4 panel.

(2) Within 15 minutes of declaration of the E-Plan classification.

D. (1) The Site Radiological Effluent panel of the Plant Parameter Display computer program (PPDS).

(2) Within 15 minutes of declaration the E-Plan classification.

Answer: D QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 198 of 199 21 May 2021

Test Answer Key 2021 ILT NRC EXAM SRO FINAL Test ID: 349707 Answer Explanation Answer Explanation: EP-MW-114-100, Midwest Region Off-Site Notifications, requires state notifications are completed within 15 minutes of:

a. Declaring an emergency

b. Emergency Classification escalation

c. Issuing or changing Protective Action Recommendations (PARs)

d. A radioactive release or a change in radioactive release status Meteorological data is obtained from sources in the order listed below:

- PPDS data

- Control Room Meteorological Instruments

- Contracted Weather Service - Murray and Trettel

- National Weather Service (NWS)

- Direct Observation Estimate- Estimation of the wind direction by direct observation of outside conditions.

Distractor 1: Plausible because the NWS is a procedural option. Incorrect because NWS is not the most preferred source and the time clock start is in error.

Distractor 2: Plausible because Murray and Trettel contracted weather service is a procedural option. Incorrect because the time clock start is in error.

Distractor 3: Plausible because Control Room Instrumentation is a procedural option.

Incorrect because the Wind Speed and Direction meters on the 912-4 panel at Quad Cities are not accurate.

Reference:

EP-AA-114-100 Rev 20 Reference provided during examination: None Cognitive level: High Level (RO/SRO): SRO Tier: 3 KA: G2.4.38: Ability to take actions called for in the facility emergency plan, including supporting or acting as emergency coordinator if required.

Importance: SRO= 4.4 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5/45.11 SRO Justification: Can the question be answered solely by knowing systems knowledge, i.e., how the system works, flowpath, logic, component location? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing immediate operator actions? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing entry conditions for AOPs or plant parameters that require direct entry to major EOPs? No Can the question be answered solely by knowing the purpose, overall sequence of events, or overall mitigative strategy of a procedure? No Question Source: Bank Question History: Not used previously on NRC exam.

Comments: None QC-OPS-EXAM-ILT Page: 199 of 199 21 May 2021