Text

Forwards NRC Approved Operator Licensing Exam Repts 50-272/98-301OL & 50-311/98-301OL,with as Given Written Exam for Tests Administered on 980626
	ML18106B094
Person / Time
Site:	Salem
Issue date:	03/12/1999
From:	Curley V; NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION I)
To:	; NRC OFFICE OF INFORMATION RESOURCES MANAGEMENT (IRM)
References
	50-272-98-301OL, 50-311-98-301OL, NUDOCS 9903170265
	Download: ML18106B094 (62)
	v • d • e

July 8, 1998

SUBJECT:

SALEM UNIT 1 AND UNIT 2 SENIOR REACTOR OPERA TOR (SRO) RETAKE EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-272&311 /98-301 (OL)

Dear Mr. Keiser:

This report transmits the results of the SRO written retake examination administered by your training department on June 26, 1998.

Your training staff administered the exam to one SRO candidate who failed the initial written examination administered in January 1998. The candidate passed the retake examination ~nd was issued a license.

This examination addressed areas important to public health and safety and was developed by the Salem training department under Interim Revision 8 to the Examiner Standards (NUREG-1021). NRC Region 1 provided oversight and final approval prior to the administration of the examination. Salem training personnel subsequently administered the NRC approved written examination.

The*quality of the submitted exam was acceptable with some exceptions, and required only a few changes to address NRC comments.

In accordance with 10 CFR 2. 790 of the NRC' s "Rules of Practice," a copy of this letter and its enclosures will be placed in the NRC Public Document Room.

(.

Mr. Harold No.reply to this letter is required, but should you have any questions regarding this examination, please contact me at (610) 337-5183.

Docket Nos. 50-272; 50-311

Sincerely,

..

-£:0dJ.f~

Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety

Enclosure:

Initial Examination Report No. 50-272&311 /98-301 (OL) w/Attachment 1

REGION 1 50-27 2 and 50-311 98-301 (OL)

Public Service Electric and Gas Salem Units 1 and 2 June 26, 1998 T. Fish, Operations Engineer/Examiner Richard J. Conte, Chief Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety

EXECUTIVE SUMMARY Salem Units 1 and 2 Report No. 50-272&311/98-301 (OL)

Operations A retake written examination was administered to one Senior Reactor Operator (SRO)

candidate who failed the initial examination administered in January 1998. The individual passed the retake examination and was issued a license.

ii

Report Details I. Ooerations

Operator Training and Qualifications 05.1 Senior Reactor Operator (SRO) Written Examination a.

Scope A written retake examination was admin.istered to one SRO instant applicant.

b.

Observations and Findings The Salem training department administered the exam under. Interim Revision 8 of the Examiner Standards, with the exception that the time allotted for the exam was five hours instead of four. The longer time period, however, was consistent with the time allowed by the draft Final Revision 8 and approved by the Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch in the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. The applicant passed the examination and was issued a license.

The quality of the facility-prepared examination was acceptable with some exceptions, and required only a few changes to address NRC comments. Two questions needed to be replaced; other comments were enhancements or editorial.

The facility had no post exam comments.

c.

Conclusions The training staff successfully remediated the applicant.

Attachments: Salem SRO Written Exam W/Answer Key

U.S. Nuclear Regu~atory Commission

Site-Specific Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Region: I Date:

Facility/Unit: Salem 1 & 2 License Level: SRO Reactor Type: w StartTime:

Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the

.

answer sheets. The passing grade requires a final grade of at least 80.00 percent. Examination papers will be collected four hours after the examination starts.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicanfs Signature Results

. Examination Value Points Applicant's Score Points Applicant's Grade Percent

- 1 -

APPENDIX E POLICIES AND GUIDELINES FOR TAKING NRC EXAMINATIONS Each examinee shall be briefed on the policies and guidelines applicable to the examination category (written and/or operating test) being adninistered. * The applicants.may be briefed individually or as a gr~. Facility licensees are encouraged to distribute a copy of this appendix to every examinee before the examinations begin.

All items apply to both initial and requalification examinations, except as "'°ted.

PART A * GENERAL GUIDELINES 1.

[Reed Verbatilll Cheating on any part of the examination will result in a denial of your application and/or action against your license.

2.

If you have any questions concerning the adninistration of any part of the examination, do not hesitate asking them before starting that part of the test.

4.

SRO applicants will be tested at the level of responsibility of the senior licensed shift position (i.e., shift supervisor, senior shift supervisor, or whatever the title of the position may be).

5.

You rrust pass every part of the examination to receive a license or *to continue performing license duties. Applicants for an SRO*upgrade license may require remedial training in order to continue their RO duties if the examination reveals deficiencies in the required knowledge and abilities.

6.

The NRC examiner is not allowed to reveal the results of any part of the examination until they have been reviewed and approved by NRC management. * Grades provided by the facility licensee are preliminary until approved by the NRC.

You will be informed of the official examination results about 30 days after all the examinations are coq:>lete.

PART 8 * WRITTEN EXAMINATION GUIDELINES 1.

t!.ead Verbati!ll After you coq:>lete the examination, sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or given assistance in coq:>leting the examination.

2.

To pass the examination, you rrust achieve a grade of 80.00 percent or greater. Every question is worth one.point.

3.

For an initial examination, the time limit for coq:>leting the examination is four hours.

For a requal ification examination, the time limit for* coq:>leting both sections of the examination is three hours. lf both sections are adninistered in the sinulator during a single three-hour period, you may return to a section of the examination that was already coq:>leted or retain both sections of the examination until the allotted time has expired.

4.

You may bring pens and calculators into the examination roan.

Use only black inlc to ensure leglble copies.

5.

Print your name in the blank provided on the examination cover sheet and the answer sheet.

You may be asked to provide the examiner with some form of positive identification.

6.

Harle your answers on the answer sheet provided and do not leave any question blank. Use only the paper provided and do not write on the baclc side of the pages.

If you decide to change your original answer, draw a single line through the error, enter the desired answer, and* init.ial the change.

7.

If the intent of a question is unclear, aslc questions of the NRC examiner or the designated facility instructor only.

8.

RestrOOlll trips are pen11itted, but only one applicant at a time will be allowed to leave.

Avoid all contact with anyone outside the examination roan to eliminate even the appearance or possibility. of cheating.

9.

\\Jhen you coq:>lete the examination, assenble a package including the examination questions, examination aids, answer sheets, and scrap paper and give it to the NRC examiner or proctor.

Remeirber to sign the statement on the examination cover sheet indicating that the worlc is your own and that you have neither given nor received assistance in coq:>leting the examination.

The scrap paper will be disposed of inmediately after the examination.

10.

After you have turned in your examination, leave the examination area as defined by the proctor or NRC exBllliner.

If you are found in this area while the examination is still in progress, your

,*

Appendix E license may be denied or revoked.

11.

Do you have any questions?

""'*

PART C RATING TEST GUIDELINES 1.

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you are asked a questioii.. or di rec

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, you should not hesitate a9lc for clarification.

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The exalat.. ner will tl!~tes thrOughout the test to doc~f yoUf..,,_perfonnance, and s~

the examiner may ta~~-iiiort break for*._this reason.

T,h*-1imount of n6te*taking does ~~reflect your lev~l.of.~~nce. The examiner i~ requir_~,t6r"docllllent satisfaet~ry as ~µt-as less than sat1s~ pe_rformance.

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e operating test is considered 11,open reference." The reference.111.1ttei-fi! that is normally available to operators in the.t~i l ity and control room ( incluqmg cal ibrat.ion curves, previous log en~ries, piping and 'instr~tation diagrams, "calculation,sheets, and procedures) is also available to you during the oper~ii'ig test.

However, you shoul_q)i:liow from memory cert;i't~. automati~ac

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set points, inte~l.<>:<:ks!".operating cha~a~teristics.~;~ ~he inmediate actions o~rgenc other procedures, as,_.appropr1ate.. to the fac1l1ty. _lf."1-ou desire to use a reference, y6':1._~ ask the examiner -~~ft is acceptable_.to do so for,,.,;he' task or question under consider~t}~

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_?.v not solicit technical inf~gnation from other operat,4:1rs, ~~;~I'S~- or technica'\\;~isors.

4./:~rr:;r.t not discuss any as. *'(!~f~your operating test with -~

.. ~ther examinee ootil aft~\\ll the

examinations are C001lle

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PART D - WALK*THROOGH A'!

IDELINES CATEGOR!Es'.-A AND B.,,J'

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1.

The w!\\lrif~~~h test covers control r~{~, local system ope~:~-ions, ~"'~inistrative

,.~lilsures CJPMs) and _spec1f1.. -

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r~T-ements. The examir:ie~.

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i't:e each *of these areas using a c,~iiiation of job performance (ff'w

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The !nitial walk*,tflr,oti9b consists of ten JPMs for Ro*:...i~ *SRO(~> applic~nts a~ive J~~OCU>

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appl 1 cants.

-~"~ of the. JPMs C two or. three !or upgra&. appl 1 ~ants) w1 l l be c~ed in the

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control rpocn'l*or s1111Jlator and the remainder w1 ll-.*be conducted in the plant.,..,_,!'

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3.

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~lification walk*thr*~ consists' of five JPMs total:::.with at*'Ceast two si111Jlator and at least two 'j.a-.the plant.

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e;caminer is a visitor:-:.at'.this f:Ctility.

When you enre*r

the pli!n;_, you may be expected..

the examiner and ~~re-that he or she'~lies wi.tlv*safety, securit _* and radiation pro.te'Ct procedures.

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co rt You sl\\gul'.~~~.operate plant.equipment ~ith~~i~~ppropriate permission fr~. !?""'~rating crew.

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the e~-~ner says or ask~~ ~.i,L*l-be int~

__ to violate this ~~~rle.

.

Before begiming -'.\\i.

JPM, ~~e-*~~aminer will descri he ini~"tconditions, ex ain the task~

is to be C001lleted, i~e whether the task is time*.

.t~; and explain which steps are t5" be

!?i111Jlated o~rd!~jj; * *You should perform or si111Jlate

required actions as if dire

by plant procedures~--

'supe

"sion.

Do not ass/

NUREG-1021 2 of 5 Interim Rev. 8, January 1997

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1. The Unit 2 CRS was selected for random fitness-for-duty testing. A *SRO-licensed individual provided relief for the CRS. The time away from the control room was 45 minutes.

Which one of the following correctly describes the minimum requirements that must be completed prior to the original CRS resuming the watch?

a. Short Term Relief Log, and a brief of any changes that occurred during the relief period.

b. Short Term Relief Log, and a brief on plant status to include all safety-related equipment.

c. Shift Turnover Checklist, and a brief of any changes that occurred during the relief period.

d. Shift Turnover Checklist, and a brief on plant status to include all safety-rela~ed equipment.

2. A licensed SRO has had the following responsibilities over the past week:

CRS for Unit 1 on May 15, 0700-1900

Called in as CRS for Unit 2 on May 17, 0200-0700

Simulator training on May 18 through 20 The SRO is assigned to work as CRS for Unit 1 beginning at 1900 on May 21.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the earliest dated Control Room Narrative Log the SRO is required to review following shift turnover on May 21?

a. May 19 b. May 17 c. May 15 d. May 14 Pagel Salem SRO - 6/26/98

3. Given the following conditions for Unit 1:

Reactor power - 17% power

Power ascension to full-power in progress

Main Generator is synchronized to the grid

Systems Operator has requested maintaining maximum loading rates due to grid conditions (summer, peak load)

The power ascension is halted when a safety-related System, Structure or Component (SSC) is determined to be in a degraded condition. This condition affects the withdrawal capability of Control Bank D rods such that only Technical Specification 3.2.1, Axial Flux Differe~ce, LCO CANNOT be met; however, the conditfon does NOT affect the safety rriargins protected by the LCO and action statement.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the action that should be taken by the CRS for the above conditions?

a. Technical Specification 3.0.3 should be entered and a shutdown commenced within ONE hour.

b. Power ascension may continue to 100% as long as the requirements of the applicable action statements are observed.

c. Power ascension may continue but power must be maintained less than or equal to 50% until the degraded condition is corrected.

d. 10CRF50.54 (x) and (y) may be invoked to allow a deviation from Technical Specifications since safety margins are NOT challenged.

4.. Ex;cessive stroking of motor operated valves (MOV's) during surveillance testing has been identified as a reason for premature failure of motor actuators.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the procedural limit for full strokes on a MOV during surveillance testing?

a. * 1 per hour b. 2 per hour*

c. 3 per hour d. 4 per hour Page2 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

..

5. Assume that OTSC # Rev. IA-T to Sl.OP-SO.CVC-0009(Q) "PRIMARY WATER SYSTEM NORMAL OPERATION", providing direction for aligning a temporary pressure instrument located in the line from the Primary Water Pumps, has been approved per the requirements of NC.NA-AP.ZZ-OOOI(Q) "NUCLEAR PROCEDURE SYSTEM". Prior to implementation, the originator discovers that operation of an isolation valve was inadvertently omitted.

Which one of the following correctly describes the steps required to correct the error?

a. A new OTSC #Rev. IB-T is initiated, the valve operation is added, and Rev. lB-T is signed by the originator. Rev. lB-T is attached to the approved Rev. IA-T and the procedure can be implemented b. A new OTSC #Rev. IB-T is initiated, identifying that it supercedes Rev. IA-T. The valve operation is added and Rev. IB-T is processed for approval, prior to implementation.

c. The originator adds the valve operation to OTSC #Rev. lA-T and signs and dates that correction.

Since the change is editorial, no further review or approval is necessary.

d. The valve operation is handwritten in on OTSC #Rev. lA-T. Personnel filling (at least) positions equivalent to the original OTSC approvers must initial the change.

6. Given the following conditions for Unit 1:

Reactor power - 100%

IA Emergency Diesel Generator was declared in<?perable at 0800.

* Sl.OP-ST.500-000I(Q), "ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS AC SOURCES ALIGNMENT" was last performed 7days ago (Sunday) at 1300.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the latest time for completion of this surveillance today?.

a. 0900 b. 0915 c.

1300 d. No later than 42 hours4.861111e-4 days 0.0117 hours 6.944444e-5 weeks 1.5981e-5 months from 1300.

Page3 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

7~ Given the following conditions for Unit 1:

A Tagout is hanging on a valve located in a high radiation area

.

All work associated with the clearance has been completed and all individuals have signed off

The tag must be removed from the valve and the valve must be re-positioned to be IA W the required lineup

Due to the location of the valve, RadPro estimates that the ~O and independent verifier would each receive ~5 mRem performing the operation Which one of the following correctly describes the requirement for independent verification during this evolution?

a. "Hands-on" independent veri.ficatfon must be performed unless waived by the Operations Manager b. Operator self-eheck is* substituted for independent verification whenever an accumulated dose of~lO mRem is involved c. "Hands-on" independent verification is not required but an alternative means such as system flow or pressure must be used to verify correct positioning of the valve d. From a position allowing the best vantage point but lowest dose, the verifier should observe the first operator self-check and manipulate the valve. "Hands-on'.' independent verification is not required 8. You are the Unit 1 CRS. The unit is in Mode 4, expected to go to Mode 3 during this shit):. While

.reviewing procedures you note that a temporary procedure change has been implemented that has placed the SJ54's, ECCS Accumulator Stop Valves, in the VALVE OPERABLE position in order to facilitate work on the control circuits.

Which one of the following correctly describe the action(s) that are necessary for this situation?

a. Place the mode change on hold until the System Manager has completed a preliminary 10CFR50.59 Review b. Place the mode change on hold, write an ARCR and present it to the Duty Operations Superintendent c. The mode change can continue as long as the valves remain open but inform the System Manager that. a 10CFR50.59 Review should be performed on the.temporary procedure change d. The mode change can continue as long as the SJ 54' s are open but write a Significance Level X ARCR that requires investigation of the UFSAR commitments

Page4 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

9. Which one of the following correctly identifies an outage condition/action that requires Station General Manager approval?

a Tagging OOS an EOG that provides power to a RHR pump, when RHR is providing core cooling b. Going to.RHR mid-loop operation, with fuel in the reactor vessel c. Entering a TSAS for electrical power sources to perform emergent, corrective maintenance d. Removal of one SW loop from service while on RHR cooling 10. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power is currently 40%

Current AFD is -1.0%

100% power AFD target is -6.7%

AFD history (past 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months ):

POWER LEVEL TIME OUTSIDE TARGET BAND 80%

65%

55%

40%

20 minutes 15 minutes lOininutes 20 minutes Assuming that AFD remains at its current value, which one of the following correctly identifies the maximum permissible power level and restrictions (if applicable) during a power ascension?

a 50%

b. 90%"

c. 90%, as long as AFD remains within "the doghouse" d:

100%

Page5 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

11. Which one of the following co~tly describes the primary reason for maintaining Refueling Cavity

. water level greater than 23 feet ( 127' 1 W' elevation) over the top of the reactor press\\ll'e ves~el 'flange? *

a Sufficient water depth is available to remove 99% of the assumed 10% iodine gap activity released from the rupture of an irradiated fuel assembly.

b. Sufficient water volume is available to provide time for the operator to recognize the *indications of a dilution accident before Keff can exceed 95% delta-k/k.

c. Sufficient water volume is available to provide adequate time to implement procedures for cooling the core, in the event that RHR flow is lost d. Sufficient water is maintained above the top of the fuel assembly during movement to ensure that the radiation levels at the operating elevation for fuel handling equipment remain below 5 mR/hr.

12. Which one of the following correctly describes a prerequisite for closing the fuel transfer tube gate valve?

a. An interlock prevents valve closure unless the fuel transfer cart is located on the Fuel Handling Building side b. An interlock prevents valve closure unless the fuel transfer cart is.located on the Containment side c. The fuel transfer cart must be located at or transferred to the Fuel Handling Building side in order to prevent damage to the fuel handling system d. The fuel transfer cart must be located at or transferred to the Containment side in order to prevent damage to the fuel handling system

Page 6 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

13. As of May 1, 1998, an operator assigned to your shift has the following exposure history:

Current Year to date-1450 mrem TEDE

Current Quarter to date-104 mrem TEDE In the week following the above reported information, the operator records the following exposure:

Gamma - 50 mrem

Neutron - 27 mrem Which one of the following correctly states the remaining TEDE dose margin before the administrative control level for this individual is exceeded?

a. 550 mrem for the year.

b. 473 mrem for the year.

c. 396 mrem for the quarter.

d. 319 mrem for the quarter.

14. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

The plant is in MODE 5

A Containment Purge is planned

System alignment has been checked but the purge has NOT been initiated

.Which one of the following correctly identifies a condition that would preclude initiation of a Unit 2 Containment Purge in MODE 5?

a. Unit 2 P.lant Vent Flow Monitor is inoperable b. Unit 2 Auxiliary Building pressure is slightly negative c. Unit 2 VCT is being purged to the plant vent d. 2Rl 1A, Containment Air Particulate Monitor, is inoperable Page7 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

15. Unit 1 has tripped and experienced a Safety Injection.

While performing 1-EOP-LOCA-l "Loss Of Reactor Coolant", a PURPLE path condition was noted for the Core Cooling Critical Safety Function and l-EOP-FRCC-2, "Response To Degraded Core Cooling,

was entered. While performing the steps of this procedure, the ST A reports concurrent RED path condition for the Heat Sink Critical Safety Function and for the Containment Environment *critical Safety Function. No other abnormal condition was noted.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the appropriate action for the above conditions?

a. Complete the actions of l-EOP-FRCC-2, and then transition to l-EOP-FRHS-1.

b. Complete the actions of l-EOP-FRCC-2, and then transition to l-EOP-FRCE-1.

c. Stop performing l-EOP-FRCC-2, and immediately transition to l-EOP-FRHS-1.

d. Stop performing l-EOP-FRCC-2, and immediately transition to l-EOP-FRCE-1.

16. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A reactor trip and Safety Injection has occurred from 100% power

2-EOP-TRIP-1 "Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection" has just been entered

21 SG pressure is 500 psig below the other THREE SG pressures

2C 4KV Vital Bus did not energize and 21 CS Pump failed to start

Containment pressure is 48 psig Which one of the choices correctly completes the following statement?

The 21AF11and21AF21 valves should be closed...

a. within 10 minutes. The actions of 2-EOP-FRCE-1 should be performed following verification of the immediate actions of 2-EOP-TRIP-1 b. Immediately. The actions of 2-EOP-FRCE-l should be performed following verification of the immediate actions of 2-EOP-TRIP-1 c. as soon as transition is made from EOP-TRIP-1. The actions of 2-EOP-FRCE-1 should be performed when directed by step(s) of 2-EOP-TRIP-1 d. following verification of the immediate actions of 2-EOP-TRIP-l. The actions of 2-EOP-FRCE-1 should be performed following transition from 2-EOP-TRIP-1 Page8 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

17. Given the following conditions for Unit 1:

- Reactor trip due to loss of coolant accident and partial loss of feedwater.

- All RCPs have been tripped.

- Containment Spray has actuated.

The ST A notes the following:

Intermediate Range Nis - lOE-03 Amps, -0.3 dpm

CETs - 580 °F, rising slowly

RVLIS Full Range-88% level

All SG NR Levels - Off-scale Low

Aux Feedwater Flow - 24E04lbm/hr total

Containment Pressure - 16 psig, slowly lowering

Pressurizer Level - Off-scale Low Which one of the following correctly identifies the monitoring frequency required for the Critical Safety Function Status Trees?

a Continuous.

b. Every 5 minutes.

c. Every 15 minutes.

d. Every 30 minutes.

Page9 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

18. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor Power - 25%

Control Rods are at step 150 on Control Bank D

The Bank Selector Switch is currently in MANUAL When at step 140 on Control Bank*D. the operator felt there may be a problem with rod control. As part of.troubleshooting, the operator moved Control Bank D out lO steps with the Bank Selector Switch in CONTROL BANK D position. The operator then placed the Bank Selector Switch in MANUAL. The troubleshooting showed that no problem existed with rod control.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the effect of this action on the rod control system if operation continues?

a. On a controlled shutdown. the ROD BOTTOM alarm (OHA E-48) will actuate lO steps sooner than expected.

b. On a controlled shutdown. the overlap between Control Bank D and Control Bank C will be lO steps less than normal.

c. * While operating, the Bank Demand Position Indication will read 10 steps lower than the Bank Individual Rod Position Indication.

d. While operating. the Rod Insertion Limit alarms (OHA E-8 and E-16) for Control Bank D would actuate lO steps lower than the actual alarm setpoint positions.

Page 10 *

Salem SRO - 6/26/98

19. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

'

RCS cooldown and depressurizatiort in* progress in accordance with

S2.0P-IO.ZZ-0006 "Hot Standby To Cold Shutdown"

Recent RCS Cooldown data:

Time RCS Temp 0130 430 op 0200 400 op 0230 370 op RCS pressure 1225 psig 1200 psig 1200 psig Which one of the following correctly identifies the lowest allowable temperature for the RCS at 0300 if RCS pressure remains at 1200 psig?

a. 340°P.

b. 313°P.

c. 300°P.

d. 238°P.

20. The following conditions exist:

RCS pressure - 335 psig

RCS temperature - 340 °F

Steam Generator pressure - 50 psig

A bubble exists in the Pressurizer

No RCP's are running Which one of the following correctly predicts the response of RCS temperature and pressure if a Reactor Coolant Pump is started?

RCS TEMPERATURE a. RISES b. RISES c. LOWERS d. LOWERS RCS PRESSURE.

RISES LOWERS RISES LOWERS Page 11 Salem SRO..:. 6/26/98

2 L Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

RCS temperature 400 °F

RWST concentration - 2350 ppm

21 BAT concentration - 6750 ppm

22 BAT concentration - 6750 ppm

22 BAT level - 37%

Which one of the following correctly describes the MINIMUM level for 21 BAT that meets or exceeds the operability requirements for the BAT?

a. 55%.

b. 62%.

c. 92%.

d. 95%.

22. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Unit 2 tripped from 100% power due to a loss of offsite power

*

23 Charging Pump was running prior to the event.

Following the reactor trip, an automatic Safety Injection signal was generated on SSPS Train A only Which one of the following correctly describes the status of the CVCS Charging Pumps and supporting components following completion ~f the SEC Mode Op and before SEC reset?

a. All THREE Charging Pumps will be running, and the aux. oil pumps for the 21 and 22 Charging Pumps will be running.*

b. Only 21and23 Charging Pumps will be running, and the aux. oil.pump for the 21Charging Pump will be running.

c. Only 21 and.22 Charging Pumps will be running with their aux. oil pumps de-energized.

d.

Only 21.Charging Pump will be running with its aux. oil pump de-energized.

Page 12 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

23. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

RCS temperature 185 °F

RCS pressure - 250 psig

21 RCP is running

21 RHR pump is in service

. 22 RHR pump is to be placed in service Which one of the following correctly describes why 2CV 18, Letdown Heat Exchanger Outlet, should be adjusted immediately following the start of 22 RHR pump?

a. Prevent overpressui:ization of the letdown line and demineralizers.

b. Prevent fill of the pressurizer and subsequent pressurization.

c. Reduce the RHR discharge pressure to prevent lifting of the SJ48 relief valves.

d. Prevent RCP seal differential pressure from dropping below the minimum required for operation.

24. A reactor shutdown is in progress due to an RCS leak into 23 SI Accumulator. The following conditions exist on the Unit:

RCS Tavg - 525 °F

RCS pressure - 1950 psig

SI Accumulator Isolation Valve 23SJ54 is closed an9 energized with VALVE OPERABLE position selected on Panel 2RP4 In accordance with the UFSAR accident analysis, which one of the following states the response of the ECCS Accumulators if a Design Basis LOCA occurs on the 22 Loop Cold Leg, at this time?

a. 23SJ54_ automatically opens and all FOUR Accumulators will inject into the RCS and provide core cooling b.

~3SJ54 automatically opens and THREE Accumulators, 21, 23 and 24, will inject into the RCS and

provide core cooling c.. TWO Accumulators, 21 and 24, will inject into the RCS and provide core cooling, unless the operator depr~sses the OPEN pushbutton for 23SJ54 d. THREE Accumulators, 21, 22 and 24, will inject into the RCS and provide core cooling unless the operator depresses the OPEN pushbutton for 23SJ54 Page 13 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

25. During performance of the procedure for forming a bubble in the pressurizer, the pressurizer is filled as indicated on the cold calibrated channel. Heaters are then energized, pressure is controlled at

approximately 65 psig, and when pressurizer temperature reaches approximately 300 °F, PRI and.PR2 are manually opened for 10-15 minutes.

Which one of the following correctly describes the reason for opening PRI and PR2?

a. Establishes flow from the RCS into the pressurizer to ensure boron concentrations are equalized b. Provides a path for venting non-condensible gases out of the pressurizer during bubble formation c. Verification that the PORV tailpipe temperature device will respond to changes in temperature d. Provides assurance that pressure-temperature limits will not be exceeded during bubble formation 26. Which one of the following correctly *describes how the Component Cooling Water Pumps respond to the indicated SEC Mode operation?

a. In Mode II, all pumps start; including any selected to LOCAL at the HSD Panel b. In Mode III, all pumps start; except any selected to LOCAL at the HSD Panel c. In Mode I, running pumps remain in service. Any non-running pump shifts to AUTO unless it is selected to LOCAL at the HSD Panel d. *In Mode II*, the pump on the affected bus shifts to AUTO unless it is selected to LOCAL at the HSD Panel Page 14 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

27. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power 24%

Pressurizer pressure - 2150 psig and lowering very slowly

The MASTER Pressure Controller is functioning properly

Pressurizer spray valve 2PS3 is partially open and will NOT respond in AUTO or MANUAL Assuming a containment entry is not possible, which one of the following correctly describes the general path of the procedural actions?

a. Raise charging and reduce letdown; enter TSAS 3.2.5-restore the parameter within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months or be

<5% power within the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months b. Manually.block-the low pressure SI and stop 23 RCP c. Stop 23 RCP and initiate a plant shutdown

. d. Manually block the low pressure SL stop 23 RCP and initiate a plant shutdown 28. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 40%

Pressurizer level - 33%

Pressurizer master level controller in MANUAL

Charging and letdown flow are balanced Which one of the following correctly identifies the response of PRESSURIZER LEVEL if reactor power

is raised to 100% with NO operator adjustment to the Master Level Controller?

a. It rises to approximately ?0%.

b. It remains at approximately 33%..

c. It rises to the high level reactor trip setpoint.

d. It lowei:s to 17%, then rises to the high level reactor trip. setpoint.

Page 15 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

29. Which one of the following correctly describes how the steady-state overpower delta-T (OPAT) and the overtemperature delta-T (OTAT) setpoints change while raising powe~from 50% to 100%?.

a. OTAT setpoii:tt rises and OPAT setpoint lowers.

b. OTAT setpoint lowers and OPAT setpoint rises.

c. OTAT setpoint.remains constant and OPAT setpoint lowers.

d. OTAT setpoint lowers and OPAT setpoint remains constant.

30. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Mode 3

Testing on Reactor Trip Breaker A (RT A) is in progress

RT A is racked in and closed

Reactor Trip Breaker B (RTB) is racked in and open

Reactor Bypass Breaker A (BYA) is racked in and closed Which one of the following correctly describes what will occur if Reactor Bypass Breaker B (BYB) is racked in with the above conditions?

a. Only BYB will trip open due to a GENERAL W ARNJNG on both trains.

b. BYA will open due to breaker electrical interlock when BYB is closed.

c. BYA, BYB and RTA will trip open due to a GENERAL WARNING on both trains.

d. Both BYA AND B.YB will open due to breaker electrical interlock, wh~n BYB is closed.

Page 16 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

31. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Mode 3 with RCS cooldown and depressurization underway in accordance with procedural direction

RCS pressure - 1900 psig

RCS temperature - 525 °F

SG pressures - 830 psig Which one of the following correctly describes the current status ESF actuation system if a Main Steam Safety Valve fails open, resulting in the following SG pressures: 820 psig (21); 780 psig (22); 700 psig (23); 810 psig (24)?

a. No ESF signal has been generated.

b. Only a Safety Injection signal has been generated.

c. Only a Main Steam Line Isolation signal has been generated.

d. A Safety Injection signal and a Main Steam Line Isolation signal have been generated.

32. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Containment pressure transmitter (Channel m has been declared inoperable

Channel II f~ds both HI and HI-HI Containment Pressure

Actions are complete for placing the channel in a tripped condition per S2.0P-SO.RPS-0005(Q), "Placing Containment Pressure Channel In Tripped Condition" Which one of the following correctly describes the effect this action has on the ESF/Safeguards actuation coincidence associated with containment pressure?

a. Both Spray Actuation and Safety Injection become 1/3 b. Spray Actuation.becomes 2/3; Safety Injection becom~s 112 c. Both Spray Actuation and Safety Injection become 2/3

d. Spray Actuation becomes 1/3;Safety Injection becomes 1/2 Page 17 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

..

33. Which one of the following choices correctly completes the following statement?

Quring a reactor startup, ROD BOTIOM (OHA E-48) will actuate for a dropped rod in each control bank...

a. when Control Bank A demand position is above 20 steps.

b. only after Control Bank D demand position is above 35 steps~

c. when Control Banks A, B and C demand position is above 20 steps, and for Control Bank D when its demand position is above 35 steps.

d. when Control Bank A demand position is above 20 steps, and for Control Banks B, C and D when their demand position is above 35 steps.

34. Load is being raised from 40% power to 100% power on Unit 2.

Which one of the following choices correctly completes the following statement?

The Power Range NIS Channel Comparator Circuit will provide an UPPER SECTION DEVIATION *

(OHA E-38) alann when a 2% deviation exists between...

a. the highest and the_lowest normalized upper section current on 1 out of 4 channels.

b. the highest and the lowest normalized upper section current on 1 out of 4 channels, after power is greater than or equal to 50%.

c. the highest and the average normalized upper section current on 1 out of 4 channels.

d. the highest and the average normalized upper section current ori 1 out of 4 channels, after power is greater than or equal* to 50%.

Page 18 Salem SRO - 6126198

35. During pe_rformance of S2.RE-ST.ZZ-000l{Q) "Calorimetric Calculation", the feedwater temperature points utilized were reading 10 °F higher than actual feedwater temperature. Power range NI' s were adjusted in accordance with the directions of the calorimetric proeeduie.

. Which one of the following correctly describes the effect of the NIS adjustment?

a. Indicated power is less than actual power; therefore, power range instruments are set conservatively.

b. Indicated power is less than actual power; therefore, power range instruments are set non-conservatively.

c. Indicated power is greater than actual power; therefore, power range instruments are set conservatively.

d. Indicated power is greater than actual power; therefore, power range instruments are set non-conservatively.

36. Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with CET Display for the hottest in-core thermocouple reading 610 0 F. Temperature in the area of the Reference Junction boxes for the thermocouples rises 30 °F over the shift. Reactor power level remains constant over the shift.

Which one of the following correctly describes how core exit thermocouple (CET Display) readings are affected by the temperature change in the area of the reference junction boxes?

a. Will read higher due to higher voltage differential between the metals at the cold junction.

b. Will read lower due to lowered voltage differential between the metals at the hot junction.

c. Will.remain the same because the tempera~ure error is compensated for by the CET Processor System.

d. Will remain the same since temperature change does NOT affect the signal from the reference junction.

Page 19 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

..

37. Procedures allow a Containment Fan Coil Unit (CFCU) to be run without Service Water (SW) as long as

. certain motor winding and bearing temperatures are not exceeded.

Which one of the following correctly describes the speed of operation and purpose of running a CFCU without SW?

a. SLOW speed for containment air mixing following recovery from a LOPA and only one SW Pump is running b. SLOW speed for containment air mixing if at least three other CFCU's are in FAST speed, with one SW header OOS and the unit at full power c. FAST speed for containment atmosphere hydrogen mixing while the remainil)g CFCU' s are in SLOW speed, following a LOCA d. FAST speed when high airborne contamination levels or adverse atmospheric conditions are determined (by HP) to exist inside containment in Modes 4, 5 or 6 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

.

..

38. The following conditions exist on Unit 2:

A LOCA is in progress and transition has been made to 2-EOP-LOCA-3 "Transfer To Cold Leg Recirculation"

Containment Spray actuated due to high containment pressure and is currently in operation Which one of the following correctly identifies the conditions that allow stopping Containment Spray Pumps and containment spray flow?

a. BOTH pumps are stopped when RCS subcooling is above 0°F and containment pressure.falls below 13 psig. This stops all containment spray flow.

b. ONE pump is stopped when RCS subcooling is above 0°F and containment pressure falls below 13 psig. The remaining pump is stopped when the RWST level reaches LO-LO level. This stops all containment spray flow.

c. BOTH pumps are stopped when RHR suction alignment to the sump is complete. Containment spray flow is stopped when RHR spray flow is stopped during system realignment per 2-EOP-LOCA-4 "Transfer To Hot Leg Recirculation".

d. ONE pump is stopped when RHR suction alignment to the sump is complete. The remaining pump is stopped when RWST level reaches the LO-LO level. Containment spray flow is stopped when RHR spray flow is stopped during system realignment per 2-EOP-LOCA-4 "Transfer To Hot Leg Recirculation".

39. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A LOCA has occurred

The Injection Phase of SI is in progress

22 Containment Spray Pump failed to start Which one of the following correctly describes_ the plant response to this event?

a. The Safeguards Pumps will operate for a longer time with* suction from the RWST before swapover to the containment sump.

b. The higher pressure in containment will result in overpressurizing the RHR suction piping when*

swapover to the containment sump occurs.

c. A portion of the 22 RHR pump discharge flow from the heat exchanger must be diverted to provide flow through the affected spray header.

d. Water level in the containment sump will be insufficient to supply the ECCS pumps when alignment of the systems for cold leg recirculation is complete.

Page 21 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

42. 22 Spent Fuel Pool (SFP) Pump is running providing SFP cooling.

Which one of the following correctly describes when 22 SFP Pump will lose suction if a leak develops in the pump suction line?

a. Six feet above the fuel, the level corresponding to the ni.inimum NPSH for the pump b. Any running pump trips when SFP LVL LO alarm (OHA C-35) actuates c. When the pump suction intake is uncovered, 4 feet below normal SFP level d. Three feet below normal SFP level, when the anti-siphon hole in the suction pipe uncovers 43. Given the following fuel handling associated interlocks:

1) - Transfer Tube Gate valve open 2) - Fuel Handling Crane hoist full up 3) - Reactor side (Containment) lifting frame down 4) - Pit side (Fuel Handling Building) lifting frame down -

5) - Reactor Containment Manipulator Crane gripper tube up (LS-3)

Which one of the following correctly list those interlocks that must be satisfied to enable initiation of the Fuel Transfer System Conveyor Car from the Reactor side to the Fuel Pit side?

a.

1, 2 and 3.

b.

1, 3 and5. -

c.

1, 4 and 5 d.

1, 3 and 4.

Page23 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

'..

44. Which one of the following choices correctly completes a description of the difference in operat~ng characteristics for the new Unit 1 Model F SG's (RSG's) as compared to the removed Model 51 SGs (OSG's)?

The heat transfer area and heat transfer capability of the RSG's is....

a. less. Tavg at 100% has been raised 2_°F in order to maintain design steam pressure at 100% power.

b. less. Since the Tavg program has.not changed, steam pressure at 100% power is lower.

c. greater. Tavg at 100% power has been lowered 2 °F and steam pressure is still somewhat higher at 100% power d. greater. Since the Tavg program has not changed, steam pressure at 100% power is higher 45. At 50% power on Unit 2, the steam pressure instrument for the 21SG(PT-516A) fails high with 21MS10, 21 SG Atmospheric Relief valve, selected to AUTO.

Which one of the following describes the effect that the PT-516A failure will have on 21MS 10?

a. 21MS10 will go to the full open position.

b. 21MS10 control will automatically switch to MANUAL.

c. 21MSIO remains in AUTO with a pressure instrument on the same DPU, PT-516D (24MSIO),

providing the input signal.

d. 21MSIO remains in AUTO with the ADFWCS providing an average steam pressure signal developed from the other THREE SGs.

'Page 24 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

46. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 100%

2A 115 V AC Vital Bus power is lost Which one of the following correctly describes the reason the operator is directed to shift the Steam Dump controller from TA VG to MS PRESS CONT?

a. The steam dumps are armed. The steam dump valves will open due to the signal from the load rejection controller if Tavg exceeds Tref by 5 F.

b. A steam dump demand signal is generated from the plant trip controller. If an arming signal is generated, the steam dump valves will open to the demanded position.

c. A steam dump demand signal is generated from the load rejection controller. If an arming signal is generated, the steam dump valves will open to the demanded position.

d. The steam dumps CANNOT be armed from the turbine first stage pressure signal. If ONE reactor trip breaker fails to open on a trip, the steam dumps would be inoperable in TA VG Mode.

Page25 Salem SRO - 6126/98

47. Given the following initial conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power-14%

Pressurizer Pressure control in AUTO.

RCS Tavg-551 °F

Main feed in operation using BF40s

SG levels stable at 35%

Steam Dumps are in the MN STM PRESS CONTROL mode when one steam dump valve fails full open. Operators isolate steam flow by closing 21-24MS167 Following isolation of steam flow, key parameters are:

Pressurizer pressure - lowered to 1825 psig and is beginning to rise

RCS Tavg - 542 °F

SG levels peaked at 48%.and are lowering

*

Steam pressure - 870 psig

BF40's are closed Which one of the following correctly explains why feedwater isolated automatically?

a. The pressurizer pressure drop resulted in a SI b. High steam f.low coincident with the low Tavg resulted in a SI c. A reactor trip coincident with low Tavg resulted in actuation of the feedwater intetlock d. The opening of the steam dump caused water level in the SGs to swell above the P-14 setpoint Page26 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

,

48. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

* Unit is in Mode 3 with Tavg at 547 °F

The 23 AFW pump is NOT available

The 2 lAFW pump has been just stopped due to unusual motor noises

The 22 AFW pump is running with normal parameters

An operator has been dispatched to open 21AF923 and 22AF923 to allow cross-tie of the AFW.

' headers from the motor-driven AFW pumps.

The CRS wants to maintain all SG levels within normal operating band Which one of the choices correctly completes the following statement?

Once the AF92Jvalves are open, the PO...

a. only needs to throttle the AF21 valve to each SG.

b. must depress the PRESS OVERRIDE DEFEAT for each AF21 valve, and then throttle the AF21 valve to each SG c. must depress the PRESS OVERRIDE DEFEAT for 21AF21and22AF21 valves, and then throttle the AF21 valve to each SG.

d. must depress the PRESS OVERRIDE DEFEAT for 23AF21and24AF21 valves, and then throttle *.

the AF21 valve to each SG 49. Which one of the following correctly describes the basili for the Auxiliary Feedwater System technical

. specification?

'

a. Maintain the capability to cooldown the.RCS to RHR initiation conditions following a complete loss of off-site power b. Ensure the capability to cooldowrt and maintain the RCS at <500 °F for.8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months in the event of a complete loss of off-site power, assuming failed fuel c. Remove decay heat and maintain-the RCS at HSB condfrions for 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months foilowing a complete loss of off-site power d. Provide the RCS heat removal capability necessary to prevent a challenge to the pressurizer safety valves during a full power ATWT, followed by a complete loss of off-site power Page27 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

~

50. Given the following conditions:

500KV Switchyard is in a normal lineup when a Unit 2 main generator fault occurs at 100% power

13KV breakers 2-3 and 5-6 are open (normal condition)

. *

500KV 1-9 (32X) Breaker failed to open

500KV BKR FAIL, OHA K-14, in alarm Which one of the following describes the effect that the 1-9 Breaker failure will have on the electrical

system?

a The Hope Creek 500KV tie line will be deenergized.

b. All 4KV vital buses will be fed from either the No. 13 or No. 24 Station Power Transformers.

c. 4KV group buses fed from the No. 12 and No. 22 Station Power Transformers will be deenergized.

d. 4KV vital buses previously aligned to No. 14 or No. 23 Station Power Transformers will be powered from their respective EDGs.

51. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor Power - 100%

The control room crew is implementing S2.0P-S0.125-0004, 125VDC Ground Detection

A precaution in that procedure states: Do Not transfer any Vital Bus or Vitaj. Distribution Cabinet to the Emergency Power Supply during Modes 1 ~

4_.

Which one of the following correctly describes the reason for t!:tat precaution?

a.

An uncontrolled reactivity change would occur b.

There is a high potential for causing a station blackout *

c.

Single failure design criteria would not be met for the 125VDC system d.

Higher loading on the in-service battery would result in excessive hydrogen generation

. f Page 28 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

52. Given the following:

Emergency Diesel Generator (EOG) 2A was started locally and is running unloaded

.

The NEO mistakenly places the MANUAUAUTOMATIC Voltage Regulator Switch (RMAS) in the MANUAL position Which one of the following correctly describes what *wm happen -if a Mode ID SEC actuation occurs before the RMAS Switch is re-positioned?

a. 2A EDG continues to run, load control shifts to ISOCHRONOUS and 2A EDG breaker closes b. 2A EDG continues to run while load control shifts to ISOCHRONOUS. However, 2A EDG breaker will not close with the RMAS switch in MANUAL c. 2A EDG stops while load control shifts to ISOCHRONOUS.and the Voltage Regulator shifts to AUTO. It will then restart and the breaker will close d. 2A EDG stops while speed controls shift to ISOCHRONOUS but the Voltage Regulator will remain in MANUAL. 2A EDG then restarts and the breaker will close but only if the MANUAL setting allows the generator to achieve the minimum required voltage 53. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A LOCA has occurred

Safeguards Actuation signals and SECs have been reset

Emergency Diesels Generators (EDGs) 2A, 2B and 2C are running unloaded *

Vital bus 2A is aligned to 23 Station Power Transformer (SPT)

Vital buses 2B and 2C are aligned to 24 SPT

23 SPT secondary voltage falls to 3800 volts Which one of the following correctly describes the consequence to 2A 4KV Vital Bus as a result of the 23 SPT problem?

a.

Auto transfer to the 24 SPT.

b. Remains _energized from the 23 SPT:

c. Energized fr~m 2A EDG on a MODE II* SEC operation.

d. Energized from 2A EDG on a MODE IV SEC operation.

Page29 Saiem SRO - 6/26/98

..

54. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A Pressurizer Safety Valve has been leaking

Procedural actions being taken to prevent overpressurizing the PRT are generating liquid waste Assuming the containment isolation valves are open, which one of the following correctly describes the flow path of the water after the operator opens 2PR14, PRT Drain valve?

.

a. The PRT gravity drains to the in-service CVC HUT b. The PRT gravity drains to the RCDT. The RCDT pumps automatically cycle on RCDT level, pumping to the in"'.service CVC HUT.

c; The RCDT Pump in AUTO cycles to control PRT level whenever 2PR14 is open d. RCDT pumps start on interlock with 2PR14, directing flow to the in-service CVC HUT.

55. Which one of the following correctly describes the functions of the Control Room (CR) area radiation monitors?

a. - lRlA, Unit 1 CR area monitor, alarm only.

- 2R1A, Unit 2 CR area monitor, alarm only.

b. - lRlA, Unit 1 CR area monitor, alarm only.

- 2R1A, Unit 2 CR area monitor, actuates* Unit 1 and Unit 2 CR ventilation in.ACCIDENT Mode.

c.. - lRIA, Unit I CR area monitor, actuates Unit I and Unit 2 CR ventilation in ACCIDENT Mode.

- 2RlA, Unit 2 CR area monitor, alarm only.

d. - !RIA, Unit I CR area monitor, actuates Unit I CR ventilation in ACCIDENT Mode.

- 2RIA, Unit 2 CR area monitor, actuates Unit 2 CR ventilation in ACCIDENT Mode.

Page 30 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

56. Which one of the following correctly describes the effect on the GB4 valves (SG Blowdown Outlet Isolations) to a rising radiation condition on Unit 1 and Unit 2 RI 90, Steam Generator Blowdown Liquid Monitor (14, 24 SG)?

a On Unit. I, all GB4 valves will close on high alann condition.

Oi:i Unit 2, only 24GB4 will close on high alann condition.

b. On Unit 1, only 14GB4 will close on warning alann condition. *

On Unit 2, all GB4 valves will close on warning alann condition.

c. On Unit 1, only 14GB4 will close on warning alann condition.

On Unit 2, all GB4 valves will close on high alann condition.

d. On Unit 1, all GB4 valves will close on warning alarm condition.

On Unit 2, only 24GB4 will close. on high alann condition.

.

57. Which one of the following correctly describes a difference in response for an AUTO as compared to a MANUAL actuation of the OG Area C02 system?

a. AUTO C02 actuation is blocked on a SEC start b. * MANUAL C02 actuation trips the associated, running EOG c. AUTO C02 actuation is blocked when the associated EOG is in LOCKOUT d. On a MANUAL C02 actuation, there is-NO 13 second C02 discharge delay Page 31 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

58. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 50%.

Control* Rod position - 170 steps on Control Bank D

Control Rods began to withdraw due to an PT-505, Turbine First Stage Pressure, fails high Which one of the following correctly indicates when rod motion will stop and the steady state values of reactor power and Tavg after rod motion has stopped? Assume rod motion is no more than 10 steps.

I*

a. Rod motion continues until rod control is placed in.MANUAL; Reactor_power rises slightly; Tavg rises b.. Rod motion continues until rod control is placed in MANUAL; Reactor power rises slightly; Tavg remains the same c. Rod motion continues until the Tavg-Tref mismatch* signal decays out of the circuit; Reactor power rises slightly; Tavg rises d. Rod motion continues until the Tavg-Tref mismatch signal decays out of the circuit; Reactor power rises slightly; Tavg remains the same 59. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 25%

Tavg - 553 °F

Control Bank D Group Step Co_unters - 150

ROD BOTTOM, OHA E-48 is in alarm for a dropped rod in Shutdown Bank B

Recovery of the dropped rod is in progress when a rod in Control Bank D drops Which one of the following correctly describes the required operator action(s) and the basis for the action(s)?

a. The reactor should be tripped because the safety analysis shows that DNBR will exceed its limit.

b. The react.or should be tripped because this could be indication of multiple common mode malfunctions.

c. Continue recovery of the dropped Shutdown Bank rod if Tavg has remained above the minimum temperature for criticality.

d. Continue recovery of the dropped Shutdown Bank rod and. initiate actions for a flux map to confirm the dropped Control Bank D rod.

Page 32 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

_.

60~ Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A reactor trip has occurred from 100% power

Train A reactor trip breaker failed to open

I&C has NOT installed jumpers for the breaker P-4 output Which one of the following correctly describes the consequences of the Train A reactor trip breaker remaining closed?

a. Condenser steam dumps will NOT function in Average Temperature mode.

b. Main Steamline Isolation will NOT function ori Steam Flow High coincident with Low Tavg.

c. Control room operators will have lost the ability to reset and block a Train A automatic safety injection signal.

d. Control room operators will have to manually close the Feedwater Regulating Valves (BF19's) and Feedwater Bypass Valves (BF40's).

61. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 100%

Pressurizer pressure instruments:

PI-456 - offscale low Other channels - 2185 psig and dropping slowly

Pressurizer level instrll.ments:

LI-460 - 75% and rising rapidly Other channels - 50% and stable Which one ?f t~e following correctly identifies the event that is occurring?

a. A Pressurizer PORV has failed open.

b. Pressurizer pressure *channel II (PT-456) has failed low.

c. Controlling Pressurizer level channel II (LT-460) has failed high.

d. A leak has developed at the upper tap to level channel II (LT-460).

Page 33 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

62. Which one of the following correctly lists the parameters used by the Subcooling Margin Monitor to calculate subcooling margin?

a. RCS pressure and CET temperatures.

b. Pressurizer pressure and CET temperatures.

c. RCS pressure and RCS hot leg temperatures.

d. Pressurizer pressure and RCS hot leg temperatures.

63. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

RCS temperature - 325 °F

RCS pressure - 340 psig

21 RHR loop has been providing shutdown cooling for the past 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months

21 Charging Pump is aligned for normal charging and seal injection

S2.0P-AB.LOCA-000l(Q) "Shutdown LOCA" has been entered

due to lowering Pressurizer level

Pressurizer level - 9%, lowering rapidly

- * Letdown and Excess Letdown valves have been closed Based on these conditions, which one of following correctly describes the next operator action that should be performed?

a. Initiate a MANUAL Safety Injection b. Start.all available ECCS pumps c. Start 22 RHR Pump d. Stop 21 RHR pump.

Page34 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

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64. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

SI has actuated due to a large break LOCA

RWST LEVEL LOW alann has actuated

22SJ44 RHR Pump Suction Valve to Containment Sump did NOT open automatically.

Which one of the following correctly identifies an operation that requires stopping 22 RHR pump in order to complete the switchover to Cold Leg Recirculation?

a. Closing 22RH4 RWST to RHR Pump Suction Valve b. Closing 22SJ45 RHR to Charging/SI Pump Suction Valve c. Closing 22RH19 RHR Hx Discharge Cross-connect Valve d. Closing22CS36 RHR System to CS System Isolation Valv~

65. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A SI has occurred

RCS Pressure-1200 psig and decreasing

PZR Level - offscale low

Core Exit Thermocouple temperatures - 535.°F

* Containment pressure - 9 psig and rising

Containment Rad monitors are in -ALARM

SG Pressures - 775 psig and decreasing slowly Which one of the following correctly identifies the event that is occurring?

a. A pressurizer PORV has fully opened b. A LOCA has occurred on the 21 loop cold leg c. ONE SG has a stearttline rupture inside containment d. A feedwater line to ONE SG has ruptured and MSIVs have failed to close

Page3S Salem SRO - 6/26/98

66. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 100%

The following console alanns have actuated:

SEAL LEAKOFF FLOW HI-LO STANDPIPE LEVEL HIGH

1 SEAL LOW DIP

Seal Leakoff Flow Recorder pens indicates one reading high

Charging flow rose by 40 gpm to maintain pressurizer level Which one of the following correctly identifies the RCP seal failure that resulted in those indieations, assuming NO operator action?

a.* No. 1 seal on 21 RCP has failed and the RCS pressure drop is across the No. 2 seal.

b. No. 1 and No. 2 seals on* 22 RCP have failed and all seal injection flow is directed to the RCDT.

c. No. 2 and No. 3 seals on 23 RCP have failed and the RCS pressure drop is across the No. 1 seal.

d. No. 2 seal on 24 RCP has failed and the additional seal injection flow has filled the RCP standpipe.

67. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

VCT is at 16%

. ~ An Instrument technician mistakenly cracks open the transmitter equalizing valve for instrument LT112.

Which one of the choices correctly completes the following statement concerning the meter (Lil 12)

response and the affect on the system?

Indicated VCT level will...

a.

lower and automatic. makeup will start filling the VCT.

b. rise and automatic makeup will start shortly thereafter~

c. rise and 2CV35, Diversion Valve, diverts to the CVC HUT.

d. lower and 2CV40 and 2CV41, VCT Discharge Stop valves, close.

Page 36 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

68. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

An A TWS event is in progress

!_{CS pressure - 2250 psig

*

Main turbine has been tripped manually

SI has NOT actuated

2-EOP-FRSM-, "Response to Nuclear Power Generation", has been implemented Which one of the following correctly describes the preferred boration flowpath?

a. Aligning the charging pumps suction to the RWST by opening 2SJ1 and 2SJ2, and fully opening the normal charging path flow control valve 2CV55.

b. Aligning the charging pumps ~uction to the RWST by opening 2SJ1and2SJ2, and opening the BIT Inlet and Outlet valves 2SJ4, 2SJ5,. 2SJ12 and 2SJ13.

c. Running at least one Boric Acid Transfer Pump in FAST, opening the Rapid Borate Stop Valve 2CV175, and opening the normal charging path flow control valve 2CV55.

d. Running at least one Boric Acid Transfer Pumps in FAST, opening the Rapid Borate Stop Valve 2CV175, and opening the BIT Inlet and Outlet valves 2SJ4, 2SJ5, 2SJ12 and 2SJ13.

69. Abnormal procedure S2.0P-AB.RHR-0001 "Loss of RHR", states that hot leg injection is the preferred alternate method for removing decay heat if RHR is lost and core exit thermocouples are reading

~200 °F.

Which one of the following is NOT a valid reason for why hot leg injection is the preferred alternate*

method, as compared to other procedural means?

a. Reflux boiling requires a minimum number of steam generators to be available as a heat sink.

b. Both natural circulation and forced flow (RCP) cooling require one or more steam generators to be available as a heat sink c. Pressurization of the RCS may inhibit and/or lower flow to the core if cold leg injection is used *

d. Cold leg injection requires opening/ensuring a RCS vent path. A RCS vent path is not required for hot leg injection Page 37 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

j, 70. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A LOCA has occurred

Actions of 2-EOP-LOCA-3 "Transfer To Cold Leg Recirculation" have been completed

Two CCW Pumps are running Which one of the following correctly identifies a consequence resulting from a tube leak in the CVCS Letdown RX?

a. A high level alarm will actuate for the CCW Surge tank b. The CCW Pump supplying the non-safety related header will eventually trip due to loss of NPSH c. The CCW Pump supplying the safety related header will eventually trip due to loss of NPSH d. Both CCW Pumps will eventually trip on loss of NPSH 71. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Pzr pr~ssure - 2235 psig

RCS temperature - 54 7 °F

Channel m (PT-457) has been selected as controlling channel Which one of the following correctly describes Pressurizer pressure response if_ PT-457 fails LOW and NO operator action is taken?

a. Rise until Pressurizer Spray valves open.

b. Rise until both Pressurizer PORVs open.

c. Rise until ONE Pressurizer PORV opens.

d. Rise until ONE Pressurizer Code Safety lifts.

Page 38 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

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74. Which one of the following correctly describes the reason why it is worse for a full power ATWS event to occur at the Beginning-of-Life (BOL) as compared to the End-of-Life (EOL)?

a. The additional burnable poisons provide less heat conduction; therefore, the fuel pin outer clad temperatures are higher.

b. The effective delayed neutron.fraction is higher; therefore, the rate of power reduction is slower.

c. The Moderator Temperature Coefficient (MTC) i~ less negative; therefore, the reactor power reduction due to heat addition is less.

d. The higher boron concentration in the RCS causes the emergency boration to be less effective; therefore, it takes longer to achieve adequate Shutdown Margin (SDM).

75. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 100%

. SR DET VOLT TRBL (OHA E-5) is in alarm

Source Range readings - offscale high (N31); 0 cps (N32)

Which one of the following correctly describes the cause of the event in progress?

a. The block of the high voltage power supply to N3 l has failed.

b. The instrument power fuse for source range N32 channel has blown.

c. An I&C technician has placed source range N31 Level Trip switch in BYPASS.

d. The operator has inadvertently depressed the Reset Source Range A pushbutton.

Page40 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

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16. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A reactor startup is in progress

Source range counts - 8200 cps (N31) and 8300 cps (N32)

Intermediate range amps - SE-11 amps (N35) and 9E-l l amps (N36)

Control Bank D - 136 steps

Which one of the following correctly identifies the power limits imposed if Interriiediate Channel N35 fails LOW?

a Reactor power may NOT exceed lE-10 amps until N35 is repaired.

b. Reactor power may be raised to, but CANNOT exceed 5% until N35 is repaired.

c, Reactor power may be raised to, but CANNOT exceed, 10% until N35 is repaired.

d. Reactor power must be maintained below 1 OE5 cps to avoid an automatic reactor trip 77. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power - 100%

Identified leakage - 9. 7 gpm

A SG tube leak has been verified for 21 SG

Trending shows:

-1000- 30gpd.

- 1030 - 45 gpd

- 1100 - 70 gpd

- 1130 - 100 gpd

- 1200- 120 gpd

. - 1230 - 125 gpd

- 1300 - 145 gpd

- 1330 - 160 gpd

- 1400- 180 gpd Based on indications and trending, which one of the following correctly describes the required action?

a. A unit shutdown is required due to conditions as of 1130.

b. A Unit shutdown is required due to conditions as of 1300.

c. 100% power operation may continue until SG tube leakage exceeds 432 gpd.

d.

100% power operation may continue until SG tube leakage exceeds 500 gpd.

Page41 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

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78. Which one of the following correctly describes the basis for maintaining greater than 9% narrow range level in the ruptured steam generator as directed by 2-EOP-SGTR-l "Steam Generator Tube Rupture"?

a. Assures adequate heat sink maintained in the ruptured SG in the event it is required for cooldown *

b. *Maintains a thermal stratification layer above the top of the tubes to prevent depressurizatfon of the ruptured SG c. Maintains releases from the ruptured SG less than lOCFRlOO limits by absorbing short-lived radioactive gases d. Prevents excessive thermal stress across the ruptured SG tubes reducing_ the potential for increasing

the severity of the rupture 79. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

* Reactor power - 25%, rising

*

RCS Tavg - 549 °F, lowering

Pressurizer pressure - 2150 psig, lowering

Pressurizer level - 22%, lowering

Turbine load is stable

SG pressures are - 950 psig (21SG); 900 psig (22SG); 950 psig (23SG); 950 psig (24SG), all lowering

MS 1 Os, atmospheric relief valves, indicate closed

Steam Dumps indicate closed

. Containment temperature and pressure are normal

Sound he~d in the control room indicates that a MSSV may be open Which one of the following correctly describes the action to be taken for the above conditions?

a. Immediately close 22MSi67 and initiate a rapid unit shutdown b. Immediately close 22MS167; initiate a reactor trip; initiate MANUAL SI (if necessary).

c. Trip the reactor; close 22MS167; initiate_ MANUAL SI (if necessary)

d. Trip the.reactor; initiate Main Steamline Isolation (all loops); initiate MANUAL SI (if necessary)*

Page42 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

80. Unit 2 is at 65% power when a loss of condenser vacuum occurs and the following parameters are observed:

Time Power Generator MW Cond. Pressure (in. Hg)

0800 65%

753 2.8 0801 60%

698 3.7 0802 55%

620 4.6 0803 49%

555 5.2 0804 44%

483 5.2 0805 35%

433 5.4 0806.

30%

380 5.4 0807 25%

323 5.2 For the above conditions, which one of the following correctly describes the action(s) to be taken?

a. A turbine trip is required by 0808.

b. A reactor trip was required at 0803.

c. * Turbine load should be stabilized at 25% and reset of the Load Rejection arming signal will be required.

d. Turbine unloading should be continued and reset of the Load Rejection arming signal will be required Page43 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

v 81. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A loss of all AC has occurred.

Steam generator depressurization has been initiated 2-EOP-LOPA-1, Loss of all AC Power, specifies that depressurization of the intact steam generators be terminated when RCS cold leg temperatures are <310 °F OR SG pressure is <235 psig.

Which one of the following correctly describes the basis for terminating the depressurization when RCS cold leg temperatures are <310 °F?

a. To prevent a challenge to the THERMAL SHOCK critical safety function status tree b. Rapid cooldown below that SG pressure leads to voiding in the RV head, invalidating PZR level indication.

c. Further cooldown leads to reactor criticality concerns since there is no boron injection flowpath available d. To prevent RCS pressure from lowering to a point where nitrogen from the ECCS accumulators is injected into the RCS 82. Which one of the following correctly describes the purpose of operating THREE Rod Drive Vent Fans when perfomling a natural circulation cooldown?

a. It prevents the local air temperature from exceeding the specifications for IR.PI accuracy b. It provides the major heat removal mechanism for the vessel head area.

c. It ensures the heat generated by the CRDM units is NOT added to the RCS.

d. It pr~vents the local air temperature from exceeding the specifications for NIS accuracy.

Page44 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

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\\.J 83. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A loss of 2A 115V Vital Instrument Bus has occurred

The reactor was manually tripped from 100% power due to decreasing Pressurizer pressure Which one of the following correctly describes the effect on the AFW system?

.

a. 21 AFW Pump is locked out by a low suction pressure trip signal.

b. 21AF52, AFW Pump Backup Suction valve fails open to alternate supply piping.

c. 23AF21 and 24AF21, SG Inlet valves fail closed due to pressure override interlock.

d. The 23 AFW Pump automatically starts when 2MS132, Turbine Start-Stop Valve, fails open.

84. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

*

Reactor power - 100%

2C Vital 4KV Bus is aligned to 24SPT.(breaker 24CSD closed)

Power is lost to 2C Vital 125 VDC Bus

Prior to restoring power to the 2C DC Bus, 24 SPT is deenergized Which one of the following correctly describes the status of 2C 4KV Vital Bus for these conditions?

a. Powered from the 2C EDG.

b. Energized from 23SPT (23CSD).

c. Deenergized with all in-feed breakers tripped.

d. Deenergized with in-feed breaker 24CSD closed.

85. Which one of the following correctly identifies the radiation monitor first affected if the inservice Waste Gas Decay Tank (WGDT) relief valve lifts?

a. 2R41, Plant Vent Noble Gas.

b. 2R34, South Pipe Penetration.

c. 2R42, Waste Gas Decay Tanks.

d. 2R5, Fuel Handling Building-SFP.

Page45 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

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86. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

23 SW Pump has been tagged out for the past 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months for motor bearing replacement

A Nucle.ar Equipment Operator (NEO) on rounds reported flooding in SW Bay 4 By direC:tion of S2.0P-AB.SW-0003(Q) "Service Water Bay Leak", the control room crew started 22 SW Pump and stopped the 24 SW Pump. Additionally control power to the 24, 25 and 26 SW Pumps was deenergized. The leak is now isolated on the SW discharge header in SW Bay 4.

Which one of the following correctly describes the required Technical Specification action(s) for this situation?

a. 21SW2.3 and 22SW23 Nuclear Hdr Cross-Over MOVs must be opened within the next hour in order to maintain both headers operable.

b. The action statement entered when the 23 SW Pump was taken OOS still applies. Two SW loops must be made operable within the next 66 hours7.638889e-4 days 0.0183 hours 1.09127e-4 weeks 2.5113e-5 months .

c. Tech.Spec. 3.0.3 applied when control power was removed from 24, 25 and 26 SW Pumps. A unit shutdown must be initiated within the next hour.

d. The action statement for less than two operable SW loops should be entered when control power is removed from the 24, 25 and 26 SW Pumps. Two SW loops must be made operable within the next 72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months .

.

87. The Control Room has been evacuated due to a fire in the Unit 2 Control.Room.

Which one of the choices correctly completes the following statement regarding the reason a NEO starts and aligns the SBO Air compressor?

These actions assure air is available for...

a. opening the MSIO Atmospheric Relief valves to initiate RCS cooldown b. operating one or more Pressurizer PORVs as needed to control RCS pressure

c. opening the AFI 1 Steam Generator AFW Inlet valves to supply flow from TDAFW Pump d. operating 2CV55 Charging Flow Control valve to establish seal injection flow to the RCPs Page46 Salem SRO - 6/26/98.

88. A Control Room evacuation has been initiated due to a fire in the relay room. The actions of S2.0P-AB.CR-OOO(Q) "Control Room Evacuation Due to a Fire in the Control Room, Relay Room or Ceiling of the 460/230V Switchgear Room" are being performed.

Which one of the following describes operation of the Reactor Coolant Pumps under these conditions?

a. All RCP' s are stopped prior to leaving the control room, as part of the immediate actions b. RCP' s are run in accordance with the EOP network, after 2-EOP-TRIP-1 is entered c. All RCP's are stopped by operation of switches at the HSD Panel, when directed by AB.CR-0002 d. R,.CP' s are stopped shortly after the control room is evacuated, when the group bus in-feed breakers are opened locally 89. Unit 2 is in MODE 5 with preparations in progress to lower RCS level to the 100 ft elevation, with fuel in the reactor vessel.

Which one of the following correctly identifies a requirement that ensures Containment Closure can be accomplished prior to the onset of fuel damage, if a problem develops?

a. All containment isolation valves must be closed prior to opening the RCS b. The containment hatch must be installed prior to.commencing reduced inventory operations c. All RCS openings/vent paths, except the one on which maintenance is being performed, must be closed d. In order to lower the decay heat load, reduced inventory operations are never permitted until at least *

168 hours0.00194 days 0.0467 hours 2.777778e-4 weeks 6.3924e-5 months have elapsed since shutdown Page47 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

90. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor power 60%

RMS TRBL (OHA A-6) has alarmed

Letdown Line Failed Fuel monitor showed rising indication, is presently in alarm, but is now stable

S2.0P-AB.RC-0002(Q) "High Activity In Reactor Coolant System" has been entered

Chemistry has initiated sampling of the RCS but results are NOT yet available Which one of the following correctly identifies the action to be taken until Chemistry reports the sample results?

a Initiate a power reduction to less than 50% power.

b. Request Reactor Engineering perform Core Flux Map.

c. Notify Primary NEOs that high activity in RCS is suspected.

d. Direct the Primary NEO to place the standby Mixed Bed Demin in service.

91. Which one of the following identifies the minimum parameteI'S that are always evaluated to determine that SI may be safely terminated?

a. RCS subcooling and RCS inventory b. RCS subcooling and SG level c. RCS inventory and SG level.

d. RCS subcooling, RCS inventory and SG level

.

92. A small break LOCA has occurred on Unit 2. The actions of 2-EOP-LOCA-2 "Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization" ate being performed. With ONE Charging Pump and ONE SI Pump running, f>zr level is stabilized at RCS pressure of 900 psig. With RCS sub.cooling at 9 °F, the operator turns on a set

.of backup heaters..

Which one of the following describes the result of turning on the backup heaters?

a. Break flow falls; SI flow rises b. Break flow rises; Pressurizer level falls c: Break flow falls; Pressurizer level rises *

d. Break flow and Pressurizer level remain constant Page48 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

93. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A loss of main feed water has occurred at 100% power operation

AFW flow was NOT established

Acti_ons of 2-EOP-FRHS-1 "Response To Loss Of Secondary Heat Sink" are being performed

The crew delayed in initiating bleed and feed and the RCS reached saturated conditions with pressure at 2350 psig before injection flow was established Which one of the following correctly describes the minimum actions necessary to prevent core uncovery?

a. Ensure that both centrifugal charging pumps are operating b. Establish feed flow to at least one SG c. At least one centrifugal charging pump must be operating and either PRl or PR2 fully open d. Both centrifugal charging pumps must be operating and PRl and PR2 fully open 94. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

. Actions of 2-EOP-FRCC-2 "Response To Degraded Core Cooling" are being performed

The SI accumulators are being isolated in preparation for depressurizing the SGs from 130 psig to atmospheric pressure

RHR injection flow has_ been noted on cold leg injection

During the crew brief prior to SG depressllrization to atmospheric pressure, the RO a5ks if the running RCPs should be stopped Which one of the following correctly describes-the required actfon ~d basis, relative to the RCP's?

a.

RCPs should be stopped because the drop in #1 seal delta-P during depressurization may cause pump damage b. RCPs should be stopped to avoid mechanical damage that can occur due to cavitation when the RCS reaches saturation conditions c. RCPs should NOT be stopped because flow through the core must be maintained when inadequate core cooling exists d. RCPs should NOT be stopped because stagnating flow during depressurization could cause a bubble to form in the reactor vessel head Page49 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

95. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A rupture has occurred in the steam line from 21 SG to 23 AFW Pump

2-EOP-FRTS-l "Response To Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Conditions" has been entered due to a PURPLE path condition

SI has actuated and is reset

All RCPs are stopped

ECCS flow CANNOT be terminated

Conditions required to support an RCP start are met.

Which one of the following correctly describes operator actions relative to starting a RCP and the basis for the decision?

a. 23 RCP shou~d be started to establish PZR pressure control b. 23 RCP should be started to provide mixing of the ECCS injection flow c. A RCP should NOT be started because the pressure surge will aggravate the PTS condition d. A RCP should NOT be started in order to allow natural circulation to slowly remove thermal gradients 96. Given the following conditions:

A main steam line break occurred inside containment.

The actions of 2-EOP-FRTS"."1, "Response To Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Conditions" are being performed

A required one hour soak has just been initiated

RCP' s are not running Which one of the following correctly identifies an evolution that can be performed during the soak?

a. Place PZR auxiliary spray in service b. Lower the setpoints of the MS10's by 25 psi c. Raise SG water levels from 25% to 50%

d. Energize all Pressurizer backup heaters

.Page SO Salem SRO - 6/26198

~\\.i 97. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Actions of 2-EOP-SGTR-l "Steam Generator Tube Rupture" are being performed due to a rupture in 24SG

RCS pressure - 1120 psig

Intact Steam Generator pressures - 610 psig

Ruptured SG Pressure - 925 psig

All RCPs are stopped

. Which one of the following correctly indicates the existence of natural circulation flow?

a. RCS cold leg temperature 490 °P and stable.

b. RCS hot leg temperature 500 °P and increasing.

c. RCS cold leg temperature 535 °P and decreasing.

d. Core Exit Thermocouple temperature 520 °F and increasing.

98. Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

A natural circulation cooldown is in progress in accordance with

2-EOP-TRIP-6 "Natural Circulation Rapid Cooldown With RVLIS"

RCS pressure 1000 psig

*

Pressurizer level - 92 %

RVLIS Full Range - 68%

Which one of the following correctly describes the method to be used to collapse the apparent void?

a. Maintain RCS pressure stable and then initiate venting of the reactor v.essel head.

b. Raise RCS pressure using Pressurizer heaters and then lower charging flow.

c. Start a Charging pump to raise RCS pressure while maintaining RCS temperature constant.

d. Lower RCS temperature by raising the steaming rate from the SGs and maintain RCS pressure constant.

Page 51 Salem SRO - 6/26/98

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99. Given the following conditions for Unit 1:

A reactor trip and SI occurred at 0700

RHR system problems resulted in a loss of recirculation capability

Current time is 1350 hours0.0156 days 0.375 hours 0.00223 weeks 5.13675e-4 months

RCS subcooling - 10 °F

11 and 12 Charging Pumps are running

BIT flow - 350 gpm

11 SI Pump flow - 90 gpm

* 12 SI Pump flow - 100 gpm Which one of the following identifies the ECCS pumps that should remain running following determination of minimum SI flow for decay heat removal? (Assume equal flow from each Charging Pump.)

a. BOTH SI Pumps.

b. BOTH Charging Pumps.

c.

11 Charging Pump and 11 SI Pump.

d.

12 Charging Pump and 12 SI Pump.

100.

Given the following conditions for Unit 2:

Reactor trip and SI occurred from 100%

RCPs are stopped

MSNs have closed

ADVERSE containment conditions exists

22 SG pressure is 1130 psig

22 SG narrow range level peaked at 93% but has since fallen to 85%

The CRS has elected to implement 2-EOP-FRHS-2 "Response To Steam Generator Overpressure"

The CRS is considering opening 22MS 18 (W annup Valve) to relieve SG pressure Which one of the following describes the correct action relative to steam release from 22 SG?

a.. Steam release should NOT occur since natural circulation flow in other loops may be disrupted.

b. Steam may be released without restriction since narrow range level has been adequately established.

c. Steam may be released at less than 50 psi per hour to remain within SG tube differential pressure limits.

d. Steam release should be evaluated by the TSC since damage may occur due to water trapped in the steamline.

Page52 Salem SRO - 6/26198

IR 05000272/1998301

Text

SUBJECT:

Dear Mr. Keiser:

Enclosure:

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v t e Inspection Report - Salem - 1998301 (Operator Exams)
80 \| 81 \| 82 \| 83 \| 84 \| 85 \| 86 \| 87 \| 88 \| 89 \| 90 \| 91 \| 92 \| 93 \| 94 \| 95 \| 96 \| 97 \| 98 \| 99 00 \| 01 \| 02 \| 03 \| 04 \| 05 \| 06 \| 07 \| 08 \| 09 \| 10 \| 11 \| 12 \| 13 \| 14 \| 15 \| 16 \| 17 \| 18 \| 19 \| 20 \| 21 \| 22 \| 23 \| 24 \| 25 \|
1998 Quarterly Integrated 1Q (0) 2Q (0) 3Q (0) 4Q (0) Assessments Mid Cycle End of Cycle 7(0) 8(0) 9(0) 11(0) 12(0) 80(0) 81(0) 99(0) 12(0) Security 202(0) Operator Exams 301(0) 302(0) Emergency Planning Other

IR 05000272/1998301

Text

SUBJECT:

Dear Mr. Keiser:

Enclosure:

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