IR 05000269/1992302
| ML15239A066 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Oconee  |
| Issue date: | 09/09/1992 |
| From: | Baldwin R, Lawyer L NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION II) |
| To: | |
| Shared Package | |
| ML15239A065 | List: |
| References | |
| 50-269-92-302, NUDOCS 9209250228 | |
| Download: ML15239A066 (58) | |
Text
0-k REGU UNITED STATES NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION
REGION II
101 MARIETTA STREET, ATLANTA, GEORGIA 30323 ENCLOSURE 1 EXAMINATION REPORT -
50-269/92-302 Facility License: Duke Power Company Facility Name:
Oconee Nuclear Station Facility Docket Nos.:
50-269, 50-270, and 50-287 Examinations were administered at the Oconee Nuclear Station site near Seneca, South Carolin Chief Examiner:
(s<i Richard
. Baldwin Date Signed Approved By:
"
d__
_
_
Lawrence L. Lawyer, Chief Date Signed Operator Licensing 1 Division of Reactor Safety SUMMARY Scope:
Requalification written examinations and operating tests were administered to 10 Reactor Operators (RO) and 14 Senior Reactor Operators (SRO) during the weeks of July 20 and July 27, 199 Results:
Nine ROs and thirteen SROs passed these examinations. All others faile Based upon the above results, the Oconee Requalification Program has been determined to be satisfactor A strength was noted in the construction and maintenance of Job Performance Measures (JPM) (paragraph 4.c.(3)).
Weaknesses were noted in the areas of written examination construction (paragraph 4.b.(2), 4.b.(3), 4.c.(1)), communications during Emergency Operating Procedure (EOP) implementation (paragraph 4.e), and evaluator performance (paragraph 4.f). A conflict between procedures (paragraph 4.g.(1)) was identified as an Inspector Follow-up Item (IFI).
9209250228 920915 PDR ADOCK 05000269 V
.
Report Details
(a) Many instances were noted in which the ROs failed to repeat back orders and the SROs failed to acknowledge plant and equipment status reports from the RO (b) A significant problem was the interface and command relationship between the US, CRSRO, and the RO Typically, during the implementation of the EOPs, all four operators talked simultaneously. The CRSRO gave orders to one RO while the US gave orders to the other RO or the US and CRSRO gave orders to the same operator. This led to confusion due to the noise level in the control room and the ROs being unsure of who was in charge. In addition, the US and the CRSRO gave the same order at different times because of lack of coordination. This delayed operator actions because they had to listen to and repeat back the same order twic (2) The SROs also demonstrated weaknesses in the implementation of the EOP (a) The examiners identified inconsistencies between procedure reading in week 1 and week 2 of the examinations. During week 1, the CRSRO read all the cautions and steps verbatim and expected verbatim repeat backs from the operators. During week 2, the CRSR~s paraphrased cautions or referred to a placard posted on the control board and accepted an "I understand" acknowledgement from the ROs. Also during week 1, the CRSROs repeated steps that had already been accomplished in previous EOP sections and verified those steps valve by valve. As an example, HPI-PORV forced cooling had already been initiated and the CRSRO transitioned to a section of the EOPs that required initiation of HPI-PORV forced cooling, the CRSRO then went through the step again valve by valv However, during the second week under the same conditions, the CRSRO just said "Has HPI-PORV cooling been initiated?", the RO said "Yes, HPI-PORV cooling has been initiated," and the CRSRO continued to the next ste (b) The SR~s forced EOP transitions to go to the EOP section that addressed the problem they diagnose This is contrary to the purpose of symptom-based EOPs and in one case caused the delay of a rapid cooldown due to a SBLOCA being incorrectly diagnosed as a Steam Generator tube rupture. This scenario consisted of faulting Once Through Steam Generator (OTSG) "B" and,
Report Details
once the Reactor Coolant System was stabilized from the faulted OTSG, initiating a SBLOCA in containmen The crew was in Section 503, Excessive Heat Transfer, when the SBLOCA was initiated. The US diagnosed it as a tube rupture in the faulted OTSG and told the CRSRO that they needed to get to Section 504, SG Tube Lea The CRSRO decided to leave Section 503 without completing it and return to the beginning of the
"Subsequent Actions" section as allowed by Operations Management Procedure 1-18, Communication and EOP Implementation Standard. At step 5.17 in the
"Subsequent Actions", which states:
"IF heat transfer is or has been excessive:
THEN GO TO Section 503, Excessive Heat Transfer" the CRSRO said "We've already done that" and proceeded to step 5.18 which transfers the reader to Section 504, SG Tube Leak. At this point the CRSRO transitioned, with the Unit Supervisor's concurrence, to Section 504 even though he did not have the indications listed in step 5.18 for a steam generator tube leak. The correct action was to stay in Section 503 until it transitioned the CRSRO to CP-602, Cooldown with Saturated RCS. This improper use of the EOPs delayed the initiation of a rapid cooldown by 12 minutes allowing a significant loss of Reactor Coolant System inventory prior to reaching Core Flood Tank injection pressur (c) The Unit Supervisors were directing EOP actions from memory as much as ten minutes in advance of the procedure steps. There are several problems associated with this practice. First, the US is giving orders based on his diagnosis of the problem vice using the symptom-based approach of the EOPs. If the US or CRSRO misdiagnosed the problem, they could direct improper actions to be taken and impede or complicate the plant recovery. Secondly, this practice complicates crew communications as discussed in paragraph 4.b.(1)(b) and delays the operators in their completion of task Plant management has committed to resolve this proble (3) The crews demonstrated weaknesses in their understanding of the affect of the delta T cold controller on the Integrated Control System and in the diagnosis of a Feedwater delta P instrument failure. The incorrect diagnosis of the Feedwater delta P instrument failure by two of three crews resulted in reactor trip I
.
Report Details 6 Facility Evaluators Evaluator weaknesses were noted during the performance of the dynamic simulator examinations and JPM (1) Evaluator weaknesses during the JPMs included poor and improper cuing, poor follow-up questioning techniques, allowing an operator to use unauthorized reference materials, and giving the operators partial procedures which cued them when the task was complete. During one JPM, when the operator incorrectly performed a step, the evaluator cued the operator to "do that step again" resulting in the operator passing the JPM when the operator originally failed a critical ste (2) During the dynamic simulator examinations, the evaluators were inconsistent in the use of the competency rating factors. Also, they identified minor problems but sometimes overlooked or missed significant problem (a) An example of inconsistency in the use of rating factors occurred when a crew misdiagnosed an even The crew misdiagnosed a SBLOCA as a tube leak and incorrectly forced a transition of the EOPs to Section 504, SG Tube Leak. The facility evaluators rated the crew a "two" under "diagnosis of events." The NRC examiners rated the crew as a "one" under
"implementation of procedures" due to the crew using an event-based approach to implement symptom-based procedure (b) An example of a significant problem being missed occurred when the evaluators failed to identify an ISCT failure. A crew allowed Main Steam Header pressure to stay at or above the Main Steam Relief Valve (MSRV) setpoint for ten minutes with a known tube rupture in progress in that steam generator. The NRC examiners failed the crew, an RO, and the Unit Supervisor for failure of an Individual Simulator Critical Task which stated:
"Following Reactor trip adjust TBV's on OTSG "B" to keep MS press < MS relief setpoint."
The facility evaluators did not initially fail anyone until the NRC examiners started questioning the lifting of the MSRVs and the inadequate control of "B" Main Steam Header Pressure. The final facility examiner ratings were to only fail the RO. The NRC examiners gave the crew ratings of "one" in "diagnosis
Report Details
of plant conditions", "understanding of how actions affected system/plant", "manipulation of controls",
and "taking manual control of automatic functions."
The facility evaluators gave the crew ratings of "one" in the areas of "diagnosis of plant conditions" and
"manipulation of controls." Procedure Weaknesses The examiners identified two procedure weaknesses during the examination weeks which plant management has committed to resolv C (1) Operations Management Procedure 2-1, Duties and Responsibilities of On-Shift Operations Personnel, step 1.3.8 required that if inadequate core cooling conditions existed then immediate transition to Section 507, Inadequate Core Cooling, was necessary. This is in direct conflict with the note preceding step 1.0 of CP-601, Cooldown Following Large LOCA. This is identified as IFI 50-269/92 302-0 (2) PT/1/A/600/01, Periodic Instrument Surveillance, describes how to trip an RPS channel for an out of tolerance instrument but does not state the final position of the Test-Operate switch. Some operators returned the switch to OPERATE while others left it in TEST-OPERAT Simulator Fidelity The team did not review the degree to which the simulator meets the operational requirements of ANSI/ANS-3.5. The following problems were noted during the dynamic simulator examination (1) The Reactor Building pressure is not modelled correctly. It is a straight line interpolation and does not exceed 47 psig. This affected one set of scenarios and prevented the examiners from determining if the crews' approach to combat the casualty would have resulted in exceeding the Reactor Building design pressure of 60 psi (2) The ICCM monitors received frequent data link failure (3) The ICCM monitors continued to update after the simulator was placed in freeze. This detracted from the effectiveness of the Part A static simulator examinatio Report Details 8 Material Condition of the Plant The examiners noted several problems in the plant during the administration of the walk-through examinations. During the exit interview, plant management committed to correct these problem (1) There were eight to twelve terminal nuts lying in the bottom of 2MTC3 (RCP interlock cabinet).
Loose materials in electrical cabinets were also pointed out to the facility personnel during the January 1992 initial examination (2) There were numerous lights burned out in the Turbine Building, Aux Building, and Safe Shutdown Facilit (3) Problems were also noted with fire extinguisher safety checks (exceeding periodicity and illegible tags) and, in one case, a fire extinguisher in a Unit 2 equipment room was not secured in its mounting bracke.
Exit Meeting At the conclusion of the site visit, the examiners met with representatives of the plant staff to discuss the results of the examinations and inspection findings. The licensee did not identify as proprietary any material provided to or reviewed by the examiner Item Number Description/Reference 50-269, 270, 287/92-302-01 IFI - Conflict between OMP 2-1 and CP-601 on when to enter Section 507, "Inadequate Core Cooling", paragraph 4.g.(1).
ENCLOSURE 2 SIMULATOR FIDELITY REPORT Facility Licensee:
Duke Power Company Facility Docket Nos.:
50-269, 50-270, and 50-287 Operating Tests Administered On:
July 20, 21, 28, and 29, 1992 This form is used only to report observations. These observations do not constitute, in and of themselves, audit or inspection findings and are not, without further verification and review, indicative of noncompliance with 10 CFR 55.45(b). These observations do not affect NRC certification or approval of the simulation facility other than to provide information which may be used in future evaluations. No licensee action is required solely in response to these observation During the conduct of the simulator portion of the operating test, the following items were observed:
ITEM DESCRIPTION Reactor Building The pressure model is a straight line interpolation Pressure and will not go above 47 psig (RB design pressure is 60 psig).
ICCM Monitors Received frequent Data Link failures Continues to update when simulator is in freeze
PTRQ 1992-WRITTEN EXAM PART-A TEST NO: SRE-21 NAME DATE 07/30/92 SSN GRADE GRADED BY DATE REVIEWED B f
DATE 3 0o INSTRUCTIONS FOR TAKING EXAMINATION: Insure your NAME, SSN and TEST NUMBER are on this cover sheet and the SCANTRON FORM. Sign the declaration statement prior to turning your exam i.
All non-exam material must be removed from the table top (Calculators and reference materials for the examination will be allowed as necessary). Use #2 pencil ONLY and paper provide.
Answer all questions on form provided. Do NOT make any marks on the reference materia.
Rest room trips are limited to only one student leaving at a time. Avoid all contact with anyone -
including staf.
A satisfactory score on the written exam is an overall score of at least-80%. If parts of the examination are not clear with respect to their intent, ask questions of the instructor onl.
This examination is designed to take approximately 45 minutes to complete. This exam has a one hour limit to complet.
When you have finished and have turned in your completed examination, leave the examination are *My signature on this form is my declaration that the responses given on this examination are entirely my own. It further declares that I am aware that I am subject to termination from the training program immediately, and in addition, will be subject to further disciplinary action up to and including discharge from the Company for cheating and/or compromising this examinatio (Trainee Signature)
PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 1 1. During this event, if you were to view the P/T trace one (1) hour from the present time, predict the proper response during this time period. Assume any required operator actions have been performed. RCS Pressure decreasing and temperature:(.25) decreasing to maintain close to 500 subcoolin decreasing to maintain close to 200 subcoole decreasing to maintain close to 150 subcoole decreasing to maintain close to 00 subcoole. Which OTSG should be isolated, and at what point during this event should it be isolated? (.25) A; when RC temperature is less than 532 0 B; when RC temperature is less than 532 0 A; when SG pressure is less than 970 psi B; when SG pressure is less than 970 psi.
If during this scenario, RC Pumps are lost and are unavailable, and a natural circulation cooldown must be initiated, then: (.25) the "A" OTSG would not be steamed for any reaso both OTSG's would be steamed to accomplish the cooldow no cooldown'limit applies due to the difficulty involved with one OTSG natural circulation cooldow the "B" OTSG would be used only if unable to control the cooldown rat PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 2 4. SRO ONLY Determine the correct Emergency Plan Classification for this event. (.25) Unusual Event Alert Site Area Emergency General Emergency Over the next thirty (30) minutes, which two (2) parameters will be causing a change in shutdown margin? (.25) RCS temperature increases; boron increase RCS temperature decreases; boron decrease RCS temperature decreases; Xenon increase RCS temperature increases; Xenon increase.
Determine if operation in the TSOR is required, and select the explanation why. (.25) Ye RCP's on; RC temperature > 500oF; HPI is in the injection mod B. Yes. RCS temperature has decreased >20 0 F in 5 minute No. ES 1 and/or 2 has not actuate D. N RCP on; RC temperature > 500oF; HPI is in the injection mod PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92
-
Form A Page 3 7. Utilizing existing control room indications, is the TDEFWP operable?
State a minimum of three indications you used to make this determination. (.25) N MS-93 indicates open; TDEFDWP discharge pressure; "Zero" flow into the "A" OTS Ye MS-93 indicates open; TDEFDWP discharge pressure; TDEFW pump tripped statalarm not o N MS-93 indicates open; TDEFDWP Discharge Pressure; "A" OTSG low leve Ye MS-93 indicates open; TDEFDWP bearing oil pump off; 1LPSW-137 ope. Assuming that EFW is lost, which ONE of the following should the operator perform to establish a heat sink? (.25) Depressurize the OTSG's to feed with the CBP' Depressurize the RCS to utilize LP Go to forced HPI coolin Reset a MFDWPT and feed both SG'.
Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the ICS response to the existing plant situation? (.25) "A" TBV is indicating open but has failed shut due to MT Header Pressure signa "A" TBV has failed open due to ICS Turbine Master setpoint signal failing hig "A" TBV has failed to control the "A" OTSG Pressure at the expected post trip pressur "A" TBV is indicating open but has failed shut due to OTSG outlet pressure signa PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 4 1 Which ONE of the following statements is correct, relating to the existence of primary to secondary heat transfer at this time?
(.25)
A. Most of the primary to secondary heat transfer is taking place in the "B" OTS B. Most of the primary to secondary heat transfer is taking place in the "A" OTS C. Both the "A" and "B" steam generators are transferring hea D. Primary to secondary heat transfer does not exis.
Which ONE of the following is the fastest method for feeding the OTSG's for the existing plant condition? (.25)
A. Align TDEFWP to the "A" S/U control valve to feed "A" SG and throttle 1FDW-316 as necessary to feed "B" S B. Align TDEFWP to the "B" S/U control valve to feed "B" SG and throttle 1FDW-315 as necessary to feed "A" S C. Align "A" MDEFWP to the "A" S/U control valve to feed "A" SG and throttle 1FDW-316 as necessary to feed "B" S D. Align TDEFWP to "A" and "B" S/U control valves to feed "A" and
"B" SG's respectivel.
Assuming no further operator actions, which ONE of the following statements correctly predicts the change in SG heat transfer conditions over the next fifteen (15) minutes? (.25)
A. Turbine bypass valves will control main steam pressure, preventing excessive heat transfe B. Main steam line reliefs will control turbine header pressure, preventing excessive heat transfe C. OTSG's will be overfed by Emergency Feedwater, causing excessive heat transfe D. Overfeed condition will exist resulting in excessive heat transfe PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 5 1 SRO ONLY Later in this event, after the affected S/G is isolated, the EOP directs the operator to steam the affected SG to prevent exceeding 285.inches XSUR. Why? (.25)
A. 285 inches is above the location within the SG where most leaks have occurred in the pas B. To prevent feedwater in-leakag C. To prevent contaminated water in steam line D. 285 inches is the upper Tech. Spec. limi.
l REMAINING QUESTIONS ARE GENERIC!
RO ONLY At power, one of the first symptoms that condenser vacuum is decreasing is: (.25)
A. the "Low Condenser Vacuum" statalar B. increasing NI powe C. the Main Feedwater Pumps tri D. generated megawatts increas.
RO ONLY Choose the correct statement concerning EFW control if power is lost for one (1) hour. (.25) FDW-315 and 316 air accumulators have enough capacity to ensure proper operation from the EFW control pane B. 1FDW-315 and 316 nitrogen backup will ensure proper operation from EFW control panel in either Auto or Manua FDW-315 and 316 nitrogen backup will ensure proper operation from EFW control panel in Manual onl FDW-315 and 316 will have to be manually operated from the Penetration Room PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 6 O 1 The MDEFDWP's will start on low OTSG level if, after thirty (30)
seconds, the level is still 21 inches or less: (.25) and the pump control switch is in the Auto 1 or Auto 2 positio B. only when the pump control switch is in the Auto 1 positio only when the pump control switch is in the Auto 2 positio only when the pump control switch is in the Run positio.
Which ONE of the following describes the ICCM Subcooling Margin Monitor indication when superheated conditions are reached? (.25) Orange background with black number(s). Orange background with white number(s). Black background with white number(s).
- Black background with orange number(s).
1 Unit 1 RCP Seal Return Valves (1HP-226, 228, 230 & 232) are interlocked to close under which of the following conditions?
(.25) Total Seal Supply flow < 8 gp Individual Seal Supply flow < 3 gp CC flow and Seal Supply flow = 'O'gpm with > 400 psi RCS pressur Seal Supply flow =
'O'gpm, RCP's off with < 400 psi RCS pressur PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 7 1 If the CRD's are in MANUAL, they cannot be returned to AUTO unless: (.25) neutron error is within +/- 0.5%. all Safety Groups are at "Out-Limit". all control rods are on their own Group Power Suppl an "Out-Inhibit" is not in effect and neutron error is less than 2%.
2 How will load centers X5 and X6 respond to a load shed signal?
(.25) will load shed if powered from CT-B. will load shed if powered from CT-C. will load shed if ES 1 & 2 actuat will not load she PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 1 SRE-21 FEEDBACK REPORT 1. D B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 1 A No water in "A" OTSG at this tim.
C 1 D 1 C 1 B 1 B 1 A 1 A 1 C 1 B 2 B
PART-A EXAM SRE-21 07/30/92 Form A Page 1 SRE-21 TEST KEY Answer Bank #
QT Category 1 1. D PART-A 384 MC R55 2. B PART-A 389 MC R55 3. B PART-A 26 MC EOP 504 4. B PART-A 374 MC R55 5. C PART-A 76 MC PT/1103/15 6. D PART-A 78 MC EOP 503 7. B PART-A 79 MC AP/1700/19 8. A PART-A 88 MC AP/1700/19 9.- C PART-A 89 MC SAE-R25 10. A PART-A 91 MC EOP E20 11. C PART-A 92 MC AP/1700/19 12. D PART-A 93 MC SAE-R25 13. C PART-A 388 MC R55 14. B PART-A 29 MC R15 15. B PART-A 131 MC EF 16. A PART-A 475 MC EFW 17. A PART-A 253 MC RCI 18. C PART-A 256 MC HPI 19. B PART-A 273 MC CRI 20. B PART-A 248 MC PSL
PTRQ 1992-WRITTEN EXAM PART-A TEST NO: SRE-09 NAME DATE 07/23/92 SSN GRADE GRADED BY DATE REVIEWED BY Z
.4 z'90/{
DATE 777/ p INSTRUCTIONS FOR TAKING EXAMINATION: Insure your NAME, SSN and TEST NUMBER are on this cover sheet and the SCANTRON FORM. Sign the declaration statement prior to turning your exam i.
All non-exam material must be removed from the table top (Calculators and reference materials for the examination will be allowed as necessary). Use #2 pencil ONLY and paper provide.
Answer all questions on form provided. Do NOT make any marks on the reference materia.
Rest room trips are limited to only one student leaving at a time. Avoid all contact with anyone -
including staf.
A satisfactory score on the written exam is an overall score of at least 80%. If parts of the examination are not clear with respect to their intent, ask questions of the instructor onl.
This examination is designed to take approximately 45 minutes to complete. This exam has a one hour limit to complet.
When you have finished and have turned in your completed examination, leave the examination are *My signature on this form is my declaration that the responses given on this examination are entirely my own. It further declares that I am aware that I am subject to termination from the training program immediately, and in addition, will be subject to further disciplinary action up to and including discharge from the Company for cheating and/or compromising this examinatio (Trainee Signature)
ES-602 Rev 6 06/01/90 ES-602-2 WRITTEN EXAMINATION COVER SHEET U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSICH (SENIOR)
REPCTOR OPERATOR REQUALIFICATION EXANINATION FACILITY:
REACTCR TYPE:
DATE AdMINISTERED:
OPERATOR:
% OF SECTIGN OPERATOR'S CATEGORY CATEGORY SCORE VALUE VALUE A Plant and Control Systems B Administrative Controls/
Procedural Limits TOTALS Final Grade Examiner Standards 27 of 27
OP-OC-SRE-009 February 15, 1989 TLF/
Page 5 of 5 5.0 STUDENT INFORMATION SHEET INITIAL CONDITIONS A. While operating at 100% steady state power, the mechanical maintenance group requested that the "lA" LPI Pump be "red tagged" out of service for repair. Unit 2 is shutdown for repairs to transformer CT-2, which is out of service. CT-1 is supplying Unit 2 Auxiliaries as well as acting as a backup to Unit 1. A double end break LOCA on the "B" hot leg occurred. Engineered Safeguards actuated but LPSW will not align to the "lA" LPI Cooler due to a failure of LPSW-4 to ope.2 EQUIPMENT STATUS PRIOR TO TRANSIENT A. "lA" LPI Pump breaker is tagged out for maintenance to be performed on the pum B. A Tech Spec LCO has been in effect for one (1) hour due to the "lA" LPI pump being out of servic C. Unit 2 is shutdown for repairs to transformer CT-2, which is out of servic D. CT-1 is supplying Unit 2 auxiliaries as well as backing up Unit E. A Tech Spec LCO has been in effect for two (2) hours due to CT-1 being aligned to supply Units 1 & F. R & Rs have been filled out related to the out of normal conditions associated with the LPI system and the startup transformer.3 OPERATOR ACTIONS TAKEN A. Immediate Manual Actions of the EOP B. lB HPIP has been secured 5.4 ELAPSED TIME FOR EVENT A. Three (3) minutes
PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 1 1. At the present time, LPSW to the LPI coolers: (.25)
A. is required to remove decay hea B. is not required to remove decay hea C. is not adequate to remove decay hea D. should be throttled to 5500gp. Which ONE of the following correctly describes the present plant situation? (.25)
A. Inadequate Core Cooling exist B. Containment Integrity exist C. The Secondary side of the plant has caused excessive heat transfe D. Two (2) RCP's should not be secured at this.tim. SRO ONLY For this event, determine the Emergency Plan Classification. (.25)
A. Unusual Event Alert C. Site Area Emergency D. General Emergency 4. SRO ONLY In regard to LPI during this event: (.25)
A. LPI/HPI should be aligned in the piggyback mod B. LPI injection is adequate to remove decay hea C. Design Basis requirements are not me D. The LPI system is not removing decay hea PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 2
.
5. Based on present plant conditions, which ONE of the following Unit 1 loads should be shutdown? (.25)
A. IC HPI pum B. 1A HPI pum C. lB RBS Pum D. A LPSW Pum. For the existing scenario, which ONE of the following set of conditions will allow the operator to secure the HPI pumps? (.25)
A. When Core Subcooling Margin becomes >20 0 F subcoole B. When each LPI header flow is 3000 gp C. When each LPI header flow is 1000 gpm and RCS conditions are stabl D. Present plant conditions allow for securing HPI pumps at this tim. Valves 1CF-1 (lA CFT Outlet) and lCF-2 (lB CFT Outlet) should be:
(.25)
A. closed at this tim B. left open at this tim C. closed when core SCM returns to >20 0 D. closed when CFT pressure reaches 0 ps. Which ONE of the following statements is correct concerning.RCP's during this scenario? (.25)
A. Secure to prevent phase separation if the pumps are lost with the system at greater than 70% void fractio B. Secure to protect the RC Pumps from damag C. Since core SCM has been 00 F for >2 minutes, the RCPs should remain running to pump a steam/water mixture through the cor D. Since core SCM has been 00 F for >2 minutes, the RC Pumps should remain running to ensure proper core heat transfe PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 3 9. Based on present plant conditions, what operator action must be taken to determine Reactor Building Hydrogen concentration from the Control Room? (.25) Place the RB Hydrogen Purge in servic Place the RB Hydrogen Analyzers in servic Open valves 1PR-81 and 1PR-84 (Train "A" RB Hydrogen Analyzer Isolations).
D. No action required; Hydrogen concentration is zero (0) as indicate.
Based on present plant conditions, if PCB-17, PCB-18 and ACB-4 trip, which ONE of the following will be the source of power?
(.25) Keowee #1 when ACB-3 automatically close Keowee #2 through the overhead power pat CT-3 through the emergency cross-connect Central switchyard when SL-1 and SL-2 are close.
Which ONE of the following choices list the RIA's that are currently providing accurate information? (.25) RIA-4, 1RIA-48, 1RIA-49 RIA-47, 1RIA-49, 1RIA-57 RIA-47, 1RIA-48, 1RIA-56 RIA-4, 1RIA-57, 1RIA-58 1 Which ONE of the following best describes the cooling medium for the reactor core? (.25) Forced circulation coolin B. Two-phase coolin C. HPI/LPI coolin D. No cooling presently taking plac PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 4 1 Which ONE of the following reactions can the operator minimize, when reactor building pressure is 3 psig? (.25) zirc -
water reactio B. Radiolysis reactio C. stainless steel -
boric acid reactio zinc -
boric acid reactio.
What operator actions should be taken in regards to LPI flow?
(.25)
A. Secure the lB LPIP, valve-in the IC LPIP and establish 1500gpm flow in both LPI header B. Flow should be split evenly to 3000 gpm per heade C. Flow should be split evenly to 1500 gpm per heade D. Valve-in the IC LPIP and establish flow in both LPI headers at 3000 gp.
If a load shed signal had been activated at the start of this event which ONE of the following apply at this time?
1C LPIP...
(.25)
A. may be starte B. may not be starte C. cannot be started until lB LPIP is secure D. cannot be started until the load shed signal is rese.
lLP-1 (LPI Return Block from RCS) is interlocked so that it will not open unless: (.25)
A. RCS pressure is < 400 ps B. RCS temperature is <246 0 C. 1LP-2 (LPI Return Block) is ope D. 1LP-2 (LPI Return Block) is close PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 5 1 Which ONE of the following is the reason that the APSR's are maintained latched in their withdrawn position on a reactor trip?
(.25)
A. Provides a manual means of reactivity contro B. Provides additional SDM in case of an inadventant restar C. Limits excessive flux tiltin D. Prevents the addition of positive reactivit.
When the PORV Select switch is in LOW: (.25)
A. the controlling signal is from the ES Channel A pressure instrumen B. the controlling signal is from the SSF RCS Loop B pressure instrumen C. the controlling signal is from the SSF Pressurizer pressure instrumen D. the controlling signal is from the RCS Low Range Cooldown pressure instrumen.
RO ONLY During a unit shutdown on unit one you are directed by procedure to align the LPI system for switchover mode of operation. The switchover mode of decay heat removal is used on Units 1 and 2:
(.25)
A. because the LPI coolers are not designed to accept the combined RCS pressure and LPI pump discharge pressur B. because the LPI coolers are not designed to accept the combined RCS pressure and RCP discharge pressur C. but is not necessary on Unit 3, because an orifice in the decay heat drop line reduces the flowrate to the LPI cooler D. but is not necessary on Unit 3, because the Unit 3 Coolers can be bypassed when necessar PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 6 2 The TDEFWP has automatically started and is supplying the OTSG Which ONE of the following describes the response of 1FDW-315 and 1FDW-316 (SG EFDW Control Valves) controllers when the initiation signal CLEARS.? (.25)
A. Continues to operate in AUTO until the MANUAL pushbutton is depresse B. Continues to operate in AUTO until the initiation signal is rese C. Shifts to MANUAL as soon as the initiation signal clear D. Shifts to MANUAL when the TDEFWP control switch is placed to RU.
A complete loss of DC power to the TDEFWP has occurred. Which ONE of the following describes the starting of the TDEFWP if an AUTOMATIC initiation signal is received? (.25)
A. Will automatically start because the steam supply valve, MS 93, will be opened when its pilot solenoid de-energize B. Can be manually started by placing the Control Room control switch to RUN, due to a loss of auto initiation logic control powe C. Can be manually started by pulling up on the local hand starting leve D. Cannot be started since the low oil pressure start permissive for the turbine cannot be me.
Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the reason for lining up the Post LOCA Boron Dilution Valves within nine hours of the existing transient? (.25)
A. To provide a hot leg flow path which will prevent boron concentrating in the cor B. To provide a cold leg flow path to enhance core coolin C. To prevent damage to the LPI pump D. To ensure proper operation of the internal vent valves in the core support shiel PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 1 SRE-09 TEST KEY Answer Bank #
QT Category 1 1. B PART-A 70 MC SAE-R48 2. B PART-A 22 MC EOP 501 3. C PART-A 337 MC RP/1000/01 4. B PART-A 314 MC EOP 602 5. D PART-A 67 MC EOP E20 6. C PART-A 65 MC EOP 601 7. B PART-A 72 MC EOP 601 8. B PART-A 64 MC EOP 501 9. B PART-A 68 MC EOP 505 10. D PART-A 393 MC 11. D PART-A 268 MC AM6 12. C PART-A 21 MC EOP 601 13. D PART-A 262 MC HDC 14. D PART-A 308 MC LPI 15. A PART-A 258 MC LPI 16. A PART-A 249 MC LPI 17. D PART-A 310 MC RPS 18. D PART-A 250 MC RCI 19. A PART-A 403 MC LPI 20. A PART-A 396 MC EF 21. C PART-A 395 MC EF 22. A PART-A 81 MC EOP 601
PART-A EXAM SRE-09 07/23/92 Form A Page 1 SRE-09 FEEDBACK REPORT 1. B 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B B B 1 D 1 D
.
12. C 1 D 1 D 1 A 1 A 1 D 1 D 1 A 2 A 2 C 2 A
PTRQ 1992-WRITTEN EXAM PART-A TEST NO: SRE-11 NAME DATE 07/27/92 SSN GRADE GRADED BY DATE REVIEWED B6 i
DATE INSTRUCTIONS FOR TAKING EXAMINATION: Insure your NAME, SSN and TEST NUMBER are on this cover sheet and the SCANTRON FORM. Sign the declaration statement prior to turning your exam i.
All non-exam material must be removed from the table top (Calculators and reference materials for the examination will be allowed as necessary). Use #2 pencil ONLY and paper provide.
Answer all questions on form provided. Do NOT make any marks on the reference materia.
Rest room trips are limited to only one student leaving at a time. Avoid all contact with anyone -
including staf.
A satisfactory score on the written exam is an overall score of at least 80%. If parts of the examination are not clear with respect to their intent, ask questions of the.instructor onl.
This examination is designed to take approximately 45 minutes to complete. This exam has a one hour limit to complet.
When you have finished and have turned in your completed examination, leave the examination are *My signature on this form is my declaration that the responses given on this examination are entirely my own. It further declares that I am aware that I am subject to termination from the training program immediately, and in addition, will be subject to further disciplinary action up to and including discharge from the Company for cheating and/or compromising this examinatio (Trainee Signature)
PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 1 1. Based on present plant conditions, which ONE of the following statements describes the actions that should be taken prior to placing RPS Channel "B" in Manual Bypass in order to prevent violating any limit? (.25) No actions needed; Channel "B".can be placed in Manual Bypass at any tim Channel "A" should be tripped, prior to placing Channel "B" in Manual Bypas A dummy bistable should be inserted in the Channel "A" High Pressure trip bistable and take channel "A" out of Manual Bypas The reactor will have to be shutdown prior to placing Channel
"B" in Manual Bypas. Concerning the Component Cooling system at this time: (.25) CC Pumps "lA" and "lB" have tripped, causing 1CC-8 (RB Outside Block) to shu B. Quench Tank temperature will increas CC-8 (RB Outside Block) has failed shut, resulting in a complete loss of CC flo The standby CC pump should have automatically starte.
For the present plant condition, which ONE of the following additional failures would result in seal damage to the RC pumps?
(.25) Loss of ITA and ITB switchgea HP-20 (RCP Seal Return) failing close HP-31 (RCP Seal Flow Control) failing close HP-115 (1A&1B HPIP's Discharge X-Connect) fails close PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 2 4. Based on present plant conditions, if the toggle switch for RCS Pressure on the SASS panel in RPS Cabinet "E" was positioned to
"A", which ONE of the following statements is correct? (.25) The PORV and Spray Valve would open due to the pressure signal being failed hig B. The PORV and Spray Valve would only be manually operable from the Control Roo C. The Spray Valve would only be manually operable from ICS Cabinet #1 D. The PORV and Spray Valve would not be affecte. Which ONE of the following statements is correct concerning Subcooling Margin Monitors based on present plant conditions?
(.25) All SCM Monitors are operabl The Digital Front-Board SCM Monitors are operable and all ICCM SCM Monitors are inoperabl The Digital Front-Board SCM Monitors are inoperable and all ICCM SCM Monitors are operabl D. The ICCM SCM Monitors are inoperabl., Which ONE of the following statements is correct based on present plant conditions? Demineralizer resin... (.25) has been damage will not be damaged because letdown flow is directed to "A" BHU will not be damaged because the demineralizer is bypasse D. will be damaged unless letdown flow is increased to >100 gp PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 3 7. Which ONE of the following statements would be correct if a SBLOCA occurred and ES 1&2 actuated on low RCS pressure during the present plant condition? (.25) HP-5 (Letdown Isolation) will not automatically clos HP-409 (1HP-27 Bypass) will have to be opened to ensure HPI flow in the "A" and "B" HPI header Adequate HPI flow will be established in both injection headers without operator actio LPSW-6 and 15 (RCP Coolers Supply and Outlet) will have to be re-opened to restore LPSW flow to RCP'. Which ONE of the following actions is required if Rod 2, Group 7 drops to 25%? (.25) Manually trip the reacto Bring the unit to hot standby within twelve (12) hour Bring the unit to hot shutdown within twelve (12) hour Position the remaining rods in Group 7 to clear the Assymetric Fault alar.
Choose the correct statement concerning RCP operation based on present plant conditions. (.25) RCP's may continue to operate, but 1B2 RCP cannot be restarte The remaining RCP's should be secure RCP's may continue to operate and RCP 1B2 can be restarte Close 1HP-230 (1B2 RCP Seal Return Stop) and 1LPSW-11&12 (1B2 RCP MTR CLR In&Out).
0II
PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 4 1 Based on present plant conditions: (.25) Th is lower in the "A" Loop; the RPS channels that use the signals from "A" Loop are further away from a high Th tri Th is lower in the "A"loop; the RPS channels that use the signals from "A" Loop will be closer to a high Th tri RCS pressure is lower in the "A" Loop; the RPS channels that use the signals from "A" Loop will be closer to a low pressure and variable pressure/temperature tri RCS pressure is lower in the "A" Loop; the RPS channels that use the signals from "A" Loop will be closer to a high pressure tri.
Based on available Control Room indications, which ONE of the following is correct?
CRDs... (.25) are responding properl should be inserting and they are not movin should be withdrawing and they are not movin should be withdrawing and they are insertin.
Based on present plant conditions, what is the maximum MWe output allowed? (.25) MWe MWe MWe MWe
PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 5 1 RO ONLY The "B" HPIP is running because: (.25) It started in order to to recover Pressurizer leve of Labyrinth Seal d of Seal Supply Filter d of Seal injection flo.
- EEE.UE=U=*EU**EUUUUUEE=EUUE**EE**E*******U*****UE******E*UU**
REMAINING QUESTIONS ARE GENERIC!
Unit #1 is operating at 100% power with four (4) operable RPS channel RPS Channel "A" is placed in Manual Bypas The trip logic on Unit #1 after RPS Channel "A" is placed in Manual Bypass is: (.25) Two (2) out of three (3).
B. One (1) out of three (3). Two (2) out of four (4). One (1) out of four (4).
1 RPS channel "A" is tripped because of a failed pressure signa The operator is instructed to place the RPS channel in manual bypass until the bistable can be repaired. Which ONE of the following is NOT an action that should be taken by the operator to accomplish this task? (.25) Insert the manual bypass key and turn to bypass channel Reset the RCS High Pressure Trip Bistabl Verify the RPS channel A Reactor Trip module lamp is di Verify the RP Channel "A" Trip Bypass statalarm on and the RP channel "A" trip statalarm of PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 6 1 SRO ONLY The RPS "High RCS Pressure" trip is designed to provide protection from a...
(.25) loss of all FD loss of all RCS flo rod ejection at powe slow rod withdrawal accident at powe.
Analog points that are read from the Operator Aid Computer are...(.25) considered safety related when they are fed directly from safety related transmitter not considered safety relate considered safety related when they are fed from either ICCM Train "A" or "B". not considered safety related, except during emergency situation.
Core subcooling margin displayed on the ICCM monitors is calculated from loop wide range pressure and the average of: (.25) all CETC' all 24 qualified CETC's for ICC the 5 hottest CETC's for that trai the 12 qualified CETC's for that trai PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 7
.
1 The MDEFDWP hotwell suction modification was implemented to...
(.25) allow the hotwell level to be drawn down to 12 inches when supplying suction to the MDEFDWP' increase the amount of water available as suction for the MDEFDWP' allow taking a suction from the hotwell with the MDEFDWP's without breaking vacuu decrease the time required to establish the flow path from the hotwell, by eliminating all manual valve operation.
If "Bypass" is selected with the Shutdown Bypass key switch on one RPS Channel during full power operation: (.25) the breaker associated with that RPS Channel will ope that RPS Channel will tri the channel will trip and its associated breaker will ope the channel becomes inoperabl PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 1 SRE11 TEST KEY Answer Bank #
QT Category 1 1. B PART-A 39 MC TS 3.. C PART-A 136 MC SAE-R13 3. C PART-A 139 MC HPI 4. D PART-A 30 MC PT/600/01 5. C PART-A 35 MC OP/1103/20 6. A PART-A 36 MC SAE-R13 7. C PART-A 37 MC EOP 505 8. A PART-A 196 MC AP/1700/15 9. A PART-A 203 MC SF-102 10. C PART-A 240 MC OP/1102/04 11. A PART-A 197 MC SAE-R19 12. A PART-A 198 MC TS. D PART-A 202 MC AP/1700/14 14. A PART-A 434 MC RPS 15. B PART-A 420 MC RPS 16. D PART-A 410 MC RPS 17. B PART-A 454 MC RCI 18. C PART-A 284 MC RCI 19. B PART-A 480 MC EFW 20. B PART-A 435 MC RPS
PART-A EXAM SRE-11 07/27/92 Form A Page 1 SRE11 FEEDBACK REPORT 1. B C 3. C Ref: PNS-020 DELETED 5/91 D C A C 8. A 9. A Ref: PNS-020 DELETED 5/91 1 C
.
11. A 1 A 1 D 1 A 1 B 1 D 1 B 1 C 1 B 2 B
PTRQ 1992 -
WRITTEN EXAM TEST NO:
PART-B NAME EXAM 07/27/92 SSN GRADE GRADED BY DATE REVIEWED BY E
f t
DATE
-/#
INSTRUCTIONS FOR TAKING EXAMINATION: Insure your NAME, SSN, DATE and TEST NUMBER are on this COVER PAGE and the SCANTRON FORM, Sign the declaration statement prior to turning your exam i.
All non-exam material must be removed from the table top (Calculators and reference materials for the examination will be allowed as necessary). Use #2 pencil ONLY and paper provide.
Answer all questions on the SCANTRON FORM. Do NOT make any marks on the reference materia.
Rest room trips are limited to only one student leaving at a tim Avoid all contact with anyone -
including staf.
A satisfactory score on the written exam is an overall score of at least 80%. If parts of the examination are not clear with respect to their intent, ask questions of the instructor onl.
This examination is designed to take approximately 90 minutes to complete. This exam has a two hour limit to complet.
When you have finished and have turned in your completed examination,
-leave the examination are *My signature on this form is my declaration that the responses given on this examination are entirely my own. It further declares that I am aware that I am subject to termination from the training program immediately, and in addition, will be subject to further disciplinary action up to and including discharge from the Company for cheating and/or compromising this examinatio (Trainee Signature)
PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 1 PART-B2 TEST KEY Answer Bank #
QT Category 1 1. D PART-B 354 MC OMP 2-6/SD3.. B PART-B 245 MC PT/600/01 3. B PART-B 323 MC OP/2/1102/02 4. C PART-B 246 MC OP/1104/49 5. B PART-B 196 MC OP/1103/11 6. B PART-B 319 MC OP/1104/02 7. C PART-B 107 MC OP/1502/07 8. B PART-B 395 MC AP/1700/19 9. B PART-B 157 MC OP/1502/07 10. D PART-B 84 MC OMP 2-7 11. B PART-B 265 MC SD 4.. B PART-B 8 MC TS 3.. C PART-B 414 MC OP/1106/31 14. D PART-B 454 MC LPI 15. B PART-B 179 MC OP/1106/01 16. C PART-B 341 MC AP/1700/25 17. C PART-B 377 MC EOP E20 18. A PART-B 70 MC AP/1700/13 19. A PART-B 282 MC AP/1700/19 20. C PART-B 375 MC AP/1700/22 21. D PART-B 238 MC EOP 503 22. D PART-B 207 MC EOP 602 23. A PART-B 288 MC AP/1700/19 24. B PART-B 61 MC EOP 506 25. D PART-B 80 MC OP/1600/04 26. B PART-B 223 MC OP/1102/10 27. D PART-B 46 MC EOP 601 28. C PART-B 56 MC EOP 504 29. A PART-B 191 MC OP/1103/11 30. B PART-B 437 MC RPS 31. C PART-B 431 MC OP/1107/04 32. C PART-B 353 MC CCW 33. B PART-B 432 MC AP/1700/23 34. C PART-B 346 MC AP/1700/03-3 B PART-B 195 MC OP/1103/02
'36. B PART-B 120 MC SLC 16.11-3 37. D PART-B 336 MC OP/1102/04 38. B PART-B 367 MC AP/1700/25 3 A PART-B 427 MC AP/1700/07
PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 1 1. An NLO has the need to enter a "High Radiation Area".
The general area is 200 mrem/hr. The NLO should: (.25)
A. wear an operable alarming dosimete B. wear an operable alarming dosimeter and pocket dosimete C. contact RP to determine the need for High Range Dosimeter and permission to enter the are D. wear an operable alarming dosimeter, pocket dosimeter and a TL. Unit 1 is operating at 98% power when I & E informs the Control Room that the "High Pressure" bistable for RPS channel "A" is inoperable. Channel "B" contains a dummy bistabl Which one of the following describes how to trip channel "A" and the unit's operating status following this action? (.25)
A. Trip any appropriate bistabl Immediate unit shutdown is not required. One channel tripped and one channel in bypass for testing is allowed for up to four hour B. Place an instrument channel in TEST-OPERATE. Immediate unit shutdown is not required. One channel tripped and one channel in bypass for testing is allowed for up to four hour C. Place an instrument channel in TEST-OPERATE. Immediate unit shutdown is required because the minimum operable channels is not me D. Trip the associated RPS breake Immediate unit shutdown is not required because a tripped channel is considered operabl PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 2 3. Immediately following a reactor trip, the Turbine Bypass Valves are manually throttled to lower main steam pressure to reseat a stuck-open Main Steam Relief Valve. Main steam pressure has to be lowered to 920 psi to reseat the relief valv Is a Shutdown Margin Calculation required? Explain your answer. (.25)
A. Ye Shutdown Margin has to be calculated following any abnormal steam generator pressure reductio B. No. As long as all rods are fully inserte C. Yes. Shutdown Margin must be calculated due to the anticipated negative Xenon reactivity additio D. N Unless the Moderator Temperature Coefficient was positive, in which case the Shutdown Margin should be verifie. A plant startup is in progress on Unit 1. The present plant conditions are:
RC temperature
= 242 0F
RC pressure
= 320 psig
Heatup rate
=.650F/min
Pressurizer level
= 280 inches
1A1 RCP is operating Why is this not an acceptable operating status? And determine the proper course of action to obtain an acceptable operating condition. (.25)
A. Pressurizer level is limited to 5 220 inches at this pressure and temperature. Stop the heatup and establish an acceptable RCS pressure and PZR level within four hour B. NPSH is not established for RCP operation. Immediately stop the RCP and establish the minimum required NPS C. Pressurizer level is limited to 5 260 inches at this pressure and temperature. Stop the heatup and establish an acceptable RCS pressure and PZR level within one hou D. The heatup rate is not acceptable. The rate should be reduced to.450F/min. to prevent exceeding the maximum heatup rate allowe PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 3 5. After the RCS has been drained to the desired level, you inform Health Physics, per Operations procedure, to make new RB survey The HP Technician tells you that new surveys are not necessary since the RB general environment radiation levels will decrease due to removing the radioactive reactor coolant. Do you agree or disagree with the HP Technician? (.25)
A. Agree. All levels decreas B. Disagree. Radiation levels could increase in certain areas of the Reactor Buildin C. Agree. Draining system makes no differenc D. Disagree. All levels increas. The "A" HPI pump is being run for testing after maintenance. The pump has been running for thirty-five (35) minutes total time, and twenty (20) minutes with the discharge valve throttled. The motor amps, motor bearing temperatures and recirculation flow temperatures have just started.a slow increase from previously being stable, which you-consider to be abnormal. What action should be taken to correct the temperature rises? Immediately throttle the... (.25)
A. suction valve closed as required to return parameters to previous levels. If throttling does not restore parameters, stop the pum B. discharge valve closed as required to return parameters to previous levels. If throttling does not restore parameters, stop the pum C. discharge valve open as required to return parameters to previous levels. If throttling does not restore parameters, stop the pum D. suction valve open as required to return parameters to previous levels. If throttling does not restore parameters, stop the pum PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 4 7. SRO ONLY During fuel handling operations, the Reactor Operator lowers a fuel assembly into the core and reports to the Control Room a hoist tape reading l inches higher than the referenced tape readin Based on this tape reading, you direct the Bridge Operator to: (.25)
A. disengage from the fuel assembly and report to the next core positio B. raise the fuel assembly approximately one foot; shake the mast cable, while lowering the fuel assembl C. raise the fuel assembly, then re-try lowering it into positio D. disengage from the fuel assembly, re-index the bridge, regrapple the fuel assembly, and re-try inserting it into positio. A switchyard isolation has occurred, and CT-1 experienced a transformer lockout. You notice that the EFW system has actuated, and that XSUR levels are 35" and increasing. You should: (.25)
A. take manual control of FDW-315 and 316, and reduce XSUR levels to 30" to prevent overcoolin B. allow EFW to continue to feed up to 240" XSU C. take manual control of FDW-316 and 316, and reduce OTSG levels to 25" SUR to stop overfee D. allow MFW to feed to 50% Operating Rang. An NLO, working in Unit 1 reactor building during a refueling shutdown, is asked by I&E to move the main fuel bridge which they are working on. Is the NLO allowed to operate the main fuel bridge? (.25)
A. No, required to be a qualified bridge operator holding an RO or SRO licens B. Yes, if he is a qualified bridge operato C. No, only licensed RO's can operate the bridg D. Yes, provided he is not moving fue PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 5 1 If the incore chart recorder for'Unit 1 in the SSF Control Room becomes inoperable, with Unit 1 at 100% power and Units 2 & 3 at cold shutdown, what action is required? (.25)
A. The recorder must be repaired within 7 days or Unit 1 must be brought to Hot Standb B. The recorder must be repaired within 7 days or Unit 1 must be brought to Hot Shutdow C. No immediate action is required, but a letter must be sent to the NRC within thirty (30) day D. No immediate action is require.
An inoperable fire barrier in the Unit 2 Equipment Room requires a fire watch until the barrier is repaired. The fire detection instrumentation in the area IS operabl If the last fire watch tour in the area was made at 0815, the latest the next tour may be performed, without exceeding the maximum allowable time between tours is: (.25)
A. 0915 B. 0930 C. 0945 D. 1015
PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 6 01 Chemistry notifies the control room reactor operator of the following sample results on Unit 1, during a unit startup:
- RCS 0,
-
.15ppm
.
RCS CL- -
.10ppm
- RCS FL_ -
.05ppm The present RCS temperature and pressure is:
- 190 0 F
= 300 psig The present time is 0800. What is the maximum RCS temperature you could reach at 0900? (.25) F F F F 1 RO ONLY Determine the magnitude of a Steam Generator tube leak on Unit 1, given the following conditions: (.25)
- 1.15 X 106 cpm on 1RAI40
- CSAE off-gas flow 5 scfm
- RCS activity.75 pci/ml (Xe 133 + 135).016 gpm.16 gpm.6 gpm.0 gpm
PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 7 1 RO ONLY A Load Shed has occurred concurrent with a LOCA, and the "B" LPI pump failed to star To start the "C" LPI pump, the operator must: (.25) reset the Load Shed by depressing both reset buttons simultaneously, then start the pum take manual control of the Load Shed circuit on ES channels 1&2, and start the pum depress both MFB Monitor Panel reset buttons simultaneously, then start the pum D. wait about five (5) seconds after the Load Shed, and start the pum.
RO ONLY The unit is operating at 100% with 880 MWE/200 MVAR loaded on the main turbine generator. The Charlotte dispatcher has just requested that the unit load be decreased to 600 megawatts, due to the light holiday system load. Concerning generator operation, what, if any, is MVAR limit during transient? (.25) MVAR's MVAR's MVAR's MVAR's 1 RO ONLY A fire on Unit 2 has caused a total loss of HPI. During your mitigation of this transient, valve SSF-2SF-82 (RC Makeup Suction Valve) does not open. What action will you take? (.25) Override the RC Makeup Pump start switc Send an NLO to manually open the valv Trip the RC makeup pum Throttle the discharge valve to approximately 8 GP PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 8 1 The EOP Subsequent Actions maintains pressurizer level constant at approximately 100 inche Which is NOT a reason for this action?
(.25)
A. Ensure pressurizer heaters are availabl B. Limit RCS pressure increase during the refil C. Ensure adequate steam space volume for shutdown transients such as inadvertent ES actuatio D. Limit the amount of pressurizer subcooling that occurs during refil.
Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a tremor is felt by everyone in the control room. The following statalarms are received:
"Seismic Trigger"
"CCW Lake Level Low"
"V Cond Vacuum Low" The reactor and main turbine trip immediately after these alarms are received. What actions will you take to maintain an adequate supply of cooling water to the TDEFWP and HPI motors? (.25)
A. The Jockey Pump is cycled on and of B. Cycle.one of the HPSW pumps on and of C. Maintenance will use a portable submersible pum D. Pumper trucks from nearby fire departments will be utilized to supply wate PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 9
.
1 Following a loss of Main Feedwater, EFW Flow is being controlled manually with 1FDW-315 and 316 from the control roo The TDEFWP is operating. The pneumatic lines to the valve actuators on 1FDW 315 and 1FDW-316 have been sheare The following conditions are noted:
" RCS temperature decreasing rapidl " RCS pressure decreasing rapidl * SG filling rapidl " MDEFWP's are out servic What actions, if any, are required to mitigate this condition?
(.25) Establish EFDW flow through the SU Control Valve B. Dispatch an NLO to throttle EFW flow manually at the pump discharg Trip all EFWPs and feed the SGs with the CBP Verify auxiliary steam is lined up to the TDEFWP, then throttle steam to the pum.
RO ONLY The reactor operator sends an NLO to open valve CC-8, following a loss of I The NCO & NLO must understand that: (.25) a special jacking pin is required from the tool roo a "white tag" must be attached to the valv the NLO must remain with this valve until close the air regulator must be isolated and air pressure bled off before opening the valv PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 10 2 A steam line break outside of containment has caused a reactor trip from rated power due to the cooldown and depressurizatio Evaluate the following data and determine if operation in the TSOR is required. (.25)
- Tc = 495 0 F
"A" and "B" HPI Pumps are operatin N The HPI System is not in the injection mod Ye RCS temperature (Tc) is less than 500 0 C. Ye The HPI System is operating in the injection mode with two HPI pump N The RCP's are operating, therefore, not required because a 1001F change in Tc has not occurre.
SRO ONLY A SBLOCA that saturates the RCS has occurred on Unit 1. The BWST depletes prior to RCS pressure decreasing below the shutoff head of the LPI pump Describe the procedural guidance (major steps)
provided to continue the plant cooldown from this point. (.25) Open PORV and RCS high point vents and blowdown to LPI; establish greater than 1000 gpm, LPI flow, per heade Transfer suction to SFP; maintain 100 0 F/hour cooldown rate to LP Initiate a rapid RCS Cooldown to LPI using both SG D. At 10 feet in BWST, align LPI to discharge to HPI; at 6 feet in BWST, align LPI suction to RB emergency sump and isolate BWS PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 11 2 Following a total loss of feedwater, the Steam Generators have been fed by the units' Condensate Booster Pump The NLO has just called to say that EFDW has been lined up from another unit and is ready for use. The following conditions exist at the present time:
0 RCS pressure
-
2155 psig N RCS temperature
-
532 0F 0 SG pressure
-
500 psig 8 Incore thermocouples
-
530oF to 540 0 F What should steam generator pressure be controlled at when EFDW is restored? (.25)
A. Saturation pressure for 532 0F B. Maintain present SG pressure, 500 psi C. 1010 psig D. Determined by the discharge pressure of the EFWP 2 Following a loss of Main Feedwater (both MFWP's trip) from rated power, the reactor will not trip. The reactor operator sees also that all main turbine stop valves are open and the generator breakers are closed. The operator should: (.25)
A. allow the turbine to continue operating to help remove heat from the primary, while inserting control rod B. begin inserting control rods and trip both EHC pumps to trip the turbine-generato C. open the generator exciter field breaker to keep from motoring the generator, and begin emergency boratio D. Reset a MFW pump or verify EFW has actuated and feed both SG's to 50% operating rang PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 12
.
2 A Nuclear Operator Technician finds an alarm bell sounding at the SSF CO, tank with the tank pressure reading 330 psig. What would be a likely cause for the elevated tank pressure, and at what point will the alarm bell be silenced? (.25)
A. The air temperature in the HVAC room has increased. The alarm bell should silence at approximately 325 psig decreasin B. The tank was probably overfilled by the CO, supplier. The alarm bell should silence at approximately 300 psig decreasin C. The tank's manual relief valve has failed to lif The alarm bell should silence at approximately 320 psi D. The refrigeration unit has malfunctioned. The alarm bell should silence at approximately 325 psig decreasin.
RO ONLY During a unit shutdown:
What is the maximum allowable cool down rate?
.
How do you control the cooldown to 532oF? (.25)
A. 450 F per hour by controlling the reactor shutdown rat B. 450F in any one-half hour period by controlling the reactor shutdown rat C. 450 F per hour by controlling the reactor shutdown rate and adjusting the turbine by-pass valve D. 450F per one-half hour period, controlling the cooldown rate by adjusting the turbine by-pass valve position PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 13 2 SRO ONLY A transient on Unit 1, initiated five minutes ago, has resulted in a reactor trip and the following indications:
a RCS pressure is 46 psi n RCS Loop Subcooling Monitors indicate GoF with a black backgroun * RCS Core Subcooling Monitors indicate 60F with a red backgroun Should a transfer to the ICC section of the EOP be made at this time? (.25)
A. Should not be made since EFDW has not reached the XSUR loss of SCM level ye B. Should be made because the core indicates superheated condition C. Should be made because the only means of additional core cooling is addressed in IC D. Should not be made since superheated conditions may exist until the core is refloode.
SRO ONLY Following isolation of a SG with a tube leak that does not involve HPI cooling, if subcooling margin is lost: (.25)
A. the SG should be unisolated and used to reestablish subcooling margi B. this is an indication of multiple tube failures, and a transfer back to Subsequent Actions should be made to reassess the isolatio C. this is an indication.that a SBLOCA may have also occurred, and a transfer to the SG Cooldown With Saturated RCS section of the EOP should be mad D. this is to be expected, since subcooling margin is maintained as low as possible to reduce primary to secondary leakag II
PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 14
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2 SRO ONLY What is the purpose behind the "Requirements for reducing Reactor Vessel level less than 50 inches on LT-5," in the Unit 1 procedure
"Drain and Nitrogen Purging of the RCS", Enclosure 3.7? (.25)
A. The requirements ensure faster recovery of LPI decay heat removal and limits the possibility of loss of LPI DHR during drained down condition B. These requirements ensure that at least two independent and diverse means of decay heat removal are always availabl C. These requirements ensure that adequate inventory is available for repressurizing and using steam generators for decay heat remova D. These requirements ensure that adequate inventory is available for repressurizing and starting RCP's in the event 4160 volt power is los. SRO ONLY The basis for having the "Both FWP's Tripped to Reactor Trip Anticipatory Trip" is to: (.25)
A. back-up the High Pressure Tri B. prevent challenging the POR C. back-up the High Temperature Tri D. maintain DNBR >.
Unit 1 is operating at rated power. 1DIC inverter has been swapped to AC line (KRA), and the inverter has been shutdown for I&E to perform maintenance on the inverter. I&E requests that the inverter output circuit breaker be opened. The opening of the inverter output circuit breaker: (.25)
A. should have already been performed when the inverter was shutdown by procedur B. is not allowed above 250 0 F or 350 psig RCS temperature or pressur C. will de-energize 1KVIC panelboar D. will de-energize iDIC panelboar PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 15 3 Following a station loss of electrical power that lasted until Keowee Unit 1 re-energized the main feeder buses through CT-4, the Emergency CCW system actuated. To secure the Emergency CCW system without causing a loss of prime: (.25) throttle closed ICCW-1 through 6, then close CCW-close ICCW-1 through 6, 2CCW-7 and 3CCW-93; then close CCW-throttle closed ICCW-1 through 6, 2CCW-7 and 3CCW-93; then close CCW-8; then close the other valves full close CCW-8 then close ICCW-1 through 6, 2CCW-7 and 3CCW-9.
Unit 1 is operating at 75% power when the reactor trips and all ICS manual and automatic control indications deenergize. Which of the following actions must be taken to restore power to the Integrated Control System? (.25)
A. Verify the breaker for Auto Power in the back of ICS Cabinet
- 4 "ON"; verify breaker #25 (ICS Auto Power) in 1KI Power Panelboard "ON." At the Static Inverter Bypass Switch Cabinet for IKI inverter, open switches #1 and #3, close switch # At 1KI inverter, move the Manual Bypass Switch (Sl) from the
"Normal Operation" position to the "Alternate Source to Load" positio D. Verify the breaker for Hand Power in the back of ICS Cabinet
- 4 "ON"; verify breaker #1 (ICS Manual Power) in 1KI Power Panelboard "ON."
3 Unit 1 is at 70% power with three RCPs operating. An inadvertent deboration of the RCS occurs. The result is reactor power at 70%
power and control rod group seven position at 10% withdrawn. What action is required? (.25) Contact the reactor engineer prior to any rod motio Immediately begin inserting rods to shut down the reacto Borate the control rods back to allowable limit Begin withdrawing rods back within the insertion limits to provide proper SD PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 16 3 As you enter the Control Room, the NCO tells you that CRD-9 has just been vented. When you question how long the RCS CRD venting has been in progress, you are told, "approximately ten.(10)
minutes".
You are concerned since CRD-9....? (.25)
A. is one of the first to be vented that venting CRDM's will take an inordinate length of time to complet B. is one of the last to be vented that venting CRDM's is not being performed in sequenc C. has permanent venting installed and should not be tampered wit D. has no vent, therefore, the NCO and reactor building NLOs are not communicatin.
A containment purge, using the main purge fan, is in progress on Unit 1 at cold shutdown. The reactor operator notices that the Containment Purge Effluent Flow Rate Monitor is indicating zer Investigation by I&E determines that the monitor is inoperabl Determine the appropriate action concerning the purge release. The effluent release.... (.25)
A. may continue since HP has already determined containment activit B. may continue, provided the flow rate is estimated at least once per four (4) hour C. must be stopped immediatel D. may continue, provided the flow rate is monitored continuously and estimated at least once per hou PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 17
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3 The unit has been shutdown for the last ten (10) days while repairing 1A2 RCP seal package. When the seal first indicated a problem, reactor power was reduced to 75% from the 100% power level it had been operating at for two weeks and the unit was operated for another three (3) days at 75% power. At that time the unit was brought to cold shutdown. Now the unit is ready to restart. Which of the following is the conditioned power level?
(.25) % % %
D. 100%
3 What is the bases for waiting two (2) hours before diverting SSF diesel generator service water discharge flow to the yard drains?
(.25)
A. preventing D/G high temperature tri B. maximizing available CCW inventor C. maintaining emergency CCW gravity flo D. maintaining SSF HVAC operabilit PART-B EXAM OCONEE 07/27/92 Form A Page 18 3 Plant conditions on Unit 1 are as follows:
" The reactor has been shutdown for 22 days, for Turbine Generator repair, following a 200-day run at full powe " The reactor has been in cold shutdown on decay heat removal for 20 day " Both loops of LPI decay heat removal have just become inoperabl " No other means of decay heat removal has been initiate " LT-5 indicates 32".
Which ONE of the following is the amount of time until Core Uncover is expected to occur? (.25)
A. 5.0 hours0 days <br />0 hours <br />0 weeks <br />0 months <br /> B. 6.2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> C. 7.2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> D. 8.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />