ML20214V860

Exam Rept 50-312/OL-86-02 on 860722-25.Exam results:11 Operators Took Written & Operating Exams.Two Senior Reactor Operators Failed Written Exam

ML20214V860
Person / Time
Site:	Rancho Seco
Issue date:	09/03/1986
From:	Elin J, Johnston G, Obrien J NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION V)
To:
Shared Package
ML20214V844	List: ML20214V860
References
50-312-OL-86-02, 50-312-OL-86-2, NUDOCS 8610020432
Download: ML20214V860 (64)

Text

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Report No. 50-312/0L-86-02 Docket No. 50-312 License No.

Licensee: Sa'cramento Municipal Utility District P. O. Box 15830 Sacramento, California 95813 Facility Name: Rancho Seco Nuclear Generating Station Examination Conducted: July 22-25, 1986 Examiners: '

k f, G. ohngn,OertorLicensingExaminer Dat[ Sijrfied f/fh J. P. O'Brien, Operator Licensing Examiner 7380 D5pe Signed Approved by: . .

J. O Elin, Chief, Operf/tions Section Date Signed Summary: ,

During this requalification cycle, twenty percent of the operating staff (11 licensed operators) were examined. This included seven Senior Reactor

, Operators, and four Reactor Operators. The NRC prepared a complete written examination and administered it to the eleven participants. The examiners also administered operating examinations to all of the participants. The operating examination was conducted as discussions and plant walkthroughs, Rancho Seco does not have a plant specific simulator. All of the participants passed the operating examination, two individuals (both Senior Reactor Operators) failed the written examination.

In accordance with NUREG-1021. ES-601 'Requalification Program Evaluations',

the requalification program at Rancho Seco Nuclear Power Plant is evaluated as satisfactory.

One individual was given an operating examination for a SRO Ifcense. The individual passed the examination.

8610020432 060911 PDR ADOCK 05000312 V PDR

,4 DETAILS

1. Persons Examined A group of eleven operators, seven holding Senior Reactor Operator-licenses, and four holding Reactor Operator; licenses representing just over 20% of the licensed staff were examined. -

2. Persons Contacted Sacramento Municipal Utility District:

• P. Turner, Training Manager

• A. Hunter, Operations Training Supervisor

• S. Volmer, Accreditation Specialist

• M. Herrel, MAC (consultant)

NRC:

• G. Johnston, Operator Licensing Examiner

• J. O'Brien, Operator Licensing Examiner

• Denotes those present at exit on July 25, 1986.

3. Program Evaluation-Required for Satisfactory:

The requalification program was evaluated upon the criteria of Examiner Standard ES-601 of NUREG-1021. The requirement for a satisfactory program is more than 80% of the evaluated operators must pass all operating examinations, all sections of the written examination, and the written examination overall administered by the NRC.

Performance:

The NRC administered examinations to seven Senior Reactor Operators and four Reactor Operators. Two Senior Reactor Operators failed the written examination. All the participants passed the operating examinations.

The results for all the operators was a pass rate of 81.8%.

Evaluation:

Satisfactory.

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4. Examination Results Evaluation , ,

An evaluation of the results of the operating examinations did not reveal any particular areas of concern. The performance of the individuals was to the level expected of licensed operators participating in a requalification program. The facility has been shut down for extended periods of time during the last two years. The operators do not appear to have experienced a loss of required skills or knowledge during this period. l l

The written examination results evaluation revealed an area of concern due to the failure of two Senior Reactor Operators on Section 5 of the l i

examination. This area of the examination covered fundamentals of nuclear power plant operation; including thermodynamics, heat transfer, and fluid flow. The scores of the two operators were in the 50 percentile range. Others who took the same test showed scores in the 90 percentile range.

1 Based on a NRC review of Section 5 of the requalification examinations which the facility staff have prepared and administered in the past, the NRC examiners believe that the facility training staff should make this section of the test more challenging. The emphasis should be in maintaining and improving the knowledge level of all operators, while keeping in mind that each individual had to pass each section of the original NRC written examination with a score of at least 70% in each category. The NRC examiners realize that the overall rating of the requalification program is still satisfactory, however, the failure of

-two experienced senior reactor operators in Section 5 of the requalification examination indicates a need for additional licensee attention in this area.

5. Replacement Examination One individual was examined for a SRO license. His written examination was waived, as he had passed a prior written examination. The individual was given an operating examination which he passed.

-6. Exit Meeting At the conclusion of the site visit, the examiners met with the facility representatives denoted in Section 2 of this report to discuss the results of the evaluation to that point.

Resolution of Facility Comments 1.0 Facility Comment: Question 2.03

" Rancho Seco doesn't have ' hand' power."

Resolution:

Agreed, the candidates were instructed during the course of the written examination that the term was ' control power' and not

' hand power'.

2.0 Facility Comment: Question 2.08 "At Rancho Seco we talk of a shunt trip in terms of " energize to trip" and a UV trip in terms of a "de-energize to trip". The UV device is not considered passive since movement of the UV linkage is required for activation and there have been failures of this in the plant at other facilities."

Resolution:

The examiner agrees with the statement, however, he feels that no change need be made to key.

3.0 Facility Comment: Question 2.07 "a. Interlock is basically for pump protection - ensures pump doesn't operate if suction lost from drop line."

"b. Answer is incorrect. The SEAS signal bypasses the 3 minute time delay so the pumps would immediately start."

Resolution:

The examiner fails to see a difference between his answer for part (a.) in the key and the statement. Ensuring an adequate suction seems to be the same as pump protection from loss of suction. As for part (b.) the examiner agrees with the statement.

4.0 Facility Comment: Question 3.03

" Answers are all incorrect. Also the parameters usually discussed in regards to BTU limits are RCS flow and Th instead of FW flow and Tave."

Resolution:

The examiner recognizes the answers are reversed from what they should be and will change key.

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5.0 Facility Comment: Question 3.05

~" Answer has actual logic for interlocks but question doesn't ask.

for this info."

Resolution:

Agreed. Will change key and point distribution.

6.0 Facility Comment: Question 3.08 "First 0.5 point worth of answer repeats info already given in question (i.e. the question recognizes the fact that the ICS anticipates or can anticipate this situation.)"

Resolution:

The examiner agrees and corrected the point value and eliminated the first part of the answer.

7.0 Facility Comment: Question 4.01

" Answer Part 1 - NOW says HPI mini-flow must be open and makeup outlet open."

Resolution:

The examiner will change the key.

8.0 Facility Comment Question 5.04 "At 10 to the minus 8 amps, production from fission and removal by burnout are insignificant compared to the decay terms since there is L

still a significant amount of I-135 and Xe-135, therefore, the

! ' concentrations of Iodine and Xenon' are significant and Xenon will i be building in due to the post trip effects for the next 3 to 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />,

{

and the decaying off to the ' equilibrium Xenon' level for 10 to the minus 8 amps following that. Therefore, either selection 'a' or 'b' l could be correct depending on the time assumed by the student."

! Resolution:

l The examiner believes the question is clear as to the intended

response. Only if the candidate clearly indicates the time frame assumed, will the examiner give credit for part (b.)

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9.0 Facility Comment: Question 5.05

" Requires continuity of flow and Bernoulli's equations, which are not provided on the equation sheet."

Resolution:

The precise nature of the equations and principle involved with this problem do not require that the individual have memorized the equations. The principle of the equations provide the basis to solve the problem.

10.0 Facility Comment: Question 5.06

" Requires hydrostatic pressure equation, which is not provided on the equation sheet."

Resolution:

The examiner does not believe that it takes the equation to solve this problem. It can be.done very easily from simple dimensional analysis from the knowns. (i.e. [40 ft. X 62.4 Lbm]/[144 sq'. in./sq. ft.] = 17.3 psia, add to that the cover pressure of 100 psia and you.have 117 psia.)

11. Facility Comment: Question 5.09 "The question _does not ask for core age effects, and 2/3 of the credit is based on the student describing core age effects. Full credit should not be based on core age effects, but only Xenon effects alone."

! Resolution: <

l Full credit will be given for an answer that addresses Xenon i buildup from the load rejection.

i 12.0 Facility Comment: ' Question 6.05 "The specifics of analysis assumptions and criteria is considered beyond the scope of memory information for this topic. Refer to l

accredited program objectives."

Resolution:

4 The exam is written to the criteria of the Examiners Standards and the available information. The examiner feels that-the

! information should have been presented at some point in the recent

! past. There is no basis to say that this is not an appropriate question.

f

• '. 4 13.0 Facility' Comment: Question 6.06

! "a - Rancho Seco doesn't_have hand power.

b - this switch enables the local control panel in the turbine building."'

Resolution:

The candidates were informed that the term ' control' power was to be substituted for hand power. Part b is not germain to the answer sought.

14.0 Facility Comment: Question 6.02 "May refer to portable air compressor as diesel driven air compressor."

Resolution:

The examiner will take that into account.

15.0 Facility Comment: Question 7.01 "Should be AP.3 - Work request procedure - enclosure 6.6.

Resolution:

Agreed will change reference.

16.0 Facility Comment Question 7.02 "Possible. "d" could be correct if referring to the new fuel elevator -

prevents lifting assembly within 10 ft. of water surface. Can be considered a refueling control."

Resolution:

The examiner will accept if the candidate provides this assumption. The examiner feels that the question provided clear indication that it was referring to activity of the bridge, trolley and hoist.

17.0 Facility Comment: Question 7.03

"'d' could be correct also. Although T.S. ' Minimum conditions for Criticality' says greater than or equal to 310 inches in pressurizer.

We also have 'C' procedures that say the reactor must be tripped 290 inches and increasing."

Resolution:

Agreed.

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18.0 Facility Comment: Question 7.06

" Answer should be - operator can use RCS pressure."

Resolution:

Agreed.

19. Facility Comment: Question 7.07

" Caution statement on page 2 of C.40 ' Loss / Restoration of ICS Power' addresses this problem.

See question 4.07. ADV's and TBV's must .be closed by using auto-close/ disable switches and AFW valves in manual at their L&N controllers."

Resolution:

The examiner agrees. ,

20.0 Facility Comment: Question 8.02 ,

" Response could read yes (1.0), if you intend to go above 200 deg. F (or words to that ef fect). 1.0 point is large amount of credit and should be considered with the second part of the response as to its value of correctness."

Resolution:

The examiner agrees, as long as the individual indicates so in his response.

21.0 Facility Comment: Question 8.0

" Accept manipulations affecting reactivity."

Resolution:

Agreed.

22.0 Facility Comment Question 8.04

" Answer as stated is incomplete. 'in event of a rod withdrawal accident OR a startup accident and that water level is above the minimum detectable level."

Resolution:

The examiner would accept a startup accident as an answer.

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23.0 Facility Comment: Question 8.07

" Clearance is not required for llPI pump acting as a makeup pump."

Resolution:

The statement by the reviewer is correct but not germain to answer.

24.0 Facility Comment: Question 8.09 "May correctly refer to an Occurrence Description Report (ODR as per AP.22) which requires Manager of Nuclear Operations and Regulatory Compliance Superintendent to review and determine if a LER is required."

Resolution:

The question refers to "What two reports are required to be made to the NRC7" The examiner sees no connection to an ODR being reported to the NRC.

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{. ClUWh6 iY .

t U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR REQUALIFICATION EXAMINATION .

1 {

Pacility: Rancho Seco Sul 0 0 s# I Reactor Type: B&W 177-PWR Date Administered: July 22, 1986 C( Examiner: J. P. O'Brien i

) Candidate: AA/Susst xfV INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE Read the attached instruction page carefully. This examination replaces the current cycle facility administered requalification examination. Retraining requirements for failure of this examination are the same as for failure of a requalification examination prepared and administered by your training staff.

! Points for each question are indicated in parentheses after the question. The passing grade requires at least 70% in each category and a final grade of at i

• 1 east 80%. Examination papers will be picked up four (4) hours after the

, examination starts.

l .

l  % of Category  % of Candidate's Category r Value Total Score Value Category 15.0 25.0 5. Theory of Nuclear l

Power Plant Operation, Pluids, and Thermodynamics

, 15.0 25.0 6. Plant Systems Design, Control and Instrumentation j 15.0 25.0 7. Procedures - Normal, Abnormal, Emergency, and Radiological Control 15.0 25.0 8. Administrative Procedures.

Conditions, and Limitations 60.0 TOTALS Final Grade All work done on this examination is my own, I have neither given nor received sid.

Candidate's Signature

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ES-201-2 ATTACHMENT 2 -

REQUIREMENTS FOR ADMINISTRATION OF WRITTEN EXAMINATIONS .

1. A single room shall be provided for completing the written examina-tion. The location of this room and supporting restroom facilities shall be such as to prevent contact with all other facility and/or contractor personnel during the duration of the written examination.

If necessary, the facility should make arrangements for the use of a suitable room at a local school, motel, or other building. Ob-taining this room is the responsibility of the licensee.

2. Minimum spacing is required to ensure examination integrity as determined by the chief examiner. Minimum spacing should be one '

candidate per table, with a 3-ft space between tables. No wall charts, models, and/or other training materials shall be present in the examination room.

3. Suitable arrangements shall be made by the facility if the candi -

dates are to have lunch, coffee, or other refreshments. These arrangements shall comply with Item 1 above. These arrangements shall be reviewed by the examiner and/or proctor.

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( 4. The facility staff shall be provided a copy of the written examination and answer key after the last candidate has completed and handed in his written examination. The facility staff shall then have five working days to provide formal written comments with supporting documentation on the examination and answer key to the chief examiner or to the regional I

office section chief.

5. The licensee shall provide pads of 8-1/2 by 11 in. lined paper in unopened packages for each candidate's use in completing the exam-ination. The examiner shall distribute these pads to the candidates.

All reference material needed to complete the examination shall be furnished by the examiner. Candidates can bring pens, calculators, or slide rules into the examination room, pencils, and no other equipment or reference material shall be allowed.

6. C ily black ink or dark pencils should be used for writing answers to questions.

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Examiner Standards 11 of 18

, ES-201-2 NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES'FOR LICENSE EXAMIwATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

~

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination -

room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

3. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

4. Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the .

examination.

5. Fill ih the date on the cover sheet of the examination (if necessary).

6. Use only the paper provided for answers.

7. Print your name in the upper right-hand corner of the first page of each section of the answer sheet.

8. Consecutively number each answer sheet, write "End of Category " as appropriate, start each category on a new page, write only one side of the paper, and write "Last Page" on the last answer sheet.

9. Number each answer as to category and number, for example,1.4, 6.3.

10. Skip at least three lines between each answer.

11. Separate answer sheets from pad and place finished answer sheets face down on your desk or table.

12. Use abbreviations only if they are commonly used in facility literature.

13. The point value for each question is indicated in parentheses after the question and can be used as a guide for the depth of answer required.

14. Show all calculations, methods, or assumptions used to obtain an answer to mathematical problems whether indicated in the question or not.

15. Partial credit may be given. Therefore, ANSWER ALL PARTS OF THE QUESTION AND DO NOT LEAVE ANY ANSWER BLANK.

16. If parts of the examination are not clear as to intent, ask questions of j the examiner only. ,.

17. You must sign the statement on the cover sheet that indicates that the l work is your own and you have not received or been given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after the examination has ,

been completed. '

1 I Examiner Standards 12 of 18

. ES-201-2

18. When you complete your examinaiion, you shall:

a. Assemble your examination as follows: _.

1 (1) Exam questions on top.

(2) Exam aids - figures, tables, etc.

(3) Answer pages including figures which are a part of the answer.

b. Turn in your copy of the examination and all pages used to answer the examination questions.

3

c. Turn in all scrap paper and the balance of the paper that you did '

not use for answering the questions.

d. Leave the examination area, as defined by the examiner. If after

. leaving, you are found in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked, i

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Examiner Standards 13 of 18

'b-EQUATION SHEET f = ma y = s/t

{ w = ms e=yt+

g,t 2 Cycle efficiency = Net , Jork out)

E = mC a = (vg - v,)/t A = AN

• KE = hav vf = v, + at A = A,e PE = agh w = e/t A = in 2/tg = 0.693/tg W = vaP (tq)(tu)

AE = 931Am h* "

(tg+t) b '

Q = pC AT y ,7 ,-Ix p

k=UAT y ,y ,-px

Pwr = Wg a I=I 10 *~

P=P 10 8E(t) TVL = 1.3/p P=P et /T HVL = 0.693/p SUR = 26.06/T T = 1.44 DT SCR = S/(1 - K,gg)

/A*gr )

o SUR = 26 g,, CR x = S/(1 - Kegfx)

I I ~

eff}1 " 2(1 ~K,gg)2 T = '(**/o ) + [(6 'o)/A,ggo ]

y = g*/ (, _ p M = 1/(1 - K,gg) = CR g/CR 0 T " (3 - 8)/ Aeff' M = (1 - K,gg)g/(1 - K,gg)1 8 " ( eff" )! eff " #eff/Keff SDM = (1 - K,gg)/K,gg

~

j p= [1*/TK,'gg .] + [E/(1 + A,ggT )] ,

1* = 1 x 10 seconds P = I(V/(3 x 10 0) A,gg = 0.1 seconds" I = No i

Idgg=Id22 WATER PARAMETERS Idg =1d 2 2

) 1 gal. - 8.345 lba R/hr = (0.5 CE)/d (meters) 1 gal. = 3.78 liters R/hr = 6 CE/d (feet) 1 ft3 = 7.48 gal. HISCELLANEOUS CONVERSIONS .

3 10 Density = 62.4 lbm/ft 1 Curia = 3.7 x 10 dps Density = 1 ge/cm 1 kg = 2.21 lba Heat of varorization = 970 Itu/lba 1 hp = 2.54 x 10 3BTU /hr Heat of fusica = 144 Beu/lba 1 N = 3.41 x 100Btu /hr

, 1 Atm = 14,7 psi = 29.9 in.13 1 Btu = 778 ft-lbf 1 f t. H2O = 0.4335 lbf/in 2 1 inch = 2.54 cm F = 9/5 C + 32

'C = 5/9 (*F - 32)

SECTION 5 Theory of Nuclear Power Plant Operation, Fluids, and Thermodynamics -

• 5.01 QUESTION (1.0)

During a reactor startup, power is being raised above the point of adding heat (POAH). Which of the following statements is CORRECT 7 (Assume a linear reactor power increase to about 3 percent power) (1.0)

a. Since header pressure is 885 psig, Tave will not rise above the corresponding satuation temperature of 532 degrees Farenheit.

. b. Since the OTSGs are low level limited and header pressure is being maintained at 885 psig, Tave will rise and the steam temperature will tend to follow Th.

c. With the header. pressure being maintained at 885 psig, the OTSG's will remain at saturated conditions and no superheat will be added.

d. Since the OTSGs are low level limited, the steam is superheated at zero power conditions and rises proportionally with power.

• 5.01 ANSWER

b. (1.0)

• REFERENCE HTFF pp. 339-350 I

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• 5.02 QUESTION A general rule is of ten stated " doubling the count rate halves the margin to criticality." This is mathematically stated by the equation. (1.0)

CR1/CR2 = 1-keff 2/1-keff 1 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the above statement and equation?

a. Both keff1 and keff2 have to be less than 1.0.

b. Equal changes in kaff result in equal changes in suberitical multiplication level.

c. The equation only approximates the instantaneous change in count rate; once equilibrium value is reached, the count rate will be higher.

d. A second doubling of the count rate will result in the reactor becoming critical or supercritical.

• 5.02 ANSWER

a. (1.0)

• REFERENCE RT 8.1-8.11

• 5.03 QUESTION B.2, " Plant Heatup and Startup", requires that the critical rod position be taken at 10-0 amps on the intermediate range. If, during a xenon f ree reactor startup at MOL, the operator

" overshot" 10-8 amps and instead leveled off at 10-7 amps, which of the following statements is CORRECT 7 (1.0)

a. At 10-7 amps, there are little or no offects from nuclear heat but since the reactor is a decade higher in power, the critical rod position would be higher.

b. At 10-7 amps, there are little or no effects from nuclear heat therefore, the critical rod position should be the same at 10-8 amps.

. c. At 10-7 amps, there.are substantial effects from nuclear heat; therefore, the critical rod positions will be higher than at 10-8 amps.

d. At 10-7 amps, nuclear heat, xenon and being a decade higher in power level will result in a higher critical rod positon.

• ANSWER

b. (1.0)

• REFERENCE B.2 , RT.11

• QUESTION 5.04 The reactor trips from full power, equilibrium xenon conditions.

Six hours later the reactor is brought critical at 10-0 amps on the intermediate range. If power. level is maintained at 10-8 amps which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning control rod motion? ~

a. Rods will have to be withdrawn since xenon will' closely follow its normal build-in rate.

b. Rods will have to be inserted due to xenon decay.

c. Rods will have to be rapidly inserted since the critical reactor will cause a high rate of xenon burnout.

d. Rods will approximately remain as is the xenon establishes its equilibrium value for this power ~1evel.

• ANSWER

a. (1.0)

• REFERENCE RS Rx Theory notes RT 16.2-16.6 i

• 5.05 QUESTION If the pressure in a leaking subcooled water pipe is reduced by 50 percent, approximately how much will the leak rate decrease? Explain any assumptions. (2.0)

• 5.05 ANSWER Leak rate is proportional to the area of leak times velocity of fluid leaving pipe JD<5+v' From Bernoulli's equation, pressure is proportional to the square of velocity (p.$), so halving the pressure will only reduce velbeity by square root of two. Therefore, the leak rate will drop of about 29 +/- 2 percent).(1.0)

• REFERENCE

. HTFF pp.296-318

• 5.06 QUESTION A tank contains water to a level 40 ft above the bottom the tank. A Nitrogen cover gas is at 100 psia.

The tank and its contents are at 70 degrees F, and the density of the water is 62.4 lbm/ cubic ft. The pressure at the bottom of the tank is: (1.0)

a. 117 psia

b. 132 psia

c. 200 psia

d. 308 psia l

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• 5.06 ANSWER

a. 117 psia (1.0)

• Reference HTFF pp.273-286 I

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• 5.07 QUESTION If the Temperature of the tank in GUESTION 5.06 (container, water and gas) were raised and if no water or cover gas was allowed to enter or leave the tank, the pressure at the bottom of the tank would: (1.0)

a. Increase, because the gas volume has decreased and the temperature of the gas has increased.

b. Increase, because of the pressure caused by the higher water level ( water column effect ), and the temper-ature of the gas has increased.

c. Decrease, because the water density has decreased.

, d. Decrease, becausa the cover-gas density has decreased.

• 5.07 ANSWER

a. (1.0)

• Reference HTFF pp.273-286

• 5.00 QUESTION Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions necessary for brittle fracture? (1.0)

a. plastic deformation at or below the yield point.

b. temperature at or below the NDTT

c. nominal stress level

d. flaw such as a crack present

• 5.08 ANSWER

a. (1.0)

• REFERENCE HTFF pp.IV-19-IV-40

• 5.09 QUESTION What action should be taken to maintain the reactor critical following a significant load rejection towards the end of cycle (230 to 280 EFPD) 7 (0.5) Explain why! (1.0)

• 5.09 ANSWER The Reactor power should be increased (0.5) this is done to burnout the Xenon that is building in due to the load rejection.

the larger the load rejection and later in cycle are the worst conditions. (1.0)

Reference:

RS EXAM Bank i

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• 5.10 QUESTION _

The f ollowing chemicals are added to the RCS, WHAT are they added to control, and WHEN are they added:

a. Lithium Hydroxide? (0.5)

b. Hydrogen? (0.5)

c. Hydrazine? (0.5)

• 5.10 Answer

a. to control RCS pH at all power levels and shutdown.

(0.5)

b. RCS Oxygen concentration at power and higher temperatures (0.5)

c. RCS Oxygen concentration at shutdown and cooled down.

(0.5)

REFERENCE:

Rancho Seco Exam Bank

• 5.11 QUESTION Explain why a slower approach to criticality yields a higher count rate at the estimated critical position (ECP). -

(1.5)

• 5.11 ANSWER The slower approach allows for the buildup of the long lived delayed neutron precursors.. (1.5)

REFERENCE:

RS EXAM BANK

• 5.12 QUESTION Secondary heat balance calculations were run during power ascention, and these were used to calibrate the Power Range Nuclear Instruments. Subsequently, it was discovered that the feed flow measured and used in these calculations was higher than actual feed flow.

a. Does this cause a " conservative" or "non-conservative" error in the nuclear instruments?(0.5)

b. Explain your answer! (1.0)

• ANSWER l a. Indicated NI power is conservative.

b. The power calculated is a product of Mass flow rate and change in enthalpy ( Q dot = M dot x delta h ). (0.5)

Since we over estimated the mass flowrate, the calculated power was also over estimated. (0.5) The indicated power in higher than actual power, and this is more conservative.(0.5)

Reference:

RS Exam Bank End of section 5, continue with section 6 next page

SECTION 6 PLANT SYSTEM DESIGN, CONTROL AND INSTRUMENTATION

• 6.01 QUESTION In the feedwater subsystem of the ICS, feedwater demand is modified as a function of feedwater temperature. Select the .

most CORRECT statement concerning this feedwater temperature compensation. (1.0)

a. Since feedwater temperature remains constant as power increases, additional heat must be provided in the OTSG for the steam to reach the proper superheat criteria.

b. FW must be temperature compensated to account for the

- differing mass content of a gallon of water as temperature varies.

c. The effect of cooler FW entering the OTSG is that aspirating steam flow is reduced, header pressure decreases, and therefore, MW gen will decrease.

d. The FW temperature compensation will affect the BTU limit calculation but have no affect on the FW demand signal.

• 6.01 ANSWER

b. (1.0)

• REFERENCE ICS: pp.32 32-88

• 6.02 QUESTION What two backup supplies can be valved in to supply the instrument air header upon the loss of service air 7 (1.0)

• 6.02 ANSWER

a. Nitrogen sys. (0.5)

b. Portable air compressor (0.5)

(skid mounted)

• References ch 23 Plant air and nitrogen sys.

• 6.03 QUESTION A synchroscope moving slowly in the SLOW direction (counter-clockwise) indicates which of the following? (1.0)

a. Machine frequency higher than bus frequency, phase not matched.

b. Machine frequency lower than bus frequency, phase not matched.

c. Machine voltage higher than bus voltage, currents not in phase.

d. Machine voltage lower than bus voltage, currents not in phase.

• 6.03 ANSWER

b. (1.0)

• REFERENCE A.58 4.16KV Electrical System and ch. 43 - Vital dist. 4160 V.

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• 6.04 QUESTION

a. For the HPI and LPI systems, one train is designed for 100%

capacity. However, for the design of the Reactor Building (RB) spray system, one train has only 50% design capacity.

Why is this acceptable? (1.0)

b. Why must the RB spray flow be throttled to a lower flow rate when taking a suction from the RB sump? (1.0)

• 6.04 ANSWER

a. In meeting the saf ety f eatures design criteria f or cooling of the RB atmosphere, the Reactor Building Cooling Units provide a redundant function to RB Spray System. Two Cooling Units and RB spray train is required to meet 100% capacity (1.0)

b. There is less NPSH available when taking a suction f rom the RB sump, Throttling limits or decreases the likelyhood of RB. Spray pump cavitation. (1.0)

• REFERENCE SD - RB spray system, TS3.3 bases

• 6.05 QUESTION Answer the following TRUE or FALSE concerning the Small Break LOCA analysis and reactor coolant pump trip criteria:

a. The worst SBLOCA was found to be a cold leg break in RCP discharge piping. (0.75)

b. The analyses assume that the RC pumps remain operative for some tine after the break and then are lost by some means (loss-of-of f-site power , equipment f ailure, etc.)

(0.75)

c. If the RC pumps remain operating throughout the blowdown and reflood phase, the peak clad temperature criteria (PCT) would not be exceeded. (0.75)

, d. With the RCPs lost and only one HPI pump operating, the PCT criteria would be exceeded; with both HPI pumps operating, it would not be exceeded. (0.75)

• 6.05 ANSWER

a. True, p. 10 (0.75)

6. True, p. 2 (0.75)

c. True, pp. 2-3 (0.75)

d. False, p7 (0.75)

• REFERENCE Analysis Summary in Support of an Early RC Pump Trip B&W Submittal, August 24, 1979.

ATOG Tech. Bases Document, B&W Submittal, 9/30/85 l

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• 6.06 QUESTION

a. Upon loss.of ICS/NNI " Hand Power", how do the Turbine Bypass Valves reposition? (1.0)

b. A control switch was added to the shutdown panel for the atmospheric Dump Valves.

i. What is the purpose of this switch? (1.0)

11. Explain how it accomplishes this purpose. (1.0)

• 6.06 ANSWER

a. Shut (1.0) b.i. To fail the ADV's closed. (1.0)

, b.ii. It de-energizes a solenoid on each valve, which fails the air to the valve causing the valve to go closed.(1.0)

Reference:

Handout " Mods to TBV's, ADV's, and AFW valves"

• 6.07 QUESTION Concerning the Reactor Protection Systems

a. Which four (4) RPS trip signals are bypassed in the Shutdown Bypass position (1.0)

b. If someone accidentally de-energizes the 'B' inverter.

What effect will this have on the RPS and functions 7 (1.0)

'* 6.07 ANSWER

a. 1. Power / Imbalance / Flow (0.25)

2. Power / RC Pumps (0.25)

3. Low Pressure (0.25)

4. Pressure / Temperature (0.25)

b. It will cause a trip of the 'B' channel, which puts the RPS in a 1 out of 3 logic, It also causes a trip of the

'B' CRD breaker.

• References STM 36 RPS - pp. 36-11 & abnor. ops.

• 6.08 QUESTION Concerning Spent Fuel pool operations:

a. What is the reason for the limit on maximum water temperature of the spent fuel pool? (0.5)

b. List two methods available to the Control Room Operator for monitoring spent fuel pool level. (1.0)

c. Where do you operate the controls for the Spent fuel cooling pump? (0.5)

• 6.00 Answer

a. Prevents evaporation of tritium into the atmosphere.(0.5)

, b. - HI/LO alarm LO-LO alarm (any two,

- TV console 0.5 ea.)

- Computer readout - HI/LO alarm

- call Aux Operator - Physically observe

c. South West corner of the tank farm adjacent to the pump.(0.5)

END OF SECTION 6 Continue SECTION 7 on next page

SECTION 7 PROCEDURES - NORMAL, ABNORMAL, EMERGENCY,and RADIOLOGICAL

• 7.01 QUESTION The POST-LOCA Hydrogen Monitor (AE-72901A) has just been placed back into service following calibration. As a shift Supervisor how can you determine if this instrument requires a dual .

verification lineup? (1.0)

• 7.01 Answer refer to Enclosure of AP.2 (Review, Approval and Maintenance of Procedures).

• References (

AP.h 7 [ C'

• 7.02 QUESTION Which one of the following is CORRECT concerning the fuel handling controls? (1.0)

a. Simultaneous movement of the bridge, trolley and hoist is permitted only with the fuel grapple mechanism disengaged.

b. Movement of the bridge or trolley is not possible unless the grapple (engaged or disengaged) is raised entirely up into the mast.

c. The grapple mechanism cannot be disengaged by operator error or electric or hydraulic failure when the grapple is loaded.

d. A limit switch is provided to prevent raising the fuel assembly above miminum shielding depth.

• 7.02 ANSWER

• 4

,j ~ 6'

c. (1.0) $

0

• REFERENCE [)(1 A.13 Fuel and Component Handling & B.8 Refueling Equip. Checks

• 7.03 QUESTION Under which of the following conditions are you required to manually trip the reactor during a startup? (1.0)

a. After observing proper overlap and power exceeds 10(-9) amps on intermediate range, but source range high volts are still on.

b. The reactor goes critical with Group 5 below insertion ,

limits.

c. A startup rate greater than 1 DPM but less than 1.5 was achieved.

d. Pressurizer level goes above 290 inches.

• 7.03 ANSWER

b. (1.0)

• REFERENCE B.2 Rev . 32 l

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• 7.04 QUESTION If loss of seal injection occurs on a secured RCP (with plant operating or in hot standby) which of the following statements is correct concerning immediate actions ? (1.0)

a. No action required as long as seal return temperature remains less than 180 degrees F.

b. No action' required unless seal chamber injection temperature reaches 200 degrees F

c. Immediately shut seal injection valve, start standby makeup pump, then reopen injection valve.

d. Secure remaining pumps until cause of loss is determined.

• ANSWER

b. (1.0)

• REFERENCE A.2 RCP System REV. 14

• 7.05 QUESTION The plant startup procedure and Technical Specifications require two minimum temperature requirements to be met prior to criticality. What are these minimum conditions?

(1.0)

• 7.05 Answer RCS temp. shall be greater than 525 degrees F. (0.5) and also above DTT + 10 degrees F (0.5)

• Reference B.2 & T.S. 3.1.3

• 7.06 QUESTION Guideline number 1 of the E.02 defines what plant conditions constitute adequate subcooling margin. If both SPDS displays are NOT available and all the RCP's are secured ( natural circ.

exists), how would an operator determine that adequate subcooling exists after a reactor trip? (2.0)

• 7.06. Answer If both SPDS displays are out of se running the operator canuseRCShydhandnoRCF'sare 0.5) and incore Thermo-couple temp. (ave. of high 5) and plot temps and verify >50 deg.F subcooling (0.5) or thac plant conditions are above and to the left on the variable subcooling margin curve. (0.5)

,

• Reference E.02 Guideline # 1

• 7.07 QUESTION After a loss of pcwer to the ICS, What actions should be taken with respect to the ADV's, TBV's and AFW control valves, prior to restoring the pcwer to the ICS 7 (2.5)

• 7.07 ANSWER

• Verify that ADV's and TBV's are closed (0.5) and HAND / AUTO stations for these valves are in AUTO (0.5).

• Verify OTSG 1evel in program band (0.5) and AFW Bailey Control and AFW air dump solenoid valves are in manual (0.5) and are closed (0.5)

• Reference c.

Requal exam bank i A.71 3 SD CH.32 ICS, OD 24 C 0701

• 7.08 QUESTION What level is required to be maintained in the DTSG*s after.a reactor trip 7' Assume that no RCP's are running and Adequate subcooling margin has been established ! (1.0)

• 7.08 Answer i

50 % of the operating range (1.0)

• Reference Requal exam bank EDP's

• 7.09 QUESTION Procedure A.15 " Makeup, Purification, and Letdown System" has a caution statement about makeup operations using DI water for contraction during RCS cooldown. What concern is raised by using DI water for this evolution 7 (1.0)

• 7.09 Answer The primary concern is the addition of positive reactivity due dilution of boron concentration. (1.0)

• Reference A.15

• 7.10 QUESTION Procedure B.2 " Plant Heatup and Startup" has a precaution for the OTSG's to have their levels above 85 % on the operating range prior to heating up the RCS. Why is this necessary 7 (1.0)

• 7.10 Answer This provides a means of heating the OTSG shall b'd ATnF-essures-

• 14ewabl+-tube-t-o--shaIL temperatur,e-J L4 f e-enti e1 m_ t O . 5 )

• Reference B.2 PHU/SU

• 7.11 QUESTION Rule #4 of the Emergency Operating Procedure discusses the required OTSG 1evel setpoint upon loss of subcooling margin.

a. What is the setpoint 7 (0.5)

b. State one exception to the- rule. (1.0)

• 7.11 Answer

a. 95 % on operating range,

b. If loss of subcooling margin was due to loss of secondary pressure control, thrn do not attempt to raise level in the affected OTSG (s) until steam pressure is restored.

• Reference EOP's Rule # 4.

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• 7.12 QUESTION Considering a complete loss of CRD cooling has just occurred.

When must you trip the reactor 7 (two answers required)

(1.0)

• 7.12 Answer

1. If any stator temperature reaches 180 degrees F. ,

(0.5) or

2. Cooling is lost for greater than 4 minutes. (0.5)

• Reference Requal exam bank o

Section 8 Administrative Procedures, Conditions, and Limitations

• 8.01 QUESTION During the performance of a monthly surveillance test you notice that the previous test was conducted on July 1, 1986. Today is -

August 5, 1986. This is an interval of 36 days. The test was conducated previously on June 2, 1986 and May 1, 1986. Would this situation constitute non-compliance with the Technical Specifications? EXPLAIN. (2.0)

EThree year calender follows this page.3

1. ANSWER

. NO (1.0). The T.S. allow a surveillance interval to be extended by 25% (0.5). With the interval for 3 consecutive surveillances not to exceed 3.25 times the interval (0.5).

• REFERENCE T.S., Definitions 1.9.

• 8.02 QUESTION Regarding AP.4a, " Safe Clearance Procedures":

The plant is in Cold Shutdown (temperature is 90 deg. F) and Maintenance personnel want to close out a clearance on the High Pressure Injection System. It's agreed that it is ready for a valve line-up. Is dual verification of the line-up required at this time? EXPLAIN. (2.0)

• ANSWER NO (1.0). It is not required until the plant temperature exceeds I

200 deg. F (1.0).

• REFERENCE AP.4a, " Safe Clearance Practices"

• 8.03 QUESTION l Regarding 10 CFR 55 " Operators Licenses":

l. What are ' CONTROLS

• as defined by 10 CFR 557 (1.0) l i

1. ANSWER i

Controls are defined as apparatus and mechanisms the i mainipulation (0.5) of which affect the reactor or reactor power (0.5). [ Examiner will accept response which addresses manipulation affecting power.3

• REFERENCE 10 CFR 55.4 and 55.10 i

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.1 99 .6 1 SS 99 .6 39 .O 31 ' N, te 39 30 FISCAL YEARS

• 8.04 QUESTION What is the bases f or the f ollowing statements -

"The reactor shall be maintained subcritical until a steam bubble is f ormed and an indicated water . level between 10 and 316 inches is established in the pressurizer." (1.0)

• ANSWER This is to ensure the RCS does'not go solid in the event of a rod withdrawl accident. (1.0)

• REFERENCE T.S. 3.1.3 " Minimum Conditions for Criticality *

• B.05 QUESTION

. The Emergency Coordinator has many duties and responsibilities, some of which cannot be delegated. List four (4) of these reponsibilities that'the Emergency Coordinator cannot delegate to anyone else. (2.0)

• ANSWER

[ Any f our 9 (0.5) each3

1. Decision to notify offsite emergency management agencies.

2. Making protective action recommendations as necessary to offsite emergency management.

3. Classification of emergency event.

4. Determining the necessity for assembly and or evacuation of onsite personnel.

5. Authorization for emergency workers to exceed the Rancho Seco Administrative Exposure Limits.

6. Approving public inf ormation releases- to be issued f rom the site.

• REFERENCE Emergency Plan i

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• 8.06 QUESTION Which one (1) of the following requires the implementation of j containment integrity? Select one. (1.0)  !

a. Increasing pressurizer temperature to > 200 deg. F.

b. Increasing Kaff to > 0.99.

c. Placing one (1) train of Decay Heat Removal out of service.

d. Removing the Reactor. vessel head with baron concentration at 1900 ppm.

• ANSWER

b. (1.0)

• REFERENCE T.S. 3.6, pg 3-39 and 3.8, pg 3-44.

• 8.07 QUESTION When the Reactor is shutdown, "RCS overpressure protection" must be establishea. What four separate conditions and actions must be taken to implement this requirement? (2.0)

• ANSWER

a. The EMOV block valve caution tagged open. (0.5) l b. EMOV key lock selector switch in " low" position. (0.5)

c. Place clearance on HPI injection valves. (0.5)

d. Place clearance on HPI pumps. (0.5)

[If examinee refers to " tagging out" that will be accepted.3

~* REFERENCE B.4, " Plant shutdown and Cooldown", pg B.4-10

• B.08 QUESTION Technical Specification 6.13 "High Radiation Area" specifies that areas with radiation levels between 100 and 1000 mrem / hour have four specific requirements that must be met bef ore entry is i allowed. What are those requirements? (2.0) l l

• ANSWER

a. A barricade. (0.5) i b. Posted as a High Radiation Area. (0.5)

c. RWP required for entry. (specific) (0.5)

d. Radiation instrument required for entry (and to provide continous monitoring.) (0.5)

• REFERENCE T.S. 6.13 l

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. _ - . . - - ~ . . . . _ , _ _ _ . . _ _ _ _ . _ - . . _ . _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ . _ _ . _ _ _ . _ _ . . _ _ _ . _ . _ . _ . _ _ _ _ . . . -

• 8.09 QUESTION After having operated for a full fuel cycle the plant is placed in COLD SHUTDOWN. During the conduct of refueling interval surveillance it is determined that both Decay Heat Removal pumps would not have performed their safety function (as defined by the FSAR) on a SFAS actuation signal. What two reports are required to be made to the NRC7 (1.0)

• ANSWER

a. Four hour report (non-emergency). (0.5)

b. LER (unanalyzed condition). (0.5)

• REFERENCE 10 CFR 50.72 AND 50.73

• 8.10 QUESTION TRUE OR FALSE:

a. The Shift Supervisor has the authority to direct the efforts of all craft personnel on site, even when they are under direct craft supervision. (0.5)

b. The Shift Supervisor may terminate any ongoing activity on the site he judges to be a hazard to personnel, the public, or the station. (0.5)

• ANSWER

a. False. (0.5)

b. True. (0.5)

• REFERENCE AP.1 " Responsibilities and Authorities" pg 12.

• • • • • • • • • • • • End of Category 8 ************

End of Examination l

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U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION REACTOR OPERATOR REQUALIFICATION EXAMINATION .

OVUL D Facility: Rancho Seco Reactor Type: B&W j Date Administered: July 22, 1986

{ h ]q Examiner: G. Johnston, J. O'Brien Candidate:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 2

Read the attached instruction page carefully. This examination replaces the current cycle facility administered requalification examination. Retraining

~

requirements for failure of this examination are the same as for failure of a requalification examination prepared and administered by your training staff.

Points for each question are indicated in parentheses after the question. The

' passing grade requires at least 70% in each category and a final grade of at least 80%. Examination papers will be picked up four (4) hours after the examination starts.

% of Category  % of Candidate's Category Value Total Score Value Category 15.0 25.0 1. Principles of Nuclear

Power Plant Operation, Thermodynamics, Heat l Transfer and Fluid Flow 15.0 25.0 2. Plant Design Including Safety and Emergency Systems 15.0 25.0 3. Instruments and Controls i

15.0 25.0 4. Procedures - Normal.

Abnormal. Emergency, and Radiological Control

! 60.0 TOTALS Final Grade All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given.nor received

. aid.

i ,

Candidate's Signature e

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s' g

• EQUATION SHEET f = ma v = s/t w = mg 2 Cycle efficiency =

• a = v,t + at E = mC a = (vg - v 9)/t KE = mv vg = v, + at A = AN A=Ae PE = agh m = e/t A = In 2/tg = 0.693/tg _

W = VAP AE = 931Am tg(eff) = (t,,)(en )

(g 4g) e .

Q = pic AT -

, ,p I.Ieo -IX Q = UAAT- I.Ie -UX Pwr = W g It I.I lo-x/ M o

P=P 10 (t) TVL = 1.3/p t

e /T P=P HVL = 0.693/u O

SUR = 26.06/T T = 1.44 DT SCR = S/(1 - K,gg) fA e p)

SUR = 26 g CR x = S/(1 - K,gfx) 0 -leff6 T = (t*/o ) + [(s 'p)/A,ggo ] 1 eff 1 " 2 7 1*f (, _ g M = 1/(1 - K,gg) = CR /CR g 0

-" eff' M = (1 - K,gg)0! -

eff)1 p = (K,ff-1)/K,gg = AK,gg/Keff SDM = (1 - K,gg)/K,gg p= [1*/TKygg.] + [B/(1 + A,ffT )] 1* = 1 x 10- seconds P = I$V/(3 x 1010) A,gg = 0.1 seconds I = No -

Idgy=Id22 i WATER PARAMETERS Idg =Id2 1 gal. = 8.345 lbm R/hr = (0.5 CE)/d (meters) 1 gal. = 3.78 liters R/hr = 6 CE/d (feet)

I ft3 = 7.48 gal. MISCELLANEOUS CONVERSIONS .

10 Density = 62.4 lbm/ft 1 Curie = 3.7 x 10 dps Density = 1 gm/cm 1 kg = 2.21 lbm

Heat of vaiorizations = 970 Etu/lbm I hp = 2.54 x 10 3BTU /hr 6

, Heat of fusica = 144 Btu /lbm 1 Mw = 3.41 x 10 Btu /hr 1 Atm = 14.7 psi = 29.9 in. Ig. 1 Btu = 778 ft-lbf I ft. H O 2

= 0.4335 lbf/in 1 inch = 2.54 cm F = 9/5 C + 32 i

C = 5/9 ( F - 32)

ES-201-2

~~

ATTACHMENT 2 REQUIREMENTS FOR ADMINISTRATION OF WRITTEN EXAMINATIONS

1. A single room shall be provided for completing the written examina-tion. The location of this room and supporting restroom facilities shall be such as to prevent contact with all other facility and/or contractor personnel during the duration of the written examination.

If necessary, the facility should make arrangements for the use of a suitable room at a local school, motel, or other building. Ob-taining this room is the responsibility of the licensee.

2. Minimum spacing is required to ensure examination integrity as Vetermined by the chief examiner. Minimum spacing should be one candidate per table, with a 3-ft space between tables. No wall charts, models, and/or other training materials shall be present in the examination room.

3. Suitable arrangements shall be made by the facility if the candi-dates are to have lunch, coffee, or other refreshments. These arrangements shall comply with Item 1 above. These arrangements shall be reviewed by the examiner and/or proctor.

4. The facility staff shall be provided a copy of the written examination and answer key after the last candidate has completed and handed in C his written examination. The facility staff shall then have five working days to provide formal written comments with supporting documentation on the examination and answer key to the chief examiner or to the regional office section chief.

5. The licensee shall provide pads of 8-1/2 by 11 in. lined paper in unopened packages for each candidate's use in completing the exam-ination. The examiner shall distribute these pads to the candidates.

All reference material needed to complete the examination shall be furnished by the examiner. Candidates can bring pens, pencils, calculators, or slide rules into the examination room, and no other equipment or reference material shall be allowed.

6. Only black ink or dark pencils should be used for writing answers to questions.

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L Examiner Standards 11 of 18

ES-201-2

. ~

NRCRULESANDGUIDELINESFORLICENSEEXAMIIATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. Restroom trips are to bs limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

3. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

4. Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the examination. .

5. Fill in the date on the cover sheet of the examination (if necessary).

6. Use only the paper provided for answers.

7. ' Print your name in the upper right-hand corner of the first page of each section of the answer sheet.

8. Consecutively number each answer sheet, write "End of Category " as appropriate, start each category on a new page, write only one U de of the paper, and write "Last Page" on the last answer sheet.

9. Number each answer as to category and number, for example,1.4, 6.3.

10. Skip at least three lines between each answer.

11. Separate answer sheets from pad and place finished answer sheets face down on your desk or table.

12. 'Use abbreviations only if they are commonly used in facility literature.

(

13. The point value for each question is indicated in parentheses after the question and can be used as a guide for the depth of answer required.

14. Show all calculations, methods, or assumptions used to obtain an answer to mathematical problems whether indicated in the question or not.

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15. Partial credit may be given. Therefore, ANSWER ALL PARTS OF THE QUESTION AND DO NOT LEAVE ANY ANSWER BLANK.

16. If parts of the examination are not clear as to intent, ask questions of the examiner only. .,,

17. You must sign the statement on the cover sheet that indicates that the work is your own and you have not re'ceived or been given assistance in ccmpleting the examination. This must be done after the examination has been completed.

i Examiner Standards 12 of 18 l

. ES-201-2

18. When you complete your examination, you shall:

a. Assemble your examination as follows:

(1) Exam questions on top.

(2) Exam aids - figures, tables, etc.

(3) Answer pages including figures which are a part of the answer.

b. Turn in your copy of the examination and all pages used to answer the examination questions.

c. Turn in all scrap paper and the balance of the paper that you did not use fcr answering the questions.

d. Leave the examination area, as defined by the examiner. If after leaving, you are found in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked.

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Examiner Standards 13 of 18 i

Category 1

]

Principles of Nuclear Power Plant Operation, Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer and Fluid Flow

• QUESTION 1.01 Which fluid system is subcooled by greater than 30 F7 (0.5)

TEMP. PRESS. (psia)

a. 540 1000

b. ,560 1500

c. '665 2000

d. 640 2400

• ANSWER b.

• REFERENCE Thermodynamics, Fluid flow, and Heat Transfer for Nuclear Power Plants

• OUESTION 1.02 Critical Heat Flux (CHF) is defined as the heat flux at which Departure from Nucleate Boiling (DNB) occurs. For an INCREASE in each of the parameters below, tell how the CHF will change.

(Consider each parameter seperately.)

Limit your answer to INCREASE, DECREASE, or REMAINS UNCHANGED.

'a. Reactor Coolant Flow Rate.

b. Reactor Coolant Temperature.

c. Reactor Coolant Pressure. [3 0 0.5 ea3 (1.5)

• ANSWER

a. Increase.

b. Decrease.

c. Increase. [3 @ 0.5 ea] (1.5)

• REFERENCE Westinghouse Thermal Science; Ch. 13, pp 33-52.

I

• QUESTION 1.03 What actions could be taken to maintain the reactor critical following a significant load. rejection at the end of core life (no or _little boron)? Explain why this action is ef f ective.

( 1.' O )

• ANSWER Reactor power must be increased EO.53 to burnout xenon. CO.53

• REFERENCE General Physics

• QUESTION 1.04 Assume two equal amounts of negative reactivity are added to a reactor by inserting a group of rods ~and assume the reactor is initially on a stable positive startup rate. If the first rod insertion reduces the startup rate by a half (1/2), will the second rod insertion reduce the startup rate to zero? EXPLAIN.

(1.0)

• ANSWER-No. CO.53 Startup rate is non-linear with reactivity. [0.53

• REFERENCE Glasstone and Sessonske

• QUESTION 1.05 Why does xenon peak later following a shutdown from a high power level than it does following a shutdown from a low power level?

(2.0)

• ANSWER

. Equilibrium iodine is proportional to power, while equilibrium xenon is not. E1.03 Therefore you have a higher ratio of I to Xe at higher power l evel s . The greater the I to Xe ratio the longer it takes for sufficient I to decay to Xe such that equilibrium production and decay of Xe is occurring (i . e. the peak). C1.03

• REFERENCE TMI Reactor Theory Lesson Plan, p 49, 54, 59

• QUESTION 1.06 Why must the RCS be maintained subcooled following a reactor trip? (1.0)

• ANSWER The subcooling limit ensures that the core is fully covered and voiding is prevented. (accounts for instrument error)Ei.OJ

• REFERENCE NRC Degraded Core Perspectives Course

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• QUESTION 1.07 HOW would the actual critical rod position vary from the estimated critical rod position (ECP) for EACH of.the following situations. Include a BRIEF explanation WHY.

a. After a trip from 100% power, an ECP is calculated using

^

zero xenon reactivity for a startup 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after the trip.

(0.75)

b. The actual boron concentration is 100 ppm lower than the value used for the ECP.

(0.75) 4

• ANSWER a.' Actual critical position will be higher [O.353 due to Xenon

peak after the trip. [0.43

b. Actual critical position will be lower CO.353 with less boron in the RCS the Control Rods will need to be inserted to compensate for the lower reactivity of the boron.[0.43

• REFERENCE Nuclear Fundamentals i

• QUESTION 1.08

.The reactor is subtritical at 10 E+3 CPS when an atmospheric dump fails open. (Isolation. valve is open) EXPLAIN what happens to reactor power and Tave. (Assume the reactor is undermoderated, at BOL, and NO REACTOR TRIP occurs.) (1.5)

• ANSWER The excess steam flow causes Tave to decrease and insert positive reactivity. The positive reactivity increase causes power to rise at an ever increasing rate. [0.53 When the plant reaches the POAH, the fuel temperature rise will add negative reactivity via the doppler feedback and add reactor heat to stop the temperature decrease. CO.53 The power rise and cooldown will continue until reactor power equals steam i demand. [0.53 (1.5) 1

• REFERENCE ANO 1 Reactor Theory part 17 pg 27 i

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. _ . _ . _ .-- , _ , , _ . - _ _ _ . _ _ _ _ _ _ - - . , , . . _ _ _ _ _ ._,_..__,..-,_.~.,--m-. . . _ _ . _ _ _ _ _ , _ _ . , . -

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• DUESTION 1.09 ,

Which one'of the following statements about a small break in the Pressurizer Steam Space (open'PORV) at power is FALSE 7 (0.5)

a. RCS pressure drops as the pressurizer steam space is vented out the break; pressurizer level increases.

b. Pressure drops to the RPS trip setpoint; the reactor trips.

c. When pressurizer fills solid, two-phase natural circulation is lost.-

d. Without isolation of the PORV, a solid water cooldown would be required.

• ANSW'ER

c. - It's never lost (reason no* required).

• REFERENCE Small Break LOCA Lesson Plan, p. 12.

• QUESTION 1.10 Which of the following statements about water hammer is FALSE 7 (1.0)

a. There is usually more danger of water hammer in vertical water lines than in horizontal water lines.

b. A good general rule to prevent ser'ous i consequences due to water hammer is to always open or close valves, which regulate the flow of any fluid, slowly.

c. Keeping vents or drains shut while cutting in a line helps L

to prevent water hammer.

I

d. Where bypass valves are provided'around large valves, the l bypass should be used to equalize pressures and

! temperatures before opening the large valve.

• ANSWER

c. they should be open (reason not requirud) .

• REFERENCE ATTS, Vol, 3, Heat and Fluid Power, p. 20-21

. ~

• QUESTION 1.11 State for each of the following what will happen to the volumetric flow rate (INCREASE, DECREASE, OR REMAIN THE SAME) of a typical centrifugal pump. .(1.5)

a. Pump driver horsepower is increased with no increase in speed.

b. Pump impeller speed is increased with no change in pump differential Pressure.

c. Discharge valve is throttled closed to increase discharge pressure.

• ANSWER

a. REMAINS THE SAME. (No change to speed, discharge pressure, or other parameters.)

b. INCREASES.

c. DECREASES

• REFERENCE Applied Heat Power

• OUESTION 1.12 What chemicals are added to the Reactor Coolant to control the following? (1.0)

a. RCS pH.

.b. Oxygen concentration at operating temperature.

c. Oxygen concentration at low temperatures.

• ANSWER

a. Lithium Hydroxide. (0.33)

b. Hydrogen when RCS temperature is elevated. (0.33)

c. Hydrazine when RCS temperature is low. (0.33)

• REFERENCE General Physics Academic Program for Nuclear Power Plant Operators e --, -, -

m._ - , , -. - . - - - - -- - -- ---.yg. ---

~

• OUESTION 1.13 The reactor is at 120 EFPD and is critical at 3000 cps. Group 5 rods are pulled from 60% to 70% and a steady state startup, rate of 0.5 DPm is observed. Later in core life, 280 EFPD, we again find the same reactor critical at 3000 cps. Group 5 rods are again pulled from 60% to 70%. Assuming rod worth is the same in both cases, would you expect the same steady state startup rate?

EXPLAIN YOUR ANSWER! (1.0)

• ANSWER No (0.33). The neutron generation time is shorter due to the buildup of Pu (0.33). This causes the SUR to be greater for the same reactivity insertion (0.33).

• REFE.RENCE Requalification Program Exam Bank

• • • • • • • • • • • • End of Category 1 ************

Next Page Begins Category 2 l

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Category 2 Plant Design Including Safety and Emergency Systems

• QUESTION 2.01 Is the OTSG tube to shell Delta-T limit a "one way" limit--that is, the major concern is having the tubes colder than the shell and NOT the shell colder than the tubes. (0.5)

• ANSWER NO. 'It is a "two way" limit. (0.5)

• REFERENCE Requalification Program Exam Bank

• QUESTION 2.02 TRUE OR FALSE:

The MUT outlet valve, SFV-23508, closes automatically upon the presence of a Safety Features Actuation Signal. (0.5)

• ANSWER TRUE

• REFERENCE STM 5 " Makeup and Purification" pg 5-69

• QUESTION 2.03 yo u Qb/ 0 Upon loss of ICS/NNI ""- " ^ - - - "

, how do the Turbine Bypass Valves reposition? (1.0)

• ANSWER Shut. (1.0)

• REFERENCE Trainee Handout " Mods to TBVs, ADVs and AFW Valves"

• 0UESTION 2.04 During shutdown operations on the Decay Heat Removal System with pump "A" running, what potential consequence results if valve DHV-OO2 is opened and Reactor Building Spray System train "B"is being tested by recirculation through the BWST7 (1.0)

a. Injection of NaOH into the RCS.

b. Transfer of Reactor Coolant into the BWST.

c. Overpressurization of the Decay Heat Suction LIne.

d.. Loss of NPSH to the Decay Heat pumps.

• ANSWER

b. Transfer of Reactor Coolant into the BWST.

• REFERENCE STM 10 " Decay Heat Removal System" STM 28 " Reactor Building Spray System"

• QUESTION 2.05 What four conditions will automatically start the Control Room and TSC Essential HVAC Units? (2.0)

• ANSWER

1. SFAS.

2. High Temperature.

3. High radiation.

.4. High Toxic gas.

[4 at 0.5 ea] (2.0)

• REFERENCE STM chapter 11 " Plant Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning Systems"

.___u

r

• QUESTION 2.06 A catastrophic, unisolable failure has occured in the insturment air reciever. For the following three components explain how the loss of instrument air will affect the RCS temperature, pressure, and pressurizer level? Include the direction the valves fail. (1.5)

a. Letdown Isolation Valves. *

b. Turbine Bypass Valves, and Atmospheric Dump Valves.

• ANSWER

a. Letdown isolation closed (0.25) causes PZR level to increase (0.5)

b. TBV's and ADV's fail closed (0.25) causing code safties to relieve decay heat, higher temperature, pressure, level (0.5).

• REFERENCE Requalification Program Exam Bank

• QUESTION 2.07 An interlock is provided between the DHR suction block valves, and the DHR pumps that will trip the running DHR pump if either of those valves leave their OPEN seat.

a. What protective feature does this provide for the DHR system' (1.0)

b. If the interlock actuated for unknown reasons, would SFAS override the trip of the pump? (1.0)

'* ANSWER

a. Ensures an adequate suction from the RCS for decay heat removal (without inhibiting the low pressure injection of ECCS). (1.0) s ,

b. Yes ($.$). 6 .' L - . --......ui- i - o i -- ' ::.

• REFERENCE STM Chapter 10, " Decay Heat Removal System" l

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• QUESTION 2.08 What is the functional difference between a " shunt" trip device and an "undervoltage" trip device in the CRD breakers? (2.0)

• ANSWER Shunt device is an ' active' device, requires a current to be passed through a coil to actuate the. trip bar in the breaker.

[ Inquire at facility as to type of device, above is typical 3 (1.0)

The 'undervoltage' voltage device is a ' passive

• device, it only

. requires a current be interupted to release a spring loaded armature to actuate the trip bar in the breaker. (1.0)

• REFERENCE AK-2, BREAKER MANUAL (at facility)

• OUESTION 2.09 The pegging steam supply valve can be closed remotely, why can it not be opened remotely? How, then, is it opened? (1.5)

• ANSWER The valve if opened too fast presents a hazard of water hammer occurina. (0.75) Therefore to open the valve it has to be opened manually (0.75).

• REFERENCE Requalification Program Exam Bank s,

\

• QUESTION 2.10 When the post Accident Sampling System has its cooling lined up

~

from the CRD cooling water, what concern arises for the CRD cooling water system and how is that concern alleviated (i . e what action can be taken.)? (1.0)

• ANSWER The flow requirements exceed that of the capacity of one pump thereby necessitating the other pump being started. (1.0)

• REFERENCE PASS System Description I

[

• QUESTION 2.11 Regarding the Nuclear Service busses

a. What two conditions will automatically initiate the Nuclear Service bus' unloading / loading sequence? (1.0)

b. What four conditions of overcurrent protection are provided by the 486. lockout relay for the Nuclear Service busses?

(1.0)

XANOWER

a. SFAS initiation (0.5), and under/over voltage on the bus (0.5)

b. The three phases and any phase to ground (1.0).

• REFERENCE STM 43 pgs 49and 62, " Vital Electrical Distribution"

• • • • • • • • • • • • End of Category 2 ************

Next Page Begins Category 3 1

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Category 3 Instruments and Controls ,

• QUESTION 3.01-What are the two types of Rod Position Indication and briefly state how are sensed? (1.5)

• ANSWER Absolute (0.5), is sensea by rewd cwitches (0.25).

Relative (0.5), is sensed by a stepping motor in parallel with th.e CRDM motor phases (0.25).

t

• REFERENCE B&W Video tape training on CRD sys.

J

• QUESTION 3.02

! On preparing to cooldown and depressurize the RCS the Low Reactor Coolant Pressure trip signal of the Safety Features j Actuation System must be bypassed. Will that bypass also affect

the High Reactor Building Pressure trip signal? (0.5) t

• ANSWER No. (0.5)

• REFERENCE STM 35 " Safety Features Actuation System" pg 35-50

' QUESTION

• 3.03 For each of the following situations, would the condition cited tend to place the ICS closer to the BTU limit? (2.0)

a. A decrease in feedwater flow. '

, b. An increase in feedwater temperature.

l c. An increase in OTSG pressure.

d. An increase in Tave ,

l

• ANSWER / -

a. Verf AE (0. 5) a .J,,-

b. Wrfk(0.5) . [ # ,/

c . A6 (0.5)

d. (0.5)

• REFERENCE

STM 32 ICS l

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.,_,.~,___.______,_m_ _ . . _ _ . . . . . . , _ . , . _ . . _ _ _ . . . . - . . . , _ . - . . _ . -

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• QUESTION 3.04 l How will rapid RCS depressurization (example: 2155 to 1555 psig I in several minutes) effect pressurizer level indication?

Why? (1.5)

• ANSWER It will indicate erroneously high (0.5),from offgassing (0.5) l and water ejection (0.5) from the reference leg. (Accept boiling in reference leg, also.) l

• REFERENCE NRC B&W training material

• OUESTION 3.05 As r'eactor power is increased source range volts are turned off automatically. What two (2) circuit interlocks will result in the automatic de-energization of the Source Range detector?

(1.5)

• ANSWER (o .C [oA [0, E)

When (both)IR channels > or = 10(-9) amps or when NI-5 ([or 6 and 7 or 8)are > or = 10% FP

• REFERENCE (a . 20 STM 34 " Nuclear Instrumentation" pg 34a-72.

• OUESTION 3.06 Which four (4) RPS trip signals are bypassed in the shutdown bypass position? (2.0)

• ANSWER Power / imbalance / flow. (0.5)

. Power /RC pumps. (0.5)

Low pressure. . (0.5)

Pressure / temperature. (0.5)

• REFERENCE STM 36 " Reactor Protection System" pg 36-11.

• OUESTION 3.07 How does the Megawatt Demand signal generate the control signal for the turbine when an increase in in load is demanded? (2.0)

• ANSWER

i. The unit load demand signal is compared with the actual

! megawatts generated to produce a megawatt error (0.5). this i megawatt error is added to the header pressure setpoint in such a way as to reduce the heeder pressure setpoint (0.5) the turbine valves open to achieve this lower pressure (0,5), this signal repositions the valves to achieve a greater generated output (0,5).

• REFERENCE STM 32 " Integrated Control System"

. s

• QUESTION 3.08 The Main Feedpumps' speed is controlled by the ICS to maintain a constant differential pressure across the Feedwater control valves. How does the ICS anticipate a drop in the differential pressure when there is an increase in the demand for flow? ( 1.t$

• ANSWER 4

PS 5:r_r p' _

p rentrol in L Lm. o. e faadim ..ard centr:1 ciangl1 bFmMM from the total flow demand (0.5) so that large or rapid load changes will change the pump speed accordingly (0.5).

• REFERENCE STM 32 " Integrated Control System" pg 32-84.

• OUESTION 3.09 How would the plant respond if the Thot input to the ICS failed low while the plant was at 100% power with the unit load in full automatic with no operator action? Be brief in your explanation.

. (1.5)

• ANSWER BTU limits significantly reduced to both FW loops resulting in FW reduction to both OTSG*s (0.5). The indicated Tave is low, rods pull to increase neutron power (0.5). the reactor then trips on high RCS pressure (0.5).

• REFERENCE Requalification Program Exam Bank

~*DUESTION 3.10 Following a reactor trip what three signals control the feedwater flow demand? (1.5)

!

• ANSWER

1. Unit Load Demand runback of 20%/ minute. (0.5)

2. BTU limits. (0.5) '

3. Cross limits from reactor. (0.5)

• REFERENCE STM 32 " Integrated Control System" pgs 32-77 to -85.

• • • • • • • • • • • • End of Category 3 ************

Next Page Begins Category 4 l

e Category 4 Procedures - Normal, Abnormal, Emergency, and Radiological Control

^

• QUESTION 4.01 Rule Number 2 of the Emergency Operating Procedures dicusses the criteria for throttling of HPI flow. What four guidelines govern when HPI flow can be throttled? (2.0)

• ANSWER

1. The flowrate of each HPI pump should not be throttled below (105 gpm) with HPI miniflow l SFV-23645 and SFV-23646) p p '---d. _( 0.5) st V#'d#

_m ~d MU a dlva ves (% NOTd Of"*

l 2. HPI should be throttled to prevent exceeding the reactor vessel pressure temperature limit of (Figure 1) during OTSG cooling or HPI cooling. (0.5)

3. HPI pump flow should be throttled to prevent the pump flow from exceeding (525 gpm). (0.5)

4. HPI can be throttled anytime the reactor subcooling margin is restored. (0.5)

• REFERENCE Rule #2 "HPI Flow Control"

• QUESTION 4.02 Explain the procedure to be followed by the operating shift upon_

discovery that a control room instrument indication is out of calibration or unreliable. (1.0)

• ANSWER Shift personnel are responsible.for identifying and logging instrument 00S assuring that a work request for repair is submitted (0.5), and placing a yellow OOS tag or sticker on instrument (O.5) M A ; C., a f f,, at,4,N e ,w j inf,b e

• REFERENCE Determine at facility, no ref er t.;e provided.

• QUESTION 4.03 The Technical Specifications require two minimum temperature requirements be met prior to criticality. What are those minimum conditions? (1.0)

• ANSWER The temperature shall be above 525 deg. F (0.5) and DTT +10 deg.

F (0.5).

• REFERENCE T.S. 3.1.3

• OUESTION 4.04 Answer TRUE OR FALSE:

a. A Test Tag can be attached to the san,e piece of equipment that has a Danger Tag attached to it to allow testing of that piece of equipment. (0.5)

b. A Caution Tag may be hung in place of a Test Tag. (0.5)

• ANSWER

a. False (0.5)

b. False (0.5)

• REFE.RENCE AP-4a,b,c

• QUESTION 4.05 What are the QUARTERLY administrative (SMUD) exposure limits for the following?

a. Whole body (Worker >19 years of age). (0.5)

b. Extremities (Hands, forearms, feet, and ankles). (0.5)

c. Skin of the whole body. (0.5)

• ANSWER

a. 1.00 Rem /Otr (0.5)

b. 5.00 Rem /Otr (0.5)

c. 7.50 Rem /Otr (0.5)

• REFERENCE AP.305-1-6

• QUESTION 4.06 Guideline 1 of the EOP's defines what plant conditions constitute adquate subcooling margin. If both SPDS displays are NOT availiable and the RCP's are off (natural circulation),

how would an operator determine that adequate subcooling exists after a reactor trip? (2.0)

• ANSWER If both SPDS displays are not availiable and no RCPs are running: RCS pressure (0.5) and incore thermocouple temperature (0.5) (average of five highest) plot >50 deg. F subcooling (0.5) or above and to the left of the variable subcooling margin curve (0.5).

• REFERENCE E.02 "Subcooling Margin Guideline No. 1"

• OUESTION 4.07 Regarding a loss of power to the ICS:

After a loss of power to the ICS, what action should be taken with the TBVs, ADVs, and AFW control valves, prior to restoring power to the ICS7 (1.0)

• ANSWER The TBVs and ADVs should be closed (0.5), and the AFW valves should be in manual (0.5).

• REFERENCE cSo pq 1.

• QUESTION 4.08 What' level is required to be maintained in the OTSGs after a reactor trip? Assume that no RCPs are running and adequate rubcooling margin has been established. (1.0)

• ANSWER 50% of operating range. (1.0)

• REFERENCE Requalification Program Exam Bank

• QUESTION 4.09 Which of the following are addressed by your Technical Specifications?

Answer YES if the item is addressed and NO if it is not addressed. CO.25 ea3 (2.0)

a. Source Range NIs during startup

b. Core Flood tank level

c. Diesel Generators

d. Plant Computer

e. Incore nuclear detectors

f. RCP Seal Injeciton system

q. OTSG chemistry (C1, F1, 02)

h. Containment air temperature

• ANSWER

a. yes

b. yes

c. yes

d. no

e. yes

f. no

g. no

h. no CO.25 ea3 (2.0)

• REFERENCE Technical Specifications

• QUESTION 4.10 Procedure A.15 " Makeup, Purification, and Letdown System" has a caution statement about makeup using DI water for contracti.on during RCS cooldown. What concern is raised by using DI water for this evolution? (1.0)

• ANSWER The primary concern is with the addition of positive reactivity. (1.0)

• REFERENCE Procedure A.15

• QUESTION 4.11 Procedure B.2 " Plant Heatup and Startup" has a precaution for the OTSGs to have their level above 85% on the operating range prior to heating up the RCS. Why is this necessary? (1.0)

• ANSWER This provides a means of heating the OTSG shell (0.5) and assures allowable tube to shell temperature differentials (0.5).

• REFERENCE Procedure B.2 " Plant Heatup and Startup"

• OUESTION 4.12 TRUE OR FALSE According to Technical Specification 6.2 regarding working hours, the Shift Supervisor has the authority to grant deviations to these requirements. (0.5)

• ANSWER

. False. (0.5)

• REFERENCE Requalification Program Exam Bank

• • • • • • • • • • • End of Category 4 ************

• • • • • • • • • • • • • • End of Examination ***************