ML20134L421

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Exam Rept 50-461/OL-85-01 on 850430 & 0624-28.Exam Results: All 18 Candidates Successfully Completed Exams
ML20134L421
Person / Time
Site: Clinton Constellation icon.png
Issue date: 08/27/1985
From: Brockman K, Mark King, Kramme C, Kvamme C, Lang T, Mcmillen J, Morgan T, Munro J, Plettner E
NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION III)
To:
Shared Package
ML20134L409 List:
References
50-461-OL-85-01, 50-461-OL-85-1, NUDOCS 8509030258
Download: ML20134L421 (68)
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U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION REGION III Report No. 50-461/0L-85-01 Docket No. 50-461 Licensee: Illinois Power Company 500 South 27th Street Decatur, IL 62525 Facility Name: Clinton Power Station Examination Administered At: Clinton, IL Examination Conducted: April 30 and June 24-28,1985

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Examination Summary Examinations administered on April 30 and during the week of June 24, 1985 (Report No. 50-461/0L-85-01)

The written examination was administered on April 30, 1985, and oral examinations were conducted during the week of June 24, 1985.

Results: Eighteen candidates successfully completed the examinations.

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r REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiners M. King, EG&G C. Kvamme, EG&G T. Morgan, EG&G J. Munro, Region II K. Brockman, Region II T. Lang,, Region III, Chief Examiner E. Plettner, Region III
2. Examination Review Meeting At conclusion of the written exam, the examiners met with six members of the plant staff for exam review. The list of comments generated are included on Attachnent A for the R0 exam and on Attachment B for the SR0 exam.
3. Exit Meeting At the conclusion of the site visit the examiners met with representatives of the plant staff to discuss the results of the examination. Those individuals who clearly passed the oral and/or simulator were identified in this meeting.

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e ATTACHMENT A Resolution of Facility Comments Clinton RO Exam April 30,1985 Question 1.20 Facility Comment: To vague as to what " rupture" means as three of the four could be correct answers.

Resolution: Comment accepted. Will include the words " caused by high stress" on future questions. No change to answer key.

Question 2.01 Facility Comment: Set point for timer was changed from 8 minutes to 6 minutes.

Resolution: Comment accepted with answer key change to show the correction.

Question 2.03:

Facility Comment: Answer for auto shift has been deleted in regards to low temperature in RCIC tank.

Resolution: Comment accepted with answer key changed to show deleted answer.

Question 2.04:

Facility Comment: Answers of high radiation in fuel building exhaust, fuel floor has been changed to just fuel building exhaust.

Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key corrected to show the change.

Question 2.05:

Facility Comment: Answer of load limit set point in some references say 110%

instead of 105% and max combined flow some references say 110% instead of 115%.

Resolution: Comments accepted and answer key corrected to show both reference set points as acceptable answers.

Question 3.02:

Facility Comment: Answer flux manual control is also called loop auto and master manual control is also called flux auto at the facility.

Resolution: Comnent accepted and answer key corrected to show both as acceptable answers.

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Question 3.03:

Facility Canment: Answer of 9871 amps and 30,297 amps is usually expressed in percentages as 25% and 80%. '

Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key corrected to show both as acceptable answers.

Question 3.04:

Facility Comment: These are three PT's the other two are for discharge pressure indication and F042 valve test.

. Resolution: Comment noted but not needed to answer the question asked. No change to answer key made.

Question 3.05:-

Facility Comment: At Clinton Power Station the feedwater flow signal is from the pump discharge. Correct answer for question asked is; "the loop flow is for recorder indication and for interlocks associated with Recirculation Pumps."

Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key changed to show correct answer.

Question 3.06:

Facility Comment: Answer of " half scram" does not exist at Clinton power station. Correct answer would be rod block.

Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key changed to show correct answer.

Question 3.10:

Facility Comment: - Answer of hydraulic power unit failure nay be broken down into high temperature or low level in oil reserve.

~ Resolution: Comment accepted with answer key changed to include them as correct answers.

Question 3.11:

Facility Comment:

NRHX outlet of 140 will shut F004.

Resolution: Comment rejected since the question asked for isolation of system which includes both inlet and outlet valves. F004 is L

the inlet valve only.

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Question 4.02:

Facility Comment: Reference number of 3304.04 should be 3304.01. Probable

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i typing error.

' Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key changed to show correct reference number.

Question 4.03:

Facility Comment: Answer has updated version of reference. _ We used older version in class. Either answer should be accepted.

Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key changed to accept either version as correct.

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ATTACHMENT B 4

Resolution of Facility Comments

i. Clinton SRO Exam April 30, 1985 Question 5.6:

l Facility Comment: APLHGR is in the power distribution limit section of Technical Specification 3.2.1.

i Resolution: Connent noted but MAPLHGR is more restrictive and thus no change to answer key. -

' Question 5.8: .

Facility Comment: Answer (d) can also be correct. The power level is not dependant entirely on source. The rate of the rod pull is more significant.

Resolution: Comment rejected because rod pull rate was not changed only source count rate, thus no change to answer key. l Question 6.01:

Facility Connent: Answer possibly lifting of SRV's with water was not taught.

Resolution: Comment rejected, because it was in the training material.

Question 6.04:

Facility Comment: Question did not ask for setpoints in answer.

Resolution: Comment accepted. Setpoints were included in answer key as possible correct answers for low pressure or coolant temperature.

Question 6.08:

Facility Comment: Answer the one that remains most constant assumes control is correct, not the one that has a lesser change.

-Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key changed to show correction.

Question 6.09:

Facility Comment: Answer of "because reactivity addition rate is important" from a different reference is also correct.

Resolution: Comment accepted and answer key changed to show both answers.

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6 Question 8.12:

Facility Comment: Reference should be 1401.05 not 1404.05. Typing error.

Resolution: ~ Comment accepted and answer key corrected.

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MAS ER U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION COPY SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: Clinton REACTOR TYPE: 3WR - GE-s DATE ADMINISTERED: Accil 30, 1985 EXAMINER: E. 31ettner APPLICANT:

INSTRUCTIONS TO APPLICANT:

Use separate paper for the answers. Write answers on one side only. StaDie auestion sheet on top of the answer sneets. Points for each auestion are indicated in parentheses after the question. The passing grace recuires at least 70% in each category anc a final grade of at least 30%.

% of Category  % of Applicant's Category Value Total Score Value Category 25 25 5. Theory of Nuclear Dower Plant, Operation, Fluids, and Thermacynamics 25 25 6. Plant Systems Design, Control, and Instrumentation 25 25 7. Prececures - Normal, Abrormal, Emergency, and Raciological Controi 25 25 3. Administrative Jreceaures,

cncitions. Inc .4 ni tations 100 10 0 0TALS
INAL JRADE  %

All work done en this exam is on my own, I nave neither given nor received sid.

Applicant's Signature i

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P Category 5 Theory of Nuclear Power Plant operations, Fluids and Thermodynamics 5.1 The cnange in reactivity associated with a change in Keff (1.0) from 0.920 to 1.004.is approximately;

3. 0.091
b. 0.084
c. 0.087
d. 0.080 5.2 Which of the following is NOT a enaracteristic of subcritical (1.0) multiplication.
a. For equal reactivity additions, it takes longer for the equilibrium suocritical multiplication level to be reached as Keff approaches unity.
b. If the reactor is shutdown long enough, the source range instruments will lose there ability to determine the subcritical multiplication level even though the core may still be at the middle of life.
c. If 2 notches of rod withdrawal increases the sub-critical multiplication level by 10 cps, then 4 notches of rod withdrawal will increase the subcritical multiplication level by approximately 20 cps.
d. Doubling the indicated count rate by reactivity additions will reduce the margin to critical by approximately one half.

5.3 Which reactivity coefficient is the most dominant wnen (1.0) pulling rods in startup and 150 F.

a. Pressure coefficient
b. Moderator coefficient
c. Doppler coefficient
d. Void coefficient 5.4 The highest internal stresses placed on a pressurized (1.0) system coundary such as reactor vessel is:
a. on the thickest components during a heatup
b. on the thinnest components during a heatup
c. on the thinnest components during a cooldown
d. on the thickest components during a cooldown e

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i 5.5 The need to change the RTNDT of the reactor vessel (1.0) over the life of the plant is the result of:

a. thermal cycles-(heatup'and cooldown transients)
o. pressure cycles (changes in pressure)
c. gamma radiation
d. neutron radiation 5.6 During a design basis accident of a loss of coolant, the thermal limit that protects the fuel is (1.0)
a. LHGR
b. APLGHR
c. MAPLHGL
d. MCPR 5.7 The quality of steam to the turbine refers to: (1.0)
a. the ratto of the vapor mass to the sum of the liquid and vapor masses,
b. the ratio of the liquid mass to the sum of the ifquid and vapor masses.
c. the ratio of the liquid mass to the vapor mass.
d. the ratio of the vapor mass to the liquid mass.
5. 8 Which of the following statements describes the effect ' "w ,.. i (1.0) the magnitude of the initial level of source range ',,,u' counts would have on critical rod position and the power level (count rate) at criticality:

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a. The critical rod position would not be affected by the source range count rate and the power level (count rate) when criticality is reached would be higher.
b. The critical rod position would be lower since the

! source range count rate is higner and the power level (count rate) when criticality is reacned l

l would be~ higher.

l c. The critical rod position would be lower since the source range count rate is higher and the power level (count rate) when criticality is reached would be lower.

d. The critical rod position would not be affected by the source range count rate and the power level (count rate) when criticality is reached would be lower.

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5. 9 Which of the following statements describes the reason (1.0) for the cnange in critical cower as the reactor cressure increases from 800 to 1100 psi.
a. a decrease in local cuality occurs whicn causes the margin cetween actual and critical qualities to increase and thus power increases.
b. Steam bubbles increase in quantity and collect more reaoily at the heat transfer surface, thus making the transition between nucleate and film boiling easier.
c. Local quality decreases along the boiling length and thus a greater critical power is necessary to drive quality up to the critical limit.

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d. Boiling length decreases so the voids are formed lower in the core and Mthu the critical quality is greater lower in thWore and transition boilings occurs at a point below the midpoint of the core.

5.10 EXPLAIN or DEFINE the following terms:

a. Promot Critical (0.5)
6. Reactor Period (0.5)
c. Subcritical Multiplication (0.5) 3.11 (Assume 100% power) Then reactor power tip,,yeduced by (1.0) driving rods. The recirculation pump M remains constant. Core flow changes because of the actions taken. Choose the proper reason for the core flow change.
a. Flow vill decrease because of an increase in two pnase flow ccnditions.
o. Flow will increase due to the increased natural circulation.

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c. Flow will increase because of a reduction in two pnase flow conditions.
d. Flow will increase because of an increase in two phase flow conditions.

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S.12 The MAPLHGR curve increase in early core life and as (1.0) exposure increases the limit begins to increase at a decreasing rate and then decreases. Choose the condition that is NOT responsible for this:

a. Burnable poison depletion
b. Fission gas build-up
c. Local ceaking factors
d. Reduced heat-transfer rate 5.13 Which of the following statements is correct concerning control rod worth? (1.0)
a. It is proportional to reactor power
b. It is lower in regions of higher relative neutron flux
c. It is proportional to rod speed
d. It is higher in regions of higher relative neutron flux 5.14 Regarding MCPR (Minimum Critical Power Ratio):
a. What PHENOMENON could exist if a fuel bundle were (1.0) operated at a MCPR LESS THAN ONE and WHAT would very likely be the CONSE0VENCE of the pnenomenon?

m) b. WHY must the Technical Specification MCPR limit (1.0) include a Wactor unen core flow is LESS THAN '

RATE 0? A v 92.

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c. HOW is t.he margin to MCPR changed (INCREASES, (0,j /

DECREASES, or REMAINS CONSTANT) when inlet suo-cooling decreases?

5.15 Which of the following radioactive isotopic found in (1.0) the reactor coolant aoula not indicate a leak througn the fuel cladding?

3. I-131
b. Xe 133
c. Co-60 ..
d. .< r- 85 a l

g 5.16 A moderator is necessary to slow neutrons cown to thermal (1.0) energies. Which of the following is the most correct

.' reason for operating with thermal instead of fast neutrons.

a. Increased neutron efficiency since thermal neutrons are less likely to leak out of the core than fast neutrons.
b. Reactors operating primarily on fast aeutrons are inherently unstable and nave a higher risk of going prompt critical.
c. The fission cross section of the fuel is much higher I

for thermal neutrons than for fast neutrons.

d. Doppler and moderator temperature coefficients cecome positive as neutron energy increases. l i

5.18 Which of the followirg statements best describes the con- (1,0) dition known as " condensate depression"?

a. Can lead to condensate pump cavitation if condensate depression is too great.
b. Decreases as hotwell level rises.

, c. Reduces [Rankinj)cyc7e efficiency.

s, _ d. Increases as condensate temperature increases.

5.19 Whicn of the following statements most correctly completes (1,0) the following sentence? Departure from nucleate boiling is the point wnere:

a. Void fraction equals one
b. The heat transfer mecnanism cnanges frcm nucleate boiling to single chase convection.

t c. Radiative heat transfer cecomes.; insignificant.

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d. The heat transfer rate susutnacle w+tb nucleate boiling reaches its maximum.

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5.20 whicn of the following in NOT correct concerning decay (1 0) 1 eat?

3. Is the heat produced by the energy released from the radioactive decay of fission oroducts.
3. Can be determined by the reading on the SRM's wnen the reactor is shutdown.
c. Is approximately 6% of the total energy released from fission.
d. Is still a significant contributor to the energy in the reactor core for approximately two hours after the reactor nas been snutdown.

5.21 Figure 1.21 is a representation of how the resonance (1.0) peaks of U-238 " flatten out" or Doppler broaden as fuel temperature increases. Which of the following are the correct labels for the X and Y axes?

'1

a. X is neutron flux; @ is interaction rate
b. X is neutron energy; Y is microscopic capture cross section
c. X is atcm density of U-238; Y is neutron flux
d. X is interaction rate; Y is neutron density.

5.22 The ratio of Pu-239 and Pu-240 atoms to U-235 atoms ;1.3) cnanges over core life. Which of the cairs of carameters listed below are most affected by this enange?

a. Moderator temperature coefficient ano doopler coe f ficient
o. Doppler coefficient and beta
. Seta and moderator coefficient
d. Moderator temcerature coefficient and neutron generation time.

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5.23 Prior to startup (all rocs in) the SRM countrate is (1.0) 20 CPS and K effective in 0.96. If the control rods are pulled to give a delta K of +0.035, what count rate on the SRM's could be expected when the period becomes infinite?

a. 40
b. 160
c. 30
d. 120

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5.24 Referring to the attached curve (Fig. 1), which of the (1.0) following regions on the curve is associated with the heat transfer mechanism known as " transition boiling"?

a. A+B
b. O I c. E
d. C+0

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e. B+C END OF CATEGORY 5 l

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Category 6 Plant Systems Design, Control, ana Instrumentation 6.01 The water level instrument causes several trips to occur (1.0) at the level 8 condition. Explain the cases for the trio of the reactor feedoump. (Note protecting the turoine is not an answer) 6.02 The reactor recirculation system has seals whicn could (2.9) fail. Using figure (1) provided, draw in up arrows or down arrows in the appropriate spaces.

6.03 What signals will start the diesel engines in Division I (2.0) and II? (Four required for full credit) 6.04 What signals will trip the diesel engine in Division three? (3.0)

(Six out of eight required for full credit) 6.05 The recirculation pump system has three cavitation inter- (3.0) locks. What are the interlocks and the reasons for each one? l l

6.06 What group isolations occur on a high drywell pressure (1.5) trip? (Three required for full credit) g 6.07 State two reasons why it is important that jet pump (2.0) integrity be verified.

6.06 The EHC system has two cressure regulators. Explain (2.0) what happens in the system when one of the regulators

} . fails high (assume a gradual failure). (yo ,give a "* * ,)

6.09 Regarding the Control Roa Drives (CRDs) and CRD nydraulics:

3. Why is the nydraulic system Flow Control Valve (1.0) mecnanically blocked from going completely closed during a scram?
b. Why are CRD scram times measured from fully withdrawn (1.0) to notch position 13?
c. What will result when scramming a CRD with the over (1.0) piston flow path isolated (scram discharge valve closed or the area manual valve closed)?

6.10 The SRMs provide rod blocks during plant startup (i.e., (1.5) mode switch in startup). Name three rod block signals.

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5.11 The safety / relief valves nave three(ko of operation. (1.5)

List these three modes of operation. C 6.12 Concerning APRM Gain Adjustment Factor:

a. Of the following APRM GAFs, wnich is the most (0.5) conservative?

APRM GAF 1.00 -

0.98 - 0.99

b. What does an APRM GAF of 1.00 mean? (1.0)
c. What is the APRM GAF limit for Clinton? (1.0)

END OF CATEGORY 6 W

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Category 7 Procedures, Normal, Abnormal, Emergency, and Radiological Control 7.01 What four indications or alarms will tell you that you (2.0) have a loss of feedwater heating?

UL 7.01 While operating at 100% power, an air leak develops in main condenser A. Match the following automatic actions > ~ 4 v *

a. Approximately 21.6" Hg Vac 1. Trip RFPTs (0.5)
b. Approximately 7.6" Hg Vac 2. Close SPVs (0.5)
c. Approximately 19" Hg Vac 3. Trip Main Turbine (0.5)
d. Approximately 13" Hg Vac 4 Close MSIVs (0.5)
8. Which of the following are included in the immediate (1.0) operator actions for a loss of condenser vacuum per the Abnormal Operating Proceaure? (Assume slow loss of vacuum)
a. Initiate power reduction by decreasing recirculation pump flow,
b. Start the mechanical vacuum pump (if not'the source of the air leak).
c. Scram the reactor and following the Reactor Scram Procedure.
d. Verify proper hotwell level.

7.03 Regarding the Residual Heat Removal (RHR) Procedure, CPS No. 3312.01, when coerating in the SHUTDOWN cooling noce:

a. You are cautioned to NOT allow reactor vessel level (0.5) to decrease below 44 inches on the shutdown range.

Why is this level of concern?

b. This progedure also cautions you to avoid opening (0.5) the RHR test return line valve and the minimum flow bypass line valve. Why are these valves to remain closed?

4 L.

m 7.04 In reference to CPS No. 3002.01, HEATUP AND PRESSURIZATION, match the following startup activities with the pressures at which they should be performed. (Only one correct answer for each pressure).

a. Start a turbine-driven 1. 60# (0.5) feed pump
b. Place RCIC in stancby" 2. 100# (0.5)
c. Place turbine sealing 3. 265# (0.5) steam in service
d. Start SJAEs J. 920# (0.5) 7.05 In procedure CPS No. 3107.01 turbine gland seal, a (0.5) caution exists in the steam seal supply which states "Do not apply sealing steam to a stationary turbine.

Choose the best reason for this caution from the following:

3. Prevent overpressurizing the seals
b. Local heating of bearing surfaces and subsequent bearing damage
c. The steam seal evaporator will reach high level and isolate
d. Local heating of rotor surfaces and subsequent rotor bowing 7.06 A reactor water isotopic analysis for iodine is requirec (3.0) when any of three (3) conditions occur. What are the three (3) conditions?

7.07 Define or explain the following:

a. High radiation area (1.0)
b. Effective half-life (1.0)
c. Curie (1.0)
d. REM . (1.0)
7.08 In accordance with emergency procedure 14100.01 (4.0)

Reactor Scram, your first step in immediate operator actions is to verify all appropriate automatic actions occur and manually perform any that do not occur. List l- the five automatic actions that occur.

7.09 What actions are requirec if off gas H concentration (1.0) 2 reaches 1%?

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7.10 The procedure for the operational ALARA Program describes (1.5) l three simple concepts that station personnel snould utilize to minimize their own exposure. What are these concepts?

7.11 Assume.that an SRV has souriously actuated and stuck open.

a. One of the immediate actions listed in CPS No. 4009.01, (1.0)

INADVERTENT OPENING SAFETY / RELIEF VALVES, is to attempt to close the valve. Briefly explain how this is done.

b. What are three (3) methods of determining if the valve (1.5) was successfully closed?
c. If it is determined in cart 3 above that the relief (0.5) valve is still stuck open, what action should be taken?

Be specific.

END OF CATEGORY 7 l

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Category 3 Administrative Procedures, Conoitions ano Limitations 3.01 List the actions that shall be taken in the event of a (2.0)

T/S safety limit violation.

3.02 Fill in the table provided with the minimum plant staff (2.5) organization (licensed operators and others) reouired for l eacn mode of reactor coeration.

3.03 What is required to make a temporary change to a procedure? (1.5) <*

8.04 Concerning Radiation Work Permits (RWP):

a. Whose permission is required to commence work covered (0.5) by a RWP?
b. What information is an individual required to enter (0.5) on the RWP Access Log when entering / exiting the job site?

8.05 List the conditions when the suppression pool is not (2.0) required to be operable under operational condition 5 (per technical specification) 8.06 What are the four safety limits per Technical Specification. (2.0) 3.07 What conditions must be met in order for drywell integrity (1.50) to exist.

3.08 What are six (S) actions that should be taken by the Control (3.0)

Room Operator upon receipt of notification of a fire?

3.09 Arrange the following in the proper sequence of succession (2.5) of station responsibility wnen the Power Plant Manager is not available.

a. Assistant Power Plant Manager-Maintenance
b. Supervisor-Plant Operations
c. Supervisor-Technical
d. Assistant Power Plant Manager-0perations
e. Shif t Supervisor on Duty S.10 a. Under what two (2) circumstances may an individual, (1.0) other than the person to whom a safety tagout was issued, release the tagout?
b. Who is authorized to perform this release? (0.5)
c. Who must sign the release? (0.5)

S.02 Position Condition 1, 2, or 3 Condition 4 or 5 SS _

None R0 2

None 6

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l 3.11 Who nas responsibility for the following steps in the (1.5)

Post-Scram Review process?

a. Data collection
b. Scram investigation (primary and alternate)
c. Restart decision 8.12 What does "At the Controls" mean in reference to the (1.0)

Control Room Operator's responsibility during normal plant operation?

8.13 The reactor at CPS has several power distribution limits.

One of these is Linear Heat Generation Rate.

a. What is the limit for LHGR? (0.5) l b. When does this limit apply? (1.0)
c. What must be done if this limit is exceeded? (1.0)

END OF CATEGORY 8 I

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I)d) =1d P = (r:V)/(3 x 1010) 2 =21d 2 7 -

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t = o tt R/hr = (0.5 CE)/d (meters)

Water Parameters Miscellaneous Conversions 1 gal. = 8.345 lbm. I curie = 3.7 x 1010 aps 1 gal. = 3.78 4iters 1 to = 2.21 lbm 1 ft3 = 7.48 gal. ,

I hp = 2.54 x 103 Stu/nr Density = 62.4 lbm/f t3 I w = 3.41 x ICO Btu /hr Density = 1 gm/cra 3 lin = 2.54 cm Heat of vaporization = 970 Stu/lom *F = 9/5*C + 32 Heat of fus. ion = 144 Stu/lbm ac = 5/9 (=F-32) 1 Atm = 14.7 psi =, 29.9 in. Hg.

MASTER COP _Y U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION 7EACTOR OPERATCR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: Clinton REACTOR TYPE: 3WR - GE-6 DATE ADMINISTERED: April 30, 1985 EXAMINER: E. Plettner APPLICANT:

NSTPUCTIONS TO APPLICANT:

Use separate paper for the answers. Write answers on one side only. Staple

uestion sneet on top of the answer sheets. Points for each cuestion are
noicated in parentheses af ter the cuestion. The passing grade reouires at

' east 707, in each category and a final grade of at least 80%.

" of Category  % of Applicant's Category

'/alue Total Score '/alue Category 25 25 1. Principles of Nuclear Power Plant, Operations, Thermedynamics, Heat Transfer and Flu d Flowd 25 25 2. Plant Cesign, ncluding Safety ana Errergencf Systems

_5 25 _ 3. :nstet.ments v : uontrols 5_ j5_ 1 Preco .ges 'ic em i ,

-M e t o rma f . Ferje'1cf Ind Radiological :cntroi

.C0 100 TOTALS FINAL GRADE i All work 2cr.e on this eram is on my own, : have neither given nor receivec sid.

Applicant's Signature

5 CATEGORY 1 PRINCIPLES OF NUCLEAR POWER PLAN OPERATION, THERMODYNAMICS HEAT TRANSFER AND FLUID FLOW 1.1 Which of the following statements is correct regarding control rod worth? (1,0)

a. It is proportional to reactor pcwer
b. It is proportional to rod speed
c. It is higher in regions of higher relative neutron flux
d. It is lower in regions of higher relative neutron flux.

1.2 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of subcritical mu1tip1ications? (1.0)

a. If the reactor is shutdown long enough, the source range instruments will lose their ability to determine the subcritical multiplication level even though the core may still be at MOL
b. Doubling the indicated count rate by reactivity additions will reduce the margin to critical by approximately one half,
c. For equal reactivity additions, it takes longer for the equilibrium subcritical multiplication level to be reached as X eff approacnes unity,
c. If two notches of rod withdrawal increases the subcritical

,ultiplication t level by 10 CPS, 4 notches of rod withdrawal will increase :ne succritical multiplication level by approximately 20 cps.

1.3 Which of the following statements best describes the behavior of xenon and samarium? (1.0)

a. After a ' reactor scram occurs, xenon concentration initially increases and samarium decreases.
b. After a reactor scram occurs, xenon will eventually decay to a xenon free condition but a samarium free ccnditicn will not occur until after the next refueling cutage.
c. The xenon and samarium peak concentration following a scram occurs at a time independent of the previous power !evel.
d. Xenorr concentrations may increase or decrease when taking the plant from Hot Standby to full power but samarium will always decrease during this transient after the core's equilibrium samarium has been reached.

?

1. 4 Which of the following racioactive isotopes found in the reactor coolant would not inaicate a leak througn the fuel cladding? (1.0)
a. I-131
b. Xe-133
c. Co-60
d. Kr-85
1. 5 A moderator is necessary to slow neutrons down to thermal energies. Which of the following is the most correct reason for operating with thermal instead of fast neutrons. (1.0)
a. Increased neutron efficiency since thermal neutrons are less likely to leak out of the core than fast neutrons.
b. Reactors operating primarily on fast neutrons are inherently unstable and have a higher risk of going prompt critical.
c. The fission cross section of the fuel is much higher for thermal neutrons than for fast neutrons.
d. Doppler and moderator temperature coefficients become positive as neutron energy increases.
1. 6 Which of the following is a true statement concerning radioactive decay? Rememoer the atomic number is the numoer of protons and the mass numoer is t'he numoer of neutrons plus protons. (1.0) -
3. When an element decays by beta emission, the new element
  • Gill have increased in atomic number by one and the mesa .e numoer will remain the same as the original ele ant. '

s

b. When an element decays by alpha emission, the caw miement will have cecreased in atomic numoer ano tass aumoee- by two, from the original element.
c. When an element decays by neutron emission the new element will have increasea in arcaic numoer by one and decreased in mass number by one, from the original element.
d. When an element decays by gamma emission, the new element will br<e increased in atomic number by one and the mass number will remain the same as the original element.

3

[

1. 7 Which of the following statements best describes the condition
  • <nown as " condensate depression"? (1.0)
3. Can lead to condensate cump cavitation if condensate cepression is too great.
b. Decreases as hotwell level rises.
c. Reduces Rankine cycle efficiency.
d. Increases as condensate temperature increases.
1. 8 Which of the following statements most correctly completes the following sentence: Deoarture from nucleate boiling is the point where, (1.0)
a. Void fraction equals one.
o. The heat transfer mechanism changes from nucleate boiling to single phase convection.
c. Radiative heat transfer becomes insignificant,
d. The heat transfer rate sustainable with nucleate boiling reaches its maximum.
1. 9 Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning decay heat? (1.0)
a. Is the heat produced by the energy released from the radioactive decay of fission products.
b. Can be determineo by the reading on the SRM's wnen the reactor is snutdown.
c. Is approximately 6% of the total energy released fecm fission.
d. Is still a significant contributor to the energy in the reactor core for approximately two hours after the reactor has been' shutdown.

l l

r 4

1.10 Referring to the attachea curve (Fig. 1), wnich of the following regions on the curve is associated with the heat transfer mechanism knows as " transition boiling"? (1.0)

a. A: B
b. D
c. E
d. C D
e. B2C 1.11 Which of the following is NOT one of the four contributors or factors that establish equilibrium xenon? (1.0)
a. Direct production from fission
b. Oecay of Iodine
c. Decay _of Xenon to 5m
d. Oecay of Xenon to Cs.

1.12 Figure 1.12 is a representation of how the resonance peaks of U-238 " flatten out" or Doppler broaden as fuel temperature increases. Which of the following are the correct labels for the x and y axes? (1.0)

3. X is neutron flux, Y is interaction rate.
b. .( is neutron energy, Y is microscooic capture cross section.
c. X is atom density of U-238, Y is neutron flux.
d. X is interaction rate, Y is neutron density.

1.13 The ratio of'Pu-239 and Pu-240 atoms to U-235 atoms enanges over core lifb. Which of the pairs of parameters listed below are most affected by this change? (1.0)

a. Moderator temperature coefficient and doppler coefficient.
b. Doppler coefficient and beta.
c. Beta and moderator temperature coefficient.
d. Moderator temperature coefficient and neutron generation time.

5

' ~ ~

1 14 Prior to startup (all rods in) the SRM count rate is 20 CPS and K effective is 0.96. If the control rods are culled to give a delta K of +0.035 wnat count rate on the SRM's could be expected wnen the perioa becomes infinite? (1.0)

a. 40
b. 160
c. 80
d. 120 1.15 Assume the reactor is being started uo from COLD SHUT 00WN and a R00 OROP ACCIDENT occurs. Which of the following statements best describes the way the rapid power rise would be limited. (1.0)
a. The moderator, doppler and void coefficients all act simultaneously.
b. .The moderator temperature coefficient acts first since the temperature rise in the coolant will cause saturation conditions to be reached rapidly.
c. The void coefficient acts secondly, since the saturation

, conditions will cause more voids to form.

5 c. The doppler coefficient acts first due to the large number of neutrons being absorbed in the fuel.

1.16 Following an auto initiation of RCIC at a reactor pressure of 300 psig, reactor cressure decreases to 400 psig. Assume the RCIC is operating as designed, wnich of the following statements best describe the parameter enanges in the RCIC. (1.0)

a. The RCIC flow to the reactor increases RCIC oumo discnarge head remains constant and RCIC turoine speed increases.
b. The RCIC flow to the reactor remains constant, RCIC pumo discharge head decreases and the RCIC turbine speed decreases.
c. The RCIC flow to the reactor remains constant, RCIC pump discharge head remains constant and RCIC turbine speed remains constant.
d. The RCIC flow to the reactor decreases, RCIC pump discharge head increases and the turoine speed remains constant.

- - - , . ,.- , - - - , . - - --,----.,..w ~

. - . - . - - - . , - , - - , - . . , - ~ , . - , - - - - - . , _ , , , - . .

7

1.17 A motor driven centrifugal pump is operating at rated flow.

You start closing down the discharge valve. Which of the following statements cest describes the carameter changes that will occur with this action? (1.0) a '. Flow remains constant, discharge pressure remains constant, motor amos increase. net oositive suction head increases.

b. Flow cecreases, discnarge pressure increases motor amos increase, net positive suction nead increases.
c. Flow decreases discharge pressure increases motor amps decrease, net positive suction neaa decreases.
d. Flow decreases, aischarge pressure increases, motor amps decrease; net positive suction head increases.

1.18 Boiling water reactors are cesigned to have "under moderated cores". Which statement best describes under moderated? (1.0)

a. The ratio of moderator to fuel is such that the temperature and void coefficient will both be the same (both positive or both negative).
b. The ratio of moderator / fuel is such that increasing moderator density increases K eff.
c. The ratio of moderator to fuel is sucn that the amount of under moderation increases during core life.
3. The ratio of fuel to moderator is sucn that increasing moderator censity will decrease ( aff.

1.19 How long does it take to increase power from 2 kw to 1 Mw on a 50 secona cerica? (1.0)

a. 300 sec
o. 345 5ec
c. 310 sec
d. 325 sec 1.20 Which of the thermal limits protects the fuel from clad rupture? (1.0)
a. MAPLHGR
b. MCPR
c. LHGR
d. OBA LOCA 7

1.21 If the recirculation pump speed remains constant, wnicn of the following statements best describe wny core flow will change if power is reduced below 100% by control rod insertion. (1.0)

a. Flow will increase because less 2 phase resistance and lower feedwater temperature.
b. Flow will increase because of higher differential oressure across the core and higher feecwater density,
c. Flow will decrease because the control rods are inserted thus reducing the total flow area.
d. Flow will decrease because more voids are formed thus less volume available for water in the core.

1.22 What reactivity is associated with a 40 second period?

(Assume B is .0075) (1.0)

a. .0013
b. .0015
c. .0014
d. .0016 1.23 An ADS or Safety Relief Valve Leaking alarm is received in the control room. What temperature would you exoect to see on the temperature recorder on H13-P614. (1.0)
3. between 210 and 220 degrees F
b. between 490-500 degrees F
c. between 550-560 aegrees F
d. between 290-300 degrees F 1.24 Which of the following factors will hinder rather than assist natural circulation flow in the reactor vessel. (1.0)
a. Heat source
b. Increasing the coolant temperature
c. Lowering the water level in the down corner.
d. Flow resistance less than natural circulation lead.

3

.s 1.25 A pressure gauge on the auxiliary coiler steam come is reading imoroperly at 400 osig. A newly calibrated thermometer is reading 456'F at the same place. What is the proper reading for the oressure gauge. (1.0)

a. 434 psig
b. 415 psia
c. 385 psig
d. 449 psia END OF CATAGORY 1 i

3

i CATEGORY 2

?LANT DESIGN INCLUDING SAFETY AND EMERGENCY SYSTEMS 2.01 What signals are required to initiate the Automatic Depressurization System? Note five signals are required in one instance and three signals in other instance. (3.0) 2.02 How is the leakage rate minimized in the event of a reactor vessel level instrument sensing line break inside and outside of the Drywell? (2.0) 2.03 What three signals will automatically shift HPCS pump suction from RCIC tank to the suppression pool? (1.5) 2.04 What six signals will automatically start the stanaby gas treatment system. (3.0) 2.05 The turbine is running at 100% steam flow. The operator depresses the pressure setpoint DECREASE button and changes j the pressure set point from 920 psig to 915 psig. What is the l response of the EHC system, and what happens to reactor power?

l Assume MASTER MANUAL control for the Rx Recirculation system. (3.5) 2.06 What are SEVEN loads supplied by the Division I Diesel generator (3.5) 2.07 With regard to the Low Pressure Core Spray (LPCS) System:

a. INDICATE whether the following statements are True or False:
1. When a manual override is performed on a pumo or valve, automatic oump restart or valve coening is disabled

, until the indications are reset. (0.5) l 2. Manually starting the LPCS pump automatically establishes an adequate Stanaby Service Water flow path. (0.5)

b. On an AUTO initiation LIST 4 of the 5 actions that occur j in the LPCS system (1. 0) .

12 L l

2.08 An automatic RCIC initiation has occurred. Subsequently, RCIC injection was automatically terminated due to high reactor water level,

a. What component in the RCIC system functioned to autcmatically terminate the injection (0.5)
b. Assuming no operator action, how will RCIC responc to a subsequent cecreasing water level? (1.0)
c. If a RCIC " Turbine Test" had been in progress when the initial automatic initiation signal had been received, how would the system have rescenced? (1.0)
d. If, following the initiation, the RCIC turbine had tripped on overspeed, could it be reset frcm the Control Room? Explain. (1.0) 2.09 a. With the RHR Loop "A" in the standby service condition what maintains the suction and discharge piping full? (1.0)
6. What three conditions are required for automatic initiation of containment spray? (1.5)
c. Which LPCI Loops are used for containment spray? (1.0)

END OF CATAGORY 2 13

o CATAGORY 3 INSTRUMENTS AND CONTROLS 3.01 What.four signals in the source range monitor will provide rod blocks? (2.0) 3.02 What are the four different modes of operation for the recirculation flow control valves? (2.0) 3.03 a. What two conditions will cause an automatic main turbine runoack? (Include setpoints) (1.0)

b. Two time delay relays are associated with the main turbine runoack. What conditions, if NOT met, will cause these time delay relays to send a trip signal to the turbine? (1.0) 3.04 Answer the following concerning the Residual Heat' Removal system.
a. Which RHR pump (s) can be controlled from the Remote Shutdown Panel? (0.5)
b. State the function of the Pressure Transmitter located in the discharge line on each RHR pump. (1.0)
c. State the interlock associated with the minimum flow

-/alves (1E12-F064A(B] (C]). (1. 5 )

3.05 Assume the FEEDWATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM is being operated in 3-ELEMENT control using reactor LEVEL DETECTOR CHANNEL 'O Reactor co er is at 35%, STEADY STATE. For eacn af tne instrument v control signal failures listed below, STATE HOW REACTOR LEVEL WILL INITIALLY RESPOND (increase, decrease, or remains constant) and BRIEFLY EXPLAIN WHY in terms of WHAT is happening in the Feedwater Control System IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE FAILURE.

(FOR EXAMPLE, your answers should faclude the following detail, "Causes reactor level to decrease due to a steam flow / feed flow error signal, steam flow < feed flow, resulting in a signal to increase the speed of the reactor feedpumps(s)," IF APPLICABLE.)

a. 8 FEE 0 WATER line FLOW signal fails HIGH (1.0)
6. Channel A REACTOR LEVEL detector signal fails LOW (1.0)
c. LOSS OF CONTROL SIGNAL to B Reactor Feed Pump Speed Controller (1.0) 17

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