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March 05000400/2008301 Combined Ro/Sro Written Exam with Kas, Answers, References
	ML081140063
Person / Time
Site:	Harris
Issue date:	03/10/2008
From:	; NRC/RGN-II
To:	; Progress Energy Carolinas
References
	50-400/08-301
	Download: ML081140063 (161)
	v • d • e

Final Submittal

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COMBINED RO/SRO WRITTEN EXAM

WITH KAS, ANSWERS, REFERENCES,

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

1.

Initial conditions:

The plant is at 80% Reactor power and ramping UP at 1/2% per minute.

Tave and Tref are matched.

Rod Control is in AUTOMATIC.

Current conditions:

ONE (1) Control Bank D Rod has just dropped and is stuck at 170 steps.

All Other Control Bank D Rods are currently indicating 206 Steps.

Assuming NO operator action is taken, which ONE of the following describes the

DEMAND for rod motion, and the effect on Axial Flux Difference (AFD) for the channel

NEAREST the control rod problem?

ROD MOTION AFD EFFECT

A. Outward Less Negative

B. Outward More Negative

C. Inward Less Negative

D. Inward More Negative

B is correct. With a dropped/slipped control rod during a power escalation, rate of

change of turbine load vs. reactor power will turn towards the negative, requiring

outward demand. (Turbine load rate of change would remain constant while reactor

power will drop or slow rate of increase) Also, Tave will lower because of the

dropped/slipped rod. Rod slip/drop will cause flux to shift toward the bottom detector

in a power range NI, making AFD go more negative.

A is incorrect because AFD will become more negative. To make positive, rod would

have to be withdrawn or boration would be performed.

C is incorrect because rod motion would be outward, and AFD would be more negative.

o is incorrect because rod motion would be outward.

The KA topic is met because discussion of AFD in one quadrant (1 PRNI detector), and

1 rod dropping is related to QPTR, which is radial imbalance. Though AFD is the term

used, it is used in terms of 1 indicator, not in terms of AFD due to a rod group position.

Thursday, March 20, 20089:27:18 AM 1

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the eROS, including: Radial imbalance

Question Number: 29

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: RODCS

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective: ROD CS-9

Question History: Actual item selected was Byron 2001 but item has also been

used for Wolf Creek 2007 (Bank 41860 selected)

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B DCAB DADC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20,20089:27:18 AM 2

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

2.

Initial Plant Conditions:

The plant is Solid.

Current Plant Conditions:

A controller failure has caused 1CS-38, Letdown Pressure Control valve, to shut.

The crew has just entered AOP-019, Malfunction of RCS Pressure Control.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect of this malfunction on RCS pressure

and the actions required lAW AOP-019 to mitigate this event?

A. RCS Pressure will increase;

Ensure the RCP Seal Water Return valves are open

B. RCS Pressure will increase;

Secure the running CSIP

C. RCS Pressure will decrease;

Ensure the RCP Seal Water Return valves are shut

D. RCS Pressure will decrease;

Increase charging flow to raise ReS pressure

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 3

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ReS; and (b) based on those predictions, use

procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of coolant pressure

Question Number: 30

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 4.2

Technical Reference: AOP-016

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B C BCD D C C B' Scramble Range: A - D

3.

Which ONE of the following describes the Technical Specification basis for the

Pressurizer Code safety valves?

The basis is that the combined relief capacity of all the pressurizer Code safeties is

greater than the maximum surge rate assuming AND _

A. a complete loss of load directly resulting in a reactor trip from the turbine trip;

no operation of the pressurizer PORVs or the steam dumps

B. a complete loss of load with no reactor trip until the second trip setpoint is reached;

no operation of the pressurizer PORVs or the steam dumps

C. a complete loss of load directly resulting in a reactor trip from the turbine trip;

no operation of the pressurizer PORVs, steam dumps operate as designed

D. a complete loss of load with no reactor trip until the second trip setpoint is reached;

no operation of the pressurizer PORVs, steam dumps operate as designed

Thursday, March 20, 20089:27:19 AM 4

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

B is correct. In Modes 1,2, 3, all code safeties must have lift settings of 2485 =/- 1%

The combined relief capacity of all of these valves is greater than the maximum surge

rate resulting from a complete loss-of-Ioad assuming no reactor trip until the second

Reactor Trip System trip setpoint is reached (i.e., no credit is taken for a direct

Beector trip on the loss-of-Ioad) and also assuming no operation of the power-operated

relief valves or steam dump valves.

A is incorrect since no credit is given for the loss of load. But plausible since a reactor

trip signal will be generated and the PORV/steam dump basis is correct.

C is incorrect since no credit is given for the loss of load reactor trip and basis does not

assume that both the PORVs AND the steam dumps fail though plausible since this

would be a more conservative assumption.

D is incorrect since the basis does not assume that both the PORVs and the steam

dumps fail though plausible since this would bee more conservative assumption.

Equipment Control Knovvledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety lirnits,

Question Number: 91

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 4.1

Technical Reference: TS 3.4.2.2 and basis

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: Mod from Harris Bank

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BABDBAACBA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 20089:27:19 AM 5

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

4.

The plant is operating at 100% power when one control rod drops fully into the core

causing Power Range N-41 to read lower than the other power range channels.

Which ONE of the following is the expected QPTR response over the next two to six

hours and why?

A. QPTR will increase due to the buildup of Xenon in the dropped rod's fuel assembly.

B. QPTR will decrease due to the buildup Xenon in the dropped rod's fuel assembly.

C. QPTR will increase due to the change in temperature in the dropped rod's fuel

assembly.

D. QPTR will decrease due to the change in temperature in the dropped rod's fuel

assembly.

A is correct. Dropped rod will see xenon buildup over time, resulting in QPTR being

higher.

B is incorrect because QPTR is higher.

C is incorrect because increased temperature has minimal effect (FTC).

D is incorrect for same reason as C but also because QPTR is higher.

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Dropped Control Rod: Long-range effects of

core quadrant power tilt

Question Number: 57

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference: Dropped rod analysis (Need Ref)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: McGuire 2005

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 345 6 789

Answer: AAADDABACC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 6

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

5.

Given the following:

A plant startup is in progress.

Reactor power is 20%.

"B" Rep trips.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the reactor and "B" loop Tave?

A. Reactor remains at power;

II

Loop "B Tave lowers due to Thot lowering to the value of Tcold.

B. Reactor remains at power;

II

Loop "B" Tave rises due to the decreased flow in the "B loop.

C. Reactor automatically trips;

Loop "B" Tave lowers due to Thot lowering to the value of Tcold.

D. Reactor automatically trips;

Loop "B II Tave rises due to the decreased flow in the IIB II loop.

A is correct. Tave in the loop with the tripped pump will drop due to no heat input, and

reverse flow causing the loop to go to Tcold. In this case, a reactor trip does not occur,

because power is above P-7, although less than P-B.

B is incorrect because Tave lowers. Credible because Tave would rise if natural

circulation was setting up on loss of all RCPs .

C and 0 are incorrect because power is below P-B. Itpower was> P-B, C would be

correct. C uses same reason as correct answer, therefore plausible. 0 is provides

same plausible reason as B, which is an effect that will happen if 3 RCPs trip.

The KA is matched because the test item requires knowledge of the effect of a tripped

RCP on loop temperature, and also tests the reason why that effect exists.

Thursday, March 20,2008 9:27:19 AM 7

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the RCPS: Effects of RCP shutdown on

T-ave., including the reason for the unreliability of T-ave. in the shutdown loop

Question Number: 1

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.1

Technical Reference: RPS text, Also needT&AA for RCP Trip Event (Single Loop loss

of flow)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective: RCS, Obj. 9

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AC CACB ADB D Scramble Range: A - D

6.

Which ONE of the following evolutions, by itself, will RAISE Shutdown Margin?

A. Lowering the setpoint of the Letdown Temperature Control Valve, TCV-144, by 10

OF.

B. Raising the flow setting of the boric acid flow controller by 2 turns during a blended

makeup to the VCT.

C. Raising the setting of the blended makeup flow totalizer by 100 gallons total during

a blended makeup to the VCT.

D. Lowering the setting of the boric acid batch totalizer by 20 gallons total during a

blended makeup to the VCT.

Thursday, March 20, 20089:27:19 AM 8

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

B is correct. SOM is determined by boron concentration and temperature. B will raise

ReS boron concentration by providing a higher rate of boric acid flow to the VeT.

A is incorrect. Increased boron removal in letdown demineralizers reduces boron

concentration, thus reducing SOM.

e is incorrect. This increases the quantity of blended flow at previously selected boron

concentration, thus does not affect SOM.

o is incorrect. This reduces boron addition which reduces boron concentration, thus

reducing SOM.

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the CVCS: Concept of SDM

Question Number: 2

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: CVCS Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BACDAADAAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 20089:27:19 AM 9 .

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

7.

Given the following:

Following a turbine runback, the crew has stabilized the plant.

Control Bank "0" Group Counters are at 180 steps.

11

On ORPI, one Control Bank "0 rod indicates 198 steps; all others indicate 180

steps.

The crew has entered AOP-001 and determined the rod to be immovable and

untrippable.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected alarm for the given plant conditions

and the technical specification implications of this event?

A. ALB-13-6-1, RPI URGENT ALARM;

Verify Shutdown Margin within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months and be in Hot Standby within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

B. ALB-13-8-5, COMPUTER ALARM ROD OEV/SEQ NIS PWR RANGE TILTS;

Verify Shutdown Margin within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months . Power operation may continue provided that

accident analyses are revaluated to be satisfactory.

C. ALB-13-6-1, RPI URGENT ALARM;

Verify Shutdown Margin within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months . Power operation may continue provided that

accident analyses are revaluated to be satisfactory

O. ALB-13-8-5, COMPUTER ALARM ROD OEV/SEQ NIS PWR RANGE TILTS;

Verify Shutdown Margin within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months and be in Hot Standby within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

o correct. This is the alarm expected due to a stuck rod and the actions required by

T.S. 3.1.4 Condition A since the rod has been determined to be immovable and

untrippable.

A Incorrect. The action per Tech Specs is correct, however Rod Position Indication is

not an expected alarm for a stuck rod.

a Incorrect. Alarm is correct. Verifying SDM is correct but power operation is only

allowed to continue if the rod is trippable.

C Incorrect. Plausible since these are the actions required by T.S. 3. 1.4 if the rod were

trippable. Alarm is expected alarm for a rod position indication failure not for an actual

stuck rod.

Thursday, March 20, 20089:27:19 AM 10

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ernerqency Procedures / Plan Ability to verify system alarm setpoints and operate controls identified in the alarm response

manual.

Question Number: 82

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.3

Technical Reference: TS 3.1.3.1

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DAB CADC CAA Scramble Range: A - D

8.

Which ONE of the following sets of parameters and conditions will satisfy the interlocks

to open the Residual Heat Removal Hot Leg Suction valves (1 RH-1, 2, 39, and 40)?

A. RCS temperature is 345 of,

RCS pressure is 365 psig,

RHR discharge to CSIP valves, 1RH-25 and 1RH-63, are shut,

RHR suction from RWST valves, 1RH-322 and 1RH-323, are shut.

B. RCS temperature is 335 of,

RCS pressure 355 psig,

RHR discharge to CSIP valves, 1RH-25 and 1RH-63, are shut,

RHR suction from RWST valves, 1RH-322 and 1RH-323, are shut.

C. RCS temperature is 345 of,

RCS pressure 355 psig,

RHR suction from RWST valves, 1RH-322 and 1RH-323, are shut.

RHR suction from Containment sump valves 1SI-300, 301, 31"0, and 311 are shut.

D. R'HR temperature is 335 of,

RCS pressure is 365 psig,

RHR discharge to CSIP valves, 1RH-25 and 1RH-63, are shut,

RHR suction from Containment sump valves 1SI-300, 301, 310, and 311 are shut.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 11

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Interlocks to Open

To open valves RH-1, 2,39, and 40, the following must be met:

RCS pressure (PT-402, 403) < -363 psig

RHR discharge to CSIP--SHUT

Suction from RWST--SHUT

This item meets the KA because the physical connection (RWST Suction Valves to

RHR) have a cause and effect on the operation of the RHR system. If the RHR suction

valves are not closed, and the RHR Hot Leg suction isolation valves are allowed to

open, cross-connect of RCS and RWST would occur. Therefore, the cause is RWST

suction open, effect is RCS suction interlocked to remain closed.

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the RHRS and the following systems: RWST

Question Number: 3

,Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: RHR Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B B B B B B B B B Items Not Scrambled

Thursday, March 20,20089:27:19 AM 12

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

9.

Given the following:

The plant is in Mode 4.

RHR Train IIA II is in service.

RHR Heat Exchanger Bypass Valve 1RH-20 is in automatic with the output at

40% to maintain 3750 GPM.

RHR Heat Exchanger outlet valve 1RH-30 demand position is set at 30%.

The Instrument Air supply line to RHR Heat Exchanger Outlet Valve

1RH-30 becomes severed and is completely detached.

No other air operated valves are impacted by the failure.

Which ONE of the following describes the RHR system parameter changes from the

initial steady state condition to final steady state condition?

RHR HX Outlet Temp Total RHR flow

A. Higher Lower

B. Higher Higher

c. Lower Higher

D. Lower Lower

0: Correct. RH-30 fails open, so there is less bypass flow mixing with more HX flow,

resulting in a lower temperature on the HX outlet. Total RHR flow will be higher since

RH-30 opening will open 70% increasing flow more than 1RH-20 can compensate.

A: Incorrect. This would be the conditions expected if RH-30 failed shut, but it is a fail

. open valve.

B: Incorrect. Total RHR flow will be higher, but temperature will not increase. Plausible

if candidate doesn't understand that 1RH-20 will shut causing less mixing.

0: Incorrect. Total RHR flow would lower if RH-30 failed shut, but it fails open.

Temperature effect is correct. .

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 13

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the RHRS: RHR heat exchanger

Question Number: 4

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference: RHR text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C CDADDB CAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 14

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

10.

Given the following plant conditions:

A normal plant cooldown is in progress

Both CSIPs are OPERABLE

Which of the following is the plant temperature at which Technical Specifications

require a MAXIMUM of ONE (1) CSIP to be OPERABLE and the basis for this

requirement?

A. 325 of;

Prevents an uncontrolled cooldown due to a mass addition of cold water from the

RWST

B. 325 of;

Provides assurance that a mass addition pressure transient can be relieved by the

operation of a single PORV

C. 350 of;

Prevents an uncontrolled cooldown due to a mass addition of cold water from the

RWST

D. 350 of;

Provides assurance that a mass addition pressure transient can be relieved by the

operation of a single PORV

006 (ECCS) Conduct of Operations: Ability to recognize indications for system operating parameters wluch are entry-level

conditions for technical specifications.

Question Number: 86

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.0

Technical Reference: TS 3.5.1 and basis

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.2

Comments: REPLACE QUESTION

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 234 5 678 9

Answer: BCDABABDAC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 15

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

11.

Given the following:

A reactor trip and safety injection have occurred.

RCS pressure is 1000 psig and lowering.

IIA II CSIP fails to operate.

All other equipment operates as designed.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected MCB Charging Flow indication

(FI-122.1), and the Safety Injection flow indication (FI-943)?

A. MCB Charging flow 0 gpm;

Safety Injection flow is approximately 600 gpm

B. MCB Charging flow 0 gpm;

Safety Injection flow is approximately 450 gpm

C. MCB Charging flow approximately 150 gpm;

Safety Injection flow is approximately 150 gpm

D. MCB Charging flow approximately 150 gpm;

Safety Injection flow is approximately 450 gpm

B is correct. On a SIAS, the charging line valves shut, both CSIPs start, and the BIT

flowpath will open. Because pressure is lowering, CSIP Cold Leg flow will be rising.

A is incorrect but plausible if candidate believes CSIPs deliver constant volumetric flow.

C is incorrect but plausible if candidate doesn't recognize that the charging line

isolations shut automatically on a Safety injection signal and believes the CSIPs deliver

a constant volumetric flow.

o is incorrect but plausible if candidate doesn't recognize that the charging line

isolations shut automatically on a Safety Injections signal. SI flow would rise.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 16

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the EeeS and the following systems: eves

Question Number: 5

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.6

Technical Reference: CVCS Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question. History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B D CDC BCD D C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 17

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

12.

Given the following:

IIA II Train equipment is in service.

A Reactor Trip occurs.

All equipment is operating as designed.

The crew is performing actions of Path-1.

Conditions are as follows:

CH III CH IV

PZR press. 1865 psig 1865 psig 1845 psig NA

CNMT press. 2.9 psig 3.1 psig 3.1 psig 2.9 psig

Which ONE of the following describes the status of the Charging Safety Injection

Pumps?

A. Both CSIPs are running due to SI signal on low PZR pressure.

B. Both CSIPs are running due to SI signal on high Containment pressure.

C. Only IIA II CSIP is running, but IIB" CSIP will be started automatically if the additional

required PZR pressure transmitter reaches the SI actuation setpoint.

D. Only "A II CSIP is running, but IIBII CSIP will be started automatically if if the

additional required CNMT pressure transmitter reaches the SI actuation setpoint.

A is incorrect. Low PZR pressure, 1850 psig on 2 of 3 detectors will initiate SI.

B is correct. CNMT pressure 3 psig on 2 of 4 detectors actuates SI.

C is incorrect. Would be correct if Cnmt pressure had not already actuated SI.

D is incorrect. 2 of 4 already exceed the setpoint.

Thursday, March 20, 20089:27:19 AM 18

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of ECCS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Auto start of HPI/LPI/SIP

Question Number: 6

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.3

Technical Reference: ESFAS Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective: Obj4,8

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B AB B AAB DAC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20,20089:27:19 AM 19

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

13.

Initial Conditions:

With the plant operating at 100 % power and all equipment in its normal

lineup, the RO takes the Reactor Trip switch to the TRIP position.

Current plant conditions are:

Reactor Trip Breaker "A" Red indication exists.

Reactor Trip Breaker "B" Green indication exists.

Reactor Power is 4% and lowering.

Rod bottom lights are lit with the exception of FOUR Control Bank D rods.

Their positions are as follows:

H-8 - 16 steps

K-2 - 220 steps

M-12 - 8 steps

M-8 - 20 steps

Which ONE of the following describes the condition of the reactor, and the action that

will be required?

A. The reactor is tripped;

Perform normal RCS boration for the stuck rods as directed by EPP-004

referencing OP-107, Charging and Volume Control System.

B. The reactor is tripped;

Initiate emergency boration for the stuck rods as directed by EPP-004 referencing

AOP-002, Emergency Boration.

C. The reactor is not tripped;

Manually insert control rods in accordance with FRP-S.1 until all rods are on

bottom.

D. The reactor is not tripped;

Initiate emergency boration for the stuck rods in accordance with FRP-S.1 until

adequate Shutdown Margin is verified.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:19 AM 20

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A. Incorrect. Emergency Boretion will be directed by procedure, not normal boretion.

B. Correct. Power decreasing and 1 RTB open means the reactor is tripped. EPP-004

will direct emergency boration to address stuck rods.

C. Incorrect. Indication is that reactor is tripped. If it was not, this would be correct.

D. Incorrect. Indication is that reactor is tripped. If not, these actions would occur.

Conduct of Operations: Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.

Question Number: 39

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.9

Technical Reference: Path-1, EPP-4

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BADACADDCB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 21

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

14.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100 % power.

A Pressurizer PORV has a slow leak through the seat or disk.

The respective PORV isolation valve cannot be closed.

ALB-009-8-1, PRESSURIZER RELIEF TANK HIGH-LOW LEVEL PRESS OR

TEMP, is actuated.

PRT Level is 730/0.

PRT Temperature is 128 of.

PRT Pressure is 6.3 Psig.

Which ONE of the following parameters is causing the alarm, and which ONE of the

following is the action required to be performed from OP-1 00, Reactor Coolant System,

Section 8, Infrequent Operations?

A. Pressure;

Vent the PRT as necessary to control pressure.

B. Pressure;

Drain the PRT as necessary to control pressure while maintaining level within the

normal band.

C. Temperature;

Recirculate the PRT contents through the RCDT Heat Exchanger to lower

temperature.

D. Temperature;

Drain PRT to the low end of the normal band and then refill with demineralized

water to lower temperature.

A. Plausible if applicant believes this will control PRT pressure with steam leakage present.

B. Plausible if applicant believes PRT pressure is outside the normal band.

C. Correct. Temperature is the only parameter above the alarm setpoint.

D. Plausible since it is a possible means of cooling down the PRT but is not directed by

procedure.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 22

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of PRTS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Quench tank cooling

Question Number: 7

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.6

Technical Reference: ALB-009-8-1, OP-100, Section 8

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CAC B B CAAC B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 23

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

15.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100% power.

A loss of Component Cooling Water has occurred.

The crew is performing actions of AOP-014, Loss of Component Cooling

Water.

3 minutes into the event, the leak is determined to be on CCW loop "A".

"A" Surge Tank level indicates 2%.

"B" Surge Tank level indicates 38% and stable.

The CCW Non-Essential Loop was isolated from "A" Train and is now aligned to

the "B" Train.

Which ONE of the following describes the minimum actions required by AOP-014?

A. Trip the reactor,

Immediately trip RCPs, and enter Path-1.

B. Trip affected CCW pump(s)

Continue attempts to locate the leak in accordance with AOP-014. Mode 1

operations may continue.

C. Trip the reactor,

Enter Path-1 and trip the RCPs within 10 minutes.

D. Trip affected CCW pump(s);

Enter AOP-038 for a rapid shutdown while continuing attempts to locate the leak in

accordance with AOP-014.

008 (CCW) Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CCWS,

and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of

those malfunctions or operations: Loss of CCW Pump

Question Number: 90

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance: SRO 3.6

Comments: This is a new KA replacing former KA 078 A2.01

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 345 678 9

Answer: BADBCACDDC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 24

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

16.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100 % power.

The temperature input to Letdown Heat Exchanger CCW flow control valve

TCV-144, fails low.

Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the plant and the action that is

required by the appropriate Annunciator Panel Procedure (APP)?

A. High CCW flow to Letdown Heat Exchanger;

Place TCV-144 in manual and adjust flow to restore normal cooling.

B. High CCW flow to Letdown Heat Exchanger;

Isolate letdown and place Excess Letdown in service.

C. High temperature letdown diversion to VCT;

Place TCV-144 in manual and adjust flow to restore normal cooling.

D. High temperature letdown diversion to VCT;

Isolate letdown and place Excess Letdown in service.

C is correct. . The input to TGV-144 failing low will cause CCW to throttle flow to the HX

in an attempt to raise temperature. This will cause actual temperature to increase and

an automatic diversion to the VCT will occur to protect the demineralizers. Correct

response is to take manual control of TCV-144 and restore proper cooling flow.

o would only be performed if C did not work correctly.

A & B are incorrect because the input to TCV-144 failing low will cause CCW to reduce

cooling flow to the Letdown HX in an attempt to increase the temperature. High CCW

flow would occur if the input failed high causing CCW to increase its flow to the

Letdown HX.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 25

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CCWS, and (b) based on those predictions, use

procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Effects of shutting (automatically

or otherwise) the isolation valves of the letdown cooler

Question Number: 8

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference: ALB -007-3-2

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C CAB ADCDAB Scramble Range: A - D

17.

Given the following:

A reactor trip has occurred from 100% power.

Pressurizer pressure is 2050 psig and lowering.

Pressurizer level is rising rapidly.

Containment pressure is 1 psig and slowly rising.

Assuming NO operator action, which ONE of the following could have caused the

event in progress?

A. Master Pressure Controller PT-444 output failed LOW

B. Both Pressurizer Spray Valves failed OPEN

C. Master Pressure Controller PT-444 output failed HIGH

D. Small break LOCA on an RCS Hot Leg

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 26

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the interrelations between the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident and the following: Controllers and positioners

Question Number: 40

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C CADB DBDAB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 27

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

18.

Given the following:

A reactor trip has occurred.

Safety Injection is actuated.

All actions required in Path-1 have been taken.

All RCPs are running.

RCS pressure is 1450 psig and stable.

SI flow is 150 GPM.

Containment pressure is 4.5 psig and slowly rising.

SG pressures are 1050 psig and stable.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant condition upon transition from Path-1?

A. RCPs should NOT be tripped.

SGs are required for subsequent RCS heat removal.

B. RCPs should NOT be tripped.

SGs are NOT required for subsequent RCS heat removal.

C. RCPs should be tripped.

SGs are required for subsequent RCS heat removal.

D. RCPs should be tripped.

SGs are NOT required for subsequent RCS heat removal.

A is correct. With RGS pressure higher than SG pressure, a secondary heat sink is required.

RGPs will be running because pressure is not low enough to trip and GS has not occurred.

B is incorrect. SGs are available and required to remove heat from theRGS.

G is incorrect. A SBLOGA is in progress as indicated by RGS pressure being above RHR

Pump shutoff head. SGs would not be required for heat removal if LBLOGA in progress.

RGPsare ON.

D is incorrect. SGs are required.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 28

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the interrelations between the small break LOCA and the following: S/Gs

Question Number: 41

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.0

Technical Reference: Path-1

Proposed references to be provided .to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 .

Answer: A A A ABC D B D D Scramble Range: A - D

19.

Initial Plant Conditions:

The plant was at 100 % power.

Current plant conditions are:

A Loss of Off-site Power occurs.

Bus 1A-SA is locked out.

All other equipment has operated as designed.

Diesel loading sequence is complete.

RCS pressure is 2180 psig.

Assuming NO operator action has been taken, which ONE of the following describes

the status of the PZR Heaters?

A. ALL PZR Backup Heaters are DE-ENERGIZED.

B. Group B is the only PZR heater group ENERGIZED.

C. Group C is the only PZR heater group ENERGIZED.

D. Groups Band C are the only PZR heater groups ENERGIZED.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 29

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A. Correct. After a LOOP, manual action is required to reenergize 1B1 to provide power for

backup heater Group B. C heaters can not be restored until after the non-vital bus is restored.

B. Incorrect, but credible to believe B heaters will be sequenced on during Oieselloading of

1B-SB bus.

C. Incorrect, but credible to believe C heaters will be sequenced during Oieselloading since C

heaters are normally always energized, powered from 102.

O. Incorrect, but credible to believe Band C tieeters will be sequenced during Oieselloading.

KA is matched because the applicant must know that the power to B backup heaters is bus

1B 1, and not bus 1B-S8. They must also know that 1B 1 is manually reenergized after a loss of

off-site power. With RCS pressure below the backup heater setpoint, it is a reasonable

misconception that heaters will be energized if tne power supply is not known.

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Pressurizer Heaters

Question Number: 9

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.0

Technical Reference: PZR Text Page 8

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: Modified from Harris Bank

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: ACDC CDDDC C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 30

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

20.

Which ONE of the following describes the characteristics of a design basis Large Break

LOCA twenty (20) minutes into the event?

A. RCS temperature is at saturation temperature for intact SG pressure;

RCS pressure is stable below normal SI accumulator pressure, but above RHR

pump shutoff head.

B. RCS temperature is at saturation temperature for intact SG pressure;

RCS pressure is stable below RHR Pump shutoff head.

C. RCS temperature is below saturation temperature for intact SG pressure;

RCS pressure is stable below normal SI accumulator pressure, but above RHR

pump shutoff head.

D. RCStemperature is below saturation temperature for intact SG pressure;

RCS pressure is stable below RHR Pump shutoff head.

o is correct. For a LBLOGA classification, RGS pressure will be below RHR pump

shutoff head. Temperature will be below saturation for SGs as they become a heat

source, due to cold SI flow filling the reactor.

A is incorrect but plausible if candidate doesn't recognize RGS temperature will drop

below SG saturation temperature and believes the Gold Leg Accumulators will maintain

pressure above RHR pump shutoff head.

B is incorrect but plausible if candidate doesn't recognize RGS temperature will drop

below SG saturation temperature.

C is incorrect because the SI accumulators will not be able to maintain pressure on a

LBLOGA.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 31

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a Large Break LOCA: RCS temperature and pressure

Question Number: 42

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.2

Technical Reference: Need T &AA for LOCA

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DDBDCABADA Scramble Range: A - D

21.

Given the following:

The unit is at 100% power.

Unit electrical alignment is normal.

Aux Bus 1D deenergizes and is locked out.

Which ONE of the following loads will de-energize and automatically re-energize?

A. IIA II NSW Pump

B. IIB II NSW Pump

C. IIA II CSIP

D. 118 11 CSIP

A incorrect but plausible because service water is required for safe shutdown and NSW

pump "A is a 10 loads, however service water will be supplied by ESW in this

1/

situation.

B incorrect but plausible because "B" NSW pump is a 1E load.

e correct. Bus 10 is the normal supply to 6.9 KV Bus 1A-SA. The charging pump is

de-energized while the EDG comes up to speed and powers the bus. The Charging

pump will be started automatically by the sequencer.

o incorrect but plausible because losing Bus 1E will result in this effect.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 32

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Charging Pumps

Question Number: 31

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.1

Technical Reference: 6.9 KV Text pg 19/20

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective: CVCS Obj 2

Question History:

1 0 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5/7

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 12 34 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CCB BBDB BAA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 33

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

22.

Given the following:

The plant is operating at 100% power

All equipment is operating in normal lineups.

Current conditions:

A loss of DC Bus DP-1A-SA occurs.

Which ONE of the following describes the impact of this failure on the Reactor

Protection System and the actions required?

A. RTB IIA II shunt trip coil will be disabled by the loss of DC bus and directly cause a

reactor trip;

Perform actions of Path-1 in parallel with AOP-025, Loss of One Emergency AC

Bus (6.9kV) Or One Emergency DC Bus (125V)

B. RTB IIA II shunt trip coil will be disabled by the loss of DC Bus but this will NOT

directly result in a reactor trip;

Initiate a manual reactor trip due to the effect on the plant of the loss of DC Power

supply and perform actions of Path-1 in parallel with AOP-025, Loss of One

Emergency AC Bus (6.9kV) Or One Emergency DC Bus (125V)

C. RTB IIA II undervoltaqe coil will lose power due to the loss of DC Bus and directly

cause a reactor trip;

Perform actions of Path-1. Once Path-1 is exited then enter AOP-025, Loss of One

Emergency AC Bus (6.9kV) Or One Emergency DC Bus (125V)

D. RTB IIA II undervoltage coil will lose power due to the loss of DC Bus but this will

NOT directly result in a reactor trip;

Initiate a manual reactor trip due to the effect on the plant of the loss of DC Power

supply and perform actions of Path-1 in parallel with AOP-025, Loss of One

.Emergency AC Bus (6.9kV) Or One Emergency DC Bus (125V)

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 34

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

B is correct. The shunt trip coil in RPS will lose power with the loss of it's power supply

but this will not result in a reactor trip. However, loss of this power supply also results

in the MSIVs going shut which will require a reactor trip, either manually (preferred) or

an automatic trip signal will be generated after approximately 20 seconds due to OT

Delta T (verified on simulator).

A is incorrect because the effect on RPS is incorrect. Plausible because the shunt trip

coil will lose power however this does not result in a reactor trip. If a reactor trip did

occur, then the actions would be correct.

C is incorrect because the effect on RPS of this malfunction is incorrect. The reactor

will not trip, actions are not technically incorrect if a reactor trip did occur however the

preference would be to peform the actions of AOP-025 in parallel.

D is incorrect but plausible since the actions are correct but the effect on RPS is

incorrect.

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following maltunctions or operations on the RPS; and (b) based on those predlctions, use

procedures to correct, control, or mltiqate the consequences of those maltunctlons or operations: Erratic power supply operation

Question Number: 87

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.2

Technical Reference: Path-1, RPS text, AOP-025

Proposed re~erences to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B B B AAAC B B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 35

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

23.

Given the following:

The plant is operating at 300/0 reactor power, steady state.

I&C technicians are preparing to perform a calibration on Power Range Channel

N-41.

One I&C technician mistakenly pulls the control power fuses on N-42.

Realizing his mistake, he reinserts the fuses for N-42 and then pulls the control

power fuses for the correct channel, N-41.

Which ONE of the following describes the status of the reactor after the N-41 fuses

were pulled and which bistable(s) in N-42 would be tripped?

A. The reactor is tripped;

PR Positive Rate Trip and PR Negative Rate Trip.

B. The reactor is tripped;

PR Postive Rate Trip ONLY.

c. The reactor is NOT tripped;

PR Positive Rate Trip and PR Negative Rate Trip.

D. The reactor is NOT tripped;

PR Positive Rate Trip ONLY

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 36

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RPS, including: Bistables

Question Number: 11

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.6

Technical Reference: RPS text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

Editorial Mods throughout distractors

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AAC CAAACDC Scramble Range: A - D

24.

Given the following:

Pressurizer Pressure Protection Channel PT-455 has failed off-scale HIGH.

NO Operator action has been taken.

Which ONE of the following identifies the MINIMUM additional channels required to

meet the ESF and RPS actuation logic to initiate a reactor trip and safety injection on

Pressurizer Pressure?

A. Reactor Trip - 1; Safety Injection - 1

B. Reactor Trip - 1; Safety Injection - 2

C. Reactor Trip - 2; Safety Injection - 1

D. Reactor Trip - 2; Safety Injection - 2

A is incorrect.

B is correct. One more pressurizer channel going high will cause a reactor trip. Two

channels will be required for SI.

C is incorrect.

o is incorrect.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 37

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RPS: Trip logic circuits

Question Number: 10

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.1

Technical Reference: RPS text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B A B B C C BCD C Scramble Range: A - D

25.

Given the following:

A LOCA has occurred.

RCS pressure is 200 psig.

II

IIA Containment Spray Pump is Out of Service.

Containment pressure is 12 psig and slowly increasing.

Train IIB II Phase A has failed to actuate.

Normal Containment Purge was in service at the time of the LOCA.

The Containment Ventilation Isolation Signal (CVIS) fails to actuate.

All other ECCS equipment is running as required.

Assuming no action by the crew, which ONE of the following describes the effect on

the plant?

A. Containment Normal Purge Makeup fans will trip and their associated dampers

SHUT.

B. Offsite dose consequences will exceed the guidelines of 1OCFR1 00.

C. Normal Containment Purge Makeup valves (1 CP-6 and 9) will remain OPEN.

D. Only half of the Containment penetrations required for containment isolation will be

isolated.

A. Incorrect. Cnmt Spray from 1 train will maintain design.

B. Incorrect. 1 valve in each penetration is closed.

C. Correct. Shut by the CVIS signal.

D. Incorrect. Half the valves will be closed, but all the penetrations will still be isolated.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 38

QUESTIONS *REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the ESFAS will have on the following: Containment

Question Number: 12

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.3

Technical Reference: ESFAS text

Proposed References to be provided to applicants during examination - NONE

Learning Objective -

10 CFR Part 55 Content - 41.7

Comments -

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C CDDDDCAB A Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:20 AM 39

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

26.

Given the following:

A reactor startup is in progress in accordance with GP-004, Reactor Startup

(Mode 3 to Mode 2).

The following alarm is received:

ALB-013-3-2, INTERMEDIATE RANGE LOSS OF COMP VOLTAGE

SR Channel N-31 indicates 7X1 03 cps.

SR Channel N-32 indicates 7X1 0 3 cps.

IR Channel N-35 indicates 8.7X1 0- 11 amps.

IR Channel N-36 indicates 7.0X1 0- 10 amps.

Which ONE of the following describes the existing plant condition and the associated

Technical Specification requirements for continued operation?

A. N-35 is undercompensated;

Raising power above P-6 is permitted once OWP-RP, Reactor Protection, is

implemented.

B. N-35 is undercompensated;

Raising power above P-6 is NOT permitted until the channel is restored to

OPERABLE.

C. N-36 is undercompensated;

Raising power above P-6 is permitted once OWP-RP, Reactor Protection, is

implemented.

D. N-36 is undercompensated;

Raising power above P-6 is NOT permitted until the channel is restored to

OPERABLE.

o is correct. N-36 is undercompensated and the correct action per Tech Specs.

A is incorrect, but plausible if candidate believes the lower value is the

undercompensa ted. Action is only correct if power is initially above P-10.

B is incorrect since N-35 is not faulty channel, but action is correct if that were the

undercompensated.

C is incorrect. N-36 is the undercompensated channel, but action is incorrect for power

being less than P-10 initially.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 40

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following manunctlons or operattons on the NiS; and (b based on those predictions, use

procedures to correct, control, or rnltlqate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Faulty or erratic operation of

detectors or compensating components

Question Number: 92

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: ALB-013-3-2, TS 3.3.1

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2,5

Comments:

Maybe add TS basis for SRO

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DBAADDBAAA Scramble Range: A - D

27.

Given the following:

The plant is at 20% power.

Rod Control is in AUTO.

The operating crew is preparing to stop RCP 1C due to rising vibration.

Assuming that reactor power is maintained at 20%, which ONE of the following

describes the expected indications on Loop 1 and Loop 3 flowrates when RCP 1C is

stopped?

Loop 1 Flowrate Loop 3 Flowrate

A. increase to 110 % decreases to 0% and stabilizes

B. increase to 110 % decreases to 0% then increases to 10%

C. increase to 120% decreases to 0% and stabilizes

D. increase to 120% decreases to 0% then increases to 10 %

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 41

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss

of RC Flow): Effects of unbalanced RCS flow on in-core average temperature, core imbalance, and quadrant power tilt

Question Number: 43

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.7

Technical Reference: TS Table 2.2.1, page 2-7, AOP-018, Attachment 7

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B AC C C B DDAC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 42

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

28.

'Given the following:

Plant is operating at 100% power.

Pressurizer level transmitter LI-459A output has failed.

Which ONE of the following describes the Technical Specification actions required, if

any, and the Technical Specification basis for the High Pressurizer Water Level reactor

trip?

A. Enter T.S. 3.3.1, RPS Instrumentation. The inoperable channel must be placed in a

trip condition within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months ;

Provides a backup trip to PZR High Pressure reactor trip and ensures that water

relief through the PZR safety valves will not occur.

B. Enter T.S. 3.3.1, RPS Instrumentation. The inoperable channel must be placed in a

trip condition within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months ;

Provides primary protection for loss of load events and ensures that on a PZR ievel

channel failure, the PZR safety valves will not lift prior to the PZR High Pressure

reactor trip.

C. Action per T.S. 3.3.1, RPS Instrumentation, is NOT required since 2 channels are

still available;

Provides a backup trip to PZR High Pressure reactor trip and ensures that water

relief through the PZR safety valves will not occur.

D. Action per T.S. 3.3.1, RPS Instrumentation, is NOT required since 2 channels are

still available;

Provides primary protection for loss of load events and ensures that on a PZR level

channel failure, the PZR safety valves will not lift prior to the PZR High Pressure

reactor trip.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 43

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A: Correct. PZR High Level Reactor trip is interlocked with P-7 permissive. TS Basis

3.3.1, provides for backup to PZR High Pressure. If a level channel failed, pressure

overshoot from the low rate of charging flow would not cause the safety valves to lift

prior to reactor trip. .

B: Incorrect. PZR High level trip is applicable in Mode 1 above P-7. The trip does not

provide primary protection. It is a backup.

C: Incorrect. PZR High level trip is applicable in Mode 1 above P-7, not for Modes 1

and 2. Correct for reason of backup protection.

0: Incorrect. PZR High level trip is applicable in Mode 1 above P-7. Incorrect for

reason, it is the backup to the primary protection.

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the follovv'ing malfunctions or operations on the NNIS; and (b based on those predictions, use

procedures to correct, control or rrutiqate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Interruption of transmltteo signal

Question Number: 93

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.3

Technical Reference: TS ,3.3.1 basis

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

. Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AC CDADC B DD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 44

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

29.

Given the following:

The plant is at 60% power during a plant startup.

Steam Dumps are in the Tave mode of control.

First Stage Pressure Transmitter PT-446 fails high.

Assuming the reactor remains at power, which ONE of the following describes the

effect on the steam dump system?

A. Steam Dumps will receive an arming signal.

B. Steam Dumps will receive a modulation (open) signal.

C. Steam Dumps will NOT arm if required.

D. Steam Dumps will NOT modulate if required.

A and C are incorrect because PT-447 provides the arming signal.

a is incorrect because a mismatch would develop to cause this if the instrument failed

LOW.

o is correct. PT-446 is required to modulate the steam dumps unless a turbine trip

occurs.

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the NNIS will have on the following: SDS

Question Number: 32

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.0

Technical Reference: . SDS Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 234 5 678 9

Answer: DCCBCCBCBC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 45

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

30.

Given the following:

The crew is performing EPP-004, Reactor Trip Response.

Natural circulation verification is in progress.

Core Exit Thermocouples G2 and K5 have failed due to open circuits.

With these open circuit failures, the input from these thermocouples to the Inadequate

Core Cooling Monitor (ICCM) will be and the subcoolng margin

calculated by ICCM will be _

A. failed low;

higher

B. failed low;

unaffected

C. failed high;

lower

D. failed high;

unaffected

B is correct because a failed low input will not be used on IGGM (Only highest

temperature and lowest pressure).

A is incorrect because IGGM will not use the value.

G and 0 are incorrect because thermocouples fail low on an open, not high.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 46

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following ITM system components: Sensors and detectors

Question Number: 33

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.7

Technical Reference: ICCM Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: Editorial mods 2004 exam

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BDAAACBDBA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 47

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

31.

Initial Conditions:

Containment Cooling is in the Normal Cooling Mode of operation with Train "A"

in service.

Containment temperature has been slowly rising.

Current Conditions:

The crew has placed the Containment Cooling system in Maximum Cooling

Mode per OP-169, Containment Cooling System.

Containment temperature is now lowering.

Which ONE of the following identifies the MINIMUM temperature at which a Technical

Specification action statement must be entered and the expected alignment for the

Containment Cooling System?

BOTH fans in AH-3 and AH-4 in high speed AND ONE (1) fan in AH-1 and AH-2 in

high speed.

B. 118 of

BOTH fans in AH-3 and AH-4 in high speed AND BOTH fans in AH-1 and AH-2 in

high speed.

C. 120 of

BOTH fans in AH-3 and AH-4 in high speed AND ONE (1) fan in AH-1 and AH-2 in

high speed.

D. 120 of

BOTH fans in AH-3 and AH-4 in high speed AND BOTH fans in AH-1 and AH-2 in

high speed.

C is correct. 120 degrees F is the TS limit. 118 is the temperature at which maximum

cooling is placed in service.

Sequence is correct on A and C. Band 0 plausible because the same number of fans

are operating, except that Train A will have 1 additional fan.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 48

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the CCS

controls including: Containment temperature

Question Number: 13

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.6

Technical Reference: CCS text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C CADAB DDC B Scramble Range: A - D

32.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100 % power.

VCT Level Channel LT -112 fails high.

Assuming NO operator action, which ONE of the following describes the function(s)

lost due to this failure?

A. ONLY Divert to RHT will be disabled

B. ONLY Auto Swapover from RWST will be disabled.

C. Auto Swapover from RWST AND Auto Makeup will be disabled.

D. Divert to RHT AND Auto Makeup will be disabled.

B is correct. Requires 2 of 2 to function.

A is incorrect because divert will function with a failure. It must be manually stopped.

C and 0 are incorrect because Auto Makeup is controlled by LT-115.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 49

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls.

Question Number: 44

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.2

Technical Reference: AOP-003, Attachment 1

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

1OCFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B ACAAB AAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 50

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

33.

Initial conditions:

The plant is at 100 % power.

. Train "SI1 Containment Fan Cooling is in service.

Current conditions:

A Safety Injection signal has occurred.

All equipment is operating as designed.

Which ONE of the following describes the operation of Containment Cooling?

One fan in each Fan Cooler Unit is operating in...

A. LOW speed;

Normal Service Water aligned.

S. HIGH speed;

Normal Service Water aligned

C. LOW speed;

Emergency Service Water aligned

D. HIGH speed;

Emergency Service Water aligned

o is correct. One fan in each Fan Cooler Unit will be operating with cooling supplied by

ESW.

A & B are incorrect because though NSW is the normal cooling supply on a loss of

offsite power NSW will deenergize and "the ESW pumps will start and automatically

realign the system to supply cooling.

C is incorrect. On a LOSP all operating fans will trip due to load shed. The sequencers

will then start one fan in each unit in high speed.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 51

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the CCS and the following systems:

SWS/cooling system

Question Number: 14

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3*.5

Technical Reference: CCS Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective: CCS,4.h

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CDDAC B DB CA Scramble Range: A - D

34.

Initial conditions:

"A II Boric Acid pump is under clearance for motor replacement.

Current conditions:

1B-SB Emergency Safety Bus locks out due to an 86UV failure.

The crew is performing an Emergency Boratlonln accordance with AOP-002,

Emergency Boration, due to a secondary load rejection.

The RO performs the required valve alignment to provide a boration source.

Which ONE of the following describes the action and/or verification required.to ensure

that the required boration flow is aChieved?

A. Verify a minimum of 30 GPM on FI-11 0, Emergency Boration flow.

B. Verify a minimum of 30 GPM on FI-113, Boric Acid flow.

C. Adjust FCV-122 as necessary to achieve a minimum of 30 GPM on FI-122.1,

Charging Header flow.

D. Adjust FCV-122 as necessary to achieve a minimum of 90 GPM on FI-122.1,

Charging Header flow.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 52

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

o is correct. Flow from RWST will go through normal charging flowpath, not the

emergency boretion flowpath.

A & B are incorrect because boration flow from the RWST does not go through the

emergency boration flowpath.

C is incorrect because the 30 gpm minimum is only when using the normal borated

water source. When using the RWST, which has a lower boron concentration, a

greater flow rate is required to be equiva.lent.

Knowledge of the interrelations between the Emergency Boration and the following: Controllers and positioners

Question Number: 58

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.6

Technical Reference: AOP-002

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DB AB AAC C B B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 53

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

35.

Given the following:

The plant is in Mode 5.

An RCS leak and loss of RHR occurs..

The crew is performing actions of AOP-020, Loss of RCS Inventory or Residual

Heat Removal While Shutdown.

The crew is aligning to provide RCS Makeup using CSIP flow in accordance with

section 3.6, Establishing SI Following a Major RCS Leak.

Which ONE of the following describes the required actions to provide RCS makeup in

this condition?

A. Start ONE (1) CSIP;

Initiate flow though the BIT

B. Start ONE (1) CSIP;

Initiate flow though the normal charging line

C. Start TWO (2) CSIPs;

Initiate flow though the BIT

D. Start TWO (2) CSIPs;

Initiate flow though the normal charging line

A is correct. Total of 500 GPM through BIT and one CSIP operating.

B is incorrect. Flow is through the BIT, not normal charging.

C is incorrect. Only 1 red light on, the other CSIP would be tagged out for these plant

conditions.

o is incorrect. Only 1 red light on, the other CSIP would be tagged out for these plant

conditions.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 54

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Residual Heat Removal System: HPI pump control

switch, indicators, ammeter running lights, and flow meter

Question Number: 45

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.6

Technical Reference: AOP-020

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: ACDABDBADB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 55

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

36.

Given the following:

The plant is in Mode 4.

RHR Train IIB II has been placed in service.

RCS temperature is stable at 325 of.

RCS pressure is 320 psig and lowering slowly.

Containment sump level is 20 inches and rising slowly.

REM-01 LT-3502A-SA, Cnmt RCS Leak Detection Monitor, is in HIGH alarm.

Pressurizer level is 24% and slowly lowering.

Charging is in MANUAL with flow of 120 gpm.

Which ONE of the following describes the correct procedure to address the event in

progress and the mlttqation actions this procedure will require?

A. AOP-016, Excessive RCS Leakage

Manually align high head SI flow through the BIT

B. AOP-020, Loss of RCS Inventory or Residual Heat Removal While Shutdown

Manually align high head SI flow through the BIT

C. AOP-016, Excessive RCS Leakage

Stop all running RHR pumps and isolate RHR

D. AOP-020, Loss of RCS Inventory or Residual Heat Removal While Shutdown

Stop all running RHR pumps and isolate RHR

o is correct because the plant is in Mode 4 AOP-020 is the correct procedure. For

charging flow greater than 50 gpm it will direct securing all RHR pumps and isolating

RHR immediately.

A is incorrect. Entry conditions for AOP-016 are met, however AOP-016 would direct

operator to go to AOP-020.

B is incorrect. Procedure selection is correct, however manually actuating SI would

incorrect for the given plant conditions, though AOP-020 does have a section for

Establishing SI Flow for a Major RCS leak..

C is incorrect. Entry conditions are met for AOP-016 but this procedure would not

direct isolation of the RHR system.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 56

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the loss of Residual Heat Rernoval System: leakage of reactor

coolant from RHR into dosed cooling water system or into reactor building atmosphere

Question Number: 76

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.8

Technical Reference: AOP-020

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DAAC BAC B B C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 57

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

37.

Initial Conditions:

Surveillance testing is in progress on Containment Spray Train A" .

II

"A" Containment Spray Pump is running.

1CT-24-SA and 1CT-25-SB, Containment Spray Eductor Test Valves, are open

for testing.

1CT-50-SA, Containment Spray Pump 1A-SA Discharge Valve, is closed.

Current conditions:

A LOCA occurs.

RCS pressure is 600 psig.

Containment Pressure is 10.5 psig.

Which ONE of the following correctly lists the position of the Containment Spray

Eductor Test Valves and the 1A-SA Discharge Valve for the current plant conditions?

1CT -24-SA and 1CT -25-SB 1CT-50-SA

A. OPEN OPEN

B. CLOSED OPEN

C. OPEN CLOSED

D. CLOSED CLOSED

o is incorrect. 1CT-24/25 will close on a Phase A if open, but 1CT-50 will open on Hi-3

pressure. Current pressure is above Hi-3 (10 psig)

A is incorrect. Plausible because eductor valve is open to start with, and high

containment pressure will open spray discharge valve, but the Phase A would have

shut the eductor valve.

B is correct. Eductor valve will close, and pressure is high enough for the spray

discharge valve to be open.

C is incorrect. Spray discharge will be open and eductor valve receives a close signal

on Phase A at 3 psig.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:21 AM 58

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CSS, including: Pump starts and correct MOV positioning

Question Number: 15

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.3

Technical Reference: OMM-004 Attachment 4, OST-1118

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective: CSS Text obj 6

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5

Comments:

Modified from previous Harris item

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B B B DAADAA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 59

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

38.

Given the following:

The plant is in Mode 1.

12:00 Containment Spray Pump 1A-SA declared INOPERABLE due to a failed

surveillance.

12:27 Containment Spray Pump 1B-SB also declared INOPERABLE due to the

results of a common cause failure analysis.

14:21 Containment Spray Pump 1A-SA returned to OPERABLE status.

14:40 Containment Spray Pump 1B-SB returned to OPERABLE status.

Which ONE of the following describes the Technical Specification requirements for

operation of the plant?

Actions to initiate a plant shutdown must commence no later than ...

A. 12:27;

The shutdown may be terminated no earlier than 14:21.

B. 12:27;.

The shutdown may be terminated no earlier than 14:40.

C. 13:27;

The shutdown may be terminated no earlier than 14:21.

D. 13:27;.

The shutdown may be terminated no earlier than 14:40.

A. Incorrect. When the LCO action is no longer 3.0.3, actions may be terminated.

B. Incorrect. Credible because the applicant may misunderstand entry and exit to TS

3.0.3.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. Credible because the applicant may misunderstand entry and exit to TS

3.0.3.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 60

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Equipment Control Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

Question Number: 16

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference: TS 3.6.3, TS 3.0.3

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CDCAADADDA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 61

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

39.

Given the following:

A LOCA occurred 45 minutes ago.

The crew is performing actions in accordance with EPP-010, Transfer to Cold

Leg Recirculation.

Swapover to Cold Leg Recirculation is in progress.

The following alarms are received:

ALB-001-2-2, SPRAY PUMP A DISCHARGE LOW PRESS

ALB-001-2-5, SPRAY PUMP A SUCTION LOW PRESS

Both alarms are received and clear intermittently over the course of about 1

minute.

"A" RHR pump amps and discharge pressure are beginning to oscillate.

The USCO determines that Train "A" recirculation sump performance is

degraded.

Which ONE of the following describes the actions performed based on the

determination that the recirculation sump is degraded?

A. Remain in EPP-010;

Stop "A" Containment Spray Pump.

B. Remain in EPP-010;

Throttle CSIP flow to be slightly greater than the minimum flow requirements.

C. Go to EPP-012, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation;

Stop HAil Containment Spray Pump.

D. Go to EPP-012, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation;

.Throttle CSIP flow to be slightly greater than the minimum flow requirements.

A is correct. Procedure selection is correct. Action is correct per APP-ALB-OO1. (Stop

spray)

B is incorrect but plausible since procedure use is correct. Attachment 1 does address

throttling RHR flow to the requirements of EPP-O12 but not SI flow. This is an action

however listed in EPP-012. -

C is incorrect but plausible if candidate believes degraded sump performance is an

entry condition to EPP-012. The action listed is correct per the APP.

o is incorrect but plausible if candidate believes degraded sump performance is an

entry condition to EPP-O12 and the action listed is in EPP-O12.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 62

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Emerqency Procedures j Plan Knowledge of annunciators alarms and indications, and use of the response Instructions.

Question Number: 88

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AB ADC B AB B A Scramble Range: A - D

40.

Given the following:

The plant is operating at 100% power.

A failure of the PT-444 input to PK-444A, Pressurizer Pressure Master

Controller, caused actual pressurizer pressure to decrease to 2190 psig.

PK-444A has been placed in MANUAL.

Which ONE of the following describes the action required to return pressure to 2235

psig?

A. Decrease the controller output.

B. Increase the controller output.

C. Lower the pressure setpoint adjustment.

D. Raise the pressure setpoint adjustment.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 63

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A is correct. Decreasing controller output will energize heaters and raise pressure.

S is incorrect. Increasing controller output will de-energize heaters/open spray valves

lowering pressure.

C & D are incorrect, once in manual adjusting the setpoint will have no effect. Plausible

if applicant believes setpoint is still in the control circuitry while in manual.

Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions: Pressure control

when on a steam bubble

Question Number: 46

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.6

Technical Reference: AOP-019, PPCS Text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AC C C C C CAAB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 64

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

41.

Given the following:

The unit is in Mode 6.

Refueling activities are in progress.

A fuel assembly has been ruptured during removal from the core.

Radiation levels are rising steadily and are currently as follows:

REM-01 LT-3502A-SA, Cnmt RCS Leak Detection Monitor, is in HIGH

ALARM

REM-01 LT-3502B-SB, Cnmt Pre-Entry Purge Monitor, is in HIGH

ALARM

Which ONE of the following describes the system isolation signal(s), if any, that have

been automatically initiated, and action required in accordance with AOP-013, Fuel

Handling Accident?

A. ONLY a Containment Pre-Entry Purge isolation signal has been initiated.

Perform an evacuation from Containment.

B. BOTH Normal Containment Purge AND Containment Pre-Entry Purge isolation

signals have been initiated.

Perform an evacuation from Containment.

C. ONLY a Containment Pre-Entry Purge isolation signal has been initiated.

Dispatch Radiation Protection to determine if Containment Evacuation is required.

D. BOTH Normal Containment Purge AND Containment Pre-Entry Purge isolation

signals have been initiated.

Dispatch Radiation Protection to determine if Containment Evacuation is required ..

A is incorrect but plausible if recognition that 35028 generates an isolation signal.

8 is correct

C is incorrect but plausible if confusing normal and pre-entry.

o is incorrect but plausible if candidate confuses with 3561 monitors which will

generate an isolation signal to both Normal and Pre-entry purge.

Matches KA since knowledge of automatic system response to high radiation levels is

required to monitor rad levels from the MCR.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 65

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Containment evacuation signal

Question Number: 35

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: AOP-013

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective: LPAOP13 Obj 3

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BAB ADB DB CD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 66

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

42.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100% power.

A transient on SG level required a reactor trip, but the reactor did not trip.

The crew is performing FRP-S.1, Response To Nuclear Power Generation /

ATWS.

The crew notes that the Pressurizer pressure is 2350 psig.

Control rods are inserting in AUTO.

All Pressurizer PORV valve position indicating green lights are on and red

lights are off.

Which ONE of the following actions are required in relation to the PZR PORVs?

A. Verify ONLY ONE Pressurizer PORV and Block valve OPEN;

reduce pressure to less than 2135 psig.

B. Verify ALL Pressurizer PORVsand Block valves OPEN;

reduce pressure to less than 2135 psig.

C. Verify ONLY ONE Pressurizer PORV and Block valve OPEN;

reduce pressure to less than 2235 psig.

D. Verify ALL Pressurizer PORVs and Block valves OPEN;

reduce pressure to less than 2235 psig.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 67

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a ATWS: System component valve position indications

Question Number: 47

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference: FRP-S.1 and SD

Proposed references to be provided, to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B AADDCDAA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 68

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

43.

Given the following:

The plant is at 40% power.

Intermediate Range Channel N-35 loses compensating voltage.

I&C is called to investigate.

Prior to any action by I&C, a reactor trip occurs.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected Source Range response in this

condition and why?

A. Source Range Instruments will automatically energize prematurely; they must be

manually de-energized until approximately 5 minutes post-trip to prevent darnaqeto

the detectors.

B. Source Range Instruments will automatically energize prematurely; they must be

manually de-energized until approximately 15 minutes post-trip to prevent damage

to the detectors.

C. Source Range Instruments will not automatically energize when required; they must

be manually energized approximately 5 minutes post-trip to prevent a loss of

reactor power indication.

D. Source Range Instruments will not automatically energize when required; they must

be manually energized approximately 15 minutes post-trip to prevent a loss of

reactor power indication.

o is correct. Loss of compensation is under compensated, which means that IR power

will read higher than actual. SR energization requires 2 of 2 IR detectors < P-6.

Assuming -1/3 DPM SUR, -15 minutes post trip is when the Source Range is required.

A & B are incorrect, but plausible if candidate incorrectly believes loss of compensating

voltage will make IR power read lower than actual.

C is incorrect, but plausible if candidate assumes the standard 1 DPM from procedures

to travel the required five decades.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 69

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC 'EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Intermediate Range Nuclear Instrumentation:

Guidance contained in EOP for loss of intermediate- range instrumentation

Question Number: 59

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.6

Technical Reference: NIS text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3*4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DDABAABACA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 70

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

44.

Initial plant conditions:

The plant is in Mode 6 with Refueling in progress.

Current plant conditions are:

Fuel movement has stopped due to a problem with the Manipulator.

The Main Control Room has been informed that initial troubleshooting is in

progress on the Manipulator.

The troubleshooting team desires to operate TS-5, the TROLLEY INTERLOCK

BYPASS switch to permit forward and reverse motion of the trolley without the

gripper tube at its top limit.

Which ONE of the following describes the permission and concurrence, if any, required

for this action?

A. The SRO-Fuel Handling must approve. No concurrence is required.

B. The SRO-Fuel Handling must approve with the concurrence of the SSO.

C. The SSO must approve with concurrence of the Manager - Mechanical

Maintenance.

D. The SSO must approve. No concurrence is required.

B is correct, FHP-020, P&L.

A. is incorrect. SRG-Fuel Handling can give permission, but for bypassing interlocks

the SSG must concur.

C is incorrect. The SSG only needs to concur with bypassing the interlock and the

Manager - Mechanical Maintenance is only required to be involved if troubleshooting

involved a fuel storage rack, not the Manipulator (P&L 6).

o is incorrect. Concurrence is required from SSG per FHP-020, not approval.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 71

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of system status criteria which require the notification of plant personnel.

Question Number: 36

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference: AOP-013

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

Really supposed to be Fuel Handling Equipment, is there any notification related to that

system?

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B DAB C DAB C B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 72

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

45.

Given the following:

Refueling is in progress.

A spent fuel assembly is being moved in the Fuel Handling Building (FHB) when

it's damaged by contacting a wall of the pool.

Spent Fuel Pool area radiation monitor RM-1 FR-3566A-SA is in HIGH alarm.

Spent Fuel Pool area radiation monitor RM-1 FR-3567B-SB is in ALERT.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the plant?

A. ONLY "A" train of Fuel Handling Building Ventilation Emergency Exhaust has

received an automatic start signal.

B. BOTH "A" and "B" trains of Fuel Handling Building Ventilation Emergency Exhaust

have received automatic start signals.

C. NEITHER train of Fuel Handling Building Ventilation Emergency Exhaust has

received an automatic start signal, and manual start is NOT required.

D. NEITHER train of Fuel Handling Building Ventilation Emergency Exhaust has

received an automatic start signal, but manual start is required by AOP-013, Fuel

Handling Accident.

A is correct. Anyone of a train's ARMs in HIGH alarm in the FHB will start 1 train of

FHB emergency exhaust.

B is incorrect, but plausible if the candidate believes that an ARM in ALERT will cause

a start of FHB emergency exhaust.

C & 0 are incorrect because an automatic start signal has been generated by the ARM

in HIGH alarm, but plausible if candidate believes there is any coincidence

requirements for generating this automatic signal.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 73

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ablllty.to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Fuel Handling Incidents: ARM system indications

Question Number: 60

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.2

Technical Reference: AOP-013, FHV text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: A A C C C C B C C A Scramble Range: A - D

46.

Given the following:

A Steam Generator Tube Rupture has occurred.

Off-Site power has been lost.

Both DG's are operating as required.

Pressurizer level indicates 10% and lowering slowly.

All plant equipment has responded as expected for the plant conditions.

Which ONE of the following describes a plant concern during the performance of

Path-2 for these conditions?

A. Voiding in the inactive regions of the RCS during the rapid RCS cooldown to target

temperature.

B. Loss of RCS subcooling during depressurization using main or auxiliary spray.

C. Voiding in the inactive regions of the RCS during depressurization using a PZR

PORV.

D. Loss of RCS subcooling due to the time required to cooldown to target temperature

with condenser steam dumps unavailable.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 74

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 -. NRC EXAM REV FINAL

C is correct. Loss of power, no RCPs, depressurization must be performed with

PORVs.

A is incorrect because initial cooldown is performed at higher pressure prior to RCS

reaching saturation.

B is incorrect because main spray will not be available with a LOOP, aux spary

unavailable due to isolation of letdown on low pressurizer level.

o is incorrect because cooldown to target is performed quickly, even if using PORVs.

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the SGTR: Natural Circulation

Question Number: 48

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.9

Technical Reference: Path-2 and SD

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CAC C CAAABD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 75

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

47.

Given the following:

A SGTR is in progress on "A" S/G.

All MSIVs failed to close.

All required actions of Path-2 have been completed

A transition has been made to EPP-020, SGTR WITH LOSS OF REACTOR

COOLANT: SUBCOOLED RECOVERY.

Containment sump levels are normal for the current plant conditions.

Which ONE of the following conditions would require consulting plant operations staff

to determine if recovery should be completed using EPP-021 , SGTR WITH LOSS OF

REACTOR COOLANT: SATURATED RECOVERY?

A. RWST level of 70%

C. RWST level of 20%

D. RCS Pressure of 360 psig

A is incorrect. RWST level is a parameter checked during Step 18, Monitoring the

Subcooled Recovery, but 75% would have to be accompanied by SG level >95% and

is not in and of itself enough merit consulting on EPP-021 entry.

B is correct. See step 18 d.

C is incorrect. Plausible if candidate recognizes that RWST level is a parameter

believes the concern is low RWST level. With RWST level less than 70 then

containment sump levels are checked. Depending on sump level then entry is either

made into EPP-021 or it's not required by RWST level and sump level.

D is incorrect but plausible since pressure >363 does require consult with operations

staff but with regard to placing RHR in service, not EPP-021 implementation.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 76

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of system status criteria vl/hich require the notification of plant personnel.

Question Number: 78

Tier: . 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.3

Reference(s) - AOP-016

Proposed References to be provided to applicants during examination - AOP-016,

Attachment 1

Learning Objective - LPAOP3-16, Obj 4

Question Source - Modified

Question History - AOP-3.16-3001

Question Cognitive Level - Higher

10 CFR Part 55 Content - 43(b).2, 5

Comments -

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BCD A ABC A C C Scramble Range: A - D

48.

Given the following:

A reactor trip has occurred from 100% power.

All systems functioned as designed.

Which ONE of the following describes the position of valves associated with the Main

Turbine?

A. Throttle Valves - CLOSED

Intercept Valves - CLOSED

ReheatStop Valves - OPEN

B. Governor Valves - OPEN

Intercept Valves - OPEN

Reheat Stop Valves - CLOSED

C. Throttle Valves - CLOSED

Intercept Valves - CLOSED

Reheat Stop Valves - CLOSED

D. Governor Valves - OPEN

Intercept Valves - CLOSED

Reheat Stop Valves - CLOSED

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 77

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

C is correct. Reactor trip from 100% power will cause a turbine trip. Throttle, reheat

stop, governor, and reheat intercept valves ALL receive close signals on turbine trip.

B is incorrect. A reactor trip will result in a turbine trip signal which will send a close

signal to the Reheat Stop Valves. This would be correct for an overspeed condition on

the turbine.

A is incorrect. A reactor trip will result in a turbine trip signal which will send a close

signal to the Intercept valves. Plausible if applicant confuses this with an overspeed

trip which does shut only shut two pairs of valves.

o is incorrect. A reactor trip will result in the governor valves going closed. Plausible if

candidate confuses with some Westinghouse designs that leave the governor valves in

the as-is position on a trip.

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Main steam supply. valves

Question Number: 17

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.9-

Technical Reference: MT text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C B C C A A B A A A Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:-22 AM 78

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

49.

Initial conditions:

Reactor power was at 100%.

Main Steam flow indications were rising on all 3 SGs.

Reactor power rose to 103%.

The reactor was manually tripped.

Safety Injection was manually actuated.

Main Steam Isolation was manually actuated.

Current conditions:

RCS pressure is 1700 psig and stable.

IIA II and IIB II SG pressures are 800 psig and stable.

IICII SG pressure is 50 psig and slowly lowering.

Core Exit temperature is 440 degrees F and rising.

Pressurizer level is 12% and rising.

SG IIAII and IIB II NR levels are 35% and rising.

Containment pressure is 0.3 psig and stable

The USCO has just completed the steps in EPP-014, Faulted Steam Generator

Isolation, for isolating the "CII Steam Generator.

Which ONE of the following describes current status of SI Termination criteria and

which procedure will be used to address SI Termination?

A. Conditions are met to terminate SI;

SI will be terminated in EPP-014

B. Conditions are met to terminate SI;

SI will be terminated once a transition is made to EPP-008, SI Termination

C. Conditions are NOT met to terminate SI;

SI will be terminated in EPP-014 once conditions are met

D. Conditions are NOT met to terminate SI;

SI will be terminated in EPP-008,. SI Termination, once conditions are met

C is correct. "C" SG completely depressurized would require transition to EPP-014

A is incorrect. PZR level is not high enough to terminate SI.

B is incorrect. Conditions are not met to terminate SI.

D is incorrect. Plant conditions require entry into EPP-O14

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:22 AM 79

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determine and interpret the tollowinq as they apply to the Stearn Line Rupture: When ESFAS systems may be secured

Question Number: 79

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.5

Technical Reference: Path-1, EPP-8

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: A DAD D B C B B C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 80

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - N"RG EXAM REV FINAL

50.

Given the following:

A Steam Line break has occurred on "G" SG.

The crew has performed actions contained in EPP-014, Faulted SG isolation.

SG IIG" pressure is 50 psig.

SG "G" WR level is off-scale low.

SG IIA" and 118" NR levels are being controlled at 25%.

SG IIA II and 118" pressures are approximately 900 psig and stable.

Which ONE of the following describes the action required lAW EPP-014, and the

reason for this action?

A. Isolate AFW flow to SG "C":

Minimize ReS cooldown and the mass and energy release from the steam line

break

ll

B. Isolate AFW flow to SG "e ;

Failure of components in "G" SG may occur due to thermal shock

G. Initiate AFW flow to SG "G" at the MINIMUM verifiable rate;

Feeding the "C" SG is required for cooldown, but high AFW flow rates may cause

an excessive ReS cooldown requiring an undesired transition out of EPP-014

D. Initiate AFW flow to SG "C" at the MINIMUM verifiable rate;

Feeding the "C" SG is required for cooldown, but high AFW flow rates may cause

failure of SGle" components due to thermal shock "

B is correct. Feeding a" dry SG is not permitted unless it is needed for cooldown. In

this situation, IIA II and IIB II steam generators are available.

A is incorrect. Plausible since excessive cooldown rates could occur, however a

transition back to EPP-014 would be incorrect for the conditions given.

C and 0 are incorrect since initiating flow to a faulted SG, even at a minimum rate, is

only permitted if the other SGs are unavailable and it is needed for the cooldown.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 81

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL,

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Steam Line Rupture: Effects of feedwater

introduction on dry S/G

Question Number: 49

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference: Needed

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AD C C DAB B B D Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 82

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

51.

Initial Plant Conditions:

The plant is at 100% power.

Current Plant Conditions:

A spurious turbine trip occurs.

The C-8 interlock fails to operate.

All other plant equipments responds as expected.

Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Steam Dump Control

System (SDCS) and the overall effect on the RCS temperature?

A. SDCS will control temperature using the Turbine Trip Controller;

RCS temperature will be controlled at normal no-load temperature.

B. SDCS will control temperature using the Load Rejection Controller;

RCS temperature will be controlled at normal no-load temperature.

C. SDCS will control temperature using the Turbine Trip Controller;

RCS temperature will be controlled at approximately 3 degrees above normal

no-load temperature.

D. SDCS will control temperature using the Load Rejection Controller;

RCS temperature will be controlled at approximately 3 degrees above normal

no-load temperature.

A. Incorrect. Reactor temp rises and power lowers.

B. Correct. Reactor temp rises, power lowers and the dump valves will close.

C. Incorrect. Raising the pressure setpoint will cause less steam flow since the dumps

will close which will heatup the RCS.

D. Incorrect. The dump valves will close, causing temperature to rise.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 83

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the SOS and the following systems: ReS

Question Number: 34

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: SDS text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DDACBAABAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 84

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

52.

Given the following:

The Reactor is critical at the POAH.

The crew is preparing to perform a turbine startup lAW GP-005, Power

Operation.

II

Which ONE of the following describes the expected rod height for Control Bank "D

rods lAW GP-005 and the basis for this band?

A. Between 95 and 115 steps;

Helps ensure IR trip and rod stop bistable setpoints are not reached before they

can be blocked

B. Between 130 and 150 steps;

Helps ensure IR trip and rod stop bistable setpoints are not reached before they

can be blocked

C. Greater than 95 steps;

Minimum height required to remain above Rod Insertion Limit

D. Greater than 130 steps;

Minimum height required to remain above Rod Insertion Limit

A is correct. GP-005, note prior to step 43.

B incorrect, plausible because a prerequisite does discuss 130 steps as a target value,

however this the target value for 25% power in response to SOER 96-02 (Prereq 10).

Reason is correct.

C incorrect because this is not the reason why rods are left in this band

o incorrect because plausible because a prerequisite does discuss 130 steps as a

target value, however this the target value for 25% power in response to SOER 96-02

(Prereq 10)

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 85

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the MT/G System: Relationship between rod

control and ReS boron concentration during T/G load increases

Question Number: 37

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.7

Technical Reference: GP-005

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: ACAADDAB B B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 86

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

53.

Initial Conditions:

The plant is at 100% power.

Testing is in progress on the AFW system.

The "A" MDAFW pump is running with the MDAFW FCVs 20% open.

Current Conditions:

A trip of both MFW pumps occurs.

The lowest SG levels during the transient were:

SG "A" = 18%

II

SG "B = 24%

SG "CII = 28%

Assuming NO operator actions have occured, which ONE of the following describes the

current status of the MDAFW Flow Control Valves (FCVs) and TDAFW pump for this

event?

MDAFW FCVs TDAFW Pump

A. 20% Open Running

B. 20% Open Secured

C. Full Open Running

D. Full Open Secured

A incorrect. Plausible if candidate believes that the MDAFWand TDAFW FCVs

operate the same and remain in throttled position on an autostart.

B incorrect. Plausible if candidate believes TDAFW start is at 20% SG level vice 25%.

C is correct. MDAFW valves will stroke full open and TDAFW will autostart.

o is incorrect. MDAFW valve response is correct but TDAFW will have started on low

SG levels.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 87

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW): Proper operation of AFW

pumps and regulating valves

Question Number: 50

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.2

Technical Reference: AFW text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CADDDACAB B Scramble Range: A - D

54.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100% power.

An Extreme HI-HI level is received in Feedwater Heater 1A.

Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the unit and the action, if any, that

is required in accordance with OP-136, Feedwater Heaters?

A. ONLY Feedwater Heaters 1A and 2A are bypassed;

Reduce Turbine Load to less than 70%.

B. ONLY Feedwater Heater 1A and 2A are bypassed;

Ensure reactor power less than 100%, NO additional power restrictions are required

C. Feedwater Heaters 1A, 2A, 1B, and 2B are bypassed;

Reduce Turbine Load to less than 70%.

D. Feedwater Heaters 1A, 2A, 1B, and 2B are bypassed;

Ensure reactor power less than 100%, NO additional power restrictions are required

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 88

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

o is correct. Bypass will be for both FWH 1A and 2A (1GE-330) as well as 1B and 2B.

With both LP FWH strings bypassed, power must be reduced to 70%.

A & B are incorrect but plausible if candidate believes an Extreme Hi-HI level signal will

affect only FWHs 1A.

G is incorrect but plausible if candidate doesn't recognize that Tave will decrease.

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Condensate System; and (b) based on those

predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those mal-functions or operations: Opening of the

heater string bypass valve

Question Number: 38

Tier: 2

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.8

Technical Reference: OP-136, FWH text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

Make sure I got this right, I could not tell whether the A side or A and B side will be bypassed

on a high level in only 1 side

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C A A A B D D B D C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 89

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

55.

Given the following:

The plant was operating at 980/0 power when a loss of off-site power occurred.

Twenty minutes later, the following plant conditions exist:

RCS pressure is 2235 psig and stable.

RCS Loop THOT is 596°F in all 3 loops and lowering.

RCS Loop TCOLD is 552°F in all 3 loops and lowering.

Core exit TCs indicate approximately 600°F and lowering slowly.

Steam Generator pressures are approximately 1048 psig and stable,

Which ONE of the following describes the current plant conditions?

(Steam Tables are provided.)

A. Natural Circulation does not exist.

Heat removal must be established by opening the condenser steam dumps.

B. Natural Circulation exists.

Heat removal is being maintained by condenser steam dumps.

C. Natural Circulation does not exist.

Heat removal must be established by opening the SG PORVs.

D. Natural Circulation exists.

Heat removal is being maintained by SG PORVs.

A. Incorrect. Condenser steam dumps are not available because off-site power is lost

and Circ Water is unavailable.

B. Incorrect. Condenser steam dumps are not available.

C. Incorrect. With SG pressure stable just above PORV setpoint and temperatures

stable or lowering, heat remove! is occurring.

D. Correct. PORVs are open, and Natural Circulation is establishing.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 90

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of operator responsibilities during all modes of plant operation.

Question Number: 51

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.0

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: D D C BCD C C C C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 91

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

56.

Given the following plant conditions:

The plant is in Mode 1.

ALB-15-2-2, PIC 1-2-3-4-9-10-13-14 POWER FAILURE, alarms

ALB-15-1-4, 60 KVA UPS TROUBLE, remains clear

ALB-15-1-5, 7.5 KVA UPS TROUBLE, remains clear

ALB-15-1-3, PROTECTION SYS AlB TROUBLE alarms

Most lights in the bottom row of Trip Status Light Boxes are energized

Which ONE of the following correctly identifies the effect on the plant and the Technical

Specification implications for this event?

A. Power has been lost to all IIB II Train SSPS Slave and Master relays

Enter Technical Specification 3.0.3 immediately

B. Ability to place AFW Isolation bistables in a tripped condition is lost

Enter Technical Specification 3.0.3 immediately

C. Power has been lost to all IIB II Train SSPS Slave and Master relays

Enter Technical Specification 3.0.3 after 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months

D. Ability to place AFW Isolation bistables in a tripped condition is lost

Enter Technical Specification 3.0.3 after 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 92

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

057 of Vital i\C Instrument Bus) (;2.1.7: Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational

~ll<in~"t"''3..~t(* based on operating reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

Question Number: 77

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.4

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2,5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DCDDAB AB AD Scramble Range: A - D

57.

Given the following:

The plant is in Mode 3.

A loss of DC Bus DP-1 B-SB has occurred.

The crew is performing actions of AOP-025, Loss of One Emergency AC Bus

(6.9 kV) or ONE Emergency DC Bus (125V)

Which ONE of the following describes the reason for ensuring that letdown orifice

valves are shut in accordance with AOP-025?

A. Prevent water hammer or flashing in the letdown line.

B. Prevent RCS leakage in excess of Technical Specification limits.

C. Minimize reduction in PZR level with loss of charging flow.

D. Prevent damage to the Regenerative Heat Exchanger.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 93

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

B is correct. CS-11 will go shut however none of the upstream valves will. This will

cause the letdown relief to lift resulting in RCS leakage in excess of tech spec limits.

A is incorrect. Plausible since this is a concern if the pressure control valve fails open

causing letdown pressure to drop and flashing in the letdown stream to occur.

C is incorrect. Plausible since this is the reason letdown is isolated during the

immediate actions of AOP-018.

o is incorrect. Plausible since letdown would be isolated to prevent flashing in the

regenerative heat exchanger, but this would occur due to a loss of cooling to the

letdown stream.

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of DC Power: Actions contained in EOP for loss of

dc power

Question Number: 52

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.0

Technical Reference: AOP-025 Basis

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BDACADCDAB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 94

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

58.

For the Steam Generator Water Level Control System (SGWLCS), which ONE of the

following describes this 'system's normal operation and program level input?

A. SGWLCS is a level dominant system that ultimately adjusts Feed Reg valve

position by level error.

Program level is variable based on input from Turbine First Stage pressure.

B. SGWLCS is a level dominant system that ultimately adjusts Feed Reg valve

position by level error.

Program level is constant at 57% NR.

C. SGWLCS is a flow dominant system that ultimately adjusts Feed Reg valve position

by mismatch in steam flow vs. feed flow.

Program level is variable based on input from Turbine First Stage pressure.

D. SGWLCS is a flow dominant system that ultimately adjusts Feed Reg valve position

by mismatch in steam flow vs. feed flow.

Program level is constant at 57% NR.

B is correct. Level dominant system. Level error could be provided by program from

FSTP but is zeroed out.

A is incorrect. Program level input does not come from Turbine First Stage Pressure.

C is incorrect. This describes a flow dominant system with it's input from TurotneFirst

Stage Pressure.

D is incorrect. Program level input is correct, but the description is of a flow dominant

system instead of a level dominant system.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 95

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the MFW, including: Programmed levels of the S/G

Question Number: 18

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.9

Technical Reference: SGWLC T~xt, pg 15

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B A C C D B eBB C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 96

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

59.

Given the following:

The plant is at 1000/0 power.

The following alarm has just been received:

ALB-04-2-2, REFUELING WATER STORAGE LOW LEVEL

All other MCR alarms are clear

The crew enters AOP-008, Accidental Release of Liquid Waste

Which ONE of the following describes the setpoint for the alarm received, and the

action required in accordance with AOP-008?

Immediately begin refilling the RWST to above the alarm setpoint

Stop all additions to the RWST

Ensure RHR and Containment Spray Pumps are de-energized

D. 23.4%.

Ensure CSIP suctions are isolated from the RWST

A is incorrect. Setpoint is correct, but action is incorrect. Plausible since RWST is a

Tech Spec criterion, however refilling RWST is not permitted in this situation.

B is correct.

C & 0 are incorrect. Setpoint is for LOW-LOW level, vice the LOW level.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 97

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Emergency Procedures / Plan Ability to verify system alarm setpoints and operate controls identified in the alarm response

manual.

Question Number: 61

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.3

Technical Reference: AOP-005, AOP-008

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.13

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: BACCACDDAC Scramble Range: A - D

60.

Which ONE of the following instruments failures will cause actual feedwater flow to the

affected SG to INITIALLY lower? (Assume selected)

A. SG level fails low

B. Feedwater flow fails low

C. Steam pressure fails high

D. Steam flow fails low

o is correct because if steam flow fails low, feed flow will indicate high. Therefore,

Feed flow must be reduced by the FRV closing.

A is incorrect, SG level failing low will cause an increased level error, drive FRVs open,

and raise level.

a is incorrect, FW flow failing low will can increased flow error, drive FRVs open

initially, and increase SG level.

C is incorrect, Steam pressure failing high will cause calculated steam flow to increase.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 98

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAcL

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the MFW will have on the following: S/GS

Question Number: 19

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: SGWLC text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

This was written new but called a bank item because I am sure we have something similar, but

did not find in our bank

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: D D A A A B DBA C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:23 AM 99

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

61.

Given the following:

A Gaseous Waste release of Gas Decay Tank C is in progress.

An ALERT alarm is received on REM-3546, WPB Stack 5 PIG monitor.

Activity level is stable just above the ALERT setpoint.

Which ONE of the following describes the action required in accordance with

OP-120.07?

A. The release MUST be stopped; release may continue under the same release

permit after REM-3546 is determined to be operable and curie content of the

release is determined to be within limits.

B. The release MUST be stopped; a new release permit must be generated prior to

resuming the decay tank release.

C. The release may continue; if activity level approaches or exceeds the HIGH alarm

setpoint, stop the release; release may continue under the same release permit

after REM-3546 is determined to be operable and curie content of the release is

determined to be within limits.

D. The release may continue; if activity level approaches or exceeds the HIGH alarm

setpoint, stop the release; a new release permit must be generated prior to

resuming the decay tank release.

o is correct. ALERT does not require stopping release. HIGH requires stopping.

OP-120.07 and AOP-005 provide guidance.

A and B are incorrect. The release is not required to be stopped for an ALERT, only for

a HIGH.

C is incorrect. The release may continue, but the procedure specifically calls for a new

release permit if the release is stopped in this situation.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 100

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Ability to explain and apply all system limits and precautions.

Question Number: 62

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference: OP-120.07, AOP-005

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DDDDAABACA Scramble Range: A - D

62.

Given the following:

The plant is operating at 50% power.

The Turbine Driven AFW pump was taken OOS 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months ago for bearing

replacement.

Both Motor Driven AFW pump motors have been determined to be

INOPERABLE due to a common cause failure analysis.

Which ONE of the following actions is required?

A. Immediately initiate action to restore one AFW train to operable status; power

operation is currently allowed with all three AFW Pumps Inoperable.

B. Restore at least 2 AFW Pumps to service within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months , or be in Hot Standby within

the following 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

C. Restore at least 1 AFW Pump to service within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months , or be in Hot Standby within

the following 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

D. Immediately enter the action of TS 3.0.3 and be in at least HOT STANDBY within 7

hours from the time it was determined that no AFW pumps were operable.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 101

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A is correct.

B is incorrect. 2 pumps not required to avoid a shutdown. Applicant may also confuse

pumps versus trains or flowpaths required for AFW system.

C is incorrect. No shutdown required if no AFW pumps available because there would

be no source of feed during SO.

o is incorrect. 3.0.3 conditions would be met for most systems, but not in this case.

Equipment Control Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

Question Number: 20

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference: TS 3.7.1.2

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.2

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: ACDBADDACA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 102

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

63.

Given the following:

The plant is in mode 3

RCS heatup is in progress

As AFW flow to the steam generators is increased, what will happen to the initial heat

transfer rate between RCS and the steam generators and why?

The heat transfer rate will...

A. increase;

because the cooler AFW water will increase the delta T between the RCS and the

steam generators.

B. decrease;

because the cooler AFW water will decrease the delta T between the RCS and the

steam generators.

C. increase;

because increasing SG level causes SG pressure and saturation temperature to

increase.

D. decrease;

because increasing SG level causes SG pressure and saturation temperature to

decrease.

q=mc(Delta T)

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 103

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the AFW: Relationship between AFW flow and

ReS heat transfer

Question Number: 21

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.6

Technical Reference: GFES Heat Transfer, ran on simulator to verify.

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: Vogtle - Written by NRC

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AD B C C D D B B B Scramble Range: A - D

64.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100% power.

Recovery from a Loss of Instrument Bus 1DP-1A-S1 is in progress.

The crew has de-energized the associated Process Instrumentation Cabinet

(PIC) in preparation for energizing Instrument Bus 1DP-1A-S1.

The crew is evaluating bistable status prior to energizing the bus.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason for checking bistable status?

A. When the Instrument bus is energized with the PIC deenergized, a reactor trip may

occur due to Ide-energize to actuate' bistables becoming actuated. Checking other

bistables ensures a Reactor Trip will not occur.

B. When the PIC is energized after the Instrument Bus is energized, 'enerqize to

actuate' bistables may experience a momentary inadvertent trip. Checking other

bistables ensures an ESF actuation will not occur.

C. Bistables are checked to ensure that each parameter for Process or Protection

goes to its required state when the Instrument Bus and PIC are energized.

D. Bistables are checked to ensure that all lights are out, verifying that the PIC normal

and alternate supply breakers are open prior to reenergizing the Instrument Bus.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 104

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

B is correct, directly from procedure, check bistables to ensure inadvertent actuation

does not occur.

A is incorrect because the concern is energize to actuate bistables. Deenergize to

actuate bistables would have caused a trip already.

C is incorrect. Bistables are checked for required state, but not prior to energizing a

PIC.

D is incorrect. Bistables are checked by looking at the lights but this does not verify the

alternate supply breakers are open. This is done by checking the breakers prior to

reenergizing the Instrument Bus.

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating theac

distribution system controls including: Effect on instrumentation and controls of switching power supplies

Question Number: 22

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.5

Reference(s) - OP--156.02

Proposed References to be provided to applicants during examination - None

Learning Objective - LPAOP3-24 Obj 4c

Question History - Harris 2005

10 CFR Part 55 Content - 41(b).10

Comments -

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2,3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B DDDAB B DAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 105

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

65.

Initial Plant Conditions:

II

Yesterday, a loss of ESW Header IIA occurred due to a failure shaft shear of the

IIA" ESW Pump.

The crew completed AOP-022, Attachment 1, Equipment Alignment Due to Loss

of an ESW Header.

The crew implemented OWP-SW, Operations Work Procedure Service Water,

due to the extended loss of the IIAII ESW header.

Current Plant Conditions:

A loss of off-site power occurs coincident with a safety injection

actuation.

Which ONE of the following describes the alignment of ESW loads for the current plant

condition?

A. IIAII EDG will NOT automatically start because implementation of OWP-SW places

the diesel in MAINTENANCE MODE.

B. IIAII EDG will automatically start, but must be manually tripped because it will have

no ESW flow.

C. IIAII EDG will NOT automatically start because implementation ot OWP-SW will

have barred the diesel.

D. IIAII EDG will automatically start, but operators must realign NSW to the ESW

header.

A is correct. With loss of offsite power, NSW will no longer be supplying the IIA II ESW

header and AOP-022, Attachment 1 and OWP-SW would be implemented for a loss of

an ESW pump and both would place the respective EDG in Maintenance Mode. In

Maintenance Mode, ALL automatic starts of the EDG are disabled.

8 is incorrect but plausible if candidate does not recognize that auto starts of the EDG

will be disabled for these conditions.

C is incorrect but plausible if candidate recognizes that the EDG will be disabled but

doesn't recognize that LOSP disables NSW (normal supply) and that 118 11 ESW header,

while available, does not cross-connect to supply the IIA II EDG.

o is incorrect. The EDG auto starts will be disabled and there will be no ESW flow to

the EDG.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 106

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water The automatic actions

(alignments) within the nuclear service water resulting from the actuation of the ESFAS

Question Number: 53

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.6

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: A C B A C B D B B C SCrambleRange: A - D

66.

Given the following:

The plant is in Mode 3.

AFW Pump 1A-SA is operating to provide secondary inventory.

DC Bus DP-1A-SA becomes de-energized.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the operating AFW pump?

A. MCR control switch indication is extinguished.

Pump remains running.

MCR breaker control is lost

B. MCR control switch indication is extinguished.

Pump remains running.

MCR breaker control is available

C. MCR control switch indication is available.

Pump trips.

MCR breaker control is lost

D. MCR control switch indication is available.

Pump trips.

MCR breaker control is available

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 107

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A is correct. Loss of DC Bus DP-1A-SA means control power lost to operating AFW

pump. Switch indication and MCR control is lost, but pump remains running.

B is incorrect. MCR breaker control will NOT be available since DP-1A-SA supplies

control power to the "A AFW pump. II

C is incorrect. The AFW pump will not trip and the lights will not be available. Breaker

control will be lost.

o is incorrect. The AFW pump will not trip, the lights will not be available, and breaker

control will not be available.

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the dc electrical system will have on the following: Components using dc

control power

Question Number: 23

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: DC Text, AFW text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: ACAB AB DADD Scramble Range: A - D

67.

Which ONE of the following describes the MAXIMUM continuous rating of the

Emergency Diesel Generators?

A. 6500 KW at a power factor of 0.8 leading

B. 6500 KW at a power factor of 0.8 lagging

C. 7150 KW at a power factor of 0.8 leading

D. 7150 KW at a power factor of 0.8 lagging

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 108

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 -. NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Incorrect. Lagging power factor (VARS out/overexcited)

Correct.

Incorrect. Represents maximum 2 hour2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months overload rating

Incorrect. Represents maximum 2 hour2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months overload rating.

Lower cog requires memorization of 2 facts; discriminates between continuous and 2

hour rating, and between leading and lagging PF

Knowledge of ED/G system design feature(s) and/or inter-Iock(s) which provide for the following: Overload ratings

Question Number: 24

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.1

Technical Reference: DE text, OP-155

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B ACDCAC B C B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 109

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

68.

Given the following:

The MCR has been evacuated and the crew has entered AOP-004, Remote

Shutdown.

The ACP is manned and operational.

Which ONE of the following describes how power will be monitored by the Wide Range

Neutron Flux Monitoring (WRFM) system after leaving the MCR, and what is the

MINIMUM Emergency Classification for this event?

A. Neutron flux will be determined using two redundant WRFM (NI-60A2, NI-60B2)

that will both indicate across the Source and Intermediate Range.

Alert.

B. Neutron flux will be determined initially using one WRFM (NI-60B2). Once it is

off-scale low then the second WRFM (NI-60A2) is used to determine Source Range

flux;

Site Area Emergency.

C. Neutron flux will be determined using two redundant WRFM (NI-60A2, NI-60B2)

that will both indicate across the Source and Intermediate Range.

Site Area Emergency.

D. Neutron flux will be determined initially using one WRFM (NI-60B2). Once it is

off-scale low then the second WRFM (NI-60A2) is used to determine Source Range

flux;

Alert.

o is correct.

A is incorrect. Plausible if candidate knows there are only two WRFM indications

available at the ACP and believes that we would not have only one indication of reactor

power with no redundancy. Classification is correct.

B is incorrect. Method for monitoring power at ACP is correct but classification is

incorrect.

C is incorrect. Plausible if candidate knows there are only two WRFM indications

available at the ACP and believes that we would not have. only one indication of reactor

power with no redundancy. Classification is incorrect.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 110

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Control Roorn Evacuation: Source range count rate

Question Number: 83

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 4.4

Technical Reference: AOP-004

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DDBDADB C C B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 111

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

69.

Given the following:

The unit is in Mode 4.

Maintenance reports that the inner door on the Containment Emergency Airlock

will not seal properly after leaving Containment.

The crew has declared the inner door INOPERABLE and closed the outer door.

Which ONE of the following describes the status of CONTAINMENT INTEGRITY, per

Technical Specification Definitions, and the required Technical Specification action?

A. Containment Integrity IS met;

Immediately verify the outer door closed

B. Containment Integrity IS NOT met;

Immediately verify the outer door closed

C. Containment Integrity IS met;

Verify the outer door closed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

D. Containment Integrity IS NOT met;

Verify the outer door closed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

B. is correct. T.S. 3.6.1.3 requires the outer door verified closed in one hour for these

conditions.

A is incorrect because the requirement is 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months , not immediately. The actions are

consistent with standard TS action times

C is incorrect because this action would only be required if more than one door was

inoperable.

o is incorrect because mode 5 does not have to be achieved in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months . Mode 5 would

be required within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months , but only if the outer door could not be verified closed.

All of the options are plausible because they relate to the correct airlock door and T.S.

actions from LCO 3.6.1.3 are used..

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 112

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the interrelations between the Loss of Containment Integrity and the following: Personnel access hatch and

emergency access hatch

Question Number: 63

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.8

Technical Reference: T8 3.6.1.3

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective: Cont Text Obj 10, 11

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.2

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CBDDBDCCDA Scramble Range: A - D

70.

Which ONE of the following would be used to change the alarm setpoints from the

Main Control Room of a safety related radiation monitor?

A. RM-11

B. RM-23

C. RM-23P

D. RM-80

A is incorrect. The RM-11 provides only monitoring capability for safety related radiation

monitors.

B is correct.

C is incorrect. The RM-23P portable suitcase would be used to modify alarm setpoints locally.

o is incorrect. The RM-BO provides indications for its safety related monitor but does not allow

user to change alarm setpoints.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 113

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room Radiation monitoring system control panel

Question Number: 25

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.7

Technical Reference: RMS Student Text (pgs. 1,2), OP-118, pg. 33

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.11

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B DDADC C C C C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 114

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HA,RRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

71.

Given the following plant conditions:

The plant is at 100% power

A loss of power to Safety Bus 1B-SB occurs

The IIB II EDG fails to start

Which one of the following describes the effect on the plant and the Technical

Specification (T.S.) requirements that apply?

A. Will generate a Containment Ventilation Isolation Signal;

ONLY IIB II Train containment vacuum breaker is INOPERABLE, enter T.S. 3.6.5,

Containment Vacuum Relief, restore in 72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months or be in at least HOT STANDBY

within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

B. Will NOT generate a Containment Ventilation Isolation Signal;

ONLY IIB II Train containment vacuum breaker is INOPERABLE, enter T.S. 3.6.5,

Containment Vacuum Relief, restore in 72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months or be in at least HOT STANDBY

within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

C. Will generate a Containment Ventilation Isolation Signal;

Enter T.S. 3.0.3 due to inoperability of both containment vacuum breakers

D. Will NOT generate a Containment Ventilation Isolation Signal;

Enter T.S. 3.0.3 due to inoperability of both containment vacuum breakers

A is incorrect. A CVIS will be generated due to the loss of power to rad monitors

3561 Band 35910, however this will inop 80TH trains of containment vacuum

breakers. T.S. 3.6.5 is applicable however "A" train does not remain operable.

Plausible if candidate believes loss of "B" bus will not affect "A" train T.S. equipment.

B is incorrect. A CVIS will be generated and this will inop both trains of containment

vacuum breakers. Plausible if candidate believes that "B" train containment vacuum

breaker is inoperable only because of the loss of power and fails to recognize the effect

that loss of "B safety bus will have on Rad monitors 35618 and 3561 D.

C is correct. De-energizing "B" Safety Bus generates a CVIS due to loss of power to

3561 Band 3561 D. This will make both containment vacuum breakers inoperable.

o is incorrect. The T.S. call is correct, but a CVIS is generated in this situation due to

the loss of power to rad monitors 3561 Band 3561 D.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 115

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Ability to explain and apply an system limits and precautions.

Question Number: 89

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.8

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C CDB CDCADD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 116

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

72.

Given the following:

The crew entered FRP-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling, with the

following conditions present:

Loss of Offsite has occurred

Core Exit temperature is 737 degrees F

RCS pressure is 1650 psig

RVLIS is 36%

Which ONE of the following describes the condition of the RCS and the actions

required in response to this condition?

A. Saturated, heat transfer is degraded;

Establish an RCS Vent path to lower pressure and temperature

B. Saturated, heat transfer is in jeopardy;

Reinitiate High Pressure Safety Injection to restore core cooling

C. Superheated, heat transfer is degraded;

Establish an RCS Vent path to lower pressure and temperature

D. Superheated, heat transfer is in jeopardy;

Reinitiate High Pressure Safety Injection to restore core cooling

o is correct. The RCS is superheated for the conditions given. Correct action is to

re-initiate SI

A & B are incorrect, the RCS is not saturated for the conditions given. Plausible if

applicant incorrectly uses steam tables when making conversion from psia to psig.

C is incorrect. RCS is superheated, however establishing a vent path is an action for

FRP-P.1, end FRP-C.3 (Response to Saturated Core Cooling) specifically addresses

isolating any open RCS Vent path.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 117

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Inadequate Core Cooling: Definition of

superheated steam

Question Number: 64

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.0

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DDAADAB B DB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 118

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

73.

Given the following:

The plant is- operating at 55% power.

The following annunciator is received in the Control Room:

APP-ALB-002-7-2, SERV WTR PUMPS DISCHARGE LOW PRESS

The RO notes that Cooling Tower Basin Level is decreasing rapidly.

Service Water header pressure is 45 psig and lowering.

One minute later, Service Water header pressure is 25 psig and continues to

lower.

CTMU cannot maintain Cooling Tower Basin level.

The crew enters AOP-022, loss of Service Water and completes the immediate

actions.

APP-ALB-002-7-2 is still in and the Cooling Tower Basin Level continues to

decrease rapidly.

RAB Operator reports that a large volume of water is gushing from overhead

piping in the vicinity of 1SW-276, Headers A & B Return To Normal SW Header

valve. The area is inaccessible.

All automatic plant systems have functioned as designed.

Which ONE of the following describes the location of the leak, and the action required?

A. Unisolable leak located in the Normal Service Water System;

Trip the reactor and go to PATH-1.

B. Unisolable leak located in the Emergency Service Water System;

Trip the reactor and go to PATH-1.

C. Isolable leak located in the Normal Service Water System;

Ensure NSW is properly aligned to equipment listed in AOP-022, Attachment 1.

D. Isolable leak located in the Emergency Service Water System;

Ensure ESW is properly aligned to equipment listed in AOP-022, Attachment 1.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:24 AM 119

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A Correct. Based on SW pressure indications, ESW should have automatically started

and isolated ESW from NSW. Cooling Tower level continuing to decrease therefore

indicates a leak on NSW. The report from the field indicates that the leak is

nonisolable. Because suction cannot be maintained, and power is >P-10, the reactor

will be tripped.

B Incorrect. The actions are correct but location is incorrect. Plausible if candidate fails

to recognize that ESW would have automatically initiated and isolated from NSW in

response to the lowering NSW pressure.

C Incorrect. Plausible since action is correct for an isolable leak, but based on field

report of the leak location the leak is not isolable.

o Incorrect. Would be correct if the leak were isolable and on ESW.

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the SWS; and (b) based on those predictions, use

procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of SWS

Question Number: 26

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.5

Reference(s) - AOP-022, section 3.2 APP-ALB-002-7-2

Proposed References to be provided to applicants during examination - None

Learning Objective -

10 CFR Part 55 Content - 41.10

Comments -

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: A C A A C B B D C B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 120

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

74.

Which ONE of the following describes the operation of Service Air Header Isolation

Valve, 1SA-506?

A. Closes automatically when Instrument Air header pressure decreases below 75

psig;

Automatically reopens when pressure increases above 79 psig.

B. Closes automatically when Instrument Air header pressure decreases below 75

psig;

Must be manually reopened when pressure increases above 79 psig.

C. Closes automatically when Instrument Air header pressure decreases below 90

psig;

Automatically reopens when pressure increases above 94 psig.

D. Closes automatically when Instrument Air header pressure decreases below 90

psig;

Must be manually reopened when pressure increases above 94 psig.

A is incorrect. Plausible if candidate confuses the alarm setpoint with the automatic

isolation setpoint, however valve does automatically reopen at 4 psig above the close

setpoint.

B is incorrect. Plausible if candidate confuses the alarm setpoint and the auto isolation

setpoint. Valve will automatically reopen.

C is correct. Validated on CWDs and simulator.

o is incorrect. Setpoint is correct, however the valve will automatically reopen.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 121

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls.

Question Number: 27

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.3

Technical Reference: ISA text

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 .5

Comments:

Have written similar style, but this item examines where pressure is sensed

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CDC A A A CAB C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 122

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

75.

Given the following:

The plant is at 100% power.

An inadvertent Containment Spray actuation has occurred on Train IIA II.

Train IIA II Containment Spray has been secured.

Containment pressure indicates (-)2.4 inches H20.

Which ONE of the following describes how Containment pressure will be restored to

within limits?

A. Containment Vacuum Relief system will operate to restore containment pressure to

-1.5 inches H20. No other actions are required.

B. Containment Vacuum Relief system will operate to restore containment pressure to

-1 .5 inches H20. Containment purge operation is then required to restore to -1.0

inches H20.

C. Containment Vacuum Relief system will operate to restore containment pressure to

-1.0 inches H20. No other actions are required.

D. Containment Vacuum Relief system will operate to restore containment pressure to

-1.0 inches H20. Containment purge operation is then required to restore to -0.5

inches H20.

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the

containment system controls including: Containment pressure, temperature, and humidity

Question Number: 28

Tier: 2

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.7

Technical Reference: CVS Text pg 18

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0123456789

Answer: BCADABBCCC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 123

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

76.

Initial Conditions:

The plant was at 100% power.

Automatic Safety Injection occurs.

The crew enters Path-1

Current Plant Conditions:

Pressurizer level 15% and slowly lowering

RCS pressure 1400 psig and slowly lowering

RAB radiation levels are slowly rising

RAB Sump levels are slowly rising

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the correct action to be taken?

A. Transition out of Path-1 to EPP-013, LOCA Outside of Containment, and isolate the

Low Head Safety Injection system.

B. Transition out of Path-1 to EP,P-013, LOCA Outside of Containment, and isolate the

High Head Safety Injection system.

C. Remain in Path-1 and then cooldown and depressurize lAW EPP-009, Post-LOCA

Cooldown and Depressurization.

D. Remain in Path-1 and then establish cold leg recirculation lAW EPP-010, Cold Leg

Recirculation.

E04 (lOCA Outside Containment) EA i ,3 Desired operating results during abnormal and enlergency situations,

Question Number: 80

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.0

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: New

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments: This is a new KA to replace former KA E04 G2.1.33

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 124

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: A B B A A DAD D A Scramble Range: A - D

77.

The plant is at 100 % power.

The operating crew has entered EPP-013, LQCA Outside Containment due to MCB

indications.

Which ONE of the following describes the leak location that would be isolated first in

accordance with EPP-013, LOCA Outside Containment, and the method for

confirmation of leak isolation?

A. Excess Letdown Heat Exchanger;

PZR level rising.

B. Excess Letdown Heat Exchanger;

RCS pressure rising.

C. RH~ Heat Exchanger;

PZR level rising.

D. RHR Heat Exchanger;

RCS pressure rising

Knowledge of the interrelations between the (LOCA Outside Containment) and the following: Facility's heat removal systems,

including primary coolant, emergency coolant, the decay heat removal systems, and relations between the proper operation of

these systems to the operation of the facility.

Question Number: 54

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.8

Technical Reference: EPP-013 step 6/7

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:' None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10

Comments:

This was modified editorially, correct answer is different than what is in the bank, but the

conditions of the question were not changed

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 125

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: D B BCD C CAB D Scramble Range: A - D

78.

Given the following:

The reactor was tripped on simultaneous loss of the Main Feedwater Pumps.

All AFW was subsequently lost.

ReS Bleed and Feed is in progress in accordance with FRP-H.1, RESPONSE

TO LOSS OF SECONDARY HEAT SINK.

Core Exit Thermocouples have stabilized at an average of 595 of.

Main Feedwater Pump "A" has been started.

Containment pressure is 1.0 psig and stable.

Which ONE of the following describes the method and rate of establishing feedwater

flow?

A. Feed one Steam Generator at the MINIMUM controllable rate until a SG WIDE

range level is >15% using the respective Feedwater Control Bypass Valve.

B. Feed one Steam Generator at the MAXIMUM rate until a SG NARROW range level

is >25% using the respective Feedwater Control Bypass Valve.

C. Feed all Steam Generators at the MINIMUM controllable rate until a SG WIDE

range level is >15% using the Feedwater Control Valves.

D. Feed all Steam Generators at the MAXIMUM rate until a SG NARROW range level

is >25% using the Feedwater Control Valves.

A. Correct. This is the process when ICT's are stable.

B. Plausible since this is correct for ICT's rising.

C. Plausible since this is correct except for "all Steam Generators" and feedwater

control valves.

D. Plausible since this is correct for ICT's rising except for "all Steam Generators" and

feedwater control valves.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 126

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determ ine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Loss of Secondary Heat Sink) Adherence to appropriate

procedures and operation within the limitations in the facility's license and amendments.

Question Number: 55

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.7

Technical Reference: FRP-H.1, Attachment 1

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.1 0

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: ABAADDCDB C Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 127

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

79.

Given the following:

A LOCA has occurred on IIB II Cold Leg.

ECCS has NOT functioned as required.

All RCP's are TRIPPED.

CET's indicate 756°F.

RVLIS Full Range is 49%.

Containment pressure is 6 psig and rising slowly.

All SG pressures are at 1050 psig.

Which ONE of the following procedures will the crew implement for these conditions,

and what actions will be taken to mitigate this event?

A. Enter FRP-C.1, Response To Inadequate Core Cooling;

Depressurize all intact SGs to 80 psig by dumping steam at maximum rate.

B. Enter FRP-C.2, Response To Degraded Core Cooling; .

Depressurize all intact SGs to 80 psig by dumping steam at maximum rate.

C. Enter FRP-C.1, Response To Inadequate Core Cooling;

Depressurize all intact SGs to 80 psig by dumping steam not to exceed a 100°F/hr

cooldown rate.

D. Enter FRP-C.2, Response To Degraded Core Cooling;

Depressurize all intact SGs to 80 psig by dumping steam not to exceed a 100°F/hr

cooldown rate.

A. lncorrect. CETs > 730°F and no RCPs running and RVLIS full range <39% then C.1

is the correct procedure entry. C. 1 will direct depressurization at maximum rate.

B. Incorrect. C.2 is correct based on RVLIS level. Action is incorrect for the conditions

given, but would be appropriate in C. 1..

C. Incorrect. This is incorrect procedure entry but the action is correct.

D. Correct.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 128

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Conduct of Operations: Knowledge of operator responsibilities during all IIIodes of plant operation.

Question Number: 84

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 4.0

Technical Reference: FRP-C.2, CSFST Flowchart

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: BVPS-1 2002 selected, also on BVPS-1 2007. Parameters

modified for plant differences

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DDCDAC C B DC Scramble Range: A - D

80.

Given the following:

A reactor trip and loss of off-site power have occurred.

The crew is performing a cooldown using EPP-007, Natural Circulation With

Steam Void in Vessel (Without RVLIS).

Off-Site power has been restored.

Preparations are being made to start an RCP.

Which ONE of the following describes the minimum PZR level required for RCP restart

in accordance with EPP-007, and the reason for the level?

A. 25% to ensure minimum inventory for adequate pressure control.

B. 65% to ensure minimum inventory for adequate pressure control.

C. 25% to ensure adequate volume for collapsing the void

. D. 65% to ensure adequate volume for collapsing the void

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 129

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

o is correct. 65% will accommodate collapsing the void when the RCP is started

A is incorrect but plausible since 10% is the level at which EPP-007 would direct

initiation of Safety Injection.

B is incorrect but plausible since 25% is the minimum level required by EPP-007 to

accommodate void growth (step 3.c.)

C is incorrect but plausible since 35% is the top of the range EPP-007 requires to

accommodate void growth (step 3.c.)

Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (Natural Circulation with Steam Void in Vessel with/without

RVLIS) Desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations. .

Question Number: 65

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference: EPP-007, Step 1

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10

Comments:

Thought we had similar in Bank, could not locate

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: D C B C A C B CAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 130

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

81.

Given the following:

A reactor trip has occurred due to a loss of offsite power.

The operating crew is performing actions of EPP-005, Natural Circulation

Cooldown.

"A" Train RVLIS is out of service.

The crew has commenced RCS cooldown and depressurization.

RCS pressure is 1780 psig and trending DOWN.

RCS Tave is 448 of and trending DOWN.

All SG pressures are at 960 psig and trending DOWN slowly.

Pressurizer level is 35% and trending UP slowly.

Plant management determines that RCS cooldown rate MUST be performed at

approximately 60 °F/hr due to secondary inventory concerns.

Which ONE of the following actions will be required in accordance with EPP-005?

. A. Remain in EPP-005 and continue cooldown and depressurization.

B. Actuate safety injection and go to Path-1, entry point A.

C. Transition to EPP-006, Natural Circulation Cooldown With Steam Void In Vessel

(With RVLIS).

D. Remain in EPP-005, stop depressurization and re-establish required subcooling .

C is correct. Since RCS cooldown must be performed at a rate greater than 50 °F/hr,

transition to EPP-006 is required.

A Incorrect. EPP-005 does not permit cooldown at the rate required.

B Incorrect. ReS pressure is at the point where an SI would normally be required, the

SI actuation criteria in EPP-005 is pressurizer level and subcooling, which are not met.

D Incorrect. Would be correct if RVLIS were unavailable, but RVLIS is available (Train

/lB").

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 131

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Natural Circulation with Stearn Void in Vessel with/without

RVLIS) Facllity conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations,

Question Number: 85

Tier: 1

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.9

Technical Reference: EPP-005

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: 2005 Harris NRC Exam

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: CDC C C CDAB D Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 132

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

82.

Initial Conditions:

A LOCA has occurred.

The crew is performing actions of EPP-012, Loss of Emergency Coolant

Recirculation, based on plant conditions upon transition from Path-1.

RWST level is 3% and lowering.

Current Conditions:

Integrity CSF Status Tree indicates Orange.

Which ONE of the following describes the action and procedure usage required?

A. Stop all pumps taking suction from the RWST;

Remain in EPP-012 because actions in EPP-012 are expected to cause-an Orange

condition on Integrity.

B. Reduce ECCS flow from the RWST to ONE (1) train running;

Remain in EPP-012 because actions in EPP-012 are expected to cause an Orange

condition on Integrity.

C. Stop all pumps taking suction from the RWST;

Go to FRP-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock.

D. Reduce ECCS flow from the RWST to ONE (1) train running;

Go to FRP-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock.

G is correct. With RWST level at 3% and lowering the foldout would require stopping all

pumps taking suction from RWST. Transition to FRP-P. 1 would be correct

implementation of GSFST.

A is incorrect. Action is correct based on RWST level, but procedure usage is

incorrect. Plausible since EOP Network does often direct user not implement an FRP if

their actions are expected to cause a Red or an Orange (for instance caution in

FRP-H. 1) but no such caution exists for this condition.

B is incorrect. Incorrect procedure usage and incorrect action. Action is plausible

since this is Safety Injection reduction and a LOGA is in progress, but at 3% in the

RWST the required action is to stop EGGS pumps.

o is incorrect. Action is incorrect, but procedure usage is correct.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 133

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Loss of Coolant Recircu!ation): Adherence to

appropriate procedures and operation within the lirnltations in the tacillty's license amendments.

Question Number: 81

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.2

Technical Reference: EPP-012, CSFSTs

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History: WCNOC 2007, modified parameters for plant differences

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C CADB AADCA Scramble Range: A - D

83.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason and requirements for depressurizing

the RCS in accordance with EPP-012, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation?

A. To minimize RCS leakage;

Depressurize the RCS to achieve RCS subcooling between 10°F and 20°F [40°F

and 50°F];

B. To ensure SI Accumulator injection;

Depressurize the RCS to achieve RCS subcooling between 10°F and 20°F [40°F

and 50°F];

C. To minimize RCS leakage;

Depressurize the RCS to maintain RCS subcooling just above 70°F [100°F];

D. To ensure SI Accumulator injection;

Depressurize the RCS to maintain RCS subcooling just above 70°F [100°F];

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 134

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation)

Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal, and emergency situations.

Question Number: 56

Tier: 1

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.8

Technical Reference: EPP-012 and basis

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AB C CDB B CAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 135

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

84.

Given the following:

The Unit experienced a Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR) on the IIBII

Steam Generator (SG).

The crew is currently performing actions of Path-2.

After completing the initial cooldown using IIAII and IICII Steam Generators, the

RO reports that IICII SG pressure continues to lower.

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the NEXT action the crew should take

in accordance with Emergency Operating Procedures?

A. Immediately transition to EPP-014, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation, to isolate

IICII SG and then go to EPP-020, SGTR With Loss Of Reactor Coolant: Subcooled

Recovery

B. Immediately transition to EPP-014, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation, to isolate

the IICII SG and then return to Path-2 Entry Point J

C. Complete the depressurization in Path-2 to restore pressurizer level, and then go to

EPP-020, SGTR With Loss Of Reactor Coolant: Subcooled Recovery.

D. Complete the depressurization in Path-2 to restore pressurizer level, and then go to

EPP-014, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation.

A Incorrect. Transition to EPP-014 is correct, but EPP-014 will direct a return to Path-2 in this

situation not EPP-020.

B Correct per procedures

C Incorrect. Plausible if candidate doesn't recognize conditions requiring transition to

EPP-014.

o Incorrect. EOP rules of usage require immediate transition after performing applicable

immediate actions. Path-2 does not contain any immediate actions. Plausible if

applicant believes that completely isolating the ruptured SG is a higher priority than

isolating the faulted SG.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 136

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to execute procedure

Question Number: 95

Tier: 3

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 4.2

Technical Reference: Path-2 and foldout

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.5

Comments:

Developed by FJE (WBN?)

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B DCDB C CDB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 137

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

85.

Given the following:

You are assigned as the RO on day shift.

You have been called for Fitness for Duty screening.

You must leave the Control Room for approximately 1.5 hours5.787037e-5 days 0.00139 hours 8.267196e-6 weeks 1.9025e-6 months .

The SSO has given permission and directed no additional actions are required

beyond those stated in OMM-002, Shift Turnover Package.

lAW OMM-002, which ONE of the following is the MINIMUM required for the shift

relief?

Note:

(Attachment 14, Documentation of Short Term Assumption of Duties)

(Attachment 5, Control Operator Shift Turnover Checklist)

A. Oral turnover to the remaining Board Operator. Both watchstanders Initial

Attachment 14. No log entry required.

B. Oral turnover to the remaining Board Operator. Both watchstanders Initial

Attachment 14 and document relief for greater than 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months in the Control Operator

loq,

C. Perform a turnover using Attachment 5. Both watchstanders Initial Attachment 5.

No log entry required.

D. Perform a turnover using Attachment 5. Enter the information in the Control

Operators log, and sign the log over.

A-Incorrect. Required to document relief for greater than one hour in the Control

Operator log.

B-Correct. Relief> 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months requires log entry

C-Incorrect. Short term assumption does not require turnover sheet, unless directed by

the S-SO. Log entry would be required.

D-Incorrect. Do not need to do a turnover sheet or sign over the logs unless directed

by the S-SO

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 138

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of shift turnover practices.

Question Number: 66

Tier: 3

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.0

Reference(s) - OMM-002

Proposed References to be provided to applicants during examination - None

Learning Objective -

Question History - Modified from Harris Bank

10 CFR Part 55 Content - 41.10

Comments -

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B ADDDC CAAC Scramble Range: A - D

86.

Given the following:

A power increase is in progress in accordance with GP-005, Power Operation.

Average Power Range Nls indicate 40% power.

Main Turbine load indicates 35% power.

Average Loop Delta T indicates 42% power.

Which ONE of the following describes the actions required in accordance with

GP-005?

A. Power must be reduced less than 30% by all indications and a calorimetric

performed to determine actual power.

B. Power increase should be stopped and a calorimetric must be performed to

determine actual power,

C. Power increase should be stopped and the PRNls adjusted to match turbine power.

.0. Power increase may continue using turbine power and no further action is required

unless turbine power and average PRNls deviate by 5% or greater.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:25 AM 139

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

B is correct. Over 30% power, a calorimetric will be performed if redundant power

indications disagree by more than 5%. The power increase should be stopped in order

to perform a calorimetric properly.

A in incorrect. Plausible if candidate misunderstands the 30% limit from the GPs.

Once over 30% a 5% mismatch requires a calorimetric, but it does not require reducing

power back to <30%.

C is incorrect. Plausible since power would need to be stopped to adjust Nls and

candidate may believe that adjusting Nls to match highest reading indication is the

most conservative action.

D is incorrect. Plausible since per the procedure turbine power is the indication that

would be used in this situation. Wrong since the 5% deviation requirement includes

A verage delta T indication, not just turbine power and Nls.

Ability to explain and apply all system limits and precautions.

Question Number: 67

Tier: 3

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 3.4

Technical Reference: GP-005 P & L

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10

Comments:

. MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B A C BCD B D C B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 140

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

87.

Initial Plant Conditions:

The plant is at 100% power.

Chemistry reports the following:

Primary specific activity is 0.76 microcuries per gram dose equivalent 1-131.

Secondary specific activity is 0.03 microcuries per gram dose equivalent

1-131.

Secondary conductivity is 5 micromhos.

Current Plant Conditions are:

Chemistry reports the following:

Primary specific activity is 0.85 microcuries per gram dose equivalent 1-131.

Secondary specific activity is 0.62 microcuries per gram dose equivalent

1-131.

Secondary conductivity is 12 micromhos.

.The crew enters AOP-033, Chemistry Out of Tolerance.

Which ONE of the following actions is required in accordance with AOP-033?

A. Remain in AOP-033 and check for Condenser tube leakage. Initiate Turbine load

reduction to less than 300/0.

B. Go to AOP-032, High RCS Activity based upon direction of AOP-033.

C. Remain in AOP-033 and isolate Auto-Chlorination of Service Water and Circ Water,

initiate Turbine load reduction to less than 300/0.

D. Go to AOP-016, Excessive RCS Leakage, as directed by AOP-033.

o is correct. With high activity in secondary, and no indication of high activity in

primary, go to AOP-016.

A is incorrect but plausible if candidate believes there are indications of a condenser

tube leak vice the SG tube leak that is actually indicated.

B is incorrect but plausible since AOP-032 would direct entry into AOP-032 but only if

activity was higher. T.S. activity limit for primary activity is 1 microcurie per gram dose

equivalent 1-131.

C is incorrect but plausible since these actions are directed by AOP-032, but not for a

SG tube leak which is indicated here.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 141

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 200"8 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to maintain primary and secondary chemistry within allowable limits,

Question Number: 94

Tier: 3

Group: 1

Importance Rating: 2.9

Technical Reference: AOP-033

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DCDADDAAB C Scramble Range: A - D

88.

Which ONE of the following activities is considered ACCEPTABLE preconditioning of

equipment related to performance of a surveillance on that equipment?

A. Lubrication of a valve stem prior to each scheduled testing of the valve.

B. Periodic or occasional venting of pumps prior to testing, not associated with" the

surveillance being performed.

C. Adjusting the bolt torque on a valve collar prior to stroke time testing of the valve.

D. Operation of a pump shortly before a test, if a situation could be avoided to operate

the pump while maintaining plant and personnel safety.

A. Incorrect. Lubrication is not acceptable preconditioning.

B. Correct. If by coincidence venting occurs prior to the surveillance then this is

acceptable. It would only be unacceptable if this was a routine practice prior to testing

the pump.

C incorrect. Changing torque is unacceptable.

o incorrect. Operation of the equipment to warm it up is not acceptable if it is

preventable or not required for plant or personnel safety.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 142

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of surveillance procedures.

Question Number: 69

Tier: 3

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.0

Technical Reference: OMM-007

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B DC B ADB ADD Scramble Range: A - D

89.

In Mode 1, which ONE of the following correctly states the basis for the Technical

Specification Safety Limits on the Reactor Core and the parameters that are used to

ensure that the Safety Limit is not violated?

A. Ensures Departure from Nucleate boiling does not occur by restricting operation to

within the nucleate boiling regime.

Reactor Thermal Power, Highest Operating Loop RCS Average Temperature, and

Pressurizer Pressure.

B. Ensures Departure from Nucleate boiling does not occur by restricting operation to

within the nucleate boiling regime.

Reactor Thermal Power, Highest Core Exit Thermocouple, and Pressurizer

Pressure.

C. Ensures Peak Centerline Temperature of the fuel is maintained less than 2200° F.

Reactor Thermal Power, Highest Operating Loop RCS Average Temperature, and

Pressurizer Pressure.

D. Ensures Peak Centerline Temperature of the fuel is maintained less than 2200° F.

Reactor Thermal Power, Highest Core Exit Thermocouple, and Pressurizer

Pressure.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 143

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

A. Correct. See TS 2. 1 Safety Limits and its associated Basis.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because hot leg temps are higher than ave temps, thus applicant could

reason that core limits would be ensured by using this parameter to compare against TSs.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because applicant may confuse film and nucleate boiling.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because of same reasons in Band C above.

Knowledge of Hrniting conditions for operations and hrnlts.

Question Number: 97

Tier: 3

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 4.1

Technical Reference: TS 2.1

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.2

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: AADCAB CDC C Scramble Range: A - D

90.

Given the following:

The unit is in Mode 6.

Refueling operations are in progress.

The 30th fuel assembly is being loaded into the core.

Current Boron Concentration is 2450 ppm.

According to GP-009, Refueling Cavity Fill, Refueling, and Drain of the Refueling

Cavity, Modes 5-6-5, which ONE of the following would require fuel loading operations

to be stopped immediately?

A. Communications is lost between Containment and the Control Room.

B. Water in the Spent Fuel Pool in not clear enough to view the Fuel top Nozzles

without supplemental lighting.

c. Boron concentration drops by 10 ppm as determined by two successive samples of

Reactor Coolant.

D. An unanticipated rise in count rate by a factor of two occurs on 1 of 2 operable

Source Range channels during any single loading step.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 144

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

D. incorrect - Must have an increase of a factor of two on both responding SR

channels to stop fuel movement. Examinee may confuse with a factor of 5

on any SR channel to stop fuel movement.

A. correct - If communication is lost between the control room and

containment then fuel loading must stop.

B. incorrect - Fuel handling is only required to be stopped when top nozzles

are not viewable with supplemental lighting. Examinee may confuse the

precaution.

C. incorrect - The number 10 comes from RHR temperature rising 10 deg F

Examinee may confuse the precaution.

Knowledge of refueling administrative requirements.

Question Number: 68

Tier: 3

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference: FHP-014, GP-009, section 4.0, P&L 2

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.6, 41.10

Comments:

Harris Bank from WBN Bank

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: ADB C AC B B C B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 145

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

91.

Given the following plant conditions:

A fuel shuffle is in progress following a refueling lAW FHP-014, Fuel and Insert

Shuffle Sequence.

You are the SRO-Fuel Handling for the fuel shuffle.

A fuel assembly has just been latched and raised for visual inspection.

The Refueling Engineer reports to you that the serial number on Attachment 1

does NOT match the visually verified serial number on the fuel assembly.

Which ONE (1) of the following lists the actions required by FHP-014, Fuel and Insert

Shuffle Sequence with regard to the latched fuel assembly?

A. Lower the fuel assembly in the location it was removed from and unlatch

B. Move the fuel assembly to a temporary storage location and unlatch

C. Lower the fuel assembly in the location it was removed from but do NOT unlatch

D. Move the fuel assembly to a temporary storage location but do NOT unlatch

Knowledqe of new and spent fuel movement procedures.

Question Number: 96

Tier: 3

Group: 2

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: FHP-014, P&L 22

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments: This is a new KA to replace former KA G2.2.7

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2345 678 9

Answer: CCCCABBDAD Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 146

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

92.

Given the following conditions at a work site:

Airborne activity - 5 DAC

Radiation level - 40 mrem/hr.

Radiation level with shielding - 20 mrem/hr.

Time to conduct task WITH respirator - 40 minutes.

Time to conduct task WITHOUT respirator - 30 minutes.

Assumptions:

The airborne dose with a respirator will be zero.

A dose rate of 40 mrem/hr will be received while placing the shielding. Assume

no benefit from shielding during placement.

All tasks will performed by one worker.

Shielding can be placed in 15 minutes with or without a respirator.

The shielding will not be removed.

Which ONE of the following would result in the lowest whole body dose?

A. Conduct task WITHOUT respirator or shielding.

B. Conduct task WITH respirator and WITHOUT shielding.

C. Place shielding while wearing respirator and conduct task WITH respirator.

D. Place shielding while wearing respirator and conduct task WITHOUT respirator.

DISTRACTORS:

A INCORRECT .(30/60)*40 + (2.5*5*.5) = 20 + 6.25 = 26.25

B INCORRECT .(40/60)*40 + 0 = 26.67

C CORRECT (15/60)*40 + (40/60)*20 + 0 =10 + 13.33 =23.33

D INCORRECT (15/60)*40 + (30/60)*20 + (2.5*5*.5) = 10 + 10 + 6.25 = 26.25

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 147

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL,

Knowledge of facility ALARA program.

Question Number: 71

Tier: 3

Group: 3

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference: NEED REF

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.13

Comments:

VCS 2006 Developed by NRC

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C C B DAB DAAD Scramble Range: A - D

93.

Per DOS-NGGC-0004, Administrative Dose Limits, which ONE of the following

describes the annual Progress Energy dose limit and the MINIMUM authorization

required for an individual to exceed that limit?

A. 2000 mrem;

Superintendent - Radiation Protection

B. 2000 mrem;

Site Vice President

C. 4000 mrem;

Superintendent - Radiation Protection

D. 4000 mrem;

Site Vice President

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 148

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of radiation exposure limits and contamination control, including permissible levels in excess of those

authorized.

Question Number: 70

Tier: 3

Group: 3

Importance Rating: 2.5

Technical Reference: DOS-NGGC-004, Attachment 1

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10

Comments:

Have written similar but none for PGN available

MCS Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B BDDC C BDCA Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 149

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

94.

Given the following plant conditions:

The operating crew is lining up to discharge the contents of the Treated L&HS

Tank A to Cooling Tower Discharge lAW OP-120.1 0.04.

It is also determined that a release is required from the Secondary Waste

Sample Tank (SWST).

Which ONE (1) of the following provides the minimum approval requirements for this

release and what release of the 8WST can occur simultaneously with the discharge of

the Treated L&HS Tank lAW OP-120.10.04?

A. Manager - Operations permission required;

ONLY a Continuous Release of SWST may occur simultaneously.

B. 8-80 permission required;

ONLY a Continuous Release of SW8T may occur simultaneously.

C. Manager - Operations permission required;

BOTH a Continuous or a Batch Release of SW8T may occur slmultaneously.

D. S-80 permission required;

BOTH a .Continuous or a Batch Release of SWST may occur simultaneously.

Knovvledge of the requirements for reviewing and approving release permits.

Question Number: 98

Tier: 3

Group: 3

Importance Rating: 3.1

Techn'ical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

.Learning Objective: None

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.4

Comments:

10CFR55.43(b).4 because the SRO must know requirements related to radioactive release,

including approval requirements.

MC8 Time: 1 Points: 1.00 Version: 0123456789

Answer: BBBBBBBBBB Items Not Scrambled

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 150

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

95.

Initial Conditions:

The unit is at 100% power.

Current Conditions:

The following alarm is received:

ALB-001-7-1, ACCUMULATOR TANK A HI-LO PRESSURE

The RO reports the following indications:

Cold Leg Accumulator IIAII pressure is 650 psig and slowly increasing

Cold Leg Accumulator IIAII level is 75% and slowly increasing

Which one of the following is the action required lAW the appropriate Annunciator

Plant Procedure and the OPERABILITY of the IIAII Cold Leg Accumulator (CLA)?

A. Drain IIAII CLA to lower pressure;

CLA IIA II is INOPERABLE

B. Verify Nitrogen to the accumulators is isolated and vent excess accumulator

pressure;

CLA IIAII is INOPERABLE

C. Drain IIAII CLA to lower pressure;

CLA IIAII is OPERABLE

D. Verify Nitrogen to the accumulators is isolated and vent excess accumulator

pressure;

CLA IIAII is OPERABLE

A is incorrect

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 151

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge of annunciator response procedures.

Question Number: 72

Tier: 3

Group: 4

Importance Rating: 3.0

Technical Reference:

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.2

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C B ABDAAC B D Scramble Range: A - D

96.

Given the following:

At 1302, a steam generator tube leak is identified.

At 1318, a plant shutdown is commenced due to exceeding TS leakage limits.

At 1319, an Unusual Event is declared by the Site Emergency Coordinator.

(SEC)

At 1321 , a reactor trip occurs.

At 1327, the crew identifies SG "A" as the ruptured SG.

At 1330, an ALERT is declared by the SEC.

Which ONE of the following describes the latest time that the initial notification to

State/County officials AND the NRC is due?

State/County NRC

A. 1334 1334

B. 1334 1419

C. 1345 1419

D. 1345 1430

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 152

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

B is correct. 15 minutes after declaration of event to notify state. One hour to notify

NRC

A is incorrect. Plausible if candidate believes NRC must also be informed within 15

minutes.

C is incorrect. Plausible if candidate believes the 15 minute requirement doesn't apply

to UE's but only Alerts and higher but still correctly identifies need to properly inform

NRC.

o is incorrect. Plausible if candidate believes notification time limits should be from the

time of the ALERT, not the UE.

Knowledge of the emergency plan.

Question Number: 75

Tier: 3

Group: 4

Importance Rating: 2.6

Technical Reference: E-Plan

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question History:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: B B C A A D C B A B Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 153

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

97.

Initial plant conditions:

"A" Train Equipment in service

"B" ESW Pump is under clearance for motor replacement

TDAFW Pump is under clearance for tappet nut replacement

Time Log Entry

1230 SBLOCA inside containment (~200 gpm)

1231 Reactor Trip & Safety Injection initiated

1236 Containment Pressure 3.3 psig and rising

1238 Loss of Offsite Power occurs

1240 Crew notes "A" CCW Pump has tripped and can not be restarted

1242 CURRENT TIME

All other plant equipment responds as expected for the event in progress.

Which ONE(1) of the following is the HIGHEST Emergency Classification entered for

this event as of CURRENT TIME?

A. ALERT, EAL 5-1-2

B. ALERT, EAL 8-2-2

C. SITE AREA EMERGENCY, EAL 2-1-3

D. SITE AREA EMERGENCY, EAL 8-2-3

A is, incorrect. ALERT 5-1-2 was entered briefly on the loss of offsite power however it

is not the highest classification

B is incorrrect. ALERT 8-2-2 does apply since CCW capability function has been lost

however it is not the highest classification

C is incorrect. SAE 2-'1-3 will apply since Containment pressure is greater than 3 psig,

containment is jeopardized

o is correct. SAE 8-2-3 is only applicable if a safety function required in mode 3 is lost.

Only safety function lost is CCW, Plausible if candidate believes ESW function was

lost, but loss of all AC is specifically called out as not being a cause for losing a safety

function.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 154

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledqe of the action level thresholds and classifications.

Question Number: 100

Tier: 3

Group: 4

Importance Rating: 4.0

Technical Reference: EALs

Proposed references to be provided to applicantsdurinq examination: EAL flowpath 06-1

side 1 only. DO NOT PROVIDE SIDE 2.

Learning Objective: None

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.5

Comments:

10CFR55.43(b).5 because the SRO must assess conditions and determine appropriate

emergency classification based upon plant conditions

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: C B B C B C B A C B Scramble Range: A - D

98.

Given the following:

One Shutdown Bank-A, Group 2 Rod has dropped into the core.

The crew is recovering the dropped rod.

ALB-13-7-1, ROD CaNT SYSTEM URGENT FAILURE is received.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason for the alarm and the plant

response?

A. Withdrawing the rod while the remaining Group 2 Lift Coils are deenergized.

Rod withdrawal is blocked until the alarm is reset.

B. Initiation of an "out" signal to SD Bank IIA" Rods, and its Group 1 rods do not move.

Rod withdrawal is blocked until the alarm is reset.

C. Withdrawing the rod while the remaining Group 2 Lift Coils are deenergized.

Rod withdrawal is unaffected and recovery may continue.

D. Initiation of an "out" signal to SD Bank IIA II Rods and its Group 1 rods do not move.

Rod withdrawal is unaffected and recovery may continue.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 155

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

o is correct. Urgent failure occurs when opposite group does not respond to

command. The alarm does block rod motion in auto or manual but for these conditions

Rod Controiwilt be selected to SO Bank A, which will not be blocked.

A is incorrect. Incorrect reason and requirement for alarm reset. Credible because the

reason for the alarm may not be readily apparent; it requires system knowledge to

determine why the alarm occurred. The alarm will occur but it is due to the failure of

the opposite group to move.

B is incorrect. Credible because failure is correct. Wrong because the alarm does not

have to be reset for withdrawal.

C is incorrect. Credible because rod withdrawal is unaffected. Wrong because cause

of the alarm is incorrect.

Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of system, and understand how

operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.

Question Number: 74

Tier: 3

Group: 4

Importance Rating: 3.5

Technical Reference: ALB-13-7-1, AOP-001

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7,10

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: D B B A B B B C C D Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 156

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

99.

Given the following:

The plant is in Mode 6, Core Alterations in progress.

Battery 1B-SB is out of service.

Maintenance reports that Battery 1A-SA electrolyte is overflowing in several

cells.

Which ONE of the following is the Technical Specification action required and its

bases?

A. Restore an Emergency Battery to Operable status within 1 Hour;

A subsequent loss of off-site power would result in loss of all DC subsystems with

attendant loss of ESF functions.

B. Immediately suspend all operations involving Core Alterations, positive reactivity

changes, or movement of irradiated fuel;

A subsequent loss of off-site power would result in loss of all DC subsystems with

attendant loss of ESF functions.

C. Restore an Emergency Battery to Operable status within 1 Hour;

Sufficient control and instrumentation capability is no longer available to monitor

and maintain the unit status

D. Immediately suspend all operations involving Core Alterations, positive reactivity

changes, or movement of irradiated fuel;

Sufficient control and instrumentation capability is no longer available to monitor

and maintain the unit status

A. Incorrect. Time requirement is a standard T.S. time requirement, but immediate is required

in this instance. Reason is incorrect, though plausible if candidate believes a coincident loss of

offsite power is the limiting condition for this as it is with several other T.S. actions (for example

3.7.1.3 & 3.4.8.1)

B. Incorrect. Time requirement is correct but action is incorrect.

C. Incorrect. Time requirement is incorrect, but basis is correct.

D. Correct. Immediate action is required by T.S. 3.8.2.1. Basis is correct for this mode.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 157

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HA-RRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Ability to perform without reference to those actions that immediate operation of system

components and controls,

Question Number: 99

Tier: 3

Group: 4

Importance Rating: 4.0

Technical Reference: TS 3.8.2.2

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 43.2

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: a 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DC C B DACDDB Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 158

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

100.

Given the following:

The Unit has experienced a SBLOCA.

EPP-009, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization is in progress.

All RCPs are running.

ReS pressure is 1690 psig.

An RCS cooldown has been initiated by dumping steam to the atmosphere.

Which ONE of the following describes the required RCP configuration lAW with

EPP-009, and the basis for this configuration?

A. All RCPs should be stopped;

minimize RCS inventory loss when the break uncovers

B. One RCP should be stopped;

produces effective heat transfer, provides boron mixing for RHR operations, and

provides RCS pressure control

C. All RCPs should be left running;

ensures symmetric heat transfer to the S/Gs, aids in RCS pressure control, and

prevents steam voiding in the Reactor vessel head

D. Two RCPs should be stopped;

minimizes RCS heat input and still produces effective heat transfer and RCS

pressure control

o is correct. Step 15 of EPP-009 would have both RCPs stopped and leave only one .

RCP running to ensure heat transfer and mixing of RCS.

A is incorrect, but plausible since this is the action and reason for stopping RCPs per

the RCP Trip foldout criteria.

B is incorrect, but plausible since action is correct but reason is incorrect since boron

mixing for RHR is not a concern.

C is incorrect, but plausible if candidates believe the best course of action .is to leave all

RCPs running.

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:26 AM 159

QUESTIONS REPORT

for HARRIS 2008 - NRC EXAM REV FINAL

Knowledge symptom based EOP mitigation strategies.

Question Number: 73

Tier: 3

Group: 4

Importance Rating: 3.1

Technical Reference: EPP-009

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None

Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank

Question History: Surry

Question Cognitive Level: Lower

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41

Comments:

MCS Time: Points: 1.00 Version: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer: DCBDACABDC Scramble Range: A - D

Thursday, March 20, 2008 9:27:27 AM 160

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