ML020910710
| ML020910710 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Mcguire, McGuire  |
| Issue date: | 02/15/2002 |
| From: | NRC/RGN-II |
| To: | Duke Energy Corp |
| References | |
| 50-369/02-301, 50-370/02-301 50-369/02-301, 50-370/02-301 | |
| Download: ML020910710 (357) | |
See also: IR 05000369/2002301
Text
Draft Submittal
(Pink Paper)
Reactor Operator Written Exam
MCGUIRE EXAM
50-369, 370/2002-301
FEBRUARY 11 - 15, 2002
NRC Official Use Only
Nuclear Regulatory Commission
Reactor Operator Licensing
Examination
ANSWER KEY
McGuire Nuclear Station
This document is removed from
Official Use Only category on
Date of examination
NRC Official Use Only
Question#1 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 037.1 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 was conducting a reactor startup following a refueling outage. Given
the following conditions during the reactor startup:
"* N-31 indicates 2.1x10 4 cps
"* N-32 indicates 2.0x10 4 cps
"* N-35 indicates 5.5x10"- amps
"* N-36 indicates 1.Oxl0 0 amps
"* Rods are in manual with no rod motion
"* SR and IR NIs are slowly increasing
"* Tave is holding steady
Which one of the following best explains the indications?
A. N-35 compensating voltage is set too high
B. N-35 compensating voltage is set too low
C. N-36 compensating voltage is set too high
D. N-36 compensating voltage is set too low
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: N-35 reads too low for the conditions given, compensating
voltage is too high.
B. Incorrect: N-35 reads too low.
Plausible: candidate reverses the effect of compensation.
C. Incorrect: overlap is proper for N-36
Plausible: If candidate does not know that P6 = lx 10-10 IR is about
2x104 CPS SR.
D. Incorrect: overlap is proper for N-36
Plausible: If candidate does not know that P6 = lxlO-10 IR is about
2x104 CPS SR.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 033AK1.01(2.7/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-ENB SEQ 7
Source: Mod Ques_037, Catawba NRC 1999
Level of Knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-ENB pages 25, 69, 79
Ques_037 For Official Use Only Page 1
Question#2 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 048 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Which one of the following selections correctly matches the reactor trip
signals to their limiting accident?
Reactor Trip Si2nal Limiting Accident/Protection
A. OPAT DNB
OTAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
Pzr High Level NC system integrity
Pzr Low Pressure DNB
B. OPAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
OTAT DNB
Pzr High Level DNB
Pzr Low Pressure NC system integrity
C. OPAT DNB
OTAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
Pzr High Level NC system integrity
Pzr Low Pressure DNB
D. OPAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
OTAT DNB
Pzr High Level NC system integrity
Pzr Low Pressure DNB
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: OPAT and OTAT are reversed.
Plausible: PZR low pressure and high level are correct.
B. Incorrect: All are incorrect.
Plausible: Provided for psychometric balance.
C. Incorrect: OPAT and OTAT are reversed.
Plausible: PZR low pressure and high level are correct.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 012K5.01(3.3/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-IPE SEQ 2
Source: Bank; Ques48e, McGuire NRC 1996
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 2
Ques_048
Question#2 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-IPE pages 19, 45
For Official Use Only Page 3
QuesO48
Question#3 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 051.2 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is responding to a LOCA. The crew has entered ECA-1.1, (Loss of
Emergency CoolantRecirc). Given the following events and conditions:
- 1A ND pump is tagged out
S1B ND stopped when 1NI- l84B (1B ND PUMP SUCTFROM CONT
SUMP ISOL) could not be opened
- Containment pressure is 11 psig
- NCS pressure is 1200 psig
- FWST level is 40 inches
- Both NI pumps are off, but available
0 Both NV pumps are running
The crew has reached step 17, "Check ifan NC pump should be started".
At this point in the procedure, what pumps should be running?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: ECA 1.1 Steps 1-17
A. An NV pump only.
B. An NV pump and an NS pump only.
C. An NV pump, an NI pump and an NS pump only.
D. An NV pump, an NI pump and both NS pumps.
Distracter Analysis:
One NS pumps is stopped at step 1lb when according to the table, one NS
pump is required. One NV pump is stopped in subsequent steps. One NI
pump is started at step 15 c (pressure is less than 1600 psig)
A. Incorrect: insufficient - there will be 1 NV, 1 NI and 1 NS pump
running
Plausible: candidate believes both NS pumps are stopped and misses
the NI pump start
B. Incorrect: insufficient - there will be 1 NV, 1 NI and 1 NS pump
running
Plausible: candidate misses NI pump start
C. Correct: one train is aligned, one NV and NI required, one NS
pump due to containment pressure.
D. Incorrect: Only 1 NS pump will be running
Plausible: candidate misses step to stop NS pump
Level: RO Only 1OCFR55.41(b)10
KA: WE 11 G2.1.7 (3.7/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: El SEQ 3, 6
Ques_051 For Official Use Only Page 4
Question#3 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-E1 page 225
2. ECA-1.1 pages 1-15, 43 - PROVIDED
Ques_051 For Official Use Only Page 5
Question#4 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 124 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) A team of workers must repack the seals on a pump in a 1500 mrem/hr high
radiation area.
Which one of the following work teams and estimated repair times would
maintain worker exposure ALARA?
A. 10 people working for 20 minutes
B. 6 people working for 30 minutes
C. 4 people working for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />
D. 2 people working for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: six people can accomplish the job with 4 1/2 Rem.
Plausible: Each individual would have the least exposure.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: six people can accomplish the job with 4 1/2 Rem.
Plausible: fewest individuals not exceeding the admin dose limit.
D. Incorrect: six people can accomplish the job with 4 1/2 Rem.
Plausible: Exposes the fewest individuals.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.3.2 (2.5/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: RAD-RP SEQ 135
Source: Bank; Ques_124, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-RAD-RP page 135
For Official Use Only Page 6
Ques_124
Question#5 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 137.1 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 refueling is in progress. Given the following plant alarms:
"* 2EMF-3 (ContainmentRefueling Bridge) trip 2 alarm.
"* 2EMF-39 (ContainmentGas) trip 2 alarm.
"* 2EMF-40 (ContainmentIodine) trip 2 alarm.
Which one of the following procedures should be implemented?
A. AP-25 (Spent FuelDamage)
B. FR-Z.3 (Response to High ContainmentRadiationLevel)
C. AP-40 (Loss of Refueling CanalLevel)
D. AP-18 (High Activity in Reactor Coolant)
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Per the entry conditions indications are consistent with a
dropped and damaged fuel element.
B. Incorrect: Must implement AP-25.
Plausible: There is indication of high containment radiation level.
C. Incorrect: unless accompanied with failed fuel, gas/iodine monitors
should not go into alarm.
Plausible: for lowering cavity level, the bridge alarm would be in
alarm.
D. Incorrect: Must implement AP-25.
Plausible: the monitor alarms could be consistent with failed fuel at
power.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 034A2.01 (3.6/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: FH-FC SEQ 6
Source: Bank; Ques137a, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-FH-FC pages 17 -19
For Official Use Only Page 7
Ques_137
Question#6 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 143.1 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) On January 2 6 'h, you are directed to complete a valve lineup on Unit lin
accordance with enclosure 4.10 to OP/l/A/6200/005, Spent Fuel Cooling
System. The controlled copy of the procedure has a restricted change noted
for valve 1KF-145. This normally open valve has been locked open in
accordance with a special order that remains in effect until February Is.
Which one of the following statements describes the correct action needed to
validate your working copy of the procedure? (Your copy of the procedure is
in other respects identical to the controlled copy.)
A. Replace your working copy with an updated procedure printed
from the NEDL system.
B. Annotate the working copy with just the restricted change
number (as a cross reference) next to the 1KF-145 line item, and
initial the change.
C. Annotate the working copy with a pen and ink change for the
valve position for 1KF-145; change to "Locked Open", annotate
the restricted change number and initial the change.
D. Use the working copy as is since restricted changes of this nature
are not required to be written into working copies.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Cannot print because NEDL will not list this procedure as
issued.
Plausible: NEDL is an approved source of working copies for non
changed procedures.
B. Incorrect: Must write in the actual change language.
Plausible: The controlled copy is annotated with only the restricted
change #.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: Must write in the actual change language.
Plausible: It is not necessary to annotate working copies if the
change does not affect the job or no longer applies - would be true
after FEB 1st
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.1.21 (3.1/3.2)
Ques_143 For Official Use Only Page 8
Question#6 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM-OP SEQ 8
Source: Mod; Ques_143, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OMP 4-1 pages 11-12
For Official Use Only Page 9
Ques_143
Question#7 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 158 Answer. A
I Pt(s) What design features protect the turbine driven auxiliary feedwater (CA)
pump against minimum flow conditions and runout?
A. Minimum flow protection provided by recirc valves, runout
protection provided by max flow travel stops on discharge
control valves.
B. Minimum flow protection provided by recirc valves, runout
protection provided by flow restricting orifices in feedwater lines.
C. Minimum flow protection provided by governor control settings,
runout protection provided by max flow travel stops on
discharge control valves.
D. Minimum flow protection provided by governor control settings
runout protection provided by flow restricting orifices in
feedwater lines.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer
B. Incorrect: there are no flow restricting orifices
Plausible: partially correct - the recirc valves provide minimum flow
protection
C. Incorrect: minimum flow protection is not provided by the governor
control settings
Plausible: partially correct - runout protection is provided by the
discharge control valves
D. Incorrect: no flow restricting orifices - governor setting do not
provide protection against low flow
Plausible: provided for psychometric balance
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 061K5.03(2.6/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CA SEQ 5
Source: Bank; Ques 158, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
Ques_158 For Official Use Only Page 10
Question#7 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
1. OP-MC-CF-CA pages 29, 31
For Official Use Only Page 11
Ques_158
Question#8 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 164.1 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% when a pipe break occurred on the ID S/G
steam header. The operators are responding in E-2 (FaultedSteam
GeneratorIsolation). The following sequence of events occurred:
"* Isolation of the ID S/G
"* PZR level dropped to 0% and was restored to 20%
"* NCS pressure is 1900 psig
"* Safety Injection has not been reset
What are the correct panel actions for the restoration of power to pressurizer
back-up heater bank D?
A. Reset safety injection on 1MC-11
Ensure AUTO is selected on the heater mode switch on 1MC-10
Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on 1MC-5
B. Ensure AUTO is selected on the heater mode switch on 1MC-5
Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on IMC-10
Select ON for the heater control switch on IMC-5
C. Select MANUAL on the heater mode switch on 1MC-10
Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on 1MC-5
Select ON for the heater control switch on 1MC-10
D. Reset safety injection on 1MC-6
Select MANUAL on the heater mode switch on IMC-5
Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on 1MC-10
Select ON for the heater control switch on 1MC-5
Distracter Analysis: The B/U heater breakers will not close unless the mode
selector switch is in MANUAL.
A. Incorrect: insufficient action, SI reset is unnecessary, and mode
switch to MANUAL.
Plausible: if the candidate is not familiar with the interlocks on the
PZR heater circuit, the locations are correct.
B. Incorrect: must turn the heater mode switch to MANUAL, and the
locations are incorrect.
Plausible: if the candidate reverses the panel locations and knows
that SI reset is unnecessary, it would appear that this is the best
answer.
C. Correct answer: Bank D does not require SI reset
For Official Use Only Page 12
Ques_164
Question#8 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
D. Incorrect: Not necessary to reset safety injection and wrong
locations for SI reset and heater controls.
Plausible: If the candidate does not know the panel locations, this is
the right method for Banks A&B (and would work for D) and was
correct in the prior version of the question.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.1.31 (4.2/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-IPE SEQ 10/11
Source: Mod; Ques_164, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-IPE page 23
2. EP/l/A/5000/ES-1.1 page 19
Ques_164 For Official Use Only Page 13
Question#9 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 177 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Units I and 2 are at full power when a loss of offsite power occurs on Unit 2.
Which one of the following main turbine overspeed protective
devices/features will be the FIRST to actuate to prevent a turbine overspeed
condition?
A. At a speed of 103%, the turbine throttle valves will close.
B. GBX relay will close the governor and intercept valves.
C. At a speed of 110%, the governor and intercept valves will close.
D. GBX relay will close the turbine throttle valves.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The governor and intercept valves close.
Plausible: 103% is an overspeed setpoint.
B. Correct: GBX relay initiates when the switchyard breakers open.
The governor and intercept valves close.
C. Incorrect: Valves trip at 103%.
Plausible: 110% is an overspeed protection setpoint, and these
valves will close.
D. Incorrect: GBX relay does not close the throttle valves.
Plausible: GBX relay does actuate.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 045 A4.02 (2.7/2.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: MT-MT SEQ 3
Source: Mod; Ques_177, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-MT-MT page 27, 29, 31, 39
Ques_177 For Official Use Only Page 14
Question#10 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 181 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Step 5d of FR-S. 1 (Response to Nuclear Power Generation/A TWS) requires
the operators to check Pzr pressure less than 2335 psig after initiating
emergency boration flow to the reactor. If pressure exceeds 2335 psig, the
contingency action is to open PORVs as required to rapidly depressurize to
2135 psig.
What is the EOP basis for this step?
A. To reduce NC pressure below the PORV setpoint to prevent
cycling the PORVs.
B. To reduce NC pressure to allow closing of NV pump recirc valves
to maximize emergency boration flow.
C. To ensure control of NC pressure to prevent lifting a code safety
relief valve.
D. To ensure that the boration flow rate is sufficient for emergency
boration.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Since this is the PORV setpoint, the action assures boron
flow rate.
Plausible: This would be a plausible action to prevent an automatic
actuation.
B. Incorrect: The recirc valves could not be closed at 2135 psig.
Plausible: The purpose does involve enhancing boron flow.
C. Incorrect: The purpose is to ensure adequate boron flow.
Plausible: This is the function of the PORVs.
D. Correct answer
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 024AK3.02(4.2/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRS SEQ 4
Source: Bank; McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
For Official Use Only Page 15
Ques_181
Question# 10 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
1. OP-MC-EP-FRS page 27
2. EP/1/A/5000/FR-S.1
For Official Use Only Page 16
Ques_181
Question#11 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 191.1 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a total loss of feedwater occurred.
Following initiation of feed and bleed, the Operators reached step 34 of FR-H. I
(Response to Loss ofSecondary Heat Sink) that requires feeding the S/Gs.
Given the following conditions:
Loop A Loop B Loop C Loop D
S/G (WR) [%] 18 9 10 13
NC T,,, [0F] 545 542 549 555
"* Core exit T/Cs are trending UP.
"* Containment pressure is 2.8 psig and increasing.
"* VI pressure is 120 psig.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the initial
restrictions for restoring feedwater flow in FR-H. 1 when the 1B CA pump has
been restarted?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: FR-H.1 with Enclosure 10
A. Feedwater may be restored to 1A S/G but limited to a feed rate
required to lower core exit T/Cs.
B. Feedwater may be restored to IC and 1D S/G but must be
limited to a 100 GPM flow rate to each S/G.
C. Feedwater may be restored to 1D S/G but must be limited to feed
rate required to lower core exit T/Cs.
D. Feedwater may be restored to 1A and ID S/Gs but limited to a
100 GPM flow rate to each S/G.
Distracter Analysis: There was a change in this procedure since the prior
question. The previous guidance was not to feed a S/G when T-hot >
550 'F and to select the B and C S/Gs for restoration of flow. Now
the guidance is to select the S/G that has the highest apparent level
and to preferentially select the B or C S/G.
A. Incorrect: IA S/G is limited to < 100 gpm feed rate because it is <
12% level and lB CA pump will not feed 1A S/G.
Plausible: This would be partially correct be if level was <12%.
B. Incorrect: Must feed 1D S/G at rate high enough to lower core exit
T/Cs. Limiting feed rate to 100 gpm will not prevent core damage.
Ques_191 For Official Use Only Page 17
Question#11 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: partially correct - feeding SG lB is preferable because it
provided steam for the TDCA pump.
C. Correct answer: feed the S/G's > 12% level (A&D) at whatever rate
is needed to turn the CET trend is the appropriate choice. But lB CA
pump cannot feed lA S/G
D. Incorrect: The 100 gpm limit is not appropriate since CET's are
increasing and level is greater than 12%. The LA S/G cannot be fed.
Plausible: LA & ID S/Gs are the appropriate choice based on > 12%.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 061 K3.02(4.2/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRH SEQ 6
Source: Mod; Quesl9 la, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-MC-EP-FRH page 77
2. EP/1/A/5000/FR-H.1 page 29 and Enclosure 10 - PROVIDED
Ques_191 For Official Use Only Page 18
Question# 12 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 260.1 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a loss of main feedwater event from 100% power.
Given the following events and conditions:
"* The reactor has tripped
"* The 2A and 2B Motor-driven CA (MDCA) pumps started in auto
"* The Turbine-driven CA pump (TDCA) started in auto
"* CA suction pressure slowly drops to 4 psig
Which one of the following automatic system responses (if any) will occur at
this time?
A. 2A CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tanks
The TDCA pump suction shifts to the RN system
2B CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
B. 2A CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
The TDCA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
2B CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
C. 2A CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
The TDCA pump suction shifts to the RN system
2B CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
D. 2A CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
The TDCA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
2B CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
Distracter Analysis: Unit 2 A train valves RN-69A and CA-15A opens at 4.5
psig and B train valves including the TDCA A train supply opens at 3.5 psig.
A. Incorrect: 2A CA pump shifts suctions to the RN system and TDCA
and 2B CA pumps do not shift
Plausible: if the candidate reverses the train relation of the unit
difference.
B. Incorrect: 2A CA pump shifts suctions to the RN system.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the auto-swap setpoints.
This is the correct answer for Unit 1
C. Incorrect: 2B CA and TDCA pumps do not shift suctions to the RN
system.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the swap over setpoints
D. Correct Answer:
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_260 For Official Use Only Page 19
Question# 12 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: GEN G2.2.4 (2.8/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CA SEQ 10
Source: Mod; Ques 260, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CA pages 21, 63
Ques_260 For Official Use Only Page 20
Question#13 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 321 Answer. A
I Pt(s) In E-3 (Steam GeneratorTube Rupture) Enclosure 5 (NC Pressureand
Makeup Control to Minimize Leakage) the operators are directed to energize
pressurizer heaters if the ruptured S/G level is decreasing and pressurizer
level is greater than 25%.
What is the purpose for this action?
A. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature corresponding to
ruptured S/G pressure to minimize S/G leakage into the NC
system.
B. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature corresponding to
intact S/G pressure to minimize primary leakage into the S/G.
C. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature above the
corresponding ruptured S/G pressure to ensure S/G water does
not flow into the NC system.
D. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature corresponding to
intact S/G pressure to minimize NC pressure transients.
Distracter Analysis: The purpose of this question is to determine if the
candidate understands that thermal hydraulic equilibrium
(temp/press/leak rate) needs to be established between the NCS and
the ruptured S/G. No references are provided because the candidate
should be able to answer the question by simply comprehending the
pressures and reasons for this equilibrium.
A. Correct Answer:
B. Incorrect: required to maintain NCS pressure equal to ruptured S/G
pressure, not the intact S/G - Intact S/G pressure < ruptured S/G
pressure would not reduce NCS to S/G leakage
Plausible: if the candidate is confused over the thermal hydraulics
C. Incorrect: required to maintain NCS pressure equal to ruptured S/G
pressure
Plausible: partially correct - do not want leakage from S/G to NCS
or NCS to S/G
D. Incorrect: required to maintain NCS pressure equal to ruptured S/G
pressure, not the intact S/G
Plausible: this would be a reasonable basis for monitoring intact S/G
pressure if that were the correct answer.
Ques_321 For Official Use Only Page 21
Question#13 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 038EK1.02(3.2/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EP3 SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques_321, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EP3 pages 19, 101, 123
2. EP/l/A/5000/E-3 pages 44, 57
Ques_321 For Official Use Only Page 22
Question#14 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 328.3 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is shutdown in mode 5 on the midnight shift. The control room
operators consist of the following personnel:
"* The OSM
"* The Control Room SRO
"* The Unit 1 and Unit 2 ROs - who are also the OATCs
"* The Unit 1 BOP operator is currently securing a containment air release.
"* All other on-shift operators are out of the control room at the present
time.
An IAE Tech asks the Unit 2 RO to reset the trip 2 setpoint on 2EMF-36
(UNIT VENT GAS).
Which one of the following statements is correct in regard to the RO's ability
to comply with this request?
A. The RO may perform this action because it is within the
surveillance area of the control room for shutdown operations.
B. The RO may perform this action if he/she temporarily turns over
the OATC position to the SRO.
C. The RO may not enter this area because it is outside the front
control board area.
D. The RO may not enter this area unless there is an emergency
condition.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer - this is part of the shutdown surveillance area.
B. Incorrect: Can't turnover to SRO, and not necessary.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the limits of the shutdown
surveillance area, and the SRO can act as an RO under some
circumstances.
C. Incorrect: Can leave the front area during shutdown periods.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the limits of the shutdown
surveillance area.
D. Incorrect: not part of the emergency response area
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the limits of the shutdown
surveillance area. This was the answer to the prior version of the
question.
For Official Use Only Page 23
Ques_328
Question# 14 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO Only
KA: ADM G 2.1.1 (3.7/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM-OMP SEQ 2
Source: Mod; Ques_328.2, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OMP 2-2 pages 9-11, Attachment 1
Ques-328 For Official Use Only Page 24
Question#15 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 331.1 Answer. D
I Pt(s) An operator is performing a procedure, which requires a series of
approximately 10 sequential steps to be performed while standing in a
contaminated area. He/she is in direct communications with another
qualified operator, who holds the procedure outside the contaminated area
and reads each step sequentially.
If the performer does not have the procedure in hand as he/she performs the
steps, what are the requirements of OMP 4-1 (Use of Operatingand Periodic
Test Procedures)regarding the sign off for each step?
A. The performer signs off the steps using his/her own initials, upon
completion of the task after leaving the contaminated area.
B. The documenter checks off each step as the step is completed.
The performer initials each step upon completion of the task.
C. The documenter signs off each step as the step is completed using
his/her own initials.
D. The documenter signs off each step as the step is completed using
his/her own initials and the initials of the performer.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
B. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
C. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: ADM G 2.1.23(3.9 / 4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM-OP SEQ 13/14
Source: Bank; Ques_331, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OMP 4-1 page 15
For Official Use Only Page 25
Ques_331
Question# 16 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 359.2 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is responding to a small break LOCA using E- 1 (Loss ofReactor or
Secondary Coolant). Given the following events and conditions:
"* FWST Level = 340 inches
"* Containment pressure = 1.5 psig
"* Containment Sump Level = 1.05 ft
"* EMF-41 (AUXBLDG VENTILATION) = trip 2
"* Aux Building area radiation monitors are in alarm
"* EMF-51A and B (CONTAINMENT TRNA & B) = 25 R/Hr
"* Hydrogen Analyzer = 0.7% in containment
"* NLO's report significant leakage at the seals of the IA ND pump
Which one of the following procedures should the operator transition into
from E-1?
A. FR-Z.3 (Response to High ContainmentRadiation Level)
B. ECA-1.1 (Loss ofEmergency CoolantRecirculation)
C. FR-Z.4 (Response to High ContainmentHydrogen)
D. ECA-1.2 (LOCA Outside Containment)
Distracter Analysis: The initial conditions provide a LOCA into
containment and a leakage path outside of containment. The question is
which of the problems take priority? The purpose is not to memorize
procedure steps but to answer this from a broader perspective.
A. Incorrect: Cont RAD levels < 35 R/hr and this would be a
YELLOW path that does NOT require priority action.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that the abnormal radiation level
requires priority action.
B. Incorrect: Still in injection phase of SI - have failed to isolate leak
outside containment.
Plausible: if candidate is not familiar with the entry conditions for
ECA 1.1 (after failure to isolate leak outside containment).
C. Incorrect: Cont H2 > 0.5 %, but this is a YELLOW path not
requiring priority action.
Plausible: If the candidate fails to recognize the leak in the auxiliary
bldg and/or the fact that E-1 takes care of the cont H2 problem.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_359 For Official Use Only Page 26
-Lestion# 16 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: WE 04EK3.2 (3.4/4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-El SEQ 2
Source: Mod; Ques 359.1, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-E1 page 45
2. EP/1/A/5000/E-1 pages 12-13
3. EP/1/A/5000/F-0 page 9
For Official Use Only Page 27
Ques_359
Question#17 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 370 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power with pressurizer pressure channels in a
(1-2) lineup and NC pressure in the normal operating band when an
instrument failure occurred. Given the following plant conditions and
events:
"* INC-32B and lNC-36B (PZR PORV) open causing NC pressure to
decrease
"* PORVs close at 2185 psig
"* Backup heaters energize and pressure increases
"* PORVs reopen at 2189 psig
"* A reactor trip does not occur
"* This cycle continues until operator action is taken
Assuming no operator action to realign (or swap) instrument channel lineups,
which one of the following events would cause these actions?
A. PZR pressure channel I fails high
B. PZR pressure channel II fails high
C. PZR pressure channel III fails high
D. PZR pressure channel IV fails high
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - channel I does not control PORVs 32 and 36
Plausible: - plant response is very similar except PORV 34 opens
and pressure continues to decrease below 2185 until a plant trip
occurs due to spray valves being full open
B. Correct answer - PZR channel III is the interlock channel to channel
II
C. Incorrect: - PORVs do not open - interlock channel only
Plausible: - if candidates do not recall that this is an interlock
channel or think that it controls the interlocked PORVs
D. Incorrect: - PORVs do not open - interlock channel only
Plausible: - if candidates do not recall that this is an interlock
channel or think that it controls the interlocked PORVs
Level: RO Only
KA: APE 027 AK3.03 (3.7/4.1)
For Official Use Only Page 28
Ques_37o
Question#17 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-IPE SEQ 12
Source: Bank; Ques 370, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-IPE page 35
For Official Use Only Page 29
Ques_370
Question#18 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 380 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Which one of the following statements is a correct description of the
capabilities of EMF-48 (REACTOR COOLANT) at 100% power?
A. Detects corrosion product beta flux from the coolant in the A
loop of the NC system.
B. Detects fission product gamma flux from the coolant in the B
loop of the NC system.
C. Detects corrosion product beta flux from the coolant in the C
loop of the NC system.
D. Detects fission product gamma flux from the coolant in the D
loop of the NC system.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - EMF-48 does not detect beta radiation
Plausible: - If the candidate believes that the reason CRUD bursts is
detected by EMF-48 is the beta flux.
B. Incorrect: - EMF-48 does not sample the B loop.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not recognize that it samples A &
D loops.
C. Incorrect: - EMF-48 does not detect beta radiation, and loop C is not
a sample point.
Plausible: - If the candidate believes that the reason CRUD bursts are
detected by EMF-48 is the beta flux, and does not recognize that it
samples A & D loops.
D. Correct answer
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 076AA2.01(2.7/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: PSS-NM SEQ 2
Source: Bank; Ques_380 McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-PSS-NM pages 15, 21
Ques_380 For Official Use Only Page 30
Question#19 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 387 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Enclosure 1 to E- 1 (Loss ofReactor or Secondary Coolant)provides foldout
page actions to close INV- 150B and lNV- 15 1A (NVPUMPS
RECIRCULATION) when NC pressure is less than 1500 psig.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the operator
response and reason for this response when pressurizer pressure is 1495 psig?
A. Notify the SRO of the need to close the valves to prevent NV
pump runout at low pressures.
B. Close the valves to prevent a reduction of full SI flow to the core.
C. Close the valves to prevent NV pump runout at low pressures.
D. Notify the SRO of the need to close the valves to prevent a
reduction of full SI flow to the core.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - pump runout is not a concern and the actions are
automatic.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know that foldout actions are
independent - pump runout can be a concern for situations where the
pump discharge pressure is very low.
B. Correct answer - maximizes flow into the core.
C. Incorrect: - pump runout is not a concern at this pressure.
Plausible: pump runout can be a concern for situations where the
pump discharge pressure is very low.
D. Incorrect: - the actions are automatic.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not know that foldout actions are
independent.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 011EK3.07 (3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-El SEQ 5
Source: Bank; Ques_387a, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
Ques 387 For Official Use Only Page 31
Question#19 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
1. OP-MC-EP-INTRO pages 33, 35
2. OP-MC-EP-E1 page 59
Ques_387 For Official Use Only Page 32
Question#2O McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 391 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Which one of the following ND pump operating conditions would be most
likely to experience cavitation?
A. ND pumps running with both trains crosstied and NC pressure is
290 psig
B. ND pump running in mid loop operations and reactor vessel level
is low
C. ND pump running in a shutdown cooling lineup and the
discharge header ruptures
D. ND pump running and the suction valve closes part way (pump
does not trip)
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - this is an example of pump deadheading
Plausible: - if the candidate does not understand centrifugal pump
operating conditions
B. Incorrect: - this is an example of conditions for pump vortexing.
Vortexing and cavitation are have similar indications but they are
different operating situations. Vortexing is the entrainment of air in
the suction path due to a low level condition. Cavitation is the loss of
NPSH due to a low pressure condition.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not understand centrifugal pump
operating conditions and this is the condition that the candidates are
primarily trained to avoid.- they will be most familiar with this
condition
C. Incorrect: - this would be an example of conditions for pump runout
Plausible: - if the candidate does not understand centrifugal pump
operating conditions
D. Correct answer
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 025 G2.1.7 (3.7/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: THF-FF LPRO 7, 8
Source: Bank; NRC McGuire 1999 Ques_391
Level of Knowledge: memory
Ques_391 For Official Use Only Page 33
uo,,stion#20 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1.OP-MC-THF-FF pages 21-23
Ques_3911 For Official Use Only Page 34
Question#21 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 398 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is in the process of starting up the reactor in accordance with all
controlling procedures. Given the following conditions and events:
2 EMF-3 (CONTAINMENT REFUELING BRIDGE MONITOR) trip 1 setpoint is
7x10' mR/hr and trip 2 setpoint is 1.5x10 2 mR/hr.
0200 0205 0210 0215 2
2EMF 3 (mR/hr) 5x10' 1.1x10 2 1.6x10 2 2.7x10
N-31 (CPS) 1.2x10 4 1.7x10 4 2x10 4 0
N-32 (CPS) 9.2x 103 1.1 x10 4 0 0
N-35 (amps) 9.1x10-lO 1.OxlO 'o 1.210'0 1.210'0
N-36 (amps) 9.3x10-I 1.1xl0-10 1.3x101° 1.3x10'°
If channel N-32 is deenergized due to a SR detector failure at 0210, what is the
earliest time (if any) that the containment evacuation alarm will actuate in Unit
2 during the startup?
A. 0205
B. 0210
C. 0215
D. The containment evacuation alarm will not actuate
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - both SR high flux trips are active, but the EMF is still
below Trip 2.
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that Trip 1 actuation causes the
alarm
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: Both SR high flux trips are blocked
Plausible: - if the candidate reverses the logic that BOTH SR high flux
trips must be blocked
D. Incorrect: - alarm actuates at 0210
Plausible: - if candidate thinks that some other action or interlock
blocks the alarm
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 061AA1.01(3.6/3.6)
Ques_398 For Official Use Only Page 35
Question#21 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-EMF SEQ 3
Source: Mod; Ques_398, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 43
2. OP-MC-IC-ENB pages 21-23
Ques_398 For Official Use Only Page 36
Question#22 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 400 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is conducting a plant shutdown. The S/G's are being filled to wet lay
up. Given the following plant conditions and events:
"* 2D S/G pressure = 5 psig (all channels indicating the same)
"* 2D S/G NR level = 95%
"* 2D S/G WR level =75%
"* No S/G PORVs are open
"* Operators are performing OP/2/A/6100/02 (ControllingProcedurefor
Unit Shutdown) and SO-4D (FillingS/G 2D)
"* NCS temperature = 195 0F
Which one of the following statements represents actual level conditions for
the 2D S/G under these conditions?
A. Approximately 75%
B. Approximately 85%
C. Approximately 95%
D. >100%
Distracter Analysis: Narrow range SG level detectors are calibrated for
normal (hot) operating conditions. Wide range SG level detectors are
calibrated for cold (shutdown) conditions. This means that the narrow range
instrument will read higher than actual level under cold conditions because
variable leg water density is greater than the calibrated setting.
A. Correct answer: S04 procedures use only the WR level when
filling the S/Gs.
B. Incorrect: Actual level is about 75%
Plausible: - if the candidate is confused over which of the S/G level
instruments is cold calibrated and gets the effect reversed
C. Incorrect: - SG level is about 75 %
Plausible: - if the candidate is confused over which of the S/G level
instruments is cold calibrated.
D. Incorrect: - SG level is about 75 %
Plausible: If the candidate believes at low temperature, inaccuracy
has increased level indication.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 035A1.01(3.6/3.8)
Ques_400 For Official Use Only Page 37
Question#22 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: STM-SG SEQ 5
Source: Mod; Ques_400, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-STM-SG pages 21, 23
2. OP/I/A/6100/SO-2D pages 6, 11
For Official Use Only Page 38
Ques_400
Question#23 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 407 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 has initiated a liquid radioactive waste release from the Ventilation
Unit Condensate Drain Tank (VUCDT) through the RC system. All lineups
and authorizations have been properly made in accordance with
OP/0/B/6200/35 using the normal path. Two RC pumps are the minimum
required under the LWR document.
Given the following initial conditions:
- 3 RC pumps are running
- IEMF-44 (CONT VENTDRN TANK OUT) correctly set for trip I and
trip 2 activity limits
a MRIRR = 75 GPM based on boron concentration
a No other releases are in progress
If the release automatically terminates 40 seconds after initiation, which one
of the following conditions could have terminated the release?
A. 1WM-46 (LIQUID WASTE DISCH VAL VE) closing
automatically if I RC pump tripped
B. 1WM-46 closing automatically if IEMF-44 reached the trip 2
setpoint
C. 1WP-35 (WMT & VUCDT TO RC CNTRL) closing automatically
if 1 RC pump tripped
D. IWP-35 closing automatically if 1EMF-44 reached the trip 2
setpoint
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - RC pump interlock will not actuate - set at 2 pumps
(minimum required on LWR document). WM-46 is isolated and not
used anymore as a release path.
Plausible: - this was formerly the normal release path
B. Incorrect: - WM-46 receives a closing signal from EMF-44 but this
is not the normal path for a release. WM-46 is isolated and not used
anymore.
Plausible: - this was formerly the normal release path
C. Incorrect: - RC pump interlock will not actuate - set at 2 pumps
(minimum required on LWR document).
Plausible: - if the candidate misunderstands the RC pump interlock-
this was the correct answer on a prior NRC exam -
Ques_407 For Official Use Only Page 39
Question#23 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
D. Correct answer
KA: SYS 68A4.03 (3.9/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-WL SEQ 3
Source: Bank; McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-WL pages 21, 27, 59
2. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 31
Ques_407 For Official Use Only Page 40
Question#24 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 415.1 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 80% power when an electrical transient causes several
condensate system pumps to trip. Given the following conditions and events:
Start 10 see 20 sec 30 sec
CF pump lA Suction Pressure (psig) 451 238 232 229
CF pump lB Suction Pressure (psig) 448 227 224 240
- Hotwell Pumps running 2 2 3 2
- Condensate Booster Pumps running 2 1 0 2
What is the earliest time (if any) that BOTH main feedwater pumps will have
tripped?
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. At least one feedwater pump will continue to run
Distracter Analysis: This is the 1999 version of the question with slight
modifications. It was used in different versions in 2000 and
2001 (Catawba).
A. Incorrect: - CF pump lA continues to run as suction pressure
remains > 230 psig
Plausible: - CF pump lB will trip on low suction pressure
B. Correct answer: - both CF pumps trip when 3/3 condensate booster
pumps trip - trip is irrespective of suction pressure
C. Incorrect: - CF pump lb trip criteria met but trip occurred earlier at
20 sec.
Plausible: - if candidate does not know that the CBPs are interlocked
with the CF pumps
D. Incorrect: - tripping criteria are met at 20 sec
Plausible: - if candidate does not know CF pump trips
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 056K1.03 (2.6/2.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques_415, McGuire NRC 2000
Ques_415 For Official Use Only Page 41
Question#24 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CF page 19
Ques_415 For Official Use Only Page 42
Question#25 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 432.1 Answer. C
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 has just entered mode 5 in preparation for refueling. Given the
following conditions and events:
"* A lower containment entry is planned for the next shift.
"* The SRO directs the RO to purge the containment in preparation for the
containment entry.
"* The VP system is secured with all fans off and containment purge and
exhaust valves closed
Which one of the following failures would severely compromise the
operator's ability to perform the containment purge?
A. The NORMAL-REFUEL SELECTOR switch is stuck in the
"NORM" position.
B. Containment isolation valve 1VP-4A (VP TO UPPER CONTINSD
ISOL) will not open.
C. Damper IRBPS-D9 (VP to Lower Cont) is stuck in its "REFUEL"
(4 to 1) position.
D. Containment isolation valve 1VP-6B (VP to Lower Cont Otsd Isol)
will not open.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - this is the proper position for this operation.
Plausible: - if the candidate misunderstands the VP operations in
this mode - this was the correct answer in a prior version.
B. Incorrect: - any loss of flow to the upper containment will have no
effect on the lower containment entry.
Plausible: - if the candidate assumes there is an interlock that
precludes fan operation with an isolation valve closed.
C. Correct answer: - this will over-pressurize the upper containment
D. Incorrect: - should not significantly reduce purge flow to lower
containment due to a parallel path.
Plausible: - if the candidate presumes a loss of a flow path to lower
containment will reduce purge effectiveness or over-pressurize upper
containment.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 029K3.02(2.9*/3.5*)
Ques_432 For Official Use Only Page 43
Question#25 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-VP SEQ 2
Source: Mod; Ques 432, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-VP pages 19, 21, 23, 27
Ques_432 For Official Use Only Page 44
Question#26 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 451 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is shutdown in a refueling outage. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* The VI system was in a normal lineup.
"* The VS system was in a normal lineup.
"* A VI header rupture occurs.
"* The VI system completely depressurizes.
What effect does a total loss of the VI system have on the VS system?
A. VI-820 will auto-close as VI header pressure decreases below 82
psig and the VS air compressor will start automatically to
maintain VS header pressure.
B. VI-820 will auto-close as VI header pressure decreases below 90
psig and the VS air compressor must be manually started to
maintain VS header pressure.
C. Check valves in the VI - VS cross-connect line will close to isolate
VS system pressure before it drops below 90 psig.
D. VS pressure in the Fire Protection Pressurizer Tank will be lost
until a VS air compressor can be started.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - the VS air compressor does not automatically start to
maintain pressure
Plausible: - The VI system is safety significant, VI-820 used to close
82 psig but the setpoint was recently changed from 82 psig to 90 psig.
There is a separate VS air compressor, which has an automatic
startup feature - but it is normally in "off' and requires operator
action to start.
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: - there are no check valves in this line
Plausible: - this is another possible method to prevent depressurizing
the VS header at some plants.
D. Incorrect: - the RF system tank is pressurized with VS air - but is
maintained isolated from the VI header
Plausible: - if the candidate does not know that the RF system air
tank is isolated from the VS header.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 078 K4.01 (2.7/2.9)
Ques_451 For Official Use Only Page 45
Question#26 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: SS-VI LPRO 7
Source: Bank; NRC McGuire 1999 Ques_451
Level of Knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-SS-VI page 67
For Official Use Only Page 46
Ques_451
Question#27 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 453.2 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 70% power when a loss of condenser vacuum
occurred. Given the following events and conditions:
- The operators initiated AP/04 (RapidDownpower)
- Reactor power dropped to 47%
- Turbine load dropped to 45% based on turbine impulse pressure
- The operator reports that condenser vacuum is 18 inches vacuum
and is continuing to decrease slowly.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
action?
A. Manually trip the reactor and enter E-0 (Reactor Trip or Safety
Injection)
B. Manually trip the turbine and enter AP/2 (Turbine Generator
Trip)
C. Wait for the automatic turbine trip to actuate and then enter
E-0.
D. Wait for the automatic turbine trip to actuate and then enter
AP/2.
Distracter Analysis:
Turbine Trip Criteria: IF condenser vacuum decreases to less than 20 in Hg
or turbine exhaust hood temperature is greater than 250 'F, THEN: Trip the
reactor and enter E-0.
This is a modified question from the last Catawba Exam.
A. Correct: The turbine trip setpoint (23-20 inches of vacuum) was
exceed - OMP4-3 and OMP 2-2 require the operator to manually
trip the turbine - but the reactor is < P8 so instead, the operator
must manually trip the reactor because the turbine trip will not
cause an automatic reactor trip.
B. Incorrect: Manually tripping the turbine will not cause a reactor
trip - the reactor will remain at power.
Plausible: if the candidate recognizes that a reactor trip is not
automatic below 48% power, and forgets that the dumps will not
operate below C-9.
For Official Use Only Page 47
Ques_453
Question#27 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
C. Incorrect Waiting for an automatic trip is incorrect because the
auto turbine trip setpoint (23-20 inches vacuum) has already been
exceeded and failed to actuate the turbine trip.
Plausible: if the candidate recognizes that a reactor trip is not
automatic below 48% power but forgets that the turbine trip
setpoint is 23-20 inches of vacuum
D. Incorrect: Waiting for an automatic trip is incorrect because the
auto turbine trip setpoint (23-20 inches vacuum) has already been
exceeded and failed to actuate the turbine trip.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize that the turbine trip
setpoint is 23-20 inches of vacuum or does not
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 051 AA2.02 (3.9/4.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-23 SEQ 1/2
Source: Mod; Ques_453a, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. AP/1/5500/23 pages 2-4
2. OMP 2-2 pages 6-7
3. OMP 4-3 page 8
4. OP-MC-MT-ZM page 21
5. OP-MC-MT-MT page 55
For Official Use Only Page 48
Ques_453
Question#28 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 460 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) If a fire was reported in the McGuire Office Complex (MOC), which one of
the following responses is correct by station procedures?
A. Offsite fire departments are responsible for all fire suppression
activities at the scene. The Fire Brigade must be held in reserve
for station fires inside the protected area.
B. Offsite fire departments are responsible for all fire suppression
activities at the scene. The Fire Brigade may provide limited
support if resources allow.
C. The Fire Brigade is responsible for the initial response at the
scene. They are required to turn over control of the scene as
soon as an offsite fire department arrives and immediately return
to the protected area.
D. The Fire Brigade is responsible for fire suppression activities at
the scene. An offsite fire department may be called to provide
support if additional resources are required.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - the Fire Brigade is allowed to leave the protected area.
Plausible: - they have restrictions regarding leaving the site.
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: - the Fire Brigade is not responsible for initial response
and they are not required to return to the protected area.
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that they cannot remain outside
the protected area.
D. Incorrect: - The Fire Brigade is not primarily responsible to fight
fire outside the protected area.
Plausible: - If the candidate does not understand fire brigade
responsibilities.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 086 G2.4.12(3.4/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Source: Bank; Ques_460, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 49
Ques_460
Question#28 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. RP/l/A/5700/025 Enclosure 4.1 page 5
For Official Use Only Page 50
Ques_460
Question#29 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 503.2 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- Turbine impulse pressure instrument channel I fails low.
- The operators have performed the actions of AP-14 (Rod Control
Malfunctions).
- Tayc has been adjusted to within iF of program by adjusting turbine load
and power is 95%.
- 10 minutes later, the RO misunderstands an order and places the rod
control selector switch in A UTO.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the response of the
rod control system?
A. Rods will not move because all auto rod motion is still blocked.
B. Rods will move in because the power mismatch circuit still has an
error signal present.
C. Rods will not move because there is no demand signal calling for rod
motion.
D. Rods will move in because Tave is greater than T.r
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Auto rod motion will begin in an attempt to match Tave with
program Tref (557, zero power value)
Plausible: if the candidate believes auto motion is blocked and
remembers the turbine impulse mismatch circuit is no longer active.
B. Incorrect: The derivative of the Imp Press change has timed out.
Plausible: based on misunderstanding the derivative function of the
power mismatch circuit.
C. Incorrect: Tref is still low.
Plausible: if the candidate forgets the impulse signal locks in.
D. Correct: The temperature mismatch function has an error signal at this
time.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 001K4.03 (3.5/3.8)
Source: Mod; Ques_503a, Catawba NRC 2001
For Official Use Only Page 51
Ques_503
Question#29 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-IRX 11
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-IRX pages 39, 41, 33
For Official Use Only Page 52
Ques_503
Question#30 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 510 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit I is cooling down in mode 4. Given the following plant conditions:
"* LTOPs key switches for PORVs are selected to "NORM" position
"* NC pressure = 380 psig
"* NC temp = 340 'F
"* ND system is in service
Which one of the following components would open to mitigate a pressure
transient to protect the NC system?
A. PORVs 32/34
B. ND hot leg discharge relief valve
C. ND cold leg discharge relief valve
D. ND pump suction relief valves
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: PORVs are not in low pressure mode - not placed in
LTOP mode until <360 psig.
Plausible: Normal over pressure protection in mode 4 is provided by
B. Incorrect: - ND pump suction will open at 450 psig - will not relieve
sufficient flow to protect system
Plausible: Opens at 600 psig to relieve 585 gpm - protects against
back leakage through the NC system check valves
C. Incorrect: - ND pump suction will open at 450 psig - will not
relieve sufficient flow to protect system
Plausible: - Opens at 600 psig to relieve 585 gpm - protects against
back leakage through the NC system check valves
D. Correct answer - will relieve sufficient flow (>both NV pumps) at
450 psig
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 005 A2.02 (3.5/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-ND LPRO 6, PS-IPE LPRO 12
Source: Bank; NRC McGuire / Catawba year
Level of Knowledge: comprehension
Ques_510 For Official Use Only Page 53
Question#30 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-ND page 21
2. OP-MC-PS-IPE page 27
Ques_510 For Official Use Only Page 54
Question#31 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 540 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a large LOCA when a loss of the 2ETA bus occurred.
Given the following events and conditions:
"* A reactor trip and safety injection occurred
"* All NV, NI, ND, and CA pumps sequenced on properly
"* SI was reset
"* Sequencers were reset
"* The 2ETA bus subsequently lost power but was re-energized by the 2A D/G
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the restoration
process for the train A NV, NI, ND, and CA pumps?
A. 2A NV and 2A NI pumps must be restarted by operator action
2A ND and 2A CA pumps will automatically restart
B. 2A NV and 2A NI pumps will automatically restart
2A ND and 2A CA pumps must be restarted by operator action
C. 2A NV and 2A CA pumps will automatically restart
2A NI and 2A ND pumps must be restarted by operator action
D. 2A NV and 2A CA pumps must be restarted by operator action
2A NI and 2A ND pumps automatically restart
Distracter Analysis:
Both the ECCS and blackout sequencers control NV and CA pumps. The
ECCS sequencer controls NI and ND pumps only
A. Incorrect: NI and ND pumps do not automatically restart, NV and
CA pumps will auto restart.
Plausible: If the candidate misunderstands the SI and SBO functions
of the components. NI pumps must be restarted and the CA pumps
will automatically restart.
B. Incorrect: NI and ND pumps do not automatically restart, NV and
CA pumps will auto restart.
Plausible: If the candidate misunderstands the SI and SBO functions
of the components. ND pumps must be restarted and the NV pumps
will automatically restart.
C. Correct answer
D. Incorrect: NI and ND pumps do not automatically restart, NV and
CA pumps will auto restart.
Plausible: Starting the ND and NI pumps automatically would be a
desired state for a large LOCA.
Ques_54o For Official Use Only Page 55
Question#31 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 013A2.01(4.6/4.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: DG-EQB SEQ 8
Source: Mod; Ques_540, Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-DG-EQB pages 29, 39, 41, 43
For Official Use Only Page 56
Ques_540
Question#32 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 547.1 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when main condenser vacuum dropped
suddenly from 25 inches vacuum to 23 inches vacuum. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* All 3 condenser steam air ejectors (CSAEs) are in service
"* Both primary and secondary jets are operating
"* The system lineup is in the normal configuration
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the cause of this
problem?
A. Loss of YM supply to the condenser boot seals
B. Loss of the main steam supply to the CSAEs
C. CM flow to all CSAE inter-coolers has been obstructed
D. A CSAE drain was left open
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: A recent change no longer runs seals water to the
condenser boot seals.
Plausible: Seal water to the boot seals was originally designed to
prevent condenser leakage
B. Incorrect: Main steam does not supply the CSAEs
Plausible: There are physical connections for main steam to be the
back up supply for aux steam - but these connections are not used.
C. Correct answer - reduces effectiveness of steam jets and causes
vacuum to decrease.
D. Incorrect: CSAE drains are normally open to allow condensate to
drain out of the air ejectors.
Plausible: If the drain is left closed, the condensate will build up
and flood out the CSAE, which could cause a loss of vacuum. This
is the reverse of the distracter.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 055K3.01 (2.5 / 2.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: MT-ZM SEQ 4, 5, 9
Source: Mod; Ques_547, Catawba NRC 2001
Ques_547 For Official Use Only Page 57
Question#32 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-MT-ZM pages 11, 13, 15, 23,27
For Official Use Only Page 58
Ques_547
Question#33 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 548 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating in mode 3 during a plant shut down for a refueling
outage. If a safety injection signal is received, which one of the following
events will occur to protect the vital AC busses from overload?
A. Only non-LOCA loads will be shed. The accelerated sequence
will sequence remaining loads on after checking for adequate bus
voltage.
B. A complete load shed will occur. The accelerated sequence will
sequence LOCA loads on after checking for adequate bus voltage
and DG speed.
C. A complete load shed will occur. The accelerated sequence will
sequence LOCA loads on after checking for adequate bus
voltage.
D. Only non-LOCA loads will be shed. The accelerated sequence
will sequence remaining loads on after checking for adequate bus
voltage and DG speed.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer
B. Incorrect: only non-LOCA loads are shed, the accelerated sequence
does not check for DG speed during a LOCA
Plausible: DG speed is checked when the sequencer is actuated
during a blackout signal
C. Incorrect: only non-LOCA loads are shed
Plausible: the remaining part of the answer is correct
D. Incorrect: the accelerated sequence does not check for DG speed
during a LOCA
Plausible: DG speed is checked when the sequencer is actuated
during a blackout signal
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 013K4.11(3.2/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: DG-EQB SEQ 6
Source: Bank; Ques_548, McGuire NRC 1999
Ques_548 For Official Use Only Page 59
Question#33 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-DG-EQB page 25
For Official Use Only Page 60
Ques_548
Question#34 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 563.2 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100%, all rods out. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* The RO is performing PT/l/A/4600/01 (RCCA Movement Test) for
control bank D
"* The RO selects CBD on the CRD Bank Selector Switch and drives rods
IN to 216 steps
"* An upset occurred and the RO selects MANUAL on the CRD Bank
Selector Switch and restores rods to 226 steps (ARO)
If this condition is left uncorrected, control bank C rods will begin to drive in
when control bank D is at ?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: COLR Table 1
A. 100 steps
B. 106 steps
C. 110 steps
D. 120 steps
Distracter Analysis:
The Bank Overlap Unit (BOU) will not count the -10 steps on bank D when the
bank was inserted in "CBD" position. This means that bank D rods will be
sequenced 10 steps lower than normal on the BOU counter when bank C rods
begin their insertion sequence during the next shutdown. There are 116 steps of
overlap between control banks D and C. 226 steps is all rods out (ARO).
Bank C rods will begin to insert when bank D is at 226-116 - 10 = 100 steps.
A. Correct: 100 steps is correct: 226-116-10 = 100 steps.
B. Incorrect: 100 steps is correct
Plausible: If the candidate uses 116 steps as the bank overlap setting
instead of subtracting 226-116 = 110 as the point where bank C rods
begin to sequence in on a shutdown.
C. Incorrect: 100 steps is correct
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize that the BOU counter
is effected by the individual withdrawal of bank D - or if he thinks
that the -10 steps in manual will offset the +10 steps in "Bank D"
D. Incorrect: 102 steps is correct
Plausible: If the candidate reverses the overlap error- adds +10
steps to 110 instead of subtracting 10 steps.
Ques_563 For Official Use Only Page 61
Question#34 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.2.33 (2.5/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-IRE SEQ 5
Source: Mod; Ques563a; McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-IRE page 13
2. COLR Table 1 - PROVIDED
COLR Enclosure 4.3 Section 1.13
For Official Use Only Page 62
Ques_563
Question#35 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 564 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Match the following radiation exposure administrative guides with the
applicable annual limits for non-pregnant radiation workers.
Alert Exclude Basic Admin 10CFR20
A. 1.5 1.6 2.0 4.5
B. 1.6 1.8 2.0 5.0
C. 1.8 2.0 4.5 4.5
D. 2.0 3.6 4.5 5.0
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Alert, Exclude and lOCFR20 all too low
Plausible: Basic Admin is correct
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: Exclude, Basic Admin are too high, 1OCFR20 is too low
Plausible: Alert is correct
D. Incorrect: Alert, Exclude and Basic Admin are too high
Plausible: 1OCFR20 is correct
Level: RO Only
KA: G2.3.1 (2.6/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: RAD-RP Seq 18, 19
Source: Bank Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. GET Radiation Worker Training pages 32, 34
For Official Use Only Page 63
Ques_564
Question#36 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 571 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a small break LOCA in ES-1.2, (PostLOCA
Cooldown and Depressurization). Step 15 of ES-1.2 requires the operators
to depressurize the NC system.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the reasons for
using the prescribed methods of depressurizing the NC system?
A.
1. Pressurizer spray - preferred method to be used if NC pump
is running
2. Auxiliary Spray - alternate method - better control over
depressurization rate
3. PORV - method of last resort - lack of control of
depressurization rate - results in rupturing the PRT
B.
1. Pressurizer spray - preferred method to be used if NC pump
is running
2. PORV - alternate method - better than auxiliary spray
3. Auxiliary Spray - method of last resort - too slow and may
thermal shock the spray nozzles and degrade regenerative Hx
C.
1. PORV - preferred method - rapid depressurization rate
2. Pressurizer spray - alternative method - next most rapid
depressurization rate
3. Auxiliary spray - method of last resort - too slow and may
thermal shock the spray nozzles
D.
1. Auxiliary spray - preferred method - does not degrade
containment
2. Pressurizer spray - alternative method - will not work if NC
pump is not running
3. PORV - method of last resort - will rupture PRT and degrade
containment environment
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: PORV is the alternative method - aux spray is the last
resort
Plausible: Pressurizer spray is the priority
B. Correct answer
For Official Use Only Page 64
Ques_571
Question#36 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
C. Incorrect: Pressurizer spray preferred over PORV
Plausible: Aux spray is last resort
D. Plausible: Aux spray is the last resort
Plausible: Pressurizer spray preferred over PORV
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE 03EK2.1 (3.6 / 4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-El SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques_571, Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-E I page 123
2. ES-1.2 page 12, 13
For Official Use Only Page 65
Ques_571
Question#37 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 593 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 99% power when a steamline break occurred. Given
the following events and conditions:
0200 The operators enter AP/0 1 (Steam Leak) to match T,,, and T~f
0200 The operators start reducing turbine load
0201 The operators start a second NV pump and isolate letdown
0202 NLOs start investigating for the location of the steam leak
0203 P/R OVER POWER ROD STOP alarms - the RO reports that power
is now going down.
0204 STA reports pressurizer level is decreasing and cannot be maintained
0205 The turbine building operator reports that the line to the atmospheric
dump valves has a steam leak and cannot be isolated
If no safety injection has occurred and pressurizer pressure is maintained,
which one of the following operator responses is correct?
A. Manually trip the reactor at 0203
B. Manually trip the reactor at 0204
C. Manually trip the reactor at 0205
D. Commence a rapid down power using AP/04 (RapidDownpower)
at 0205
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: no requirement to trip the reactor because reactor power
has turned and is decreasing. Not approaching the overpower
automatic reactor trip at 109% in 2 of 4 channels.
Plausible: shows a power mismatch reactor power reaches 103%
on 1 of 4 PR channels to cause C-2. OMP 4-3 (Use ofAbnormal and
Emergency Procedures)requires the operator to trip when an
automatic safeguards action setpoint is approached to avoid
challenging the automatic safeguards function.
B. Correct answer required to trip under AP/0l (and many other
procedures) if you cannot maintain pressurizer level with 2 NV
pumps
C. Incorrect: required to trip when PZR level cannot be maintained
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that a reactor trip is required
because the steam leak was not isolated.
D. Incorrect: required to trip when PZR level cannot be maintained
Ques_9 For Official Use Only Page 66
Question#37 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: this would be the correct answer if not required to trip at
0204.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 040AA2.02(4.6/4.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-I SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques_593, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. AP/1/A/5500/01 page 3
2. OP-MC-IC-IPE page 45
3. OMP 4-3, page 8
Ques_9 For Official Use Only Page 67
Question#38 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 605 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power, middle of core life. Given the
following events and conditions:
"* A reactor trip occurred due to a loss of both main feed pumps
"* The trip transient caused a 100 gpm tube leak in the 2B S/G
"* 2EMF-33 (CondenserAir EjectorExhaust) alarmed in trip 2
Which one of the following indications will provide the best indication (most
sensitive and timely) to confirm that a S/G tube leak has occurred?
A. S/G feed flow to steam flow mismatch
B. 2EMF-10, 11, 12 and 13 (STEAMLINE HI RAD)
C. 2EMF-34 (S/G SAMPLE)
D. 2EMF-71, 72, 73, and 74 (N16 LEAKAGE)
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Not a sensitive method of comparison - requires large
gpm leak rates before this is noticeable.
Plausible: This method will show gross SGTRs - good indication at
power.
B. Correct answer: normally, EMF-71-74 are the most sensitive
monitors. But these monitors detect N16 7 radiation that has a high
energy (7 MeV) 7 that only is generated when the reactor is operating
at power (requires a neutron flux).
C. Incorrect: The correct monitors are EMF 10 - 13.
Plausible: EMF-34 has no flow because the reactor trip would cause
an AFW auto-start - which would isolate blowdown and EMF-34
would not have any flow.
D. Incorrect: most sensitive method as it detects N' 6 7 radiation
Plausible: This was the correct answer for the 1997 NRC exam
when the premise of the question had the reactor was operating at
100% power. In this question, the reactor has tripped and neutron
flux has decreased - causing the N 6 7 to decay off (TV2 is 7 seconds)
so that by the time that the steam line monitors see the contents of the
S/G, the N 6 7 has decayed away.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 039A1.09(2.5*/2.7*)
Ques_605 For Official Use Only Page 68
Question#38 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-E3 SEQ 3
Source: Bank; Ques 605, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 45, 47
2. AP-10 page 7
3. OP-MC-EP-E3 page 43
For Official Use Only Page 69
Ques_605
Question#39 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 613 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% with normal charging and letdown in service.
Given the following indications:
- Pressurizer level began decreasing
- The 2A NV pump ammeter showed running amps decreased
If all automatic control systems operated normally, which one of the
following conditions would cause the 2A NV pump running amps to decrease
to the lowest value?
A. 2NV-238 (CHARGING LINE FLOW CONTROL) failed open
B. 2NV-238 (CHARGING LINE FLOW CONTROL) failed closed
C. 2NV-241 (SEAL INJFLOW CONTROL) failed open
D. 2NV-241 (SEAL INJ FLoW CONTROL) failed closed
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: pump amps and pressurizer level would initially increase
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand the charging flow path
or does not understand the relationship between pump amps and flow.
B. Correct answer: This would block the charging flow path and pumps
amps would reduce to minimum as the reduced charging flow was
diverted through the NV- 150 and NV- 151 mini-flow valves
C. Incorrect: this would increase charging flow, which would increase
charging pump amps. It would also increase pressurizer level, which
would cut back on charging flow and stabilize the pressurizer level.
Pump amps would not go to minimum value.
Plausible: If the candidate thought that this could divert charging
flow or did not understand the relationship between pump amps and
flow.
D. Incorrect: NV-241 closing would increase backpressure on the
charging system, which would divert more charging flow through the
NCP seals. However, the drop in pressurizer level would act to open
2NV-238 to compensate for the flow reduction. The overall effect
would be to increase pump amps as flow tried to remain the same but
at a higher backpressure.
Plausible: If the candidate does not consider the effect of the PZR
level control circuit.
Level: RO Only
Ques_613 For Official Use Only Page 70
Question#39 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: SYS 004K6.04(2.8/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 5/6
Source: Bank; Ques 613, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV pages 37, 115
Ques_613 For Official Use Only Page 71
Question#40 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 649.1 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- CF pumps 2A and 2B are running
- Hotwell pumps 2A and 2C are running
- Condensate booster pumps 2A and 2C are running
- Heater drain pump 2C1 is out of service
- Heater drain pump 2C3 trips on overload
Assuming no operator actions are taken, which one of the following
statements correctly describes a plant response to this event?
A. Heater drain pump 2C2 starts.
B. CF pump 2A trips.
C. The reactor/turbine trips.
D. Condensate booster pump 2B starts.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Heater drain pump 2C2 is already running.
Plausible: based on misunderstanding the normal 100% capacity of
the pumps (2 - 50% capacity).
B. Incorrect: CF pumps do not trip because a third CBP and HW pump
will start on low suction pressure to makeup the 15% loss in
condensate flow.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that 2C-2 heater drain pump not
providing full heater drain flow would cause one CF pump to trip on
low suction pressure.
C. Incorrect: The reactor does not trip because condensate pumps can
produce 150% flow.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that 2C-2 heater drain pump not
providing full heater drain flow would cause both CF pumps to trip
on low suction pressure.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 056A2.04(2.6/2.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CM SEQ 12
For Official Use Only Page 72
Ques_649
Question#40 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: New; Parked Ques_649
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CM pages 33, 37
For Official Use Only Page 73
Ques_649
Question#41 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 671.2 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 was releasing the contents of a waste gas decay tank in accordance with
an approved release permit. If the detector power supply for 1EMF-36(L)
(UNIT VENT GAS) failed during the release, which one of the following
actions must be taken?
REFERENCES PRO VIDED: SLC 16.11.7
A. Stop the release and complete repairs on 1EMF-36(L) before
restarting.
B. Recalculate the trip set points using IEMF-36(H) as the release
path monitor.
C. Restart the release using 1EMF-50(L) (WASTE GAS DISCH)as
the release path monitor.
D. Continue the release using 1EMF-50(L) as the release path
monitor.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: not required to use 1EMF-36(L) as the release path
monitor.
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize that 1EMF-50(L) is
normally used to monitor the release path.
B. Incorrect: LEMF-36(H) does not automatically trip IWG-160, and
cannot be used as a waste gas release path monitor
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that substituting the high range of
1EMF-50(L) is necessary and provides the same automatic
protection.
C. Incorrect: the release would NOT be terminated when IEMF-36(L)
failed low due to detector failure.
Plausible: if the candidate did not recognize that 1EMF-36(L) fails
low on detector failure and would not trip 1WG-160.
D. Correct answer
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 073A4.01(3.9/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-RGR SEQ 4
Source: Mod; Ques_671 McGuire NRC 2000
For Official Use Only Page 74
Ques_671
Question#41 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-RGR page 15
2. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 21, 23, 37
3. SLC 16.11.7 - PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 75
Ques_671
Question#42 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 681 Answer. C
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% when a floor cooling glycol high temperature
alarm is received. A review of the RTD panel reveals that several ice
condenser floor slabs have high temperature indications.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the operational
concern raised by this alarm?
A. High glycol temperatures will cause the in-service glycol
compressor to trip causing a loss of NF cooling and excessive ice
sublimation.
B. Low floor cooling glycol temperatures could cause cracks in the
ice condenser thermal barrier.
C. Slab freeze and thaw cycles could result in floor buckling that
could interfere with lower door operation.
D. Slab freeze and thaw cycles could cause gaps between the floor
and the intermediate deck doors resulting in a bypass flow path.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: none of the compressors trip on high glycol temperature
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the basis for the
temperature limits - low glycol temperature can cause a compressor
trip.
B. Incorrect: not the problem - glycol floor cooling does not effect the
thermal barrier.
Plausible: low temperatures can cause cracks in some systems due to
thermal stress
C. Correct Answer: this has been a problem as described in PIP 2
M97-2686 (July 1997)
D. Incorrect: the intermediate deck doors are not physically located
near the floor slab.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the mechanism for floor
buckling.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 025A2.02(2.7/2.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-NF SEQ 15
Ques_681 For Official Use Only Page 76
Question#42 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Bank; Ques_681, McGuire Audit 2000
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-NF pages 21, 37, 41
For Official Use Only Page 77
Ques_681
Question#43 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 684 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a loss of power to 2B NCP
occurred and was compounded by an ATWS event. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* Control rods were locally tripped five minutes after the NCP lost power.
"* Emergency boration increased NC boron concentration by 15 ppm.
"* Tave stabilized at 557 0 F following the trip.
"* The 2B NCP has been restarted.
"* Containment radiation levels have doubled as indicated by:
"o 2EMF-2 (RxBLDGINCOREINSTRM)
"o 2EMF-3 (RXBLDGREFUELBRDG)
"o 2EMF-5 (NCFLT.2A)
Which of the following correctly describes the prmar cause of the increase
in containment radiation levels following the event?
A. NCS activity has increased due to mechanical shock.
B. NCS activity has increased due to the boron concentration
change.
C. NCS activity has increased due to thermal shock.
D. NCS activity has increased due to a loss of letdown flow.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Mechanical shock (reactor trip and NCP cycling) causes a
crud burst.
B. Incorrect: Activity increases are primarily due to mechanical shock.
Plausible: based on the amount of boric acid, the NCS will not
change enough to see any difference in activity. A larger pH change
can cause a crud burst (chemical shock) - but this emergency
boration will not cause a significant pH change.
C. Incorrect: Activity increases are primarily due to mechanical shock
- the temperature change is not enough to cause thermal shock
because the reactor remains at power for 5 minutes.
Plausible: a larger temperature change can cause a thermal shock,
which will cause a crud burst.
D. Incorrect: Activity increases are primarily due to mechanical shock.
Plausible: loss of letdown will stop the filtration of crud and fission
products and is the action required to return the activity to normal
For Official Use Only Page 78
Ques_684
Question#43 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
following a crud burst - but will not result in a rapid change of
activity because it is not the predominant causal mechanism.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE 16EK3.1 (2.9/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: CH-PC SEQ 4
Source: Bank; McGuire Audit 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CH-PC pages 23-25
2. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 119
For Official Use Only Page 79
Ques_684
Question#44 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 697.2 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power on 2/19. 2NI-59 (cold leg accumulator
check valve) begins to leak at 0200. Given the following accumulator
indications:
Time 0200 0300 0400 0500
Level (%) 11% 21% 31% 41%
Pressure (psig) 586 613 640 667
Boron (ppm) 2485 2470 2455 2440
When does the accumulator first exceed a limiting condition for operation?
REFERENCES PROVIDED:
Unit I DataBook curve 7.4
Unit I Cycle 15 COLR -pages 23
A. 0200
B. 0300
C. 0400
D. 0500
Distracter Analysis: Tech Spec values for CLA parameters are:
Volume Ž-6870 (12.3%) but * 7342 gal (38.7%) - exceeded at 0200 (low)
and again at 0500 (high)
Pressure Ž> 585 but * 639 psig - exceeded at 0400
Boron concentration Ž 2475 ppm but *2875 ppm - exceeded at 0300
A. Correct Answer: The accumulator first exceeds the LCO at 0200 for
the low level limit (<12.3%)
B. Incorrect: The accumulator first exceeds the LCO at 0200 for the
low level limit (<12.3%)
Plausible: if the candidate misreads the cold leg accumulator level
curve - first exceeds Boron concentration (<2475 ppm) at 0300
C. Incorrect: The accumulator first exceeds the LCO at 0200 for the
low level limit (<12.3%)
Plausible: if the candidate misreads the cold leg accumulator level
curve - first exceeds high-pressure limit (>639 psig) at 0400
D. Incorrect: The accumulator first exceeds the LCO at 0200 for the
low level limit (<12.3%)
For Official Use Only Page 80
Ques_697
Question#44 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: if the candidate misreads the cold leg accumulator level
curve - first exceeds high-level limit (>38.7%) at 0400.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 016G2.1.25(2.8/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: ECC-CLA SEQ 7
Source: Mod; Ques_697, Catawba NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-ECC-CLA page 23
2. Tech Spec 3.5.1 - PROVIDED
3. Unit 1 Data Book Curve 7.4 - PROVIDED
4. Unit I Cycle 15 COLR - PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 81
Ques_697
Question#45 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 703.1 Answer. C
I Pt(s) While performing a valve lineup in the boric acid mixing room, an air line
failure caused a severe airborne beta contamination problem. A worker
received both internal and external contamination that was detected upon
exiting the RCA.
Which one of the exposures would exceed the I0CFR20 limit for the
worker's annual shallow dose equivalent (SDE) exposure?
A. 55 Rem external dose to the lens of the eye.
B. 17 Rem internal dose equivalent to the lens of the eye.
C. 55 Rem external dose to the leg below the knee.
D. 17 Rem internal dose to the right forearm.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: skin dose equivalent
Plausible: 50 Rem is correct limit for SDE - may confuse with LDE
eye dose
B. Incorrect: SDE is an external skin or extremity dose not an internal
dose
Plausible: this is the correct LDE limit (lens of the eye).
C. Correct: 50 Rem SDE limit to the extremities (below forearm and
below knee) or skin.
D. Incorrect: SDE is an external dose not an internal dose
Plausible: the right forearm is the correct part of the anatomy for an
SDE - based on confusion of external/internal
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.3.4(2.5/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: RAD-RP SEQ 19
Source: Mod; Ques_703, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. GET Training Manual pages 31-32
Ques_703 For Official Use Only Page 82
Question#46 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 715.1 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 45% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- 2A NC pump trips
- No operator action has been taken
- All safety systems operate as designed
While the plant is still at power, which one of the following parameters will
initially DECREASE?
A. Steam generator 2A level.
B. Steam generator 2B hot leg temperature.
C. Steam generator 2A pressure.
D. Steam generator 2B feed flow.
Distracter Analysis: The reactor will not trip below P-8.
A. Correct: A S/G level will decrease as pressure increases due to
decreased steam flow
B. Incorrect: Thot will initially increase as heat removal increases
Plausible: candidate may decide that B loop will follow the overall
decrease in temperature of the A loop - or may think that the reactor
trips
C. Incorrect: pressure will increase as steam flow decreases
Plausible: candidate may reverse the effects - or may think that the
D. Incorrect: Feed flow will increase as power drawn from this S/G
increases,
Plausible: candidate may reverse the effects - or may think that the
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 003 K3.02 (3.5/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: TA-AT SEQ 4/5/6
Source: Mod; Ques_715, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: analysis
Ques_715 For Official Use Only Page 83
Question#46 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC- TA-AT page 121
2. OP-MC-THF-FF pages 30-31
Ques_715 For Official Use Only Page 84
Question#47 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 748.1 Answer. A
I Pt(s) The lB emergency diesel generator has been manually started and has been
idling for 15 minutes. The operator is preparing to parallel the diesel to the
grid.
In accordance with OP/l/A/6350/002 (DieselGenerator)Enclosure 4.2 (lB
D/G Startup) when manually loading the emergency diesel generator, the
operator should raise load to 1000 KW quickly after closing the D/G output
breaker while maintaining a lagging power factor.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the basis for this
requirement?
A. Prevent motoring the DIG.
B. Prevent diesel overspeed if the breaker opens on reverse power.
C. Prevent turbocharger fire due to excess lube oil collection.
D. Prevent D/G breaker trip on generator differential.
.--------------------- ------ - -
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: leading pf and low load could lead to reverse power
condition motorizing the machine.
B. Incorrect: D/G breaker does not have reverse power protection.
Plausible: the D/G will pick up speed if suddenly unloaded
overspeed is a valid concern for heavily loaded D/G's.
C. Incorrect: This is the reason for slow D/G loading.
Plausible: This is a valid concern when a D/G has run at idle for a
long time.
D. Incorrect: An unbalance does not exist, Gen Diff should not occur.
Plausible: This is a valid D/G trip
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 064A1.08(3.1/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: DG-DG SEQ 8
Source: Mod; Ques_748, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 85
Ques_748
Question#47 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP/1/A/6350/002 End 4.2 page 5
For Official Use Only Page 86
Ques_748
Question#48 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 767.1 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is responding to a small-break loss of coolant accident inside
containment. Given the following events and conditions:
"* Operators have implemented E-0 (Reactor Trip or Safety Injection), and
E- 1 (Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant) through step 11.
"* Bus IETA is de-energized.
"* The lB NI pump has failed.
"* The lB Hydrogen recombiner is out of service.
"* Containment hydrogen concentration is 7%.
"* The TSC has recommended purging containment to reduce hydrogen
concentration to 3.5% before energizing the igniters.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the method for
performing this evolution to control the off-site dose?
A. Containment air is exhausted to the auxiliary building where it is
filtered prior to release to the unit vent stack.
B. Containment air is exhausted through the containment air
release system where it is filtered prior to release to the unit vent
stack.
C. Containment air is exhausted through the incore instrument
ventilation system where it is filtered prior to release to the unit
vent stack.
D. Containment air is exhausted to the annulus where it is filtered
prior to release to the unit vent stack.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Air is released to the annulus area.
Plausible: This could be a way to filter the release if the air was
vented to the auxiliary building.
B. Incorrect: Air is released to the annulus area.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the VQ and VE systems.
C. Incorrect: The air is released to the vent stack.
Plausible: If the candidate does not remember that VE releases to the
stack to maintain negative pressure in the annulus.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_767 For Official Use Only Page 87
Question#48 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: SYS 028K6.01(2.6/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: VE SEQ 11
Source: Mod; Ques_767, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-VE pages 11, 19, 31
Ques_767 For Official Use Only Page 88
Question#49 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 771.1 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at full power and Unit 2 is refueling. Unit 1 is releasing a
minimally decayed waste gas decay tank when a significant packing leak starts
on isolation valve IWG-160, (WG Decay Tank Outlet to Unit Vent Control).
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the automatic actions
required to assure that the leak is contained and filtered?
A. 1EMF-50 (WASTE GASDISCHHIRAD) automatically closes 1WG-160,
and 1EMF-41 (AUXBLDG VENTHIRAD) automatically stops the
auxiliary building ventilation unfiltered exhaust fans.
B. 1EMF-41 automatically stops the auxiliary building ventilation
unfiltered exhaust fans, and 1EMF-36 (UNIT VENTHIRAD)
automatically closes IWG-160.
C. IEMF-36 automatically closes tWG-160, and 1EMF-35 (UNIT
VENTPARTHIRAD) automatically aligns the auxiliary building
ventilation filter trains.
D. 1EMF-35 automatically stops the auxiliary building ventilation
unfiltered exhaust fans, and 1EMF-41 automatically aligns the
auxiliary building ventilation filter trains.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: EMF-50 will not get to Trip 2 because it is set for the
activity being released, and EMF-41 does not automatically stop
these fans.
Plausible: These are valid automatic actions for EMF monitors.
B. Incorrect: EMF-41 does not automatically stop these fans.
Plausible: if the candidates do not recognize that this is not an
automatic action for EMF-41 but for 35/37.
C. Incorrect: EMF-35 does not realign ventilation filters.
Plausible: partially correct - EMF 36-will close 1WG- 160.
D. Correct answer: EMF-35 will secure VA fans, and EMF-41 will
realign filter trains to contain and filter the release in the Aux Bldg.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 071K1.06(3.1*/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-EMF SEQ 2,3
For Official Use Only Page 89
Ques_771
Question#49 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Mod; Ques 771, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PSS-VA pages 29, 45
2. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 21 - 27
For Official Use Only Page 90
Ques_771
Question#50 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 776 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% when a LOCA with loss of offsite power
occurs. One diesel generator fails to start. The operators are entering E- 1
(Loss ofReactor or Secondary Coolant).
Given the following critical safety function status indications:
"* Core Cooling - ORANGE
"* Subcriticality - GREEN
"* Containment - RED
"* Inventory - GREEN
"* Heat Sink - RED
"* Integrity - GREEN
Which one of the following describes the highest priority problem, and the
appropriate operator action?
A. Core cooling; Transition to FR-C.2, (Response to DegradedCore
Cooling).
B. Core cooling; Transition to FR-C.1, (Response to Inadequate Core
Cooling).
C. Heat Sink; Transition to FR-H.1, (Response to Loss of Secondary
HeatSink).
D. Containment; Transition to FR-Z.1, (Response to High
ContainmentPressure).
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: heat sink is the highest priority RED
Plausible: if the candidate picks the first item requiring transition
from E- 1.
B. Incorrect: heat sink is the highest priority RED
Plausible: if the candidate picks the first RED condition and does not
recognize that the wrong procedure is listed.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: heat sink is the highest priority RED
Plausible: if the candidate picks the first RED condition.
Level: RO Only 1OCFR55.41(b)10
For Official Use Only Page 91
Ques_776
Question#5O McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FO SEQ 2, 3
Source: Bank; Ques_776, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-F0 pages 13, 15
2. OMP 4-3 pages 15-16
For Official Use Only Page 92
Ques-776
Question#51 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 857 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at 65% power with pressurizer level on program, and
normal charging and letdown flow through a 75 gpm orifice. Given the
following events and conditions:
- 1NV-245B (CHARGING LINE CONT OUTSIDE ISOL) spuriously closes
- Flashing in the letdown line reduces letdown flow to 5 gpm
- The operators take no actions
How long before the pressurizer high level alarm actuates?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Unit 1 Databook Curve 7.38
A. Less than 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
B. 2 to 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
C. Greater than 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> to 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
D. Greater than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
Distracter Analysis:
Charging flow is reduced to the minimum value - goes to 32 gpm to the NCP
seals. 12 gpm seal flow goes to the VCT.
PZR level starts at 44.5% (.65 * (55%-25%) +25% = 44.5%).
PZR level increases to the high level alarm at 70%.
The reduction in charging flow into the NCS causes charging flow to reduce
to minimum (32 gpm) as the PZR fills up. NCP Seal flow continues (12
gpm). Letdown flow drops to 5 gpm because of high regen HX outlet
temperature (flashing at the orifices). Net charging flow drops to +15 gpm
(32-12-5)
Per tank curve: 70%=9800 gal, 44.5%=6500 gal, 17%=2800 gal.
3300gal (9800-6500) / (15gpm) = 220 minutes = 3.67 hours7.75463e-4 days <br />0.0186 hours <br />1.107804e-4 weeks <br />2.54935e-5 months <br />
A. Incorrect: There are more than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Plausible: If candidate neglects to subtract seal flow and letdown flow
3300 gal / 32 gpm = 103 minutes = 1.7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br /> - or misreads tank
curves / miscalculates pressurizer level
B. Incorrect: There are more than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Plausible: If the candidate includes the loss of letdown but neglects
seal return flow: 3300 gal/(32-5) gpm = 122 min = 2.03 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />. - or
misreads tank curves / miscalculates pressurizer level
C. Incorrect: There are more than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
For Official Use Only Page 93
Ques_857
Question#51 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: Assuming loss of letdown, if the candidate does not include
seal return flow: 3300gal / (32 - 12) gpm = 165 min = 2.75 hours8.680556e-4 days <br />0.0208 hours <br />1.240079e-4 weeks <br />2.85375e-5 months <br /> - or
misreads tank curves / miscalculates pressurizer level
D. Correct answer: 3.67 hours7.75463e-4 days <br />0.0186 hours <br />1.107804e-4 weeks <br />2.54935e-5 months <br />
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 022AA2.04(2.9/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV pages 17, 39
2. OP-MC-PS-ILE page 35
3. Unit 1 Databook Curve 7.38 - PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 94
Ques_857
Question#52 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 858 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100%. Given the following events and conditions:
"* The following fans were in operation:
- S/G booster fans
- Return air fans
- Lower containment fans
- Incore instrument area fans
"* A main steam line break occurred inside containment
"* All systems functioned as designed
Which one of the following containment cooling systems will stop
operating?
A. S/G Booster Fans.
B. Return Air Fans.
C. Lower Containment Fans.
D. Incore Instrument Area Fans.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: These fans will continue to operate since no LOOP.
Plausible: These fans lose power during a LOOP.
B. Correct[BcHI]:
C. Incorrect: These fans automatically restart on S,.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses with the upper fans, which lose
power.
D. Incorrect: These fans automatically restart on S,.
Plausible: these fans are not required by TS to be operable.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 022 A3.01 (4.1/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-VUL SEQ 5
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
For Official Use Only Page 95
Ques_858
Question#52 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
1. OP-MC-CNT-VUL page 39,41
Ques_858 For Official Use Only Page 96
Question#53 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 859.1 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is in mode 6 with refueling activities in progress. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* A containment purge is in progress
"* A fuel element was rammed into the side of the reactor vessel
"* 2EMF-3 (CONTAINMENTREFUELING BRIDGE) and 2EMF-38 (CONTAINMENT
PARTICULATE) are in trip 2 condition
Which one of the following actions should occur, assuming that operators
follow the required procedure steps?
A. The containment evacuation alarm sounds automatically.
The containment purge stops automatically.
B. The containment evacuation alarm is actuated by the control room.
The containment purge stops automatically.
C. The containment evacuation alarm sounds automatically.
The containment purge is stopped manually.
D. The containment evacuation alarm is actuated by the control room.
The containment purged is stopped manually.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Containment purge will stop and containment alarm will
actuate when the EMF goes into trip 2.
B. Incorrect: a plant page is made by the control room.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the plant page with the containment
evacuation.
C. Incorrect: containment purge stops automatically
Plausible: candidate knows the alarm, but fails to realize purge will stop
automatically.
D. Incorrect: both occur automatically
Plausible: candidate does not know the auto actions for the EMFs
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 103 A2.04 (3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-EMF SEQ 3
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 97
Ques_859
Question#53 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 43, 105
2. OP-MC-CNT-VP page 21
3.AP/2/A/5500/25 page 2-3
4. GET RAD Worker Training Manual page 124
For Official Use Only Page 98
Ques_859
Question#54 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 860 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 has experienced four CRUD bursts this month. Given the following
events and conditions:
- 1A reactor coolant filter d/p was indicating 40 psid.
- IEMF-18 (REACTOR COOLANTFILTER ]A) reads 5 times its normal value.
- 1A reactor coolant filter was taken out of service.
a lB reactor coolant filter was placed in service.
- 1B reactor coolant filter d/p is 10 psid.
- 1A mixed bed demineralizer is in service.
- 1EMF-48 (REACTOR COOLANT) reads its normal value.
- Local radiation readings near reactor coolant filter lB are 3 times normal.
If the detector for IEMF-19 (REACTOR COOLANTFILTER 1B) fails, what actions
(if any) are the operators required to take in response to these conditions?
A. Switch mixed bed demineralizers.
B. Shift back to 1A reactor coolant filter until 1EMF-19 is returned
to service.
C. Place both mixed bed demineralizers in service until IEMF-19 is
returned to service.
D. No action is required.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: No action is required.
Plausible: If the candidate believes that the filters and demineralizers
are train related.
B. Incorrect: No action is required.
Plausible: If the candidate thought that procedures called for using a
filter with an operable RAD monitor.
C. Incorrect: No action is required. EMF-48 indicates no crud burst
Plausible: This action would be required if another crud burst were to
occur.
D. Correct answer
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 072A2.02(2.8/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
For Official Use Only Page 99
Ques_860
Question#54 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 43,45
2. OP/1/A/6100/010S window D4
Ques_86o For Official Use Only Page 100
Question#55 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 861 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a large LOCA with 10 % failed fuel. Given the
following events and conditions:
"* 2ETA is faulted.
"* 2NI-184B (1B ND PumP SUCTION FROM CONTSUMP ISOL) would not open
during FWST swapover
"* 2NI-184B breaker has tripped and will not reset
"* IEMF-1O (AuxBLDG CoR/EL 750) and 2EMF-9 (AuxBLDG COR/EL 767)
read> 10E4 mR/hr.
"* The TSC is not yet manned.
"* RP projects that expected dose rates in the area of the 2NI- 184B will be very
high, possibly exceeding 150 Rem/hr.
"* The OSM has determined that manual alignment of 2NI- 184B is required
for lifesaving protection of the general public inside the 10 mile EPZ (public
health and safety).
Which of the following exposure limits would apply to a worker who
volunteered to manually open 2NI-184B?
D. The worker(s) may exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The operator is allowed to exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
Plausible: This is the maximum allowable TEDE for non-emergency
conditions.
B. Incorrect: The operator is allowed to exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
Plausible: This is the maximum allowable annual TEDE for equipment
protection during accident conditions.
C. Incorrect: The operator is allowed to exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
Plausible: This is the maximum allowable annual TEDE for life saving
or public safety on a non-volunteer basis.
D. Correct: greater than 25 Rem is allowed on a volunteer basis for
protection of the public health and safety.
Level: RO&SRO
For Official Use Only Page 101
Ques_861
Question#55 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: SYS 006G2.3.4(2.5/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EMP SEQ 5; TA-AM SEQ 30
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EMP page 31
2. OP-MC-TA-AM page 67
4. GET RAD Worker Training Manual page 32
Ques_861 For Official Use Only Page 102
Question#56 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 862 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is responding to a LOCA from a trip at full power. Given the
following events and conditions:
A safety injection occurred at 0200.
Bus lETB is faulted.
The IA NS pump started automatically
The IA NS pump was stopped by CPCS signal at 0235.
The S, signal and sequencer have been reset
The train A Sp signal has not been reset
1NS-29A (A NS PUMP DISCH CONT OUTSIDEISOL) and 32A (A NS PuMP
DIscH OUTSIDEISOL) failed to operate (mechanically stuck)
Containment pressure reached 5 psig at 0305
FWST level reaches 33 in. at 0306.
Which one of the following operator actions is required to address the
containment pressure problem?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: ES-1. 3
A. Immediately open 1NS-43A (CONTOUTSIDE ISOL) to supply spray
from the ND pumps.
B. After switchover to cold leg recirculation, close 1NI-173A (TR A
ND To A & B CL) and open 1NS-43A to supply spray from the
ND pumps.
C. 50 minutes after switchover to cold leg recirculation, open 1NS-43A
to supply spray from the ND pumps.
D. 50 minutes after switchover to cold leg recirculation, close INI-173A
and open 1NS-43A to supply spray from the ND pumps.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Must close 1NI-173A after switchover.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize the effect on the ND
system.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Must close lNI-173A w/o waiting 50 minutes.
For Official Use Only Page 103
Ques_862
Question#56 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize the effect on the ND
system, and procedures call for waiting 50 minutes after the trip
before Aux spray.
D. Incorrect: Don't wait 50 minutes.
Plausible: Procedures call for waiting 50 minutes after the trip before
Aux spray.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 026K3.02(4.2*/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: ECC-NS SEQ 8, EP-EI SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-ECC-NS pages 21, 37
2. OP-MC-PS-ND page 71
3. OP-MC-EP-El page 257
4. EP/1/A/5000/ES-1.3 pages 10-11
For Official Use Only Page 104
Ques_862
Question#57 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 865.1 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 55% power when the 2C NCP trips on breaker
overload. Given the following events and conditions:
"* Loop C low flow trip annunciator alarms.
"* Both main feed pump turbines are tripped.
"* Reactor power is 50%, decreasing.
"* T,,, is 5750 F, increasing.
"* The main turbine throttle valves are open.
"* The main turbine governor valves are open.
"* Rod control bank D is automatically inserting.
Which immediate action must be implemented under these conditions?
A. Start emergency boration of the NCS.
B. Trip the main steam isolation valves.
C. Trip the rod control motor generator breakers.
D. Trip the main turbine.
Distracter Analysis: Maintenance of adequate heat sink is critical to the
ATWS with loss of feedwater. This overrides the adverse
consequences of a turbine trip for other cases.
A. Incorrect: Reactor shutdown is not time critical.
Plausible: This is an action of FR-S. I with power reduction the goal.
B. Incorrect: The MSIV's do not need to be closed unless the turbine
will not manually trip. Closing the MSIVs precludes steam dump
operation, making the event worse.
Plausible: This is an immediate RNO action of FR-S. 1.
C. Incorrect: Reactor shutdown is not time critical.
Plausible: This is an action of FR-S. 1.
D. Correct:
Level: RO Only
KA: EPE 029EK3.06(4.2/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRS SEQ 4
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 105
Ques_865
Question#57 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRS pages 23, 25
2. EP/2/A/5000/FR-S. 1 page 2
For Official Use Only Page 106
Ques_865
Question#58 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 866 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is conducting a reactor startup in accordance with plant procedures.
The operator is pulling the control rods.
Which one of the following indications should the operator primarily
depend on for determining when the reactor achieves criticality?
A. When control rods exceed the ECP position.
B. When the reactor nuclear instrumentation indicates a stable,
positive startup rate and increasing flux levels with no control
rod motion.
C. When Tve is increasing steadily with no control rod motion.
D. When the 1/m plot (Co/C) is approaching zero.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Not the primary indication - the ECP is only a benchmark
for the operator to use for when the reactor is predicted to go critical,
however, several possible errors could make the ECP significantly
inaccurate
Plausible: Candidate locks on to the fact that the ECP is the
estimated critical position and is used during a reactor startup.
B. Correct: actual reactor response is the only true method of
determining the reactor is critical
C. Incorrect: Tave does not increase when the reactor reaches criticality
Plausible: Indication the reactor is at the POAH
D. Incorrect: Not the primary indication
Plausible: Like the ECP, the 1/m is a tool to predict criticality, but
not 100% accurate. 1/m is calculated regularly during startup to
predict criticality.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 001 A3.08 (3.9/4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: RT-RB 13, ADM-RM SEQ 8
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-RT-RB page 24
For Official Use Only Page 107
Ques_8666
Question#59 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 867 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit I is in the process of starting the first NCP in accordance with
OP/1 /A/6250/02A (Reactor CoolantPump Operation)during a plant startup.
Given the following conditions and events:
- The operator starts the 1A2 lift oil pump.
- Lift oil pressure reaches 650 psig
- 5 minutes later, as the crew is ready to start the lA NCP, the operator
notices 1A2 lift oil pump was no longer running.
Which one of the following statements correctly explains the reason why the
pump is not running?
A. The lift oil pump tripped on overload.
B. The one minute timer for the lift oil pump timed out and stopped
the pump.
C. The lift oil pump stopped as soon as lift oil pressure reached 600
psi.
D. The lift oil pump stopped 1 minute after lift oil pressure reached
600 psi.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: the pump will trip on overload
B. Incorrect: this condition does not cause the lift oil pump to trip
Plausible: the one-minute timer opens the lift oil pump breaker 1
minute after the NCP breaker is closed.
C. Incorrect: this condition does not cause the lift oil pump to trip
Plausible: lift oil pressure must be 600 psi to start the NCP; the
candidate may assume the lift oil pump stops at the setpoint.
D. Incorrect: this condition does not cause the lift oil pump to trip
Plausible: candidate could assume that once lift oil pressure has been
sufficient for 1 minute, the pump turns off.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 003 K6.14 (2.6/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: NCP SEQ 6
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 108
Ques_867
Question#59 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MN-PS-NCP page 19
2. OP-MN-PS-NCP figure 7.12 page 79
Ques_867 For Official Use Only Page 109
Question#60 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 869 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at 85% power following a transient. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* A control bank "D" rod is found to be misaligned.
"* The misaligned rod is at 200 steps
"* The remaining control bank "D" rods are at 220 steps.
"* Troubleshooting by Reactor Engineering determines that the control rod
will move in the inward direction but will not move outward.
"* The misaligned rod is found to have an electrical problem and is declared
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the effect (if any)
that the inoperable rod will have on shutdown margin (SDM) prior to the
A. SDM does not change because the stuck rod is trippable.
B. SDM does not change because the rod is not trippable.
C. SDM decreases by the worth of the immovable rod.
D. SDM increases by the worth of the immovable rod.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: the problem is electrical and rods are above the RIL,
therefore SDM is unaffected.
B. Incorrect: if the rod were not trippable, SDM would decrease
Plausible: backwards logic from the correct answer.
C. Incorrect: SDM has not changed
Plausible: partially correct - if candidate believes the rod is not
trippable, SDM decreases for a stuck rod.
D. Incorrect: SDM has not changed
Plausible: if candidate assumes that the rod is not trippable and that
SDM increases (vice decreases) when determining SDM for stuck
rods
Level: RO Only
KA: APE 005 AK1.05 (3.3/4.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP14 SEQ 3
Source: New
Ques_869 For Official Use Only Page 110
Question#60 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MN-AP-14 background ENC. 2 step 5 page 32
2. AP-14 page 19
2. OP-MN-RT-RB page 27
Ques_869 For Official Use Only Page 111
Question#61 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 870 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% power. Given the following trends on the
lA NCP:
Time 0200 0205 0210 0215
Motor bearing temp (TF) 180 184 186 195
Lower pump bearing temp (TF) 221 225 228 231
Seal outlet temp (TF) 205 227 235 251
Motor winding temp (TF) 312 314 316 323
What is the earliest time at which the LA NCP must be secured?
A. 0200
B. 0205
C. 0210
D. 0215
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: NCP must be stopped if motor winding temperature reaches
311 degrees at 0200
B. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reaches the temperature for securing NCP on lower
bearing
C. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reach the limit for securing NCP on seal outlet temp at
0210
D. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reach the temperature for stopping NCP on motor bearing
at 0215
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 015 AA2.09 (3.4/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: NCP SEQ 15
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_870 For Official Use Only Page 112
Question#61 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NCP page 37
For Official Use Only Page 113
Ques_870
Question#62 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 871.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) The crew has entered ES-0.2, (NaturalCirculation Cooldown). NCS
temperature is 557°F and pressure is 2235 psig. Both emergency buses are
energized from their respective emergency diesel generators.
Which of the following conditions would require the crew to immediately
exit ES-0.2?
A. Loss of 1ETA occurs.
B. NCS pressure drops to 1800 psig.
C. Reactor vessel UR level indicates less than 100%.
D. All conditions except seal cooling are established for starting an
NCP.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: loss of a single bus will not require exit
Plausible: candidate believes entry into ECA-0.0 is required.
B. Correct: SI will actuate, since ES-0.2 is not set up for accident
conditions, the crew must return to E-0. (foldout page criteria)
C. Incorrect: if it is determined later that the cooldown must continue
with a void in the reactor vessel, then transition to ES-0.3 is made,
however, if there is no rush, then the depressurization is stopped and
the void collapsed in ES-0.2
Plausible: this could result in a transition to ES-0.3
D. Incorrect: no pump would be started until management makes a
status evaluation. The desire is to start the NCP with normal
parameters. Since this is not an accident condition, there is no need
to run NCPs unless normal conditions are met
Plausible: in some procedures, such as C. 1, NCPs are run without
all normal conditions established.
Level: RO Only 1OCFR55.41(b)10
KA: W/E 09 EA2.1 (3.1/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: EO SEQ 3, 4, 5, 8
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MN-EP-ES-0.2, page 12, 25 (foldout)
For Official Use Only Page 114
Ques_871
Question#63 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 873 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is in mode 3 responding to a loss of off-site power.
Given the following parameters at the indicated times:
Parameter 0200 0300 0400 0500
"* NCS pressure (psig) 1956 1905 1855 1805
"* Tav (0F) 400 390 375 350
"* Pressurizer level(%) 27 23 26 25
"* Containment pressure (psig) 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
Which one of the following is the earliest action required to ensure a
controlled transition to mode 4?
A. Block SI actuation at 0200.
B. Terminate SI flow at 0300.
C. Block SI actuation at 0400.
D. Terminate SI flow at 0500.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Must be <1955 to block SI.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that SI is blockable because this is
the numerical P-Il setpoint.
B. Incorrect: SI has not actuated.
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that SI actuated at 1945 psig.
C. Correct answer: this is the first time and action possible to prevent
uncontrolled cooldown due to SI actuation.
D. Incorrect: SI blocked at 0400.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not understand P-I l and recognizes
that SI actuates at 1845 psig.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 002A2.02(4.2/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: ECC-ISE SEQ 8/9/10
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
Ques_87/3 For Official Use Only Page 115
Question#63 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-ECC-ISE pages 21, 23
For Official Use Only Page 116
Ques_873
Question#64 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 874 Answer. C
1 Pt(s) Unit I is at full power with all systems selected to automatic. Given the
following event:
- Bus 1EVKA was deenergized.
Why would the crew have to switch the suction source for the NV pumps to
the FWST?
A. VCT level indication is lost.
B. Control power to the boric acid pumps is lost.
C. Auto makeup capability to the VCT is lost.
D. VCT makeup cannot keep up with charging flow.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: VCT level transmitters remain powered.
Plausible: if the candidate thought level indication is lost, then it
would seem prudent to switch to the FWST.
B. Incorrect: BA pumps can be manually operated.
Plausible: candidate may know blended makeup is lost but not sure
why. Loss of boric acid pumps would seem like a likely reason to
switch to the FWST.
C. Correct: the modulating signal for NV-252 and 267 is lost. Auto
blended makeup to the VCT is lost.
D. Incorrect: makeup capacity is matched to charging capacity.
Plausible: if the candidate is aware of the loss of makeup control,
this would be the reason for swapping to the FWST.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 057AK1.04(3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-15 SEQ 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. AP- 15 Background Document page 21
2. AP-15 page 8, 130
For Official Use Only Page 117
Ques_874
Question#65 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 875 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Which one of the following indications would be consistent with valve
2NV-7B(LETDOWNCONTOUTSIDEISOL) closing while the plant was at
power?
A. Letdown system flashing.
B. PRT level increasing.
C. Valve 2NV-124 (LETDOWNPRESSURE CONTROL) full open.
D. Regenerative HX high temperature alarm on 2AD-7 (REGENHX
LETDNHI TEMP).
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Letdown temperature is decreasing.
Plausible: if the candidate confuses the loss of letdown with loss of
charging.
B. Correct: closure of the valve will quickly pressurize the letdown
system to the lift setpoint of the letdown line relief valve, as a result
PRT level will increase.
C. Incorrect: NV-124 will close to try to increase backpressure.
Plausible: candidate reverses the action of NVl24 as it attempts to
maintain system pressure.
D. Incorrect: Letdown temperature is decreasing.
Plausible: if the candidate believes letdown temperature will increase
as a result of the valve closing.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 007A3.01(2.7/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV pages 23, 115
For Official Use Only Page 118
Ques_875
Question#66 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 876 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at 100% power, steady state when a PZR SPRAYLINE
LO TEMP alarm annunciates. No other abnormal annunciators are alarming.
Which one of the following statements is the most likely explanation for this
alarm?
A. Pressurizer heater bank C is off.
B. Lack of insurge/outsurge cycles has allowed ambient cooling.
C. Spray valve orifice fouling problems.
D. IB NCP has tripped.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: heater loss could cause low PZR pressure and temperature
but will not affect Tcold flow from NCPs.
Plausible: heaters can be energized to maximize mixing of NCS and
pressurizer, when heaters are on, there will be more spray.
B. Incorrect: Spray temperature is not affected by PZR surges.
Plausible: this could be a partial answer to a surge line low
temperature, which the minimum spray flow also addresses.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: There will be other alarms if an NCP trips.
Plausible: this could cause a low spray temperature alarm.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 010K4.01(2.7/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NC SEQ 9
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NC page 31
Ques_876 For Official Use Only Page 119
Question#67 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 877 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit I is at full power. Pressurizer level is on program. All systems are in
automatic.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the relationship
between the charging and letdown flow?
A. Charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger equals
letdown flow + seal return.
B. Charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger is less
than letdown flow.
C. Charging flow through 1NV-241 (SEAL INI FLOW CONTROL)
equals letdown flow.
D. Charging flow through 1NV-241 + seal injection equals letdown
flow.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger
will be approximately 55 gpm. Letdown + seal return is 87 gpm.
Plausible: if the candidate misunderstands or misapplies the flow
balance.
B. Correct: charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger will
be approximately 55 gpm. Letdown flow is 75 gpm.
C. Incorrect: Charging flow through NV-241 will be 55 gpm, letdown
is 75 gpm.
Plausible: if the candidate misunderstands or misapplies the flow
balance.
D. Incorrect: 55 gpm + 32 gpm is 87 gpm, letdown is 75 gpm. The
balance is charging + seal injection = letdown + seal return
Plausible: if the candidate misunderstands or misapplies the flow
balance.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 01 1K5.06(2.9/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV page 117
For Official Use Only Page 120
Ques_877
Question#68 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 878 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) A Unit 1 startup is in progress. Given the following events and conditions:
a Reactor is critical in the source range.
a Power Range channel N41 is removed from service for zero power physics
testing.
- A loss of power to bus EKVB occurs.
Which one of the following actions would occur?
A. Reactor trips and source range channel N32 is deenergized. Source
range channel N31 is still in operation.
B. The reactor is critical and both source range channels are de-energized.
C. The reactor is critical and source range channel N32 Is de-energized.
Source range channel N31 is still in operation.
D. Reactor trips and both source range channels are de-energized.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: P-10 will be met, both SR's will de energize.
Plausible: if the candidate does not realize P-10 will turn off both
source ranges and recognizes the reactor trips when SR 32 de energizes.
B. Incorrect: Reactor trips on a number of PR/SR trip setpoints.
Plausible: if the candidate does not realize at power trips (or SR 32 loss
of power) will cause a reactor trip but fails to realize P-10 will turn off
the SR (loss of power actuates P-10 bistable on N42.
C. Incorrect: Reactor trips on a number of PR/SR trip setpoints. Also, P
10 will turn off both SR's.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that the loss of the bus will turn off the
SR-32 without actuating the trip bistable.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 0155K4.01(3.1/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-EN1 SEQ 12
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
For Official Use Only Page 121
Ques_878
Question#68 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-ENB pages 51, 61
2. OP-MC-IC-IPE page 83
For Official Use Only Page 122
Ques_878
Question#69 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 880 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit I was preparing to synchronize and load the main generator onto the
grid. Given the following conditions:
- The appropriate generator voltage conditions have been established.
- The GENA UTO/MANUAL SYNC swiTcH has been placed in the MAN
position
If the operators have been directed to manually synchronize the generator,
which one of the following actions are correct to close breaker IA?
A. Press and hold the SYNC button. When the synchroscope is
rotating slowly in the fast direction, then press the CLOSE button
for the IA breaker at 5 minutes to 12 o'clock.
B. Press and hold the AUTO SYNC button on the DEH panel until
the IA generator breaker is closed.
C. Rotate the main generator GENA UTO/MANUAL SYNCswITCH
to the AUTO 1A BREAKER position, and press the SYNC button for
breaker IA.
D. Press and hold the AUTO SYNC button on the DEH panel.
When the synchroscope is rotating slowly in the fast direction,
press the CLOSE button for the IA breaker at 5 minutes to 12
o'clock.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: to manually close, the pushbutton is depressed until the
breaker is closed
B. Incorrect: AUTO SYNC button only works for auto
synchronization. The GEN switch would have to be placed in the
Auto IA position.
Plausible: this partially reflects the auto-closure mode (breaker lA
position).
C. Incorrect: the SYNC button will not close the breaker.
Plausible: this partially reflects the auto-closure mode (AUTO
SYNC vs. SYNC).
D. Incorrect: AUTO SYNC button only works for auto
synchronization.
Plausible: synchroscope rotation is a requirement for closing the
breaker.
Level: RO&SRO
For Official Use Only Page 123
Ques_880
Question#69 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: SYS 062K4.05(2.7/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: GEN-MG SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-GEN-MG page 71, 111
2. OP/1/A/6300/001 pages 11, 12
For Official Use Only Page 124
Ques_880
Question#70 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 881 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Unit one was operating at 100% power when a total loss of onsite and offsite
power occurred. Given the following events and conditions:
"* 1EVDA is supplying normal full power loads,
"* No battery charger is available,
"* Systems operate normally
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the minimum
length of time that bus 1EVDA is designed to sustain loads and what action
will protect the DC bus loads?
A. After 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, the vital battery bus breaker will open
automatically when bus voltage falls to 105 volts.
B. After 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, the vital battery breaker must be manually opened
when bus voltage falls to 105 volts.
C. After 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, the vital battery breaker will open automatically
when bus voltage falls to 107 volts.
D. After 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, the vital battery breaker must be manually opened
when bus voltage falls to 107 volts.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: the vital battery breaker does not automatically open
Plausible: partially correct - the design time for sustaining loads is I
hour
B. Correct: below this value the battery could be damaged or
components will begin to fail.
C. Incorrect: the battery is expected to last for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> and there is no
automatic trip associated with low voltage
Plausible: the 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> requirement for battery performance is typical
of the aux batteries - voltage limit is 107 volts.
D. Incorrect: the vital batteries are not designed to sustain loads for 4
hours
Plausible: partially correct - DC bus protection is achieved by
manually opening the breaker - voltage limit is 107 volts.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 063A4.03(3.0/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP- 15 SEQ 2
For Official Use Only Page 125
Ques_881
Question#70 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. AP-15 Background Document pages 4, 40
2. AP/1/A/5500/015 page 49
Ques_881 For Official Use Only Page 126
Question#71 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 882 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* Operators started RV pumps A & B due to rising containment
temperatures.
"* Containment Upper temperature is 90 OF, decreasing.
"* Containment Lower temperature is 128 0F, decreasing.
"* At 0200, a loss of off-site power occurs on Units 1 and 2
"* Operators implement the appropriate procedures.
Which one of the following pumps provides the assured source of cooling
water to maintain containment temperature within Tech Spec limits?
A. 2C RV pump
B. 2A RN pump
C. 2B RN pump
D. 2A or 2B RN pumps.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: RN pump 2A supplies. RV pumps could lose power post
blackout.
Plausible: RV pump C could be considered the supply since it will
try to start on loss of cooling water pressure.
B. Correct: on blackout signal, B train RN supply valves close, but the
42A does not, leaving cooling from the A RN pump.
C. Incorrect: RN pump 2A supplies RV post blackout.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks supply comes from the B RN train.
D. Incorrect: RN pump 2A supplies RV post blackout.
Plausible: if the candidate does not realize one train of valves close
on blackout.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 076 K2.04 (2.5/2.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-RV SEQ 13
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 127
Ques 882
Question#71 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-PSS-RN pages 57, 85
2. OP-MC-CNT-RV page 29
For Official Use Only Page 128
Ques_882
Question#72 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 884 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) Which one of the following statements correctly describes how the train B
manual reactor trip and automatic reactor trip signals input to the train B
reactor trip bypass breaker?
A. The manual trip signal de-energizes the bypass breaker UV coil
through SSPS.
The automatic trip signals do not input to the bypass breaker
circuit.
B. The manual trip signal energizes the bypass breaker shunt coil.
The automatic trip signals de-energize the bypass breaker UV
coil through the SSPS.
C. The manual trip signal de-energizes the bypass breaker UV coil
through SSPS.
The automatic trip signals energize the bypass breaker shunt
coil.
D. The manual trip signal energizes the bypass breaker shunt coil.
The automatic trip signals do not input to the bypass breaker
circuit.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: manual trip energizes the shunt trip coil.
Plausible: if the candidate knows that automatic trips do not input to
the circuitry, but confuses which action the manual trip performs.
B. Incorrect: automatic trips de-energize the opposite bypass breaker
UV coil.
Plausible: close to the normal RTB response to trip signals.
C. Incorrect: manual trip energizes the shunt trip coil, and automatic
trips perform no function for the corresponding train.
Plausible: automatic trips perform this action for the opposite train
bypass breaker.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 007EK2.02 (2.6/2.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-RTB SEQ 8
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 129
Ques_884
Question#72 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-RTB page 29, 31, 65
For Official Use Only Page 130
Ques_884
Question#73 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 885 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at 60% power. PZR level and pressure control are selected
to the (3-2) combination. Given the following events and conditions:
0 Inverter 1EVID fails.
Assuming no operator action, which one of the following statements correctly
describes the effect of this failure on charging and letdown control?
A. 1NV-238 (CHARGING LINE FLOW CONTROL) opens, INV-2A (NCLID
ISOL ToREGENHX) closes, and actual PZR level increases.
B. 1NV-238 closes, 1NV-1A (NCLID ISOL ToREGENHX) closes, and
actual PZR level increases.
C. 1NV-238 closes, 1NV-1&2A close, and actual PZR level decreases.
D. Charging and letdown control do not change - remain as before
the loss of EVID.
Distracter Analysis: The common terminology used for vital AC inverters is:
Channel I = EVIA - inputs to pressurizer level channel I
Channel 2 = EVIB - inputs to pressurizer level channel 2
Channel 3 = EVIC - inputs to pressurizer level channel 3
Channel 4 = EVID - has no inputs to pressurizer level channel instrument
A. Incorrect: A loss of EVID does not effect the controlling channel 3 for
pressurizer level
Plausible: This is the response to a controlling channel failed low.
B. Incorrect: A loss of EVID does not effect the backup channel 2 for
pressurizer level
Plausible: This is the response to a backup channel failed low.
C. Incorrect: A loss of EVID does not effect the pressurizer level control
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that the output fails high on loss of
power and thinks that the loss of EVID effects the controlling channel.
D. Correct: A loss of EVID does not effect the controlling channel for
pressurizer level
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 004K2.06(2.6/2.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EPL SEQ 6
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 131
Ques_885
Question#73 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-ILE pages 15, 23, 25
2. AP/1/A!5500/15 pages 135-138
For Official Use Only Page 132
Ques_885
Question#74 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 886 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power on 8/3/01. Given the following events
and conditions:
"* All systems are aligned for normal operation.
"* A waste monitoring tank is being released with 4 RC pumps in operation.
"* The RS pump is tagged for seal replacement.
Assuming no operator action, which one of the following statements
correctly describes the plant response to a massive debris entrainment of the
Unit 2 intake structure?
A. The unit will trip on low condenser vacuum due to loss of RC
flow.
B. The unit would continue to operate because the screen wash flow
will be supplied from the RF system.
C. The unit would trip when the RC pumps cavitate at 745' level in
the intake structure.
D. The unit would continue to operate due to circulating water
being supplied by the low level water supply system.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Intake level will drop due to clogging, causing loss of RC
flow.
B. Incorrect: There is no procedural methodology to supply RS from
the RF system.
Plausible: The piping exists to perform this crossover.
C. Incorrect: pump cavitation will not cause the unit to trip.
Plausible: The pumps will cavitate at about the 745' level.
D. Incorrect: There is no low level supply for unit 2.
Plausible: If the candidate does not know the unit 2 RC system
alignment.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 075A2.01(3.0/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: MT-RC SEQ 7
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 133
Ques_886
Question#74 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-MT-RC pages 21, 23, 29, 31, 43
Ques-886 For Official Use Only Page 134
Question#75 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 887 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Unit I is conducting a reactor startup following a plant trip due to an IAE
error during instrument calibration. Given the following data:
"* Time of shutdown 1520 on 01/27/02
"* Anticipated time of criticality 0100 on 01/28/02
"* Core burnup 250 EFPD
"* Estimated critical position 105 steps on Bank C
"* Control rod position at 0200 40 steps on Bank C
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
operator actions?
REFERENCES PROVIDED
Unit I Databook Table 6.3B and Graph 1.2,
OP/O/A/6100/006
A. Recalculate the ECP if the reactor is not yet critical at 175 steps
of Bank C before 0230.
B. Insert the rods and recalculate the ECP if criticality will be
achieved at 40 steps of Bank C at 0200.
C. Recalculate the ECP because it is now one hour past the
anticipated criticality time at 0200.
D. Insert the rods and recalculate the ECP because it is past the
anticipated criticality time at 0100.
Distracter Analysis: TSIL = 47 steps on Bank C. ECP +750 pcm = 195
steps on Bank C. ECP - 750 pcm = 25 steps on Bank C.
A. Incorrect: Can pull rods to 195 steps before recalculating.
Plausible: partially correct - no need to recalculate the ECP until
0300. Could select this answer if the candidate misreads the integral
rod worth table for the +750 pcm rod position.
B. Correct: Critical rod position at 40 steps is < TSIL at 47 steps.
C. Incorrect: The ECP is good for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> past the anticipated
criticality time. No need to recalculate the ECP until 0300.
Plausible: This could be the answer at 0300, if Xenon was not
decaying rapidly.
For Official Use Only Page 135
Ques_887
Question#75 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
D. Incorrect: The ECP is good for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> past the anticipated
criticality time. No need to insert the rods and recalculate the ECP
until 0300.
Plausible: This could be the answer at 0300.
Level: RO Only lOCFR55.41 (b) l
KA: G2.2.34 (2.8/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: RT-RB SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-RT-RB pages 8-9, 16, 18
2. OP/0/A/6100/006 pages 2, 3 - PROVIDED
3. Unit 1 Databook Graph 1.2 and Table 6.3B - PROVIDED
Ques_887 For Official Use Only Page 136
Question#76 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 888 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is responding to a steam break inside containment from full power.
Given the following events and conditions:
"* All systems operate as designed.
"* Narrow range S/G level is 15% for each intact S/G
"* CA flow is 100 GPM to each intact S/G.
"* The NCPs were tripped.
"* The crew entered FR-P. 1 (Response to Imminent PressurizedThermal
Shock Condition) due to low temperature.
"* NCS temperature is now stable.
"* NCS pressure is stable with only the control group of pressurizer heaters
energized.
"* Letdown has been restored
If the crew has determined that a 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> soak is required, which of the
following evolutions could be performed by the crew in the next hour while
continuing on through the EP procedures?
A. Start 1D NCP
B. Place auxiliary spray in service
C. Increase CA flow to one intact S/G to raise NR level to 50%
D. Commence a 25-degree/hour cooldown to Mode 5
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Starting a NCP will cause a pressure transient and could
cause further cooldown.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand the limitations during
the soak or the effects of NCP start.
B. Correct: Any actions that will not cause either a cooldown or a
pressure rise and are specified by any other procedure in effect are
permitted during this "soak" period.
C. Incorrect: Increases cooldown stressing the vessel.
Plausible: The candidate may not link raising S/G level with a
cooldown.
D. Incorrect: Cooldown is not allowed.
Plausible: The candidate may recall that a cooldown at less than
50/hr is directed after the soak.
Level: RO&SRO
For Official Use Only Page 137
Ques_888
Question#76 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: W/E 08 EK 3.3 (3.7/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRP SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRP pages 17,43
2. EP/1/A/5000/FR-P. I page 28
For Official Use Only Page 138
Ques_888
Question#77 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 889 Answer: C
I Pt(s) A small fire has broken out in the incore instrument room as a result of
welding on a thimble support. Given the following events and conditions:
"* The control room isolated the VT systems (breakers are tagged open).
"* The fire watch exhausted a portable CO2 fire extinguishers on the burning
insulation before leaving the area,
"* The area is posted as a radiological surface contamination area with the
maximum level of 10E5 dpm/100 cm 2
Which one of the following would be the preferred method for the fire
brigade to extinguish this fire?
A. Actuate the incore instrument room Halon system
B. Portable CO 2 extinguishers due to the potential for electrical
hazards in the area.
C. Portable water extinguishers because of their better quenching
capability in this low combustible loading area.
D. Portable dry chemical extinguishers because of their better
smothering capability.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: There is no Halon system in this room
Plausible: Some areas are equipped with Halon fire protection
systems.
B. Incorrect: Portable water extinguishers would be preferred.
Plausible: C02 is preferred for electrical fires.
C. Correct: A hose would be overkill and spread contamination.
D. Incorrect: Portable water extinguishers would be preferred.
Plausible: Dry chemical extinguishers smother oil fires better.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.4.26 (2.9/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 139
Ques_889
Question#77 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1.None
For Official Use Only Page 140
Ques_889
Question#78 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 890 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 85 % power. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* Loop C T,,, is bypassed due to a failed T, RTD
"* Loop A Th.o fails high causing a reactor trip
"* All other systems perform their design functions
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the system
response to this event?
A. The MSIVs close.
0
B. All steam dumps close when actual T... reaches 557 F.
C. FWI occurs when actual T.ve reaches 553'F.
D. The main feed pumps trip.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: MSIVs do not close.
Plausible: This would be a prudent response to excess steam demand
due to Tave failures
B. Incorrect: All dumps are closed at 5530 F by the P12 interlock.
Plausible: If the candidate overlooks FWI and/or the RTD failures'
affect on the trip controller (uses auctioneered high Tave).
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: No SI or Hi-Hi S/G level
Plausible: If the candidate does not remember the initial conditions
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 059K1.05(3.1/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CF SEQ 12
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CF page 33
2. OP-MC-STM-IDE pages 21, 23, and 27
For Official Use Only Page 141
Ques_890
Question#79 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 891 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 has experienced a rupture of the RN piping inside containment.
Emergency procedures prescribe successful response mechanisms if
containment water level remains between 3.5 and 10.5 feet.
Why is safe plant recovery is not assured for a design basis large break
LOCA when containment water level exceeds 10.5 feet?
A. Operation of the ND system is compromised by high suction
pressure.
B. Operation of the NS pumps is endangered by excess debris
fouling the containment suction strainers.
C. Operation of the hydrogen purge system is compromised by loss
of direct access to the containment atmosphere.
D. Operation of critical ECCS components needed for safe recovery
is endangered by submersion.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: 10.5 feet of water will not lift the ND suction relief, or if it
did the relief returns to the PRT.
Plausible: High containment level increases ND suction pressure.
B. Incorrect: Submergence beyond the reference flood plane will not
cause excess debris nor will it transport debris to the suction strainers,
which are at the very bottom of the containment sump. Debris is
generated by impingement of high energy releases against
containment SSCs - the design basis will prevent excess debris if
containment is maintained free of foreign material.
Plausible: Clogged suction strainers could occur if submergence of
components was a mechanism, which could lift debris. This is a
reason to keep foreign material out of containment.
C. Incorrect: The hydrogen purge system is far above the 10.5 ft flood
plane and would not be compromised.
Plausible: If the hydrogen purge system was submerged, it would fail
to operate.
D. Correct: The containment flood plane reference is at 10.5 ft.
Submersion beyond this level will expose unqualified components to
a hostile environment that they are not qualified for.
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_891 For Official Use Only Page 142
Question#79 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: EPE WE 15 EK2.2 (2.7/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRZ SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRZ page 47
For Official Use Only Page 143
Ques_891
Question#8O McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 892 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at 100% power when the OAC registers a low spent fuel
pool level alarm. Given the following events and conditions:
"* The operators read -2.1 ft SFP level and steady on the main control
board.
"* The operating KF pump has tripped.
"* An NLO reports a large leak in the auxiliary building.
"* Normal SFP makeup is not available.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the corrective
action for this event?
A. Find and isolate the leak on the KF discharge piping.
B. Find and isolate the leak on the KF suction piping.
C. Initiate assured makeup due a leak on the discharge piping.
D. Initiate assured makeup due to a leak on the suction piping.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: The leak is on the discharge piping.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the piping immersion depth with
the suction pipes, which are at 4 feet.
C. Incorrect: Do not use assured source unless radiological hazard is
imminent.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize the hazard associated
with adding raw water to the SFP.
D. Incorrect: Do not use the assured source, and the leak is on the
discharge piping.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize the hazard associated
with adding raw water to the SFP, and confuses the piping immersion
depth with the suction pipes.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 033A3.02(2.9/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: FH-KF SEQ 5/14
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 144
Ques_892
Question#80 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-FH-KF pages 19, 23, 41, 49
For Official Use Only Page 145
Ques_892
Question#81 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 893.1 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 80 % power, steady state. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* Rod control is in manual for testing.
"* Control bank D is at 155 steps.
" lAD-2, A9 & 89 (CONTROL BANKLO &LO-LO LIMIT) alarms actuate.
Which one of the following conditions could be the cause of these two
alarms?
A. Turbine impulse pressure channel failed high.
B. NIS channel N42 failed high.
C. Loop IB Th instrument failed high.
D. Loop 1A T.,, failed high.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: D/T controls RIL.
Plausible: Impulse pressure (Tref) is proportional to power and could
be used to calculate RIL.
B. Incorrect: D/T controls RIL.
Plausible: NIS power could be used to calculate RIL (and is at some
plants).
C. Correct: Control bank D is above the RIL alarms, but when D/T
goes high, RIL goes to 161 and the alarms actuate.
D. Incorrect: D/T controls RIL.
Plausible: Tave is proportional to power and could be used to
calculate RIL.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 014K1.02(3.0/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-IRE SEQ 11
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
Ques_893 For Official Use Only Page 146
Question#81 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
1. OP-MC-IC-IRE pages 17, 37, 55, 63
2. OP-MC-PS-NC pages 45,47
3. Unit 1 Databook Graph 1.2
4. OP/1/A/6100/010C, A9 Control Bank Lo Limit
5. OP/1/A/6100 /010C, B9 Control Bank Lo-Lo Limit
For Official Use Only Page 147
Ques_893
Question#82 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 894 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100 % power. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* "B" essential train is in service.
"* 2A RN train is in operation for testing.
"* The RN trains are split with 2RN-41B, (TRAiNB ToNoN-ESSHDR ISOL)
closed.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the potential
consequence if 2RN- 190B (RN TO B KC Hx CONTROL) failed to perform its
automatic function associated with decreasing B train RN flow?
A. Overheating 2B RN pump.
B. Flashing in the 2B KC heat exchanger.
C. Overheating the running B train KC pumps.
D. 2RN-41B will open to restore flow to the heat exchanger.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Lose mini-flow protection for RN pump 2B.
B. Incorrect: no flashing should occur, pressure is not changing.
Plausible: candidate believes that like the letdown regen heat
exchanger, flashing on loss of cooling could occur
C. Incorrect: B train pumps cooled by separate supply.
Plausible: candidate believes heat exchanger and pump cooling come
from the same place.
D. Incorrect: no auto open signal for RN4 lB.
Plausible: candidate feels there is some reason for the stated position
of 4lB in the setup and guesses it can auto open. Valve closes on
blackout signal.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 062AK3.04(3.5/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: PSS-RN SEQ 7
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 148
Ques_894
Question#82 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PSS-RN pages 23, 41, 73, 85
2. OP-MC-PSS-KC page 39
For Official Use Only Page 149
Ques_894
Question#83 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 895 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 100% power. The battery charger lEDGA for the IA
emergency diesel generator battery has failed and will not provide a DC
output.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the status of the
IA emergency diesel generator?
A. The IA emergency diesel generator is inoperable because the
D/G will not continue to run for Its design basis committed time
period without the battery charger in service.
B. The 1A emergency diesel generator is inoperable because the
D/G will not start without the battery charger in service.
C. The 1A emergency diesel generator is operable because the
battery charger has a vital DC backup power supply, and will
automatically supply the vital loads after starting.
D. The 1A emergency diesel generator is operable because all safety
grade auxiliary loads are supplied from the 600VAC motor
control center supplied from tELXA.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: The D/G will start because the D/G battery will supply all
starting loads. However, without the charger, the battery will expire
and power will be lost to the governor, voltage regulator and other
vital DC loads.
B. Incorrect: The D/G will start without the charger - power will be
supplied from the D/G battery.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know that removing the inverter
does not remove the battery from service. This would be true if the
D/G control power breaker was opened.
C. Incorrect: DG is inoperable without the battery charger.
Plausible: Some batteries have this feature.
D. Incorrect: DG is inoperable without the battery charger.
Plausible: The battery will provide power to DG auxiliaries for some
period of time - some vital D/G auxiliaries are supplied from the 600
VAC control center.
Level: RO Only LOCFR55.41(b)10
KA: APE 056 G2.2.23 (2.6/3.8)
For Official Use Only Page 150
Ques_895
Question#83 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: DG-DG SEQ 11
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-DG-DG pages 29, 31, 49, 79
For Official Use Only Page 151
Ques_895
Question#84 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 896.1 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating in mode 5. Given the following events and conditions:
"* All steam generator narrow range levels are approximately 15%
"* The A trains of ND, KC and RN are in service.
"* The B trains of ND, KC and RN are operable but secured.
"* NCS temperature currently at 175°F
"* All NCPs are secured.
"* RN cooling water is lost to the 1A KC heat exchanger.
What immediate action (if any) is required by Tech Specs?
A. Start one NCP
B. Raise the level in at least 2 S/Gs 17%
C. Start the B train ND, KC and RN systems
D. No immediate action is required.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: This will not satisfy Tech Spec 3.4.7.
Plausible: This would be correct if in mode 4 - per Tech Spec 3.4.6.
B. Incorrect: S/G levels must be above 12% NR for a NCS loop to be
operable per tech spec 3.4.7.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that the minimum level is 17%
which is a S/G level requirement for other EOPs
C. Correct: per tech spec 3.4.7
D. Incorrect: Without an RHR train in operation, Tech Spec 3.4.7 is not
met.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize that Tech Spec 3.4.7
requires one RHR train to be operable (which it is ) AND in
operation (which it is not).
Level: RO&SRO 1OCFR55.41(b)10
KA: APE 026 G2.2.23 (2.6/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: PSS-KC SEQ 15
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
For Official Use Only Page 152
Ques_896
Question#84 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
3. OP-MC-PS-ND page 13, 67
4. OP-MC-PSS-KC pages 11, 13, 15, 25, 27,49
For Official Use Only Page 153
Ques_896
Question#85 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 897.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is about to commence refueling. Given the following conditions at
0100:
"* Fuel is being moved.
"* Source range channels N31 and N32 are operable
"* Channels IA and lB wide range neutron flux monitoring system are
Given the following events and times:
- 0200 Source range channel N32 instrument power fuse blows.
- 0300 Source range channel N31 control power fuse blows.
- 0400 Wide range neutron flux monitor channel LB fails.
- 0500 Wide range neutron flux monitor channel LA fails.
What is the earliest time that refueling must be halted?
A. 0200
B. 0300
C. 0400
D. 0500
Distracter Analysis: Tech Spec 3.9.3 requires 2 operable source range
channels. Wide range flux monitors (gamma metrics) are allowed to
substitute for NIS source flux monitors per tech spec 3.9.3 bases. BUT the
gamma metrics do not provide an input to the containment evacuation alarm
or the CNMT audible count instrument - which are required by admin
controls for refueling operations. Candidates are required to know Tech Spec
LCOs with immediate action statements.
A. Incorrect: Still have 3 qualified NI channels plus containment
evacuation alarm operable.
Plausible: if the candidate is unaware that gamma metrics monitors
can substitute for source range channels for Tech Spec 3.9.3
B. Correct: Although there are still 2 qualified channels, the
containment evacuation alarm is not operable. Must have the
containment evacuation alarm to be able to conduct refueling
operations per administrative control requirements.
C. Incorrect: Must halt refueling at 0300
For Official Use Only Page 154
Ques_897
Question#85 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: Still have 1 qualified NI channels operable - if candidate
does not know Tech Spec 3.9.3 requires 2 channels for fuel movement
- would be OK if not moving fuel.
D. Incorrect: Must halt refueling at 0300
Plausible: no operable source range channels - no way to monitor
core.
Level: RO Only
KA: SYS 015 K3.03 (2.7/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: ENB SEQ 21
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. AP- 16 Background Document pages 4 and 6
2. Tech Spec 3.9.3 and Bases
3. OP-MC-IC-ENB pages 19, 21, 23, 41, 43
For Official Use Only Page 155
Ques_897
Question#86 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 899 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit I is at full power. Given the following events and conditions:
- INC-34A (PzRPORv) was leaking has been isolated in accordance with
Technical Specifications.
"* NC pressure is 2345 psig.
"* INCV-36B (PzRPOcrV) is slightly open.
"* Master controller output is stuck at 83%.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes when 1NC-36B will
automatically close and if it does not, what action is required to isolate the
valve?
A. 1NC-36B will not close. The operator must close the block valve by
taking the control switch to "CLSD".
B. 1NC-36B will not close. The operator must close the block valve by
taking the control switch to "OVERRIDE".
C. 1NC-36B will close when pressure decreases to 2315 psig. If
necessary to close the block valve, take the control switch to
"CLSD".
D. 1NC-36B will close when pressure decreases to 2315 psig. If
necessary to close the block valve, take the control switch to
"OVERRIDE".
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: INCV-36B will close and must take the block valve to
override.
Plausible: if the candidate does recognize the multiple block valve
protection and assumes control for 1NV-36B is off the pressure
controller.
B. Incorrect: INC-36B will close.
Plausible: if the candidate does not realize that control for INV-36B is
not from the pressure controller.
C. Incorrect: must take the block valve to override.
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize the multiple block valve
protection.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 008AA1.07 (4.0/4.2)
For Official Use Only Page 156
Ques_899
Question#86 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-1 1 SEQ 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. AP- 11 background document page 5
For Official Use Only Page 157
Ques_899
Question#87 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 900 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) The operator has just opened IVI-820 (VISuPPLYTO VS CONTROL). The
switch is left in the OPEN position.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the adverse effect
of leaving the CLOSE/AUTO/OPEN switch in the OPEN position?
A. The valve will not close on decreasing VI pressure.
B. The valve closes on decreasing VI pressure, but immediately
reopens if pressure increases above 90 psig.
C. The valve will not close on decreasing VS pressure.
D. The valve closes on decreasing VS pressure, but immediately
reopens if pressure increases above 90 psig.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The valve will close.
Plausible: if the candidate believes that if not in auto, the valve will
not respond to decreasing pressure.
B. Correct: the opening will not be under the control of the operator.
C. Incorrect: The valve will close on low VI pressure.
Plausible: if the candidate confuses which system is being protected,
and believes that if not in auto, the valve will not respond to
decreasing pressure.
D. Incorrect: The valve responds to VI pressure.
Plausible: candidate believes that the valve will receive an open
signal once it is fully closed
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 079A2.01 (2.9/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: SS-VI SEQ 7
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-SS-VI page 67
For Official Use Only Page 158
Ques_900
Question#88 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 902 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is at full power preparing to shutdown for refueling. Given the
following events and conditions:
- Pressurizer level is on program and in automatic.
- The controlling pressurizer level transmitter fails at its current output.
- No operator action is taken.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the system
response as plant load is reduced?
A. Charging flow decreases
Letdown isolates
Pressurizer heaters turn off
B. Charging flow increases
Pressurizer heaters energize
Pressurizer level increase to the trip setpoint
C. Charging flow decreases
Letdown will not isolate
Pressurizer level decreases until the pressurizer is empty
D. Charging flow increases
Pressurizer heaters will not energize
Pressurizer level increases to the trip setpoint.
Distracter Analysis: As load is reduced, Tave will decrease, Program
Pressurizer level will decrease. The system will see the controlling channel
maintaining a high level and decrease charging in an effort to reduce level.
Actual level will decrease. The backup channel will decrease and at 17%,
letdown will isolate and heaters will de energize.
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: charging flow will decrease.
Plausible: candidate believes charging flow will increase in an effort
to maintain the higher level
C. Incorrect: letdown will isolate from the bakup channel.
Plausible: if the candidate believes the low level interlock will not be
satisfied only from the controlling channel.
D. Incorrect: charging flow will decrease.
Plausible: candidate believes charging flow will increase to
maintain the higher level
For Official Use Only Page 159
Ques_902
Question#88 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO 1OCFR55.41(b)7
KA: APE 028 AA2.02 (3.4/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-ILE SEQ 12
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-ILE page 33 (Figure 7.2)
Ques_902 For Official Use Only Page 160
Question#89 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 903 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Why is it important for the source range high voltage to be properly set?
A. To ensure that the detector operates in the ionization region
where the flow of detector current reflects exactly the flow of
ionizing radiation and secondary multiplication is prevented.
B. To ensure the detector operates in the proportional region where
secondary ionizations cause gas multiplication to occur.
C. To ensure that detector operates in the recombination region
where the recombination effect prevents the smaller pulses from
gamma interactions from being detected.
D. To ensure that the detector operates in the Geiger Muller region
where each ionization event results in a complete discharge of the
detector tube.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: This describes the ionization range. The SR is a
proportional counter.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand detector theory or
confuses what region the SR operate in.
B. Correct: SR operates in the proportional region of the detector curve
where gas amplification causes secondary ionizations.
C. Incorrect: This describes the recombination range.
Plausible: Gamma interactions are discriminated by a pulse-height
discriminator circuit. If the candidate does not understand detector
theory or confuses what region the SR operate in.
D. Incorrect: This describes the G-M region.
Plausible: If the candidate is unfamiliar with what region SR
operates in.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 032 AK1.0l (2.5/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-ENB SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-ENB page 17-19
Ques_903 For Official Use Only Page 161
Question#90 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 904 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) The unit 1 operating crew has entered AP- 15 (Loss OF VITAL OR AuX CONTROL
POWER) due to a loss of 1 EVDA.
Why will the crew have to diligently monitor containment pressure while
1EVDA is de-energized?
A. Decreased cooling capacity will allow an increase containment
pressure because the A train of the VL and VU system AHUs are
inoperable and cannot be used to cool containment.
B. The VCT could overfill and rupture, causing containment
pressure to increase. Letdown continues but 1NV-137A (NC
FILTERS OTLT- 3 WAY CNTRL) failed closed.
C. VI system leaks will increase containment pressure and 1VP-15A
(UNIT] CONTOTSDIsoL) has failed closed without power to
provide a path for air release.
D. VI system leaks will increase containment pressure and 1VQ-1A
(CONTAIR REL INSIDE ISOL) has failed closed without power to
provide a path for air release.
Distracter Analysis: Loss of DC control power causes lVQ-1A to fail
closed and prevents using the VQ system for an air release to lower
containment pressure. Pressure increases due to VI leaks inside containment.
A. Incorrect: VL and VU systems are operable under these conditions
Plausible: contingency action is to increase cooling flow in an
attempt to cool the containment air mass, slowing the pressure
increase.
B. Incorrect: There would be other primary indications of a VCT rupture
and the VCT does not have enough volume to significantly affect the
containment pressure. Letdown will isolate, not continue.
Plausible: partially correct - 1NV-137A will fail closed (to the VCT)
on loss of 1EVDA and there is a caution that the VCT could rupture
when the charging pump suction is aligned to the FWST to refill the
VCT.
C. Incorrect: 1VP-15A is normally locked shut (this is a SLC
commitment to NRC) and is not used to vent containment under these
circumstances. 1VP-15A is powered from LEKVD- 11 and is not
impacted by a loss of 1EVDA.
Plausible: partially correct - it is the leakage of VI into containment
that is a problem.
D. Correct: numerous VI leaks inside containment will slowly increase
containment pressure with the VQ system unable to release to the unit
1 stack. VQ-LA fails closed due to a loss of power.
Ques_904 For Official Use Only Page 162
Question#90 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 058 AK3.02 (4.0/4.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP15 SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. AP-15 Background Document pages 16, 18, 19
2. AP-15 pages 10, 13, 14
Ques_904 For Official Use Only Page 163
Question#91 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 905 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) The selector switches for the IA and lB Boric Acid pumps are in LOCAL at
the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel (ASP). The operator is starting the IA Boric
Acid pump at the ASP.
Which one of the following statements describes ALL the indication(s) that
the operator has at the ASP indicating that the boric acid pump is running?
A. Red "ON" light LIT.
B. Red "ON" light LIT and pump amps registering.
C. Pump amps registering and boric acid flow indicating when
1NV-265B (BORICACID TONVPUMPS) is opened.
D. Red "ON" light LIT and boric acid flow indicating when 1NV-265B
is opened.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Both BA pumps have LOCAL/CR selector switches,
Red/green indicator lights, and start controls on the ASP.
B. Incorrect: There are no pump amps indicators on the ASP.
Plausible: These are normal indications checked when a pump is
started.
C. Incorrect: There is no flow indication on the ASP.
Plausible: NV-265B is controlled (with Red/Green lights) from the
D. Incorrect: BA flow is not indicated at the ASP
Plausible: This valve can be controlled from the ASP
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 068 AAL.19 (3.7/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: CP-ASP SEQ 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-CP-ASP page 25, 31
Ques_905 For Official Use Only Page 164
Question#92 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 906 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) A station emergency battery is supplying DC bus loads without a battery
charger online. If the load on the DC bus does not change, which one of the
following statements correctly describes a vital battery's discharge rate
(amps) as the battery is expended?
A. The discharge rate will be fairly constant until the design battery
capacity (amp-hours) is exhausted and then will rapidly decrease.
B. The discharge rate will decrease steadily until the design battery
capacity is exhausted.
C. The discharge rate will increase steadily until the design battery
capacity is exhausted.
D. The discharge rate will initially decrease until approximately
50% design capacity had been expended and then increase until
the battery has been exhausted.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The discharge rate increases.
Plausible: This is a typical response for many design systems - If the
candidate does not recall that V- IxR.
B. Incorrect: The discharge rate increases.
Plausible: If the candidate reverses the effect of decreasing voltage
on discharge rate.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: The discharge rate increases.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand battery theory.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 055 EKL.01 (3.3/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: EL-EPL SEQ 12/20
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EPL pages 65-67
Ques_906 For Official Use Only Page 165
Question#93 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 907 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is implementing FR-C. 1 (Response to Inadequate Core Cooling).
Given the following events and conditions:
"* P- II has been blocked.
"* Operators are preparing to open the steam dumps to depressurize intact
steam generators to 110 psig.
What guidance should be given to the operator opening the steam dumps?
A. The steam dumps should be fully opened to depressurize the
S/Gs as quickly as possible.
B. A cooldown rate of less than 100 degrees/hour should be
established to prevent exceeding Tech Spec limits.
C. A cooldown rate of less than 25 degrees/hour should be
established to prevent pressurized thermal shock concerns.
D. The steam dumps should be very slowly opened (<2 psig / sec) to
prevent MSIV closure.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The steam dumps should be opened slowly.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the FR-C guidance with tube
rupture guidance.
B. Incorrect: While TS limits apply, the dumps will be isolated long
before that limit is approached.
Plausible: This is the TS cooldown limit.
C. Incorrect: PTS is not the immediate concern with CETs >1200
degrees.
Plausible: PTS and limiting cooldown are reasonable concerns for
other events.
D. Correct: note in C. 1 informs the operator that a depressurization rate
of less than 2 psig/second will maintain the MSIVs open.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 074 EK2.06 (3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRC SEQ 4
Source: New
For Official Use Only Page 166
Ques_9O7
Question#93 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRC page 37
2. EP/1/A/5000/FR-C. 1 page 9
For Official Use Only Page 167
Ques_907
Question#94 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 908 Answer. C
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 is in mode 6.
A fire has occurred in a charcoal filter in the containment ventilation system.
RP is performing actions necessary to identify the HOT ZONE.
How will the operators identify the HOT ZONE boundaries?
A. Yellow and Magenta ropes
B. Red tape
C. RP tape
D. Yellow tape
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: RP tape identifies HOT zone boundaries.
Plausible: Y&M rope is used to identify radiation area boundaries,
and RP tape shares those colors.
B. Incorrect: RP tape is used.
Plausible: Red tape marks the WARM zone boundaries.
C. Correct: The Hot zone is identified by RP tape
D. Incorrect: RP tape is used.
Plausible: Yellow tape marks the COLD zone boundaries.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 067 G2.3.10 (2.9/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. RP/O/A/5700/025 enclosure 4.4
For Official Use Only Page 168
Ques_908
Question#95 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 909 Answer. A
1Pt(s) Unit 1 is at full power, steady state. Given the following events and
conditions:
- Power is lost to all control room annunciators.
- 20 minutes later, the OSM determines that the declaration of an Unusual
Event is warranted.
- 5 minutes after declaring the Unusual Event, the Emergency Notification
form is completed, and the OSM directs an operator to make the State
notification.
From the time of completion of the notification form, how much time does
the operator have to make the State notification?
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 55 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: 15 minutes from the time of declaration.
B. Incorrect: 10 minutes to the deadline.
Plausible: If the candidate believes the 15 minute deadline starts with
the completion of the form.
C. Incorrect: 10 minutes to the deadline.
Plausible: If the candidate believes that the 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> NRC deadline
applies to State notification, and that it starts from the time of event
declaration.
D. Incorrect: 10 minutes to the deadline.
Plausible: If the candidate believes that the 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> deadline starts
with the completion of the form.
Level: RO Only LOCFR55.41(b)10
KA: G2.4.29 (2.6/4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EAL SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. RP/0/A/5700/000 enclosure 4.9
For Official Use Only Page 169
Ques_909
Question#96 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 910 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) Which one of the following procedures would be used to bring Unit 1 to cold
shutdown after dealing with a fire that results in a loss of plant control from
the control room?
A. AP/l/5500/A/24, (Loss of Plant ControlDue to Fire)
B. OP/O/A/6100/20, (OperationalGuidelines FollowingFire in
Auxiliary Building or Vital Area)
C. OP/O/A/6100/21, (Shutdown Outside the ControlRoom Following
a Fire)
D. OP/1/A/6100/04, (Shutdown Outside the ControlRoom From Hot
Standby to ColdShutdown)
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: this brings the unit to hot standby
Plausible: candidate believes this procedure will bring the unit to
mode 5.
B. Incorrect: this procedure picks up from AP/24 and takes steps to
prepare the unit for hot shutdown followed by cold shutdown after a
fire in the aux building or vital area
Plausible: candidate unfamiliar with the procedure
C. Correct: procedure provides the steps required to achieve cold
shutdown following a fire that renders the control room unusable.
D. Incorrect: used when the control room is uninhabitable.
Plausible: this procedure does bring the unit to cold shutdown, but
not applicable if there has been damage to vital equipment due to fire.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.4.25 (2.9/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: SS SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MN-CP-SS pages 11, 13, 25
Ques_910 For Official Use Only Page 170
Question#97 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 911 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) The crew has verified natural circulation in ES-0. 1 (Reactor Trip Response)
based on decreasing core exit thermocouple readings and subcooling > 0 'F.
Ten minutes later, the operator notes that the thermocouple input to both
plasma displays is malfunctioning.
Which one of the following correctly describes a valid indication that natural
circulation is continuing?
A. S/G saturation temperatures are decreasing and REACTOR VESSEL
UR LEVEL indication is greater than 100 %.
B. S/G pressures are decreasing and TCOId is at S/G saturation
temperature.
C. S/G pressures are decreasing and REACTOR VESSEL DIP indication
is greater than 100%.
D. S/G pressure is at saturation pressure for TWod and REACTOR
VESSEL DIPindication is greater than 100 %.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: There is no indication of coupling between primary and
secondary.
Plausible: These are important indications during natural circulation.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: RVLIS is unavailable during natural circulation.
Plausible: S/G pressure decreases during natural circulation and
RVLIS is one of the other plasma display indications.
D. Incorrect: RVLIS is unavailable during natural circulation.
Plausible: S/G pressure will remain close to saturation for Tcold
during natural circulation and RVLIS is one of the other plasma
display indications.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 017 K3.01 (3.5/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EO SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_911 For Official Use Only Page 171
Question#97 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EO pages 117, 123
2. ES-0.1 page 15
3. ES-0.1 Enclosure 2 page 31
For Official Use Only Page 172
Ques_911
Question#98 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 913 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 was conducting a reactor start up immediately following a refueling
outage. Given the following conditions and events:
"* NCTavc =5510 F
"* The reactor is critical at 2x10' amps in the intermediate range
"* A rod control failure results in control rods being withdrawn from 55 steps
to 75 steps in bank C before the withdrawal was stopped
"* The reactor is not tripped
"* Steam dumps are in manual due an unrelated failure
If the steam dump position is not adjusted, what is the final value of Tave after
the reactivity transient has stabilized?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Databook ENCL 4.3
Table 6.3.B, Table 6.6, Table 6.10
A. Tave will decrease to less than 550.5 IF
B. T... will remain essentially unchanged between 550.5 and 551.5 IF
0
C. T..will increase to between 551.6 and 554.0 F
0
D. T.,, will increase to greater than 554.1 F
Distracter Analysis: Integral Rod Worth (IRW) is defined as the total amount
of reactivity added by the rods due to their position in the core (Rod Defect).
IRW is zero (0) when rods are fully withdrawn. The addition of positive
reactivity will cause the NCS Tave to increase to offset the positive reactivity
with negative reactivity (the Rx is above the point of adding heat at lx 10-6
amps). The increase in Tave will increase steam pressure by -50 psig - which
is why the steam dumps must remain in a constant position to avoid
compensating for the change.
55 steps = 1812 PCM - Table 6.3B
75 steps = 1630PCM
APCM = + 182 PCM - change in PCM from rod withdrawal
At 0 EFPD and 550 OF, PCM/ppmb = 6.96 PCM/ppm - from Table 6.10 at 0
182 PCM / 6.96 PCM/ppm = 26.1 ppm - change in reactivity
1372 ppm -26.1 ppm = 1345.9 ppm > 557 F from Table 6.6 at 0 EFPD
0
bumup
0
A. Incorrect: Temperature increases to slightly above 557 F
Ques_913 For Official Use Only Page 173
Question#98 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: If the candidate reverses the logic and applies the
temperature defect correction in the opposite direction
B. Incorrect: Temperature increases above 557 'F
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that another mechanism will
compensate for the positive reactivity addition or does not recognize
that the reactor is above the point of adding heat.
C. Incorrect: Temperature increases above 557 'F
Plausible: If the candidate makes a mistake on the calculation or uses
the wrong curve. Temperature is increasing a small amount - but not
enough due to the rod worth added.
D. Correct: Temperature increases above 557 'F
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 001 AKL.21 (2.9/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: RT-RCO SEQ 23
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MN-RT-RCO page 51
2. OP-MN-RT-RCO page 59 (figure 7.2)
3. OP/1/A/6100/022 Encl 4.3
Table 6.3B - PROVIDED
Table 6.6 - PROVIDED
Table 6.10 - PROVIDED
4. OP-MC-IC-ENB page 49
For Official Use Only Page 174
Ques_913
Question#99 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 914.1 Answer. A
1 Pt(s) Unit 1 was conducting a power ascension to 100%. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* Reactor power = 10%
"* 1A S/G water level = 40% for 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />
"* 1A S/G has been fed through the CA nozzles
"* Feedwater flow has been not been initiated through the CF nozzles
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
operational limitation on the CF nozzles to prevent water hammer in the 1A
S/G?
A. Reduce power below 1% and forward purge the CF nozzle prior
to initiating feedwater flow through the CF nozzles.
B. Prior to exceeding 15% power, initiate feedwater flow through
the CF bypass valves for one hour to warm up the gooseneck.
C. Increase 1A S/G level to greater than 45% and immediately
initiate feedwater flow the CF nozzles.
D. Prior to exceeding 25% power, initiate feedwater flow through
the CF nozzles.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: to prevent water hammer.
B. Incorrect: This will cause water hammer in the gooseneck
Plausible: 15% is the limit for feed flow through the CF bypass
valves. The one hour requirement is for the amount of time that the
S/G level must be < 45% before a forward purge and power reduction
is required.
C. Incorrect: The gooseneck has dried out and must be forward flushed
to prevent water hammer. S/G must be
Plausible: IfS/G water level had been > 45%, feedwater flow could
have been initiated as long as reactor power was < 25%.
D. Incorrect: The gooseneck has dried out and must be forward flushed
to prevent water hammer.
Plausible: These are the operating limits to prevent water hammer if
the S/G level was > 45% and the gooseneck was not dry.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 059 KI.03 (3.1/3.3)
For Official Use Only Page 175
Ques_914
Question#99 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CF Seq 11, 22
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CF pages 29, 31, 47
2. OP/1/A/6250/001 page 1
For Official Use Only Page 176
Ques 914
Question#100 McGuire Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 957 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% when a complete loss of offsite power (LOOP
occurred. All systems were operable and in a normal alignment.
Which one of the following containment ventilation systems will have all
operating fans/air handling units stopped after 5 minutes without any offsite
power?
A. VU ventilation units
B. Pressurizer booster fans
C. Pipe tunnel booster fans
D. Steam generator booster fans
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: VU AHUs and return air fans will start on a
LOOP/blackout - they have an emergency power supply.
Plausible: They will not start in a safety injection signal
B. Incorrect: Pressurizer booster fans will start on a LOOP from the
B/O sequencer - they have an emergency power supply.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the emergency power supply for
the pressurizer booster fans with the steam generator booster fans
C. Incorrect: Pipe tunnel booster fans will start on a LOOP from the
B/O sequencer - they have an emergency power supply.
Plausible: They will not start in a safety injection signal
D. Correct: Steam generator booster fans do not restart on a LOOP
B/O signal - they do not have an emergency power supply
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 022 K2.01 (3.0*/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-VUL LPRO 5
Source: New
Level of Knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-VUL pages 35, 39
For Official Use Only Page 177
Ques_957
Draft Submittal
(Pink Paper)
Senior Reactor Operator Written Exam
MCGUIRE EXAM
50-369, 370/2002-301
FEBRUARY 11 - 15, 2002
NRC Official Use Only
Nuclear Regulatory Commission
Senior Reactor Operator Licensing
Examination
McGuire Nuclear Station
ANSWER KEY
This document is removed from
Official Use Only category on
Date of examination
NRC -f1,-.ial Use Only
Question #1 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 034 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit I is heating up in mode 4 with NCS temperature at 230'F.
Which one of the following conditions would violate containment integrity if
the condition existed for 42 hours4.861111e-4 days <br />0.0117 hours <br />6.944444e-5 weeks <br />1.5981e-5 months <br /> in the current mode?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Tech Spec 3.6.1 & 3.6.3
A. I KF-122 (Fuel Transfer Tube) is known to be leaking by its seat.
B. 1RN-253A (RB Non ESS Sup Cont Inside Isol) failed its stroke
timing test, but can be closed from the control room.
C. 1KC-429B (Rx Bldg Drain Hdr Cont Inside Isol) power supply
has failed, and is closed.
D. IVQ-1A (Cont Air Rel Inside Isol) has its air supply removed and
has failed closed.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: IKF-122 is normally open, and not automatically closed
C- -
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize that integrity is
provided by the blind flange.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Closed without power retains containment integrity
Plausible: This is an automatic cont. isolation valve that is inoperable
D. Incorrect: closed with air isolated retains containment integrity.
Plausible: This is an automatic cont. isolation valve that is inoperable
Level: SRO Only 10CFR55.43(b)(2)
KA: APE069A2.01 (3.7 / 4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-CNT SEQ 9
Source: Bank; Ques_34, McGuire NRC 1996
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-CNT page 31
2. Tech Spec 3.6.1 and 3.6.3 - PROVIDED
Ques_034 For Official Use Only Page 1
Question #2 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 037.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was conducting a reactor startup following a refueling outage. Given
the following conditions during the reactor startup:
"* N-31 indicates 2.1x 104 cps
"* N-32 indicates 2.Ox 10i cps
"* N-35 indicates 5.5x10" amps
"* N-36 indicates 1.Oxl0 '0 amps
"* Rods are in manual with no rod motion
"* SR and IR NIs are slowly increasing
" Ta, is holding steady
Which one of the following best explains the indications?
A. N-35 compensating voltage is set too high
B. N-35 compensating voltage is set too low
C. N-36 compensating voltage is set too high
D. N-36 compensating voltage is set too low
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: N-35 reads too low for the conditions given, compensating
voltage is too high.
B. Incorrect: N-35 reads too low.
Plausible: candidate reverses the effect of compensation.
C. Incorrect: overlap is proper for N-36
Plausible: If candidate does not know that P6 = lxl0-10 IR is about
2x104 CPS SR.
D. Incorrect: overlap is proper for N-36
Plausible: If candidate does not know that P6 - lx 10-10 JR is about
2x104 CPS SR.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 033AKI.01(2.7/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-ENB SEQ 7
Source: Mod Ques_037, Catawba NRC 1999
Level of Knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-ENB pages 25, 69, 79
QuesO37.1 For Official Use Only Page 2
Question #3 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 048 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Which one of the following selections correctly matches the reactor trip
signals to their limiting accident?
Reactor Trip Si2nal Limitina Accident/Protection
A. OPAT DNB
OTAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
Pzr High Level NC system integrity
Pzr Low Pressure DNB
B. OPAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
OTAT DNB
Pzr High Level DNB
Pzr Low Pressure NC system integrity
C. OPAT DNB
OTAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
Pzr High Level NC system integrity
Pzr Low Pressure DNB
D. OPAT Excessive fuel centerline temperature
OTAT DNB
Pzr High Level NC system integrity
Pzr Low Pressure DNB
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: OPAT and OTAT are reversed.
Plausible: PZR low pressure and high level are correct.
B. Incorrect: All are incorrect.
Plausible: Provided for psychometric balance.
C. Incorrect: OPAT and OTAT are reversed.
Plausible: PZR low pressure and high level are correct.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 012K5.01(3.3/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-IPE SEQ 2
Source: Bank; Ques48e, McGuire NRC 1996
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 3
Ques_048
Question #3 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-IPE pages 19, 45
Ques_048 For Official Use Only Page 4
Question #4 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 051 Answer. C
I Pt(s) A large break LOCA is in progress and the operators are responding in
E- I (Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant). Given the following
conditions:
I ND pump is tagged out of service for maintenance.
1A
"* Containment pressure is 14 psig.
"* FWST level is below the swap over setpoint.
When shifting to cold leg recirc using ES- 1.3 (Transferto Cold Leg Recirc),
valve INI- 184B (IB ND Pump Suction From Cont Sump Isol) fails to open.
The operators implement ECA- 1.1 (Loss of Emergency Coolant
Recirculation).
FR-Z. I (Response to High Containment Pressure)requires both NS pumps
to be in operation. ECA- 1.1 limits the operators to only one NS pump in step
11.
Which of the following describes the correct rationale for NS pump operation
in this condition?
A. Both NS pumps will operate because a total loss of ND causes the
NS system to become relatively more important in reducing
containment pressure.
B. Both NS pumps will operate because FR-Z.1 was implemented in
response to a red path.
C. One NS pump will operate because this conserves FWST water
level as long as possible for injection while providing sufficient
NS flow to reduce containment pressure.
D. One NS pump will operate because ECA procedures always have
priority over FRPs.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: ECA- 1.1 takes priority over FR-Z.l
Plausible: While the rationale is true, the supply for NS comes from
the FWST, which will be drawn down faster until containment sump
recirculation can be established.
B. Incorrect: ECA- 1.1 takes priority over FR-Z. 1
Plausible: FRPs normally take priority over most EOPs
C. Correct answer
D. Incorrect: ECAs do not always have priority over FRPs.
Ques_051 For Official Use Only Page 5
Question #4 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: Some ECAs take priority e.g. ECA-0.0 has priority over
FRPs in that F-0 is not applicable until transition out of ECA-O.0.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: WEll G2.1.7 (3.7/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRZ SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques_051, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRZ pages 21, 25
Ques 051 For Official Use Only Page 6
Question #5 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 093 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit I was responding in E-I (Loss of Reactor or Secondaty Coolant) to
small break LOCA.
Given the following parameters at the indicated times:
Parameter 0200 0205 0210
"* NCS pressure (psig) 1500 1550 1600
"* Core exit T/C temp (0 F) 576 584 586
"* T,,,, (°F) 567 569 572
"* Tho, (OF) 570 574 578
"* T',,,, (OF) 563 564 566
"* Pressurizer level (%) 10% 19% 28%
"* Containment pressure (psig) 0.7 0.9 1.1
CA flow to all 4 S/Gs exceeds 450 gpm from 0200 to 0210.
What is the earliest time (if any) that the operators can transition to ES-1.1
(Sa/*ty Injection Termination)?
REFERENCES PROVIDED:
E-I step 7page 5 "
Databook Curve 1.1OB
Steam Tables
A. Transition to ES-1.1 at 2:00
B. Transition to ES-1.1 at 2:05
C. Transition to ES-1.1 at 2:10
D. Remain in E-1, SI flow may be not terminated
Distracter Analysis:
The objective of this question is to determine if the candidates can apply the
SI termination criteria and assess saturation conditions in the NC system. Use
of the Unit I Databook curve 1.10B is NECESSARY. Accurate use of the
steam tables will lead to an incorrect answer due to a failure to consider the
instrument errors involved. If Steam Tables arc used to determine
subcooling, then at 0205 the candidates have met the criteria to terminate SI.
Ques_093 For Official Use Only Page 7
Question #5 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
From the steam tables:
1500 psig + 14.6 - 1514.6 psia
597 °F = 1510 psia saturation pressure
A. Incorrect: Not >11% PZR level, saturated using curve 1.1Oh,
which accounts for instrument error and must be used to determine
all EOP transitions.
Plausible: if the candidate uses Databook, this point is subcooled - <
578 OF.
B. Incorrect: - not saturated - by curve book - >582 °F
Plausible: - if the candidate does not determine Psat correctly - or if
he uses RTD temperatures in place of T/C temperatures for core
temperature determination.
C. Correct answer: by the curve book, the core is < 588°F.
D. Incorrect: meets the criteria at 0210.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not determine P-sat correctly thinks
ACC values come in at I psig containment pressure.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: WE 02 EA2.1 (3.3/4.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-ICM SEQ 9
Source: Mod; Ques_093, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-ICM pages 33, 35
2. EP/l/A/5000/E-1 page 5
3. Unit I Databook Curve 1.1 OB
4. Steam Tables
5. OMP 4-3 page 9
Ques_093 For Official Use Only Page 8
Question #6 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 124 Answer: B
I Pt(s) A team of workers must repack the seals on a pump in a 1500 mrem/hr high
radiation area.
Which one of the following work teams and estimated repair times would
maintain worker exposure ALARA?
A. 10 people working for 20 minutes
B. 6 people working for 30 minutes
C. 4 people working for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />
D. 2 people working for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
-...............................................---------------------------------.......
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: six people can accomplish the job with 4 1/2 Rem.
Plausible: Each individual would have the least exposure.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: six people can accomplish the job with 4 1/2 Rem.
Plausible: fewest individuals not exceeding the admin dose limit.
D. Incorrect: six people can accomplish the job with 4 1/2 Rem.
Plausible: Exposes the fewest individuals.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.3.2 (2.5/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: RAD-RP SEQ 135
Source: Bank; Ques_124, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-RAD-RP page 135
Ques_124 For Official Use Only Page 9
Question #7 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 137.1 Answer. A
1 Ptts) Unit 2 refueling is in progress. Given the following plant alarms:
"* 2EMF-3 (Containment Refueling Bridge) trip 2 alarm.
"* 2EMF-39 (Containment Gas) trip 2 alarm.
"* 2EMF-40 (Containment Iodine) trip 2 alarm.
Which one of the following procedures should be implemented?
A. AP-25 (Spent Fuel Damage)
B. FR-Z.3 (Response to High ContainmentRadiation Level)
C. AP-40 (Loss of Refueling CanalLevel)
D. AP-18 (High Activity in Reactor Coolant)
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Per the entry conditions indications are consistent with a
dropped and damaged fuel element.
B. Incorrect: Must implement AP-25.
Plausible: There is indication of high containment radiation level.
C. Incorrect: unless accompanied with failed fuel, gas/iodine monitors
should not go into alarm.
Plausible: for lowering cavity level, the bridge alarm would be in
alarm.
D. Incorrect: Must implement AP-25.
Plausible: the monitor alarms could be consistent with failed fuel at
power.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 034A2.01 (3.6/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: FH-FC SEQ 6
Source: Bank; Quesl37a, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-FH-FC pages 17 -19
Ques_137.1 For Official Use Only Page 10
Question #8 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 143.1 Answer: C
I Pt(s) On January 2 6 h', you are directed to complete a valve lineup on Unit tin
accordance with enclosure 4.10 to OP/I/A/6200/005, Spent Fuel Cooling
System. The controlled copy of the procedure has a restricted change noted
for valve IKF-145. This normally open valve has been locked open in
accordance with a special order that remains in effect until February I".
Which one of the following statements describes the correct action needed to
validate your working copy of the procedure'? (Your copy of the procedure is
in other respects identical to the controlled copy.)
A. Replace your working copy with an updated procedure printed
from the NEDL system.
B. Annotate the working copy with just the restricted change
number (as a cross reference) next to the 1KF-145 line item, and
initial the change.
C. Annotate the working copy with a pen and ink change for the
valve position for IKF-145; change to "Locked Open", annotate
the restricted change number and initial the change.
D. Use the working copy as is since restricted changes of this nature
are not required to be written into working copies.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Cannot print because NEDL will not list this procedure as
issued.
Plausible: NEDL is an approved source of working copies for non
changed procedures.
B. Incorrect: Must write in the actual change language.
Plausible: The controlled copy is annotated with only the restricted
change #.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: Must write in the actual change language.
Plausible: It is not necessary to annotate working copies if the
change does not affect the job or no longer applies would be true
after FEB 1S`
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.1.21 (3.1/3.2)
Ques_143.1 For Official Use Only Page 11
Question #8 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM-OP SEQ 8
Source: Mod; Ques 143, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OMP 4-1 pages 11 -12
Ques_143.1 For Official Use Only Page 12
Question #9 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 164.1 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% when a ID S/G steam header break occurred.
The operators are responding in E-2 (FaultedSteam GeneratorIsolation).
The following sequence of events occurred:
"* Isolation of the ID S/G
"* PZR level dropped to 0% and was restored to 20%
"* NCS pressure is 1900 psig
"* Safety Injection has not been reset
What are the correct panel actions for the restoration of power to pressurizer
back-up heater bank D?
A. Reset safety injection on 1MC-10
Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on IMC-5
B. Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on 1MC-5
Select ON for the heater control switch on IMC-10
C. Select MANUAL on the heater mode switch on IMC-10
Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on 1MC-5
Select ON for the heater control switch on 1MC-10
D. Reset safety injection on IMC-10
Select MANUAL on the heater mode switch on IMC-I1
Select CLOSED on the heater breaker switch on 1MC-5
Select ON for the heater control switch on IMC-11
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: insufficient action, wrong location for SI reset
Plausible: if the candidate is not familiar with the interlocks on the
PZR heater circuit. This is the action needed for Bank C.
B. Incorrect: must turn the heater mode switch to MANUAL.
Plausible: partially correct all other actions are necessary
C. Correct answer: Bank D does not require SI reset
D. Incorrect: Not necessary to reset safety injection and wrong location
for S1 reset and breaker closure.
Plausible: This is the right method for Banks A&B and the prior
version of the question.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.1.31 (4.2/3.9)
For Official Use Only Page 13
Ques 164.1
Question #9 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-IPE SEQ 10/Il
Source: Mod; Ques_ 164, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-IPE page 23
2. EP/I/A/5000/ES- 1.1 page 19
Ques_164.1 For Official Use Only Page 14
Question #10 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 177 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Units I and 2 are at full power when a loss of offsite power occurs on Unit 2.
Which one of the following main turbine overspeed protective
devices/features will be the FIRST to actuate to prevent a turbine overspeed
condition?
A. At a speed of 103%, the turbine throttle valves will close.
B. GBX relay will close the governor and intercept valves.
C. At a speed of 110%, the governor and intercept valves will close.
D. GBX relay will close the turbine throttle valves.
... ... .. ... .. ... .. ... .. ... .. ... ..-----------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The governor and intercept valves close.
Plausible: 103% is an overspeed setpoint.
B. Correct: GBX relay initiates when the switchyard breakers open.
The governor and intercept valves close.
C. Incorrect: Valves trip at 103%.
Plausible: 110% is an overspeed protection setpoint, and these
valves will close.
D. Incorrect: GBX relay does not close the throttle valves.
Plausible: GBX relay does actuate.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 045 A4.02 (2.7/2.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: MT-MT SEQ 3
Source: Mod; Ques_ 177, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-MT-MT page 27, 29, 31, 39
For Official Use Only Page 15
Ques_177
Question #11 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 181 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Step 5d of FR-H. I (Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink) requires the
operators to check Pzr pressure less than 2335 psig after initiating emergency
boration flow to the reactor. If pressure exceeds 2335 psig, the contingency
action is to open a PORV and rapidly depressurize to 2135 psig. What is the
basis for this step?
A. To maintain pressure below the PORV setpoint to prevent
cycling the PORVs.
B. To ensure that the boration flow rate is sufficient for emergency
boration.
C. To maintain positive control of NC pressure to prevent lifting a
code safety relief valve.
D. To reduce NC pressure to allow closing of NV pump recirc valves
to maximize emergency boration flow.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: This is the PORV setpoint.
Plausible: This would be a plausible action to prevent an automatic
actuation.
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: The purpose is to ensure adequate boron flow.
Plausible: This is the function of the PORVs.
D. Incorrect: The recirc valves could not be closed at 2135 psig.
Plausible: The purpose does involve enhancing boron flow.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 024AK3.02(4.2/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRS SEQ 4
Source: Bank; McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRS page 27
2. EP/I/A/5000/FR-S. 1
Ques_181 For Official Use Only Page 16
Question #12 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 191.1 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when a total loss of feedwater occurred.
Following initiation of feed and bleed, the Operators reached step 34 of FR-H. I
(Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink) that requires feeding the S/Gs.
Given the following conditions:
Loop A Loop B Loop C LoopD
S/G (WR) [%] 18 9 10 13
NC T[o, [0 F] 545 542 549 555
"* Core exit T/Cs are trending UP.
"* Containment pressure is 2.8 psig and increasing.
"* VI pressure is 120 psig.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the initial
restrictions for restoring feedwater flow in FR-H. I when the IB CA pump has
been restarted?
REFERENCES PROVIDED:EP/1/A/5000/FR-H. 1, Page 29 and Enclosure 10
A. Feedwater may be restored to 1A S/G but limited to a feed rate
required to lower core exit T/Cs.
B. Feedwater may be restored to IC and ID S/G but must be
limited to a 100 GPM flow rate to each S/G.
C. Feedwater may be restored to ID S/G but must be limited to feed
rate required to lower core exit T/Cs.
D. Feedwater may be restored to IA and ID S/Gs but limited to a
100 GPM flow rate to each S/G.
Distracter Analysis: There was a change in this procedure since the prior
question. The previous guidance was not to feed a S/G when T-hot >
550 'F and to select the B and C S/Gs for restoration of flow. Now
the guidance is to select the S/G that has the highest apparent level
and to preferentially select the B or C S/G.
A. Incorrect: IA S/G is limited to < 100 gpm feed rate because it is <
12% level and IB CA pump will not feed IA S/G.
Plausible: This would be partially correct be if level was <12%.
B. Incorrect: Must feed ID S/G at rate high enough to lower core exit
T/Cs. Limiting feed rate to 100 gpni will not prevent core damage.
Ques_191.1 For Official Use Only Page 17
Question #12 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: partially correct - feeding SG I B is preferable because it
provided steam for the TDCA pump.
C. Correct answer: feed the S/G's > 12% level (A&D) at whatever rate
is needed to turn the CET trend is the appropriate choice. But lB CA
pump cannot feed IA S/G
D. Incorrect: The 100 gpm limit is not appropriate since CET's are
increasing and level is greater than 12%. The IA S/G cannot be fed.
Plausible: IA & ID S/Gs are the appropriate choice based on > 12%.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 061 K3.02(4.2/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRH SEQ 6
Source: Mod; Quesl91a, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRH page 77
2. EP/1/A/5000/FR-H.1 page 29 and Enclosure 10- PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 18
Ques 191.1
Question #13 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 206.1 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit I is recovering from a total loss of feedwater accident. The following
sequence of events occurred:
"* The operators implemented E-0 (Reactor Trip or Safety Injection) then
transitioned to ES-0. 1 (Reactor Trip Response) at step 5
"* Transitioned to FR-H. I (Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink) due
to a RED PATH for heat sink.
"* Feedwater was restored by rapidly depressurizing all 4 S/Gs and
establishing CF/CM flow
"* Safety injection (SI) did not actuate (not required)
"* Pressurizer level is 4%.
"* The operators implement FR-H. I step 18.c.RNO 2) a) which states:
2) IF an S/1 has not occurred, THEN:
a) IF Pzr pressureor level is low due to operatorcontrolled cooldown in this
procedure, THEN S/I actuation requirementsbased on Pzr level or pressuredo
not apply in subsequentproceduresunless conditions degrade.
"* At step 18.c.RNO 2 c) of FR-H. 1, the operators verified feed and bleed
was not initiated and returned to ES-0. I (procedure and step in effect)
"* The ES-0. I foldout criteria states:
1. S/IActuation Criteria.
0
- IF NC Subcooling basedon core exit T/Cs is less than 0 F
OR Pzr level can not be maintainedgreaterthan 4%,
THEN initiate S/I and GO TO EP/I/A/1500/E-0
Which one of the following statements is the correct interpretation in the
EOP bases for this specific situation'?
A. S/I should be actuated because the rapid depressurization of S/Gs
in FR-H.1 was not considered an "operator controlled
cooldown".
B. S/I should be actuated because FR-H.I guidance no longer
applies after transition to ES-0.1.
C. S/I should not be actuated because the addition of cold water will
immediately cause pressurized thermal shock to the NC system.
D. S/I should not be actuated because this action would cause a loss
of heat sink for an expected pressurizer condition.
. .---
. . ---
.. . . . . . . . .- .---. --- . . ---
. .---. ---
. -- . --..----- ---
. .--. ---. .---
. .--. ---
. . --- . .
---.
For Official Use Only Page 19
Ques_206.1
Question #13 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Distracter Analysis: WOG response to DW-92-25 addresses this problem.
Actuating S/I would cause a FWI and stop the flow of CF/CM into the S/Gs
A. Incorrect: SI should not be actuated.
Plausible: This would be the expected follow the EP's answer, if the
candidate does not recognize that feed would be lost. The co6ldown /
depressurization exceeds the normal limits - but is still considered
operator controlled.
B. Incorrect: SI should not be actuated.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that OMP-4.3 procedural guidance
states that IF - THEN steps in FRGs do not apply after transition
from the FRG.
C. Incorrect: PTS is not a concern because the NC pressure has been
reduced.
Plausible: The injection of cold water into the NC system would
thermally stress the NC system - but pressure is too low for PTS.
D. Correct: Actuating S/I would cause a FWI and stop the flow of
CF/CM into the S/Gs
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRH SEQ 6
Source: Mod; Ques206a, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRH page 45
2. EP/l/AI5000/FR-H.l page 18
3. EP/l/A/5000/ES-0.I page 30
Ques_206.1 For Official Use Only Page 20
Question #14 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 260.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a loss of main feedwater event from 100% power.
Given the following events and conditions:
"* The reactor has tripped
"* The 2A and 2B Motor-driven CA (MDCA) pumps started in auto
"* The Turbine-driven CA pump (TDCA) started in auto
"* CA suction pressure slowly drops to 4 psig
Which one of the following automatic system responses (if any) will occur at
this time'?
A. 2A CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
- 2 TDCA pump suction shifts to the RN system
2B CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
B. 2A CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
- 2 TDCA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
2B CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
C. 2A CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tanks
- 2 TDCA pump suction shifts to the RN system
2B CA pump suction shifts to the RN system
D. 2A CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
- 2 TDCA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
2B CA pump suction remains aligned to the CA storage tank
Distracter Analysis: Unit 2 A train valves RN-69A and CA-I5A opens at 4.5
psig and B train valves including the TDCA A train supply opens at 3.5 psig.
A. Incorrect: 2B CA and TDCA pumps do not shift suctions to the RN
system.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the swap over setpoints
B. Correct Answer:
C. Incorrect: 2A CA pump shifts suctions to the RN system and TDCA
and 2B CA pumps do not shift
Plausible: if the candidate reverses the train relation of the unit
difference.
D. Incorrect: 2A CA pump shifts suctions to the RN system.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the auto-swap setpoints.
This is the correct answer for Unit I
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_260,1 For Official Use Only Page 21
Question #14 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: GEN G2.2.4 (2.8/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CA SEQ 10
Source: Mod; Ques_260, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CA pages 21, 63
For Official Use Only Page 22
Ques_26o. 1
Question #15 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 297 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when a 5 gallon per minute tube leak
occurred in IB S/G. The operators responded in AP- 10 (NC System Leakage
Within The Capacity Of Both NV Pumps). Given the following events and
conditions:
"* The operators were directed to initiate emergency boration in accordance
with AP-38 (Emergency Boration).
"* INV-267A (BORICACID TO BLENDER CONTROL) was mechanically
stuck shut
IINV-265B (BORICACID TO NVPUMPS) would not operate from the
control room
IA Boric Acid Transfer Pump
Which statement correctly describes the required manual action to initiate
emergency boration?
A. Open 1NV-265B (Boric Acid to NV Pumps) located on the 733'
level north of IA1 KC pump.
B. Open 1NV-269 (BA Supply to NV Pumps Block) located on the
733' level north of IAI KC pump.
C. Open 1NV-269 (BA Supply to NV Pumps Block) located on the
733' level north of the boric acid tanks
D. Open INV-265B (Boric Acid to NV Pumps) located on the 733'
level north of the boric acid tanks
S-------------
Distracter Analysis:
With INV-267A shut, the only flow path is thru 1NV-265B. Must open
INV-265B located on the 733' level north of the KC pump IAl.
1NV-269 is the alternate valve in the system - also located on the 733' level
but INV-267A must be open to initiate emergency Boration.
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: wrong valve
Plausible: The location is correct for INV-265B.
C. Incorrect: wrong valve and wrong location
Plausible: answer provided for psychometric balance
D. Incorrect: right valve, wrong location.
For Official Use Only Page 23
Ques_297
Question #15 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: If the candidate doses not know where the valve is
located.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: APE 024AA2.02 (3.9/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 5
Source: Mod Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV pages 95, 133
2. AP/1/A/5500/38 page 6
Ques 297 For Official Use Only Page 24
Question #16 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 320 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power. Given the following conditions:
0 EMF-33 (CondenserAir Ejector Exhaust) alarms in trip 2
If all the automatic features operate as designed (without operator
intervention), which one of the following indications will provide the best
indication (most sensitive and timely) to confirm that a S/G tube leak has
occurred?
A. Comparing S/G feed flow to steam flow mismatch
B. Observing EMF-24, 25, 26 and 27 (STEAMLINE HI RAD)
C. Observing EMF-34 (S/G SAMPLE)
D. Observing EMF-71, 72,73,74 (N16 LEAKAGE)
- ----- -------- ------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Not a sensitive method of comparison
Plausible: This method will show.gross SGTRs
B. Incorrect: Not as sensitive as using EMF 71-74
Plausible: This was the correct answer for the 1997 NRC exam - did
not have EMF-71-74 operable
C. Incorrect: S/G sample line will isolate at EMF-33 trip 2
Plausible: This would be a good answer if the automatic isolation
did not occur
D. Correct answer: most sensitive method as it detects N 16 y radiation
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: APE 037AA2.03(3.4/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-EMF SEQ 2
Source: Bank; MeGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 45, 47
Ques_320 For Official Use Only Page 25
Question #17 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 321 Answer. A
I Pt(s) In E-3 (Steam GeneratorTube Rupture) Enclosure 5 (NC Pressureand
Makeup Control to Minimize Leakage) the operators are directed to energize
pressurizer heaters if the ruptured S/G level is decreasing and pressurizer
level is greater than 25%. What is the purpose for this action'?
A. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature corresponding to
ruptured S/G pressure to minimize S/G leakage into the NC
system.
B. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature corresponding to
intact S/G pressure to minimize primary leakage into the S/G.
C. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature above the
corresponding ruptured S/G pressure to ensure S/G water does
not flow into the NC system.
D. Maintain pressurizer saturation temperature corresponding to
intact S/G pressure to minimize NC pressure transients.
Distracter Analysis: The purpose of this question is to determine if the
candidate understands that thermal hydraulic equilibrium
(temp/press/leak rate) needs to be established between the NCS and
the ruptured S/G. No references are provided because the candidate
should be able to answer the question by simply comprehending the
pressures and reasons for this equilibrium.
A. Correct Answer:
B. Incorrect: required to maintain NCS pressure equal to ruptured S/G
pressure, not the intact S/G - Intact S/G pressure < ruptured S/G
pressure would not reduce NCS to S/G leakage
Plausible: if the candidate is confused over the thermal hydraulics
C. Incorrect: required to maintain NCS pressure equal to ruptured S/G
pressure
Plausible: partially correct- do not want leakage from S/G to NCS
or NCS to S/G
D. Incorrect: required to maintain NCS pressure equal to ruptured S/G
pressure, not the intact S/G
Plausible: this would be a reasonable basis for monitoring intact S/G
pressure if that were the correct answer.
Level: RO&SRO
For Official Use Only Page 26
Ques_321
Question #17 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: EPE 038EK1.02(3.2/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EP3 SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques_321, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EP3 pages 19, 101, 123
2. EP/l/A/5000/E-3 pages 44, 57
Ques_321 For Official Use Only Page 27
McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Question #18
Bank Question: 331.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) A technician is conducting a calibration procedure, which requires a series of
approximately 10 sequential steps to be performed while standing in a
contaminated area. He/she is in direct communications with an operator, the
communicator, who holds the procedure and reads each step sequentially.
If the performer does not have the procedure in hand as he/she performs the
steps, what are the requirements of OMP 4-1 (Use of Operatingand Periodic
Test Procedures)regarding the sign off for each step'?
A. Only the performer can sign off the steps upon completion of the
task after leaving the contaminated area.
B. The communicator signs off each step as the step is completed
using his/her own initial and the initials of the performer.
C. The communicator signs off each step as the step is completed
using his/her own initials and the time.
D. The communicator checks off each step as the step is completed
along with the time. The performer initials each step following
completion of the task.
--
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
D. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: ADM G 2.1.23(3.9 / 4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM-OP SEQ 13/14
Source: Bank; Ques_331, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
For Official Use Only Page 28
Ques_331.1
Question #18 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
1. OMP 4-1 page 15
For Official Use Only Page 29
Ques-331.1
Question #19 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 348.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 100% power when an engineer informs the OSM that
he just reviewed a Technical Bulletin for the Diesel Generators that ryquires
replacement of the hydraulic oil in the Woodward governor. The engineer
reports that type of oil that is presently installed in both DG governors is
known to be too viscous, and will not allow the governor to maintain
frequency control during design sequencer loading. The D/G's have passed
their monthly surveillance tests.
Which one of the following actions is required of the OSM under the above
circumstances?
REFERENCESPRO VIDED: Tech Spec 3.8.1 and NSD 203
A. Immediately declare both D/Gs inoperable, enter Tech Spec 3.8.1
and commence a shutdown. Document the decision by entering
the LCO in the TSAIL.
B. Direct the engineer to confirm the problem severity with the
vender. Document the problem in the TSAIL and assure that it
is logged in the control room logbook.
C. Immediately call the Station Manager and report the problem.
Wait for further direction by senior management before taking
any action. Document the problem by entering it in the control
room logbook, and in the shift turnover worksheet.
D. Begin the operability evaluation process for the D/Gs to
determine if an unreviewed safety question has been identified or
a Tech Spec LCO has been exceeded. Initiate a PIP to document
and control the process.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct Answer:
B. Incorrect: Insufficient action to control the identified problem
Plausible: this may occur as an expedient solution because it does
not address the immediate operability question.
C. Incorrect: Insufficient action - it is the SROs' job to implement the
TS when required.
Plausible: calling station management is a prudent action after
implementing the TSAS - if the candidate does not know the
requirements for an operability evaluation
For Official Use Only Page 30
Ques_348.1
Question #19 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
D. Incorrect: There is clear indication that the oil would cause the
D/Gs not to perform its' function.
Plausible: if the candidate does not understand the criteria for
operability. These are supplemental or companion actions.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(2)
KA: G2.1.1 (3.7/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM-DIR SEQ I I
Source: Mod; Ques_348, McGuire NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. NSD 203 page 6
2. Tech Spec 3.8.1- PROVIDED
Ques_348.1 For Official Use Only Page 31
Question #20 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 352.1 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Prior to moving fuel assemblies into their final storage positions in the spent
fuel pool, the Staff Engineer responsible for refueling needs to troubleshoot a
problem on the Spent Fuel Pool Manipulator Crane Bridge. This test will
require bypassing the "bridge left interlock".
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the minimum
approvals needed for bypassing this interlock?
A. The Staff Engineer can approve the bypass of interlocks for
testing as long as no fuel assemblies, insert components or
dummy fuel assemblies are being handled.
B. Approval must be obtained from the Fuel Handling SRO and the
interlock bypass must be removed as soon as practicable.
C. Approval must be obtained from the OSM (or designee) and the
interlock bypass must be removed prior to shift turnover.
D. A written procedure must be prepared to control and document
the performance of this special test.
~s ----------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The FHSRO or shift supervisor must approve non
proceduralized bypasses.
Plausible: It is reasonable that the engineer could approve the bypass
since nothing is being handled.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: the bypass may continue on the next shift.
Plausible: The OSM can approve bypasses.
D. Incorrect: A procedure is not required.
Plausible: No further approval is necessary if a procedure is written.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(7)
KA: G2.2.28 (2.6/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: FH-FC SEQ 5
Source: Mod; Ques352a, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 32
Ques_352.1
Question #20 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-FH-FC page 15
Ques_352.1 For Official Use Only Page 33
Question #21 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 359.2 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I is responding to a small break LOCA using E- I (Loss of Reactor or
Secondaty Coolant). Given the following events and conditions:
"* FWST Level - 340 inches
"* Containment pressure 1.5 psig
"* Containment Sump Level - 1.05 ft
"* EMF-41 (AUX BLDG VENTILATION) = trip 2
"* Aux Building area radiation monitors are in alarm
"* EMF-5 IA and B (CONTAINMENT TRNA & B) -25 R/Hr
"* Hydrogen Analyzer = 0.7% in containment
"* NLO's report significant leakage at the seals of the IA ND pump
Which one of the following procedures should the operator transition into
from E-I?
A. FR-Z.3 (Response to High Containment Radiation Level)
B. ECA-1.I (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation)
C. FR-Z.4 (Response to High Containment Hydrogen)
D. ECA-1.2 (LOCA Outside Containment)
-- ----------------------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis: The initial conditions provide a LOCA into
containment and a leakage path outside of containment. The question is
which of the problems take priority? The purpose is not to memorize
procedure steps but to answer this from a broader perspective.
A. Incorrect: Cont RAD levels < 35 R/hr and this would be a
YELLOW path that does NOT require priority action.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that the abnormal radiation level
requires priority action.
B. Incorrect: Still in injection phase of SI have failed to isolate leak
outside containment.
Plausible: if candidate is not familiar with the entry conditions for
ECA 1.1 (after failure to isolate leak outside containment).
C. Incorrect: Cont H2 > 0.5 %, but this is a YELLOW path not
requiring priority action.
Plausible: If the candidate fails to recognize the leak in the auxiliary
bldg and/or the fact that E-I takes care of the cont H2 problem.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
For Official Use Only Page 34
Ques_359.2
Question #21 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: WE 04EK3.4 (3.6 / 3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EI SEQ 2
Source: Mod; Ques_359.1, Catawba NRC 1997
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-MC-EP-EI page 45
2. EP/1/A/5000/E-1 pages 12-13
3. EP/I/A/5000/F-0 page 9
Ques-359.2 For Official Use Only Page 35
Question #22 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 380 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Which one of the following statements is a correct description of the
capabilities of EMF-48 (REACTOR COOLANT) at 100% power'?
A. Detects corrosion product beta flux from the coolant in the A
loop of the NC system.
B. Detects fission product gamma flux from the coolant in the B
loop of the NC system.
C. Detects corrosion product beta flux from the coolant in the C
loop of the NC system.
D. Detects fission product gamma flux from the coolant in the D
loop of the NC system.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - EMF-48 does not detect beta radiation
Plausible: - If the candidate believes that the reason CRUD bursts is
detected by EMF-48 is the beta flux.
B. Incorrect: - EMF-48 does not sample the B loop.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not recognize that it samples A &
D loops.
C. Incorrect: - EMF-48 does not detect beta radiation, and loop C is not
a sample point.
Plausible: - If the candidate believes that the reason CRUD bursts are
detected by EMF-48 is the beta flux, and does not recognize that it
samples A & D loops.
D. Correct answer
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 076AA2.01(2.7/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: PSS-NM SEQ 2
Source: Bank; Ques 380 McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-PSS-NM pages 15, 21
For Official Use Only Page 36
Ques_380
Question #23 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 387 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Enclosure I to E-I (Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant) provides foldout
page actions to close INV-150B and INV-151A (NVPUMPS
RECIRCULATION) when NC pressure is less than 1500 psig.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the operator
response and reason for this response when pressurizer pressure is 1495 psig?
A. Notify the SRO of the need to close the valves to prevent NV
pump runout at low pressures.
B. Close the valves to prevent a reduction of full SI flow to the core.
C. Close the valves to prevent NV pump runout at low pressures.
D. Notify the SRO of the need to close the valves to prevent a
reduction of full SI flow to the core.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - pump runout is not a concern and the actions are
automatic.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know that foldout actions are
independent - pump runout can be a concern for situations where the
pump discharge pressure is very low.
B. Correct answer - maximizes flow into the core.
C. Incorrect: - pump runout is not a concern at this pressure.
Plausible: pump runout can be a concern for situations where the
pump discharge pressure is very low.
D. Incorrect: - the actions are automatic.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not know that foldout actions are
independent.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 011 EK3.07 (3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EI SEQ 5
Source: Bank; Ques_387a, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
Ques_387 For Official Use Only Page 37
Question #23 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
1. OP-MC-EP-INTRO pages 33, 35
2. OP-MC-EP-EI page 59
For Official Use Only Page 38
Ques_387
Question #24 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 398 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is in the process of starting up the reactor in accordance with all
controlling procedures. Given the following conditions and events:
2 EMF-3 (CONTAINMENT REFUELiNG BRIDGE MONITOR) trip I setpoint is
7x 10' mR/hr and trip 2 setpoint is 1.5x 102 mR/hr.
0200 0205 0210 0215
5x10' l.1x10 2 1.6x10 2 2.7x10 2
2EMF 3 (mRlhr)
N-31 (CPS) 1.2x10 4 1.7x10 4 2xlO4 0
N-32 (CPS) 9.2x 103 1.1 x 104 0 0
N-35 (amps) 9.1x10 l.OxlO 1.21010 1.210"
N-36 (amps) 9.3x10u' l.1xl040 1.3x10 . 1.3x10 ..
If channel N-32 is deenergized due to a SR detector failure at 0210, what is the
earliest time (if any) that the containment evacuation alarm will actuate in Unit
2 during the startup?
A. 0205
B. 0210
C. 0215
D. The containment evacuation alarm will not actuate
S----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - both SR high flux trips are active, but the EMF is still
below Trip 2.
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that Trip I actuation causes the
alarm
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: Both SR high flux trips are blocked
Plausible: - if the candidate reverses the logic that BOTH SR high flux
trips must be blocked
D. Incorrect: - alarm actuates at 0210
Plausible: - if candidate thinks that some other action or interlock
blocks the alarm
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 061AA1.01(3.6/3.6)
Ques_398 For Official Use Only Page 39
Question #24 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-EMF SEQ 3
Source: Mod; Ques_398, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 43
2. OP-MC-IC-ENB pages 21-23
For Official Use Only Page 40
Ques_398
Question #25 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 400 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is conducting a plant shutdown. The S/G's are being filled to wet lay
up. Given the following plant conditions and events:
- 2D S/G pressure = 5 psig (all channels indicating the same)
- 2D S/G NR level - 95%
- 2D S/G WR level - 75%
- No S/G PORVs are open
- Operators are performing OP/2/A/6100/02 (ControllingProcedure/br
Unit Shutdown) and SO-4D (FillingS/G 2D)
- NCS temperature = 195"F
Which one of the following statements represents actual level conditions for
the 2D S/G under these conditions?
A. Approximately 75%
B. Approximately 85%
C. Approximately 95%
D. >100%
Distracter Analysis: Narrow range SG level detectors are calibrated for
normal (hot) operating conditions. Wide range SG level detectors are
calibrated for cold (shutdown) conditions. This means that the narrow range
instrument will read higher than actual level under cold conditions because
variable leg water density is greater than the calibrated setting.
A. Correct answer: S04 procedures use only the WR level when
filling the S/Gs.
B. Incorrect: Actual level is about 75%
Plausible: - if the candidate is confused over which of the S/G level
instruments is cold calibrated and gets the effect reversed
C. Incorrect: - SG level is about 75 %
Plausible: - if the candidate is confused over which of the S/G level
instruments is cold calibrated.
D. Incorrect: - SG level is about 75 %
Plausible: If the candidate believes at low temperature, inaccuracy
has increased level indication.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 035A1.01(3.6/3.8)
Ques 400 For Official Use Only Page 41
Question #25 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: STM-SG SEQ 5
Source: Mod; Ques_400, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-STM-SG pages 21, 23
2. OP/I/A/6100/SO-2D pages 6, 11
Ques_400 For Official Use Only Page 42
Question #26 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 407 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I has initiated a liquid radioactive waste release from the Ventilation
Unit Condensate Drain Tank (VUCDT) through the RC system. All lineups
and authorizations have been properly made in accordance with
OP/0/B/6200/35 using the normal path. Two RC pumps are the minimum
required under the LWR document.
Given the following initial conditions:
- 3 RC pumps are running
S1lEMF-44 (CONT VENT DRN TANK OUT) correctly set for trip I and
trip 2 activity limits
SMRIRR = 75 GPM based on boron concentration
- No other releases are in progress
If the release automatically terminates 40 seconds after initiation, which one
of the following conditions could have terminated the release?
A. I WM-46 (LIQUID WASTE DISCH VALVE) closing
automatically if I RC pump tripped
B. 1WM-46 closing automatically if'IEMF-44 reached the trip 2
setpoint
C. 1WP-35 (WMT & VUCDT TO RC CNTRL) closing automatically
if I RC pump tripped
D. IWP-35 closing automatically if IEMF-44 reached the trip 2
setpoint
.................................------------------------------------------------------..
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - RC pump interlock will not actuate - set at 2 pumps
(minimum required on LWR document). WM-46 is isolated and not
used anymore as a release path.
Plausible: - this was formerly the normal release path
B. Incorrect: - WM-46 receives a closing signal from EMF-44 but this
is not the normal path for a release. WM-46 is isolated and not used
anymore.
Plausible: - this was formerly the normal release path
C. Incorrect: - RC pump interlock will not actuate - set at 2 pumps
(minimum required on LWR document).
Plausible: - if the candidate misunderstands the RC pump interlock-
this was the correct answer on a prior NRC exam -
Ques_407 For Official Use Only Page 43
Question #26 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
D. Correct answer
KA: SYS 68A4.03 (3.9/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-WL SEQ 3
Source: Bank; McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-WL pages 21, 27, 59
2. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 31
For Official Use Only Page 44
Ques_4O7
Question #27 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 415.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 80% power when an electrical transient causes several
condensate system pumps to trip. Given the following conditions and events:
Start 10 see 20 sec 30sec
CF pump IA Suction Pressure (psig) 451 238 232 229
CF pump IB Suction Pressure (psig) 448 227 224 240
- Hotwell Pumps running 2 2 3 2
- Condensate Booster Pumps running 2 1 0 2
What is the earliest time (if any) that BOTH main feedwater pumps will have
tripped'?
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. At least one feedwater pump will continue to run
- .- -. -. - - .- - - - -----.. .
. - .- - .- - . - . - . - . - . - . - . - . - . - . - . - . - ..-- .
-. . . . . . . . . . . . . - -. - -. - - .- .- - .
Distracter Analysis: This is the 1999 version of the question with slight
modifications. It was used in different versions in 2000 and
2001 (Catawba).
A. Incorrect: - CF pump IA continues to run as suction pressure
remains > 230 psig
Plausible: - CF pump IB will trip on low suction pressure
B. Correct answer: - both CF pumps trip when 3/3 condensate booster
pumps trip - trip is irrespective of suction pressure
C. Incorrect: - CF pump l b trip criteria met but trip occurred earlier at
20 sec.
Plausible: - if candidate does not know that the CBPs are interlocked
with the CF pumps
D. Incorrect: - tripping criteria are met at 20 sec
Plausible: - if candidate does not know CF pump trips
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 056KI.03 (2.6/2.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques 415, McGuire NRC 2000
For Official Use Only Page 45
Ques_415.1
Question #27 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CF page 19
For Official Use Only Page 46
Ques_415.1
Question #28 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 432.1 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit I has just entered mode 5 in preparation for refueling. Given the
following conditions and events:
"* A lower containment entry is planned for the next shift.
"* The SRO directs the RO to purge the containment in preparation for the
containment entry.
"* The VP system is secured with all fans off and containment purge and
exhaust valves closed
Which one of the following failures would severely compromise the
operator's ability to perform the containment purge?
A. The NORMAL-REFUEL SELECTOR switch is stuck in the
"NORM" position.
B. Containment isolation valve IVP-4A (VP TO UPPER CONTLVSD
ISOL) will not open.
C. Damper 1RBPS-D9 (VP to Lower Cont) is stuck in its "REFUEL"
(4 to 1) position.
D. Containment isolation valve IVP-6B (VP to Lower Cont Otsd Isol)
will not open.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - this is the proper position for this operation.
Plausible: - if the candidate misunderstands the VP operations in
this mode - this was the correct answer in a prior version.
B. Incorrect: - any loss of flow to the upper containment will have no
effect on the lower containment entry.
Plausible: - if the candidate assumes there is an interlock that
precludes fan operation with an isolation valve closed.
C. Correct answer: - this will over-pressurize the upper containment
D. Incorrect: - should not significantly reduce purge flow to lower
containment due to a parallel path.
Plausible: - if the candidate presumes a loss of a flow path to lower
containment will reduce purge effectiveness or over-pressurize upper
containment.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 029K3.02(2.9*/3.5*)
Ques_432.1 For Official Use Only Page 47
Question #28 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-VP SEQ 2
Source: Mod; Ques 432, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-VP pages 19, 21, 23, 27
For Official Use Only Page 48
Ques_432,1
Question #29 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 453.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 70% power when a loss of condenser vacuum
occurred. Given the following events and conditions:
- Reactor power, 48°/o.
- Turbine load, 45% based on turbine impulse pressure.
- Turbine exhaust hood temperature is 25 1 'F.
- The operators are rapidly decreasing turbine load.
- The operator reports that condenser vacuum is 24.2 inches vacuum
and is continuing to decrease slowly.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
action(s)?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: AP-23 (Loss of Condenser Vacuum)
A. Manually trip the reactor and enter E-0 (Reactor Trip or Safety
Injection)
B. Manually trip the turbine in anticipation of reaching the trip
setpoint, and enter AP/2 (Turbine Generator Trip)
C. Continue to monitor condenser vacuum, if vacuum decreases to
20 inches vacuum, manually trip the turbine and enter AP/2.
D. Continue to monitor condenser vacuum, if vacuum decreases to
20 inches vacuum manually trip the reactor and enter E-0.
Distracter Analysis:
Turbine Trip Criteria: IF condenser vacuum decreases to less than 20 in Hg
or turbine exhaust hood temperature is greater than 250 'F, THEN: Trip the
reactor and enter E-0. This is a modified question from the last Catawba
Exam.
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: Manually tripping the reactor is the only action provided
in AP/23.
Plausible: if the candidate recognizes that a reactor trip is not
automatic below 48% power, and forgets that the dumps will not
operate below C-9.
C. Incorrect Manually tripping the reactor is the only action provided
in AP/23.
Ques_453.1 For Official Use Only Page 49
Question #29 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: if the candidate recognizes that a reactor trip is not
automatic below 48% power, and forgets that the turbine trip on
exhaust hood temperature is 250 TF.
D. Incorrect: must immediately trip the reactor because of the exhaust
hood temperature trip.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize that the turbinetrip
on exhaust hood temperature is 250 TF
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 051 AA2.02 (3.9/4.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-23 SEQ 1/2
Source: Mod; Ques 453a, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. AP/1/5500/23 pages 2-4
2. OMP 2-2 pages 6-7
3. OMP 4-3 page 8
For Official Use Only Page 50
Ques_453.1
Question #30 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 460 Answer: B
I Pt(s) If a fire was reported in the McGuire Office Complex (MOC), which one of
the following responses is correct by station procedures'?
A. Offsite fire departments are responsible for all fire suppression
activities at the scene. The Fire Brigade must be held in reserve
for station fires inside the protected area.
B. Offsite fire departments are responsible for all fire suppression
activities at the scene. The Fire Brigade may provide limited
support if resources allow.
C. The Fire Brigade is responsible for the initial response at the
scene. They are required to turn over control of the scene as
soon as an offsite fire department arrives and immediately return
to the protected area.
D. The Fire Brigade is responsible for fire suppression activities at
the scene. An offsite fire department may be called to provide
support if additional resources are required.
.......................-------------------------------------..... ..... .
-............... .
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - the Fire Brigade is allowed to leave the protected area.
Plausible: - they have restrictions regarding leaving the site.
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: - the Fire Brigade is not responsible for initial response
and they are not required to return to the protected area.
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that they cannot remain outside
the protected area.
D. Incorrect: - The Fire Brigade is not primarily responsible to fight
fire outside the protected area.
Plausible: - If the candidate does not understand fire brigade
responsibilities.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 086 G2.4.12(3.4/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Source: Bank; Ques_460, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
For Official Use Only Page 51
Ques_460
Question #30 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. RP/I/A15700/025 Enclosure 4.1 page 5
For Official Use Only Page 52
Ques_460
Question #31 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 479.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is in the process of making a radioactive gaseous waste release from
the waste gas decay tank in accordance with OP/O/A/6200/l 8 (Waste.Gas
Operation). Given the following conditions:
- MRIRR-31 CFM
- MOSRR=40CFM
- 1EMF-36 (UNIT VENT GAS) is in service
Time 0200 0215 0230 0245
Release rate (CFM) 30 32 41 27
EMF-50 (CPM) 2.8E5 3.2E5 3.1 E5 4.2E5
If the operators reset IEMF-50 whenever allowed by procedure, what is the
earliest time that the operators are require to terminate (and not
immediately restart) the gaseous release?
A. 0200
B. 0215
C. 0230
D. 0245
--- ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - neither Trip 2 nor MRIRR exceeded at 0200.
Plausible: If candidate thinks Trip 1 is sufficient to terminate.
B. Correct: the release rate (32 CFM) > MRIRR (31 CFM) (most
restrictive instantaneous release rate)
C. Incorrect: - exceeded MRIRR at 0215.
Plausible: - exceeded MOSRR (maximum observed system release
rate) - if the candidate thinks he/she can reset EMF-50 once before
being required to terminate the release - this is the 2 "' time EMF-50
has reached trip 2.
D. Incorrect: - exceeded MRIRR at 0215
Plausible: - exceeded trip 2 on EMF-50 for the 3 r1 time - allowed to
reset this trip 2 times before terminating release
Level: SRO Only; 10CFR55.43(B)(4)
KA: SYS 073A4.01(3.9/3.9)
Ques_479.1 For Official Use Only Page 53
Question #31 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-RGR SEQ 5
Source: Mod; Ques_479, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-RGR page 15
Ques_479.1 For Official Use Only Page 54
Question #32 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 481 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I is shutdown in mode 6 refueling. A Radwaste Operator brings a
liquid radiological release permit to the SRO for approval. Given the
following information on the permit:
"* Release 1D = WMT- B
"* RC Pumps running = 6
"* RC Pumps assigned to release = I
"* Total RC Pumps required = I
"* Allowable release rate= 1.61 E+05 gpm
"* Recommended release rate- 6.OOE+O I gpm
"* EMF-49 (L) (LIQUID WASTE DISCH) in service - yes
"* Monitor background - 4.49E+03
"* Trip I setpoint - 8.97E+03
"* Trip 2 setpoint - 1.34E+04
"* Remarks: RC minimum flow interlock operable. 2 RC pumps required
for all releases
If no other releases are in progress, which one of the following actions is
correct for approval of this release permit'?
A. The release may not be approved because there is an error in the
number of RC pumps required
B. The release may not be approved because the EMF-49(L) trip
setpoints are not correct
C. The release may not be approved because the release rate is not
correct
D. The release may be approved as presented
. . --. ---
.. . . . . . . . .---. --- . . ---
. --- . ---
. . -- . .---
. . --- . . --. ---
. --- . .--..--
. . --- . .
---.
--- ----
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer - the remarks section states 2 RC pumps arc
required but the number of RC pumps required is listed as I in the
RC pump data section
B. Incorrect: - nothing wrong with EMF-49L trip setpoints
Plausible: - background < trip I < trip 2
C. Incorrect: - allowable release rate < recommended release rate
Plausible: - if candidate does not understand this requirement
D. Incorrect: - the RC pumps required is not correct
Plausible: - if the candidate does not know how to evaluate this data
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(4)
For Official Use Only Page 55
Ques_481
Question #32 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: APE 059AA2.06(3.5/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-RLR SEQ 3, 4, 5
Source: Bank; McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-RLR pages 11-15
2. OP-MC-WE-RL page 27
For Official Use Only Page 56
Ques_481
Question #33 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 491.2 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit I experienced a LOCA with a breach of containment at 0200. The
OSM assumed the duties of the Emergency Coordinator and declared a
general emergency at 0210. The initial recommended protective actions at
0225 were as follows:
"* Shelter zones E, F, G, H, I, J,K, O, P, Q, R, S
"* Evacuate zones A, B, C, D, L, M, N,
At 0235, the initial dose projection information was presented to the OSM.
Given the following conditions at 0245:
"* Wind direction -095°
"* Wind speed = 4 MPH
"* Projected dose at the site boundary
"* TEDE - 250 mrem
"* CDE thyroid = 400 mrem
"* Containment radiation levels
"* IEMF5IA (CONTAINMENTTRNA) 850 R/hr
"* IEMF51B (CONTAINMENT TRNB) -855 R/hr
Which one of the following protective action recommendations are correct in
accordance with RP/0/A/5700/04 (Classification of Emergency)?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: RP/O/A/5 700/004
A. Change the protective action recommendation in zones A and D
from evacuate to shelter.
B. Extend the evacuation to zones 0, R.
C. Extend the evacuation to zones 0, R, K, P, Q, S.
D. The initial set of protective action recommendations remain in
effect with no changes required.
S..........................................................................................
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - wrong zones for evacuation - never reduce actions
Plausible: - will get this answer if the candidate enters the wrong
table - the one that has wind speed > 5mph
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: - wrong zones for evacuation
Ques_491.2 For Official Use Only Page 57
Question #33 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: - will get this answer if the candidate enters the PAR table
with a gap activity release.
D. Incorrect: - wrong zones for evacuation
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that no changes are required to be
made because the followup PARs are not URGENT.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: ADM G 2.4.44(2.1 / 4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EMP SEQ 11
Source: Mod; Ques 491.1, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1.OP-MC-EP-EMP page 29
2. RP/O/A/5700/004 - PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 58
Ques_491.2
Question #34 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 524.1 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was cooling down in mode 3 when 2NV-35A (VARIABLE L/D
ORIFICE OUTLET CONTISOL) failed to close. Given the following plant
conditions:
- 18 NCP is running
- Excess letdown was placed in service
- Letdown was secured by:
I. 2NV-35A was tagged open
2. Valve interlock - [2NV-35A with 2NV-IA / 2NV-2A] was bypassed
3. The following valves were tagged closed:
"* 2NV-IA (IA NCL/DISOL TOREGENHX)
"* 2NV-2A (IA NCLIDISOL TO REGENHX)
"* 2NV-7B (7BLETDOWNCONTOUTSIDEISOL)
4. All other NV valves positioned as required
"* NC pressure = 917 psig
"* NC Temperature - 375 'F
If PRT level was noted to be increasing, which one of the following events
could cause this to occur?
A. Isolation valves 2NV-I A and 2NV-2A leak by their seats
B. Isolation valve 2NV-7B leaks by its seat
C. Loss of VI pressure to valve 2NV-95B (NC PUMPS SEAL RET
CONT OUTSIDE ISOL)
D. Relief valve 2NV-156 has opened due to backpressure
..........................................------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer: relief valve 2NV-6 will open at 600 psig to protect
the letdown system piping from NC pressure.
B. Incorrect: NV-IA and NV-2A isolate the letdown system, if NV-7B
leaks by, it will cause NV- 156 to open and relieve to the VCT, not
the PRT.
Plausible: If the candidate is not familiar with the letdown system
piping layout
C. Incorrect: Valve fails in as-is position which will not lift relief.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that loss of VI air pressure will
cause the isolation valve to close, then seal return would go to the
PRT.
D. Incorrect: 2NV-156 relieves to the VCT, not to the PRT.
Ques_524.1 For Official Use Only Page 59
Question #34 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: If the candidate is not familiar with the letdown system
layout.
Level: SRO Only; I OCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: SYS 007A3.01(2.7/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 2
Source: Bank; Ques_524a, McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV pages 23, 115
For Official Use Only Page 60
Ques_524.1
Question #35 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 540 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a large LOCA when a loss of the 2ETA bus occurred.
Given the following events and conditions:
"* A reactor trip and safety injection occurred
"* All NV, NI, ND, and CA pumps sequenced on properly
"* Sl was reset
"* Sequencers were reset
"* The 2ETA bus subsequently lost power but was re-energized by the 2A D/G
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the restoration
process for the train A NV, NI, ND, and CA pumps?
A. 2A NV and NI pumps must be restarted by operator action
2A ND and CA pumps will automatically restart
B. 2A NV and CA pumps will automatically restart
2A NI and ND pumps must be restarted by operator action
C. 2A NV and NI pumps will automatically restart
2A ND and CA pumps must be restarted by operator action
D. 2A NV and CA pumps must be restarted by operator action
2A NI and ND pumps automatically restart
Distracter Analysis:
Both the ECCS and blackout sequencers control NV and CA pumps. The
ECCS sequencer controls NI and ND pumps only
A. Incorrect: NI and ND pumps do not automatically restart, NV and
CA pumps will auto restart.
Plausible: If the candidate misunderstands the SI and SBO functions
of the components. NI pumps must be restarted and the CA pumps
will automatically restart.
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: NI and ND pumps do not automatically restart, NV and
CA pumps will auto restart.
Plausible: If the candidate misunderstands the SI and SBO functions
of the components. ND pumps must be restarted and the NV pumps
will automatically restart.
D. Incorrect: NI and ND pumps do not automatically restart, NV and
CA pumps will auto restart.
Plausible: Starting the ND and NI pumps automatically would be a
desired state for a large LOCA.
Ques-540 For Official Use Only Page 61
McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Question #35
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 013A2.01(4.6/4.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: DG-EQB SEQ 8
Source: Mod; Ques_540, Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-DG-EQB pages 29, 39, 41,43
For Official Use Only Page 62
Ques_54o
Question #36 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 547 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when main condenser vacuum dropped
from 25 inches vacuum to 23 inches vacuum.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the cause of this
problem?
A. Condenser water boxes are full
B. RC system flow has increased
C. CM flow to CSAE inter-cooler has been obstructed
D. Condensate depression has increased.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Will not reduce condenser vacuum - full is a normal
condition for the water boxes.
Plausible: If the ZP water boxes are NOT full, air can accumulate in
the upper tubes and interfere with the heat transfer across the tubes
B. Incorrect: Increased RC flow will improve vacuum
Plausible: Decreased RC flow will degrade vacuum
C. Correct answer - reduces effectiveness of steam jets
D. Incorrect: - if condensate depression increases, the condensate
temperature becomes lower than saturation temperature for the
condenser pressure - vacuum would increase
Plausible: Condenser thermodynamic efficiency decreases
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 055K3.01 (2.5 / 2.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: MT-ZM SEQ 4/9
Source: Bank; Ques 547, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-MT-ZM pages 11 - 15, 23, 27
Ques_547 For Official Use Only Page 63
Question #37 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 563.2 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100%, all rods out. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* The RO is performing PT/1/A/4600/01 (RCCA Movement Test) for
control bank D
"* The RO selects CBD on the CRD Bank Selector Switch and drives rods
IN to 216 steps
"* An upset occurred and the RO selects MANUAL on the CRD Bank
Selector Switch and restores rods to 226 steps (ARO)
If this condition is left uncorrected, control bank C rods will begin to drive in
when control bank D is at ?
REFERENCES PRO VIDED: COLR Table 1
A. 100 steps
B. 106 steps
C. I 10 steps
D. 120 steps
Distracter Analysis:
The Bank Overlap Unit (BOU) will not count the -10 steps on bank D when the
bank was inserted in "CBD" position. This means that bank D rods will be
sequenced 10 steps lower than normal on the BOU counter when bank C rods
begin their insertion sequence during the next shutdown. There are 116 steps of
overlap between control banks D and C. 226 steps is all rods out (ARO).
Bank C rods will begin to insert when bank D is at 226-116 - 10 - 100 steps.
A. Correct: 100 steps is correct: 226-116-10 = 100 steps.
B. Incorrect: 100 steps is correct
Plausible: If the candidate uses 116 steps as the bank overlap setting
instead of subtracting 226-116 = 110 as the point where bank C rods
begin to sequence in on a shutdown.
C. Incorrect: 100 steps is correct
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize that the BOU counter
is effected by the individual withdrawal of bank D - or if he thinks
that the -10 steps in manual will offset the +10 steps in "Bank D"
D. Incorrect: 102 steps is correct
Plausible: If the candidate reverses the overlap error- adds +10
steps to 110 instead of subtracting 10 steps.
Ques_563.2 For Official Use Only Page 64
Question #37 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.2.33 (2.5/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-IRE SEQ 5
Source: Mod; Ques563a; McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-IRE page 13
2. COLR Table I - PROVIDED
COLR Enclosure 4.3 Section 1.13
Ques_563.2 For Official Use Only Page 65
Question #38 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 571 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a small break LOCA in ES- 1.2, (Post LOCA
Cooldown and Depressurization). Step 15 of ES- 1.2 requires the operators
to depressurize the NC system.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the reasons for
using the prescribed methods of depressurizing the NC system?
A.
1. Pressurizer spray - preferred method to be used if NC pump
is running
2. Auxiliary Spray - alternate method - better control over
depressurization rate
3. PORV - method of last resort - lack of control of
depressurization rate - results in rupturing the PRT
B.
1. Pressurizer spray - preferred method to be used if NC pump
is running
2. PORV - alternate method - better than auxiliary spray
3. Auxiliary Spray - method of last resort - too slow and may
thermal shock the spray nozzles and degrade regenerative Hx
C.
1. PORV - preferred method - rapid depressurization rate
2. Pressurizer spray - alternative method - next most rapid
depressurization rate
3. Auxiliary spray - method of last resort - too slow and may
thermal shock the spray nozzles
D.
I. Auxiliary spray - preferred method - does not degrade
containment
2. Pressurizer spray - alternative method - will not work if NC
pump is not running
3. PORV - method of last resort - will rupture PRT and degrade
containment environment
.. . . . . . . . ---
. --. .---. ---
. . .-- .--- . ---
. .--.--- . --
. .---
. . --- . . --..--
. . ---
. .---. --- . .
--- ---
--.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: PORV is the alternative method - aux spray is the last
resort
Plausible: Pressurizer spray is the priority
B. Correct answer
For Official Use Only Page 66
Ques_571
Question #38 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
C. Incorrect: Pressurizer spray preferred over PORV
Plausible: Aux spray is last resort
D. Plausible: Aux spray is the last resort
Plausible: Pressurizer spray preferred over PORV
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE 03EK2.1 (3.6 / 4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EI SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques 571, Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-E1 page 123
2. ES-l.2 page 12, 13
Ques_571 For Official Use Only Page 67
Question #39 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 593 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 99% power when a steamline break occurred. Given
the following events and conditions:
0200 The operators enter AP/0 1 (Steam Leak)
0200 The operators start reducing turbine load to match T~v, and Tr*f
0201 The operators start a second NV pump and isolate letdown
0202 NLOs start investigating for the location of the steam leak
0203 P/R OVER POWER ROD STOP alarms - the RO reports that power
has turned.
0204 STA reports pressurizer level is decreasing and cannot be maintained
0205 The turbine building operator reports that the line to the atmospheric
dump valves has a steam leak and cannot be isolated
If no safety injection has occurred and pressurizer pressure is maintained,
which one of the following operator responses is correct?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: AP-Of
A. Manually trip the reactor at 0203
B. Manually trip the reactor at 0204
C. Manually trip the reactor at 0205
D. Commence a rapid down power using AP/04 (RapidDownpower)
at 0205
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: no requirement to trip the reactor because reactor power
has turned and is decreasing. Not approaching the overpower
automatic reactor trip at 109% in 2 of 4 channels.
Plausible: shows a power mismatch - reactor power reaches 103%
on I of 4 PR channels to cause C-2. OMP 4-3 (Use of*Abnormal and
Emergency Procedures)requires the operator to trip when an
automatic safeguards action setpoint is approached to avoid
challenging the automatic safeguards function.
B. Correct answer required to trip under AP/0I (and many other
procedures) if you cannot maintain pressurizer level with 2 NV
pumps
C. Incorrect: required to trip when PZR level cannot be maintained
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that a reactor trip is required
because the steam leak was not isolated.
Ques_593 For Official Use Only Page 68
Question #39 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
D. Incorrect: required to trip when PZR level cannot be maintained
Plausible: this would be the correct answer if not required to trip at
0204.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 040AA2.02(4.6/4.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-1 SEQ 4
Source: Bank; Ques_593, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. AP/1/A/5500/01 page 3
2. OP-MC-IC-IPE page 45
3. OMP 4-3, page 8
Ques_593 For Official Use Only Page 69
Question #40 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 649.1 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- CF pumps 2A and 2B are running
- Hotwell pumps 2A and 2C are running
- Condensate booster pumps 2A and 2C are running
- Heater drain pump 2C1 is out of service
- Heater drain pump 2C3 trips on overload
Assuming no operator actions are taken, which one of the following
statements correctly describes a plant response to this event'?
A. Heater drain pump 2C2 starts.
B. CF pump 2A trips.
C. The reactor/turbine trips.
D. Condensate booster pump 2B starts.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Heater drain pump 2C2 is already running.
Plausible: based on misunderstanding the normal 100% capacity of
the pumps (2 - 50% capacity).
B. Incorrect: CF pumps do not trip because a third CBP and HW pump
will start on low suction pressure to makeup the 15% loss in
condensate flow.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that 2C-2 heater drain pump not
providing full heater drain flow would cause one CF pump to trip on
low suction pressure.
C. Incorrect: The reactor does not trip because condensate pumps can
produce 150% flow.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that 2C-2 heater drain pump not
providing full heater drain flow would cause both CF pumps to trip
on low suction pressure.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 056A2.04(2.6/2.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CM SEQ 12
For Official Use Only Page 70
Ques_649.1
Question #40 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: New; Parked Ques_649
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-MC-CF-CM pages 33,37
Ques_649.1 For Official Use Only Page 71
Question #41 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 661.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Units I and 2 are at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- Unit 2 has experienced several fuel pin failures.
- The mechanical seal has failed on the 28 NI pump.
- The 2B NI pump room general area is 400 mrem/hr.
- In order to reach the 2B NI pump room the worker must transit
through a 6 Rem/hr high radiation area for 2 minutes and return via
the same path.
- The worker has an accumulated annual dose of 400 rnrem.
What is the maximum allowable time that the worker can participate in the
seal repair on the 28 NI pump and not exceed the exclude exposure limit for
external exposure?
A. No longer than 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
B. No longer than 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
C. No longer than 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />
D. No longer than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
~~~~~--------------------- ------------- ---- --- ----- -
Distracter Analysis:
The candidate should determine that the exclusion flag exposure limit is 90%
of 2000 mrem admin limit = 1800 mrem
Transient exposure is 400 mrem (6000mrem/hr x 4/60hr). (During transit to
and from the job).
400 mrem + 400 mrem = 800 mrem
1800 mrem 800 mrem = 1000 mrem allowable before reaching exclusion
flag exposure admin limit
1000 mrem / 400 mrem/hr - 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
A. Incorrect: The answer is 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Plausible: based on using alert flag limit (1600) versus exclude flag.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: The answer is 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Plausible: based on calculating a one-way transit dose.
D. Incorrect: The answer is 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Plausible: based on using admin limit (2000) and a one-way transit
dose.
For Official Use Only Page 72
Ques-661.1
Question #41 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(4)
KA: G2.3.1 (2.6/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: RAD-RP SEQ 19/22/29
Source: Bank; Ques_661 a, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1.GET Rad Worker Training Manual pages 32, 34, 44, 45
For Official Use Only Page 73
Ques 661.i
Question #42 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 671.1 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit I was releasing the contents of a waste gas decay tank in accordance
with an approved release permit. IEMF-50(L) (WASTE GAS DISCH) failed
high during the release, and will not be repaired for 3 days.
Which one of the following actions must be taken to release the waste gas
decay tank today'?
A. The release cannot be restarted until the repairs on 1EMF-50(L)
are completed.
B. Recalculate the trip set points using IEEMNF-50(H) as the release
path monitor, then jumper out IEEMF-50(L) and restart the
release after a new GWR form has been approved.
C. Reset I WG-160 (DECA Y TANK TO UNIT VENT), jumper out
1EMF-50(L) and continue the release using I EMF-36(L) (UNIT
VENT GAS) as the backup release path monitor.
D. Recalculate the trip set points using IEMF-36(L) as the release
path monitor, then jumper out I EMF-50(L) and restart the
release after a new GWR form has been approved.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: not required to use IEMF-50(L) as the only qualified
release path monitor
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize that IEMF-36(L) can
be used to monitor the release path
B. Incorrect: IEMF-50(H) does not automatically trip WG- 160 and
cannot be used as a waste gas release path monitor
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that substituting the high range of
IEMF-50(L) provides the same automatic protection
C. Incorrect: a new GWR is required
Plausible: resetting of WG-160 is permitted if both EMF's arc
D. Correct answer
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(1)
KA: G2.3.8 (2.3/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-RGR SEQ 3/5
Ques_671.1 For Official Use Only Page 74
Question #42 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: Bank; Ques 671 a, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 37
2. OP-CN-WE-RGR pages 15, 21
Ques_671.1 For Official Use Only Page 75
Question #43 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 681 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% when a floor cooling glycol high temperature
alarm is received. A review of the RTD panel reveals that several ice
condenser floor slabs have high temperature indications.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the operational
concern raised by this alarm?
A. High glycol temperatures will cause the in-service glycol
compressor to trip causing a loss of NF cooling and excessive ice
sublimation.
B. Low floor cooling glycol temperatures could cause cracks in the
ice condenser thermal barrier.
C. Slab freeze and thaw cycles could result in floor buckling that
could interfere with lower door operation.
D. Slab freeze and thaw cycles could cause gaps between the floor
and the intermediate deck doors resulting in a bypass flow path.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: none of the compressors trip on high glycol temperature
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the basis for the
temperature limits - low glycol temperature can cause a compressor
trip.
B. Incorrect: not the problem - glycol floor cooling does not effect the
thermal barrier.
Plausible: low temperatures can cause cracks in some systems due to
themal stress
C. Correct Answer: this has been a problem as described in PIP 2
M97-2686 (July 1997)
D. Incorrect: the intermediate deck doors are not physically located
near the floor slab.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the mechanism for floor
buckling.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 025A2.02(2.7/2.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-NF SEQ 15
Ques_681 For Official Use Only Page 76
Question #43 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: Bank; Ques_681, McGuire Audit 2000
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-NF pages 21,37, 41
Ques_681 For Official Use Only Page 77
Question #44 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 684 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 suffered a spurious loss of offsite power while operating at full power.
Given the following events and conditions:
0 The control rods did not trip for three minutes.
Emergency boration increased NC boron concentration by 15 ppm.
0 Tave stabilized at 557 0 F following the trip.
Two NCPs have been restarted.
0
Containment radiation levels have doubled as indicated by:
"o 2EMF-2 ('RXBLDGINCOREINSTRM)
"o 2EMF-3 (KPBLDG REFUEL BRDG)
"o 2EMF-5 (NCFLT.2A)
Which of the following correctly describes the primary cause of the increase
in containment radiation levels following the event?
A. NCS activity has increased due to cycling of NCPs.
B. NCS activity has increased due to the boron concentration
change.
C. NCS activity has increased due to thermal shock.
D. NCS activity has increased due to a loss of letdown flow.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: NCP cycling causes a crud burst.
B. Incorrect: Activity increases are primarily due to NCP cycling.
Plausible: based on the amount of boric acid, the NCS will not dilute
by enough to see any difference in activity. Also a larger pH change
can cause a crud burst - but this emergency boration will not cause a
significant pH change.
C. Incorrect: Activity increases are primarily due to NCP cycling.
Plausible: based on a larger thermal shock can cause a crud burst.
D. Incorrect: Activity increases are primarily due to NCP cycling.
Plausible: based on increased letdown is the action required to return
the activity to normal following a crud burst will result in increased
filtration - but not the predominant mechanism.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE 16EK3.1 (2.9/3.1)
For Official Use Only Page 78
Ques-684
Question #44 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: CH-PC SEQ 4
Source: Bank; McGuire Audit 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CH-PC pages 23-25
2. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 119
For Official Use Only Page 79
Ques_684
Question #45 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 703.1 Answer. C
I Pt(s) While performing a valve lineup in the boric acid mixing room, an air line
failure caused a severe airborne beta contamination problem. A worker
received both internal and external contamination that was detected upon
exiting the RCA.
Which one of the exposures would exceed the JOCFR20 limit for the
worker's annual shallow dose equivalent (SDE) exposure?
A. 55 Rem external dose to the lens of the eye.
B. 17 Rem internal dose equivalent to the lens of the eye.
C. 55 Rem external dose to the leg below the knee.
D. 17 Rem internal dose to the right forearm.
..................................-----------------------------------------------------...
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: skin dose equivalent
Plausible: 50 Rem is correct limit for SDE - may confuse with LDE
eye dose
B. Incorrect: SDE is an external skin or extremity dose not an internal
dose
Plausible: this is the correct LDE limit (lens of the eye).
C. Correct: 50 Rem SDE limit to the extremities (below forearm and
below knee) or skin.
D. Incorrect: SDE is an external dose not an internal dose
Plausible: the right forearm is the correct part of the anatomy for an
SDE - based on confusion of extemal/intemal
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.3.4(2.5/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: RAD-RP SEQ 19
Source: Mod; Ques_703, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. GET Training Manual pages 31-32
Ques_703. i For Official Use Only Page 80
Question #46 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 705.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is shutdown in Mode 4 with no TSAIL entries. Given the following
events and conditions:
5/19 at 0300 The IA D/G battery was disconnected from its' battery
charger for maintenance
5/21 at 1100 The IA D/G battery was reconnected to the battery charger
5/21 at 1200 The IB DIG battery was disconnected from its' battery
charger for maintenance
5/21 at 1230 The IA DIG operability surveillance test was successfully
completed
5/24 at 1200 Operators detect an 86N relay actuation on IETA
5/24 at 1230 The I B D/G battery was reconnected to the battery charger
5/24 at 1300 The 11B D/G operability surveillance test was successfully
completed
- The IETA 86N relay cannot be reset
Which one of the following statements correctly describes when Unit I must
be in Mode 5?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Tech Spec 3.8.1 & 3.8.9
A. 5/26 at 0100
B. 5/26 at 0800
C. 5/26 at 1500
D. 5/29 at 0000
... ........................... ......------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Must be in mode 5 before 5/26 at 0800
Plausible: if the candidate uses 37 hours4.282407e-4 days <br />0.0103 hours <br />6.117725e-5 weeks <br />1.40785e-5 months <br /> after the second TS 3.0.3
entry at 1200 on 5/24. (loss of 2 D/Gs + lOS)
B. Correct Answer: 8 +36 hours after first entering LCO 3.8.9 at 1200
on 5/24.
Ques_705.1 For Official Use Only Page 81
Question #46 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
C. Incorrect: Must be in mode 5 before 5/26 at 0800.
Plausible: completion time is 6 days + 36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br /> after entering TS
3.8.1 for the first time on 5/19 at 0300.
D. Incorrect: Must be in mode 5 before 5/26 at 0800.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize the loss of offsite
power and distribution system train. (72 hrs + 36 hrs from 5/24 at
1200)
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(2)
KA: APE 056 G2.2.23 (2.6/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: EL-EP SEQ 29/39
Source: Mod; Ques_705, McGuire Audit 2000
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-DG-EQB page 15
2. Tech Spec 3.8.1 & 3.8.9 - PROVIDED
Ques_705.1 For Official Use Only Page 82
Question #47 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 710.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I was in mode 6 preparing for refueling activities. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* Reactor head removal was in progress
"* NC system temperature is 109 'F.
"* Reactor water level is 80 inches above hot leg centerline.
"* Time after shutdown is 15 days.
"* The thermal margin indication on lMC-6 is not in service.
"* At step 4.c of AP/19 (Loss of ND) the SRO directs you to manually
determine the core thermal margin.
"* A loss of both trains of ND occurred
What is the correct time to core boiling'?
REFERENCES PRO VIDED:
DatabookSection 2.10.1 and curves A-F including A(J)-F(J)
A. Less than 35 minutes
B. 35 to 45 minutes
C. 45.1 to 55 minutes
D. Greater than 55 minutes
Distracter Analysis: The operators select curve 2.10.1 .B from the Databook
and determine that there is 0.64 hours7.407407e-4 days <br />0.0178 hours <br />1.058201e-4 weeks <br />2.4352e-5 months <br /> - 38.4 minutes before the onset of core
boiling. This selection is made using the criterion in "Use of the Curves", in
section 2.10.1 - which requires the candidate NOT to interpolate but rather
to use the closest higher temperature and the closest lowest water level to the
levels presented in the curves for conservatism.
A. Incorrect: the time to boiling is 39 minutes
Plausible: If the candidates select curve 2.10. .A prior to core
offload, or 140 'F, they will get < 35 minutes
B. Correct Answer: select curve 2.10.1.13 - lowest water level (60
inches) and highest temperature (120 'F)
C. Incorrect: the time to boiling is 37- 40 minutes
Plausible: if the candidate uses 100 'F (closest temp or lower temp)
temperature curve. Also if the candidate selects the curve for 84
inches of water in the core.
D. Incorrect: the time to boiling is 37-39 minutes
Ques_71o.1 For Official Use Only Page 83
Question #47 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: if the candidate selects curve 2.10.1.E (for 60 inches of
water in the core, after refueling) - for any plausible temperature
selected.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 025G2.1.7(3.7/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Source: Mod, Ques_710, McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. Databook Section 2.10.1, Curves A - F - PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 84
Ques_71o.1
Question #48 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 748.1 Answer. A
I Pt(s) The IB emergency diesel generator has been manually started and has been
idling for 15 minutes. The operator is preparing to parallel the diesel to the
grid.
In accordance with OP/I/A/6350/002 (Diesel Generator)Enclosure 4.2 (IB
D/G Startup) when manually loading the emergency diesel generator, the
operator should raise load to 1000 KW quickly after closing the D/G output
breaker while maintaining a lagging power factor.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the basis for this
requirement?
A. Prevent motoring the D/G.
B. Prevent diesel overspeed if the breaker opens on reverse power.
C. Prevent turbocharger fire due to excess lube oil collection.
D. Prevent D/G breaker trip on generator differential.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: leading pf and low load could lead to reverse power
condition motorizing the machine.
B. Incorrect: D/G breaker does not have reverse power protection.
Plausible: the D/G will pick up speed if suddenly unloaded
overspeed is a valid concern for heavily loaded D/G's.
C. Incorrect: This is the reason for slow D/G loading.
Plausible: This is a valid concern when a D/G has run at idle for a
long time.
D. Incorrect: An unbalance does not exist, Gen Diff should not occur.
Plausible: This is a valid D/G trip
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 064A 1.08(3.1/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: DG-DG SEQ 8
Source: Mod; Ques 748, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_748.1 For Official Use Only Page 85
Question #48 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP/1/A/6350/002 End 4.2 page 5
Ques_748.1 For Official Use Only Page 86
Question #49 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 767.1 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I is responding to a small-break loss of coolant accident inside
containment. Given the following events and conditions:
"* Operators have implemented E-0 (Reactor Trip or Sa/hty Injection), and
E- I (Loss ofReactor or Secondary Coolant) through step 11.
"* Bus IETA is de-energized.
"* The IB NI pump has failed.
"* The lB Hydrogen recombiner is out of service.
"* Containment hydrogen concentration is 7%.
"* The TSC has recommended purging containment to reduce hydrogen
concentration to 3.5% before energizing the igniters.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the method for
performing this evolution to control the off-site dose'?
A. Containment air is exhausted to the auxiliary building where it is
filtered prior to release to the unit vent stack.
B. Containment air is exhausted through the containment air
release system where it is filtered prior to release to the unit vent
stack.
C. Containment air is exhausted through the incore instrument
ventilation system where it is filtered prior to release to the unit
vent stack.
D. Containment air is exhausted to the annulus where it is filtered
prior to release to the unit vent stack.
....................................----------------------------------------------------...
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Air is released to the annulus area.
Plausible: This could be a way to filter the release if the air was
vented to the auxiliary building.
B. Incorrect: Air is released to the annulus area.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the VQ and VE systems.
C. Incorrect: The air is released to the vent stack.
Plausible: If the candidate does not remember that VE releases to the
stack to maintain negative pressure in the annulus.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_767.1 For Official Use Only Page 87
Question #49 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: SYS 028K6.01(2.6/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: VE SEQ II
Source: Mod; Ques_767, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CNT-VE pages 11, 19, 31
Ques_767.1 For Official Use Only Page 88
Question #50 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 771.1 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at full power and Unit 2 is refueling. Unit I is releasing a
minimally decayed waste gas decay tank when a significant packing leak starts
on isolation valve IWG-160, ( WG Decay Tank Outlet to Unit Vent Control).
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the automatic actions
required to assure that the leak is contained and filtered?
A. I EMF-50 (WASTE GASDISCHHJRAD) automatically closes 1WG-160,
and IEMF-41 (A ux BLDG VENTHIRAD) automatically stops the
auxiliary building ventilation unfiltered exhaust fans.
B. IEMF-41 automatically stops the auxiliary building ventilation
unfiltered exhaust fans, and 1EMF-36 (UNIT VENTHiRAD)
automatically closes 1WG-160.
C. IEMF-36 automatically closes IWG-160, and IEMF-35 (UNIT
VENTPARTHiRAD) automatically aligns the auxiliary building
ventilation filter trains.
D. 1EMF-35 automatically stops the auxiliary building ventilation
unfiltered exhaust fans, and 1EMF-41 automatically aligns the
auxiliary building ventilation filter trains.
-..........................................-----------------------------------.......
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: EMF-50 will not get to Trip 2 because it is set for the
activity being released, and EMF-41 does not automatically stop
these fans.
Plausible: These are valid automatic actions for EMF monitors.
B. Incorrect: EMF-41 does not automatically stop these fans.
Plausible: if the candidates do not recognize that this is not an
automatic action for EMF-41 but for 35/37.
C. Incorrect: EMF-35 does not realign ventilation filters.
Plausible: partially correct - EMF 36-will close 1WG- 160.
D. Correct answer: EMF-35 will secure VA fans, and EMF-41 will
realign filter trains to contain and filter the release in the Aux Bldg.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 071K1.06(3.1*/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-EMF SEQ 2,3
Ques_771.1 For Official Use Only Page 89
Question #50 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: Mod; Ques 771, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PSS-VA pages 29, 45
2. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 21 - 27
Ques_771.1 For Official Use Only Page 90
Question #51 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 837.1 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is shutdown in mode 5 on 2/6/02. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* Both ND loops are in service.
"* PZR level is >95%.
"* NC system pressure is 300 psig,
"* NC Temperature is 1650 F.
"* Wide range loop D Tho, failed high at 0200 on 2/5 and has not been
returned to service.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
operator action on 2/6 as a result of the T,,, failure?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Tech Spec 3.4-12
A. 1ND-3 (ND pump suction relief valve) must be operable and
1ND-lB (ICLooP ToND PuMPSlSOL) must be open because
1NC-36B (PZR PORIO is disarmed.
B. 1ND-3 must be operable and IND-IB and IND-2AC (JCNC
LooP TO ND PUMPS CONTINSIDEISOL) must be open because
INC-36B is disarmed.
C. IND-3 must be operable and IND-IB and IND-2AC must be
open because INC-34A (PZR PORV) is disarmed.
D. IND-3 must be operable and IND-2AC must be open because
1NC-34A is disarmed.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: INC-34A is disarmed; need IND-2AC open.
Plausible: if the candidate confuses which temperature inputs to
which PORV and does not recognize the series isolation valves.
B. Incorrect: INC-34A is disarmed.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses which temperature inputs to
which PORV. The valve alignment is correct.
C. Correct: temperature greater than 300 degrees disarms the PORV
making lNC-34A inoperable. With the NCS solid, TS 3.4.12
requires one ND suction relief aligned and operable and NC
temperature >167 F within I hour.
D. Incorrect: IND-IB must be open.
Plausible: The inoperable PORV is correct.
Ques_837.1 For Official Use Only Page 91
Question #51 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 005A2.02(3.5/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-ND SEQ 6, IPE SEQ 11, 13
Source: Mod; Ques 837, Catawba Audit 2001
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-IPE page 27, 29, 53
2. Tech Spec 3.4-12 - PROVIDED
3. OP-MC-PS-ND page 67
Ques_837.1 For Official Use Only Page 92
Question #52 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 857 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 65% power with pressurizer level on program, and
normal charging and letdown flow through a 75 gpm orifice. Given the
following events and conditions:
"* lNV-245B (CHARGING LINE CONT OUTSIDE ISOL) spuriously closes
"* Flashing in the letdown line reduces letdown flow to 5 gpm
"* The operators take no actions
How long before the pressurizer high level alarm actuates?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Unit I Databook Curve 7.38
A. Less than 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
B. 2 to 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
C. 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> to 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
D. Greater than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
Distracter Analysis:
Charging flow is reduced to the minimum value - goes to 32 gpm to the NCP
seals. 12 gpm seal flow goes to the VCT.
PZR level starts at 44.5% (.65 * (55%-25%) +25% = 44.5%).
PZR level increases to the high level alarm at 70%.
The reduction in charging flow into the NCS causes charging flow to reduce
to minimum (32 gpm) as the PZR fills up. NCP Seal flow continues (12
gpm). Letdown flow drops to 5 gpm because of high regen HX outlet
temperature (flashing at the orifices). Net charging flow drops to +15 gpm
(32- 12 -5)
Per tank curve: 70%=9800 gal, 44.5%-6500 gal, 17%=2800 gal.
3300gal (9800-6500) / (15gpm) - 220 minutes = 3.67 hours7.75463e-4 days <br />0.0186 hours <br />1.107804e-4 weeks <br />2.54935e-5 months <br />
A. Incorrect: There are more than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Plausible: If candidate neglects to subtract seal flow and letdown flow
3300 gal / 32 gpm = 103 minutes = 1.7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br /> or misreads tank
curves / miscalculates pressurizer level
B. Incorrect: There are more than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Plausible: If the candidate includes the loss of letdown but neglects
seal return flow: 3300 gal/(32-5) gpm = 122 min- 2.03 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />. - or
misreads tank curves / miscalculates pressurizer level
C. Incorrect: There are more than 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Ques_857 For Official Use Only Page 93
Question #52 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Plausible: Assuming loss of letdown, if the candidate does not include
seal return flow: 3300gal / (32 - 12) gpm - 165 min - 2.75 hours8.680556e-4 days <br />0.0208 hours <br />1.240079e-4 weeks <br />2.85375e-5 months <br /> - or
misreads tank curves / miscalculates pressurizer level
D. Correct answer: 3.67 hours7.75463e-4 days <br />0.0186 hours <br />1.107804e-4 weeks <br />2.54935e-5 months <br />
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 022AA2.04(2.9/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV pages 17, 39
2. OP-MC-PS-ILE page 35
3. Unit 1 Databook Curve 7.38 - PROVIDED
Ques-857 For Official Use Only Page 94
Question #53 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 858 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100%. Given the following events and conditions:
"* The following fans were in operation:
- S/G booster fans
- Return air fans
- Lower containment fans
- Incore instrument area fans
"* A main steam line break occurred inside containment
"* All systems functioned as designed
Which one of the following containment cooling systems will stop
operating?
A. S/G Booster Fans.
B. Return Air Fans.
C. Lower Containment Fans.
D. Incore Instrument Area Fans.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: These fans will continue to operate since no LOOP.
Plausible: These fans lose power during a LOOP.
B. Correctpicnl]:
C. Incorrect: These fans automatically restart on S'.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses with the upper fans, which lose
power.
D. Incorrect: These fans automatically restart on S,.
Plausible: these fans are not required by TS to be operable.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 022G2.4.22(3.0/4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-VUL SEQ 5
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
Ques_858 For Official Use Only Page 95
Question #53 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
1. OP-MC-CNT-VUL page 39,41
Ques_858 For Official Use Only Page 96
Question #54 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 859.1 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is in mode 6 with refueling activities in progress. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* A containment purge is in progress
"* A fuel element was rammed into the side of the reactor vessel
"* 2EMF-3 (CONTAINMENT REFUELING BRIDGE) 2EMF-38 (CONTAINMENT
PARTICULATE) are in trip 2 condition
Which one of the following actions should occur, assuming that operators
follow the required procedure steps?
A. The containment evacuation alarm sounds automatically.
The containment purge stops automatically.
B. The containment evacuation alarm is actuated by the control room.
The containment purge stops automatically.
C. The containment evacuation alarm sounds automatically.
The containment purge is stopped manually.
D. The containment evacuation alarm is actuated by the control room.
The containment purged is stopped manually.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Containment purge will stop and containment alarm will
actuate when the EMF goes into trip2.
B. Incorrect: a plant page is made by the control room.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the plant page with the containment
evacuation.
C. Incorrect: containment purge stops automatically
Plausible: candidate knows the alarm, but fails to realize purge will stop
automatically.
D. Incorrect: both occur automatically
Plausible: candidate does not know the auto actions for the EMF
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 103 A2.04 (3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: WE-EMF SEQ 3
Source: New
Ques_859.1 For Official Use Only Page 97
Question #54 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 43, 105
2. OP-MC-CNT-VP page 21
3.AP/2/A/5500/25 page 2-3
4. GET RAD Worker Training Manual page 124
Ques_859.1 For Official Use Only Page 98
Question #55 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 860 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I has experienced four CRUD bursts this month. Given the following
events and conditions:
- IA reactor coolant filter d/p was indicating 40 psid.
- IEMF-I8 (REACTOR COOLANTFILTER 1A) reads 5 times its normal value.
- 1A reactor coolant filter was taken out of service.
- 1B reactor coolant filter was placed in service.
S1lB reactor coolant filter d/p is 10 psid.
S1IA mixed bed demineralizer is in service.
- I EMF-48 (REACTOR COOLANT) reads its normal value.
- Local radiation readings near reactor coolant filter IB are 3 times normal.
If the detector for IEMF-19 (REACTOR COOLANTFILTER 1B) fails, what actions
(if any) are the operators required to take in response to these conditions?
A. Switch mixed bed demineralizers.
B. Shift back to IA reactor coolant filter until IEMF-19 is returned
to service.
C. Place both mixed bed demineralizers in service until IEMF-19 is
returned to service.
D. No action is required.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: No action is required.
Plausible: If the candidate believes that the filters and demineralizers
are train related.
B. Incorrect: No action is required.
Plausible: If the candidate thought that procedures called for using a
filter with an operable RAD monitor.
C. Incorrect: No action is required. EMF-48 indicates no crud burst
Plausible: This action would be required if another crud burst were to
occur.
D. Correct answer
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 072A2.02(2.8/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Ques_860 For Official Use Only Page 99
Question #55 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF pages 43, 45
2. OP/1/A/6100/01OS window D4
Ques_860 For Official Use Only Page 100
Question #56 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 861 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a large LOCA with 10 % failed fuel. Given the
following events and conditions:
"* 2ETA is faulted.
"* 2NI-184B (lBND PUMP SUCTION FROMCONTSUMPISOL) would not open
during FWST swapover
"* 2NI-184B breaker has tripped and will not reset
"* IEMF-10 (AuXBLDGCoR/EL 750) and 2EMF-9 (AuXBLDG COR/EL 767)
read> I0E4 mR/hr.
"* The TSC is not yet manned.
"* RP projects that expected dose rates in the area of the 2NI-184B will be very
high, possibly exceeding 150 Rem/hr.
"* The OSM has determined that manual alignment of 2NI-184B is required
for lifesaving protection of the general public inside the 10 mile EPZ (public
health and safety).
Which of the following exposure limits would apply to a worker who
volunteered to manually open 2NI-184B?
D. The worker(s) may exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
......... ............. ..... ...... ..-------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The operator is allowed to exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
Plausible: This is the maximum allowable TEDE for non-emergency
conditions.
B. Incorrect: The operator is allowed to exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
Plausible: This is the maximum allowable annual TEDE for equipment
protection during accident conditions.
C. Incorrect: The operator is allowed to exceed 25 Rem TEDE.
Plausible: This is the maximum allowable annual TEDE for life saving
or public safety on a non-volunteer basis.
D. Correct: greater than 25 Rem is allowed on a volunteer basis for
protection of the public health and safety,
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_861 For Official Use Only Page 101
Question #56 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: SYS 006G2.3.4(2.5/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EMP SEQ 5; TA-AM SEQ 30
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EMP page 31
2. OP-MC-TA-AM page 67
4. GET RAD Worker Training Manual page 32
Ques_861 For Official Use Only Page 102
Question #57 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 862 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is responding to a LOCA from a trip at full power. Given the
following events and conditions:
- A safety injection occurTed at 0200.
- Bus IETB is faulted.
- The lA NS pump started automatically
- The IA NS pump was stopped by CPCS signal at 0235.
- The Ss signal and sequencer have been reset
- The train A Sp signal has not been reset
- INS-29A (A NS PUMPDISCH CONT OUTSIDE ISOL) and 32A (A NS PUMP
DIscH OUTSIDE ISOL) failed to operate (mechanically stuck)
- Containment pressure reached 5 psig at 0305
a FWST level reaches 33 in. at 0306.
Which one of the following operator actions is required to address the
containment pressure problem?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: ES-I.3
A. Immediately open INS-43A (CoNTOUTSIDEISOL) to supply spray
from the ND pumps.
B. After switchover to cold leg recirculation, close INI-173A (TR A
ND ToA & B CL) and open 1NS-43A to supply spray from the
ND pumps.
C. 50 minutes after switchover to cold leg recirculation, open I NS-43A
to supply spray from the ND pumps.
D. 50 minutes after switchover to cold leg recirculation, close INI-173A
and open INS-43A to supply spray from the ND pumps.
..................................-----------------------------------------------------...
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Must close INI-173A after switchover.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize the effect on the ND
system.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Must close INI-173A w/o waiting 50 minutes.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize the effect on the ND
system, and procedures call for waiting 50 minutes after the trip
before Aux spray.
Ques_862 For Official Use Only Page 103
Question #57 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
D. Incorrect: Don't wait 50 minutes.
Plausible: Procedures call for waiting 50 minutes after the trip before
Aux spray.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 026K3.02(4.2*/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: ECC-NS SEQ 8, EP-EI SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-ECC-NS pages 21, 37
2. OP-MC-PS-ND page 71
3. OP-MC-EP-EI page 257
4. EP/1/A/5000/ES-1.3 pages 10-11
Ques_862 For Official Use Only Page 104
Question #58 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 863 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is at 50% power. Given the following events and conditions:
"* Control rods are in auto
"* Control bank D is at 110 steps
"* Annunciator 1AD-2, B3 (P/R CHANNEL DEVIATION) actuates
"* Power range channel N41 reads 20%
Which one of the following statements would be consistent for the N41
indication?
REFERENCES PROVIDED:
Unit ) Data Book Diagrams21.1, 2.1.2, 2.1.3, 2.1.4
A. Rod P-4 has dropped as evidenced by a significant temperature
deviation on CEC T-63.
B. Rod D-2 has dropped as evidenced by moveable incore flux maps
at thimble F-3.
C. Rod M-13 has dropped as evidenced by a significant temperature
deviation on CEC T-30.
D. Rod B-13 has dropped as evidenced by moveable incore flux
maps at thimble C-4.
-.........................................--------------------------------------------...
Distracter Analysis:
Power range channel N41 is in quadrant 4. Note that the north direction on
Diagram 2.1.1 is to the right - not in the normal upward direction.
A. Correct: P-4 is a quadrant 4 rod.
B. Incorrect: this is a quadrant I rod.
Plausible: misapplication of figures.
C. Incorrect: M-13 is a quadrant 3 rod
Plausible: misapplication of figures.
D. Incorrect: B-1 3 is quadrant I rod.
Plausible: misapplication of figures.
Level: SRO Only; 1OCFR55.43(b)(6)
KA: APE 003AA2.03(3.6/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-14 SEQ 2
Ques_863 For Official Use Only Page 105
Question #58 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. AP/1/A/5500/14 page 2
2. Unit I Data Book Diagrams 2.1.1 - 2.1.4 - PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 106
Ques-863
Question #59 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 864 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 99% power when a spurious closure of all 4 MSIVs
occurred. Given the following events and conditions after the plant trip:
"* Two MSSVs (code safety valves) on 1B S/G have stuck open.
"* NC temperature is 460'F.
"* NC pressure is 1800 psig.
"* PZR level is 14 %.
"* IEMF-48 (REACTOR COOLANT) is in trip 2.
"* Operators have transitioned to E-3 (Steam Generator Tube Rupture) due
to a tube rupture in 1/B S/G.
Assuming all systems function as designed, which one of the following
correctly describes the effluent release indicated by radiation monitors during
this event?
A. IEMF-25 (S/GBSTEAMLINE III RAD) trip 2 indicates a
release that could exceed public exposure guidelines.
B. 1EMF-34 (S/G SAMPLE) trip 2 indicates a release that exceeds
effluent release requirements.
C. IEMF-40 (CONTAINMENT) trip 2 indicates a release that could
exceed public exposure guidelines.
D. IEMF-41 (AUXBLD VENTILATION) trip 2 indicates a release
that exceeds effluent release requirements.
---.----------------------------------------.................----------------------------
Distracter Analysis: The main steamline monitors provide indication of the
direct effluent release during a main steamline rupture. Emergency Plan
assumptions for MSLR specify very low secondary activity to minimize
public exposure.
A. Correct answer
B. Incorrect: This alarm stops its effluent release.
Plausible: If the candidate assumes the blowdown flow continues.
C. Incorrect: IEMF-25 would also have to alarm since the containment
breach is through the MSSVs.
Plausible: If the candidate recognizes high containment activity with
a loss of containment integrity.
D. Incorrect: the plant vent monitor would also have to alarm.
Plausible: If the candidate assumes an unfiltered release from the aux
bldg directly to the environment.
Ques_864 For Official Use Only Page 107
Question #59 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(4)
KA: SYS 039A1.09(2.5*/2.7*)
Lesson Plan Objective: CH-SC SEQ 8
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-WE-EMF page 45
2. Tech Spec 3.7.16 & Bases
Ques_864 For Official Use Only Page 108
Question #60 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 865 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is at full power when the following events occur:
- Both main feed pumps trip
- Reactor power is approximately 98%
- NCS Ta,, is increasing
- Main turbine load is 1150 MWe
- Rods are inserting at 72 steps per minute
Which one of the following statements describes why the EOP basis for
immediately tripping turbine?
A. Prevent an uncontrolled cooldown and positive reactivity
addition.
B. Maintain or extend steam generator inventory.
C. Prevent turbine overspeed when the main generator trips.
D. Place steam dumps in service for additional heat removal.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The basis in the EOPs is to maintain or extend SG
inventory
Plausible: this is the reason in E-0 for tripping the turbine
B. Correct: if the turbine is tripped within 30 seconds for the loss of
feed ATWS, NCS pressure transient, although severe, leads to
acceptable results.
C. Incorrect: The basis in the EOPs is to maintain or extend SG
inventory
Plausible: concern for the operation of the turbine
D. Incorrect: The basis in the EOPs is to maintain or extend SG
inventory
Plausible: may believe steam dumps will yield additional heat
removal
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: EPE 029 EK3.06 (4.2/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: FRS SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_865 For Official Use Only Page 109
Question #60 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP-MN-EP-FRS pages 13, 23 and 25
2. FR-S.I page 2
For Official Use Only Page 110
Ques_865
Question #61 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 866 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is conducting a reactor startup in accordance with plant procedures.
The operator is pulling the control rods.
Which one of the following indications should the operator unmanl
depend on for determining when the reactor achieves criticality?
A. When control rods exceed the ECP position.
B. When the reactor nuclear instrumentation indicates a stable,
positive startup rate and increasing flux levels with no control
rod motion.
C. When Ta.,, is increasing steadily with no control rod motion.
D. When the 1r/m plot (Co/C) is approaching zero.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Not the primary indication - the ECP is only a benchmark
for the operator to use for when the reactor is predicted to go critical,
however, several possible errors could make the ECP significantly
inaccurate
Plausible: Candidate locks on to the fact that the ECP is the
estimated critical position and is used during a reactor startup.
B. Correct: actual reactor response is the only true method of
determining the reactor is critical
C. Incorrect: Tave does not increase when the reactor reaches criticality
Plausible: Indication the reactor is at the POAH
D. Incorrect: Not the primary indication
Plausible: Like the ECP, the 1/m is a tool to predict criticality, but
not 100% accurate. 1/m is calculated regularly during startup to
predict criticality.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 001 A3.08 (3.9/4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: RT-RB 13, ADM-RM SEQ 8
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-RT-RB page 24
Ques_866 For Official Use Only Page 111
Question #62 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 867 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit I is in the process of starting the first NCP in accordance with
OP/1/A/6250/02A (ReactorCoolant Pump Operation)during a plant startup.
Given the following conditions and events:
- The operator starts the IA2 lift oil pump.
- Lift oil pressure reaches 650 psig
notices IA2 lift oil pump was no longer running.
Which one of the following statements correctly explains the reason why the
pump is not running?
A. The lift oil pump tripped on overload.
B. The one minute timer for the lift oil pump timed out and stopped
the pump.
C. The lift oil pump stopped as soon as lift oil pressure reached 600
psi.
D. The lift oil pump stopped 1 minute after lift oil pressure reached
600 psi.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: the pump will trip on overload
B. Incorrect: this condition does not cause the lift oil pump to trip
Plausible: the one-minute timer opens the lift oil pump breaker I
minute after the NCP breaker is closed.
C. Incorrect: this condition does not cause the lift oil pump to trip
Plausible: lift oil pressure must be 600 psi to start the NCP; the
candidate may assume the lift oil pump stops at the setpoint.
D. Incorrect: this condition does not cause the lift oil pump to trip
Plausible: candidate could assume that once lift oil pressure has been
sufficient for 1 minute, the pump turns off.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 003 K6.14 (2.6/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: NCP SEQ 6
Source: New
Ques_867 For Official Use Only Page 112
Question #62 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MN-PS-NCP page 19
2. OP-MN-PS-NCP figure 7.12 page 79
Ques_867 For Official Use Only Page 113
Question #63 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 869.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 85% power following a transient. Given the following
events and conditions:
"* A Control Bank "D" rod is found to be misaligned.
"* The misaligned rod is at 130 steps
"* The remaining Control Bank "D" rods are at 150 steps.
"* Troubleshooting by Reactor Engineering determines that the control rod
will move in the inward direction but will not move outward.
"* The misaligned rod is found to have an electrical problem and is declared
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required action
and the affect on shutdown margin (SDM)?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Tech Spec 3.1.4
A. The unit must be in mode 3 in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />
SDM has decreased
B. The unit must be at 75 % power in 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
SDM does not change
C. The unit must be at 75 % power in 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
SDM has increased
D. The rod must be realigned within one hour
SDM does not change
Distracter Analysis: The rod is trippable because it can be driven in.
A. Incorrect: the rod is trippable, so SDM has not decreased.
Plausible: This is the correct answer for a non-trippable rod.
B. Correct: the problem is electrical and rods arc above the RIL,
therefore SDM is unaffected.
C. Incorrect: SDM has not changed
Plausible: partially correct - if candidate believes the rod is trippable,
the power change is applicable.
D. Incorrect: The rod can stay misaligned
Plausible: if candidate assumes that the rod is not trippable or does
not recognize the OR connectors in the TSAS.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(6)
KA: APE 005 AK1.05 (3.3/4.1)
Ques_869.1 For Official Use Only Page 114
Question #63 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-14 SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MN-AP-14 background ENC. 2 step 5 page 32
2. AP-14 page 19
3. OP-MN-RT-RB page 27
4. Tech Spec 3.1.4 - PROVIDED
Ques_869.1 For Official Use Only Page 115
Question #64 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 870 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% power. Given the following trends on the
IA NCP:
Time 0200 0205 0210 0215
Motor bearing temp (0 F) 180 184 186 195
Lower pump bearing temp (TF) 221 225 228 231
Seal outlet temp (TF) 205 227 235 251
Motor winding temp (TF) 311 314 316 323
At what time must the IA NCP be secured?
A. 0200
B. 0205
C. 0210
D. 0215
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: NCP must be stopped if motor winding temperature reaches
311 degrees at 0200
B. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reaches the temperature for securing NCP on lower
bearing
C. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reach the limit for securing NCP on seal outlet temp at
0210
D. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reach the temperature for stopping NCP on motor bearing
at 0215
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 015 AA2.09 (3.4/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: NCP SEQ 15
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_87o For Official Use Only Page 116
Question #64 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP-MN-PS-NCP page 37
Ques_87o For Official Use Only Page 117
Question #65 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question:871 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I has implemented ES-0.3 (Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam
Void in Vessel) when a YELLOW path occurs on Reactor Coolant Inventory
due to UR level indication < 100 %.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the reasoning for a
decision to address this YELLOW path in FR-I.3 (Response to Voids in
Reactor Vessel)?
A. Transition to FR-I.3 because EOP usage requires transitioning
from an ES procedure for a YELLOW path if there are no other
higher priority critical safety functions.
B. Transition into FR-l.3 in order to vent the reactor vessel void
through the head vent and collapse the void to allow the
cooldown to continue.
C. Do not implement FR-I.3 because this procedure requires
starting one NCP, which cannot be done with a void in the
reactor vessel due to the potential for gas binding.
D. Do not implement FR-I.3 because this would cause a loss of RCS
inventory, as the reactor coolant would flash to steam when the
reactor vessel head vent was opened.
. . . .... . ........ . ...............---------------
.... .....
-..........
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: EOP usage allows but does not require transitioning to
FR procedures.
Plausible: If candidate is unfamiliar with the EOP usage rules
B. Incorrect: Although this is a true statement for FR-I.3, it does not
apply to the case above when conducting a cooldown in ES-0.3.
Plausible: This is the purpose of FR-l.3.
C. Incorrect: An NCP can be started with a void in the reactor vessel
and will be started in FR-l.3 if the attempt to collapse the void by
repressurizing the system fails.
Plausible: If the candidate is concerned that starting the NCP will
destroy the pump.
D. Correct: ES-0.3 maintains a void under controlled conditions. FR
1.3 is prohibited in ES-0.3. If the head were vented, the steam void
would not be eliminated. As pressure is decreased, water would flash
to steam to replace the steam being vented. Void size would remain
essentially the same and the net is a loss of system inventory.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: W/E 10 EA2.1 (3.2/3.9)
Ques_871 For Official Use Only Page 118
Question #65 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRI SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MN-EP-EO page 197
2. OP-MN-EP-FRI page 53
3. EP/l/A15000/FR-L.3 page 2
Ques_871 For Official Use Only Page 119
Question #66 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 872 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when a loss of main feedwater occurred
due to the failure of a feedwater flow instrument.
Which one of the following represents valid main control board indications
of this failure?
A. Rapidly decreasing level and a high main steam pressure
indication on the steam pressure recorder.
B. Rapidly decreasing level and a high feedwater flow indication on
the steam/feed flow recorder.
C. Rapidly decreasing level and a low feedwater flow indication on
the steam/feed flow recorder.
D. Rapidly decreasing level and a low main steam pressure
indication on the steam pressure recorder.
-- ------------------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Feedwater flow is not density compensated.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks feed flow is density compensated.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Feed flow failing low will not cause a loss of feedwater.
Plausible: If the candidate reads the question to be a feed controller
failure.
D. Incorrect: Feedwater flow is not density compensated.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks feed flow is density compensated
and memorized the steam flow transmitter failure response.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: APE 054AA2.08(2.9/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-IFE SEQ 11
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-IFE page 33
2. AP/l/A/5500/06 pages 2-3
For Official Use Only Page 120
Ques_872
Question #67 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 873 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I is in mode 3 responding to a loss of off-site power.
Given the following parameters at the indicated times:
Parameter 0200 0300 0400 0500
"* NCS pressure (psig) 1955 1905 1855 1805
"* T,,.(0 F) 400 390 375 350
"* Pressurizer level (%) 27 23 26 25
"* Containment pressure (psig) 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
Which one of the following is the earliest action required to ensure a
controlled transition to mode 4?
A. Block SI actuation at 0200.
B. Terminate SI flow at 0300.
C. Block SI actuation at 0400.
D. Terminate SI flow at 0500.
------- --------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Must be <1955 to block SI.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that SI is blockable because this is
the numerical P-1I setpoint.
B. Incorrect: SI has not actuated.
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that SI actuated at 1945 psig.
C. Correct answer: this is the first time and action possible to prevent
uncontrolled cooldown due to SI actuation.
D. Incorrect: SI blocked at 0400.
Plausible: - if the candidate does not understand P-Il and recognizes
that SI actuates at 1845 psig.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 002A2.02(4.2/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: ECC-ISE SEQ 8/9/10
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
Ques_873 For Official Use Only Page 121
Question #67 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-ECC-ISE pages 21, 23
Ques_873 For Official Use Only Page 122
Question #68 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 874 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit I is at full power with all systems selected to automatic. Given the
following event:
- Bus 1EVKA was deenergized.
Why would the crew have to switch the suction source for the NV pumps to
the FWST?
A. VCT level indication is lost.
B. Control power to the boric acid pumps is lost.
C. Auto makeup capability to the VCT is lost.
D. VCT makeup cannot keep up with charging flow.
. -. --
.. . . . . . . -. ---. -- . . ---
. --- . ---
. . ---. --
. --- . --. .---. --. ---
. . ---
. . --- . .
--- -- ----.
. ..--
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: VCT level transmitters remain powered.
Plausible: if the candidate thought level indication is lost, then it
would seem prudent to switch to the FWST.
B. Incorrect: BA pumps can be manually operated.
Plausible: candidate may know blended makeup is lost but not sure
why. Loss of boric acid pumps would seem like a likely reason to
switch to the FWST.
C. Correct: the modulating signal for NV-252 and 267 is lost. Auto
blended makeup to the VCT is lost.
D. Incorrect: makeup capacity is matched to charging capacity.
Plausible: if the candidate is aware of the loss of makeup control,
this would be the reason for swapping to the FWST.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 057AK1.04(3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-15 SEQ 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. AP- 15 Background Document page 21
2. AP-15 page 8, 130
For Official Use Only Page 123
Ques_874
Question #69 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 876 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 100% power, steady state when a PZR SPRA Y LINE
LO TEMP alarm annunciates. No other abnormal annunciators are alarming.
Which one of the following statements is the most likely explanation for this
alarm?
A. Pressurizer heater bank C is off.
B. Lack of insurge/outsurge cycles has allowed ambient cooling.
C. Spray valve orifice fouling problems.
D. IB NCP has tripped.
S------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: heater loss could cause low PZR pressure and temperature
but will not affect Tcold flow from NCPs.
Plausible: heaters can be energized to maximize mixing of NCS and
pressurizer, when heaters are on, there will be more spray.
B. Incorrect: Spray temperature is not affected by PZR surges.
Plausible: this could be a partial answer to a surge line low
temperature, which the minimum spray flow also addresses.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: There will be other alarms if an NCP trips.
Plausible: this could cause a low spray temperature alarm.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 010K4.01(2.7/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NC SEQ 9
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NC page 31
For Official Use Only Page 124
Ques_876
Question #70 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 877 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit I is at full power. Pressurizer level is on program. All systems are in
automatic.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the relationship
between the charging and letdown flow?
A. Charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger equals
letdown flow + seal return.
B. Charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger is less
than letdown flow.
C. Charging flow through INV-241 (SEAL INJ FLoW CONTROL)
equals letdown flow.
D. Charging flow through INV-241 + seal injection equals letdown
flow.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger
will be approximately 55 gpm. Letdown + seal return is 87 gpm.
Plausible: if the candidate misunderstands or misapplies the flow
balance.
B. Correct: charging flow through the regenerative heat exchanger will
be approximately 55 gpm. Letdown flow is 75 gpm.
C. Incorrect: Charging flow through NV-241 will be 55 gpm, letdown
is 75 gpm.
Plausible: if the candidate misunderstands or misapplies the flow
balance.
D. Incorrect: 55 gpm + 32 gpm is 87 gpm, letdown is 75 gpm. The
balance is charging + seal injection ý letdown + seal return
Plausible: if the candidate misunderstands or misapplies the flow
balance.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 011 K5.06(2.9/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-NV SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-NV page 117
Ques_877 For Official Use Only Page 125
Question #71 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 878 Answer: B
I Pt(s) A Unit I startup is in progress. Given the following events and conditions:
- Reactor is critical in the source range.
- Power Range channel 41 is removed from service for zero power physics
testing.
- A loss of EKVB occurs.
Which one of the following actions occur?
A. Reactor trips and source range channel 32 is deenergized.
Source range 31 is still in operation.
B. Reactor trips and both source range channels are deenergized.
C. The reactor critical and source range channel 32 is deenergized.
Source range channel 31 is still in operation.
D. The reactor is critical
Both source range channels are de-energized.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: P-10 will be met, both SR's will de energize.
Plausible: if the candidate does not realize P-10 will turn off both
source ranges and recognizes the reactor trips when SR 32 de
energizes.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Reactor trips on a number of PR/SR trip setpoints. Also,
P-10 will turn off both SR's.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that the loss of the bus will turn off
the SR-32 without actuating the trip bistable.
D. Incorrect: Reactor trips on a number of PR/SR trip setpoints.
Plausible: if the candidate does not realize at power trips (or SR 32
loss of power) will cause a reactor trip but fails to realize P-10 will
turn off the SR (loss of power actuates P-10 bistable on N42.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 015K4.01(3.1/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-ENB SEQ 12
Source: New
Ques_878 For Official Use Only Page 126
Question #71 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-ENB pages 51, 61
2. OP-MC-IC-IPE page 83
Ques_878 For Official Use Only Page 127
Question #72 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 880 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was preparing to synchronize and load the main generator onto the
grid. Given the following conditions:
"* The appropriate generator voltage conditions have been established.
"* The GENA UTO/MANUAL SYNC sWITcu has been placed in the MAN
position
If the operators have been directed to manually synchronize the generator,
which one of the following actions are correct to close breaker IA?
A. Press and hold the SYNC button. When the synchroscope is
rotating slowly in the fast direction, then press the CLOSE button
for the IA breaker at 5 minutes to 12 o'clock.
B. Press and hold the AUTO SYNC button on the DEH panel until
the IA generator breaker is closed.
C. Rotate the main generator GENAUTO/MANUAL SYNC swiTCH
to the AUTO IA BREAKER position, and press the SYNC button for
breaker IA.
D. Press and hold the A UTO SYNC button on the DEH panel.
When the synchroscope is rotatiqg slowly in the fast direction,
press the CLOSE button for the 1A breaker at 5 minutes to 12
o'clock.
S------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: to manually close, the pushbutton is depressed until the
breaker is closed
B. Incorrect: AUTO SYNC button only works for auto
synchronization. The GEN switch would have to be placed in the
Auto IA position.
Plausible: this partially reflects the auto-closure mode (breaker IA
position).
C. Incorrect: the SYNC button will not close the breaker.
Plausible: this partially reflects the auto-closure mode (AUTO
SYNC vs. SYNC).
D. Incorrect: AUTO SYNC button only works for auto
synchronization.
Plausible: synchroscope rotation is a requirement for closing the
breaker.
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_880 For Official Use Only Page 128
Question #72 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: SYS 062K4.05(2.7/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: GEN-MG SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-GEN-MG page 71, 111
2. OP/I/A/6300/001 pages I1, 12
For Official Use Only Page 129
Ques_880
Question #73 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 881 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit one was operating at 100% power when a total loss of onsite and offsitc
power occurred. Given the following events and conditions:
- IEVDA is supplying normal full power loads,
- No battery charger is available,
- Systems operate normally
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the minimum
length of time that bus IEVDA is designed to sustain loads and what action
will protect the DC bus loads?
A. After 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, the vital battery bus breaker will open
automatically when bus voltage falls to 105 volts.
B. After 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, the vital battery breaker must be manually opened
when bus voltage falls to 105 volts.
C. After 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, the vital battery breaker will open automatically
when bus voltage falls to 107 volts.
D. After 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, the vital battery breaker must be manually opened
when bus voltage falls to 107 volts.
-...... ............................---------------------------------..............
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: the vital battery breaker does not automatically open
Plausible: partially correct - the design time for sustaining loads is I
hour
B. Correct: below this value the battery could be damaged or
components will begin to fail.
C. Incorrect: the battery is expected to last for I hour and there is no
automatic trip associated with low voltage
Plausible: the 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> requirement for battery performance is typical
of the aux batteries - voltage limit is 107 volts.
D. Incorrect: the vital batteries are not designed to sustain loads for 4
hours
Plausible: partially correct - DC bus protection is achieved by
manually opening the breaker - voltage limit is 107 volts.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 063A4.03(3.0/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-15 SEQ 2
For Official Use Only Page 130
Ques_881
Question #73 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. AP- 15 Background Document pages 4, 40
2. AP/I/A/5500/015 page 49
Ques_881 For Official Use Only Page 131
Question #74 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 883 Answer: A
I Pt(s) A diesel powered VI compressor has auto-started due to decreasing VI
pressure. Given the following events and conditions:
"* VI system pressure has returned to 93 psig.
"* The operator presses the blue RESET button on the compressor control
panel.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the expected
status of the VI compressor?
A. No response, the compressor remains running because pressure
is less than 95 psig.
B. The VI compressor remains running, but now can be shutdown
and returned to auto by the operator and remain shutdown
unless pressure decreases below 90 psig.
C. The VI compressor remains running, but now will automatically
stop when pressure is greater than 95 psig.
D. The VI compressor automatically shuts down immediately but
will restart if returned to automatic by the operator.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: The compressor will not shutdown. Control of the
compressor can be regained when pressure is above 95 psig, then the
reset can be accomplished and the compressor shutdown.
B. Incorrect: The compressor does not shutdown and the operator
cannot take control
Plausible: candidate believes the control is returned to the operator
and can be returned to auto. This is not true, if returned to auto below
95 psig, it will restart.
C. Incorrect:
Plausible: if the candidate thinks the reset button allows the
compressor to automatically shutdown.
D. Incorrect:
Plausible: candidate believes the compressor will stop, the
compressor if returned to auto (after shutdown by the operator),
would restart.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 078 K4.01 (2.7/2.9)
Ques_883 For Official Use Only Page 132
Question #74 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: SS-VI SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MN-SS-VI page 57, 61
Ques_883 For Official Use Only Page 133
Question #75 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 884 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Which one of the following statements correctly describes how the train B
manual reactor trip and automatic reactor trip signals input to the train B
reactor trip bypass breaker?
A. Manual de-energizes the bypass breaker UV coil through SSPS.
Auto does not input to the bypass breaker circuit.
B. Manual energizes the bypass breaker shunt coil.
Auto does not input to the bypass breaker circuit.
C. Manual de-energizes the bypass breaker UV coil through SSPS.
Auto energizes the bypass breaker shunt coil.
D. Manual energizes the bypass breaker shunt coil.
Auto de-energizes the bypass breaker UV coil through the SSPS.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: manual energizes the shunt trip coil.
Plausible: if the candidate knows auto does not input to the circuitry,
but confuses which action the manual trip performs.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: manual energizes the shunt trip coil, and auto performs no
function for the corresponding train.
Plausible: auto performs this action for the opposite train bypass
breaker.
D. Incorrect: auto de-energizes the opposite bypass breaker UV coil.
Plausible: close to the normal RTB response to trip signals.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 007EK2.02 (2.6/2.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-RTB SEQ 8
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-RTB page 29, 31, 65
Ques-884 For Official Use Only Page 134
Question #76 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 885 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is operating at 60% power. PZR level and pressure control are selected
to the (3-2) combination. Given the following events and conditions:
- Inverter lEVID fails.
Assuming no operator action, which one of the following statements correctly
describes the effect of this failure on charging and letdown control'?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: AP-15 pages 135-138
A. INV-238 (CHARGINGLINE FLowCoN TROL) opens, INV-2A (NCL/D
ISOL TO REGEN HX) closes, and actual PZR level increases.
B. 1NV-238 closes, 1NV-IA (NC L/D ISOL TOREGEN Hx) closes, and
actual PZR level increases.
C. 1NV-238 closes, 1NV-1&2A close, and actual PZR level decreases.
D. There is no effect on charging or letdown control.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Channel 4 will fail low.
Plausible: This is the response to a controlling channel failed low.
B. Incorrect: Channel 4 will fail low.
Plausible: This is the response to a backup channel failed low.
C. Incorrect: Channel 4 will fail low.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that the output fails high on loss of
power.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 004K2.06(2.6/2.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EPL SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-ILE pages 15, 23, 25
2. AP/l/A/5500/15 pages 135-138 - PROVIDED
For Official Use Only Page 135
Ques_885
Question #77 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 887.1 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit I is conducting a reactor startup following a plant trip due to an IAE
error during instrument calibration. Given the following data:
Time of shutdown 1520 on 01/27/02
Anticipated time of criticality 0100 on 01/28/02
Core bumup 250 EFPD
Estimated critical position 105 steps on Bank C
Control rod position at 0300 40 steps on Bank C
Which of the following describes the required operator actions'?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Unit I Databook Table 6.3B and Graph 1.2,
OP/O/A/6100/006
A. Recalculate the ECP if the reactor is not yet critical at 175 steps
of Bank C.
B. Insert the rods and recalculate the ECP if criticality will be
achieved at 50 steps of Bank C.
C. Recalculate the ECP because it is no longer accurate.
D. Insert the rods and recalculate the ECP because it is no longer
accurate.
Distracter Analysis: TSIL = 47 steps on Bank C. ECP +750pcm = 195
steps on Bank C. ECP - 750 pcm = 25 steps on Bank C.
A. Incorrect: Can pull rods to 195 steps before recalculating.
Plausible: If the candidate misreads the integral rod worth table.
B. Incorrect: Critical rod position is > TSIL and ECP - 750 pcm.
Plausible: If the candidate misreads Databook graphs.
C. Incorrect: The rods must be inserted.
Plausible: This could be possible if Xenon was not decaying rapidly.
D. Correct:
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(6)
KA: G2.2.34 (2.8/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: RT-RB SEQ 4
Ques_887.1 For Official Use Only Page 136
Question #77 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-RT-RB pages 8-9, 16, 18
2. OP/O/A/6100/006 pages 2,3- PROVIDED
3. Unit I Databook Graph 1.2 and Table 6.38 - PROVIDED
Ques_887.1 For Official Use Only Page 137
Question #78 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 888 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit I is responding to a steam break inside containment from full power.
Given the following events and conditions:
"* All systems operate as designed.
"* Narrow range S/G level is 15% for each intact S/G
"* CA flow is 100 GPM to each intact S/G.
"* The NCPs were tripped.
"* The crew entered FR-P. 1 (Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal
Shock Condition) due to low temperature.
"* NCS temperature is now stable.
"* NCS pressure is stable with only the control group of pressurizer heaters
energized.
"* Letdown has been restored
If the crew has determined that a 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> soak is required, which of the
following evolutions could be performed by the crew in the next hour while
continuing on through the EP procedures?
A. Start ID NCP
B. Place auxiliary spray in service
C. Increase CA flow to one intact S/G to raise NR level to 50%
D. Commence a 25-degree/hour cooldown to Mode 5
S-.---.-.--------.- ..-----.-.-.-------.............-------------------.---------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Starting a NCP will cause a pressure transient and could
cause further cooldown.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand the limitations during
the soak or the effects of NCP start.
B. Correct: Any actions that will not cause either a cooldown or a
pressure rise and are specified by any other procedure in effect are
permitted during this "soak" period.
C. Incorrect: Increases cooldown stressing the vessel.
Plausible: The candidate may not link raising S/G level with a
cooldown.
D. Incorrect: Cooldown is not allowed.
Plausible: The candidate may recall that a cooldown at less than
50/hr is directed after the soak.
Level: RO&SRO
For Official Use Only Page 138
Ques_888
Question #78 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
KA: W/E 08 EK 3.3 (3.7/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRP SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRP pages 17, 43
2. EP/l/A/5000/FR-P. I page 28
For Official Use Only Page 139
Ques_888
Question #79 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 889 Answer. C
I Pt(s) A small fire has broken out in the incore instrument room as a result of
welding on a thimble support. Given the following events and conditions:
"* The control room isolated the VT systems (breakers are tagged open).
"* The fire watch exhausted a portable CO, fire extinguishers on the burning
insulation before leaving the area,
"* The area is posted as a radiological surface
2
contamination area with the
maximum level of 10E5 dpm/100 cm
Which one of the following would be the preferred method for the fire
brigade to extinguish this fire'?
A. Actuate the incore instrument room Halon system
B. Portable CO 2 extinguishers due to the potential for electrical
hazards in the area.
C. Portable water extinguishers because of their better quenching
capability in this low combustible loading area.
D. Portable dry chemical extinguishers because of their better
smothering capability.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: There is no Halon system in this room
Plausible: Some areas are equipped with Halon fire protection
systems.
B. Incorrect: Portable water extinguishers would be preferred.
Plausible: C02 is preferred for electrical fires.
C. Correct: A hose would be overkill and spread contamination.
D. Incorrect: Portable water extinguishers would be preferred.
Plausible: Dry chemical extinguishers smother oil fires better.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.4.26 (2.9/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_889 For Official Use Only Page 140
Question #79 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. None
Ques_889 For Official Use Only Page 141
Question #80 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 891 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I has experienced a loss of coolant accident. Emergency procedures
prescribe successful response mechanisms if containment water level
remains between 3.5 and 10.5 feet.
What is the reason why safe plant recovery is not assured when level exceeds
10.5 feet?
A. Operation of the ND system is compromised by high suction
pressure.
B. Operation of critical components needed for safe recovery is
endangered by submersion.
C. Operation of the KC system is compromised by loss of water to
the containment.
D. Operation of critical components needed for safe plant recovery
is endangered by high humidity.
S...........................................................................................
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: 10.5 feet of water will not lift the ND suction relief, or if it
did the relief returns to the PRT.
Plausible: High containment level increases ND suction pressure.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: KC is a closed system that provides limited source of
water inside containment.
Plausible: the KC system is a possible source of flooding inside
containment.
D. Incorrect: Critical components inside containment are protected
from high humidity (EQ program).
Plausible: Non-critical components will be endangered by high
humidity.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE WE 15 EK2.2 (2.7/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRZ SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_891 For Official Use Only Page 142
Question #80 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRZ page 47
Ques_891 For Official Use Only Page 143
Question #81 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 893.1 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 80 % power, steady state. Given the following events and
conditions:
"* Rod control is in manual for testing.
"* Control bank D is at 155 steps.
" IAD-2, A9 & B9 (CONTROL BANK LO &LO-LO LIMT) alarms actuate.
Which one of the following conditions could be the cause of these two
alarms?
A. Turbine impulse pressure channel failed high.
B. NIS channel N42 failed high.
C. Loop I B Th instrument failed high.
D. Loop 1A T.,, failed high.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: D/T controls RIL.
Plausible: Impulse pressure (Tref) is proportional to power and could
be used to calculate RIL.
B. Incorrect: D/T controls RIL.
Plausible: NIS power could be used to calculate RIL (and is at some
plants).
C. Correct: Control bank D is above the RIL alarms, but when D/T
goes high, RIL goes to 161 and the alarms actuate.
D. Incorrect: D/T controls RIL.
Plausible: Tave is proportional to power and could be used to
calculate RIL.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 014K1.02(3.0/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-IRE SEQ II
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
For Official Use Only Page 144
Ques_893.1
Question #81 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
1. OP-MC-IC-IRE pages 17, 37, 55, 63
2. OP-MC-PS-NC pages 45, 47
3. Unit I Databook Graph 1.2
4. OP/1/A/6100/010C, A9 Control Bank Lo Limit
5. OP/1/A/6100 /010C, B9 Control Bank Lo-Lo Limit
Ques-893.1 For Official Use Only Page 145
Question #82 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 894 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100 % power. Given the following events and
conditions:
" "B" essential train is in service.
"* 2A RN train is in operation for testing.
"* The RN trains are split with 2RN-41B, (TRAINB TONoN-EssHDRISOL)
closed.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the potential
consequence if 2RN-190B (RN ToB KCHxCONTROL) failed to perform its
automatic function associated with decreasing B train RN flow?
A. Flashing in the 2B KC heat exchanger.
B. Overheating 2B RN pump.
C. Overheating the running B train KC pumps.
D. 2RN-41B will open to restore flow to the heat exchanger.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: no flashing should occur, pressure is not changing.
Plausible: candidate believes that like the letdown regen heat
exchanger, flashing on loss of cooling could occur
B. Correct: Lose mini-flow protection for RN pump 28.
C. Incorrect: B train pumps cooled by separate supply.
Plausible: candidate believes heat exchanger and pump cooling come
from the same place.
D. Incorrect: no auto open signal for RN4 IB.
Plausible: candidate feels there is some reason for the stated position
of 41B in the setup and guesses it can auto open. Valve closes on
blackout signal,
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 062AK3.04(3.5/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: PSS-RN SEQ 7
Source: New
Ques_894 For Official Use Only Page 146
Question #82 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PSS-RN pages 23, 41, 73, 85
2. OP-MC-PSS-KC page 39
Ques_894 For Official Use Only Page 147
Question #83 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 896 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating in mode 4. Given the following events and conditions:
"* Pressurizer level is at 25% (JNCP-5173) (COLD CAL)
"* IB NCP is in operation
"* All steam generator narrow range levels are approximately 45%
"* IA ND pump and its associated heat exchanger are in service
"* "B" Train of ND is operable.
"* NCS temperature currently at 280YF
"* Cooling water is lost to the IB KC heat exchanger,
How much time does the crew have to restore inoperable equipment or loops
to service?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Tech Spec 3.4.6,3. 76
A. No time: an NCS loop must be restored immediately
B. I hour
C. 36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br />
D. 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: There are 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> allowed to restore KC loop B.
Plausible: if the candidate believes loss of KC loop B results in loss
of cooling to the D NCP. Tech Spec 3.4.6 requires immediate action
B. Incorrect: There are 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> allowed to restore KC loop B.
Plausible: if the candidate believes TS 3.0.3 applies
C. Incorrect: There are 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> allowed to restore KC loop B.
Plausible: if the candidate applies time to be in MODE 5 instead of
the AOT of 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />
D. Correct: B KC loop is out of service, TS 3.4.6 does not apply. Crew
has 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> to restore KC to operable status.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 026 G2.2.23 (2.6/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: PSS-KC SEQ 15
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
Ques_896 For Official Use Only Page 148
Question #83 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
For Official Use Only Page 149
Ques_896
Question #84 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 898 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Which one of the following electrical sources provides control and indication
power to the RESET/RETRANSFER switches for the lower containment
ventilation air handling units (AHUs)?
A. Vital 125 VDC
B. The normal power supply
C. The emergency power supply
D. The power supply providing power to the AHU
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Power supplied from emergency power supply
Plausible: many controls are DC powered
B. Incorrect: Power supplied from emergency power supply
Plausible: If candidate believes normal should be the logical choice
C. Correct: Emergency power supply is the source of power.
D. Incorrect: Power supplied from emergency power supply
Plausible: Logical that transfer power comes from the selected
source.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 022 K2.01 (3.0/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-VUL SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MN-CNT-VUL page 29
Ques_898 For Official Use Only Page 150
Question #85 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 899 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit I is at full power. Given the following events and conditions:
- 1 NC-34A (PzR PoRV) was leaking has been isolated in accordance with
Technical Specifications.
- NC pressure is 2345 psig.
IINCV-36B (PzRPoRV) is slightly open.
- Master controller output is stuck at 83%.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes when INC-36B will
automatically close and if it does not, what action is required to isolate the
valve'?
A. 1NC-36B will not close. The operator must close the block valve by
taking the control switch to "CLSD".
B. 1NC-36B will not close. The operator must close the block valve by
taking the control switch to "OVERRIDE".
C. INC-36B will close when pressure decreases to 2315 psig. If
necessary to close the block valve, take the control switch to
"CLSD".
D. 1NC-36B will close when pressurý decreases to 2315 psig. If
necessary to close the block valve, take the control switch to
"OVERRIDE".
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: 1NCV-36B will close and must take the block valve to
override.
Plausible: if the candidate does recognize the multiple block valve
protection and assumes control for INV-36B is off the pressure
controller.
B. Incorrect: INC-36B will close.
Plausible: if the candidate does not realize that control fbr INV-36 B is
not from the pressure controller.
C. Incorrect: must take the block valve to override.
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize the multiple block walve
protection.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 008AA1.07 (4.0/4.2)
Ques_899 For Official Use Only Page 151
Question #85 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-l I SEQ 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. AP- II background document page 5
Ques_899 For Official Use Only Page 152
Question #86 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 900 Answer. B
I Pt(s) The operator has just opened IVI-820 (VI SUPPLY To VS CONTRoL). The
switch is left in the OPEN position.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the adverse effect
of leaving the CLOSE/AUTO/OPEN switch in the OPEN position?
A. The valve will not close on decreasing VI pressure.
B. The valve closes on decreasing VI pressure, but immediately
reopens if pressure increases above 90 psig.
C. The valve will not close on decreasing VS pressure.
D. The valve closes on decreasing VS pressure, but immediately
reopens if pressure increases above 90 psig.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The valve will close.
Plausible: if the candidate believes that if not in auto, the valve will
not respond to decreasing pressure.
B. Correct: the opening will not be under the control of the operator.
C. Incorrect: The valve will close on low V1 pressure.
Plausible: if the candidate confuses which system is being protected,
and believes that if not in auto, the valve will not respond to
decreasing pressure.
D. Incorrect: The valve responds to VI pressure.
Plausible: candidate believes that the valve will receive an open
signal once it is fully closed
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 079A2.01 (2.9/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: SS-VI SEQ 7
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-SS-VI page 67
Ques_900 For Official Use Only Page 153
Question #87 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 901 Answer. B
I Pt(s) The crew is implementing AP- II (PressurizerPressureAnomalies) due to
INC-32B (PZR POR V) failing open.
If the PORV cannot be isolated, the RNO for step 5 instructs the operators to
trip the reactor, but not to manually initiate SI unless the reactor is tripped or
the SI setpoint is reached.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the basis for this
action'?
A. To prevent safety injection from lifting more PORVs and taking
the pressurizer solid.
B. To prevent initiating a loss of feedwater during an ATWS event.
C. To prevent unnecessary SI actuations because once the unit is
tripped, NC pressure has time to recover.
D. To prevent upgrading the emergency event classification from a
Notification of Unusual Event (NOUE) to an Alert.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The basis is to preclude.a bad ATWS scenario.
Plausible: this is the basis for SI termination criteria.
B. Correct: This avoids premature SI during an ATWS, which would
automatically turn any ATWS into the worst case ATWS, one
combined with a loss of feedwater.
C. Incorrect: Without SI, NC pressure will not recover after a trip.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand post trip plant
performance.
D. Incorrect: If the PORV will not close, the Alert level is already
achieved by exceeding charging pump capacity.
Plausible: an NOUE will be declared based on leakage through the
PORV.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: APE 027 AK3.03 (3.7/4.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP-l I SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
Ques_901 For Official Use Only Page 154
Question #87 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. AP/I/A/5500/I1 page 3
2. AP- 11 Background Document page 6
Ques_9Ol For Official Use Only Page 155
Question #88 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 902 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is at full power preparing to shutdown for refueling. Given the
following events and conditions:
"* Pressurizer level is on program and in automatic.
"* The controlling pressurizer level transmitter fails at its current output.
"* No operator action is taken.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the system
response as plant load is reduced'?
A. Charging flow decreases
Letdown isolates
Pressurizer heaters turn off
B. Charging flow increases
Pressurizer heaters energize
Pressurizer level increase to the trip setpoint
C. Charging flow decreases
Letdown will not isolate
Pressurizer level decreases until the pressurizer is empty
D. Charging flow increases
Pressurizer heaters will not energize
Pressurizer level increases to the trip setpoint.
Distracter Analysis: As load is reduced, Tave will decrease, Program
Pressurizer level will decrease. The system will see the controlling channel
maintaining a high level and decrease charging in an effort to reduce level.
Actual level will decrease. The backup channel will decrease and at 17%,
letdown will isolate and heaters will de energize.
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: charging flow will decrease.
Plausible: candidate believes charging flow will increase in an effort
to maintain the higher level
C. Incorrect: letdown will isolate from the bakup channel.
Plausible: if the candidate believes the low level interlock will not be
satisfied only from the controlling channel.
D. Incorrect: charging flow will decrease.
Plausible: candidate believes charging flow will increase to
maintain the higher level
Ques_902 For Official Use Only Page 156
Question #88 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 028 AA2.02 (3.4/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: PS-ILE SEQ 12
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-PS-ILE page 33 (Figure 7.2)
Ques_902 For Official Use Only Page 157
Question #89 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 903 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Why is it important for the source range high voltage to be properly set?
A. To ensure that the detector operates in the ionization region
where the flow of detector current reflects exactly the flow of
ionizing radiation and secondary multiplication is prevented.
B. To ensure the detector operates in the proportional region where
secondary ionizations cause gas multiplication to occur.
C. To ensure that detector operates in the recombination region
where the recombination effect prevents the smaller pulses from
gamma interactions from being detected.
D. To ensure that the detector operates in the Geiger Muller region
where each ionization event results in a complete discharge of the
detector tube.
................................... .......------------------------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: This describes the ionization range. The SR is a
proportional counter.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand detector theory or
confuses what region the SR operate in.
B. Correct: SR operates in the proportional region of the detector curve
where gas amplification causes secondary ionizations.
C. Incorrect: This describes the recombination range.
Plausible: Gamma interactions are discriminated by a pulse-height
discriminator circuit. If the candidate does not understand detector
theory or confuses what region the SR operate in.
D. Incorrect: This describes the G-M region.
Plausible: If the candidate is unfamiliar with what region SR
operates in.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 032 AKI.01 (2.5/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: IC-ENB SEQ 3
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-IC-ENB page 17-19
Ques_903 For Official Use Only Page 158
Question #90 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 904 Answer: D
I Pt(s) The unit I operating crew has entered AP- 15 (Loss OF VITAL OR A Ux
CONTROL POWER) due to a loss of I EVDA.
Why will the crew have to diligently monitor containment pressure while
1EVDA is de-energized?
A. Decreased cooling will increase containment pressure because the
VL and VU system is inoperable.
B. IVQ-IA (CONTAIR REL INSIDE ISOL) will fail open on a loss of
power and containment pressure may change rapidly resulting in
a release path.
C. The PRT will slowly pressurize and rupture causing an increase
in containment pressure because of Nitrogen in-leakage.
D. VI system leaks will increase containment pressure because the
VQ system is inoperable.
Distracter Analysis: Loss of DC control power causes IVQ- IA to fail
closed and prevents using the VQ system for an air release to lower
containment pressure. Pressure increases due to VI leaks inside containment.
A. Incorrect: VL and VU systems are operable under these conditions
Plausible: contingency action is to increase cooling flow in an
attempt to cool the containment air mass, slowing the pressure
increase.
B. Incorrect: IVQ-IA will fail closed not open
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize that this containment
isolation valve always fails closed.
C. Incorrect: N2 will not leak into the PRT
Plausible: loss of DC will cause a loss of power to many valves - if
the candidate thinks that a loss of DC control power could cause the
N2 sparging valves to fail open or leak by.
D. Correct: numerous VI leaks inside containment will slowly increase
containment pressure with the VQ system unable to release to the
unit I stack. VQ-IA fails closed due to a loss of power.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 058 AK3.02 (4.0/4.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: AP15 SEQ 3
Source: New
Ques_904 For Official Use Only Page 159
Question #90 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. AP- 15 Background Document pages 16, 18, 19
2. AP-15 pages 10, 13, 14
Ques_904 For Official Use Only Page 160
Question #91 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 905 Answer. A
I Pt(s) The selector switches for the IA and IB Boric Acid pumps are in LOCAL at
the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel (ASP). The operator is starting the IA Boric
Acid pump at the ASP.
Which one of the following statements describes ALL the indication(s) that
the operator has at the ASP indicating that the boric acid pump is running?
A. Red "ON" light LIT.
B. Red "ON" light LIT and pump amps registering.
C. Pump amps registering and boric acid flow indicating when
INV-265B (BORICACID ToNVPumPS) is opened.
D. Red "ON" light LIT and boric acid flow indicating when INV-265B
is opened.
-.................................................---------------------------------.......
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Both BA pumps have LOCAL/CR selector switches,
Red/green indicator lights, and start controls on the ASP.
B. Incorrect: There are no pump amps indicators on the ASP.
Plausible: These are normal indications checked when a pump is
started.
C. Incorrect: There is no flow indication on the ASP.
Plausible: NV-265B is controlled (with Red/Green lights) from the
D. Incorrect: BA flow is not indicated at the ASP
Plausible: This valve can be controlled from the ASP
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 068 AAI.19 (3.7/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: CP-ASP SEQ 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-CP-ASP page 25, 31
Ques_905 For Official Use Only Page 161
Question #92 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 906 Answer: B
I Pt(s) A station emergency battery is supplying DC bus loads without a battery
charger online. If the equipment on the DC bus does not change, which one
of the following statements correctly describes a vital battery's discharge rate
(amps) as the battery is expended?
A. The discharge rate will be fairly constant until the design battery
capacity (amp-hours) is exhausted and then will rapidly decrease.
B. The discharge rate will increase steadily until the design battery
capacity is exhausted.
C. The discharge rate will decrease steadily until the design battery
capacity is exhausted.
D. The discharge rate will initially decrease until approximately
50% design capacity had been expended and then increase until
the battery has been exhausted.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The discharge rate increases.
Plausible: This is a typical response for many design systems - If the
candidate does not recall that V- IxR.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: The discharge rate increases.
Plausible: If the candidate reverses the effect of decreasing voltage
on discharge rate.
D. Incorrect: The discharge rate increases.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand battery theory.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 055 EK1.01 (3.3/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: EL-EPL SEQ 12/20
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EPL pages 65-67
Ques_9O6 For Official Use Only Page 162
Question #93 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 907 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit I is implementing FR-C. 1 (Response to Inadequate Core Cooling).
Given the following events and conditions:
- P-I I has been blocked.
- Operators are preparing to open the steam dumps to depressurize intact
steam generators to 110 psig.
What guidance should be given to the operator opening the steam dumps'?
A. The steam dumps should be fully opened to depressurize the
S/Gs as quickly as possible.
B. A cooldown rate of less than 100 degrees/hour should be
established to prevent exceeding Tech Spec limits.
C. A cooldown rate of less than 25 degrees/hour should be
established to prevent pressurized thermal shock concerns.
D. The steam dumps should be very slowly opened (<2 psig / sec) to
prevent MSIV closure.
....................................------------------------------------------........
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: The steam dumps should be opened slowly.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses the FR-C guidance with tube
rupture guidance.
B. Incorrect: While TS limits apply, the dumps will be isolated long
before that limit is approached.
Plausible: This is the TS cooldown limit.
C. Incorrect: PTS is not the immediate concern with CETs >1200
degrees.
Plausible: PTS and limiting cooldown are reasonable concerns for
other events.
D. Correct: note in C. I informs the operator that a depressurization rate
of less than 2 psig/second will maintain the MSIVs open.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 074 EK2.06 (3.5/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRC SEQ 4
Source: New
Ques_907 For Official Use Only Page 163
Question #93 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-FRC page 37
2. EP/I/A/5000/FR-C.I page 9
Ques_907 For Official Use Only Page 164
Question #94 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 908 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I is in mode 6.
A fire has occurred in a charcoal filter in the containment ventilation system.
RP is performing actions necessary to identify the HOT ZONE.
How will the operators identify the HOT ZONE boundaries?
A. Yellow and Magenta ropes
B. Red tape
C. RP tape
D. Yellow tape
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: RP tape identifies HOT zone boundaries.
Plausible: Y&M rope is used to identify radiation area boundaries,
and RP tape shares those colors.
B. Incorrect: RP tape is used.
Plausible: Red tape marks the WARM zone boundaries.
C. Correct: The Hot zone is identified by RP tape
D. Incorrect: RP tape is used.
Plausible: Yellow tape marks the COLD zone boundaries.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 067 G2.3.10 (2.9/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: None
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. RP/O/A/5700/025 enclosure 4.4
Ques_908 For Official Use Only Page 165
Question #95 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 909.1 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit I is at full power, steady state, when the following events occur:
- 0200 - Power is lost to all control room annunciators.
- 0220 - The OSM determines more personnel are needed to safely operate
the unit.
- 0223 - Power is restored to all annunciators.
- 0230 - The initial notification message has been completed for
transmission to State and local authorities and is submitted for
approval.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
emergency declaration and notification of State and local authorities?
REFERENCES PROVIDED:
RP/0/5 700/000 enclosure 4.1 tbru 4. 7 (EAL tables)
A. Report that the plant entered a Notification of Unusual Event at
0220 but the event was terminated at 0223. Notify by 0235.
B. Declare a Notification of Unusual Event at 0215 and notify no
later than 0230.
C. Declare a Notification of Unusual Event at 0220 notify no later
than 0235.
D. Declare an Alert at 0220 and notify no later than 0235.
S..........................................................................................
Distracter Analysis: EAL 4.2.U.2-1 - Notification of Unusual Event
(NOUE) at 0220 - terminated at 0223.
A. Correct: The NOUE was terminated before the initial notification
message was transmitted. The correct response is to immediately
terminate the NOUE and report that the plant entered the NOUE but
it was terminated - 15 minutes from time of declaration
B. Incorrect: The event does not meet NOUE criteria until 0220
declaring the event at 0215 is not correct
Plausible: Partially correct - If a NOUE was declared at 0215, then
the notification time is correct. This is 15 minutes from time the UE
conditions are satisfied.
C. Incorrect: The NOUE no longer existed when power was restored.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize that a NOUE can be
immediately terminated - this is only true for NOUEs.
Ques_9O9.1 For Official Use Only Page 166
Question #95 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
D. Incorrect: An Alert is not correct because the plant is not in a
significant transient or experiencing a loss of the OAC
Plausible: if the candidate incorrectly classifies the event as an Alert
then this would be the correct answer.
Level: SRO Only; IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: G2.4.32 (3.3/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: EAL SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MC-RP-5700/000 enclosure 4.9
2. OP-MC-RP-5700/000, enclosures 4.1 thru 4.7
Ques_909.1 For Official Use Only Page 167
Question #96 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 910 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Which one of the following procedures would be used to bring Unit I to cold
shutdown after dealing with a fire that results in a loss of plant control from
the control room?
A. AP/1/5500/A/24, (Loss of PlantControl Due to Fire)
B. OP/0/A/6100/20, (OperationalGuidelines Following Fire in
Auxiliary Building or Vital Area)
C. OP/0/A/6100/21, (Shutdown Outside the Control Room Following
a Fire)
D. OP/1/A/6100/04, (Shutdown Outside the Control Room From Hot
Standby to Cold Shutdown)
S-.------------ .-..-.---------------...........--------------------- - -- ---------------
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: this brings the unit to hot standby
Plausible: candidate believes this procedure will bring the unit to
mode 5.
B. Incorrect: this procedure picks up from AP/24 and takes steps to
prepare the unit for hot shutdown followed by cold shutdown after a
fire in the aux building or vital area
Plausible: candidate unfamiliar with the procedure
C. Correct: procedure provides the steps required to achieve cold
shutdown following a fire that renders the control room unusable.
D. Incorrect: used when the control room is uninhabitable.
Plausible: this procedure does bring the unit to cold shutdown, but
not applicable if there has been damage to vital equipment due to fire.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.4.25 (2.9/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: SS SEQ 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-MN-CP-SS pages 11, 13, 25
Ques_910 For Official Use Only Page 168
Question #97 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 911 Answer: B
I Pt(s) The crew has verified natural circulation in ES-0. I (Reactor Trip Response)
based on decreasing core exit thermocouple readings and subcooling > 0 "F.
Ten minutes later, the operator notes that the thermocouple input to both
plasma displays is malfunctioning.
Which one of the following correctly describes a valid indication that natural
circulation is continuing?
A. S/G saturation temperatures are decreasing and REACTOR VESSEL
UR LEVEL indication is greater than 100 %.
B. S/G pressures are decreasing and Tcold is at S/G saturation
temperature.
C. S/G pressures are decreasing and REACTOR VESSEL D/P indication
is greater than 100%.
D. S/G pressure is at saturation pressure for To0 dand REACTOR
VESSEL D/P indication is greater than 100 %.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: There is no indication of coupling between primary and
secondary.
Plausible: These are important indications during natural circulation.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: RVLIS is unavailable during natural circulation.
Plausible: S/G pressure decreases during natural circulation and
RVLIS is one of the other plasma display indications.
D. Incorrect: RVLIS is unavailable during natural circulation.
Plausible: S/G pressure will remain close to saturation for Tcold
during natural circulation and RVLIS is one of the other plasma
display indications.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 017 K3.01 (3.5/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-EO SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_911 For Official Use Only Page 169
Question #97 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
References:
1. OP-MC-EP-EO pages 117, 123
2. ES-0.l page 15
3. ES-0. I Enclosure 2 page 31
Ques_911 For Official Use Only Page 170
Question #98 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 912 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100%. Given the following events and conditions:
- 1300 - reactor tripped due to a large break outside containment
a 1320 crew enters ECA- 1.1, (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc)
- 1340 current conditions:
- NCS pressure is 1400 psig
- 1 NI pump running, indicating 230 gpm
- 1 NV pump running, indicating 425 gpm
- Both ND pumps off
a No NS pumps running
- Subcooling is 35°F
- The crew is performing step I8b
Which of the following actions, if any, would be taken to establish the
required minimum SI flow?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: ECA-1.1 page 16 and ECA-1.1 enclosure4
A. Minimum flow is 380 gpm, stop the running NI pump.
B. Minimum flow is 410 gpm, stop the running NI pump.
C. Minimum flow is 450 gpm, neither pump may be secured at this
time.
D. Minimum flow is 500 gpm, neither pump may be secured at this
time.
-.............................................--------------------------------------....
Distracter Analysis:
Time after trip is 40 minutes, graph starts at 10 minutes, flow required is 410
gpm
A. Incorrect: required flow is 410 gpm
Plausible: candidate misses the fact that the graph starts at 10
minutes; this is the 50 minute number
B. Correct: required flow is 410 gpm, the NV pump is providing 425
gpm, and the NI pump may be stopped.
C. Incorrect: required flow is 410 gpm
Plausible: candidate uses 20 minutes to determine required flow
(time since procedure entry)
D. Incorrect: required flow is 410 gpm
Plausible: candidate uses 20 minutes to determine required flow
(time since procedure entry)
Level: SRO Only: IOCFR55.43(b)(5)
KA: G2.1.25 (2.8/3.1)
Ques_912 For Official Use Only Page 171
Question #98 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: El SEQ 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MN-EP/ECA- 1.1, step 18 and enclosure 4
2 Pump curves, 8.7 and 8.9
Ques_912 For Official Use Only Page 172
Question #99 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 913 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I was conducting a reactor start up immediately following a refueling
outage. Given the following conditions and events:
"* NC TW,,,= 5510 F
"* The reactor is critical at 2x10 ' amps in the intermediate range
"* A rod control failure results in control rods being withdrawn from 55 steps
to 75 steps in bank C before the withdrawal was stopped
"* The reactor is not tripped
"* Steam dumps are in manual due an unrelated failure
If the steam dump position is not adjusted, what is the final value of T,,, after
the reactivity transient has stabilized'?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: DatabookENCL 4.3
Table 6.3. B, Table 6.6, Table 6.10
A. T,,, will decrease to less than 550.5 OF
B. T,,, will remain essentially unchanged between 550.5 and 551.5 0 F
C. T,,, will increase to between 551.6 and 554.0 0 F
D. T... will increase to greater than 554.1 OF
Distracter Analysis: Integral Rod Worth (IRW) is defined as the total amount
of reactivity added by the rods due to their position in the core (Rod Defect).
IRW is zero (0) when rods are fully withdrawn. The addition of positive
reactivity will cause the NCS Tave to increase to offset the positive reactivity
with negative reactivity. The increase in Tave will increase steam pressure by
-50 psig - which is why the steam dumps must remain in a constant position to
avoid compensating for the change.
55 steps = 1812 PCM - Table 6.3B
65 steps = 1719PCM
APCM - + 93 PCM change in PCM from rod withdrawal
At 0 EFPD and 550 0F, PCM/ppmb - 6.96 PCM/ppm - from Table 6.10 at 0
93 PCM / 6.96 PCM/ppm = 13.3 ppm - change in reactivity
1372 ppm -13.3 ppm - 1358.7 ppm - 557 0F from Table 6.6 at 0 EFPD bumup
A. Incorrect: Temperature increase to 557 OF
Plausible: If the candidate reverses the logic and applies the
temperature defect correction in the opposite direction
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Question #99 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
B. Incorrect: Temperature increase to 557 'F
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that another mechanism will
compensate for the positive reactivity addition or does not recognize
that the reactor is above the point of adding heat.
C. Incorrect: Temperature increase to 557 'F
Plausible: If the candidate makes a mistake on the calculatiorl or uses
the wrong curve. Temperature is increasing a small amount - but not
enough due to the rod worth added.
D. Correct: Temperature increase to 557 'F
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 001 AK1.21 (2.9/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: RT-RCO SEQ 23
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-MN-RT-RCO page 51
2. OP-MN-RT-RCO page 59 (figure 7.2)
3. OP/I/A/6100/022 Endc 4.3
Table 6.38 - PROVIDED
Table 6.6 - PROVIDED
Table 6.10 - PROVIDED
4. OP-MC-IC-ENB page 49
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Question #100 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Bank Question: 914.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was conducting a power ascension to 100%. Given the following
events and conditions:
- Reactor power - 10%
S1IA S/G water level - 40% for 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />
- 1A S/G has been fed through the CA nozzles
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
operational limitation on the CF nozzles to prevent water hammer in the IA
S/G?
A. Reduce power below 1% and forward purge the CF nozzle prior
to initiating feedwater flow through the CF nozzles.
B. Prior to exceeding 15% power, initiate feedwater flow through
the CF bypass valves for one hour to warm up the gooseneck.
C. Increase 1A S/G level to greater than 45% and immediately
initiate feedwater flow the CF nozzles.
D. Prior to exceeding 25% power, initiate feedwater flow through
the CF nozzles.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: to prevent water hammer.
B. Incorrect: This will cause water hammer in the gooseneck
Plausible: 15% is the limit for feed flow through the CF bypass
valves. The one hour requirement is for the amount of time that the
S/G level must be < 45% before a forward purge and power reduction
is required.
C. Incorrect: The gooseneck has dried out and must be forward flushed
to prevent water hammer. S/G must be
Plausible: IfS/G water level had been > 45%, feedwater flow could
have been initiated as long as reactor power was < 25%.
D. Incorrect: The gooseneck has dried out and must be forward flushed
to prevent water hammer.
Plausible: These are the operating limits to prevent water hammer if
the S/G level was > 45% and the gooseneck was not dry.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 059 KI.03 (3.1/3.3)
Ques_914.1 For Official Use Only Page 175
Question #100 McGuire Nuclear Station SRO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: CF-CF Seq 11, 22
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CF pages 29, 31, 47
2. OP/I/A/6250/001 page 1
References:
1. OP-MC-CF-CF pages 29, 31,47
2. OP/I/A/6250/001 page 1
Ques_914.1 For Official Use Only Page 176