Text

2015 Monticello Nuclear Generating Plant Initial License Examination Proposed Written Examination
	ML15167A522
Person / Time
Site:	Monticello
Issue date:	06/15/2015
From:	; Division of Reactor Safety III
To:	; Northern States Power Co
References
	Download: ML15167A522 (12)
	v • d • e

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 001 The plant is in Mode 1 with ALL EQUIPMENT OPERABLE when a trip of #12 Recirc Pump occurred. Three minutes later the following plant conditions exist:

RPV level is +35 inches and stable

Recirc Loop A indicates a total jet pump flow of 26 Mlbm/hr

Recirc Loop B indicates a total jet pump flow of 5 Mlbm/hr

APRM recorders are fluctuating between 51% and 52% reactor power

C.2-06 Figures 1 & 2 (MNGP P-F Operating Maps) are provided on the following two pages Given the above information; which one of the following identifies a correct action, if any, to take for the given conditions?

a. NO power adjustment is required for current P-F conditions.

b. Control rods need to be inserted to exit the unanalyzed region.

c. Control rods need to be inserted to exit Stability Regions I AND II.

d. A manual scram needs to be inserted due to neutron flux oscillations.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE C.4-B.05.01.02.A MT-ILT-AOP-003L NEW HIGHER K/A: 295001K1.02: Knowledge of the operational applications of the following concepts as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF FORCED CORE FLOW CIRCULATION:

Power/flow distribution.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct. The examinee must determine that B jet pump flow must be subtracted from A jet pump flow. This results in a total core flow of 21 Mlbm/hr. With the current power level and the OPRMs operable, operation is allowed with no power adjustment necessary.

b. is incorrect: Plausible for miscalculation and/or misapplication of total flow on the P-F Map. Control rods would need to be inserted if the plant was left of the operating curve in the unanalyzed region.

c. is incorrect: Stability Regions I & II are not applicable in these conditions because the OPRMs are operable. If the OPRMs were inoperable then Figure 2 would be used and the plant would be in Stability Region 1.

d. is incorrect: A reactor scram would not be required unless the OPRM was inoperable or neutron flux oscillations were occurring. By definition, neutron flux oscillations are a 10% peak-peak change in power. The fluctuations given in the stem would merely be considered normal instrument noise or typical random oscillations.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 002 The plant was at rated conditions when a 13 Bus LOCKOUT occurs. Given the following:

LC-109 is de-energized

LC-101 automatically re-energized from LC-102 In accordance with abnormal procedure C.4-B.09.06.B (LOSS OF BUS 13), the BOP operator OPENS ACB-52-901 (LC-109 480V SUPPLY BKR).

With the conditions above; which of the following is correct concerning LC-109?

a. LC-109 will automatically re-energize from LC-101.

b. LC-109 will automatically re-energize from LC-102.

c. LC-109 can be manually re-energized from LC-102.

d. LC-109 cannot be re-energized under current conditions.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE C.4-B.09.06.B MT-ILT-AOP-022L BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295003K2.03: Knowledge of the interrelations between PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF AC and the following: AC electrical distribution system.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible misconception of LC power sources and auto transfer schemes.

b. is incorrect: This will only happen if LC-102 has not already cross tied to LC-101.

c. With a 13 Bus LOCKOUT, power will be lost to LC-101 and LC-109. LC-102 has crosstie breakers that can manually or automatically re-energize LC-101 and/or LC-109.

When both crosstie breakers are in auto (normally) only one breaker will crosstie. Since LC-101 is already powered from LC-102, LC-109 will not automatically re-energize when its 480V source breaker is opened. It will need to be manually cross tied to LC-102.

d. is incorrect: Plausible misconception since LC-102 is already supplying LC-101.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 003 With a complete loss of AC power to LC-107 and LC-108, the 13 DG Load Shed logic will initiate after 30 minutes.

Which of the following is a correct reason for the initiation of this Load Shed?

a. To isolate Non-1E loads from the 13 DG.

b. To isolate 480 Volt UPS Y-91 from 250 VDC Battery 17.

c. To isolate the associated pumps powered from 250 VDC Battery 17.

d. To isolate Y-94 computer distribution panels from 250 VDC Battery 17.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.09.13-05 M8107L-063 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295004K3.01: Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to PARTIAL OR TOTAL LOSS OF DC PWR: Load shedding JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Although these loads are Non-1E, 13 DG would not be supplying them as the load shed logic title might lead the examinee to believe.

b. is incorrect: Y-91 is not isolated after 30 minutes, only the computer loads that it supplies.

c. is incorrect: 17 Battery directly supplies 4 DC oil pumps, but these are not load shed.

d. With a loss of power to LC-107 and LC-108, Battery 17 will be lost after 90 minutes. To preserve power, the length of time available for operating Y-91 from the battery is as follows:

1) All connected loads for the first thirty minutes of a loss of AC power.

2) At the end of thirty minutes from the time both LC-107 and LC-108 lost power, the 13 DG Load Shed logic will trip the three feeds to the computer distribution panels.

3) The capacity of No. 17 battery is sufficient to provide power to the UPS for sixty minutes after the three feeds to the computer distribution panels have been tripped before a loss of the 17 Battery will occur.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 004 The plant is at rated conditions on 2R Transformer with 8N4 & 8N10 (345KV GCBs) OPEN for maintenance. Given the following:

If a relay malfunction results in a Main Turbine Trip and Generator LOCKOUT, what will be the status of the following components? (Assume ALL equipment responds as expected)

Bus 11 Bus 12 1AR Transformer A. ENERGIZED ENERGIZED ENERGIZED B. ENERGIZED ENERGIZED DE-ENERGIZED C. ENERGIZED DE-ENERGIZED ENERGIZED D. DE-ENERGIZED DE-ENERGIZED DE-ENERGIZED ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.09.06-01 M8107L-039 BANK HIGHER K/A: 295005A1.07: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR TRIP: A.C. electrical distribution.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Power to bus 12 will not be restored and the 1AR Transformer will remain energized.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

b. is incorrect: Power to bus 12 will not be restored and the 1AR Transformer will remain energized.

c. is correct. The turbine trip and generator lockout will result in 8N7 and 8N8 opening causing a loss of power to the 2R transformer (Normal plant supply). This results in a station power transfer to the 1R transformer. 1R will not restore power to bus 12 assuming that power to bus 11 is restored properly. 1AR will remain energized from 10 Bank.

d. is incorrect: Power to bus 12 will not be restored and the 1AR Transformer will remain energized.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 005 The plant was operating at rated conditions when a Scram occurred due to an RPS fault. RPV water level is +15 inches and being restored as shown pictorially on the next page.

Using the given conditions, where will RPV water level stabilize?

(Assume the Reactor Feed Pumps remain running)

a. 20 inches

b. 38 inches

c. 40 inches

d. 45 inches ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.05.07-02 M8107L-046 BANK HIGHER K/A: 295006A2.03: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SCRAM:

Reactor water level.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible for the normal setting of the LFRV.

b. is incorrect: Plausible for the current setting of the Master controller plus taking into account DFWLC programming which automatically lowers the setting by 3 inches. This programming is only in effect at high power.

c. The picture shows both Main Feedwater Regulating valves (MFRV) in manual and closed which is a required action IAW the scram procedure. The Low Flow Regulating valve (LFRV) is in AUTO set a 45 inches. However, when the LFRV is in AUTO the setpoint is clamped between 15-40 inches. Therefore RPV water level should eventually stabilize out at approximately 40 inches.

d. is incorrect: Plausible for the current setting of the LFRV.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 006 The plant was at rated conditions when a Cable Spreading Room fire forced the crew to enter C.4-C (SHUTDOWN OUTSIDE CONTROL ROOM). All immediate actions have been taken for IMMEDIATE Control Room evacuation and all systems responded as designed.

When the MASTER ASDS TRANSFER SWITCH on the ASDS Panel is taken to the TRANSFER position, which lights in the picture above do you expect to be ON and why?

a. All lights would remain OFF until S32 is placed in the INSERT position.

b. ONLY the green light would be LIT because the RX Mode Switch would be in RUN.

c. The amber AND red lights would be LIT because RX Mode Switch would be in SHUTDOWN.

d. The green AND amber lights would be LIT because the scram air header would be depressurized.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.05.17-02 pg. 7 M8107L-083 BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.4.34: Knowledge of RO tasks performed outside the main control room during an emergency and the resultant operational affect.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The green light is on when the MASTER switch is placed in transfer.

b. is incorrect: Since a manual scram would have been inserted, RPS will de-energize and depressurize the scram air header which will cause the amber light to come on

c. is incorrect: The red light will not come on until S32 is placed in INSERT and the Mode switch would be in RUN.

d. is correct. The examinee must recognize that with the immediate actions taken the reactor would have been manually scrammed with the mode switch left in RUN. Scramming the reactor will de-energize RPS and depressurize the scram air header which will cause the

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) amber light to come on. The green light comes on when the MASTER switch is placed in transfer indicating power available to the ARI solenoid.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 007 The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following RBCCW System status:

Given the status of the RBCCW system shown above, what would be the automatic result if RBCCW header pressure lowered due to a leak in the system?

a. At 30 psig annunciator 6-B-32 (RBCCW LOW DISCH PRESS) ONLY would alarm.

b. At 30 psig annunciators 6-B-32 (RBCCW LOW DISCH PRESS) AND 6-B-33 (RBCCW STANDBY PUMP START) would alarm.

c. At 40 psig annunciator 6-B-32 (RBCCW LOW DISCH PRESS) ONLY would alarm.

d. At 40 psig annunciators 6-B-32 (RBCCW LOW DISCH PRESS) AND 6-B-33 (RBCCW STANDBY PUMP START) would alarm.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.02.05-02 C-4-B.02.05.A ARP 6-B-32/33 BANK: 2005 NRC Exam HIGHER K/A: 295018K1.01: Knowledge of the operation implications of the following concepts as they apply to a PARTIAL OR TOTAL LOSS OF CCW: Effects on component/system operations.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct. The low pressure annunciator should alarm at 30 psig and at that pressure the standby pump would start only if it was set up for standby as indicated by the white light.

Since this light is NOT lit, the standby function will not occur.

b. is incorrect: the standby pump will not auto start in this condition.

c. is incorrect: This is the wrong pressure and the standby pump will not start. Plausible as the standby Service Water pump starts at 40 psig and the SWP handswitches are physically located just above the handswitches shown in the picture.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

d. is incorrect: This is the wrong pressure and the standby pump will not start. Plausible as the standby Service Water pump starts at 40 psig and the SWP handswitches are physically located just above the handswitches shown in the picture.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION 008 On a complete loss of Instrument Air, which of the following WILL occur?

a. SBGT valves fail OPEN.

b. CRD flow control valves fail OPEN.

c. EDG ventilation supply dampers fail CLOSED.

d. RHR pump minimum flow valves fail CLOSED.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE C.4-B.08.04.01.A BANK - 2009 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL M8107L-024 K/A: 295019K2.12: Knowledge of the interrelations between PARTIAL OR TOTAL LOSS OF INST AIR and the following: SBGT.

JUSTIFICATION:

a. is correct. All valves on SBGT fail open to permit system operation.

b. is incorrect: The CRD flow control valves fail closed.

c. is incorrect: The EDG room ventilation dampers fail open on a loss of air.

d. is incorrect: The RHR pump min flow valves will fail open.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 009 The plant is in Mode 4 when a Loss of Normal Shutdown Cooling occurs. Given the following:

Both Recirc pumps have tripped

Shutdown Cooling has been restored

RPV water level lowered to +25 inches

Operators are intentionally raising RPV water level What is the reason for intentionally raising RPV water level in these conditions?

a. To restore RPV water level to the normal band of +30-40 inches.

b. To restore RPV water level back on-scale of the Vessel Flood Up indicator.

c. To raise RPV water level above the Main Steam lines for a Torus bleed and feed.

d. To restore RPV water level above the separator turnaround area for natural circulation.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE C.4-B.03.04.A MT-ILT-AOP-007 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295021K3.01: Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING: Raising reactor water level.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This is the normal level band when operating in mode 1.

b. is incorrect: This indicator will be used but its scale is -50 to +365.

c. is incorrect: A bleed and feed would only be performed if normal shutdown cooling couldnt be restored.

d. is correct. With RPV water level <+55 and no Recirc pumps running, a loss of shutdown cooling has occurred. When normal shutdown cooling is restored, RPV water level is raised to +55-80. This ensures that level is above the separator turnaround area (+46) to promote natural circulation.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 010 The plant is in Mode 5 with #11 FPCC Pump and #11 FPCC Heat Exchanger in service when a 90 gpm leak on the T-48B (12 FPCC SKIMMER SURGE TANK) outlet pipe occurs.

Which of the following correctly completes the statement below for the given FPCC leak?

(Assume NO operator action has been taken.)

Fuel Pool water level will

a. lower slightly and stabilize after T-48A (11 FPCC SKIMMER SURGE TANK) level reaches 2 feet 6 inches.

b. lower slightly and stabilize after T-48B (12 FPCC SKIMMER SURGE TANK) level reaches 4 feet.

c. remain unchanged because T-48B (12 FPCC SKIMMER SURGE TANK) would NOT be in service.

d. remain unchanged because the Condensate Service system will automatically provide surge tank makeup.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.02.01-01 USAR-14.07 M8107L-022 BANK - 2009 NRC Exam HIGHER K/A: 295023A1.02: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to REFUELING ACCIDENT: FPC&C.

JUSTIFICATION:

a. is correct. Lowering water level is part of the analysis for a dropped rod Refueling Accident in the fuel pool. Water from the Fuel Pool overflows the weirs into the Skimmer Surge Tanks and is then pumped from the Skimmer Surge Tanks back to the pool. Since makeup to the system is manual, a leak will drain the tanks. Low Low level (26) in the tanks will trip the running FPCC pump. With no water being pumped to the pool, level will lower until it reaches the top of the weirs and then stabilize.

b. is incorrect: Water level wont change until the FPCC pumps trip at 2 6

c. is incorrect: Although the Low-Low level pump trip switches are both in the 11 surge tank, the surge tanks are cross-connected by an 8 tie line; if one has a leak, level will lower in both surge tanks. Fuel pool level will lower and stabilize.

d. is incorrect: The Condensate Service system must manually be placed in service to provide makeup. Fuel pool level will lower and stabilize.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 011 The plant is operating in Mode 2 with a startup in progress. A large leak develops in the Reactor Vessel Bottom Head and the following timeline of events occur:

TIME Reactor Level Reactor Pressure Drywell pressure 00:00:00 30 inches 900 psig 0.5 psig 00:05:00 9 inches 880 psig 0.7 psig 00:10:00 -15 inches 840 psig 1.3 psig 00:15:00 -30 inches 800 psig 1.9 psig 00:20:00 -40 inches 760 psig 2.1 psig 00:25:00 -47 inches 720 psig 2.3 psig Based on the above timeline, which of the following is correct?

a. ONLY a Partial Group 2 Isolation occurred at 00:05:00.

b. All Main Steam Isolation Valves are closed at 00:10:00.

c. Both Emergency Diesel Generators are running at 00:15:00.

d. Division 1 RHR was selected for LPCI Loop injection path at 00:25:00.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.09.08.01 NEW HIGHER M-8107L-042 K/A: 295024A2.01: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL PRESSURE: High Drywell Pressure JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: A Full Group 2 Isolation would occur at this time.

b. is incorrect: With the plant in Mode 2 the Mode Switch would be in STARTUP. Therefore the <840 psig in RUN Group 1 isolation will be bypassed.

c. is correct. The EDGs get an automatic start signal at 1.84 psig in the drywell and will be running at time 00:15:00

d. is incorrect: Plausible as LPCI loop selection takes place at -47 and 1.84 psig, and previous setpoint was 2.0 psig. Division 2 is the default loop for LPCI injection and since the leak is in the bottom head, Division 1 would NOT be selected.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 012 The plant was operating at rated conditions with the HPCI Pump Flow Test in progress.

3-A-7 (HPCI STEAM LINE HI DIFF PRESS) was received and conditions are now as follows:

All Control Rods are fully inserted

Steam chase temperature is 210° F

RPV pressure is 1045 psig and slowly rising

RPV water level is +10 inches and slowly rising Which of the following can be used to control RPV pressure under these conditions?

a. HPCI

b. RCIC

c. Main Steam Line Drains

d. Main Turbine Bypass Valves ANSWER b.

REFERENCE ARP 3-A-7 B.05.06-02 M8107L-070 NEW HIGHER K/A: 29502 5G2.2.37: Ability to determine operability and/or availability of safety related equipment.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The examinee must realize that HPCI would be isolated due to the 3-A-7 steam line differential pressure signal (1 of 2 taken once).

b. is correct. With reactor pressure high RCIC is needed for pressure control. The only system of the above choices available for pressure control with the reactor isolated from the main condenser is RCIC. Therefore RCIC operation is required.

c. is incorrect: The examinee must realize that Main Steam line drains would isolate because they are part of the Group 1 isolation (195-200°F Steam Chase Temp).

d. is incorrect: The examinee must realize that the Bypass valves will require the MSIVs to be opened. The MSIVs would isolate from the Group 1 isolation (195-200°F Steam Chase Temp).

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 013 The plant was at rated conditions when a reactor scram occurred due to an inadvertent Group I isolation. Control rods FAILED to insert and the following plant conditions now exist:

Reactor power is 10% and slowly lowering due to SBLC injection

Torus water temperature is 200°F and slowly rising

ALL available torus cooling is in service

Torus water level is +2 ft. and slowly rising

Drywell pressure is 4.5 psig and steady

EOP Figure F is on the following page Which of the following states the correct adjustment, if any, to torus cooling necessary to maintain maximum available torus cooling and stay within pump operating limits?

a. No adjustment required

b. Reduce flow in each RHR loop to 3000 gpm

c. Reduce flow in each RHR loop to 6000 gpm

d. Reduce flow in each RHR loop to 7500 gpm ANSWER c.

REFERENCE C.5-1200 Figure F C.5.1-1200 MT-ILT-EOP-002L NEW HIGHER K/A: 295026K1.01: Knowledge of the operational applications of the following concepts as they apply to SUPPRESSION POOL HIGH WATER TEMP: Pump NPSH.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This is too much flow and will jeopardize adequate NPSH, but is plausible if the examinee misinterprets Figure F or miscalculates Overpressure protection.

b. is incorrect: Distractor D is incorrect as it is under the 2 pumps curve but is the limit for 1 pump operating.

c. is correct. As torus overpressure is calculated to be approximately 7.10 psig. If possible the RHR pumps should always be operated within the NPSH limits. Exceeding these limits should take into consideration (among other things) the current trend of plant parameters.

RHR flow should be operated at the maximum flow rate possible to reduce torus temperature.

d. is incorrect: Distractor B is incorrect as it only falls within the 1 pump curve.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 014 The plant is at rated conditions with Drywell Atmospheric Cooling (DAC) in Mode 1.

If Drywell temperature in the CRD under-vessel area reaches 150°F, which of the following AUTOMATIC actions will occur?

a. DAC remains in Mode 1 (Normal Mode) and the standby fan will start.

b. DAC will align to Mode 5 (Scram Mode) with 4 fans in service

c. DAC will align to Mode 6 (Post Scram Mode) with 3 fans in service

d. DAC will align to Mode 7 (Shutdown Mode) with 4 fans in service ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.08.16-02 M8107L-044 BANK HIGHER K/A: 295028K2.04: Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE and the following: Drywell ventilation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Four fans will be running but DAC will shift to Mode 5 which will shift to a specific damper alignment.

b. is correct. The Drywell Atmosphere Cooling system is started manually and is normally in operation. The SCRAM mode of operation is initiated by four temperature switches, TS-1431, TS-1432, TS-1433, and TS-1434 located in the control rod drive area. These temperature switches are arranged in a one-out-of-two twice logic array. When the Temperature in the control rod drive area reaches 150°F, the standby fan will start and all dampers will open, except V-D-31 and V-D-33, which will close, thereby providing maximum cooling to the CRD area.

c. is incorrect: Post Scram Mode has the same damper alignment as the Scram mode, however 4 fans will be running.

d. is incorrect: Four fans will be running but DAC will shift to Mode 5 which will shift to a specific damper alignment.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 015 Complete the following statement that describes the basis for the requirement in EOP-1200 (PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL) to perform an Emergency Depressurization (Blowdown) at the prescribed Torus low water level?

Torus level below the Blowdown limit will result in

a. chugging if a primary system break were to occur and drywell sprays are initiated.

b. water hammer if a SRV were to actuate resulting in possible structural damage to the containment.

c. a loss of pressure suppression capability and primary containment structural limits may be exceeded.

d. the torus becoming pressurized if a SRV were to actuate resulting in possible structural damage to the containment.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE C.5.1-1200 MT-ILT-EOP-003L BANK - 2009 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295030K1.03: Knowledge of the operational applications of the following concepts as they apply to LOW SUPPRESSION POOL WTR LVL: Heat capacity.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This may only occur if drywell sprays are initiated below 12 psig in the drywell.

b. is incorrect: Water hammer would not occur in this situation as the downcomers would be void of water and less water in the SRV tailpipe would reduce water hammer effects.

c. is correct. Torus water level must be maintained above -3.33 ft. (rounded to -3.3 ft.) to ensure that steam discharged from the drywell into the torus following a primary system break will be adequately condensed. If a primary system break were to occur with torus water level below the elevation of the downcomers, pressure suppression capability would be unavailable and primary containment pressure could exceed structural limits.

d. is incorrect: This would not occur until torus level is below -5.9 ft.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 016 The plant was at rated conditions when a Main Turbine Trip and ATWS occurred.

Given the following:

SBLC is being injected

Reactor power is 25% and slowly lowering

RPV water level is -40 and intentionally being lowered

Lo Lo-SET SRVs are lifting and Torus temperature is 112°F and rising For the conditions above; which of the following is a valid reason for continuing to lower RPV water level?

a. To further reduce reactor power.

b. To prevent thermal-hydraulic instabilities.

c. To further reduce feedwater inlet subcooling.

d. To allow for automatic initiation of the RCIC system.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE C.5.1-2007 MT-ILT-EOP-007L NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295031K2.10: Knowledge of the interrelations between REACTOR LOW WATER LEVEL and the following: Redundant reactivity control.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct, As RPV water level decreases, the height of the fluid columns is reduced, thereby reducing the natural circulation driving head. This lowers the natural circulation flow which raises the void fraction, thereby adding negative reactivity and lowering reactor power.

b. is incorrect: Subcooling is minimized below -33, therefore, thermal-hydraulic instabilities will be prevented.

c. is incorrect: With RPV level already below -33, the feedwater spargers will be uncovered and further reduction in subcooling will not occur. .

d. is incorrect: In an ATWS situation, RCIC is allowed to automatically initiate at -47, however, this is not the reason for intentionally lowering water level.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 017 The plant scrammed from 100% rated power. The following conditions exist:

Both divisions of RPS power are unavailable.

On the C-05 Full Core Display, all the individual HCU blue scram lights are ON.

25 control rods are at position 16, all others are full in.

Annunciator 5-B-21 (DISCH VOLUME WATER LEVEL SCRAM TRIP) activated moments after the scram was inserted.

SDV Vent and Drain valves are CLOSED.

Which one of the following Parts of C.5-3101 (ALTERNATE ROD INSERTION) would be effective for the given conditions?

a. PART A (DE-ENERGIZE SCRAM LOGIC)

b. PART B (DEPRESSURIZE THE SCRAM AIR HEADER)

c. PART C (INCREASE COOLING WATER DP AND USE RMCS)

d. PART D (RESCRAM CONTROL RODS)

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE C.5-3101 BANK - 2009 NRC Exam HIGHER MT-ILT-EOP-007L K/A: 295037K3.07: Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN: Various alternate methods of control rod insertion.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: For indications given, scram logic is already de-energized.

b. is incorrect: For indications given, scram air header is already depressurized.

c. is correct: Inserting rods with RMCS will not be affected by the water in the SDV. This choice would be the most effective for the given conditions

d. is incorrect: Without RPS power, re-scramming control rods is not possible.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 018 The plant was at rated conditions when an event occurred resulting in the following SPDS indications for 75 minutes:

Using the SPDS indications and EAL Matrix below; which of the following is correct?

STACK and RB VENT Entry Into SPDS Indications C.5-1400 (RADIOACTIVITY RELEASE CONTROL)

a. VALIDATED REQUIRED

b. VALIDATED NOT REQUIRED

c. NOT VALIDATED REQUIRED

d. NOT VALIDATED NOT REQUIRED ANSWER b.

REFERENCE C.5.1-1400 PCS Users Guide M8107l-076 NEW HIGHER K/A: 295038A1.04: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as it applies to HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE: SPDS JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Vent indications are above NUE but EOP-1400 entry is not required until the ALERT level is reached.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

b. is correct: The SPDS indications show validated data (Green Checks) and a release in progress approaching an alarm setpoint (Thick Yellow Border). EOP-1400 entry is not required until these values reach the ALERT level.

c. is incorrect: ALERT level not reached. Data is validated but some displays use YELLOW for invalidated data.

d. is incorrect: Data is validated as annotated by the GREEN checks.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 019 The plant is at rated conditions with B CRV/EFT in the High Rad Mode for testing when a fire occurs in the Plant Administration Building. Given the following:

Smoke is detected in the Control Room

Immediate Control Room Evacuation is NOT necessary Which of the following action(s), if any, is correct for the above conditions?

a. Align B CRV/EFT to supply fresh air to the control room.

b. Place HS-9000A/B (EFT SYSTEM MASTER SWs) to RECIRC MODE.

c. Place RM-9021A/B (AIR INTAKE RAD MONs) in CHECK for 5 seconds.

d. No action required; High Rad Mode is the preferred mode for this condition.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.08.13-05 C.4-B.08.05.A M8107L-049 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 600000A2.06: Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: Need for pressurizing control room (Recirc Mode)

JUSTIFICATION:

a. is incorrect: Plausible distractor because the examinee may determine that due to the smoke filled environment that aligning for fresh air supply could stop the smoke intrusion.

b. is correct: If smoke intrusion into the Control Room is from a fire external to the Control Room, and immediate evacuation is not required, then the Operator should place the CRV/EFT system in Recirc Mode. By placing HS-9000B the operator will over-ride the High Radiation mode of the B train of CRV/EFT and isolate the control room envelope from the smoke.

c. is incorrect: Plausible distractor because placing RM-9021B in CHECK for 5 seconds initiates HIGH RAD mode.

d. is incorrect: Plausible distractor as the High Rad Mode and RECIRC MODE are similar in flow path.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 020 The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following Main Generator conditions:

600 MWe with 0 MVARs

The Voltage Regulator is in automatic

The Reactive Capability curve is provided on the following page If a malfunction results in the Main Generator becoming OVER-EXCITED, what will be the final steady state condition of the Main Generator? (Assume an INFINITE grid)

a. Delivered VARs OUT will rise.

b. Received VARs IN will rise.

c. OUTPUT voltage will rise.

d. REAL power out will rise.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.09.02.02 M8120L-105 BANK HIGHER K/A: 700000G2.1.25: Ability to interpret reference materials, such as graphs, curves, tables etc.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: Over-exciting a generator will tend to raise the output voltage. However, changes in generator excitation do not change the grid voltage but rather causes changes in the magnitude of reactive power flowing out of or into the machine. VARs OUT occurs in over-excited machines (also known as a lagging power factor or delivered +VARs)

b. is incorrect: This would be the case in an under-excited machine.

c. is incorrect: With the generator connected to the grid, output voltage will be controlled by grid voltage.

d. is incorrect: Real power will not change as this is controlled by the grid and frequency of the machine. Reactive power will go up.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

REACTIVE CAPABILITY VS MEGAWATT LOAD - TURBINE GENERATOR

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 021 The plant is stable in Mode 1 with a startup in progress and the Main Turbine offline.

Which of the following malfunctions will cause a REDUCTION in Jet Pump NPSH?

a. Loss of air to a Main Feedwater Regulating Valve.

b. Loss of power to a Main Feedwater Regulating Valve.

c. Loss of air to the Low Flow Feedwater Regulating Valve.

d. Loss of control signal to the Low Flow Feedwater Regulating Valve.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.05-07-01 M8107L-068 NEW HIGHER K/A: 295009K1.03: Knowledge of the operational applications of the following concepts as they apply to LOW REACTOR WATER LEVEL: Jet pump NPSH.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: this will cause the MFRVs to lock and potentially drift. This may cause a reduction in Jet Pump NPSH; however, the MFRVs are not placed in service during a startup until approximately 17% power or 100 MWe on the Main Turbine Generator which is not online yet.

b. is incorrect: this cause the MFRVs to lock and potentially drift. This may cause a reduction in Jet Pump NPSH; however, the MFRVs are not placed in service during a startup until approximately 17% power or 100 MWe on the Main Turbine Generator which is not online yet.

c. is incorrect: Loss of air to the LFRV will cause it to fail open, raising RPV water level and increasing Jet Pump NPSH.

d. is correct. The examinee must determine that a reduction in Jet Pump NPSH will be caused by lowering RPV water level. Based on the indications, the Low Flow Feedwater Regulating Valve will only be in-service. A loss of signal the LFRV will cause it to fail closed resulting in lowering RPV water level and a reduction in Jet Pump NPSH.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 022 The plant was operating at rated conditions when a DBA LOCA occurred causing a rapid rise in Torus water temperature.

For the conditions above, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of time allowed for the operator to place containment cooling in service?

a. 10 minutes.

b. 16 minutes.

c. 30 minutes.

d. 41 minutes.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE OWI-03.07 M8108L-038 BANK - 2010 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295013K2.01: Knowledge of the interrelations between HIGH SUPPRESSION POOL TEMP and the following: Suppression pool cooling.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct. Time critical operator action from the OWI: Establish containment cooling by providing RHRSW flow through the heat exchanger in either LPCI or containment cooling mode during a design basis accident LOCA.

b. is incorrect: Plausible action time for performing an ED from the ASDS panel when RPV water level reaches TAF.

c. is incorrect: Plausible action time for opening control room panel doors during a station blackout.

d. is incorrect: Plausible action time for establishing containment cooling from ASDS during an Appendix R fire event.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 023 The plant is operating at rated conditions. Given the following:

4-A-12 (OFF GAS HI RADIATION) has been in alarm for 5 minutes

Main Steam Line Radiation Monitors indicate above normal radiation levels Which one of the following actions must be taken for the above conditions?

a. Reduce Reactor power

b. Initiate the SBGT system

c. Restart a Recombiner train

d. Bypass the Off-gas Storage system ANSWER a.

REFERENCE ARP 4-A-12 M8107L-009 BANK - 2005 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295017K3.04: Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE: Power reduction.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct. If the high radiation condition is confirmed (as noted by the MSL radiation monitors trending up), then reduce reactor power per C.4.F. This action is taken to minimize the off-site release.

b. is incorrect: Plausible to think SBGT would filter the release but it doesnt with the release in the steam lines.

c. is incorrect: Plausible action to take but the train trip doesnt occur until 30 minutes have elapsed with a high radiation condition.

d. is incorrect: Plausible action as this would be done if off-gas was receiving high hydrogen concentrations but not for high radiation. Also plausible action to take if the Recombiners trip, but that doesnt occur for 30 minutes.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 024 The plant was operating at rated conditions when an inadvertent containment isolation occurred resulting in following indications:

Which of the following Group Isolations will cause the above indications?

a. Group 1 ONLY

b. Group 1 and 2

c. Group 1 and 3

d. Group 2 and 3 ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.05.06.01 M8107L-070 NEW HIGHER K/A: 295020A1.01: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to INADVERTENT CONT ISOLATION: PCIS JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: As described in justification (c.), this was the original design.

b. is incorrect: Group 2 isolation logic is plausible because the 1.84 DW pressure isolation signal is shared with the Group 3 logic.

c. is correct. The original MNGP design included the Recirc Sample isolation valves in the Group 1 MSIV isolation logic. However, since these lines pass through the RWCU room they were also included in the Group 3 isolation logic.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

d. is incorrect: Group 2 isolation logic is plausible because the 1.84 DW pressure isolation signal is shared with the Group 3 logic.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 025 The plant is at rated conditions with 11 CRD Pump in service when the following indications are received:

Which of the following is the NEXT action that must be taken by the OATC?

a. Shift to the STBY CRD flow control valve.

b. Attempt to re-start 11 CRD pump.

c. Attempt to start 12 CRD pump.

d. Insert a manual reactor scram.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE C.4-B.01.03.A

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

MT-ILT-AOP-002L BANK HIGHER K/A: 295022A1.01: Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to LOSS OF CRD PUMP: CRD Hydraulic System.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: A flow control valve failing closed will cause the given indications for drive water flow and cooling water flow, however, the other indications do not match.

b. is incorrect: This could be a correct action if the overload alarm was not in.

c. is correct. The indications show that 11 CRD pump has tripped on overload. Immediate operator actions are to verify a CRD pump is running. There are no indications that this has been done. Therefore, the OATC should start the 12 CRD pump to re-establish CRD flow.

d. is incorrect: This would be a correct action upon a complete loss of CRD but starting 12 CRD pump would be attempted first.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 026 The plant is at rated conditions when a system break results in a temperature of 120°F in the area of Reactor Vessel Level and Pressure Racks (C-55 & C-56).

Complete the following statement that describes the reason for isolating the affected system in this specific area when 120°F is reached?

(EOP Detail W is provided on the following page)

The affected system is isolated

a. because this temperature is a definite indication that a primary system break has occurred.

b. to ensure personnel can enter and perform actions necessary to facilitate a safe shutdown of the plant.

c. because this temperature exceeds the environmental qualification of accident mitigation equipment in that area.

d. to prevent a non-conservative reactor level indication at 130°F because of instrument sensitivity to temperature changes.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE C.5-1-1300 MT-ILT-EOP-004L BANK - 2009 NRC Exam HIGHER K/A: 295032A2.01: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH SECONDARY CONTAINMENT AREA TEMPERATURE: Area temperature.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Temperatures greater than max normal are indications of a fire or high energy line break, but does not assure the break is a primary system discharging into secondary containment.

b. is correct. Leaks are isolated as soon as they are detected to assure secondary containment habitability and equipment needed for safe shutdown remain available. Candidates must recognize the different requirements for the East elevation. Operation of equipment may be required in this area and the Max Normal and Max Safe values are based on personnel entry.

c. is incorrect: Temperatures greater than Max Safe (130°F) exceed the environmental qualification of accident mitigation equipment in this area not 120°F.

d. is incorrect: Temperatures greater than 200°F at reactor bldg. elev. 962 East result in inaccurate level indications.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 27.

The plant was at rated conditions when a Reactor scram was inserted due to a high radiation condition in the Reactor Building. Given the following:

Annunciators that are IN alarm:

3-B-55 (REACTOR BLDG EXH PLENUM HI RAD)

259-A-6 (RBV EFFLUENT HIGH RADIATION)

Annunciators that are NOT IN alarm:

3-A-49 (SBGT ANNUNCIATOR)

5-A-1/2 (REAC BLDG VENT & FP RAD CH A/B - HI/LO)

259-A-2 (RBV EFFLUENT HI-HI RADIATION)

Based ONLY on the alarm conditions above; which is a correct action to take, and why?

a. Restart Secondary Containment ventilation because both SBGT trains failed to start.

b. Depress both SBGT TEST pushbuttons on C-24A/B because both SBGT trains failed to start.

c. Restart Secondary Containment ventilation to ensure a negative pressure exists in the Reactor Building.

d. Depress both SBGT TEST pushbuttons on C-24A/B to ensure a filtered release from the Reactor Building.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE ARP 259-A-6 MT-ILT-AOP-005L NEW HIGHER K/A: 295033G2.4.45: Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This action would not be taken because of high radiation in the RB.

Additionally the SBGT auto initiation setpoint has not been reached yet as3-A-49 and 5-A-1/2 are not in alarm.

b. is incorrect: The SBGT auto initiation setpoint has not been reached yet as3-A-49 and 5-A-1/2 are not in alarm.

c. is incorrect: This action would not be taken because of high radiation in the RB.

Additionally, the negative pressure should be established with SBGT.

d. is correct. If a leak is within the Reactor Building and a radioactive release approaches the RBV WRGM Hi-Hi alarm setpoint, then Manually Isolate SCTMT. This procedure isolates SCTMT and auto starts SBGT by pushing the two Test pushbuttons on C-24A/B.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 28.

The plant was at rated power when an event occurred resulting in the following conditions:

RPV pressure is 450 psig

RCIC remains in standby

HPCI automatically started

11 Recirc system riser pressure sensed by LPCI is 150 psig

12 Recirc system riser pressure sensed by LPCI is 450 psig Which of the following is correct concerning RHR System valve response to the above conditions AND why?

a. ALL RHR System valves will remain in their standby lineup because a LPCI initiation signal is NOT present.

b. MO-2003 (RHR DIV 2 HX BYPASS) received an automatic CLOSE signal to allow full LPCI flow through the heat exchanger.

c. MO-4085A/B (RHR INTERTIE VALVES) received automatic CLOSE signals to prevent LPCI injection flow to a potentially broken loop.

d. MO-4086 (RHR SUCTION EQUALIZING VALVE) received an automatic CLOSE signal to prevent a loss of LPCI injection flow to a potentially broken loop.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.03.04-02 M8107L-023 BANK HIGHER K/A: 203000A3.04: Ability to monitor automatic operations of RHR/LPCI: INJECTION MODE including: System flow.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Even though RPV pressure is >420 psig, outboard valves will reposition for B RHR loop being selected.

b. is incorrect: MO-2003 (B RHR) receives an automatic OPEN signal from the LPCI Initiation Logic to allow full bypass of LPCI flow around the heat exchanger and maximize core cooling.

c. is correct. Examinee must determine a LPCI initiation has occurred from HPCI automatically initiating. These valves receive an automatic close signal to prevent a loss of LPCI flow from the selected loop to a potentially broken loop.

d. is incorrect: MO-4086 is a RHR to Recirc Intertie line; however this valve does not receive a closed signal. MO-4085A and B, which are on the intertie lines, receive close signals from the LPCI Loop Select logic to prevent inadvertent loss or bypass of RHR LPCI flow.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 029 The plant was operating at rated conditions when a transient occurred resulting in a reactor scram. Actions are being taken to place the plant in Cold Shutdown. Given the following:

A RHR is in Shutdown Cooling

RPV pressure is 70 psig and slowly lowering A LOCKOUT on Bus 15 occurs and 30 minutes later decay heat has caused RPV pressure to rise to 80 psig.

With the conditions above, which one of the following is currently available AND can be used to continue the plant cooldown?

a. RCIC.

b. HPCI.

c. B Shutdown Cooling.

d. Main Turbine Bypass Valves.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.03.04-02 MT-ILT-AOP-007L BANK - 2009 NRC Exam HIGHER K/A: 205000A4.10: Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: System Pressures.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct. The candidate must recognize the loss of A Shutdown Cooling due to the bus 15 Lockout and since RPV pressure is now above 75 psig (Shutdown Cooling Interlock) restoring A or B Shutdown Cooling is not possible. IAW EOP Supplemental procedure C.5-3302 (Alternate Pressure Control) RCIC may be used for alternate pressure control as directed by the CRS in the Pressure Leg of EOP-1100. With the loss of Bus 15 the Div 1 250 VDC battery charger is lost but the battery is still available to operate RCIC.

b. is incorrect: With RPV pressure below 100 psig HPCI would be isolated and not available.

c. is incorrect: Since RPV pressure is now above 75 psig (Shutdown Cooling Interlock) restoring A or B Shutdown Cooling is not possible.

d. is incorrect: With the Bus 15 LOCKOUT, TBVS would be unavailable due to a loss of the Aux Oil Pump.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 030 The plant was operating at rated conditions when a LOCA and Group I isolation occurred. The reactor is shutdown and HPCI is in Pressure Control with the following conditions:

RPV Pressure is 904 psig and steady

DW pressure is 0.8 psig and rising at 0.1 psig/min

RPV Level is -22 inches and lowering at 1 inch/min

Torus water level is 1.4 inches and rising at 0.1 inches/min What action, if any, should be taken FIRST to maintain HPCI in Pressure Control Mode?

a. Defeat the HPCI Low-Low water level initiation signal.

b. Bypass the HPCI High Drywell Pressure initiation signal.

c. Bypass the HPCI High Torus level suction transfer signal.

d. No action required; the above conditions will NOT impact HPCI pressure control mode.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE C.5-3202 MT-ILT-EOP-002L BANK HIGHER K/A: 206000G2.4.9: Knowledge of low power/shutdown implications in accident mitigation strategies.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: At the current rate of drop, RPV level would reach -47 in approximately 25 minutes. At this rate, the Torus water level would reach +2 much sooner than RPV water level would reach -47.

b. is incorrect: At the current rate of rise, Drywell pressure will reach 1.84# in approximately 10 minutes. At this rate, the Torus water level would reach +2 much sooner than Drywell pressure would reach 1.84#.

c. is correct. C.5-1100 Pressure Control directs C.5-3302 (Alternate Pressure Control) which allows the operator to bypass the HPCI high Torus level suction transfer PRIOR to reaching

+2 inches in the Torus. The current Torus water level trend will remove the pressure control mode in 6 minutes. The performance of this will defeat the auto suction transfer, thereby, allowing HPCI to remain in pressure control mode.

d. is incorrect: With the current parameter trends in place action must be taken.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 031 Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the Condensate Storage Tanks (CSTs) in relation to the Core Spray (CS) System?

a. CSTs can provide emergency makeup to the Torus via the CS System.

b. CSTs provide a source of water to keep the CS System pressurized.

c. CSTs can be used for testing CS injection into the RPV.

d. CSTs are the normal suction source for the CS pumps.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.03.01-01 M8107L-005 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 209001K1.01: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the LPCS SYSTEM and the following: Condensate storage tank.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: C.5-3401 uses the CS suction line to gravity drain CST water to the Torus for emergency makeup.

b. is incorrect: CSTs are used as a suction source for the Condensate Service System which provides a keep fill for the CS System.

c. is incorrect: Procedure 0255-03-IA-2A allows the CSTs to be used for CS testing where water is actually injected into the RPV.

d. is correct: CSTs can be used as a backup suction source for the CS System. This is done by opening a manual valve. The normal suction source, however, is the Torus.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 032 The plant was at rated conditions when an ATWS occurred. The OATC is unaware that the piping at Point A (Picture on the following page) is completely obstructed. The following actions are taken by the OATC:

The SBLC control switch on C-05 is taken to the SYS 1 position, then through OFF to the SYS 2 position, then back through OFF to the SYS 1 position.

Based on conditions above, complete the following statement describing the #11 SBLC Pumps ability to inject to the RPV? (Assume no other malfunctions have occurred.)

The #11 SBLC Pump...

a. DID NOT inject to the RPV when the control switch was placed in SYS 1 the first time, but DID inject to the RPV when the control switch was placed in SYS 1 the second time.

b. DID inject to the RPV when the control switch was placed in SYS 1 the first time, but DID NOT inject to the RPV when the control switch was placed in SYS 1 second time.

c. DID inject to the RPV when the control switch was placed in SYS 1 both times.

d. NEVER injected to the RPV.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.03.05-02 NH-36253 M8107L-004 NEW HIGHER K/A: 211000K3.01: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SBLC System will have on the following: Ability to shutdown the reactor in certain conditions.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct. The picture on the following page points to the immediate discharge piping of the

11 Squib Valve. The SBLC injection piping is separated at the squib valves so this blockage will prevent injection through the #11 Squib Valve. #11 SBLC Pump did not inject the first time the switch was taken to SYS 1 since the "A" squib valve line is obstructed.

When the control switch is taken to SYS 2 the "B" squib valve will fire. Since the #11 SBLC pump can discharge through the "B" squib valve, the #11 SBLC pump will inject the second time the control switch is taken to SYS 1.

b. is incorrect: Plausible misunderstanding of how the system is constructed and operates.

c. is incorrect: Plausible misunderstanding of how the system is constructed and operates.

d. is incorrect: Plausible misunderstanding of how the system is constructed and operates.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 033 The plant is at rated conditions with the SBLC system in its normal standby lineup.

Complete the following statement that describes the impact if the LOCAL pump handswitch was inadvertently positioned to START?

The associated SBLC pump would

a. NOT start.

b. start and inject into the RPV.

c. start and the relief valve would lift.

d. start and recirculate through the test tank.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.03.05-02 M8107L-004 BANK - 2005 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 211000K4.10: Knowledge of SLC design features and or interlocks which provide for the following: Overpressure protection.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The pumps would start.

b. is incorrect: The explosive valves would not fire.

c. is correct. The pumps can be started from a local hand switch. Local initiation does not fire the explosive valves therefore, the system relief valve will lift at 1500 psig.

d. is incorrect: This tank is valved out when the system is in a normal standby lineup.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 034 Which of the following is correct concerning the RPS Power Supplies?

a. The ALTERNATE source can only supply RPS A.

b. The ALTERNATE source can only supply RPS B.

c. The ALTERNATE source can only supply RPS A or RPS B.

d. The ALTERNATE source can supply RPS A and RPS B simultaneously.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.9.12-01 B.9.12-02 B.9.12-06 M8107L-043 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 212000K4.04: Knowledge of RPS design features and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Prevention of supplying both RPS buses simultaneously from the alternate power source.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible because the RPS A MG set is normally also supplied from MCC-111.

b. is incorrect: Plausible because the examinee may believe that MCC-111 can only supply RPS B which is normally supplied from MCC-141.

c. is correct. The Alternate source for RPS is feed from Y-60 which is powered from MCC-111.

This source is capable of supplying either RPS A or RPS B separately. A mechanical interlock exists to prevent supplying both RPS busses simultaneously and/or paralleling the alternate source with the RPS MG sets.

d. is incorrect: Plausible because the alternate source can supply both, just not at the same time.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 035 A plant shutdown is in progress with Main Turbine 1st stage pressure at 90 psig.

Given the following:

5-B-37 (TURBINE PRESS GEN REJECTION BYPASS) is IN alarm

Relays 5A-K9B, 5A-K9C and 5A-K9D are DE-ENERGIZED

Relay 5A-K9A is ENERGIZED Given NX-7834-67-9 & 10; how will RPS be affected if the Main Turbine is tripped?

a. NO RPS actuation will occur.

b. RPS A half scram ONLY

c. RPS B half scram ONLY

d. A Full Scram will occur.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.05.06-02 NX-7834-67-9 & 10 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: NX-7834-67-9 & 10 M8107L-072 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 212000K5.02: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the RPS System: Specific logic arrangements.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible for mis-interpreting the logic and thinking the relays are supposed to de-energize.

b. is incorrect: Plausible for mis-understanding one out of two taken twice logic and whether or not the relays are supposed to energize or de-energize below 30%.

c. is incorrect: Plausible for mis-understanding one out of two taken twice logic and whether or not the relays are supposed to energize or de-energize below 30%.

d. is correct. Alarm 5-B-37 is designed to alarm at 95 psig (Setpoint change for EPU). This bypasses the RPS trip associated with a turbine trip signal. The alarm is actuated if ANY turbine first stage pressure switch reaches the pressure equivalent of < 25% power. These pressure switches then energize relays 5A-K9A-D bypassing the scram. In the above situation 5A-K9B-D should be energized. Because they are not, a full scram will still occur.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 036 The plant is nearing the end of a refueling outage. The IRM13 detector drive was replaced and PMT requires the detector to be fully withdrawn and then fully inserted. Given the following conditions:

The Reactor Mode Switch is in SHUTDOWN

All IRMs are on Range 1 and reading 1 on 125 scale

The SRM/IRM Drive Panel status is shown on the next page.

With the given conditions AND the SRM/IRM Drive Panel status, predict the outcome if you were to DEPRESS and HOLD the DRIVE OUT pushbutton on the SRM/IRM Drive Control Panel.

IRM 13 would....

a. drive out until the detector is fully withdrawn.

b. NOT drive out because the Drive In pushbutton is latched.

c. NOT drive out because Reactor Mode Switch is in SHUTDOWN.

d. NOT drive out because the IRM Downscale Rod Block is activated.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.05.01.01-05 M8107L-064 BANK - 2009 NRC Exam HIGHER K/A: 215003K5.01: Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to IRMs: Detector operation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The picture shows the drive in light on which means outward detector motion is NOT allowed until the drive in pushbutton is depressed again.

b. is correct The SRM-IRM Detector Drive Control Pushbuttons, 7C-S2 (Drive-In) and 7C-S3 (Drive-Out), have interlocking contacts which prevent a simultaneous Drive-In and Drive-Out signal. Since 7C-S2 is latching (doesnt need to be held in), it must be momentarily depressed again after completion of the Drive-In motion to allow 7C-S3 to function. This has NOT been depressed since the light is on. If the DRIVE OUT pushbutton was depressed, nothing would happen. Additionally, the Drive Out pushbutton must be held depressed for continued detector motion.

c. is incorrect: The Mode switch position is commonly related to rod blocks and therefore detector withdrawal interlocks. Its a plausible misconception that Mode switch position could prevent detector withdrawal.

d. is incorrect: The Mode switch position is commonly related to rod blocks and therefore detector withdrawal interlocks. Its a plausible misconception that rod blocks could prevent detector withdrawal.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 037 A reactor startup is in progress with the following conditions:

The Mode Switch is in RUN

All APRMs are reading ~15%

All IRMs are reading ~123 on the 0-125 scale With the given conditions; how will RPS respond, if at all, to a downscale failure of APRM 3?

a. NO RPS actuations will occur

b. A FULL scram will occur from IRM HI-HI signals.

c. A FULL scram will occur from an APRM 3 Setdown signal.

d. An RPS A half scram will occur from an APRM 3 INOP signal ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.05.06-02 M8107L-072 NEW HIGHER K/A: 215003K6.06: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the IRM system: APRM.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct. With the mode switch in RUN all scram signals from the IRMs are bypassed. Even though the IRMs are above their scram setpoint (>120), an RPS actuation will not occur.

b. is incorrect: Even though the IRMs are above their scram setpoint (>120), these signals are bypassed in RUN.

c. is incorrect: Plausible nomenclature for a downscale RPS trip but this signal is a 14%

APRM trip signal when the mode switch is in STARTUP.

d. is incorrect: Plausible but only an INOP UPSCALE trip will cause an RPS trip signal.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 038 The plant is at rated conditions when a complete loss of 24 VDC Battery 15 occurs.

Based on the condition above, will the following components be ENERGIZED or DE-ENERGIZED?

1) SRM 22 Detector Trip Units

2) SRM 22 Detector Drive Motor

a. 1) ENERGIZED

2) ENERGIZED

b. 1) ENERGIZED

2) DE-ENERGIZED

c. 1) DE-ENERGIZED

2) ENERGIZED

d. 1) DE-ENERGIZED

2) DE-ENERGIZED ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.05.01.01-05 M8107L-054 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 215004K6.02: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the SOURCE RANGE MONITOR System: 24/48 volt D.C power.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible combinations of SRM component power supplies.

b. is incorrect: Plausible combinations of SRM component power supplies.

c. is correct: Power to the SRM components are as follows:

SRMs 21 & 22 Detectors and Trip Units - Battery 15 via D-15 SRMs 23 & 24 Detectors and Trip Units - Battery 14 via D-25 SRM & IRM Detector Drive control - L-38

d. is incorrect: Plausible combinations of SRM component power supplies.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 039 A reactor startup is in progress prior to the Point Of Adding Heat (POAH) with IRMs downscale on Range 1. Control rod 22-39 is withdrawn to notch 18, the pictured conditions are observed.

In addition to 5-A-20 (SRM PERIOD); which of the following SRM alarms, if any, will be IN?

a. 5-A-3 (ROD WITHDRAW BLOCK)

b. 5-A-12 (SRM HI/INOP)

c. 5-A-28 (SRM RETRACT NOT PERMITTED)

d. 5-A-3, 5-A-12 and 5-A-28 will NOT be in alarm ANSWER d.

REFERENCE ARP 5-A-20 M8107L-054 NEW HIGHER K/A: 215004A1.06: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the SOURCE RANGE MONITOR System controls including: Lights and alarms.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible to think that a short period will cause a rod block but it does not.

b. is incorrect: The SRM level that causes this alarm is 1 E5 and this level has not yet been reached.

c. is incorrect: SRM detector retraction is allowed when SRM counts are >100. Additionally the lights that are on above the SRM count meters are Retract Permit lights.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

d. is correct: The SRM Period alarm is received when one SRM period is shorter than 12 seconds. This is a light indication and alarm only.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 040 The plant is in Mode 1 with SPDS displaying 1700 MWt on the C-05 Right Monitor. Given the following:

APRM 3 is bypassed for maintenance

During the maintenance, an LPRM assigned to APRM 3 fails fully UPSCALE How will this failure effect CORE THERMAL POWER (CTP) indication on SPDS, if at all, and why?

a. NO effect because APRM 3 is currently BYPASSED.

b. NO effect because this is a calculated power that does NOT USE LPRM inputs.

c. SPDS will indicate HIGHER than 1700 MWt because of the upscale LPRM reading.

d. SPDS will indicate LOWER than 1700 MWt because the failed LPRM input is automatically removed.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE C.2-01 M-8113L-002 BANK - 2010 NRC Exam HIGHER K/A: 215005A1.01: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the APRM/LPRM System controls including: Reactor power indication.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible indications and reasons for the conditions provided. It is a common misconception that LPRM/APRM inputs are used for the CTP calculation because these inputs are sensed by the process computer.

b. is correct: The reactor heat balance calculation performed by the process computer and this information is displayed on SPDS and sent to the performance monitoring system (GARDEL) for thermal limit monitoring. However, the process computer does not use inputs from the LPRMs to perform this calculation.

c. is incorrect: Plausible indications and reasons for the conditions provided. It is a common misconception that LPRM/APRM inputs are used for the CTP calculation because these inputs are sensed by the process computer.

d. is incorrect: Plausible indications and reasons for the conditions provided. It is a common misconception that LPRM/APRM inputs are used for the CTP calculation because these inputs are sensed by the process computer.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 041 The plant is at 60% reactor power due to a Recirc pump trip. Given the following:

SINGLE LOOP operations have been established

APRM 2/4 ODA indicates Total Recirc flow is 36%

Which one of the following reactor power levels would FIRST require entry into C.4-A (REACTOR SCRAM) if reactor power were to rise?

a. 70%

b. 76%

c. 86%

d. 88%

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE ARP 5-A-22 B.05.06-02 M8107L-066 NEW HIGHER K/A: 215005A2.04: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the APRM/LPRM System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operations: Scram trip signals.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is Incorrect: This number represents the STP APRH HI Alarm/Rod Block setpoint using the equation 0.55W + 49.6%. Calculates to 69.4%.

b. is correct: The examinee must determine that the APRM STP scram trip has changed due to being set for single loop. Then determine which power level will first cause a reactor scram and require entry into C.4-A. With one recirc pump running the single loop equation must be used to determine the STP Flow Biased Scram Setpoint. This equation is 0.55W +

55.6 (New for EPU). W is equal to percent total recirc flow which in this case is 36%. This calculates to 75.4%.

c. is Incorrect: This number represents the old flow biased scram setpoint prior to the PRNM installation. The equation is 0.66(W-5.4) +65.1. Calculates to 85.3%.

d. is Incorrect: This number represents the two loop scram setpoint 0.61W + 65.2%.

Calculates to 87.2%.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 042 The plant was at rated conditions when a transient occurs resulting in the following:

Reactor water level lowered to -50 inches.

Reactor water level was raised to +50 inches with RCIC.

Reactor water level is now +25 inches and lowering slowly.

Which of the following actions must be performed for a manual re-start of RCIC?

a. Open MO-2076 (RCIC STEAM LINE OTBD) from C-04.

b. Open MO-2078 (RCIC TURB STEAM SUPPLY) from C-04.

c. Open MO-2080 (TURBINE TRIP THROTTLE VALVE) from C-04.

d. Manually reset MO-2080 (TURBINE TRIP THROTTLE VALVE) locally.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.02.03-01 C.6-004-A-9 M-8107L-003 NEW HIGHER K/A: 217000A2.12: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM (RCIC); and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Valve openings JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: MO-2076 is a normally open containment isolation valve and will close on a Group V isolation signal.

b. is correct: RCIC initiates on low-low reactor water level of -47 and trips on high water level of +48. The high water level trip will close the steam admission valve, MO-2078, to trip the turbine. This permits automatic restart of the turbine on low water level following a turbine trip from a high water level signal.

c. is incorrect: The RCIC Turbine is automatically shutdown on high reactor water level.

However, high reactor water level is the only turbine trip that does not trip the Trip Throttle Valve (MO-2080).

d. is incorrect: The RCIC Turbine is automatically shutdown on high reactor water level.

However, high reactor water level is the only turbine trip that does not trip the Trip Throttle Valve (MO-2080). The only time a manual reset of MO-2080 is required is after an overspeed trip of the RCIC turbine.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 043 The plant was at rated conditions when a significant LOCA occurred. Given the following:

ADS has automatically initiated

An RPV depressurization is in progress.

ALL RHR and Core Spray pumps are running Complete the following statement that describes the effect on the ADS System if ALL RHR and Core Spray pumps TRIP. (Assume RPV water level remains constant at -80 inches.)

Automatic Depressurization of the Reactor...

a. continues without Core Spray or RHR pumps running due to the seal-in logic.

b. will cease and re-initiate immediately after a Core Spray or RHR pump is restarted.

c. will cease and re-initiate 107 seconds after a Core Spray or RHR pump is restarted.

d. will cease; both inhibit switches must be taken to INHIBIT and back to AUTO to re-establish depressurization.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.03.03-01 M8107L-025 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 218000A3.01: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the ADS System including: ADS valve operation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible mis-interpretations of how the ADS Logic operates.

b. is incorrect: Plausible mis-interpretations of how the ADS Logic operates.

c. is correct: If the RHR and CS pumps trip, relays K10A and K12A are de-energized, which open up the K10A and K12A contacts to de-energize the 107 second timer, closing the valves. If the pumps are restarted, contacts K10A and K12A close to start the107 second timer again.

d. is incorrect: Plausible mis-interpretations of how the ADS Logic operates.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 044 The plant was at rated conditions when a loss of Reactor Feedwater Pumps occurred.

Given the following:

Reactor pressure is 900 psig.

RPV water level lowered to -49 and is rising as expected

The CRS has directed you to verify System initiations and Group isolations Which of the following valves did NOT operate as expected for the given plant conditions?

a. MO-2013 (RHR DIV 2 LPCI INJ OTBD) is OPEN.

b. MO-1751 (11 CS INJECTION OUTBOARD) is OPEN.

c. MO-2107 (RCIC PUMP DISCHARGE INBOARD) is OPEN.

d. MO-2374 (MAIN STEAM LINE DRAIN OUTBOARD) is OPEN.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.05.06-02 M8107L-070 NEW HIGHER K/A: 223002A4.01: Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Valve closures.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: M0-2013 is normally open, remains open because LPCI Loop Select chose "B" Loop to inject into.

b. is incorrect: MO-1751 is normally open and wouldnt close under current plant conditions.

c. is incorrect: With RPV water level rising with RCIC, MO-2107 should be open for injection.

d. is correct: MO-2374 should have closed on the Group I isolation signal of Low Low RPV Water Level (-47).

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 045 The SRVs are designed to prevent exceeding the Reactor Coolant System Safety Limit.

Which of the following represents the most limiting maximum transient design pressure for this Safety Limit?

a. 110% of the RPV design pressure.

b. 120% of the RPV design pressure.

c. 120% of the design pressure for piping communicating with RPV steam space.

d. 120% of the design pressure for piping communicating with RPV vessel bottom.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE TS 2.1.2 Bases MT-OPS-ITS-003L BANK - 2009 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 23900G2.2.25: Knowledge of the bases on technical specifications for limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This is 110% of the RPV design pressure of 1250 psig which is 1375 psig.

b. is incorrect: This is 120% of the RPV design pressure of 1250 psig which is 1500 psig.

c. is correct: The maximum transient pressure allowable in the RCS pressure vessel under the ASME Code,Section III, is 110% of design pressure. The maximum transient pressure allowable in the RCS piping, valves, and fittings is 120% of design pressures of 1110 psig for piping communicating with the vessel steam space and 1136 psig for piping communicating with the bottom of the vessel. The most limiting of these allowances is the 120% of the piping communicating with the vessel steam space design pressure; therefore, the SL on maximum allowable RCS pressure is established at 1332 psig as measured at the reactor steam dome.

d. is incorrect: This is 120% of the design pressure for piping communicating with bottom of the RPV vessel 1136 psig which is 1363 psig.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 046 The plant is at rated conditions with RPV water level stable at +35 inches. The Digital Feedwater Level Control System (DFCS) is in AUTO with 3-element control.

If the C Main Steam Line Flow input to DFCS instantaneously fails FULLY DOWNSCALE; complete the following statement that describes the expected response of the DFCS System?

DFCS

a. shifts to MANUAL control due to a loss of the Main Steam Flow Instrument.

b. RAISES the master controller output due to a Steam Flow to Feed Flow mismatch.

c. LOWERS the master controller output due to a Steam Flow to Feed Flow mismatch.

d. shifts to SINGLE-ELEMENT control due to a loss of the Main Steam Flow Instrument.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.05.07-02 M8107L-046 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 259002K1.02: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between the REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL System and the following: Main steam flow.

JUSTIFICATION:

a. is incorrect: Plausible auto action for the level controller with an out-of-range input, but this will not occur under these conditions.

b. is incorrect: plausible misconceptions of proper system operation with a feed flow mismatch, but output will remain the same in single element with plant conditions stable.

c. is incorrect: Plausible misconceptions of proper system operation with a feed flow mismatch, but output will remain the same in single element with plant conditions stable.

d. is correct: The level control system monitors the quality of these signals and will automatically switch to single element control (where these signals are not required) if a failure is detected. A failure is assumed to exist if a signal is out of range high or low, if there is disagreement between the two feedwater flow signals, or if there is a disagreement among the four steam flow signals.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 047 What is the purpose of the cross-tie line located just upstream of V-EF-17A/B (STANDBY GAS SYSTEM EXHAUST FANS) in the SBGT System?

a. To allow for cooling of both filter adsorber units with the use of only one fan.

b. To allow either SBGT fan to use either filter adsorber unit when SBGT is operating.

c. To allow flow through the standby SBGT train to provide cooling to the SBGT room.

d. To restrict flow through the standby SBGT train minimizing the amount of air suction from the SBGT room.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.04.02-01 NH-36881 M8107L-008 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 261000G2.1.27: Knowledge of system purpose and/or function.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: A 14 inch Mission duo-check valve is located upstream of each filter train but downstream of the upstream isolation valve. The inlet of the 14 inch check valve is open to the SBGT Room. During normal conditions with both SBGT Trains in Auto/Standby, the SBGT Cooling Air Intake valves, CHV-2947 and CHV-2946, are closed. During operation of one SBGT Train, the Cooling Air valve of the non-operating (or standby) train will open partially to admit cooling air across the filters of the non-operating train.

b. is incorrect: Plausible functions of a system crosstie line.

c. is incorrect: Plausible functions of a system crosstie line.

d. is incorrect: Plausible functions of a system crosstie line.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 048 The plant is at rated conditions with D-10 (DIV I 125 VDC CHARGER) out of service. Given the following:

D-20 (DIV II 125 VDC CHARGER) is in service supplying the Division II loads

D-40 (SPARE 125 VDC CHARGER) is in service supplying the Division I loads With the conditions above; what would be the impact if a LOCKOUT occurred on LC-104?

a. ONLY Battery 11 would deplete, resulting in a loss of Division I 125 VDC.

b. ONLY Battery 12 would deplete, resulting in a loss of Division II 125 VDC.

c. Batteries 11 & 12 would deplete, resulting in a COMPLETE loss of 125 VDC.

d. Batteries 11 & 12 would be unaffected as they BOTH would be charging from LC-103.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.09.10-02 B.09.10-06 M8107L-041 BANK HIGHER K/A: 262001K3.03: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the AC ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION System will have on the following: DC electrical distribution.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Both D-20 and D-40 will lose power.

b. is incorrect: Both D-20 and D-40 will lose power.

c. is correct: LC-104 supplies power to MCC-142 & MCC-143 which supplies power to D-20 (MCC-143) and D-40 (MCC-142). A loss of LC-104 would eventually result in the depletion of Battery 11 and 12. The examinee must recognize that D-20 and D-40 are powered from LC-104 and both be affected by the given power loss.

d. is incorrect: Plausible misconception if examinee believes D-20 and D-40 are powered from LC-103.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 049 Given the following 480 Volt UPS Electrical Distribution Drawing:

If an inverter UNDERVOLTAGE fault results in 0 volts sensed at Point A above; which of the following describes how Y-94 will receive its power?

a. LC-107 will automatically supply power to Y-94.

b. LC-108 will automatically supply power to Y-94.

c. 250 VDC Battery 17 will automatically supply power to Y-94.

d. The Maintenance Bypass Breaker must be manually closed to power Y-94.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.09.13-01 B.09.13-02 B.09.13-06 M8107L-063 BANK HIGHER K/A: 262002K4.01: Knowledge of the UPS System design features and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Transfer from preferred power to alternate power supplies JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: The examinee must understand that the fault is resulting in a 0 volt output to the static switch. Therefore, the static switch will automatically transfer to the alternate source (LC-107).

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

b. is incorrect: LC-108 normally supplies power to Y-91 static inverter (via rectifiers) and Battery 17. The inverter is downstream of this and it wouldnt supply power to Y-94.

c. is incorrect: The inverter will not transfer to Battery 17 because the battery uses the same input line as LC-108 to the inverter. If the inverter output is 0 volts then the battery input to the inverter will do no good.

d. is incorrect: Manual transfer is not required because LC-107 will provide power.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 050 A General Precaution in B.08.07-05 (HEATING AND VENTILATION) states that V-EF-34A or V-EF-34B (BATTERY ROOM EXHAUST FANS) should be operating at all times.

Complete the following statement that describes the reason for this precaution?

Exhaust fan operation

a. prevents the buildup of hydrogen gas that is generated as the batteries are charged.

b. maintains a flow of outside air across the Radiation Monitors for the CRV-EFT system.

c. ensures Battery Room temperature is maintained above 50°F during the winter months.

d. ensures Battery Rooms are maintained at -0.25 d/p for secondary containment integrity.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.08.07-05 B.08.07-02 M8107L-027 BANK - 2013 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 263000K5.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the DC ELCTRICAL DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM: Hydrogen generation during battery charging.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: The Division 1 250 VDC Battery room contains a battery, DC distribution panels and charging equipment. One of the Battery Room exhaust fans should be operating at all times to prevent hydrogen from building up in these rooms.

b. is incorrect: This is the function of V-EF-40A/B which ventilate the Div II 250 VDC Battery Room

c. is incorrect: This is not a requirement for the operation of these fans.

d. is incorrect: This differential pressure is not required as this Battery room is outside secondary containment.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 051 The plant is at rated conditions when a 15 Bus LOCKOUT occurs.

Which of the following actions is required to be directed to the Turbine Building Operator?

a. OPEN SW-228 (A ESW INLET ISOLATION VALVE) to supply A EDG-ESW with Service Water.

b. CLOSE SW-228 (A ESW INLET ISOLATION VALVE) to prevent dead heading A EDG-ESW with Service Water.

c. CLOSE SW-239-1 (SERVICE WATER ISOLATION TO A ESW) to prevent dead heading A EDG-ESW with Service Water.

d. OPEN ESW-2-1 and ESW-2-2 (ESW CROSSTIE HEADER ISOLATIONS) to crosstie A EDG-ESW system to the B EDG ESW system.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.08.01.02-05 M8107L-016 BANK HIGHER K/A: 264000K6.07: Knowledge of the effect that a loss of malfunction of the following will have on the EDG System: Cooling water system.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: The examinee must recognize that a 15 Bus lockout will result in a loss of 11 EDG-ESW pump and an 11 EDG Start. If an ESW pump fails to start when an EDG initiates the respective valve SW-228 or SW-229 is opened to provide cooling water from the service water system to prevent EDG damage from overheating. The failure of the EDG-ESW pump to start must be recognized by the control room operator and they direct the action to be performed locally.

b. is incorrect: Prior to the 2007 RFO the SW and EDG-ESW system were normally lined up cross connected. When an EDG started SW-239-1 would have to be closed to prevent dead heading the EDG-ESW pump. This has now been changed as the downstream SW isolation SW-228 is kept closed. The combination of these two valves and the past correct action make this distracter plausible.

c. is incorrect: Prior to the 2007 RFO the SW and EDG-ESW system were normally lined up cross connected. When an EDG started SW-239-1 would have to be closed to prevent dead heading the EDG-ESW pump. This has now been changed as the downstream SW isolation SW-228 is kept closed. The combination of these two valves and the past correct action make this distracter plausible.

d. is incorrect: Opening these valves will crosstie the AEDG-ESW and the B EDG-ESW systems however this is not the required procedural action.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 052 The plant was operating at rated conditions when a Loss of ALL Offsite Power occurred. Given the following conditions:

11 EDG started and properly loaded

12 EDG started and properly loaded

13 Diesel Generator failed to start For the above conditions, which of the following is the expected power availability to the Instrument Air Compressors (A/C)?

POWER to 15 A/C POWER to 16 A/C POWER to 17 A/C

a. UNAVAILABLE UNAVAILABLE UNAVAILABLE

b. AVAILABLE UNAVAILABLE UNAVAILABLE

c. UNAVAILABLE AVAILABLE UNAVAILABLE

d. AVAILABLE AVAILABLE AVAILABLE ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.08.04.01-05 MT-ILT-AOP-023L BANK HIGHER K/A: 300000K2.01: Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Instrument air compressor.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible IA Compressor power availability for the above conditions.

b. is correct: 15 A/C Power - LC-103 via 15 Bus from 13 bus or 1AR or 11 EDG 15 A/C load sheds on a loss of power. It does require operator actions to restart the compressor but power is available.

16 A/C Power - LC-107 via 13 Bus or from 13 DG No 16 A/C does not load shed and does not automatically restart and since 13 DG failed to start power would be unavailable.

17 A/C Power - LC-108 via 14 Bus or LC-107 No 17 A/C does not load shed and will automatically restart but since 13 DG failed to start, LC-108 will be without power.

c. is incorrect: Plausible IA Compressor power availability for the above conditions.

d. is incorrect: Plausible IA Compressor power availability for the above conditions.

10 CFR 55.41b(7)

REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: None QUESTION SOURCE: LOR Bank TIER: 2 GROUP: 1 CATEGORY: Instruments Air DIFFICULTY 3 LESSON PL: OBJECTIVE: 4

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 053 A plant startup is in progress with the following conditions:

MO-2399 (RWCU RETURN ISOL) is 25% open

MO-3501 (RBCCW FROM RWCU HX) is 50% open

CV-2403 (RWCU EXCESS FLOW CTRL VLV) is controlling dump flow at 60 gpm With the conditions above which of the following actions must be taken if annunciator 4-B-26 (CLEANUP DEMIN TEMP HI) is received?

a. Throttle OPEN CV-2403.

b. Throttle OPEN MO-3501.

c. Throttle CLOSED MO-3501.

d. Throttle CLOSED MO-2399.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE ARP 4-B-26 M8107L-030 NEW HIGHER K/A: 400000A2.03: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the COMPONENT COOLING WATER System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operations: Loss of a CCW pump.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Throttling this valve open will cause temperature to rise more.

b. is correct: The examinee must determine that this is an alarm only at 125°F. Opening MO-3501 will send more RBCCW to the RWCU HX thus lowering temperature. If this action isnt taken IAW the ARP, temperature will continue to rise and a RWCU Hi temp isolation will occur at 140°F causing MO-2399 to close.

c. is incorrect: The ARP procedure gives the option to manipulate this valve but it must be opened to lower temperature.

d. is incorrect: Closing this valve will further limit the return flow through the NRHX causing the filter demin temp to rise further.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 054 The plant is at rated conditions when a complete loss of Y-10 occurs.

Which of the following describes the impact of this power loss on the plant?

a. Control rods can NOT be selected at C-05.

b. 11 Recirc MG Set scoop tube will LOCK up.

c. Heat tracing will be LOST for the SBLC system.

d. In-service CRD Flow Control Valve will fail CLOSED.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.05.05-02 M8107L-032 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 201002K6.01: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RMCS system: Select matrix power.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: Y-10 circuit 4 supplies power to the C-05 Select matrix and loss of this power will result in the inability to select control rods.

b. is incorrect: This will occur on a loss of Y-20.

c. is incorrect: This will occur on a loss of Essential Lighting panel L-43.

d. is incorrect: CRD flow control valve failures occur on a loss of Y-20 and/or Y-30.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 055 A startup is in progress and a selected control rod is to be withdrawn from notch 00 to 24.

What is the expected CRD Drive Water Flow Indication on panel C-05 if the OATC places the Rod Movement Control Switch momentarily to ROD OUT NOTCH?

a. Rises from 0 GPM to 2 GPM then returns to 0 GPM.

b. Rises from 0 GPM to 4 GPM then returns to 0 GPM.

c. Rises from 0 GPM to 2 GPM momentarily, rises to 4 GPM then returns to 0 GPM.

d. Rises from 0 GPM to 4 GPM momentarily, lowers to 2 GPM then returns to 0 GPM.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE B.01.03-01 M8107L-020 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 201003A1.03: Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the CRDM System controls including: CRD drive water flow.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible distracters for rod withdrawal indications.

b. is incorrect: Plausible distracters for rod withdrawal indications.

c. is incorrect: Plausible distracters for rod withdrawal indications.

d. is correct: For proper CRD system lineup. Drive water flow is to be less than 0.25 GPM. An insert motion occurs first to support unlatching of the rod then the "withdraw" solenoid valves open. "Insert" drive water flows are 4 GPM and "withdraw" water flow is 2 GPM. When the control rod reaches desired position, either or both switches 3A-S2 (Rod Movement Control Switch) or 3A-S3 (Emergency In/Notch Override Switch) may be turned to OFF to energize the RMCS timer which is then permitted to complete the rod driving timing cycle.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 056 The plant was at rated conditions when a loss of feedwater occurred. Given the following:

RPV water level lowered to -50 inches

HPCI restored RPV water level to 20 inches after 2 minutes

The OATC is executing C.4-A (REACTOR SCRAM)

For the conditions above; what is the status of the Recirc Pumps and what action must be taken by the OATC?

a. TRIPPED; immediately restart BOTH Recirc Pumps.

b. TRIPPED; close the discharge valves for both Recirc Pumps.

c. RUNNING; verify the Recirc Pumps have runback to 20% speed.

d. RUNNING; verify the Recirc Pumps have runback to 30% speed.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE C.4-A B.01.04-02 MT-ILT-AOP-001L BANK HIGHER K/A: 202001A2.11: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the RECIRCULATION SYSTEM and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operations: Low reactor water level.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Eventually one Recirc Pump may be restarted to prevent stratification in the core, but this action is not yet appropriate for the conditions above.

b. is correct: Under normal scram conditions the Recirc pumps would runback to 30%.

However, with a loss of feedwater and RPV level lowering to <-47 inches, both recirc pumps will trip. C.4-A states that if any Recirc Pumps have tripped then close their respective discharge valves to allow the pumps to coast down.

c. is incorrect: Plausible action if examinee doesnt recognize the pumps have tripped. If they were to have just runback they would go to 30%. Plausible speed of 20% as it is the low speed manual stop for the scoop tube.

d. is incorrect: Plausible action if examinee doesnt recognize the pumps have tripped. If they were to have just runback they would go to 30%. Plausible speed of 20% as it is the low speed manual stop for the scoop tube.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 057 The plant is at rated conditions with Y-20 powered from its alternate source. An operator has been sent to restore Y-20 to its normal source.

Assuming Y-20 successfully transfers to its normal source; which of the following alarms would be expected along with 8-A-9 (Y-20 INTR AC UNDERVOLTAGE) during restoration?

a. 7-B-15 (EPR TROUBLE)

b. 5-A-35 (RWM ROD BLOCK)

c. 4-C-5 (FLUID DRIVE A SCOOP TUBE LOCK)

d. 3-A-1 (AUTO BLOWDOWN POWER FAILURE)

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE ARP 4-C-5 ARP 8-A-9 M8107L-047 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 202002A3.03: Ability to monitor automatic operations of the RECIRCULATION FLOW CONTROL System including: Scoop tube operation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This alarm would be received on a loss of Y-30.

b. is incorrect: This alarm would be received on a loss of Y-10.

c. is correct: A Y-20 transfer is a break-before-make either manually or automatically therefore the Recirc Scoop Tubes will lock each time a transfer occurs.

d. is incorrect: This alarm would be received on a loss of 125 VDC.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 058 The plant is operating at rated conditions. Traversing In-core Probe (TIP) scans are in progress when a PCIS malfunction results in an inadvertent Group 2 isolation.

Complete the following statement that describes the expected TIP System response to this condition?

The drive mechanism will automatically retract

a. in fast speed to the IN-SHIELD position and then its respective BALL VALVE will close.

b. in slow speed to the IN-SHIELD position and then its respective SHEAR VALVE will fire.

c. in fast speed to the INDEXING MECHANISM and then its respective BALL VALVE will close.

d. in slow speed to the IN-SHIELD position and then its respective BALL VALVE must be manually closed.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE B.05.03-02 M8107L-059 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 215001A3.03sss: Ability to monitor automatic operation of the TIP System including:

Valve operation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: When a Group 2 isolation signal is received, the drive mechanisms will automatically shift to fast speed, reverse and withdrawal the detectors to the in-shield position. When the detectors are in-shield, the ball valves will automatically close.

b. is incorrect: The detectors retract in fast speed and the shear valve can only be manually fired.

c. is incorrect: The indexing mechanism is located inside primary containment and wouldnt allow the ball valve to close.

d. is incorrect: The detectors retract in fast speed and the ball valves close automatically.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 059 Which of the following will cause a Rod Block Monitor (RBM) to be automatically bypassed?

a. Reactor power is 24%.

b. A CRITICAL Self-Test Fault.

c. A Reference APRM is bypassed.

d. HALF the assigned inputs are inoperable.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE ARP 5-A-51 M8107L-066 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 215002A4.03: Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Trip bypasses.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: The AUTO BYPASS trip circuit monitors the output signal of the reference APRM channel and produces a trip output signal which bypasses the RBM trip circuits when reactor power is <25.9% or if an edge rod is selected. An AUTO BYPASS trip results in the automatic bypassing of all RBM channel trip outputs signals, except those which cause trip indicating lights (RBM cabinet) to be ON.

b. is incorrect: A critical self-test fault will cause an INOP rod block.

c. is incorrect: Both RBM channels have a backup APRM to reference off of if one is bypassed.

d. is incorrect: More than half of the inputs have to be inoperable and, if so, this will also cause a rod block.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 060 The Reactor is at 400°F with all conditions stable. Reactor Water Level Control is in automatic controlling level at +25" on the Low Flow Feedwater Reg. Valve. Complete the following statement:

Given B.01.01-06 Figure 30 on the following page, actual Reactor water level is...

a. 8-11 inches.

b. 13-16 inches.

c. 42-45 inches.

d. 52-55 inches.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.01.01-06 Figure 30 M8107L-056 NEW HIGHER K/A: 216000K1.12: Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between NUCLEAR BOILER INSTRUMENTATION and the following: Reactor water level control system JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible for misreading the table by one temperature/pressure line too low.

b. is correct: With all conditions stable, indicated water level will be what the Reg valve is set at. Using the figure for the given temperature actual level would be 13-16 inches.

c. is incorrect: Plausible for reverse use of indicated and actual level on the table.

d. is incorrect: Plausible for reverse use of indicated and actual level on the table and misreading the table by one line.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 061 The plant was at rated conditions when an event occurred. Drywell pressure has risen to the point that required entry into C.5-3505 (VENTING PRIMARY CONTAINMENT).

IAW C.5-3505, the crew decides to perform an UN-ELEVATED and UN-FILTERED release.

Which of the following vent methods will the crew be using?

a. Hard Pipe Vent

b. 2 inch line from Torus

c. 2 inch line from Drywell

d. 18 inch line from Drywell ANSWER a.

REFERENCE C.5-3505 MT-ILT-EOP-003L BANK HIGHER K/A: 223001G2.1.32: Ability to apply and explain system limits and precautions.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: Venting Primary Containment via the HPV will result in a SCRUBBED release but it will be UNFILTERED AND UNELEVATED. C.5-3505 Part A Precaution 1: Venting primary Containment through the Hard Pipe Vent will result in an unfiltered, ground level radioactive release which may be in excess of Tech Spec limits.

b. is incorrect: This will result in an ELEVATED release out the stack, SCRUBBED release form the Torus and FILTERED release from SBGT.

c. is incorrect: Venting from the Drywell will result in an ELEVATED and FILTERED release.

d. is incorrect: Venting from the Drywell will result in an ELEVATED and FILTERED release.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 062 The plant is at rated conditions in a normal electric plant lineup. Given the following:

Which of the following describes the effect on the lights shown above and the MSIVs upon a loss of Div II 125 Vdc?

a. The INBOARD DC light will extinguish and the INBOARD MSIVs will CLOSE.

b. The INBOARD DC light will extinguish but there will be NO effect on the MSIVs.

c. The OUTBOARD DC light will extinguish but there will be NO effect on the MSIVs.

d. The OUTBOARD DC light will extinguish and the OUTBOARD MSIVs will CLOSE.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE B.05.06-02 NX-7823-4 SHT 3, 4, 7 B.02.04-05 M8107L-070 BANK HIGHER K/A: 239001K2.01: Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: MSIV solenoids.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible choices for not understanding the PCIS Group 1 logic power.

b. is incorrect: Plausible choices for not understanding the PCIS Group 1 logic power.

c. is correct: The MSIVs have two solenoid valves, both have to de-energize for the valves to go shut. The INBOARD MSIV solenoid valves are powered from Y70 and 125 Vdc Div I.

The OUTBOARD MSIV solenoid valves are powered from Y80 and 125 Vdc Div II. The white lights shown provide indication to the solenoid valves. With a loss of Div II 125 Vdc the OUTBOARD DC light would extinguish, but because the AC solenoid is still energized, the OUTBOARD MSIVs would remain open.

d. is incorrect: Plausible choices for not understanding the PCIS Group 1 logic power.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 063 The plant is at rated conditions when RB Equipment Drain Sump Pump (P-21) fails.

Which of the following describes where the RB Equipment Drain Sump (S-42) overflows to?

a. Waste Collector Tank (T-24)

b. RB Floor Drain Sump (S-37)

c. Condensate Drip Tank (T-22)

d. RB Equipment Drain Tank (T-56)

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.07.01-02 M8107L-101 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 268000K3.04: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the RADWASTE System will have on the following: Drain sumps.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The RB Equipment Drain Tank (T-56) is normally pumped to the Waste Collector Tank (T-24)

b. is correct: RB Equipment Drain Sump (S-42) Overflows to RB Floor Drain Sump (S-37).

c. is incorrect: The Condensate Drip Tank (T-22) is one of the places that the DW Equipment Drain Sump can be pumped to.

d. is incorrect: This tank overflows to the RB Floor Drain Sump also (S-37)

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 064 The plant was at rated conditions when an event occurred. Given the following:

An Off-Site Release is in progress

Both Stack WRGMs are in a HI-HI condition Which of the following will ISOLATE as a result of the conditions above?

1. SV-7677 (OG DISCH TO STACK)

2. SV-1928 (OFFGAS STACK ISOLATION)

3. SV-2353 (OFF GAS STACK DRAIN)

a. 1 ONLY

b. 1 & 2 ONLY

c. 2 & 3 ONLY

d. 1, 2 & 3 will ISOLATE.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE ARP 259-A-1 B.05.11-02 M8107L-077 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 271000K4.08: Knowledge of OFFGAS System design features and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Automatic system isolation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible isolations for high stack radiation.

b. is incorrect: Plausible isolations for high stack radiation.

c. is incorrect: Plausible isolations for high stack radiation.

d. is correct: The trip circuits are arranged such that two HIGH-HIGH alarms, two INOP alarms, or a HIGH-HIGH alarm combined with an INOP in the opposite channel will isolate all 3 valves above.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 065 The plant is in Mode 4 for a maintenance outage. Given the following plant conditions:

Shutdown Cooling is in service on "A" Loop of RHR.

TIP scans are in progress following TIP detector replacements.

A loss of power occurs to RM-17-452A, (REACTOR BUILDING VENTILATION EXHAUST PLENUM MONITOR CHANNEL A)

Annunciator 5-A-1 (REAC BLDG VENT & F P RAD CH A-HI/LO) is in alarm.

Which of the following will isolate as a result of this equipment malfunction?

1. TIP System

2. "A" Loop of RHR

3. A and B H2O2 Analyzers

4. Drywell CAM Sample Valves

a. 1 and 2.

b. 1 and 4.

c. 2 and 3.

d. 3 and 4.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE ARP 5-A-1 MT-ILT-AOP-008 BANK HIGHER K/A: 272000K6.03: Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RADIATION MONITORING System: A.C Power.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The TIP System and the RHR system in Shutdown Cooling Mode do not isolate during a Partial Group 2 Isolation but only on a Full Group 2 Isolation

b. is incorrect: The TIP System and the RHR system in Shutdown Cooling Mode do not isolate during a Partial Group 2 Isolation but only on a Full Group 2 Isolation

c. is incorrect: The TIP System and the RHR system in Shutdown Cooling Mode do not isolate during a Partial Group 2 Isolation but only on a Full Group 2 Isolation

d. is correct: RM-17-452A & B will fail high on a loss of power. The examinee must recall that one high signal will cause a only a Partial Group 2 isolation. The containment isolation valves for the Drywell CAM and the A and B H2O2 Analyzers close on a Partial Group 2 Isolation.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 066 You are an on-duty RO during the last day of the calendar quarter. Given the following:

You have stood 6 twelve hour shifts as the BOP operator this quarter

You are currently standing your 5th twelve hour shift as the OATC this quarter

The CRS requests that you assist the RB operator with a RWCU F/D evolution If you assist in the evolution, which of the following is correct concerning maintaining your operator license active?

a. Your license will remain active based on the BOP shifts already stood.

b. Your license will remain active if the assistance is < 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months and you return as the OATC.

c. Your license will remain active if the assistance is < 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months and you return as the OATC.

d. Your license will NOT remain active if you assist with this evolution for any amount of time.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE OWI-01.08 10CFR55.53 M8108L-038 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.1.4: Knowledge of individual licensed operator responsibilities related to shift staffing, such as medical requirements, no-solo operation, maintenance of active license status, JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Shifts stood in the BOP operator position do not count for license maintenance credit. Only OATC and Lead RO count for this credit.

b. is correct: The licensed individual filling the OATC designated license position may be temporarily relieved of the Control Room panel monitoring requirements. This does NOT affect the individuals status regarding license maintenance credit so long as the individual remains on duty as a licensed operator and the duration of the relief is less than 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

c. is incorrect: Plausible time requirement for confusion between 8 hour9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months and 12 hour1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months shifts.

d. is incorrect: Plausible no relief requirement.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 067 The plant is operating at rated conditions. Annunciator 6-C-34 (CANAL SPL PMP TRIP) has a faulty alarm card and the condition has not yet been corrected. A "WORK ORDER ISSUED" sticker has been placed on the annunciator window.

Annunciator 6-C-34 comes in alarm, the Balance Of Plant (BOP) operator announces the alarm as "expected." The alarm clears, is acknowledged and 5 minutes later is received a second time. Which of the following completes the statement for the given conditions?

The BOP operator...

a. is NOT required to announce the second alarm.

b. should announce the alarm as "expected" both times.

c. should announce the second alarm as "unexpected" due to multiple activations.

d. should have announced the alarm as "unexpected" both times due to the faulty alarm card.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE OWI-01.03 M8108L-038 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.1.17: Ability to make accurate, clear, and concise verbal reports JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The second alarm should be announced as expected.

b. is correct: Alarms which are the result of an on-going equipment issue or condition and a Work Order has been issued for the initiating condition, SHALL be considered to be expected alarms and announced as such provided a WORK ORDER ISSUED sticker has been affixed to the associated annunciator window.

c. is incorrect: Both alarms should be announced as expected.

d. is incorrect: Both alarms should be announced as expected.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 068 The plant is operating at 60% power in a normal electric plant line up. An overcurrent condition results in the receipt of 8-B-2 (NO. 2R XFMR LOCKOUT) and the alarm condition has been confirmed.

Which of the following plant conditions will validate the alarm condition one minute later?

a. ONLY one Recirc pump tripped.

b. BOTH Circ Water pumps tripped.

c. BOTH Condensate pumps are without power.

d. BOTH Reactor Feed pumps are without power.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE ARP 8-B-2 M8107L-039 NEW HIGHER K/A: 2.1.45: Ability to identify and interpret diverse indications to validate the response of another indication.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Both Recirc pumps will trip on a station power transfer.

b. is correct: With the given information in the stem, the examinee must determine that the overcurrent condition causes a 2R to 1R Station Power Transfer. Based on that, they must determine which loads are lost. A station power transfer will result in the loss of field for the Circ water pumps which will cause them to trip.

c. is incorrect: Both Reactor feed pumps and Condensate pumps will momentarily lose power but their breakers dont trip. Once station power is transferred to 1R the 11 RFP and 11 Cond. Pump will receive power,

d. is incorrect: Both Reactor feed pumps and Condensate pumps will momentarily lose power but their breakers dont trip. Once station power is transferred to 1R the 11 RFP and 11 Cond. Pump will receive power,

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 069 The plant has been in a maintenance outage. Plant conditions have been established to start No. 11 and No. 12 Recirc Pumps in preparation for reactor startup.

The Operator places hand switch 2A-S1A (No. 11 MG SET DRIVE MOTOR) to START and observes normal panel indication for start of the MG Set drive motor.

The Operator then momentarily places hand switch HS-2A-S7A (MO-2-53A PUMP DISCHARGE) to OPEN for 3 seconds.

Two minutes later, the following annunciators are in alarm:

4-C-1 (RECIRC A LOCKOUT)

4-C-31 (RECIRC DRIVE MOTOR A TRIP)

Which of the following caused the trip of the No. 11 Recirc MG Set?

a. Recirc MG Set lube oil pressure was 30 psig.

b. Recirc MG Set lube oil temperature was 195°F.

c. The pump D/P was only 8.2 psid after 12 seconds.

d. The discharge valve was only 15% open after 70 seconds.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE:

ARP 4-C-31 M8107L-029 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.2.1: Ability to perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including operating those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This is above the drive motor trip of < 27 psig for a 6 second TD.

b. is incorrect: Recirc MG Set lube oil temperature will cause a drive motor breaker trip if above 210°F

c. is incorrect: If the pump does not develop >7.5 psid within 15 sec of placing the hand switch to start. Additionally, this will cause an incomplete start sequence alarm.

d. is correct: The discharge valve is a throttle valve. The drive motor breaker trip is <20-25%

open after a 66 second TD. The MG set will receive a lockout and a drive motor breaker trip.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 070 The plant was at rated conditions when an ATWS event occurred. Given the following:

The SBLC System Selector switch was placed in the SYS 1 position

The 11 SBLC pump immediately experienced a motor overload condition

The red circled overloads on the following page opened as a result of the condition.

Given the conditions above, which of the following describes the response (FIRED OR UNFIRED) of the 11 SBLC Squib Valve and why?

a. FIRED; Squib valve operation is independent of these overloads.

b. FIRED; Squib valves DO NOT utilize the same power supply as the pumps.

c. UNFIRED; these overloads only affect the local operation of the SBLC pump.

d. UNFIRED: these overloads prevent the pump start AND the squib valve from firing.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE NX-7879-5 M8107L-104 BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.2.15: Ability to determine the expected plant configuration using design and configuration control documentation, such as drawings, line-ups, tag-outs, etc.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: The Squib valve utilizes a separate current path that doesnt pass through these overloads, therefore they will fire.

b. is incorrect: The Squib valve will fire but its not because they have a separate power supply. They utilize the same power as the pump.

c. is incorrect: Plausible as the motor overloads are located below the circuit labeled local starter.

d. is incorrect: Plausible as both the pump and Squib valves utilize the same power supply.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 071 The plant is in Mode 3 with a cooldown in progress when it was determined that the cooldown rate is exceeding the specified limit in Technical Specifications (TS)?

Which of the following represents the MAXIMUM amount of time allowed by TS to restore cooldown rate to within limits?

a. 15 minutes.

b. 20 minutes.

c. 30 minutes.

d. 60 minutes.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE TS 3.4.9 M8107L-028 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.2.39: Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour Technical Specification action statements for systems.

JUSTIFICATION:

a. is incorrect: Plausible < 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months TS action times.

b. is incorrect: Plausible < 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months TS action times.

c. TS 3.4.9 required action A.1 is to restore cooldown rate to within limits in 30 minutes and Determine RCS is acceptable for continued operation within 72 hrs. This would be a < 1hr TS required action which is required knowledge for ROs & SROs.

d. is incorrect: Plausible < 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months TS action times.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 072 The plant is in Mode 2 when the following annunciators actuated:

3-B-8 (MAIN STEAM LINE HI RADIATION)

3-B-16 (MAIN STEAM LINE CH A HI RADIATION)

3-B-32 (MAIN STEAM LINE CH B HI RADIATION)

If the alarm conditions are now clear, what action(s) must be taken, if any, to restart the Mechanical Vacuum Pump (MVP)?

a. Only the PCIS Group 1 Isolation must be reset.

b. Only the PCIS Group 2 Isolation must be reset.

c. Both the PCIS Groups 1 AND 2 Isolations must be reset.

d. NO action is required; the MVP automatically resets when conditions clear.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE B.5.11-02 ARPs 3-B-8/16/32 M8107L-077 BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.3.5: Ability to use radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, personnel monitoring equipment, etc.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Main Steam Line isolation (Group 1) is plausible based on the alarm titles and because the 6R/hr used to be a Group 1 isolation signal.

b. is correct: An upscale trip (6 R/hr) of the Main Steam Line Log Radiation Monitors will annunciate alarms 3-B-8/16/32. Additionally, this will initiate a Main Condenser Vacuum Pump shutdown and suction valve closure. The upscale trip circuits of the log radiation monitors do not automatically reset when the trip condition no longer exists. It must be reset, using the Group II reset handswitch.

c. is incorrect: Main Steam Line isolation (Group 1) is plausible based on the alarm titles and because the 6R/hr used to be a Group 1 isolation signal.

d. is incorrect: Plausible option for this shutdown to automatically reset.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 073 The plant is in a refueling outage. A task needs to be performed in the Drywell and the RWP indicates a job dose estimate of 58 mrem.

Which of the following approaches to performing the job will maintain the total dose within the RWP job dose estimate?

a. One individual performing the job in a 90 mrem/hr field for 45 minutes.

b. Two individuals performing the job in a 90 mrem/hr field for 20 minutes.

c. One individual installing temporary shielding in a 90 mrem/hr field for 30 minutes and then performing the job in a 25 mrem/hr field for 60 minutes.

d. Two individuals installing temporary shielding in a 90 mrem/hr field for 10 minutes and then both individuals performing the job in a 25 mrem/hr field for 30 minutes.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE 4AWI-08.04.02 4AWI-08.04.08 M8108L-039 BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.3.7: Ability to comply with radiation work permits during normal or abnormal conditions.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Total Dose = 90 mrem/hr x .75 = 67.5 mrem

b. is incorrect: Total Dose = 2 x 30 mrem = 60 mrem

c. is incorrect: Total Dose = 90 mrem/hr x .5 + 25 mrem = 70 mrem

d. is correct: Total Dose = 2 x 15 mrem + 2 x 12.5 mrem = 55 mrem As part of Operations Shift briefs, the operators are required to evaluate upcoming work items and look for opportunities to reduce exposure.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 074 The plant is operating in Mode 1 on the weekend with ONE duty crew on-site. The control room receives a report of a fire in the Receiving Warehouse.

Based on the conditions above, what action is required to be taken by the Fire Brigade IAW the A.3 (FIRE FIGHTING) procedures?

a. All fire brigade members must report to the Receiving Warehouse and attempt to contain and/or extinguish the fire.

b. Notify the Monticello Fire Department and provide them with isolation and direction to contain and/or extinguish the fire.

c. Notify Security to direct fire fighting activities for the Monticello Fire Department because the fire is outside the Protected Area.

d. The Duty Chemist and RP Technician must attempt to contain and/or extinguish the fire until additional fire brigade members report on-site.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE A.3-002 AWI-08.06.01 FIG 5.2 M8108L-033 BANK - 2013 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.4.26: Knowledge of facility protection equipment requirements, including fire brigade and portable firefighting equipment usage.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This action is not taken unless 2 or more brigades are on-site.

b. is correct: The examinee must first determine that the receiving warehouse is outside the protected area then determine the fire fighting requirements. In the case of a fire outside the protected area, when only one fire brigade is available, that brigade shall provide isolation and direction for the Monticello fire department and its surrounding departments.

c. is incorrect: Although the fire is outside the protected area, security personnel are not qualified in fire fighting strategies.

d. is incorrect: Although the Duty Chemist and RP Technician are not operators, they are fire brigade members and would not be dispatched for this fire.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 075 The plant is operating at rated conditions in a normal electric plant lineup. An event occurs that results in the following:

Annunciator 20-A-08 (FIRE) is alarming

Annunciator 8-A-01 (NO. 1 GENERATOR LOCKOUT) is alarming

The Main Transformer Fire System status is shown below The BOP operator rotates the arming collar and depresses the pushbutton shown above.

Which of the following, if any, is a valid reason for performing these actions?

a. These actions MANUALLY INITIATE deluge spray on the Main Generator Transformer.

b. These actions MANUALLY TRIP open the 345 KV Main Generator output breakers 8N7 and 8N8.

c. These actions MANUALLY TRIP open the Main Generator Field breaker which results in a Generator LOCKOUT.

d. These actions are NOT required; the Main Transformer Deluge IS currently spraying water on the transformer.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE ARP 20-A-08 C.4-B.08.05.A MT-ILT-AOP-016L BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.4.27: Knowledge of fire in the plant procedures.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: The deluge for the Main XFMR will not automatically spray when the LHD detects a fire. The Detector Operated light indicates that a fire has been detected which auto opens the deluge inlet valve which fills the piping with water. In order to actually spray water, the Main XFMR must be verified dead (Main Generator LOCKOUT) then the arming collar must be turned and the pushbutton pushed. This action is called for in the Abnormal procedure for FIRE and ARP 20-A-08.

b. is incorrect: The Main Generator Lockout will automatically trip these breakers. Plausible that this action must be manually performed for a fire.

c. is incorrect: The Main Generator Lockout will automatically trip these breakers. Plausible that this action must be manually performed for a fire.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC RO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

d. is incorrect: Plausible to think this action isnt required because the turbine building siding deluge automatically sprays when the detector is operated. The Main XFMR deluge spray doesnt auto initiate as indicated by the System Operated light being off.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 076 The plant was at normal rated conditions with 8N11 (345kV GCB) OPEN for planned maintenance. A disturbance occurred that resulted in the following:

345kV Bus 1 Lockout

1R Transformer Lockout Using the given conditions determine what procedure the CRS must direct and why?

a. E.5 (System Electrical Blackout) for a Loss of ALL Offsite AC Power.

b. C.4-B.09.02.B (Loss of Normal Offsite Power) for a Loss of ALL Offsite Power.

c. C.4.B.09.02.A (Station Blackout) for a Loss of ALL Offsite and Onsite AC Power.

d. C.4-B.09.02.B (Loss of Normal Offsite Power) for a Loss of NORMAL Offsite Power.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE C.4-B.09.02.B B.09.06.01 M-8107L-036 NEW HIGHER K/A: 295003A2.05: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF A.C. POWER: Whether a partial or complete loss of A.C.

power has occurred.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The examinee must determine that AC power is still available to 1AR. The E.5 (System Electrical Blackout) procedure is used for Grid Blackout and used as a System Restoration Plan.

b. is incorrect: The examinee must know that a Loss of ALL Offsite Power includes a loss of the 1AR. This procedure is also applicable if the 1AR Transformer is lost with the 1R and 2R being de-energized.

c. is incorrect: The examinee must determine that AC power is still available to 1AR. The Station Blackout procedure is used for loss of voltage on buses 11 through 16.

d. is correct: A loss of Normal Offsite Power has occurred due to loss of normal feed to the 2R transformer on a 345KV Bus 1 Lockout and a 1R Transformer Lockout. Safety Busses 15 and 16 still receive offsite power due to 1AR normally being supplied from the #10 transformer.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 077 The plant is operating at 60% power. At 1100 you are performing your Shift Supervision completion review of a surveillance that documents the AS LEFT trip settings for the Turbine Control Valve Fast Closure instruments. Trip settings are as follows:

PS-7110: 166.4 psig

PS-7111: 167.4 psig

PS-7112: 168.7 psig

PS-7113: 167.9 psig Given NX-7834-67-7, 8, 9 & 10; which one of the following is the most restrictive REQUIRED ACTION and COMPLETION TIME for the above conditions?

a. Restore RPS trip capability by 1200.

b. Place either RPS channel in trip by 1700.

c. Place RPS Channel A in trip by 2300.

d. Place RPS Channel B in trip by 2300.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE TS 3.3.1.1 NX-7834-67-7,8,9 & 10 M8107L-072 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: TS 3.3.1.1, NX-7834-67-7, 8, 9 & 10 BANK HIGHER K/A: 295006G2.4.21: Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: RPS A (PS-7112 & PS-7113); RPS B (PS-7110 & PS-7111). All pressure switches are required to be operable ( 167.8 psig) when 40% RTP. With the given conditions both channels in RPS B trip system are inoperable which makes the function lost.

This will require entry into TS 3.3.1.1 conditions A and C. Condition C must be taken first because with a loss of RPS trip capability, a SCRAM will not occur when required by Tech Specs. If this action is not taken first by 1200 compliance with TS will not be maintained.

b. is incorrect: Plausible action to take if the switches are not recognized to both be on RPS B

c. is incorrect: Plausible action to take if candidate does not recognize the loss of RPS trip capability and incorrectly identifies A and B pressure switches.

d. is incorrect: This action is required but compliance will not be maintained if this only was performed because RPS trip capability is lost.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 078 The plant was at rated conditions when a severe fire started in the Cable Spreading Room.

Given the following:

Cable Spreading Room is inaccessible

Immediate Control Room evacuation was successfully completed

Control at the ASDS Panel has been established

All MSIVs are closed Answer the following as the CRS:

1) From the start of the event, when is Torus cooling required to be established?

2) What Emergency Plan classification level must be declared?

a. 1) Within 10 Minutes

2) NUE

b. 1) Within 10 Minutes

2) ALERT

c. 1) Within 40 Minutes

2) NUE

d. 1) Within 40 Minutes

2) ALERT ANSWER d.

REFERENCE C.4-C OWI-03.07 MT-ILT-AOP-025 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: EAL Matrix NEW HIGHER K/A: 295016A2.04: Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to Control Room Abandonment: Suppression Pool Temperature.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: The 10 minute time critical action is plausible as this is the time requirement for establishing control at the ASDS panel during an Appendix R fire event. Additionally, the NUE is plausible for a plant fire event.

b. is incorrect: The 10 minute time critical action is plausible as this is the time requirement for establishing control at the ASDS panel during an Appendix R fire event. Additionally, the ALERT is correct.

c. is incorrect: The 40 minute time critical action is correct, the NUE is plausible for a plant fire event.

d. is correct: The examinee must determine that torus temperature would be rising rapidly with the MSIVs closed. If the reactor is isolated and decay heat is being transferred to the suppression pool via the SRVs, priority should be placed on establishing Torus Cooling.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

Under these worst case conditions, analysis assumes Torus Cooling is established within 40 minutes (Time Critical Operator Action). Additionally, an ALERT would be declared due to transfer of plant control to the ASDS Panel (HA5.1).

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 079 A plant transient occurred with the following conditions now present:

RPV pressure is 800 psig and lowering

RPV water level is -130 inches and slowly rising

Torus water level is -3.8 feet and slowly lowering

HPCI and RCIC are the only available injection systems What EOP action should the CRS direct next?

a. Trip HPCI ONLY

b. Trip RCIC ONLY

c. Trip HPCI AND RCIC

d. Continue injecting with HPCI and RCIC ANSWER a.

REFERENCE C.5-1-1200 C.5-1200 MT-ILT-EOP-003L BANK HIGHER K/A: 295030G2.4.2: Knowledge of system setpoints, interlocks and automatic actions associated with EOP entry conditions.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: Examinee must enter the Primary Containment EOP and navigate through the Torus Level Leg. An Emergency Blowdown would have been initiated due to not maintaining torus level above -3.3 feet. If torus level cannot be maintained above -3.7 feet HPCI should be tripped. The EOP-1200 bases clearly states that this action should be taken irrespective of whether the core will remain adequately cooled.

b. is incorrect: RCIC is not tripped due to its relatively low exhaust energy.

c. is incorrect: RCIC is not tripped due to its relatively low exhaust energy.

d. is incorrect: HPCI is required to be tripped per C.5-1200. This is plausible if the candidate believes core cooling takes priority over containment integrity.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 080 The plant was operating at rated conditions when a severe transient and reactor scram occurred. Given the following:

DW Pressure is 7 psig

DW Temperature is 220°F

RPV pressure is 1000 psig

Reactor Building Temperature is 195°F

Fuel Zone level instruments read -49 inches

Safeguards level instruments read -45 inches

Vessel Flood level instrument reads -40 inches

Three control rods remain at position 04, all other rods are FULL IN Based on the above conditions, which of the following actions must be taken by the CRS?

a. Enter C.5-2006 (RPV FLOODING) at Point 23.

b. Enter C.5-2006 (RPV FLOODING) at Point 24.

c. Remain in C.5-1100 (RPV CONTROL) and control RPV water level using Fuel Zone instruments ONLY.

d. Remain in C.5-1100 (RPV CONTROL) and control RPV water level using either Fuel Zone OR Safeguards instruments.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE:

C.5.1-1100 C.5-1100 MT-ILT-EOP-002L NEW HIGHER 295031G2.1.20 Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: plausible if the examinee misreads Detail C and doesnt think any of the instruments are reading accurately and incorrectly thinks RPV water level is UNKNOWN.

Additionally entry at point 23 isnt correct because this is for an ATWS condition and rods stuck out doesnt meet the conditions for an ATWS.

b. is incorrect: These is plausible if the examinee misreads Detail C and doesnt think any of the instruments are reading accurately and incorrectly thinks RPV water level is UNKNOWN.

Additionally entry at point 23 isnt correct because this is for an ATWS condition and rods stuck out doesnt meet the conditions for an ATWS.

c. is incorrect: The Safeguards instruments are usable; however this is a plausible choice if the candidate misreads Detail C and uses the > 200°F portion of the detail. Safeguard instruments would only be good to -37 inches in this case.

d. is correct: In EOP-1100 a NOTE exists at the top of the level leg telling the CRS to check Figure 1 (Details A/B/C) for level instrumentation. Based on given temperatures, Safeguards and Fuel Zone instruments can be used. With RB temperature < 200F,

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

Safeguards instruments are good to -48 inches and Fuel Zone instruments are good to -276 inches provided the Recirc pumps are tripped which they would be with DW pressure at 10 psig.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 081 The plant is operating at rated conditions when a fire occurs in the 1AR Transformer. The Fire Brigade Leader reports to the control room that the fire has been extinguished.

As the CRS, which of the following is the MINIMUM Fire Watch requirement that must be implemented for the extinguished fire?

a. A fire watch is NOT required since 1AR is outside secondary containment.

b. Establish a continuous fire watch for a minimum of one hour.

c. Establish a continuous fire watch for a minimum of two hours.

d. Establish a continuous fire watch or a minimum of four hours.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE:

A.3-004 pg 5 AWI-08.01.01 M8108L-039 BANK - 2010 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 600000A2.15: Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: Requirements for establishing a fire watch.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: A fire watch is required; however this is plausible because 1AR isnt included in the EAL Classification table H-1.

b. is correct: IAW with the emergency procedures for recovery from a fire, once a fire is out a fire watch must be placed at the scene for a minimum of one hour as directed by the Fire Brigade Leader and/or Shift Manager.

c. is incorrect: Two and four hours are plausible time requirements and would be allowed but isnt the MINIMUM required.

d. is incorrect: Two and four hours are plausible time requirements and would be allowed but isnt the MINIMUM required.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 082 The plant is at rated conditions when a grid disturbance results in lowering voltage and frequency on the Main Generator.

Generator voltage is 21.8 kV and stable.

Generator frequency is 58.2 Hz and stable.

Which of the following procedures, if any, must be directed by the CRS and why?

a. No procedural action required; the generator can operate indefinitely under these conditions.

b. C.4-K (IMMEDIATE REACTOR SHUTDOWN) to protect the Turbine buckets from premature failure.

c. C.6-8-A-34 (1-BUS 345 KV LOW FREQ) to raise Generator frequency with the Speed Load Changer.

d. C.6-8-A-34 (1-BUS 345 KV LOW FREQ) to raise Generator voltage with the Regulator Voltage Adjust.

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE:

C.6-8-A-34 C.4-K M-8107L-034 NEW HIGHER K/A: 700000G2.2.44: Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible for frequencies > 59.5 Hz.

b. is correct: An automatic turbine trip will occur when frequency is less than 58.5 Hz. Based on the given conditions this should have already occurred but the turbine failed to trip. A reactor scram should immediately be performed in order to unload and trip the turbine.

c. is incorrect: This procedure is not required to be implemented as the Generator should have already tripped at < 58.5 Hz and the Speed Load Changer will not change Generator frequency.

d. is incorrect: The Generator should have already tripped at < 58.5 Hz and raising voltage will not protect the Generator in an under frequency condition.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 083 The plant was at rated conditions when an Off-Gas System isolation occurred.

C.4-F (RAPID POWER REDUCTION) was entered and the following conditions exist:

Main Turbine exhaust pressure is 4.0 Hga and degrading 0.1 Hga/minute

Main Generator output is 400 MWe and lowering 10 MWe/minute

C.4-B.06.03.A (DECREASING CONDENSER VACUUM) Figure 1 is provided on the following page Assuming the above trends remain constant, in how many minutes will the CRS be FIRST REQUIRED to direct a reactor scram IAW C.4.K (IMMEDIATE REACTOR SHUTDOWN)?

a. 10 minutes

b. 20 minutes

c. 30 minutes

d. 35 minutes ANSWER c.

REFERENCE C.4-B.06.03.A MT-ILT-AOP-014L NEW HIGHER K/A: 295002A2.02: Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to LOSS OF MAIN CONDENSER VAC: Reactor power JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This is the entry point to the Alert region and a scram isnt required yet.

b. is incorrect: Plausible if examinee cant recall the allowed time requirement in the Alert region.

c. is correct: The examinee must know the requirements of the 3 regions of Figure 1 (Allowable Operation, Alert and Scram required). Starting in the Allowable region and plotting pressure vs Power output, the Alert region will be reached in 10 minutes. Operation in the Alert region is allowed for 20 minutes before a scram is required. Therefore, a scram is required after 30 minutes.

d. is incorrect: This is the entry point to the Scram Required region but a scram should have already been inserted.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 084 The plant has been operating at rated conditions for several months.

On March 10th at 0000 it was discovered that the SR 3.3.6.1.1 CHANNEL CHECK for the Reactor Vessel Water Level - Low Low Instrumentation had not been performed since March 9th at 0800. A risk evaluation has NOT been performed.

Given the information above, determine if an extension is allowed, if so, when is the latest the surveillance can be completed and remain in compliance with Technical Specifications?

a. An extension IS allowed; perform the surveillance prior to March 10th at 0800.

b. An extension IS allowed; perform the surveillance prior to March 10th at 1200.

c. An extension IS allowed; perform the surveillance prior to March 11th at 0000.

d. An extension IS NOT allowed; immediately enter the ACTIONS of TS 3.3.6.1.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE SR 3.03 T.S. 3.3.6.1 M8107L-072 BANK - 2009 NRC Exam HIGHER REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: SR 3.03 & T.S. 3.3.6.1 K/A: 295009G2.2.12: Knowledge of surveillance procedures JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible for using the 24 hour2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months allowance from the last time the SR was performed.

b. is incorrect: Plausible for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months from time of discovery or thinking the 24 hour2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months allowance cant be used without a risk assessment.

c. is correct: SR 3.3.6.1.1 has a 12 hour1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months frequency with a 1.25 times grace period which would require the SR to have been performed by 2300 on March 9th. SR 3.0.3 allows from time of discovery, 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months or the length of the specified frequency whichever is greater to perform the surveillance. Note: 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months can only be exceeded if a risk evaluation has been performed.

d. is incorrect: SR 3.0.3 allows delay of entering actions.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 085 The plant is at rated condition in a normal electrical lineup with the following conditions:

11 RBCCW Pump is in service

Reactor power indicates 2003 MWth

The EPR Control Position is set at 904 PSI

The MPR Handwheel Position indicates 914 PSI An equipment malfunction causes the MCC-142A supply breaker to TRIP OPEN.

For the above conditions, which of the following procedures must be directed, and why?

a. C.4-B.02.05.A (LOSS OF RBCCW FLOW) for the loss of #11 RBCCW Pump.

b. C.4-B.09.10.A (LOSS OF A 125 VDC BUS) for a loss of the Division 1 125 VDC Charger.

c. C.4-K (IMMEDIATE REACTOR SHUTDOWN) for a Pressure Regulator failing downscale.

d. C.4-B.05.09.B (PRESSURE REGULATOR FAILURE CAUSING INCREASED PRESSURE) to lower reactor power below the license limit.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE C.4-B.09.07.D C.4-B.05.09.B B.05.09-05 MT-ILT-AOP-021 BANK HIGHER K/A: 295014G2.1.32: Inadvertent Reactivity Addition: Ability to explain and apply system limits and precautions.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: MCC-142A supplies power to 12 RBCCW pump so this procedure would not need to be entered.

b. is incorrect: MCC-142A supplies power to the Spare 125 VDC charger so this procedure would not need to be entered.

c. is incorrect: This procedure would only need to be entered if the regulator failure caused a reduction in reactor pressure.

d. is correct: Both EPR oil pumps A & B are powered by MCC-142A, so a loss will cause the MPR to take control at a reactor pressure approximately 10 psig higher. General precautions; During power operation, changing the controlling pressure regulator setpoint will have a small but noticeable effect on core thermal power (approximately 3MWt per 10 psig change). The examinee must apply this thumb rule and know the higher reactor pressure will cause power to rise to 2006 MWth which would require a power reduction to remain within the license limit (2004 MWth).

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 086 The plant is operating in Mode 1 with the following conditions:

SRV H Amber light is OFF

SRV H tailpipe temperature is 140°F and rising If these conditions continue, which of the following must be IMMEDIATELY directed by the CRS if SRV H tailpipe temperature exceeds 210°F?

a. C.3 (SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE)

b. C.4-F (RAPID POWER REDUCTION)

c. C.4-B.03.03.B (STUCK OPEN RELIEF VALVE)

d. B.03.01-05.G.4 (CORE SPRAY A LOOP TORUS MIXING)

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE:

C.4-B.03.03.B B.03.01-05.G.4 MT-ILT-AOP-006L BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 209001G2.1.23: LPCS: Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: A shutdown should be scheduled to be performed within 30 days to replace the SRV but is not required immediately.

b. is incorrect: These would be correct procedures to enter if the valve was stuck open but since the amber light is off these procedures wont be entered.

c. is incorrect: These would be correct procedures to enter if the valve was stuck open but since the amber light is off these procedures wont be entered.

d. is correct: The given indications are a leaking SRV that will add heat to the torus. IAW the abnormal procedure for leaking SRV, the Core Spray System is placed in the Torus Mixing Mode when tailpipe temperature exceeds 210°F. This prevents high localized Torus water temperatures since significant heat addition could start beyond this temperature.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 087 The plant was at rated conditions when a Reactor SCRAM occurred. The IMMEDIATE scram actions have been taken and the following conditions exist:

RPV pressure is 870 psig and slowly rising

RPV water level is 24 inches and slowly lowering

The scram initiating condition has cleared

All eight RPS scram bus lights on C-05 are OFF

SDV vent and drain valves all indicate OPEN

3 control rods remain at position 04, all others are full in Which of the following procedures must be directed / used to mitigate the conditions above?

a. C.4-A (REACTOR SCRAM)

b. C.5-3101 (ALTERNATE ROD INSERTION)

c. B.02.03-05 (MANUAL INITIATION OF RCIC)

d. C.4-B.05.09-B (MAIN STEAM PRESSURE REGULATOR FAILURE CAUSING INCREASED PRESSURE)

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE C.5-1300 C.4-A MT-ILT-AOP-001L NEW HIGHER K/A: 212000G2.4.6: RPS: Knowledge of EOP mitigation strategies.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: Following a reactor scram the SDV vent and drain valves receive a signal from RPS and should automatically close. If they dont close a significant hi radiation condition will exist in the Reactor building. This will require entry into EOP C.5-1300 (SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL) which will direct the leak to be isolated. This will require expediting the C.4-A (REACTOR SCRAM) steps to manually isolate the SDV vent and drain valves.

b. is incorrect: This action would not be required unless the ATWS EOP was entered. This is not a major concern because SD Margin will be maintained and the leak would be prioritized.

c. is incorrect: 15-20 is the normal band post scram. Currently RPV level is trending back to normal band.

d. is incorrect: This would be the normal pressure expected post scram and is not an indication of a regulator failure.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 088 The plant is at 100% power with the following conditions:

APRM 1 is BYPASSED and CANNOT be restored

The following LPRMs are BYPASSED for APRM 3:

LPRM 20-13A LPRM 44-29B LPRM 12-13D LPRM 36-29A LPRM 20-29C LPRM 12-21D LPRM 12-37B LPRM 36-13C LPRM 28-37D LPRM 28-21B LPRM 36-45C

B.05.01.02-06 Figure 39 (APRM-LPRM ASSIGNMENTS) is on the following page.

Concerning the APRM Neutron Flux-High Function, which of the following is the Tech Spec Required Action and allowed Completion Time, if any, for the above conditions?

a. Restore RPS trip capability within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

b. Place the APRM 3 Neutron Flux-High Function in trip within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

c. Place the APRM 3 Neutron Flux-High Function in trip within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months .

d. No Action required as the minimum required channels remain operable.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE TS 3.3.1.1 B.05.01.02-05 B.05.01.02-06 M8107L-066 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: TS 3.3.1.1 NEW HIGHER K/A: 215005A2.08: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the APRM/LPRM System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operations: Faulty or erratic operation of detectors/systems.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Although the #1 and #3 instruments are typically associated with the A RPS Trip Systems, this is not the case for the APRMs. ANY two trips sent to the 2 of 4 voters will cause an RPS Trip. Capability is not lost.

b. is incorrect: This is a correct time requirement for most RPS instruments with the exception of the APRM functions. This is described in the Condition B NOTE: Not applicable for Functions 2.a, b, c, d or f.

c. is correct: For APRM Neutron Flux-High Function (2.c) to be Operable - there must be 14 operable LPRMs AND at least 2 LPRMs per level. With the eleven LPRMs being bypassed, there are only 13 LPRMs operating. Therefore, the APRM Neutron Flux-High Function is Inoperable. With APRM 1 bypassed and this APRM 3 function inoperable there are only 2 required channels operable for this function when 3 are required. This requires entry into TS 3.3.1.1 Condition A which requires the channel be placed in trip within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months .

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

d. is incorrect: Since only 3 of 4 instruments are required, this is plausible if the examinee doesnt count the bypassed APRM as a lost channel.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) 2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 089 The plant is at rated conditions when the following occur:

At 0830 on May 3rd, SBGT B Train is declared INOPERABLE.

At 2000 on May 5th, SBGT A Train is declared INOPERABLE.

If no further operator actions are taken, when must the reactor be placed in MODE 4 IAW Tech Specs?

a. 0900 on May 6th

b. 0800 on May 7th

c. 0900 on May 7th

d. 2030 on May 11th ANSWER c.

REFERENCE LCO 3.6.4.3 TS 1.3 M-8107L-008 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: LCO 3.6.4.3 and TS 1.3 BANK HIGHER K/A: 261000G2.2.40: SGTS: Ability to apply technical specifications for a system.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible as this is the time that LCO 3.0.3 directs entry into Mode 3.

b. is incorrect: Plausible if the examinee determines that LCO 3.6.4.3 Condition A actions are not met and enters Condition B which directs Mode 4 within 36 hours4.166667e-4 days 0.01 hours 5.952381e-5 weeks 1.3698e-5 months .

c. is correct: The examinee must determine that when the second SBGT is declared INOPERABLE that LCO 3.6.4.3 Condition D becomes applicable. Entry into LCO 3.0.3 is directed and from that point it allows 37 hours4.282407e-4 days 0.0103 hours 6.117725e-5 weeks 1.40785e-5 months from when the second SBGT becomes inoperable to be in Mode 4.

d. is incorrect: Plausible as LCO 3.6.4.3 Condition A allows 7 days and the examinee then adds the 37 hours4.282407e-4 days 0.0103 hours 6.117725e-5 weeks 1.40785e-5 months per LCO 3.0.3.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 090 The plant is at rated conditions when a Loss of ALL Offsite Power and LOCA occurred. Given the following:

11 EDG failed to start

12 Service Water pump is running

12 EDG-ESW pump failed to start

Drywell pressure is 2.2 psig and slowly rising

Drywell temperature is 138°F and slowly rising

RPV pressure is 820 psig and slowly lowering

RPV water level is -10 inches and slowly rising using HPCI Based on the conditions above, which of the following procedures must be prioritized and directed FIRST by the CRS and why?

a. C.5-3502 (CONTAINMENT SPRAYS) to start Drywell Sprays

b. C.5-3503 (DEFEAT DRYWELL COOLER TRIPS) to start Drywell cooling

c. C.5-3205 (TERMINATE AND PREVENT) to prevent Core Spray and LPCI injection

d. B.08.01.02-05.H.3 (XFER EDG CLG FROM EDG-ESW TO SW) to restore 12 EDG cooling ANSWER d.

REFERENCE:

C.4-B.09.02.B B.08.01.02-05.H.3 MT-ILT-AOP-023L BANK HIGHER K/A: 264000A2.09: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the EDG System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operations: Loss of A.C. Power JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Although this action may be performed IAW C.5-1200 it is not required until 12 psig in the Drywell. Additionally, Figure N would not currently allow this action.

b. is incorrect: This action may be performed once the RBCCW pumps are restarted following the load shed, however, if 12 EDG trips on high temperature RBCCW will become unavailable.

c. is incorrect: Although this action may be performed IAW C.5-1100 it is not urgent at this time as reactor pressure is above the shutoff head (320 psig) of the low pressure ECCS pumps.

d. is correct: With a LONOP and a loss of 12 ESW PUMP the 12 EDG will be running without cooling water. Not establishing cooling will result in a loss of safety function as the diesel would trip and de-energize bus 16 reducing the plant to the minimum available ECCS systems. A MOD during RFO23 changed the SW lineup to the EDGs requiring manual

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination) manipulation of valves to provide SW cooling to the EDGs when the associated ESW pump fails to start.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 091 A Reactor startup is in progress with the RWM out of service. A second licensed operator is present at C-05 to verify the movement of control rods. The following conditions apply:

RWM bypassed

Reactor Power at 5 x 103 cps on the SRMs Due to an administrative error with the Reactivity Maneuvering Steps, several Control Rods have been withdrawn that are inconsistent with the Banked Position Withdrawal Sequence (BPWS).

If a control rod drop accident occurs under these conditions, which of the following limits may be exceeded?

a. PCIUTL

b. Peak Fuel Enthalpy

c. Reactor Vessel Pressure

d. Minimum Critical Power Ratio ANSWER b.

REFERENCE TS 3.1.6 Bases M8107L-001 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 295006G2.2.38: Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: PCIUTL is only used above the threshold power level (approximately 80%

RTP).

b. is correct: The stem of the question indicates that several rod withdrawal errors have occurred as a result of an administrative error while operating with the RWM bypassed. As a result of multiple rods out of position (not in compliance with the Rod Pattern Control/BPWS), TS 3.1.6 Bases (Applicable Safety Analysis) states that the basis for the RPC/BPWS is limiting "peak fuel enthalpy" to less than 280 cal per gram.

c. is incorrect: The reactor is operating in the Source Range, and IRM scram will terminate power rise before reaching point of adding heat.

d. is incorrect: (MCPR) is not correct because the MCPR LCO (3.2.2) is not applicable until above 25% power.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 092 At 0600, the plant is at normal rated conditions. ALL RCS Operational LEAKAGE rates have been stable for 3 days. The previous 24 hour2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months LEAKAGE calculations are as follows:

Average total LEAKAGE is 24.5 gpm

Average unidentified LEAKAGE is 3.5 gpm At 0700, Drywell Equipment Sump flow has risen by 1.7 gpm and the following is indicated:

Which of the following describes the required TS ACTION and COMPLETION TIME?

(Assume the increased LEAKAGE remains constant and no operator action is taken.)

a. The plant must be placed in Mode 3 by 1900 for Pressure Boundary LEAKAGE.

b. The unidentified LEAKAGE RATE must meet the LCO statement by 1100.

c. The unidentified LEAKAGE must meet the LCO statement by 1100.

d. The total LEAKAGE must meet the LCO statement by 1100.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE LCO 3.4.4 M-8107L-101 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: LCO 3.4.4 NEW HIGHER K/A: 202001G2.4.47: Recirculation: Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Reactor Recirculation pump seal leakage is not pressure boundary leakage.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

b. is incorrect: The total leakage rate has risen in the last 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months but is less than 2 gpm.

c. is incorrect: Reactor Recirculation pump seal leakage is not unidentified leakage.

d. is correct: Total leakage exceeds LCO 3.4.4.c (<25 gpm). This requires restoration in 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months .

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 093 The plant is in Mode 5 when a Refueling Accident occurs. Given the following:

At 0100 the WRGMs read as follows:

Stack Effluent Monitor Channel A reads 8.0E+4 µCi/Sec.

Stack Effluent Monitor Channel B reads 8.4E+4 µCi/Sec.

Reactor Building Vent Effluent Monitor Channel A reads 1.2E+4 µCi/Sec Reactor Building Vent Effluent Monitor Channel B reads 1.0E+4 µCi/Sec At 0105 the WRGMs read as follows:

Stack Effluent Monitor Channel A reads 8.3E+4 µCi/Sec.

Stack Effluent Monitor Channel B reads 8.7E+4 µCi/Sec.

Reactor Building Vent Effluent Monitor Channel A reads 1.7E+4 µCi/Sec Reactor Building Vent Effluent Monitor Channel B reads 1.4E+4 µCi/Sec As the CRS, complete the following statement for the given conditions?

(Assume radiation levels continue to rise at the same rate)

Of the times listed below, conditions to start the 60 minute clock for declaring an NUE...

a. were met at 0100.

b. were met at 0105.

c. are not currently met but will be at 0110.

d. are not currently met and wont be met earlier than 0115.

ANSWER c.

REFERENCE EAL Matrix MT-BEP-OPS-001L REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: EAL Matrix NEW HIGHER K/A: 271000A2.04: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the OFFGAS SYSTEM and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operations: High Offgas Radiation Levels JUSTIFICATION STACK NUE LEVEL: 7.3 E+5 RBV NUE LEVEL: 2.16 E+4

a. is incorrect: NUE levels have not been reached.

b. is incorrect: NUE levels have not been reached.

c. is correct: The examinee must apply the EAL Matrix of the above trends and determine that at approximately 0109 RBV NUE levels will be exceeded. At time 0110 the A RBV radiation level will be 2.2 E+4.

d. is incorrect: It is true that they are not currently met but they will be met earlier than 0115.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 094 The plant is operating at rated conditions. A planned load reduction to 90% RTP is about to start for MSIV testing. The power adjustments will ONLY use Recirc flow.

Which of the following is the minimum required Control Room oversight required for the performance of this load reduction?

a. Duty Control Room Supervisor ONLY

b. Duty Control Room Supervisor and Shift Manager ONLY

c. Duty Control Room Supervisor, Shift Manager and Operations Manager

d. Duty Control Room Supervisor, Shift Manager and Reactivity Management SRO (RMSRO)

ANSWER b.

REFERENCE OWI-01.06 M8108L-038 BANK FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.1.2: Knowledge of operator responsibilities during all modes of operation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible oversight requirements for different variations of reactivity manipulations.

b. is correct: All reactivity manipulations SHALL be conducted under the supervision of a duty qualified SRO. During planned reactivity manipulations of longer duration for load drops of 25% RTP or less using ONLY Recirc flow, the duty SM SHALL provide additional oversight in the CR in addition to the CRS .

c. is incorrect: Plausible oversight requirements for different variations of reactivity manipulations.

d. is incorrect: Plausible oversight requirements for different variations of reactivity manipulations.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 095 The plant is at rated conditions when Drywell pressure begins to slowly rise. The operators are executing C.4-B.04.01.F (LEAK INSIDE PRIMARY CONTAINMENT). The CRS has briefed the crew that a manual Reactor Scram will be inserted when Drywell pressure reaches 1.6 psig.

Using FP-OP-COO-15 (CONSERVATIVE DECISION MAKING) Attachment 3, determine what level of decision making the CRS has employed for this situation?

a. Tier 1

b. Tier 2

c. Type 1 ODMI

d. Type 2 ODMI ANSWER b.

REFERENCE:

FP-OP-COO-15 M8108L-038 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: FP-OP-COO-15 Attachment 3 NEW FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.1.39: Knowledge of conservative decision making practices.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: Plausible decision making levels found in Attachment 3.

b. is correct: An example of Tier 2 Decision Making is Establishing conservative values for operation, at what point action will be taken prior to reaching an automatic set point. In this case the automatic setpoint would be 1.84 psig which will initiate an automatic reactor scram.

c. is incorrect: Plausible decision making levels found in Attachment 3.

d. is incorrect: Plausible decision making levels found in Attachment 3.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 096 The plant is shutdown during an outage with the following conditions:

The Mode switch is in the REFUEL position

RPV coolant temperature is 180°F

Vessel head closure bolts are fully tensioned A leak is discovered on LT-2-3-112B (Fuel Zone level transmitter). The transmitter is subsequently isolated and the "B" Fuel Zone Level indicator is declared inoperable.

Which one of the following represents the required Technical Specification Completion Time for this situation AND the Required Action to take if the instrument is not restored within this time?

a. This instrument is not required in the current Mode, no Technical Specification action required.

b. This instrument is not required for Post-Accident Monitoring, no Technical Specification action required.

c. Restore the instrument within 7 days or submit a report for Post-Accident Monitoring Instrumentation within 14 days.

d. Restore the instrument within 30 days or submit a report for Post-Accident Monitoring Instrumentation within 14 days.

ANSWER d.

REFERENCE:

TS 3.3.3.1 & Bases TS 5.6.4 M8107L-056 REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: TS 3.3.3.1 and TS 5.6 BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.2.35: Ability to determine technical specification mode of operation.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: This instrument is required in Modes 1 and 2. The given conditions meet the requirements for Mode 2.

b. is incorrect: This is a PAM Level instrument. This is discussed in the TS bases and the SRO candidate must recall this from memory.

c. is incorrect: These are the required action if one function of PAM instrumentation is lost.

d. is correct: Using the bulleted information, the candidate must determine that the plant is in Mode 2 and that this component is required to be operable. The inoperable channel must be restored to operable status within 30 days or Submit a Post-Accident Monitoring Report within 14 days.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 097 Which of the following activities REQUIRE the use of the Bypass Control Process?

a. Modifying a Control Room annunciator circuit by LIFTING an electrical lead.

b. Installing a TEMPORARY hose to drain the Service Water System to the floor drains.

c. Opening C-31 INSTALLED Knife Switch 16 with plant power fed from the 1R Transformer.

d. Installing new Condensate Demineralizers that have NOT yet been RELEASED to the plant.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE:

AWI-04.04.03 M8108L-039 BANK - 2013 NRC Exam FUNDAMENTAL K/A: 2.2.43: Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: AWI-04.04.03 BYPASS CONTROL is the process used for this and states When alarm circuitry is modified directly (annunciator card removal, lifted lead, jumper or shutting off computer alarm points), a Bypass Tag or TMod Tag SHALL be used to identify the circuit modification and a Temporary Information Tag SHALL be placed on the alarm stating it is disabled.

b. is incorrect: example of when this process is not required to be used.

c. is incorrect: example of when this process is not required to be used.

d. is incorrect: example of when this process is not required to be used.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 098 The plant was at rated conditions when a HPCI steam supply line break occurred. All attempts to isolate the leak have NOT been successful. Conditions are as follows:

RM A-14, HPCI Turbine Area, indicates 1R/hr

TR-4926, Point 26, 896 HPCI Turbine Area, indicates 215ºF and rising

TR-4926, Points 27 and 28, 896 HPCI Turbine Area, indicate 210ºF and rising

Annunciator 4-A-11 (REACTOR BUILDING HI RADIATION) is in alarm

Annunciator 3-B-56 (HIGH AREA TEMPERATURE STEAM LEAK) is in alarm Based on plant conditions, what action is the CRS required to direct?

a. Insert a manual Scram ONLY

b. Commence a normal plant shutdown

c. Insert a manual Scram AND initiate a Blowdown

d. Insert a manual Scram AND if Point 27 or 28 exceed 212ºF then initiate a Blowdown.

ANSWER a.

REFERENCE:

C.5-1300 C.5.1-1300 MT-ILT-EOP-004L REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: C.5-1300 with entry conditions blanked out BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.3.14: Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is correct: EOP-1300 directs that if a primary system is discharging into the reactor building and cannot be isolated and any area temperature, radiation, or water level reaches max safe valve (Table w, x, z) then scram. This criteria is met with a HPCI room temperature

>212ºF or rad level of 1R.

b. is incorrect: The leak cannot be isolated; therefore, the override in step 26 applies directing entry into step 27.

c. is incorrect: There is only 1 area of each parameter that exceeds max safe.

d. is incorrect: These points exceeding the max safe are still in the same area; therefore, there is still only 1 area of each parameter that exceeds max safe.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 099 The plant was at rated conditions when an LONOP and LOCA occurred. HPCI and RCIC have been unable to maintain RPV water level and the following conditions are now present:

15 Bus LOCKOUT has occurred

Drywell pressure is 8 psig and rising slowly

RPV pressure is 550 psig and lowering slowly

RPV water level is -110 inches and lowering slowly

12 and 14 RHR pumps are running in the Torus Spray/Cooling Mode

12 Core Spray pump is running with MO-1752 (#12 CS OUTBOARD ISOLATION)

OPEN and MO-1754 (#12 CS INBOARD ISOLATION) CLOSED As the CRS, which one of the following directions must be given at this time?

a. Initiate an Emergency Depressurization.

b. Start an additional low pressure ECCS pump.

c. Secure Torus Sprays and realign B RHR to LPCI Mode.

d. Place the 12 Core Spray system in its normal injection lineup.

ANSWER:

c.

REFERENCE:

C.5-1100 C.5.1-1100 Bases MT-ILT-EOP-002L REFERENCE PROVIDED DURING EXAM: EOP Flowcharts NEW HIGHER K/A: 2.4.23: Knowledge of the bases for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation during emergency operations.

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect. Emergency Depressurization should be directed after going below TAF but before -149.

b. is incorrect. With the given conditions, Division 1 ECCS pumps would be unavailable due to the 15 bus lockout and all Division 2 low pressure ECCS pumps are already running.

c. is correct: With the current lineup there is only one injection source lined up with a pump running IAW C.5.1-1100 EOP Bases (12 Core Spray). Prior to TAF (-126) EOP-1100 directs that a second injection source be lined up. For the above situation this could be done by placing 12 and 14 RHR pumps in the LPCI Mode.

d. is incorrect. This is the normal line up for Core Spray.

2015 MNGP ILT NRC SRO Written Exam (Proposed Examination)

QUESTION # 100 A refueling outage is in progress with the RPV head removed. Given the following:

Plant loads are being supplied from the 1R Transformer

2R and 1AR Transformers isolated for maintenance

An event results in a 1R Transformer LOCKOUT

All equipment responds as expected.

The Shift Security Supervisor reports that the 1R Transformer LOCKOUT was caused by a HOSTILE ACTION in the SUBYARD.

Given the above information, what Emergency Action Level must the Shift Manager declare?

a. NUE

b. ALERT

c. SITE AREA EMERGENCY

d. GENERAL EMERGENCY ANSWER:

b.

REFERENCE:

5790-101-02 A.2-101 MT-BEP-OPS-001 BANK HIGHER K/A: 2.4.28: Knowledge of procedures related to a security event (non-safeguards information).

JUSTIFICATION

a. is incorrect: If only the electrical aspects of this event are analyzed, then only an Unusual Event would be declared.

b. is correct: Since the Hostile Action occurred within the Owner Controlled Area this is an Alert under HA4.1.

c. is incorrect: If the Hostile Action occurred within the Protected Area, then it would be a Site Area Emergency

d. is incorrect: The events above will result in a Loss of All Offsite Power; however, this will not disable equipment needed for safe shutdown of the plant which, if so, would require a GE declaration.

ML15167A522

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