ML11152A128

2011-04-Draft Written Exam

ML11152A128
Person / Time
Site:	Columbia
Issue date:	04/22/2011
From:	Sean Hedger Operations Branch IV
To:	Energy Northwest
laura hurley
References
IR-11-004
Download: ML11152A128 (124)

Text

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 1 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating in MODE 1, it is determined that the OPRM system is inoperable.

Which of the following would require a Reactor Scram to be inserted?

A. Only one RRC Pump operating at 35000 gpm and a 100% Rod Line.

B. Only one RRC Pump operating at 41725 gpm and an LPRM has oscillations of 12 watts/cm2.

C. Two RRC Pumps operating at 52% Core Flow and a 103% Rod Line.

D. Two RRC Pumps operating at 50 Mlb/hr with a 90% Rod Line and the boiling boundary is LT 3.0 feet.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295001AK1.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to partial or complete loss of forced core flow circulation:

Power/Flow distribution (3.3 / 3.5)

REFERENCE:

ABN-CORE pages 4, 6; ABN-RRC-LOSS Page 18; SOP-RRC-START Page 40 SOURCE: NEW LO: 6919 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: YES - ABN-RRC-LOSS Att. 7.1 - Single loop P/F Map, SOP-RRC-START Att 6.1

- Two Loop P/F Map JUSTIFICATION: Per ABN-CORE a scram is required if in Region A (Single Loop) and OPRM is inoperable. Distractor 1 - Oscillations have to be GT 20 watts/cm2. Distractor 2 -

Flow and rod line put you in AIA and scram is not required. Distractor 3 - Puts you in AIA with BB LT 3.0 feet - Per ABN-CORE the risk of oscillations is higher but does not require a scram be inserted.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 2 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The plant was operating at full power when the Main Turbine trips. The lights in the Main Control Room go out for 10 seconds and then only some of the lights come back on.

Which of the following is correct?

A. Breakers S1 and S3 have closed and SM-7 and SM-8 are powered from TR-S.

B. Breakers N1/1 and N1/3 have opened and SM-7 and SM-8 are currently powered from SM-1 and SM-3.

C. Breakers DG1-7 and DG2-8 have closed and SM-7 and SM-8 are powered from DG-1 and DG-2 respectively.

D. Breakers B7 and B8 have closed and SM-7 and SM-8 are both powered from TR-B.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295003 AA2.05 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to partial or complete loss of AC power: Whether a partial or complete loss of AC power has occurred (3.9 / 4.2)

REFERENCE:

SD000182 page 43 and figure 1 SOURCE: NEW LO: 5053 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: After a MT Trip, TR-S should have immediately closed in with no lights going out but it did not as the stem indicated lights go out. If TR-B were powering SM-7 and SM-8, it would have only taken about 5.5 seconds to repower SM-7 and SM-8. It takes about 10 seconds for DGs to repower based on DG Start times. SM-7 and SM-8 cannot be directly repowered from TR-S. MC-7E and MC-8E are load shed which loses some of the lighting in the Control Room.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 3 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A loss of which of the following DC Buses would cause the indicated Reactor Scram to occur?

A. S2-1; A MT Trip which causes a Reactor scram B. S1-7; A loss of feedwater causes a Low RPV Level Reactor scram C. S1-1; A closure of the Inboard MSIVs which causes a Reactor scram D. S1-2; A loss of containment cooling causes a High DW/P Reactor scram ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295004 AK3.03 Knowledge of the reason for the following responses as they apply to partial or complete loss of DC power: Reactor SCRAM (3.1 / 3.5)

REFERENCE:

SD000188 pages 24-29 SOURCE: NEW LO: 7652, 7653, 7654, 7657 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference a loss of S1-7 will causes a loss of feedwater and a low RPV level scram. The other DC centers do not cause a scram.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 4 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 An event occurs that results in a reactor scram from full power. The following plant configuration now exists:

RCIC Auto started Both Reactor Feedwater Pumps have tripped Both Reactor Recirculation Pumps are off CB-RPT-3A and CB-RPT-4A are open CB-RPT-3B and CB-RPT-4B are open Drywell pressure is 1 psig Which of the following caused the scram?

A. Main Turbine trip B. Low RPV/L of -10 C. Inboard MSIVs closed D. High RPV Pressure of 1130 psig ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295005 AA1.01 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to Main Turbine Generator Trip: Recirculation System (3.1 / 3.3)

REFERENCE:

SD000178 Pages 24 and 25 SOURCE: Bank LO00229 LO: 11646 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Only a trip of the MT with power GT 30% will open CB-RPT-4A and 4B.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 5 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is operating in MODE 1 when a Reactor Scram occurs.

Which of the following is correct?

The setpoint Setdown logic is initiated.

A. only when the Mode Switch is placed in the SHUTDOWN position. It reduces the Master Level Controller current setpoint to +18 inches. The system stays in this configuration until the scram is reset and then ramps water level back to +36 inches on the Master Level Controller over a 9 minute period.

B. when any RPS Scram signal is generated. It reduces the Master Level Controller current setpoint to +18 inches. The system stays in this configuration until the scram is reset and then ramps water level back to +36 inches on the Master Level Controller over a 9 minute period.

C. only when the Mode Switch is placed in the SHUTDOWN position. It reduces the Master Level Controller current setpoint by 18 inches. The system stays in this configuration until the scram is reset and then ramps water level up by 18 inches on the Master Level Controller over a 9 minute period.

D. when any RPS Scram signal is generated. It reduces the Master Level Controller current setpoint by 18 inches. The system stays in this configuration until the scram is reset and then ramps water level up by 18 inches on the Master Level Controller over a 9 minute period.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 295006 AK2.02 Knowledge of the interrelationship between scram and the following: Reactor Water Level Control System (3.8 / 3.8)

REFERENCE:

SD000157 Page 16 SOURCE: New LO: 5397 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference D is correct.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 6 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The CRS has directed a Control Room Evacuation due to a fire.

If operators only have time to perform the immediate actions associated with ABN-CR-EVAC, which of the following is correct concerning access into the Vital Island and the Remote Shutdown Room?

A. Individual entry to the Vital Island is required. Each person presents their badge to the card reader to unlock the door. The door to the Remote Shutdown Room will be unlocked and presentation of a badge is not required.

B. The first person entering both the Vital Island and the Remote Shutdown Room presents their badge to card reader to unlock the door. Any other person entering before the door closes just presents their badge to the card reader.

C. The door to the Vital Island and the door to the Remote Shutdown Room will be unlocked. Presenting your badge to either card reader is not required.

D. Individual entry to the Vital Island and the Remote Shutdown Room is required. Each person presents their badge to the card reader to unlock the door.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295016 2.1.13 Control Room Abandonment; Knowledge of facility requirements for controlling vital/controlled access. (2.5 / 3.2)

REFERENCE:

ABN-CR-EVAC Page 5 (Immediate actions) and 20 (Attachment 7.1)

SOURCE: New LO: 6889 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per immediate actions, security is directed to perform Attachment 7.1. One of those steps is to unlock all doors in the Radwaste and Reactor Buildings. Unlocking the doors to the Vital Island and the RSD Room disables the card reader and presentation of badges is not required for entry.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 7 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is operating at full power with TSW-P-1A operating and the Emergency Pump Selector Switch in the PP1B position. TSW-P-1B has just been started to facilitate swapping TSW pumps for run time equalization. Prior to any other TSW system manipulations being performed, a trip of both Reactor Feedwater Pumps causes a low RPV Level scram. All systems operate as designed and the HPCS and the RCIC systems automatically recover RPV level.

Which of the following is correct concerning operation of the TSW system?

A. TSW-P-1A continues to operate and TSW-P-1B trips.

B. TSW-P-1B continues to operate and TSW-P-1A trips.

C. Both TSW pumps trip and TSW-P-1B restarts.

D. Both TSW pumps continue to operate.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295018 AK1.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to partial or complete loss of component cooling water:

Effects on component/system operations (3.5 / 3.6)

REFERENCE:

SD000199 page 8 and 10 SOURCE: New LO: 5850; 5851 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: HPCS and RCIC initiating to recover level implies a -50 (A signal) occurred.

With both pumps operating and an A signal (low RPV level) present, TSW-P-1B receives a trip signal regardless of pump select switch position which is in the TSW-P-1B position.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 8 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following describes the effect of a loss of instrument air pressure on the CRD System?

A. The scram valves fail open (CRD-V-126/127); the scram discharge vent valves fail open (CRD-V-10/180) and the drain valves fail closed (CRD-V-11/181); the CRD flow control valve fails in the closed direction (CRD-FCV-2A/2B).

B. The scram valves fail open (CRD-V-126/127); the scram discharge vent valves (CRD-V-10/180) and the drain valves fail closed (CRD-V-11/181); the CRD flow control valve fails in the closed direction (CRD-FCV-2A/2B).

C. The scram valves fail closed (CRD-V-126/127); the scram discharge vent valves fail open (CRD-V-10/180) and the drain valves fail closed (CRD-V-11/181); the CRD flow control valve fails in the closed direction (CRD-FCV-2A/2B).

D. The scram valves fail closed (CRD-V-126/127); the scram discharge vent valves (CRD-V-10/180) and the drain valves fail closed (CRD-V-11/181); the CRD flow control valve fails in the open direction (CRD-FCV-2A/2B).

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295019 AK2.01 Knowledge of the interrelations between partial or complete loss of instrument air and the following: CRD hydraulics (3.8 / 3.9)

REFERENCE:

SD000142 page 43 SOURCE: New LO: 5192a; 11766e RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference scram valves open and the SDV V&D valves and CRD Flow control valves go closed. The CRD FCVs have a minimum stop at 95% closed.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 9 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 During a plant shutdown, RHR-P-2B, which was operating in Shutdown Cooling, trips. One of the alternate methods of decay heat removal is to raise RPV level to GT +60 inches.

Which of the following is correct concerning this method of decay heat removal?

Raising RPV Level to GT +60 inches .

A. ensures RPV level is above the natural circulation turnaround point in the steam separator which promotes natural circulation and limits thermal stratification B. ensures RPV level is indicated on the Shutdown Range level instrument which is calibrated to ensure indicated level is the same as actual reactor level for these shutdown conditions.

C. ensures a minimum water volume is available which provides adequate margin to Time to 200°F point and thus prevents an inadvertent mode change.

D. ensures RPV level is above the natural circulation turnaround point in the steam dryer unit which promotes natural circulation and provides minimum NPSH for the RHR pump restart.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295021 AK3.01 Knowledge of the reason for the following responses as they apply to loss of shutdown cooling: Raising RPV water level (3.3 / 3.4)

REFERENCE:

ABN-RHR-SDC-LOSS page 10 SOURCE: New LO: 6486 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, 60 is GT the Steam separator turnaround and it promotes natural circulation and limits thermal stratification.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 10 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 During movement of irradiated fuel during refueling, Technical Specifications require a minimum RPV water level to be maintained above the top of the RPV flange.

Which of the following identifies that minimum level and also states the correct basis for maintaining that level?

A. 23; Ensures minimum volume remains available if Spent Fuel Pool makeup is lost for seven days at maximum decay heat generation.

B. 23; Ensures that adequate core cooling is maintained during refueling activities if Shutdown Cooling is lost.

C. 22; Limits the iodine activity released from a dropped irradiated fuel bundle.

D. 22; Increases the Time to 200°F to the required minimum of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295023 AA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to refueling accidents: Fuel Pool Level (3.4 / 3.7)

REFERENCE:

TS B 3.9.6 -1 SOURCE: New LO: 5370 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: TS 3.9.6 for irradiated fuel required 22 above flange. 23 is required for control rod movement per 3.9.7. The basis is for iodine activity released during a irradiated fuel accident

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 11 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The plant is operating at power with Low Pressure Core Spray in a standby lineup. Stroke time testing is being performed on LPCS-V-1 (LPCS-P-1 Suction valve). The control switch for LPCS-V-1 is taken to CLOSE. While the LPCS-V-1 is stroking closed the plant experiences a high drywell reactor scram.

Which of the following explains the response of the Low Pressure Core Spray system?

A. LPCS-P-1 does not start. LPCS-V-1 will automatically stop mid stroke and go back open.

When LPCS-V-1 is full open, LPCS-P-1 will automatically start.

B. LPCS-P-1 does not start. LPCS-V-1 will stroke full closed and then will automatically reopen. LPCS-P-1 automatically starts when LPCS-V-1 is full open.

C. LPCS-P-1 starts. LPCS-V-1 will stroke to the full closed position and then will automatically reopen.

D. LPCS-P-1 starts. LPCS-V-1 continues to full closed position. The control switch has to be taken to OPEN before LPCS-V-1 will open.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 295024 G 2.1.28 High Drywell Pressure - Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls (4.1 / 4.1)

REFERENCE:

SD000192 page 6; EWD-8E-005 SOURCE: New LO: 5485 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: LPCS-P-1 has no suction valve interlock and will start regardless of LPCS-V-1 position. LPCS-V-1 does not automatically stop mid stroke on initiation signal and does not automatically open if closed on initiation signal. D is correct

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 12 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following explains the relationship between Reactor pressure and the ATWS/ARI Logic?

ATWS/ARI initiates at a Reactor pressure of..

A. 1060 psig and actuates to prevent exceeding the RPV design pressure limit.

B. 1060 psig and actuates to provide an alternate means of control rod insertion.

C. 1120 psig and actuates to prevent exceeding the RPV design pressure limit.

D. 1120 psig and actuates to provide an alternate means of control rod insertion.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 295025 EK3.06 Knowledge of the reason for the following responses as they apply to High Reactor Pressure: Alternate rod insertion (4.2 / 4.4)

REFERENCE:

SD000142 page 21 and 25 SOURCE: New LO: 5189; 11773 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: ATWS/ARI initiates at an RPV pressure of 1120 psig, not 1060 psig and functions to provide an additional method of depressurization of the scram air header to insert control rods.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 13 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Events occur resulting in the following parameters:

Suppression Pool level (SP/L) = - 8 inches as read on Yokogawa CMS-LR-3 Wetwell temperature (WW/T) = 86°F as read on chart recorder CMS-TR-5 point A02 Wetwell temperature (WW/T) = 95°F as read on digital indication SPTM-TI-5 Drywell pressure (DW/P) = 1.5 psig as read Yokogawa CMS-PR-1 Drywell temperature (DW/T) = 136°F as read on chart recorder CMS-TR-5 point 110 Drywell temperature (DW/T) = 133°F as read on digital indicator CMS-TI-5 Based on these parameters, PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control, should be entered due to:

A. SP/L and DW/T B. SP/L, WW/T and DW/T C. WW/T and DW/T D. SP/L, DW/P and WW/T ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295026 EA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to Suppression Pool high water temperature: Suppression Pool level (3.8 / 3.9)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.2.1 entry conditions and Operator Aid SOURCE: New LO: 11736 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Operator aid states that with SP/L less than -6 inches to use chart recorder point A02 (instead of digital indication) due to thermocouple becomes uncovered at -6 inches and this not indicates air space temperature instead of SP/temperature

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 14 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Events have occurred that resulted in high drywell temperatures. PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control, has been entered.

Which of the following explains the operation and bases for the operation of Drywell ventilation while performing actions per the Drywell Temp leg of PPM 5.2.1?

When Drywell sprays are initiated..

A. the drywell cooling fans are allowed to continue to operate because they are designed to operate at elevated pressures and in a high humidity environment.

B. the drywell recirculation fans are allowed to continue to operate because they are designed to operate at elevated pressures and in a high humidity environment.

C. unless specifically operated for hydrogen control, the drywell cooling fans are secured which minimizes the equipment damage that occurs when drywell sprays are operated.

D. unless specifically operated for hydrogen control, the drywell recirculation fans are secured which minimizes the equipment damage that occurs when drywell sprays are operated.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295028 EA1.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following as they apply to high drywell temperature: Equipment environmental qualification (2.9 /

3.1)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 page 235 of 275; DW/T leg and PC Gas leg of PPM 5.2.1 SOURCE: New LO: 8316 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: The drywell cooling fans are secured prior to initiation on drywell sprays. The PC Gas leg does not address cooling fans only recirculation fans. The drywell recirculation fans are allowed to continue to operate in the drywell that would have high humidity and elevated pressures.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 15 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Entry into PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control, has been made due to lowering Suppression Pool water level.

If the lowering trend were to continue, which of the following systems vortex limit would be reached first?

A. RHR-A B. RHR-C C. RCIC D. HPCS ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295030 EA1.02 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to Low Suppression Pool water level: RCIC (3.4 / 3.5)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 Page 84 SOURCE: New LO: 8389 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per PPM 5.2.1 RCIC would be the first system affected by lowering suppression pool level.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 16 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A series of events have resulted in the following plant conditions:

No high pressure injection sources are available The Division 1 and 2 ADS inhibit switches are in the NORM position RPV level has been below -129 for the past two minutes and is trending down slowly SM-7 is locked out RHR-P-2B and RHR-P-2C are running normally If RHR-P-2B and RHR-P-2C were to reverse the RPV level trend and RPV level rises to +20 inches, which of the following is correct?

A. Both the Division 1 and the Division 2 ADS solenoids energized. All open ADS SRVs will close when RPV level is GT -129 inches.

B. Both the Division 1 and the Division 2 ADS solenoids energized. All open ADS SRVs will remain open as RPV level rises to +20 inches.

C. Only the Division 2 ADS solenoids energized. All open ADS SRVs will close when RPV level is GT -129 inches.

D. Only the Division 2 ADS solenoids energized. All open ADS SRVs will remain open as RPV level rises to +20 inches.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 295031 EK2.08 Knowledge of the interrelationship between Reactor Low Water Level and the following: Automatic Depressurization System (4.2 / 4.3)

REFERENCE:

SD000186 Figure 8 SOURCE: New LO: 8737 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Only one divisional discharge pressure input is required to open all ADS SRVs.

When RPV level rises to GT +13 the ADS SRVs will remain open.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 17 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia has experienced a loss of CAS which caused MSIV closures. The scram failed to insert control rods. Plant conditions are as follows:

RPV Power is unknown RPV level is being controlled between -80 and -140 inches RPV pressure is being maintained between 800 and 1000 psig Drywell pressure is 6 psig and trending up at 2 psig per minute Suppression Pool temperature is 100°F and up 2°F per minute SLC is being injected with both pumps running for 10 minutes Which of the following is correct?

A. In five minutes, RPV level should be lowered to at least -161 inches, which lowers level to below the elevation of the feedwater spargers. This lowering of level will mitigate the consequence of any irregular neutron flux oscillations.

B. In three minutes, Drywell sprays should be initiated, because at that pressure 95% of the non-condensables in the drywell have been transferred to the wetwell.

C. In five minutes, RPV level should be lowered to at least -161 inches, because conditions would then exist that could over pressurize containment and lead to a loss of containment integrity.

D. In three minutes, Drywell sprays should be initiated because if initiation is delayed, the stresses induced at the exit of the downcomers due to chugging could result in fatigue failure thereby creating a pathway to wetwell air space which bypasses the wetwell water.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295037 EK3.03 Knowledge of the reasons for the following as they apply to SCRAM condition present and reactor power above APRM downscale or unknown:

Lowering reactor water level (4.1 / 4.5)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 pages 134 and 136 SOURCE: New LO: 8108 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: In 5 minutes SP/T will reach 110°F and level/power conditions will exist. RPV level is lowered to at least -161 for the reason stated in C. A is incorrect as the reason given relates to -65. Drywell sprays are initiated on a Wetwell pressure of 12#.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 18 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Before exceeding which of the following, would cause an operator to purposely release radiation from containment, regardless of the Off-site radioactivity release rate?

A. PSP B. PCPL C. HCTL D. SRVTPLL ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295038 G 2.3.11 High Off-site Release Rate: Ability to control radiation releases (3.8 / 4.3)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.2.1 SOURCE: New LO: 8354; 8367 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per PPM 5.2.1, before exceeding PCPL could require an operator to vent containment regardless of off-site release rates. PSP, SRVTPLL and HCTL would require an Emergency depressurization not a vent of containment.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 19 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A fire alarm on FCP-1 annunciates during operation at power. While investigating the FCP-1 alarm, an alarm on FCP-2 and an alarm on FCP-3 also annunciate. The alarm on FCP-1 is associated with the Radwaste Building 487 General Area. OPS2 contacts the Control Room and reports a fire in area of the Chemistry Lab, 487 Radwaste Building.

Which of the following is correct concerning these alarms?

A. A Deluge system will provide fire protection suppression flow when the solenoid valve energizes.

B. A Deluge system solenoid valve has energized and fire protection suppression flow has started.

C. A Wet Pipe Sprinkler system will provide fire protection suppression flow when the fusible link melts.

D. A Wet Pipe Sprinkler head fusible link has melted and fire protection suppression flow has started.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 600000AA2.03 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to Plant Fire on site: Fire Alarm (2.8 / 3.2)

REFERENCE:

PPM 4.FCP.1 4-6; 4.FCP.2 15-1; 4.FCP.3 pg 6 and 7 SOURCE: Bank - slightly modified LO02036 LO: 5375 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: FCP-1 provides alarms from local area detectors indicating a fire in that area. FCP-2 provides alarms indicating activation of Wet Pipe systems and Deluge system. FCP-3 provides alarms for abnormal conditions such as area high temperatures and fire pump starts. Wet pipe systems are used in areas with class A fire loads and have a fusible link that melts to establish flow. Deluge systems are used in areas where there is oil and also in the transformer yard.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 20 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following is correct?

Per  ; if Main Generator power output is fluctuating by for GT 3 minutes; then .

A. ABN-GENERATOR; GT 50 MWe peak to peak; only trip the Main Turbine B. ABN-ELEC-GRID; GT 50 MWe peak to peak; only trip the Main Turbine C. ABN-GENERATOR; GT 100 MWe peak to peak; insert a Reactor Scram and trip the Main Turbine D. ABN-ELEC-GRID; GT 100 MWe peak to peak; insert a Reactor Scram and trip the Main Turbine ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 700000 AA2.08 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to Generator Voltage and Electric Grid disturbances: Criteria to trip the turbine or reactor (4.3 / 4.4)

REFERENCE:

ABN-GENERATOR pages 2 and 7 SOURCE: New LO: 6769; 10359 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Entry into ABN-GENERATOR is made; GT 100 MWe peak to peak require a Reactor scram AND a Main Turbine Trip.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 21 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is operating in MODE 1. A trip of both RFW pumps caused RPV level to drop to -55 inches before level was restored.

Which of the following explains the RWCU system response to the above event?

A. Only RWCU-V-1 closes. The running RWCU pump trips.

B. Only RWCU-V-4 closes. The running RWCU pump trips.

C. Both RWCU-V-1 and RWCU-V-4 close. The running RWCU pump trips.

D. Neither RWCU-V-1 nor RWCU-V-4 close. The running RWCU pump continues to run.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295009 AK2.04 Knowledge of the interrelations between Low Reactor Water level and the following: Reactor Water Cleanup (2.6 / 2.6)

REFERENCE:

SD000190 pages 8 and 10 SOURCE: Bank - slightly modified LO01163 LO: 5035 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, both RWCU-V-1 and RWCU-V-4 close at -50. When either valve closes the RWCU pump trips.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 22 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating at full power the feeder breaker for SL-71 was inadvertently opened. While acknowledging alarms associated with the event, the CRO informs the CRS that Drywell temperature is slowly rising.

Which of the following is ALWAYS correct concerning the reason for this increase in Drywell temperature?

A. Some of the drywell cooling fans would lose power. The drywell cooling fans will restart when power is restored.

B. Some of the drywell cooling fans would lose power. The drywell cooling fans have to be manually restarted when power is restored.

C. Only one RCC Pump would be operating. When power is restored the RCC pump will automatically restart.

D. Only one RCC Pump would be operating. When power is restored the second RCC pump will have to be manually restarted.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295012 AA1.02 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to High Drywell Temperature: Drywell cooling system (3.8 / 3.8)

REFERENCE:

SD000217 page 11, 28 and SD000196 page 8 SOURCE: New LO: 5639; 11735 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: About half of the drywell cooling fans are powered from MC-7B which is powered from SL-71. Only RCC-P-1A is powered from SL-71. The drywell cooling fans do not automatically restart when power is restored (only the exhaust fans do). The RCC pumps do automatically restart as the breaker does not trip when the load center is de-energized. The RCC distractors are wrong because RCC-P-1B and RCC-P-1C could have been running and if SL-71 is de-energized, then two RCC pumps would still be running.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 23 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 An event occurred that resulted in the following HVAC lineup:

ROA-FN-1A and ROA-FN-1B are off ROA-V-1 and ROA-V-2 are open (Rx Bldg supply outboard and inboard isolation valves)

REA-FN-1A and REA-FN-1B and off REA-V-1 and REA-V-2 are open (Rx Bldg exhaust outboard and inboard isolation valves)

SGT-FN-1A1/1A2 and SGT-FN 1B1/1B2 are off Given that all components operated as designed, which of the following could have caused this HVAC configuration?

A. A Reactor Water level of -35 inches B. A Secondary Containment pressure of +4.5 H2O C. A Secondary Containment pressure of -1.5 H2O D. A Drywell pressure of 2.0 psig ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 2195035 EA1.01 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to Secondary Containment High Differential Pressure: Secondary Containment ventillation system (3.6 / 3.6)

REFERENCE:

SD000139 page 5; SD000183 pages 16 and 17 SOURCE: New LO: 5679; 5680; 5681 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: SGT fans start of an F, A or Z signal - so A, B or C are possible answers. RB Supply and Exhaust fans trip on SC Pressure GT +4 H2O, LT -2.5; RPV/L of -

50 and a DW/P of 1.68 psig - so only B and D are possible choices. The outboard and inboard isolation valves auto close on a DW/P of 1.68 and valves are open in stem. SC at +4.5H2O is the answer.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 24 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 During operation at full power the operating CRD pump trips and the standby pump will not start. ABN-CRD is entered and efforts are underway to diagnose and correct the problems.

Which of the following would be expected to occur as a result of this loss of CRD?

A. The Narrow Range indicated level will rise approximately 3/4.

B. The Narrow Range indicated level will lower approximately 3/4.

C. Due to the loss of CRD Backfill, unacceptable levels of notching should be expected to occur any time control rods are moved in this condition.

D. Unacceptable levels of notching should be expected to occur only if CRD backfill is lost for at least 7 continuous days.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295022 AK2.04 Knowledge of the interrelations between loss of CRD pumps and the following: Reactor Water Level (2.5 / 2.7)

REFERENCE:

SD000142 pages 31 and 32; PPM 10.27.64 page 20 SOURCE: New LO: 11766 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per systems text, the Narrow range indication will rise (not lower) about 3/4 on a loss of CRD flow. Notching should be expected to occur if backfill is lost for 30 days (not immediately after or 7 days after).

COMMENT

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 25 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 During surveillance testing of the RCIC system, suppression pool temperature increased and is currently 92°F.

Which of the following is correct?

A. Entry into PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control, does not have to be made as the surveillance procedure is the governing document used to perform required actions.

B. The CRS enters PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control, and can not exit the EOP until Suppression Pool temperature is 89°F.

C. The CRS enters PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control. The CRS may declare an emergency doesnt exist and then exit the EOP.

D. The CRS enters PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control, but the SM may direct exiting of the EOP.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 295013 G 2.4.14 High Suppression Pool Temperature; Knowledge of general guidelines for EOP usage (3.8 / 4.5)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 page 10 SOURCE: New LO: 8017; 8043 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Requirement is to enter the EOPs whenever any entry condition exists. The SM or ED may direct exiting if an emergency doesnt exist.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 26 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The control room is performing actions associated with an ATWS. RPV level was lowered 20 minutes ago.

CRO2 acknowledges a LEAK DET REACTOR BLDG EQUIP SUMP LEAKAGE HIGH alarm on P601.A3.

Which of the following correctly explains the reason for this alarm?

A. At least one of the sump discharge valves, EDR-V-394 or V-395, has inadvertently closed.

B. There is an RCC leak associated with Drywell Cooling Fan CRA-FC-1A1/1A2.

C. CRO1 is performing PPM 5.5.11 Scram, Reset, Scram, to insert control rods.

D. RRC-P-1A has a outer seal failure.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295036 EA2.03 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to secondary containment high sump/area water level: Cause of the high water level (3.4 / 3.8)

REFERENCE:

SD000142 page 44; SD000130 page 14, 15, 17, Figure 10 and 12 SOURCE: New LO: 5192; 5329; 9328 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Question indicates a ATWS and lowered level which is at least -65 RPV/L.

Containment EDR isolation valves isolate the sump at -50 (level is now at least -

65) so the alarm is NOT associated with the RRC pump. RCC leak at CRA fan would drain to FDR not EDR. Sump discharge valves closed at -50 and were not inadvertently closed. The scram discharge volume drains to the R-5 when scram/reset/scram per 5.5.11 is performed.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 27 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following is the event classification level and the reason PPM 5.4.1, Radioactive Release Control, is entered based on the Exclusion Area Boundary Release Rates?

A. Enter when release levels are above the ALERT level as that rate is sufficiently high that it is not expected to occur during normal plant operations and sufficiently low that there is no immediate threat to the health and safety of the public.

B. Enter when release levels are above the ALERT level as that rate is sufficiently high that it is not expected to occur during normal plant operations and sufficiently low that the Federal Dose Limit for members of the general public will not be exceeded.

C. Enter when release levels are above the SITE AREA EMERGENCY level as that rate is sufficiently high that it is not expected to occur during normal plant operations and sufficiently low that there is no immediate threat to the health and safety of the public.

D. Enter when release levels are above the SITE AREA EMERGENCY level as that rate is sufficiently high that it is not expected to occur during normal plant operations and sufficiently low that the Federal Dose Limit for members of the general public will not be exceeded.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295017 AK3.03 Knowledge of the reason for the following responses as they apply to high off-site release rate: Implementation of site emergency plan (3.3 / 4.5)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 page 268 SOURCE: New LO: 8017 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per PPM 5.0.10 PPM 5.4.1 is entered at the ALERT level release rate. High enough

- not normal ops; Low enough - health/safety of public protected.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 28 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 While operating at power, a loss of LPCS-P-2 caused a RHR A Pump Disch Press High/Low annunciator.

Later, events occur that result in a loss of all offsite power and the following plant conditions:

DG-2 tripped and locked out RPV Pressure is 220 psig and down slow RPV Level is steady at -220 inches Wetwell pressure is 20 psig and up slow HPCS-P-1 is tripped on overload LPCS-P-1 is injecting at 6000 gpm Which of the following: (1) describes actions required after the High/Low annunciator is received; and (2) actions required per current plant conditions?

A. Start RHR-P-2A in Suppression Pool cooling; Realign RHR to inject to the core.

B. Start RHR-P-2A in Suppression Pool cooling; Realign RHR to spray the wetwell and then spray the drywell.

C. Pull the control power fuses for RHR-P-2A; Reinstall the control power fuses and spray the wetwell and then spray the drywell.

D. Pull the control power fuses for RHR-P-2A; Reinstall the control power fuses and inject to the core.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 203000 A2.17 Ability to predict the impacts of the following on the RHR/LPCI:

Injection mode; and based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Keep Fill system failure (3.3 / 3.5)

REFERENCE:

4.601.A3 Att 3 pg 7 of 13; 4.601.A4 3-1 (pg 21 & 22 of 79); PPM 5.2.1 Pressure leg SOURCE: New LO: 11144; 11813 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: The control power fuses are pulled from RHR A if low press alarm annunciates and not in EOPs. ARPs caution allows starting of the pump if needed for EOP related activities. Adequate core cooling takes precedence over spraying containment per EOP 5.1.1.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 29 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A LEAK DET RHR HX & PMP ROOMS TEMP HI-HI annunciator is received in the Control Room.

Which of the following identifies the RHR system response to this RHR area high temperature?

If RHR is.

A. in Shutdown Cooling, RHR-V-53A/B close.

B. injecting into the RPV, RHR-V-42A/B close.

C. in Suppression Pool Cooling, RHR-V-24A/B close.

D. spraying the Drywell, RHR-V-16A/B and RHR-V-17A/B close.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 205000 K4.01 Knowledge of Shutdown Cooling design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: High temperature isolation (3.4 / 3.4)

REFERENCE:

4.601.A3 1-5; SD000198 pg 9, 10, 12, 13, 15 & 17 SOURCE: New LO: 5780 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per ARP, RHR-V-53A/B close on high area temperature not any of the other valves.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 30 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following supplies power to the initiation logic for the Low Pressure Core Spray (LPCS)

System?

A. S1-2 B. S2-1 C. S1-1 D. S1-7 ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 209001 K2.03 Knowledge of the electrical power supply to the following: Initiation Logic (2.9 / 3.1)

REFERENCE:

SD000188 page 33; SD000192 page 17 SOURCE: New LO: 5486 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, the initiation logic for LPCS is S1-1.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 31 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Events have occurred that have resulted in the following plant conditions:

RPV pressure is 450 psig RPV level is -208 inches and steady A lockout exists on SM-7 HPCS flow is 6100 gpm Which of the following is correct concerning the mechanism of adequate core cooling based on the above?

Adequate Core Cooling is..

A. not assured.

B. being supplied by Spray Cooling.

C. being supplied by Core Submergence.

D. being supplied by Steam Cooling with injection.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 209002 K5.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to HPCS: Heat removal (transfer) mechanism (2.6 / 2.7)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 page 14 of 275 SOURCE: New LO: 5974 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per PPM 5.0.10, with HPCS injecting GT 6000 gpm and level GE -210 adequate core cooling is via spray cooling.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 32 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Events have occurred that resulted in the Control Room Supervisor directing SLC initiation. The CRO takes both key lock switches to the OPER position. All components operate as designed except SLC-V-1B (SLC storage tank outlet valve) does not open.

Which of the following is correct?

A. SLC-P-1B does not start.

B. SLC-P-1B starts but trip on low suction pressure.

C. SLC system flow will be approximately 43 gpm.

D. SLC system flow will be approximately 86 gpm.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 211000 A1.06 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Standby Liquid Control system controls including: flow indication (3.8 / 3.9)

REFERENCE:

SD000172 page 6, 7 & 10 SOURCE: New LO: 5925 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: When either SLC-V-1A or V-1B is full open, both SLC pumps start and inject. Flow with two pumps is approximately 86 gpm.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 33 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following combination of parameters automatically bypasses the OPRM Trip Scram?

1. Any Rx Power LT 30%

2. Any Rx Power LT 60%

3. Any Recirc Drive Flow GT 30%

4. Any Recirc Drive Flow GT 60%

A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4 ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 212000 A4.12 Knowledge of Reactor Protection System design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: Bypassing of selected SCRAM signals (manually and automatically) (3.9 / 4.1)

REFERENCE:

SD000161 Page 13 SOURCE: New LO: 5949 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference the OPRM Trip scram is bypassed when either: Rx Power is LT 30%

or when Recirc drive flow is GT 60%.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 34 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Intermediate Range Monitors are fully inserted into the core prior to reactor startup and are withdrawn when the neutron flux level has risen above the range covered by the detector.

Which of the following choices approximately corresponds to these two positions: Fully inserted; and Fully withdrawn?

A. Top of active fuel; Two feet below bottom of active fuel B. Middle of active fuel; Bottom of active fuel C. Top of active fuel; Bottom of active fuel D. Middle of active fuel; Two feet below bottom of active fuel ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 215003 K1.07 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between Intermediate Range Monitor System and the following:

Reactor vessel (3.0 / 3.0)

REFERENCE:

SD000138 page 8 and figure 7 SOURCE: New LO: 11794 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference fully inserted is about mid core and fully withdrawn is about 2 foot below active fuel.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 35 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is starting up with the following given:

Source Range indication is 2x103 cps and steady Reactor period is infinite and steady No control rods are currently being withdrawn Which of the following is correct for this plant condition?

A. The Reactor is critical.

B. Shift Turnover is NOT permitted.

C. Surveillance testing is NOT permitted.

D. Gradual reactor pressure changes are prohibited.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 215004 Source Range Monitor System 2.1.37 Knowledge of procedures, guidelines, or limitations associated with reactivity management (4.3 / 4.6)

REFERENCE:

Startup Flow Chart Note N6; PPM 1.3.1 page 17 SOURCE: New LO: 11551 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Approach to criticality is defined as 1000 cps on SRM, until reactor is critical which partially defined as increasing neutron levels (not steady as in stem). During approach to criticality, distractions are minimized such as shift turnover.

Surveillance testing can take place but not with personnel performing the startup.

Gradual reactor pressure changes are exempt if authorized by the Reactivity Manager.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 36 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating at 100% power the following alarms annunciate on H13-P603:

APRM ACE UPSCL TRIP OR INOP - (A7 window 2.5)

ROD OUT BLOCK - (A7 window 2.7)

NEUTRON MONITOR SYSTEM TRIP - (A7 window 3.3) 1/2 SCRAM SYSTEM A - (A7 window 3.4)

APRM UPSCALE - (A8 window 2.6)

FLOW REFERENCE OFF NORMAL - (A8 window 3.6)

Which of the following cause the above alarms to annunciate?

A. Flow input to Flow Unit A failing Upscale B. Flow input to Flow Unit B failing Upscale C. Flow input to Flow Unit C failing Downscale D. Flow input to Flow Unit D failing Downscale ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 215005 K6.07 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the Average Power Range Monitor System, Local Power Range Monitor System: Flow converter/comparator network (3.2 / 3.3)

REFERENCE:

SD000149 page 8 & 9 SOURCE: Bank (Slightly modified) LR00739 LO: 7758 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Flow unit A & C input to APRM ACE; Flow input failing downscale causes high APRM readings and annunciators given in stem. Flow input failing upscale causes APRM downscale readings.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 37 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A RCIC system monthly surveillance is in progress with RCIC operating in the CST to CST recirc mode with flow at 600 gpm. OPS 2 contacts the control room and reports he has evacuated the RCIC pump room due to a steam leak. In response, the RO performing the RCIC surveillance depresses the RCIC MANUAL ISOLATION pushbutton.

Which of the following explains the effect that depressing this pushbutton has on the RCIC system?

A. The RCIC System will continue to operate in the CST to CST recirc mode.

B. RCIC-V-8 closes. The RCIC turbine trips which causes RCIC-V-1, V-45 and V-13 to close.

C. RCIC-V-8 and V-63 close. The RCIC turbine trips which causes RCIC-V-13 and RCIC-V-45 to close.

D. RCIC-V-8 and V-63 close. The RCIC turbine trips which causes RCIC-V-1 and RCIC-V-45 to close.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 217000 A4.04 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Manually initiated controls (3.6 / 3.6)

REFERENCE:

SD000180 Page 15, 16, 17, 18 & 22 SOURCE: New LO: 5722 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Depressing the manual isolation pushbutton without an auto or manual RCIC initiation signal, has no effect on the RCIC system components. If a initiation signal were present and the manual isolation pushbutton was depressed, the Division 1 isolation would occur - RCIC-V-8 would close and additionally the RCIC turbine would trip.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 38 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Events have occurred that result in a reactor scram and the CRS entering PPM 5.6.1, Station Blackout. RPV Level is currently -79 and trending down at 10 inches per minute.

Assuming no operator actions occur, which of the following describes the response of the Automatic Depressurization System?

A. The ADS SRVs will open in 105 seconds.

B. The ADS SRVs will open on 5 minutes.

C. The ADS SRVs will open in 6 minutes and 45 seconds.

D. No ADS SRVs will open.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 218000 K6.05 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the Automatically Depressurization System: A.C. Power (3.0 / 3.1)

REFERENCE:

SD000186 Page 5 SOURCE: Modified bank - LR00979 LO: 5071 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: With PPM 5.6.1 having been entered, no power exists to ECCS pumps so no pressure input from ECCS will occur. Without that input ADS will not initiate.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 39 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Depressing which of the following combinations of MSIV Isolation Logic Pushbuttons would always result in MSIV closure?

A. Logic A and Logic B or Logic C and Logic D B. Logic A and Logic C or Logic B and Logic D C. Logic A and Logic C or Logic A and Logic D D. Logic B and Logic C or Logic B and Logic D ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 223002 A1.02 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Primary Containment Isolation System/Nuclear Steam Supply Shut-Off controls including: Valve Closures (3.7 / 3.7)

REFERENCE:

SD000173 page 11 SOURCE: New LO: 5601; 5596 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, depressing the Logic A and B or the C and D P/Bs closes all MSIVs.

Depressing the A & C P/Bs or the B & D P/Bs do not close the MSIVs.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 40 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Events have occurred that resulted in PPM 5.1.4, RPV Flooding, being entered.

Per PPM 5.1.4, RPV Flooding, which of the following would indicate that the RPV is flooded to the Main Steam lines?

A. SRVs that are open have a decrease in tailpipe temperature.

B. SRVs that are open have an increase in tailpipe temperature.

C. An increase in average Wetwell temperature.

D. A decrease in average Wetwell temperature.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 239002 K5.04 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Relief/Safety Valves: Tail pipe temperature monitoring (3.3 / 3.5)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.1.4 table 12 SOURCE: New LO: 11021 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per PPM 5.4.1 table 12 an indication that the MS Lines are flooded would be SRV Tail Pipe temperature decreasing if the SRV is open.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 41 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 If the Feedwater Level Control System malfunctions, which of the following Reactor water level indications will be directly affected?

A. Uncompensated Fuel Zone indication B. Compensated Fuel Zone indication C. Shutdown Range indication D. Upset Range indication ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 259002 K3.07 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Reactor Water Level Control System will have on the following: Reactor Water Level indication (3.4 / 3.4)

REFERENCE:

SD000157 Page 22 SOURCE: New LO: 11699 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, a malfunction in FWLC could result in erratic compensation circuitry affecting the Compensated Fuel Zone indication. None of the other indications receive FWLC input.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 42 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Standby Gas Treatment B in a normal standby lineup, and if all system components operate as designed, which of the following identifies all of the valves that reposition on an automatic system initiation?

A. SGT-V-2B (Inlet from Reactor Building)

B. SGT-V-5B-2 (Fan B-2 Exhaust to Stack)

C. SGT-V-3B-1 (Fan B-2 inlet) and SGT-V-5B-2 (Fan B-2 Exhaust to Stack)

D. SGT-V-2B (Inlet from Reactor Building) and SGT-V-5B-2 (Fan B-2 Exhaust to Stack)

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 261000 A3.03 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Standby Gas Treatment System including: valve operation (3.0 / 2.9)

REFERENCE:

SOP-SGT-STBY page 8 and SOP-SGT-START page 7 SOURCE: New LO: 5828 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Comparing the two SOPs - SGT-V-2B is open and remains open, SGT-V-5B2 is closed and opens on initiation, SGT-V-3B-1 is open and remains open.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 43 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 DG-1 is operating with its frequency at 60.1 Hz and is paralleled with SM-7. TR-Bs frequency is 59.5 Hz.

When the CB-B7 SYNC SELECTOR switch is placed in the MAN CHECK position, which of the following is correct?

Sync Scope Rotation: The Incoming Bus is: The Running Bus is:

A. is in the FAST direction SM-7 TR-B B. is in the SLOW direction SM-7 TR-B C. is in the FAST direction TR-B SM-7 D. is in the SLOW direction TR-B SM-7 A. A B. B C. C D. D ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 262001 A4.02 Ability to operate and/or monitor in the control room: Synchroscope, including understanding of running and incoming voltages (3.4 / 3.4)

REFERENCE:

SD000182 SOURCE: New LO: 10417 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, the bus (SM-7) is running and the power source being paralleled onto (TR-B) is incoming AND as DG speed is increased GT bus frequency, the sync scope rotates in the slow direction.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 44 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following will cause the Inboard MSIVs to close?

A. A loss of power to E-IN-1.

B. Lowering Control Air pressure to approximately 50 psig.

C. A loss of power to E-IN-2.

D. Lowering Control Air pressure to approximately 70 psig.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 262002 K1.16 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between Uninterruptable Power Supply (AC/DC) and the following:

MSIVs (3.1 / 3.2)

REFERENCE:

SD000194 Page 37 SOURCE: New LO: 7783 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference IN-2 supplies power to the Inboard MSIVs. CAS supplies the outboard MSIVs.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 45 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following is the reason that operation of WEA-FN-53A/53B is not interrupted even after an FAZ signal is received?

A. Operation of these fans ensures battery room temperature is maintained below the Licensee Controlled Specification (LCS) requirement of 104°F.

B. The operation of the fans ensures that the hydrogen that is generated during battery charging and operation is removed from the battery rooms.

C. Without operation of these fans, the RPS Room could not be maintained above the Technical Specification (TS) requirements for RPS MG set operation of 50°F.

D. Operation of these fans ensures Radwaste Building HVAC flow is balanced by maintaining a negative pressure in the battery and RPS rooms.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 263000 K5.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following as they apply to DC Electrical Distribution: Hydrogen generation during battery charging (2.6 / 2.9)

REFERENCE:

SD000195 page 3; SD000188 page 6 SOURCE: New LO: 5259 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference the ventilation exhaust fan removes the H2 gas generated during battery charging.

COMMENT

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 46 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Given the following:

DG-1 is paralleled with SM-7 SM-1 has been transferred to TR-S If a LOCA signal were to occur coincident with a loss of Off-Site Power, which of the following is correct?

A. Both CB-DG1-7 and CB-7DG1 remain closed. LPCS-P-1 starts and then RHR-P-2A starts 5 second later.

B. Both CB-DG1-7 and CB-7DG1 remain closed. RHR-P-2A starts and then LPCS-P-1 starts 5 second later.

C. CB-7DG1 trips but then automatically re-closes; CB-DG1-7 remains closed. LPCS-P-1 starts and then RHR-P-2A starts 5 second later.

D. CB-DG1-7 trips but then automatically re-closes; CB-7DG1 remains closed. LPCS-P-1 starts and then RHR-P-2A starts 5 second later.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 264000 A3.05 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Emergency Generators including: Load shedding and sequencing (3.4 / 3.5)

REFERENCE:

SD000200 pages 23 & 24; SD000182 pages 46 & 47 SOURCE: New LO: 5317; 5053; 11829 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: With DG-1 paralleled to SM-7 and TR-S supplying SM-1 and then a LOOP LOCA were to occur simultaneously, CB-DG1/7 opens but automatically recluses.

Sequencing of ECCS has LPCS-P-1 starting first and RHR-P-2A starting 5 seconds later.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 47 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating at full power and CAS-C-1C running and CAS-C-1A and CAS-C-1B in STANDBY, a LOCA results in a High Drywell Pressure scram. Due to a fault in a pumps breaker, SM-7 develops a ground and breaker 7/1 locks out.

If all systems operate as designed, which of the following is correct concerning the Control Air System compressors?

A. CAS-C-1A - powered but not running; CAS-C-1B powered and running; CAS-C-1C - no power B. CAS-C-1A - no power; CAS-C-1B powered but not running; CAS-C-1C - no power C. CAS-C-1A - no power; CAS-C-1B powered but not running; CAS-C-1C - powered and running D. CAS-C-1A - no power; CAS-C-1B powered and running; CAS-C-1C - no power ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 300000 K2.01 Knowledge of the electrical power supply to the following:

Instrument Air Compressor (2.8 / 2.8)

REFERENCE:

SD000205 page 17 & 19 SOURCE: New LO: 5880; 5876 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: CAS-C-1A is powered from SM-7 and will not have power due to the lockout.

CAS-C-1B will have power but will not be running CAS-C-1C continues to run throughout the transient as it is not load shed on LOCA

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 48 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 RCC-P-1A and RCC-P-1B are operating with RCC-P-1C in standby. Maintenance activities causes the 7/71 breaker to be inadvertently opened. With no operator actions taking place, the 7/71 breaker is re-closed.

Which of the following explains the response of the Reactor Closed Cooling Water system to this event?

A. RCC-P-1A loses power and RCC-P-1C does not start; RCC-P-1A re-starts.

B. RCC-P-1A loses power and RCC-P-1C does not start; RCC-P-1A would have to be manually started and RCC-P-1C automatically starts.

C. RCC-P-1A trips and RCC-P-1C automatically starts; RCC-P-1A would have to be manually started.

D. RCC-P-1A trips and RCC-P-1C automatically starts. RCC-P-1A re-starts and RCC-P-1C continues to run.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 400000 K4.01 Knowledge of the CCWS design feature(s) and or interlocks which provide for the following: Automatic start of standby pump (3.4 / 3.9)

REFERENCE:

SD000196 page 15 and 17 SOURCE: New LO: 11731 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: On a loss of power the breaker for the pump does not open so the standby pump does not start. With no operator action when power is restored, the pump re-starts.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 49 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following is the reason for the time delay associated with automatic initiation of the Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) logic?

A. Provides the time that may be necessary to manually override the ADS logic.

B. Allow sufficient time for HPCS system initiation and the recovery of RPV level.

C. Allows time for ECCS pumps to initiate and develop sufficient discharge pressure.

D. Provides the time that may be necessary to manually initiate an Emergency Blowdown.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 218000 K5.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Automatic Depressurization System: ADS logic operation (3.8 /

3.8)

REFERENCE:

SD000186 page 5; TS 3.3.5.1 ECCS Instrumentation SOURCE: New LO: 11877 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference the reason for the time delay is to allow HPCS to recover level.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 50 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With the plant operating in MODE 1, alarms are received on H13-P601.A1 annunciator panel. CRO2 investigates and observes HPCS-P-1 running, HPCS-V-4 open and indicated flow is rising.

Which of the following is the action that CRO2 should take based on the above?

A. Immediately verify inadvertent initiation by observing two RPV pressure and two RPV level indications and stop HPCS-P-1 and close HPCS-V-4.

B. Immediately verify inadvertent initiation by observing a RPV pressure and a RPV level indication, no Reactor scram and stop HPCS-P-1 and close HPCS-V-4.

C. Refer to ABN-POWER and if invalid injection is occurring, stop HPCS-P-1 and close HPCS-V-4.

D. Refer to ABN-LEVEL and if invalid injection is occurring, stop HPCS-P-1 and close HPCS-V-4.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 209002 G 2.2.44 Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions (4.2 / 4.4)

REFERENCE:

ABN-LEVEL page 1 and 6 SOURCE: New LO: 12939 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per ABN-LEVEL, if inadvertent injection, stop HPCS-P-1 and close HPCS-V-4.

Inadvertent HPCS initiation was in ABN-POWER but moved to ABN-LEVEL.

Inadvertent HPCS injection also use to be an immediate action but now is a subsequent action. Procedure caution requires two indications be checked.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 51 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Given the following indications on H13-P610:

GENERATOR A FEED light is extinguished ALTERNATE FEED light is illuminated GENERATOR B FEED light is illuminated If the RPS POWER SOURCE SELECT SWITCH is re-positioned from the NORM to the ALT B position, which of the following is correct?

A. Both RPS A and RPS B would remain de-energized. Enter PPM 3.3.1, Reactor Scram, as a full scram occurs.

B. RPS B would be powered from the alternate power source. Continue using ABN-RPS to reset the half scram.

C. RPS B would be powered from the alternate power source. Enter PPM 3.3.1, Reactor Scram, as a full scram occurs.

D. RPS B would be powered from the alternate power source. A half scram would occur.

Enter ABN-RPS and immediately stop maintenance and surveillance testing.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 212000 A2.20 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Reactor Protection System; and based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions: Full system activation (4.1 / 4.2)

REFERENCE:

SD000161 page 6, 7 and 9 SOURCE: New LO: 5961 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Stem indicates a half scram is in on the A RPS side with power available to Alternate Feed. The selector switch is break before make and when taken to RPS B, causes RPS B to de-energize, causing a full reactor scram and entry into PPM 3.3.1, Reactor Scram. Alternate power would then re-power RPS B.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 52 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is starting up following a refueling outage. IRM readings are all approximately 30 on Range 6 with a period of 80 seconds. Activities outside the Control Room have resulted in a half scram on RPS A.

The CRS directs the CRO to stop pulling rods while investigation into the half scram occurs. The range switch associated with IRM F failed to range up when Range 7 was selected but went unnoticed by the CRO.

If all plant systems operate as designed, and the only action taken is to range up the remaining IRMs, which of the following explains the effects of this failed range switch over the next five minutes?

A. A full reactor scram will occur. Enter PPM 3.3.1, Reactor Scram.

B. Only the unexplained half scram that stopped startup activities occurs. Enter ABN-RPS.

C. The NEUTRON MONITOR SYSTEM TRIP annunciator (H13-P603.A7 3-3) alarms.

Enter ABN-INSTRUMENTATION.

D. The IRM UPSCALE OR INOP annunciator (H13-P603.A7 1-5) alarms. A Reactor Scram will not occur.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 215003 A2.06Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Intermediate Range Monitor (IRM) System; and 9 (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Faulty range switch (3.0 / 3.2)

REFERENCE:

4.603.A7.1-5 and 3-3; 4.608..3-3 SOURCE: New LO: 11797 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Conditions given indicate that power will continue to rise with no rod motion. Given range 6 and a 80 second period, it will take less than a minute to get IRM F upscale.

This will cause a half scram on RPS B side and result in a full scram. Distractors for alarms are associated with the RPS A side.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 53 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 If, during transient conditions on the 125 VDC system, power requirements exceed the output of battery charger E-C1-1A, which of the following explains the resultant condition of the battery chargers and the battery?

A. The E-B1-1 battery picks up and supplies the entire load. The battery could handle this load for a minimum of two hours.

B. Per ABN-ELEC-125VDC, E-C1-1B would be placed in service and would assume the remainder of the load.

C. E-C1-1A will supply the entire load but at a reduced power output. All loads will experience a lower voltage but voltage will remain GT 105 VDC.

D. E-C1-1A supplies its max load and the battery, E-B1-1 supplies the remaining load. The DC system could handle this transient load for at least two hours.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 263000 K1.02 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationship between DC Electrical Distribution and the following: Battery charger and battery (3.2 / 3.3)

REFERENCE:

SD000188 page 3, 4, 8, 22, Figure 1 SOURCE: New LO: 5259 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, battery would pick up load charger couldnt and could supply that load for a minimum of two hours.

DOES exceeding the max load trip output breaker of the charger?

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 54 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating at rated power a failure of the DEH system occurs that results in Reactor pressure increasing to 1135 psig.

Considering only the effects that the pressure increase has on the Reactor Recirculation (RRC) System, which of the following explains the RRC systems response?

RRC-P-1A and RRC-P-1B..

A. are now operating at 15 Hz.

B. are now operating at 30 Hz.

C. have tripped. CB-RPT-3A and 3B have tripped open.

D. have tripped. CB-RPT-3A and 3B and CB-RPT-4A and 4B have tripped open.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 212001 A3.07 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Recirculation System including: Pump trips (3.3 / 3.3)

REFERENCE:

ARP 4.603.A7 3-1 and 4.603.A8. 3-1 SOURCE: New LO: 5022 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: An ATWS signal (GT 1120 psig) causes both RRC pumps to trip and CB-RPT-3A/3B to open. CB-RPT-4A/4B only open on a main turbine trip.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 55 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following is designed to prevent power in the fuel bundles surrounding a selected control rod from exceeding MCPR and LHGR limits and thus prevents local fuel damage?

A. The Rod Worth Minimizer system.

B. The Rod Block Monitor system.

C. The Reactor Manual Control System.

D. The Rod Sequence Control System.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 215002 G 2.1.27 Rod Block Monitor System: Knowledge of the system purpose and/or function (3.9 / 4.0)

REFERENCE:

SD000154 page 3; SD000166 page 3; SD000148 page 3; SD000160 page 3 SOURCE: Bank - modified slightly LX00607 LO: 5689 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference the Rod Block Monitor is designed to prevent power in the fuel bundles surrounding a selected control rod from exceeding MCPR and LHGR limits and thus prevents local fuel damage.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 56 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The DEH Throttle Pressure Controller receives inputs from three throttle pressure transmitters.

If the output of the THROTTLE PRESSURE INPUT SELECTOR fails high, which of the following explains the effect this failure will have on Reactor Pressure (assume no operator action)?

Reactor pressure will..

A. rise and stabilize at a higher pressure.

B. lower and stabilize at a lower pressure.

C. rise and a High Pressure Reactor scram will occur.

D. lower and a MSIV Closure Reactor scram will occur.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 241000 K3.02 Knowledge of the effect that a loss of the Reactor/Turbine Pressure Regulating System will have on the following: Reactor Pressure (4.2 / 4.3)

REFERENCE:

SD000146 Page 56 and Figure 25 SOURCE: New LO: 11666 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: When the pressure controller fails high, DEH responds by sending a signal to the BPVs to open them causing RPV pressure to lower, MSIVs to close, and a reactor scram to occur.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 57 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A small leak in containment caused drywell pressure to increase and a reactor scram to be inserted. EOP 5.2.1 has been entered and the CRS has directed RHR-A to be placed into Suppression Pool sprays.

If the CRS directs RHR-B to be placed into wetwell sprays, which of the following is correct?

A. The amount of water being sprayed into the Wetwell would almost double.

B. Interlocks associated with RHR-V-27A and RHR-V-27B prevents this.

C. There would be a negligible increase in the amount of water being sprayed into the Wetwell.

D. Due to the relative location of RHR-Bs spray ring there would be no effect on Wetwell pressure.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 226001 K1.12 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between RHR/LPCI: Containment Spray System Mode and the following: Suppression pool (spray penetration) (3.0 / 3.0)

REFERENCE:

SD000198 page 16 & 45 SOURCE: New LO: 7728, 11802, 5781 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: There is only one spray ring for SP Sprays. There is no interlock associated with RHR-V-27A/B that prevents them from being open at the same time. Starting the second pump in SP sprays does not double the flow but there would be a negligible increase.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 58 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating in MODE 1 when a reactor scram occurs.

When the control rod scrams, which of the following is correct?

Scram water/pressure is provided ..

A. entirely by reactor pressure.

B. entirely by accumulator pressure.

C. by reactor pressure first and then by accumulator pressure.

D. by accumulator pressure first and then by reactor pressure.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 201003 K4.04 Knowledge of Control Rod Drive Mechanism design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide for the following: The use of either accumulator or reactor water to scram the control rod. (3.6 / 3.7)

REFERENCE:

SD000137 page 13 SOURCE: New LO: 11836 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: When a rod scrams with reactor at pressure, accumulator pressure is initially GT reactor pressure and initially inserts the rod. Eventually accumulator pressure decreases below reactor pressure and then reactor pressure inserts the rod.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 59 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following explains the control rod response if only the INSERT Pushbutton were to be depressed and remain depressed?

The selected control rod A. moves in only one notch and then the settle function is applied.

B. moves in until the pushbutton is released and then the settle function is applied.

C. moves in only one notch with no settle function applied.

D. moves in until the pushbutton is released with no settle function applied.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 201002 A4.01 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Rod movement control switch (3.5 / 3.4)

REFERENCE:

SD000148 Page 11 SOURCE: New LO: 5792 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per reference, the control rod will continue to insert until the button is released with a settle function then applied.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 60 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 If COND-V-42, Condensate Transfer Makeup to Fuel Pool Cooling, fails to close when required, which of the following could result?

A high level in.

A. both skimmer surge tanks, followed by filling of the weirs and flooding of the Reactor Building ventilation system.

B. only the B skimmer surge tanks, followed by filling of the weirs and flooding of the Reactor Building ventilation system.

C. both skimmer surge tanks, followed by filling of the Spent Fuel Pool followed by flooding on the Reactor Building, 548 elevation.

D. only the B skimmer surge tanks, followed by filling of the Spent Fuel Pool followed by flooding on the Reactor Building, 548 elevation.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 233000 K1.14 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Fuel Pool Cooling and Clean-up and the following: Reactor Building ventilation (2.5 / 2.5)

REFERENCE:

SD000202 pages 11, 15, 20 and figure 1. ARP 4.626.FPC1.1-1 pages 3 & 4 of 22 SOURCE: New LO: 5369 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: COND-V-42 adds water to the B surge tank but both surge tanks are cross connected. As per ARP, filling of the surge tanks could lead to flooding of the reactor building ventillation system

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 61 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Secondary Containment dP is maintained between the RB 572 and the outside environment on four sides of the Reactor Building.

Select the statement below that correctly describes how a negative pressure is maintained within the Secondary Containment.

Secondary Containment delta pressure (dP) controller is set to maintain a dP of.

A. -0.6wc. The least negative dP value of the four signals is compared to the controllers setpoint to positions the variable pitch blades of the operating Reactor Building Exhaust Fans (REA-FN-1A/1B) as required.

B. -0.6wc. The most negative dP value of the four signals is compared to the controllers setpoint to positions the variable pitch blades of the operating Reactor Building Exhaust Fans (REA-FN-1A/1B) as required.

C. -0.25wc. The least negative dP value of the four signals is compared to the controllers setpoint to positions the variable pitch blades of the operating Reactor Building Exhaust Fans (REA-FN-1A/1B) as required.

D. -0.25wc. The most negative dP value of the four signals is compared to the controllers setpoint to positions the variable pitch blades of the operating Reactor Building Exhaust Fans (REA-FN-1A/1B) as required.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 290001 A3.02 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Secondary Containment including: Normal building differential pressure (3.5 / 3.5)

REFERENCE:

SD000139 page 9 SOURCE: New LO: 7000; 5678 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Sec Cont dP is maintained at -0.6 to ensure at least a dP of -0.25 is maintained at all times. The lowest reading is compared is compared - not the highest reading.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 62 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia at full power a surveillance is currently being performed on OG-RIS-601A. During that surveillance, OG-RIS-601B fails downscale coincident with the I&C technician inserting a Hi-Hi-Hi reading to OG-RIS-601A.

Which of the following is the system response to the event and which procedure will be entered and utilized to mitigate the events effect?

A. No Offgas valves reposition as this condition provides annunciation only. Refer to ARP 4.P602.A51-3 OFF GAS POST TREAT RAD HI-HI-HI.

B. OG-V-45 (Charcoal Adsorber Bypass) and OG-V-60 (Exhaust Plenum Isolation) close.

Refer to PPM 3.3.1, Reactor Scram.

C. OG-V-60 (Exhaust Plenum Isolation) closes. Refer to ABN-BACKPRESSURE.

D. OG-V-60 (Exhaust Plenum Isolation) closes. Refer to ABN-OG.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 271000 A2.09 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Offgas System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Valve closures (2.6 / 2.8)

REFERENCE:

ARP 4.602.A5.1-3 page 6 of 62 SOURCE: New LO: 5620 & 5621 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Auto actions occur on a channel downscale and a channel Hi-Hi-Hi. OG-V-45 does not reposition. OG-V-60 goes closed. ABN-BACKPRESSURE is referred to for event mitigation.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 63 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Currently, during MODE 1 operations, Control Room temperature is 79°F and is rising a degree every 10 minutes.

Which of the following explains the rise in temperature and what operational implications does this event have?

A. A loss of Plant Service Water to the operating Control Room Recirc Fan cooling coil has occurred. Enter ABN-HVAC now and either start a Control Room Emergency chiller or supply Standby Service Water to the Control Room Recirc Fan cooling coil to reduce temperature to below 78°F.

B. A loss of Plant Service Water to the operating Control Room Recirc Fan cooling coil has occurred. In one hour, when temperature reaches 85°F, enter ABN-HVAC and either start a Control Room Emergency chiller or supply Standby Service Water to the Control Room Recirc Fan cooling coil.

C. Loss of the Radwaste Chilled Water System to the operating Control Room Recirc Fan Cooling Coil has occurred. Enter ABN-HVAC now and either start a Control Room Emergency chiller or supply Service Water to the Control Room Recirc Fan cooling coil to reduce temperature to below 78°F.

D. Loss of the Radwaste Chilled Water System to the operating Control Room Recirc Fan Cooling Coil has occurred. In one hour, when temperature reaches 85°F , enter ABN-HVAC and either start a Control Room Emergency chiller or supply Service Water to the Control Room Recirc Fan cooling coil.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 290003 K5.03 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following as they apply to Control Room HVAC: Temperature control (2.6 / 2.7)

REFERENCE:

ABN-HVAC pages 2 and 6 SOURCE: New LO: 5221; 8768 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: ABN-HVAC is entered at 78°F and not at 85°F. Radwaste Chilled Water cools the CR Recirc Fans not the TSW system. ABN-HVAC lowers temp to LT 78°F

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 64 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following explains the relationship between indicated narrow range water level verses actual narrow range water level?

Indicated narrow range water level closely matches actual level ..

A. outside the shroud at low power levels, and reads approximately 7 inches higher than actual level outside the shroud at 100% steam flow.

B. inside the shroud at low power levels, and reads approximately 7 inches higher than actual level inside the shroud at 100% steam flow.

C. outside the shroud at low power levels, and reads approximately 7 inches lower than actual level outside the shroud at 100% steam flow.

D. inside the shroud at low power levels, and reads approximately 7 inches lower than actual level inside the shroud at 100% steam flow.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 216000 A3.01 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Nuclear Boiler Instrumentation including: Relationship between meter/recorder readings and actual parameter values (3.4 / 3.4)

REFERENCE:

SD000126 page 14 and 15 SOURCE: New LO: 15708 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Indicated NR closely matches inside shroud level at low power levels. Indicated NR indicates 7 higher than inside shroud at 100% steam flow

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 65 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating at full power an over current condition on SL-81 causes the breakers for RCC-P-1B and RCC-P-1C to trip open.

Which of the following explains the effect this could have on the RWCU system?

A. The operating RWCU pump trips when non-regenerative heat exchanger outlet temperature reaches 130°F. RWCU-V-1 and RWCU-V-4 remain open.

B. The operating RWCU pump trips and RWCU-V-1 closes when non-regenerative heat exchanger outlet temperature reaches 140°F. RWCU-V-4 remains open.

C. Both RWCU-V-1 and RWCU-V-4 close when non-regenerative heat exchanger outlet temperature reaches 130°F. The operating RWCU pump trips when either RWCU-V-1 or RWCU-V-4 close.

D. RWCU-V-1 remains open RWCU-V-4 closes when non-regenerative heat exchanger outlet temperature reaches 140°F. The operating RWCU pump trips when RWCU-V-4 closes.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 204000 K6.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss of the following will have on the Reactor Water Cleanup System: Component cooling water systems (3.1 / 3.3)

REFERENCE:

SOP-RWCU-START page 5; SD000190 page 8 SOURCE: New LO: 5037 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Breakers for RCC-P-1A/1B opening causes RCC-V-6 to close which causes a loss of cooling to RWCU pumps and NRHX. A RWCU pump trips on motor cavity temp of 140°F. RWCU-V-4 closes at a NRHX outlet temp of 140°F which then trips the operating RWCU pump.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 66 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 With Columbia operating at full power, events occur that cause the CRS to direct CRO1 to lower RRC flow to 60 Mlbm/hr. In response, CRO1 depresses the lower pushbutton of the RRC Master Controller, and in one depress, lowers RRC flow to 60 Mlbm/hr.

Which of the following alarms would be expected for the reason given based on the actions of CRO1?

A. RPV LEVEL HIGH/LOW due to low RPV water level.

B. OPRM ENABLED RPS-A due to high power and low flow.

C. TURBINE GOV VLV/THROTTLE VLV TRIP BYPASS due to low power.

D. RECIRC A OR B HIGH FLOW DELTA due to high differential loop flow.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 2.1.7 Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation (4.4 /

4.7)

REFERENCE:

4.603.A7 3-7 and 5-4 SOURCE: Bank - modified LO02012 LO: 4196 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: The OPRM annunciator is an expected annunciator for the reason given. RPV Level is also expected but due to high water level. Delta flow is not expected due to using the master controller to lower flow. The Gov/Throttle valve alarm inspected at 60 Mlbm/hr flow leaves Reactor power GT 30%.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 67 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 If the CRS states: Verify Reactor level is greater than plus 13 inches which would meet conduct of operations requirement for verbal communications?

A. R, P, V, level is one nine inches and steady.

B. R, P, V, level is nineteen inches and steady.

C. Romeo, Papa, Victor, level is one nine inches and steady.

D. Romeo, Papa, Victor, level is nineteen inches and steady.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 2.1.17 Ability to make accurate, clear, and concise verbal reports (3.9 / 4.0)

REFERENCE:

OI-9 pages 24, 25, 26 SOURCE: New LO: 15713 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per OI-9 the operator should provide both the value of the parameter and the trend.

The use of plus is not required.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 68 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following describes an action that would bring Columbia back into compliance with Technical Specification Safety Limits?

Restoration of RPV Level from.

A. -185 inches to -170 inches.

B. -165 inches to -150 inches.

C. -60 inches to -40 inches.

D. -5 inches to +25 inches.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 2.2.22 Knowledge of limiting conditions for operation and safety limits (4.0 / 4.7)

REFERENCE:

TS 2.1.1.3 page 2.0-1 SOURCE: New LO: 6934 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Safety Limit is RPV level to be greater than top of active fuel (-161).

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 69 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is in an ATWS condition as a scram has been inserted and reactor power is 40%. You have been directed to place both CRD suction filters in service. The RWP indicates these filters are located in a contaminated area which requires protective clothing.

Which of the following is correct for this situation?

A. The proper protective clothing is always required when entering a contaminated area.

B. RP permission is required if entry into the Contaminated Area without protective clothing is required.

C. Entry into the Contaminated Area without protective clothing and without prior RP contact may be performed.

D. Only the Shift Manager/Emergency Director may authorize an individual to enter a Contaminated Area without protective clothing.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 2.3.7 Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions (3.5 / 3.6)

REFERENCE:

GEN-RPP-04 page 27 SOURCE: New LO: 11261 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per GEN-RPP-04 entry into a CA w/out protective clothing during an emergency does not require anyones prior permission

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 70 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following tasks procedurally requires continuous Health Physics coverage due to the task causing changes in radiological conditions?

Performing PPM 5.5.11 to A. Reset / Scram, per TAB B.

B. Scram Individual Control Rods, per TAB C.

C. Vent Scram Air Header, per TAB D.

D. Vent Control Rod Overpiston Volumes, per TAB E.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 2.3.14 Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities (3.4 / 3.8)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.5.11 pages 2 and 17 SOURCE: New LO: 11263 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per PPM 5.5.11, HP coverage is required for venting overpiston area but not for any of the other tabs.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 71 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following identifies the individual that would be assigned to make the initial notification to the NRC after an emergency event classification and also identifies the correct time frame in which the notification is to be made within?

A. Emergency Director; Within 15 minutes B. Emergency Director; Within 1 Hour C. Emergency Notifier; Within 15 minutes D. Emergency Notifier; Within 1 Hour ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 2.4.39 Knowledge of RO responsibilities in emergency plan implementation (3.9 /

3.8)

REFERENCE:

PPM 13.4.1 page2 3, 8, 9 SOURCE: New LO: 6139; 8906 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: The RO assumes the duties as the emergency notifier and notifications are to be made within one hour of event classification.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 72 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A fire in one of the back panels has resulted in entry into ABN-FIRE-CR. The immediate actions have been performed and the CRS is working through the subsequent actions. The CRS determines that the fire does not affect Control Room safe shutdown circuitry and that the Control Room remains habitable and directs the Control Room staff don SCBAs.

Where are these SCBAs located?

A. 501 Turbine Building South wall (next to door)

B. The Shift Managers office C. Control Room lunch room D. Control Room South wall (behind H13-P602)

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 2.4.27 Knowledge of fire in the plant procedures (3.4 / 3.9)

REFERENCE:

ABN-FIRE-CR SOURCE: New LO: None RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Procedures do not indicate where the SCBAs are located that would be put on by the Control Room operators but they are located outside the Control Room on the 501 Turbine deck west end, just inside the door to the left.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 73 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A chemistry procedure that is being performed on a Friday is to be stopped at an appropriate place in the middle of the procedure and not started again until Monday morning. This stoppage has been approved by the Chemistry Manager.

Which of the following identifies the means of identifying a component that has been aligned out of its normal position during the performance of the chemistry procedure in the above situation?

A. Danger (Red) Tag B. Local Control (Orange) Tag C. Temporary Modification Request (Blue) Tag D. Component Status Change Order (CSCO) (Pink) Tag ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 2.2.14 Knowledge of process for controlling equipment configuration or status (3.9 /

4.3)

REFERENCE:

PPM 1.3.9 page 28; PPM 1.3.1 pages 48 and 49 SOURCE: New LO: 11249 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per PPM 1.3.1 the correct tag is a CSCO tag. The fourth note of 4.14.1 indicates a CSCO is used when a procedure is not actively in use.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 74 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 During the performance of a quarterly RCIC Valve Operability Test surveillance, the CRO observed that the stroke time of the RCIC valve just tested did not meet the acceptance criteria by 2 seconds.

Which of the following is the correct action to be taken at this point?

A. Re-perform that step of the surveillance to confirm the reading.

B. Complete the surveillance and then inform the CRS of the discrepancy.

C. Immediately inform the CRS for evaluation regarding equipment operability.

D. Denote the unsatisfied requirement on the cover page and continue with the surveillance.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 2.2.12 Knowledge of surveillance procedures (3.7 / 4.1)

REFERENCE:

PPM 1.5.1 page 11 SOURCE: Bank - modified LO00201 LO: 8640 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: PPM 1.5.1 specifically requires the action as listed in the correct answer.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 75 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Which of the following correctly identifies the Wetwell Spray Initiation Pressure (WSIP) and what WSIP is designed to prevent?

A. 2 psig in the Wetwell; Maintain at least 5% of the noncondensibles in the Drywell which will prevent a failure of the Primary Containment pressure suppression function due to chugging.

B. 12 psig in the Wetwell; Maintain at least 5% of the noncondensibles in the Drywell which will prevent a failure of the Primary Containment pressure suppression function due to chugging.

C. 2 psig in the Wetwell; Maintain at least 95% of the noncondensibles in the Drywell which will prevent a failure of the Primary Containment pressure suppression function due to chugging.

D. 12 psig in the Wetwell; Maintain at least 95% of the noncondensibles in the Drywell which will prevent a failure of the Primary Containment pressure suppression function due to chugging.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 2.4.18 Knowledge of the specific bases for EOPs (3.3 / 4.0)

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 page 85 SOURCE: New LO: 8331 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: Per 5.0.10 - 12 psig is the WSIP and it is designed to maintain 5% noncondensibles in the drywell

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 1 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia was operating at 100% power when a piping rupture resulted in Main Condenser backpressure rapidly degrading to 14 Hg. After the scram report and the immediate actions for PPM 3.3.1, Reactor Scram, were performed, the following conditions were noted:

• All white Group Scram lights illuminated

• All amber Backup Scram lights extinguished

• All blue Full Core Display Scram lights extinguished Which of the following are the expected plant response and the procedurally directed actions used to mitigate these conditions?

Suppression pool temperature will A. rapidly rise due to the Main Turbine trip. The CRS will direct Standby Liquid Control initiation per PPM 5.1.2, RPV Control - ATWS.

B. rapidly rise due to the Main Turbine trip. The CRS will direct Standby Liquid Control initiation per PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control.

C. remain relatively constant due to operation of the Main Turbine Bypass Valves. The CRS will direct control rod insertion per PPM 5.5.11, Alternate Control Rod Insertions.

D. remain relatively constant due to operation of the Main Turbine Governor Valves. The CRS will direct control rod insertion per PPM 5.5.11, Alternate Control Rod Insertions.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295037 EA2.04 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SCRAM condition present and reactor power above APRM downscale or unknown:

Suppression pool temperature (4.0 / 4.1) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

ABN-BACKPRESSURE Rev.001 pg.2, SD000128 (Main Steam) Rev.9 pg. 15, PPM 5.1.2 Rev.19, PPM 5.2.1 Rev.18 SOURCE: New LO: None RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - The indications are consistent with an electric ATWS, and the blue scram lights

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 1 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 extinguished indicates no control rod motion has occurred. Reactor power will be approximately 65% due to the RRC pump trip caused by the Main Turbine trip. The Bypass Valves are rated for 25% reactor steam flow. The additional energy will be added to the Suppression Pool via the SRVs. PPM 5.1.2 will be entered due to the ATWS condition. If reactor power is greater than 5%, the power leg directs the initiation of SLC. (correct)

B - PPM 5.2.1 will be entered, but SLC initiation is not directed from PPM 5.2.1.

(incorrect)

C - Suppression pool temperature will not remain constant. (incorrect)

D - Per ABN-BACKPRESSURE, the Main Turbine will trip at 8.0 Hg. With the Main Turbine tripped, the Main Turbine Governor Valves are closed. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 2 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia has commenced a normal shutdown for a scheduled refueling outage. The Main Control Room has just been informed that Mount St. Helens has undergone a major explosive volcanic eruption. Control Room HVAC is in a normal line-up with WMA-FN-51A (Control Room Recirc Fan) running.

What affect could the eruption have on Control Room HVAC, and what procedure will the CRS direct to minimize it?

A. The HEPA filters associated with the Control Room HVAC system could become clogged in the normal line-up. Enter ABN-ASH.

B. Ash could be introduced into the Control Room HVAC system in the normal line-up.

Enter ABN-ASH.

C. The HEPA filters associated with the Control Room HVAC system could become clogged in the normal line-up. Enter ABN-HVAC.

D. Ash could be introduced into the Control Room HVAC system in the normal line-up.

Enter ABN-HVAC.

ANSWER: B QUESTION TYPE:

KA # & KA VALUE: 290003 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Control Room HVAC and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Extreme environmental conditions. (3.1 / 3.4) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

SD000201 (CRHVAC) Rev.10 pg.6, 7, and Fig.1, ABN-ASH Rev.011 pg.2,5,6, and 19.

SOURCE: New LO: None RATING: L4 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - HEPA filters are only in service when aligned for pressurization mode through WMA-FN-54A/B, and will not become clogged in a normal lineup. All other filters in the system are low or medium efficiency filters. (incorrect)

B - Per ABN-ASH, ash will be introduced in the normal lineup. ABN-ASH will

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 2 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 direct realignment to recirculation mode to mitigate this. (correct)

C - HEPA filters are only in service when aligned for pressurization mode through WMA-FN-54A/B, and will not become clogged in a normal lineup. (incorrect)

D - ABN-HVAC does not contain the actions to mitigate this situation and should not be used. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 3 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The plant was operating at 100% power when a seismic event resulted in the following conditions:

• Reactor pressure is being maintained 500 to 600 psig

• Reactor level is being maintained -140 to -80

• Wetwell level is 44 feet and up slow

• Wetwell temperature is 239°F and up slow Which of the following is correct based on these parameters?

A. Direct wetwell cooling to be maximized using all available RHR pumps not being used for adequate core cooling per PPM 5.2.1, Primary Containment Control, to prevent exceeding the HCTL.

B. Stop and prevent injection from all systems except SLC, CRD, and RCIC in preparation for emergency depressurization per PPM 5.1.5 Emergency RPV Depressurization -

ATWS.

C. Direct a wetwell level reduction to the Radwaste System using SOP-RHR-SPC, to establish margin to the HCTL.

D. Reduce reactor pressure in accordance with PPM 5.1.2, RPV Control - ATWS, to prevent conditions that would require an emergency depressurization.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 3 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295013 2.1.25 High Suppression Pool Temp. Ability to interpret reference materials, such as graphs, curves, tables, etc. (3.9 / 4.2) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 Rev.013 pg. 67, Graph C (HCTL), SOP-RHR-SPC Rev.005 pg. 15-16, SD000198 (RHR) Rev.13 pg. 16 and 19.

SOURCE: New LO: LO-08302 Given plant conditions and the Heat Capacity Temperature Limit Curve, determine the current operating point on the curve within 2.5 degrees and 25 psig.

(PPM 5.2.1)

RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - Wetwell cooling should be maximized, but not to prevent exceeding HCTL.

HCTL has already been exceeded. (incorrect)

B - PPM 5.2.1 directs emergency depressurization if WW temperature and RPV pressure cannot be maintained below HCTL. This is NOT a restore and maintain step. Because HCTL has already been exceeded, an emergency depressurization is required. The level band of -80 to -140 is only given during an ATWS. The CRS must therefore direct stop and prevent of injection from systems other than RCIC, CRD and SLC IAW PPM 5.1.2 in preparation for ED per PPM 5.1.5. (correct)

C - PPM 5.2.1 does direct WW level to be lowered per SOP-RHR-SPC, but the stem of the question states RPV level is being maintained -140 to -80. RHR-V-40 and RHR-V-49 are interlocked closed below +13 so this direction should not be given.

(incorrect)

D - With WW level at 44 feet, the 47 feet line is used. At 239°F, a pressure reduction would restore the plant within the limit of HCTL, but once the HTCL is exceeded, and ED is required. PPM5.1.2 directs the operator to maintain pressure within HCTL disregarding cooldown rate. The level band of -140 to -80 is only given during ATWS conditions, so PPM 5.1.2 is applicable. (correct)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 4 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia was operating at 100% power when the Control Room received several alarms on H13-P840 followed by a report from OPS3 of a large air line rupture on the Turbine Building 441 East side. The following conditions were then reported by CRO3:

• Control Air Header Pressure is 70 psig and down fast.

• All CAS compressors are running.

• SA-PCV-2 is closed.

Immediately following the report, an automatic Reactor Scram occurred.

What will be the impact on Feedwater Level Control, and what actions will the CRS direct to mitigate this effect?

A. RFW-FCV-10A/B, the Feedwater Startup Flow Control Valves, will fail closed. The CRS will direct RFW-FCV-10A/B to be fully opened per ABN-CAS.

B. RFW-FCV-10A/B, the Feedwater Startup Flow Control Valves, will fail closed. The CRS will direct RFW-V-118, the Feedwater Startup Valve Isolation, to be fully opened per ABN-LEVEL.

C. RFW-FCV-10A/B, the Feedwater Startup Flow Control Valves, will fail as is. The CRS will direct RFW-FCV-10A/B to be fully opened per ABN-CAS.

D. RFW-FCV-10A/B, the Feedwater Startup Flow Control Valves, will fail as is. The CRS will direct RFW-V-118, the Feedwater Startup Valve Isolation, to be fully opened per ABN-LEVEL.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 259002 A2.05 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Reactor Water Level Control System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Loss of applicable plant air systems. (3.2 / 3.4) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

ABN-CAS Rev.006 pg.2, 3, and 6, ABN-LEVEL Rev.004 pg.2 and 5 SOURCE: New LO: LO-11703 Describe the effect that a loss of malfunction of the following will have on the Reactor Feedwater Level Control System: Control and service air systems.

RATING: L3

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 4 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - On a loss of Control Air, RFW-FCV-10A/B fail as is. (incorrect)

B - On a loss of Control Air, RFW-FCV-10A/B fail as is. (incorrect)

C - ABN-CAS directs RFW-FCV-10A/B to be fully opened in anticipation of failing as is. (correct)

D - An entry condition for ABN-LEVEL does exist, and direction is given to verify RFW-V-118 fully open, but that action is contrary to the correct actions for a loss of Control Air, and therefore should not be directed. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 5 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is in MODE 5 with a core shuffle scheduled to commence this shift.

Which of the following is true for the fuel movement?

A. The Tech Spec Shutdown Margin requirements must be met at the end of the scheduled fuel movement, but are not applicable during the shuffle.

B. The Core Alt Supervisor or Spent Fuel Pool Supervisor must directly supervise all fuel movement during the shuffle.

C. All personnel must be clear of the upper portion of the drywell unless single rod subcriticality has been demonstrated.

D. The Tech Spec Shutdown Margin requirements must be met throughout the scheduled fuel movement, including intermediate configurations.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 2.1.36 Knowledge of procedures and limitations involved in core alterations. (3.0 /

4.1) 55.43.6 and 55.43.7

REFERENCE:

SWP-RXE-01 Rev.002 pg. 20 SOURCE: New LO: LO-9582 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - TS SDM requirements must be met throughout the core shuffle. (incorrect)

B - The Spent Fuel Pool Supervisor cannot supervise fuel movement in MODE 5.

(incorrect)

C - The limitation applies only when one or more control rods are withdrawn. The loading of fuel into core locations requires all control rods to be fully inserted.

(incorrect)

D - Specifically stated in SWP-RXE-01 that the TS SDM requirements must be met during all phases, including intermediate phases. (correct)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 6 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 While operating at 100% power with CRD-P-1B tagged out for maintenance the following occurs:

1920 CRD PUMP ABNORMAL OPERATION and CRD CHARGE WATER PRESS LOW alarms are received.

1921 CRO1 reports CRD charging water header pressure is 1050 psig and down slow.

1922 ROD ACCUMULATOR TROUBLE alarm is received for HCU 02-27.

1924 ROD ACCUMULATOR TROUBLE alarm is received for HCU 18-35.

1927 OPS2 reports the accumulator pressures for HCU 02-27 and HCU 18-35 are both 910 psig.

1931 CRO1 reports CRD charging water header pressure is 939 psig and down slow.

Which of the following is correct for these conditions?

A. Control Rods 02-27 and 18-35 will not insert if a scram occurs. CRD charging water header pressure must be restored to 940 psig or greater by 1951.

B. Reactor pressure will insert the control rods if a scram occurs. CRD charging water header pressure must be restored to 940 psig or greater by 1951.

C. Reactor pressure will insert the control rods if a scram occurs. CRD charging water header pressure must be restored to 940 psig or greater by 1944.

D. Control Rods 02-27 and 18-35 will not insert if a scram occurs. CRD charging water header pressure must be restored to 940 psig or greater by 1944.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295022 AA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to Loss of CRD Pumps: CRD system status. (3.3 / 3.4) 55.43.2

REFERENCE:

SD000142 (CRDH) Rev.14 pg. 33, TS 3.1.5, ABN-CRD Rev.004 pg. 4 SOURCE: New LO: LO-9582 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: TS 3.1.5-1 to 3.1.5-3.

JUSTIFICATION: A - All control rods will insert due to reactor pressure. (incorrect)

B - Reactor pressure alone will be sufficient to insert all control rods if a scram occurs. Per TS 3.1.5 Condition B, charging header pressure must be restored to 940

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 6 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 psig or greater within 20 mins of pressure less than 940 psig and 2 accumulators inoperable. The 20 min clock starts when charging water header pressure is less than 940 psig. (correct)

C - The 20 min clock starts when the charging header pressure was below 940 psig, not on the second accumulator trouble alarm. (incorrect)

D - All control rods will insert due to reactor pressure. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 7 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A startup is in progress, with Reactor power at 5% and power ascension ongoing. The Control Room staff observes the overhead lights flicker and an OSCILLOGRAPH STARTED alarm is received on H13-P800.

Per the ARP, CRO2 contacts the BPA and reports the following information to the CRS:

• The Munro Dispatch Center reported a grid disturbance resulting in the loss of the Midway 230 kV substation.

• Backup Transformer (E-TR-B) voltage is 120 kV and steady.

• Startup Transformer (E-TR-S) voltage is 240 kV and steady.

Which of the following is correct for these conditions?

A. Restore the Backup Transformer (E-TR-B) to operable status within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

B. Restore the Startup Transformer (E-TR-S) to operable status within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

C. Restore the Backup Transformer (E-TR-B) or the Startup Transformer (E-TR-S) to operable status within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

D. Enter ABN-GRID. The Backup Transformer (E-TR-B) and the Startup Transformer (E-TR-S) remain operable.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 700000 AA2.05 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: Operational status of offsite circuit. (3.2 / 3.8) 55.43.2

REFERENCE:

TS 3.8.1, OSP-ELEC-W101 Rev.004 pg. 4-5 SOURCE: New LO: LO-5059 RATING: H4 ATTACHMENT: TS 3.8.1-1 to 3.8.1.4, OSP-ELEC-W101 pg. 1,4,5 JUSTIFICATION: A - The Backup Transformer remains operable. (incorrect)

B - The Midway 230 kV substation is the Tech Spec credited source. With only White Bluffs supplying 230kV power, the Startup Transformer is inoperable. TS 3.8.1 Condition A must be entered, which requires TR-S to be restored to operable in 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />. (correct)

C - This is the required action for two inoperable offsite sources. TR-B is operable.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 7 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 (incorrect)

D - An entry condition for ABN-GRID does exist, but TR-S is inoperable.

(incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 8 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The following conditions exist:

• The Mode Switch is in SHUTDOWN

• Reactor power is 56% and up slow

• RPV water level is +9 and up slow

• Main Condenser backpressure is 12 Hg and down slow

• Main Generator output is 675 Mwe and steady What actions will the CRS take in this situation?

The CRS will direct A. core flow to be reduced to 60Mlbm/hr per ABN-LEVEL, and execute PPM 5.1.2, RPV Control - ATWS B. the Main Turbine to be tripped per ABN-BACKPRESSURE, and execute PPM 5.1.2, RPV Control - ATWS.

C. control rods to be inserted in accordance with the Fast Shutdown Sequence per ABN-POWER, and execute PPM 5.1.1, RPV Control D. core flow to be raised to exit the AIA per ABN-CORE, and execute PPM 5.1.1, RPV Control ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 295002 2.4.11 Loss of Main Condenser Vacuum. Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures. (4.0/4.2) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

ABN-LEVEL Rev.004 pg. 4, ABN-BACKPRESSURE Rev.001 pg. 2, ABN-POWER Rev.012pg. 2 and 6, ABN-CORE Rev.010pg. 2 and 6, PPM 5.1.1, Two Loop Power/Flow Map SOURCE: New LO: 10372 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None.

JUSTIFICATION: A - An entry into ABN-LEVEL does exist due to low RPV level, but RRC Pumps are already at 15 HZ, and PPM 5.1.2 will provide level strategy. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 8 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 B - With Main Condenser backpressure at 12, the Main Turbine should have tripped, and a trip is required by ABN-BACKPRESSURE. OI-15 states, If an ATWS occurs simultaneously with a condition for which abnormal procedures require a turbine trip, the turbine should be tripped when the condition which requires the turbine trip occurs. RPV level less than +13 is an entry into PPM 5.1.1. Once entered, override RC-2 is applicable and PPM 5.1.2 should be entered and executed. (correct)

C - An entry into ABN-POWER does exist, but the power reduction via control rod insertion will be guided by PPM 5.1.2 and it will not be by the FSS. (incorrect)

D - An entry into ABN-CORE does exist. Core flow could not be raised due to low RPV level, but it shouldnt be attempted. PPM 5.1.2 will direct RRC pump strategy.

(incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 9 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 After a seismic event, these conditions exist:

• Wetwell temperature is 106°F and steady

• Reactor water level is -98 and up slow

• Multiple control rods are at position 48

• All blue scram lights on H13-P603 are lighted

• The IRMs are fully inserted and indicate 40 on range 6

• The SRM period meter has been negative for the last 3 minutes Which of the following is correct?

A. The scram air header must be vented. Direct the performance of PPM 5.5.11, Alternate Rod Insertion.

B. Boron injection is required. Direct the performance of SOP-SLC-INJECTION.

C. The reactor is shutdown in this condition. Exit the power leg of PPM 5.1.2, RPV Control

- ATWS and enter PPM 3.3.1, Reactor Scram.

D. Level / Power conditions exist. Enter PPM 5.1.2, RPV Control - ATWS.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 2.1.7 Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

(4.4/4.7) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.1.2, OI-15 SOURCE: New LO: 11151 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - All blue scram lights lighted indicates a hydraulic ATWS. Venting the scram air header would not be effective. PPM 5.5.11 is the correct Emergency Support procedure. (incorrect)

B - Boron injection is not required by wetwell temperature or power level (IRMs at 40 on R6 is below 5%). Boron should be injected using SOP-SLC-INJECTION.

(incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 9 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 C - Based on the available indications (reactor water level not lowering, SRM period negative for 3 mins, and reactor power below the point of adding heat as determined by IRM indication), the reactor is shutdown. The CRS should exit the power leg of PPM 5.1.2 and enter PPM 3.3.1. (correct)

D - Because reactor power is less than 5%, level/power conditions do not exist.

PPM 5.1.2 is still entered due to ATWS conditions. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 10 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia is operating at 100% power with no evolutions in progress. Due to industry operating experience regarding Agastat time-delay relays, an Engineering evaluation was conducted for MS-RLY-ADK5AA, ADS SYSTEM A TIME DELAY INITIATION SEAL IN. Though currently operable, it has been determined that MS-RLY-ADK5AA will be replaced.

What action(s) must be taken when MS-RLY-ADK5AA is removed for replacement?

A. Immediately declare the ADS Initiation Timer for Trip System A inoperable, and declare the ADS valves inoperable within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

B. The ADS Initiation Timer for Trip System A must be restored to OPERABLE status within 8 days, or LCO 3.0.3 must be entered immediately.

C. Immediately declare the ADS Initiation Timer for Trip System A inoperable. Entry into the associated actions may be delayed for 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

D. The ADS Initiation Timer for Trip System A must be restored to OPERABLE status within 96 hours0.00111 days <br />0.0267 hours <br />1.587302e-4 weeks <br />3.6528e-5 months <br />, or the associated features must be declared inoperable.

ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 218000 2.2.36 ADS. Ability to analyze the effect of maintenance activities, such as degraded power sources, on the status of limiting conditions for operations. (3.1/4.2) 55.43.2

REFERENCE:

TS 3.3.5.1 SOURCE: New LO: 5078 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: TS 3.3.5.1 JUSTIFICATION: A - ADS valves are not declared inoperable unless initiation capability is lost in both trip systems. ADS-SYS-B remains operable. (incorrect)

B- With MS-RLY-ADK5AA removed, the ADS Initiation Timer for Trip System A is inoperable. This is Function 4b. of TS 3.3.5.1, which refers to Condition G.

Must be restored to OPERABLE in 8 days. After 8 days, the supported featured (ADS valves) must be declared inoperable. All 6 required ADS valves inoperable requires entry into LCO 3.0.3(correct)

C - The 6 hour6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> delayed entry to the condition is only applicable to the performance

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 10 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 of required surveillances. (incorrect)

D - The 96 hour0.00111 days <br />0.0267 hours <br />1.587302e-4 weeks <br />3.6528e-5 months <br /> requirement is applicable only if RCIC or HPCS are also inoperable. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 11 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Concerning the systems listed in 50.72(b)(3)(iv)(B), which of the following lists events that would BOTH be reportable to the NRC per 10 CFR 50.72?

An actuation that occurs as the result of A. an intentional manual initiation based on plant conditions; an intentional manual initiation as part of a pre-planned sequence during testing B. an intentional manual initiation as part of a pre-planned sequence during testing; actual plant conditions with NO testing in progress C. actual plant conditions that were NOT pre-planned during testing; a test signal generated during a calibration check D. actual plant conditions with NO testing in progress; actual plant conditions that were NOT pre-planned during testing ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 2.4.30 Knowledge of events related to system operation/status that must be reported to internal organizations or external agencies, such as State, the NRC, or the transmission system operator. (2.7 / 4.1) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

PPM 1.10.1 Rev.031 pg. 4 and 8, NUREG-1022 Rev.2 pg. 46 and 48 SOURCE: New LO: 6011 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - An intentional manual initiation as part of a pre-planned sequence during testing is not reportable per 50.72. (incorrect)

B - An intentional manual initiation as part of a pre-planned sequence during testing is not reportable per 50.72. (incorrect)

C - A test signal generated during a calibration check is an invalid signal and is not reportable per 50.72. (incorrect)

D - Actual plant conditions not pre-planned are reportable per 50.72. (correct)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 12 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 An event occurred that resulted in the following conditions:

• Wetwell level is 230 and down at a rate of 5/min

• No systems are adding inventory to the Wetwell What will be the impact if the downcomer vents become uncovered, and what procedure should be entered to ensure they do not become uncovered?

Containment pressure could exceed allowable limits A. if a primary system break occurred in the Drywell. Enter PPM 5.5.23, Emergency Suppression Pool Makeup.

B. during Emergency Depressurization. Enter PPM 5.5.23, Emergency Suppression Pool Makeup.

C. if a primary system break occurred in the Drywell. Enter SOP-FPC-SPC, FPC Suppression Pool Operations.

D. during Emergency Depressurization. Enter SOP-FPC-SPC, FPC Suppression Pool Operations.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 223001 A2.11 Ability to predict the impacts of the following on the Primary Containment System and Auxiliaries; and based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Abnormal suppression pool level (3.6/3.8) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.0.10 Rev.014 pg. 245; PPM 5.2.1, PPM 5.5.23 Rev.007 SOURCE: New LO: 11150 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - Uncovering the downcomers results in a direct path from the drywell to the wetwell airspace, so a primary leak into the drywell is the concern. PPM 5.2.1 directs PPM 5.5.23 to be used to restore WW level if 2 less than instrument zero (31). (correct)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 12 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 B - Emergency depressurization is the concern when the SRV quenchers are uncovered, not the downcomers. (incorrect)

C - SOP-FPC-SPC is the procedure normally used. For the given Wetwell level, PPM 5.2.1 has been entered, and it directed PPM 5.5.23, not the SOP. (incorrect)

D - See B and C. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 13 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A plant startup is in progress with the following conditions:

• The Mode Switch is in Startup/Hot Standby

• Suppression Pool average temperature is 93°F and down slow due to the performance of OSP-RCIC/IST-C701, RCIC Post Maintenance Testing

• RCIC testing was completed 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> ago

• RCIC is operable and in a standby lineup Which of the following describes a limitation in the facility license for these conditions?

The Mode Switch A. CANNOT be placed in RUN due to Suppression Pool average temperature unless a risk assessment is performed and risk management actions are established.

B. CANNOT be placed in RUN with Suppression Pool average temperature greater than 90°F even if a risk assessment is performed.

C. CAN be placed in RUN as long as Suppression Pool average temperature remains less than or equal to 105°F.

D. CAN be placed in RUN, but Suppression Pool average temperature must be less than or equal to 90°F with 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295026 2.2.38 High Suppression Pool Temperature. Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license. (3.6/4.5) 55.43.1

REFERENCE:

TS 3.6.2.1, TS Bases 3.6.2.1, LCO 3.0.4 SOURCE: New LO: 10308 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: TS 3.6.2.1 JUSTIFICATION: A - Normally, the mode switch would be allowed to be placed in RUN without performing a risk assessment. In the stem, it states that SP temperature exceeds the limit per LCO 3.6.2.1 (90°F). LCO 3.0.4b permits a Mode change if an LCO is not met after a risk assessment is performed and risk management actions are

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 13 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 established. (correct)

B - The Mode Switch CAN be placed in RUN provided the conditions of LCO 3.0.4b are met. This Spec does not include the LCO 3.0.4b does not apply statement. (incorrect)

C - The RCIC surveillance is no long in-progress, so the 105°F limit is no longer applicable. LCO 3.6.2.1 is not satisfied at 93°F. (incorrect)

D - The Mode Switch can be placed in RUN if LCO 3.0.4b is met, but temperature must be restored in 21 hours2.430556e-4 days <br />0.00583 hours <br />3.472222e-5 weeks <br />7.9905e-6 months <br />, not 24. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 14 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Shift turnover was in progress in the Main Control Room when these events occurred:

1803 RX BLDG 548 GENERAL AREA alarm received on FCP-1 1812 RX BLDG 572 GENERAL AREA/MCC ROOMS alarm received on FCP-1 and MAIN PLANT MANUAL PULL STATION ACTUATED alarm received on FCP-2 1819 OPS2 reported a fire on the Reactor Building 548 coming from RCC-P-1A At what time was an entry condition for ABN-FIRE met, and when should the Unusual Event have been declared?

ABN-FIRE entry time Unusual Event declaration time A. 1803 1803 B. 1812 1818 C. 1803 1833 D. 1812 1834 ANSWER: B KA # & KA VALUE: 600000 AA2.03 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 14 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Plant Fire On Site: Fire alarm. (2.8/3.2) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

ABN-FIRE Rev.019pg. 2, PPM 13.1.1 Rev.038 pg. 29, PPM 13.1.1A Rev.021 pg.

128, OI-15 Rev.015 pg. 23 SOURCE: New LO: 6131 RATING: H4 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - One alarm by itself does not satisfy the entry conditions for ABN-FIRE.

(incorrect)

B - Multiple, redundant indications of a fire existed at 1812. This satisfies the entry conditions for ABN-FIRE. At 1803 a fire alarm was received. This would require an operator be dispatched to verify the alarm, and the 15 min clock would start for the declaration. If the fire was not extinguished by 1818, an Unusual Event would be declared. The stem states that at 1819 a report of fire was received, which means the fire continued for the 15 mins required. It also says the fire was from an RCC pump which is not safety related, and therefore does not satisfy the ALERT declaration requirements. (correct)

C - One alarm by itself does not satisfy the entry conditions for ABN-FIRE.

(incorrect)

D - Multiple, redundant indications of a fire existed at 1812. This satisfies the entry conditions for ABN-FIRE. 1834 is 15 mins after the report of fire. A report is not required to start the declaration clock. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 15 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia was operating at 100% power when a grid disturbance caused a trip of RRC-P-1A.

To prevent reverse rotation of RRC-P-1A, the CRS directs the closure of RRC-V-67A, RRC-P-1A Discharge Valve, per A. ABN-CORE. Before 5 minutes elapses, the isolation valve will be opened to prevent thermal binding.

B. ABN-CORE. Before 5 minutes elapses, the isolation valve will be opened to prevent over-pressurization from CRD seal purge.

C. ABN-RRC-LOSS. Before 5 minutes elapses, the isolation valve will be opened to prevent over-pressurization from CRD seal purge.

D. ABN-RRC-LOSS. Before 5 minutes elapses, the isolation valve will be opened to prevent thermal binding.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 295001 2.1.32 Partial or Complete Loss of Forced Core Flow Circulation. Ability to explain and apply system limits and precautions. (3.8/4.0) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

ABN-CORE Rev.010 pg.2 and 5, ABN-RRC-LOSS Rev.006 pg.2 and 5, SOP-RRC-SINGLELOOP Rev.008 pg.5 SOURCE: New LO: 6433 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - With the plant at 100% power when the recirc pump tripped, an entry into ABN-CORE does exist, but ABN-CORE does not direct actions to prevent reverse flow. (incorrect)

B - With the plant at 100% power when the recirc pump tripped, an entry into ABN-CORE does exist, but ABN-CORE does not direct actions to prevent reverse flow.

(incorrect)

C - With the plant at 100% power when the recirc pump tripped, an entry into ABN-RRC-LOSS does exist, and it will direct the closure of and opening of RRC-V-67A.

This action does not isolate the loop, and so over-pressurization from CRD seal purge is not the concern. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 15 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 D - With the plant at 100% power when the recirc pump tripped, an entry into ABN-RRC-LOSS does exist, and it will direct the closure of and opening of RRC-V-67A.

Per the Precautions and Limitations of SOP-RRC-SINGLELOOP and the Caution statement in ABN-RRC-LOSS, this is done to prevent thermal binding. (correct)

Note: If this question has validation issues, TS 3.4.1 can be used to revise the question.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 16 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 The plant is operating at 100% power when a loss of E-PP-ASD1/3, the 120V/240V ASD Power Panel, occurs.

Which of the following describes the impact of this loss, and what procedure will be directed to mitigate it?

Both A. RRC pumps will runback to 51 Hz in 20 minutes. Enter ABN-ASD-INV.

B. ASD UPSs are operating on battery backup. Enter PPM 3.2.4, Fast Power Reduction.

C. RRC pumps will trip in 20 minutes. Enter ABN-ASD-INV.

D. RRC pumps will immediately runback to 51 Hz. Enter ABN-POWER.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 202002 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Recirculation Flow Control System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Loss of A.C. (2.9/3.0) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

SD000184 (ASD) Rev. 16 pg. 27-33, ABN-ASD-INV Rev.003 pg.2 and 4, PPM 1.3.1 Rev.087 pg.29.

SOURCE: New LO: 11790 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - The RRC pumps will trip in 20 mins, not runback to 51 Hz. (incorrect)

B - The ASD UPSs are operating on battery backup, and power would be rapidly reduced if power were not restored. ABN-ASD-INV is a Volume 4 procedure and therefore should be used to reduce power, not PPM 3.2.4 (reference PPM 1.3.1, Conduct of Operations, Procedure Hierarchy) (incorrect)

C - A loss of E-PP-ASD1/3 means both ASD UPSs are operating on battery backup, which is rated for 20 mins. At the end of that time, both RRC pumps will trip. ABN-ASD-INV should be entered to attempt to correct this or to reduce power and scram. (correct)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 16 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 D - See A explanation. ABN-POWER would be entered IF this were true.

(incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 17 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 During a plant startup, a Tech Spec required annunciator is coming into alarm and resetting once per minute due to a valid signal right at the alarm setpoint. This condition will exist for at least the next two shifts.

Which of the following is required to disable the annunciator?

How is the inoperable alarm required to be tracked in accordance with PPM 1.3.1?

A. A 50.59 review must be conducted, SM approval must be obtained, and a temporary log must be established.

A Control Room Log entry and a Caution Tag are required to track the alarm.

B. A 50.59 review must be conducted, CRS approval must be obtained, and a temporary log must be established.

A Control Room Log entry, a CRS turnover sheet entry, and a Caution Tag are required to track the alarm.

C. Declare the annunciator inoperable, log the inoperability in the INOP Log, and obtain SM approval.

A Caution Tag and a CRS turnover sheet entry are required to track the alarm.

D. Declare the annunciator inoperable, log the inoperability in the INOP Log, and obtain CRS approval.

A Control Room Log entry and a Caution Tag are required to track the alarm.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 2.2.43 Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms. (3.0/3.3) 55.43.3

REFERENCE:

PPM 1.3.1 Rev.091 pg.52 and 53 SOURCE: New LO: 7845 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - From PPM 1.3.1, a 50.59 review, SM persmission and a temporary log are required. The disabled annunciator must be logged in the Control Room Log. The stem states the condition will lasts 2 shifts. A Caution Tag is required to be written if the annunciator will be disabled for GT one shift. (correct)

B - SM, not CRS permission is required. The CRS turnover sheet is not required for

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 17 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 tracking. (incorrect)

C - The annunciators will not be declared NIOP. The CRS turnover sheet is not required to be used to track the alarm. (incorrect)

D - The annunciators will not be declared INOP. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 18 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 During a river discharge from FDR-TK-9, CRO2 responds to annunciator 4.602.A5 drop 6-6, RADWASTE EFFLUENT RAD MONITOR DNSCL OR INOP. The RWCR operator checks and verifies FDR-RIS-606 has failed downscale.

Concerning the river discharge, which of the following is correct?

A. The CRS/Shift Manager approved the river discharge. With FDR-RIS-606 failed downscale, the river discharge is stopped immediately and cannot be continued until FDR-RIS-606 is operational. PPM 13.1.1 should be monitored for EAL threshold limits.

B. The Chemistry Manager approved the river discharge. With FDR-RIS-606 failed downscale, the river discharge is stopped immediately and cannot be continued until FDR-RIS-606 is operational. PPM 13.1.1 should be monitored for EAL threshold limits.

C. The CRS/Shift Manager approved the river discharge. Immediately stop the release.

Perform SR 6.2.1.1.1 on two independent samples and verify release rate calculations and discharge lineup using two qualified members of the technical staff prior to re-commencing the release.

D. The Chemistry Manager approved the river discharge. Immediately stop the release.

Perform SR 6.2.1.1.1 on two independent samples and verify release rate calculations and discharge lineup using two qualified members of the technical staff prior to re-commencing the release.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 2.3.6 Ability to approve release permits. (2.0 / 3.8) 55.43.4

REFERENCE:

PPM 16.10.1 Rev.006 page 16; 4.602.A5 6-6 Rev.024; ODCM RFO 6.1.1 pages -1,

-2 and -4 SOURCE: Bank. This question was used on the 2009 CGS License Exam.

LO: None RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: ODCM 6.1.1-1, 2 and 4 JUSTIFICATION: A - The discharge can be continued if the requirements of RFO 6.1.1.1 Condition B are met. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 18 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 B - The Chemistry Manager does not approve the release. (incorrect)

C - The River Discharge is approved by the SM/CRS. ODCM requirement for FDR-RIS-606 inop/downscale are to perform SR 6.2.1.1.1 on independent two samples and verify release calculations and discharge lineup using two qualified members of the technical staff prior to commencing the release. This means the release must be stopped and these requirements met. (correct)

D - The Chemistry Manager does not approve the release. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 19 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A transient occurred while the plant was operating at rated power. The following parameters were reported to the CRS:

• REA-RR-603, the RB Exhaust Air Plenum Rad Recorder, indicates 15 mrem/hr and up slow on all 4 channels Which procedure will you enter? What action will you direct from that procedure, and what is the basis for that action?

A. Enter ABN-HVAC. Ensure Reactor Building HVAC has isolated to prevent contamination of the Reactor Building Exhaust Air System.

B. Enter ABN-FAZ. Direct Standby Gas Treatment to be initiated to maintain RB pressure below atmospheric pressure and route processed exhaust to an elevated release point.

C. Enter ABN-RAD-RELEASE. Place the Standby Gas Treatment Train with the lowest effluent radiation levels in recirculate to reduce decay heat levels.

D. Enter PPM 5.3.1. Ensure Standby Gas Treatment has initiated to maintain RB pressure below atmospheric pressure and route processed exhaust to an elevated release point.

ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 261000 2.4.18 Standby Gas Treatment System. Knowledge of the specific bases for EOPs. (3.3/4.0) 55.43.4

REFERENCE:

PPM 5.3.1, PPM 5.0.10 Rev.014 pg.257 and 258, ABN-RAD-RELEASE Rev.005 pg.3 and 5, ABN-FAZ Rev.012 pg.18.

SOURCE: New LO: 8460 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None.

JUSTIFICATION: A - No entry condition exist for ABN-HVAC. (incorrect)

B - ABN-FAZ will be entered. SGT should already be running, and therefore it should be verified in service, not initiated. If SGT did not start, the override in PPM 5.3.1 would be applicable, and SGT should be started per the quick card, not the SOP as ABN-FAZ directs. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 19 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 C - ABN-RAD-RELEASE was entered at 10 mrem/hr, and it directs the train of SGT with the HIGHEST effluent rad levels be placed in recirculation for the reason noted. (incorrect)

D - The stem states RB Exhaust Plenum rad levels are 15 rem/hr, which is an EOP entry to PPM 5.3.1 and a Z signal. The override in PPM 5.3.1 says, If an FAZ signal exists, then ensure SGT initiation. PPM 5.0.10 states SGT is the normal mechanism for maintaining RB pressure below atmospheric in accident conditions since the exhaust is processed and directed to an elevated release. (correct)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 20 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia was operating at 3486 MWt when E-CB-2/21 spuriously opened with NO auto trip signal present.

What will be the effect on the plant, and what procedure(s) will be implemented in this situation?

A. E-SL-21 will momentarily lose power until E-CB-21/11 automatically closes to repower E-SL-21 from E-SL-11. ABN-ELEC-SM2/SM4 will be used to restore loads that lost power.

B. Reactor LEVEL will rise due to the loss of power to RFW-V-112B, but reactor pressure and power will remain stable. ABN-ELEC-SM2/SM4 and ABN-LEVEL will be used to mitigate the LEVEL rise.

C. Reactor POWER will rise due to the reduction in Feedwater heating, but reactor pressure and level will remain stable. ABN-ELEC-SM2/SM4 and ABN-POWER will be used to mitigate the POWER rise.

D. E-SL-21 will momentarily lose power until E-CB-31/21 automatically closes to repower E-SL-21 from E-SL-31. ABN-ELEC-SM2/SM4 will be used to restore loads that lost power.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 295003 AA2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to Partial or Complete Loss of A.C. Power: Reactor power / pressure / and level (4.2/4.3) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

ABN-ELEC-SM2/SM4 Rev.005 pg. 6 and 8, SD000182 (AC Distribution) Rev.016 pg 70-72.

SOURCE: New LO: 10388 RATING: H3 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - E-CB-21/11 will only auto close if a lockout exists on 2-21. A lockout on 2-21 would be an auto trip signal, and the stem states one does not exist. (incorrect)

B - RFW-V-112B will lose power, but the valve is already open. Level will not change, but power will increase. (incorrect)

C - A majority of the bleed steam dump valves on the Feedwater Heaters are powered from SL-21, and fail open on a loss of power. The loss of Feedwater

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 20 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 heating results in a significant power increase, and a temperature increase that will exceed 6°F. ABN-SM2/SM4 was entered on the loss of SL-21, and directs the CRS to ABN-POWER if the temperature reduction exceeds 6°F. (correct)

D - E-CB-31/21 will only auto close if a lockout exists on 2-21. A lockout on 2-21 would be an auto trip signal, and the stem states one does not exist. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 21 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 A major plant transient has occurred. The following conditions exist:

• An offsite release is in progress

• The exclusion area boundary radiation release rates have exceeded the General Emergency threshold and continue to rise

• A valve has been identified that if opened will result in a significant reduction in the release rate

• The valve is in a 500 rem/hr field

• An Equipment Operator has been briefed and has volunteered to open the valve Of the following dose limit values, which is the highest the Emergency Director can authorize and maintain compliance with the EPA 400 Protective Action Guides for Emergency Workers?

A. 2 rem B. 5 rem C. 10 rem D. 25 rem ANSWER: D KA # & KA VALUE: 2.3.4 Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal or emergency conditions. (3.2/3.7) 55.43.4

REFERENCE:

PPM 13.2.1 Rev.019 pg.9 SOURCE: New LO: 6020 RATING: H2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - This is the Administrative Limit, and it may be exceeded. (incorrect)

B - This is the Federal Limit, and it may be exceeded. (incorrect)

C - This is the limit for protecting valuable property, and it may be exceeded.

(incorrect)

D - This is the limit for life-saving or protection of large populations. The stem states that a release is in progress and closing this valve will significantly reduce the

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 21 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 release rate. (correct)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 22 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Columbia was operating at 100% power with the following equipment lineup:

• RCC-P-1A off with the control switch in AUTO AFTER STOP

• RCC-P-1B running with the control switch in AUTO AFTER START

• RCC-P-1C running with the control switch in AUTO AFTER START A loss of E-SL-81 then occurred.

How has the RCC system been impacted, and what procedure should be prioritized to mitigate the consequences?

A. All RCC cooling water flow has been lost. Prioritize ABN-ELEC-SM3/SM8.

B. All RCC cooling water flow has been lost. Prioritize ABN-RCC.

C. RCC-V-6 has closed and RCC cooling water flow has been lost to the Radwaste Building loads. Prioritize ABN-RCC.

D. RCC-V-6 has closed and RCC cooling water flow has been lost to the Spent Fuel Pool.

Prioritize ABN-FPC-LOSS.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 400000 A2.01 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the CCWS and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Loss of CCW pump (3.3/3.4) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

ABN-ELEC-SM3/SM8 Rev.010 pg 12, ABN-RCC Rev.006 pg 2-4, ABN-FPC-LOSS Rev.004 pg.3, SD000196 (RCC) Rev.10 pg 9, 14 and 17.

SOURCE: New LO: 10394 RATING: L3 ATTACHMENT: None.

JUSTIFICATION: A - E-SL-81 is the power supply to RCC-P-1B and RCC-P-1C. A loss of E-SL-81 is therefore a loss of 2 of the 3 RCC pumps. The standby RCC pump starts based on breaker position. The RCC pump breakers do not have an undervoltage and will stay closed on a loss of power. This means no RCC pumps will be running and all cooling water flow is lost. The loss of E-SL-81 is an entry condition for ABN-

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 22 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 SM3/SM8. The subsequent actions direct placing the control switch for RCC-P-1B and RCC-P-1C in PTL and verifying RCC-V-6 closes. This will start RCC-P-1A and restore cooling to containment loads. (correct)

B - An entry condition for ABN-RCC exists, but the actions are not correct for this condition. ABN-RCC is written to address a loss of pumps for reasons other than a loss of power, and directs a reactor scram for this condition. ABN-RCC entry will be directed from ABN-ELEC-SM3/SM8(incorrect)

C - RCC-V-6 closes based on pump breaker position. The RCC pumps do not have UV trips, so their breakers remain closed on a loss of power. RCC-V-6 will remain open. (incorrect)

D - Cooling has been lost to the Spent Fuel Pool, but RCC-V-6 will remain open.

ABN-FPC-LOSS will be required to restore cooling water, but should not be entered first. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 23 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 OSP-ELEC-M702, the Diesel Generator 2 Monthly Operability Test, is in progress with the plant operating at 100% power. Conditions are as follows to support the surveillance:

• SM-8 is powered from the Backup Transformer (E-TR-B)

• The Synchronizing Scope is rotating slow in the FAST direction (6 revolutions per minute)

• DG-2 voltage is slightly higher than SM-8 voltage

• DG-2 Excitation Mode Selector Switch was inadvertently left in UNIT What will occur when the Reactor Operator places the control switch for E-CB-DG2/8 to CLOSE in accordance with the surveillance, and what will be the status of DG-2?

E-CB-DG2/8 will A. not close because E-CB-B/8 is closed. DG-2 remains operable because E-CB-DG2/8 will automatically close to restore power in the event that power is lost to SM-8.

B. not close with the Excitation Mode Selector Switch in the UNIT position. DG-2 is inoperable, and OSP-ELEC-W101, the Offsite Station Power Alignment Check, must be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

C. close. DG-2 will assume load until E-CB-8/DG2 trips and locks out on overcurrent. DG-2 is inoperable, and OSP-ELEC-W101, the Offsite Station Power Alignment Check, must be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

D. close. DG-2 will assume load and continue to operate in parallel with E-TR-B. DG-2 remains operable while synchronized with the offsite power supply.

ANSWER: C KA # & KA VALUE: 264000 A2.05 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Emergency Generators (Diesel/Jet); and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: Synchronization of the emergency generator with other electrical supplies. (3.6/3.6) 55.43.5

REFERENCE:

SD000182 (AC Distribution) Rev.015 pg.62-63, SD000200 (DG) Rev.009 pg.7, Simulator used to validate, TS 3.8.1 SOURCE: New LO: 5320 RATING: H4

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 23 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - The c ose permissives are met for E-CB-DG2/8, and it will close. (incorrect)

B - The close permissives are met for E-CB-DG2/8, and it will close. (incorrect)

C - The close permissives for E-CB-DG2/8 are met, so the circuit breaker will close. With the DG-2 Excitation Mode Selector in UNIT, no speed or voltage droop will be in effect (isochronous mode of operation). The result will be the DG will attempt to assume all real and reactive load from the Backup transformer since the DGs frequency and voltage are higher than TR-Bs. This will cause a trip of E-CB-8/DG2 on overcurrent (which also trips E-CB-DG2/8). This was validated using the simulator. The Diesel cannot supply SM-8 in this condition and is inoperable. TS 3.8.1 Condition B requires an Offsite Power Alignment to be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. (correct)

D - Parallel operation will not continue (see answer C explanation). (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 24 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 Refueling activities were in progress with an irradiated fuel bundle in-transit to the reactor cavity from the fuel pool, when fuel pool water level was observed to be lowering. Just as fuel pool level fell below the weirs, the level decrease stopped.

Which of the following is correct for this situation?

A. Enter ABN-FPC-LOSS and declare an Unusual Event.

B. Enter ABN-FPC-LOSS and declare an Alert.

C. Enter ABN-FUEL-HAND and declare an Unusual Event.

D. Enter ABN-FUEL-HAND and declare an Alert.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 24 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 295023 AA2.05 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to refueling accidents: Entry conditions of emergency plan (3.2/4.6) 55.43.7

REFERENCE:

ABN-FPC-LOSS Rev.004 pg.2, ABN-LEVEL Rev.004 pg.2, PPM 13.1.1 Rev.038 pg.14 and PPM 13.1.1A Rev.021 pg.23 SOURCE: New LO: 8838 RATING: L2 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - Unplanned lowering SFP level in an entry condition to ABN-FPC-LOSS. In the Refueling Incidents section of the emergency classifications, an uncontrolled water level decrease in the reactor cavity of SFP below the level of the weirs with all irradiated fuel assemblies remaining covered by water is an Unusual Event (1.3.U.1). (correct)

B - The stem stated that level stopped lowering just below the weirs, so no fuel was uncovered and uncovering was not imminent. (incorrect)

C - Even though refueling is in progress, ABN-FUEL-HAND will not address the lowering level. (incorrect)

D- See C. (incorrect)

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 25 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 OSP-CIA/IST-Q702, the CIA Valve Operability - Shutdown Surveillance, is scheduled for this shift, and the Two Year Valve Position Indication Verification is required. The CIA System Engineer has come to the Control Room for the pre-job brief, and has asked you to approve a Verbal Procedure Change for the surveillance. The Verbal Procedure Change can be summarized as follows:

• The procedure currently contains pounded steps (#) requiring CIA-V-39A and CIA-V-39B position to be verified locally

• The valves are 17 and 19 off the floor on the RB 522, respectively, and require ladders to get to and from the valves

• Dose rates can be as high as 80 mrem/hr in the areas of the valves

• The valves must physically reposition to change the remote status indication, and this can be proven with the Electrical Wiring Diagram

• The Verbal Procedure Change will delete the steps requiring valve position to be verified locally, and use the remote indication to verify valve position What is your response to this request and why?

The procedure change A. should be processed as a revision because the change will alter the method by which acceptance criteria test data is obtained.

B. should be processed as an editorial change because there will be no page number changes and the sequence of the steps will remain the same.

C. should be processed as a Procedure Change Notice because completion of the surveillance is not essential to plant operation.

D. will be approved as a Verbal Procedure Change because the changes are minor and easily understood, and the work is imminent.

ANSWER: A KA # & KA VALUE: 2.2.6 Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures. (3.0/3.6) 55.43.3

REFERENCE:

OSP-CIA/IST-Q702 Rev.005 pg.7, FORM 23342 Rev.31, SWP-PRO-02 Rev.022 pg.15, 16, and 40, SWP-PRO-03 Rev.013 pg.21 SOURCE: New LO: 6065 RATING: H3

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION QUESTION # 25 EXAM KEY APRIL 2011 ATTACHMENT: None JUSTIFICATION: A - See B, C, and D. The # in the step signifies a step which contains TS Surveillance acceptance criteria. A revision will require the changes be screened for 50.59 applicability, and compliance with LBD. (correct)

B - Editorials cannot be used if steps or added or deleted. (incorrect)

C - A PCN cannot be used to alter the method by which acceptance criteria test data is obtained. Local observation of valve position is required to comply with Tech Specs. A 50.59 screening is required. (incorrect)

D - This is a shutdown surveillance, and is not essential to plant operation. Verbal Procedure Changes also fall under PCNs, and as such cannot be used to change the method by which data is obtained.

COLUMBIA GENERATING STATION WRITTEN EXAMINATION EXAM KEY APRIL 2011