ML080460142
| ML080460142 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Hatch  |
| Issue date: | 02/14/2008 |
| From: | Michael B Division of Reactor Safety II |
| To: | |
| References | |
| 50-321/07-301, 50-366/07-301 | |
| Download: ML080460142 (124) | |
See also: IR 05000321/2007301
Text
Draft Submittal
(Pink Paper)
Reactor Operator Written Exam
HATCH DECEMBER 2007 EXAM
05000321/2007301 AND 05000366/2007301
DECEMBER 3 - 6, 2007, AND
DECEMBER 10,2007, (WRITTEN)
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
1. 201002K1.04 00l/2/2/RBMINEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/ROIBLC/RFA
While performing the Control Rod Weekly Exercise, 348V-C11-003-1/2, at 850/0 power,
the operator selects a centrally located rod which exceeds the Rod Block Monitor
(RBM) setpoint. (no rod movement was initiated)
Which ONE of the following describes the reactor manual control system status
AFTER this rod was selected?
A. NONE of the four lights above the rod movement control switch are illuminated.
Only RBM UPSCALE OR INOPERATIVE alarm was received.
NO other alarms were received.
B~ NONE of the four lights above the rod movement control switch are illuminated.
RBM UPSCALE OR INOPERATIVE alarm was received.
ROD OUT BLOCK alarm was received.
C. ONE of the four lights above the rod movement control switch is illuminated.
Only RBM UPSCALE OR INOPERATIVE alarm was received.
NO other alarms were received.
D. ONE of the four lights above the rod movement control switch is illuminated.
RBM *UPSCALE OR INOPERATIVE alarm was received.
ROD OUT BLOCK alarm was* received.
A. Incorrect because a Rod Out Block alarm will also be rece*ived. Plausible if
applicant does not know this alarm input.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because at this point, none of the lights will be illuminated (settle bus,
insert bus, withdraw bus, or withdraw permissive). Also incorrect because both RBM
upscale and Rod Out Block alarms will be received. Plausible if applicant knows one of
the alarms that RBM triggers.
D. Incorrect because at this point, none of the lights will be illuminated (settle bus,
insert bus, withdraw bus, or withdraw permissive). Plausible if applicant does not know
the names of the lights and thinks that one comes on with a rod is selected.
Kl. Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between REACTOR MANUAL
CONTROL SYSTEM and the following: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 /45.7 to 45.8)
K1.04 Rod block monitor: Plant-Specific
3.5/3.6
References
34AR-603-202-2, RBM Upscale or Inoperative annunciator procedure
34AR-603-238-2, Rod Out Block annunciator procedure
34AR-603-239-2, RMCS/RWM Rod Block or System Trouble annunciator procedure
C11-RMCS-LP-05401, Reactor Manual Control System lesson plan
C51-PRNM-LP-01203, Power Range Neutron Monitoring System lesson plan
Friday, September 28,2007 3:35:14 PM
1
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
forRO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
AuthorlReviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 3:35:14 PM
2
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
2. 202001A2.07 OOl/2/2/RECIRCINEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
While the unit is operating at 1000/0 power, the operator inadvertently places the "A"
recirc pump suction valve (B31-F023A) control switch to the close position, but
immediately releases the switch after he recognizes his mistake.
Which ONE of the following predicts how the recirc pump speed control system will
respond and also identifies the recovery actions necessary to restart the recirc pump?
A~ A speed signal failure alarm will occur.
The scoop tube lock must be reset and the runback pushbutton must be depressed.
B. A speed signal failure alarm will occur.
The scoop tube lock must be reset. The runback pushbutton is NOT required to be
depressed.
C. A speed signal failure alarm will NOT occur.
The indicated speed demand on the pump's controller will lower to 550/0 after the
pump trips and the controller must be placed in MANUAL.
D. A speed signal failure alarm will NOT occur.
The indicated speed demand on the pump's controller will remain at the value that
existed before the pump trip and the controller must be placed in MANUAL.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because in order to clear the speed controller failure alarm, the runback
pushbutton is depressed. Plausible if applicant knows'that the suction valve does not
cause a runback (vs discharge valve)-
C. Incorrect because when the drive motor,breaker trip occurs, a mismatch between
speed (00/0) and speed demand occurs which will be greater than 7%
delta, which
causes a speed controller failure alarm AND scoop tube lock. Plausible if the applicant
does not know the 7%
threshold for a signal failure alarm and knows that the speed
demand does actually lower to 44%
following a pump trip.
D. Incorrect because when the drive motor breaker trip occurs, a mismatch between
speed (00/0) and speed demand occurs which will be greater than 7%
delta, which
causes a speed controller failure alarm AND scoop tube lock. Plausible if the applicant
does not know the 7%
threshold for a signal failure alarm and does not know that the
speed demand changes following a pump trip, i.e .., the applicant reasons that actual
speed changes but speed demand remains the same.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
3
2
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
A2. Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the RECIRCULATION SYSTEM; and (b) based on
those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal
conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6)
A2.07 Recirculation pump speed mismatch: Plant-Specific
3.1 / 3.3
References
34S0-B31-001-1, Reactor Recirc System operating procedure
34AB-B31-001-1, Reactor Recirculation Pump(s) trip, or Recirc Loops flow Mismatch AOP
B31-RRS-LP-00401, Reactor Recirculation System lesson plan
Tier:
2
Group:
Keyword:
RECIRC
Source:
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
4
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
3. 202002K4.03 001/2/2/RECIRC/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the recirc system operating as follows:
1-B31-R620, Master Recirc Flow Control: MANUAL
1-B31-R621A, Pump A Speed Control: MANUAL
1-B31-R621 B, Pump B Speed Control: MANUAL
The follow*ing alarms are received:
FLUID DRIVE A SCOOP TUBE LOCK (602-126-1)
SPEED CONTROL A SIGNAL FAILURE (602-132-1)
No other alarms are present
Which ONE of the following conditions caused this condition?
A. The master recirc controller's output signal failed low.
B~ The individual recirc controller's output signal failed low.
c. Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus "A" (R25-S064).
D. Loss of power to the scoop tube positioner.
Note: The master controller (in manual) is normally used to control speed of both
pumps.
.A. Incorrect because this would also result in the "B" signal failure annunciator.
Plausible if applicant thinks that master controller was controlling both recirc pumps.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because there are several other alarms and lost indications that would
occur. Plausible since this is the power supply to the master and "A" recirc controllers
and these two alarms would be in alarm condition.
D. Incorrect because this condition does not result in a speed control signal failure
provided the unit is operating steady state, Le., no runback or speed changes in
progress. Plausible since this loss of power will cause a scoop tube lock.
K4. Knowledge of RECIRCULATION FLOW CONTROL SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or interlocks
which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)
K4.03 Signal failure detection: Plant-Specific
3.0 / 3.0
References
B31-RRS-LP-00401, Reactor Recirculation System lesson plan
34AR-602-126-1, Fluid Drive A Scoop Tube Lock annunciator procedure
34AR-602-132-1, Speed Control A Signal Failure annunciator procedure
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
5
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
RECIRC
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
6
QUESTIONS. REPORT
for RO
4. 203000K2.02 002/2/1/LPCI/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
A leak in the drywell has occurred on Unit 1 and the following conditions currently exist:
. Reactor level +20"
Drywell pressure 2 psig
1R24-S018A is de-energized.
Which ONE of the following describes how the LPCI system will respond if reactor
pressure lowers to 200 psig?
A. LPCI Loop 1 and 2 will both inject.
B. LPCI Loop 1 will be dead-headed.
LPCI Loop 2 will inject.
C~ LPCI Loop 1 will NOT inject but will be running on minimum flow..
LPCI Loop 2 will inject.
D. Neither LPCI Lo.op will inject.
A. Incorrect because Loop 1 will not have power to the inboard injection valve
E11-F015A. Plausible if applicant does not know the power supply to the valve.
B. Incorrect because the Loop 1 min flow valve E11-F007A.is normally OPEN. This
path will remain available even if the power supply is lost. Plausible if applicant thinks
the min flow valve position is normally closed or does not know the power supply.
C. Correct
D. Incorrect because LPCI loop 2 is unaffected. Plausible if applicant does not know
the initiation logic or thinks that the valve power supplies are unaffected.
203000 LPCI
K2. Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7) K2.02 Valves.
2.5* / 2.7*
References
E11-RHR-LP-00701, RHR System lesson plan
34S0-E11-010-1, RHR System operating procedure
Hatch Electrical Distribution diagram.
Tier:
2
Keyword:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Test:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
7
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
5. 205000K3.0l OOl/2/l/SHUTDOWN CLG/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
The following conditions exist on Unit 2:
Reactor pressure 100 psig; MSIVs closed
"B" Loop RHR in shutdown cooling with a cooldown in progress
"A" Loop RHR in standby lineup
Which ONE of the following describes how the plant will be affected if an RPS MG set
trip occurs? (assume no operator acti,on)
Reactor pressure will __ ; a mode change __ occur.
A.
lower; will
B. lower; will NOT
C. rise; will
D~ rise; will NOT
A. Incorrect because a shutdown cooling isolation will occur and this will cause a
heatup. Also incorrect because the plant is currently in Mode 3 as indicated by reactor
pressure. Plausible if applicant does not know that RPS MG set trip causes isolation.
B. Incorrect because a shutdown cooling isolation will occur and this will cause a
heatup. Plausible if applicant does not knowthat RPS MG set trip causes isolation.
C. Incorrect because the plant is already in Mode 3 as indicated by reactor pressure.
Plausible if applicant thinks that the plant is in cold shutdown and will transverse into
Mode 3 during the heatup.
D. Correct.
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SHUTDOWN COOLING SYSTEM (RHR
SHUTDOWN COOLING MODE) will have on following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.4) K3.0l Reactor pressure. 3.3 /3.3
References
34AB-C7l-002-2, Loss ofRPS AOP
Ell-RHR-LP-0070l, RHR System lesson plan
34AB-Ell-OOl-2, Loss of Shutdown Cooling AOP
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
SHUTDOWN CLG
HIGHER
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-30l
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
8
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
6.' 206000AI.OI OOI/2/I/HPCI/MOD BANK/HIGHER/HT2007-30I/RO/BLC/RFA
HPCI auto-initiated and injected following the loss of both Reactor Feedwater Pumps
and then subsequently tripped on RPV high water level. The following conditions
currently exist:
RPV water level is +20 inches and slowly lowering
Drywell pressure is 1.5 psig and slowly rising
Given these current plant conditions, which ONE of the following choices will complete
the following statement to describe the HPCI logic?
"If the operator depresses the ...
A~ HI REACTOR WATER LEVEL TRIP RESET pushbutton, then HPCI will re-start and
immediately inject.
B. HI REACTOR WATER LEVEL TRIP RESET pushbutton, HPCI will NOT re-start at
this time.
C. INITIATION SIGNAL RESET pushbutton, HPCI will re-start but NOT inject at this
time.
D. INITIATION SIGNAL RESET pushbutton, HPCI will re-start and immediately inject.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because HPCI will restart. Plausible if applicant thinks that no initiation
signal currently exists.
C. Incorrect because this pushbutton will not result in HPCI starting. Plausible if
applicant thinks that flow controller takes its signal from reactor level (vs flow).
D. Incorrect because this pushbutton will not result in HPCI starting. Plausible if
applicant thinks that current drywell pressure is auto-initiation setpoint. (vs 1.85 psig)
At. Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the HIGH
PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM controls including:
(CFR: 41.5/45.5) AI.OI Reactor water level: BWR-2,3,4
4.3* /4.4*
References
34S0-E4I-OOI-2, HIGH PRESSURE COOLANT INJECTION (HPCI) SYSTEM
E4I-HPCI-LP-0050I, HPCI Lesson Plan
Modified from Initial Exam Bank item LT-LP-00500I 020/LT-LP-00501-05
Tier:
2
Group:
I
Keyword:
Source:
MOD BANK
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-30I
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
9
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
7. 206000K5.06 001/2/1/HPCI/NEW/FUND/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes the HPCI mechanical overspeed trip?
At:! The stop valve begins closing, turbine speed lowers and then the stop valve
re-opens when turbine speed is below the reset speed value. The F006 injection
valve will remain open.
B. The stop valve fully closes and remains closed until the ball and tappet is locally
reset. The F006 injection valve will remain open.
C. The F006 injection valve will fully close and remain closed until the ball and tappet
is locally reset. When the F006 injection valve closes, the stop valve fully closes.
D. The control valve begins closing, turbine speed lowers and then the control valve
re-opens when turbine speed is below the reset speed value. The F006 injection
will remain open.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because the mech overspeed trip is "self-resetting." The ball and tappet
do not require a local reset. Plausible if applicant thinks HPCI is similar to RCIC.
C. Incorrect because the F006 will not close on a mech overspeed trip due to the
self-resetting feature on HPCI. Also incorrect because the ball and tappet do not
require local reset. Plausible if applicant thinks the F006 valve is the initiating
component on the trip. Also plausible if applicant thinks HPCI is similar to RCIC.
D. Incorrect because the control valve will respond to maintain pump flow" The
mechanical overspeed is not associated with the control valve. Plausible if applicant
thinks that the control valve is modulated based on turbine speed.
K5. Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to HIGH PRESSURE
COOLANT INJECTION SYSTEM: .
(CFR: 41.5 / 45.3) K5.06 Turbine speed measurement: BWR-2,3,4 .. 2.6* /2.6
References
E41-HPCI-LP-00501, HPCI System lesson plan
Tier:
2
Keyword:
Cog Level:
FUND
Test:
RO'
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
10
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
8. 20900IG2.1.31 OOI/2/I/CORE SPRAYINEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Both units are operating at 100% power. At the completion of the 34SV-E21-001-1/2,
Core Spray Pump Operability Surveillance, the second party verification operator
independently observes the following control board indications:
E21-F001 B, torus suction valve
OPEN
E21-F019B, torus suction valve
OPEN
E21-F004B, outboard discharge valve
CLOSED
E21-F005B, inboard discharge valve
OPEN
E21-F031 B, min flow valve
CLOSED
Which ONE of the following describes the required standby lineup and the valve logic?
A. The current lineup is correct.
The min flow valve can be opened; however it will auto-close after it reaches the full
open position.
B~ The min flow valve position AND both discharge valves' position are incorrect.
The discharge valves can be realigned by first closing the F005B and then opening
the F004B.
C. The min flow valve position is incorrect; however, both discharge valves' position
are correct.
D. Both discharge valves' position are incorrect; however, the min flow valve position is
correct.
The discharge valves can be realigned by first closing the F005B and then opening
the F004B.
A. Incorrect because the min flow valve position is not correct AND the discharge
valves' positions are not correct. Plausible if applicant does not know the required
standby core spray lineup. Also plausible since the min flow valve logic works as
described.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because the F004 and F005 positions are backwards. Plausible if
applicant does not know the required standby lineup.
D. Incorrect because the min flow valve should be open. Plausible if applicant knows
the discharge valve position requirements but not the logic on the min flow valve.
Friday, September 28,2007'9:24:14 AM
11
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
SYSTEM: 209001 Low Pressure Core Spray System
2.1.31 Ability to locate control room switches / controls and indications and to determine that they are
correctly reflecting the desired plant lineup.. (CFR: 45.12) IMPORTANCE RO 4.2 I SRO 3.9
References
34S0-E21-001-1, Attachment 3 (pg 2 of 8), Main Control Room Panel valve lineup sheet
34S0-E21-001-1, Attachment 8 (page 1 of 3), General System Information for F005/F004
Tier:
2*
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:1~ AM
12
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
9. 2ll000K2.0l OOl/2/l/SLC/BANK MOD/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Due to an electrical transient, 600 V bus 2C is lost. Which ONE of the following
describes how this power failure affects the SBLC system?
At:! Both amber squib valve indications will be OFF on the 2H11-P603 panel.
ONLY the 'B' squib valve will fire, if the SBLC switch is placed in the 'Start Sys B'
position.
B.
Both amber squib valve indications will be OFF on the 2H11-P603 panel.
Both squib valves will fire if the SBLC switch is placed in either the 'Start Sys A' OR
'Start Sys B' position.
C. Both amber squib valve indications will be ON on the 2H11-P603 panel.
ONLY the 'B' squib valve will fire, if the SBLC switch is placed in the 'Start Sys B'
position.
D. *Both amber squib valve indications will be ON on the 2H11-P603 panel.
Both squib valves will fire if the SBLC switch is placed in either the 'Start Sys A' OR
'Start Sys B' position.
600VAC 2C supplies 2R24-S011 (SLC pump 2A breaker). 2R24-S011 supplies
2R25-S101 (SLC instrumentation & indicating lights for BOTH systems).
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because the A squib valve doesn't have breaker power. Plausible
because normally both squib valves fire irrespective of the position of the SBLC switch,
i.e., in either position fires ,both squib valves.
C. Incorrect because the amber lights will be OFF. Plausible if applicant does not
know the power supply to the SLC control board indications (different) vs the pump
breakers.
D. Incorrect because the amber l.ights will be OFF.
Also incorrect because the 'A'
squib valve doesn't have power therefore both squib valves will not fire. Plausible if the
applicant does not know the power supply to the SLC control board indications
(different) vs the pump breakers. Also plausible since normally both squib valves fire
irrespective of the switch position, i.e., both valves fire in system A or system B
positions.
K2. Knowledge of electrical power sup*plies to the following:
(CFR: 41.7) K2.0l SBLC pumps
2.9* I 3.1 *
References
C4l-SBLC-LP-OllOl, SLC lesson plan
Initial License Exam Bank Modified question: LT-LP-Oll001 00 liLT-LP-Oll01-03/0ll.00l.A.04
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
13
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
FUND
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
Source:
Exam:
Author/Reviewer:
1
BANK MOD
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
14
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
10. 212000K2.02 001/2/1/ATTS/BANK/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following is a normal operating status light lineup, i.e., NO ALARM
CONDITIONS, for Analog Transmitter Trip System (ATTS) Panel P925?
TRIP STATUS/MTU
A. ON/GREEN
B~ OUT
C. ON/AMBER
D. OUT
STATUS/MTU
ON/GREEN
ON/GREEN
OUT
ON/RED
GROSS FAIL/MTU
ON/GREEN
OUT
ON/GREEN
OUT
POWER ON/P925
ON/GREEN
ON/CLEAR
ON/RED
ON/GREEN
This question is straight from the licensee's initial exam bank. (minor mC?difications
only)
A. Incorrect because trip status light is ON. Also incorrect because the gross failure
light'is ON. Also incorrect because the power status lights are clear (vs green)
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because the trip status lights are normally off and they are green (vs
amber). The trip unit status light is normally on and the power status light is clear (vs
red).
D. Incorrect because the trip unit status light is green (vs red) and the power supply
status light is clear (vs green).
K2. Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following:
(CFR: 41.7) K2.02 Analog trip system logic cabinets
2.7 /2.9
References
H11-ATTS-LP-I0008, Analog Transmitter Trip System lesson plan.
Initial exam bank test item # LT-LP-55001 028/LT-LP-I0008-05
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
BANK
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301 '
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
15
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
11. 212000K4.07 001/2/1/RPS/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes the UNIT 1 reactor protection system (RPS)
manual scram logic?
A~ The manual scram pushbutton will NOT de-energize an automatic scram channel.
There are the same number of shorting links as compared to the other unit.
B. A manual scram pushbutton will de-energize an automatic scram channel.
There are the same number of shorting links as compared to the other unit.
C. The manual scram pushbutton will NOT de-energize an automatic scram channel.
There are four less shorting links compared to the other unit.
D. A manual scram pushbutton will de-energize an automatic scram channel.
There are four less shorting links compared to the other unit.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because manual scram pushbutton on U1 does not input to the
auto-scram channels. Plausible if applicant does not know unit difference.
C. Incorrect because there are the same number of shorting links on U1 and U2.
Plausible since U2 has four manual scram pushbuttons.
D. Incorrect because manual scram pushbutton on U1 does not input to the
auto-scram channels. Also incorrect because there are the same number of shorting
links on U1 and U2. Plausible since U2 has four manual scram pushbuttons. Plausible
if applicant does not know unit difference.
K4. Knowledge of REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide
for the following: (CFR: 41.7)
K4.07 Manual system activation (trip)
4.1* /4.1
References
C71-RPS-LP-01001, RPS lesson plan
Tier:
2
Keyword:
Cog Level:
FUND
Test:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
- Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
16
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
12. 215003K4.06 OOl/2/l/IRMINEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
During a startup the operator inadvertently downranges IRM "G" from range 4 to range
3 and the following annunciators are received:
IRM BUS A UPSCALE TRIP OR INOP (603-203-18)
REACTOR NEUTRON MONITORING SYS TRIP (603-109-1)
REACTOR AUTO SCRAM SYSTEM A TRIP (603-117-1)
IRM UPSCALE (603-221-1)
ROD OUT BLOCK (603-238-1)
The operator quickly realizes his mistake and ranges IRM "G" to range 5 where it
indicates - 30. No further actions have yet been taken.
At this point, whic.h ONE of the following describes the upscale (amber) and upscale
trip (red) lamp indications on the P603 panel apron section and on the IRM drawer on
panelP606?
A~ The amber and red lamps on the P603 panel apron section are OFF.
The amber and red lamps on the IRM drawer at panel P606 are still ON.
ONLY the reset switch on the IRM drawer is required to clear the lamps.
B. The amber and red lamps on the P603 panel apron section are still ON.
The amber and red lamps onthe IRM drawer at panel P606 are still ON.
ONLY the 1/2 scram reset is required to clear the lamps at P6.03.
ONLY the reset switch on the IRM drawer is required to clear the lamps at P606.
c. ONLY the amber lamp on the P603 panel apron section is still ON. (red is OFF)
ONLY the amber lamp at the IRM drawer P606 panel is still ON. (red is OFF)
ONLY the reset switch on the IRM drawer can be used to clear the P603 & P606
amber lamps.
D. The amber and red lamps on the P603 panel apron section are both OFF.
ONLY the amber lamp at the IRM drawer P606 panel is ON. (red light is OFF)
ONLY the reset switch on the IRM drawer can be used to clear the P606 amber
lamps.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
17
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because all the lamps at P603 went off when the IRM was ranged
correctly. Also incorrect because these lights went off by themselves, i.e., don't require
the 1/2 scram reset. Plausible if applicant knows that a 1/2 scram still exists.
C. Incorrect because all the lamps at P603 went off when the IRM was ranged
correctly. Also incorrect because the IRM drawer reset switch does not affect the P603
lamps. Plausible if applicant knows that the reset switch is required to reset the drawer
lamps.
D. Incorrect because the red lamp (upscale trip) on the drawer will still be ON even
though this lamp is not on at P603. Plausible if applicant knows that the trip signal is
clear when the IRM was correctly ranged and because the IRM reset switch is required
to turn the drawer lamp off.
K4. Knowledge of INTERMEDIATE RANGE MONITOR (IRM) SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or
interlocks which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)
K4.06 Alarm seal-in
2.6 / 2.6
References
IRM BUS A UPSCALE TRIP OR INOP (603-203-1S)
REACTOR NEUTRON MONITORING SYS TRIP (603-109-1)
REACTOR AUTO SCRAM SYSTEM A TRIP (603-117-1)
IRM UPSCALE (603-221-1)
ROD OUT BLOCK (603-238-1)
C51-IRM-01202, IRM lesson plan
Two types oftrip units are used: the upscale trip and the downscale trip. An upscale trip is where the unit produces
an output when the signal input rises above the reference input. A downscale trip is where the unit produces an
output when the signal input drops below the reference input. Each trip unit produces two types of outputs: seal-in
and auto reset. Once a 'seal-in output is produced, it must be manually reset by operator. An example of a seal-in
output is one that drives the local indicator lights on the chassis front. The auto reset output allows the trip signal to
reset as soon as the monitored parameter returns within reference limits. This output drives indicators on panel P603
and Reactor Protection or Reactor Manual Control System logic.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
13. 215004A1.01 001/2/1/SRM/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
A Unit 2 startup from a refueling outage is in progress with the following conditions:
Reactor power - 1%, IRMs on range 8 and 9
Reactor pressure at 200 psig.
(Assuming that the SRM/IRM detector selection power is still ON) Which ONE of the
following is correct for the source range monitor (SRM) detector position and period
indication?
A.
Retract permit .light is extinguished.
Changes in the SRM period indication reflect actual core neutron flux changes.
B. Retract permit light is extinguished.
Changes in the SRM period indication do NOT reflect actual core neutron flux
changes.
C. Retract permit light is illuminated.
Changes in the SRM period indication do NOT reflect actual core neutron flux
changes.
D~ Retract permit light is illuminated.
Changes in the SRM period indication reflect actual core neutron flux changes.
A. Incorrect because retract permit light will be illuminated. Plausible if the applicant
does not know the 200 cps setpoint or does not know logic for SRM detector position.
B. Incorrect because retract permit light will be illuminated. Plausible if the applicant
does not know the 200 cps setpoint or does not know logic for SRM detector position.
C. Incorrect because SRM period indication is still valid for neutron flux changes even
though detector is fully withdrawn. Plausible if applicant thinks that period indication is
not valid wi detectors fully withdrawn.
D. Correct.
215004 Source Range Monitor
AI. Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the SOURCE RANGE
MONITOR (SRM) SYSTEM controls including: (CFR: 41.5 /45.5)
Al.01 Detector position
3.0/ 3.1
References
34GO-OPS-OO1-2, Plant Startup
C51-SRM-LP-01201, SRM lesson plan
34AR-603-222-2, SRM Detector Retracted When Not Permitted annunciator procedure
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
19
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
20
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
14. 215005K3.08 001/2/I/THERMAL LIMITSINEWIHIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with no rods selected and the following alarm is
received:
LPRM UPSCALE (603-237)
The operator confirms at the panel H11-P603 that one LPRM is upscale as shown on
the LPRM BARGRAPHS function.
Which O,NE of the following describes how this will affect the core thermal limit
calculations and the requirements for APRM operability?
A~ MFLPD and MAPRAT values will rise.,
APRM operability requires a minimum of 3 LPRMs per level.
B. MFLPD and MAPRAT values will rise.
APRM operability requires a minimum of 2 LPRMs per level.
C. MFLPD and MAPRAT values will lower.
APRM operability requires a minimum of 3 LPRMs per level. .
D. MFLPD and MAPRAT values will lower.
APRM operability requires a minimum of 2 LPRMs per level.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect because APRM operability requires 3 LPRMs per level. Plausible if
applicant does not know the requirement; o,ld system used this number.
C. Incorrect because thermal limit values should rise to approach 1. Plausible if
applicant thinks that the LPRM will change the LCO limit value.
D. Incorrect because thermal limit values should rise to approach 1. Plausible if
applicant thinks that the LPRM will change the LCO limit value.
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the AVERAGE POWER RANGE
MONITOR/LOCAL POWER RANGEMONITOR SYSTEM will have on following:
(CFR: 41.7 I 45.4) K3.08 tcore thermal calculations
3.0/3.4
References
34AR-603-237-2, LPRM Upscale annunciator procedure
34SV-C51-003~2, LPRM Operational Status
Tier:
2
Keyword:
THERMAL LIMITS
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Test:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
21
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
15. 217000A3.03 001/2/1/RCIC/BANK MOD/HIGHERlHT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
After a dual feed pump trip from rated conditions, RCIC and CRD are in operation.
Reactor water level is at -38 inc~es and is stable. RCIC is injecting to the vessel in
automatic with the following control board indications:
E51-R604 Pump Suction Press
E51-R601 Pump Discharge Press
E51-R602 Turb Inlet Press
E51-R603 Turb Exh Press
E51-R61 O'Turb Speed
E51-R612 Turbine Controller flow
10 psig
225 psig
910 psig
10 psig
1900 rpm
400 gpm
Given these plant conditions, which ONE of the following is required for RCIC,
including the reason?
A. Continue to run RCIC.
Raise turbine speed > 2000 rpm by lowering the flow controller automatic setpoint
to prevent exhaust check valve damage.
B. Continue to run RCIC.
Raise turbine speed> 2000 rpm by placing the flow controller in MANUAL and then
lowering flow using the slider bar to prevent exhaust check valve damage.
C. IMMEDIATELY secure RCIC.
The low suction pressure trip failed.
D~ IMMEDIATELY secure RCIC.
The discharge pressure indicates a possible pipe break.
A. Incorrect because the pump discharge pressure should be equivalent to the turb steam inlet
pressure, i.e., reactor pressure. Also incorrect because reducing RCIC pump flow below its
rated condition of 400 gpm with the flow controller in automatic may cause system instability.
Transferring the flow controller to MANUAL AND adjusting its 'speed demand' output may be
required to stabilize control capability. Plausible since the system procedure warns that
continued operation at turbine speeds < 2000 rpm can cause check valve problems.
B. Incorrect because the pump discharge pressure should be equivalent to the turb steam inlet
pressure, i.e., reactor pressure. Plausible since the system procedure warns that continued
operation at turbine speeds < 2000 rpm can cause check valve problems.
C. Incorrect because the RCIC low suction pressure trip occurs at 10"Hg vacuum (vs 10 psig
positive pressure). Plausible since applicant may not know the units.
D. Correct.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
22
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
A3. Ability to monitor automatic operations of the REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING SYSTEM
(RCIC) including: (CFR: 41.7 /45.7)
A3.03 System pressure
3.7 / 3.6
References
E51-RCIC-LP-03901, RCIC system lesson plan
34S0-E51-001-2, Reactor Core Isolation Cooling (RCIC) system operating procedure
Initial License Exam Bank item # LR-LP-039024 007/LR-LP-03901-04
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
BANK MOD
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:..
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
16. 218000K6.02 00l/2/1/ADS/BANK MOD/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 was operating at 100% power with the 28 Core Spray pump out of service
(inop). A loss of offsite power occurred on Unit 2 and the following plant conditions
currently exist at time t =0:
4KV Emergency buses 2E and 2F are de-energized
Drywell pressure is 1.5 psig
Reactor water level is -120 inches and steady with RCIC.
Which ONE of the following describes how the automatic depressurization system
(ADS) will be affected by these plant conditions?
A. ADS will initiate after - 13 minutes have elapsed.
B. ADS will initiate as soon as - 2 minutes have elapsed.
C~ ADS will NOT initiate because the low pressure pump permissive is not satisfied.
D. ADS will NOT initiate because the drywell pressure permissive is not satisfied.
A. Incorrect because the low pressure pump permissive is not satisfied. The only low
pressure ECCS pump that's running is 28 RHR pump. ADS logic requires at least two
RHR pumps or one Core Spray pump. Plausible if applicant does not know the pump
power supplies, but knows that the drywell pressure bypass timer is required.
8. Incorrect because the low pressure pump permissive is not satisfied. The only low
pressure ECCS pump that's running is 28 RHR pump. ADS logic requires at least two
RHR pumps or one Core Spray pump. Plausible if applicant does not know the pump
power supplies and thinks that the drywell pressure permissive is satisfied.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because the reason ADS won't initiate is because the low pressure pump
permissive is not satisfied. Plausible if applicant does not know pump power supplies
and does not know that a drywell pressure bypass timer exists.
K6. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the AUTOMATIC
DEPRESSURIZATION SYSTEM: (CFR: 41.7 /45.7)
K6.02 Low pressure core spray system pressure: Plant-Specific
4.1 / 4.1
References
B21-ADS-LP-03801 ADS lesson plan
Initial license exam bank item# LT-LP-038004 005/LP-LP-03801-06
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
BANK MOD
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:14 AM
?L1.
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
17. 219000A3.01 OOI/2/2/RHR/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
An ATWS has occurred with the foHowing conditions:
APRM power"" 40/0
MSIVs open; EHC controlling pressure 900 - 1000 psig
No SRVs are open
Drywell pressure 1 psig, steady
RPV level is being controlled -65" to -75" in accordance with CP-3
Both loops of RHR were placed in torus cooling using the placard posted at H11-P601
while these plant conditions existed (i.e., the containment spray valve control and 2/3
core height override switches were not used.)
While the rods are being inserted and boron is being injected, a group 1 isolation
occurs. The SRO orders that RPV level be lowered to -150".
Which ONE of the following predicts how the 'E11-F028 (torus isolation) and E11-F024
(torus cooling) valves will respond when RPV level reaches -150", including required
actions (if any)?
At:! Both valves auto-closed.
If ONLY the containment spray valve control switch is placed in the MANUAL
position, THEN the E11-F028 valve will automatically re-open. (E11-F028 switch
not required to be re-opened and 2/3 core height switch not required)
B. Both valves auto-closed.
BOTH the containment spray valve control switch and the 2/3 core height switch are
required to re-open both valves. The sequence of these two switches does not
matter, i.e., either switch may be positioned first in order for both valves to be
re-opened.
c. The E11-F028 valve auto-closed. The E11-F024 valve remained open.
If ONLY the containment spray valve control switch is placed in the MANUAL
position, THEN the E11~F028 valve will automatically re-open.
(E11-F028 switch not required to be re-opened and 2/3 core height switch not
required)
D. The E11-F028 valve remained open. The E11-F024 valve auto-closed.
If ONLY the containment spray valve control switch is placed in the MANUAL
position, THEN the E11-F024 valve will automatically re-open.
(E11-F024 switch not required to be re-opened and 2/3 core height switch not
required)
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
25
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because the keylock (2/3 core height) must be turned FIRST..then the
containment spray yalve control switch. Plausible if applicant does not know that the
logic requires a sequence.
C. Incorrect because both valves auto-closed. Plausible if applicant knows that the
E11-F028 is the upstream keylock isolation valve.
D. Incorrect because both valves auto-closed. Plausible if applicant thinks that only
the downstream throttle valve has the auto-closure logic.
A3. Ability to monitor automatic operations of the RHRlLPCI: TORUS/SUPPRESSION POOL COOLING
MODE including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)
A3.01 Valve operation
3.3 / 3.3
References
34S0-EI1-010-2, Attachment 10 and 15: RHRSW Startup Placard an~ Torus Cooling Initiation Placard
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:14 AM
26
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
18. 223002A2.09 002/2/1/PCISINEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 was starting up at 20 % power. _The turbine generator had just been
synchronized to the grid when a loss of main condenser vacuum resulted inan
automatic reactor scram.
Which ONE of the following predicts status of the main steam line isolation valves and
identifies the procedure for depressurizing the reactor to cold shutdown?
A. MSIVs are still open
31 EO-EOP-107-2, Alternate RPV Pressure Control
B. MSIVs are still open
34GO-OPS-013-2, Normal Plant Shutdown
C. MSIVs are closed
31 EO-EOP-1 07-2, Alternate RPV Pressure Control
D~ MSIVs are closed
34GO-OPS-013-2, Normal Plant Shutdown
A. Incorrect because the MSIVs are closed. Also incorrect because Alt RPV Press Ctl
only used for cooldown when all other systems are not available iaw 34GO-OPS-013-2,
Section 7.5. Plausible if applicant thinks that the condenser low vacuum trip bypass
switches are still in the bypass position.
B. Incorrect because the MSIVs are closed. Plausible if applicant thinks that the
condenser low vacuum trip bypass switches are still in the bypass position.
C. Incorrect because AltRPV Press Ctl only uS.ed for cooldown when all other systems
are not available iaw 34GO-OPS-013-2, Section 7.5. Plausible if applicant thinks that
since condenser is unavailable that an "alternate" means of pressure control is
required.
D. Correct.
A2. Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the PRIMARY CONTAINMENT ISOLATION
SYSTEM/NUCLEAR STEAM SUPPLY SHUT-OFF; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to
correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5/45.6)
A2.09 System initiation-
3.6 / 3.7
34GO-OPS-001-2, Plant Startup (pp 25 & 39) procedure
34GO-OPS-013-2, Normal Plant Shutdown (p 25) procedure
31EO-EOP-I07-2, Alternate RPV Pressure Control
31EO-EOP-O10-2, RPV Control (non-ATWS) flowchart
T23-PC-LP-O1301, Primary Containment lesson plan
Friday, September 28,20079:24:15 AM
27
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
Source:
Exam:
Author/Reviewer:
1
NEW
HT2007-301
BLCIRFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
19. 223002K3.01 002/2/I/PCIS/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 is in Mode 4 with the following conditions:
"2B" RHR pump is in shutdown cooling
CRD flow is - 60 gpm
RWCU reject flow is - 60 gpm
RPV level is +36 "
Which ONE of the following identifies how a trip of the "1 B" RPS MG set will affect
reactor water level and the primary containment isolation system logic? (assume no
operator action)
A. Level will remain the same.
Inboard Shutdown Cooling Suction (E11-F009) and LPCllnboard Injection Valve
(E11-FO15B) will BOTH auto-close.
B. Level will steadily rise.
ONLY the Inboard Shutdown Cooling Suction (E11-F009) valve will close.
The LPCllnboard Injection Valve (E11-F015B) will remain open.
C~ Level will steadily rise.
Outboard Shutdown Cooling Suction (E11-F008) and LPCI Inboard Injection Valve
(E11-F015B) will BOTH auto-close.
D. Level will remain the same.
.ONLY the Outboard Shutdown Cooling Suction (E11-F008) valve will close.
The LPCI Inboard Injection Valve (E11-F015B) will remain open.
A. Incorrect because level will immediately begin rising due to CRD flow without
RWCU reject flow (RWCU F004 valve will- also auto-close). Plausible if applicant does
not know that RWCU isolates; i.e., simply classifies as a loss of shutdown cooling.
B.' Incorrect because F009 is not affected by trip of 1B RPS MG set and because
F015B will auto-close. Plausible if applicant does not know which PCIS valves are
triggered by RPS "B."
. C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because level will immediately begin rising due to CRD flow without
RWCU reject flow (RWCU F004 valve will alsoauto-c*lose). Also incorrect because
F015B also auto-closes. Plausible if applicant does not know that RWCU isolates; i.e.,
simply classifies as a loss of shutdown cooling and assumes RPS "B" loss does not
affect inboard LPCI valve.'
!ay, Septer
28,2007 9:24:15 AM
29
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the PRIMARY CONTAINMENT ISOLATION
SYSTEM/NUCLEAR STEAM SUPPLY SHUT-OFF will have on following: (CPR: 41.7 /45.4)
K3.01 Reactor water level
3.7 / 3.7
References
34AB-C71-002-1, Attachment 3, Loss OfRPS Bus Automatic Actions
E11-RHR-LP-00701, RHR system lesson plan
G31-RWCU-LP-00301, RWCU system lesson plan
Tier:
2
Keyword:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Test:
31
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
20. 230000A4.03 001/2/2/RHR/NEW/FUND/HT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes the RHR piping keepfill system and the
containment spray piping?
A. If the water level in the spray line piping drops, then an annunciator will alarm in the
control room.
The section of piping between the containment spray outboard valve (E11-F016)
and inboard valve (E11-F021) is maintained full of water by the keepfill system.
B~ If the water level in the spray line piping drops, then an annunciator will alarm in the
control room.
.
The section of piping between the containment spray outboard valve (E11-F016)
and inboard valve (E11-F021) is NOT maintained full of water by the keepfill
system.
C. The Unit 2 keepfill jockey pumps do not have any auto-start feature.
The section of piping between the containment spray outboard valve (E11-F016)
and inboard valve (E11-F021) is NOT maintained full of water by the keepfill
system.
D. The Unit 1 keepfill jockey pumps do not have any auto-start feature.
The section of piping between the containment spray outboard valve (E11-F016)
and inboard valve (E11-F021) is maintained full of water by the keepfill system.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Hatch drains this section of piping to avoid introducing water into the drywell when the
valve stroke operability test is performed. The jockey pump keepfill system maintains
the piping upstream of the F016 full; however, the piping section between the F016 and
F021 will not be ensured full.
Unit 1: RHR Loop A(B) Jockey Pump System Water Level Low alarm is triggered by a
level switch in loop 1 drywell spray line (loop 2 head spray line)
Unit 2: RHR Loop A(B) Jockey Pump System Water Level Low alarm is triggered by a
level switch in loop 1 injection line (loop 2 head spray line)
A. Incorrect because the F016/F021 piping is not kept f~1I by the keepfill system.
Plausible if applicant thinks that keepfill system maintains all of the ECCS piping full of
water.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because the Unit 2 jockey pumps do have an auto-start feature on low
pressure. Plausible because Unit 1 pumps don't have any auto-start features. Also
plausible if applicant thinks that keepfill system maintains all of the ECCS piping full of
water.
D. Incorrect because the F016/F021 piping is not kept full by the keepfill system.
Plausible if applicant thinks that keepfill system maintains all of the ECCS piping full of
water.
RHR/LPCI: ToruslPool Spray Mode
A4. Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 /45.5 to 45.8)
A4.03 Keep fill system
3.1 /3.0
References
34SV-E11-002-2, RHR Valve Operability (Section 7.2.1.3) surveillance test
34SV-SUV-016-2, Cold Shutdown Valve Operability (Section 7.2.16) surveillance test
EI1-RHR-LP-00701, RHR system lesson plan
E21-CS-LP-00801, Core Spray system lesson plan
34AR-601-326-2, Unit 2 RHR Loop A Jockey Pump Sys Water Level Low annunciator procedure
34AR-601-333-2, Unit 2 Jockey Pump Sys A Disch Press Low annunciator procedure
34AR-601-326-1, Unit 1 RHR Loop A Jockey Pump Sys Wate~ Level Low annunciator procedure
34-AR-601-21 7-1, Unit 1 RHR Loop B Jockey Pump Sys Water Level Low annunciator procedure.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:15 AM
32
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
21. 233000G2.4.50 001/2/2/FUEL POOL/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following fuel pool transfer canal pneumatic seals does the following
annunciator pertain to and what is the status of this alarm when refueling is in
progress?
FPC SYS GATE SEALS LEAKING (654-006)
A.
Fuel pool to transfer canal gate seals; This is NOT a normal alarm when the fuel
pool gates are removed and the cavity is flooded ..
B~ Fuel pool to transfer canal gate seals; This IS a normal alarm when the fuel pool
gates are removed and the cavity is flooded.
C. Fuel pool transfer canal transition piece seals; This IS a normal alarm when the fuel
pool gates are removed and the cavity is flooded.
D. Fuel pool transfer canal transition piece seals; This is NOT a normal alarm when
the fuel pool gates are removed and the cavity is flooded.
A. Incorrect because this is a normal alarm when the fuel pool gates are removed and
the cavity is flooded. Plausible if applicant knows the component but does not
understand the level detection circuit.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because' there are separate alarms for the transition piece seals. Also
incorrect because this is a normal alarm when the fuel pool gates are removed and the
cavity is flooded. Plausible if applicant does not know the difference between the two
canals, Le., one between the fuel pool and RPV and the other canal between unit 1 and
2.
D. Incorrect because there are separate alarms for the transition piece seals.
Plausibile if applicant does not know the difference between the two canals, Le., one
between the fuel pool and RPV and the other canal between Unit 1 and 2.
SYSTEM: 233000 Fuel Pool Cooling and Clean-up
2.4.50 Ability to verify system alarm setpoints and operate controls identified in the alarm response manual.
(CFR: 45.3) IMPORTANCE RO 3."3 / SRO 3.3
References
G41-FPC-LP-04501, Fuel Pool Cooling and Cleanup lesson plan
34AR-654-006-1, FPC Gate Seals Leaking annunciator procedure
34AR-654-051-1, Fuel Pool Xfer Canal Bladder Air Press Low annunciator procedure
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
FUEL POOL
FUND
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:15 AM
33
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
22. 239002G2.4.22 OOl/2/1/SRV/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
While performing the 31 EO-EOP-01 0-2, RPV Control (Non-ATWS) the following step is
encountered:
THEN
manu:all~y :o;p:;e:(l :$RVs
UNTI*L:
re:¢lctor pra::$$uFa: i:s b:$::I~QW 9;;6::0: p::siig
u~s:e: ~$e:qu:a:n:ce: :Ii:sted i!n Tab:h3: *1:
.
Which ONE of the following interprets the phrase "cycling on its relief setpoint" and
identifies the reason for opening SRVs until reactor pressure is below 960 psig using
the sequence?
"Cycling" does NOT include SRV.....
A. actuation due to the backup electrical relief setpoint. The Table 1 opening
sequence is required to evenly distribute cycles on the SRVs and to prevent
localized heating in the torus.
B. actuation due to the backup electrical relief setpoint. Pressure is stabilized at a
value below the high RPV pressure scram setpoint to permit the scram logic to be
reset.
C~ low level set actuation. The Table 1 opening sequence is required to evenly
distribute cycles on the SRVs and to prevent localized heating in the torus.
D. low level set actuation. Pressure is stabilized at a value below the high RPV
pressure scram setpoint to permit the scram logic to be reset.*
A. Incorrect because cycling includes mechanical and electrical setpoint cycling.
Plausible if applicant thinks that electrical means low level set cycling.
B. Incorrect because cycling includes mechanical and electrical setpoint cycling. Also
incorrect because this is the basis for. stabilizing pressure at 1074 psig (next step in
flowchart). Plausible if applicant thinks that electrical means low level set cycling or if
applicant confuses the basis for 1074 psig step.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because this is the basis for stabilizing pressure at 1074 psig (next step in
flowchart). Plausible if applicant thinks that electrical means low level set cycling or if
applicant confuses the basis for 1074 psig step.
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:15 AM
34
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
SYSTEM: 239002 Relief/Safety Valves
2.4.22 Knowledge of the bases for prioritizing safety functions during abnormal/emergency operations.
(CFR: 43.5/45.12) IMPORTANCE RO 3.0/ SRO 4.0
References
31EO-EOP-010-2, RPV Control (Non-ATWS)
EOP-RC-LP-20302, RPV Control (Non-ATWS) lesson plan
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
35
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
23. 245000K3.05 001/212/FEEDPUMP/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 turbine generator is operating at 85%
when the "0" moisture separator hotwell
drain tank becomes full of water. The "0" MSR's downcomer is full to the bottom of the
moisture separator shell.
Which ONE of the following predicts the effect of this condition on the main turbine and
the reactor feedpumps steam inlet control valves?
At:! Main turbine trip
The feedpump HP control valve will open.
B. Main turbine trip
The feedpump LP control valve will open and the HP control valve will close.
C. Main turbine does NOT trip
The feedpump HP control valve remains open.
o. Main turbine does NOT trip
The feedpump LP control valve remains open.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because the HP control valve (from main steam) will open as low pressure
steam (from crossover piping) diminshes. Plausible if applicant is not sure of the
source and pressure of the normal steam supply for the feedpumps.
C. Incorrect because the turbine will trip on high moisture separator level (10 sec time
delay), at 2.5 inches below the MSR shell. Also incorrect because the HP control valve
was previously closed and now auto-opens. Plausible if applicant thinks that more than
one MSR high level is required to satisfy the turbine trip logic or is not sure of the
normal and alternate source of feedpump steam.
O. Incorrect because the turbine will trip on high moisture separator level (10 sec time
delay), at 2.5 inches below the MSR shell. Plausible if applicant thinks that more than
one MSR high level is required to satisfy the turbine trip logic or is not sure of the
normal and alternate source of feedpump steam.
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR AND
AUXILIARY SYSTEMS will have on following: (CFR: 41.7 145.4)
K3.05 Reactor feedwater pump: Plant-Specific
2.7 I 2.8
References
N21-CNDFW-LP-00201, Condensate & Feedwater lesson plan
N22-MSRFW-LP-01501, Moisture Separator Reheaters & Feedwater Heaters lesson plan
N30-MTA-LP-01701, Main Turbine Lesson plan
B21-SLLS-LP-01401, Main Steam & Low Low Set lesson plan
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
36
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
FEEDPUMP
HIGHER
~
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
37
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
24. 259001K3.08 00l/2/2/RCIC/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 is operating at 100%,power with all systems normally aligned. The RCIC Pump
Operability, 34SV-E51-002-2, is being performed. The operator placed the TEST'
switch to the START position to commence the RCIC surveillance test and now RCIC
is running with the flow controller in AUTOMATIC and its flowpath aligned to the CS*T.
While RCIC is running, both reactor feed pumps trip and RPV level drops to Level 2.
Assuming no operator actions, which ONE of the following predicts the plant response?
A. Both of the FW Line Flow indicators 2C32-R604A1B at pane12H11-P603 will be
indicating injection flow; however, the amounts will be different. RCIC and HPCI will
both be injecting.
B. The "A" FW Line Flow indicator 2C32-R604A at panel 2H11-P603 will be indicating
HPCI injection flow. RCIC does NOT inject.
C~ Both of the FW Line Flow indicators 2C32-R604A/B at panel 2H11-P603 will be
'indicating zero injection flow. RCIC and HPCI will both be injecting.
D. The "B" FW Line Flow indicator 2C32-R604B at panel 2H11-P603 will be indicating
HPCI injection flow. RCIC does NOT inject.
A. Incorrect because HPCI and RCIC both tap into FW lines DOWNSTREAM of flow
indictors. Plausible if applicant does not know the injection path.
B. Incorrect because HPCI discharges in downstream of. flow detector. Also incorrect
because RCIC will be automatically removed from test, allowing E51-F013 to open.
Plausible if applicant knows that HPCI injects into "A" FW line (only on U2) and thinks
that the E51-F013 test feature remains in effect.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because HPCI taps into FW line "A" on Unit 2 ("B" on Unit 1)
DOWNSTREAM of the flow detector. Also incorrect because RCIC will be
automatically removed from test, allowing E51-F013 to open. Plausible if applicant
thinks that the E51-F013 test feature remains in effect.
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the REACTOR FEEDWATER SYSTEM will have
on following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.4)
K3.08 RCIC
2.9 / 2.9
References
E51-RCIC-LP-03901, RCIC system lesson plan
N21-CNDFW-LP-00201, Cond & FW system lesson plan
34SV-E51-002-2, RCIC Pump Operability surveillance test
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
38
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:15 AM
39
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
25'. 259002K4.10 OOI/2/I/FWLC/BANK MOD/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
The Unit 2 Feedwater Level Control System is aligned as follows:
I-PU-~~~~~~TROLI-FWLv~~2~~:~TUR-FW-~L~J~~~~OC-
I
.
INST BUS 2A IINST BUS 2A
VITAL AC
VITAL AC
Given this switch alignment, which ONE of the following choices identifies the primary
input level signal and how reactor water level will be affected if the manual output lever
on the bottom of the Reactor Feedpump Turbine Master Controller (2C32-R600) is
held in the "0" (open) position?
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24: 15 AM
40
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
25. 259002K4.10 00l/2/1/FWLC/BANK MOD/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
A. C32-K648, median level signal processor.
Level will rise.
B~ Directly from the C32-N004B level transmitter signal.
Level will remain th~ same.
C. C32-K648, median level signal processor.
Level will remain the same.
D. Directly from the C32-N004B level transmitter signal.
Level will rise.
Note: All controllers in AUTO.
A. Incorrect because with the mode select switch in the MANUAL position, the system
uses the reactor water level select switch position (N004B). Also incorrect because the
RFPT controller is in AUTO and the lever will not work. Plausible if the applicant thinks
that the system is in manual based on the reactor water mode select switch position.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because with the mode select switch in the MANUAL position, the system
uses the reactor water level select switch position (N004B). Plausible if applicant does
not know the normal and alternate level signals.
D. Incorrect because the RFPT controller is in AUTO and the lever will not work.
Plausible if the applicant thinks that the system is in manual based on the reactor water
mode select switch position.
This was a KA change from:
K4. Knowledge of REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or interlocks
which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)
K4.02 Bypassing ofthe RWM: Plant-Specific
2.8 / 3.0
K4. Knowledge of REACTOR WATER LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM design feature(s) and/or interlocks
which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)
K4.10 Three element control (main steam flow, reactor feedwater flow & reactor water level provide input) 3.4/3.4
BECAUSE
The Rod Worth Minimizer at Hatch does not utilize feedwater level control steam flow/ feed flow as an indication of
reactor power (as some other boilers); instead, Hatch RWM uses APRM power. This KA substitution was randomly
selected.
References
LOR Exam Bank item #: LR~LP-75071/ LC-75051.002
C32-RWLC-LP-00202
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
41
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
1
Source:
BANK MOD
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
42
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
26. 259002K6.01 OOl/2/l/AIR/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with the following feedwater control alignment:
Reactor water level select switch: "B"
Reactor water mode select switch: AUTO
Feedwater control mode select switch: 3 element
FW level control turb 2C32-R600: AUTO
Given this alignment, which ONE of the following describes how a loss of instrument air
to the condensate and feedwater system will affect the reactor water level control
system? (assume that a reactor scram does not occur and is not required.)
At:' REACTOR LEVEL CONTROL VALVE LOCKED will alarm
FEEDWATER CONTROL SYSTEM TROUBLE will NOT alarm
B. FEEDWATER CONTROL SYSTEM TROUBLE will alarm
REACTOR LEVEL CONTROL VALVE LOCKED will NOT alarm
C. REACTOR LEVEL CO.NTROL VALVE LOCKED and FEEDWATER CONTROL
SYSTEM TROUBLE will BOTH alarm
D. REACTOR LEVEL CONTROL VALVE LOCKED will NOT alarm.
FEEDWATER CONTROL SYSTEM TROUBLE will NOT alarm.
Minimum flow protection for condensate and feedwater pumps will be lost.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because FW Ctl System alarm only comes in when a loss of power or
sensor failure occurs. Also incorrect because S/U level control valve alarm will come in
despite the fact that this valve is not being used. Plausible if applicant knows that S/U
level valve is not being used and thinks that the loss of air will affect the controller
outputs..
C. Incorrect because ONLY the S/U level locked alarm will be received. Plausible if
applicant thinks that the S/U level valve being locked will cause a problem in the
.feedwater control system.
D. Incorrect because the S/U level valve locked alarm will occur. Also incorrect
because all the min flow valves in the condensate and feedwater system will fail open.
Plausible if applicant knows that S/U level valve is not being used .a*nd that t~e FW ctl
system alarm occurs only on a loss of power or sensor failure.
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:15 AM
43
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
K6. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the REACTOR WATER
LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM: (CFR: 41.7 /45.7)
K6.01 Plant air systems
3.2 / 3.2
References
34AR-603-116-1/123-2, Reactor Level Control Valve Locked annunciator procedure
34AR-603-132-2, Feedwater Control System Trouble annunciator procedure
,Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
AIR
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
44
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
27. 261 OOOA1.05 002/2/1/SBGT/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-30 I/RO/BLC/RFA
A LOCA has occurred on Un,it 2. Based on hydrogen and oxygen concentrations, the
SRO has entered leg G-1 of the primary containment gas control flowchart.
The operators are venting the torus and purging the drywell with nitrogen in
accordance with 31 EO-EOP-1 04-2, Primary Containment Venting for Hydrogen and
Oxygen Control.
Which ONE of the folloVVing describes the SBGT lineup and also identifies when the
vent and purge operation is required to be secured?
A. SBGT is running with a suction ONLY from the torus.
Vent & purge is required to be stopped wh'en drywell and torus 02 levels are < 50/0
AND no H2 is detected anywhere in containment.
B. SBGT is running with a suction ONLY from the torus.
Vent & purge is required to be stopped ONLY when the pr9jected peak TEDE
reaches 1000 mR/hr.
C~ SBGT is running with a suction from either the refuel floor OR reactor building.
Vent & purge is required to be stopped when drywell and torus 02 levels are < 50/0
AND no H2 is detected anywhere in containment.
D. SBGT is running with a suction from either the refuel floor OR reactor building.
Vent & purge is required to be stopped ONLY when the projected peak TEDE
reaches 1000 mR/hr.
A. Incorrect because SBGT is aligned to either the refuel floor or reactor building.
Plausible if applicant does not understand the vent procedure.
B. Incorrect because SBGT is aligned to either the refuel floor or reactor building.
Also incorrect because the 1000 mr/hr TEDE value only applies to leg G-2. Plausible if
applicant does not know the vent procedure flow path. Also plausible since 0.57 mR/hr
TEDE is ONE of the overrides at E2 in the G-1 leg.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because the 1000 mr/hr TEDE value only applies to leg G-2. Plausible
since projected peak TEDE is ONE of the overrides at E2 in the G-1 leg at which
venting and purging is required to be secured.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
45
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
At. Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the STANDBY GAS
TREATMENT SYSTEM controls including: (CFR: 41.5 /45.5)
Al.05 Primary containment oxygen level: Mark-I&II
2.7* /2.9*
References
31EO-EOP-I04-2, Primary Containment Venting For Hydrogen & Oxygen Control
34S0-T46-001-2, Standby Gas Treatment System operating procedure
EOP-I04-20315, EOP 104: PRIMARY CONTAINMENT VENTING FOR HYDROGEN CONTROL
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
46
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
28. 262001A2.03 00l/2/1/AC-DC/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Both units were operating at 100% power with all systems normally aligned when a
tornado damages the switchyard and ALL offsite power is lost to both units.
Which ONE of the following describes how the AC electrical distribution will be affected
and identifies an appropriate procedure(s) to implement in conjunction with the EOPs?
A':! Busses 2E and 2G will be energized
Bus 2F will be DE-ENERGIZED
Enter 34AB-R22-002-1 /2, Loss of 4160V Emergency Bus on both units
B. Busses 1E and 1G will be energized
Bus 1F will be DE-ENERGIZED
Enter 34AB-R22-002-1, Loss of 4160V Emergency Bus only on Unit 1
C. Busses 2E, 2F, and 2G will all be energized
Enter 34AB-R22-004-1/2, Loss of 4160V Bus A, B, C, or D on both units
D. Busses 1E, 1F, and 1G will all be energized
Enter 34AB-R22-004-2, Loss of 4160V Bus A, B, C, or D on Unit 2 only
The swing diesel is normally aligned to Unit 1.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because 1F will be energized from the swing diesel. Plausible if applicant
does not know that the swing diesel is normally aligned to unit 1.
C. Incorrect because 2F will be dead. Plausible if applicant does not know that the
swing diesel is normally aligned to unit 1.
D. Incorrect because this is nota station blackout even though all plant BOP busses
are dead. Plausible if applicant thinks that a total loss of all offsite power (both units) is
the same as a station blackout.
A2. Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the A.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION; and (b)
based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those
abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 /45.6)
A2.03 Loss of off-site power
3.9 / 4.3*
References
Plant electrical distribution diagram
34SV-R43-002-2, Diesel Generator 1B MontWy Test
R43-EDG-LP-02801, Emergency Diesel Generators lesson plan
Tier:
2
Group:
Keyword:
AC-DC
Source:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:15 AM
1
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
47
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
29. 262002K3.15 001/2/1/DEHC/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 is operating at 1000/0 power when a loss of Vital AC R25-S063 occurs. Which
ONE of the following describes how this power loss affects the main turbine?
A'! The turbine will NOT trip. All the human machine interface (HMI) screens in the
control room will lose power.
B. The turbine WILL trip because two EHC processors in the packaged electrical &
electronic control compartment (PEECC) and two pressure transmitters will lose
power.
C. The turbine WILL trip because the power to the turbine trip relays will be lost.
D. The turbine will NOT trip. The main turbine thrust bearing wear detector and
vibration detection will be lost.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because the alternate power is still available (R25-S024). Plausible since
the loss of two processors and two transmitters will result in a turbine trip.
C. Incorrect because the turbine trip relays are 125VDC powered to trip. Plausible if
applicant thinks these relays are normally energized AC.
D. Incorrect because this turbine instrumentation is 125VDC. Plausible if applicant
thinks that this turbine supervisory instrumentation is powered from vital AC.
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the UNINTERRUPTABLE POWER SUPPLY
(A.C.lD.C.) will have on following: (CFR: 41.7 /45.4)
K3.15 Main turbine operation: Plant-Specific
2.6/2.7
References
LR-LP-75227-00, UNIT 1 2006 PLANT MODIFICATIONS
34AB-R25-001-2, LOSS OF VITAL AC BUS
N30-MTA-LP-01701, Main Turbine lesson plan
Tier:
2
Keyword:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Test:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
48
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
30. 263000G2.l.29 00l/2/l/DC LINEUP/NEWIFUND/HT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
While performing a system operating procedure (SOP) electrical lineup, the operator
reaches the following component on the electrical lineup checklist and identifies that
breaker # 6 is already in the "ON" position:
1R25-S002 125V DC Cabinet 1B 130TET11
CHECKEDI VERIFIED
BRKR6
Channel B RHR Relay Logic (E11 System)
CLOSED
I
Which ONE of the following describes how th'e required verification activities, if any, are
required to be completed in accordance with 34GO-OPS-003-2, Startup System Status
Checklist?
A. Verification requires two people; the performer c;lnd the independent*verifier are
required to be separated by both time AND distance.
B~ This breaker does NOT require independent or concurrent verification at this time.
C. Verification requires two people; two individuals are required be present, directly
observing the breaker.
D. The RHR RELAY LOGIC B POWER FAILURE (601-205) control room annunciator
is required to be verified extinguished but can be the same person or a different
individual.
A. Incorrect because no component manipulation is involved iaw 34GO-OPS-003-2.
Plausible if applicant does not know admin requirements.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because no component manipulation is involved iaw 34GO-OPS-003~2.
Plausible if applicant does not know admin requirements.
D. Incorrect because indirect observation is not required since no component
manipulation is involved iaw 34GO-OPS-003-2. Plausible since thi~ breaker does
cause the alarm if turned OFF and applicant thinks that indirect observation is allowed
a~d required.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
49
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
SYSTEM: 263000 D.C. Electrical Distribution
2.1.29 Knowledge of how to conduct and verify valve lineups. (CFR: 41.10/45.1 /45.12)
References
34GO-OPS-003-2, Startup System Status Checklist
34S0-E11-010-1, Attachment 2, RHR System Electrical Lineup checksheet
34S0-R42-001-1, 125VDC and 125/250VDC System operating procedure
10AC-MGR-019-0, Procedure Use and Adherence administrative procedure
34-AR-601-205-1, RHR Relay Logic B Power Failure annunciator procedure
Tier:
2
Group:
Keyword:
DC LINEUP
Source:
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:,
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
1
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
50
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
31 . 264000A4.05 001/2/1/DIESEL/NEW/FUND/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
A loss of offsite power occurred on Unit 2 and now offsite power has been
re-established via SAT 2C. The following conditions currently exist:
Diesel generator is carrying 4160V bus 2E with - 1800 kw load
The control room operator is in the process of transferring power from the diesel to the
normal power supply.
Which ONE of the following identifies the syncroscope direction and test switch
position required to parallel and realign bus 2E to its normal supply?
A!' Clockwise
Diesel generator test switch is required to be placed in the TEST position.
B. C'lockwise
Diesel generator 2A test SAT 2C out of service interlock switch is required to be '
placed in the TEST position.
C. Counter-clockwise
Diesel generator test switch is required to be placed in the TEST .position.
D. Counter-clockwise
Diesel generator 2A test SAT 2C out of service interlock switch is required to be
placed in the TEST position.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because the load is > 500 kw; therefore, the syncscope must be rotating in
the clockwise direction to prevent the diesel from picking up additional load which may
overload the diesel. Also incorrect because the SAT 2C out of service (oos) test switch
is only used when only SAT 20 is available; Le., SAT 2C is de-energized. Plausible if
applicant knows that clockwise is correct direction and does not know the purpose of
the 2C oos test switch: to allow paralleling when SAT 2C is dead.
C. Incorrect because syncsope should be rotat,ing in the counter-clockwise direction
when load is > 500 kw. Plausible if applicant knows that the counterclockwise direction
is required when <500 kw.
D. Incorrect because syncsope should be rotating in the counter-clockwise direction
when load is > 500 kw. Also incorrect because the SAT 2C out of service (oos) test
switch is only used when only SAT 20 is available; Le., SAT 2C is de-energized.
Plausible if applicant does not know the purpose of the 2C oos test switch: to allow
paralleling when SAT 2C is dead.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
51
1
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
A4. Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:. (CFR: 41.7 /45.5 to 45.8)
A4.05 Transfer of emergency generator (with load) to grid
"
3.6 / 3.7
References
34S0-R43-001-2, Diesel Generator Standby AC System operating procedure (Section 7.3.1)
R43-EDG-LP-02801, Emergency Diesel Generators lesson plan
Tier:
2
Group:
Keyword:
DIESEL
Source:
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
52
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
32. 264000K3.01 OOl/2/l/DIESEL/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
A leak in the drywell has occurred on Unit 2 and the following conditions currently exist:
Reactor pressure 650 psig and slowly lowering
Reactor level -45" and rising
Drywell pressure is 1.9 psig and steady
Diesel 1B is unavailable
Which ONE of the following is the current status of the 2C RHR Pump and also
predicts how this pump will be affected if a loss of offsite power subsequently occurs
on Unit 2?
RHR Pump 2C is ...
A. 'running and will trip and re-start 22 seconds after the loss of offsite power.
B. NOT running and will NOT be running after the loss of offsite power.
C. NOT running but will auto-start 12 seconds after the loss of offsite power.
D~ running but will NOT be running after the loss of offsite power.
Swing diesel 1B is unavailable; therefore Emergency Bus 2F will not have power
following the loss of offsite power. Normal starting time for diesel is 12 seconds.
A. Incorrect because the 2F Emergency bus will be dead since the swing diesel is
unavailable. Plausible if the applicant does not know the power supply to the 2C RHR.
Also plausible because RHR pumps 2A, 2B, and 20 all start at 22 seconds after the
B. Incorrect because the 2C RHR pump is initially running due to the OW pressure
being greater than 1.85 psig. Plausible if applicant does not know the LOCA signal
includes level OR drywell pressure, or does not know the setpoint.
C. Incorrect because the RHR pumps are running due to a LOCA signal. Also
incorrect because the RHR pump will not have power following the loss of offsite power
because the swing diesel is unavailable. Plausible if applicant does not know the
LOCA signal includes level OR drywell pressure, or does not know the setpoint. Also
plausible because the normal diesel starting time is 12 seconds and RHR 2C starting
occurs immediately after 12 seconds during normal loss of offsite power sequencing.
D. Correct.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
53
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the EMERGENCY GENERATORS (DIESEL/JET)
will have on following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.4)
K3.01 Emergency core cooling systems 4.2* / 4.4*
References
EII-RHR-LP-00701, RHR lesson plan
R43-EDG-LP-02801, Emergency Diesel Generator lesson plan
Tier:
2
Group:
Keyword:
DIESEL
Source:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:16 AM
1
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
54
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
33. 271000K5.06 00l/2/2/0FFGAS/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following identifies the normal temperature of the in-service offgas
catalytic recombiner, including the operational implication of catalytic recombination in
the offgas system?'
A. Normally - 800 degrees; recombiner temperature is NOT dependent on the reactor
power level.
B~ Normally - 800 degrees; recombiner temperature is dependent on the reactor
power level.
C. Normally - 300 degrees; recombiner temperature is dependent on the reactor
power level.
D. Normally - 300 degrees; recombiner temperature is NOT dependent on the reactor
power level.
A. Incorrect because bed temperature is' directly proportional to the power level.
Plausible if applicant knows normal temperature but does not understand the basis for
catalyst bed temperature trend during startups/shutdowns.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because this is the preheater outlet (i.e., recombiner inlet) normal
temperature (vs the recombiner bed temperature). Plausible if applicant knows
preheater temperature or the standby bed temperature.
D. Incorrect because this is thepreheater outlet (i.e., recombiner inl.et) normal
temperature (vs the recombiner bed temperature). Also incorrect because bed
temperature is directly proportional to the power level. Plausible if applicant knows
preheater temperature or the standby bed temperature....but does not understand the
basis for catalyst bed temperature trend during startups/shutdowns.
K5. Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to OFFGAS SYSTEM:
(CFR: 41.7 /45.4) K5.06 Catalytic recombination
2.7 /2.7
References
34AR-N62-001-1, Recombiner AlB Temp High/Low annunciator procedure
. 34AR-N62-019-1, Recombiner B Inlet Temp Low annunciator procedure
34AR-N62-001-2S, Failure ofRecombiner & Cd of Sustained Combustion in the OG system AOP
N62-0G-LP-03101, Offgas system lesson plan
OPL171.030, Offgas lesson plan (Browns Ferry)
SD-30, Offgas system description (Brunswick)
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
OFFGAS
FUND
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:16 AM
55
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
34. 272000G2.2.30 001/2/2/RAD MONINEW/HIGHER/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
Core alterations are in progress on Unit 2 and a fuel bundle is being moved from the
spent fuel pool to the vessel core through the transfer canal. The following control
room annunciator is received:
REFUELING FLOOR AREA RADIATION HIGH (601-312-2)
The operator subsequently observes the following at the panel 2D21-P600:
Reactor head laydown area (2D21-K601A)
Dryer separator pool (2D21-K601 E)
Spent fuel pool & new storage (2D21-K601 M)
Reactor vessel refueling floor (2D21-K611 K)
Reactor vessel refueling floor (2D21-K611 L)
RED LIGHT
ON
OFF
OFF
OFF
OFF
READING
25mR/hr
40 mR/hr
10 mR/hr
10mR/hr
10mR/hr
Given these conditions, which ONE of the following describes the Main Control Room
Environmental Control (MCREC) System response and required actions in accordance
with 34FH-OPS-001-0, Fuel Movement Operation?
.
A.
MCREC remains OFF
The bundle is required to be lowered into either the core OR the fuel pool until an
investigation is completed.
B~ MCREC auto-starts
The bundle is required to be lowered into the core OR the fuel pool until an
investigation is completed.
C. MCREC remains OFF
The bundle is required to be lowered back into the fuel pool only, until an
investigation is completed. The bundle is not allowed to be lowered into the core.
. D. MCREe auto-starts
The bundle is required to be lowered back into the fuel pool only, until an
investigation is completed. The bundle is not allowed to be lowered into the core.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
56
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
A. Incorrect because the MCREC will auto-start on either K601A OR K601 M upscale.
Plausible if applicant thinks this rad alarm is associated with the ventilation system rad
monitors or does not know the auto-start setpoint.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because the MCREC will 'auto-start on either K601A OR K601 M upscale.
Also incorrect because the fuel handling procedure precautions/limitations require the
load to be lowered in either the pool 'or the core to provide additional shielding until an
investigation is completed. Plausible if applicant does not know the auto-start signals
for MCREC and/or does not know the fuel handling procedure precaution/limitatio#n.
D. Incorrect because the fuel handling, procedure precautions/limitations require the
load to be lowered in either the pool or the core to provide additional shielding until an
investigation is completed. Plausible if the applicant does not know the fuel handling
procedure precautions/limitations.
SYSTEM: 272000 Radiation Monitoring System
2.2.30 Knowledge ofRO duties in the control room during fuel handling such as alarms from fuel handling
area / communication with fuel storage facility / systems operated from the control room in support of fueling
operations / and supporting instrumentation. (CFR: 45.12) IMPORTANCE RO 3.5 / SRO 3.3
References
.
34FH-OPS-001-0, Fuel Movement Operation, Precaution/Limitation 5.1.3
34AR-601-312-2, Refueling Floor Area Radiation High annunciator procedure
Z41-MCRECS-LP-03701, Main Control Room Environmental Control System lesson plan
D11-PRM-LP-10007, Process Radiation Monitors lesson plan
34SV-SUV-019-2, Surveillance Checks (page 23 of63)
34AB-T22-003~2,Secondary Containment Control AOP
Tier:
2
Keyword:
RAD MON
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Test:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
57
Group:
2
Source:
BANK-MODIFIED
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
35. 288000Kl.03 001/2/2/SBGT/BANK-MODIFIED/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
While transferring RWCU spent resin, the Unit 2 reactor puilding ventilation activity
level rises such that the 2D11-K609 A thru 0 (Reactor Bldg Potential Contaminated
Area Ventilation Exhaust Rad Monitor) read 25-30 mR/hr.
.
Which ONE of the following identifies the current status of Unit 1 and 2 Standby Gas
Treatment Fans?
UNIT ONE
UNIT TWO
Suction
Suction
Fans
Aligned to
Fans
Aligned to
A.
Both OFF
isolated
Both ON
Refuel & Rx Bldg
B. Both ON
Rx Bldg only
Both ON
Rx Bldg only
C. 10N
Rx Bldg only
10N
Rx Bldg only
10FF
1 OFF
D~ Both ON
Refuel & Rx Bldg
Both ON
Refuel & Rx Bldg
A. Incorrect because unit 1's fans auto-start too (total of 4 fans running). Also incorrect
because unit 1's suction point is refu.el & reactor building. Plausible if applicant knows
the normal standby alignment is suction source isolated but doesn't know that both
units are affected even though the signal originates only from unit 2.
B. Incorrect because both unit's will draw on the refuel floor also. Plausible if applicant
knows that both units are affected, but does not know the suction point.
C. Incorrect because both fans normally aligned for auto-start. Also incorrect because
fans suction will be aligned to both refuel and reactor building. Plausible if applicant
thinks one fan is normally in standby and if applicant does not know the suction point.
D. Correct.
Kl. Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between PLANT
VENTILATION SYSTEMS and the following: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)-
Kl.03 Standby gas treatment
3.7 / 3.7
References
T46-SBGT-LP-03001, Standby Gas Treatement lesson plan
34S0-T46-001-1/2, SBGT system operating procedure
Tier:
2
Keyword:
Cog Level:
FUND
Test:
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:16 AM
58
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
36. 290001K1.07 00l/2/2/HVAC/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
An fuel failure event has occurred on Unit 1. The group 1 isolation logic received an
auto-closure signal on low water level; however, F022A and F028A ("A" inboard &
outboard) MSIVs failed to close automatically and cannot be manually closed.
Additionally, a break exists on "A" main steam line (downstream of the MSIVs) and
radioactive steam is leaking into the turbine building.
Assuming that the HVAC systems responded as expected, which ONE of the following
describes the offsite release that is occurring due to this steam leak into the turbine
building?
A':' Ground level release and is NOT being filtered by the Standby Gas Treatment
System
B. Elevated release and is NOT being filtered by the Standby Gas Treatment System
C. Ground level release and is being filtered by the Standby Gas Treatement System
D. Elevated release and is being filtered by the Standby Gas Treatment System
A..Correct.
B. Incorrect because the only release point classified as "elevated" is the main stack.
Plausible if applicant knows that the turbine building HVAC is directed to the Rx Bldg
Vent Stack Plenum and the applicant thinks that the Rx Bldg stack plenum is
considered "elevated."
c. Incorrect because the turbine building HVAC exhaust is not filtered prior to being
directed to the reactor building stack plenum. Plausible if the applicant knows the
turbine building exhaust is directed to the reactor building stack plenum and assumes
that standby gas treatment i$ running.
D. Incorrect because the only release point considered "elevated" is the main stack.
Also incorrect because the turbine building HVAC exhaust is not filtered prior to being
directed to the reactor building stack plenum.
Plausible if applicant knows that the
turbine building HVAC is directed to the Rx Bldg Vent Stack Plenum and the applicant
thinks that the Rx Bldg stack plenum is considered "elevated."
Kl. Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between SECONDARY
CONTAINMENT and the following: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 /45.7 to 45.8)
K1.07 Turbine building ventilation (stearn tunnel): Plant- Specific
3.0 / 3.1
References
D11-PRM-LP-10007, Process Radiation Monitors
73EP-EIP-018-0, Prompt Offsite Dose Assessment
T41-SC HVAC-LP-01303 Sec Cont Ventilation
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
59
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
2
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
60
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
37. 295001AKJ.01 001/1/1/NATURAL CIRC/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
During a Unit 2 startup, both Recirc Pump speeds were raised from minimum speed to
300/0 in accordance with 34GO-OPS-001-2, Plant Startup. After the recirc pump
speeds were raised, the 2A Recirc MG set tripped.
Five minutes after the MG set trip, the following control panel indications exist:
Annunciator "RECIRC LOOP A OUT OF SERVICE" (602-127) in alarm
Core Flow Recorder 2B21-R613 "
13.3 Mlb/hr
Loop A Jet Pump Flow 2B21-R611A
5.6 Mlb/hr
Loop"B Jet Pump Flow 2B21-R611 B
12.8 Mlb/hr
Given these current conditions, which ONE of the following is correct?
A. The recorder indication is misleading. The "A" jet pump loop flow is reverse flow
and must be subtracted from the recorder flow to obtain the actual core flow rate.
B. The "A" jet pump loop flow should be subtracted from the "B" jet pump loop flow to
obtain the actual core flow rate.
'
C~ The A and B jet pump flows should be summed to obtain an accurate core flow
value.
D. The recorder core flow indication is correct since the circuitry is automatically
subtracting the idle 2A jet pump loop reverse flow.
A. Incorrect. Below 350/0 pump speed, this flow is positive due to natural circulation.
Plausible if applicant is unaware that the MG set field breaker trip causes the
subtraction to occur automatically.
B. Incorrect. The flow is forward (not reverse) flow due to natural circulation
overcoming the head of the running loop. Plausible because normally at higher pump
speeds the reverse flow occurs.
C. Correct. Actual core flow is - 18 Mlb/hr.
D. Incorrect. The flow recorder value is providing a misleading LOW core flow
indication because the 2A jet pump loop flow is postive (i.e., not reverse)
AK1 Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to PARTIAL OR
COMPLETE LOSS OF FORCED CORE FLOW CIRCULATION: (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) AK1.01 Natural
circulation (3.5/3.6)
References:
34S0-B31-001-2, Reactor Recirc System, P&L 5.1.5
Annunciator Response 34AR-602-127-2
Study Manual chapter 3, Page 3.17
34SV-SUV-023-2, Jet Pump & Recirc Flow Mismatch Operability
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:16 AM
61
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
NATURAL CIRC
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
62
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
38. 295003AAl.04 002/1/1/AC-DC/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with all systems in their normal alignment. While the
operator was swapping RBCCW pumps, the following alarms were received:
600V BUS 1D BREAKER TRIPPED, 652-318
600V BUS 1D UNDERVOLTAGE, 652-323
The breaker for the faulted pump motor has been disconnected and the 600V bus has
just been re-energiz~d from its normal supply. (no other actions have been taken)
Given these plant conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the current status of
the 240V DC Vital AC Battery System and the appropriate operator recovery actions?
A. The battery is supplying the vital AC loads.
The battery charger supply breaker can be immediately re-closed.
B~ The battery is supplying the vital AC loads.
The non-essential load lockout reset pushbutton must be depressed before
re-closing the battery charger supply breaker.
C. The battery is NOT supplying the vital AC loads.
The battery charger supply breaker is tripped and can be immediately re-closed.
D. The battery is NOT supplying the vital AC loads.
The battery charger supply breaker is closed.
The inverter should be transferred back to its normal supply.
A. Incorrect. The non-essential load lockout reset pushbutton must be depressed,
each time a load breaker is re-closed on the restored 600V AC bus. Plausible if
applicant does not know about non-essential load lockout feature.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. The battery is supplying the vital AC loads until -. 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />s*when its
voltage decays to -. 208 *volts, then the static switch will transfer to the alternate (Bus
1C) source. Plausible if the applicant thinks the inverter transferred to Bus 1C
transformer.
D. Incorrect. same as C, plus the charger supply breaker is indeed tripped. Plausible
if applicant thinks the inverter transferred to Bus 1C transformer and does not know
abou the non-essential load lockout.
Friday, September 28,'2007 9:24:16 AM
63
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AA1 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF A.C.
POWER: (CFR: 41.7 145.6) AA1.04 D.C. electrical distribution system
3.6/3.7
References:
R25-ELECT-LP-02705, Vital AC Electrical System Lesson Plan
34AB-R23-001-1, Loss of600 Volt Emergency Bus
34S0-R23-001-1, Section 7.1.3, Energizing 600V AC Bus 1D from the Normal Supply
R23-ELECT-LP-02703, 600/480/208 VAC Electrical Lesson Plan
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
AC-DC
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
64
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
39. 295004AA2.04 003/1/1/DC LINEUP/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 is operating at 100% power and the following alarm is received:
The operator determines that ONE of the power available lights on the TOP rO'wat
Panel H11-P651 is EXTINGUISHED. (the other lights are illuminated)
Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following is correct?
At:' NONE of the 4KV circuit breakers will work on ONE bus.
B. One 4KV bus is de-energized.
C. NONE of the 600 KV circuit breakers will work on ONE bus.
D. One 600 KV bus is de-energized.
A. Correct. See Lesson Plan R42-ELECT-LP-02704 page 32 of 95
B. Incorrect because the 4KV bus will remain energized. Only the control power to the
4KV bus is lost. Plausible if applicant thinks that panel H11-P651 status lights reflect
bus energized/de-energized status (versus control power available/unavailable).
C. Incorrect because the top row of lights pertains ONLY to 4KV station service buses.
Plausible if the applicant does not know that the 600 KV status lights are on the second
row at panel H11-P651 .
D. Incorrect because the top row at panel H11-P651 pertains to 4KV buses. Plausible
if applicant thinks that panel H11-P651 status lights reflect bus energized/de-energized
status (versus control power available/unavailable).
AA2 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF
D.C. POWER: (CFR: 41.10/43.5/45.13) AA2.04 System lineups
3.2/3.3
References:
R42-ELECT-LP-02704, page 32 of95, DC Electrical Distribution lesson plan
Annunciator procedure for STA SVC SWGR DC OFF, Alarm PaneI2H11-P651-1, 143-2
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
DC LINEUP
FUND
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
65
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
40. 295005AK3.03 004/1/1/LOW FW TEMP/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 is operating at 190/0 power and the turbine generator was tied to the grid. The
following parameters were noted during the performance of the Core Parameter
Surveillance, 34SV-SUV-020-0:
APRM Power: 20-210/0
Feedwater Temperature: 240 of
Turbine 1st stage pressure: < 25%
power pressure equivalent
Generator Load: 85 MW(e)
Because of emergent problems with the generator voltage regulator system,. the
operator just manually tripped the turbine.
Which ONE of the following predicts how the feedwater temperature will change once
the turbine is tripped, including the reason for the change?
Feedwater temperature will....
A~ lower because the control valves closed.
B.
lower because the reactor scrammed.
C. rise because of more heat load on the condenser.
D. rise because the ultra-sonic temperature transducers see laminar flow.
A. Correct. The turbine trip energizes the EHC fast acting solenoids which cause the
turbine stop, control, and extraction non-return check valves to close. This eliminates
the MSR drain
l contribution to the 7th stage FW Htr and the 1st stage reheater drain
contribution to the 4th stage FW Htr.
B. Incorrect because the turbine trip scram is bypassed < 26.70/0 1st stage pressure.
Also, the bypass valve capacity (although limited) should be sufficient to accomodate
this power. Plausible if applicant doesn't understand the turbine trip scram bypass logic
or doesn't know bypass valve capacity.
C. Incorrect because the bypass valves are full open and more heat load is being put
into the condenser. Plausible if the applicant thinks that the enthalpy input to the
condenser changed when the turbine was tripped.
D. Incorrect because crossflow ultrasonic temperature measurement will still reflect the
actual value of feedwater temperature. Plausible if the applicant thinks that the
ultra-sonic flow measurement requirements also apply to temperature measurement.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
66
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AK3 Knowledge ofthe reasons for the following responses as they apply to MAIN TURBINE GENERATOR
TRIP: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6) AK3.03 Feedwater temperature decrease
2.8/3.0
References:
Main Turbine Lesson Plan N30-MTA-LP-01701, page 46 of 109
Plant Startup Procedure 34GO-OPS-001-1
MSR, Extraction Steam, & Heater Shell Drain System (34GO-OPS-042-1)
Feedwater Temperature vs Core' Power Map (34GO-OPS-005-1)
WHEN the main turbine is reset, the extraction steam check valves AND 10th & 12th stage extraction isolation
valves to the feedwater heaters will OPEN AND extraction steam flow will be established WHEN steam is admitted
to the main turbine (34GO-OPS-042-1)
Unit 1.: 21.2% bypass valve capacity (EPU == 21.2%)
lJnit 2: 20.2% bypass valve capacity (EPU == 20.6%)
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
UFM relies on turbulent FW flow for its calculations to be accurate.
too laminar for UFM to be accurate.
Tier:
1
Keyword:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Test:
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24: 16 AM
With reactor power < 80%, feedwater flow is
67
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
41 . 295006AKl.01 005/1/1/DECAY HEAT/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 was operating at 100% for one year when a spurious scram occurred due
surveillance testing. The following conditions exist immediately after the scram
occurred:
All rods fully inserted
MSIVs open
Auxiliary steam loads still in service
Which ONE of the following is the expected bypass valve position and the
corresponding inventory makeup that is required to maintain level constant within the
first 5 minutes of the *scram?
A.
1 bypass valve will be fully open
The required makeup exceeds the capacity of one CRD pump
B. 1 bypass valve will be cycling between 0 - 500/0 open
The required makeup is within the capacity of one CRD pump
C~ 1 bypass valve will be cycling between 0 - 500/0 open
The required makeup exceeds the capacity of one CRD pump
D. 1 bypass valve will be fully open
The required makeup is within the capacity of one CRD pump
A. Incorrect because simulator results are 0 - 50%
bypass valve cycling. Plausible if
applicant does not understand that stem states the auxiliary steam loads are still in
service.
B. Incorrect because CRD pump capacity is - 120 gpm whereas actual demand is -
0.8 Mlbm/hr. Plausible if applicant does not know the post-scram steaming rate.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because simulator results are 0 - 500/0 bypass valve cycling. Also incorrect
because CRD pump capacity is - 120 gpm whereas actual demand is - 0.8 Mlbm/hr.
Plausible if applicant thinks that auxiliary steam loads are sufficient to keep the bypass
valves closed and does not know the post-scram steaming rate.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
68
1
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AK1 Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to SCRAM: (CPR: 41.8 to
41.10) AK1.01 Decay heat generation and removal.
3.7 / 3.9
SULCV capacity is 1.5 Mlbm/hr (EOP-SCRAM-LP-20301)
References
Plant specific stand-alone simulator: Mode switch to shutdown scram from 100% power resulted in the following:
1.5 minutes after scram
main turbine trips
1.75 minutes after scram
2% - 50% one bypass valve cycling
3 minutes after scram
9% - 50% one bypass valve cycling
5 minutes after scram
23 - 34% one bypass valve cycling
Tier:
1
"Group:
Keyword:
DECAY HEAT
Source:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
69
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
42. 295007AA2.01*021/1/2/DEHC/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 is ascending to rated power following a plant startup when the following alarm is
received:
REACTOR VESSEL PRESSURE HIGH (603-114)
Which ONE of the following identifies the alarm setpoint and the required actions?
A~ 1055 psig
SELECT Control --> psi- load screen and ensure reactor pressure is at 1045 psig.
B. 1055 psig
SELECT Control --> pressure transmitter screen and ensure reactor pressure is at 1045
psig.
C. 1065 psig
SELECT Control -->
psi- load screen and ensure reactor pressure is at 1055 psig.
D. 1065 psig
SELECT Control --> pressure transmitter screen and ensure reactor pressure is at 1055
psig.
The Hatch digital EHC system has several different computer screen displays for the
operator to adjust parameters. The correct display to remedy this high pressure
condition is the ps*i-Ioad display (vs the pressure transmitter display)
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because this is the wrong HMI screen to adjust reactor pressure setpoint.
Plausible because the title of the screen is associated with reactor pressure control
inputs.
C. Incorrect because this is well above the alarm setpoint. Plausible if applicant knows
the reactor scram is 1074 psig.
D. Incorrect because this is well above the alarm setpoint. Also incorrect because this
is the wrong HMI screen to adjust reactor pressure setpoint. Plausible if applicant
knows the reactor scram is 1074 psig. Plausible because the title of the screen is
associated with reactor pressure control inputs.
HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE
AA2. Ability to detennine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH REACTOR PRESSURE :
(CPR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13) AA2.01 Reactor pressure
4.1* 4.1*
References
34AR-603-114-2, Reactor Vessel Pressure High annunciator procedure
34GO-OPS-OOl-2, PLANT STARTUP
C71-RPS-LP-01001, REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
70
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
71
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
43. 295012AK3.01 001/1/21DW COOLING/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 was initially operating with drywell temperature steady at 135°F with six drywell
cooler fans running and six fans in AUTO not running. Subsequently, a complete loss
of offsite power occurred and the lowest RPV level reached daring the transient was
Level 2.
The following plant conditions currently exist:
CRD and RCIC are controlling level at 33"
RPV pressure at 850 psig, being controlled by HPCI & SRVs
Drywell pressure at 1.2 psig
Drywell temperature at 140 of
Suppression pool temperature at 105 of; torus cooling not in service
Diesels are tied to their 4160 V busses
Which ONE of the following is the current status of the drywell cooling unit fans?
At:I More drywell cooling fans are running than before the loss of offsite power.
B. The same number of drywell cooling fans are currently running now as compared to
before the loss of offsite power.
C. Some of the drywell cooling fans are currently running; however, the number of
drywell cooling fans running is less than before the loss of offsite power.
D. None of the drywell cooling fans are currently running.
A. Correct. On a UNIT 1 LOSP, all cooling unit fans will trip. When power is restored
to the respective 600 VAC buses, the fans which are in RUN will automatically restart.
The fans which are in AUTO (standby) will also start due to the low flow condition.
B~ Incorrect because the fans that were previously in AUTO will auto-start due to the
low flow condition. Plausible'if applicant thinks that that only the fans in AUTO will be
running.
C. Incorrect because of reason listed in A. Plausible if applicant thinks that the CRD
cavity high temperature setpoint was reached and only four fans auto started.
D. Incorrect because of the reason listed in A. Plausible if the applicant thinks that the
drywell coolers tripped and locked out following the loss of offsite power or if the
applicant thinks that a LOCA lockout has occurred.
AK3. Knowledge ofthe reasons for the following responses as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE :
(CFR: 41.5 145.6) AK3.01 Increased drywell cooling
3.5/3.6
References
P64-PCCCW-LP-01304, Primary Containment Cooling & Chilled Water lesson plan
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
72
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
DWCOOLING
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
73
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
44., 2950I3AKI.03 00I/I/2/TORUS TEMP/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-30 I/RO/BLC/RFA
The HPCI Pump Operability surveillance test (34SV-E41-002-1) is in progress. The
status of the torus temperature monitoring and cooling systems is:
0perable
Unavailable
"A" Loop RHR in torus cooling
Initial temperature just before the test was 80 of
Given this instrumentation status, which ONE of the following is the correct criteria to
determine when HPCI must FIRST be stopped to minimize heating of the suppression
pool water?
A.
HPCI must be stopped at the time when the foUowing value reaches 95 of:
(Avg of upper region sensors) + (Avg of lower region sensors)
2
B.
HPCI must be stopped at the time when the following value reaches 105 of:
(Avg of upper region sensors) + (Avg of lower region sensors)
2
C~ HPCI must be stopped when the run time reaches 30 minutes.
D. HPCI must be stopped when the' run time reaches 20 minutes.
A. Incorrect because the upper temperature average is not available from either the
T48-R647 OR the SPDS. Also incorrect because torus avg temperature is allowed to
go higher than 95°F during HPCI testing. Plausible since this is the normal formula
used to obtain the avg torus temperature when SPDS or T48-R647 is available.
B. Incorrect because this formula cannot be used since the upper region sensor
average is unavailable, i.e., T48-R647 recorder is inoperable. Plausible since the HPCI
must be secured at 105°F.
C. Correct. Max run time in minutes = [105 - Tinitial] * 2
This is based on surveillance procedures 34SV-E41-002-1 and 34SV-SUV-019-1
D. Incorrect because the maximum HPCI run time is 30 minutes. Plausible if applicant
knows that the HPCI pump is recommended to be run for at least 20 minutes lAW the
HPCI surveillance procedure special requirements 4.3.9.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
74
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AK1. Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to HIGH SUPPRESSION
POOL TEMPERATURE: (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) AKl.03 Localized heating
3.0/3.3
References:
34SV-E41-002-1, HPCI Pump Operability
34SV-SUV-019-1, Torus Temperature Monitoring
34AB-T23-003-1S, Abnormal Operating Procedure Torus Temperature Above 95 of
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword:
TORUS TEMP
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
75
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
45. 29501402.1.30 001/1/2/REACTIVITY/NEWIHIOHERlHT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
A heatup and pressurization is in progress on Unit 1 with reactor pressure at 75 psig.
Reactor level is being maintained with RWCU &CRD. IRMs are on range 7 and 8.
The following lineup currently exists:
The condensate and feedwater system is in LONG CYCLE cleanup
SULCV F212 is CLOSED, i.e., C32-R619 controller in MANUAL with output at 0"
SULCV upstream isolation valve (F036) is OPEN
SULCV bypass valve (F406) is OPEN
As the operator opens the FW to Rx Isolation Valves (1 N21-F006A & B) in preparation
for low pressure feedwater injection, the "c" IRM high high setpoint is reached and the
following alarms are received:
REACTOR NEUTRON MONITORING SYS TRIP (603-109)
REACTOR AUTO SC*RAM SYSTEM A TRIP (603-117)
IRM BUS A UPSCALE TRIP OR INOP (603-203)
IRM UPSCALE (603-221)
Which ONE of the following valves is required to be closed in order to ensure a full
scram does not occur?
A. Feedwater Cleanup Recirc FCV (1 N21-F165)
B. Condensate Demineralizer Bypass valve (1 N21-F014)
C. Startup LCV isolation valve (1 N21-F036)
D~ Startup LCV Bypass valve (1 N21-F406)
A. Incorrect since closing this valve will divert more feedwater to the reactor. Plausible
if applicant thinks that this valve feeds the reactor.
B. Incorrect because the cold water reactivity addition will continue and possible cause
another half scram. Plausible if the applicant knows that some IRM response will occur
as the vessel is fed and if the applicant thinks that the event occurred due delayed
ranging of the IRM.
C. Incorrect because the initial condition was that the SULCV 212 was in manual with
output at 0", i.e., this valve is in series with the F036.
D. Correct. Given the current lineup, this is the only path that is allowing feedwater
flow to the reactor.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:16 AM
76
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
APE: 295014 Inadvertent Reactivity Addition
G2.1.30 Ability to locate and operate components / including local controls. (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)
References
34S0-N21-007-1, Section 7.1.5, Low Pressure Feedwater Injection
34AR-603-109-1, Reactor Neutron Monitoring Sys Trip alarm procedure
34AR-603-117-1, Reactor Auto Scram System A Trip alarm procedure
N21-CNDFW-00201, Condensate and Feedwater lesson plan
Tier:
1
Group:
Keyword:
REACTIVITY
Source:
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24: 17 AM
2
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
77
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
46. 295015AK2.08 001/1/2/ATWS/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
A group 1 isolation due to a steam leak occurred on Unit 2 and most control rods failed
to insert. (Le., an ATWS has occurred.) RPV level was lowered in accordance with
31 EO-EOP-113-2, Terminating and Preventing Injection to the RPV. SLC was, injected
due to torus temperature.
The SLC tank level has reached 340/0 and RPV level is now -35." As level is being
. raised to the normal level band, the operator receives the following alarms/indications:
IRM Upscale (603-221-1) alarm is illuminated
IRM Bus A & B Upscale Trip or Inop (603-203 &212) alarms are illuminated
SRM Period (603-231) alarm is illuminated
APRM Downscale (603-228) alarm is extinguished
APRM ODAs at 11 010
Which ONE of the following actions should be taken?
At:' Re-perform 31 EO-EOP-113-2
B. Continue to raise RPV water level to +3" to +50."
C. Do not re-perform 31 EO-EOP-113-2.
Stop raising RPV water level and maintain -34" as the upper level limit.
D. Do not re-perform 31 EO-EOP-113-2.
Stop raising RPV water level and re-inject only if RPV level lowers to -60."
A. Correct based on CP-3 override at 02
B. Incorrect because neutron monitoring indications reflect reactor power rising aoove
50/0. Plausible if applicant thinks that once hot (or cold) boron weight has been injected
it is acceptable to raise level irrespective of reactor power increases.
C. Incorrect because of CP-3 override at 03. Plausible if applicant thinks that once
31 EOP-EOP-113-2 has been performed that it is not necessary to re-perform.
D. Incorrect because of CP-3 override at 03. Plausible if applicant thinks that level
should be re-Iowered but terminating and preventing all injection systems is
unnecessary.
AK2. Knowledge ofthe interrelations between INCOMPLETE SCRAM and the following:
(CPR: 41.7 145.8) AK2.08 Neutron monitoring system
3.6/3.7
References
CP-3 (Unit 2), ATWS Level Control flowchart
31EO-EOP-113-2, Terminating and Preventing Injection to the RPV
RCA (Unit 2), RPV Control (ATWS)
C51-PRNM-LP-01203, Power Range Neutron Monitoring lesson plan
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
78
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
'ATWS
HIGHER
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
79
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
47. 295016AAl.06 006/1/1/REMOTE SD/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
The control room has been abandoned and 31-RS-OPS-001-1, Shutdown From
Outside Control Room, is being implemented.
Which ONE of the following will correctly complete the statement below?
At the Unit 1 remote shutdown panel 1H21-P173, reactor water level can be monitored
using the
up to a level of
_
A. Fuel Zone Instrument; +60 "
B. Normal Range Instrument; +60"
C~ Post Accident Instrument: -17"
D. Floodup Instrument; +200"
U1 uses the post accident (fuel zone) at the main remote shutdown panel.
U2 uses the wide range at the main remote shutdown panel.
A. Incorrect because the fuel zone in~trument top of scale is -17". Plausible if the
applicant does not know the fuel zone instrument range ends before +60".
B. Incorrect because the fuel zone (i.e., post accident) instrument is used at the RSDP
on Unit 1. Plausible if applicant does not know the instrument range/type at the U1
RSDP (versus U2)
C. Correct (This is a unit difference)
D. Incorrect because the fuel zone (i.e., post acc'ident) instrument is used at the
RSDP. Plausible if applicant does not know the instrument range/type at the U1 RSDP
(versus U2).
AAI. Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to CONTROL ROOM ABANDONMENT:
(CFR: 41.7 / 45.6) AAl.06 Reactor water leve1.
4.0 / 4.1
References:
BII-RXINS-LP-04404, Reactor Vessel Instrumentation lesson plan
31RS-OPS-00l-l, Unit 1 Shutdown from outside the control room procedure
C82-RSDP-05201, Remote Shutdown Panel lesson plan
On Unit 2 the Emergency Range Instrument (-150" to +60") is used at the RSDP. (Unit difference)
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
80
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
REMOTE SD
FUND
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
81
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
48. 295017AKl.02 001/1/2/RELEASE/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-30 I/RO/BLC/RFA
Primary containment conditions require venting in accordance w.ith path G-1 of the
Primary Containment Gas Control flowchart (peG).
Which ONE of the following describes the preferred method for removing combustible
gases and when must this release be secured?
A. Vent the drywell via the 2 " line and purge only the drywell with CAD
Secure the.venting only if the projected TEDE reaches 0.057 mR/hr
B. Vent the drywell via the 18" line and purge both the drywell AND torus with CAD
Secure the venting only if the projected TEDE reaches 1 R/hr
C~ Vent the torus via the 2" line and purge both the drywell AND torus with CAD
Secure the venting only if the projected TEDE reaches 0.057 mR/hr
D. Vent the torus via the 18" line and purge only the torus with CAD
Securith the venting only if the projected TEDE reaches 1 R/hr
A. Incorrect because the preferred method of releasing is from the torus (due to
scrubbing). Plausible if applicant knows that combustible gases are being created in
the drywell and easiest method of removing is to release directly from the drywell.
B. Incorrect because the preferred method of releasing is from the torus (due to
scrubbing). Plausible if applicant thinks that the larger pipe size will accomodate faster
removal of the combusti.ble gas. Also plausible since replacement nitrogen to both
spaces (drywell and torus) will mitigate the combustible gas concentration quicker.
C. Correct per 31 EO-EOP-1 04-2 and PCG flowchart.
D. Incorrect because the 18" torus line is only used for ventilation (versus releases).
Also incorrect because the termination criteria is from path G-2 (vs G-1). Plausible if
applicant knows that the torus vent path ensures scrubbing and reasons that a larger
pipe size will reduce combustible gas concentrations more quickly.
AKI. Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE
RELEASE RATE: (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) AKl.02 tProtection ofthe general public
3.8* 4.3*
References
31EO-EOP-I04-2, Primary Containment Venting For Hydrogen and Oxygen Control
31EO-EOP-OI2-2, Primary Containment Control flowchart
31EO-PCG-OOI-2, Primary Containment Gas Control
Tier:
1
Keyword:
RELEASE
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Test:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
82
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
49. 295018AK2.02 007/1/1/RBCCW/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 has been operating for 87 days at 1000/0 power and all equipment is normally
aligned.
A fire occurs in the 2C 600VAC switchgear causing the bus to be de-energized and the
earliest time to re-energize the bus is 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.
Which ONE of the following identifies a parameter that will be affected, including a
required corrective action associated with this parameter, in accordance with
34AB-P42-001-2, Loss of Reactor Building Closed Cooling Water (RBCCW)?
A~ RBCCW flow inside the containment is inadequate.
A manual scram is required.
B. RBCCW surge tank level will lower.
Local use of the 2P42-F055, level control valve bypass valve is required to raise
level.
C. RBCCW temperature will rise.
The standby RBCCW pump must be started.
D. RBCCW pressure will lower and then stabilize.
The standby PSW pump s'hould be manually started until the bus is re-energized.
600V Emergency Bus 2C supplies 2 of the 3 RBCCW pumps, i.e., 2A &2C pumps.
A. Correct. AOP 34AB-P42-001-2, Step 4.7
B. Incorrect because surge tank level will rise due to heatup. Plausible if applicant
thinks that one pump trips (causing a level drop) and that the loss of power affects the
auto makeup valve logic.
C. Incorrect because there are no other pumps available, i.e., two pumps are currently
lost. Plausible if applicant does not know the power supplies to the RBCCW pumps.
D. Incorrect because the a scram is required before two hours. Plausible if ap.plicant
thinks that standby pump auto starting causes some minor pressure pertubation which
would necessitate concerns over PSW-to-RBCCW delta P.
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
83
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AKl. Knowledge ofthe interrelations between PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING
WATER and the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.8) AKl.02 Plant operations
3.4/ 3.6
References:
AOP 34AB-P42-001-2, Loss ofReacto Building Closed Cooling Water
RBCCW Lesson Plan P42-RBCCW-LP-00901
AOP 34AB-R23-001-2, Loss of600 Volt Emergency Bus
34AR-650-249-2, RBCCW Hx Outlet Temp High annunciator procedure
34-AR-650-248-2, Surge Tank Level Low annunciator procedure
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
84
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
50. 295019AK2.11 008/1/1/PNEUMATIC/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes how a loss of ONLY the Interruptable Essential
Instrument Air Header will affect plant pneumatic components?
A.
Demineralizer outlet valves will "lockup", i.e., valves fail as is.
B~ Hotwell makeup and reject valve will fail closed
C. Resin transfer operations will not be possible, i.e., valves fail closed.
D. Supply and exhaust fan dampers will fail closed
A. Incorrect because the demineralizer effluent valves are pneumatically supplied from
the Non-essential instrument air header.
- B. Correct. Unit 1 (F202/F200) and Unit 2 (F043/F038) makeup/reject valves will fail
closed on a loss of air and are pneumatically supplied via the interruptible essential
instrument air header.
C. Incorrect because resin transfer operations are pneumatically supplied from the
plant service air header
D. Incorrect because the radwaste HVAC panels are pneumatically supplied from the
non-essential instrument air header.
AK2. Knowledge ofthe interrelations between PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR and the
following: (CFR: 41.7 /45.8) AK2.11 Radwaste
2.5 /2.6
References:
P51-P52-P70-PLANT AIR-LP-03501, Pneumatic Systems lesson plan
N21-CNDFW-LP-00201, Condensate & Feedwater lesson plan
34S0-N21-007-1, Attachment 2, Condensate & Feedwater System valve lineup (pg 24,25 of44)
Licensee verified prints: Need print numbers from licensee.
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
PNEUMATIC
FUND
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
85
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
51 . 295021AK2.07 001/1/1/RHRlNEW/HIGHERJHT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 is in Mode 4 preparing for startup with the following conditions:
- RHR Loop "A" is in Shutdown Cooling wi 7900 gpm
- Both Recirc Pumps OFF wi discharge valves closed and suction valves open
-1E41-R605, RHR Water Temp on Pane11H11-P614 is 185°F
- RWCU Inlet temperature is 187°F
- RPV level is 37"
As the operator was performing surveillance procedure 34SV-B31-001-1 on the "1 B"
Recirc Pump discharge valve, the valve opened as required but would not re-close.
The auxiliary operator is currently investigating the valve motor breaker.
Given.these plan,t conditions, which ONE of the following describes how this valve
being open will affect RHR operation and coolant temperature?
A.
RHR flow will lower
RWCU and RHR water temperature will rise
B~ RHR flow will remain the same
RWCU and RHR water temperature will lower
C. RHR flow will remain the same
RWCU temperature will rise but RHR water temperature will remain the same
D. RHR flow will rise
RWCU temperature will remain the same but RHR water temperature will lower.
A. Incorrect because the RHR flow rate will not change. Plausible if applicant thinks
that the discharge valve being open could divert RHR fl.ow around the area that RHR
flow is actually detected resulting in an RCS heatup.
B. Correct. The core region is currently not receiving forced flow (the core annulus
area is only being cooled versus the fuel) and an inadvertent mode change could
occur.
C. Incorrect because RWCU and RHR both take a suction off of the "A" Recirc Loop.
Both of these system temperatures will lower when the annulus area is overcooled and
the core area is undercooled. Plausible if applicant thinks that RWCU suction is
different than RHR suction path.
D. Incorrect because RHR flow will not change and both RWCU and RHR
temperatures will track together since they both take a suction from the "A" Recirc loop.
Plausible if applicant thinks that discharge valve being open creates less resistance to
RHR flow and therefore causes more cooling in the vessel.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
86
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AK2. Knowledge ofthe interrelations between LOSS OF SHUTDOWN COOLING and the following:
(CFR: 41.7 / 45.8) AK2.07 Reactor recirculation
3.1 /3.2
References:
34SV-B31-001-1, Recirculation System Valve Operability
34S0-EII-0I0-l, RHR System
34S0-B31-001-1, Reactor Recirc, System
34AB-EII-00l-l, Loss of Shutdown Cooling
EII-RHR-LP-00701, RHR lesson plan
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
87
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
52. 295022AK2.07 001/1/2/CRD/NEW/FUND/HT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
Complete the following statement from the choices below.
Following a loss of both CRD pumps, the scram insertion time is
when the
vessel is
as compared to when the vessel is
_
(Accumulator pressure AND reactor pressure assist are* both available.)
A. shorter
1000 psig; 200 psig
Bt:/ shorter
200 psig; 1000 psig
C. longer
1000 psig; 800 psig
D. longer
400 psig; 800 psig
A. Incorrect because scram time at 200 psig is - 1.6 seconds as compared to - 2.65
seconds at 1000 psig. Plausible if applicant thinks that the reactor pressure assist
contributes to a shorter scram time.
B. Correct. (see explanation in nAn).
C. Incorrect because scram insertion time is shorter at pressures above 800 psig due
to the additional reactor pressure assist available. (At 800 psig, scram time is - 2.8
seconds compared to 2.6 seconds at 1000 psig.) Plausible if applicant thinks that
higher reactor pressure creates more opposing force for rod insertion.
D. Incorrect because accumulator assist at lower reactor pressures results in the
shortest scram times. (At 400 psig, scram time is - 2 seconds whereas at 800 psig, the
scram time is - 2.7 seconds.) Plausible if applicant thinks that le.ss reactor pressure
assist results in a longer scram time.
AK2. Knowledge ofthe interrelations between LOSS OF CRDPUMPS and the following: (CFR: 41.7 /45.8)
AK2.07 Reactor pressure (SCRAM assist): Plant-Specific
3.4 /3.6
References
C11-CRDM-LP-00102, Control Rod Drive lesson plan
34AB-C11-001-2, Loss ofCRD System abnormal operating procedure
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
88
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
53. 295023AK2.01 01O/1/1/REFUELING/NEW/FUND/HT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
During refueling operations, a spent bundle was being lowered into the fuel rack using
the main fuel grapple. When the bundle was 'seated in the fuel rack, the operator could
not get the grapple to release the bundle despite repeated operation of the grapple
open/close switch. The operator then raised the bundle with the intention of rotating it
90 degrees and lowering it again.
When the operator started to lower the bundle (after rotating it) the bundle hung up on
the fuel rack, i.e., did not slide into the slot. When the bundle hung upon the fuel rack,
the grapple opened. The operator then noticed that the bundle proceeded to tip away
from the mast and fall across other irradiated fuel storage racks in the spent fuel pool.
Given this information, which ONE of the following fuel handling equipment problems
caused the grapple hook to open?
A. Loss of air pressure to the refueling 'platform
B~ Grapple open/closed switch left in the open position
C. System Stop pushbutton was depressed when the hoist jam light illuminated
D. Loss of electrical power to the refueling platform
K/A requires knowledge of refueling accidents. Question is somewhat backwards logic;
however, this event was an actual event at Quad Cities. Industry event related
questions are historical, and, by their nature, are somewhat backwards logic.
A. Incorrect because the grapple hooks fail closed on a loss of air. Plausible if
applicant thinks that hooks fail open on loss of air.
B. Correct. If the open/close switch switch was left in the open position before the
operator raised the bundle it would still remain closed due to the 'bail handle keeping
the hooks closed. Then as it jammed on the fuel rack, the weight of the b'undle came
off these grapple hooks. Since the engage switch was left in the open position, the
grapple hooks opened and released the bundle.
C. Incorrect' because when the system stop 'pushbutton is depressed, the fuel grapple
hook will close automatically. Plausible if applicant thinks that grapple hooks open
when system shutdown occurs.
D. Incorrect (2R24-S015 Fr 8 BR) because a loss of power will not cause the grapple
to release. Plausible if applicant thinks that grapple hooks open when a loss of
electricity occurs.
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
89
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AK2. Knowledge ofthe interrelations betweenRE:fUELINGACCIDENTS and the following: (CFR: 41.7 /45.8)
AK2.01 Fuel handling equipment.
3.3 / 3.7
Per industry events section ofrefueling lesson plan, this event occurred at Quad Cities Unit 1, September 1989
References
FI5-RF-LP-04502 Refueling lesson plan
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
REFUELING
FUND
Group:
1
Source:,
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
90
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
54. 295024EK1.01 011/1/1/CONTAINMENT/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Following a LOCA on Unit 1, the crew has'determined that the following containment
parameters exist:
Drywell pressure
48 psig
Torus pressure
44 psig
Torus level
20 feet
Which ONE of the following is an operational implication of these containment
parameters?
A. Torus venting will occur at this time if the T48-F326 and -F318 valves are opened in
accordance with 31 EO-EOP-1 01-1, Emergency Containment Venting.
B. The pneumatic operators on the drywell vent valves T48-F320 and -F319 will not be
able to open and close the valves.
C. The pneumatic operators on the safety relief valves will not be able to open and
close the valves.
D~ After the drywell is vented in accordance with 31 EO-EOP-1 01-1, Emergency
- Contaillment Venting, the RHR and Core Spray NPSH limits will be affected.
A. Incorrect because the rupture disc setpoint is not until 51 psig. Plausible if applicant knows
that torus vent path is still uncovered at 20 feet.
B. Incorrect because the pressure capability of the containment is the basis for the Hatch
Primary Containment Pressure Limit. Plausible if the applicant knows that this component is
one of the items evaluated to determine the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.
C. Incorrect because the pressure capability of the containment is the basis for the Hatch
Primary Containment Pressure Limit. Plausible if the applicant knows that this component is
one of the items evaluated to determine the Primary Containment Pressure Limit.
D. Correct. Caution 7: reducing primary containment pressure will reduce the available NPSH
for pumps taking suction from the torus.
EK1. Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL
PRESSURE: (CPR: 41.8 to 41.10) EK1.01 Drywell integrity: Plant-Specific
4.1 /4.2*
References:
31EO-EOP-101-1, Emergency Containhlent Venting
T23-PC-LP-01301, Primary Containment
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
91
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
CONTAINMENT
HIGHER
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
92
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
55. 295025EKl.03 012/1/1/SRV/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
A spurious group 1 isolation occurred on Unit 1 and systems responded as designed.
During the transient, the RPV pressure peaked at 1125 psig and the lowest pressure
reached was 875 psig. The following conditions currently exist:
MSIVs closed; RPV pressure stable at 1000 psig
"Safety/Blowdown Valve Leaking" Annunciator in alarm; 4 amber lights are lit
Assuming no operator action, which ONE of the following is correct at the SRV Tailpipe*
Temperature recorder (B21-R614) located at panel H11-P614?
__ tailpipe temperatures are'" __ deg F and stable.
A~ Two; 330
B. Four; 330
C. Nine 150
D. Two; 450
A. Correct. Low Level set armed when reactor pressure surpassed 1074 psig and then
four SRVs lifted at 1120 psig, i.e., four tailpipe pressures exceeded 85 psig. As
pressure lowered to 875 psig, F013H and F013A closed. F013G and F013C remain
open. Isenthalpic process pressure drop from 1000 psig to 125 psig (tailpipe discharge
pressure) would be - 339 deg F.
B. Incorrect because two of the four low level set valves have reclosed; therefore their
tailpipe temperatures would be trending down. Plausible if applicant knows that F013
H, A, G, & C all initially opened when lo.w level set armed.
C. Incorrect because two of the 11 SRVs actually lifted and have re-seated; therefore
their temperature would be greater than the normal closed value of 150 deg. Plausible
if applicant realizes that two SRVs are still open, i.e., 11-2=9
D. Incorrect because th.is temperature corresponds to the saturation pressure at 1000
psig (vs exit pressure of the tailpipe following an isenthalpic process). Plausible if
applicant does not know the temperature lowers via the throttling process.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
93
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
EK1. Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to HIGH REACTOR
PRESSURE: (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) EK1.03 Safety/reliefvalve tailpipe temperature/pressure relationships. 3.6/3.8
References
B21-SLLS-LP-01401, Main Steam & Low Low Set lesson plan
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
94
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
56. 295026EKl.02 014/1/1/TORUS TEMP/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 is starting up per 34GO-OPS-001-2, Plant Startup, and surveillance procedure
34SV-E41-005-2, HPCI Pump Operability 165 psig Test, is in progress.
The following conditions exist due to sustained operation of HPCI:
TORUS WATER TEMP HIGH (654-020) in alarm
DRYWELL/TORUS RCDR R627 TEMP HIGH (650-204) in alarm
MULTIPOINT TEMP RCDR 2T47-R626 TEMP HIGH (657-025) in alarm
Both loops of suppression pool cooling are in service
Torus temperature monitoring per 34SV-SUV-019-2 is in progress
SPDS Display indicates bulk average torus temperature is 101°F and lowering
Given these conditions, which ONE of the following are the required actions?
A.
Immediately shutdown HPCI and terminate the test
Enter 31 EO-EOP-012-2, PC-1, Primary Containment Control
B. Immediately scram and terminate the test
Enter 31 EO-EOP-012-2, PC-1, Primary Containment Control
C~ Allow the HPCI test to continue
Continue in, AOP 34AB-T23-003-2, Torus Temperature Above 95 of
Enter 31 EO-EOP-012-2, PC-1, Primary Containment Control
D. Allow the HPCI test to continue
Continue in AOP 34AB-T23-003-2, Torus Temperature Above 95 of
Do NOT enter 31 EO-EOP-012-2, PC-1, Primary Containment Control
A. Incorrect because T.S. 3.6.2.1 conditions are still met when testing is in progress
that adds heat to the torus. Plausible because LCO requires suspending HPCI
operation when torus temp reaches 105 deg F.
B. Incorrect because T.S. 3.6.2.1 conditions are still met when testing is in progress
that adds heat to the torus. Plausible because LCO requires the reactor be shutdown
immediately when torus temp> 110 deg F. PC-1 should be entered for torus temp>
100 deg F.
C. Correct. 1.S. 3.6.2.1 allows operation up to 105 deg due to testing which adds heat
to the torus. AOP entry is appropriate and PC-1 entry is required above 100 deg F.
D. Incorrect because PC-1 entry is requ.ired. Plausible if applicant knows that T.S.
allows testing which adds heat up to 105 deg.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
95
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
EK1. Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to SUPPRESSION POOL
HIGH WATER TEMPERATURE: (CPR: 41.8 to 41.10) EK1.02 Steam condensation
3.5 /3.8
References
34AB-T23-003-2, Torus Temp Above 95 °P
34SV-E41-005-2, HPCI Pump Operability 165 psig Test
34SV-SUV-019-2, Surveillance Checks
T.S. 3.6.2.1 LCO & Bases, Suppression Pool Average Temperature
Annunciator response procedures listed in stem
Should not have PC-1 distributed...this identify the correct answer.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
TORUS TEMP
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
96
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
57. 29502602.4.23 013/1/1/TORUS TEMP/NEW/FUND/HT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following is the basis for the boron injection initiation temperature
(BIIT) limit and one of the required actions to be taken before this limit is reached?
A. Ensures that the suppression pool tech spec temperature will not be exceeded.
Initiate SBLC per 34S0-C41-003-1
B.' Ensures cold shutdown boron weight is injected before the torus heat capacity is
exceeded.
Initiate SBLC per 34S0-C41-003-1
C~ Ensures hot shutdown boron weight is injected before the torus heat capacity is
exceeded.
Initiate a manual scram per placard RC-1
D. Ensures the energy transferred from the RPV to the containment is within the
capacity of the drywell vent valves T48-F320 and -F319.
Initiate a manual scram per placard RC-1
A. Incorrect because SBLC initiation is not performed to maintain torus temperature
less than 110 deg F. Plausible since initiating SBLC is one, action that is taken before
BIIT is reached. Also, 110 deg F is associated with the torus temperature for HCTl
B. Incorrect because this action ensures HOT shutdown boron weight is injected before
torus heat capacity is exceeded. Plausible since injecting SBLC is one action that is
taken before BIIT is reached to ensure a lesser amount of boron is injected.
C. Correct
D. Incorrect because the basis for BIIT is not to ensure that the energy transfer is
equivalent to decay heat. Plausible since this is a required action to be taken when
BIIT is reached that affects the energy transfer rate between the RPV and containment.
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
97
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
EPE: 295026 Suppression Pool High Water Temperature
G2.4.23 Knowledge ofthe bases for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation during emergency operations.
(CFR: 41.10/45.13)
2.8/3.8
References
Tech Spec Bases B 3.6.2.1, Suppression Pool Average Temperature
BWROG EPGs/SAGs, Appendix B, Section 17.1 Boron Injection Initiation Temperature
EOP-RC-LP-20308, RPV control (non-atws)
PC Primary Containment Control Flowchart
EOP-Curves-LP-20306, EOP Curves and Limits lesson plan
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
TORUS TEMP
FUND
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,20079:24:17 AM
98
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
58. 295028EK2.01 015/1/1/DW SPRAY/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/ROIBLC/RFA
A small break LOCA occurred and the drywell chillers are tripped and cannot be
re-started. Drywell Sprays have already been initiated and stopped once; however, the
containment temperature is slowly rising again. The following conditions currently exist
on Unit 2:
Drywell pressure
RPV water level
Reactor Pressure
Torus Water Level
7 psig
32" and steady
300 psig
148" and steady
Which ONE of the following identifies when drywell sprays are initially required and
also identifies when sprays are allowed to be re-initiated given the current plant
conditions?
[Reference provided]
A. Drywell sprays are required to be intiated BEFORE the average of all the drywell
temperature points reaches 280 OF
Drywell temperature at 300 of and slowly rising
B. Drywell sprays are required to be intiated BEFORE the average of all the drywell
temperature points reache"s 280 OF
Because curve 8 was already evaluated the first time sprays were initiated, sprays
may be re-initiated a second time without re-evaluating tem'perature on curve 8.
C~ Drywell sprays are required to be intiated BEFORE the average of all the drywell
temperature points reaches 340 OF
Drywell temperature at 225 of and slowly rising
D. Drywell sprays are required to be intiated BEFORE the average of both the drywell
and torus air temperature points reaches 340 of
Because curve 8 was already evaluated the first time sprays were initiated, sprays
may be re-initiated a second time without re-evaluating temperature on curve 8.
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
99
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Get licensee to verify Unit 1 Curve 8 value for 300 deg. vs 225 deg.
A. Incorrect because the drywell sprays are initiated based on bulk average drywell
temperature. Plausible if applicant thinks that the most conservative temperature
should be used, Le., the highest temperature.
B. Incorrect because the drywell sprays are initiated based on bulk average drywell
temperature and the DWSIL curve 8 must be re-assessed each time sprays are
initiated. Plausible if applicant thinks that the most conservative temperature should be
used, Le., the highest temperature. OR if the applicant does not know the rules for
Curve 8 usage.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because the drywell sprays are initiated based on bulk average drywell
temperature (vs containment temperature.) and because the DWSIL 'curve 8 must be
re-assessed each time sprays are initiated. Plausible if the applicant thinks that once
curve 8 is assessed it is no longer required.
Provide Curve 8 (unit 2) to applicants. Do NOT provide Primary Containment Flowchart
EK2. Knowledge ofthe interrelations between HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE and the following:
(CFR: 41.7 /45.8) EK2.01 tDrywell spray: Mark-I&II.
3.7 /4.1
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
DWSPRAY
HIGHER
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
100
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
59. 295030EK1.01 016/1/1/TORUS LEVEL/BANK/HIGHER/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
An event has occurred on Unit 2 resulting in the following conditions:
4160V Buses 2A and 2B are de-energized
RPV Pressure
950 psig
RPV Water Level.
30 inches being controlled with CRD
Torus Water Level.
55 inches
Given these conditions, which ONE of the following systems is required to be used if
the reactor must be emergency depressurized?
B. Bypass valves
C~ RCIC
D. HPCI
A. Incorrect because torus level is < +57.5 " (lAW CP-1). Plausible if applicant does
not know that alternate ED is required when torus level is less than +57.5".
B. Incorrect because the condenser is not available, i.e., BOP busses are
de-energized. Plausible if applicant knows that torus level is < +57.5", i.e., alternate ED
is required, but does not know that ,the heat sink is unavailable.
C. Correct lAW 31 EO-EOP-1 08-2, Alternate Emergency Depressurization
D. Incorrect because PC directs locking out HPCI if torus level cannot be maintained>
110." Plausible if applicant knows that the main condenser is not available.
EK1. Knowledge ofthe operational implications ofthe following concepts as they apply to LOW SUPPRESSION
POOL WATER LEVEL: (CPR: 41.8 to 41.10) EKl.01 Steam condensation
3.8* /4.1 *
Reference
LOR Bank question: Media# LR-LP-20319, Objective # 039.033.A.02, Question #2
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
TORUS LEVEL
HIGHER
Group:
1
Source:
BANK
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
101
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
60. 295031G2.4.45 017/l/l/LOW LEVELINEW/FUND/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following annunciators being in an alarmed condition represents the
lowest reactor water level on Unit 1?
A. ARI LEVEL 1 OR 2 INITIATED (603-301)
B. REACTOR VESSEL LEVEL 2 DIVISION I TRIP (603-205)
C. REACTOR VESSEL LOW LEVEL TRIP (603-108)
D~ RECIRC PMP A & B HI PRESS/LOW LVL TRIP (602-120)
A. Incorrect because setpoint is -35". Plausible if applicant thinks that ARI initiates at
level 1 as enscribed on the,*alarm window.
B. Incorrect because setpoint is -35". Plausible if applicant thinks that level 1 is lower
than level 2.
C. Incorrect because setpoint is +3 It. Plausible if applicant does not know the alarm
setpoint.
D. Correct because setpoint is -60"
EPE: 295031 Reactor Low Water Level
2.4.45 Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm. (CFR: 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.12)
IMPORTANCE 3.3 /3.6
References
34AR-603-108-1, Reactor Vessel Low Level Trip annunciator procedure
34AR-602-120-1, Recirc Pmp A&B Hi Press/Low LvI Trip annunciator procedure
34AR-602-318-1, Auto Blowdown Relays Energized annunciator procedure
34AR-602-330-1, ADS Low Water LvI Actu Timers Initiated annunciator procedure
34AR-603-141-1, Reactor Vessel Water Level High/Low annunciator procedure
34AR-603-205-1S, Reactor Vessel Level 2 Division I Trip annunciator procedure
34AR-603-218-1, Reactor Vessel Levell Div I Trip annunciator procedure
34AR-603-301-1, ARI Levell or 2 Initiated annunciator procedure
34AR-602-306-1, AUTO Blowdown Timers Initiated annunciator procedure
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
LOW LEVEL
FUND
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
102
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
61. 295037EAl.07 018/1/1/RMCS/NEW/HIGHERlHT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 2 was operating at 1000/0 power when a scram signal occurred; however, many
control rods remained withdrawn after the mode switch was placed in the shutdown
position. The following plant conditions currently exist:
Rx pressure 1000 psig
APRM power 400~
Turbine generator on-line at 280 MW(e)
RPV level 36"
Mode Switch in SHUTDOWN
Assuming that only the actions of RC-1 have been taken by the crew, which ONE of
the following choices describes whether a control rod(s) can be selected (i.e., latched),
and, if so, can the rod be inserted?
A.
NONE of the rods can be selected.
B. Any rod can be selected.
NONE of the rods can be inserted.
C. Any rod can be selected.
Rods can NOT be inserted using the RONOR insert position.
Any rod can be inserted using the Emergency-In position.
D¥' Any rod can be selected.
Any rod can be inserted using the RONOR insert position.
Any rod can be inserted using the Emergency-In position.
A. Incorrect because there are only three items which can prevent rod selection: 1)
timer malfunction, 2) RPIS inoperable, and 3) RWM complete loss of power. Plausible
if applicant thinks that RWM is causing a select error which causes a select block.
B. Incorrect because the RWM is still above the low power alarm setpoint. Plausible if
applicant knows that RWM has not yet been bypassed and the mode switch is still in
shutdown.
C. Incorrect because the RONOR insert position will still work since RWM is not
enforcing blocks. Plausible if applicant thinks that RWM prevents insertion and thinks
that Emergency in will override RWM.
D. Correct. The mode switch in shutdown is causing a rod-out block; however, this
does not prevent rod selections and insertion. The RWM is above the enforcing power
level.
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24: 17 AM
103
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
EA1. Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND
REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN: (CFR: 41.7 /45.6) EA1.07 RMCS:
Plant-Specific
3.9 / 4.0
References
34AB-C71-001-1/2, Scram Procedure
31EO-EOP-103-1, EOP Control Rod Insertion Methods
Why do plant procedures require the mode switch in refuel?
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2OO7-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
104
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
62. 295038EK1.03 019/1/1/RELEASE/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
A plant event occurred and an alert has been declared by the shift manager. The
control room operator is performing a prompt offsite dose assessment in accordance
with 73EP-EIP-005-0, On Shift Operations Personnel Emergency Duties and
73EP-EIP-018-0, Prompt Offsite Dose Assessment.
While the control operator is gathering the TRN-0052 meteorological data, he notes
that the 100 meter wind speed data from the primary meteorological tower is 40 mph at
90°.
Which ONE of the following describes the release point being assessed and the wind
direction?
At:!' 100 meters is a primary data point used for an ELEVATED RELEASE
90° means that the wind is blowing towards the east
B. 100 meters is a primary data point used for an ELEVATED RELEASE
90° means that winds are coming from the east
C. 100 meters is a primary data point for a GROUND RELEASE
90° means that the wind is blowing towards the east
D. 100 meters is a primary data point for a GROUND RELEASE
90° means that winds are coming from the east
A. Correct. 100 M is stack level release data (i.e., elevated).
0° = 360°= North;
90° = East;
180° = 540° = South
270° = West
EK1. Knowledge ofthe operational implic.ations ofthe following concepts as they apply to HIGH OFF-SITE
RELEASE RATE: (CFR: 41.8 to 41.10) EK1.03 tMeteorological effects on off-site release
2.8/3.8
The KA match was made because the "operational implication" is that the TRN-0052 meteorological form will be
used by the Shift Manager to determine the correct evacuation route.
References
LR-LP-20017, Offsite Dose Assessment lesson plan
TRN-0052, MIDAS Input Data Acquisition Form
73EP-EIP-005-0, On-Shift Operations Personnel Emergency Duties
73EP-EIP-018-0, Prompt Offsite Dose Assessment
34AB-D11-001-1S, Radioactivity Release Control
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
1
RELEASE
FUND
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:17 AM
105
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
63. 300000K4.02 001/2/11AIR/NEWIFUND/HT2007-30l/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes when a nitrogen pneumatic supply is
automatically provided to the Non-interruptible essential air loads on Unit 1?
A.
Only one pneumatically operated valve auto-opens at 80 psig
B. Only one motor operated valve auto-opens at 80 psig
C. Five pneumatically operated valves: Fo'ur valves auto-open at 90 psig and one
valve auto-opens at 80 psig
D~ Five motor operated valves: Four valves auto-open at 90 psig and one valve
auto-opens at 80 psig.
A. Incorrect because on Unit 1 there are five motor operated valves. Plausible
because there is only one valve on Unit 2.
B. Incorrect because on Unit 1 there are five motor operated valves. Plausible
because there is only one motor operated valve on Unit 2.
C. Incorrect because there are five MO~OR operated valves. Plausible if applicant
knows that the majority of air isolation valves are pneumatically operated.
D. Correct.
K4. Knowledge of (INSTRUMENT AIR SYSTEM) design feature(s) and or interlocks which provide for the
following: .(CFR: 41.7)
K4.02 Cross-over to other air systems
3.0 I 3.0
References
P51-P52-P70-PLANT AIR-LP-03501, Plant Air Systems lesson plan
34S0-P51-002-1, Unit 1 Instrument & Service Air Electrical Lineup (Attach 1, pg 2 of 5)
34S0-P51-002-2, Unit 2 Instrument & Service Air Electrical Lineup (Attach 1, pg 3 of3)
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
AIR
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:17 AM
106
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
64. 400000K3.01 00l/2/1/RBCCW/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 is at 1000/0 power with the "A" and "c" RBCCW pumps in service. The "B"
RBCCW pump is out of service for maintenance. All other systems are in their normal
alignment.
Which ONE of the following will occur if the 600VAC Bus 0 trips and locks out due to
an electrical fault?
A. Recirc MG set oil temperatures will rise.
Drywell temperature will rise.
B. Recirc MG set oil temperatures will rise.
Drywell temperature will remain the same.
C. Recirc MG set oil temperatures will remain the same.
Drywell temperature will rise.
D¥' Recirc MG set oil temperatures will remain the same.
Drywell temperature will remain the same.
A. Incorrect because the RBCCW pumps are unaffected; Le., MG set oil temperatures
will remain the same. Also incorrect because drywell temperature is controlled by plant
service water and normally one fan on each cooling unit is in RUN and the other in
AUTO (standby). Plausible if applicant thinks that one of the RBCCW pumps tripped.
Also plausible if applicant does not know that the standby cooler fan will autostart.
B. Incorrect because the RBCCW pumps are unaffected; Le., MG set oil temperatures
will remain the same. Plausible if applicant thinks that one of the RBCCW pumps has
lost its power supply.
C. Incorrect because drywell temperature is controlled by plant service water and
normally one fan on each cooling unit is in RUN and the other in AUTO (standby).
Plausible if applicant does not know that the standby cooler fan will autostart or does
not know the normal alignment.
D. Correct.
K3. Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CCWS will have on the following: (CFR: 41.7 /
45.6) K3.01 Loads cooled by CCWS
2.9 / 3.3
References
P64-PCCCW-LP-01304, Primary Containment Cooling & Chilled Water lesson plan
P42-RBCCW-LP-00901, RBCCW lesson plan
Tier:
2
Keyword:
Cog Level:
FUND
Test:
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24: 17 AM
107
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
65. 600000AK2.01 020/1/1/FIRE/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
The Unit 1 reactor operator receives a fire alarm annunciator (651-160). The following
line is observed on the CRT 1Z43-R404CX IBM Computer and CRT:
1T43087D02 E Torus Wtr Curtain New Alarm
Assuming this area is the 87' elevation, which ONE (1) of the following identifies
- whether sprinkler flow will occur in this area and if the fire brigade is required to be
dispatched in accordance AOP-N.01, Plant Fires?
Sprinkler Flow
A. Sprinkler flow will occur even if
a heat source does not exist.
B. Sprinkler flow occurs ONLY with a
heat source.
C. Sprinkler flow will occur even if a .
heat source does not exist.
D~ Sprinkler flow occurs ONLY with a
heat source.
.
Action Required
Fire Brigade is NOT immediately
dispatched.
Immediately dispatch the Fire
Brigade before confirming a fire.
Immediately dispatch the Fire
Brigade before confirming a fire.
Fire Brigade is NOT immediately
dispatched.
A. Incorrect because this area is a wet pipe sprinkler system. Plausible if applicant
thinks this area is a fixed water spray or deluge system.
B. Incorrect because fire alarm annunciator procedure requires verifying fire first
before dispatching brigade. Plausible if applicant does not know annunciator
procedure actions.
c. Incorrect because this area is a wet pipe sprinkler system. Also incorrect because
fire alarm annunciator procedure requires verifying fire first before dispatching
brigade. Plausible if applicant thinks this area is a fixed water spray or deluge
.system and reasons that this is a valid alarm.
D. Correct
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
108
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
AK2. Knowledge ofthe interrelations between PLANT FIRE ON SITE and the following: AK2.01 Sensors /
detectors and valves . . . .. 2.6 / 2;7
References:
34S0-Z43-003-1S, Operation ofthe Fire Detection Command Center
34AR-651-160-1, Fire Alarm annunciator procedure
X43-FPS-LP-03601, Fire Protection lesson plan
34AB-X43-001-1, Fire Procedure AOP
Unit 1 TRM, Fire Protection Appendix, Table 1.2-1, page 9.2-B-14
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
FIRE
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
B-LC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
109
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
66. G2.1.2 001/3/1/CONDUCT OPS/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/
Which ONE of the following identifies when a paper copy of 34SV-SUV-019-1/2,
Surveillance Checks, is required to be used instead of the computerized rounds
software?
A. If more than one operator is collecting the data
B. If the order of station readings will be altered
C~ If a mode change will occur
D. If an abnormal or out of spec reading is collected
A. Incorrect because 34SV-SUV-019-2, Section 4.3.16 allows for more than one
operator provided they each log into the computer or information is placed in the Notes
section that identifies the other operator who collected the data. Plausible if applicant
thinks that the computer does not allow more*than one operator to collect data;
therefore, a paper copy is required.
B. Incorrect because 34SV-SUV-019-2, Attachment 4 states that due to the nature and
limitations of computerizing a procedure, the tour will NOT be an exact match with the
written procedure. Plausible if applicant thinks that the computer tour will not allow
"skipping ahead" with readings, etc.
C. Correct. (34SV-SUV-019-2, Section 4.3.17)
D. Incorrect because 34SV-SUV-019-2, Attachment 3 (Computerized Surveillance
Documentation) requires that all abnormal readings have a note entered. Plausible if
applicant thinks that computerized tour does not allow for out of spec readings.
2.1 Conduct of Operations
2.1.2 Knowledge of operator responsibilities during all modes of plant operation. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13) .
References
34SV-SUV-019-2, Surveillance Checks
Tier:
3
Keyword:
CONDUCT OPS
Cog Level:
FUND
Test:
Friday,' September 28, 2007 9:24:18 AM
Group:
Source:
Exam:
Author/Reviewer:
1
NEW
HT2007-301
110
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
67. G2.1.25 001/3/1/GRAPH/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
2.40
12.0
150:
18:0
19:3
21(1:
'roltllS: \\'i41ER.LE,1lE:L, (in)
(l.gm-L-L_Lm~.
- 60
10
Which ONE of the following components corresponds to the torus water level limit of
193" in graph 7, Pressure Suppression Pressure?
A. Top of the torus-to-drywell vacuum breakers
B~ Bottom of torus ring header
C. Control room tor'us water level indicator is at the top of the band
D. Control room torus pressure instrument tap becomes covered
A. Incorrect because torus-to-drywell vacuum breakers are submerged at 197.5 ".
Plausible because these vacuum breakers are in the suppression pool range being
considered.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect because the highest control room torus level instrument indication is 300."
Plausible because the x-axis deals with torus level.
D. Incorrect because the level @ which the torus pressure instrument tap is covered is
40 feet. Plausible since the y-axis deals with torus pressure.
2.1 Conduct of Operations
2.1.25 Ability to obtain and interpret station reference materials such as graphs / monographs / and tables
which contain performance data. (CFR: 41.10/43.5 /45.12) IMPORTANCE RO 2.8 / SRO 3.1
References
31EO-OPS-001-0, EOP General Infonnation
Friday, September 28,29°7 9:24:18 AM
111
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
3
GRAPH
FUND
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
1
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
112
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
68. G2.2.11 00l/3/2/TEMP MOD/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Mane ,OfPieti:Ol1
~ttttacltin.glag
D(2tE
_
Which ONE of the following component changes requires this tag to be hung in
accordance with 40AC-ENG-018-0, Temporary Modification Control?
A. An annunciator card that has been pulled to disable an alarm.
B~ A power supply for welding machine which is ran from a local electrical panel.
C. A hose is routed from a plant service air connection to a sandpiper pump.
D. A hose is routed from a drain line on a pipe for a local leak rate test.
A. Incorrect because 40AC-ENG-018-0, Attachment 3 states that pulled annunciator
cards are an exception to temp mods. Plausible if applicant knows that pulled circuit
cards are listed in Attachment 3 as an example of a temp mod.
B. Correct ( 40AC-ENG-018-0, Attachment 3)
C. Incorrect because hoses used to provide supply air for portable pneumatic
equipment are specifically identified as NOT being examples of temp mods.
D. Incorrect because hoses routed for LLRTs are specifically identified as NOT being
examples of a temp mod (because they're performed in accordance with an approved
procedure). Plausible if applicant confuses this with temporary equipment being tied
into permanent plant equipment, which IS a temp mod.
2.2 Equipment Control
2.2.11 Knowledge of the process for controlling temporary changes. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.3 / 45.13)
References
40AC-ENG-018-0, Temporary Modification Control, Attachment 3: Examples ofTMs and Non-TMs
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
113
Tier:
Keyword:
Cog Level:
Test:
3
TEMP MOD
FUND
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
Group:
2
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
, Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:18 AM
114
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
69. G2.2.27 001/3/2/REFUELING/BANK-MODIFIED/FUND/HT2007-30 l/RO/BLC/RFA
An operator on the Unit 2 Bridge observes two fuel bundles in the normal fuel storage
section of the Unit 2 fuel pool.
Bundle 1's channel fastener is pointed in the direction between the Unit 1 reactor and
Unit 1 CST.
Bundle 2's channel fastener is pointed in the direction between the Unit 2 reactor and
Unit 2 CST.
Which ONE of the following describes the orientation of these two bundles in
accordance with 34FH-OPS-001-0, Fuel Movement Operation?
A. Bundle 1 is oriented correctly.
Bundle 2 is oriented INCORRECTLY.
B. Bundle 1 is oriented INCORRECTLY.
Bundle 2 is oriented- correctly.
C~ Both bundles are oriented INCORRECTLY.
D. Both bundles are oriented correctly.
In accordance with 34FH-OPS-001, Section 4.3.5.1, "for spent pool locations, all fuel
bundle orientations must be southwest."
2.2 Equipment Control
2.2.27 Knowled.ge of the refueling process. (CFR: 43.6/45.13) IMPORTANCE RO 2.6 / SRO 3.5
References
Initial Exam Bank item# F15-RF-LP-04502 300.044.A.01 34FH-OPS-001-0 00
34FH-OPS-001-0, Fuel Movement Operation, Sction 4.3.5
Tier:
3
Group:
2
Keyword:
REFUELING
Source:
BANK-MODIFIED
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
115
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
70. G2.2.4001/3/2/RSDP/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes the "B" RHR heat exchanger remote shutdown
panel (RSDP) emergency transfer switch availability and operation? .
A. With the emergency transfer switch in the NORM position, the Unit 2 RHR Hx Inlet
Vlv (2-E11-F047B) can be operated from EITHER the MCR OR the RSDP.
B. The emergency transfer switch for the Unit 1 RHR Hx Bypass Vlv (1-E11-F048B) is
located at the 1H21-P173 RSDP on the 130' elevation.
C~ Unit 1 does not have an emergency transfer switch for the RHRHx Inlet Vlv
(1-E11-F047B) at any of the reactor building RSDPs.
D. Unit 2 does not have an emergency transfer switch for the RHR Hx Inlet Vlv
(2-E11-F047B) at either of the reactor building RSDPs.
A. Incorrect because this feature does not exist on Unit 2 (only Unit 1). Plausible
because this feature exists on Unit 1.
B. Incorrect because this switch is located at panel 1C82-P002, located on the 158'
elevation. Plausible because this switch is located at the main RSDP in Unit 2
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because this switch is located at the main RSDP in Unit 2 (2C82-P001).
Plausible because this switch does not exist on Unit 1.
2.2 Equipment Control
. 2.2.4 (multi-unit) Ability to explain the variations in control board layouts / systems / instrumentation and
procedural actions between units at a facility. (CFR: 45.1-45.13.) IMPORTANCE RO 2.8 / SRO 3.0*
References
C82-RSDP-LP-05201, Remote Shutdown Panel lesson plan
31RS-OPS-001-1/2, Attachment 6, Torus Cooling from the Remote Shutdown Panel
Tier:
3
Group:
2
Keyword:
RSDP
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
116
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
71. G2.3.10 OOl/3/3/RAD CTL/NEW/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Unit 1 was initially operating at reduced power with one control rod inserted due to a
leaking fuel bundle in accordance with 40AC-ENG-014-0, Failed Fuel, Action Level 1.
Subsequently, the main steam line radiation levels began rising to a point where the
crew was required to manually scram and manually close the group 1 isolation valves.
Given this plant condition, which ONE of the following describes the required action(s)
in accordance with 34AB-B21-001-1, Main Steam Line High Rad or Suspected Fuel
Element Failure?
At:' Open the condenser vacuum breakers and then re-close vacuum breakers when
vacuum reaches 3 " hg.
The Main Control Room HVAC is required to be manually started in the
pressurization mode.
B. Open the condenser vacuum breakers and then re-close vacuum breakers when
vacuum reaches 3 " hg.
The Main Control Room HVAC is NOT required to be manually placed in the
pressurization mode.
C. Open the Main Condenser vacuum breaker valves WHEN Turbine speed is less
than 1200 RPM OR steam seal pressure reaches 0 PSIG. Maintain the vacuum
breakers open, i.e., do not start the mechanical vacuum pumps.
The Main Control Room HVAC is required to be manually started in the
pressurization mode.
D. Open the Main Condenser vacuum breaker valves WHEN Turbine speed is less
than 1200 RPM OR steam seal pressure reaches 0 PSIG. Maintain the vacuum
breakers open.
The Main Control Room HVAC is ~OT required to be manually placed in the
pressurization mode.
Friday, September 28, 2007 9:24:18 AM
117
Group:
3
Source:
NEW
Exam:
HT2007-301
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
A..Correct.
B. Incorrect because 34AB-B21-001-1, Step 4.15 requires CB HVAC in pressurization
mode. Plausible if applicant does not know the procedure requirements and question
does not state that any initiating conditions have occurred.
C. Incorrect because the condenser vacuum is required to be maintained at 3" hg lAW
34AB-B21-001-1, Step 4.2.4.3. Plausible if the applicant knows that the MSIVs are
closed but does not know the 34AB-B21-001-1 mitigation strategy for confirmed fuel
failure.
D.
Incorrect because the condenser vacuum is required to be maintained at 3" hg lAW
34AB-B21-001-1, Step 4.2.4.3. Also incorrect because 34AB-B21-001-1, Step 4.15
requires CB HVAC in pressurization mode. Plausible if the applicant knows that the
MSIVs are closed but does not know the 34AB-B21 ~001-1 mitigation strategy for
confirmed fuel failure and if applicant does not know the procedure requirements and
question does not state that any in'itiating conditions have occurred..
2.3 Radiation Control
2.3.10 Ability to perform procedures to reduce excessive levels of radiation and guard against personnel
exposure. (CFR: 43.4/45.10) IMPORTANCE RO 2.9 / SRO 3.3
References:
34AB-B21-001-1, Main Steam Line High Radiation Or Suspected Fuel Element Failure AOP
34AB-C71-001-1, Scram Procedure AOP
Tier:
3
Keyword:
RAD CTL
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Te~:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
118
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
72. G2.3.2 001/3/3/ALARA/BANK MOD/HIGHER/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
An new employee at Plant Hatch told the Radcon personnel that he has an estimated
dose of 1.5 rem Total Effective Dose Equivalent (TEDE) exposure for this year. The
Radcon personnel have documented the estimate in the employees records.
Which ONE of the following is the maximum amount of time this employee can work in
a 100 mr/hr general area field ~ithout exceeding the TEDE adminstrative limit in
accordance with 60AC-HPX-001-0, Radiation Exposure Limits?
ASSUME NO EXTENSIONS ARE APPROVED
A. 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
B. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />
C~ 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
D. 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />
A. Incorrect because the employee still has 500 mr available before the Tier 1 annual
administrative limit is reached. Plausible if applicant thinks that since does is only an
estimate, then the employee is not allowed to work in radiation.
B. Incorrect because this is not the maximum amount of time (as the questions asks).
Plausible if applicant thinks that th-e adminstrative limit is less than 2 R (versus less
than or equal to).
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because this wjll be 500 mr ABOVE the admin limit. Plausible if applicant
thinks that the admin limit is one-half the federal limit of 5 rem.
2.3 Radiation Control
2.3.2 Knowledge of facility ALARA program. (CFR: 41.12/43.4/45.9/45.10)
References
60AC-HPX-001-0, Radiation Exposure Limits
LT-LP-LP30008, Radiation Control Administration and Implementation lesson plan
Initial Exam Bank Item LT-LP-999000 735/LT-LP-30008-00/LT-30008.001
Tier:
3
Group:
3
Keyword:
Source:
BANK MOD
Cog Level:
HIGHER
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
119
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
73. G2.4.29 001/3/4/E-PLAN/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/
An event has occurred and the recognition category designator has been determined
to be "E-HU1."
Based on this designation, which ONE of the following does this event pertain to in
accordance with 73EP-EIP-001-0, Emergency Classification and Initial Actions?
A':! Damage to a loaded dry cask confinement boundary
B.
Partial loss of AC/DC power
C. Degradation or loss of one fission product barrier
D. Unplanned release of liquid effluent
Note: This is a new E-plan at Hatch that will be implemented late Fall '07.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect because the designator begins with S for system related events. Plausible
if applicant does not know recognition category designators.
C. Incorrect because the designator begins with F for fission product barrier events.
Plausible if applicant does not know recognition category designators.
D. Incorrect because the designator begins with R for radiological relea,se events.
Plausible if applicant does not know recognition category designators.
2.4 Emergency Procedures /Plan
2.4.29 Knowledge of the emergency plan. (CFR: 43.5 /45.11) IMPORTANCE RO 2.6 / SRO 4.0
73EP-EIP-001-0, Emergency Classification and Initial Actions (new version)
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword:
Source:
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
4
NEW
HT2007-301
120
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
74. G2.4.45 001/3/4/ANNUNCIATORINEW/FUND/HT2007-30I/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes the significance of an annunciator that has a
white plastic frame?
A. Signifies that the alarm is the result of some plant evolution that is both known and
expected by the operating crew, i.e., expected alarm flag
B. Signifies that the annunciator has been disabled, i.e., "pulled"
C. Signifies that the annunciator corresponds to 31 EO-EOP-014-1, Secondary
Containment Control flowchart.
D. Signifies that the annunciator is a "potential" indicator of a radiological condition.
A. Incorrect because white outline is alarm with potential for being an indication of a
radiological condition. Plausible since "expected" alarms are specifically identified too.
(i.e., yellow flag)
B. Incorrect because white outline is alarm with potential for being an indication of a
radiological condition. Plausible since disabled alarms are specifically identified too.
(i.e., yellow magnet dot)
C. Incorrect because,white outline is alarm with potential for being an indication of a
radiological condition. Plausible since alarms associated with Secondary Containment
Control Table 5 are also specifically identified too. (i.e., they have a label immediately
adjacent to the annunciator, e.g., SC/L-1).
D. Correct.
2.4 Emergency Procedures /Plan
2.4.45 Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm.
(CFR: 43.5 /45.3 /45.12) IMPORTANCE RO 3.3 / SRO 3.6
References
73EP-EIP-018-0, Prompt Offsite Dose Assessment
31-GO-OPS-014-0, Annunciator and Plant Component Control
34AB-T22-003-1, Attachment 8
DI-OPS-59-0896, Operations Mgmt Expectations, Section 5.7
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword:
Source:
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
4
NEW
HT2007-301
BLC/RFA
121
QUESTIONS REPORT
for RO
75. G2.4.7001/3/4/EOP/NEW/FUND/HT2007-301/RO/BLC/RFA
Which ONE of the following describes a condition where a plant parameter is
approaching a value that warrants rapidly depressurizing the RPV to the main
condenser using the bypass valves, irrespective of the cooldown rate, including the
basis for this action?
A.
Reactor water level decreasing due to a loss of high pressure injection (still> TAF)
Preserves the heat capacity of the torus for as long as possible.
B. Reactor wa.ter level decreasing due to a loss of high pressure injection (still> TAF)
Maintains the level instruments with reference legs inside containment ,?perable.
C~ Drywell temperature increasing due to the inability to spray the drywell. (still < 340)
Preserves the heat capacity of the torus for as long as possible.
D. Drywell temperature inGreasing due to the inability to spray the dr'ywell. (still < 340)
Maintains the level instruments with reference legs inside containment operable.
A. Incorrect because the reason for emergency depressurizing to the main condenser
cannot be due to water level decreasing due to a loss of high pressure feed. (steaming
off ,inventory without any feedwater injection, resuling in quickly reaching TAF.)
Plausible since ED is required if level reaches TAF and low pressure injection systems
is available.
B. Incorrect because the reason for emergency depressurizing to the main condenser
cannot be due to water level decreasing due to a loss of high pressure feed. (steaming
off inventory without any feedwater injection, resuling in quickly reaching TAF.)
Also
incorrect becau~e the basis for anticipating emergency depressurization is to avoid
adding heat to the torus. Plausible since the applicant may correlate containment
heatup with reference leg flashing.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect because the basis for anticipating emergency depressurization is to avoid
adding heat to the torus. Plausible since the applicant may correlate containment
heatup with reference leg flashing
2.4 Emergency Procedures /Plan
2.4.7 Knowledge of event based EOP mitigation strategies. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)
References
EOP-RC-LP-20308, RPV Control (Non-ATWS) lesson plan
Tier:
3
Group:
4
Keyword:
Source:
NEW
Cog Level:
FUND
Exam:
HT2007-301
Test:
Author/Reviewer:
BLC/RFA
Friday, September 28,2007 9:24:18 AM
122