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May 2003 Exam 50-348/2003-301 Final SRO Written Exam Revised Per Comments/Appeals
	ML040490448
Person / Time
Site:	Farley
Issue date:	07/03/2003
From:	Ernstes M; Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch
To:	Beasley J; Southern Nuclear Operating Co
References
	50-348/03-301, 50-364/03-301 50-348/03-301, 50-364/03-301
	Download: ML040490448 (104)
	v • d • e

U S . Nuclear Regulatory Commission S ite-Specific SRO Written Examination Applicant Information Vame:

Instructions Jse the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top i f the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 30.00 percent overall, with a 90.00 percent or better on the SRO-onJy items if given in

onjunction with the KO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require an 80.00 percent to

>ass. You have eight hours to complete the combined examination, and three hours if you 3re only taking the SRO portion.

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I Applicant Certification AI1 work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

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IApplicants Signature I

Results 3 0 I SRO-Oniy I Total Examination Values I I Points Wplicant's Scores -1-1- Points Ipplicant's Grade -l-.--I- Percent

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The plant is operating at 95% steady-state power. The crew has been requested to perform an RCS leakage test per STP-9.0, RCS Leakage Test, due to a suspected lea The following events occur:

Time 0800 The OATC verifies reactor power, 86s temperature, pressurizer pressure and levei stabl Time 0840 - The OATC verifies the reactor makeup control system is in automati Chemistry department is notified of the performance of STP- Time 0845: The Shift Chemist secures from taking a primary sampl The QATC verifies VCT level is at 40%.

Time 0900 - Operators commence taking data for STP- Time 0930 - Shift Chemist performs a DF on the in service CVCS demineralize Time 0940 - The QATC completes a 15 gal boration through the boric acid blende Time 0945 - The operators secure from taking STP-9.0 dat After completion of the test, the shift supervisor states that the surveillance is inaccurat Which ONE of the following caused STP8.0 to be inaccurate?

A. A primary sample was taken 15 minutes prior to the start of the surveillanc B. Shift Chemist performance of the BF on the in service CVCS demineralize C. A boration was performed during the surveillanc D. Data was only taken for 45 minute A - Incorrect; Primary samples taken prior to the performance of the SPP will not affect the test. It must be verified that Reactor power and Reactor coolant temperature are constant 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months prior to the tes B - Correct; No sampling of the RCS or CVCS shall be performe C Incorrect; A boration of less than 18 gals wilk invalidate this test due to inaccuracie This boration was in excess of 10 gals and flow was through the boric acid blender only five minutes before data taking was securred. Five minutes is of short enough duration that the subsequent powerltemperature change will not invalidate the dat D - Incorrect; It is preferred that data is taken for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months but in any case at least 30 minute .

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Given the following trends on the l A RCP:

Parameter TIME 0200 0230 0300 0338 Motor winding temp (OF) 312 315 320 324 Pump shaft vibration (mils): 12 13 14 15 Pump frame vibration (mils): 3 4 5 5

I seal DP (psid): 212 223 223 235

I seal outlet temp (OF) 201 220 236 240 Lower seal water BRG temp (OF) I95 200 285 210 Motor lower radial BRG temp(oF) 167 188 195 198 Motor upper radial BRG temp(OF) a67 188 195 198 What is the earliest time that the operators are required to trip 1A RCP?

A. 0200 B. 0230 C. 0300 B. 0330 Source: Modified from Farley Bank Questions #RCP-40301DQ8007 and

RCP-40301D11 046 A Incorrect; Temps do not exceed setpoints ( 225°F for #I

~ seal outlet temp) and Vibs are still low enough lo remain operatin E3 - Inorrect; Vibs are still low enough to remain operatin C - Correct; Vibs per above will call for a reactor trip and turn off the pum Annunciator HI44 7.1 IF FRAME VIBWTION HAS REACHED 5 MILS AND THE RATE OF INCREASE EXCEEDS 0.2 MIL PER HOUR, THEN PERFORM THE FOLLOWING:

7.1.1 TRIP THE REACTOR 7.1.2 STOP THE AFFECTED RCP D - Incorrect; This is not the earliest time but is the time to trip due to shaft vibratio \

The reactor is at 85% power with all systems operating normally. Control bank D is at 225 steps. Control rod H6 rod bottom light energizes, and annunciator FE3, ROB AB BOTTOM, alarms; the reactor does not trip. Reactor power is currently at 78%.

Which ONE of the following describes the required actions that should be taken in response to this event?

A. Reduce turbine load as necessary to match Tavg with Tre B. Attempt to match Tavg with Tref using manual red contro C. Enter AOP-13, Malfunction of Rod Control System, and trip the reacto B. hcrease boron concentration to match Tavg with Tre Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #AOQ-19.0-52520§02 002 Ref: AOP-1 A Correct; IAW BOP-19.0 Steps 1-5 B - Incorrect; Manual rod control is not recognized as an option for returning Tavg to Tre C Incorrect; This is the answer before the change to AOP-19. This is still the answer for multiple dropped rod B Incorrect; Increasing boron concentration would increase the deviation between Tavg and Tref. The RC§ should be dilute .

.- L Unit 1 is operating at power, '1A BAT is "on-service" and '1B' BAT is on "RECIRC".

VCT level has lowered over time as expected due to RCS inventory losses and has reached the auto makeup setpoint. An auto makeup to the VCP has starte Which ONE of the following correctly lists the pump($) which will be started in response to the auto makeup signal?

A. 1B reactor makeup water pump and 1A boric acid pump will start B. 1B reactor makeup water pump only, 1B boric acid pump is already running C. I A reactor makeup pump and ? A boric acid pump will start B. 1A reactor makeup water pump only, 1B boric acid pump is already running Source: Farley Question Bank Question #FUM/U-40301607 A - Correct; Per OPS-52101G the 1B makeup water pump starts on auto makeup signal and the 1A 'on-service' BAT pump will star B - Incorrect; 1A BAT pump start circuitry is independent of the other BAT pump run circuitr C - Incorrect, The ? A makeup water pump does not start on auto makeup to the VCT, it starts on the manual, dilute and alt dilut D - Incorrect; The I A makeup water pump does not start on auto makeup to the VCT, it starts on the manual, dilute and alt dilute. 1A BAT pump start circuitry is independent of the other BAT pump run circuitr .

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Which ONE of the following explains the bases for controlling the volume control tank (VCT) pressure with hydrogen when the plant is at power?

A. To provide adequate suction pressure during multiple charging pump start B. To provide adequate charging pump recirculation backpressure during normal operation C. To ensure proper coolant flow across RCP seal # D. Ensures hydrogen concentration in the RCS is controlled for oxygen scavenging Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #CVCS-40301FO2 021 A - Incorrect; The minimum voBurne in the VCT provides adequate suction pressure for the charging pumps the pressure requirement Is for seal flow m d Oxygen contro E3 - Incorrect; The charging pump miniflow recirculation lines which return to the VCB contain orifices to provide back pressur C - Incorrect; This is the reason that the VCP is controlled at a minimum of 18 psig but not the reason for using Hydroge B - Correct; During plant startup from a cold shutdown condition, hydrazine is added as an oxygen scavenging agent. Hydrazine is not used at any time other than startup from the cold shutdown condition. The hydrazine solution enters the RC§ in the same manner as LiOH. In order to control and scavenge oxygen produced by radiolysis of water in the core region, hydrogen from the waste processing system is added to the VCT to maintain a hydrogen concentration of 25 to 50 cc/kg of reactor coolant. A pressure regulating valve maintains a minimurn pressure of 28 to 20 psig in the vapor space of the VCT and can be adjusted to provide the correct hydrogen concentratio .

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Given the following:

- Unit Iis operating at 100% powe Unit 2 has experienced a loss of site power (LOSP) while in mode Which ONE of the following describes the power that the 2A and 2B WHR pumps will be supplied from?

(Assume all systems and components operate properly.)

A. RHR pump 2A: I-2A Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bu RHR pump 2B: 28 Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bu B. RHR pump 2A: 1-28 Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bu RHR pump 28: 2B Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bu . RHR pump 28: 28 Diesel Generator through the 2 6 4260 Volt bu RHR pump 28: 1-2 A Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bu B. WHR pump 2A: 2B Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bu RHW pump 2B: 1-2A Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bu Source: Modified from Farley Test Bank Question #RHR-40301 KO6 OPS 40301K - A pump is the A train pump BUS SIU Xfmr 2 (2)A SIU Xfmr l(2)B 1/2A Diesel Gen 160V Bus G SIU Xfmr l(2)B SIU Xfmr 1(2)A 1(2)B Diesel Gen

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A. Correct - The I-2A 86 will st& and align to the 2F 4160V bus and 28 DG will start and align to the 2G 4160V bu B. Incorrect - The 1-2A DG will start but does not align to the 2G 4160V bus and 28 DG wili start but does not align to the 2F 4160V bus. (Correct DG, Wrong bus)

6. Incorrect - The 1-28 DG will start but does not align to the 2G 4160V bus and RHR pump 2 8 is not powered from the 2 6 416OVbus; and 2B BG will start but does not align to the 2G 4160V bus and RHW pump 28 is not powered from the 2F 4760V bu (Wrong BG, Wrong bus)

D.Incorrect - The 1-2A QG will start but does not align to the 2G 4160V bus altough, RHR pump 28 is powered from the 2G 426OVbus; and 2B DG will start but does not align to the 2F 4160V bus although, RHR pump 2A is powered from the 2F 4160V bu (Wrong BG, Correct bus)

h. Unit 1 has just completed a shutdown to Mode 5 with both trains of WHR in servic The operators are in the process of placing the 'B' train RHR in standb 'K train RHR flow has been increased from 1500 gpm to 2300 gpm on the discharge of 'Atrain RHR pum 'B' train WHR Row has been decreased from 1500 gpm to 900 gpm on the discharge of '5' train WHW pum ~ The RHR miniflow valve controls are in the 'AUTO' positio Which ONE of the following describes the position of the RHR miniflow control valves?

FCV-602A FCV-602B CLOSED CLOSED OPEN CLOSED CLOSED OPEN 6 OPEN OPEN A - Correct; For Unit 1 the RHR miniflow valves do not go OPEN until RHR pump discharge flow decreases below 750 gpm and are CLOSED when RHR pump discharge flow is above 1399 gpm. With both pumps initially being above 1399 gpm and not yet less than 750 gpm, both FCV-602A & B will be CLOSE B - incorrect; For Unit 1 the RHW miniflow valves do not go QPEN until RHW pump discharge flow decreases below 750 gp C - Incorrect; Correct for Unit 2, the RHR miniflow valves go OPEN when RHR pump discharge flow decreases below 1334 gprn and are CLOSED when RHR pump discharge flow is above 2499 gp D- Incorrect; Correct if thought that valves were controlled off of total WHW flo \.-

nd cannot be closed.

A. When accumu accumulators an the 1B accumulator to prevent more cold water to the reactor vessel a accumulators and vent t e amount of nitrogen injected points, potentially resulting in a C. immediately vent the 1B accumulato t the amount of nitrogen injected into the loops that could accumulate at s high points, potentially resulting in a

"hard" bubble in the pressurize possibility of gas binding of Reactor Coolant Pumps whe

ESP-1.2-52!531F03 A - Incorrect; Correct E3 - Correct; Per -52530C Page 23 c+ W!&L ~~~~~ hM Given the following:

- ECP-O.Q, "Loss of All AC Power", has the operator verify the RCS is isolated by verifying HV-8149A, HV-8149B, and HV-8149C9letdown isolation valves, are close The RNO is to check HV-8175A and HV-81755, letdown line penetration room isolation valve Which ONE of the following is the reason HV-8149A, B, and C are checked preferentially to HV-8175A and HV-8175B?

A. Keeps the loss of coolant accident inside containmen B. Prevents flashing in the regenerative heat exchange C. Prevents RCS flow to the PRT via the letdown relief lin B. To prevent inadvertant closure of kCV-459 and 46 Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EC-0.0/.4.2-52%32A58008 Reference: ECP- A - Incorrect; a loss of coolant due to a loss of all AC power would be from the RCP seals and letdown isolation does not impact the seal failur B - Incorrect; both the 8149 or 8175 valves would stop flashing in the heat exchange C - Correct; the reason for isolating letdown is to conserve inventory in the RC D - Incorrect; closing either set of valves would not close LCV-459 and 46 I A leak has deveroped in the ' A RCP thermal barrier heat exchanges. CCW train ' A is the in service trai Which ONE of the following describes the correct sequence of events that would occur with no operator involvement?

A. AA4 (AM), CCW SRG TK LVL A (3)TRN HMO, annunciator lit; DD2, RCP THRM BARR CCW FLOW HI, annunciator lit; CCW from RCP THWM BARK HX HI FLOW Isolation Valves, HV-3045 and HV-3184 go closed B. AA4 (AB4), CCW SRG TK LVL A (B) TRN HI-LO, annunciator lit; HV-3184, RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed; BD2, RCP THRM BARR CCW FLOW HI, annunciator lit; HV-3045, KCP THRM BARR HX HB FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed C. M 4 (AB.$), CCW SRG TK LVL A (B) TRN HI-LO annunciator lit; DD2, RCF THRM BARR CCW FLOW HI, annunciator [it; HV-3045, RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed; HV-3$84, RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW lsolation Valve, goes closed; BB3, CCW FLOW FROM RCP OIL CbRS LO, annunciator lit D. HV-3184, WCP THWM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed; AA4 (AB4), CCW SRG TK LVL A (5) TRN HI-LO, annunciator lit

A - Correct, The CCW leak from the higher pressure RCS source into the CCW system causes CCW tank level to increase ( M 4 ) ; high flow in the CCW line from the RCS fluid causes DD2 to alarm and HV-3045 to shut stopping flow; Pressure increases in CCW pipping and shuts HV-3185 in order to prevent overpressurization of the CCW system.

Pressure and flow are sensed on the thermal barrier CCW discharge line. The pressure sensors (PI-3184A, B, and C) signal HV-3184 to shut when pressure increases to 75 psig. Flow element FE-3045 shuts HV-3045 if the flow increases to 160 gpm.

B Incorrect; Once HV-3184 is closed flow will no longer be going past FE-3045 therefore, 882 will not alarm if if had not done prior to the closing of HV-3184 and HV-3045 will not get a close signal.

C - Incorrect; The closing of the HV-3045 and HV-3184 does not affect the flow path through the RCP oil cooler.

D - Incorrect; Once HV-3284 goes closed no more fluid is added to the CCW surge tank therefore, if this alarm did not alarm prior to the closing of HV-3184 if will not alarm afterward (unless check valves in the CCW to thermal barrier leak and this would not be a reasonable argument). The thermal barrier check valves shali isolate the CCWS piping upstream of the RCPs from the RCS in the event of a rupture of the reactor coolant pump thermal barrier. On a thermal barrier failure, the check valves shall prevent a pressure transient from propagating to the low pressure pipin \_

1 Given the foilowing plant conditions:

- Unit 1 RCS has a stuck open pressurizer safety valv Appropriate Operator response actions have been take Pressurizer pressure is stable at 1350 psi ~ Containment temperature is 1 5 5 ~ ~ .

- Actual pressurizer bevel is 50%.

Select the combination below that fills in the foilowing blanks concerning the effects of these conditions on the pressurizer level indicated on level channel 1 (459) indicato The affect of pressurizer pressure at 1358 psig will cause the indicated pressurizer level to read actual level; the affect of containment temperature at 155'F tends to make the indicated pressurizer level read than actual leve A. (X) Below; (V) Higher 3. (X) Below; ( Y ) Lower C. (X) Above; ( Y ) Higher D. (X) Above; (Y) Lower REF: Farley Exam Bank #1286, E-Q/ESP-Q.0-52530A0601 1

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Unit 2 is in MODE 3 at 547? and 2235 psig when a fault condition results in the loss of the 2 8 4160V bus. In order to stabilize RCS pressure, the RO manually energizes the available backup heaters and attempts to control WCS pressure by manually operating the pressurizer spray valve Which ONE of the following statements best describes the required control board actions necessary to stabilize pressure?

A. Loop A spray valve, PK-444C, should be manually closed and loop B spray valve, PK444D must be used to control pressur . hoop B spray valve, PK-444C, should be manually closed and loop C spray valve, PK-444D: must be used to control pressur C. Loop C spray valve, PK-4442, should be manually ciosed and loop 5 spray valve, PK-444D, must be used to control pressur D. Loop B spray valve, PK-4448, should be manually closed and loop A spray valve, PK-444C, must be used to control pressur Source: Farley Test Bank Question #PZR PRSILVL-52201H I I009 Ref: AOP- A. Correct B. Incorrect, Wrong loops referenced for both PK-444C and 444 C. Incorrect, Wrong loop referenced for PK-444 B. Incorrect, PK-444D used to control pressure. PK-444C is isolated due to loss of 2 8 WC .

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Which QNE of the following describes why the pressurizer spray valves have a continuous flow design feature?

Provides adequate Row to:

A. maintain variable heater output at a minimum value to prevent heater burnou B. maintain the surge line warm to prevent severe thermal shock associated with a pressurizer insurg C. prevent PRZW/WCS differential temperature limits from being exceede B. prevent spray nozzle from experiencing severe thermal shock upon initiation of spray flo Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #PZR PRSAVb-52201H02 003 A - Incorrect; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve does not provide adequate flow, procedures have been modified Lo ensure adequate spray flow is provided for this by the energizing of Pzr heater B - Incorrect; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve does not provide adequate flo C -Incorrect; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve does not provide adequate flo D - Correct; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve will provide adequate flow to keep the spray valves war _.

$ Unit 1 has experienced a reactor trip. The crew had transitioned to ESP-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, when a large break LOCA occurre SI actuation did not occur and the operators are unable to start any HHSi pump ~ RCPs are runnin ~ A loss of containment integrity caused containment pressure to peak at 10 psi The crew is verifying each train of CCW started per step 6 of EEP-0.0, Reactor trip or Safety Injection when the STA reports that RCS subcooling has decreased to O' Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response to this situation?

A. Trip all running RCQs and remain in EEP- . Do not trip the running RCPs and remain in EEP-0 C. Transition to FRP-C.l, "Response to Inadequate Core Cooling" B. Transition to FRP-(2.2, "Response to Degraded Core Cooling".

Source: Farky Exam Bank Question #E-0/ESP-0.0-52530A06 002 Ref: EEP-0 A - Incorrect; EEP-Qfold out page WCP trip criteria has not been met due to failure of the HHSl pumps 3 ~ Correct; RCP's are not tripped by fold out page criteria. Transition criteria to other procedures have not been me C incorrect; Transition to FRP-C.1 is made if CETC's are > 2200 OF, this can not be the case if subcooling has just decreased to 0 O F with a COCA in progres B - Incorrect; Transition to FRP-C.2 is made if CETC's are > 700 OF, this can not be the case if subcooling has just decreased to 0 O F with a LOCA in progres .

Given the following conditions on Unit 2 :

Reactor Power at 100%.

~ Pressurizer level control system in automati The median Tavg signal to the level control system fails to 500' Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the pressurizer level control system?

A. Charging will reduce to a minimum, HA2, "PRZR LVL DEV HI BIU HTRS ON;"

annunciator will actuate, pressurizer level will fall to 21.4% and stabiliz B. Charging will reduce to minimum, HB2, "PRZR LVL BEV LO" annunciator will actuate, pressurizer level will fall to 211.4% and stabiliz C. Charging will increase ta I 2 0 gpm, "HA2, "PRZR LVL DEV HI EIU HTRS ON" annunciator will actuate, pressurizer level will rise, eventually the reactor will trip on high pressurizer level at 92%.

D. Charging will increase to 120 gpm: HB2, "PRZR LVL BEV LO" annunciator will actuate, pressurizer level will rise to 54.9% and stabiliz Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #PZW PWS/LVL-52201H I 2 005 A - Correct; Charging will reduce to a minimum and the alarm will come in. It actuates at +5% above normal program value and normal value is now 21.4%.

B - Incorrect; Charging will reduce to 547 value of 21.4 % and the Pzr dev lo annun. will not actuate at -5% below program value bic level will be above program Beve C & D - Incorrect; charging will not increase because actual level is now seen as greater than program level, charging flow wi[l decreas . - -

Which ONE of the following contains ONLY protective trips that are intended to protect the reactor from a DNB concern?

A. QTBT, Low pressurizer pressure, and QPB B. Lo-Lo SGWL, Low pressurizer pressure, and QPD C. QTDT, bow pressurizes pressure, and Reactor coolant low Row trip . Reactor coolant low flow trips, Lo-Le SGWL, and High pressurizer Leve Source: Farley 2000 NRC Exam A - Incorrect; OPDT (overpower concern) is not a DNB concer B - Incorrect; Lo-Lo SGWL (preserves heat sink) and QPBT are not BNB concern C - Correct B - incorrect; Lo-bo SGWL and high pressurizer level (Hi Pressurizer pressure concern)

are are not E concern . -

A large-break LO68 occurs combined with a malfunction of the ESF sequencers which results in delaying the energizing of ESF components. Which ONE of the following is correct concerning the effects on the fuel during this situation?

A. Cladding failure can occur as the core experiences an uncontrolled cooling due to vaporization of reactor coolan B. Structural integrity cars be lost as delayed cooling can lead to fuel temperatures in excess of ECCS acceptance criteria, resulting in excessive clad oxidation and weakenin C. Minimal effects will be seen as reflux cooling is sufficient to cool the core for up to ten minutes after the onset of a large break IBC .A natural circulation cooldown of the fuel can be adversely impacted due to excessive reactor coolant blowdow Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #DG SEQ-40102BO2 011 3 - Correct; Failure to provide ESF flow to the core wiil result in increasing fuel temperatures resulting in structural integrity los . ._ -

Unit 1 is operating at 45% power when the following annunciators come into alarm:

- Annunciator DC2, RCP #I SEAL LKOF FLOW HI

- Annunciator DC3, RCP #'ISEAL. LO D The RQ referred to the appropriate ARPs, then determined that #I seal leakoff flow was off-scale high and the #1 seal DP was indicating off-scale lo Which ONE. of the following describes the correct sequence of actions required for the above situation?

A. Close the #I seal return valve, ramp down power Lo less than 30% and remove the affected RCP from service within 30 minute B. Close the #I seal return valve, trip the reactor, then stop affected RC C. Ramp down power to less than 30%, stop affected RCP, then close the #I seal return valve after RCP coastdow D. Trip the reactor, stop affected RCP, then close the #I seal return valve after RCP coastdow Source: Farley Test Bank Question ICE-QIESP-0.0-52530802022 A - incorrect; Actions of ARP DC3 if #I Seal Leakoff valve is not ope B - Incorrect; Incorrect order of actions, the #I Seal Leakoff valve should not be shut until after the reactor is tripped and the RCP securre C - Incorrect; These actions will get the affected RCP off line but a reactor trip is required per the applicable AR D - Correct; These are the actions required by ARP BC2 (Step 4 RNQ) for Seal Leakoff greater than 8 gp .".i 1 Given the following Unit 1 initial plant conditions:

- Steam generator level on progra Turbine load at 50%.

Which ONE of the following plant conditions demonstrates the EARLIEST time when AMSAC will actuate?

2/3Steam Generator Steady State Turbine Load NR Level PP-2446 PT-2447 A. Time0700 15% 45% 46%

B. Time0705 11% 42% 43%

C. Time0710 9% 40% 41 %

D. Time0715 5% 38% 39%

Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #SG PROP-52201KO7 008 A Incorrect; AMSAC will not be actuated because S/G levels are too high with turbine

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power above 40%.

B - Incorrect; AMSAC will not be actuate because SG levels are too high with turbine power above 40%.

C Correct; AMSAC will actuated because SG levels are below 10% with turbine power above 40%.

D - Incorrect; AMSAC wil! not actuate even with SG levels below 10% since turbine power is below 40%.

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2 Given the following:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% powe * All controls are in the normal fuil power lineu Pressurizer level is failin e VCT level is risin RCP SEAL INJ FLOW LO alarm Is li REGEN HX LPBN FLOW DISC# TEMP HI alarm is li * CHG HDR FLOW HI-LO alarm is li Which ONE of the following describes the event that has occurred?

A. Loss of chargin B. Letdown isolatio C. Small break LQC D. Pressurizer PBRV failed ope Source: Farley Exam Bank Question ktCVCS-40301F07 032 REFERENCE I.1-ARP EA2, DDI, DE1 A - Correct; all conditions given would be a result of loss of all charging flo B - Incorrect; During a loss of letdown, PRZR level would be rising and VCT level would be lowerin C & B - Incorrect; If a SBLOCA or PORV OPEN had occurred, PRZR level could be falling (depending on break size) but VCT level would also be falling due to increased charging flow and constant LTDN flow. REGEN HX LTDN FLQW BlSCH TEMP HI alarm would also not be in because there is max. cooling occuring due to the high CHG flow. CHG HBR FLOW HI-LO alarm and RCP SEAL INJ FLOW LO alarm could both be in alar . Plant conditions are as follows:

- Unit 1 was at 100% reactor powe Unit 2 was in Mode A dual-unit Loss of Qffsite Power has occurre All EDGs have started and tied onto the vital buse ~ Vital load sequencing has been complete FNP-2-EEP-6, "REACTOR TRIP OF? SAFETY INJECTlQN" has been entered on Unit While the immediate actions are being completed, a Safety injection (SI) signal is received en Unit Which ONE of the foliowing describes the response of the Unit I.Containment Fan Coolers from the time the SI signal is received?

A. Ab1 fan coolers load shed on the SI signal and sequence back onto the vital buses in slow spee B. All fan coolers load shed on the SI signal, and selected fan coolers sequence back onto the vital buses in slow spee C. Selected fan coolers do NOT load shed on the SI signal, and the non-selected fan coolers remain de-energiz D. Selected fan coolers do NOT lead shed an the SI signal, and the non-selected fan coolers sequence back onto the vital buses in slow spee Source: Farley NRC Exam 2001 Original Source: Farley NRC Exam 1999 A - Incorrect, The selected fan coolers do not load shed for the given condition B - Incorrect, The selected fan coolers do not load shed for the given condition C- CQrFeCt D - Incorrect, The nonselected fans do not start on an SI with LO .

Unit 1 is in Mode 4 with 'A'Train RHW in service and the following conditions:

1 B RHR Pump is out of service for maintenance e The "B" Train of SFP cooling is in service

CCW SRG TK LVL A(B) TRN HllbQ annunciators M 4 ( A B 4 ) are received and it is confirmed that surge tank level is increasin RE-017B, 'A' Train CCW radiation monitor, indicates increasing radiation leveis in the CCW syste Which ONE of the following most correctly describes the cause and operator response fur the plant conditions above?

A. The 1A RHR pump seal cooler has developed a leak. CCW can be isolated to the seal cooler so long as RHR temperature does not exceed 150° B. The l A RHR heat exchanger has developed a tube leak. 'A'Train RHR must be shut down and AOP-12, " Kesidual Heat Removal System Malfunction," should be entere C. The 1A RHR heat exchanger has developed a tube leak. 'A'Train CCW must be shut down; however, operation of 'A' Train RHR may continu D. The 1A CCW heat exchanger has deveEoped a tube leak. Operatiun of ' A Train CCW may continu Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-I 2.0-52520b02 A - Incorrect; Seals are cooled by RCS fluid circulated through an externai heat exchanger cooled by CC B - Correct; An RHR heat exchanger leak will result in inleakage to the CCW system that will show up as increased surge tank level and increased radiation level C - Incorrect; AOP-12 should be entered to establish an alternate means of BH D Incorrect; AOP-12 should be entered to establish an alternate means of BH ~

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Given the following conditions: r n D hjfdSdW &Id dkk &

- Unit 1 has experienced a significant LOC The plant has tripped;

- SI has actuated and has not been reset;

- All components and systems have operated as designe Per E P - 1 Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, CCW flow has been established to both trains of RHR when Annunciator AA4(AB4), CCW SWG TK LVL A(B) TRN HI-LO, alarm came in. followed shortly by Annuciator 865,CCW SRG TK LVL 6 TRN LO-LO, alarm

- The OATC reported the following:

- the 1A CCW Pump has tripped on overload,

- the I B CCW Pump is in AUTO not running and is aligned to 'A' Train,

- the 1C CCW Pump is running,

- the 'B' train surge tank level is continuing to decreas Which ONE of the following best describes this situation?

A. The 1B CCW pump should not have started. Attempts to refill the surge tank should be made and the I C Chg and 1B RHR pumps should be immediately secure B. The I B CCW pump should have started. AOP-9.0, Loss of Component Cooling Water. should be entere C. The IF3 CCW pump should not have started. AOP-9.0, Loss of Component Cooling Water, should be entere D. The 1B CCW pump should have started. However, the 1B CCW pump shouDd not-be started, and all A train CCW loads should be secure Ref: AOP- A - Correct; With the swing pump (IB CCW) aligned to the A train ( I C CCW pump) the tripping of the l A CCW pump on overcurrent would not cause the swing pump to start even with an SI signal. Attempts should be made to fill the surge tank and the swing pump starte B - Incorrect; The swing pump will not automatically start unless aligned to that trai D - incorrect; The swing pump will not automatically start unless aligned to that trai L 2 What prevents clogging of the containment spray nozzles following a design loss of coolant accident while on recirculation?

A. Anti-vortex blades create a centrifugal force to keep large particles and debris from entering the sump suction . Duplex filters on the discharge of the pumps remove particles large enough to clog the spray nozzle C. The screens in the recirculation sump will block any particles big enough to clog the nozzle B. Accident analysis assumes that there will be no particles or debris loose in containment that will be larger than the spray nozzle opening Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #CS&COOL40302DO2 086 The spray nozzles, which are of the hollow cone design, are Rot subject to clogging by particles less than ?/4 inch in size and produce a small drop size that will maximize the total cooling and iodine removal surface area when operating at the design pressure differential of 40 psi. The stainless steel spray nozzles have a 3/8 inch diameter orifice, which is larger than the 0.120 inch (1/8 inch) screen grating covering the containment sumps. Therefore, all particles large enough to clog the nozzles will be screened out before entering the recirculation pipin A - Incorrect; anti-vortex blades are present in the sump suction to improve flow conditions to the pumps, thus minimizing the potential for cavitatio B - Incorrect; there are no filters on the discharge of the pump C - Correct; screens on the recirc sumps have openings sized such that particles and debris large enough to clog the spray nozzles can not gel past the screen D - Incorrect; accident analysis assumes that particles and debris will be blocked from entering the spray pump suctions by the sump screen .

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Unit 2 is at 100% power when the following occurs:

~ Annunciator HCl, PRZR PRESS HI-LO, comes into alar It has been determined that a failure of the controlling pressurizer pressure channel has occurred and actual pressure is 2315 psig. The Pressurizer Pressure Master Controller M/A station PK-4448 has been taken to MANUA Which ONE of the following describes the action required to return actual pressure to its normal value?

A. increase the M/A station output (% demand).

B. Decrease the MlA station output (% demand).

C. Raise the pressure setpoint adjustmen D. Lower the pressure setpoint adjustmen Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #PZR PRS/bVL-52201HQ8052 A - Incorrect; This will cause pressure to increase further by the energizing of heater B - Correct; This will cause the spray valve(s) to open resulting in a decrease in pressure returning pressure to the normal value of 2235 psi C - Incorrect; This is the wrong direction to adjust the setpoint and with the controller in manual this will be ineffectiv D - incorrect: With the controller in manual this will be ineffective

2 Plant conditions are as follows:

Unit 1 has just completed a refueling outage and is in Mode During the outage the trisodium phosphate (TSP) crystals were removed from 2 of the 3 basket Due to an oversight the 2 baskets were not refilled with TS Which ONE of the following states the consequences these conditions would have if a design-basis LOCA were to occur after the plant is started up and operated at full power for several days?

A. The ability of the emergency core cooling system to maintain the core cool would be affected and could result in significant core damag B. Iodine levels in the containment atmosphere for the long term would NOT be affected since it would be removed by the containment spray syste C. The ability of the sump water to maintain iodine in solution would be limited due to the reduced amount of TSP available in the containment sum D. There would be no effect since 1 TSP basket containing the minimum volume of crystals is adequate to perform ECCS recirculation fluid pH contro Source: Farley exam bank Question #CS&COOL-40302BI $

A. Incorrect - TSP provides pH range for keeping radioiodine in solution and mitigating the impact to stainless steel components due to the low pH of the RWST solution; has no impact on the ability to cool the core B. Incorrect - Containment spray removes radioiodine and PSP required to maintain radioiodine in solution in the ECCS sump C. Correct - A reduce volume of TSP would result in a reduced ability to maintain radioiodine in solution in the ECCS sump D. Incorrect Technical specifications requires 3 TSP baskets; each at minimum

~

volume to mitigate the consequences related to fuel damage and fission product release, in particular - radioiodine, as a result of a design basis LOC .-

2 Given the following plant conditions:

- A large break LBCA has occurred on Unit 2 thirty minutes ag Hydrogen concentration inside containment is 4.5%.

Which ONE of the following actions should be taken to reduce hydrogen concentration?

A. Place only one eiectric hydrogen recombiner in service within the next 30 minutes by first verifying the PWR ADJ potentiometer is set to zero (0) prior to turning on the PWR OUT switch and then set at a power setting of 100 kilowatt B. Place the post accident containment venting system in service within the next 30 minutes and reset the vent flow integrator (FQI-3533) to zero prior to commencing the venting flow by depressing the reset push button located on the BO C. Place the post accident Containment venting system in service within the next 30 minutes and reset the vent flow integrator (FQI-3533) to zero prior to commencing the venting flow by de-energizing the flow intergator using the QN-OFF switch on the Hydrogen Recombiner Control Pane D. Place both eDectric hydrogen recombiners in service within the next 38 minutes aa by first verifying the PWR ADJ potentiometer is set to zero (0) prior to turning on the PWW OUT switches and then set each at a power setting of 50 kilowatt Source: Modified from Farley Bank Questions #POST LOCA-40302E09 & #POST LOCA-40302EI 1 A - Incorrect; Hydrogen recombiners are not used when hydrogen concentration is above 4%.

B - Correct; The post accident venting system is placed into service within one hour of the LOCA and is operated from the BOP C - Incorrect; This is not how the feow integrator is set to zer D Incorrect; Hydrogen recombiners are not used when hydrogen concentration is

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above 4%.

I 2 Due to an anticipated transient without a trip, FRP-S.1, "RESPONSE TO NUCLEAR POWER GENERATION/ATWT". is entere The following conditions exist:

- Reactor trip breakers A & B indicating lights are RE All four (4) turbine throttle valves are closed, and all available AFW pumps are runnin While performing step 6 of FRP-S.1, the Reactor trip breakers are opened locall Which ONE of the following should the team perform?

A. Perform the first 15 steps of EEP-0 while continuing with FRP- B. Transition to EEP-0, perform the first 15 steps of EEQ-U,then return to FWP-S.I .

C. Immediately return lo procedure and step in effect, Le., EEP- D. Continue with procedure and step in effect, Le., FRP- Source: Modified from Farley Bank Questions #FRP-S-52533A08 007 &

FRP-S-52533808 004 REFERENCE: FWP- A incorrect; FWP-S.1 is entered, you can not leave the procedure until directe ~

B Incorrect; Returning to EEP-0 is not warranted since FRP-S.1 has not been

~

complete Incorrect; FRP-S.1 would be completed to transitio B - Correct; Would continue with FRP-S.1 until step 14 is complete regardless of Rx trip breaker statu La_

2 Given the following plant conditions:

A loss of all A 6 power has occurred on Unit The actions required by ECP-0.0, LOSS OF ALL AC POWER, are in progres SG atmospheric relief valves are being controlled locally to reduce SG pressure to less than 200 psi * A low steam line pressure SI signal has been receive * Steam line pressure is 358 psig and RCS cold leg temperatures are at 325' You notice both channels of Source Range startup rate go positive then fail lo The STA monitoring the CSF status trees informs the shift supervisor that there is a yellow path on subcriticalit Intermediate range startup rate is reading a sustained +0.2 dp Which ONE of the following actions should be taken?

A. Begin an emergency boralio B. Stop dumping steam and allow the plant heat up to add negative reactivit C. Continue to lower SG pressure to 200 psi D. Proceed immediately to FRP- Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EC-O.O/.I .2-52532A06 002 Ref: ECP- JUSTIFICATION:

a. Emergency boration would be an action to mitigate the positive SUR, but cannot be done without AC powe b. If SUR is above zero the ECP-0.0 RNO requires securing dumping steam to heat up the RCS and establish subcriticaiity. SR must be assumed to have reflected actual conditions in the core before it was lost since lR indications are not consistant with a subcritical core (IR SUR <-.3DPM)

c. If SUR is above zero the ECP-O.O RNO requires local control of atmospheric relief valves to raise SG pressur d. While in ECP-0.0, CSFs are monitored for information onl .-. .-

3 EEP-3, "Steam Generator Tube Rupture", is in progress, and an RCS cooldown is desired. The ruptured SG pressure is 920 psig. Desired subcooling is 35-37°F. The RCPs are running, and the plant computer is inoperable. Normal at power CTMT parameters exis What temperature indicator should be used and at what temperature should the RCS cooldown be stopped?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. Core exit T/C monitor indicating 485° B. Core exit W C monitor indicating 499° C. WR hot leg temperatures indicating 485° D. WR hot leg temperatures indicating 499° Source Farley Bank Question #EEP-3-52530D07 001 Ref: EEP-3

3 The plant is operating at 100% power with all controls in automatic. Without warning, PRZW level and RCS pressure begin decreasing. Charging flow automatically increases, and the PRZR heaters energize. Normal letdown Row isolates, and PRZR heaters de-energize on low PRfR level. Simultaneously with LOW PRZR level indications, high radiation indications from the air ejector radiation monitor and blowdown line radiation monitors are received in the control room. The reactor trips, and safety injection occurs on low pressurizer pressur Which ONE of the following is the explains the cause of the plant response and the current indications?

A. Main steam line break E?. Main feed line break c. SGTR D. RCS cold leg break Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EEP-3-52530D02 002 Reference: EEP9

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A Incorrect; This does not explain the presence of the high radiatio B - Incorrect; this does not explain the presence of the high radiation atarms C - Correct: These are indications of a SGT I3 Incorrect; Does not explain the high radiation at the locations give L 3 Unit 1 is at 32% power and ramping up. All systems are in automatic and controlling properly. Control bank "D" is at 92 steps and controlling RCS temperatur A DEH control system maifunction results in a turbine trip. The control rods drive into the core 12 steps prior to being taken to MANUAL. The control rods and the steam dumps are used to restore reactor power to 32%. Bank "B" control rods were raised to 65 steps. The generator trips 30 seconds after the turbine trip. The 4160V buses 'lA, 1B and I C transfer to the startup transformer Which ONE of the following describes the action@)should be taken in accordance with AOP-3.0, Turbine Trip Below P-9 Setpoint?

A. Reduce reactor power to between 8% and 15%, slowly open the atmospheric relief valves to close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure mode of operatio B. Initiate an emergency boration in order to bring the control rods above the le40 insertion limi . Reduce reactor power to less than 8%, slowly open the atmospheric relief valves to close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure mode of operatio D. Maintain reactor power and slowly open the atmospheric relief valves to close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure mode of operatio Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AQP-3.0-52520C04 082 A - Incorrect; Power level is incorrect, power level is for steam dumps aiready being in steam pressure mod B - Incorrect; This is performed id it is desirable to leave the rods in auto C - Correct; Per step 9 of AOP-3.0 and SOP18.0, Steam Bump System D - Incorrect; Power level is incorrect, power level is for steam dumps already being in steam pressure mod .

Given the following:

In EEP-2, "Faulted Steam Generator Isolation", the operator is cautioned that any faulted steam generator should remain isolated during subsequent recovery actions unless needed as a heat sink for RCS cooldow Which ONE of the following is the reason for the caution?

A. AFW pumps could reach run-out flow and cavitate, causing damage to the pumps and possibly rendering them inoperabl B. Additional steaming from the SG will increase the likelihood of damaging other equipment, power supplies, or instrumentation in the vicinity of the brea C. Un-isolating a faulted steam generator could cause an KCS cooldown and risk an inadvertent return to criticalit . Reestablishing feed flow to the faulted steam generator would cause SI to reactuate on high steam flow and interfere with the RCS cooidown to Mode Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EEP-2-52530C03 001 Reference: EEP-2 C - Correct

- -

3 The plant is in UOP-3.1, "POWER OPERATION," at 33% power and ramping u All systems are in automatic and controlling properly. Steam dumps are in the Tavg mode and the control rods are at 72 steps on control bank 'C A malfunction of the DEH control system results in a turbine tri The rod control system is placed in manual and used with the steam dumps to stabilize reactor power at 33%.

- Steam dump control is then inadvertantly transferred from the Tavg mode to the steam pressure mod Which one of the following describes, for the conditions given, assuming NO further operator action, what will be the response of the piant?

A. WCS temperature will decrease and pressurizer level will decreas B. RCS temperature will increase and pressurizes level will increas C. Steam dumps will modulate to bring steam header pressure to the steam dump controller setpain D. No effect in steam pressure mode. The steam dumps will continue to control RCS temperatur Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam Original Source: Farley exam bank: Question # 052520C06003 A Incorrect, this is the action 16 the steam dumps were to fly ope B Correct, the steam dumps immediately close when the switch is taken from Tavg mode to Steam pressure mod C - Incorrect, steam pressure control output shifts to stearn pressure mode in manual with an output of zer B - Incorrect, this is the action if the steam dumps continued to operate in the Tavg mod L 3 Unit 4 is at 60% power and slowly ramping u Which ONE of the following conditions will fiFst result in the loss of condenses steam dumps?

A. One of the two running Circulating water pumps breaker trips open on overcurren . One of the Condenser vacuum switches indicates less than 8 inches of mercur C. Both of the Condenser vacuum switches indicate less than 8 inches of mercur D. Both of the Condenser vacuum switches indicate less than 10.8 inches of mercur Source: Modified from §urry 2002 NRC Exam A - Incorrect; Must have both circ water pump breakers ope Correct; Must have both of the Condenser vacuum switches greater than 8 inches of mercury for Condenser Available C-9. C-9 is disabled with C Incorrect; Does not satisfy the C-9 permissiv ~

B - Incorrect; This is not the vacuum setpoint in inches of mercury, this is the setpoint in psi ~

3 While holding reactor power at 33% for chemistry, a loss of main feedwater occurred when the QNLV running SGFP trippe Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

A. The RX TRIP ACTUATION switch should be placed in the TRIP position B. The main turbine MER TRfP switch should be placed in TRIP for at least 5 second C. Reactor power must be rapidly reduced to less than 2%, then manually trip the main turbin B. The main turbine should be tripped manually followed by a manual reactor tri Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question #AOP-13.O-52520M06 002 Ref: AOP-1 A - Incorrect; A reactor trip is not warranted at power Bevel below 35%.

B - Correct; With power level below 35% this is an immediate action step of AOP-I C - Incorrect; This is done after the main turbine is trippe ) - Incorrect; A reactor trip is not warrented at power level below 35%, the main turbine is tripped followed by a power reduction to less than 2%.

3 Which ONE of the following describes the plant components that are used to provide remote capability to feed the steam generators with the turbine-driven AFW pump during a station blackout?

A. 120 vac instrument inverter, 48 vdc battery, air accumulato B. AC and DC uninterruptible power supply, 48 vdc battery, air accumulato C. AC and DC uninterruptible power supp[y, auxiliary building 125 vdc battery, emergency air compresso B. 420 vac instrument inverter, auxiliary building 125 vdc battery, emergency air compresso Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AFW-40201 DO6 003 A - Incorrect; 120 vac instrument inverter does not provide a BIU to the TDAFW pump B Correct; Power is supplied from the 48V BC battery to an inverter which then

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supplies the HSDP which in turn supplies the TDAFW Speed Control and FCV's position controller. The inverter also directly supplies a BC rectifier that supplies power to open TDAFW Valves, FCV soleniods and TDAFW Control Pane C & B - Incorrect; AB 125 v dc battery does not provide a BIU to the TDAFW pum . -

3 Considering the ESS Load Sequencer operation during an accident with an LQSP, which ONE of the following describes the reason(s) behind the ESS Load Sequencer order and time to initiation of power to the various loads?

A. The considerations deal ONLY with maintaining the diesel generator frequency and voltage within toleranc B. The considerations deal QNLY with ensuring the starting of the various engineered safety features are within the required safety analysis response time value C. In order to ensure that the diesel generators speed will not decrease below 95% of nominal value, the largest loads are started first when the diesel generator can best handke the starting current B. The required response time values of the various emergency safety features are based on the accident analysis of the plant for the design based accident and the diesel generator capabilit A Incorrect; This is only one of the reason ~

B - Incorrect; This is only one of the reason C - Incorrect; Diesel generators speed must be maintained and starting currents must be allowed to decay between subsequent equipment starts making this a potential reaso D - Correct; This is both distractors A and C combined and is the reason for the sequencer loading. QPS-52103F-40102D

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3 Given the following plant conditions:

- Unit 2 is at 80% power ramping to 100%.

- Both SGFPs are operatin ,411 systems are aligned for automatic operatio Annunciator KB4: SGFP SUCT PRESS LO, has just come into alar The Recorder PR-4039 indicates SGFP pressure is 295 psig and slowly decreasin Which ONE of the following is the action required by the operator?

A. Ensure the standby condensate pump starts 10 seconds after pressure has decreased to 275 psi B. Start the standby condensate pump prior to pressure decreasing to 275 psi C. Begin a rapid load reduction to 60% in order to remove one SGFP from servic D. If pressure continues to decrease, manually trip the reactor and enter EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety injectio Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-13.0-52520M04 009 Reference: ARP-1.10, KB4 A - Incorrect; The operator is instructed by the ARP to start the Cond pump prior to 275 psi B - Correct; The standby condensate pump will auto start at 275 psig but the ARP requires it to be manually started prior to reaching 275 psi C Incorrect; A rapid load reduction is required if the standby condensate pump is not available. There is no requirement to trip one of the SGFPs because there is an automatic trip on low suction pressur B - Incorrect; This action would be appropriate if suction pressure decreases below 275 psig for 30 seconds and the starting of the standby condensate pump has not corrected the pressure dro i

.

4 Given the following plant conditions: f k a r e ~ R&F=?L. m/%.4d Lm

- Unit 1 is holding at 25% power due to problems with DEH during a plant startu Rod control is in AUTO, with Bank D rods at 174 step VCT level transmitter, LT-112, failed low 30 minutes ag I&C is troubleshooting Power Range Nuclear Instrument N-41 because of a blown fus Which ONE of the following conditions will occur if power is lost to the 1A ?20V AC Vital Bus?

A. A reactor trip will occu B. A boration of the RCS will begin since LCV-I 15D, RWST to CHG PUMP, will open and LCV-I15E, VCT Outlet ISO, will clos C. Control rods will begin stepping i D. A boration of the RCS will begin since LCV-I 193, RWST to CHG PUMP, will open and LCV-115C, VCT Outlet ISO, will clos Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question # I 20 VAC-40204F07 A - Incorrect; A reactor trip would occur if another PRNl channel, other than N-42, had already been placed in a tripped conditio &6ttT B-C - Incorrect; Rods will step out as a result of the boratio D - Correct; A boration of the RCS will occur since power was lost to 1A 12OV AC Vital Bus causing bCV-I15B, RWST to CHG PUMP, to open and LCV-?15C,VCT Outlet ISO, to close. (Aux Safeguards Cabinet A)

L 41 ~

A loss of Aux. Building DG power has occurred due to a Station Blackout event that has lasted for 3 hours3.472222e-5 days 8.333333e-4 hours 4.960317e-6 weeks 1.1415e-6 months . Offsite power has finally been restored and the lineups complete for restoring the battery charging lineu Which ONE of the following describes the operational implications of the Aux. Building 125 volt BC System?

A. The battery chargers will be unable to carry steady state normal or emergency loads until its associated battery is charged for at least 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months and will not be fully charged for 12 hour1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months . The battery chargers will be unable to carry steady state normal or emergency loads until its associated battery has been fully charged and will not be fully charged for 12 hour1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months C. The battery chargers will be immediately able to carry steady state normal or emergency loads while its associated battery is being charged and will not be fully Charged for 12 hour1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months D. The battery chargers will be immediately able to carry steady state normal loads but unable to carry emergency loads until its associated battery has been fully charged and will not be fully charged for 12 hour1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months A - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed Lo provide adequate capacity to restore its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months after the battery has been fully discharged, while carrying steady state normal or emergency load B - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months after the battery has been fully discharged. while carrying steady state normal or emergency loads G - Correct B - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore its associated battery to full charge in 'I2 hours after the battery has been fully discharged, while carrying steady state normal or emergency loads

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4 Unit 1 is at 70% power when the following indications are received:

Annunciator KC3,IA OR IB SGFP TRIPPED RPM indicator for I A SGFP rapidly falling Which ONE of the foliowing describes the required operator actions the operator should take?

A. Place MAIN TURB EMER T R P switch to TRIP for at least 5 second B. Check reactor tripped due to the SGFP trip and go to EEP-0, Reactor Trip and Safety Injectio . Reduce turbine load to less than 540 MW and reduce reactor power to match turbine powe B. Check that the AFW pumps auto starte Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-13.0-52520M02 References: AOP-1 A Incorrect; This will result in a main turbine trip which is not required since a total loss

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of feed has not occurre B - Incorrect; A reactor trip will not occur on a loss of a SGFP, unless that loss results in low SG level C - Correct; Reducing turbine load and reducing reactor power maintains the RCS and secondary side parameters within the limits for continued plant operation with one SGFP stili operatin D Incorrect; AFW pumps will start on a total loss of fee ~

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4 A rapid load reduction on Unit 1 to decrease to minimum load from ZOO% power is in progress per AOP-17.0, RAPID LOAD REDUCTION. A loss of control oil causes the 1A S G W to coast down. The operators stopped the load reduction and have entered AQP-13.0, Loss of Main Feedwater. SIG water levels decreased to approximately 35%

and are now recovering with FRVs in AUTO. The Unit is currently at 50% power and Turbine load is at about 450 M Which ONE of the following describes the REQUIRED operator actions?

A. Maintain SG levels greater than 35% and verify SG narrow range levels are maintained less than 75%

B. Maintain SIG level control in auto, veri@ proper operation of the feed regulating valves and verify S I 6 narrow range levels trending to 65%.

C. When S/G narrow range levels reach approximately 55%, take manual control of the feed regulating valves and reduce demand to 75% and return to auto, verify levels trending to 65%.

D. Trip the reactor and go to EEQ-0, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection," while continuing in AOP-13, "boss of Main Feedwater".

A Incorrect; These are the SIG level valm for the fast load reduction?AOQ-19 step ~

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B Incorrect; This is not the required actions of AOP-1 C- Correct; AQP-13.0 immediated action Step 1 RNO Step 1.5. S/G level recovery actions when both SGFPs do not tri B Incorrect; This is the action required if the S/G levels do not adequately recove ~

i h_

4 Due to a complete loss of instrument air, the control room operator tripped the reactur from 100% power. The turbine-driven auxiliary feedwater (TDAFW) pump auto starte The motor driven auxiliary feedwater (MDAFW) pumps failed to auto star Which ONE of the following describes the action@), if any, that must be taken and why?

A. Use the handjack to close HV-3235A and HV-32356 in the main steam valve ruom (MSVR), to avoid causing an uncontrolled cooldow E. Start the emergency air compressors and align to supply the TDAFW pump steam admission valves to ensure the TDAFW pump will continue to run past 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months to provide an adequate heat sin C. No action is required since all valves associated with the TDAFW pump fail ope D. Use the handjack to open HV-32358 and HV-3235B in the main steam valve room (MSVR) to ensure the TDAFW pump will continue to run past 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months to provide an adequate heat sin A - Incorrect, With only one AFW pump available over cooling should not be a concer E3 - Correct, Per AOP-6.0 Step 9 C - Incorrect, HV-3235A and HV-3235B, steam admission valves to the TDAFW pump in the main steam valve room (MSVR) do not fail ope Incorrect, HV-3235A and HV-3235B in the main steam valve room (MSVR), can not be jacked open, only jacked close .

Unit 1 is operating at 100% steady-state reactor power all systems are in automatic and functioning properl A reactor trip and SI has just occurre A problem in the high voltage switchyard deenergizes the 1B SIU transforme ~ DIG 1B cannot be starte SIG narrow range levels are ' A 26%, 'B' 45% and '6'45%.

Which Unit 1 AFW pump@)are running?

A. 'A'MDAFW and TDAF 'A'and 'B'MDAF C. 'B' MDAFW onl D. 'X MDAFW onl Source: Farley 2001 NWC Exam A - Correct, The TBAFW pump will start on a blackout signal and the A MDAFW pump will start on SI sequencer. B MBAFW pump does not have power B & C - Incorrect, The B MDAFW pump does not have a power sourc D - Incorrect. TBAFWP will also star .

Unit 1 is at 100% power with 'B' Train on servic DG02,1G 4?60V bus tie to I b 4160V bus trip AOP-10.0 "boss of Service Water" has been entere 'A Train SW pressure is 90 psig, and stabl 'B' Train SW pressure is 50 psig, and stabl An attempt to start I C CCW pump was made, and it tripped on overloa RCP motor bearing temperatures are reading 163% and slowly risin Which ONE of the following describes the actions to be taken in accordance with AOP-10.0, Loss of Service Water?

A. Trip the reactor and enter EEP-0.0 "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection" B. Start the 1A charging pump; then stop the 1C charging pum C. Align 1B CCW pump to ' A trai D. Shift the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling train Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-10.0-52520J06 001 Reference: AOP-I A - Incorrect; This is done when RCP motor bearing temps reach 195oF, reference note describing adequate support in AOP- B - Incorrect; Same as B. Also, I C Chg pump has CCW flow even though the CW isn't being cooled. 1A Chg pump will have no CCW cooling at all C - Correct; This is done to provide coiling water to the Misc heade D - Incorrect; Since the A train CCW pump tripped on overload, there is no cooling flow in that train of CCW, the operator cannot petiorm this ste ..

4 Which ONE of the following describes the NORMAL, EMERGENCY, and ALTERNATE power supplies to Emergency 4160V AC Bus 1H?

NORMAL EMERGENCY ALTERNATE S/U 1B 1-2A DG S/U 1A S/U 1A I C DG SIU 1B s/u 1A 1B DG S/U 1B D~ SIU 1B 1B DG SIU 1A Source: Modified from Fariey 2001 NRC Exa A Incorrect, Correct for BUS 1 B - Correct C - Incorrect, The Normal and Alternate are correct, but the Emergency is incorrec D - Incorrect, This is correct if it was thought that 1H was 3 Trai .

4 Plant conditions are as follows:

- Unit 4 is at 95% powe The Unit 1 "B" train battery supply breaker to 1B 125 VDC auxiliary building bus is open to jumper out a cel The supply breaker to 4160 VAC bus 16 trips on faul Which ONE of the following describes the expected response to this event?

A. 1B Diesel Generator will start, but the output breaker will not clos B. 1B Diesel Generator will start and reenergize the 1G 4160 VAC bu C. Unit 1 reactor trip only will occu . Unit 1 reactor trip and safety injection will occur Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #DC DIST-52103C02 004 Ref: SOP-3 A -Incorrect; There is no DC power to allow starting of the 4 86 B - Incorrect; There is no BC power to allow starting of the IB QG C - Incorrect; A reactor trip will occur due to loss of the Vital AC 1C and 15 busses giving a 2 of 3 trip signal on low S/Gpressur D -Correct; A reactor trip will occur due to loss of the Vital AC 1C and B busses giving a 2 of 3 trip signal on low S/G pressure which also gives an S .._

4 Which ONE of the following is a reason why battery charger 'C', the swing battery charger, for the auxiliary building 125V DC distribution system is key-interlocked?

A. Ensures voltages are matched before closing DC output breaker B. Prevent Battery Charger 'C' from carrying BC buses A and 3 at the same tim C. Ensure battery charger '6' output breaker is closed on a dead bu D. Provides administrative control when using 'A'train power to supply the '5' train DC bu Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #DC DIST-40204E02 007 A - Incorrect; No voltage interlock associated with this key-interlock B - Correct; per OQS-52103C C - Incorrect; No sychronizing circuitry associated with this key-interlock D -Incorrect; This is the result of using the 'C' battery charge P 5 Which ONE of the following describes the action(s) required in accordance with SOP-38.0. Diesel Generators, if the 1C or 2C DG oil temperature decreases to less than 100'F AND the keep warm lube oil system is in service (Le., the circulating oil pump is running)?

A. The DG is declared inoperable until the oil temperature increases above t0O'F so the engine can be started immediatel B. The cylinders shall be blown down and the engine barred over prior to starting the engin C. The jacket water cooling system shall be secured to raise lube oil temperature above 100' D. The keep warm lube oil system shall be secured to raise lube oil temperature above 1OR' Source: Fasley Bank Question #DG-52102104

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A Incorrect; temperature should be raised above 100 O F , but this is not the correct answer per SOP-3 I3 Correct; SOP-38.0 precaution 3.13 and caution prior to Step 4.3.8 and OBS-521021

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C Incorrect; this is not addressed by procedures D - Incorrect; this is not addressed by procedures

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5 The reactor is at 30% power. For an unknown reason, instrument air pressure is falling. All available air compressors have been started and pressure continues to fal The main feed regulating valve operation has started to become erratic. Feed flow is decreasing to the Steam Generators, tevels are at 60% and siowly decreasin Which ONE of the following describes the aetion(s) the operator should take?

A. Trip the reactor and go to EEP- B. Trip the turbine and ramp the reactor to less than 2% power and establish AFW flo C. Ramp the turbine and reactor to below 5% and establish AFW Ro B. Dispatch operators to manually jack open the main feed regulating valves to control SG leve Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-6.0-5252OF08 A - Correct; AOP-6.0 Step I,WHEN reactor critical AND control of critical AOVs erratic, THEN trip the reactor and go to EEP-0 REACTOR TRIP OR SAFETY INJECTIO FRV's are "critical valve B - Incorrect; turbine trip is not a priority in AOQ-6 these are the actions of AOP-23.0, loss of feedwate C - Incorrect; ramping down is not an optio D - Incorrect; not proceduralimed, non-conservative, defeats FW Isolation signa L.

5 The control room has just been evacuated due to a fire in the cable spreading roo Which ONE of the following conditions will require the use of reactor head vents to assist in plant recovery when operating from the Hot Shutdown Panels?

(Assume no Safety lnjection signal present)

A. boss of Reactor Coolant Pump B. Pressurizer level decreasing below 15% leve C. Steam Generator levek decreasing below 25% leve D. High Head Safety Injection flow of 225 gpm with RCS pressure at 2235 psi Source: Farley 2081 NRC Exam Original Source: Farley NRC Exam 1998 LO: 052521C04 A - Incorrect, Natural circulation can be used following a loss of RCP B - Correct: Pressurizer level decreasing below 15% will result in letdown isolation with the inability to reopen LCV-459 and LCV-460, requiring the use of the head vents for removing mass from the RC C incorrect, Control of S/G levels is available at the HSPs therefore, control of RCS cooldown is unavailabl D Incorrect, PORV available at this time if desired to lower pressur .

Concerning the Gaseous Waste Processing System, which ON of the following is correct if Unit 1 is in Mode 2, with the monitors required in TR 13.12.1 inoperable?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. With oxygen concentration equal to 4% and hydrogen concentration equal to 5% in a waste gas decay tank, oxygen concentration must be reduced to less than or equal to 1% prior to Mode 1 entr B. With oxygen concentration equal to 3% and hydrogen concentration equal to 5%,

oxygen concentration must be reduced to less than or equal to 1% within 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months However, Mode 4 entry is permitte C. With oxygen concentration equal to 5% and hydrogen concentration equal to 2%,

oxygen concentration must be reduced to less than 1% prior to Mode 1 entr B. With oxygen and hydrogen concentrations equal to 5%, actions must be taken within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months to place Unit 1 in a Mode in which the Tech Spec does not appl Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #WAST GAS-52106501 005 References: TRM 13.1 A - Incorrect; Does not preclude mode chang Correct: Per TRM 13.1 Incorrect; Does not preclude mode chang El - Incorrect; Applicable to all modes

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5 Which one of the following occurs after receiving a HIGH radiation signal from the control room ventilation monitor. R-3587 A. Utility exhaust fan suction dampers (HV-3628 and HV-3629) clos B. Exhaust fan inlet dampers (HV-3649A, B,C) clos C. Filtration exhaust and recirculation fans star D. Pressurization system supply fans star Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #RMS-40305A07 A Correct: Per OPS-52107C

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B Incorrect; Happens on a B signal

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C - Incorrect; Happens on a T - signa D - Incorrect; Happens on a T - signa i_

5 hecEFTEd 5 r w ~PTdsbl)& Oe-h~&%C dd&Y hM A gaseous waste release is in progress to the vent stack in accordance with a gas waste permit and SOP-51.I"WASTE GAS SYSTEM GAS DECAY TANK RELEASE."

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During the planned waste gas release, the power supply to R-14 (Plant Vent Gas Monitor) fail Which ONE of the following describes the operator actions?

A. Immediately close RCV-14, Waste Gas Release Valve, to stop the unmonitored release and inform the Shift Superviso B. Check that RCV-14, Waste Gas Release Valve, closed automatically to prevent any unmonitored release, notify Chemistry and Wealth Physics to implement sampling in accordance with the Bffsite Dose Calculation Manual and inform the Shift Superviso C. Check that RCV-14, Waste Gas Release Valve, closed automatically to prevent any unmonitored release, secure from the release using SOP-51.1 and notify I&C personnel to investigate the failur D. Verify RCV-14, Waste Gas Release Valve, is open, verify the last reading on R-14 was below the setpoint, notify Health Physics to implement sampling procedures and inform the Shift Superviso The radiation monitors fail to a "High Radiation" conditions on loss of instrument and/or control power that will result in actuation of associated automatic function A - Incorrect; The discharge in progress is automatically securred the auto shutting of RCV-1 B - Correct; The discharge in progress is automatically securred the auto shutting of RCV-14. Immediate actions of Annunciator FH2,RME CH FAILURE, is to check indications and notify Chemistry and HP. Immediate actions of Annunciator FHI, RMS HI-BAD, are to verify that RCV-14 closed. Action from precaution in SOP-52 .Iis to secure the discharge and notify Shift Superviso B - Incorrect; The discharge in progress is automatically securred the auto shutting of RCV-1 ..

5 Unit 1 is in the process of starting up and is currently at 25% powe Unit ICirculating water pit level has dropped to I50 fee Which ONE of the following describes the process by which water is made up to the Circulating Water Canal?

A. Service Water is automatically made up to the system via Circulating Water Makeup Valve (560).

B. Service Water must be manually made up to the system via Circulating Water Makeup Valve (560).

C. River Water is automatically made up to the system via Circulating Water Makeup Valve (560).

B. River Water must be manually made up to the system via Circulating Water Makeup Valve (560).

A Incorrect; At this low power level the Circulating Water Makeup Valve (560) will be

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controlled in "Remote Manual" not automati B - Correct; Per OBS-521048 C & D - Incorrect; Service water is the makeup supply to the Circ water canal, river water is the makeup to the service water syste .

Given the following on Unit 1:

- 1B DIG is running and the Shift Supervisor has determined that it is require Service Water has been lost to the IE3 BIG and can not be restore Which ONE of the following describes when the affected DIG is required to be stopped IAW BOP-10.0, "LOSS OF SEKVICE WATER", and what engineered safeguards feature (ESF) loads will be lost?

A. As soon as it is determined that SW cannot be restored to protect the D/G from damage due to overheating and I A component cooling water (CCW) pump will be los El. As soon as it is determined that SW cannot be restored to protect the DIG from damage due to overheating and 1A charging pump will be los C. If the local Lube Oil temperature alarm cannot be maintained clear to protect the DIG from damage due to overheating and l A charging pump will be los D. If the local Lube Oil temperature alarm cannot be maintained clear to protect the B/G from damage due to overheating and 1.4 component cooling water (CCW)

pump will be los Source: Mcdified from Farley Bank Question #BOP-10.0-52520J06 002 Ref: BOP-1 A - Incorrect; AOP-10 has the operator isolate SW to the TB and other components as well as line-up SW flow from the other unit first. This is the correct ESF load that would be los B Incorrect; AOP-10 has the operator isolate SW to the I5 and other components as

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well as line-up SW flow from the other unit first. This is also the incorrect ESF load that would be lost, 1A charging pump is powered from 4160V 1F bu C - Incorrect; Step 4.2.6says that if the LO temp alarm cannot be cleared then Stop the BIG however, this is also the incorrect ESF load that would be lost, I A charging pump is powered from 426OV I F bu ICorrect; Step 4.2.6 says that if the LO temp alarm cannot be cleared then Stop the DIG. This is the correct ESF load that would be lost since the 1A CCW pump is powered from 4160V 1 6 bu ._

5 Unit 1 is experiencing a loss of instrument air. The crew has entered AOP-6, LOSS of Instrument Ai Which ONE of the following describes the pressure at which V-901, Service air header isolation valve, closes and when V-903, Instrument air to turbine building isolation valve, closes as instrument air pressure continues to decrease?

v-901 V-903 psig 4.5 psig psig 45 psig psig 55 psig psig 80 psig Source: Modified from Farley Bank Questions #COMP AlR-40204B07 002 and CQMP AIR-40204887 003 A - Correct; Per OPS-521088, V-901 is the first to automatically close at 80 psig and V-903 is the last to automatically close at 45 psi B - Incorrect; V-902, Instrument Air Dryer Bypass Valve, opens at 70 psi C - Incorrect; V-984, Instrument Air to Service Building, shuts at 55 psi D - Incorrect: V-901 and V-903 vajues are reverse .

Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when an electrical fire started inside the Cable Spreading Roo Which ONE of the following describes what type of fire suppression system is installed inside the Cable Spreading Room and what are the hazards to personnel if they enter this room?

A. A deluge manual sprinkler system is installed. An electrical shock hazard exists due to the use of water to combat an electrical fir B. An automatic high pressure C02 system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard exists due to the presence of CO;, ga C. An automatic Halon system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard exists due to the presence of Halon ga B. A manual low pressure C02 system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard exists due to the presence of 60% ga Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #FIRE PROT-40103B02 A - Incorrect; Not a manual deluge system B - Incorrect; An automatic high pressure CO2 system not in room C - Incorrect: No Halon in room D Correct; The Cable Spreading Room has a low pressure C02 syste ~

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6 While at 400% power, which ONE of the following conditions represents a loss of primary containment integrity iAW Technical Specifications?

A. An electrician opens the outer containment airlock door to perform maintenance activities without prior approva . During an inspection of the equipment hatch, it is determined that the equipment hatch is not sealed properl C. While performing an operability test of two normally open redundant containment isolation valves, one of the valves fails to clos . An operator enters containment but leaves the inner airlock door OPE Source: Farley Exam Bank Question K T M T SRT&IS-52102A01 01 Modified Bank A - incorrect; One airlock door can be opened at a time, regardless of whether permission is granted or no Correct; Maintaining containment operable requires compliance with the visual

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inspection C - Incorrect; Need only one operable isolation valve in series to retain containment integrit D Incorrect; One airlock door can be opened at a time and retain containment

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integrit .-.

6 After a plant trip, the Unit 1 turbine-driven auxiliary feedwater (TDAFWJ pump tripped on overspee The control room operator has isolated steam supplies from the steam lines and placed the speed demand controller to 0%.

TDAFWP TRIP % THRTL VLV QIN12MOV3406 must now be close Which ONE of the following describes how this is accomplished?

A. Locally using local handswitch at hot shutdown panel .

B. Locally using the motor control pushbutton on the control pane C. Remotely from the BOP using the valve control pushbutto D. Locally using the manual handwheel on the valv Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AFW-40201DQQ006 Reference: SOP-2 .1 Close the following valves:

TDAFWP SPM SUPP From 1B SG Q'I N12HV3235N26 TDAFWP STM SUPP From I C SG QZN12HV3235B 4.1 Set TDAFWP SPEED CONT SIC 3405 TO 0% DEMAN .1 Close TDAFWP TRIP & THRTL VLV Q1N12MOV3406 locally using manual handwheel on valv .1 Reset the overspeed linkage on the TDAFW .1 Open TDAFWP TRIP & THWTL VbV QfN12MOV3406 locally or from BO .1 Verify PBAFWP TRIP AND TV CLOSED annunciator JG4 is cleare A, 3, % C - Incorrect; Per the above exerpt from SOP-22, Version 4 D - Correct; See above

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6 In accordance with AOP-28.2 "Fire in the Control Room", communication with Unit 1 HSB panel A & B during the worst case fire, should be achieved by:

A. Gai-tronics Line 1 B. Paxphones C. Sound powered phones on Unit 1 8. Gai-tronics bine 5 Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-28.1/.2-5252q C03 003 Ref: AOQ-28.2 Attachment 1, Communication A Incorrect; Gaitronics not available at HSB panels on Unit 1

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B - Correct; All PAX available at HSD panels on Unit I C - Incorrect; AOQ-28.2 provides the guidance for making a plant wide announcement, but does not establish sound powered communication D Incorrect; Gaitronics not available at HSB panels on Unit I.Gaitronics line 5 is

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dedicated line for emergencie \

63. Question Deleted due to Post Examination Comments and Revie Which ONE of the following Mode changes requires at least two (2) mode determination parameters to change?

(Mode determination parameters are Reactivity Condition (Keff), Rated Thermal Power, Average Coolant Temperature).

A. Going from Mode Z to Mode B. Going from Mode 5 to Mode C. Going from Mode 3 to Mode B. Going from Mode 5 to Mode Reference Technical Specification Definitions Table .?- Distractor Analysis:

A: Incorrect, Difference between Mode 1 and Mode 2 requires only % Rated Thermal Power to chang :Incorrect, Difference between Mode 5 and Mode 4 requires only Average Coolant Temperature to change chang C: Incorrect, Difference between Mode 3 and Mode 2 requires only Reactivity Condition (Keff), to chang B: Correct, Difference between Mode 5 and Mode 6 requires both Reactivity Condition (Keff), and Average Coolant Temperature to chang .

Which one of the foilowing is considered a Temporary Plant Alteration that supports Maintenance per AP-13, "Control of Temporary Alterations?"

A. Placement of a plant labeling deficiency tag IAW AP-25, "Equipment Identification."

B. Lifting leads to defeat a MCB annunciator in preparation for repairs by the oncoming tea C. Installation of tygon tubing on a pump drain line IAW AP-14, "Safety Tagging."

D. Gagging of a relief valve in preparation for a hydrostatic test of that syste Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam A - I n c o r r e c t , r A?-! 3, not a listed item B - Correct, hen lifting leads for correctivelpreventive maintenance or troubleshooting purposes, the leads shall be identified as shown on the electricab drawing. If the leads c

are to remain lifted while not attended by the 'ourneyman or if the job is to be turned over to another crew, then a temporary identi cation tag shall be placed on each lead

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6 An individual has requested a Restricted Removal (RR) tag order to allow performance of a maintenance task that he has been assigne Which ONE of the following positions, at a minimum, must the individual hold in order to mark the RR block on the Bag Order Acceptance section of the cover sheet for a maintenance task?

A. A designated operato E?. A tagging officia C. An apprentic D. A journeyma Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam Original Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #O52303602003 D - Correct, See FNP-0-AP-14, section .

Plant conditions are as follows:

Unit 1 is in Mode * The 4 B Charging Pump is aligned tG 'A' Train and the 1C Charging Pump is operatin The 1A Charging Pump has been declared INOPEWBLE and taken out of service for oil replacemen All other portions of the CVCS and related subsystems are OPERABL Which one of the following statements describes the action of the Shift Support Supervisor - Plant in regard to the LCO Status Sheet for the l A Charging Pump condition?

A. NO LCO Status Sheet is required to track the 1 8 Charging Pump conditio B. An ABMINISTRATfVE h C 0 status sheet should be initiated to track the I A Charging Pump conditio C. A VOLUNTARY LCO status sheet should be initiated to track the 1A Charging Pump conditio . A MANDATORY LCO status sheet should be initiated to track the 1A Charging Pump conditio Source: Farley Bank Question #INTRO TS-52302A08 OQ2 B - Correct; OQS-52302A states that equipment removed from service that is not required in the present plant mode but is required in a higher plant mode or if Et reduces the redundancy of the equipment, but not less than T.S. requirements, then an Administrative LCO may be written. The inoperability of one charging pump reduces the redundancy of the equipment, but not less than T.S.requirements therefore, an Administrative LCO should be written to track the I A charging pump conditio .

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In accordance with IOCFR20, which ONE of the following sets of conditions represent the LOWEST radiation conditions that would cause an area to be classified as a High Radiation Area?

Any area accessible to personnel that would result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent of -in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months at 30 centimeters from the radiation source external to the bod A. 0.02 rem B. 0.05 rern C. 0.2 rem 83. 0.5 rem Source: Kewaunee Exam 12/18/97 REFERENCE: 10CFR20 1003 High Radiation area is any area accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the body could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months at 30 centimeters from the radiation sourc Very High Radiation area is any area accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the body could result in an individual receiving an absorbed dose in excess of 500 rads in I hour at 1 meter from the radiation sourc Distracter A - Incorrect, question asks LOWEST radiation conditions that would cause an area to be classified as a High Radiation Area. 0.02 rem is below 0.1 re Distracter B - Incorrect, question asks LOWEST radiation conditions that would cause XI area to be classified as a High Radiation Area. 0.05 rem is below 0.1 rer Answer C - Correct, Although higher than the 0.1 rem, it is the lowest that would be posted as a High Radiation Are Distracter B Incorrect, 0.2 rem is lower than 0.5 re ~

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6 Which ONE of the following describes the general practice prescribed by the Health Physics Manual, FNP-0-M-001, that should be used to minimize the intake of radioactive material by personnel entering Airborne Radioactivity Areas?

A. Reduction in working time E%. Increased radiological surveillance C. Use of respiratory protective equipmen B. Reduce airborne levels using enginwring control Source: Farley 2000 NRC Exam A, B, C - Incorrect; When impractical to apply process or other engineering controls, other precautionary measures may be used, e.g. increased radiological suveilkances, reduction in working times, or use of respiratory protective equipmen D - Correct; As a general practice, the plant staff will use process or other engineering controls to limit the concentrations of radioactive materials in the air below the limits defined in 1OCFR2 b 6 Which ONE of the following is required to be operable by Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation Technical Specification in Mode 3?

A. Containment Temperature B. AFW flow rat C. Accumulator leve .Spent Fuel Pool Leve Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #POST LQCA-52102D01 002 Reference: Tech Spec 3. B - Correct; per PS Table 3.3.3-1

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7 Plant conditions are as follows:

0 Unit 1 is operating at 180% powe Containment air particulate radiation monitor 8-11 detector is out of service for

- repairs; expected return to service in 4 day Grab samples are being taken per the Technical Specification action statemen e Containment Radioactive gas monitor R-12 has just started indicating an increasing trend in containment atmosphere gaseous radioactivity level Which ONE of the following actions is required and the reason for taking the action?

A. Within an hour, initiate action to place the plant in Hot Standby within 6 additional hours, to meet Technical Specification B. Enter AOP-'l.0, RCS Leakage, to identify and isolate the source of leakag C. Immediately trip the reactor and enter EEP-5, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, to mitigate the conditio D. Immediately initiate a non-emergency notification per IQCFR50.72,One HOW Report, to inform the NR Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-1.0-52520AQ2810 A - Incorrect; The indications given do not support a Tech Spec shutdow B - Correct; 8-72 is an early indication of a primary leak and should be investigated per AOP- C Incorrect; A reactor trip is not warrented at this point from the indications give ~

B Incorrect; Indications given do not indicate that any deviation from the plant's

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Technical Specifications exis L -_

7 A failed open spray valve that could not be shut resulted in a safety injectio The reactor coolant pump in the affected loop was tripped and, with pressurizer pressure now under control, safety injection termination was permitte With only one charging pump running, pressurizer pressure remained stabl At the procedural step when normal charging was established, PRZR level started trending down from 45% level and could not be controlle Which ONE of the following describes the actions the operator should take at this point?

A. Manually SI and recommend transitioning to EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injectio B. Realign HHSl flow; start additional charging pumps, and recommend transitioning to EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injectio C. Realign HHSl flow, start additional charging pumps, and recommend transitioning to EEP-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolan D. Realign HHSl flow; start additional charging pumps, and recommend transitioning to ESF-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #ESP-1 .I-5253106 005 References: ESP- A - Incorrect; If PZF? level can not be maintained, the flow path must be reestablished and a transition to ESP-1.2 is warrented. There is no need to manually SI and transition to EEP- Incorrect; The transition to EEP-0 is incorrec C - Incorrect; The transition to EEP-1 is incorrec D - Correct; From ESP1. A , SI Termination, if PPR level can not be maintained, the flow path must be reestablished and a transition to ESP-1.2 is warrente .

Given the following:

- A Main Steam line Break has occured inside containment on Unit Containment pressure is at 5.5 psi The Crew has entered FRP-P.l Response to Pressurized Thermal Shock I

Condition An RCS pressure reduction is in progres The RO observes RCS Subcooling at 40°F Which ONE of the following describes the correct action to be taken by the crew?

A. Start an additional charging pump to raise RCS subcooling B. Close the PORV to stop RCS depressurization until subcooling is recovere C. Continue with the depressurization of the RC D. Bump steam from an intact S/G to raise subcoolin Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #2305. Modified to have the steam leak inside containment: and adverse numbers applicabl A Incorrect; starting an additional charging pump will raise RCS pressure, and increase subcooling, however a pressure increase is not desire Correct; with adverse containment numbers, and this value of subcooling, the procedure directs closing the PORV and allowing subcooling to ris C - Incorrect; with adverse containment numbers and subcooling 45 OF, the procedure directs closing of the POR D - Incorrect; a large cooldown has already occurred, and no further cooldown is allowed until after a soak has taken plac .

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During a small break Loss Of Coolant Accident (LOCA) on a cold leg, when there is not a large amount of injection flow from the ECCS through the core and out the break, if phase is reached where the vessel level continues to decrease below the hot leg penetrations and boiling in the core is the means of transporting the core heat to the bubble. A fixed differential pressure exists between the core and the break and is maintained by the loop sea Which ONE of the following describes the primary mechanism for heat removal during this phase?

A. Condensation of vapor from the bubble at the hot leg side of the S/GU-tubes, which is cooled by S/G water, and then drains back down to the core via the hot leg B. Condensation of vapor in the head, which is cooled by fans in containment, and then drains back down to the cor C. Slug Row via the cold legs through the loop seal and flashing across the cold leg brea D. Condensation of vapor from the bubble at the cold leg side of the S/GU-tubes, which is cooled by S/G water, and then drains back down to the core via the cold leg Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam Original Source: Byron 2000-301 A - Correct, This describes REFLUX cooling which is almost as efficient as two phase natural circulatio B - Incorrect, The cooling provided hear is basically losses to ambient and is not very effectiv C - Incorrect, Not likely to occur on a small break LOC Incorrect, Natural circulation can not occur when level in the core has decreased below the hot leg penetration '-

7 Given the following:

- Unit 'l has tripped from 100% power due to a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA)

with a loss of Offsite Powe ~ 1-2A Diesel Generator is tagged ou ~ 1C Diesel Generator has failed to star The Operators are performing EEP-1 "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant" and are at the step to "Verify cold leg recirculation capability - Available".

- RCS pressure is 708 psi AI! S/G pressures are stable at 980 psi RWST level is 12.8 ft. and decreasing slowl B RHW Pump has tripped on overcurren Containment pressure peaked at 10 psig and is decreasin Waste Gas Processing b o r n Sump Pumps are runnin All other equipment is operating normall The operators should transition to which ONE of the following procedures?

A. ESP-1.2, "Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization

5. ESP-1.3, "Cold Leg Recirculation" C. ECP-1.I, "boss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation" 8. ECP-1.2: "LOCA Outside Containment" Source: New Reference ECP-I . I ,

A - Incorrect; transition to ECP-1.lis required per step 14 of EEP-1 based on inability to verify cold leg recirc capability B - Incorrect; Transition to ESP1.3 is based on RWST levle of 12.5 f C - Correct; based on inability to verify cold leg recirc capability D - Incorrect; Transition to ECP-1.2 based on Aux Bidg sump pumps running occurs after the transition to ECP- .

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Given the following conditions:

- A LOCA has occurred on Unit 1. EEP-1.O "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant", is in progres ,CTMT PRESS HI-2 ALERT annunciator alarms

- Containment Pressure is 17 psi Containment High Range Radiation Level Monitors indicate: R27A is 4 WHR; and R275 is 5 WH Which ONE of the following FRPs is ROW applicable?

A. FRP9.1, "Response to High Containment Pressure" due to an RED path based on containment pressur B. FRP-2.3, Response to High Containment Radiation Level, due to an ORANGE path based on containment pressur C. FRP-2.1, Response to High Containment Pressure, due to an ORANGE path based on containment pressur D. FRP-Z.3, Response to High Containment Radiation bevet, due to a YELLOW path based OR high containment radiatio Source: Farley Exam Bank Question 52530508 016 Modifie A Incorrect; a red path occurs at 54 psig

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3 - Incorrect; an orange path does not exist for containment radiatio C - Incorrect; an orange path for containment pressure is 27 psi D - Correct; FRP-Z.3 would be entered on a yellow path based on containment radiatio .

A reactor trip following a grid disturbance has occurred on Unit 1. 'K Train was the on service train at the time of the trip. A safety injection has NOT occurre The following plant conditions are observed:

- RCS Tavg = 547 OF

- RCS pressure = 2198 psig and slowly increasing TBAFW pump is in service

- l A CHARGING PUMP is QOS with suction and discharge valves tagged shut

- 1A Boric acid tank pump is OOS with suction and discharge valves tagged shut

- 4160V ' R Train (G & L) power available lights are NOT illuminated

- Control Rods are fully inserted except Rods H-8 and B-4 are at 24 and 6 steps respectfull Which one of the following describes the appropriate action you should direct the RQ to take?

A. Open QIE2tLCV125B and Q1E24LCV115D, close QIE21bCVI15C and Q1E21LCVI 15E, and verify at least 40 gpm charging flow through the normal charging flowpat B. Verify 1B BAT pump is running, open Q1E21MOV8104, verify at least 30 gpm boric acid flow and 40 gpm charging flo C. Open Q4E21LCVll5B and QlE21LCV115D, close QiE24CCVI15C and Q1 E21 bCVl15, and verify at least 30 gpm charging flow through the normal charging flowpat B. Open Q1E24bCVI 15B and Q1E21bCVl15D, close Q1E21LCVt 15C and Q1E21LCV115E, and verify at least 92 gpm charging flow through the normal charging flowpat ..

Source: Farley Test Bank Question #E-O/ESP-0.0-52530A04 A - Incorrect; With no boric acid tank pump available (1A 80.3 and ? Bwithout power)

AOP-27 Step 1 can not be performed. This is correct actions per AOP-27 Step 1 RNO if power was available however, LCV-115 B and E has no power and will not stroke.

The charging flow rate is too low for not having any fiow from the boric acid tanks.

3 - Incorrect; This is correct actions of AQP-27 if power available to all components however, the Boric acid tank pumps are not available and LCV-115 I3 and E has no power and will not stroke.

C - Incorrect; The charging flow rate is too low for not having any flow from the boric acid tanks. This flow value is the flow that is required from the boric acid tanks.

D - Correct; LCV-115 B and E has no power and will not stroke. However, in trying and following AOP-27 for emergency boration. With LCV-1I 5 C and 3 in their proper positions, flow will be from the RWST and objective accomplishe \

7 Qualcepl psg- 6 ,a APPE3d- s/c//8g &f de 4 performing a startup after a refueling outage. The crew i e in service trai directio SG WR Levels: 1A -

nd 1C CCW pumps have just plied the incorrect oil that was used in only these two pumps. 1

- ACCW pump trippe Which ONE of the following describes t s that must be taken in accordance with Technical Specification?

REFERENCE PROVIDED B. Immediately stop the diluti maintain current plant con 5 within 24 hour2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months is the correct action for the CCW system alone per S 3.7.7 Action Aa b refers to PS 3.4.6. TS 3.4.6 Action C ediateby secured. The heatup must be securred to prevent cro The plant would not have to be placed into Mode 5 per TS 3 ps are unaffected since A CCW is the inservice train and all RCPs D Incorrect; Per TS 3.4.6 Action Cthe dilution must be immediately suspende ~

,_

7 Given the following plant conditions on Unit 1:

- Keactor trip arid safety injection have occurre The crew has entered EEP-2 .O, Loss Of Reactor Or Secondary Coolan MSIV's have just isolated due to Containment pressure at 16.5 psi RCS pressure is 17'00 psig and stabl Core Exit Thermocouples indicate 570'F and subcooling is 52' All S/G Narrow Range levels are 40% and total A m flow is 450 gp Pressurizer level is 52%.

Based upon the above indications, which ONE of the following should you, as SRO, direct the operators to perform?

A. Verify all Reactor Coolant Pumps stoppe B. Transition to ESP-1.I"SI TERMINATION."

~

C. Establish HHSl flow, and start additional charging pumps as require D. Transition to FRP-Z.1, "RESPONSE TO HIGH CQNTAINMENT PRESSURE,"due to increasing containment pressur This question meets 'lOCFR55.43(bj(5)

Original Source: Byron 2000-302 used on Farley 2001 N R 6 Exa A - Incorrect, This is the action if the subcooling was below 45 degrees B - Correct, Phis is the required action per step 7 of EEP-1, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLAN C - Incorrect, 245 deg F SCMM and 2 50%pzr level B - Incorrect, This action is required when ctmt press >27# and directed to monitor CSF's in EEP-0 step 31

L 7 You are the Unit 2 SRO. Unit 2 is at 100% steady-state power. All systems are in automatic and functioning properl The following annunciators are received:

- DC1, "RCP #I SEAL LKOF FLOW LO"

- DA5, "28 RCP #2 SEAL LKOF FLOW HI" The plant operator reports the following parameters:

RCP 2A 28 2C

I seal injection flow (gpm) 7.4stable 7.3 stable 7.4 stable

I seal leakoff flow (gpm) 0.0 stable 4.0 stable 4.0 stable

I sea! D/P (psid) >400 stable >400 stable >400 stable RCP lower seal water brg. temp (OF) 190 increasing 124 stable 123 stable Which ONE of the following is the most probable cause of these indications and the required actions?

A. 2A RCP #I seal failure, trip the reactor, and secure the RC . 2A RCP #'I seal failure, perform a controlled shut down to Mode 3 in 6 hour6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months C. 2 8 RCP #2 seal failure, trip the reactor, and secure the RC .2A RCP #2 seal failure, monitor 2A RCP parameters for further degredation, contact Westinghouse for further guidanc Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #RCP SEAL-52522A03 This question satisfy the criteria in 1OCFR55.43(b)/5).

-

A Incorrect: Flow into the #I seal is satisfactory. DIP across the #I seal is satisfactor Correct action for a failed #I sea B Incorrect, Flow into the #I seal is satisfactory. B/P across the #I seal is satisfactor Action is the required TS action for one RCS loop becoming inoperabl C Correct, Evidenced mostly be the #I

~ seal leakoff flow at 0.0 which shows that a11 the Row is going through the #2 seal indicating its failure. Annunciator DA5, 1A RCP #2 SEAL LKOF FLOW HI, confirms this failure, along with the slighty elevated RCP radial brg temp. RCP radial bearing not being stable is annunciator DC1 criteria for tripping the reactor and securing the RC B Incorrect, #2 seal failure is indicated. Action is for stable nondegrading parameter ~

8 Given the foliowing plant conditions:

- Unit 2 Reactor is shutdown and the reactor trip breakers are ope RCS pressure is 2200 psi WCS Temperature is 540'F. and slowly decreasin Source Range channel N-31 is out of service for repair Source Range channel N-32 fails lo Which ONE of the following describes the action that is required to be taken?

A. Borate to cold shutdown condition B. Place channel N-32 in the tripped condition within six hour C. Stop the cooldown and commence an RCS heatu D. Verify shutdown margin within one hou Source: Bank from Farley Exam Bank Question Excore-52201D10 02 This question meets the requirements of 1OCFR55,43(b)(5)

TS 3.3.I'

A. Incorrect, if shutdown margin is determined to be less than required by T/S then emergency boration would be require B. Incorrect, Some NI channels are required to be placed in the tripped condition withing six hours; the SR channels are no C. Incorrect, although this would be prudent, there is not a requirement Lo heatu D. Correct, Phis is the T/S requirement for the number of operable channels less than the minimum require ,- L 81. Question deleted due to post examination comments and revie Unit 1 was at 100% power when a Large Break LOCA occurred inside containmen The crew has responded per the ERGS and has transitioned to ESP-I .3, Transfer to Cold beg Recirculation, from EEP-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, Step 1 While aligning -iB RMR pump for cold leg recirculation, Containment pressure reached 27 psig. Both trains of containment spray have actuate The crew is currently performing Step 8 of ESP-1.3 checking containment spray in operation. RWST level is 4.4 17and slowly decreasin Which ONE of the following discribes the correct actions and procedure transition, if any, required to mitigate this condition?

A. Secure the CS pumps, then transition to FRP-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressur . Align the CS pumps for cold leg recirculation, then transition to FRP-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressur C. Transition to ECP-1.I, boss of Emergency Recirculation D. Continue in ESP-1.3 and subsequently return to the procedure and step in effect (Le. EEP-1, step $6)

NEED Licensee to verify that answer 'A is the expected response. The information provided to the NRC for exam developement did not address this situatio LICENSEE VALIDATION IS REQUIRE A - Correct; An ORANGE path exist for containment pressur B - Incorrect; NEED Licensee to verify that this is not an expected response for this condition otherwise a new distractor needs to be develope C - Incorrect; This is a logical procedure to transition to although not supported in step 9 of ESP-1.3. ESP-?.3 has no RNO actions for this situation. Lesson plan OPS-52531G page 10, states that if at least one path from the sump to the RCS cannot be established a transition Lo ECP-1.Iis made. The lesson plan does not address if a path from the sump to the containment spray can not be establishe B - Incorrect; to continue in ESP-1.3 would result in securing all supply to the running containment spray pumps without instructions to secure the pump This question addresses the second part of K/A 026M.07 (i.e. part (b) of the A2 statement allowed by NUREG-1021, Rev.9, Section ES-402, Step B.2.a).

This question meets the requirements of 10CFR55.43(b)(5)for an SRO only questio i 8 Unit 1 is operating at full power with Pressurizer Pressure Instrument PT-455 failed low. All required actions have been completed with PT-455 channel in tri Pressurizer Pressure instrument, PT-456 fails to 2300 psi Which ONE of the following describes the action(s) that must be performed to satisfy Technical Specifications?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. Place PT-456 channel in trip within the next 6 hour6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months B. Shutdown the plant to Mode 3 within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months C. Reduce THERMAL POWER to < P-7 within 12 hour1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months . Shutdown the plant to Mode 3 within 7 hours8.101852e-5 days 0.00194 hours 1.157407e-5 weeks 2.6635e-6 months ; Mode 4 within 13 hours1.50463e-4 days 0.00361 hours 2.149471e-5 weeks 4.9465e-6 months ; and Mode 5 within 37 hour4.282407e-4 days 0.0103 hours 6.117725e-5 weeks 1.40785e-5 months Reference: TECH SPEC 3.3.1/3. A - Incorrect; This is the Action 'El' of TS 3.3.1,for one channel inoperable, and is the correct action if this were the only pressurizer pressure channel failed however, with two channels failed placing this channel in trip will cause a reactor tri B - Incorrect; This is the alternative Action for 'E.?', Action 'E.2' of TS 3.3.1,and is an action far one channel inoperabl C Incorrect; This is the alternative Action for 'M.7' , Action 'M.2'of PS 3.3.1, Tripping the bistable action of 'k4.t' was already performed for the PT-455 failure. This is an action for one channel being inoperabl Correct; There is no condition stated in LCO 3.3.1 for these concurrent failures, therefore LCO 3.0.3must be entered and the plant shutdow This question meets the requirements of IOCFR55,43(b)(2) for an SRO only questio . .. --

Spent Fuel Pool (SFP) cooling has been lost due to the total loss of CCW. SFP temperature is 170'F and slowly increasing. AOP-36.8, Loss of Spent Fuel Pool Cooling, has been implemente Which ON of the following will provide the cooling method for the spent fuel pool on a sustained loss of CCW to both trains of SFP cooling in accordance with AOP-36.0 for the above conditions?

A. Feed and bleed using Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST B. Evaporative loss while maintaining SFP level using the RWS C. Feed and Bleed using Recycle HoFdup Tanks (RHT).

D. Evaporative loss while maintaining SFP level using the Demineralized water syste A - Incorrect; This method is used initially during the performance of AOP-36.0, Loss of Spent Fuel Pool Co~Iing,however, there is no procedure provisions to continue this method once SPF temperature is above 150 O B - Incorrect; Do not use RWST to maintain leve C - Incorrect; Not recognized by AOP-36.0 as an approved cooling metho D - Correct; If level in the SFP cannot be maintained then the perferred source will be demin water per step 1 This question meets the requirements of 1OCFR55.43(b)(5) for SRO only questio i 8 Given the following:

- You are the Shift Supervisor (SS).

- Unit 1 is in Mode 6 , Refuelin Core reload is occurring in containment and fuel movement is in progres The SRO in charge of fuel handling reports to you that the fuel assembly has impacted the seal ring at the hold down clam Annunciator EH2, "SFP LVL HI-LO," has just alarme The Refueling Cavity watch reports that the refueling cavity level is lowering rapidl Which ONE of the following describes the initial action?

Implement AOP-30.0, Refueling Accident, and:

A. Ensure the SRO in charge of fuel handling evacuates all personnel from Containment and the Spent Fuel Pool roo B. Ensure the SRO in charge of fuel handling places any fuel assembly in transit in a safe locatio C. Initiate action to place the Control Room Emergency Filtration/Pressurization System (CREW) in servic D. Restore the Reactor lnternals to the reactor vessel, Source: Farley Test Bank Question #AOP-30.0-52521 H04 A - Incorrect, Only non-essential personnel need to be evacuated the refueling crew is needed to safely store the fuel assembly in transi B - Correct, Initial response is to secure the fuel assembly in transit, worst case the SRO has 164 minutes to safely store the fuel assembly. Makeup flow capacity from one train of RHR is sufficient to maintain refueling level above the level where uncovery of the fuel assembly would occu C - Incorrect, This is the ATTACHMENT 'I actions of AOP-30 which is done in parallel with the remainder of AOP-30 after the fuel assembly is directed to be secure D - Incorrect, This can not be done due to the fuel assembly being in transi .

Which ONE. of the following describes the most restrictive conditions assumed to ensure that the minimum shutdown reactivity of accident analysis is met during a guillotine break of a main steam line inside containment?

R. At the begining of core life, with Tavg at full load operating temperatur B. At the end of core life, with Tavg at full load operating temperatur C. At the begining of core life, with Tavg at no load operating temperatur D. At the end of core life, with Tavg at no load operating temperatur Source: Slightly modified from a Farley Bank Question #052302E01 00 A. Incorrect, the conditions listed in Basis of T/S are EOL, No load Tav B. Incorrect, the conditions listed in Basis of TIS are EQL, No load Tav C. Incorrect, the conditions listed in Basis of B/Sare EOb, No load Tav D~Correct. These are the conditions listed in the basis of T/ .

8 Plant conditions are as follows:

Unit 1 was operating at 98% power when a loss of Steam Generator Feed Pump (SGFP) "A"occurre * Normai makeup to the VCT has just been complete * The shift crew is taking the required immediate actions in accordance with AOP 13.0 "Loss Of Main Feedwater".

The OATC is driving rods to decrease Tav The current plant electrical load has stablined at 450 M Tavg - Tref mismatch is 3 T and Yavg has just begun to ris Annunciator FE1, CONTROL ROB BANK POSITION LO, has just alarme Which ONE of the following actions caused the FEI alarm, and what is the appropriate corrective action?

A. The operator has decreased the boron concentration too much and should withdraw rods to clear the alar B. The operator has driven rods in too far for the existing boron concentration and should borate from the Boric Acid Tank C. The turbine load has decreased too far and should be raise B. The operator has caused the steam dumps to open and should decrease the rod insertion rat Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-I 3.0-52520M07 001 Reference: AQP-13.0 CAUTION : WHEN TURBINE MANUAL AND FAST ACTION + GV CLOSE is used, THEN releasing the FAST ACTION + GV CLOSE pushbuttons at 700 MWe as -

indicated on the analog meter should allow turbine load to coast and stabilize at the -

desired 540 MW. This phenomenon is due to the inherent windup of the controller.

Reducing load in this manner should prevent undesirable overshoot of the targeted 540 MW.

......................................................................................

1.2 IF the Main Turbine is in MANUAL, THEN reduce turbine load to less than 540 MW using TURBINE MANUAL AND FAST ACTION + GV CLOSE.

A. Incorrect: Tave is rising which would indicate more boration is required.

B. Correct; Tave is rising which would indicate more boration is required, but the boration should be from the RMCS system or from Emergency Boration flowpath per AQP-17.

C. Incorrect; Per AQQ-13, turbine load should only be reduced to around 540 MW. in this case turbine load should be stabilized and Tave stabilized.

D. Incorrect; The opening of the steam dumps is an expected occurance and will not cause Turbine MW to lower or Tave to ris .

er, if the event occurred with the plant at 2% p electrical Train A andio urs when the reactor is 5. Minimize the time the plant is un due to loss of one train of S B. The specific SW loads if the Emergency Responce Procedures are ente Reference: AQ - pi A - Corre , per OPS52520E page 9, this action ensures t perfur d at the appropriate time .

8 The Unit 1 control room was evacuated and AOP 28.Q,Control Room Inaccessability, has been entere Control has been shifted to the Hot Shutdown Pane Which ONE of the following sets of parameters are all within the band that the operator must maintain in accordance with AOP-28.0?

A. Pressurizer Level 40%, RCS Pressure 2260 psig, and SIG level 70%.

B. Pressurizer Leveb 35%,RCS Pressure 2215 psig, and S/G level 55%.

C. Pressurizer Level 18%, RCS Pressure 2235 psig, and SIG level 60%.

D. Pressurizer bevel 2%%,RCS Pressure 2240 psig, and S/G level 65%.

Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question #52522B04 003 Reference: AOP-2 A - Incorrect; ail parameters are out of the control ban B - Incorrect; all parameters are out of the control ban C - Incorrect; Steam Generator level is out of the control ban D - Correct; All are within procedure control band limits. pressurizer level 20-30%, RCS pressure 2220-2250 psig, and S/G level S4-66% .

The following conditions exist on Unit 1 :

- Operators are responding to a reactor acciden The SI headers have been damaged resulting in a complete loss of injection to the cor Upon transitioning out of EEP-0.0 "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection", the STA reports that temperatures seen by all core exit thermocouples (CETC's) are increasing rapidl The five hottest CETCs read between 125Q'F and 1275%

- Intermediate range SUR is oscillating from zero to + .5dp Containment Pressure is 55 psi Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response for these conditions?

A. Operators should transition to FRP-2.1. "Response to High Containment Pressure".

B. Operators should transition to FRP-S.3, "Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ANVT".

C. Operators should transition to FRP-C.l, "Response to Inadequate Core Cooling".

D. Operators should continue to monitor CETC temperatures. If the five hottest CETCs exceed 1500°F, then transition to FRP-C.1 "Response to Inadequate Core Cooling".

Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #FRQ-C52533C09 001 SRQ Procedure transition This Question meets 1OCFR55.43(bj(5)

References: CSF-0.0 and FWP- A. Incorrect, A red path does exist for High Containment pressure, however core cooling is a higher priorti B. Incorrect, Intermediate range detectors above zero would be an orange path on FRP-S.4, the red path on core cooling is of higher priorit C. Correct. this is the correct transitio B. Incorrect, the correct transition to FRP-C.l is the fifth hottest CETC > 12QOO .._

9 During Surveillance Testing, the 'A'Train Solid-State Protection System (SSPS) was found to be inoperable. While troubleshooting is in progress, 1&C has tagged the Output Relay Mode Selector Switch in the 'TEST' positio Which ONE of the following is the correct mitigation strategy in accordance with EEP-0,

"REACTOR TRIP OR SAFETY INJECTION," if the unit had a reactor trip and safety injection at this time?

A. Both Trains of Phase 'A'components would actuate, no other action are require B. Only 'B' Train Phase 'A' components would actuate, the operator would have to initiate 'A'Train components with the Phase 'A'handswitc C. Neither Train Phase 'A' components would actuate, the operator would have to initiate both Brain components with the Phase 'A'handswitc B. Only 'B' Train Phase 'A' components would actuate, the operator would have to align 'A'Train components manuall Source: Farley 2001 NKC Exam Originai Source: Farley NRC Exam 2800-301 LO:052201132

-

A Incorrect, B Train will actuat B - Incorrect, The handswitch will not wor C Incorrect, B Train will actuate and the handswitch will not wor D - Correct, B train wilE actuate, the handswitch will not work and the operator will have to manually align component ,.

9 Maintenance activities require workers to access the main RCA through door 2484, on Unit 2. instead of through the routine access hallway adjacent to the Heath Physics Offic Which ONE of the following describes who must authorize this access route?

A. Technical Manager and Health Physics Superviso B. Only the Heath Physics Superviso C. Only the Shift Superviso B. Technical Manager and Shift Superviso Source: Farley 2000 NRC Exam A - Incorrect; Health Physics Supervisor authorization is not require Incorrect; Health Physics Supervisor authorization is not require C - Incorrect; Shift Supervisor must authorize access to the main RCA from any other poin B - Correct; IAW FNP-0-AQ-42, Step 9.3, l o access the main WCA from door 2484 requires both the Technical Manager and Shift Supervisor approva ~

9 During Solid Plant Pressure Control operations with letdown from RHR, FNP-1-SOP-7.0, RHR System, requires that Q1 E21HCV142, RHR TO LTDN HX be open as far as possibl Which ONE of the following describes the basis for this precaution?

A. To ensure maximum letdown flow rate for purificatio B. To ensure VCT level can be maintained under all charging flow condition C. Bo ensure Q1E21PCV145, Letdown Pressure Control can control pressure transient D. To ensure RCS to RHR Suction Relief Valves arent challenge Watts Bar 2002 NRC exam REF: 2-FNP-SOP-7.0, Section 3, page 3 (P&Ls)

Distractor analysis:

Answer A is incorrect because charging flow ultimately controls letdown flo Answer B is incorrect because balancing charging and letdown controls VCT leve Answer C is correct because with HCV-242 less than full open, it can in effect limit flow and prevent pressure reduction when PCV-145 fully opens in response to a high pressure transien Answer D is incorrect because the suction relief can be chalienged by other factors (e pump starts) even with HCV-142 dull ope . During the performance of a nuclear safety evaluation of a proposed design change it is concluded that the activity requires a Technical Specification Chang Which ONE of the following describes the correct action to be taken to implement the design change?

A. The design change can be implemented with approval of the General Plant Manager or his designe B. The design change can be implemented if it is determined that a change to the FSAR is not require C. The design change cannot be implemented until it is proven not to reduce the margin to safety below 50%.

D. The design change cannot be implemented until a change to Technical Specification is complete Slightly Modified from Farley Exam bank question kt 2744 Reference AP-8 A. Incorrect, the design change can not be implemented unitl the TIS change is mad B. Incorrect, the design change can not be implemented unitl the T/S change is mad C. Incorrect, the design change can not be implemented unit1 the TIS change is mad .Correct. IAW AP-8 L 94~

Unit 1 is at 100% steady-state reactor power with the following plant conditions:

- 1A Steam Generator has a confirmed tube leak of 20 gp B Steam Generator has a confirmed tube leak of 5 ggd .

- The Turbine Building water sump is full and needs to be discharge Which ONE of the following, if any, describes the release permit(s) you would expect to review (be in affect) to authorize the release?

A. A batch release permi B. A continuous release permi C. Both a batch and continuous release permi D. No permit is required Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam A - Correct, Batch release permit is required if there is evidence of a SGTL creating the possibility that the sump contents may be contaminate B - Incorrect, Continuous release permit is required if there is no evidence of a SGT C - Incorrect, Both types of release permits would not be in effect with the evidence of a SGTL it is inappropriate to have a continuous release permi B - Incorrect, A release permit is require c 3 You are the Shift Supervisor and have been informed that the #I Waste Gas Decay Tank (WGBT) requires releas Which ON of the following describes the sequence required to perform a gaseous release?

A. Chemistry obtains and analyzes a gas sample, Chemistry generates a gaseous effluent permit, you must review the release permit information and give chemistry permission to commence the releas B. Chemistry obtains and analyzes a gas sample, you verify the sample is within existing batch release permit, and direct the crew to commence the releas C. Chemistry obtains and analyzes a gas sample, Chemistry generates a gaseous effluent permit, you review the release permit after the permit is received in the control room and direct the crew to commence the releas D. Chemistry generates a gaseous effluent permit, Chemistry obtains and analyzes a gas sample, you sign the release permit authorizing the release and direct the crew to commence the releas Source: Modlfied from Farley Exam Bank Question #WAST GAS-40303Bq 1 002 A - Incorrect; Chemistry does not perform the releas B - Incorrect; Release is not performed under the existing batch release permi C Correct:

D - Incorrect; SS does not sign the release permi .

Unit Iwas operating at 100% power when a Small Break Loss Of Coolant Accident (SBLOCA) caused a plant trip and SI actuatio SI and Phase A Containment Isolation have actuated per desig ~ The crew has implemented EEP-0 and EEP-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolan A LOCA outside containment is indicated so the crew has transitioned to and is performing steps in ECP-1.2, LOCA Outside Containmen ~ The crew isolated RCP seal injection and observed NO change in the deterioration of plant conditions caused by the SBLOC The crew has just restored RCP seal injection in accordance with ECP- Which ONE of the following describes the required actions in accordance with ECP-I .2 that must be taken at this point?

A. Go to EEP-I, Loss Of Reactor Coolant Or Secondary Coolan B. Direct HP to perform radiation surveys in the auxiliary building C. Immediately transition to ECP-1.I, Loss Of Emergency Coolant Recirculatio B. Go to AOP-7 .O, FIGS Leakage, Attachment 3 & 4 to determine location of lea This question meets 1OCFR55.43(b)(5)

A Incorrect; EEP-1 is entered if the leak has been isolated. The leak here has not been isolated otherwise the RCP seal injection would not have been restored, which is the last system checkecholated in ECP-I B - Correct; Before transitioning to ECP-1.I, HP is sent to the aux building to perform surveys Lo posibly identify the leak location (ECP-1.2 Step 3.14).

C - Incorrect; Only after all possible leak locations are checked does the crew transition to ECP-I .I, this is performed after HP performs surveys in the aux building (ECP- step 3.1 5).

D - Incorrect; No procedural guidance to do this and AOP-1 .O is only applicable if PZR level can be maintained by charging pump .

Unit 2 is holding at 33% Power for Chemistr Condenser Vacuum is slowly degradin Which ONE of the following alarrns/indica.tors will be the first to occur?

A. KC3 " I A or 1B SGFP TRIPPED will alar B. GJ2 "LO VAC TURB TRIP' will alar . "CQND AVAIL C-9 " will go ou B. KK2 "TUBE3 CQND VAC LO-LQ" will alar Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-8.0-5250H02 007 This question meets ?OCFR5543(b)(5)

Ref: AQP-8.0 and ARP-1.7 GJ2 A. Incorrect; This alarm will actuate as a result of decresing vacuum at 5.9 PSI B. Incorrect; This alarm causes a turbine trip on decreasing vacuum at 4.41 PSI C. Incorrect; This indicator will go out at approximately 2 0.8 PSI . Correct; This alarm actuates en decreasing vacuum at 2.7 PSIA. when greater than or equal to 30% powe ..~ -.

9 A Safety Injection and LOSP has occured on Unit 1. The crew has transitioned tu ESP-1.1, §I Terminatio I C Air compressor is out of service for maintenanc Which ONE of the following describes the action to be directed to plant personnel to allow the 1G load center to be energized and Instrument air to be restored?

A. Direct plant personnel to depress the ESS STOP WESET push button locally for the B1G sequence B. Direct plant personnel to depress the ESS STOP RESET push button locally for the B l F sequence C. Direct plant personnel to depress the ESF lamp test push button locally for the BIG sequence . Direct plant personnel to depress the ESF lamp test push button locally for the E31F sequence Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question #40102809 001 A. Incorrect, the B1F sequencer must be reset, but this is the correct button to depres . Correct, the B I F sequencer must be reset, and this is the correct button to depres C. Incorrect, the B1F sequencer must be reset, but this is not the correct button to depres D. Incorrect, the B1F sequencer must be reset, and this is not the correct button to depres .

AI1 AFVV flow has been lost on Unit 1. The Control Room team is performing the actions of FRQ-H.l,Loss of Secondary Heat Sink. The team could not establish AFW flow to the Steam Generators. The team begins to establish bleed and fee Which ONE of the following describes the actions the operators should take if one of the Pressurizer PORVs fail to open?

A. Terminate attempts to establish an SiG heat sink because one Pressurizer PORV will provide sufficient flow to maintain the core cool in all situation E. Terminate WCS feed and bleed because with only one PORV open, RCS pressure will increase and both SI flow and RCS inventory will decreas C. Reduce SI flow as necessary to prevent rapid overpressurization of the RCS,while continuing attempts to open the Pressurizer POR D. Establish alternate bleed paths and cooling methods because one Pressurizer PORV may not depressurize the RCS sufficiently to permit adequate SI Ro Source: Farley Exam Bank Question # 52533FO3 00 A - Incorrect; attempts to establish an S/G heat sink should continue, because one PORV may not provide sufficient flow to maintain the core cool in all situation B - incorrect; FRP-H.1 does not have the team terminate feed and bleed. it should continue while attempts to restore a source of deed water to the S i 6 continue. Alternate bleed paths should also be establishe C - Incorrect; the procedure does not direct the team to reduce SI flo D- Correct; the team should establish alternate feed and bleed paths and cooling method Unit 1 was at 700% when a LOCA occurred.

Actions in EEQ-1.0, Loss of Primary or Secondary Coolant, were performed. The crew has transitioned to ECP-1.I, boss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

WWST Level is 12.3fee A and 1C containment coolers are operating, all other coolers have tripped.

A Phase "B"has just automatically actuated.

Which ONE of the following describes the actions required regarding the containment spray pumps?

A. Remain in ECP-1.4 ; Reduce Containment spray pumps to oniy one pump operating to conserve RWST level.

B. Transition to FRP-Z.1; Ensure Both containment spray pumps are operating and spraying down containment.

C. Remain in ECP-I .1; Ensure Both containment spray pumps are operating and spraying down containment.

D. Transition to FRP-Z.l; Reduce containment spray pumps to only one pump operating to consewe RWST level.

Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #1497.

A - Incorrect; An Orange Path is required to be addressed, transition should be made to FRP-Z.1, but a caution in Z.1 informs the user to follow guidance in ECP-1.2 for operation of the containment spray pumps.

B - Incorrect; this is the correct transition, but only one contaiment spray pump should be running.

6 - Incorrect; Transition should be made to FRP-Z.1, and only one pump should be running.

B - Correct; Transition to FRP-Z.1 should be made and only one pump should be running.

IR 05000348/2003301

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v t e Inspection Report - Farley - 2003301 (Operator Exams)
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2003 Quarterly Integrated 1Q (0) 2Q (0) 3Q (0) 4Q (0) Assessments Mid Cycle End of Cycle 7(0) 8(0) Security Operator Exams 301(0) Emergency Planning Other

IR 05000348/2003301

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