ML032020259
| ML032020259 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Oconee  |
| Issue date: | 08/11/2003 |
| From: | Ernstes M Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch |
| To: | Rosalyn Jones Duke Energy Corp |
| Shared Package | |
| ML032521014 | List: |
| References | |
| 50-269/03-301, 50-270/03-301, 50-287/03-301 50-269/03-301, 50-270/03-301, 50-287/03-301 | |
| Download: ML032020259 (165) | |
See also: IR 05000269/2003301
Text
Final Submittal
(Blue Paper)
OCONEE JUNE 2003 EXAM
50-26912003-301
JUNE 16 - 27,2003
1.
Final ROlSRO Written Examination and References
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
1. 000003 GEN 2.4.1 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
'L/,
Reactor power = 50%
ICs is in AUTOMATIC
Which one of the following events will require the operating crew to enter the EOP?
A. Steam Generator Tube Leak of 13 gpm.
B. Inadvertent ES Channels 1, 3 and 5 actuation.
C. " A SG level is 43% and "B" SG level is 37%. Both are stable in the operating range
D. Control Rods 1 and 5 in Group 3 drop into the core, actuating the in-limit for both
rods.
BANK Answer 161
A. Incorrect - SGTL EOP entry is 25 gpm.
B. Incorrect - Inadvertent ES action is not an EOP entry.
C. Incorrect - SG level that causes EOP entry is < 15 inches on the SU Level.
D. Correct - 2 CR drop into the core requires a manual reactor trip and entry into the
EOP.
Tier:
1
Group:
2
- No utility comments
Keyword
DROP ROD
Cog level:
M 4.314.6
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
Authormeviewer: LSMiRFA
Wednesday, June 04,. 2003 7:18:02 PM
1
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
2. 000008AA2.22 001
From a 100% FP condition, which one of the following describes the expected response of
pressurizer level to a Small Break in the STEAM SPACE of the pressurizer (PZR)? (Assume
no operator actions are taken and HPI stabilizes RCS pressure slightly higher than secondary
system pressure.)
PZR level initially:
A. increases rapidly, then slowly increases until the PZR is completely filled by HPI.
B. decreases rapidly and drops off scale low during depressurization until HPI initiates, then
level returns on scale during repressurization.
i/
C. decreases slowly, then decreases more rapidly when a reactor trip occurs, then completely
fills after the RCS hot leg flashes.
D. increases, then decreases when a reactor trip occurs, then completely fills after the RCS
hot leg flashes.
1992/01/25
REFERENCE
OP-OC-TA-AT, Section E.5, pg 14, EO l.b.5 & SRO Objective l.b.5
Changed correct answer to "C". Modified "C" and "B" to ensure only one correct
answer. Verified response on simulator. Changed to RO question.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
i/
Keyword:
STEAM SPACE
Cog level
C/A 3.814.2
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSMRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:02 PM
2
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
3. 000009 GEN 2.1.31 001
A Small Break LOCA has occurred inside containment. Which one of the following describes
the status of the SG XSUR level indication?
The indicated level will be:
i/
A. LOWER than actual, a correction factor based on REACTOR BUILDING temperature must
be applied.
B. HIGHER than actual, a correction factor based on REACTOR BUILDING temperature must
be applied.
C. LOWER than actual, a correction factor based on REACTOR COOLANT SYSTEM
temperature must be applied.
D. HIGHER than actual, a correction factor based on REACTOR COOLANT SYSTEM
temperature must be applied.
- REFERENCE
OP-OC-EAP-E25, Revision 05, page 11; LRO 7, LSO 7
Oconee bank EAP-74 (fully modified)
(3.W4.0)
- I 16
No utility comments.
Tier:
1
Source:
B
Test:
R
i/
Keyword
e
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:02 PM
Group:
1
Cog level:
CIA 4213.9
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
3
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
4. 000009EA2.15 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
'd .
0
s .
0
0
0
0
SB LOCA has occurred due to a Seismic event
Inspections reveal some minor damage to HPI components and piping
EOP Enclosure 5.1, ES Actuation has been performed
EOP Enclosure 5.12, ECCS Suction Swap to RBES is in progress
EOP Enclosure 5.37, Isolation of the HPI Pump Recirc has been completed
ILP-19 and ILP-20 (IA & 1B RX BLDG SUCTION) are OPEN
ILP-21 and ILP-22 (IA & 1B LPI BWST SUCTION) are CLOSED
ILP-16 (IB LPI TO HPI & RBS) FAILED CLOSED
RCS pressure is 1700 psig as read on ICCM indication
IHP-410 (IHP-26 BYPASS) was inadvertently opened and remains open
IHP-120 (RC VOLUME CONTROL) is closed
Which one of the following sets of flowrates meets acceptable HPI flow for the above
conditions? (Assume zero seal injection flow)
SEE ATTACHMENT
270 gpm
" 6
165 gpm
"A" Crossover Flow
200 gpm
u " B Crossover Flow
0
gpm
RCS Makeup Flow
0
gpm
379 gpm
374 gpm
"A" Crossover Flow
0
gpm
'73" Crossover Flow
0
gpm
RCS Makeup Flow
30 gpm
440 gpm
0
gpm
"A" Crossover Flow
0
gpm
RCS Makeup Flow
30 gpm
" 6
Crossover Flow
317 gpm
140 gpm
360 gpm
"A" Crossover Flow
245 gpm
"B" Crossover Flow
0
gpm
RCS Makeup Flow
0
gpm
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:02 PM
4
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
A. INCORRECT: total HPI flow is less than 750 gpm (635) but the flow from the " C HPlP is
less than 170 gpm. End 5.12 closed the HPlP minimum recirc valves (completion of
enc1.5.37) so the pump must have at least 170 gpm flow.
B. INCORRECT: flow is limited to less than 750 gpm total HPI flow with only one LPllHPl
header operable when suction is from the RBES. The 30 gpm flow that shows on RCS
Makeup flow should not be indicated as HP-120 is closed (possible leak flow due to seismic
damage)
C. INCORRECT: total HPI flow is 757 gpm (plus the 30 gpm possible damage flow)
D. CORRECT: total HPI flow is 745 gpm.
Ll
Attachment required:
EOP Encl. 5.1 Page 5, Figure 1 (Required HPI Flow Per Header)
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
Cog level:
CIA 3.313.4
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
L./
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:02 PM
5
S b
Enclosure 5.1
ES Actuation
6 aw
E..& &/.f
ACTIONEXPECTED RESPONSE
--,
13. -
IAAT at least two PI pumps are
operating,
AND HPI flow in
Unacceptable Region of Figure 1,
THEN open the following in the
affected header:
header is in the
EP/1/A/1800/00 1
Page 5 of 19
RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED
Figure 1
0
100
200
I300
400
- ZSQ
Required "I
FlmvPer Header (gpm)
500
600
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
5. 000009EK101001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
u
RCS is saturated
All EFDWPs are INOPERABLE
'IA' Main FDWP is operating
'1 B' OTSG pressure = 705 psig
Rx Bldg pressure = 10 psig
Rx Bldg dome temperature = 200°F
Which one of the following describes the correct SG level?
SEE ATTACHMENT
A. 'A' XSUR = 320"; 'B' XSUR = 315"
B. 'A'XSUR=315";'B'XSUR=310"
C. 50% Operating Range (50% acc)
D. 95% Operating Range (95% acc)
A. Incorrect: Uses EFDW/XSUR table 5, wrong RB temp column (>200 to 250). Table
5 not used with MFDW feeding.
B. Incorrect: Uses EFDW/XSUR table 5, correct values if using EFDW. Table 5 not
used with MFDW feeding.
C. Incorrect: 50% used if SCM > 0
D. Correct: EOP Rule 7, SG Feed Control SG levels are raised to 95% Operating
Range (acc) if using Main FWPs when EFWPs are not available. This is the
LOSCM setpoint level with Main FWPs. XSUR levels are only used with EFDW.
EOP has changed and ONS no longer bumps RCPs.
Attachment:Rule 7
Replaced with Bank question 164.
Tier:
1
Keyword
Source:
B
Test:
R
L/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:02 PM
Group:
1
Cog level:
CIA 4.214.7
Exam:
OC03301
AuthoriReviewer: GCW
6
EPIlIMI 800/001
Page 1 of 5
Rule 7
SG Feed Control
Table 1
i/
Maximum Feed Rates To Be Established To Available SGs When
SCMs are > 0°F
~
SG Condition
d'
ii
Flow Instrument
Maximum Feed Rate
EFDW flow indicator
100 gpm to affected SG
Table 2
Feed Rates To Be Established When & SCM is = 0°F and Rapid Cooldown NOT in Progress
NOTE
4fter initial feed rates are established, flow should be throttled to maintain cooldown rate withir
l'ech Suer: limits but SG levels must continue to increase until LOSCM setpoint is reached.
Dry SG wlo Heat Transfer
Non-dry SG
Dry SG with Heat Transfer
-
FDW
source
SKJ FDW flow indicator -
SSF ASW flow indicator
EFDW flow indicator
SKJ FDW flow indicator
SSF ASW flow indicator
0.05 x lo6 Ibdhr to affected SG
100 gpm total to Unit 1
1000 gpm per header
0.5 x lo6 Ibm/hr per header
500 g m total to Unit 1
Emergency
FDW
Flow
Instrument
EFDW total
flow indicator
s/u FDW
flow indicator
Main FDW
Initial Feed Rates
1 SG
450 gpm
2 SGs
300 gprn each
1 SG
2 SGs
0.23 x lo6 Ibdhr
0.15 x lo6 Ibdhr each
SSF ASW
AND NO
SSF Event
SSF ASW
AND SSF
Event *
~~
~
1 SG
flow indicator
2 SGs
SKJ FDW
0.33 x lo6 lbdhr
0.22 x lo6 Ibdhr each
SSF ASW
flow indicator
400 gpm
to Unit 1
SSF ASW
flow indicator
AP/25 controls feed rate
'SSF activated per AP/25 with both SSF RC Makeup 4
SSF Aux Service Water systems
required. (31)
EP/1/A/I800/001
Page 3 of 5
Rule 7
SG Feed Control
(suction from HW)
(suction from UST)
MDEFDWP
TDEFDWP (any suction sburce)
Emergency FDW Header Flow
Table 3
Emerzencv FDW Pumo and Header Maximum Flow Limits
440 gpmlpump
600 gpdpump
950 gpm
1000 gpm
0.22 x 10" lbmlhr
0.30 x IO6 I b d r
0.45 x lo6 Ib&
0.5 x IO6 Ibm/hr
Plant Condition
Table 4
SG Level Control Points
Main FDW Pump
EFDW Pump
30" [60" acc] XSUR
(use MFDW setpoint if
feeding via SlLT CVs)
240" [270" acc] XSUR
(use h@DW setpoint if
feeding via SlLT CVs)
LOSCM setpoint
(Turn-on code "EFW"
SCMs > 'OF
25" [55" acc] SAJ level
AND
RCP on
SSF ASW Pump
30" [60" acc] XSUR
240" [270" acc] XSUR
LOSCM setpoint '
(Turn-on code "EFW" I
I
& SCM = 0°F
AND NO SSF Event *
& SCM = OOF
AND SSF Event
Superheated with
CETCs 5 1200'F
I
95% [95% acc]
Operating Range
95% [95% acc]
Operating Range
All SCMs > 0°F
A%
&I RCPs off
50% 150% acc]
Operating Range
or
Per Table 5)
I
or
Per Table 5)
LOSCM setpoint
(Turn-on code "EFW"
or
Per Table 5)
Per Encl 5.15
(ICC Full Range
SG Level)
I
Per AP125
LOSCM setpoint
(Turn-on code "EFW"
or
Per Table 5)
Per Encl 5.15
(ICC Full Range
SG Level)
Per Encl 5.15
(ICC Full Range
SG Level)
Superheated with
CETCs z 1200'F
SSF activated per AP/25 with both SSF RC Makeup gcJ SSF Aux Service Water systems
required. (31 I
i/
Rule 7
EP/1/A/1800/001
SG Feed Control
Page 5 of 5
I
Table 5
Desired Indicated XSUR Level (inches) To Establish For LOSCM
I
RB Press 2 3 psig
>I00
>150- >200
>250
>300
150
200
250
300
350
RB Press
< 3 psig
N/A
s 100
to
to
to
to
to
350
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
6. 0000151017AA2.10 001
Unit 3 is operating at 100 YO power.
You observe the following temperatures slowly rising on the 3A RCP.
L/
Upper oil cooler
Motor stator coolers
Lower oil pot
All other temperature and vibration readings do not significantly change.
Assume no operator actions. Which one of the following has caused the RCP temperature to
increase, and what actions will you take?
A. Loss of Seal Injection to the 3A pump and secure the RCP.
B. Loss of Seal Return and trip the reactor.
C. Loss of LPSW to the 3A pump and secure the RCP.
D. Loss of CC to the 3A pump and trip the reactor.
REACTOR COOLANT PUMP MOTOR (PNS-CPM) LESSON PLAN
PNS-CPMrl 1 a
C.
LPSW provides cooling to:
1.
Upper oil cooler
2.
Motor stator coolers
3.
Lower oil pot
Changed CCW to CC to match ONS system designation. Changed "B" distractor
to read "Loss of Seal Return and trip the reactor." to improve plausibility.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 3.113.7
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM?WA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
7
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
7. 000022AK1.03 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
Reactor power = 100%
IRIA-32 is in alarm
L
A leak occurs on the "IA" HPI Injection header
1B HPI pump is available
Which one of the following describes how the Pressurizer level will be procedurally controlled
while in this condition?
By adjusting ...
A. letdown flow and starting 1B HPlP with flow through IHP-409 (IHP-27 Bypass).
B. letdown flow and starting 1B HPlP with flow through IHP-410 (IHP-26 Bypass).
C. seal injection flow and starting I C HPlP with flow through IHP-409 (IHP-27 Bypass).
D. seal injection flow and starting I C HPlP with flow through IHP-410 (IHP-26 Bypass).
Answer 142
A
A.
4.146 which instructs the operator to adjust letdown and throttle 1HP-409 to makeup to the
RCS.
B.
1A injection header.
C.
pump is available.
D.
pump is available. IHP-410 will not be used since the leak is on the 1A injection header.
No utility comments.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Correct- Step 4.140 has the operator ensure 1B HPI pump is operating and go to step
\\d
Incorrect- Seal injection is not adjusted and IHP-410 is not used since the leak is on the
Incorrect- Seal injection is not adjusted and the I C pump will not be used since 1B HPI
Incorrect- Seal injection is not adjusted and the I C pump will not be used since 1B HPI
Keyword
LOSS OF RC MAKEUP
Cog level:
CIA 3.013.4
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
8
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
8. 000025 AK3.01001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
INITIAL CONDITIONS:
Time=0200
A Turbine Building Flood is in progress
The reactor was manually tripped
Main and Emergency FDW is unavailable
The SSF and Station ASW is unavailable
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
Time=0400
HPI Forced Cooling is in progress per Rule 4 (Initiation of HPI Forced Cooling)
The TSC desires to throttle HPI for long term DHR
Which one of the following is correct?
SEE ATTACHMENT
A. Throttle HPI in both headers to 100 gpm/header.
B. Throttle HPI in both headers to maintain ALL SCMs > 0 F.
C. Isolate flow in one HPI header and throttle remaining header to 200 gpm.
D. Isolate flow in one HPI header and throttle remaining header to maintain ALL SCMs > 0 F.
bank 267
Attachment: Page 23 of 27 of TBF
A.
B.
C.
curve.
D.
curve. SCM may be lost.
Added SEE ATTACHMENT
Attachment: Page 27 of 29 of EOP tab TBF
SRO only.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Incorrect, one HPI header is isolated.
Incorrect, one HPI header is isolated.
Correct, Isolate flow in one HPI header and throttle remaining header to 200 gpm per
Incorrect, Isolate flow in one HPI header and throttle remaining header to 200 gpm per
Keyword:
LOSS OF RHR
Cog level:
CIA 3.113.4
Source:
n
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthoriReviewer: LSM/RFA
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
9
ii
TBF
Turbine Building Flood
EP/~/A/1800/001
Page 23 of 29
- ;
NO source of SG feed is available
!
!
94. -PERFORM Rule 4 (Initiation of HF'I
Forced Cooling).
I
NOTE
I
I
The potential for loss of SCM exists, howev
95. -
IAAT core SCM is > O"F,
THEN throttle HPI to stabilize RCS
temperature.
96. -
IAAT RBS actuates,
THEN stop RBS pumps.
97. -
IAAT HF'SW is lost,
THEN dispatch an operator to perform
Encl5.31(Temporarily Charging the
HF'SW System).
98. -Initiate
Encl 5.4 (Makep to the BWST)
, transition to LOSCM tab is NOT required.
I
to refill the BWST.
I
NOTE
I
BWST volume is = 350,000 gallons. BWST inventory may be conserved by throttling HF'I and
securing RBS.
99. -Consult TSC for guidance to affect the
following:
Conserve BWST inventory
Prolong HPI forced cooling
Preserve RB integrity
long term DHR,
THEN GO TO Step 102.
THEN EXIT this procedure.
-
100.-IAAT TSC desires throttling HPI for
-
__
101.- WHEN Station Management approves,
TBF
EP/1/.4/1800/001
Turbine Building Flood
Page 25 of 29
102.- Stop flow through one P I header.
I
TBF
EP/1/A/I 800/001
ii
L
Turbine Building Flood
Page 21 of 29
For the first hour after shutdown, cooling flow from one HPI Pump may NOT be sufficient to
match decay heat. However, existing RCS inventory should be sufficient to offset this
differential and maintain core cooling.
The potential for loss of SCM exists, however, transition to LOSCM tab is NOT required.
103.-Throttle
HPI flow in operating header to
match decay heat per the following:
0 RCPs in Operation
450
400
350
300
250
200
150
100
50
_ .
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
,
.
.
.
.
,
0.00
1 .oo
2.00
3.00
4.00
5.00
6.00
HOURS AFTER RX TRIP
0 RCPs in Operation
400
350
...
F
0 250
W 200
G 150
100
M
50
0
5.00
10.00
15.00
20.00
25.00
30.00
35.00
40.00
45.00
50.00
HOURS AFTER R X T R I P
.
..~
.......
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
9. 000026 GEN 2.4.24 001
Unit 2 is operating at 11% power, when the Standby CC pump auto starts.
IHP-5 closes.
Total CC flow is 575 gpm and is slowly decreasing.
All RCP seal return valves remain open.
CRD Stator Temperatures are - 155F.
L/
Which one of the following is correct?
A. Enter AP/20 (Loss of Component Cooling)
Do NOT Trip the Reactor
Stop all RCPs
Initiate AP/25 (SSF EOP)
B. Enter AP125 (SSF EOP)
Trip the Reactor
Stop all RCPs
Initiate AP/20 (Loss of Component Cooling)
C. Enter AP/20 (Loss of Component Cooling)
Do NOT Trip the Reactor
Do NOT stop all RCPs
Do NOT Initiate AP125 (SSF EOP)
c/ D. Enter AP/25 (SSF EOP)
Trip the Reactor
Do NOT stop all RCPs
Do NOT Initiate AP/20 (Loss of Component Cooling)
3.1 -
IAAT both of the following are lost:
RCP seal injection
THEN perform the following:
A. -
Trip Rx.
B. -Stop
all RCPs.
C. -
Initiate AP/25 (SSF EOP).
NOTE
If CRD stator cooling i s lost, stator temperatures will reach 180 ... F in "4 minutes.
3.2 -
IAAT at least two CRD stator temperatures greater than180 ... F,
THEN trip Rx.
Modified stem to remove reference to Immediate Manual Actions because
entering an AP is not an Immediate Manual Action. Reworded distractors to
improve readability.
Validation comment:
Added procedure titles to AP/20 and AP/25.
L/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
10
Tier:
Keyword
Source:
Test:
1
ccw
N
R
d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 718:03 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Group:
1
Cog level:
CIA 3.313.7
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSMiTWA
11
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
10. 000027GEN2.1.12001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
A Unit shutdown was performed following a sudden pressurizer level drop.
LPI Cooler Outlet temperature = 175" F.
RCS Low Range Cooldown pressure = 250 psig.
1A HPI pump operating
IHP-120 travel stops are installed
Pressurizer level = 120 inches.
All RCP's are off.
NO outstanding prior Technical Specification CONDITIONS at this time.
Investigations indicate that the level drop may have been due to a pressurizer level instrument
malfunction. The OSM has requested that you consider the possibility of increasing
pressurizer level to 260 inches to facilitate trouble shooting the instrument.
Which one of the following is correct?
SEE ATTACHMENT
Pressurizer level:
A. can be increased to 260" with no additional requirements because the PORV is operable.
B. can be increased to 260" if an LTOP operator is established
C. can NOT be increased to 260" because it will violate the LTOP Tech Spec.
e
D. can NOT be increased to 260" until Tcold is above 325" F.
Answer 125
REFERENCE ALLOWED - 1108/01, LR CD curve (Encl. 3.31) and LTOP logic diagram
-
.
(1104/49), TS 3.4.12
A. Incorrect. Although the PORV is operable, admin controls require pressurizer level <220"
unless an LTOP operator is established.
B. Incorrect. Since the unit is in NO Tech Spec conditions, an LTOP operator is not already
established.
C. Correct. An LTOP operator is allowed to replace any of the admin controls in Train 2 of
D. Incorrect See above.
Added SEE ATTACHMENT
Modified distractors and stem to improve plausibility
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword
TECH SPEC
Cog level:
CIA 2.914.0
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03
12
ii
NOTE:
If changes are required to curves in this enclosure, the OAC curves must be updated at the
same time or the OAC curves must be considered not valid. [ 1 ]
2200
2100
2000
1900
D. 1800
2 1700
3 - 1600
E
8 1500
1400
2 1300
0
v1
v1
a
5 1200
3 8 1100
8
U
a 1000
u
900
<
$
800
E 6oo
0
2
700
500
400
300
200
100
0
OP/o/A/I 108/001
Enclosure 3.31
Unit 1 RCS HeatuplCooldown Curves
Unit 1 Wide Range Cooldown Curve
Page 2 of 5
Tcold REACTOR COOLANT TEMPERATURE (OF)
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
2200
21 00
2000
1900
1800
1700
1600
1500
1400
1300
1200
1100
1000
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
3
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
Tcold REACTOR COOLANT TEMPERATURE ("F)
U,WRCD 33
RO".
RCS TEMPERATURE
MAX COOLDOWN RATE
T > 280OF
150°F < T 5 280°F
T5150'F
RCS depressurized
5 45OF in any 1/2 hour period
5 20°F in any 1/2 hour period
5 9OF in any 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> period
5 45°F in any 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> period
L'
8 s
2200
2100
2000
1900
1800
1700
1600
1500
1400
1300
1200
1100
1000
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
Enclosure 3.31
Unit 1 RCS HeatuplCooldown Curves
Page 3 of 5
Unit 1 Wide Range Heatup Curve
Tcold REACTOR COOLANT TEMPERATURE ("F)
. 2200
. 2100
. 2000
' 1900
. 1800
1700
1600
1500
1400
1300
1200
1100
1000
900
800
600
700
500
400
300
200
100
0
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
Twld REACTOR COOLANT TEMPERATURE ("F)
RCS TEMPERATURE
MAX HEATUP RATE
T528O'F
T>280°F
UlWRHu 33 E m ,
Rev. 0
5 45'F
in any 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> period
5 90°F in any 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> period
603
575
550
525
503
475
450
M 425
403
- a
9;,
2 375
z
L
350
4
e 325
z 303
e 2 275
$G
e 225
G 203
8
a 175
150
125
1W
75
50
25
0
OPIOIAII 1081001
Enclosure 3.31
Unit 1 RCS Heatup/Cooldown Curves
Unit 1 Low Range Cooldown Curve
Page 4 of 5
T,,,, Reactor Coolant Temperature, OF
Enclosure 3.31
OPIOIAII 108/001
Unit 1 RCS Heatup/Cooldown Curves
Page 5 of 5
I
Unit 1 Low Range Heatua Curve
I
L-.
TCold
Reactor Coolant Temperature, OF
M .-
8.
0 25
50 75
100 125 150 175 200 225 250 275 300 325 350 375 400
Tcold Reactor Coolant Temperature, "F
UlLRHU33EFPY,Rev.4
- PZR level restricted to 5 380 inches
when RCS temperature is 5 160'F
-
and NO HPlPs operating.
RCS TEMPERATURE
MAX HEATUP RATE
T 5 280°F
T > 2M°F
S 45°F in any 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> period
S 90°F in any 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> period
Y
B
P
f
I
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Which one of the following is correct, following a failure of the Channel "A" Pressurizer
Temperature RTD to a minimum value?
PZR Level #I
indication will
A. increase I increase
11. 000027AK1.01001
~
, PZR Saturation Pressure indication will
B. decrease / decrease
C. increase / decrease
D. decrease I increase
Answer 409
B
A. Incorrect, failed RTD provides 0 output => low temperature indication. Loss of temp
compensation will decrease indicated level. Indicated temp decreases to the saturation
program and this will decrease the saturated pressure for
that temperature.
B. Correct, The RTD fails LOW; decreasing both operator indications.
C. Incorrect, same as A for PZR level
D. Incorrect ,same as A for Sat temperature
Added "indication" to stem. Suggest cog level is C/A.
Validation comment:
Added 'Yndication" to PZR Saturation Pressure.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
u
Keyword
PRESSURIZER
Cog level:
CIA 3.113.4
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMiRFA
'U
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
13
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
12. 000028AA2.01001
The reactor is operating normally at 100% power with Pressurizer Level Instrument # I selected
for control with SASS in auto.
Which one of the following describes the resulting plant conditions when a "Data Link Failure"
is indicated on ICCM Train "A" due to an internal power failure?
A. PZR level goes to zero, HP-120 fully opens, and PZR level HighlLow statalarms actuate.
B. PZR level goes full scale, HP-120 fully closes, and PZR level High/Low statalarms are
ii
C. SASS selects the alternate PZR level signal, HP-120 throttles as demanded by the good
level signal, and PZR level HighlLow statalarms are inoperable.
D. SASS selects the alternate PZR level signal, HP-120 throttles as demanded by the good
level signal, and PZR level HighlLow statalarms are operable.
OP-OC-PNS-PZR
Added "with SASS in auto" and "due to an internal power failure" to stem to clarify
question and to ensure "D" is the only correct answer.
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword
PZR
Cog level:
CIA 3.413.6
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthoriReviewer: LSIWRFA
u
u'
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
14
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
13. 000028AK2.02 001
Plant conditions on Unit 2 are as follows:
X
d
Reactor trip from 100% power.
Loss of pressurizer level control has occurred.
Pressurizer level is 398 inches slowly increasing on all indicators
RCS pressure is slowly increasing.
Which one of the following describes the response of RCS pressure and the reason for this
response when PZR level increases to indicate full scale?
RCS pressure:
A. continues to slowly increase because the PZR level instrument reference leg does NOT tap
off the true top of the PZR
B. continues to slowly increase because the PZR level instrument variable leg does NOT tap
off the true bottom of the PZR
C. rapidly increases because the PZR level instrument reference leg taps off the true top of
the PZR
D. rapidly increases because the PZR level instrument variable leg taps off the true bottom of
the PZR
\\.
Oconee Lesson Plan OP-OC-PNS-PZR
Added "slowly increasing" to stem and "A" and " 6
choices. Pressure would slowly
increase if PZR level is increasing. Changed to KA 000028AK2.02
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword
PZR
Cog level:
CIA 2.612.7
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSMJ~ZFA
J
Yednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
15
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
14. 000029EA2.09 001
Unit 2 plant conditions:
u
CRD breakers opened
Unit tripped due to Main Turbine trip.
Two control rods stuck at 15% withdrawn.
Reactor power = 7% and stable by Wide Range indication
EOP section UNPP was entered by the operating crew.
Which ONE of the following is the correct course of action?
A. Ensure 2HP-5, Letdown Isolation is closed and manually drive the stuck control
rods to their In-limit.
B. Ensure 2RC-4, Pressurizer Relief Block is closed and manually drive the stuck
control rods to their In-limit.
C. Borate the RCS by aligning the BWST to the HPI suction.
D. Borate the RCS by aligning " A Bleed to the LDST.
C
A) Incorrect- If any wide range NI is indicating > 1% full power this step is bypassed by
the RNO.
B) Incorrect- The CRD breakers are open and the stuck rods cannot be driven with the
trip breakers open.
C) Correct- The initial action of Rule 1 is to manually drive rods if any Power Range NI
indicates = 5%. The rods cannot be manually driven however there is no RNO for
this action. The next step of Rule 1 has the operator open HP-24/25 to add negative
reactivity from the BWST.
i/
D) Incorrect- FDW will be automatically controlled at Low Level Limits
EOP no longer has a limit on SG level during UNPP. Modified bank question 199.
Tier:
1
Keyword:
Source:
M
Test:
R
Group:
1
Cog level:
CIA 4.414.5
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: GCW
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:03 PM
16
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
15. 000029EK3.12001
Which one of the following is the reason that UNPP, Unanticipated Nuclear Power Production,
tab of the EOP directs operators to trip the main turbine if it has not already tripped?
To:
ii
A. prevent the chance of an overcooling event adding additional reactivity to the core.
B. allow heatup of the RCS enabling moderator temperature and doppler coefficients to
reduce reactor power.
C. prevent motorizing the main generator.
D. prevent the loss of pressurizer level due to AMSAC activation.
OP-OC-EAP-E26
Editorial changes to match current EOP designations.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword
Cog level:
M 4.414.8
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSIvVRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
17
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
16. oo0036~~2.02
001
Plant conditions:
ii
Unit 3 in MODE 6
Defueling has not begun
Unit 3 SFP temperature = 136O F
A loss of RCW has occurred
Which ONE of the following is the estimated time (hours) to boil in Unit 3 SFP?
SEE ATTACHMENT
A. 7
B. 23
C. 108
D. 112
C
REFERENCE APWIAII 700/035,
Enclosure 5.4
A INCORRECT - Used Core offload curve - NOT offloaded per info provided.
B INCORRECT - Used BOC curve - 1/3 core has NOT been added to SFP per info
provided.
C CORRECT - Use EOC curve.
D INCORRECT - Incorrect used incorrect axis and EOC curve.
ONS no longer has Intermediate Range detectors. KA no longer applicable to
ONS. Suggest new KA 000036AA2.02. Replaced with new question.
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword
FUEL HANDLING
Cog level:
M 3.113.4
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthodReviewer: GCW
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
18
APl31NI 7001035
Page 1 of 1
Enclosure 5.4
Unit 3 SFP Time to Boil
After Loss of SFP Cooling
180
160
140
120
-
c
3 100
-
E
0
m
80
60
40
20
0
80
90
100
110
120
130
140
150
160 170
180
190
zoo
210
Unit 3 Spent Fuel Pool Temperature ldeg Fl
NOTE: Graph assumes SFP level at -2.0' when SF Cooling is lost and SSF is required.
Curve
Condition
Core Offload
One unit complete core offloaded to SFP
After core loading (= 113 core added to SFP inventory) and between refuelings
After one unit has shutdown for refueling, but prior to core offload
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
17. 000038EA1.19 001
The following plant conditions exist:
L/
A tube rupture is in progress in OTSG "A".
RCS pressure is 1700 psig.
RCS temperature is 540 degrees F.
1A Main FDW pump operating
OTSG "A" operating range level is 89% (-280 inches XSUR).
The operator is steaming OTSG "A" and OTSG "B.
0
All RCPs are tripped.
Which one of the following is the reason for increasing the steaming rate for OTSG "A"?
A. To prevent a trip of the MFDW pumps.
B. To maintain a 100 degrees F. per hour RCS cooldown rate with BOTH OTSGs.
C. To prevent OTSG "A" from filling and lifting a MSRV.
D. To maintain Tube-to-Shell delta T within 50 degrees F.
OP-OC-EAP-E24, EPIIIAII 800/01
No utility comments.
Validation comment:
Added "IA Main FDWpump operating"t0 stem to clarify plant status.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
LJ
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 3.413.4
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
b
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
19
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
18. 000040AA2.1 001
The following plant conditions exist:
u
RCS pressure is decreasing.
Pressurizer level = 0 inches.
Unit 1 reactor has tripped.
Core subcooling margin = 10 degrees F.
"A" OTSG pressure is 800 psig and decreasing.
" B OTSG pressure is I010 and stable.
RCS Tc is 535 degrees F and decreasing.
Which one of the following procedures should be used to mitigate these abnormal RCS
indications?
A. Steam Generator Tube Rupture.
B. Loss of Subcooling Margin
C. Loss of Heat Transfer
D. Excessive Heat Transfer
Oconee Procedure Index
(0 Core subcooling margin indicates ZERO (0) degrees F.). This bullet implies that the
instrument is failed based on other indications.
Removed refer to attachment. Attachment not required. Removed tab letter
designations from distractors, not used at ONS. Changed "B" to "Loss of
Subcooling Margin" to reflect ONS EOP tab.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
EXCESSIVE HEAT TRANS
Cog level:
CIA 3.114.2
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
20
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
19. 000051AA2.02 001
Unit 1 conditions:
ii INITIAL CONDITIONS:
Reactor power = 20%
Unit startup in progress
All RCPs operating
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
Reactor tripped
1A2 RCP tripped
Reactor power = 1 Yo and decreasing
RCS pressure = 1850 psig and decreasing
Condenser vacuum = 19 inches and decreasing
Which one of the following is the cause of the reactor trip?
A. Low RCS pressure.
B. Power to flow imbalance
C. Main turbine anticipatory trip.
D. Loss of feedwater anticipatory trip.
Answer 423
D
A. Incorrect - RCS pressure > 1810 psig.
B. Incorrect - Rx power < min. flux/flow/imb trip setpoint.
C. Incorrect - Rx power < 27.75% and decreasing, turb. anticipatory trip
bypassed.
D. Correct - Operating MFDWP tripped on low vacuum.
\\-,,
No utility comments.
TIEX
1
Keyword:
COND VACUUM
Source:
E
Test:
s
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
Group:
2
Cog level:
CIA 3.914.1
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSMIRFA
21
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
20. 000054AK3.03 001
Unit 2 plant conditions:
A transient has occured which requires the use of EFDW
2FDW-315 fails to respond from the control room
2FDW-315 indicates approximately 70% open locally
2FDW-315 valve disk is free to move
i/
Which one of the following decsribes the local control of the EFDW flow control valve using the
manual handwheel?
The handwheel can be used to ...
A. fully open or throttle open the valve.
6. fully close or throttle closed the valve.
c. open, close, or throttle the valve upon a loss of the remote control positioning signal
D. lock the valve in its fully open or fully closed position, if instrument air is availble to stroke
the valve.
B
A. Incorrect, handwheel cannot be used to open the valve. Question stem implies valve is failed
L,
partially closed/open.
B. Correct,
C. Incorrect, handwheel cannot be used to open the valve.
D. Incorrect, handwheel cannot open the valve.
Replaced question because EFDW valve controllers have been replaced and no
longer operate as the question assumes. NO longer an AP119, information moved
to EOP. Bank CF025004
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword
FEED WATER
Cog level:
M 3.814.1
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Tesl:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
22
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
21. 000055EA2.01 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
Blackout tab of EOP has been in progress for 28 minutes
Diesel Air Compressor cannot be started
ii
Which one of the following is correct?
A. IHP-31 (RCP Seal Flow Control) will fail open.
B. IHP-31 (RCP Seal Flow Control) will fail closed.
C. 1FDW-315/316 (1NIB EFDW Control Valve) will fail open.
D. lFDW315/316 (1NlB EFDW Control Valve) will fail closed.
A
A. Correct, 1 HP-31 (RCP Seal Flow Control) will fail open on a loss of IA.
B. Inocrrect, 1 HP-31 (RCP Seal Flow Control) will fail open on a loss of IA.
C. Incorrect, 1FDW-315/316 ( I N I B EFDW Control Valve) would fail open on loss of IA except
they have a nitrogen backup supply.
D. Incorrect, FDW-315/316 (IN1 B EFDW Control Valve) would fail open on loss of IA except
they have a nitrogen backup supply.
Question does not meet the KA. Question deals with cycling TBVs due to
emergency CCW flow during a blackout. The KA specifies valve position during a
loss of IA as a result of a blackout. Conditions stated in question are no longer
addressed in current procedure. Replaced with a new question that matches KA.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword
BLACKOUT
Cog level:
CIA 3.413.7
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: GCW
4
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
23
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
22. 000056AA2.47 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
A LOCA has decreased RCS pressure to 1500 psig
A loss of power has caused both Keowee Units to emergency start and MFBs have
been re-energized through CT-4.
u
Which one of the following sets of actions is required to reset the load shed signals?
The operator must:
A. reset "ES Channels 1 & 2" and secure both Keowee Units.
B. energize the startup source and push the load shed reset pushbuttons.
C. depress "Manual" on the Load Shed ES modules and simultaneously depress the reset
D. restore an offsite power source to the 230 KV "Yellow Bus" and reset both the Keowee
push buttons for the MFB monitor panels load shed circuit.
Emergency Start signals in Unit 1 and 2 control room.
bank 327
A. Incorrect, securing Keowee units not required
B. Incorrect, no loadshed reset buttons. There are Keowee reset buttons
C. Correct, depress "Manual" on the Load Shed ES modules and simultaneously depress reset
push buttons for MFB monitor panels load shed circuit.
D. Incorrect, will not reset loadshed
ONS has hydro electric versus EDGs. Therefore, CE determined this KA acceptable because ONS
load sheds up front vs sequencing loads. Intent of KA met.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
Cog level:
M 3.813.9
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
Authormeviewer: LSM/RFA
d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
24
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
23. 000057 GEN 2.1.8 001
Vital inverter 3DIA tripped. The repairs are complete and it is ready to be returned to service.
Currently, regulated AC power from Panelboard 3KRA is supplying the load.
i/
The PRECHARGE Light illuminates.
DC power to the inverter has been isolated.
You have been instructed to restart the Vital Bus Inverters
You have just directed the closure of breaker #33 on the 3DIA DC Panelboard.
The operator pressed the PRECHARGE SWITCH pushbutton.
Which one of the following actions should be directed next?
SEE ATTACHMENT
Close the:
A. AC INPUT circuit breaker and verify that the input filter capacitors discharge.
B. DC INPUT circuit breaker and verify that the input filter capacitors discharge.
C. AC INPUT circuit breaker and verify that the INVERTER OUTPUT volt meter increases to
120 Volts.
D. DC INPUT circuit breaker and verify that the INVERTER OUTPUT volt meter increases to
120 Volts.
L'
op/3/a/l107/004
2.2 Press the PRECHARGE SWITCH pushbutton until the PRECHARGE Light comes on.
2.3 Close the DC INPUT circuit breaker and verifv INVERTER OUTPUT volt meter increases to
120 Volts.
2.4 Close the INVERTER OUTPUT circuit breaker.
2.5 Verify the IN SYNC light is on.
2.6 Position the MANUAL BYPASS SWITCH to the "NORMAL SOURCE position.
2.7 Verify the following indications:
. INVERTER OUTPUT volt meter )) 120 Volts.
' Inverter Output frequency meter )) 60 Hz.
. INVERTER OUTPUT amp meter increases and stabilizes to match SYSTEM
OUTPUT amp meter.
Remove "RPS Channel testing is also due during your shift" from stem. Has no bearing
on question. Attach reference OP/3/Nl107/004, Encl. 4.15 (System Drawing)
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword
INSTRUMENT
Cog level
CIA 3.714.4
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:04 PM
25
Enclosure 4.15
System Drawings
3DIA. B, C or D
One Line Diagram of Vital Inverters
3DIA. B; C, OR D
I
INVERTER 3DIA. B.
C OR D ELECTRONICS
I
INVERTER
OUTPUT
AUTO
1
TRANSFORMER 1
I
I
OP/3/A/1107/004
Page 4 of 4
. . ..
3KRA
1
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
24. 000057AA106 001
Which one of the following will occur upon a loss of KI (ICs AUTO) power from 100% with the
ICs in the integrated mode?
A. Turbine Bypass Valves (TBVs) FAIL closed
B. FWPTs trip from High SG Level circuit.
c. All Dixsons Fail with no indication.
i/
D. All Bailey stations transfer to HAND.
D
A. Incorrect, TBVs do not fail closed on loss KI.
B. Incorrect, FDWPTs do not trip on loss of KI. They will trip on loss of KI and KU.
C. Incorrect, Dixsons will auto swap to backup source and be available.
D. Correct, All Bailey stations transfer to HAND on loss of KI.
ICs has been upgraded and loss of KI no longer requires use of Aux Shutdown
Panel. Replaced with bank question STG636.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword:
LOSS OF AC POWER
Cog level:
M 3.513.5
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
w
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
26
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
25. 000058AA2.03 001
Plant conditions:
1015 on 04/30/01 the "125 VDC Ground Trouble" stat alarm was received.
1215 on 04/30/01 bus to ground voltage measurements were taken.
1415 on 04/30/01 The Units' DC systems were separated using OP/O/NI 107/08,
Isolation of DC Systems Between Units after gaining OSM concurrence.
1730 on 04/30/01 the ground has been determined to exist on Unit 2
Ground magnitude = 2.8V (-525 Ohms).
b
Which one of the following is correct?
SEE AlTACHMENT
A. The ground detector is inoperable on Unit 1, 2, & 3.
6. Both Unit 2 and Unit 3 DC systems are functional, but not operable.
C. Unit 2 is required to initiate efforts to locate the ground by 1015 on 05/02/01.
D. Unit 3 is required to measure ground and bus voltage by 0215 on 05/01/01.
A.
taken prior to the separation of the buses. A ground locating effort located the ground on Unit 2
so the ground detector is operable because a hard ground existed.
i/
B.
C.
to locate the ground be initiated 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> from the receipt of the continuous ground alarm.
D.
Incorrect. Unit 3 is required to measure ground and bus voltage by 0300 on 05/01/01. This is
the 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> allowed by condition B with the continuous ground alarm present.
Added ATACHMENT SLC 16.8.5 (125v DC Vital I&C System Ground Locating Policy).
CE determined KA acceptable because system is degraded due to ground.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Incorrect- The ground detector is operable on unit 1. Buses to ground voltages were
Incorrect- the TS definition of functional does not apply in this case.
Correct- With the magnitude of the ground at 2.8 volts, condition D requires that efforts
Keyword:
DC POWER
Cog level:
CIA 3.513.9
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
27
ii
125Vdc Vital 1&C System Ground Locating Policy
16.8.5
16.8 ELECTRIC POWER SYSTEM
16.8.5 125 Vdc Vital I&C System Ground Locating Policy
COMMITMENT
Grounds on the 125 Vdc Vital Instrumentation and Control
System will be pursued in accordance with this ground
locating policy.
APPLICABILITY:
At all times
ACTIONS
CONDITION
A.
A continuous ground
alarm is received.
B.
Oneormore
continuous ground
alarms are present.
-
One ground alarm is
c'
REQUIRED ACTION
A.l
Determine the ground
magnitude with buses
separated.
4.2.1 OSM shall determine
extenuating circumstances
exist which prohibit
separating buses and
document in the Unit log.
A.2.2 Determine the ground
magnitude with buses
separated.
B.1 Measure ground voltage.
COMPLETION TIME
8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />
8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />
8 h
ITS aft
separated
bus
re
A 50% interval extension I
applies to the Completion
Times.
Once within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />
_-----______----_______________
AND
12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> thereafter
16.8.5-1
09/30/99 I
125Vdc Vital I&C System Ground Locating Policy
16.8.5
ii
CONDITION
C.
Ground resistance
< 2.8V to ground
(< 500 Ohms).
ii
D.
Ground resistance 2
2.8V and < 6V (> 500
Ohms and I 2,000
Ohms).
REQUIRED ACTION
C.l Initiate efforts to locate the
ground.
AND
C.2 Perform engineering
evaluation of safety system
vulnerability to the ground
using the available data.
C.3 Request Plant Operations
Review Committee (PORC)
approval of the evaluation.
D.l Initiate efforts to locate the
ground.
AND
0.2 If ground is not located,
perform engineering
evaluation of safety system
vulnerability to the ground
using the available data.
D.3 Request PORC approval of
the evaluation.
COMPLETION TIME
24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
7 days from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
I
7 days from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
14 days from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
14 days from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
16.8.5-2
01/31/00 I
125Vdc Vital I&C System Ground Locating Policv
SURVEILLANCE
SR 16.8.5.1
NA
-
16.8.i
FREQUENCY
NA
L-'
CONDITION
E.
Ground resistance
2 6V and 5 18V
(> 2,000 Ohms and
5 10,000 Ohms).
REQUIRED ACTION
E.l Initiate efforts to locate the
ground.
AND
E.2 If ground is not located,
perform engineering
evaluation of safety system
vulnerability to the ground
using the available data.
AND
E.3 Request PORC approva( of
the evaluation.
COMPLETION TIME
128 hours0.00148 days <br />0.0356 hours <br />2.116402e-4 weeks <br />4.8704e-5 months <br /> from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
728 hours0.00843 days <br />0.202 hours <br />0.0012 weeks <br />2.77004e-4 months <br /> from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
728 hours0.00843 days <br />0.202 hours <br />0.0012 weeks <br />2.77004e-4 months <br /> from receipt of
continuous ground alarm
BASES
BACKGROUND
The DC ground locating process was identified as a weakness in NRC Inspection Report
I
50-269,270.287/93-26. During December 1993, a pressure switch failed which resulted in a
ground on the DC system and the inoperability of the 2A Motor Driven Emergency Feedwater
Pump. This inoperability exceeded the allowed outage time in the CTS and resulted in NRC
Violation 50-270/94-08-02, The response to this violation indicated that guidelines would be
developed for locating a DC ground, evaluating the significance of the ground, and removing
the ground. The guidelines have been developed and are contained in this SLC.
L,
16.8.5-3
01/31/00 I
125Vdc Vital I&C System Ground Locating Policy
16.8.5
The ground detection system is considered to be OPERABLE for all three Units if the buses are
not separated and a single ground detector is OPERABLE for the bus (e.g.- one detector for the
1 DCA bus or one detector for the IDCB bus).
'
APPLICABILITY
At all times, DC grounds on the 125Vdc Vital Instrumentation and Control System will be
located in accordance with this ground locating policy.
ACTIONS
A.I,A.2.l,A.2.2
When a continuous valid ground alarm is received, the ground magnitude must be determined
with the buses separated. Separation of the buses at the isolating transfer diodes is required to
eliminate interactions between the buses, to determine which bus the ground is located on and
to determine the magnitude of the ground. Prior to separating the buses, bus to ground voltage
measurements are taken in order to determine if a hard ground exists or if the problem exists
within the detector circuitry. Eight hours to separate the buses and determine the ground
magnitude is acceptable based on engineering judgement considering the low likelihood of
multiple grounds causing inoperability of required equipment or instrumentation.
Separation of the buses may not be desirable due to extenuating circumstances as determined
by the Operations Shift Manager. In this event, the circumstances shall be documented in the
Unit log within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> of the continuous ground alarm. When the buses are separated, an
additional 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> is permitted to determine the ground magnitude.
c-
-
B. 1
Whenever continuous valid ground alarms are present or a ground alarm is inoperable, ground
voltage measurements will be made every 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />. Any changes in the positive-to-ground or
negative-to-ground voltages will be evaluated to ensure that there is no additional system
degradation.
c.I
If the ground magnitude is determined to be 5; 500 Ohms, then locating efforts will begin within
24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> from receipt of the ground alarm. If determination of ground magnitude is delayed due
to extenuating circumstances as described above, ground locating efforts will begin within 16
hours after the 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> period for determination of the ground magnitude. The ground will be
located within 7 days after the receipt of a continuous ground alarm, or an evaluation of the
L.
,
16.8.5-4
09/30/99 I
125Vdc Vital I&C System Ground Locating Policy
16.8.5
u'
i
located within 7 days after the receipt of a continuous ground alarm, or an evaluation of the
safety system vulnerability using the available ground data will be performed. This 7 day action
statement is based on 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> to initiate the locating efforts and 6 days to locate the ground or
perform an evaluation. The Plant Operations Review Committee (PORC) will be contacted to
approve the evaluation.
If the ground magnitude is determined to be > 500 Ohms and I2,OOO Ohms, then fewer relays
are vulnerable. Locating efforts will begin within 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br />. This is based on a total time period
of 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> from receipt of the ground alarm until locating efforts begin (40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> plus the initial
8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />). If determination of ground magnitude is delayed due to extenuating circumstances as
described above, ground locating efforts will begin within 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> after the 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> period for
determination of the ground magnitude. The ground will be located within 14 days after the
buses are separated, or an evaluation of the safety system vulnerability using the available
ground data will be performed. This 14 day action statement is based on 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> to initiate the
locating efforts and 12 days to locate the ground or perform an evaluation. The PORC will be
contacted to approve the evaluation.
I
-
E.l
If the ground magnitude is determined to be > 2,000 Ohms and 5 10,000 Ohms, then locating
efforts will begin within 128 hours0.00148 days <br />0.0356 hours <br />2.116402e-4 weeks <br />4.8704e-5 months <br />. If determination of ground magnitude is delayed due to
extenuating circumstances as described above, ground locating efforts will begin within 5 days
after the 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> period for determination of the ground magnitude. The ground will be located
within 728 hours0.00843 days <br />0.202 hours <br />0.0012 weeks <br />2.77004e-4 months <br /> after receipt of a continuous ground alarm, or an evaluation of the safety
system vulnerability using the available ground data will be performed. This 728 hour0.00843 days <br />0.202 hours <br />0.0012 weeks <br />2.77004e-4 months <br /> action
statement is based on 5 days and 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> to initiate the locating efforts and 25 days to locate
the ground or perform an evaluation. The PORC will be contacted to approve the evaluation.
REFERENCES:
1.
2.
NRC Inspection Report 50-269,270,287/93-26.
3.
NRC Inspection Report 50-269,270,287194-08.
4.
\\-'
1
LER 270/94-01 dated March 10, 1994, "Technical Specification Limit Exceeded Due to
Equipment Failure.
5/11/94 letter from J. W. Hampton to NRC Document Control Desk, "Reply to Notice of
Violation."
I
5.
6.
6/23/94 letter from J. W. Hampton to NRC Document Control Desk, "Reply to Notice of
Violation."
2/9/95 memo from L. S. Underwood to C. A. Little. "DC Ground Locating Policy."
I
16.8.5-5
01/31/00 I
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
26. 000059AK3.01 001
Both a GWR and an LWR are in progress. IRIA-35 (LPSW DISCH) has just alarmed.
Which one of the following are your required actions?
A. Terminate both the GWR and LWR.
B. Terminate the GWR only.
C. Terminate the LWR only.
D. Continue both releases until a confirmatory sample indicates the alarm is valid.
Per AP/1/Nl700/018 Section 4C
Added (LPSW DISCH) to stem.
Tier:
1
Keyword
RAD RELEASE
Source:
N
Test:
R
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
Group:
2
Cog level:
M 2.712.8
Exam:
OC03301
AuthoriReviewer: LSM/RFA
28
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
27. 000061K1.01001
Which one of the following Radiation Monitors is potentially unreliable under accident
conditions?
A. RIA- 4, Reactor Building Hatch Area Radiation Monitor.
6, RIA-56, High Range Stack Radiation Monitor.
C. RIA-57, High Range Containment Radiation Monitor
D. RIA-58, High Range Containment Radiation Monitor.
bank 2003 question 791
A. Correct - RIA-4 is not totally EQ.
B, C, D. Incorrect - RlAs are used during accident conditions
No utility comments.
Tier:
1
Group:
2
\\u
Keyword:
Cog level:
M 2.512.9
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
d'
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
29
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
28. 000062AA1.07 001
Unit 3 plant conditions:
u
MODE5
rn
3A LPSW is tagged out for bearing replacement
3B LPSW pump has just tripped
Which ONE of the following is correct?
Cross connect:
A. Unit 3 LPSW system with HPSW system and reduce LPSW loads.
B. Unit 3 LPSW system with HPSW system and maintain EWST level >90,000
g a I I o n s .
C. Units 1&2 LPSW system with Unit 3 and start an additional Unit 1&2 LPSW Pump.
D. Units 1&2 LPSW system with Unit 3 and maintain the current LPSW Pump
combination.
C
A. Incorrect- HPSW is not used to backup LPSW (procedurally)
B. Incorrect - Cross connecting LPSW alone is not a correct action
C. Correct - Cross connecting LPSW and starting an additional U1&2 LPSW Pump is
D. Incorrect - HPSW is not used to backup LPSW (procedurally)
Operability determinations are performed by SROs. Replaced modified bank question
605 that meets KA.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
ii
the correct mitigation action
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 2.913.0
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorIReviewer: GCW
Ll
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
30
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
29. 000067 GEN 2.4.27 001
A fire near the control room door has rendered the control room unsafe requiring activation of
the SSF. The decision has been made to enter AP/I/AI1700/08, Loss of Control Room.
'-
Which one of the following actions are taken before transitioning out of AP/I/A/1700/08?
A. Dispatch an operator to locally close 1-FDW-315.
B. Dispatch an operator to locally open 1-HP-24.
C. V e r i f y m Keowee Units emergency started.
D. Verify at least one Keowee Unit emergency started.
A. Correct
B. & C . Actions taken only if the control room is abandoned for reasons other than fire.
D. This is not an action taken in AP/I/A/1700/008
Added "requiring activation of the SSF" to stem to ensure proper path in the AP.
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword
FIRE
Cog level:
M 3.0/3.5
U Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
'U
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
31
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
30. 000067AK3.04 001
The following conditions exist:
A fire occurred that destroyed equipment, normal power supplies, controls, and cabling.
Pumps required for plant shutdown cannot be operated from their normal power supply.
L/
Which one of the following is correct?
I&E will align power to required Appendix R pumps from:
A. CT-5 through the Appendix R Switchgear.
B. CT-5 through motor starters on the back of the Appendix R Portable Valve Control Panel.
C. CT-4 through the Appendix R Switchgear.
D. CT-4 through motor starters on the back of the Appendix R Portable Valve Control Panel.
Bank 238
A Incorrect. Power to Appendix R Pumps and controls is supplied via CT-4 (Keowee
underground feeder) through the Appendix R Switchgear.
B Incorrect. Power to Appendix R Pumps and controls is supplied via CT-4 (Keowee
underground feeder) through the Appendix R Switchgear.
C Correct. Power to Appendix R Pumps and controls is supplied via CT-4 (Keowee
underground feeder) through the Appendix R Switchgear.
D Incorrect. Power to Appendix R Pumps and controls is supplied via CT-4 (Keowee
underground feeder) through the Appendix R Switchgear. Power is not through motor starters
on the back of the Appendix R Portable Valve Control Panel.
No utility comments.
Tier:
1
Keyword:
PLANT FIRE
Source:
B
Test:
R
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
Group:
2
Cog level:
M 3.314.1
Exam:
OC03301
AuthodReviewer: LSMRFA
32
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
31. 00009EA2.39 001
The following plant conditions exist:
- SBLOCA in progress
- TA and TB Switchgear locked out
- Boiler Condenser heat transfer is occurring
i/
Which one of the following describes the method of post cooldown long term decay heat
removal provided by the EOP?
A. Initiate Natural Circulation Cooldown and ensure one LPI train in High Pressure Mode and
one LPI train in ECCS alignment with suction from the RBES.
B. Initiate Natural Circulation Cooldown and ensure one LPI train in series Mode and one LPI
train in ECCS alignment with suction from the RBES.
C. Start one RCP and ensure one LPI train in High Pressure Mode and one LPI train in ECCS
alignment with suction from the RBES.
D. Start one RCP and ensure one LPI train in series Mode and one LPI train in ECCS
alignment with suction from the RBES.
Based on Bank Question 204
EAP130701
-/
A.
Correct. The LOCA Cooldown section of the EOP will align on LPI train in the High
Pressure Mode while leaving the other in its ECCS alignment with suction on the RBES.
B.
Incorrect. Series mode would require use of both LPI Coolers. One train remains
aligned to the RBES to provide for replacement of water lost out of the break.
C. Actions are correct except an RCP is not used
D. Series mode would require use of both LPI Coolers. One train remains aligned to the RBES
to provide for replacement of water lost out of the break. and an RCP is not used.
KA does not match. KA is for a LBLOCA. At ONS we have Boiler Condenser cooling
instead of Reflux Boiling. 200 gpm leak will not saturate the plant. Added SBLOCA to
stem. TA and TB Switchgear locked out added to stem to eliminate cue in stem that
made "C" and "D" not plausible. Changed to SRO only. Changed to KA 00009EA2.39.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
Keyword
NATURAL CIRC
Cog level:
CIA 4.314.1
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
33
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
32. 001.42.13 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
Reactor power = 100%
RCS Pressure = 2476 psig
CRD breakers did not open
AMSAClDSS Ch 1 AND Ch 2 enabled
AMSAClDSS Channel 1 "Halt" light is lit
u
Which one of the following is correct?
A. Control rod groups 1-4, 5, 6, 7 will insert into the core.
6. Control rod groups 5, 6, 7 ONLY will insert into the core.
C. Control rod groupsl-4 ONLY will insert into the core.
D. No control rods will insert into the core.
D
A. Incorrect, this would be true if the CRD breakers opened.
6. Incorrect, AMSAClDSS Channel 1 "Halt" light is lit will prevent AMSAClDSS actuation and
no rods will be inserted into the core. This would be correct if the halt light was not lit.
C. Incorrect, this would be true if the CRD breakers opened. AMSAClDSS does not trip in
groups 1-4.
D. Correct, AMSAClDSS Channel 1 "Halt" light is lit will prevent AMSAClDSS actuation and no
rods will be inserted into the core.
Two correct answers ("B" and "D). Replaced with new question.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
u
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 4.414.6
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: GCW
'U'
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
34
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
33. 003 K5.04 001
Unit 2 is implementing OP/2/A/l102/10 (Controlling Procedure for Unit Shutdown). During 2/0
RCP operation, an RCP is stopped and then later restarted. Which one of the following is the
reason for this action?
A. To allow a more rapid cooldown to place DHR in service sooner.
B. To allow an electrical train to be taken out of service.
C. To minimize the possibility of inadvertent power increases.
D. To allow the DHR trains to be cross connected.
PIP 0-2-1374
Added procedure title. Changed "returned to service" to "restarted" to clarify
stem. Changed RHR to DHR. Made Units designations match in stem.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword
Cog level:
M 3.113.5
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSMRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:05 PM
35
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
34. 003A3.02 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
i/
TIME: 1720
Reactor manually tripped per AP102, Excessive RCS Leakage
RCPAmps: 1Al =430
1A2 = 425
1B1 =410
1B2 = 425
TIME: 1721
Core SCM = 0°F
TIME: 1725
Reactor Power = 0%
Core SCM = 0°F
RCPAmps: 1Al = 250
1A2 = 375
1B1 = 190
1B2 = 325
Which ONE of the following is correct?
A. Leave all RCPs running.
B. Trip all RCPs immediately.
C. Reduce the number of running RCPs to one RCPlloop operation.
D. Secure all RCPs with the exception of the associated spray pump.
Bank 162
A
d
A. Correct:
RCPs should be left running due to amps not normal.
B. Incorrect: Per Rule 2 -trip all RCPs if reactor power Is < 1% and amps are normal
C. Incorrect: Do not trip any RCPs. No guidance on securing selected RCPs
D. Incorrect: Do not trip any RCPs. no guidance on securing selected RCPs
Instrumentation mentioned in question is not monitored by the operator.
Replaced with bank 162.
Tier:
2
Group:
I
and stable. Amps are not normal
Keyword
RCP MOTOR
Cog level
CIA 2.612.5
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
L/
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
36
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
35. 004GEN2.4.11 001
You are the Senior Reactor Operator on Unit 1 .
Plant conditions:
u
SSF activation is required
You have dispatched an RO, in accordance with AP125 (SSF EOP), to the SSF to start
the DIG and supply Unit 1 RCP seal flow with the RCMU pump.
The Reactor Coolant Makeup (RCMU) pump OVERRIDE switch has been positioned to
OVERRIDE.
The RCMU pump Suction valve (SF-82) fails closed.
Which one of the following describes the RCMU pump response to an attempted start?
The RCMU Pump:
A. will start and continue to run.
B. will start but will trip on lube oil pressure.
C. will start but will trip on low discharge flowrate.
D. interlock will prevent the pump from starting.
NEED PROCEDURE NUMBER FROM FACILITY
A. Correct The RCMU Pump will start regardless of Suction Valve position.
B. Incorrect. The Low Lube Oil Press trip is bypassed when Override is used.
C. Incorrect. The Low Discharge Flowrate trip is bypassed when Override is used.
D. Incorrect. The RCMU Pump will start regardless of Suction Valve position.
(Ref: NRC #081). The only interlock associated with the Override Switch is HP-398
Reworded stem to improve readability. Added procedure number and title.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword
MAKEUP
Cog level:
CIA 2.514.0
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthoriReviewer: LSM/RFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
37
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
36. 004K2.02 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
Unit startup in progress
Reactor power = 40%
i/
Which one of the following is correct?
1A HPI pump will receive power from:
A. Main Transformer (IT) via switchgear ITC
B. Startup Transformer (CT-1) via switchgear ITC
C. Main Transformer (IT) via switchgear ITD
D. Startup Transformer (CT-1) via switchgear ITD
A
A. Correct, 1A HPI pump is powered from ITC and at 40% power unit auxiliaries will be lined
B. Incorrect, 1A HPI pump is powered from ITC and at 40% power unit auxiliaries will be lined
C. Incorrect, 1A HPI pump is powered from ITC and at 40% power unit auxiliaries will be lined
D. Incorrect, 1A HPI pump is powered from ITC and at 40% power unit auxiliaries will be lined
The question concerned how aux power was supplied to the Keowee units. The
KA concerned the power supply to the RCS Makeup pumps. Wrote a new
question that matched the KA.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
up to the Main Transformer (IT).
up to the Main Transformer (IT).
up to the Main Transformer (IT).
up to the Main Transformer (IT).
u
Keyword:
MUP
Cog level:
M 2.9/3.1
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
b
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
38
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
37. 005K3.07 001
The following conditions exist on Unit 3:
The Reactor Vessel Head is removed.
The Fuel Transfer Canal is flooded.
ii
There is a thunderstorm in the area when you receive the following alarms:
"LP DECAY HEAT LOOP A FLOW LOW" statalarm (1 SA-03/A-8)
"LP DECAY HEAT LOOP B FLOW LOW" statalarm (1SA-O3/A-9)
"LP INJECTION PUMP A DlFF PRESS LOW" statalarm (ISA-Ol/C-12)
"LP INJECTION PUMP B DlFF PRESS LOW" statalarm (ISA-Ol/D-12)
"LP INJECTION PUMP C DlFF PRESS LOW" statalarm (ISA-OIIE-12)
"LPSW HEADER A/B PRESS LOW" statalarm (ISA-OS/A-S)
"LPI COOLER 1A LPSW FLOW LO alarm (OlA2124)
"LPI COOLER 16 LPSW FLOW LO alarm (OlA2125).
Which one of the following describes what has happened?
A. Only one LPI pump has tripped.
B. All LPI Pumps have tripped only.
C. All LPSW pumps have tripped only.
D. There are no LPI or LPSW pumps currently running.
\\,
d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 718:06 PM
39
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
solution: C both an LPI and LPSW pump have tripped
1. Purpose
This case provides the necessary actions to mitigate a loss of decay heat removal with the
Reactor Vessel Head removed and the Fuel Transfer Canal (FTC) flooded. This case also
provides actions to take in the event of loss of water level in the FTC.
2. Symptoms
2.1 LPI pump@) tripped:
a "LP DECAY HEAT LOOP A FLOW LOW statalarm (1SA-O3/A-8)
a "LP DECAY HEAT LOOP B FLOW LOW statalarm (1SA-O3/A-9)
a "LP INJECTION PUMP A DlFF PRESS LOW" statalarm (ISA-Ol/C-12)
a "LP INJECTION PUMP B DlFF PRESS LOW statalarm (ISA-OIID-12)
a "LP INJECTION PUMP C DlFF PRESS LOW statalarm (ISA-OVE-12)
9 "LPI HDR 1A INJECTION FLOW LO alarm (01A1310)
a "LPI HDR 1B INJECTION FLOW" LO alarm (01A1311).
2.2 Loss of LPSW flow to cooler(s):
a "LPSW HEADER AIB PRESS LOW" statalarm (lSA-09/A-9)
9
"LPI COOLER 1A LPSW FLOW LO alarm (01A2124)
a "LPI COOLER 1B LPSW FLOW" LO alarm (OlA2125).
i/
2.3 LPI temperature increasing:
9 "LP INJECTION PUMP SUCTION TEMP HIGH HEADER E W statalarm (1SA-03/B-8)
9 "LP INJECTION PUMP SUCTION TEMP HIGH HEADER E B P statalarm (1SA-O3/B-9)
9 "LP DECAY HEAT EXCH TEMP HIGH statalarm (1SA-03/E-9)
a "LPI COLD SHUTDOWN TEMP HIGH" statalarm (ISA-05/E-10)
a "LPI DHR / RBES A SUCTION HDR TEMP HI alarm (OlA1322)
a "LPI RBES B SUCTION HDR TEMP HI alarm (01A1323).
2.4 Loss of RCS/FTC inventory:
a "RB REACTOR BLDG. NORM SUMP LEVEL HIGHILOW" statalarm (1SA-09/A-6)
a "SF SFP LEVEL HIGH/LOW statalarm (ISA-O9/A-5)
9
"SF POOL LEVEL" LO alarm (OlD1064)
9 Decreasing level in the Spent Fuel Pool
9 Decreasing Level in the Fuel Transfer Canal
a Decreasing Level in the Pressurizer
9 Increasing Level in RBNS
a Water spilling in the Auxiliary Building
9 IRIA-3 (Fuel Transfer Canal Wall) alarm
9 IRIA-6 (Spent Fuel Pool) alarm.
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
40
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
No utility comments.
ii Validafion comment:
Removed the following bullets PI HDR I A INJECTION FLOW LO alarm (01A1310) PI
HDR I B INJECTION FLOW LO alarm (01A1311) from stern. They will not alarm unless ES
has actuated.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
Cog level:
CIA 3.213.6
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
41
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
38. 006 GEN 2.1.7 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
Ll
EOP Enclosure 5.12, ECCS Suction Swap to RBES is in progress
ILP-19 & ILP-20 (IA &1B RX BLDG SUCTION) are OPEN
ILP-21 & ILP-22 (IA & 16 LPI BWST SUCTION) are OPEN
BWST level has STOPPED decreasing (stable) with continued HPI injection flow
Which one of the following is correct concerning the current BWST level trend?
A stable BWST level:
A. is not expected and LPI pump(s)must be secured to prevent overheating.
B. is not expected and LPI pump(s)must be secured to prevent hydrogen gas binding.
C. is expected and LPI pump(s) suction flow is currently from RBES only.
D. is expected and LPI pump@) suction flow is still from the BWST but is below the flow
A.
Incorrect: suction is from the RBES, LPI pump operation may continue.
B.
Incorrect: 30 minutes is allowed while pumping against a shutoff head. This is not the
case (LPIIHPI piggyback is aligned). Suction is the concern and RBES is providing suction at
this time.
C.
Correct: with both RBES and BWST suction valves open and BWST level not
decreasing, then suction is from the RBES only. RB(P) could also be high causing flow to be
from the RBES
D.
Incorrect: With BWST level not decreasing ,this indicates no inventory being used from
BWST.
Question 167 EAP062301 EAP062301
instrument tap.
Reworded stem and answers to improve readability.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 3.714.4
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorlReviewer: LSMRFA
-1
Wednesday, June 04,2003 71806 PM
42
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
39. 006A4.05 001
You are performing EOP Enclosure 5.1. At step 13 you find that both BWST suction valves
(IHP-24 and IHP-25) are closed.
You then perform the following step:
IF both BWST suction valves (IHP-24 and 1 HP-25) are closed,
THEN perform the following:
A. Ensure the following are open:
ILP-6
ILP-7
ILP-9
ILP-10
ILP-15
ILP-16
B. Start 1A or 1B LPI Pump.
C. Dispatch an operator to open IHP-363 (Letdown Line To LPI Pump Suction Block)
(Unit 1 LPI Hatch area).
Which one of the following describes what these steps have accomplished?
A. Cross tied the HPI and LPI pump suction.
B. Cross tied the HPI and LPI pump discharge.
C. aligned HPI system discharge to the LPI pump suction.
D. aligned LPI system discharge to the HPI pump suction.
i/
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
43
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
GO TO Step 13.
A.
the same actions as steps 10 through 13 below for HPI flow verification. Therefore the RNO
skips HPI verification.
B.
1.2
If RCS is saturated, Rule #2 will be performed as a higher priority. Rule #2 will perform
If RCS is subcooled, HPI verification will be performed here.
Ensure the following are open:
su
1 HP-24
1 HP-25
RNO:
(OBJ R10) IF both BWST suction valves
(IHP-24 and IHP-25) are closed,
THEN perform the following:
A.
Ensure the following are open:
1 LP-6
1 LP-7
1 LP-9
1 LP-10
I
ILP-16
B.
C.
(Unit 1 LPI Hatch area).
The steps above will align LPI system discharge to the HPI pump suction.
Suction can be supplied to the HPI Pumps through ILP-15 and ILP-16 after passing through
the LPI Coolers. This flowpath would involve the LPI Pumps taking suction from the BWST..
Start 1A or 1 B LPI Pump.
Dispatch an operator to open 1HP?363 (Letdown Line To LPI Pump Suction Block)
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Keyword
Source:
N
Test:
R
Group:
1
Cog level:
CIA 3.913.8
Exam:
OC03301
i
AuthorlReviewer: LSMRFA
L,:
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
44
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
40. 007K1.03 001
The level of the Reactor Coolant Quench Tank is slowly rising. Which one of the following
could have caused this to occur?
A. Core flood tank relief valves.
B. LPI suction relief valves.
C. Reactor high point vents.
D. RCP seal leakage.
A, b, and c not connected to quench tank
OP-OC-PNS-CPS
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Keyword:
QUENCH TANK
Source:
N
Test:
R
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 718:06 PM
Group:
1
Cog level:
M 3.013.2
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
45
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
41. 008A2.01 001
You are the OATC for unit 1. Unit 1 is at 73% power.
1-HP-5 remains open.
CC flow is 500 gpm and decreasing.
RCP seal return valves remain open.
Ll
Which one of the following are the correct action@) to respond to this event?
Enter API1IN17001020 and:
A. Trip the reactor and stop the affected RCPs.
B. Trip the reactor and go to 2/0 RCP operation.
C. Reduce power to < 70% and stop all RCPs.
D. Start the standby CC pump.
API1IN17001020 pages 1 and 2
Corrected question by rewording stem, "C" and "D" choice. ONS does not have
auto isolation of CC to individual RCPs. In "D" with CC-7/8 closed there would be
no CC flow.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
'\\ii
Keyword
ccs
Cog level:
CIA 31313.6
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSiWRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:06 PM
46
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
42. 008A4.01 001
I&E is performing testing during a refueling outage. The I&E technician inadvertently presses
the green "CC Interlock button" located in System Logic Cabinet No. 3 in the cable room.
Which one of the following is the consequence of pressing this button?
A. CC-7 and 8 will no longer close on actuation of ES Channels 5 and 6 respectively.
B. Letdown cooler CC inlet valve CC-1 (CC-2) may now be opened after the letdown cooler
inlet valve HP-1 (HP-2) is opened.
'u
c. A reactor coolant pump can now be started if CC flow is less than 575 GPM.
D. CRDs can now be energized without component cooling water
1 .I
A.
B.
CRDs.
C.
flow will not affect a running RCP.
D.
valve HP-1 (HP-2) will open.
E.
If CC-7 or CC-8 goes closed, the CC pumps will trip and automatically restart when CC-7 and
CC-8 are reopened.
A.
(OBJ R16) The component cooling system must be in operation for any of the following
conditions:
1.
Control rod drives energized. There is an interlock to prevent the CRDs from being
energized without component cooling water, but will not de-energize the drive upon loss of
cooling water.
Instructor note:
This interlock can be overridden by pressing green "CC Interlock button" located in System
Logic Cabinet No. 3 in the cable room to allow I&E testing of CRDs during unit outage.
(OBJ R15) Interlocks Associated With the CC System
If in AUTO, the standby CC Pump starts at 575 GPM flow.
If de-energized, the CRDs cannot be energized if CC flow is less than 138 GPM to the
A reactor coolant pump cannot be started if CC flow is less than 575 GPM. Low CC
Letdown cooler CC inlet valve CC-1 (CC-2) must be open before letdown cooler inlet
CC-7 and 8 close on actuation of ES Channels 5 and 6 (respectively)
,d
Prevents thermal damage to the CRD stators
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Keyword:
ccw
Source:
N
Test:
R .
Group:
I
Cog level:
CIA 3.313.1
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
47
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
43. 008K3.02 001
Unit 3 is operating at 100% rated power when the Component Cooling Water Containment
Return valve (CC-8) fails closed.
Which one of the following is the correct IMMEDIATE operator action and WHEN the operator
should perform the action?
A. Trip the reactor when the pressurizer low level alarm is received.
6. Trip individual RCPs when motor stator temperature exceeds 185 deg F.
C. Trip the reactor when two CRD stator temperatures exceed 180 deg F.
D. Trip the individual RCPs when their respective thermal barrier temperature exceeds 225
Original KA not applicable. Changed to KA 008K3.02.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
deg F.
Keyword:
ccs
Cog level:
M 2.913.1
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMiRFA
v
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
48
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
44. 010K2.01 001
Which one of the followina describes how the Dressurizer heaters (excluding those powered
-
i/
from the SSF) for each unit are normally suppiied?
They are supplied from:
A. safety related motor control centers. The pressurizer heaters are divided among three
4160 volt ES buses.
B. non-safety related motor control centers. The pressurizer heaters are divided among two
4160 volt ES buses such that the loss of one entire 4160 volt bus will not result in a loss of
function.
C. non-safety related motor control centers. The pressurizer heaters are divided among three
4160 volt ES buses.
D. Safety related motor control centers. The pressurizer heaters are divided among two 4160
volt ES buses such that the loss of one entire 4160 volt bus will not result in a loss of
function.
Solution - C
The pressurizer heaters for each unit are normally supplied from non-safety related motor
control centers (MCCs) XH, XI, XJ, and XK. The pressurizer heaters are divided among the
three 4160 volt ES buses such that the loss of one entire 4160 volt bus will not preclude the
capability to supply sufficient pressurizer heaters to maintain natural circulation in MODE 3.
Added "will not result in a loss of function" to " B and "D" to complete the sentence.
Validation comment:
Added "(excluding those powered from the SSF)" to stem because the SSF supplied heaters
are powered from a safety related power source.
i/
Tier:
2
Keyword
PZR PRESSURE
Source:
N
Test:
R
L./
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
Group:
1
Cog level:
M 3.0/3.4
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
49
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Which one of the following statements describes the plant response to a pressurizer level
channel (controlling channel) failing LOW with SASS in manual? (ASSUME no operator action
taken and the reactor is at 100% power).
45. OllK3.02 001
HP-120:
A. OPENS, actual Pzr level increases and RCS pressure increases.
6. CLOSES, actual Pzr level decreases and RCS pressure decreases.
C. CLOSES, actual Pzr level decreases and pressurizer heaters turn off
D. OPENS, actual Pzr level decreases and RCS pressure decreases.
OP-OC-PNS-PZR,
The status of SASS is required to answer this question. Added "with SASS in
manual" to stem.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword:
PZR LEVEL
Cog level:
CIA 3.513.7
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMiRFA
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
50
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
46. 012K5.01001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
Group 6/Rod 4 dropped into the core.
An ICs runback was completed.
Reactor power imbalance has become excessive.
I&E has lowered the RPS setpoints for the FluxlFlow/lmbalance trip.
Ll
Which one of the following describes core limit@) that will be protected by reducing the RPS
setpoint?
A. Fuel Centerline Temperature only.
6. Fuel Centerline Temperature and DNBR.
c. Excessive core operating pressures and DNBR.
D. Excessive core operating temperatures and pressures.
Bank Question 427
A.
limit
B.
flux/flow/imbalance trip is reduced. And is the basis for the trip setpoint
C.
D.
Pressure is not part of the basis.
Incorrect - Fuel Centerline temperature alone is not the only restrictive core operating
Correct - Fuel Centerline temperature and DNBR are concerns when the
Incorrect- pressure is not contained in the basis for the resetting of the trip setpoint.
Incorrect- the basis for the trip is temperature however it is fuel centerline temperature.
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Keyword
Source:
B
Test:
R
d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
Group:
1
Cog level:
M 3.313.8
Exam:
OC03301
Authormeviewer: LSMiRFA
51
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
47.
012K6.04 001
Unit 1 is operating at 91% power when the OATC inadvertently places the "B" RPS Channel
S/D Bypass Key switch to "Bypass"? Which one of the following will occur?
A. All RPS trips are bypassed on " B RPS Channel.
6. All RPS trips are bypassed on ALL RPS Channels.
C. A high RCS pressure trip set point of 1720 psig is inserted and ALL RPS Channels will trip.
D. A high RCS pressure trip set point of 1720 psig is inserted and "B" RPS Channel will trip.
D
A. Incorrect, would be true for "manual bypass" key switch.
B. Incorrect, would be true for "manual bypass" key switch if all channels were placed in maual
C. Incorrect, will only trip affected channel.
D. Correct, a high RCS pressure trip set point of 1720 psig is inserted and " B RPS Channel
i/
bypass.
will trip.
In addition to bypassing the four trip parameters above, the "Bypass" position automatically
inserts a high RCS pressure trip set point of 1720 psig, so that the plant cannot be operated
normally with portions of the RPS in SID Bypass.
a)
variable low pressure trip, the fluxlflow - imbalance trip, and the power/RCPs trip normally
associated with the RPS.
b)
automatically inserts a high RCS pressure trip set point of E1720 psig, so that the plant cannot
be operated normally with portions of the RPS in S/D Bypass.
1)
While the normal high pressure trip of f2355 psig is not electrically bypassed it is
basically nonfunctional because RPS will trip before the setpoint can be reached.
The setpoint of 1720 psig is selected for the new high pressure trip so that the plant must first
be shutdown, using normal procedures, before S/D Bypass can be initiated; 1720 psig is below
the normal low pressure trip of 1800 psig, so that the plant must first be maneuvered past the
normal low pressure trip point before going to S/D bypass. 1710 psig is the actual setpoint used
for conservatism.
Question assumes only one SID Bypass Key Switch. Each RPS Channel (4) has a
SID Bypass Key Switch. Question reworded, modified stem and rewrote all
distractors.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Positioning S/D Bypass Key switch to "Bypass" bypasses the Low Pressure Trip, the
In addition to bypassing the four trip parameters above, the "Bypass" position
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 3.313.6
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
52
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
48. 013A1.06001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
AllSCMs =o"F
ES 1-8 actuated
ii
RCS Temperature = 456°F and stable
BWST level = 11.5' and is slowly decreasing
OTSG levels are being maintained at LOSCM Setpoint
Turbine Bypass Valves are in AUTOMATIC
Which one of the following describes the current plant condition?
The OSTGs
. The
is the water source to the RCS.
A. can not remove heat / BWST
B. can not remove heat / RBES
C. are removing heat / BWST
D. are removing heat / RBES
Solution : A. Based on Bank 2003 question 202
A)
greater than or equal to RCS pressure since TBV's are controlling at setpoint +I25 and
minimum setpoint is 600 psig. BWST suction swap to RBES is in progress, but RBES valves
are not opened until 9' therefore even if LP-15 and 16 have been opened, suction source
remains the BWST.
B)
wrong water source
C.
D)
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Correct . SGs can not be removing heat with the TBV's in auto, SG pressure would be
SGs can not be removing heat with the TBV's in auto,
SGs can not be removing heat with the TBV's in auto, wrong water source
Keyword:
BWSTIESFAS
Cog level:
CIA 3.613.9
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
53
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
49. 013K3.03 001
Unit 2 plant conditions:
A LOCA has occurred
RCS pressure = 85 psig
Reactor building pressure = 6 psig
RB spray has not actuated.
u
Which one of the following statements is correct and why?
A. No action should be taken, this is below the ES setpoint for RBS.
6. RBS should be actuated because this is below the actuation pressure assumed in the
'
C. RBS should be actuated because this is above the actuation pressure assumed in the
D. This is above the actuation pressure assumed in the UFSAR. Containment should be
vented. then the RBS should be initiated.
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
54
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
The UFSAR assumes that RBS is actuated at 30 psig. The actual ES setpoint is 10 psig. The
20-psi difference between the safety analysis assumption and the plant setpoint is ample to
account for instrument uncertainty.
i/
The purpose of the Reactor Building Spray initiation is to protect the Reactor Building by
removing heat from the RB via the LPI system decay heat coolers.
In addition, the RBS system can help provide protection while not actually removing heat from
the RB.
The RBS system can be configured in many different ways while being used. The RBS can be
aligned to spray cool water from the BWST into the RB atmosphere. As the spray condenses
steam in the RB, the energy formerly in the steam is transferred to the liquid entering the RB
sump. The water in the sump is not cooled until the LPI system is realigned to pass water
through the LPI decay heat coolers. Current station procedures allow the water from the sump
to be sprayed back into the RB without being cooled. As with the injection mode of operation,
this mode will condense steam but will not remove heat from the RB. However, the
condensation of steam by the spray will work to decrease the internal pressure of the RB by
reducing the partial pressure of the steam. In this manner, the RB spray will help protect the
RB integrity without actually providing RB cooling.
The UFSAR assumes that RBS is actuated at 30 psig. The actual ES setpoint is 10 psig. The
20-psi difference between the safety analysis assumption and the plant setpoint is ample to
account for instrument uncertainty.
The UFSAR states that a 2.4-second ESFAS delay is assumed for Reactor Building Spray
actuation.
T. S. basis fwthe 4 psi and 15 psi setpoints is to establish a setting which would be reached
immediately in the event of a DBA, cover the entire spectrum of break sizes, and yet be far
enough above normal operation pressures to prevent spurious initiation.
Reworded stem for clarification.
Tier:
2
Group:
I
L-,,
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 4.314.7
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
55
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
50. 014A1.02 001
Which ONE of the following is correct?
The Sequence Monitoring logic utilizes rod position data from the control rod
system and the Diamond SEQUENCE INHIBIT lamp
A. Relative Position / will be ON until all safety groups are withdrawn to the out limit.
B. Relative Position I must be OFF to commence withdrawing the safety rods.
C. Absolute Position / will be ON until all safety groups are withdrawn to the out limit.
D. Absolute Position / must be OFF to commence withdrawing the safety rods.
A
A. CORRECT, RPI inputs to Sequence Monitor
B. INCORRECT, Relative is correct I sequence inhibit will be ON until ALL safety rods
are out.
C. INCORRECT, NOT Absolute I second section of answer is correct.
D. INCORRECT, NOT Absolute / sequence inhibit will be ON.
At ONS IA does not backup SA. Original KA is not applicable. Changed KA to
014A1.02. Replaced with bank question 367.
ii
ii Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword:
WI
Cog level:
CIA 3.213.6
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
Authormeviewer: GCW
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:07 PM
56
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
51. 015 GEN2.1.32 001
Unit 2 plant conditions:
Unit power escalation is in progress.
Reactor power = 15% and is increasing.
OP/l102/01, Controlling Procedure for Unit Startup is in progress.
L/
Which one of the following describes the MAXIMUM NI calibration error allowed per Limits and
Precautions of the controlling procedure?
Nls SHALL be maintained within the range of -%
conservative to -%
non-conservative.
A. 10. 4
B. 4, 10
c. 2. 2
D. 2, 1
Bank question 95 CP010302 (SRO ONLY)
A. Correct - LIP #I7 describes MAX NI error during power maneuvering 10/4
B. Incorrect - correct numbers swapped
C. Incorrect - Steady state power operation limits
D. Incorrect - Steady state calibration limits
\\-,/
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Keyword:
NI
Source:
M
Test:
S
L/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:08 PM
Group:
2
Cog level:
M 3.413.8
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
57
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
52. 016A2.01001
Unit 3 Conditions:
INITIAL CONDITIONS:
ii
Reactor power = 100%
Pressurizer (PZR) Level Instrument 3 selected for control
3HP-120 (RC Volume Control) in AUTOMATIC
SASS in MANUAL
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
Pressurizer temperature "6" RTD fails LOW
Which ONE of the following describes plant response and required operator action?
A. PZR level 3 indicates lower, 3HP-120 fully opens and the operator should select
6. PZR level 3 indicates higher, 3HP-120 closes and the operator should select PZR
C. PZR level indication swaps to Instrument 1, 3HP-120 controls level at setpoint and
13. PZR level indication swaps to Instrument 2, 3HP-120 controls level at setpoint and
PZR Level instrument 1 or 2.
Level instrument 1 or 2.
no operator actions are required.
i,
no operator actions are required.
A
A. Correct,"B RTD failing low will cause PZR level 3 indication to be lower than actual.
Since SASS is in manual it will not swap to channel 1. 3HP-120 will open. Per
PT/600/01 the operator should select a good instrument.
B. Incorrect, " B RTD failing low will cause PZR level 3 indication to be lower than actual.
C. Incorrect, would be correct if SASS in AUTO.
D. Incorrect, could be true in SASS in AUTO but it swaps to channel 1 instead of channel 2.
Question concerned SASS operation with a failure of Thot. SASS no longer
swaps Thot. Thot is now median selected. Wrote new question on failure of PZR
temperature and SASS.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword
"IS
Cog level:
CIA 3.013.1
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
'i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:08 PM
58
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Which one of the following describes the purpose of the Reactor Building Spray System?
A. Removes sensible AND latent heat from the containment atmosphere, entrains fission
product iodine and decreases radiation levels in containment.
53. 026 GEN 2.1.27 001
ii
B. Removes ONLY latent heat from the containment atmosphere, entrains fission product
iodine, and decreases radiation levels in containment.
C. Removes sensible AND latent heat from the containment atmosphere and entrains fission
product iodine.
D. Removes ONLY sensible heat from the containment atmosphere and entrains fission
product iodine.
(decrease radiation levels in containment) is wrong. It may pull contaminants that give off
radiation out of the atmosphere, but it redeposits it in the sump.
(Obj R1)Purposes of the Reactor Building Spray (RBS) System
The Reactor Bldg. Spray system has no function during normal plant operation.
When actuated by high Reactor Building (RB) pressure, the system provides two major
functions:
Removes sensible and latent heat from the containment atmosphere.
Operation of the RES System also serves to entrain fission product iodine (released into the
RB during a LOCA) into the spray water, thereby reducing possible iodine leakage to the
environment (to meet 1 OCFRIOO criteria concerning offsite dose limits).
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
i/
Keyword
ccs
Cog level:
M 2.812.9
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
i/
Wednesday. June 04,2003 7:18:08 PM
59
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
54. 026K3.01001
Unit 2 is operating at 100 % power when an ES RB pressure analog channel fails upscale. An
instrument technician is dispatched to investigate. The technician goes to the wrong cabinet
and causes an additional ES RB pressure analog channel to fail upscale.
Assume no operator action, which one of the following will occur?
Both RBS pumps start and:
A. BS-1 remains closed and BS-2 opens.
LP-21 supplies RBS pumps from BWST, LP-22 remains closed.
i/
B. BS-1 and BS-2 open.
LP-21 and LP-22 supply RBS pumps from BWST.
C. BS-1 opens and BS-2 remains closed.
LP-21 supplies RBS pumps from BWST, LP-22 remains closed.
D. BS-1 and BS-2 remain closed.
LP-21 and LP-22 do NOT supply RBS pumps from BWST.
(Obj R6) ES Mode (Channels 7 and 8)
Setpoint
The RBS System automatically actuates if two of the three ESG RB pressure analog channels
reach 10 psig.
The TS required setpoint is < 15 psig RB pressure.
The following actions occur if the RBS System actuates:
Both RBS pumps start.
BS-I and BS-2 open.
LP-21 and LP-22 supply RBS pumps from BWST.
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
ccs
Cog level:
CIA 3.914.1
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
I
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 718:08 PM
60
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
55. 029K1.04 001
Following a LOCA, potential leakage past the purge system reactor building isolation valves is
prevented from being released directly to the environment by which one of the following?
A. Inlet and outlet bleed lines open-ended into containment.
B. Outlet bleed lines open-ended into the Penetration Rooms and inlet bleed lines open ended
into containment.
C. Inlet bleed lines open-ended into the Penetration Rooms and outlet bleed lines open ended
into containment.
i/
D. Inlet and outlet bleed lines open-ended into the Penetration Rooms.
Modified bank 2003 question 549
A, B, and C - new distractors
D) Correct- bleed lines are located between the outer most isolation valves on both the inlet
and outlet purge duct work. These bleed lines vent any leakage from the RB through the purge
isolation vales into the Penetration Rooms. The PRV system will then process the leakage and
the leakage will not be released to the environment.
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword:
PURGE
Cog level:
M 3.0/3.1
Source:
M
Exam:
OCO3301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: L S W A
ii
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:08 PM
61
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
56. 034 GEN 2.2.27 001
Plant conditions:
Fuel reload in progress
Which ONE of the following is correct concerning the Refueling SRO Assistant per
OMP 2-1 (Duties and Responsibilities of On-Shift Operations Personal)? (.25)
The Refueling SRO Assistant ...
A. maintains the Refueling Log and may leave the Refueling Booth for short periods of
time.
B. verifies reactivity changes are made with approved procedures and may leave the
Refueling Booth for short periods of time.
C. maintains the Refueling Log and must remain in the Refueling Booth until relieved
by another SRO Assistant.
D. verifies reactivity changes are made with approved procedures and must remain in
the Refueling Booth until relieved by another SRO Assistant.
A. Incorrect, the Refueling and RB SRO maintains the Refueling Log.
B. Incorrect, first part is correct. Second part is incorrect.
C. Incorrect, the Refueling and RB SRO maintains the Refueling Log.
D. Correct, The Refueling SRO Assistant verifies reactivity changes are made with
approved procedures and must remain in the Refueling Booth until relieved by
another SRO Assistant.
RO duties during refueling no longer include activities in the RB or SFP.
Therefore the KA was changed to 034GEN2.2.27. Replaced with modified bank
question 359.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword
FUEL HANDLING
Cog level:
M 2.613.5
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: GCW
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:08 PM
62
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
57. 035A4.05 001
Which one of the following describes the KEY parameters monitored to prevent overcooling as
the OTSGs fill to the OTSG natural circulation level setpoint with a subcooled RCS?
A. Pressurizer level and CETC temperatures.
8. Pressurizer pressure and hot leg temperatures.
C. OTSG levels and CETC temperatures.
D. OTSG pressures and cold leg temperatures.
Oconee: OP-OC-TA-AM1
Caps and bolded KEY. Added "with a subcooled RCS" to stem to clarify plant
conditions.
Validation comment:
Added "to prevent overcooling" to stem to clarify question. This question is written based on an
ONS plant event. This event concerned overcooling during a low decay heat natural circulation.
During normal approach to natural circulation, %" would be correct.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword:
SG SYSTEM
Cog level:
CIA 3.814.0
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMiRFA
ii
2
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:1808 PM
63
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
58. 039K1.02 001
Just inside the 5th floor of the turbine building, a 12" line on each main steam line taps off and
runs back outside the turbine building. Which one of the following is the purpose of the valves
on these lines?
These valves are designed to be used for a controlled plant cooldown in the event that the:
A. Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) become inoperable. These valves are manually
L/
operated.
8. Turbine Bypass Valves (TBVs) become inoperable. These valves are manually operated.
C. Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) become inoperable. These valves are two chain
operated "drag" valves designed to allow maintenance on MS-153 & MS-155.
D, Turbine Bypass Valves (TBVs) become inoperable. These valves are two chain operated
"drag" valves designed to allow maintenance on MS-153 & MS-155.
A.
1.
and runs back outside the turb. bldg.
Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) / Main Steam Vents
Just inside the 5th floor of the turb. bldg., a 12" line on each main steam line taps off
2.
(OBJ R11) There are manually operated valves on these lines designed to be used for a
controlled plant cooldown in the event that the Turbine Bypass Valves (TBVs) become
inoperative.
a)
ADVs are credited for reducing SG pressure and cooling the RCS when condenser
vacuum is lost during SGTR and SBLOCA event analysis
3.
Originally two manual gate isolation valves were installed on each atmospheric vent line
(MS-153 & 154 "A" line and MS-155 & 156 on " B line). Due to the difficulty in operating these
valves (caused by the large DP), additional piping and valves were added on each unit.
A 1" bypass line now exists around MS-153 & MS-155. A 1" gate valve installed in each
bypass line allows for reducing the DP across these 12" gate valves which allows for ease of
operation.
Another line which bypasses MS-154 and MS-156 has a chain operated "drag" valve installed.
These drag valves are much easier to operate and are suited better for throttling. Many turns
of the handwheel are required for stroking these valves which will provide for a more controlled
cooldown in the event they are needed.
No utility comments.
Changed the word "inoperafive" to "inoperable" in the stem to match ONS terminology.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
i /
Keyword
ADV
Cog level:
M 3.313.3
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorIReviewer: L S W A
L'
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:08 PM
64
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
59. 039K5.01 001
Which one of the following describe the system that Oconee uses to prevent water hammers
from occurring in an "idle" steam line.
Many steam lines in the plant have steam traps that -
side of the isolation valve.
A. automatically open on the downstream
B. automatically open on the upstream
C. are operated manually on the downstream
D. are operated manually on the upstream
A.
1.
to collect condensation in the line where the steam is bottled up.
2.
valve in the line, to keep the condensation from building up.
3.
steam line from filling with water andlor to prevent water hammers from occurring. This is
accomplished by the use of a steam trap.
Thermostatic steam traps at Oconee are basically a valve with an expandable bellows acting as
a valve disk.
Modified stem to improve readability.
i/
Steam Traps (OBJ R14, 15)
An "idle" steam line (one in which there is no flow due to a closed isolation valve) tends
All steam lines in the plant have small drain lines on the upstream side of the isolation
These small drain lines automatically drain condensate to the condenser to prevent the
i/
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword
Cog level
M 2.913.1
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:08
65
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Valve 1V-I96 (CSAE Exhaust to Stack Drain) must be locked closed at all times if activity
above background exists on the OTSG secondary side.
Which one of the following is the reason for this action?
A. This prevents the release of radioactive liquid to the trench.
E. This prevents the CSAE relief valve from cycling.
C. This prevents the release of activity thru the vent stack
D. This maintains high backpressure on CSAE.
A.
all times if activity above background exists on the OTSG secondary side. (This prevents the
release of radioactive liquid to the trench.)
In May of 1999, Unit 3 3C CSAE relief valve began lifting and closing several times. The steam
supply was isolated hoping the relief valve would reseat. As a result, air entered through the
relief valve and entered the condenser causing U3 to begin losing vacuum. Power was
reduced per the AP to 73%, 3C CSAE was fully isolated and the Main Vacuum Pumps were
placed in service
Faulty Air Removal
a)
High condensate temperature to the CSAE will cause a reduction in air ejector
b)
Low steam pressure or clogged steam strainers will reduce the velocity of steam and
thus reduce the volume of air the CSAE will handle.
c)
High backpressure on CSAE will affect air removal.
d)
Loss of loop seal would "short cycle" the air back into the system.
Reworded "C" to improve plausibility.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
60. 055A3.03 001
(0BJ.RG)Valve (1)(2)(3) V-I96 (CSAE Exhaust to Stack Drain) must be locked closed at
i/
efficiency.
Keyword:
CARS
Cog levei:
M 2.512.7
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMlRFA
'U
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
66
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
61. 056A2.04 001
Unit 1 conditions:
INITIAL CONDITIONS:
L,
Unit startup in progress
" I C CBP is operating
"1A CBP in AUTO
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
Reactor power = 30% and increasing
"IA" Main Feedwater Pump operating
"IC" and "1 B" HWPs are operating
"IC" CBP trips due to a breaker electrical fault
Which one of the following automatic actions has occurred?
The operator will refer to the Annunciator Response Procedure and verify that the:
A. reactor tripped on low MFDWP suction pressure.
B. operating MFDWP tripped on low MFDWP suction pressure after 30 seconds
C. standby CBP auto started on low MFDWP suction pressure.
D. standby HWP auto started on low CBP suction pressure.
2003 bank question # 37
A.
incorrect, there is not a reactor trip on low main feedwater pump suction pressure. It
would take the loss of both main feedpumps to cause the trip.
B.
incorrect, the standby booster pump will start at 360 psig on the feedwater pump
suction pressure and the running feedwater pump should not trip. Does not trip until 5 235 psig
on the feedwater pump suction.
C.
pressure decreases to 360 psig.
D.
pump is still running.
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
correct, the standby condensate booster will start when feedwater pump suction
incorrect, condensate booster suction pressure will not decrease because the Hotwell
Keyword:
CONDENSATE
Cog level:
CfA 2.iX2.8
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthoriReviewer: L S W A
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
67
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
62. 059A1.03 001
The Main FDW Block Valves are placed in OPEN when the Startup Control Valves reach 90%.
Which one of the following describes the basis for this step?
A. To prevent feedwater flow swings.
B. To prevent feedwater pump cavitation
C. To allow complete closure of the minimum flow valves before reaching 100% power.
D. To bypass the Main FDW Block Valve auto open at a composite demand of 9.0%.
i d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
68
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
CF-FDWrl l a
Automatic ICs demand signals to the Main and Startup Control Valves are developed from a
common signal source called the Valve Composite Demand
1 )
Control Valve), a bistable will automatically open the Main FDW Block Valve (if in AUTO).
1.
Main Blocks (FDW-31 and FDW-40)
a)
Motor operated from control room (UBI).
b)
OPEN, AUTO, CLOSE.
c)
ICs sends a signal to close the Main FDW Blocks on a Rx trip.
d)
Automatic ICs demand signals to the Main and Startup Control Valves are developed
from a common signal source called the Valve Composite Demand
1 )
Power increase: At a composite demand of 9.0% (equivalent to 90% open on the SU
Control Valve), a bistable will automatically open the Main FDW Block Valve (if in AUTO).
2)
Power decrease: At a composite demand of 5.0%, the Main FDW Block Valve will close
(if in AUTO)
e)
During some unit startups, when the Main Blocks were opened, leakage past the seat of
the closed Main Control Valves would cause SG levels to increase. This would result in the SU
Control Valves, which are controlling SG levels to start close and return SG levels to setpoint
(25 inches SUR).
1)
would close. After they closed, leakage past the seat of the Main Control Valves would stop,
and SG levels would decrease, causing the SU Control Valves to re-open.
2)
up a Feedwater cycle that could quickly become divergent. Once divergent cycle starts, a
FDWP trip could occur due to Overspeed or High Discharge Pressure if not properly mitigated.
This would lead to a UnitlReactor Trip.
Power increase: At a composite demand of 9.0% (equivalent to 90% open on the SU
With the Main Blocks in AUTO, as the SU Control Valves reached 50%, the Main Blocks
As the SU Control Valve reaches 90%, the Main Block would once again open, setting
i/
3)
OPEN when the Startup Control Valves reached 90%, and were left in OPEN until Feedwater
demand was high enough to ensure that the SU Control Valves would not close. Current
procedures require that the Main Blocks (and SU Blocks) be in AUTO prior to exceeding 700
psig MS pressure (to satisfy MSLB/AFIS circuit operability requirements).
Procedures do allow FDW-31 and 40 to be placed in OPEN if FDW control problems occur as
a result of the valves opening in AUTO. The blocks will then be placed in AUTO when the Main
Control Valve has reached 10% OPEN, since at that point, the SU Control Valve demand is at
loo%, and is not likely to decrease until power level decreases for unit shutdown.
2)
(if in AUTO)
d)
from a common signal source called the Valve Composite Demand
1)
Control Valve), a bistable will automatically open the Main FDW Block Valve (if in AUTO).
2)
(if in AUTO)
To prevent the Feedwater swing described above, the Main Block Valves were placed in
Power decrease: At a composite demand of 5.0%, the Main FDW Block Valve will close
Automatic ICs demand signals to the Main and Startup Control Valves are developed
Power increase: At a composite demand of 9.0% (equivalent to 90% open on the SU
Power decrease: At a composite demand of 5.0%, the Main FDW Block Valve will close
NO utility comments.
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
69
Tier:
2
Keyword
Source:
N
Test:
R
-d
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Group:
1
Cog level:
M 2.712.9
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
70
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
63. 061A3.01 001
Which one of the following conditions will initiate an automatic start of the MDEFDWPs
if the control switch is in the AUTO 1 position?
A. BOTH channels of AMSAC actuate
B. BOTH " B SG XSUR levels = 20" for 40 seconds
L/
C. Hydraulic oil pressure = 0 psig on the operating MFDWP
D. Low MFDWP discharge pressure on the operating MFDWP
B
A. INCORRECT - AUTO 2 function
B. CORRECT - Dry-Out protection is signaled from the AUTO 1 position. BOTH XSUR
level indications e 21" for 5 30 seconds starts both MDEFWPs.
C. INCORRECT - AUTO 2 function, both Main FDW Pumps would not be operating at
this temperature.
D. INCORRECT - AUTO 2 function, both Main FDW Pumps would not be operating at
this temperature.
Question no longer correct due to plant mods. KA does not match. Replaced with
bank question 43 to match KA. Requires memorization of procedure.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
L/
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 42/42
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMlRFA
L/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
71
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
64. 061K6.01 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
A and B SG pressure = 1000 psig
TDEFWP is operating
IFDW-315 & 316 are full open
"A" EFDW Header Flow = 802 gpm
" B EFDW Header Flow = 798 gpm
"A" MDEFDWP Flow = 502 gpm
" B MDEFDWP Flow = 216 gpm
i/
Which one of the following would cause these indications?
MDEFDWP ARC (Automatic Recirculation Control) valve has failed -.
A. "A" I OPEN
B. " 6 I OPEN
C. "A" I CLOSED
D. " B I CLOSED
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
72
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
B
A. Incorrect, " 6
MDEFDWP flow is lower than "A" indicating the "B' ARC valve is failed open.
B. Correct, if the TDEFDWP is running, the operator would NOT see a flow mismatch on Total
EFDW Flow indications but would see it on the MDEFDWP Discharge Flow gages. " 6
MDEFDWP flow is lower than "A" indicating the " 6
ARC valve is failed open.
C. Incorrect, if the discharge pressure is 1420 psig and flow is c 110 gpm the ARC
valve is failed closed.
D. Incorrect, if the discharge pressure is 1420 psig and flow is < 110 gpm the ARC
valve is failed closed.
EFW lesson plan
1.
for pump and discharge piping protection. When a MDEFDWP is started, the ARC (Automatic
Recirculation Control) valve automatically provides recirculation flow.
NOTE: An event has occurred at another plant concerning these same type ARC valves. The
valves failed open due to internal valve failure. One of the problems that came from this failure
was the operators were not able to determine from their flow indications that these valves had
failed. Some examples of what the Oconee operator might see if these MDEFDWP
recirculation valves failed open follows:
The initial assumption is that the TDEFDWP is not running.
If SG pressures were at about 1000 psig and the A MDEFDWP recirculation valve failed
open, there would be a mismatch between the indicated flows to each SG. This indicated flow
mismatch could be as much as 300 gpm if FDW-315 & 316 were full open. The operator would
see the flow mismatch and depending on decay heat could see a lower SG level on the side
with the failed valve. There would not be a pump runout concern unless SG pressures were
800 psig or less and FDW-315 & 316 were full open.
EFDW Flow indications but would see it on the MDEFDWP Discharge Flow gages.
If the operator sees a flow mismatch or low SG level and the TDEFDWP is available, he should
start the TDEFDWP. Starting the TDEFDWP will assure adequate flow to the SGs
AP change: To stop the MDEFDW Pumps if the discharge pressure is 1420 psig and
flow is
11 0 gpm.
Original question had FDW315/316 failing open. Question explanation discussed
ARC valve failure. No correct answer. Wrote new question to address ARC valve
failure with a correct answer.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
'-
The MDEFDWPs have approximately 300 gpm (per pump) recirculation flow to the UST
If the TDEFDWP were running, the operator would NOT see a flow mismatch on Total
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 2.512.8
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: GCW
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
73
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
65. 062A2.10 001
Upon a loss of 1 KI (Auto) AND 1 KU (Hand) power ONLY, which one of the following
indicates where steam generator levels will be maintained ten (IO) minutes after the
loss of power?
A. 25 inches Startup Range
B. 30 inches Extended Startup Range
C. 50 percent Operating Range
D. 240 inches Extended Startup Range
B.
A. Incorrect: both MFDW pumps trip on high SG level contact de-energizing. Two sets
fed by KI and KU power.
B. Correct: Both MFDW pumps trip due to de-energizing of the SG High level contacts
which are powered from KI and KU. This results in EFW actuation and level being
controlled at 30" XSUR with RCPs running.
C. Incorrect: RCPs remain running and MFDW pumps have tripped.
D. Incorrect: RCPs remain running. Would be correct if no RCPs.
Question setup not plausible. I&E working in an electrical cabinet would not
affect the air supply to the MS gauge. Does not match KA. Replaced with bank
question 735 that matches KA.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
AC ELECTNCAL
Cog level:
CIA 3.013.3
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
'U
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
74
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
66. 062~4.02 001
Plant conditions are as follows on Unit 2:
" 2 C LPI pump operating in normal decay heat removal mode
A Load Shed has occurred
i/
Which one of the following descriptions is correct?
"2C LPI pump:
A. must be manually tripped.
B. trips and cannot be restarted.
C. must be allowed to continue operating.
D. trips but can be manually started after a 5 second time delay.
D
A. Incorrect, will trip automatically.
B. Incorrect, can be manually started after a 5 second time delay.
C. Incorrect, pump will trip.
D. Correct, "2C LPI pump will trip but can be manually started after a 5 second time delay.
Incorrect logic for "C" LPI pump start. No auto start on "C" LPI pump. Rewrote
stem and distractors to make correct. Changed cog level to CIA.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
ii
Keyword
AC ELECTRICAL
Cog level:
CIA 3.313.4
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 718:09 PM
75
__-
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
67. 063A4.01 001
During alignment of the SSF DC electrical system, the operator is cautioned NOT to open the
SSF inverter DC input breaker (CB-1) until the inverter is swapped to an AC-line.
Which one of the following is the expected adverse consequence if the operator fails to adhere
to this precaution?
A. The KSF inverter power fuse may blow.
B. The SSF 600v load center XSF will de-energize.
C. Voltage spikes may damage loads on the bus.
D. Automatic transfer of SSF control power to ES valves will occur.
Bank 2003 Question 350
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. The inverter supplies power to panelboard KSFC, not load center
XSF.
C. Incorrect. Inverter fuses and rectifiers will limit voltage spike.
D. Incorrect. An automatic swap does not exist.
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword:
DC POWER
Cog level:
CIA 2.813.1
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
ii Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:09 PM
76
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
68. 063~2.01 001
A loss of DC power to the Turbine Driven Emergency Feedwater Pump (TDEFDWP) Auxiliary
Oil pbmp has occurred.
Which one of the following describes the starting of the TDEFDWP if an AUTOMATIC initiation
signal is received?
A. Automatically started because the steam supply valve, MS-93, will be opened when its pilot
i/
solenoid deenergizes.
B. Manually started by placing the Control Room control switch to RUN.
C. Manually started by verifing MS-93 open, and pulling up on the local hand starting lever.
D. Cannot be started since the low oil pressure start permissive for the turbine cannot be met.
Oconee Lesson Plan OP-OC-CF-EF
C
A. Incorrect, will not start because aux oil pump is required to open MS-95 (operating valve).
B. Incorrect, pump will not start from CR because aux oil pump is required to open MS-95
(operating valve).
C. Correct, Manually started by verifing MS-93 open, and pulling up on the local hand starting
lever.
D. Incorrect, pump does not have a low oil pressure start permissive. Start is accomplished by
oil pressure delivered to the operating valve (MS-95).
In stem loss of power was to aux oil pump not the TDEFDW Pump. Tripping
throttle valve would stop all steam flow to turbine. No correct answer. Rewrote
answer choices to ensure a correct choice. Added Aux oil pump to stem to clarify
what lost power.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
ii
Keyword
LOSS OF DC POWER
Cog level:
CIA 2.913.1
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: GCW
'ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
77
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
69. 064K4.03 001
INITIAL CONDITIONS:
The SSF has been manned for 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> due to a sustained Loss of HPI and CC.
i/
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
The SSF Diesel Generator speed = 970 RPM.
Which one of the following has failed on the Diesel Generator?
A. Startup Governor.
B. Hydraulic Amplifier.
C. Electric Governor.
D. Mechanical Governor.
Bank 2003 Question 148
A.
not a Startup Governor associated with the SSF Diesel.
B.
magnetic speed signal to a useable signal by the hydraulic section of the electric governor
system.
C.
speed control and maintain diesel speed between 950-980 RPM.
D. Incorrect- the mechanical governor is what is controlling the speed.
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Incorrect- the startup of the SSF Diesel is controlled by the Electric Governor. There is
Incorrect- this is a component controlled by the Electric governor to convert the
Correct- this is the component, which failed. The mechanical governor will take over
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 2.513.0
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
78
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
70. 071K4.01001
Which one of the following is the reason that an interim building gas tank should NOT be used
as the "in service" gas tank?
A. There is no way to recirc interim building gas tank contents.
B. There is no way to align the interim building gas tank to reduce the hydrogen concentration.
C. The only release path is direct to atmosphere.
D. The interim building gas tank initially requires about 20 psi Nitrogen pressure to have
i/
control of vent header pressure.
Solution - D
B.
Tank Isolation
1.
Tank should be isolated prior to high pressure alarm (70 psig).
2.
Interim building gas tanks should not be used as the "in service" gas tank since it
initially requires about 20 psi Nitrogen pressure to have control of vent header pressure.
3.
Basic procedure:
a)
Tank should be z 5 psig prior to placing in service, add Nitrogen if required to increase
tank pressure.
\\
,
-
,
b)
Close "recirc" valve for isolated tank and open "recirc" valve for tank placed in service.
c)
Close inlet valve for tank to be isolated and open inlet to tank to be placed in service.
d)
Sample isolated tank for hydrogen.
e)
After tank has been isolated for 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />, verify that isolated tank pressure is not
decreasing and vent header is controlling normally.
4.
Reducing Hydrogen in a GWD Tank
a)
If hydrogen is > 3%, lower tank to 50 psig by transferring some for the gas to another
tank.
b)
Add 20 psig nitrogen to tank
c)
Resample for hydrogen
d)
Repeat until hydrogen < 3%
C.
Transferring Gas Between Tanks
1.
Normally done from in-service tank to another tank, this adds operational flexibility to
determine which tank is used for in-service work and which tank(s) are used for isolation and
decay.
2.
Procedure:
a)
b)
1)
increasing pressure as gas flows:
Open inlet for tank receiving gas
Close inlet for tank transferring gas.
In-service tank pressure should begin decreasing and tank receiving gas should be
From the in-service GWD Tank
Through GWD-1
To the vent header
U ' Is compressed by GWD compressor
Discharges to tank being transferred to
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
79
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
c)
tank to be isolated.
d)
D.
1.
Sampling is done
a)
b)
2.
E.
1.
Unit 3) are opened to make essentially one common vent header.
2.
3.
F.
Gaseous Waste Releases
1.
a)
b)
1)
Unfavorable conditions are:
(a)
Positive delta temperature
(b)
Very low wind speed
2)
process of deciding to submit a sample request for release should involve anticipating
Meteorological conditions that will exist at time of desired release.
When transfer is complete, open inlet for tank remaining in service and close inlet for
Sample isolated tank for hydrogen.
Sampling of waste gas decay tank
5 times weekly and after isolation for hydrogen
Prior to release for activity
Sample flowpath: (sample flows from tank, through sample apparatus, to the vent
(Obj R5) Cross-connecting the vent header
Isolation valves GWD-132 (Vent Header Tie Unit 1) and GWD-134 (Vent Header Tie
Either system (1&2's) or (3's) can be shutdown.
The other system can carry the load.
Should only be made when:
Additional tank space is needed.
Acceptable meteorological conditions exist as indicated on OAC.
Sign Off step for Meteorological conditions are in the body of the procedure. Part of the
3)
Atmospheric inversions
(a)
The use of vertical temperature gradients is a practical and universally accepted method
of determining atmospheric stability. An inversion is defined as: air at ground level colder than
air aloft. Simply stated, unusually stable atmospheric conditions exist when an inversion exists,
meaning that vertical air movement is stifled. Clear, calm nighttime conditions are usually very
stable because the earth's surface cools rapidly, thus cooling the ground surface air. This is
usually the time of day that an inversion will exist. The absence of winds prevents this cool air
from "mixing" with the warmer air above. It is under these unfavorable, stable atmospheric
conditions that the release of radioactive gases would not be desired.
2.
and therefore release as little activity as practicable.
3.
determine:
a)
Types of activity
b)
4.
a)
b)
5.
Procedure
procedure if more detail is desired.
We should hold tanks as long as possible to allow maximum radioactive decay (ALARA)
Prior to release, the operator submits a sample request and RP samples the tank to
Quantities of each isotope present
RP also calculates and notes on sample request
Setpoints for RIA-37 & 38
Maximum allowable release flow rates
Steps described are a general description of actual procedure steps. Refer to
Capped and bolded NOT in the stem. Added "initially" to "D".
d
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
80
Tier:
2
Keyword:
WGDT
Source:
N
Test
R
L/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Group:
2
Cog level
M 2.6/3.0
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorIReviewer: LSMiRFA
81
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
71. 075K1.01001
Which one of the following is correct concerning the Siphon Seal Water supply?
"A" and " B SSW Headers are normally in service with LPSW aligned to both headers and with
HPSW:
A. throttled in the "A" header and in recirc in the " B header.
B. throttled in the "A" Header and isolated in the " B Header.
C. isolated in the "A" Header and throttled in the " B Header
D. throttled in both the "A" and " B Headers.
Bank 2003 question 777
B
A Incorrect - HPSW is throttled in the "A" Header and isolated in the " 6
B Correct
C Incorrect - HPSW is throttled in the "A" Header and isolated in the "Be
D Incorrect - HPSW is throttled in the "A" Header are isolated in the " B Header.
No utility comments.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
W
Keyword
cwsisws
Cog level
M 2.512.5
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSM/RFA
i/
L./
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
82
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
72. 076A2.01001
Unit 1 plant conditons:
INITIAL CONDITIONS:
ii
0
LPSW system flow is degraded
0
AP/024 (Loss of LPSW) in progress
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
Evaluation of reducing LPSW loads in progress
Which one of the following is correct?
If LPSW flow is isolated to the
require -
operator actions.
A. TDEFDWP Jacket Cooler I additional
B. HPI Pump Bearing Coolers I additional
C. Auxiliary Building Air handling Units I NO additional
D. Main Turbine Oil Tank I NO additional
, establishing backup cooling water flow would
A
A. Correct- ILPSW-138 & IHPSW-184 TDEFDWP COOLING BYPASS VALVE switch must
B. Incorrect - establishing backup cooling water flow to HPI pumps is automatic.
C. Incorrect -Auxiliary Building Air handling Units have no backup cooling water
D. Incorrect - The Main Turbine Oil Tank has no backup cooling water available.
Not required for the operator to have this information memorized. This question
would require 4 attachments. This information is in the OP L&P because of
complexity of operability determination. If the OP is given it would be a direct
lookup. Replaced with new question.
AP1024 (Loss of LPSW) is the procedure used to mitigate the consequences of
this malfunction.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
u
be used to establish backup cooling water flow to the TDEFDWP.
available.
Keyword
sws
Cog level:
CIA 3.513.7
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: GCW
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
83
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
73. 078K1.04 001
Plant conditions:
Maintenance has just been completed and the Instrument Air Compressors are aligned
as follows for post maintenance testing:
Primary IA compressor: Running
Backup IA compressors "A" and "B" in Standby 1
Backup IA compressor "C" in Standby 2
Auxiliary IA compressor: Auto
IA-2718 (Air Supply to Radwaste Facility) Open
Radwaste Air pressure 78 psig (and stable)
i/
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
s A large break has occurred affecting the Instrument Air (IA) System
IA pressure has decreased to 88 psig
Which one of the following is the expected response of the IA system?
All Standby:
A. 2 IA compressor(s) start only
B. 1 IA compressor(s) start only
C. 1 AND 2 IA compressors start; Auxiliary IA Compressor starts.
D. 1 AND 2 IA compressors start; IA-2718 (Air Supply to Radwaste Facility) CLOSES.
Modified question 593. Different answer
C
A.
pressure reaches 90 psig, the stem identifies pressure at 91 psig.
B.
psig.
C.
do not start until AIA receiver pressure reaches 88 psig. Changed stem to 88 psig-
D.
INCORRECT- See 'B above, IA-2718 (Air Supply to Radwaste Facility) closes at IA pressure
below 85 psig.
Changed cog level to CIA.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
i/
INCORRECT - The '6' B/U instrument air compressor in STBY #2 will not start until IA
INCORRECT - ONLY the 'A' and 'C' BIU IA compressors will start and they started at 93
Correct - Same as 'A' above for B/U instrument air compressors. The AIA compressors
Keyword
Cog level:
CIA 3.113.4
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
Ll
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
84
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
A complete Loss of Instrument Air (IA and AIA) will result in which one of the following?
RCS Normal Makeup
A. is lost, increases.
B. increases, increases.
C. is lost. is lost.
74. 078K3.02 001
and RCP seal injection
L/
D. increases, is lost.
OP-OC-SPS-SY-HPI,
Added (IA and AIA) to stem to clarify question.
Tier:
2
Group:
1
Keyword
Cog level:
M 3.113.4
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSMRFA
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
85
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
75. 086 K4.03 001
For the Plant Fire Detection System, the soecific detector which has caused a fire alarm can be
determined by which one of the following?
A. An OAC display group.
B. A neon light on the detector.
C. An audible alarm from the detector.
i/
D. An LED on the Fire Alarm Control panel.
B
A. Incorrect, OAC does not give detector information.
B. Correct, a neon light on the detector illuminates when a fire is dectected.
C. Incorrect, the detectors do not give local audible alarms.
D. Incorrect, an LED on the Fire Alarm Control panel will indicate the string in which the
alarming dectector is located.
This question requires the recall of knowledge that is too specific for the closed
reference test mode. Wrote new question.
Tier:
2
Group:
2
Keyword
FIRE
Cog level
M 3.113.7
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: GCW
i/
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
86
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
76. BWiAOl AA1.2 001
Unit 1 is at 82 % power in power ascension. "IAI" RCP has just tripped.
Which one of the following describe the automatic responses?
A. Tave input to ICs from Loop "A" is selected and delta Tcold is near zero.
B. An ICs runback to 74% CTP at 25% per minute will occur and final FDW flow will be
equivalent to 100% power in the " B Loop.
C. An ICs runback to 74% CTP at 25% per minute occurs with the affected loop SG being on
low level limits.
W
D. An initial 2:l FDW ratio followed by a reactor trip due to RPS occurs followed by variable
low pressure bistables tripping.
B
A. Incorrect: Loop " 6
Tave will be selected
B. Correct: 74% is load limit. No RPS trip due to initial power level at 85%. Re-ratio will require
-5.5 mpph in " B header which equals the 100% value for that header.
C. Incorrect: FDW flow in "A" header will be -2.5 mpph ... well above that for 25"SU level and
LLL.
D. Incorrect: Ratio will be 1:2, RPS trip will not be generated
Added delta to "A". Modified "C" to match "B".
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword
RUNBACK
Cog level:
M 3.213.5
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSMlRFA
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:10 PM
87
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
77. BWlAO4 AA2.2 001
Unit 3 plant conditions:
A Reactor trip occurred.
i/
The OATC is performing IMAs and has depressed the TURBINE TRIP pushbutton.
The Main Steam Stop Valve positions indicate "OPEN."
The Generator Output breakers (PCB-58 & 59) indicate "CLOSED."
Which one of the following is the next IMA step required by the OATC?
A. Open BOTH generator output breakers.
B. Place the operating EHC pump to the OFF position.
C. Place the EHC pumps control switches to the PULL-TO-LOCK position.
D. Send an operator to PULL the local turbine trip lever at the front standard.
Answer 159
C
A. Incorrect - PCBs are not opened during the performance of IMAs.
6. Incorrect - This would only start the automatic pump and the MSSVs would remain open.
C. Correct - This action secures both EHC pumps and allows the MSSV to close
D. Incorrect - This would be a method to locally trip the turbine if C did not work but, is operator
knowledge and not part of IMA's.
No utility comments.
ii
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Keyword:
Cog level:
CIA 3.713.7
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSM/RFA
,W
Wednesday, June 04,2003 718:ll PM
88
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
78. BWIAOS AK2.1001
A thunderstorm was in the area, and there were instabilities in the grid. The OATC has been
instructed to start the SSF Diesel Generator. The Diesel has been emeraencv started and the
output breaker is OPEN.
The OATC has been instructed to parallel the diesel to Unit 2s MFB #2. Which one of the
following describes the paralleling of the SSF Diesel Generator?
The DG should:
A. not be paralleled because it is in speed droop mode.
6. not be paralleled because it is in isochronous mode.
C. be paralleled because it is in speed droop mode
D. be paralleled because it is in isochronous mode.
Oconee Lesson Plan OP-OC-EAP-SSF
SSF Diesel Generator will not tie to the grid but can tie to Unit 2s MFB #2. Added Unit
2s MFB #2 to stem to match our nomenclature.
Validation comments:
Underlined emergency to emphasize start method.
Tier:
I
Group:
2
Keyword:
Cog level:
M 3.0/4.0
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
Authormeviewer: LSM/RFA
ii
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
89
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
79. BWJE02EK2.2 001
A reactor trip has occured with the following parameters observed:
L'
" A SG SU Level = 15" and decreasing
" A SG Startup Control valve = 100% demand
" A SG Startup FDW flow = "0" gpm
"B" SG SU Level = 25" and stable
"B" SG Startup Control valve =15% demand with green and red light
RB pressure = 0.23 psig and steady
Which one of the following is the correct diagnosis of what is occurring?
A. The "A" SG is experiencing inadequate heat transfer due to insufficient level.
B. The "B" SG level is inaccurate due to degraded reactor building.
C. The "B" SG SIU FDW valve is
D. The "A" SG is indicating a SG tube leak.
Bank 184
A. Correct - B SG is performing as required (now an inadequate heat transfer)
B. Incorrect - RB pressure is < 3 psig so SG level is accurate
C. Incorrect - A SG CV operating properly as level is ablove LLL.
D. Incorrect - conditions indicate a no FDW
No utility comments.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
opening properly.
Keyword
VITAL SYSTEM VERF
Cog level:
CIA 4.214.2
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorlReviewer: LSMIRFA
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
90
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
80. BWiE04EK2.2 001
Unit 3 has implemented the Loss of Heat Transfer tab due to a complete loss of feedwater.
The crew has just completed Steps 9 and 10 which opened the RCS High Point Vents.
RCS pressure will be governed by the RCS High Point Vents and which one of the following?
A. SG steaming rate and HPI pump discharge pressure ONLY.
B. HPI pump discharge pressure and the PORV relief flow capacity ONLY.
C. A combination of HPI pump discharge pressure, the PORV relief flow capacity and the
i/
decay heat level.
D. A combination of HPI pump discharge pressure, the SG steaming rate and the decay heat
level.
Inadequate Heat transfer Lesson plan page 15
Steps 9 and 10 opens the RCS High Point Vents which will result in lower RCS pressure, which
will allow greater injection flow and therefore better core cooling.
RCS pressure will be governed by a combination of HPI pump discharge pressure, the PORV
relief flow capacity and the decay heat level.
RFA removed " which will result in lower RCS pressure, which will allow greater injection flow
and therefore better core cooling" from the stem because it feaches.
Three correct answers. A, B, and C. Modified "A" and " B to make incorrect.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
i/
Keyword
INADEQUATE HEAT TRAN
Cog level:
CIA 4.214.2
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
Authorkleviewer: LSMRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
91
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
81. BWE04EK3.3 001
The "Loss of Heat Transfer" tab has been implemented when Unit 1 suffered a loss of Main
i/
and Emergency Feedwater.
FDW is not yet restored, but RCS conditions do not yet require HPI cooling.
Which one of the following describe the preferred configuration of the RCPs?
A. One RCP per loop
B. AnyOneRCP
D. All RCPs running
THEN GO TO Step 4.
RNO:
1.
FDW is not yet restored, but RCS conditions do not yet require HPI cooling. Two RCPs are left
running to reduce total heat input to the RCS. The preferred configuration is one RCP per loop
so that forced flow exists in both SGs when feedwater is restored. Since it is not known in
which SG(s) feedwater will be restored, or if it will be restored, one RCP should be left running
in each loop if possible. The selection of RCPs to run should consider pressurizer spray flow
capacity.
Further Explanation of C -while 1Al RCP provides the best PZR spray, the preferred
configuration is one pump per loop
No utility comments.
Tier:
1
Group:
1
(Obj. R2) Reduce operating RCPs to one pump/loop.
ii
Keyword:
HEAT TRANSFER
Cog level:
CIA 4.213.8
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorlReviewer: LSMRFA
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
92
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
82. BWIE08 GEN2.4.18 001
Unit plant conditions:
ii
LOCA CD procedure in progress
EFDW being supplied from 28 MDEFDW pump
3FDW-316 (38 SG EFDW Control) has failed open
Enclosure 5.27 (Alternate Methods For Controlling EFDW Flow) has been initiated
Which one of the following will you acomplish using this procedure?
A. Stop 28 MDEFDW pump.
B. Swap the EFDWP supply from unit 2 to unit 1.
C. Regulate EFDWP flow with the unit 2 EFDW cross-connect valve.
D. Take manual control of 3FDW-316 (38 SG EFDW Control) controller
EP/3/AI1/1800/001 Enclosure 5.27.
Answer incorrect. Modified stem and distractors to improve readability and make
" A correct. Added ONS specfic nomenclature.
Validation comments:
Added "controller" to "D" to clarify location of manual control.
Tier:
1
Group:
2
ii
Keyword
COOLDOWN
Cog level:
CIA 2.713.6
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
Authormeviewer: LSMiRFA
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
93
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
83. BWIE13 EA2.1 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
An MS Line Break has occurred
Manual control of HPI is desired
ii
Which one of the following is the minimum requirement to take manual control of HPI and
throttle flows under the above plant conditions?
The BOP can take manual control of HPI:
A. if the severity of the transient will be increased based on their judgment
B. if the safety system is not required to perform its intended safety function,
C. as directed by EOP tab SA (Subsequent Actions).
D. as directed by Rule 6 (HPI).
A)
SRO.
B)
SRO.
C)
manual control of ES components.
D)
Correct- procedural guidance is contained in Rule 6 for taking manual control of ES and
throttling HPI.
No utility comments.
Validation comments:
Changed "C'? to read 'Tab SA (Subsequent Actions)" to match current EOP nomenclafure.
Added "(HPl)" to D. This is the Rule 6 title.
Tier:
1
Group:
2
Incorrect- Non-procedural bypassing requires two licensed operators, one of which is an
Incorrect. Non-procedural bypassing requires two licensed operators, one of which is a
Incorrect- EOP Section 5.0 (Subsequent Actions) does not contain directions on taking
i/
Keyword
EOP RULES
Cog level:
M 3.4/4.0
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorIReviewer: L S W A
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
94
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
84. GEN2.1.11 001
Unit 3 plant conditions:
L.,,
Unit startup in progress
Reactor power = 7.5% increasing to 15%
Engineering has determined that
RBS Trains are inoperable
Which one of the following is correct?
Immediately:
A. enter LCO 3.0.3
3. decrease power to <5% and enter MODE 3
C. verify all three RBCU are operable and suspend power escalation.
D. ensure two Trains of RBC operable and return RBS to service within 7 days.
A
A. Correct - TS 3.6.5.H Required Action is to immediately enter TS 3.0.3 if operating in
B. Incorrect - TS 3.6.5.H Condition is for MODE 1 or 2. Entering a non applicable
MODE 1 or 2 OR 3 or 4.
MODE of operation (MODE 3) is not an option as directed by TS 3.6.5.H when any
two train combinations are inoperable.
C. incorrect -Never allows both trains 00s in modes 1 and 2.
D. incorrect -7 days if only 1 RBS train is inoperable. Never allows both trains 00s in
modes 1 and 2.
L/
Original question did not meet KA GEN 2.1.11. Selected bank question to meet
KA GEN 2.1.11.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword:
TECH SPEC
Cog level:
M 3.0/3.8
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: GCW
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
95
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
85. GEN 2.1.14 001
You are the assianed Control Room SRO. You have just been notified that a draining
i/
evolution in the East Penetration Room has just been-completed. Before the operator
overseeing the drain down leaves the area, you inform him that OMP 1-2, requires additional
notification(s) that the task is complete. Which one of the following do you instruct the operator
to notify?
A. RP only.
B. Chemistry only.
C. Operations Shift Manager only.
D. RP, Chemistry and Operations Shift Manager.
Based on - ADM040306
A.
SRO be informed when the draining evolution is stopped or concluded and NOT RP.
B. Correct: OMP 1-2,5.9.1(I) requires that chemistry and the assigned Control Room SRO be
informed when the draining evolution is stopped or concluded.
C. OMP 1-2,5.9.1 (I) required that chemistry and the assigned Control Room SRO be informed
when the draining evolution is stopped or concluded and NOT the Operations Shift Manger.
D. Incorrect: OMP 1-2,5.9.1 (I) required that chemistry and the assigned Control Room SRO be
informed when the draining evolution is stopped or concluded
Added (s) to notification to indicate one or more notifications.
Validation comments:
In the stem changed "RO supervising" to read "perator overseeing" because ROs do nof
supervise.
Incorrect: OMP 1-2,5.9.1 (I) required that chemistry and the assigned Control Room
i/
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
ADMIN
Cog level
M 2.513.3
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: LSMiRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:11 PM
96
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
86. GEN 2.1.27 001
Which one of the followina describes the ooeration of the AMSAC (ATWS Mitigation Safety
i/
Actuation Circuit) and the-DSS (Diverse Scram System) during an ATWS with> complete ioss
of Main Feedwater?
AMSAC:
A. trips the main turbine while DSS trips the regulating rods and starts the EFDWPs
B. trips the regulating rods while DSS trips the main turbine and starts EFDWPs.
C. trips the main turbine and starts EFDWPs while DSS trips the regulating rods.
D. starts EFDWPs while DSS trips the regulating rods and trips the main turbine.
Oconee Lesson Plan OP-OC-CF-EF, Obj. R24
No utility comments.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword:
SYSTEM PURPOSE
Cog level:
M 2.812.9
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthodReviewer: LSMRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
97
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
87. GEN2.1.32001
INITIAL CONDITIONS:
u
TIME=0900
Reactor tripped on Loss of Main FDWPs
EFDW system is operating
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
TIME=1000
EFDW system is operating
Which one of the following describes the MAXIMUM UST temperature per OP/1/A/1102/01,
Controlling Procedure for Unit Startup to ensure the EFDW system adequately removes core
decay heat?
B. 125" F
C. 145" F
D. 150°F
Bank 2003 question 94
ii A.
B.
states that UST temperature is limited to 125°F two hours following a reactor trip.
C.
conditions.
D.
Incorrect - This is the EFDW system piping design temperature.
No utility comments.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
LIMITS & PRECAUTIONS
Cog level:
CIA 3.413.8
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMlRFA
Incorrect -This is the minimum temperature limit for feeding the SG's
Correct - OP/1/A/1102/01, Controlling Procedure for Unit Startup, Limit and Precautions
Incorrect - This is the limit for power operations up to 30% power and for shutdown
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
98
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
88. GEN2.1.6001
Which one of the following is the Control Room SRO authorized to do without being relieved?
A. Provide relief for the Control Room operators.
B. Prepare Removal and Restorations (R&Rs).
C. Designate another SRO as reader of the EOP.
D. Prepare procedure changes.
L
BANK 1994/03/07
REFERENCE
OMP 2-1 Rev 10/15/93, Encl. 4.5
EM-Ell, Obj. R7
No utility comments.
Tier:
3
Keyword
ADMIN
Source:
B
Test:
S
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
Group:
Cog level
M 2.U4.3
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
99
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
89. GEN 2.2.12 001
An NE0 performing surveillances on the ESV/SSW systems observes the following indications:
u
" A SSW Hdr gpm = 85
" B SSW Hdr gpm = 65
"A" SSW Hdr Strainer AP = 10.5
Which ONE of the following is the correct action in response to these indications?
Assume normal ESWSSW system operation and valve alignment
SEE ATACHMENT
A. Declare the "A" SSW Header inoperable.
B. Swap and clean the "A" and "B" SSW Header Strainers.
C. Declare both SSW Headers and both associated ECCW Siphon Hdrs inoperable.
D. Increase the " B SSW Hdr flow rate and reduce the "A" SSW Hdr flow rate until strainer P
is within operability limit.
Question 778 STG220301
A. Correct. With both SSW Headers in service, L&P 2.6.2 states that if strainer dp of 10 psid is
received, then declare the SSW Hdr inoperable. The curve is used when only one SSW Hdr is
in service.
B. Incorrect The "A" SSW Hdr should be declared inoperable due to the strainer dp. The " B
SSW Hdr strainer is not rquired to be cleaned until 6 psid and the operability limit is 10 psid.
Clncorrect, The "A" SSW Hdr is ioperable only based on L&P 2.6.2
D. Incorrect, The operability limit of 10 psid has been exceeded in only the "A" Hdr.
No utility comments.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
SURVEILLANCE
Cog level:
CIA 3.013.4
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthoriReviewer: LSMlRFA
i/
Reference: OPIOIAII 1041052
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
100
OP/O/A/1104/052
Page 2 of 8
ii
SSW System
1. Purpose
Describe the proper procedure for operation of the Siphon Seal Water (SSW) System.
2. Limits and Precautions
2.1
One SSW header is required to be operable for ESV to meet TS 3.7.8 (ECCW)
requirements. For the required SSW header to be operable, the required LPSW pumps to
that header must be operable (Ref SLC 16.9.12). AND LPSW Pump Auto Start on the
Unit supplying the operating SSW header must be operable (Ref TS 3.3.28).
Normal SSW lineup should be as follows:
2.2
A SSW Header in service with LPSW (SSW-1) valved in; HPSW-901 throttled to
maintain balanced flow between A and B SSW Headers to within 20 gpm.. { 1)
B SSW Header in service with LPSW (SPW-2) valved in, HPSW-900 closed
A and B SSW Headers supplying all CCW and ESV pumps.
Maintain > 50 gpm in a single SSW Header, to allow surveillance of SSW
strainer AP. ( 1 )
2.3
Entry into SLC 16.9.12 is NOT required
in SSW header flow caused by startinglstopping ESV pumps, large changes in HPSW
pressure, etc Enclosure "Balancing How Between SSW Headers" can be performed as
needed.
Portions of the SSW system specific to the CCW pumps may be removed from service '
without affecting SSW header operability.
Status of SSW Header lineup should be documented either in the Unit Log or Turnover
Sheets.
SSW header flow < 50 gpm due to changes
2.4
2.5
OP/~IA/1104/052
Page 3 of 8
i/
2.6
2.6.1
OAC Points associated with SSW strainer AP:
OlE2746D2,02E2746,03E2746D2"ESV Bldg SSW B Header Strainer
Differential Pressure" (Units 1, 2, and 3 respectively)
01E2747D2,02E2747,03E2747D2"ESV Bldg SSW A Header Strainer
Differential Pressure" (Units 1,2, and 3 respectively)
OAC alarm setpoints:
HI alarm: 6 psid
HI-HI alarm: 10 psid
SSW strainer AP indication is data-linked to Units 1 and 3 via Unit 2
OAC.
Unit 2 OAC is OOS, all data points are lost and only local
readings will be available.
2.6.2
When in ~ W O SSW Header operation, the curve in Enclosure "SSW Strainer
AP for SSW header Flow Rates" does NOT apply to either header.
'u
-
IF SSW Strainer 6 psid HI alann is received, swap and clean associated
SSW Strainer per Enclosure "Swapping SSW Strainers".
-
IF SSW Strainer 10 psid H W alarm is received, declare associated SSW
Header out of service per SLC 16.9.12. Swap and clean associated SSW
Strainer immediately per Enclosure "Swapping SSW Strainers".
Prior to changing from tWO SSW Headers to one SSW Header operation,
verify both headers SSW Strainer AP within Enclosure "SSW Strainer AP for
SSW Header Flow Rates" limits. Swap and clean any SSW strainer above
limit per Enclosure Swapping SSW Strainers".
When in single SSW Header operation:
2.6.3
2.6.4
Monitor SSW Header flow and Strainer AP limits using Enclosure "SSW
Strainer AP for SSW header Flow Rates". Curve only applies when one
-
IF "Allowed A P curve is exceeded, swap and clean associated SSW
Strainer.
IF "Operability Limit AP" curve is exceeded, declare associated SSW
Header out of service per SLC 16.9.12. Swap and clean associated SSW
Strainer immediately per Enclosure "Swapping SSW Strainers".
OPlolA/I 1041052
Page 4 of 8
u
2.7
ESV Pump minimum SSW seal flow is 1.5 gpm. With instrument uncertainty of
0.8 gpm, the minimum indicated flow is 2.3 gpm.
seals could occur within 2 to 3 minutes. ESV Pump flow may be expected to increase as
SSW flow to CCW pumps is decreased. Normal flow is 7.0 to 10.0 gpm, and will vary
with SSW system pressure.
flow 5 6.5 gpm Systems Engineering should be contacted
to perform an evaluation. Flow >10 gpm does NOT make the pump inoperable.
CCW Pump seal AND motor cooler flow:
OAC Alarm setpoints:
less, damage to ESV Pump shaft
2.8
Normal Range: 3 - 5 gpm.
Low 3.0 gpm
Low Low 2.0 gpm.
CCW Pump operation with < 2 gpm seal flow may result in increased bearing wear
rates.
CCW Pump operation with between 2 to 3 gpm seal flow should be evaluated by
Systems Engineering.
CCW Pump should be stopped if seal flow < 2 gpm.
Loss of seal flow to an operating CCW pump may cause bearing failure within
several seconds.
When both supplies of HPSW are isolated from the SSW system, expect SSW flow
to CCW Pumps to decrease.
2.9
Damage to running ESV Pump seals can occur in 2 - 3 minutes following a loss of SSW
flow.
@any accident (ES, LOOP, etc) occurs on any unit, flush of SSW Hdr should be
terminated.
2.10
Enclosure 4.36
OPlOlAll104/052
SSW Strainer AP for SSW Header Flow Rates
Page 1 of 2
Reference Use
1. Initial Conditions
__ 1.1
SSW System is in service.
0 "Normal" alignment: A AND B SSW headers in service.
13 A SSW Header in service, B SSW H e a d e r w in service.
B SSW Header in service, A SSW Header NOT in service.
1.2
Review Limits and Precautions 2.6.
2. Procedure
2.1
Utilize graph in step 2.3 to determine allowable A or B SSW Strainer AP based on flow
2.2
gpm, OSSWPG0903 (TBl-J29, N)
gpm, OSSWPG0902 (TBl-K48, S).
OP/O/A/1104/052
Page 2 of 2
Enclosure 4.36
SSW Strainer AP for SSW Header Flow Rates
ii
0
P
....
2.3
AP vs. Flow graph:
26.0
24.0
22.0
20.0
18.0
16.0
14.0
12.0
10.0
8.0
6.0
4.0
2.0
0.0
80
90
100 110 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190 2 W 210 220 230 240 250
Flow (gpm)
SSW Strainer AP Cleaning and Operability Limits
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
90. GEN 2.2.17 001
Mechanical maintenance is planning to work on the HPI system. The engineering evaluation
determines that during maintenance the system will be FUNCTIONAL.
Which one of the following describes if you should allow the maintenance to take place with the
unit at 100% power?
The work can:
A. occur because the HPI system can perform its intended service; however, applicable TS
requirements or licensing/design basis assumptions may NOT be maintained.
B. NOT occur because the HPI system cannot perform its specified function even with all
applicable TS or SLC requirements satisfied.
C. NOT occur because the A Module of ORAM-SENTINEL has assigned a color of WHITE to
the HPI system.
D. occur because the A Module of ORAM-SENTINEL has assigned a color of GREEN to the
HPI system.
A correct
B. Definition of Operable
C and D. PRA information related to risk, not system operability of function
Reference
ADMMRr03
ENABLING OBJECTIVES: 1.
Define and relate the following terms and their application to the assessment of equipment
removed from service. (R2)
a.
Functional
b.
Maintenance
C.
d.
Probability Risk Assessment (PRA)
e.
Risk
f.
Risk Significant System (RSS)
The following are some of the definitions adopted by the industry and Duke Power Company for
consistent interpretation of the Maintenance Rule. These definitions are from the regulation
1OCFR50.65, NUMARC 93-01, or were specifically developed for Duke Power.
Removed "You are the Plant Supervisor." from stem not required to answer the
question. Reworded stem to improve readability.
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
101
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
DEFINITIONS
Cog level
M 2.313.5
i/
Source:
N
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
Authormeviewer: LSMRFA
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
102
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
91. GEN 2.2.2 001
Which one of the following determines when the FDW calibrating Integral will be controlled by
-
i/
turbine header pressure error at 100% power?
A. The bypass valves controls are in manual.
B. The diamond control is in manual
-
C. The SG/RX control is in manual.
D. Turbine Master is in hand while all other stations are in auto.
REFERENCE
LP Vol. 11, ICs, OP-OC-STG-ICS p.59
Changed stem to "FDW Calibrating Integral" due to new ICs. Changed "Bailey" to
"Master" in " D to match current plant designations.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
CONTROLS
Cog level:
M 4.0/3.5
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMiRFA
\\W
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
103
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
92. GEN 2.3.2 001
A point radiation source in the auxiliary building reads 500 mRem/hr at a distance of two feet.
Two options exist to complete a mandatory assignment near this point source.
OPTION 1,
i/
Operator X can perform the task in 30 minutes while working at a distance of
FOUR (4) feet from the point source.
Operators X and Y, using an extension tool, can perform the task in 75 minutes
at a distance of EIGHT (8) feet from the point source.
OPTION 2.
Operator X has a quarterly dose of 902 mRem
Operator Y has a quarterly dose of 11 15 mRem
Which one of the following choices is the preferred option, if any, to complete the assignment
in accordance with ALARA? (Assume no dose extensions have been authorized)
SEE ATTACHMENT
A. Option 1
B. Option 2
C. Option 1 and 2 are equally acceptable.
D. Neither Option 1 nor 2 can be used
Solution - A - Option 1 62.5 mRem
REFERENCE
Oconee: ALARA Manual, General Employee Training Handbook
194001K104 (3.3/3.5)
Modified - Original Question:
- QNUM
29735
- HNUM
30083 (Do NOT change If < 9,000,000)
- ANUM
29745
- QCHANGED
FALSE
- ACHANGED FALSE
- QDATE
1991/07/24
- FAC
269
Oconee 1 , 2 & 3
- EXLEVEL
R
- EXMNR
- QVAL
- SEC
- SUBSORT
- KA
194001K104
i/
- RTYP
PWR-B&W177
- QUESTION
A point radiation source in the auxiliary building reads 500
--
mkemlhr at a distance of TWO (2) fe& TW0<2) options exist to
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
1 04
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
complete a mandatory assignment near this point source.
OPTION 1.
working at a distance of FOUR (4) feet from the
point source.
Operator X can perform the task in 30 minutes while
ii
OPTION 2.
Operators X and Y, using an extension tool, can
perform the task in 75 minutes at a distance of
EIGHT (8) feet from the point source.
WHICH ONE (1) of the following choices is the preferred option,
with correct rationale, to complete the assignment, in accordance
with ALARA?
a. Option 1, as X's exposure is 62.5 mRem.
b. Option 1, as X's exposure is 125 mRem.
c. Option 2, as the exposure per person is 39 mRem.
d. Option 2, as the exposure per person is 156 mRem.
- ANSWER
a. [+1.0]
- REFERENCE
Oconee: ALARA Manual, General Employee Training Handbook
194001K104 (3.313.5)
Added "SEE ATTACHMENT" Alara Manual Appendix "C" Section 4.4 (General
Dose Reduction Methods)
Possible modify to include plan view instead of point source calculation. Operators do
not perform point source calculations.
i/
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
Cog level
CIA 2.512.9
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMlRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
105
System ALARA Manual
GEl. 2-3 fa-
4.4
General Dose Reduction Methods
u
4.4.1
Principles of Dose Reduction
Appendix C
Page 11 of 69
There are four basic principles that can reduce the radiation exposure of plant
workers. These principles are as follows:
TIME
DISTANCE
Keep the time of exposure to the source to a minimum.
Maximize the distance between the source and
personnel.
Add a shielding material between the source and
personnel.
SOURCE CONTROL Control the source by proper chemistry control,
flushing the piping or decontaminating the surfaces
as appropriate.
SHIELDING
4.4.2
Dose Reduction By Time
The first of these principles is self explanatory. Exposure is a direct function
of the time exposed. Reduce the time, and the exposure is reduced
proportionally. A continuing effort should be made to search for additional
means of time reduction. By far, the greatest means of time reduction will be
as a result of increasing worker productivity.
Increasing productivity may be accomplished through the use of special
tooling, quality work procedures, mockup training, etc. Training is an
effective tool for increasing worker efficiency.
Reducing the need for entry into radiaiton areas by the use of highly reliable
components andlor remotely operated components should be considered in
design. Further discussion of time saving methods are discussed in Section
5.0.
4.4.3
Dose Reduction by Distance
The second principle (distance) is not as clear, until we understand the nature
of the source geometry. In very general terms, there are three types of sources
usually encountered in the plant, namely point sources, line sources, and plane
sources. Each of these will be explained mathematically in the following
paragraphs:
System ALARA Manual
Appendix C
Page 12 of 69
4.4.3.1
Inverse Square Law for a Point Source
Parameters:
RI =Dose Rate at Point DI (mR/hr)
R2 = Dose Rate at Point D2 (mR/hr)
D1 = Distance From Source to Point Di
Dz = Distance From Source to Point D2
Assumptions:-no absorbing material.
Formula: RI@I)~
= R ~ ( D z ) ~
Explanation:
Point sources are sources whose dimensions are very small (a
few inches) when compared with the distances from the
source (several feet).
The dose rate falls off inversely with the square of the
distance from the source. Thus, moving to a point twice as
far from the sources cuts the dose rate by a factor of four.
4.4.3.2
Inverse Law for a Line Source
Parameters:
R1 =Dose Rate at Point DI (mR/hr)
R2 = Dose Rate at Point D2 (mR/hr)
Dl = Distance From Source to Point D1
D2 = Distance From Source to Point D2
'
Assumptions:-no absorbing material.
-Distances less than half a length of the line source.
Formula:
RIDI = R2D2
System ALARA Manual
u
Appendix C
Page 13 of 69
Explanation:
A line source is a thin, long source such as a pipe filled with
radioactive material. The dimensions of the pipe should be small
(inches) when compared to the distance from the pipe (several
feet). The dose rate falls off inversely with the distance from the
source. Thus, moving to a point twice as far from the source cuts
the dose rate to one half.
For a pipe of finite length, the dose rate would fall off more
rapidly than the above dictates. In fact, when the distance from
the pipe becomes several times the length of the pipe, the dose
rate fall off would more closely follow that of a point source.
Law for Finite Plane Source
Parameters:
4.4.3.3
H = Height of source rectangle
W =Width of source rectangle
SR = Effective radius of the source
D = Distance from the source
Assumptions: - Finite plane source.
- No absorbing material.
The plane source roughly simulates a circle. For example, an
object which appears to be square or rectangular in shape
would fall into this category. Mathematically it would be: 213
w c H < 312 w.
Formulas: SR = ((H x W)/l-I)ln (effective source radius)
Dose rate calculations change, depending on the distance from
the source. The calculation is broken down into three
sections, as follows
1. D = 0.0 to 0.1 SR:
Dose = Contact Dose Rate
W
System ALARA Manual
\\d
Use Inverse Law for Line Source
3. D = 1.0 SR and beyond:
Use Inverse Square Law for a Point Source.
4.4.4
Dose Reduction By Shielding
Appendix C
Page 14 of 69
The third dose reduction principle (shielding) is the introduction of an
absorbing material (shield between the source) and the dose point. Whether
the shield is placed close to the source or close to the dose point is immaterial
with regard to shielding effectiveness. However, if the source is small with
respect to the dose point (or person), it makes economic sense to place the
shield close to the source, since the width and height of the shield need only
be slightly larger than the dimensions of the source. Conversely, if the source
is large (for example, a large tank full of radioactive water) it might be more
economical to place the shield closer to the dose point to shield the person.
This way, the shield needs to be only slightly larger than the person rather than
the size of the tank.
Of the four types of radiation that exist in a nuclear power plant (alpha, beta,
neutron and gamma), only gamma radiation will be considered in the shielding
calculations described below.
Most gamma ray sources in a power plant (except for the nitrogen-I6 found in
the primary coolant systems during operation) have an average gamma ray
energy of about 1 MeV. To calculate the necessary shield thickness, the
radiation dose rate on the source side of the shield must be knawn as well as
the dose rate desired on the outside of the shield. The thickness can be
calculated by adding tenth value thicknesses and half value thicknesses
obtained from the table in Section 4.4.5 of this manual as appropriate. For
thick shields, it is a g06d idea to add about 10% to the thickness to account for
buildup. Buildup is the radiation that is scattered by the shielding, but still
reaches the receptor. Also, lead wool blankets have only about 30%-40% of
the density of solid lead, so the calculated shield thickness needs to be tripled
for lead wool blankets or the equivalent solid lead thickness specified for the
blankets must be used. Definitions:
A. Tenth value thickness - That amount of material (thickness) that will
reduce the dose rate to one-tenth (10%) of the original unshielded value.
B. Half value thickness - That amount of material (thickness) that will reduce
the dose rate to one-half (50%) of the original unshielded value.
4.4.5
Shielding Material
System ALARA Manual
i/
Shielding Material For
Tenth Value
Half Value
1 MeV Gamma Rays
Thickness (in.)
Thickness (in.)
h a d
1.50
0.5
3.33
1.5
Concrete
11.5
5.5
Water
25.0
12.0
Appendix C
Page 15 of 69
NOTE 1: The half value thickness is approximately one third of the tenth
value thickness.
NOTE 2 Two (2) Standard lead wool blankets, stacked, will provide one
half value thickness.
Example:
To reduce 400 R/hr to 2.5 mr/hr., calculate thickness of the lead shield
required. Solution: Add up tenth and half value layers as follows:
mr/hr
thickness (in.)
400,000
1.50
40,000
1.50
4,000
1.50
400
1.50
40
1.50
4
1 .so
2
0.50 (0.002 R/hr < 2.5 mR/hr.)
8.00 inches of lead
Adding 10% for buildup = 0.8 inches or a total of 8.8 inches.
Another method, which can be useful in approximating shielding thickness is
the shielding equation:
X/XIIIO)
I = &)*lo(-
Where: I = Final radiation level after shielding installation.
b = Initial radiation level prior to shielding installation.
X = Thickness of shielding utilized (inches or cm).
X 1/10 = Tenth value thickness of the material used.
4.5
Dose Reduction By source Control
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
93. GEN 2.3.3 001
Which one of the following describes the most favorable meteorological conditions for making
a Gaseous Waste Release?
wind speed with air at ground level
than air aloft.
A. LOW I COLDER
B. LOW I WARMER
C. HIGH I COLDER
D. HIGH I WARMER
REFERENCE
OP-OC-WE-GWD, Revision 05, page 22
(2.V2.8) #49
No utility comments.
Tier:
3
Keyword:
RAD RELEASE
Source:
B
Test:
S
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
Group:
Cog level
CIA 1.8i2.9
Exam:
OC03301
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
106
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
94. GEN 2.4.12 001
Unit 1 plant conditions:
A Reactor trip occurred on low RCS pressure
RCS pressure = 1200 psig
RB pressure = 2.0 psig
The BOP is performing Rule #2, Loss of SCM
ii
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this condition?
A. ES will NOT actuate if power is lost to two out of three ES analog channels.
B. Channels 1-6 RZ module Blue and White lights should be ON and verified ON by the
operator performing Enclosure 5.1, ES Actuation.
C. Enclosure 5.1, ES Actuation, shall be performed by the BOP after Rule #2 is completed,
while the OATC performs EOP LOSCM tab actions.
D. Enclosure 5.1, ES Actuation, shall be performed by the OATC after IMAs are verified,
symptoms check is completed, and while the BOP performs Rule #2.
A.
Incorrect - analogs will trip on a loss of power.
B.
Incorrect - at this time only ES 1 and 2 have or should have actuated.
C.
Incorrect - encl. 5.1 should be performed as soon as possible. It has higher
priority than LOSCM tab actions and should be performed as soon as an operator is
available.
D.
Correct: BOP performs Rule #2. When IMAs and symptom check completed by the
OATC, a Parallel Action of LOSCM is to perform Encl. 5.1. OATC will have to perform
this with the BOP running rule #2.
No utility comments.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
ADMIN
Cog level:
M 3.413.9
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:12 PM
107
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Which one of the following represents the correct order of priority (from highest to lowest
priority) for the following critical safety functions?
A. Inadequate Core Cooling, Subcriticality, RCS Integrity, Heat Sink.
B. Inadequate Core Cooling, Subcriticality, Heat Sink, RCS Integrity.
C. Subcriticality, Inadequate Core Cooling, RCS Integrity, Heat Sink.
D. Subcriticality, Inadequate Core Cooling, Heat Sink, RCS Integrity.
GEN 2.4.23
- REFERENCE
LP Vol V., SPDS, OP-OC-SPS-IC-SPDS, p.Q,LPRO/LPSO 2a
No utility comments.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
CRITICAL SAFETY
Cog level:
M 2.813.8
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
95. GEN 2.4.23 001
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:13 PM
108
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
96. GEN 2.4.25 001
Which one of the following areas does the HPSW system provided sprinkler fire protection for?
A. Reactor Building.
B. 230 KV switchyard.
C. Keowee Hydro Units.
D. CCW Intake Structure.
ii
Question 587 SSSO30301 SSSO30301
Which one of the following areas is provided sprinkler fire protection via the HPSW system?
Answer 587
B
A. Incorrect. supplied from LPSW
B. Correct. supplied from Yard header (Major Fire Loop load).
C. Incorrect. has own water supply system
D. Incorrect. no sprinkler system supplied for intake structure
Cog level change to memory.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
FIRE
Cog level:
M 2.913.4
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorReviewer: LSM/RFA
ii
ii
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:13 PM
109
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
97. GEN 2.4.3 001
Plant conditions:
The Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel is in operation
ES Channel 1 and 2 have actuated
i/
Which one of the following, lists the required immediate actions?
A. MANUALLY close the reactor building isolation valves for the Hydrogen Analyzer system,
then return the Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel to service.
B. Verify the Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel remains in service, then verify the reactor
building Hydrogen Analyzer system isolation valves AUTOMATICALLY open.
C. MANUALLY close the reactor building isolation valves for the Gaseous Post Accident
Sample Panel, then place the reactor building Hydrogen Analyzer system in service.
D. Verify the reactor building isolation valves for the Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel
AUTOMATICALLY close, then place the reactor building Hydrogen Analyzer system in
service.
Original Question - Question 562 PNS582 PNS582 SRO ONLY (Modified to be RO)
The Limits and Precautions of OP/1,2,3/A/I 102/22, Reactor Building Hydrogen Analyzer
system, directs immediate operator actions if the Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel is in
operation when an ES actuation occurs.
Which ONE of the following lists the required immediate actions? (25)
A)
system, then return the Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel to service.
B)
reactor building Hydrogen Analyzer system isolation valves AUTOMATICALLY open.
C)
Sample Panel, then place the reactor building Hydrogen Analyzer system in service.
D)
Verify the reactor building isolation valves for the Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel
AUTOMATICALLY close, then place the reactor building Hydrogen Analyzer system in service.
Answer 562
C
Redesigned the stem to improve readability. Added "ES" to the stem. Added "and 2
have actuated" to stem to make "C" correct and "D" plausible.
i/
MANUALLY close the reactor building isolation valves for the Hydrogen Analyzer
Verify the Gaseous Post Accident Sample Panel remains in service, then verify the
MANUALLY close the reactor building isolation valves for the Gaseous Post Accident
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
POST ACCIDENT INS
Cog level
M 333.8
Source:
M
Exam:
OC03301
Test
R
AuthorReviewer: LSMRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 718:13 PM
110
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
98. GEN 2.4.41 002
Unit 2 sequence of events:
Time=l200
ii
Unit 2 is shutting down with a 30 gpm tube leak in the 2B SG
An Unusual Event (NOUE) has been declared
Time=1230
While taking the Turbine Generator off-line a Turbine Trip occurs.
Time=1255
One Main Steam Relief valve on the 2B SG will NOT reseat
Time=l300
2B SG has been isolated
The blowing Main Steam Relief valve on 2B SG Main Steam Relief did NOT
reseat when the SG was isolated
PRESENT TIME=1305
Assume NO additional failures occur and that "Emergency Coordinator
JudgmenffEOF Director Judgment" is NOT used as reason for the classification.
SEE ATTACHMENT
ii
Which one of the following correctly classifies the event
A. Remain as an NOUE
B. Upgrade to an Alert
C. Upgrade to a Site Area Emergency
D. Upgrade to a General Emergency
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:13 PM
111
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
Answer 223
ii REFERENCE ATTACHMENT REQUIRED
A.
point earned from the other two bamers.
B.
point earned from the other two bamers. No EAL above a NOUE have been met.
C.
point earned from the other two barriers. No EAL above aNOUE have been met.
D.
Incorrect: Enclosure 4.1 Fission Barrier Matrix Containment Barriers gives 3 points. No point
earned from the other two barriers. No EAL above a NOUE have been met.
Added "SEE ATTACHMENT" to stem.
Tier:
3
Group:
Correct: Enclosure 4.1 Fission Barrier Matrix Containment Barriers gives 3 points. No
Incorrect: Enclosure 4.1 Fission Bamer Matrix Containment Barriers gives 3 points. No
Incorrect: Enclosure 4.1 Fission Barrier Matrix Containment Barriers gives 3 points. No
Keyword:
ADMIN
Cog level:
CIA 2.314.1
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthoriReviewer: L S W A
i/
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:13 PM
112
'
(1)LDNo ~ / 0 ~ / 1 0 0 0 /
22-0
M a - (4
Power company
PROCEDURE PROCESS RECORD
R C V ~ S ~ ~
NO 013
. /m
TION 6-4E
1
ONLY
.EPARATION
(2)
Station
OCONEE NUCLEAR STATION
(3)
Procedure Title
Emergency Classification
(4)
Prepared By
Wke Thorne (Signature)
M 4 %
Date 01/27/03
(5) Requires NSD 228 Applicability Determination?
Yes (New procedure or revision with major changes)
0
No
(Revision with minor changes)
No
(To incorporate previously approved changes)
(6) ReviewedBy
(QR)
Date
Cross-Disciplinary Re
(QR)NA&Date
Reactivity Mgmt Review By
(QR)NAMDate
Mgmt Involvement Review By
(Ops Supt) N A d D a t e
(7) Additional Reviews
Reviewed By
Date
Reviewed By
Date
(8) Temporary Approval (qnecessay)
(OSWQR) Date
Date
b By
BY
(QR)
(9)
Approved By
Date
$Z(~I /dA
PERFORMANCE (Compare Lifh confrol copy every 14 calendar days while work is being performed.)
(10) Compared with Control Copy
Date
Compared with Control Copy
Date
Compared with Control Copy
Date
(1 1) Date(s) Performed
Work Order Number WO#)
COMPLETION
(12) Procedure Completion Verification:
0 Unit 0 0 Unit 1 0 Unit 2 0 Unit 3 Procedure performed on what unit?
0 Yes 0 NA
Check lists and/or blanks initialed, signed, dated, or filled in NA, as appropriate?
0 Yes 0 NA
Required enclosures attached?
0 Yes 0 NA
Data sheets attached, completed, dated, and signed?
0 Yes 0 NA
Charts, graphs, etc. attached, dated, identified, and marked?
0 Yes 0 NA
Procedure requirements met?
Verified By
Date
.' Procedure Completion Approved
Date
y-
. J Remarks (Atlach nddittonalpages)
+
Duke Power Company
Oconee Nuclear Site
Procedure No.
Emergency Classification
Reference Use
013
oxcQ2wos
c
RPIOIBIl OOO/OO 1
Page 2 of 5
Emergency Classification
W
NOTE.
This procedure is an implementing procedure 10 the Own= Nuclear Site Emergency plan and must be forwarded to
Emergency Planning mlhin seven (7) working days of approval.
1. Symptoms
1.1
This procedure describes the immediate actions to be taken to recognize and classify an
emergency condition.
This procedure identifies the four emergency classifications and their corresponding
Emergency Action Levels (Ea).
This procedure provides reporting requirements for non-emergency abnormal events.
The following guidance is to be used by the Emergency CoordinatorEOF Director in
assessing emergency conditions:
1.4.1
1.2
1.3
1.4
The Emergency CoordinatorEOF Director shall review all applicable
initiating events to ensure proper classification.
The BASIS Document (Volume A, Section D of the Emergency Plan) is
available for review if any questions arise over proper classification.
1.4.2
1.4.3
An event occurs on more than one unit concurrently,
The event with the higher classification will be classified on the
Emergency Notification Form.
T
A. Information relating to the problem(s) on the other unit(s) will be
captured on the Emergency Notification Form as shown in
RF/O/B11000/015A, (Offsite Communications From The Control Room),
RP/O/B/1000/015B, (Offsite Communications From The Technical
Support Center) or FWO/B/1000/015C, (Offsite Communications From
The Emergency Operations Facility).
1.4.4
An event occurs,
-
AND
A lower or higher plant operating mode is reached before the
Classification can be made,
The classification shall be based on the mode that existed at the
time the event occurred.
T
2
RP/0IB/1000/001
Page 3 of 5
ii
1.4.5
The Fission Product Barrier Matrix is applicable only to those evehts that
occur at Hot Shutdown or higher.
A. An event that is recognized at Cold Shutdown or lower shall not be
classified using the Fission Product Barrier Matrix.
1. Reference should be made to the additional enclQsures that provide
Emergency Action Levels for specific events (e.g., Severe Weather,
Fire, Security).
1.5
A transient event should occur,
T"
Review the following guidance:
1.5.1 -
IF
An Emergency Action Level (EAL) identifies a specific duration
The Emergency CoordinatorEOF Director assessment concludes
that the specified duration is exceeded or will be exceeded, (i.e.;
condition cannot be reasonably corrected before the duration
elapses),
AND
T"
Classify the event.
1.5.2
A plant condition exceeding EAL criteria is corrected before the
specified duration time is exceeded,
T"
The event is
classified by that EAL.
A. Review lower severity EALs for possible applicability in these cases.
NOTE Reporting under 10CFR50.72 may be required for the following step. Such a condition
could occur, for example, if a follow up evaluation of an abnormal condition uncovers
evidence that the condition was more severe than earlier believed.
1.5.3
-
IF
A plant condition exceeding EAL criteria is not recognized at the
time of occurrence, but is identified well after the condition has
occurred (e.g.; as a result of routine log or record review)
The condition no longer exists,
An emergency shall NOT be declared.
-
AND
T"
3
RP/OIB/lOOO/OO I
Page 4 of 5
1.5.4
E
T"
An emergency classification was warranted, but the plant
condition has been corrected prior to declaration and
notification,
The Emergency Coordinator must consider the potential that the
initiating condition (e.g.; Failure of Reactor Protection System)
may have caused plant damage that warrants augmenting the on
shift personnel through activation of the Emergency Response
Organization.
A. E
An Unusual Event condition exists,
T"
1.
Make the classification as required.
The event may be terminated in the same notification or as a separate
termination notification.
B. IF
An Alert, Site Area Emergency, or General Emergency
condition exists,
T"
AND
Make the classification as required,
Activate the Emergency Response Organization.
i/
1.6
Emergency conditions shall be classified as soon as the Emergency CoordinatorlEOF
Director assessment determines that the Emergency Action Levels for the Initiating
Condition have been exceeded.
2. Immediate Actions
2.1
Determine the operating mode that existed at the time the event occurred prior to any
protection system or operator action initiated in response to the event.
2.2
E
The unit is at Hot Shutdown or higher
AND
The conditiodevent affects fission product barriers,
T"
2.2.1
GO TO Enclosure 4.1, (Fission Product Barrier Matrix).
Review the criteria listed in Enclosure 4.1, (Fission Product Barrier Matrix)
and make the determination if the event should be classified.
4
2.3
ii
2.4
2.5
RpI0IB/1000/001
Page 5 of 5
Review the listing of enclosures to determine if the event is applicable to one of the
categories shown.
2.3.1
-
IF
2.3.2
2.3.3
One or more categories are applicable to the event,
Refer to the associated enclosures.
Review the EALs and determine if the event should be classified.
A.
An EAL is applicable to the event,
Classify the event as required.
T"
-
IF
'
The condition requires an emergency classification,
T"
GO TO RP/OB/1000/002, (Control Room Emergency Coordinator
Procedure) Subsequent Actions.
Continue to review the emergency conditions to assure the current classification
continues to be applicable.
3. Enclosures
4.1
Fission Product Barrier Matrix
6
Enclosures
Page Number
u
4.2
4.3
4.4
4.5
4.6
4.7
4.8
4.9
4.10
4.11
25
u 4.12
Instructions For Using Enclosure 4.1
5
System Malfunctions
Abnormal Rad Levels/Radiological Effluents
Loss Of Shutdown Functions
Loss of Power
FireslExplosions And Security Actions
Natural Disasters, Hazards, And Other Conditions Affecting Plant Safety
Radiation Monitor Readings For Emergency Classification
UnexpectedNnplanned Increase In Area Monitor Readings
Definitions
Operating Modes Defined In Improved Technical Specifications
I
9
11
13
14
15
18
19
20
24
I '
r
.
m
d i
k
0
.-
Y
E: 5
5
2
.-
m z
W
U
r
E
r
..
m
V
Ei
00
3
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
99.
GEN 2.4.6 001
Unit I
plant conditions:
i/
0
LOCA in progress
Core SCM indicates negative 25°F
"Fully depressurizing both SGs" is in progress
Which ONE of the following describes the purpose for depressurizing the SGs?
To ensure the SGs:
A. remain intact.
B. do not act as a heat source,
C. tube-to-shell AT limits are not exceeded.
D. are getting the maximum amount of EFDW flow available.
B
A. Incorrect- the purpose of the depressurization is to ensure that the SGs act as a
B. Correct- the depressurization will cause the SGs to become a heat sink and not be
C. Incorrect. Not concerned about tube-to-shell delta T at this time.
D. Incorrect. EFDW pumps can supply adequate flow at normal SG pressures.
The question requires the recall of knowledge that is to specfic for the closed
reference test mode. Replaced with bank question 190.
heat sink and not as a heat source.
a heat source. This will allow heat removal from the primary.
i/
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword:
Cog level:
CIA 3.U4.0
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
R
AuthorlReviewer: GCW
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:13 PM
113
QUESTIONS REPORT
for Oconee 2003-301 fnl
100. GEN 2.4.7 001
Unit 2 plant conditions:
INITIAL CONDITIONS:
ii
2A1 RCPsecured
CURRENT CONDITIONS:
AP129 in progress
Reactor power = 43% decreasing
BOP is swapping Auxiliaries:
P When attempting to close 2TA SU 6.9 FDR, 2TA switchgear lockout occurs
Which ONE of the following describes your actions as the Procedure Director?
A. GO TO the EOP and stop AP/29 directions.
B. Refer to the EOP and continue with AP/29 in parallel.
C. Suspend AP/29 directions until 2TA switchgear can be returned to service.
D. Continue AP/29 until the GO TO OP/1102/10, Controlling Procedure for Unit Shutdown is
reached.
ii
Bank 250
A
A. Correct - When 2TA swgr lockout occurs the reactor will trip on flux/flow (loss of 2
RCPs) this meet entry conditions to the EOP. AP/29 should be stopped as the first
note say AP/29 should not be used when EOP entry conditions exist. This note is
conflicting later in AP/29 when tripping the reactor per AP/29 then the EOP is not
entered.
B. Incorrect - AP/29 is stopped when EOP entry conditions are met.
C. Incorrect - EOP entry condition - reactor trip - have been met.
D. Incorrect - EOP entry conditions have been met
Added "RCP" to stem. Should be SRO question because it is asking for actions
of the procedure director who is an SRO. Cog level should be CIA.
Tier:
3
Group:
Keyword
ADMIN
Cog level:
CIA 3.U3.8
Source:
B
Exam:
OC03301
Test:
S
AuthorReviewer: LSMiRFA
u
Wednesday, June 04,2003 7:18:13 PM
114