ML023290003
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| ML023290003 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Hatch  |
| Issue date: | 01/09/2003 |
| From: | Ernstes M Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch |
| To: | Sumner H Southern Nuclear Operating Co |
| References | |
| 50-321/02-301, 50-366/02-301 50-321/02-301, 50-366/02-301 | |
| Download: ML023290003 (118) | |
See also: IR 05000321/2002301
Text
{{#Wiki_filter:Final Submittal E. I. HATCH NUCLEAR PLANT
EXAM 2002-301
50-321 & 50-366
OCTOBER 16 - 18, 21 - 25, &
OCTOBER 30, 2002,
Reactor Operator Written Examination
Cl4) 'PO
ea. ......
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Final RO Test
Name: Form: 0
Version: 0
1. 201001G2.1.28 001
Unit 2 is operating at 80% power. "2A" CRD Pump is in service. The operators
observe the following indications:
Charging water pressure: Low
Cooling water flow: Low
Drive water flow: Low
Cooling water dP: Low
Drive water dP: Low
CRD Mechanism temperatures: Rising
Recirc Pump seal temperatures: Rising
these abnormal
Which ONE of the following CRD component problems has caused
conditions? (Reference included)
A. The flow control valve has failed closed.
B. The drive water pressure control valve has closed.
C. The cooling water control valve has failed closed.
D. The drive water filter is plugged.
This test question was on the last exam.
Re-ordered answers.
Provide a copy of Fig. 12 to SI-LP-00101 Rev. 00.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM
Final RO Test
2. 201001 K2.02 001
Unit I is operating at 100% RTP.
Which ONE of the following represents the expected response of the Scram Pilot
Solenoid Valves and the Backup Valves due to a loss of RPS "A"?
valves
A. One backup scram valve energizes and half of the scram pilot solenoid
de-energize.
valves de-energize.
B. One backup scram valve energizes and all scram pilot solenoid
valves
C. Both backup scram valves energize and all scram pilot solenoid
de-energized.
pilot solenoid
Dt Both backup scram valves remain de-energized and half of the scram
valves de-energize.
References: SI-LP-01001 Rev. SI-01 pg 6 & 7 of 68
EO 010.002.a.01, 200.102.a.01
valve to energize.
A. Incorrect since a loss of RPS does not cause a backup scram
to energize and
B. Incorrect since a loss of RPS does not cause a backup scram valve
it does cause a loss of power to half of the scram pilot solenoid valves.
valves to
C. Incorrect since a loss of RPS A causes half of the scram pilot solenoid
de-energize.
D. Correct answer.
2
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM
Final RO Test
3. 201002A3.03 001
Per 34GO-OPS-O01-2S, Plant Startup, which ONE of the following statements
describes how a Rod Drift Alarm test is performed?
A. Turn the Rod Drift Test Switch to test. Verify the ROD DRIFT annunciator alarms.
Reset the drift alarm with the test switch.
Verify
B. While moving a Group I control rod, turn the Rod Select Power Switch to off.
on and
the ROD DRIFT annunciator alarms. Turn the Rod Select Power Switch to
reset the drift alarm with the Test Switch.
to
C* Select a Group 1 control rod and take the Rod Movement Control Switch
out-notch. During rod travel, place the Rod Drift Alarm Test Switch to test. Verify
the ROD DRIFT annunciator alarms. Reset the drift alarm with the Test Switch.
D. Turn the Rod Movement Control Switch to out-notch. When the settle bus light
de-energizes turn the Rod Drift Test Switch to test. Verify the ROD DRIFT
annunciator alarms. Reset the drift alarm with the Test Switch.
References: SI-LP-05401 Rev. SI-00, pg. 8 of 26.
EO 001.010.a.12
rods still at an
A. Incorrect since the Rod Drift alarm will not actuate due to all control
even position.
rod and
B. Incorrect since turning the Rod Select Power to off will deselect any control
this does not guarantee that a Rod Drift alarm will occur.
C. Correct answer.
settle
D. Incorrect since the procedure does not require the operator to wait until the
light goes out.
3
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM
Final RO Test
4. 202001A1.07 001
Which ONE of the following occurs when Recirculation Pump speed is increased?
A. There is a temporary increase in core void content which causes a decrease in
moderator density with a resultant decrease in neutron moderation. The steam
generation rate decreases which causes a positive reactivity effect.
B.' There is a temporary decrease in core void content which causes an increase in
moderator density with a resultant increase in neutron moderation. The steam
generation rate increases which causes a negative reactivity effect.
C. There is a temporary decrease in core void content which causes an increase in
moderator density with a resultant increase in neutron moderation. The steam
generation rate decreases which causes a positive reactivity effect.
D. There is a temporary increase in core void content which causes a decrease in
moderator density with a resultant decrease in neutron moderation. The steam
generation rate increases which causes a negative reactivity effect.
References: SI-LP-00401-01 Rev. SI-01 Pg 9 of 62
FSAR Section 7.7.2, Recirculation Flow Control System
A. Incorrect since increasing recirc pump speed will decrease core void content.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since increasing Recirc Pump speed causes the steam generation rate to
increase which adds negative reactivity.
D. Incorrect since increasing recirc pump speed will decrease core void content.
4
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 P'M
Final RO Test
5. 202002K3.05 001
Unit 2 is at 100% RTP with the following conditions:
Both Reactor Recirc Pumps are in Master-Manual Control
A fuse for the power supply to the Master Controller fails
The Master Controller de-energizes
Which ONE of the following describes the Reactor Recirculation System response?
A. Speed will remain constant because both scoop tubes lock up.
B.* BOTH Recirc Pumps will decrease speed to approximately 44% speed.
C. Both Recirc Pumps will decrease to approximately 22% speed.
constant.
D. The controller will lock in its previous signal and maintain pump speed
References: SI-LP-00401-01 Rev. SI-01 pg 42 of 62.
On test SR 95-01 question 4
Updated correct answer per lesson plan. Resequenced answers.
A. Incorrect since the speed control signal was not lost.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect because of clamped lower limit is 45% speed on the master controller.
power loss).
D. Incorrect since this happens on a loss of signal from controller (not
5
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM
Final RO Test
6. 203000A1.01 001
During an ATWS on Unit 2, the Shift Supervisor directs injection to be terminated
the
except for Boron, CRD and RCIC. He then directs Emergency Depressurization of
RPV because reactor water level CANNOT be maintained above -185 inches.
Which ONE of the following describes when the Shift Supervisor should recommence
injection?
pumps.
Aý When reactor pressure is less than MARPVFP using RHR or Condensate
and
B. As soon as RPV pressure decreases to within the shutoff head of the RHR
Core Spray pumps.
and RHR
C. When reactor pressure is less than MARPVFP using both Core Spray
pumps.
and
D. As soon as RPV pressure decreases to within the shutoff head of the RHR
Condensate pumps.
References: LR-LP-20327 Rev. 07, pg 30 - 35 of 53
CP-3 ATWS LEVEL CONTROL
EO 201.091.a.15
A. Correct answer.
until
B. Incorrect since all injection is prevented except Boron, CRD and RCIC
MARPVFP is reached and Table 13 systems are available.
C. Incorrect since Core Spray is not a Table 13 system.
until
D. Incorrect since all injection is prevented except Boron, CRD and RCIC
MARPVFP is reached and Table 13 systems are available.
6
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM
Final RO Test
7. 204000K5.04 001
Unit 1 is operating at full power when RBCCW flow to the RWCU system is lost.
Which ONE of the following is the expected plant response of the RWCU system to this
event?
A. The system will not isolate; the Holding pumps will start.
B" The system will isolate; the Holding pumps will start.
C. The system will not isolate; the Holding pumps will trip.
D. The system will isolate; the Holding pumps will trip.
References: INPO Bank for Fitzpatrick 1
SI-LP-00301-00 Rev. SI-00 pg. 17-20 of 34
EO 003.002.a.10
A. Incorrect since the system will isolate on High NRHX Outlet Temp of 140 F.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since the system will isolate on High NRHX Outlet Temp of 140 F.
D. Incorrect since the hold pumps will start on system low flow when the RWCU system
isolates.
7
Thursday, November 21, 20UZ U0:1:z3
6 ivM
Final RO Test
8. 205000K3.04 001
Unit 2 has entered Mode 4 by placing the "B" Loop of RHR in Shutdown Cooling. The
following conditions currently exist:
Reactor Water Level +35 inches (indicated)
Reactor Coolant Temp 185 0 F and decreasing
SDC flow 8000 gpm
The Control Board Operator is directed to adjust the SDC Flow to lower the cooldown
rate. The SDC flow rate is found to be 7000 gpm.
under
Which ONE of the following describes what Recire Loop Temperature would do
these conditions?
A. DECREASE due to greater ambient losses.
B. INCREASE due to lower flow through the loop.
C!* DECREASE due to inadequate circulation through the core.
D. INCREASE due to an increase of forced circulation through the core.
References: INPO bank for Fitzpatrick 1
SI-LP-00701-00 Rev. SI-00 pg. 10 of 48
EO 007.007.a.02, 007.024.b.02
A. Incorrect since ambient losses should decrease.
lost.
B. Incorrect since pumping cooler water since natural circulation has been
loop is
C. Correct answer since RWL is too low for natural circulation and the recirc
water.
pumping cooler
D. Incorrect since natural circulation has been lost.
8
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM
Final RO Test
9. 206000A2.16 001
Unit 2 has just scrammed due to High Drywell pressure. The Control Board Operator
has verified that all low pressure ECCS systems are operating and that the Diesel
Generators are running unloaded. HPCI and RCIC are still in the standby condition.
The following conditions exist on Unit 2:
Reactor Pressure 980 psig
Reactor Water Level -25" increasing
Drywell Pressure 3.5 psig increasing
Drywell Temperature 215OF increasing
to
Which ONE of the following is the appropriate operator action(s) to take with regards
the HPCI system?
A. Leave HPCI in standby since water level is increasing.
B. Place the HPCI Aux Oil Pump in PULL-TO-LOCK per 34S0-E41-001-2S, High
enter
Pressure CoolantInjection (HPCI) System. Declare HPCI INOPERABLE and
Tech Spec LCO.
Injection
C!' Perform a manual startup of HPCI using the HPCI Manual S/U for Vessel
Placard per 34SO-E41-OO1-2SHigh Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System.
Notify Shift Supervisor when HPCI is injecting.
D. Verify that HPCI is in a standby lineup since it wasn't required to start.
Rev.
References: 34SO-E41-001-2S, High Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System,
21.2 pg 15,26 and 58 of 63.
1.85
A. Incorrect since HPCI should have started when Drywell Pressure exceeded
psig.
B. Incorrect due to actions are required to be taken manually if an automatic action
doesn't occur.
C. Correct answer.
1.85
D. Incorrect since HPCI should have started when Drywell Pressure exceeded
psig.
9
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM
Final RO Test
10. 206000K6.08 001
Unit 2 has just experienced a transient with the following conditions present:
Reactor water level -45" increasing
Reactor pressure 123 psig
Drywell pressure 18 psig
HPCI turbine exhaust diaphragm pressure 8 psig
Which ONE of the following indicates the proper HPCI lineup for the present conditions
including the cause?
A*. F002 closed
F003 closed
F001 open
HPCI isolated on reactor low pressure with initiation signal still present.
B. F001 closed
F002 closed
F003 open
HPCI isolated on reactor low pressure with initiation signal still present.
C. F002 open
F003 open
Turbine Stop Valve open
HPCI should be injecting at full flow due to high drywell pressure.
D. F002 closed
F001 open
F006 closed
present.
HPCI isolated on high turbine exhaust pressure with initiation signal still
References: SI-LP-00501 Rev 01 pg 30 - 33 of 46
A. Correct answer.
should be
B. Incorrect since F001 should be open from initiation signal and F003
closed due to auto isolation signal.
from low
C. Incorrect since HPCI should not be injecting due to auto isolation signal
reactor pressure.
(setpoint is
D. Incorrect since HPCI should not have isolated on high exhaust pressure
10 psig).
.10
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM
Final RO Test
11. 209001G2.4.31 001
Unit I is in Mode 4 with work going on that has the potential to drain the reactor vessel.
"A" Core Spray and "A" RHR Loop are in a standby lineup ("B" Core Spray and "B"
RHR Loop are out-of-service) when reactor vessel level starts decreasing rapidly. "A"
and "C" RHR pumps fail to start but "A" Core Spray is injecting at full flow to maintain
level above TAF when the following alarm actuates: "CS PUMP A OVLD/LOCKOUT
RELAY TRIP" ("A" Core Spray pump remains operating).
Note: Over current condition on phase 1, 2, OR 3 of 2R22-S007, Frame 9 will
energize the lockout relay (86) and cause a pump trip and annunciator.
Over current condition on phase 2, of 2R22-S007, Frame 9, but at a lower
current than required to energize relay 86, will energize relay 51X and cause
the annunciator only.
Which ONE of the following actions should be taken with regards to the "A" Core Spray
Pump?
A. Trip "A" Core Spray Pump immediately and record the relay targets actuated.
B. Trip "A" Core Spray Pump immediately and restart when targets are reset.
C!' Reduce the load on the pump until the alarm clears as soon as possible since the
pump is required for Adequate Core Cooling.
D. Continue to run the pump as required until vessel level is back to the normal
operating level and the vessel leak is stopped.
References: 34AR-601-108-2S Rev. I
the pump didn't
A. Incorrect since the pump is required for Adequate Core Cooling and
trip when the alarm initially came in.
the pump didn't
B. Incorrect since the pump is required for Adequate Core Cooling and
trip when the alarm initially came in.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the load should be reduced on the pump as soon as possible.
11
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM
Final RO Test
12. 209001K5.01 001
After a large pipe break inside the drywell on Unit 2, Core Spray "A" is being used to
restore reactor water level to normal. The Operator notices that Core Spray "A" flow
and discharge pressure are oscillating.
Which ONE of the following is the most likely cause of these indications?
A. Vortexing.
B. Pump runout.
C.* Cavitation.
D. Pump running dead-headed.
References: 34A-EI 1-002-2S
This question was proposed by the utility. Need to get references from utility.
A. Incorrect since conditions are not present for air entrapment. The Torus is at the
normal level.
B. Incorrect since Runout would have low pressure and high flow.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since deadhaeaded conditions would initially have high discharge pressure
and no flow.
12
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM
Final RO Test
13. 211000A3.04 001
Which ONE of the following contains a correct list of indications that are used to verify
the Standby Liquid Control System is operating properly once the system has been
initiated? (Not necessarily all the indications)
A. Squib valve loss of continuity alarm annunciated, storage tank level decreasing,
discharge pressure slightly lower than reactor pressure.
B. Red light indicating pump is running, reactor water level will increase, neutron level
in the reactor will increase.
C. Storage tank level increasing, RWCU suction valve 2G31-F004 closes, squib valve
amber light goes off.
DU. System discharge pressure will increase to greater than reactor pressure, neutron
level in the reactor will decrease, RWCU suction valve 2G31-F004 closes.
References: SI-LP-01 101 Rev. SI-00, pg 21 of 32.
EO 011.002.1.03
A. Incorrect since discharge pressure should be higher than reactor pressure.
B. Incorrect since reactor water level increasing is not an indication that SBLC is
injecting. Also, neutron level should be decreasing.
C. Incorrect since storage tank level should decrease.
D. Correct answer.
13
Thursday, November 21, 2002 U1:36:27 PM
Final RO Test
14. 211000A4.01 001
Unit 1 is in an ATWS condition and the Shift Supervisor is directing actions per RCA
RPV Control (ATWS). He has determined that Boron injection is required. The CBO
initiates Boron injection per 34SO-C41-003-2S,Standby Liquid ControlSystem. The
Tank
initial tank level indicates 86%. Two minutes later the CBO notices that the SBLC
level indication has failed downscale.
Which ONE of the following could be the cause of this and how will the CBO ensure
that the Cold Shutdown Boron Weight has been injected?
be sent to
A. Instrument air has been lost to the level detector and an Operator should
verify level in the tank via the local level indication.
be sent to
B1 Instrument air has been lost to the level detector and an Operator should
verify level in the tank via the top hatch.
C. Too much instrument air is being supplied to the bubbler detector and an Operator
should adjust the flow to approximately I scfh.
D. Too much instrument air is being supplied to the bubbler detector and an Operator
should adjust the flow to approximately 10 scfh.
Reference: RCA RPV Control (ATWS) flow chart
SI-LP-01101-00 Rev. SI-00, Standby Liquid Control
EO 011.001.a.03
A. Incorrect due to local level indication is also lost on a loss of instrument air. The
level indication fails downscale on a loss of instrument air.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since too much flow to the bubbler causes level indication to be high.
to be high.
D. Incorrect since too much flow to the bubbler causes level indication
14
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM
Final RO Test
15. 212000A3.05 001
Unit 2 is in Mode 1 at 27% RTP after a forced shutdown. The Shift Supervisor is
reviewing work that was performed during the shutdown and notices that a required
logic test for the SDV bypass switch was not completed. The test verifies that the
Scram Signal for SDV Hi level can be reset with the switch in Bypass.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect of taking the SDV Hi Level Bypass
switch to Bypass under the current plant conditions?
A. RPS would not actuate on any SDV Hi Level signal.
B4' RPS would still actuate on any SDV Hi Level signal.
C. RPS would only actuate on a SDV Hi Level signal received from the Float Switches.
D. RPS would only actuate on a SDV Hi Level signal received from the RTD's.
Reference: SI-LP-01001-01 Rev. SI-01, Reactor Protection System pg 24 of 68.
Tech Spec section 3.3.1.1, RPS Instrumentation
EO 010.019.a.03
A. Incorrect since this switch has no affect on RPS with the Mode Switch in RUN.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since this switch has no affect on RPS with the Mode Switch in RUN.
D. Incorrect since this switch has no affect on RPS with the Mode Switch in RUN.
.. . ..... .. ,*,-- .,.-o fA 15 Thursday, November 2i, LUU2 U
0:3t6o
I HV
Final RO Test
16. 212000K4.06 001
After a scram signal is received on Unit 2, control rods fail to insert and a manual
scram is inserted. The white RPS scram group lights are ILLUMINATED.
Which ONE of the following describes the state of the scram solenoids and the NEXT
action that should be taken?
A. Energized; Rods should be individually scrammed.
B. De-energized; Rods should be manually driven in.
C. Energized; RPS test switches should be taken to trip.
D. De-energized; Links for RPS solenoids should be opened.
References: 31E0-EOP-103-2S Rev4Ed2 pg 2
A. Incorrect, the scram solenoids are energized, but the next action to be taken is to
place the RPS test switches to trip lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S.
B. Incorrect, the scram solenoids are not de-energized, however, this action can be
taken concurrently lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S.
C. Correct, the scram solenoids are energized, and the next action to be taken is to
place the RPS test switches to trip lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S.
D. Incorrect, the scram solenoids are not de-energized, and the next action to be taken
is to place the RPS test switches to trip lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S.
16
Thursday, November 21, 2UUZ U0:1:z36 :28v
Final RO Test
17. 214000K4.01 001
Which ONE of the following explains why a "ROD DRIFT" alarm is received after
moving a control rod using the "EMERGENCY IN"switch?
A. "EMERGENCY IN"bypasses the Rod Position Indication System.
B. The sequence timer is bypassed causing an insert and withdraw signal at the same
time.
C. The rod is at an even reed switch and none of the selected relay busses are
energized (insert, withdraw or settle).
Dt. The rod is at an odd reed switch and none of the selected relay busses are
energized (insert, withdraw or settle).
References: SI-LP-05401 -00 Rev. SI-00, pg 7 & 8 of 26, Reactor Manual Control
EO 001.010.a.12, 001.026.a.02
A. Incorrect since this switch does not bypass RPIS.
B. Incorrect since this does not cause an insert and withdraw signal at the same time.
C. Incorrect since being at an even reed switch position ensures a rod drift alarm does
not occur.
relay
D. Correct answer since this alarm is actuated when rod is at an odd position and
buses are not energized.
17
Thursday, November 21, ZUUZ Ul :6:28 PivM
Final RO Test
18. 215002G2.1.23 001
Unit 2 is operating at 50% RTP and a center control rod is selected for withdrawal.
Which ONE of the following statements best describes the Rod Block Monitor nulling
sequence once it has been initiated?
A. The recorder is frozen and rod select matrix lights are all extinquished until the null
sequence is complete. After the nulling, the recorder will read current power level.
B. The recorder will read downscale until the null sequence is complete. After the
nulling, the recorder will read 100.
C. The recorder will read 100, but control rod movement will be blocked until the
nulling is complete.
D. The recorder will read upscale until the null sequence is complete. After the nulling,
the recorder will read 100.
References: SI-LP-01203-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 19-22 of 51
EO 012.003.e.06
not
A. Incorrect since the rod select matrix lights do not extinquish and the recorder will
read the current power level.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect answer since the recorder will read downscale during the nulling sequence.
D. Incorrect answer since the recorder will read downscale during the nulling sequence.
18
Thursday, November 2l, ZUUZ U01
:36:LO V
Final RO Test
19. 215003A4.05 001
Unit 1 is in the process of starting up after a Refueling outage. The plant has just
(shorting
entered Mode 1 and the Reactor Operator notes the following IRM readings:
links are installed)
IRMA 110/125 IRM B 112/125
IRM C Bypassed IRM D 114/125
IRM E 114/125 IRM F 116/125
IRM G 112/125 IRM H 110/125
the plant?
Based on these readings which ONE of the following describes the affect on
A. A half scram should have occurred due to an IRM above the Hi-Hi limit.
shorting
B. A full scram should have occurred due to an IRM above the Hi-Hi limit with
links installed.
C. A Rod Block should have occurred due to all IRMs above rod block setpoint.
DV No affect on the plant since all of the IRM inputs are bypassed.
References: SI-LP-01202 Rev. 01 pg 21 - 23 of 40
EO 012.003.c.09, 012.003.c.10, 012.003.c.11
RUN.
A. Incorrect since the IRM scram signal is bypassed with Mode Switch in
RUN and with
B. Incorrect since the IRM scram signal is bypassed with Mode Switch in
the shorting links installed this prevents the single IRM scram function.
C. Incorrect since the rod blocks are bypassed with the Mode Switch in RUN.
D. Correct answer.
19
Thursday, November 21, ZUUZ U0:3*8:L PMv
Final RO Test
20. 215004K2.01 001
While operating at 94% RTP on Unit 2, an event causes the following conditions:
Loss of Rx Bldg Vent Monitor B
Loss of Service Water Effluent Monitor
Loss of Stack Gas Monitor B
IRMs B, D, F and H reading downscale
SRMs B and D reading downscale
Which ONE of the following events is indicative of these indications?
A. Loss of Instrument Bus 2B
B. Loss of 24/48 VDC Bus 2B
C. Loss of Vital AC Bus
D. Loss of 125/250 VDC Bus "B"
References: SI-LP-01202 Rev. 01 pg 15 of 40
SI-LP-01201 Rev. SI-00 pg 11 of 30
LT-LP-02704 Rev. 03 pg 59 of 61
LO 012.003.a.09
A. Incorrect since this does not power the listed items.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since this does not power the listed items.
D. Incorrect since this does not power the listed items.
-.. . .. ... o^ ,.f.fo n,, 20 Thursday, November Zi, 20U0 U1:360:L0 HiV
Final RO Test
21. 21s005A2.03 001
Unit 2 is starting up with the Reactor Mode Switch in the START/HOT STBY position.
e following is the present status of each APRM with regard to LPRM inputs and
mdi ted power level.
APRM
A B C D
Level D LPRM I uts 6 5 6 7
Level C LPRM Inpu 5 3 8 8
Level B LPRM Inputs 6 6 5 2
Level A LPRM Inputs 5 3 6 6
Indicated Power Level 120o 14% 12% 11%
Which ONE of the following describes the ant response to these conditions and the
cause for the response?
A. Half Scram due to High power on APRM "B". ,
B. Full Scram due to High power on APRM's "A", "B" and
C. APRM UPSC TRIP/INOP SYS B Alarm due to APRM "B" hay too few LPRM
Inputs.
LPRM
Dt APRM UPSC TRIP/INOP SYS B Alarm due to APRM "D"having too fe
Inputs.
References: SI-LP-01203-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 8-9 of 51
EO 012.003.d.01
in
A. Incorrect since Full Scram would occur if power reached 13% with Mode Switch
START/HOT STBY.
Switch in
B. Incorrect since power level is too low for scram condition. (13% with Mode
START/HOT STBY)
C. Incorrect since APRM B has the minimum LPRM Inputs required (17).
D. Correct answer.
21
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:28 PM
Final RO Test
22. 216000K2.01 001
Which ONE of the following describes the results of a loss of the 2B RPS bus to the
Analog Transmitter Trip System (ATTS)?
A. A complete loss of power to panels P921 and P923.
B. A loss of one of the two power supplies to panels P921 and P923.
C. A loss of one of the two power supplies to panels P922 and P924.
D.' A complete loss of power to panels P922 and P924.
Reference: LT-LP-10008 Rev. SI-00 pg 7 of 28.
EO 055.001.a.07
A. Incorrect since a loss of 2B RPS does not affect panels P921 and P923.
B. Incorrect since a loss of 2B RPS does not affect panel P921 or P923.
C. Incorrect since a loss of 2B RPS affects both panels P922 and P924.
D. Correct answer.
23. 217000K1.01 001
from the
Unit 2 is operating at 80% RTP. The RCIC system is in standby with a suction
CST. The quarterly HPCI flow rate test is in progress and is taking longer than
pump the
expected. Torus level has reached 151" and preparations are being made to
torus down to normal level within the 2 hour Tech Spec time limit.
RCIC?
Which ONE of the following describes the effect high Torus level had on
A. No effect since the RCIC suction valves do not transfer until 152".
both
B" The Torus suction valves (F029 & F031) received an open signal and once
signal.
valves were full open then the CST suction valve (F010) received a closed
the same time
C. The Torus suction valves (F029 & F031) received an open signal at
the CST suction valve (F010) received a closed signal.
closed
D. The CST suction valve (FO10) received a closed signal and when it was full
then the Torus suction valves (F029 & F031) received an open signal.
22
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PivM
Final RO Test
References: SI-LP-03901 Rev. SI-00 pg 10 of 37
level of
A. Incorrect since the U2 RCIC suction swap takes place at a suppression pool
150.5" Unit I takes place at 152".
B. Correct answer.
change
C. Incorrect since the CST and Torus suction valves do not get a signal to
suction
position at the same time. The CST gets a closed signal "After" the Torus
valves are full open.
valve
D. Incorrect since the Torus suction valves come open before the CST suction
goes closed.
24. 219000A2.08 001
the 1B RHR
Unit I is operating at 100% RTP. The Plant Operator (PO) has placed
alarm is
pump in Torus Cooling Mode. "Rx Bldg Floor Drains Sump B Leak High"
(SO) in the area
received followed shortly by "RHR Pump B Trip." A System Operator
for the 1B RHR
notifies the PO that there is excessive leakage in the pump seal area
pump.
and what are the
Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the RHR System
appropriate actions to take per the Alarm Response procedures?
(Provide copy of Tech Spec Section 3.5.1)
SWGR to look
A. Declare Division 2 of RHR INOPERABLE, send an Operator to the
for flags and place the "B" RHR Pump control switch in STOP.
lineup, isolate
B. Declare the "B" RHR Pump INOPERABLE, verify the suction valve
Division 2 of RHR and reset the sump timers.
lineup, isolate the
C.t Declare Division 2 of RHR INOPERABLE, verify the suction valve
"B" RHR Pump and reset the sump timers.
SWGR to look
D. Declare the "B" RHR Pump INOPERABLE, send an Operator to the
for flags and isolate Division 2 of RHR.
23
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM
Final RO Test
References: 34AR-601-206-IS Rev. 3.1
34AR-602-401-IS Rev. 0.1
A. Incorrect since you need to isolate the pump.
B. Incorrect since you need to call the entire loop INOPERABLE, not just the pump.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since you do not have to isolate the entire Loop of RHR, just the pump.
Also, you should declare the entire loop Inoperable.
25. 223001A2.12 001
Unit 1 has scrammed on vessel low level due to loss of all High Pressure feed. The
-* n,- a rocsgriTpd tfhe. RPV before level reached -185". 1A Core Spray
pump is operating to restore reactor water level with the following plant conditions:
Reactor Water Level -120 inches and Increasing
Reactor Pressure 45 psig
Suppression Pool Temperature 190OF
Suppression Pool Water Level 145 inches
3 psig
Suppression Chamber Pressure
4600 gpm
1A Core Spray Flow
use
Which ONE of the following actions should the crew take concerning the continued
of 1A Core Spray pump?
(Provide Graph 9, 11A and 11B)
A. REDUCE flow to get back within Vortex limits.
B. CONTINUE flow at the present rate since it is within NPSH and Vortex limits.
C!' REDUCE flow to get back within NPSH limits.
D. CONTINUE flow at the present rate ignoring NPSH and Vortex limits.
24
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM
Final RO Test
Reference: Core Spray Pump NPSH Limit Graph 11 B
Core Spray Vortex Limit Graph 9
Students will be supplied with both graphs.
A. Incorrect since IA Core Spray pump is within Vortex limits.
B. Incorrect since EOP's direct you bace to RC RPV CONTROL after vessel level is
increasing above top of active fuel and now Vortex and NPSH limits are a concern.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since CP-1 has been exited to RC RPV CONTROL point B.
26. 223002K1.07 001
U-2 RCIC System is running with the following conditions present 10 minutes after the
event:
Reactor Water Level -38"
Drywell Pressure +1.5 psig
Suppression Chamber Ambient Temp. 170OF
RCIC Steam Line pressure 900 psig
RCIC Emergency Area Cooler Temp 100OF and rising slowly
An operator has been sent to the RCIC room and reports that there is a small steam
leak on the line upstream of the Trip and Throttle valve. The Shift Supervisor orders
the Reactor Operator to manually isolate RCIC.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on RCIC when the manual isolation
pushbutton is depressed?
A. Isolation valves F007 and F008 close and the RCIC turbine trips.
B. Inboard Isolation valve F007 closes and the RCIC turbine trips.
C. Outboard Isolation valve F008 closes and the RCIC turbine trips.
D. No effect on RCIC since the system should already be isolated.
25
Thursday, November 21,2002 01:36:29 PM
Final RO Test
Reference: SI-LP-03901-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 17 of 37.
EO 039.012.a.04
A. Incorrect since only the F008 valve is affected by the "Manual Isolation" pushbutton
while there is an initiation signal present.
B. Incorrect since the F007 valve is not affected by the "Manual Isolation" pushbutton
while there is an initiation signal present.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the only isolation signal could be Suppression Chamber Ambient
Temp but it has a 30 minute time delay when temp is > 1650F and this is 10 minutes
into the event.
27. 226001K2.02 001
Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with the following equipment out-of-service:
2C.
230KV breakers 470 & 480 are open to perform testing on Startup Transformer
EDG I B due to oil leak just found (repairs in progress).
a
While waiting for the repairs to be completed for the 1B EDG Unit 2 experiences
2B seals. All
Reactor Scram on High Drywell pressure due to a failure of Recirc Pump
RHR Pump
automatic actions occur as designed with the current plant lineup. The 2B
is due to
A. running, power supplied from 2C EDG.
B. not running, power not supplied from 1B EDG.
C* running, power supplied from SAT 2D.
D. not running, power not supplied from SAT 2C.
26
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM
Final RO Test
Reference: LT-LP-02701-03 Rev. 03 Electrical Distribution - Switchyard
LT-LP-02702-03 Rev. 03 4160 VAC Electrical Distribution
Tech Specs and Bases Section 3.8.1
EO 200.017.a.03
A. Incorrect since SAT 2D is still energized.
B. Incorrect due to power still available from SAT 2D.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since SAT 2D is the power supply.
28. 234000K6.02 001
Unit 2 is in a Refueling Outage with a core reload in progress. All Refueling related
TRIP"
surveillances are current. The Unit CBO receives the "600V BUS 2C BREAKER
alarm and upon investigation determines a loss of 2R24-S01 1.
Based on this information which ONE of the following describes how Refueling
Operations are affected?
A. Core Alterations can continue since a "refuel bridge stopped" alarm has not
occured.
B.t Core Alterations must be suspended immediately OR declare associated AC
supported required features inoperable.
and
C. Core Alterations can continue until the next scheduled AC breaker alignment
voltage checks are due since power is still available to the refueling equipment.
D. Core Alterations can continue for 1 hr provided AC breaker alignment and voltage
checks are completed within that hour.
27
Thursday, November 21,2002 01:36:29 PM
Final RO Test
References: Tech Spec 3.8.8 Distribution - Systems Shutdown
Tech Spec Bases 3.8.8 Distribution Systems - Shutdown Bases
LT-LP-02705-02 Rev.02 pg 30 of 42
A. Incorrect since the AC distribution system must be determined INOPERABLE due to
the low voltage so Core Alterations must be stopped immediately.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since equipment must be declared INOPERABLE upon discovery on not
being able to meet minimum requirements.
D. incorrect since 1 hour is not provided to continue Core Alterations in the Tech
Specs.
29. 239001 K4.04 001
Which ONE of the following describes the purpose of the Main Steam Line Flow
Restrictors?
A. To prevent the uncontrolled release of radioactive material to the environs following
are
a steam line rupture outside containment to the extent that the CFR 100 limits
not exceeded at the site boundary.
B. To limit the loading on the steam lines following a steam line rupture outside
containment such that the failure of one steam line would not result in a MSIV
isolation from high main steam line flow.
C. To limit the pressure reduction following a steam line rupture outside containment
such that the safety limit of 785 psig is not reached with reactor power >25% prior
to the MSIV's closing.
Dt To work in conjunction with the MSIV's to limit flow on a steam line rupture which
place.
assures the steam dryer and other internal structures in the vessel remain in
28
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:z29 PM
Final RO Test
Reference: SI-LP-01401-00 Rev. 00 Pg 9 of 45
A. Incorrect since the isolation of the MSIV's perform this function.
B. Incorrect since the flow restrictors limit the loss of coolant from the vessel on a
steam line break.
C. Incorrect since the flow restrictors are concerned with the loss of coolant and not the
pressure reduction.
D. Correct answer.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM
29
Final RO Test
30. 239002A1.01 001
Unit 1 reactor has just scrammed due to an inadvertent Group I isolation. The Shift
Supervisor has entered RC RPV CONTROL (NON-ATWS) and ordered a reactor
pressure band of 800 - 1080 psig using the relief valves.
to see when
Which ONE of the following describes the indications you would expe
you opened a relief valve?
A. The RED indicator light is lit, annunciator SAFETY BLOWDOWN PRESSURE
HIGH is clear, and reactor pressure is decreasing.
not lit, and
B. The GREEN indicator light will extinguish, the YELLOW indicator light is
tailpipe temperature indication is increasing.
PRESSURE
C* The YELLOW indicator light is lit, annunciator SAFETY BLOWDOWN
HIGH is alarming, and tailpipe temperature indication is increasing.
D. Reactor pressure is decreasing, the RED indicator light is out, and the GREEN
indicator light is out.
and Low-Low Set
References: 34SO-B21-001-2S, Automatic Depressurization (ADS)
(LLS) System, Rev.13.3 pg 16 of 31
HIGH should
A. Incorrect since the annunciator for SAFETY BLOWDOWN PRESSURE
be in alarm.
B. Incorrect since the YELLOW light should illuminate.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the RED indicating light should be illuminated.
30
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM
Final RO Test
31. 239002K6.05 001
A Safety/Relief Valve tailpipe vacuum breaker has failed in the "OPEN" position.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on containment and the Safety/Relief
Valve if the relief valve with the failed vacuum breaker lifts?
A. Drywell pressure would increase before Torus pressure during the time the relief
valve was open and the relief valve would operate normally.
B. Torus pressure would increase before Drywell pressure during the time the relief
valve was open and the relief valve would operate normally.
C. Drywell pressure would not be affected during the time the relief valve was open
and the relief valve would open at a lower pressure.
and
D. Torus pressure would not be affected during the time the relief valve was open
the relief valve would open at a higher pressure.
References: FSAR Section 6.2
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since the vacuum breakers are physically located in the Drywell.
due to
C. Incorrect since Drywell pressure will increase when the relief valve is open
the location of the vacuum breaker.
due
D. Incorrect since Torus pressure would increase after Drywell pressure increases
to the location of the vacuum breakers.
31
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM
Final RO Test
32. 241000K6.05 001
the "Turbine
Unit 2 is holding load at 75% Reactor Power when the operator receives
Vacuum Low" alarm.
Which ONE of the following describes the expected sequence of actions as condenser
, ,,
vuýuu
I*,, ,anntin,
.-- tn rI*asefl from 24.7" Ha Vac (alarm setoint) to 0" Hg Vac?
A. 1st - Main Turbine trips.
2nd - RFP turbine trips and Main Turbine Bypass Valves close at the same time.
3rd - MSIV's close.
B. 1st - Main Turbine and RFP turbine trip at the same time.
2nd - Main Turbine Bypass Valves close.
3rd - MSIV's close.
C!t 1st - Main Turbine and RFP turbine trip at the same time.
2nd - MSIV's close.
3rd - Main Turbine Bypass Valves close.
time.
D. 1st - RFP turbine trips and Main Turbine Bypass Valves close at the same
2nd - MSIV's close.
3rd - Main Turbine trips.
Reference: SI-LP-02501-00 Rev. SI-00 Pg 7 of 13.
EO 200.087.a.01
Vac.
A. Incorrect since RFP's and Main Turbine trip at the same time at 22.3" Hg
Hg Vac.
B. Incorrect since MSIV's close at 10" Hg Vac and Bypass valves close at 7"
C. Correct answser since RFP's and Main Turbine trip at the same time at 22.3" Hg
Vac, MSIV's close at 10" Hg Vac and Bypass valves close at 7" Hg Vac.
D. Incorrect since Main Turbine trips prior to the MSIV's closing.
32
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM
Final RO Test
33. 245000KI.09 001
Which ONE of the following describes the effect that a loss of the "2A" 125/250V DC
Switchgear will have on the Unit 2 Main Turbine Generator?
A. Remote trip capability for the generator output breakers AND the exciter field
breaker will be lost.
B. Remote trip capability for the generator output breaker will be lost, but the exciter
field breaker can still be controlled remotely.
C. The generator output breakers will fail to open automatically, but the exciter field
breaker can still be tripped from the control room.
D. The generator output breakers will fail to open automatically AND the exciter field
breaker must be opened locally.
References: 34AB-R22-001-2S Rev.2.3 Pg 3
A. Incorrect, lAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will not open
automatically. However, they will open from the control room but the exciter field
breaker must be opened locally.
B. Incorrect, iAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will not open
automatically and the exciter field breaker must be opened locally.
C. Incorrect, iAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will fail to open
automatically, however, the exciter field breaker must be opened locally.
D. Correct, lAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will fail to open
automatically and the exciter field breaker must be opened locally.
33
Thursday, November 21, Z2U0 u2 :36:3u PM
Final RO Test
34. 256000K1.05 001
Unit 2 is operating at 80% RTP. An operator inadvertently opens the Unit 2
Condensate Suction Pressure Control Valve "Bypass Valve" (2N21-F182, Condensate
Supply to CRD).
Which ONE of the following describes the probable consequences which will occur
because of this action?
A. Opening 2N21 -F1 82 could result in excessive condensate system losses via recirc
flow back to the CST through the CRD suction line from the CST.
B. Opening 2N21-F182 increases the NPSH to the CRD pump which could result in
the CRD pump discharge pressure exceeding its design pressure limit of 1510 psig.
C!' Opening 2N21 -F1 82 may result in excessively high CRD pump suction pressure
which could cause overpressurization of the CRD suction piping if the suction relief
valve capacity is exceeded.
18"
D. The CRD pump suction pressure trip is set such that the pump will trip above
Hg Vac; opening 2N21 -F1 82 will cause the pump suction pressure trip to activate.
References: LT-LP-00101-00 Rev. 04 pg. 14 of 28
EO 001.005.a.07
A. Incorrect since water is prevented from going back to the CST by a check valve.
B. Incorrect since there are other means of preventing the CRD system from reaching
its design pressure limit.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the CRD pumps trip on low suction pressure.
34
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM
Final RO Test
35. 259001K1.05 001
Which ONE of the following describes the sequence of components that condensate
would pass through to get from the Main Condenser to the Reactor Vessel?
A. Condensate Booster Pumps, Gland Seal Condenser, Condensate Pumps, 10th
Stage Feedwater Heaters, Reactor Feed Pumps.
B. Condensate Pumps, Condensate Booster Pumps, Condensate Demins, Reactor
Feed Pumps, 4th Stage "A" Heater.
C'. Condensate Pumps, Gland Seal Condenser, Condensate Booster Pumps, 6th
Stage Feedwater Heater, Reactor Feed Pumps.
D. Condensate Pumps, 4th Stage "A" Heater, 6th Stage Feedwater Heater, Reactor
Feed Pumps, Feedwater Level Control Valves.
References: SI-LP-00201 Rev. SI-00 Figure 01
A. Incorrect since the Condensate Pumps come before the Condensate Booster
Pumps.
B. Incorrect since Condensate Demins come before the Condensate Booster Pumps.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since 6th stage heater comes before the 4th stage heater.
35
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01::3t:31 PrM
Final RO Test
36. 259002K3.02 001
system is
Unit 2 is holding load at 80% Reactor Power. The Feedwater Level Control
in 3 element control.
of
Which ONE of the following describes what RPV water level should do if a loss
control signal from RFPT "A" M/A controller occurred?
/ feed flow
A. INCREASE due to loss of a feed flow signal resulting in a steam flow
mismatch.
speed stop"
B. REMAIN THE SAME due to RFPT "A" decreasing speed to it's "low
and the "B" RFPT increasing speed toward it's "high speed stop".
to loss of feed flow
C. DECREASE initially and STABILIZE approximately 6" lower due
input.
and RFPT "B"
.*'REMAIN THE SAME due to RFPT "A" defaulting to the speed setter
controlling level in auto.
Reference: SI-LP-00201-00 Rev. SI-00 Pg. 27 of 47.
Question #LT-LP-002027-0002
EO 002.004.a.08
Minor rewording of question and order of answers.
used (37") for the
A. Incorrect since loss of signal results in default level signal being
failed controller to the associated RFPT.
stop and the unaffected
B. Incorrect since RFPT with failure does not go to low speed
RFPT does not go towards the high speed stop.
at the normal operating
C. Incorrect since level is maintained by the unaffected RFPT
level.
D. Correct answer.
36
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:32 PM
Final RO Test
37. 261000K4.01 001
The following Unit 1 reactor zone exhaust ventilation radiation levels exist:
1D11-K609A 12 mR/hr
1D11-K609B 14 mR/hr
1D11-K609C 10 mR/hr
1D11-K609D 11 mR/hr
Which ONE of the following reflects the plant response to the above conditions?
and
A. Unit 1 and 2 Refueling Floor and Reactor Building supply and exhaust fans trip
isolate and Unit I and 2 SBGT starts and aligns to the Reactor Building and
Refueling Floor.
B. Unit 1 Refueling Floor and Reactor Building supply and exhaust fans trip and isolate
and Unit I SBGT starts and aligns to the Reactor Building and Refueling Floor.
1
C. Unit I and 2 Reactor Building supply and exhaust fans trip and isolate and Unit
and 2 SBGT starts and aligns to the Reactor Building only.
in
W. Unit 1 and 2 Reactor Building and Refueling Floor ventilation systems remain
operation and neither SBGT fan starts.
Reference: SI-LP-01302-00 Rev. SI-0 Pg. 16 of 21
Question # LR-LP-200023-0001
EO 013.031.a.05, 013.038.a.08
will
A. Incorrect since none of these instruments are reading >18 mR/hr so nothing
automatically cause fans to trip and isolate and SBGT to start for both units.
B. Incorrect since both units are affected by any of these instruments reading >18
mR/hr.
C. Incorrect since the Refuel Floor fans and dampers would be affected by these
signals if the threshold wee met.
D. Correct answer. None of the instrument readings meet the threshold for actuating
reading
the Reactor Building and Refueling Floor vents and starting SBGT (K609 A-D
>18 mR/hr for Unit 1).
has not
Modified the initial conditions so that the student must realize that the threshold
were for
been met to cause initiations since the readings are for Unit 1. Ifthe readings
Unit 2 then the initiations would occur.
37
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:32 PM
Final RO Test
38. 262001A4.02 001
Which ONE of the following states how to adjust main generator output voltage and the
to
consequences of improperly setting the main generator output voltage with respect
system voltage during manual synchronization?
switch
A.r Adjust the generator output voltage using the Auto Voltage Adjust control
and if generator output voltage is greater than system voltage then Reactive load
will be positive.
switch
B. Adjust the generator output voltage using the Manual Voltage Adjust control
will
and if generator output voltage is less than system voltage then Reactive load
be negative.
switch
C. Adjust the generator output voltage using the Auto Voltage Adjust control
will
and if generator output voltage is less than system voltage then Reactive load
be positive.
control switch
D. Adjust the generator output voltage using the Manual Voltage Adjust
load
and if generator output voltage is greater than system voltage then Reactive
will be negative.
References: INPO 2001 Exam Bank (question 262001.A4.0 155)
of 53.
34SO-N40-001-2S, Main Generator Operation Rev. 10.5, pg 13 - 16
A. Correct answer.
switch to
B. Incorrect answer since you have to use the Auto Voltage Adjust control
match voltages.
C. Incorrect since the VAR flow will be from the system to the generator.
and you use
D. Incorrect since the VAR flow will be from the generator to the system
the Auto Voltage Adjust control switch to match voltages.
38
Thursday, November 21, 2002 0I:3:*2:6 P-ivi
Final RO Test
39. 263000K3.01 001
Unit 2 is operating at 50% RTP when the following annunciators alarm:
ARI OUT OF SERVICE
LOSS OF OFF SITE POWER
4160V BUS 2E or 600v BUS 2C DC OFF
125/250V BATT VOLTS LOW OR FUSE TROUBLE
125/250V BATT CHGR MALFUNCTION
The Control Board Operator verifies that 125VDC Cabinet 2D has been lost.
Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the Diesel Generators that supply
Unit 2 Buses?
A.< 2A Diesel Generator is INOPERABLE due to loss of auto start capability.
B. 2C Diesel Generator is INOPERABLE due to loss of auto start capability.
C. 2A and 2C Diesel Generators are INOPERABLE due to loss of auto start capability.
D. 1 B Diesel Generator is INOPERABLE to Unit 2 due to loss of auto start capability to
Unit 2.
References: 34AB-R22-001-2S, Loss of DC Buses Rev. 2.3 pg 17,18, and 59 of 66.
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since the 2C Diesel Generator is unaffected by this loss.
C. Incorrect since the 2C Diesel Generator is unaffected by this loss.
D. Incorrect since the 1B Diesel Generator is unaffected by this loss.
39
Thursday, November 21, 2UU0 U1 :36:, riPi
Final RO Test
40. 264000A1.01 001
The 2A Emergency Diesel Generator is running loaded and tied to the bus for the
normal Monthly load test. While adjusting the load to maintain between 1710 and 2000
KW the DIG trips. The following conditions existed at the time of the trip:
Engine Speed 980 RPM
Lube Oil Pressure 22 psig
Lube Oil Temp 240°F
Jacket Water Temp 200OF
Jacket Water Pressure 14 psig
Which ONE of the following is the most likely cause of the DIG trip?
A. Engine Overspeed.
B. High Jacket Water Temp.
C. Low Lube Oil Pressure.
DO High Lube Oil Temperature.
References: LT-LP-02801-03 Rev. 03 pg 43 and 44 of 87
EO 028.023.a.02
34SO-R43-001-2
A. Incorrect since this is below the setpoint of 1000 + 10 RPM.
B. Incorrect since the setpoint for High Jacket Water Temp Trip is 205 F.
C. Incorrect since the setpoint for the Low Lube Oil Pressure trip is 21 psig decreasing.
D. Correct answer.
40
Thursday, November 21, z2u0 u2:36:3L PMV
Final RO Test
41. 264000K3.01 001
Unit 1 has experienced a LOCA with a LOSP. Emergency Diesel Generators "IA" and
"IB" are running with their output breakers closed. Emergency Diesel Generator "IC"
has failed to start. Approximately 25 seconds after EDG "IA" and "IB" receive the
start signal you notice the following pump status:
Pumps Running Pumps Idle
"lA"Core Spray Pump "IA" PSW Pump
"IC" RHR Pump "IB" PSW Pump
"A, B and D" RHR Pumps
"IB" Core Spray Pump
Which ONE of the following describes the pumps that you would expect to be operating
for this condition?
A. PSW pump "IA" should also be running.
B* "A" and "D" RHR pumps should also be running.
C. "A", "B" and "D" RHR pumps should also be running.
D. "B" Core Spray, "A" and "D"RHR pumps and "IA" PSW pump should also be
running.
References: LT-LP-02801 Rev. 03, pg 49-50 of 87
EO 028.025.a.02
A. Incorrect since the PSW pumps are load-shed upon an auto start of the DIG.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since "B" RHR pump is powered from the IC DIG which has failed.
D. Incorrect since "B" Core Spray is powered from 1C D/G which has failed and the
"lA"PSW pump should not have started.
....... .,41
S.. . . . . ...
Thursday, NovemDer 21, ZUUL U130:3:32 -v'
Final RO Test
42. 268000A1.01 001
The Unit 2 Radwaste Operator is in the process of discharging the Chemical Waste
Sample Tank 2B to the discharge canal at 65 gpm, when the discharge radiation
monitor exceeds the HIGH trip setpoint.
Which ONE of the following describes ALL of the expected actions for this condition?
A. The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate.
B. The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate and the dilution flow
line will isolate.
C. The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate and the High Flow
canal discharge line will isolate.
DV The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate and the High and Low
Flow canal discharge lines will isolate.
Reference: LT-LP-02901-02 Rev. 02 pg 36 of 46.
34AR-601-401-2S Rev. 0.2
A. Incorrect since the high discharge trip setpoint will also auto close the high and low
canal discharge lines.
B. Incorrect since the high discharge trip setpoint will auto close the high and low canal
discharge lines but do not affect the dilution flow line.
C. Incorrect since the high discharge trip setpoint will also auto close the low canal
discharge line.
D. Correct answer.
42
Thursday, November 21, zuuz u0 :36:32 rIVI
Final RO Test
43. 271000K4.08 001
The following Unit 2 valves have automatically closed:
Main Stack Inlet valve 2N62-F057
Holdup Volume Drain valve 2N62-F085
Offgas Moisture Separator drain to the Main Condenser 2N62-FO30A/B
Which ONE of the following is most likely to have caused this plant condition?
A. BOTH Off-Gas Pre-treat Monitors Hi-Hi.
B* ONE Off-Gas Post-treat Monitor downscale and ONE Off-Gas Post-treat Monitor
Hi-Hi-Hi.
C. BOTH Stack Gas Monitors Hi-Hi.
D. Recombiner building CCW out of Off-Gas Condenser reading 148 F.
References: LT-LP-03101-03 Rev. 03 pg 20-22 of 44.
EO 031.001.a.15
A. Incorrect since this alarm does not cause any isolations.
B. Correct answer since any combination of downscale or Hi-Hi-Hi in both trip systems
simultaneously causes these valves to isolate.
C. Incorrect since this setpoint causes the Main Stack Effluent Accident Range Gas
Monitor to actuate.
D. Incorrect since a temperature of 140 F causes 2N62-F003 A/B to close.
(Changed answer C and D from OffGas Carbon Vault Monitors Inop and Main Steam
Line Radiation Monitors greater than 3x normal to the ones that were listed. Changed
answer B to actuate on any combination of setpoints. Added information to answers for
the number of monitors that were in alarm. Modified the list of valves in the stem).
43
Thursday, November 21, ZuuL ul :.36:32L 'v
Final RO Test
44. 272000K2.05 001
References: LT-LP-10007 Rev. 04 pg 17-27 of 73.
A. Incorrect since this is powered by 24 VDC Cabinet "B", R25-S016.
B. Incorrect since this is powered by 24 VDC Cabinet "A" and "B".
C. Incorrect since this is powered by their NUMAC monitors which receive power from
RPS "B".
D. Correct answer.
44
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:33 PM
Final RO Test
45. 286000A1.01 001
Unit 1 is in a Refueling outage with the 4160 VAC 1 E bus tagged out and de-energized
for maintenance. A fire is detected resulting in main fire header pressure decreasing.
Which ONE of the following is the expected fire protection system response?
A. The motor driven fire pump starts at 110 psig; the first engine driven pump starts at
100 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 90 psig.
B. The motor driven fire pump does not start; the first engine driven pump starts at
110 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 100 psig.
C. The motor driven fire pump does not start; the first engine driven fire pump starts at
110 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 90 psig.
D.* The motor driven fire pump does not start; the first engine driven fire pump starts at
100 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 90 psig.
References: LT-LP-03601Rev.3 pg 19 and 21
A. Incorrect since motor driven pump does not have electrical power and starting
pressures are incorrect.
B. Incorrect since pumps start at different pressures..
C. Incorrect since first engine driven fire pump starts at 100 psig.
D. Correct answer.
45
Thursday, November 21, ZUU2 01:36:3 Piv
Final RO Test
46. 288000A2.05 001
The weather forcast for the oncoming shift is high winds with the temperature dropping
to the low teens. The System Operator (SO) is performing outside rounds and notes
that upon entering the 2A DIG room that the temperature is abnormally cold.
Which ONE of the following describes the possible impact on the plant and the correct
compensatory actions for this situation?
A. 2A DIG could become INOPERABLE due to cold conditions. Start the DIG to warm
0
up the room. Install temporary heaters to maintain temperature above 60 F.
B. The DIG cooling water system could freeze which would INOP the 2A DIG. Install
temporary heating units to supplement the room heaters and install temporary
temperature indication in the room.
C. 2A DIG oil could cool down and affect the auto start capability of the DIG. Verify
room heaters are operating properly. Declare the DIG INOPERABLE if room
temperature is <60°F for 12 hours.
Dt 2A DIG could become INOPERABLE due to cold conditions. Verify DIG room and
switchgear room louvers are completely closed. Also, verify room heaters are
energized and maintaining temperature.
References: DI-OPS-36-0989N Rev. 13 pg 1 of 4.
A. Incorrect since DIG does not become INOPERABLE immediately. Also, there isn't
direction to install temporary heating.
B. Incorrect since the DIG cooling water can't freeze since it is filled with anti freeze.
Also, no direction to install temporary heating and temperature indication.
C. Incorrect since the oil is heated with an immersion heater to maintain proper 0
temperature. No direction to declare DIG INOPERABLE if temp goes below 60 F.
D. Correct answer.
46
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:33 PM
Final RO Test
47. 290001A3.01 001
Units 1 and 2 are operating at 100% power when a Hi-Hi alarm is received on reactor
building exhaust ventilation radiation monitor channels I D1 1-K609A and B. Channels
I D11-K609C and D are reading normal.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Secondary Containment
Systems?
A. Unit 1 and 2 SBGT systems auto start. Unit 1 and 2 Reactor Building ventilation
trips and all isolation valves close.
Bý Unit 1 and 2 SBGT systems auto start. Unit I and 2 Reactor Building ventilation
trips and only the inboard isolation valves close.
the
C. Unit I SBGT system auto starts. Unit I Reactor Building ventilation trips and all
Unit 1 isolation valves close.
D. Unit 2 SBGT system auto starts. Unit 2 Reactor Building ventilation trips and all the
Unit 2 isolation valves close.
Reference: LT-LP-10007 Rev. 04, pg. 28
EO 200.030.a.10
Revised distractors and stem to make it more plausible.
A. Incorrect since only the inboard isolation valves close.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since both trains of SBGT and both units Rx Bldg Vents isolate with only
the inboard isolation valves going closed.
D. Incorrect since both trains of SBGT and both units Rx Bldg Vents isolate with only
the inboard isolation valves going closed.
47
Thursday, November 21, 2002 Ul:36:33 PMiv
Final RO Test
48. 290002G2.1.28 001
Which ONE of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a component within
the RPV?
A" The baffle plate provides a mounting surface for the jet pump diffusers and
separates the downcomer area from the below core plate area.
B. Flow orifices are mounted in the control rod housing, directly aligned with the fuel
support piece.
C. The steam seperator dries the steam/fluid mixture to 99.9% quality.
within a
D. The Standby Liquid Control/Core dp Pipe is a permanently mounted pipe
pipe with the outer pipe used for SBLC injection.
References: SI-LP-04402 Rev. SI-00 pg 4-10 of 27
LO LT-04402.001
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since the flow orifices are located in the fuel support pieces.
C. Incorrect since the steam separators increase the steam quality from approximately
13% to 90%.
D. Incorrect since the SBLC system uses the inner tube to inject Boron.
48
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36J:33 PM
Final RO Test
49. 290003K5.02 001
Both Units are operating at 100% RTP. It is reported that the Control Room HVAC can
only maintain a positive pressure of 1/5 inch WG relative to the Turbine Building during
the pressurization mode. Outside air flow rate is 399 cfm and subsystem flowrate is
2600 cfm.
Based on these plant conditions, which ONE of the following describes the Control
Room HVAC system? (Provide copy of TS 3.7.4 with SR's)
A'. would still be OPERABLE because Control Room to Turbine Building dp and
ventilation flow rates are adequate.
B. would be INOPERABLE because Control Room to outside Turbine Building dp is
too low.
C. would be INOPERABLE because the Control Room ventilation subsystem flow rate
is inadequate.
D. would be INOPERABLE because outside air flow rate is inadequate.
References: Tech Spec section 3.7.4, MCREC System SR 3.7.4.4
Modified answers to reflect only one correct answer
A. Correct answer since dP is > 0.1" wg, subsystem flow rate is < 2750 cfm and outside
air flow is < 400 cfm.
B. Incorrect since the dP is adequate.
C. Incorrect since the subsystem flow rate is adequate.
D. Incorrect since the outside air flowrate is adequate.
-. . ... - . o.oo. nRA 49
Thursday, November z2, LUU2 u i0:36:33
0
Final RO Test
50. 295001AK2.07 001
Unit 2 startup is in progress with no equipment out of service. Reactor power is 40%
and the speed of both recirc pumps was just raised to 30%. A trip of Recirc Pump "2A"
occurs and the operator performs the actions of 34AB-B31-001-2S, Reactor
Recirculation Pump(s) Trip, or Recirc Loops Flow Mismatch to stabilize the plant.
Which ONE of the following describes how an accurate reading of total core flow is
determined under these conditions?
A!" Total core flow must be manually calculated by adding "2A" and "2B" Jet Pump
Loop flows to obtain an accurate reading.
B. The Total Core Flow indication must be reduced by the "2A" Jet Pump Loop flow to
obtain an. accurate reading.
C. Total core flow must be manually calculated by subtracting "2A" Jet Pump Loop
flow from the "2B" Jet Pump Loop flow to obtain an accurate reading.
D. The summing circuitry for the Total Core Flow indication automatically accounts for
the idle "2A" recirc loop and provides an accurate reading.
References: 34AB-B31-001-2S Rev 7.2 pg 3 of 7.
Hatch 99 Exam question #56
Slight modifications to stem and added LOOP to all flows in answers.
Resequenced answers.
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since you cannot subtract the 2A Jet Pump Loop flow from the Total Flow
indication and get an accurate reading.
C. Incorrect since you have to add the two loop flows together to get an accurate
reading.
D. Incorrect since the summing circuitry does not account for an idle recirc pump.
-. . . .. . ... ... ',',%, n .4. ., fl A 50 Thursday, November 21, 2UUL u i:36;:33 V
Final RO Test
51. 295002G2.1.2 001
Unit I is operating at 550 MWe when the "IAX Circ Water pump trips.
Which ONE of the following actions should be taken by the Operator?
A'. Reduce power as necessary to maintain Conderser Vacuum and attemp to restart
the "'IA"Circ Water pump.
B. Immediately attempt to restart the "IAX Circ Water pump. Ifthe Circ Water pump
fails to start, then scram the reactor and close the MSIV's.
C. Immediately attempt to restart the "IA" Circ Water pump. If the Circ Water pump
fails to start, then reduce power to less than 450 MWe.
D. Reduce power as necessary to maintain Condenser Vacuum. When condensate
demin inlet temperature reaches 140 F, isolate the feed and condensate system.
0
References: 34AB-N71-001-IS Rev. 4.1
Copy of bank question.
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since the MSIV's are closed if there is no circ water flow.
C. Incorrect since there is not a limit for how far to reduce power as long as condenser
vacuum is being maintained.
D. Incorrect since there is no direction to isolate the Condensate System.
Thursday, November 21, 2UUL UI :36:3 -'iv
Final RO Test
52. 295003AK2.01 001
A small LOCA with a LOSS OF OFFSITE POWER occurred on Unit 2 at 0100 on
5/21/02. 600V Bus 2D is being powered from Diesel Generator 2C (Load Shed
equipment still de-enerclized) and HPCI is running to maintain reactor vessel water
level between -35 and +51.5 inches.
Which ONE of the following predicts how HPCI will respond over the next 3 hours with
no operator action?
A. HPCI will continue to operate automatically by maintaining reactor vessel level in a
band of -35 inches to +51.5 inches.
B. HPCI will continue to operate automatically by maintaining reactor vessel level
between +51.5 inches and the high level reset setpoint.
C. HPCI will operate until it reaches +51.5 inches and will not operate again until the
operator depresses the High Level Reset pushbutton.
D.' HPCI will continue to operate for approximately 2 hours by cycling between +51.5
inches and -35 inches and then it will fail to operate.
References: SI-LP-00501 Rev. 01 pg 14 - 16 of 46
FSAR Section 8.3.2.1.1,125/250 VDC Station Battery Power System
A. Incorrect since HPCI will not operate after approximately 2 hours.
B. Incorrect since HPCI will not cycle between 51.5 inches and the reset setpoint. It
requires manual action to start HPCI at the reset setpoint.
C. Incorrect since HPCI will automatically start again when level drops to -35".
D. Correct answer.
52
Thursday, November 21, UUL U1 :36:34 rqvi
Final RO Test
53. 295004AK3.03 001
Unit 2 is operating at 45% RTP when a loss of DC power causes the following:
Main Turbine trip
Reactor Scram and both Recirc pumps trip
125/250V BATTERY VOLTS LOW alarm
Which ONE of the following losses will most likely cause this transient?
A. 125 VDC Cabinet "2B", 2R25-S002.
B. 125 VDC Cabinet "2D", 2R25-S004.
Ct. 125/250 VDC Switchgear 2A, 2R22-S016.
D. 125/250 VDC Switchgear 2B, 2R22-S017.
References: LT-LP-02704 Rev. 03. pg 37 - 39 of 61
LT-LP-02704 Rev. 03. pg 50 - 55 of 61
EO 200.018.a.01
Changed initial conditions slightly and changed 2 distractors because it is likely that
everyone knows that 24/48 VDC systems are mainly for neutron monitoring systems.
A. Incorrect since this Cabinet is powered by Switchgear 2A and it doesn't cause all of
these things to happen.
B. Incorrect since this Cabinet affects DC control power and DG loads.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since this affects HPCI and Core Spray.
53
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:361:34 P'M
Final RO Test
54. 295005AA1.05 001
Unit 2 was operating at 100% RTP when the reactor scrammed due to a turbine trip
from high vibrations.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct turbine valve response?
A. Turbine Stop Valv Closed
Turbine Control Va Ilves Closed
Intercept Valves Closed
Intermediate Stop Valves - Open
Bypass Valves One or more may be open depending on throttle pressure
B. Turbine Stop ValvEes- Closed
Turbine Control Ve ilves - Open
Intercept Valves Closed
Intermediate Stop Valves - Closed
Bypass Valves All open initially; close to control Rx pressure.
C. Turbine Stop Valv es Closed
Turbine Control V*alves - Closed
Intercept Valves Open
Intermediate Stop Valves - Closed
Bypass Valves One or more may be open depending on throttle pressure
D'* Turbine Stop Valves Closed
Turbine Control Valves Closed
Intercept Valves - Closed
Intermediate Stop Valves - Closed
Bypass Valves - All open initially; close to control Rx pressure.
References: SI-LP-01901-00 Rev. 3 pg 44-46 of 79
SI-LP-01 701-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 17 of 36
EO 019.010.a.01
A. Incorrect since all valves close except bypass valves on a turbine trip from Hi vibes.
B. Incorrect since all valves close except bypass valves on a turbine trip from Hi vibes.
C. Incorrect since all valves close except bypass valves on a turbine trip from Hi vibes.
D. Correct answer.
54
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:34 PM
Final RO Test
55. 295006AK3.01 002
Unit 2 was operating at 100% RTP when a scram occurred from a spurious Group 1
isolation.
Which ONE of the following describes the expected initial Reactor Water Level
response and the reason for that response? (Assume no operator actions occur)
A'. Reactor water level will decrease due to collapsing of voids and then will increase
due to feedwater injection.
B. Reactor water level will increase due to feedwater injection still at 100% and then
will decrease due to level setpoint at scram setpoint.
C. Reactor water level will decrease due to feedwater level control at scram setpoint
and then increase due to Startup Level Control Valve (SULCV) leakby.
D. Reactor water level will decrease due to SRV's opening and then will increase due
to feedwater injection.
Reference: FSAR 15.2.3.6.2.1
A. Correct answer. Voids collapse due to initial pressure transient.
B. Incorrect since level initially decreases from collapsing of voids.
C. Incorrect since level is below the scram setpoint for feedwater from the initial void
collapse.
D. Incorrect since level initially increases from swell.
-. ~ nfl55 . . .. ,,.
Thursday, November z2, LUUL q'V
u i03:3o4
Final RO Test
56. 295007AA1.04 001
Unit I scrammed due to a Group 1 isolation from high main steam line flow. The
following conditions exist:
All rods inserted
Reactor Pressure 1090 psig
Reactor Water Level +54 inches
Drywell Pressure 1.5 psig
Torus Level 150 inches
The operator has opened SRV 1B21-FO13G to lower reactor pressure.
Which ONE of the following describes how reactor pressure will be controlled after the
operator closes SRV 1B21-F013G?
A. Reactor pressure will be automatically controlled by the EHC system using the
Turbine Bypass Valves.
B. Reactor pressure will be manually controlled by the operator using HPCI with a
suction from the condensate storage tank.
C'. Reactor pressure will be automatically controlled by the Low Low Set system
between 847 and 1033 psig.
D. Reactor pressure will be manually controlled using the Reactor Feed Pump
turbines.
References: 34AR-603-114-1S Rev. 6, Reactor High Pressure
RC RPV CONTROL (NON-ATWS) Rev. 7
SI-LP-01401 Rev. 00 Table 4
SI-LP-00501 Rev. 01 Table 6
A. Incorrect since the MSIV's are closed from a valid isolation signal and cannot be
reopened.
B. Incorrect since HPCI cannot be used due to high water level isolation signal.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the MSIV's are closed from a valid isolation signal and cannot be
reopened.
56
Thursday, November 21, 2UU2 U1:36:34 PM
Final RO Test
57. 295008AK3.01 001
Which ONE of the following is the reason that the Main Turbine receives a trip signal if
the RPV experiences a high water level condition?
At"Protects the turbine from damage due to water entering the turbine.
B. Protects the main steam piping from damage due to water hammer.
C. Initiates an anticipatory reactor scram due to the simultaneous trip of the reactor
feedwater pump.
D. Protects the turbine control and stop valves from damage due to water
impingement.
Reference: Tech Spec Bases B 3.3.2.2, Feedwater and Main Turbine High Water
Level Trip Instrumentation (Background).
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since the turbine trip may cause water hammer in piping due to stop valves
going closed.
C. Incorrect since the turbine trip does not perform an anticipatory scram function.
D. Incorrect since the valves closing may be subject to water hammer if the water level
continues to increase.
58. 295009AK1.05 002
Which ONE of the following is the main reason that RPV level is lowered during an
ATWS condition?
At Reduce reactor power by reducing the natural circulation driving head.
B. Reduce steam generation rate which reduces the moderator temperature.
C. Prevent thermal stratification which prevents localized power peaks.
D. Reduce reactor pressure which allows more injection from low pressure systems.
57
Thursday, November 21, 200u 1:3j*:34 P'
Final RO Test
Reference: LR-LP-20327 Rev. 10 Pg 42 of 53
Revised correct answer lAW lesson plan.
A. Correct answer.
B, C or D. Incorrect answer.
59. 295009G2.4.1 001
Unit 2 has scrammed with a failure of all the control rods to insert. The following plant
conditions exist:
Rx Power 8%
Rx Water Level -50"
Drywell Pressure 3.5 psig
Torus Pressure 3.0 psig
Torus Temperature 141OF
LLS is armed
ADS is Inhibited
Which ONE of the following is an acceptable order from the Shift Supervisor?
(Distribute copy of BIIT Curve Graph 5)
A. Maintain RWL between -60" and +50" using Condensate and Feedwater.
B. Terminate and prevent all injection except Boron, CRD and RCIC until RWL is
below -60".
C!' Terminate and prevent all injection except Boron, CRD and RCIC until RWL is
below -60" and Rx Power remains below 5% OR RWL is at -155" OR DW press is
<1.85 psig and SRV's remain closed and RWL is below -60".
D. Restore and maintain RWL between +3" and +50" using HPCI with a suction from
the Condensate Storage Tank.
58
Thursday, November 21, 2U00Z U01:b:36 PM
Final RO Test
Reference: CP-3 ATWS Level Control
RC RPV Control
LR-20328 Rev. 06 RPV Control ATWS (RCA)
A. Incorrect since the overide conditions above this step have been met which send
you to a terminate and prevent leg.
B. Incorrect since you meet all of the requirements for the overide to send you to
another terminate and prevent leg.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since these actions are in RC RPV Control and not in the CP-3 ATWS
Level Control procedure.
60. 295010AA2.02 001
Unit 1 has scrammed due to high Drywell pressure. Torus Spray is INOPERABLE and
Drywell Spray was initiated per the EOP's. The following conditions presently exist:
Reactor Water Level -135 inches and increasing
Torus level 136 inches and stable
Torus temperature 125 0 F and increasing
Torus pressure .5 psig and increasing
Drywell average temperature 145OF and increasing
Drywell pressure -.5 psig and increasing
Based on the above plant conditions, which ONE of the following describes Drywell
Spray operation?
A' SHOULD NOT be in operation because Drywell pressure is below 0 psig.
B. SHOULD be in operation until Torus pressure reaches 0 psig.
C. SHOULD NOT be.in operation because Drywell pressure is below the EOP entry
condition.
D. SHOULD be in operation because a PC-1 Primary Containment Control entry
condition still exists.
-, -k.~ .L.-f- fil O o =. D&"
n(I 59
I Thursday, N*UVemberI I4 UUC
4--IVI UI .OU1,Q
Final RO Test
References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since Drywell Sprays should be isolated before Drywell pressure reaches 0
psig.
C. Incorrect since Drywell Sprays are not governed by the EOP entry conditions but by
the Primary Containment Pressure leg of the EOP's.
D. Incorrect since Drywell Sprays should be isolated before Drywell pressure reaches 0
psig per the overide in EOP's.
61. 295012AA1.02 001
Unit 1 is operating at 50% RTP with all Drywell cooling units in AUTO. The following
conditions exist in the Drywell :
CRD cavity area temperature 155 0 F
Recirc pump motor area 135 0 F
Vessel upper head area 178 0 F
Drywell average air temperature 1490F
Which ONE of the following describes which Drywell cooling fans should receive an
auto start signal and which parameter provided that signal?
A. Fans B007A, B007B, B009A and B009B due to vessel upper head area high
temperature.
B. Fans B007A, B007B, B008A and B008B due to CRD cavity area high temperature.
C. Fans B007A, B007B, B008A and B008B due to vessel upper head area high
temperature.
D. Fans B008A, B008B, B009A and B009B due to Drywell average air high
temperature.
*.. A .4 , .,.f.
ORA 60
ITnursday, INovember* 4 I, 200L U I :.*JF~
Final RO Test
References: SI-LP-01304 Rev. 01, pg. 16 & 17 of 53
A. Incorrect since drywell cooling fans do not start on vessel upper head area high
temperature.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since drywell cooling fans do not start on vessel upper head area high
temperature.
D. Incorrect since drywell cooling fans do not start on Drywell high average air
temperature.
62. 295013AK1.03 001
Unit 1 is operating at 75% RTP with Safety Relief Valve (SRV) "G" leaking to the
Suppression Pool. All attempts to reseat the valve have failed. One RHR loop is
operating in the Suppression Pool Cooling mode with Suppression Pool temperature at
111 OF and increasing very slowly.
Which ONE of the following actions would the crew be expected to take?
A. Maximize torus cooling by placing the other RHR loop in operation and continue
operating.
B. Depressurize the RPV to less than 200 psig within 12 hours.
C. Reduce THERMAL POWER until all OPERABLE IRM channels < 25/40 divisions of
full scale on Range 7 within 12 hours.
D!t Place the reactor Mode Switch in the shutdown position immediately.
-. .e~orfaA61-- w. nA ano.4
I nursaay, November 1i, 2LU0 v :3U.OU rivi
Final RO Test
References: LR-LP-20201-13
Tech Spec Section 3.6.2.1 Suppression Pool Average Temperature
PC-1 Primary Containment Control
A. Incorrect since this action should have already been performed per PC-1 when
Torus temperature went above 100OF.
0
B. Incorrect since this is the Tech Spec action if Torus temperature is > 120 F.
C. Incorrect since this is the Tech Spec action ifTorus temperature cannot be restored
to < 100°F within 24 hours but it is no longer applicable since the Condition has been
exited when the temperature went >1 100 F.
D. Correct answer per Tech Spec 3.6.2.1 Condition D.
63. 295013AK3.01 001
Unit 2 is operating at 100% RTP. The quarterly HPCI Flow Rate Test was just
suspended with the following plant conditions:
Torus Cooling Both loops in operation
Torus Temperature 105OF and increasing
Torus Level 149" and decreasing
Which ONE of the following describes the reason for suspending adding heat to the
Suppression Pool per Tech Spec section 3.6.2.1?
A. Ensures primary containment design limits are not exceeded in the event of a
LOCA.
B. Preserves heat absorption capabilities of the suppression pool.
C. Ensure PCPL is not reached in the event of an emergency depressurization.
D. Ensure HCTL is not reached in the event of a LOCA.
S---....... 0 onnn4 Oa.o DOA 62
Thnursday, N*ovember* 2 I, 400 :U/
oJo:
Final RO Test
References: Tech Spec Bases 3.6.2.1
A. Incorrect since this is the reason for actions at 120 0 F.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since this is the basis for HCTL.
D. Incorrect since this is not a basis for suppression coolling action.
64. 295014AK2.03 001
Which ONE of the following describes the Abnormal Operating Occurances (Plant
Transients) which increase fuel temperature?
A" Recirc Flow Control Failure-Increasing Flow, Loss of Feedwater Heating,
Inadvertent start of HPCI.
B. Loss of Shutdown Cooling, Loss of Condenser Vacuum, Recirc Flow Control
Failure-Decreasing Flow.
C. Loss of Feedwater Heating, Trip of one Recirc Pump, Startup of idle Recirc Pump.
D. Recirc Flow Control Failure-Increasing Flow, Loss of Condenser Vacuum, Turbine
Trip with Bypass Valves available.
References: FSAR section 15.2
A. Correct answer - all occurances increase reactor power and fuel temperature.
B, C and D. Incorrect since at least one occurance decreases reactor power and fuel
temperature.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:35 PM 63
Final RO Test
65. 295015AA2.01 001
During an ATWS on Unit 2 the Operator performing RC-2 fails to close 2N21-F1 10,
SULCV Bypass. RPV pressure subsequently drops to 400 psig with all injection
systems still available.
Which ONE of the following describes the potential adverse consequences of this
condition?
A. Core Spray injection will occur diluting boron flow.
B. Level will decrease and the MSIV's may close causing a loss of the main condenser
and heat sink.
C. A significant power excursion could occur due to uncontrolled injection to the RPV.
D. Boron mixing will be prevented due to less flow in the downcomer.
References: LR-LP-20305 Rev. 04 pg 17 and 18 of 24
A. Incorrect since Core Spray will not dilute boron flow and Core Spray should not be
injecting at 400 psig.
B. Incorrect since level will increase with this valve open.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since leaving this valve unisolated will not prevent Boron mixing.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:35 PM 64
Final RO Test
66. 295016AK3.01 001
There is an electrical fire in the Control Room and black smoke has made the Control
Room inaccessable. If possible, prior to leaving the Control Room the Reactor
Operator inserts a manual Scram per 31RS-OPS-O01-IS, Shutdown from Outside
Control Room.
Which ONE of the following describes why the procedure also has steps to Scram the
reactor by de-energizing RPS or actuating the Scram Discharge Volume level
switches?
A. The Technical Specifications require that Reactor Scram capability from outside the
Control Room be maintained.
B.3The FSAR requires the ability for prompt hot shutdown of the reactor from locations
outside the Control Room.
C. The Technical Requirements Manual requires the capability to Scram the reactor
from outside the Control Room.
D. The capability for prompt hot shutdown of the reactor from outside the Control
Room is not required but is a safe operating practice.
References: HNP-2-FSAR-3 pg 3.1-16 and 17.
HNP-2-FSAR-7 pg 7.5-5 thru 7.5-10.
Procedure 31RS-OPS-001-IS Rev. 3
A. Incorrect since Technical Specifications do not describe how to shutdown the plant
from outside the control room.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since the Technical Requirements Manual does not describe how to
shutdown the plant from outside the control room.
D. Incorrect since it is a requirement to be able to perform a prompt hot shutdown from
outside the control room.
.~ *...to.'ni .on~ 0"A 65
ITnursday, N~oveme[[I ,4I 2vI, :ULUIO.Urv
Final RO Test
67. 295018AK2.02 001
Unit 1 is in the process of increasing to full load after a refueling outage when a
complete loss of stator cooling occurs. The following conditions existed just prior to the
loss of stator cooling:
Generator output 650 MWe
Stator current 17000 amps
Stator cooling disch press 90 psig
Stator cooling conductivity .5 micro mho
Which ONE of the following is the appropriate plant response?
A. The turbine will immediately trip causing a reactor scram.
B. The turbine will trip if it does not complete a runback to less then 24% load in two
minutes.
C* The turbine will trip if stator amps are not less than 4500 amps within 3.5 minutes.
D. The turbine will trip if stator amps are not less than 15,000 amps within two minutes
and less than 4500 amps within 3.5 minutes. (total time = 3.5 minutes)
References: SI-LP-02301 Rev. Sl-00, pg 13 of 21
EO 023.001.c.05
A. Incorrect since a complete loss of stator cooling does not cause an immediate
turbine trip.
B. Incorrect since the runback does not need to be complete until 3.5 minutes have
elapsed. Initial amps are less than 19080 so the 2 minute timer does not start.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since 2 minute timer is not in effect.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM 66
Final RO Test
68. 295020G2.1.20 001
Unit 2 is at 100% RTP with the I & C Technicians in the process of performing the
quarterly Main Steam Line Flow - High functional surveillance. The unit scrams due to
a Group 1 isolation.
Which ONE of the following actions are required to be performed to reset the
GROUP 1 signal?
A. Confirm all Group 1 valves are closed. Shift Supervisor determines that signal was
spurious since I & C Techs were performing a Group 1 surveillance and orders
CBO to reset the Group 1 signal.
B. Confirm all Group I valves are closed. CBO places all MSIV control switches to
'closed'. Shift Supervisor stops I & C surveillance and verifies Group 1 signal is
spurious by checking associated parameters and orders CBO to reset the Group I
signal.
C. Shift Supervisor stops I & C surveillance and ensures all equipment is back to
normal. Shift Supervisor verifies Group 1 signal is spurious by checking associated
parameters including radiation monitors and orders CBO to reset the Group 1
signal.
D. Confirm that the Group 1 isolation was valid. Do not reset the Group 1 isolation
until the plant enters Mode 4 where the instrumentation is not required to be
OPERABLE.
References: 34AR-603-208-2S Rev. 4.2
Tech Spec 3.3.6.1, Primary Containment Isolation Instrumentation
A. Incorrect since the MSIV's are required to have a closed signal applied with the
control switches prior to reseting the isolation signal.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since the Operators must verify isolation occurred properly and also give a
closed signal to the MSIV's prior to resetting isolation signal.
D. Incorrect since the cause of the Group 1 was spurious and you do not need to wait
for Mode 4 to reset the Group 1 since nothing is INOPERABLE.
,&, fl fl ORA
o,*oa 67
Thnursd]ay, N~ovember 2 1, 200 0uu
u: :~oo -
Final RO Test
69. 295021AK2.05 001
The following conditions exist on Unit 1:
Reactor is in Condition 5
"B" RHR Pump in Fuel Pool Cooling Assist
Reactor cavity is flooded
Fuel Pool gates are removed
Fuel shuffle has just been completed
The supply breaker to 1 B RHR Pump has tripped and cannot be reclosed. Fuel Pool
temperature starts to increase.
Which ONE of the following is the most appropriate action to lower Fuel Pool
temperature?
A. Place the "A" RHR Pump in Fuel Pool Cooling Assist.
B. Feed the Unit 1 Fuel Pool by opening 1G41-F041, Spent Fuel Pool Make-up from
CST.
Cý' Place the "D"RHR Pump in Fuel Pool Cooling Assist.
D. Remove the transfer canal gates and feed the Unit 2 Fuel Pool by opening
2G41-F054, Spent Fuel Pool Make-up from CST.
References: Procedure 34AB-G41-001-IS Rev. 2, Loss of Fuel Pool Cooling pg 2 & 3
of 12.
Procedure 34SO-EI1-010-2S Rev. 30.3, Residual Heat Removal System
pg 65 of 238.
Procedure 34AB-E1I-001-1S Rev. 3, Loss of Shutdown Cooling pg 4 of
19.
A. Incorrect since "A" RHR Pump cannot be used for Fuel Pool Cooling Assist.
B. Incorrect since feeding the Unit 1 Fuel Pool is allowed when there are no other
means of cooling available.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since feeding the Unit 2 Fuel Pool is allowed when feeding Unit 1 Fuel Pool
cannot be established.
-.,- - - - .....- - -n, t.oo,,oo.oof ITnursday, November 2 1, ,40u2 0 1:36=*i-i~
68
Final RO Test
70. 295022G2.1.30 001
Unit 2 CRD pump B has been started from the Remote Shutdown Panel. A System
Operator (SO) checking the status of the CRD pump reports the following:
CRD Pump B is running.
CRD Pump B suction valve is closed.
CRD Pump B discharge pressure is about 200 psig.
CRD Pump B suction pressure is downscale.
Which ONE of the following describes how the CRD pump should have responded?
AX SHOULD have started but auto tripped on low suction pressure.
B. SHOULD have started but auto tripped on low discharge pressure.
C. SHOULD NOT have auto tripped because the low suction pressure trip is presently
'bypassed.
D. SHOULD NOT have auto tripped because the low discharge pressure trip is
presently bypassed.
References: SI-LP-05201-00 Rev. 00 Table 8
SI-LP-00101-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 15-17 of 46
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since the CRD pump doesn't have a trip for low discharge pressure.
C. Incorrect since the CRD pump should have tripped on low suction pressure. The
LOCA pump trip is bypassed when taking the RSP switch to Emergency and not the
low suction pressure trip.
D. Incorrect since the CRD pump should have tripped on low suction pressure. The
CRD pump doesn't have a low discharge pressure trip.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM 69
Final RO Test
71. 295023AK1.03 001
The refueling )rocess (i.e. core offload/reload sequence, moving one component at a
time, SRO sup 'ervising all core alterations, etc.) is designed to prevent an inadvertent
criticality.
Which ONE of the following is used as a backup to the refueling process to prevent an
inadvertent criticality?
A. Secondary Containment is OPERABLE.
B. Standby Liquid Control is OPERABLE.
C. Refueling Interlocks.
0. Mode Switch locked in REFUEL.
References: LT-LP-04502 Rev. 03, pg. 9 of 57.
A. Incorrect since this does not prevent inadvertent criticality but protects site personnel
and public from exposure from an accident.
B. Incorrect since SBLC does not prevent inadvertent criticality but it can take care of it
once it happens.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the Mode Switch in this position will allow a control rod to be
withdrawn.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM 70
Final RO Test
72. 295024EA1.04 002
Unit 2 has experienced a LOCA with the following conditions present:
Reactor is Shutdown
Reactor water level -100"
Reactor pressure 550 psig
Drywell pressure 12 psig
Drywell temperature 265 0 F
Torus pressure 11.5 psig
The Shift Supervisor has ordered initiation of Drywell Sprays.
In accordance with 34S0-El1-010-2S, Residual Heat Removal System, which ONE of
the following is the MINIMUM drywell spray flow rate required to ensure an effective
drywell pressure reduction?
A. 700 gpm.
B.35000 gpm.
C. 7700 gpm.
D. 17000 gpm.
References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control
Procedure 34SO-ElI-010-2S Rev. 30.3 pg 71 and 72 of 238
A. Incorrect since this is the value for Torus spray flow.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since this is the flow rate to maintain < if using one pump for drywell spray.
D. Incorrect since this is the maximum flow rate for the loop.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM 71
Final RO Test
73. 295025EA1.07 001
Unit 2 is operating at 100% RTP. A turbine trip causes a reactor scram but not all of
the turbine Bypass valves open on rising pressure. RPV pressure increases to 1190
psig and reactor water level drops to -32" and is currently increasing.
Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the response of the
Alternate Rod Insertion (ARI) system?
A. ARI WILL automatically initiate due to Rx Low Water Level.
B. ARI WILL NOT automatically initiate until RPV water level decreases further.
C. ARI WILL automatically initiate due to high RPV pressure.
D. ARI WILL NOT automatically initiate until RPV pressure increases further.
References: SI-LP-00101 Rev. SI-00, pg 21 - 24 of 46.
EO 010.024.1.02
A. Incorrect since the low reactor water level setpoint of -35" has not been reached.
B. Incorrect since the high reactor pressure actuation setpoint has already been
reached (1170 psig).
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since ARI should have already initiated on high pressure (1170 psig).
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM
72
Final RO Test
74 295026EK2.04 001
Unit 1 is in Mode 1 with the quarterly HPCI Pump Operability Surveillance in progress.
The Suppression Pool average temperature is 102 0 F. The following signals are being
sent to SPDS:
Group I signals: 4 out of 5 are operable and reading 102 0 F.
Group 2 signals: 5 out of 5 are operable and reading 103 0 F.
Group 3 signals: 4 out of 5 are operable and reading 102 0 F.
Which ONE of the following conditions describes the SPDS indication?
A. Green box with the average temp indicated since average temp is <105OF.
B. Yellow box with the average temp indicated since all groups have a signal.
C. Yellow box with no temp indicated since all signals are not operable.
D'. Red box with the average temp indicated since average temp is >100OF.
Reference: LT-LP-05601 Rev. 03 Safety Parameter Display System
EO 056.002.c.03
A. Incorrect because the average temp must be <1OOOF to be green.
B. Incorrect because there are 2 or more imputs to each group and temp is > 100OF so
the box should be red.
C. Incorrect because there are 2 or more imputs to each group and temp is > 100OF so
the box should be red.
D. Correct answer since average temp > 100°F and there are 2 or more inputs to each
group.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:37 PM 73
Final RO Test
75. 295028EK1.02 001
Which ONE of the following is the basis for initiating drywell sprays before the bulk
drywell temperature reaches the drywell design temperature limit?
A. To prevent increased degredation of structural concrete and release of hydrogen to
the drywell.
B. To maintain the equipment qualification of the drywell valves above the 185'
elevation, capable of removing the full decay heat load following a LOCA.
C.'To ensure that equipment within the drywell will operate when required.
D. To ensure that the capacity of the suppression chamber - drywell vacuum breakers
is not exceeded.
Reference: LR-LP-20310-05, p. 59
99 exam question #15 (answers reordered)
A. Incorrect since elevated Drywell temperature has no effect release of Hydrogen to
the containment.
B. Incorrect since initiating drywell sprays has no effect on equipment qualification.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since drywell temperature does not affect the capacity of the suppression
chamber to drywell vacuum breakers.
.- - - -.....- - , %An.oo.o Fk A74
nno
ITursday, November LI, 2VUL U I:36:3, rlVl
Final RO Test
76. 295029EK1.01 001
In accordance with PC-1 PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL, drywell sprays cannot
be initiated unless torus level is below 215 inches.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason for this restriction?
A. The suppression pool-to-reactor building vacuum breaker connections are
submerged preventing their operation if needed.
Bt" The drywell-to-suppression pool vacuum breakers are submerged which may cause
the containment differential pressure capability to be exceeded.
C. The suppression pool-to-reactor building vacuum breaker connections are
submerged and containment integrity would be lost when they open.
D. The drywell-to-suppression pool vacuum breakers are submerged allowing
suppression pool water to be siphoned into the drywell.
References: LR-LP-2031 0 Rev. 05, pg. 31 of 96
EO 201.072.a.27, 201.073.a.06, 201.075.b.15, 201.076.a.14
A. Incorrect since 215" is concerned with covering the drywell-to-suppression pool
vacuum breakers.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since 215" is concerned with covering the drywell-to-suppression pool
vacuum breakers.
D. Incorrect since covering the vacuum breakers would not result in siphoning water to
the drywell.
S)n.q7 OKA
An~ AffOf4 75
Thnursday, NoLveberU;I I1, ,ZUUgI dofl
Final RO Test
77. 295030EK3.03 001
Per the EOP's HPCI is required to be tripped on lowering Torus level but RCIC is
allowed to continue to operate if necessary.
Which ONE of the following describes why RCIC operation with lowering Torus level is
acceptable?
A. The exhaust flow rate of RCIC is approximately equal to decay heat and a low
Torus level will cause RCIC to trip on low suction pressure.
B. Elevated Torus pressure will cause RCIC to trip much sooner than HPCI and
Emergency Depressurization is required before the exhaust line is uncovered.
C. Low Torus level will cause RCIC to trip on low suction pressure and Emergency
Depressurization is required before the exhaust line is uncovered.
D.' Elevated Torus pressure will cause RCIC to trip much sooner than HPCI and the
exhaust flow rate of RCIC is approximately equal to decay heat.
References: LR-LP-20310 Rev. 05, pg. 23 of 96
A. Incorrect since low torus level will not affect RCIC suction trip since it is set at 10" Hg
vacuum.
B. Incorrect since Emergency Depressurization is not required before RCIC exhaust
line is uncovered.
C. Incorrect since low torus level will not affect RCIC suction trip since it is set at 10" Hg
vacuum and Emergency Depressurization is not required before RCIC exhaust line is
uncovered.
0. Correct answer.
.O.A
LI..__
-O.., 07 76
ITnursday, N~ovemerlD* 2 I, 400L 0 :.. : lv
Final RO Test
78. 295032EK3.03 001
The SC-SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL EOP requires Emergency
Depressurization if 2 or more areas exceed the Maximum Safe Operating Temperature
and a primary system is discharging reactor coolant into secondary containment.
Which ONE of the following statements explain the reason for this action?
A. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate a wide-spread problem
which may pose an indirect but immediate threat to secondary containment integrity
or continued safe operation of the plant.
B. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate substantial degredation of
the primary system and may lead to fuel failure if the leaks are not isolated.
C'. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate a wide-spread problem
which may pose a direct and immediate threat to secondary containment integrity or
equipment located in secondary containment.
D. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate substantial degredation of
the primary system and emergency depressurization places the plant in the safest
condition as quickly as possible.
References: LR-LP-20325 Rev. 05, pg 19 and 20 of 40
EO 201.077.a.14, 201.078.a.15, 201.079.a.19
A. Incorrect since condition pose a DIRECT threat to containment, not an INDIRECT
threat.
B. Incorrect since this condition does not indicate substantial primary system
degredation.
C. Correct answer.
D. rincorrcct cinco this conditin d i-,lnaicate subsdIIL.i;
u l
primary ayatzi /*
degfedatien. zeoers4Y
.... a , ....oo.o, ..nA
. ... 77
I hursday, November 21, LUU2 0i :36:t rv'i
Final RO Test
79. 295036EA1.02 001
The following conditions exist on Unit 2:
-Sump alarms in the Control Room indicate a leak in the Southwest Diagonal Area
of the Reactor Building.
-The plant operator reports water level is 15" above 87' elevation and increasing.
-The source of the leak has been identified as a fire protection pipe in the room.
-No increase in area temperature or radiation has been noted.
-No other emergency condition exists at this time.
In accordance with SC-SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL EOP, which ONE of
the following actions is appropriate?
(Provide copy of SC-SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL EOP)
A. Shutdown the reactor per the Fast Shutdown procedure.
B. Install a submersible pump to lower level; do not isolate the fire system.
C. Declare the affected systems INOPERABLE and enter appropriate Tech Spec.
Dt. Isolate the fire system header discharging into the area.
References: SC - Secondary Containment Control
A. Incorrect since the reactor isn't required to be shutdown until area water level in
more than one area is above max safe.
B. Incorrect since the system discharging into the affected area must be isolated with
some exceptions. These exceptions are not met.
C. Incorrect since the systems are not required to be declared INOPERABLE just
because the area water level is above max normal.
D. Correct answer since level cannot be restored to normal with the leak in progress.
-. ot.r1 .f~tA78 . . - - ,.,aaaA
Thursday, November 2L, /uuL u0 :36:3 riVi
Final RO Test
80. 295037EK2.05 001
Unit 2 has scrammed due to low reactor water level. Multiple control rods did not insert
and the ATWS procedure is being directed by the Shift Supervisor. The Shift
Supervisor has ordered the RO to insert control rods by increasing CRD cooling water
differential pressure (dp).
Which ONE of the following describes how this action causes control rods to insert?
A* Increased cooling water dp puts additional pressure on the underside of the CRDM
drive pistons.
B. Increased cooling water dp puts additional pressure on the top of the CRDM drive
pistons.
C. Increased cooling water dp causes driving flow to increase.
D. Increased cooling water dp causes driving flow to decrease.
Reference: LR-LP-20314 Rev. 03 pg 13
EO 001.034.a.01
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect. Additional pressure is placed on the underside of the drive piston.
C. Incorrect answer. Increasing cooling water Dp has no effect on drive flow.
D. Incorrect answer. Increasing cooling water Dp has no effect on drive flow.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:37 PM 79
Final RO Test
81. 295037EK3.02 001
An ATWS has occurred on Unit 2 and RCIC is being used to inject boron. The RCIC
Minimum Flow Valve F019, has been closed and system flow has been verified to be
greater than 122.5 gpm. The Minimum Flow Valve's breaker was then opened to
prevent operation of the valve.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason that the Minimum Flow Valve was
disabled?
A. Ensure that the RCIC pump does not go to run out if the Minimum Flow Valve stuck
in the open position.
B." Ensure that all boron flow is to the Vessel and not to the Suppression Pool.
C. Ensure that all boron flow is to the Vessel an not to the CST.
D. Ensure that the RCIC pump has the proper amount of cooling flow.
References: LR-LP-20320 Rev. 05, pg. 22 of 28.
SI-LP-03901 Rev. 00, Figure 1
EO 039.019.a.11, 039.020.a.07
Changed answer D to relate to pump minimum flow requirements.
A. Incorrect since RCIC minimum flow valve would still operate at the appropriate
setpoints.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since the minimum flow valve goes back to the Torus.
D. Incorrect since the amount of flow is what protects the pump from overheating and
not whether the minimum flow valve is deactivated.
-,1 04 OflO n
A4 ~ORDA 80
I nursday, INovebIIueI 2 I, cUWc U I .QU.
Final RO Test
82. 295038EA2.03 002
Which ONE of the following describes the basis for an offsite radioactivity release rate
of 0.57 mr/hr as an entry condition to Radioactive Release Control (RR)?
A. Represents an immediate threat to the continued health and safety of the public.
B. Corresponds to an entry into a Site Area Emergency in the Emergency Plan.
C. Indicates a primary system break which cannot be isolated.
D. Represents a release rate that is higher than expected during normal plant
operations but does not pose an immediate threat to the public.
Reference: LR-LP-20325 Rev. 05, pg 26,29
EO 201.082.a.09
A. Incorrect answer. This is a bases for the 1000 mr/hr entry to RCA.
B. Incorrect since .57 corresponds to an alert action level.
C. Incorrect answer. This is a bases for the 1000 mr/hr entry to RCA.
D. Correct answer.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:38 PM 81
Final RO Test
83. 295038EK2.03 001
As a result of maintenance the control room ventilation system is aligned to the
Isolation Mode. A subsequent off-site release resulted in the initiation of a Main
Control Room air intake high radiation signal.
Which ONE of the following describes the impact the high radiation signal has on the
continued operation of the Control Room HVAC System?
A. Since the control room ventilation system is not in the Normal Mode then the
Control Room Operator must manually initiate the Pressurization Mode per
34S0-Z4 1-001-1S, ControlRoom Ventilation System.
B. The Control Room Ventilation System will remain in the Isolation Mode until the
high radiation signal clears. Then the Control Room Operator must realign the
system to the Normal Mode.
C. 1Z41-F016, Outside Air Intake Damper will automatically open along with the filter
inlet valves. This will place the Control Room Ventilation System in the
Pressurization Mode to protect the Control Room personnel.
D. The Control Room Ventilation System will automatically shift to the Purge Mode.
The Control Room Operator must start the exhaust fan and ensure 1Z41-F018A(B),
Suction Damper is open.
References: INPO exam bank (Fermi)
34SO-Z41-001-1S Rev. 17 pg 8 - 12 of 33
A. Incorrect since the Control Room HVAC System will automatically shift to the
Pressurization Mode upon high inlet radiation levels.
B. Incorrect since the Control Room HVAC System will automatically shift to the
Pressurization Mode upon high inlet radiation levels.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the Control Room HVAC System will automatically shift to the
Pressurization Mode upon high inlet radiation levels.
-.-- .oo'~onA82 --- ,-~eann
Thursday, November z2, 2002 u i o IoVov
Final RO Test
84. 300000K6.12 001
Unit 1 is in cold shutdown with repairs being performed on the 1 B Recirc Pump seals.
The inboard MSIV's are being stroked for surveillance purposes to determine closing
times. A LOSP has occurred and the supply breakers have tripped on undervoltage for
the Station Service Air Compressors (SSAC's).
Which ONE of the following describes how this will affect the ability to stroke the
inboard MSIV's on Unit 1?
A." They have failed closed due to the loss of motive force as the Station Service Air
Receivers bleed down.
B. They may still be operated normally since the Backup Nitrogen Supply valve
automatically opens at 90# pressure to supply the motive force.
C. They may each be operated once after the Emergency Nitrogen Supply bottles are
valved in manually.
D. They may still be operated normally since the normal nitrogen makeup is supplying
the motive force to operate the valves.
References: LT-LP-03501-03 Rev. 03 pg 49 of 97
LT 03501 Fig. 03
EO 200.025.a.01
A. Correct answer since the Drywell is de-inerted for ongoing work and nitrogen is not
available to operate the valves.
B. Incorrect since this supply is isolated when the drywell is de-inerted.
C. Incorrect since this supply is isolated when the drywell is de-inerted.
D. Incorrect since these bottles cannot be lined up to supply the MSIV's.
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:38 PM 83
Final RO Test
85. 400000A4.01 001
Unit 1 is operating at 100% RTP with the following lineup for RBCCW pumps:
"A" RBCCW Pump Running
"B" RBCCW Pump Running
"C" RBCCW Pump Auto not running
Which ONE of the following is the expected plant response from a trip of 4160V Bus
1 G assuming no operator action is taken?
A. No change is plant status as the "C" RBCCW pump has lost power but was not
running.
B. "A" RBCCW pump trips; "C" RBCCW pump cannot start due to a loss of power;
Recirc pump, RWCU NRHX outlet, and CRD pump temperatures increase; Recirc
pumps trip due to Recirc M-G set high oil temperatures.
C. "B" RBCCW pump trips; "C" RBCCW pump auto starts at 90 psig system pressure;
Recirc pump, RWCU NRHX outlet, CRD pump and Recirc M-G set oil temperatures
do not measurably change.
D. "A" AND "B" RBCCW pumps trip; "C" RBCCW pump auto starts at 90 psig; Recirc
pump, Recirc M-G set, RWCU NRHX outlet and the running CRD pump
temperatures increase; Recirc M-G set and CRD pumps eventually trip on high
temperatures.
References: LT-LP-02703-03 Rev. 03 pg 48-49 of 63.
SI-LP-00901-00 Rev SI-00 pg 13 of 25
EO 200.014.a.05
A. Incorrect since the "C" RBCCW pump auto starts to maintain RBCCW system
pressure.
B. Incorrect since the "B" RBCCW pump is the one that trips.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the loss of the 2G Bus does not affect the "A" RBCCW pump.
S oooo,,84
.. . . . . o^..,
Thursday, November 21, 20UU U01:36:38 riVI
Final RO Test
86. 500000EA1.01 001
After a scram on Unit 2, Reactor Water Level decreases to 0" before being restored to
the normal band. When a high Drywell temperature is observed the Shift Supervisor
enters the Primary Containment flowcharts. The Shift Supervisor directs H20 2
Analyzers to be placed in service.
Which ONE of the following is required to start the H20 2 Analyzers?
A. No action is required since the H2 0 2 Analyzers should be running due to an
automatic start signal.
B. Depress the H2 0 2 analyzer reset pushbuttons on the 2H1-1-P700 panel.
C. Place the 2P33-S16/$17 LOCA OVERRIDE switches in Bypass on the 2H11-P700
panel.
D. Place the 2P33-S25(B)A mode switches in ANALYZE on the 2P33-P601 B(A)
panels.
References: 34SO-P33-001
A. Incorrect since the analyzers do not have an auto start signal.
B. Incorrect since the isolation signal is present and it must be bypassed, action would
otherwise be correct.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since the isolation signal is present ain it must be bypassed, otherwise the
action would be correct.
85
Thursday, November 21, ZUU0 U2
0*6:8 I'VI
Final RO Test
87. 600000AA2.06 001
A fire has been reported outside the Turbine Building which is producing large amounts
of smoke. The Fire Brigade has been dispatched and the Brigade Leader reports back
that the fire is under control. He also expresses a concern that the Control Room may
get smoke drawn into the ventilation.
Per 34AB-X43-O01-2S, Fire Procedure,which ONE of the following describes the
action the Control Board Operator (CBO) should take?
A. Place the control room ventilation system in the Purge mode.
B. Maintain the control room ventilation in the normal lineup until the fire is out.
C' Place the control room ventilation system in the isolation mode.
D. Secure control room ventilation until the fire is out and the smoke clears.
References: 34AB-X43-001-2S, Fire Procedure Rev. 10 ED 6, pg 2 of 77.
A. Incorrect since the purge mode will draw in more outside air.
B. Incorrect since this lineup still draws in outside air.
C. Correct answer per step 4.6.
D. Incorrect since the control room ventilation system should not be secured under
these circumstances.
88. G2.1.10 001
Which ONE of the following is the maximum power level authorized for Unit 2 operation
in accordance with Tech Specs?
A. 897 MWe
B. 943 MWe
C. 2763 MWt
D. 2816 MWt
tLA86
Lr....~..-0.4 l~fO 0 .oaoo
Thursday, N~ovember;* 41I, 4.00U 0 :
:.UO l
Final RO Test
References: Tech Specs Section 1.1 pg 1.1-4.
99 Hatch exam question #9
A. Incorrect since MWe is not discussed in the license.
B. Incorrect since MWe is not discussed in the license.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since wrong number.
89. G2.1.2 001
Unit I has just declared a General Emergency due to offsite radioactivity release rates
reaching 10OOmR/hr.
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate duties that would be performed
by the Control Room Reactor Operator?
AX Perform offsite dose assessment calculations as appropriate.
B. Activate the Emergency Response Teams and establish communications with the
NRC.
C. Complete the Emergency Page Announcement Guide as appropriate and initiate
site evacuation per the Emergency Plan.
D. Assist the Emergency Director with protective action recommendations and take
actions to mitigate the consequences of the event.
References: 73EP-EIP-005-0 Rev. 6 pg 3-7 of 8.
A. Incorrect since the Control Room Operator doesn't activate the Emergency
Response Teams.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since the Control Room Operator doesn't initiate site evacuation.
D. Incorrect since the Control Room Operator doesn't perform protective action
recommendations.
_ .. -L-.-.fl *nf, Ci4, O RR 87
,
I nursday, INovember
U I, 2uu0 U .OU.4 r-V:
Final RO Test
90. G2.1.29 001
During a valve lineup, an operator needs to check a valve in the throttled position. It is
noted that the valve has a locking device installed.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions the operator should perform?
A. Leave the locking device installed and perform a locking device operability check
only.
B. Leave the locking device installed, verify mark on stem matches the appropriate
position established when the valve was initially positioned.
C. Unlock the valve, turn the handwheel in the closed direction for 1 full turn to verify
the valve is throttled, reopen the valve 1 full turn and install the locking device.
D. Unlock the valve, turn the handwheel in the closed direction and count the number
of turns until it is seated, reopen the valve to the appropriate position and install the
locking device.
References: LT-LP-30004 Rev. 04 pg 36 of 64
EO 300.022.a.06
Modified the question from a locked open valve to a throttled valve.
Question #85 on 1995 SRO exam.
A. Correct answer.
B. Incorrect since there is not a mark on the stem when the valve is initially positioned.
C. Incorrect since the valve should not be operated to verify position.
D. Incorrect since the valve should not be operated to verify position.
-, *~..L.ý
- , n~ O
on4. A
R.f 88
Thnursday, N~overmber 2 I, 400 0UU
U: I:OJO*
Final RO Test
91. G2.1.32 001
You have just been notified by the SOS that solvent based painting is scheduled to be
performed in the Reactor Building which covers an area of the floor approximately 200
ft2 . The SBGT system takes a suction from this area when the system is in operation.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect of running the SBGT System under
these conditions and the actions that should be taken prior to commencing painting?
A. The paint fumes increase the load on the SBGT fan. The CBO for each Unit should
log that SBGT cannot be started for 4 hours after painting is complete.
B. The paint fumes will contaminate the SBGT Charcoal filters if the system is started
while painting is in progress. Both SBGT switches should be placed in OFF until
painting is complete.
C0. The paint fumes will contaminate the SBGT Charcoal filters if the system is started
within 4 hours of completing the painting. Tags should be hung on the SBGT Fan
control switches stating "SOLVENT BASED PAINTING IN PROGRESS".
D. The paint fumes could start a fire in the SBGT Train due to the heater being on
when the system initiates. Both SBGT switches should be placed in OFF until
painting is complete.
Reference: 34SO-T46-001-2S Rev. 14 Pg 3
A. Incorrect since the paint fumes do not increase the load on the SBGT system. The
fumes affect the operation of the charcoal filters.
is
B. Incorrect since you do not place the SBGT control switches in OFF when painting
in progress.
C. Correct answer per 34SO-T46-001-2S Precaution 5.1.4.
D. Incorrect since the paint fumes could not start a fire in the SBGT train and you do
not place the SBGT control switches in OFF when painting is in progress.
89
Thursday, November 21, 2002 U1:36N:39 PM
Final RO Test
92. G2.2.1 001
Unit 2 is in a startup and is currently at approximately 20% RTP. A heat balance has
been performed and indicates that Core Thermal Power is 23% RTP. The APRM
readings should be adjusted such that
A. each APRM is reading between -2% to +2% of the heat balance value.
B* each APRM is reading between 0% to +2% of the heat balance value.
C. each APRM is reading between -2% to 0% of the heat balance value.
D. each APRM is reading between -1% and +1% of the heat balance value.
References: 34GO-OPS-001-2S Rev. 35.1 pg 33 of 61.
Unit 2 Tech Specs Section 3.3.1.1 (SR 3.3.1.1.2)
A.l Incorrect since the value must be between 0 and 2%.
B. Correct answer.
C. Incorrect since the value must be between 0 and 2%.
D. Incorrect since the value must be between 0 and 2%.
93. G2.2.13 001
The
During an outage on Unit 1, the 1A Core Spray pump motor has been replaced.
maintenance department has asked to momentarily start the pump to check for proper
rotation.
Which ONE of the following should the SS/TDO perform in order to support this?
A. Release the applicable subclearance that applies to the MWO being worked.
B. Release all subclearances that require the 1A Core Spray pump to be tagged.
C'. Issue a temporary release after verifying all subclearance holders concur.
D. Ensure that the maintenance department is using personalized danger tags.
90
Thursday, November 21, 2UUZ U0:36:39 PM
Final RO Test
References: 30AC-OPS-001-OS Rev. 23 pg 62-65 of 94.
Previous exam 95-SRO-01 test question #89.
changed Shift Supervisor to SS/TDO and resequenced answers.
A. Incorrect since can't release subclearances until all work is done.
B. Incorrect since can't release subclearances until all work is done.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since still need temporary release from other holders.
94. G2.2.3 001
The "B" CRD pump can be operated from the Remote Shutdown Panel AND the
Control Room with the Emergency Transfer Switch (ETS) in a certain position.
Which ONE of the following describes the position of the Remote Shutdown Panel ETS
and the Unit that is affected which will allow this to occur?
A' ETS in NORM on Unit 1.
B. ETS in NORM on Unit 2.
C. ETS in EMERG on Unit 1.
D. ETS in EMERG on Unit 2.
References: SI-LP-05201 Rev. 00 pg 8 of 56.
A. Correct answer.
to
B,C and D. Incorrect since Unit 1 has a switch configuration which allows equipment
in
be operated from the control room or the RSDP with the Emergency Transfer Switch
the NORM position. If it is the EMERG position then the equipment can only be
operated from the RSDP.
.. . .. .
........... n 91
Thursday, November 21, ZUU2 Ul :36:39
*rnw
Final RO Test
References: LT-LP-30008-02 Rev.2 pg 7 and 8 of 28
SRO exam 95-01 test question #92.
Modified the question from LDE limit to SDE limit and changed
appropriate answer.
A. Incorrect since this is the annual admin limit for TEDE.
B. Incorrect since this is the annual LDE limit.
C. Incorrect since this is the 10 CFR annual LDE limit.
D. Correct answer.
96. 02.3.2 001
and
Health Physics technicians have surveyed the main steam chase during an outage
obtained the following results:
Area Dose Rates one foot from the source: 75 mR/hr
Airborne Concentration: .23 DAC
Smear Results: 650 dpm/100cm2
be
Bases on these results which ONE of the following states how the area should
posted?
A. Contaminated Area.
B. Airborne Radioactivity Area.
C. Radiation Area.
D. High Radiation Area.
92
Thursday, November 21,2002 01:36:39 PM
Final RO Test
References: LT-LP-30008 Rev. 2 pg 13-17 of 28
SRO exam 95-01 question #93.
Changed numbers in stem but with same results and reordered answers.
A. Incorrect since < 1OOOdpm/100cm2.
B. Incorrect since < .3 DAC.
C. Correct answer.
D. Incorrect since < 100 mR/hr.
97. G2.4.12 001
I Unit 1 was operating at 50% RTP when a steam leak in the Drywell caused a Reactor
Scram on High Drywell Pressure. The Shift Supervisor entered all appropriate EOP's
for this condition and ordered Torus Sprays to be initiated per PC/P leg. Subsequently,
0
Drywell Temperature increased to 160 F.
in this
Which ONE of the following states the appropriate action for the crew to take
situation?
PC-1 Primary
A. The Control Board Operator announces the new Entry Condition for
Containment Control. The Shift Supervisor circles this entry condition and
current
continues on in the PC-1 Primary Containment Control flow chart at the
steps.
PC-1 Primary
B. The Control Board Operator announces the new Entry Condition for
orders
Containment Control. The Shift Supervisor circles the entry condition and
actions for Drywell Temperature leg only.
and
C. The Control Board Operator continues to place Torus Sprays in service
>1500F.
updates the crew at the next Brief that Drywell Temperature has increased
D.'The Control Board Operator announces the new Entry Condition for PC-1 Primary
and re-enters
Containment Control. The Shift Supervisor circles the entry condition
all legs of PC-1 Primary Containment Control.
93
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:39 PM
Final RO Test
References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control Rev. 4
30AC-OPS-01 3-OS Rev. 9.1 pg 5 of 10.
A. Incorrect since Shift Supervisor must re-enter all legs of the flow chart.
B. Incorrect since Shift Supervisor must re-enter all legs of the flow chart.
C. Incorrect since Control Board Operator should immediately announce an entry
condition into the EOP's.
D. Correct answer.
98. G2.4.16 001
Unit I is operating at 100% RTP. Drywell temperature has been increasing steadily
normal
and is currently at 275 0 F and increasing. All other parameters are within their
operating band.
of events to
Which ONE of the following describes the proper directions and sequence
the point of placing the Mode Switch in Shutdown?
(Provide RO copy of RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) and PC-1 PRIMARY
CONTAINMENT CONTROL)
High
A. Enter RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) at Point A due to Drywell
to
Temperature. Place the Mode Switch in Shutdown per RC-1 then enter PC-1
control Drywell temperature.
0 RPV CONTROL
B. Enter PC-1 when Drywell Temperature exceeds 150 F. Enter RC
0 manually
at point A before Drywell Temperature reaches 340 F. Perform RC-1 to
scram the reactor and place the Mode Switch in Shutdown.
a reactor
C. Enter RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) due to a condition which requires
the
scram and reactor power is above 5%. Perform RC-1 to manually scram
reactor and place the Mode Switch in Shutdown.
0 CONTROL
Dt. Enter PC-1 when Drywell Temperature exceeds 150 F. Enter RC RPV
manually
at point A before Drywell Temperature reaches 2800F. Perform RC-1 to
scram the reactor and place the Mode Switch in Shutdown.
94
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36U:4U PM
Final RO Test
References: RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) Rev. 6
PC-1 PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL Rev. 4
A. Incorrect since this is improper sequence for getting to the point of placing the Mode
Switch in Shutdown.
reaches
B. Incorrect since you enter RC RPV CONTROL "before" drywell temperature
2800 F. 340OF is associated with Unit 2.
C. Incorrect since RC RPV CONTROL is entered from PC-1 PRIMARY
CONTAINMENT CONTROL.
D. Correct answer.
G2.4.43 001
"ýýi.e has been reported by the Unit 1 EHC skid and the Fire Brigade
has been
dispa tc* ..
Which ONE of the wing describes how the Shift Supervisor maintains constant
communications with the d from the Main Control Room?
A. A hand held radio dedicated to U annel 2.
tto eiated to VHF Channel 2.*-. 44dý &*
BýVFbs
1. *12.11Z
C. UHF base station dedicated to VHF_Channel
D. A hand held radio dedicated to VHF Channel 2.
References: LT-LP-10004 Rev. 03 pg 15 of 19.
LO LT-10004.008
Room.
A. Incorrect since hand held radios are not used in the Control
B. Correct answer.
2.
C. Incorrect answer since the base channel is VHF and uses Channel
D. Incorrect since hand held radios are not used in the Control Room.
95
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:40 PM
Final RO Test
100. G2.4.47 001
The following conditions exist for Unit 2 at the indicated times:
0200 0300 0400
Reactor Power 100% 85% 60%
Reactor Water Level +37" +37" +35"
Drywell Pressure 1.3 psig 1.5 psig 1.7 psig
Torus Pressure .9 psig 1.1 psig 1.2 psig
Torus Level 150" 137" 123"
Torus Temperature 850F 850F 86 0 F
the operator turns
Which ONE of the following indicates the status of the plant when
over to the next shift at 0700 if current trends continue as they are?
A. Reactor in Mode 3 with Drywell Sprays in progress.
B. Reactor in Mode 3 with a cooldown in progress at <lOOOF/hr.
has been initiated.
Cf HPCI operation is prevented and Emergency Depressurization
and sprays are
D. Recirc pumps and drywell cooling fans are tripped. Torus cooling
initiated.
References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control Rev. 4 Att. 1
stay below 11 psig
A. Incorrect since drywell sprays are not initiated until you cannot
not come close to
torus pressure or 340°F Drywell temperature. Current trends do
these limits.
prior to 0700 due to torus
B. Incorrect since an Emergency Depressurization is required
level <98 inches. This will exceed 100OF cooldown rate.
HPCI is prevented
C. Correct answer due to lowering torus level. At 110 inches then
from operation and at 98 inches the reactor is depressurized.
to be tripped
D. Incorrect since drywell coolers and recirc pumps are not directed
unless conditions noted in A above are met.
You have completed the test!
96
Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:40 PM
NRC EXAM 2002 PLANT HATCH WRITTEN EXAM
REFERENCE
BOOK
MASTER
RO
RO References - NRC Exam 2002
1. Unit 2 CRD Simplified Diagram 2. Unit 1 Tech Spec Section 3.5.1 3. Unit 1 EOP Graph 9 (CS VORTEX) 4. Unit 1 EOP Graph llA (CS NPSH) 5. Unit I EOP Graph 11B(CS NPSH). 6. Unit I Tech Specs Section 3.7.4 7. Unit 2 EOP Graph 5 (BIIT)
8. Unit 2 Secondary Containment Control (SCC) EOP Flowchart 9. Unit 1 RC RPV Control (Non-ATWS) EOP Flowchart 10. Unit 1 Primary Containment Control (PC-i) EOP Flowchart
r' c ' , * . .. . .. . ... .-. t...
. .. ....* ' -* .- . . ..
ECCS - Operating
3.5.1
3.5 EMERGENCY CORE COOLING SYSTEMS (ECCS) AND REACTOR CORE ISOLATION
COOLING (RCIC) SYSTEM
3.5.1 ECCS - Operating LCO 3.5.1 Each ECCS injection/spray subsystem and the Automatic
Depressurization System (ADS> function of six of seven safety/relief I
valves shall be OPERABLE.
APPLICABILITY: MODE 1,
MODES 2 and 3, except high pressure coolant injection (HPCI) and ADS
valves are not required to be OPERABLE with reactor steam
dome pressure:s 150 psig.
A tIflNSO
M t'ý I , I. ------
CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME
I.
A. One low pressure ECCS A.1 Restore low pressure 7 days
injection/spray subsystem ECCS injection/spray
inoperable. subsystem to
OPERABLE status.
t I
B. Required Action and B.1 Be in MODE 3. 12 hours
associated Completion
Time of Condition A not AND
met. 36 hours
B.2 Be in MODE 4.
I t
C. HPCI System inoperable. C.1 Verify by administrative 1 hour
means RCIC System is
OPERABLE.
AND
C.2 Restore HPCI System 14 days
to OPERABLE status.
(continued)
3.5-1 Amendment No. 204
HATCH UNIT 1
. .. *, ,crrq.tI 1ywr.u q9.I.r?¶'7.'.'r - 1
ECCS - Operating
3.5.1
ACTIONS (continued)
CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME
D. HPCI System inoperable. D.1 Restore HPCI System 72 hours
to OPERABLE status.
AND
OR
One low pressure ECCS
injection/spray subsystem D.2 Restore low pressure 72 hours
is inoperable. ECCS injection/spray
subsystem to
OPERABLE status.
E. Two or more ADS valves E.1 Be in MODE 3. 12 hours
inoperable.
AND
OR
E.2 Reduce reactor steam 36 hours I
Required Action and dome pressure to
associated Completion < 150 psig.
Time of Condition C or D
not met.
F. Two or more low pressure F.1 Enter LCO 3.0.3. Immediately
ECCS injection/spray
subsystems inoperable.
OR
HPCI System and two or
more ADS valves
inoperable.
3.5-2 Amendment No. 204
HATCH UNIT 1
ECCS - Operating
3.5.1
SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS
SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY
SR 3.5.1.1 Verify, for each ECCS injection/spray subsystem, 31 days
. To
the piping is filled with water from the pump.
discharge valve to the injection valve.
SR 3.5.1.2 -- --------------- --------- NOTE---- -.......-------------
Low pressure coolant injection (LPCI) subsystems
may be considered OPERABLE during alignment
and operation for decay heat removal with reactor
steam dome pressure less than the Residual Heat
Removal (RHR) low pressure permissive pressure
in MODE 3, if capable of being manually realigned
and not otherwise inoperable. .
Verify each ECCS injection/spray subsystem 31 days
manual, power operated, and automatic valve in
the flow path, that is not locked, sealed, or
otherwise secured in position, is in the correct
position.
SR 3.5.1.3 Verify ADS air supply header pressure is 31 days
> 90 psig..
SR 3.5.1.4 Verify the RHR System cross tie valve is closed 31 days
and power is removed from the valve operator.
SR 3.5.1.5 (Not used.)
SR 3.5.1.6 --.....-------------.--- NOTE - ........-------------
Only required to be performed prior to entering
MODE 2 from MODE 3 or 41 when in MODE 4
> 48 hours.
-- -- ---------------------
---------------------------
Verify each recirculation pump discharge valve 31 days
cycles through one complete cycle of full travel or
is de-energized in the closed position.
(continued)
c yr '
£
3.5-3 Amendment No. 211
HATCH UNIT 1
ECCS - Operating
3.5.1
SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS (continued)
SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY
SR 3.5.1.7 Verify the following ECCS pumps develop the In accordance with
specified flow rate against a system head . the Inservice
corresponding to the specified reactor pressure. Testing Program
SYSTEM HEAD
CORRESPONDING
NO. OF TO A REACTOR
SYSTEM FLOW RATE PUMPS PRESSURE OF
CS a 4250 gpm 1 a 113 psig
LPCI >17,000 gpm 2 a 20 psig
SR 3.5.1.8 - --.------.
--------- ---- NOTE- -..................-
Not required to be performed until 12 hours after
reactor steam pressure and flow are adequate to
perform the test.
.........-------------------------....----------------
Verify, with reactor pressure < 1058 psig and 92 days
? 920 psig, the HPCI pump can develop a flow
rate a 4250 gpm against a system head
corresponding to reactor pressure.
SR 3.5.1.9 .
- .--------------------- NOTE- -...................----
Not required to be performed until 12 hours after
reactor steam pressure and flow are adequate to
perform the test.
------------...- =-------...-.--..--------...------------- -
Verify, with reactor pressure < 165 psig, the HPCI 24 months
pump can develop a flow rate > 4250 gpm against
a system head corresponding to reactor system
pressure.
SR 3.5.1.10 --------.- .----- ----.-----N O T E -.. .. .--. -..- -..-- - - -... ....
Vessel injection/spray may be excluded.
---------- - -------------- ----
- --------
Verify each ECCS injection/spray subsystem 24 months
actuates on an actual or simulated automatic
initiation signal.
S
tcomn[lUeU)
3.5-4 Amendment No.-232
HATCH UNIT 1
ECCS - Operating
3.5.1
SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS (continued)
SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY
SR 3.5.1.11 ---------------------------- NOTE --.........---------------
Valve actuation may be excluded.
--- ---------------------- --------
Verify the ADS actuates on an actual or simulated 24 months
automatic initiation signal.
SR 3.5.1.12 Verify each ADS valve relief mode actuator 24 months I
strokes when manually actuated.
3.5-5 Amendment No. 232
HATCH UNIT 1
UNIT 1
GRAPH 9
CORE SPRAY VORTEX LIMIT
73 -. I r r I I 7
T11
68
S SAFE __ __
63
= = -
58
C,)
0 53
7 7,
dO / /
0 3000 4000 5000
0 1000 20 00
CORE SPRAY FLOW (gpm)
NOTE: Ma- -7 e SPDS Emergency Displays in place of this Graph.
)
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MCREC System
3.7.4
3.7 PLANT SYSTEMS
3.7.4 Main Control Room Environmental Control (MCREC) System
LCO 3.7.4 Two MCREC subsystems shall be OPERABLE.
------------------............ ............------- NOTE -----------------------------------------
---...
The main control room boundary may be opened intermittently under administrative control.
APPLICABILITY: MODES 1, 2, and 3,
During movement of irradiated fuel assemblies in the secondary
containment,
During CORE ALTERATIONS,
During operations with a potential for draining the reactor vessel
(OPDRVs).
AflTIf'NI*
CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME
A. One MCREC subsystem A.1 Restore MCREC 7 days
inoperable, subsystem to
OPERABLE status.
B. Two MCREC subsystems B.1 Restore control room 24 hours
inoperable due to boundary to
inoperable control room OPERABLE status.
boundary in MODE 1,2,
or 3.
C. Required Action and C.1 Be in MODE 3. 12 hours
associated Completion
Time of Condition A or B AND
not met in MODE 1, 2, or 3.
C.2 Be in MODE 4. 36 hour(s
(continued)
HATCH UNIT 1 3.7-8 Amendment No.-225
MCREC System
3.7.4
CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME
D. Required Action and -----------------.NOTE-- -----
associated Completion Time LCO 3.0.3 is not applicable.
of Condition A not met --------....---- ................--
-- ----
during movement of
irradiated fuel assemblies in D.1 Place OPERABLE Immediately
the secondary containment, MCREC subsystem in
during CORE pressurization mode.
ALTERATIONS, or during
OPDRVs. OR
D.2.1 Suspend movement of Immediately
irradiated fuel
assemblies in the
secondary containment.
AND
D.2.2 Suspend CORE Immediately
ALTERATIONS.
AND
D.2.3 Initiate action to Immediately
suspend OPDRVs.
E. Two MCREC subsystems E.1 Enter LCO 3.0.3. Immediately
inoperable in MODE 1, 2,
or 3 for reasons other than
Condition B.
(continued)
HATCH UNIT 1 3.7-9 Amendment No. 225
MCREC System
3.7.4
ACTIONS (continued)
CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME
F. Two MCREC subsystems ----------------- NOTE ------------------
inoperable during LCO 3.0.3 is not applicable.
movement of irradiated fuel ------------ ............-----------------
assemblies in the
secondary containment, F.1 Suspend movement of Immediately
during CORE irradiated fuel
ALTERATIONS, or during assemblies in the
OPDRVs. secondary containment.
AND
F.2 Suspend CORE Immediately
ALTERATIONS.
AND
F.3 Initiate action to Immediately
suspend OPDRVs. C
SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS
SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY
SR 3.7.4.1 Operate each MCREC subsystem > 15 minutes. 31 days
SR 3.7.4.2 Perform required MCREC filter testing in In accordance with
accordance with the Ventilation Filter Testing the VFTP
Program (VFTP).
SR 3.7.4.3 Verify each MCREC subsystem actuates on an 24 months
actual or simulated initiation signal.
(continued)
3.7-10 Amendment No.,232
HATCH UNIT 1
7 77
MCREC System
3.7.4
SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS (continued)
SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY
SR 3.7.4.4 Verify each MCREC subsystem can maintain a 24 months on a
positive pressure of 2 0.1 inches water gauge STAGGERED
relative to the turbine building during the TEST BASIS
pressurization mode of operation at a subsystem
flow rate of S 2750 cfm and an outside air flow rate
s 400 cfm.
3.7-11 Amendment No. 232
HATCH UNIT 1
GRAPH 5 UNIT 2
BORON INJECTION INITIATION TEMPERATURE
*" 160- -"" " "/ / .
0
/ "*:"
150 NUNSAFE
140/
06
120- S ..
S 110 ': " "
100
S.A 1(IAf?* 1 1 16 18 20
REACTOR POWER (%)
NOTE: May use SPDS Emergency Displays in place of this Graph.
1 2 3 4 1 5 1 x ,2 7 8 9 10 11
PLANTEEI ATCH.
SC - SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL 00
XFJ.DV iV ArSCONf
N CoNloe
C 311E0-EOP-14-2S [ REV.0 1 ATTACHMENT I
A Amloaebte.t oriaelerial temer~atureabove>ý
Ale
Table 4 Maximum NormalOpaeuraroTemperatureJ Tgrabl
reaor
d ai
t
aninm NoraOpatgWleLvl (ToeAr0 Maximum
orHVA MnoranOpomling
C extraus RpodoronLane)
onna
ra*dmeflato ve
Ditroeatklareoo
0 in,
,raatoaho,
bof waer
e 8WROG EPG/SAG REV. I
A
T
4.
r"
SPRIMARYCONTAINMONTFLOODING
[OIS OR HASSEEN RE.UIRED IHEU cr.er the Severe AcdentoorCdeinesm
aejrttheOPoard
I My Unit I or Unit2 secondar coetainnent' m confrm
KVACexhaust radiation level exceeds tre I o Unit land Unit 2 Reactor Buiding
isolaston eporpnt(Table14) I HVACisoatIon
0 Unit I and UtIh 2 Refuel Floor
HVAC notatioen
0 Unit I and Unit 2 BST iglateion
I per 34AR-T22-0O3-2s
If Refuel FIlor NYAC isolates TI reslad Retaol Floor HVACper
Ift 34SO-T41ý006-2S
A Un.1I or Unit2 se.ndry orsttalnmert
rdiaston cormeswiItO does NOT extstow
I If necesnad defeat high dIveeli preasure
RWL Ifolaslia int.erlcks
B
"I er 31 EO-EOP-I00-2S
SReaclor Building 811.
HAVAC lates
andum
t
resin React1*RBualing HVACper
34SO-T41005-2S
X Unit 1 or Unit2 reaorduty co.lait.erat I If ,ecensat detour high drynelt preasurt
redWaon cromditeodoes NOTemist I owRL ootatlonroterlocha
I par S100OEOp-10'-2S
PERFORM CONCURRENTLY
SCIL SIC'
WAIT UNTtL
C In atfectnd areas.
ONEof ha foll i OTtit
WAIT UNTIL
La se nodarycontarnmenl radiation
condition does NOT exist
il ,r -:
C
THENoperlatIe fao
o Retool Floor HVAC
pea N4SO-T411006-25
O Reactor Suildbg HVAC
par 3450-T4I-*002-S 0~ole
At~ **lt bearMi leemow Mevimu lOegateALL ystm cdischaorgltn iIo aron
O Ay floor drain stutp waleer ana EXCEPTsystems teaqoirhdto:
Normalo Operaing Watertenet bTlere 5)Lee
Leel
shot doln macnorcote cod~ing
MNarea wale, o asstreaeduqtiate
WAIT UNTIL o
o suppresstrel
are amnbient or dilferenlial torsarittare IE Opeatecatabte
ONE at the followng turnspspumps
CANNOTbe to~hrgaestor
restor
admInto~ n mwaler rnetalEXEwbel Maxiems
SianualeMsrinm o ma*n*in pmrno i lealnent
Nor OporseingWalter Loane(Tab 5): sntat ity
Maximum NormlOeaig. eprtr
O Miy floor drainsuunpw~ralbertoa
PERFORM CONCURRENTLY
THENisolateALLsytems dlacarobahglregwaer
Intostrep or uram EXCEPTSyorens
IsaolaeALL uomems discharging [Io arema WAIT UNTIL
EXCEPT syslerm remainedto:
"O assreadnq*nle cola cooling
O sltut down reactor
D "O suppress cre
o nilaiait
wnnryconlalnmant
PnlegRFy
pr Irnegidty
is discharnn~iogecor coomant
(Tabl 7) WAIT"UNTIL,1300le 7
D
e34
we1 Beitone
I , PERFORM CONCUIRRENTLY F PERPORM CONCURRENTLY
WAIT UNTiL. T ' BEFORE
WAIT UNTIL
JANYM urArailoatonermaca
awn water level MaximumSae,Oeaing RadertlonLevel
WAIT UNTIL in above (Table0)
is discargin re~uactrcoran
hintoaorudar cortxaineal Marnimax,Sate OperalineWaler Level
(reaw.) in 1110w than oneurea
(Table?) PERFORMCONCURRENTLY
(TableS)
RC(A)polnIA
in mOore
tht at are
BEFORE Shot dawn reactor per 34E0-OPS-013-25
BEF ORE or 24G0-OPS-a14-25 WAIT UNTIL
ANYmareai etmb fmienlordiaanlitampeela MANY aea waler leve eact
mache MaimuamSated. .perti. Maorm~unSfie OperasnoWallerLevel aremardiatonsaver
ANY ubleS )
E Temperlarar (Tahta4)p
PERFORMCONCURRENTLY PERFORMCONCURRENTLY
MdaximumSara OperatrrguRadationLevel
E
RC(A) pointA RC(AO motA
WAIT UNTIL WAIT UNTIL CEMERGENCYDEPRESSIS REQUIIRED
area embleml or drmereI~rtrapeoro waleWoe
Iradrea
Mxmeiaboplnfxve iaLe
MnoinmtmSale Opertin TeAmpertur axmuSafeOeaigW atrLee
to marIbaamnonarea IrmIenetbnnonerearea
(Table5))
(Table4)
RR -RADIOACTIVITY RELEASE CONTROL
(EMERGENCY DEPRESSIS REQUIRED (EMERGENCY DEPRESSIS REGQUIRED
C* 0sileradldachrb
above s re6l
r
y raeea
ra,5
e rate
IF "WHILE PERFORMINGTHE FOLLOWING
F
JEPRIMARYCONTAINMENTFLOODING 1IM exit the EOPs and entertite
IS OR HAS BEEN REQUIRED I SevraeAtddent Guldel.r.s
it
WMILEPERFORMI4G THE FOL LLWINIG
iE Tubte Bunildig HVACIs shutdown MEN restarl Turl* Bulldog HVACas
reutlred per 3450U41-001-25
Isolale ALL ptmatrynyslema drscharging
J
ableTbe6SECONDARY
6 OPERATING CONTAINMENT
RADIATION LEVELS reactor t1o nrea oultsde pmrenry
"oolant
end necondaty contalnments (Table?7)
Mx Norad Maor"ato ma!noregr.i
EXCEPT systems outy inms(Ro7
required 00:
HVACEXHAUSTRADIATION ANNUNCIATORS Speritg Cra o as uar adequat coreaCooida
on 2HII-PRO Value Wse O shuoodowireacoor
fl SECONDARY CONTAINMENT
Table 4 OPERATINGTEMPERATURES
to NormaMax nate Radiatiorn NA
omaintaln prmarycotannent
G
AMBIENT TEMP (2821B-15127S) Ciet Deamni
on 2H11-P614, 2G31-R604 yalta Valu REACTO* Arilt DIN1G pRXI
WAIT UNTIL
150, FtPVATION AREA**RWCU - RBEBLDGPOT CONTAMAREA RAOIATION 9.5 SA
12D1 -5<09AGO) primty Wtlein Table?
I A ptIrp room (SoUth) (2G31-N 1A
2 0 pump room(Norh)(2G31.N16B) 1
150 215
21 Table 5 SECONOARYCONTAIN1MIENT
OPERATINGWATiERUIEVELS REFUELINGRa MR ratoicedargigre~cader cooan
3 Hx Room (2031-NO16)C)
4 HXRoom (2G31-NO1D)1
~Max cm udx*ft - REFUEUNG FLOORVMN"TEXHAUSTRAIATION
(2011-K6011 A-fl)
16.0 NPA comoeadrnentsWn
AREA WATERILEVELMANUNCIATORS Opereerperen,
5Pharse Sops TI, Room(2G31-N_0ISE)__ s -50215 on 2Hl1-POi Va*." Value -REFUELINGFLOORVENTEXHAUSTRADIATION 0.9 WA
A~100PtWATIONAREAZitWCU (2011.K634 A.D BEFORE
6 RWCU Valve NeSt (2G31.NO16F) 150 215 SOUTISWESTDIAGONAl ABEA 20 in. - REFUELINGFLOOR VENTEXHAUSTRADIATION 0.7 WA
above (2011H.K6)A-D) oEfRol . ctollaseP
NORTH4EASOTDAGONALAREA 1 RB S.W DIAGONALFLOOR WRNSUMP LEVEL High 87' .1, Ora rate macares
7 RR4JCSA(2E11-NIOOA) HIGH (657-033)(2T45IN007)
_19 190
2 CRO S-W DIAG INSTR SUMP LVL High
AREA RADIATION MONITORS operaCg a
H o IS
EIGH-HIGH-HIGH(6574032) (2T45-N005) High on 21Hl4-P600, 2D21-POOO Vitle0
"*
RHIC0S (2E1-NO*B)
Rump Room (2641-N024 107.
190
245
High
EMEGECYDERES SR EURE HI
I Refoor (2021.,01A00 10adydownren
10 EmerAor Cr (2E4-P-NO3OA) 107. 245 above 2 D1rW"sev"upn(2021KeOIEI
RCI
11 E.a,Ma Cir (2E41-NOtO8) l67.5 245
3 RB S.E DIAGONALFLOOR DRN SUMP
HIGH-HIGH (657-024) (2`45-4OO)
High
High 3
4
5
SpentFeil Pool & New FUel00oraga(2021-tIM)
Reastora lessatpn ReW *00,a RO2l-KOIIKl
ReaCtorVemat Refusing Floor (2D21-K611L)
n
SO
10
1000
0 1
12 Pump Room (251-NOII) 107.5 10 4 RHR.CS S-E DIAG INSTR SUMP LVL High
13 EnterArea CIr(2E51-N023A) 1075 310 HIGH-HIGH-HIGH(657-103) (2T4S-N003B) High El flAT1N AROFA
253, iFOATI
14 EmeAer aroDir 2ES1.N0238) 07.0 310 High
6 CR0Irairaea (2021K01T) O 100
90fl*' ARPA(WEET1
DpFANTO
15 Went Watl (2E51-N025A) 107.6 212.5
10 NothweasuWall (2E51.NO25B) 1. 2
NDRTHWIFRTD)IAGONAL AOFA 22 In,
abov*e
K601 SO01000 Table 7 PRIMARYSYSTEMS
17 Normneas Wall (20E51-N025C) 7 22E 5 RCIC NWDIAG INSR SUMPLVL HIgh
10 SoutheastWall 2E1N25D7.5 ft Spent htelpool pitaageavay 12D21.0 000p P 50,01m dklnurgkng Into area Is dermaedl
soartm
212. HIGH-HIGH-HIGH(057-014) (2145-004) High REACTOR COOLANTteak from:
hMAtH *T*AM LINETUNNELAREA O RB 1E*nvepppwngfloor(2D21-K601R) 50 1000
10R 85eriarl paneal e.e (201n-K01S) so 10 o CRD 0"CDC
19 2B21-114 14 in. 1n RB 185 RWCUtunel panel (4,21-K601U) 150 ItW
NORTHEAST DIAGiONAC ARE A O Core Spery o Reactor aam*peng
HP(i PIpFPFNF TRATIONROOM High 1marELEVAT0ON AREAtNORTN1 O Freedwler o RWCU
above
6 RHR-CS N-E DrAG INSTR SUMPLVL High atxatm O HIM O RHR
116
I 2E4V1NO46AB 17.0 2E4.246
212.0 2 RB 1W8area N-E (2021.K6OC) GO
HIGH-NIGH-HIGH(657,016) (2T45-N003A) O Mantleniurn o SBLC
J
DIFF TEMP (2821 B-2)
I's r
Operan
a Safe
g zn
*Opeau
High
14 In.
-3R8. Wr.a mN-W O2D21
15W ELEVATION
04 RB l* max, S-E (2021-KntB)
-K10)
AREA 150 5OT+/-
0 1000 O MaIn slteam drains
Afystem ecomnsidreda 'pima. oysoemW if owerangreactor
J
Ed 100r pes..r reduce Mhehenkrate tram the unialed system.
Would
on2Hll-P614, 2031 -R 08 L VFl.
F 7 HPCI COMPT INSLR SUMP LEVEL
High
High
above 15 Dnomepumpand egugean
12D21-KnlL)
unlomra area 158'
0 1(0)
150. P1
FVATIDONARFA rRWCIUI HIGH-HIGH (657,066) (2T4S-N001)
SA pump room (2G31-1N22A=123A)
2 B pump room (2G31-N022B1N023B)
67
67
SO
Ill.L
ISp
301 ELEVATION
area (2D21M-t,0eF)
AREA WNORTI-;oEST) Table 14 SECONDARYCONTAINMENTWtVAC
"EMHUST RADIATION ISOLATION SETPOINTS
3 Ho Room (2G31-NO22Ct1N023C) 50 100
07 90 High above HVAC EXHAUST RADIATION ANNUNCIATORS lsotooor
4 Ho Room (2G31-N022D0N)23D) 07 99 8 TORUS N-EAREA INSTR SUMP LVL 87'er. 130 ELEVATION AREAO(NORTH EAST) wna
High on 1(2)HIIP601
5 Phase SapT1,Rooem-2G3I.N,022Er1402E). 07 HIGH-HIGH-HIGH(657.013) (2T45-NOO2A) 17 RB 130'N-EewumgaoeinaD(2021-K6IG)
High 1
ALEOFFVATIONARE6EIrRCU 09 -UNTI RXBLOGPOTCONTAMsAREA lb
6 RWCU Valve Neas(2G31-NO22F1*023F) 13' ELEVATIONAR*$ASOUTH SP) (1D11.-KO0A-D)
67 High
9 TORUS S-E AREA INSTR SUMP ELVL 10 Soutt CR0 HCU )021-01001N) O0 1000g
NORTHEAST DIAGONALAP High -UNIT 1REFUELING FLOORVENTEXHAUST 18
HIGH-HIGH-HIGH(6674031) (2CT45-N002di) High W30ELEVATION AREAfSOUTHAFEST) (IDII-K611A-D)
7 IS4IVCSA (2o1410N29AdNO0A) 40 74
19 RBI 1W O-WwYdarlng area (I2O-K01I) tOOD
3QOUTHEASTDAGONAL AREA
- UNIT2 RXBLDGPOT CONTA, MAREA 9.5
8 RHRICS B (2E11-N029B/N030S) High NORTOVNEST DIAOONALAREA (2D011-K6g0-l)
40 74 10 TORUS N-WAREAINSTR SUMP LVL High SORCIC N-Wdlgonr(01-<0
.ormo I0 1000
TOBt I ROMU ARmo HIGH-HIG1I-HIGH(657-049) (2T45-N002C)
K 13 2E51-NO4206r27A
14 2E51N02NSCW027B
IS 2E51-N026CDN027C
42
42 95ý
gB
High SOUTSIWOSTDIAGONALAREA
21 CR0 pump S-W diagonal (20=I-t<0WI) ,1001
- UNIT2 REFUELING FLOORVENT EXHAUST
(2D11"K611A.D)
K
42 NORTHEASTOIAGONALAREA -UNIT2REFUELING FLOORVENT WEXHAUST
42 9e 11 TORUS S-WAREAINSTR SUMP LVL High So
HIGH-HIGH-HIGH(657.067) (2T45-N0020) (2O11-1<34A-D)
_MIN RTEAMI NE TUNNEl AREA High 22 CS& RHER .diagonrl (2021-K05Iy)
.50 High
17 2B2.O1WA$N016B SOUHEAT IAGIALAREA 1end -UNIT2REFUELING FLOORVENTEXHAUST 5.7
70 (2D11.K635A.D)
2M CS& RHRlSESdiagnool(2D2i-KOOIY) 100
1I 21 3 4 5 6 1 7 8 1 9I 10 11
:1 _- - m 0 C) co >
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NRC EXAM 2002 PLANT HATCH WRITTEN EXAM
REFERENCE
BOOK
MASTER
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