ML023290003

October 2002 Exam 50-321/2002-301 Final RO Writtem Exam with Answers & References

ML023290003
Person / Time
Site:	Hatch   (DPR-057, NPF-005)
Issue date:	01/09/2003
From:	Ernstes M Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch
To:	Sumner H Southern Nuclear Operating Co
References
50-321/02-301, 50-366/02-301 50-321/02-301, 50-366/02-301
Download: ML023290003 (118)

See also: IR 05000321/2002301

Text

{{#Wiki_filter:Final Submittal E. I. HATCH NUCLEAR PLANT EXAM 2002-301 50-321 & 50-366 OCTOBER 16 - 18, 21 - 25, & OCTOBER 30, 2002, Reactor Operator Written Examination

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Name: Final RO Test Form: 0 Version: 0 1. 201001G2.1.28 001 Unit 2 is operating at 80% power. "2A" CRD Pump is in service. The operators observe the following indications: Charging water pressure: Low Cooling water flow: Low Drive water flow: Low Cooling water dP: Low Drive water dP: Low CRD Mechanism temperatures: Rising Recirc Pump seal temperatures: Rising Which ONE of the following CRD component problems has caused these abnormal conditions? (Reference included) A. The flow control valve has failed closed. B. The drive water pressure control valve has closed. C. The cooling water control valve has failed closed. D. The drive water filter is plugged. This test question was on the last exam. Re-ordered answers. Provide a copy of Fig. 12 to SI-LP-00101 Rev. 00. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM

Final RO Test 2. 201001 K2.02 001 Unit I is operating at 100% RTP. Which ONE of the following represents the expected response of the Scram Pilot Solenoid Valves and the Backup Valves due to a loss of RPS "A"? A. One backup scram valve energizes and half of the scram pilot solenoid valves de-energize. B. One backup scram valve energizes and all scram pilot solenoid valves de-energize. C. Both backup scram valves energize and all scram pilot solenoid valves de-energized. Dt Both backup scram valves remain de-energized and half of the scram pilot solenoid valves de-energize. References: SI-LP-01001 Rev. SI-01 pg 6 & 7 of 68 EO 010.002.a.01, 200.102.a.01 A. Incorrect since a loss of RPS does not cause a backup scram valve to energize. B. Incorrect since a loss of RPS does not cause a backup scram valve to energize and it does cause a loss of power to half of the scram pilot solenoid valves. C. Incorrect since a loss of RPS A causes half of the scram pilot solenoid valves to de-energize. D. Correct answer. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM 2

Final RO Test 3. 201002A3.03 001 Per 34GO-OPS-O01-2S, Plant Startup, which ONE of the following statements describes how a Rod Drift Alarm test is performed? A. Turn the Rod Drift Test Switch to test. Verify the ROD DRIFT annunciator alarms. Reset the drift alarm with the test switch. B. While moving a Group I control rod, turn the Rod Select Power Switch to off. Verify the ROD DRIFT annunciator alarms. Turn the Rod Select Power Switch to on and reset the drift alarm with the Test Switch. C* Select a Group 1 control rod and take the Rod Movement Control Switch to out-notch. During rod travel, place the Rod Drift Alarm Test Switch to test. Verify the ROD DRIFT annunciator alarms. Reset the drift alarm with the Test Switch. D. Turn the Rod Movement Control Switch to out-notch. When the settle bus light de-energizes turn the Rod Drift Test Switch to test. Verify the ROD DRIFT annunciator alarms. Reset the drift alarm with the Test Switch. References: SI-LP-05401 Rev. SI-00, pg. 8 of 26. EO 001.010.a.12 A. Incorrect since the Rod Drift alarm will not actuate due to all control rods still at an even position. B. Incorrect since turning the Rod Select Power to off will deselect any control rod and this does not guarantee that a Rod Drift alarm will occur. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the procedure does not require the operator to wait until the settle light goes out. 3 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM

Final RO Test 4. 202001A1.07 001 Which ONE of the following occurs when Recirculation Pump speed is increased? A. There is a temporary increase in core void content which causes a decrease in moderator density with a resultant decrease in neutron moderation. The steam generation rate decreases which causes a positive reactivity effect. B.' There is a temporary decrease in core void content which causes an increase in moderator density with a resultant increase in neutron moderation. The steam generation rate increases which causes a negative reactivity effect. C. There is a temporary decrease in core void content which causes an increase in moderator density with a resultant increase in neutron moderation. The steam generation rate decreases which causes a positive reactivity effect. D. There is a temporary increase in core void content which causes a decrease in moderator density with a resultant decrease in neutron moderation. The steam generation rate increases which causes a negative reactivity effect. References: SI-LP-00401-01 Rev. SI-01 Pg 9 of 62 FSAR Section 7.7.2, Recirculation Flow Control System A. Incorrect since increasing recirc pump speed will decrease core void content. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since increasing Recirc Pump speed causes the steam generation rate to increase which adds negative reactivity. D. Incorrect since increasing recirc pump speed will decrease core void content. 4 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 P'M

Final RO Test 5. 202002K3.05 001 Unit 2 is at 100% RTP with the following conditions: Both Reactor Recirc Pumps are in Master-Manual Control A fuse for the power supply to the Master Controller fails The Master Controller de-energizes Which ONE of the following describes the Reactor Recirculation System response? A. Speed will remain constant because both scoop tubes lock up. B.* BOTH Recirc Pumps will decrease speed to approximately 44% speed. C. Both Recirc Pumps will decrease to approximately 22% speed. D. The controller will lock in its previous signal and maintain pump speed constant. References: SI-LP-00401-01 Rev. SI-01 pg 42 of 62. On test SR 95-01 question 4 Updated correct answer per lesson plan. Resequenced answers. A. Incorrect since the speed control signal was not lost. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect because of clamped lower limit is 45% speed on the master controller. D. Incorrect since this happens on a loss of signal from controller (not power loss). 5 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM

Final RO Test 6. 203000A1.01 001 During an ATWS on Unit 2, the Shift Supervisor directs injection to be terminated except for Boron, CRD and RCIC. He then directs Emergency Depressurization of the RPV because reactor water level CANNOT be maintained above -185 inches. Which ONE of the following describes when the Shift Supervisor should recommence injection? Aý When reactor pressure is less than MARPVFP using RHR or Condensate pumps. B. As soon as RPV pressure decreases to within the shutoff head of the RHR and Core Spray pumps. C. When reactor pressure is less than MARPVFP using both Core Spray and RHR pumps. D. As soon as RPV pressure decreases to within the shutoff head of the RHR and Condensate pumps. References: LR-LP-20327 Rev. 07, pg 30 - 35 of 53 CP-3 ATWS LEVEL CONTROL EO 201.091.a.15 A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since all injection is prevented except Boron, CRD and RCIC until MARPVFP is reached and Table 13 systems are available. C. Incorrect since Core Spray is not a Table 13 system. D. Incorrect since all injection is prevented except Boron, CRD and RCIC until MARPVFP is reached and Table 13 systems are available. 6 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:26 PM

Final RO Test 7. 204000K5.04 001 Unit 1 is operating at full power when RBCCW flow to the RWCU system is lost. Which ONE of the following is the expected plant response of the RWCU system to this event? A. The system will not isolate; the Holding pumps will start. B" The system will isolate; the Holding pumps will start. C. The system will not isolate; the Holding pumps will trip. D. The system will isolate; the Holding pumps will trip. References: INPO Bank for Fitzpatrick 1 SI-LP-00301-00 Rev. SI-00 pg. 17-20 of 34 EO 003.002.a.10 A. Incorrect since the system will isolate on High NRHX Outlet Temp of 140 F. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since the system will isolate on High NRHX Outlet Temp of 140 F. D. Incorrect since the hold pumps will start on system low flow when the RWCU system isolates. 7 Thursday, November 21, 20UZ U0:1:z3 6 ivM

Final RO Test 8. 205000K3.04 001 Unit 2 has entered Mode 4 by placing the "B" Loop of RHR in Shutdown Cooling. The following conditions currently exist: Reactor Water Level +35 inches (indicated) Reactor Coolant Temp 1850F and decreasing SDC flow 8000 gpm The Control Board Operator is directed to adjust the SDC Flow to lower the cooldown rate. The SDC flow rate is found to be 7000 gpm. Which ONE of the following describes what Recire Loop Temperature would do under these conditions? A. DECREASE due to greater ambient losses. B. INCREASE due to lower flow through the loop. C!* DECREASE due to inadequate circulation through the core. D. INCREASE due to an increase of forced circulation through the core. References: INPO bank for Fitzpatrick 1 SI-LP-00701-00 Rev. SI-00 pg. 10 of 48 EO 007.007.a.02, 007.024.b.02 A. Incorrect since ambient losses should decrease. B. Incorrect since pumping cooler water since natural circulation has been lost. C. Correct answer since RWL is too low for natural circulation and the recirc loop is pumping cooler water. D. Incorrect since natural circulation has been lost. 8 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM

Final RO Test 9. 206000A2.16 001 Unit 2 has just scrammed due to High Drywell pressure. The Control Board Operator has verified that all low pressure ECCS systems are operating and that the Diesel Generators are running unloaded. HPCI and RCIC are still in the standby condition. The following conditions exist on Unit 2: Reactor Pressure 980 psig Reactor Water Level -25" increasing Drywell Pressure 3.5 psig increasing Drywell Temperature 215OF increasing Which ONE of the following is the appropriate operator action(s) to take with regards to the HPCI system? A. Leave HPCI in standby since water level is increasing. B. Place the HPCI Aux Oil Pump in PULL-TO-LOCK per 34S0-E41-001-2S, High Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System. Declare HPCI INOPERABLE and enter Tech Spec LCO. C!' Perform a manual startup of HPCI using the HPCI Manual S/U for Vessel Injection Placard per 34SO-E41-OO1-2SHigh Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System. Notify Shift Supervisor when HPCI is injecting. D. Verify that HPCI is in a standby lineup since it wasn't required to start. References: 34SO-E41-001-2S, High Pressure Coolant Injection (HPCI) System, Rev. 21.2 pg 15,26 and 58 of 63. A. Incorrect since HPCI should have started when Drywell Pressure exceeded 1.85 psig. B. Incorrect due to actions are required to be taken manually if an automatic action doesn't occur. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since HPCI should have started when Drywell Pressure exceeded 1.85 psig. 9 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM

Final RO Test 10. 206000K6.08 001 Unit 2 has just experienced a transient with the following conditions present: Reactor water level -45" increasing Reactor pressure 123 psig Drywell pressure 18 psig HPCI turbine exhaust diaphragm pressure 8 psig Which ONE of the following indicates the proper HPCI lineup for the present conditions including the cause? A*. F002 closed F003 closed F001 open HPCI isolated on reactor low pressure with initiation signal still present. B. F001 closed F002 closed F003 open HPCI isolated on reactor low pressure with initiation signal still present. C. F002 open F003 open Turbine Stop Valve open HPCI should be injecting at full flow due to high drywell pressure. D. F002 closed F001 open F006 closed HPCI isolated on high turbine exhaust pressure with initiation signal still present. References: SI-LP-00501 Rev 01 pg 30 - 33 of 46 A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since F001 should be open from initiation signal and F003 should be closed due to auto isolation signal. C. Incorrect since HPCI should not be injecting due to auto isolation signal from low reactor pressure. D. Incorrect since HPCI should not have isolated on high exhaust pressure (setpoint is 10 psig). .10 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM

Final RO Test 11. 209001G2.4.31 001 References: 34AR-601-108-2S Rev. I A. Incorrect since the pump is required for Adequate Core Cooling and trip when the alarm initially came in. B. Incorrect since the pump is required for Adequate Core Cooling and trip when the alarm initially came in. the pump didn't the pump didn't C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the load should be reduced on the pump as soon as possible. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM 11 Unit I is in Mode 4 with work going on that has the potential to drain the reactor vessel. "A" Core Spray and "A" RHR Loop are in a standby lineup ("B" Core Spray and "B" RHR Loop are out-of-service) when reactor vessel level starts decreasing rapidly. "A" and "C" RHR pumps fail to start but "A" Core Spray is injecting at full flow to maintain level above TAF when the following alarm actuates: "CS PUMP A OVLD/LOCKOUT RELAY TRIP" ("A" Core Spray pump remains operating). Note: Over current condition on phase 1, 2, OR 3 of 2R22-S007, Frame 9 will energize the lockout relay (86) and cause a pump trip and annunciator. Over current condition on phase 2, of 2R22-S007, Frame 9, but at a lower current than required to energize relay 86, will energize relay 51X and cause the annunciator only. Which ONE of the following actions should be taken with regards to the "A" Core Spray Pump? A. Trip "A" Core Spray Pump immediately and record the relay targets actuated. B. Trip "A" Core Spray Pump immediately and restart when targets are reset. C!' Reduce the load on the pump until the alarm clears as soon as possible since the pump is required for Adequate Core Cooling. D. Continue to run the pump as required until vessel level is back to the normal operating level and the vessel leak is stopped.

Final RO Test 12. 209001K5.01 001 After a large pipe break inside the drywell on Unit 2, Core Spray "A" is being used to restore reactor water level to normal. The Operator notices that Core Spray "A" flow and discharge pressure are oscillating. Which ONE of the following is the most likely cause of these indications? A. Vortexing. B. Pump runout. C.* Cavitation. D. Pump running dead-headed. References: 34A-EI 1-002-2S This question was proposed by the utility. Need to get references from utility. A. Incorrect since conditions are not present for air entrapment. The Torus is at the normal level. B. Incorrect since Runout would have low pressure and high flow. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since deadhaeaded conditions would initially have high discharge pressure and no flow. 12 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM

Final RO Test 13. 211000A3.04 001 Which ONE of the following contains a correct list of indications that are used to verify the Standby Liquid Control System is operating properly once the system has been initiated? (Not necessarily all the indications) A. Squib valve loss of continuity alarm annunciated, storage tank level decreasing, discharge pressure slightly lower than reactor pressure. B. Red light indicating pump is running, reactor water level will increase, neutron level in the reactor will increase. C. Storage tank level increasing, RWCU suction valve 2G31-F004 closes, squib valve amber light goes off. DU. System discharge pressure will increase to greater than reactor pressure, neutron level in the reactor will decrease, RWCU suction valve 2G31-F004 closes. References: SI-LP-01 101 Rev. SI-00, pg 21 of 32. EO 011.002.1.03 A. Incorrect since discharge pressure should be higher than reactor pressure. B. Incorrect since reactor water level increasing is not an indication that SBLC is injecting. Also, neutron level should be decreasing. C. Incorrect since storage tank level should decrease. D. Correct answer. 13 Thursday, November 21, 2002 U1:36:27 PM

Final RO Test 14. 211000A4.01 001 Unit 1 is in an ATWS condition and the Shift Supervisor is directing actions per RCA RPV Control (ATWS). He has determined that Boron injection is required. The CBO initiates Boron injection per 34SO-C41-003-2S, Standby Liquid Control System. The initial tank level indicates 86%. Two minutes later the CBO notices that the SBLC Tank level indication has failed downscale. Which ONE of the following could be the cause of this and how will the CBO ensure that the Cold Shutdown Boron Weight has been injected? A. Instrument air has been lost to the level detector and an Operator should verify level in the tank via the local level indication. B1 Instrument air has been lost to the level detector and an Operator should verify level in the tank via the top hatch. be sent to be sent to C. Too much instrument air is being supplied to the bubbler detector and an Operator should adjust the flow to approximately I scfh. D. Too much instrument air is being supplied to the bubbler detector and an Operator should adjust the flow to approximately 10 scfh. Reference: RCA RPV Control (ATWS) flow chart SI-LP-01101-00 Rev. SI-00, Standby Liquid Control EO 011.001.a.03 A. Incorrect due to local level indication is also lost on a loss of instrument air. The level indication fails downscale on a loss of instrument air. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since too D. Incorrect since too Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:27 PM much flow to the bubbler causes level indication to be high. much flow to the bubbler causes level indication to be high. 14

Final RO Test 15. 212000A3.05 001 Unit 2 is in Mode 1 at 27% RTP after a forced shutdown. The Shift Supervisor is reviewing work that was performed during the shutdown and notices that a required logic test for the SDV bypass switch was not completed. The test verifies that the Scram Signal for SDV Hi level can be reset with the switch in Bypass. Which ONE of the following describes the effect of taking the SDV Hi Level Bypass switch to Bypass under the current plant conditions? A. RPS would not actuate on any SDV Hi Level signal. B4' RPS would still actuate on any SDV Hi Level signal. C. RPS would only actuate on a SDV Hi Level signal received from the Float Switches. D. RPS would only actuate on a SDV Hi Level signal received from the RTD's. Reference: SI-LP-01001-01 Rev. SI-01, Reactor Protection System pg 24 of 68. Tech Spec section 3.3.1.1, RPS Instrumentation EO 010.019.a.03 A. Incorrect since this switch has no affect on RPS with the Mode Switch in RUN. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since this switch has no affect on RPS with the Mode Switch in RUN. D. Incorrect since this switch has no affect on RPS with the Mode Switch in RUN. .. . ..... .. ,*,-- .,.-o fA 15 Thursday, November 2i, LUU2 U I 0:3t6o HV

Final RO Test 16. 212000K4.06 001 After a scram signal is received on Unit 2, control rods fail to insert and a manual scram is inserted. The white RPS scram group lights are ILLUMINATED. Which ONE of the following describes the state of the scram solenoids and the NEXT action that should be taken? A. Energized; Rods should be individually scrammed. B. De-energized; Rods should be manually driven in. C. Energized; RPS test switches should be taken to trip. D. De-energized; Links for RPS solenoids should be opened. References: 31E0-EOP-103-2S Rev4Ed2 pg 2 A. Incorrect, the scram solenoids are energized, but the next action to be taken is to place the RPS test switches to trip lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S. B. Incorrect, the scram solenoids are not de-energized, however, this action can be taken concurrently lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S. C. Correct, the scram solenoids are energized, and the next action to be taken is to place the RPS test switches to trip lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S. D. Incorrect, the scram solenoids are not de-energized, and the next action to be taken is to place the RPS test switches to trip lAW 31-EO-EOP-103-2S. 16 Thursday, November 21, 2UUZ U0:1:z36 :28v

Final RO Test 17. 214000K4.01 001 Which ONE of the following explains why a "ROD DRIFT" alarm is received after moving a control rod using the "EMERGENCY IN" switch? A. "EMERGENCY IN" bypasses the Rod Position Indication System. B. The sequence timer is bypassed causing an insert and withdraw signal at the same time. C. The rod is at an even reed switch and none of the selected relay busses are energized (insert, withdraw or settle). Dt. The rod is at an odd reed switch and none of the selected relay busses are energized (insert, withdraw or settle). References: SI-LP-05401 -00 Rev. SI-00, pg 7 & 8 of 26, Reactor Manual Control EO 001.010.a.12, 001.026.a.02 A. Incorrect since this switch does not bypass RPIS. B. Incorrect since this does not cause an insert and withdraw signal at the same time. C. Incorrect since being at an even reed switch position ensures a rod drift alarm does not occur. D. Correct answer since this alarm is actuated when rod is at an odd position and relay buses are not energized. 17 Thursday, November 21, ZUUZ Ul :6:28 PivM

Final RO Test 18. 215002G2.1.23 001 Unit 2 is operating at 50% RTP and a center control rod is selected for withdrawal. Which ONE of the following statements best describes the Rod Block Monitor nulling sequence once it has been initiated? A. The recorder is frozen and rod select matrix lights are all extinquished until the null sequence is complete. After the nulling, the recorder will read current power level. B. The recorder will read downscale until the null sequence is complete. After the nulling, the recorder will read 100. C. The recorder will read 100, but control rod movement will be blocked until the nulling is complete. D. The recorder will read upscale until the null sequence is complete. After the nulling, the recorder will read 100. References: SI-LP-01203-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 19-22 of 51 EO 012.003.e.06 A. Incorrect since the rod select matrix lights do not extinquish and the recorder will not read the current power level. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect answer since the recorder will read downscale during the nulling sequence. D. Incorrect answer since the recorder will read downscale during the nulling sequence. 18 Thursday, November 2l, ZUUZ U01

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Final RO Test 19. 215003A4.05 001 Unit 1 is in the process of starting up after a Refueling outage. The plant has just entered Mode 1 and the Reactor Operator notes the following IRM readings: (shorting links are installed) IRMA 110/125 IRM B 112/125 IRM C Bypassed IRM D 114/125 IRM E 114/125 IRM F 116/125 IRM G 112/125 IRM H 110/125 Based on these readings which ONE of the following describes the affect on the plant? A. A half scram should have occurred due to an IRM above the Hi-Hi limit. B. A full scram should have occurred due to an IRM above the Hi-Hi limit with shorting links installed. C. A Rod Block should have occurred due to all IRMs above rod block setpoint. DV No affect on the plant since all of the IRM inputs are bypassed. References: SI-LP-01202 Rev. 01 pg 21 - 23 of 40 EO 012.003.c.09, 012.003.c.10, 012.003.c.11 A. Incorrect since the IRM scram signal is bypassed with Mode Switch in RUN. B. Incorrect since the IRM scram signal is bypassed with Mode Switch in RUN and with the shorting links installed this prevents the single IRM scram function. C. Incorrect since the rod blocks are bypassed with the Mode Switch in RUN. D. Correct answer. 19 Thursday, November 21, ZUUZ U0 :3*8:L PMv

Final RO Test 20. 215004K2.01 001 While operating at 94% RTP on Unit 2, an event causes the following conditions: Loss of Rx Bldg Vent Monitor B Loss of Service Water Effluent Monitor Loss of Stack Gas Monitor B IRMs B, D, F and H reading downscale SRMs B and D reading downscale Which ONE of the following events is indicative of these indications? A. Loss of Instrument Bus 2B B. Loss of 24/48 VDC Bus 2B C. Loss of Vital AC Bus D. Loss of 125/250 VDC Bus "B" References: SI-LP-01202 Rev. 01 pg 15 of 40 SI-LP-01201 Rev. SI-00 pg 11 of 30 LT-LP-02704 Rev. 03 pg 59 of 61 LO 012.003.a.09 A. Incorrect since this does not power the listed items. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since this does not power the listed items. D. Incorrect since this does not power the listed items. -.. . .. ... o^ ,.f.fo n,, 20 Thursday, November Zi, 20U0 U1:360:L0 HiV

Final RO Test 21. 21s005A2.03 001 Unit 2 is starting up with the Reactor Mode Switch in the START/HOT STBY position. e following is the present status of each APRM with regard to LPRM inputs and mdi ted power level. APRM A B C D Level D LPRM I uts 6 5 6 7 Level C LPRM Inpu 5 3 8 8 Level B LPRM Inputs 6 6 5 2 Level A LPRM Inputs 5 3 6 6 Indicated Power Level 120o 14% 12% 11% Which ONE of the following describes the ant response to these conditions and the cause for the response? A. Half Scram due to High power on APRM "B". , B. Full Scram due to High power on APRM's "A", "B" and C. APRM UPSC TRIP/INOP SYS B Alarm due to APRM "B" hay too few LPRM Inputs. Dt APRM UPSC TRIP/INOP SYS B Alarm due to APRM "D" having too fe LPRM Inputs. References: SI-LP-01203-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 8-9 of 51 EO 012.003.d.01 A. Incorrect since Full Scram would occur if power reached 13% with Mode Switch in START/HOT STBY. B. Incorrect since power level is too low for scram condition. (13% with Mode Switch in START/HOT STBY) C. Incorrect since APRM B has the minimum LPRM Inputs required (17). D. Correct answer. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:28 PM 21

Final RO Test 22. 216000K2.01 001 Which ONE of the following describes the results of a loss of the 2B RPS bus to the Analog Transmitter Trip System (ATTS)? A. A complete loss of power to panels P921 and P923. B. A loss of one of the two power supplies to panels P921 and P923. C. A loss of one of the two power supplies to panels P922 and P924. D.' A complete loss of power to panels P922 and P924. Reference: LT-LP-10008 Rev. SI-00 pg 7 of 28. EO 055.001.a.07 A. Incorrect since a loss of 2B RPS does not affect panels P921 and P923. B. Incorrect since a loss of 2B RPS does not affect panel P921 or P923. C. Incorrect since a loss of 2B RPS affects both panels P922 and P924. D. Correct answer. 23. 217000K1.01 001 Unit 2 is operating at 80% RTP. The RCIC system is in standby with a suction from the CST. The quarterly HPCI flow rate test is in progress and is taking longer than expected. Torus level has reached 151" and preparations are being made to pump the torus down to normal level within the 2 hour Tech Spec time limit. Which ONE of the following describes the effect high Torus level had on RCIC? A. No effect since the RCIC suction valves do not transfer until 152". B" The Torus suction valves (F029 & F031) received an open signal and once both valves were full open then the CST suction valve (F010) received a closed signal. C. The Torus suction valves (F029 & F031) received an open signal at the same time the CST suction valve (F010) received a closed signal. D. The CST suction valve (FO10) received a closed signal and when it was full closed then the Torus suction valves (F029 & F031) received an open signal. 22 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PivM

Final RO Test References: SI-LP-03901 Rev. SI-00 pg 10 of 37 A. Incorrect since the U2 RCIC suction swap takes place at a suppression pool level of 150.5" Unit I takes place at 152". B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since the CST and Torus suction valves do not get a signal to change position at the same time. The CST gets a closed signal "After" the Torus suction valves are full open. D. Incorrect since the Torus suction valves come open before the CST suction valve goes closed. 24. 219000A2.08 001 Unit I is operating at 100% RTP. The Plant Operator (PO) has placed the 1B RHR pump in Torus Cooling Mode. "Rx Bldg Floor Drains Sump B Leak High" alarm is received followed shortly by "RHR Pump B Trip." A System Operator (SO) in the area notifies the PO that there is excessive leakage in the pump seal area for the 1B RHR pump. Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the RHR System and what are the appropriate actions to take per the Alarm Response procedures? (Provide copy of Tech Spec Section 3.5.1) A. Declare Division 2 of RHR INOPERABLE, send an Operator to the SWGR to look for flags and place the "B" RHR Pump control switch in STOP. B. Declare the "B" RHR Pump INOPERABLE, verify the suction valve lineup, isolate Division 2 of RHR and reset the sump timers. C.t Declare Division 2 of RHR INOPERABLE, verify the suction valve lineup, isolate the "B" RHR Pump and reset the sump timers. D. Declare the "B" RHR Pump INOPERABLE, send an Operator to the SWGR to look for flags and isolate Division 2 of RHR. 23 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM

Final RO Test References: 34AR-601-206-IS Rev. 3.1 34AR-602-401-IS Rev. 0.1 A. Incorrect since you need to isolate the pump. B. Incorrect since you need to call the entire loop INOPERABLE, not just the pump. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since you do not have to isolate the entire Loop of RHR, just the pump. Also, you should declare the entire loop Inoperable. 25. 223001A2.12 001 Unit 1 has scrammed on vessel low level due to loss of all High Pressure feed. The -* n,- a rocsgriTpd tfhe. RPV before level reached -185". 1A Core Spray pump is operating to restore reactor water level with the following plant conditions: Reactor Water Level Reactor Pressure Suppression Pool Temperature Suppression Pool Water Level Suppression Chamber Pressure 1A Core Spray Flow Which ONE of the following actions of 1A Core Spray pump? (Provide Graph 9, 11A and 11B) -120 inches and Increasing 45 psig 190OF 145 inches 3 psig 4600 gpm should the crew take concerning the continued use A. REDUCE flow to get back within Vortex limits. B. CONTINUE flow at the present rate since it is within NPSH and Vortex limits. C!' REDUCE flow to get back within NPSH limits. D. CONTINUE flow at the present rate ignoring NPSH and Vortex limits. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM 24

Final RO Test Reference: Core Spray Pump NPSH Limit Graph 11 B Core Spray Vortex Limit Graph 9 Students will be supplied with both graphs. A. Incorrect since IA Core Spray pump is within Vortex limits. B. Incorrect since EOP's direct you bace to RC RPV CONTROL after vessel level is increasing above top of active fuel and now Vortex and NPSH limits are a concern. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since CP-1 has been exited to RC RPV CONTROL point B. 26. 223002K1.07 001 U-2 RCIC System is running with the following conditions present 10 minutes after the event: Reactor Water Level -38" Drywell Pressure +1.5 psig Suppression Chamber Ambient Temp. 170OF RCIC Steam Line pressure 900 psig RCIC Emergency Area Cooler Temp 1 00OF and rising slowly An operator has been sent to the RCIC room and reports that there is a small steam leak on the line upstream of the Trip and Throttle valve. The Shift Supervisor orders the Reactor Operator to manually isolate RCIC. Which ONE of the following describes the effect on RCIC when the manual isolation pushbutton is depressed? A. Isolation valves F007 and F008 close and the RCIC turbine trips. B. Inboard Isolation valve F007 closes and the RCIC turbine trips. C. Outboard Isolation valve F008 closes and the RCIC turbine trips. D. No effect on RCIC since the system should already be isolated. Thursday, November 21,2002 01:36:29 PM 25

Final RO Test Reference: SI-LP-03901-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 17 of 37. EO 039.012.a.04 A. Incorrect since only the F008 valve is affected by the "Manual Isolation" pushbutton while there is an initiation signal present. B. Incorrect since the F007 valve is not affected by the "Manual Isolation" pushbutton while there is an initiation signal present. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the only isolation signal could be Suppression Chamber Ambient Temp but it has a 30 minute time delay when temp is > 1650F and this is 10 minutes into the event. 27. 226001K2.02 001 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with the following equipment out-of-service: 230KV breakers 470 & 480 are open to perform testing on Startup Transformer 2C. EDG I B due to oil leak just found (repairs in progress). While waiting for the repairs to be completed for the 1B EDG Unit 2 experiences a Reactor Scram on High Drywell pressure due to a failure of Recirc Pump 2B seals. All automatic actions occur as designed with the current plant lineup. The 2B RHR Pump is due to A. running, power supplied from 2C EDG. B. not running, power not supplied from 1 B EDG. C* running, power supplied from SAT 2D. D. not running, power not supplied from SAT 2C. 26 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM

Final RO Test Reference: LT-LP-02701-03 Rev. 03 Electrical Distribution - Switchyard LT-LP-02702-03 Rev. 03 4160 VAC Electrical Distribution Tech Specs and Bases Section 3.8.1 EO 200.017.a.03 A. Incorrect since SAT 2D is still energized. B. Incorrect due to power still available from SAT 2D. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since SAT 2D is the power supply. 28. 234000K6.02 001 Unit 2 is in a Refueling Outage with a core reload in progress. All Refueling related surveillances are current. The Unit CBO receives the "600V BUS 2C BREAKER TRIP" alarm and upon investigation determines a loss of 2R24-S01 1. Based on this information which ONE of the following describes how Refueling Operations are affected? A. Core Alterations can continue since a "refuel bridge stopped" alarm has not occured. B.t Core Alterations must be suspended immediately OR declare associated AC supported required features inoperable. C. Core Alterations can continue until the next scheduled AC breaker alignment and voltage checks are due since power is still available to the refueling equipment. D. Core Alterations can continue for 1 hr provided AC breaker alignment and voltage checks are completed within that hour. Thursday, November 21,2002 01:36:29 PM 27

Final RO Test References: Tech Spec 3.8.8 Distribution - Systems Shutdown Tech Spec Bases 3.8.8 Distribution Systems - Shutdown Bases LT-LP-02705-02 Rev.02 pg 30 of 42 A. Incorrect since the AC distribution system must be determined INOPERABLE due to the low voltage so Core Alterations must be stopped immediately. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since equipment must be declared INOPERABLE upon discovery on not being able to meet minimum requirements. D. incorrect since 1 hour is not provided to continue Core Alterations in the Tech Specs. 29. 239001 K4.04 001 Which ONE of the following describes the purpose of the Main Steam Line Flow Restrictors? A. To prevent the uncontrolled release of radioactive material to the environs following a steam line rupture outside containment to the extent that the CFR 100 limits are not exceeded at the site boundary. B. To limit the loading on the steam lines following a steam line rupture outside containment such that the failure of one steam line would not result in a MSIV isolation from high main steam line flow. C. To limit the pressure reduction following a steam line rupture outside containment such that the safety limit of 785 psig is not reached with reactor power >25% prior to the MSIV's closing. Dt To work in conjunction with the MSIV's to limit flow on a steam line rupture which assures the steam dryer and other internal structures in the vessel remain in place. 28 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:z29 PM

Final RO Test Reference: SI-LP-01401-00 Rev. 00 Pg 9 of 45 A. Incorrect since the isolation of the MSIV's perform this function. B. Incorrect since the flow restrictors limit the loss of coolant from the vessel on a steam line break. C. Incorrect since the flow restrictors are concerned with the loss of coolant and not the pressure reduction. D. Correct answer. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:29 PM 29

Final RO Test 30. 239002A1.01 001 Unit 1 reactor has just scrammed due to an inadvertent Group I isolation. The Shift Supervisor has entered RC RPV CONTROL (NON-ATWS) and ordered a reactor pressure band of 800 - 1080 psig using the relief valves. Which ONE of the following describes the indications you would expe to see when you opened a relief valve? A. The RED indicator light is lit, annunciator SAFETY BLOWDOWN PRESSURE HIGH is clear, and reactor pressure is decreasing. B. The GREEN indicator light will extinguish, the YELLOW indicator light is not lit, and tailpipe temperature indication is increasing. C* The YELLOW indicator light is lit, annunciator SAFETY BLOWDOWN PRESSURE HIGH is alarming, and tailpipe temperature indication is increasing. D. Reactor pressure is decreasing, the RED indicator light is out, and the GREEN indicator light is out. References: 34SO-B21-001-2S, Automatic Depressurization (ADS) and Low-Low Set (LLS) System, Rev.13.3 pg 16 of 31 A. Incorrect since the annunciator for SAFETY BLOWDOWN PRESSURE HIGH should be in alarm. B. Incorrect since the YELLOW light should illuminate. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the RED indicating light should be illuminated. 30 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM

Final RO Test 31. 239002K6.05 001 A Safety/Relief Valve tailpipe vacuum breaker has failed in the "OPEN" position. Which ONE of the following describes the effect on containment and the Safety/Relief Valve if the relief valve with the failed vacuum breaker lifts? A. Drywell pressure would increase before Torus pressure during the time the relief valve was open and the relief valve would operate normally. B. Torus pressure would increase before Drywell pressure during the time the relief valve was open and the relief valve would operate normally. C. Drywell pressure would not be affected during the time the relief valve was open and the relief valve would open at a lower pressure. D. Torus pressure would not be affected during the time the relief valve was open and the relief valve would open at a higher pressure. References: FSAR Section 6.2 A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since the vacuum breakers are physically located in the Drywell. C. Incorrect since Drywell pressure will increase when the relief valve is open due to the location of the vacuum breaker. D. Incorrect since Torus pressure would increase after Drywell pressure increases due to the location of the vacuum breakers. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM 31

Final RO Test 32. 241000K6.05 001 Unit 2 is holding load at 75% Reactor Power when the operator receives the "Turbine Vacuum Low" alarm. Which ONE of the following describes the expected sequence of actions as condenser , I*,, ,, ,a .-- nntin, tn rI*asefl from 24.7" Ha Vac (alarm setoint) to 0" Hg Vac? A. 1st - Main Turbine trips. 2nd - RFP turbine trips and Main Turbine Bypass Valves close 3rd - MSIV's close. B. 1st - Main Turbine and RFP turbine trip at the same time. 2nd - Main Turbine Bypass Valves close. 3rd - MSIV's close. C!t 1st - Main Turbine and RFP turbine trip at the same time. 2nd - MSIV's close. at the same time. 3rd - Main Turbine Bypass Valves close. D. 1st - RFP turbine trips and Main Turbine Bypass Valves close at the same time. 2nd - MSIV's close. 3rd - Main Turbine trips. Reference: SI-LP-02501-00 Rev. SI-00 Pg 7 of 13. EO 200.087.a.01 A. Incorrect since RFP's and Main Turbine trip at the same time at 22.3" Hg Vac. B. Incorrect since MSIV's close at 10" Hg Vac and Bypass valves close at 7" Hg Vac. C. Correct answser since RFP's and Main Turbine trip at the same time at 22.3" Hg Vac, MSIV's close at 10" Hg Vac and Bypass valves close at 7" Hg Vac. D. Incorrect since Main Turbine trips prior to the MSIV's closing. 32 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM vuýuu

Final RO Test 33. 245000KI.09 001 Which ONE of the following describes the effect that a loss of the "2A" 125/250V DC Switchgear will have on the Unit 2 Main Turbine Generator? A. Remote trip capability for the generator output breakers AND the exciter field breaker will be lost. B. Remote trip capability for the generator output breaker will be lost, but the exciter field breaker can still be controlled remotely. C. The generator output breakers will fail to open automatically, but the exciter field breaker can still be tripped from the control room. D. The generator output breakers will fail to open automatically AND the exciter field breaker must be opened locally. References: 34AB-R22-001-2S Rev.2.3 Pg 3 A. Incorrect, lAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will not open automatically. However, they will open from the control room but the exciter field breaker must be opened locally. B. Incorrect, iAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will not open automatically and the exciter field breaker must be opened locally. C. Incorrect, iAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will fail to open automatically, however, the exciter field breaker must be opened locally. D. Correct, lAW 34-AB-R22-001-2S the generator output breakers will fail to open automatically and the exciter field breaker must be opened locally. 33 Thursday, November 21, Z2U0 u2 :36:3u PM

Final RO Test 34. 256000K1.05 001 Unit 2 is operating at 80% RTP. An operator inadvertently opens the Unit 2 Condensate Suction Pressure Control Valve "Bypass Valve" (2N21-F182, Condensate Supply to CRD). Which ONE of the following describes the probable consequences which will occur because of this action? A. Opening 2N21 -F1 82 could result in excessive condensate system losses via recirc flow back to the CST through the CRD suction line from the CST. B. Opening 2N21-F182 increases the NPSH to the CRD pump which could result in the CRD pump discharge pressure exceeding its design pressure limit of 1510 psig. C!' Opening 2N21 -F1 82 may result in excessively high CRD pump suction pressure which could cause overpressurization of the CRD suction piping if the suction relief valve capacity is exceeded. D. The CRD pump suction pressure trip is set such that the pump will trip above 18" Hg Vac; opening 2N21 -F1 82 will cause the pump suction pressure trip to activate. References: LT-LP-00101-00 Rev. 04 pg. 14 of 28 EO 001.005.a.07 A. Incorrect since water is prevented from going back to the CST by a check valve. B. Incorrect since there are other means of preventing the CRD system from reaching its design pressure limit. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the CRD pumps trip on low suction pressure. 34 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:30 PM

Final RO Test 35. 259001K1.05 001 Which ONE of the following describes the sequence of components that condensate would pass through to get from the Main Condenser to the Reactor Vessel? A. Condensate Booster Pumps, Gland Seal Condenser, Condensate Pumps, 10th Stage Feedwater Heaters, Reactor Feed Pumps. B. Condensate Pumps, Condensate Booster Pumps, Condensate Demins, Reactor Feed Pumps, 4th Stage "A" Heater. C'. Condensate Pumps, Gland Seal Condenser, Condensate Booster Pumps, 6th Stage Feedwater Heater, Reactor Feed Pumps. D. Condensate Pumps, 4th Stage "A" Heater, 6th Stage Feedwater Heater, Reactor Feed Pumps, Feedwater Level Control Valves. References: SI-LP-00201 Rev. SI-00 Figure 01 A. Incorrect since the Condensate Pumps come before the Condensate Booster Pumps. B. Incorrect since Condensate Demins come before the Condensate Booster Pumps. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since 6th stage heater comes before the 4th stage heater. 35 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01::3t:31 PrM

Final RO Test 36. 259002K3.02 001 Unit 2 is holding load at 80% Reactor Power. The Feedwater Level Control system is in 3 element control. Which ONE of the following describes what RPV water level should do if a loss of control signal from RFPT "A" M/A controller occurred? A. INCREASE due to loss of a feed flow signal resulting in a steam flow / feed flow mismatch. B. REMAIN THE SAME due to RFPT "A" decreasing speed to it's "low speed stop" and the "B" RFPT increasing speed toward it's "high speed stop". C. DECREASE initially and STABILIZE approximately 6" lower due to loss of feed flow input. .*' REMAIN THE SAME due to RFPT "A" defaulting to the speed setter and RFPT "B" controlling level in auto. Reference: SI-LP-00201-00 Rev. SI-00 Pg. 27 of 47. Question #LT-LP-002027-0002 EO 002.004.a.08 Minor rewording of question and order of answers. A. Incorrect since loss of signal results in default level signal being used (37") for the failed controller to the associated RFPT. B. Incorrect since RFPT with failure does not go to low speed stop and the unaffected RFPT does not go towards the high speed stop. C. Incorrect since level is maintained by the unaffected RFPT at the normal operating level. D. Correct answer. 36 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:32 PM

Final RO Test 37. 261000K4.01 001 The following Unit 1 reactor zone exhaust ventilation radiation levels exist: 1D11-K609A 12 mR/hr 1 D11-K609B 14 mR/hr 1D11-K609C 10 mR/hr 1D11-K609D 11 mR/hr Which ONE of the following reflects the plant response to the above conditions? A. Unit 1 and 2 Refueling Floor and Reactor Building supply and exhaust fans trip and isolate and Unit I and 2 SBGT starts and aligns to the Reactor Building and Refueling Floor. B. Unit 1 Refueling Floor and Reactor Building supply and exhaust fans trip and isolate and Unit I SBGT starts and aligns to the Reactor Building and Refueling Floor. C. Unit I and 2 Reactor Building supply and exhaust fans trip and isolate and Unit 1 and 2 SBGT starts and aligns to the Reactor Building only. W. Unit 1 and 2 Reactor Building and Refueling Floor ventilation systems remain in operation and neither SBGT fan starts. Reference: SI-LP-01302-00 Rev. SI-0 Pg. 16 of 21 Question # LR-LP-200023-0001 EO 013.031.a.05, 013.038.a.08 A. Incorrect since none of these instruments are reading >18 mR/hr so nothing will automatically cause fans to trip and isolate and SBGT to start for both units. B. Incorrect since both units are affected by any of these instruments reading >18 mR/hr. C. Incorrect since the Refuel Floor fans and dampers would be affected by these signals if the threshold wee met. D. Correct answer. None of the instrument readings meet the threshold for actuating the Reactor Building and Refueling Floor vents and starting SBGT (K609 A-D reading >18 mR/hr for Unit 1). Modified the initial conditions so that the student must realize that the threshold has not been met to cause initiations since the readings are for Unit 1. If the readings were for Unit 2 then the initiations would occur. 37 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:32 PM

Final RO Test 38. 262001A4.02 001 Which ONE of the following states how to adjust main generator output voltage and the consequences of improperly setting the main generator output voltage with respect to system voltage during manual synchronization? A.r Adjust the generator output voltage using the Auto Voltage Adjust control switch and if generator output voltage is greater than system voltage then Reactive load will be positive. B. Adjust the generator output voltage using the Manual Voltage Adjust control switch and if generator output voltage is less than system voltage then Reactive load will be negative. C. Adjust the generator output voltage using the Auto Voltage Adjust control switch and if generator output voltage is less than system voltage then Reactive load will be positive. D. Adjust the generator output voltage using the Manual Voltage Adjust control switch and if generator output voltage is greater than system voltage then Reactive load will be negative. References: INPO 2001 Exam Bank (question 262001.A4.0 155) 34SO-N40-001-2S, Main Generator Operation Rev. 10.5, pg 13 - 16 of 53. A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect answer since you have to use the Auto Voltage Adjust control switch to match voltages. C. Incorrect since the VAR flow will be from the system to the generator. D. Incorrect since the VAR flow will be from the generator to the system and you use the Auto Voltage Adjust control switch to match voltages. 38 Thursday, November 21, 2002 0I:3:*2:6 P-ivi

Final RO Test 39. 263000K3.01 001 Unit 2 is operating at 50% RTP when the following annunciators alarm: ARI OUT OF SERVICE LOSS OF OFF SITE POWER 4160V BUS 2E or 600v BUS 2C DC OFF 125/250V BATT VOLTS LOW OR FUSE TROUBLE 125/250V BATT CHGR MALFUNCTION The Control Board Operator verifies that 125VDC Cabinet 2D has been lost. Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the Diesel Generators that supply Unit 2 Buses? A.< 2A Diesel Generator is INOPERABLE due to loss of auto start capability. B. 2C Diesel Generator is INOPERABLE due to loss of auto start capability. C. 2A and 2C Diesel Generators are INOPERABLE due to loss of auto start capability. D. 1 B Diesel Generator is INOPERABLE to Unit 2 due to loss of auto start capability to Unit 2. References: 34AB-R22-001-2S, Loss of DC Buses Rev. 2.3 pg 17,18, and 59 of 66. A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since the 2C Diesel Generator is unaffected by this loss. C. Incorrect since the 2C Diesel Generator is unaffected by this loss. D. Incorrect since the 1 B Diesel Generator is unaffected by this loss. 39 Thursday, November 21, 2UU0 U1 :36:, riPi

Final RO Test 40. 264000A1.01 001 The 2A Emergency Diesel Generator is running loaded and tied to the bus for the normal Monthly load test. While adjusting the load to maintain between 1710 and 2000 KW the DIG trips. The following conditions existed at the time of the trip: Engine Speed 980 RPM Lube Oil Pressure 22 psig Lube Oil Temp 240°F Jacket Water Temp 200OF Jacket Water Pressure 14 psig Which ONE of the following is the most likely cause of the DIG trip? A. Engine Overspeed. B. High Jacket Water Temp. C. Low Lube Oil Pressure. DO High Lube Oil Temperature. References: LT-LP-02801-03 Rev. 03 pg 43 and 44 of 87 EO 028.023.a.02 34SO-R43-001-2 A. Incorrect since this is below the setpoint of 1000 + 10 RPM. B. Incorrect since the setpoint for High Jacket Water Temp Trip is 205 F. C. Incorrect since the setpoint for the Low Lube Oil Pressure trip is 21 psig decreasing. D. Correct answer. 40 Thursday, November 21, z2u0 u2 :36:3L PMV

Final RO Test 41. 264000K3.01 001 Unit 1 has experienced a LOCA with a LOSP. Emergency Diesel Generators "IA" and "IB" are running with their output breakers closed. Emergency Diesel Generator "IC" has failed to start. Approximately 25 seconds after EDG "IA" and "IB" receive the start signal you notice the following pump status: Pumps Running Pumps Idle "lA" Core Spray Pump "IA" PSW Pump "IC" RHR Pump "IB" PSW Pump "A, B and D" RHR Pumps "IB" Core Spray Pump Which ONE of the following describes the pumps that you would expect to be operating for this condition? A. PSW pump "IA" should also be running. B* "A" and "D" RHR pumps should also be running. C. "A", "B" and "D" RHR pumps should also be running. D. "B" Core Spray, "A" and "D" RHR pumps and "IA" PSW pump should also be running. References: LT-LP-02801 Rev. 03, pg 49-50 of 87 EO 028.025.a.02 A. Incorrect since the PSW pumps are load-shed upon an auto start of the DIG. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since "B" RHR pump is powered from the IC DIG which has failed. D. Incorrect since "B" Core Spray is powered from 1C D/G which has failed and the "lA" PSW pump should not have started. S.. . . . . ... ....... .,41 Thursday, NovemDer 21, ZUUL U130:3:32 -v'

Final RO Test 42. 268000A1.01 001 The Unit 2 Radwaste Operator is in the process of discharging the Chemical Waste Sample Tank 2B to the discharge canal at 65 gpm, when the discharge radiation monitor exceeds the HIGH trip setpoint. Which ONE of the following describes ALL of the expected actions for this condition? A. The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate. B. The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate and the dilution flow line will isolate. C. The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate and the High Flow canal discharge line will isolate. DV The Radwaste Effluent High Radiation alarm will annunciate and the High and Low Flow canal discharge lines will isolate. Reference: LT-LP-02901-02 Rev. 02 pg 36 of 46. 34AR-601-401-2S Rev. 0.2 A. Incorrect since the high discharge trip setpoint will also auto close the high and low canal discharge lines. B. Incorrect since the high discharge trip setpoint will auto close the high and low canal discharge lines but do not affect the dilution flow line. C. Incorrect since the high discharge trip setpoint will also auto close the low canal discharge line. D. Correct answer. 42 Thursday, November 21, zuuz u0 :36:32 rIVI

Final RO Test 43. 271000K4.08 001 The following Unit 2 valves have automatically closed: Main Stack Inlet valve 2N62-F057 Holdup Volume Drain valve 2N62-F085 Offgas Moisture Separator drain to the Main Condenser 2N62-FO30A/B Which ONE of the following is most likely to have caused this plant condition? A. BOTH Off-Gas Pre-treat Monitors Hi-Hi. B* ONE Off-Gas Post-treat Monitor downscale and ONE Off-Gas Post-treat Monitor Hi-Hi-Hi. C. BOTH Stack Gas Monitors Hi-Hi. D. Recombiner building CCW out of Off-Gas Condenser reading 148 F. References: LT-LP-03101-03 Rev. 03 pg 20-22 of 44. EO 031.001.a.15 A. Incorrect since this alarm does not cause any isolations. B. Correct answer since any combination of downscale or Hi-Hi-Hi in both trip systems simultaneously causes these valves to isolate. C. Incorrect since this setpoint causes the Main Stack Effluent Accident Range Gas Monitor to actuate. D. Incorrect since a temperature of 140 F causes 2N62-F003 A/B to close. (Changed answer C and D from OffGas Carbon Vault Monitors Inop and Main Steam Line Radiation Monitors greater than 3x normal to the ones that were listed. Changed answer B to actuate on any combination of setpoints. Added information to answers for the number of monitors that were in alarm. Modified the list of valves in the stem). 43 Thursday, November 21, ZuuL ul :.36:32L 'v

Final RO Test 44. 272000K2.05 001 References: LT-LP-10007 Rev. 04 pg 17-27 of 73. A. Incorrect since this is powered by 24 VDC Cabinet "B", R25-S016. B. Incorrect since this is powered by 24 VDC Cabinet "A" and "B". C. Incorrect since this is powered by their NUMAC monitors which receive power from RPS "B". D. Correct answer. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:33 PM 44

Final RO Test 45. 286000A1.01 001 Unit 1 is in a Refueling outage with the 4160 VAC 1 E bus tagged out and de-energized for maintenance. A fire is detected resulting in main fire header pressure decreasing. Which ONE of the following is the expected fire protection system response? A. The motor driven fire pump starts at 110 psig; the first engine driven pump starts at 100 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 90 psig. B. The motor driven fire pump does not start; the first engine driven pump starts at 110 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 100 psig. C. The motor driven fire pump does not start; the first engine driven fire pump starts at 110 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 90 psig. D.* The motor driven fire pump does not start; the first engine driven fire pump starts at 100 psig and the second engine driven pump starts at 90 psig. References: LT-LP-03601Rev.3 pg 19 and 21 A. Incorrect since motor driven pump does not have electrical power and starting pressures are incorrect. B. Incorrect since pumps start at different pressures.. C. Incorrect since first engine driven fire pump starts at 100 psig. D. Correct answer. 45 Thursday, November 21, ZUU2 01:36:3 Piv

Final RO Test 46. 288000A2.05 001 The weather forcast for the oncoming shift is high winds with the temperature dropping to the low teens. The System Operator (SO) is performing outside rounds and notes that upon entering the 2A DIG room that the temperature is abnormally cold. Which ONE of the following describes the possible impact on the plant and the correct compensatory actions for this situation? A. 2A DIG could become INOPERABLE due to cold conditions. Start the DIG to warm up the room. Install temporary heaters to maintain temperature above 600F. B. The DIG cooling water system could freeze which would INOP the 2A DIG. Install temporary heating units to supplement the room heaters and install temporary temperature indication in the room. C. 2A DIG oil could cool down and affect the auto start capability of the DIG. Verify room heaters are operating properly. Declare the DIG INOPERABLE if room temperature is <60°F for 12 hours. Dt 2A DIG could become INOPERABLE due to cold conditions. Verify DIG room and switchgear room louvers are completely closed. Also, verify room heaters are energized and maintaining temperature. References: DI-OPS-36-0989N Rev. 13 pg 1 of 4. A. Incorrect since DIG does not become INOPERABLE immediately. Also, there isn't direction to install temporary heating. B. Incorrect since the DIG cooling water can't freeze since it is filled with anti freeze. Also, no direction to install temporary heating and temperature indication. C. Incorrect since the oil is heated with an immersion heater to maintain proper temperature. No direction to declare DIG INOPERABLE if temp goes below 60 0F. D. Correct answer. 46 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:33 PM

Final RO Test 47. 290001A3.01 001 Units 1 and 2 are operating at 100% power when a Hi-Hi alarm is received on reactor building exhaust ventilation radiation monitor channels I D1 1-K609A and B. Channels I D11-K609C and D are reading normal. Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Secondary Containment Systems? A. Unit 1 and 2 SBGT systems auto start. Unit 1 and 2 Reactor Building ventilation trips and all isolation valves close. Bý Unit 1 and 2 SBGT systems auto start. Unit I and 2 Reactor Building ventilation trips and only the inboard isolation valves close. C. Unit I SBGT system auto starts. Unit I Reactor Building ventilation trips and all the Unit 1 isolation valves close. D. Unit 2 SBGT system auto starts. Unit 2 Reactor Building ventilation trips and all the Unit 2 isolation valves close. Reference: LT-LP-10007 Rev. 04, pg. 28 EO 200.030.a.10 Revised distractors and stem to make it more plausible. A. Incorrect since only the inboard isolation valves close. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since both trains of SBGT and both units Rx Bldg Vents isolate with only the inboard isolation valves going closed. D. Incorrect since both trains of SBGT and both units Rx Bldg Vents isolate with only the inboard isolation valves going closed. 47 Thursday, November 21, 2002 Ul:36:33 PMiv

Final RO Test 48. 290002G2.1.28 001 Which ONE of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a component within the RPV? A" The baffle plate provides a mounting surface for the jet pump diffusers and separates the downcomer area from the below core plate area. B. Flow orifices are mounted in the control rod housing, directly aligned with the fuel support piece. C. The steam seperator dries the steam/fluid mixture to 99.9% quality. D. The Standby Liquid Control/Core dp Pipe is a permanently mounted pipe within a pipe with the outer pipe used for SBLC injection. References: SI-LP-04402 Rev. SI-00 pg 4-10 of 27 LO LT-04402.001 A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since the flow orifices are located in the fuel support pieces. C. Incorrect since the steam separators increase the steam quality from approximately 13% to 90%. D. Incorrect since the SBLC system uses the inner tube to inject Boron. 48 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36J:33 PM

Final RO Test 49. 290003K5.02 001 Both Units are operating at 100% RTP. It is reported that the Control Room HVAC can only maintain a positive pressure of 1/5 inch WG relative to the Turbine Building during the pressurization mode. Outside air flow rate is 399 cfm and subsystem flowrate is 2600 cfm. Based on these plant conditions, which ONE of the following describes the Control Room HVAC system? (Provide copy of TS 3.7.4 with SR's) A'. would still be OPERABLE because Control Room to Turbine Building dp and ventilation flow rates are adequate. B. would be INOPERABLE because Control Room to outside Turbine Building dp is too low. C. would be INOPERABLE because the Control Room ventilation subsystem flow rate is inadequate. D. would be INOPERABLE because outside air flow rate is inadequate. References: Tech Spec section 3.7.4, MCREC System SR 3.7.4.4 Modified answers to reflect only one correct answer A. Correct answer since dP is > 0.1" wg, subsystem flow rate is < 2750 cfm and outside air flow is < 400 cfm. B. Incorrect since the dP is adequate. C. Incorrect since the subsystem flow rate is adequate. D. Incorrect since the outside air flowrate is adequate. -. . ... - . o.oo. nRA 49 Thursday, November z2, LUU2 u i0:36:33 0

Final RO Test 50. 295001AK2.07 001 Unit 2 startup is in progress with no equipment out of service. Reactor power is 40% and the speed of both recirc pumps was just raised to 30%. A trip of Recirc Pump "2A" occurs and the operator performs the actions of 34AB-B31-001-2S, Reactor Recirculation Pump(s) Trip, or Recirc Loops Flow Mismatch to stabilize the plant. Which ONE of the following describes how an accurate reading of total core flow is determined under these conditions? A!" Total core flow must be manually calculated by adding "2A" and "2B" Jet Pump Loop flows to obtain an accurate reading. B. The Total Core Flow indication must be reduced by the "2A" Jet Pump Loop flow to obtain an. accurate reading. C. Total core flow must be manually calculated by subtracting "2A" Jet Pump Loop flow from the "2B" Jet Pump Loop flow to obtain an accurate reading. D. The summing circuitry for the Total Core Flow indication automatically accounts for the idle "2A" recirc loop and provides an accurate reading. References: 34AB-B31-001-2S Rev 7.2 pg 3 of 7. Hatch 99 Exam question #56 Slight modifications to stem and added LOOP to all flows in answers. Resequenced answers. A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since you cannot subtract the 2A Jet Pump Loop flow from the Total Flow indication and get an accurate reading. C. Incorrect since you have to add the two loop flows together to get an accurate reading. D. Incorrect since the summing circuitry does not account for an idle recirc pump. -. . . .. . ... ... ',',%, n .4 . ., fl A 50 Thursday, November 21, 2UUL u i:36;:33 V

Final RO Test 51. 295002G2.1.2 001 Unit I is operating at 550 MWe when the "IAX Circ Water pump trips. Which ONE of the following actions should be taken by the Operator? A'. Reduce power as necessary to maintain Conderser Vacuum and attemp to restart the "'IA" Circ Water pump. B. Immediately attempt to restart the "IAX Circ Water pump. If the Circ Water pump fails to start, then scram the reactor and close the MSIV's. C. Immediately attempt to restart the "IA" Circ Water pump. If the Circ Water pump fails to start, then reduce power to less than 450 MWe. D. Reduce power as necessary to maintain Condenser Vacuum. When condensate demin inlet temperature reaches 140 0F, isolate the feed and condensate system. References: 34AB-N71-001-IS Rev. 4.1 Copy of bank question. A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since the MSIV's are closed if there is no circ water flow. C. Incorrect since there is not a limit for how far to reduce power as long as condenser vacuum is being maintained. D. Incorrect since there is no direction to isolate the Condensate System. Thursday, November 21, 2UUL UI :36:3 -'iv

Final RO Test 52. 295003AK2.01 001 A small LOCA with a LOSS OF OFFSITE POWER occurred on Unit 2 at 0100 on 5/21/02. 600V Bus 2D is being powered from Diesel Generator 2C (Load Shed equipment still de-enerclized) and HPCI is running to maintain reactor vessel water level between -35 and +51.5 inches. Which ONE of the following predicts how HPCI will respond over the next 3 hours with no operator action? A. HPCI will continue to operate automatically by maintaining reactor vessel level in a band of -35 inches to +51.5 inches. B. HPCI will continue to operate automatically by maintaining reactor vessel level between +51.5 inches and the high level reset setpoint. C. HPCI will operate until it reaches +51.5 inches and will not operate again until the operator depresses the High Level Reset pushbutton. D.' HPCI will continue to operate for approximately 2 hours by cycling between +51.5 inches and -35 inches and then it will fail to operate. References: SI-LP-00501 Rev. 01 pg 14 - 16 of 46 FSAR Section 8.3.2.1.1,125/250 VDC Station Battery Power System A. Incorrect since HPCI will not operate after approximately 2 hours. B. Incorrect since HPCI will not cycle between 51.5 inches and the reset setpoint. It requires manual action to start HPCI at the reset setpoint. C. Incorrect since HPCI will automatically start again when level drops to -35". D. Correct answer. 52 Thursday, November 21, UUL U1 :36:34 rqvi

Final RO Test 53. 295004AK3.03 001 Unit 2 is operating at 45% RTP when a loss of DC power causes the following: Main Turbine trip Reactor Scram and both Recirc pumps trip 125/250V BATTERY VOLTS LOW alarm Which ONE of the following losses will most likely cause this transient? A. 125 VDC Cabinet "2B", 2R25-S002. B. 125 VDC Cabinet "2D", 2R25-S004. Ct. 125/250 VDC Switchgear 2A, 2R22-S016. D. 125/250 VDC Switchgear 2B, 2R22-S017. References: LT-LP-02704 Rev. 03. pg 37 - 39 of 61 LT-LP-02704 Rev. 03. pg 50 - 55 of 61 EO 200.018.a.01 Changed initial conditions slightly and changed 2 distractors because it is likely that everyone knows that 24/48 VDC systems are mainly for neutron monitoring systems. A. Incorrect since this Cabinet is powered by Switchgear 2A and it doesn't cause all of these things to happen. B. Incorrect since this Cabinet affects DC control power and DG loads. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since this affects HPCI and Core Spray. 53 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:361:34 P'M

Final RO Test 54. 295005AA1.05 001 Unit 2 was operating at 100% RTP when the reactor scrammed due to a turbine trip from high vibrations. Which ONE of the following describes the correct turbine valve response? A. Turbine Stop Valv Turbine Control Va Intercept Valves Intermediate Stop Bypass Valves B. Turbine Stop ValvE Turbine Control Ve Intercept Valves Intermediate Stop Bypass Valves C. Turbine Stop Valv Turbine Control V* Intercept Valves Intermediate Stop Bypass Valves Ilves Valves Closed Closed Closed - Open One or more may be open depending on throttle pressure es- Closed ilves - Open Closed Valves - Closed All open initially; close to control Rx pressure. es Closed alves - Closed Open Valves - Closed One or more may be open depending on throttle pressure D'* Turbine Stop Valves Closed Turbine Control Valves Closed Intercept Valves - Closed Intermediate Stop Valves - Closed Bypass Valves - All open initially; close to control Rx pressure. References: SI-LP-01901-00 Rev. 3 pg 44-46 of 79 SI-LP-01 701-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 17 of 36 EO 019.010.a.01 A. Incorrect since all valves close except bypass valves on a turbine trip from Hi vibes. B. Incorrect since all valves close except bypass valves on a turbine trip from Hi vibes. C. Incorrect since all valves close except bypass valves on a turbine trip from Hi vibes. D. Correct answer. 54 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:34 PM

Final RO Test 55. 295006AK3.01 002 Unit 2 was operating at 100% RTP when a scram occurred from a spurious Group 1 isolation. Which ONE of the following describes the expected initial Reactor Water Level response and the reason for that response? (Assume no operator actions occur) A'. Reactor water level will decrease due to collapsing of voids and then will increase due to feedwater injection. B. Reactor water level will increase due to feedwater injection still at 100% and then will decrease due to level setpoint at scram setpoint. C. Reactor water level will decrease due to feedwater level control at scram setpoint and then increase due to Startup Level Control Valve (SULCV) leakby. D. Reactor water level will decrease due to SRV's opening and then will increase due to feedwater injection. Reference: FSAR 15.2.3.6.2.1 A. Correct answer. Voids collapse due to initial pressure transient. B. Incorrect since level initially decreases from collapsing of voids. C. Incorrect since level is below the scram setpoint for feedwater from the initial void collapse. D. Incorrect since level initially increases from swell. -. . . .. ,,. ~ nfl55 Thursday, November z2, LUUL u i03:3o4 q'V

Final RO Test 56. 295007AA1.04 001 Unit I scrammed due to a Group 1 isolation from high main steam line flow. The following conditions exist: All rods inserted Reactor Pressure 1090 psig Reactor Water Level +54 inches Drywell Pressure 1.5 psig Torus Level 150 inches The operator has opened SRV 1B21-FO13G to lower reactor pressure. Which ONE of the following describes how reactor pressure will be controlled after the operator closes SRV 1 B21-F013G? A. Reactor pressure will be automatically controlled by the EHC system using the Turbine Bypass Valves. B. Reactor pressure will be manually controlled by the operator using HPCI with a suction from the condensate storage tank. C'. Reactor pressure will be automatically controlled by the Low Low Set system between 847 and 1033 psig. D. Reactor pressure will be manually controlled using the Reactor Feed Pump turbines. References: 34AR-603-114-1S Rev. 6, Reactor High Pressure RC RPV CONTROL (NON-ATWS) Rev. 7 SI-LP-01401 Rev. 00 Table 4 SI-LP-00501 Rev. 01 Table 6 A. Incorrect since the MSIV's are closed from a valid isolation signal and cannot be reopened. B. Incorrect since HPCI cannot be used due to high water level isolation signal. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the MSIV's are closed from a valid isolation signal and cannot be reopened. 56 Thursday, November 21, 2UU2 U1:36:34 PM

Final RO Test 57. 295008AK3.01 001 Which ONE of the following is the reason that the Main Turbine receives a trip signal if the RPV experiences a high water level condition? At" Protects the turbine from damage due to water entering the turbine. B. Protects the main steam piping from damage due to water hammer. C. Initiates an anticipatory reactor scram due to the simultaneous trip of the reactor feedwater pump. D. Protects the turbine control and stop valves from damage due to water impingement. Reference: Tech Spec Bases B 3.3.2.2, Feedwater and Main Turbine High Water Level Trip Instrumentation (Background). A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since the turbine trip may cause water hammer in piping due to stop valves going closed. C. Incorrect since the turbine trip does not perform an anticipatory scram function. D. Incorrect since the valves closing may be subject to water hammer if the water level continues to increase. 58. 295009AK1.05 002 Which ONE of the following is the main reason that RPV level is lowered during an ATWS condition? At Reduce reactor power by reducing the natural circulation driving head. B. Reduce steam generation rate which reduces the moderator temperature. C. Prevent thermal stratification which prevents localized power peaks. D. Reduce reactor pressure which allows more injection from low pressure systems. 57 Thursday, November 21, 200u 1:3j*:34 P'

Final RO Test Reference: LR-LP-20327 Rev. 10 Pg 42 of 53 Revised correct answer lAW lesson plan. A. Correct answer. B, C or D. Incorrect answer. 59. 295009G2.4.1 001 Unit 2 has scrammed with a failure of all the control rods to insert. The following plant conditions exist: Rx Power 8% Rx Water Level -50" Drywell Pressure 3.5 psig Torus Pressure 3.0 psig Torus Temperature 141OF LLS is armed ADS is Inhibited Which ONE of the following is an acceptable order from the Shift Supervisor? (Distribute copy of BIIT Curve Graph 5) A. Maintain RWL between -60" and +50" using Condensate and Feedwater. B. Terminate and prevent all injection except Boron, CRD and RCIC until RWL is below -60". C!' Terminate and prevent all injection except Boron, CRD and RCIC until RWL is below -60" and Rx Power remains below 5% OR RWL is at -155" OR DW press is <1.85 psig and SRV's remain closed and RWL is below -60". D. Restore and maintain RWL between +3" and +50" using HPCI with a suction from the Condensate Storage Tank. 58 Thursday, November 21, 2U00Z U01:b:36 PM

Final RO Test Reference: CP-3 ATWS Level Control RC RPV Control LR-20328 Rev. 06 RPV Control ATWS (RCA) A. Incorrect since the overide conditions above this step have been met which send you to a terminate and prevent leg. B. Incorrect since you meet all of the requirements for the overide to send you to another terminate and prevent leg. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since these actions are in RC RPV Control and not in the CP-3 ATWS Level Control procedure. 60. 295010AA2.02 001 Unit 1 has scrammed due to high Drywell pressure. Torus Spray is INOPERABLE and Drywell Spray was initiated per the EOP's. The following conditions presently exist: Reactor Water Level -135 inches and increasing Torus level 136 inches and stable Torus temperature 125 0F and increasing Torus pressure .5 psig and increasing Drywell average temperature 145OF and increasing Drywell pressure -.5 psig and increasing Based on the above plant conditions, which ONE of the following describes Drywell Spray operation? A' SHOULD NOT be in operation because Drywell pressure is below 0 psig. B. SHOULD be in operation until Torus pressure reaches 0 psig. C. SHOULD NOT be.in operation because Drywell pressure is below the EOP entry condition. D. SHOULD be in operation because a PC-1 Primary Containment Control entry condition still exists. -, -k.~ .L.-f- fil O n(I o =. D&" 59 I Thursday, N*UVemberI I 4 UUC UI .OU1,Q 4--IVI

Final RO Test References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since Drywell Sprays should be isolated before Drywell pressure reaches 0 psig. C. Incorrect since Drywell Sprays are not governed by the EOP entry conditions but by the Primary Containment Pressure leg of the EOP's. D. Incorrect since Drywell Sprays should be isolated before Drywell pressure reaches 0 psig per the overide in EOP's. 61. 295012AA1.02 001 Unit 1 is operating at 50% RTP with all Drywell cooling units in AUTO. The following conditions exist in the Drywell : CRD cavity area temperature 155 0F Recirc pump motor area 135 0F Vessel upper head area 1780F Drywell average air temperature 1490F Which ONE of the following describes which Drywell cooling fans should receive an auto start signal and which parameter provided that signal? A. Fans B007A, B007B, B009A and B009B due to vessel upper head area high temperature. B. Fans B007A, B007B, B008A and B008B due to CRD cavity area high temperature. C. Fans B007A, B007B, B008A and B008B due to vessel upper head area high temperature. D. Fans B008A, B008B, B009A and B009B due to Drywell average air high temperature.

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Final RO Test References: SI-LP-01304 Rev. 01, pg. 16 & 17 of 53 A. Incorrect since drywell cooling fans do not start on vessel upper head area high temperature. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since drywell cooling fans do not start on vessel upper head area high temperature. D. Incorrect since drywell cooling fans do not start on Drywell high average air temperature. 62. 295013AK1.03 001 Unit 1 is operating at 75% RTP with Safety Relief Valve (SRV) "G" leaking to the Suppression Pool. All attempts to reseat the valve have failed. One RHR loop is operating in the Suppression Pool Cooling mode with Suppression Pool temperature at 111 OF and increasing very slowly. Which ONE of the following actions would the crew be expected to take? A. Maximize torus cooling by placing the other RHR loop in operation and continue operating. B. Depressurize the RPV to less than 200 psig within 12 hours. C. Reduce THERMAL POWER until all OPERABLE IRM channels < 25/40 divisions of full scale on Range 7 within 12 hours. D!t Place the reactor Mode Switch in the shutdown position immediately. -. -- w. nA ano.4 .e~orfaA61 I nursaay, November 1i, 2LU0 v

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Final RO Test References: LR-LP-20201-13 Tech Spec Section 3.6.2.1 Suppression Pool Average Temperature PC-1 Primary Containment Control A. Incorrect since this action should have already been performed per PC-1 when Torus temperature went above 100OF. B. Incorrect since this is the Tech Spec action if Torus temperature is > 1200 F. C. Incorrect since this is the Tech Spec action if Torus temperature cannot be restored to < 100°F within 24 hours but it is no longer applicable since the Condition has been exited when the temperature went >1 100F. D. Correct answer per Tech Spec 3.6.2.1 Condition D. 63. 295013AK3.01 001 Unit 2 is operating at 100% RTP. The quarterly HPCI Flow Rate Test was just suspended with the following plant conditions: Torus Cooling Both loops in operation Torus Temperature 105OF and increasing Torus Level 149" and decreasing Which ONE of the following describes the reason for suspending adding heat to the Suppression Pool per Tech Spec section 3.6.2.1? A. Ensures primary containment design limits are not exceeded in the event of a LOCA. B. Preserves heat absorption capabilities of the suppression pool. C. Ensure PCPL is not reached in the event of an emergency depressurization. D. Ensure HCTL is not reached in the event of a LOCA. S---....... 0 onnn4 Oa .o DOA 62 Thnursday, N*ovember* 2 I, 400

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Final RO Test References: Tech Spec Bases 3.6.2.1 A. Incorrect since this is the reason for actions at 120 0F. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since this is the basis for HCTL. D. Incorrect since this is not a basis for suppression cool 64. 295014AK2.03 001 ling action. Which ONE of the following describes the Abnormal Operating Occurances (Plant Transients) which increase fuel temperature? A" Recirc Flow Control Failure-Increasing Flow, Loss of Feedwater Heating, Inadvertent start of HPCI. B. Loss of Shutdown Cooling, Loss of Condenser Vacuum, Recirc Flow Control Failure-Decreasing Flow. C. Loss of Feedwater Heating, Trip of one Recirc Pump, Startup of idle Recirc Pump. D. Recirc Flow Control Failure-Increasing Flow, Loss of Condenser Vacuum, Turbine Trip with Bypass Valves available. References: FSAR section 15.2 A. Correct answer - all occurances increase reactor power and fuel temperature. B, C and D. Incorrect since at least one occurance decreases reactor power and fuel temperature. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:35 PM 63

Final RO Test 65. 295015AA2.01 001 During an ATWS on Unit 2 the Operator performing RC-2 fails to close 2N21-F1 10, SULCV Bypass. RPV pressure subsequently drops to 400 psig with all injection systems still available. Which ONE of the following describes the potential adverse consequences of this condition? A. Core Spray injection will occur diluting boron flow. B. Level will decrease and the MSIV's may close causing a loss of the main condenser and heat sink. C. A significant power excursion could occur due to uncontrolled injection to the RPV. D. Boron mixing will be prevented due to less flow in the downcomer. References: LR-LP-20305 Rev. 04 pg 17 and 18 of 24 A. Incorrect since Core Spray will not dilute boron flow and Core Spray should not be injecting at 400 psig. B. Incorrect since level will increase with this valve open. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since leaving this valve unisolated will not prevent Boron mixing. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:35 PM 64

Final RO Test 66. 295016AK3.01 001 There is an electrical fire in the Control Room and black smoke has made the Control Room inaccessable. If possible, prior to leaving the Control Room the Reactor Operator inserts a manual Scram per 31RS-OPS-O01-IS, Shutdown from Outside Control Room. Which ONE of the following describes why the procedure also has steps to Scram the reactor by de-energizing RPS or actuating the Scram Discharge Volume level switches? A. The Technical Specifications require that Reactor Scram capability from outside the Control Room be maintained. B.3 The FSAR requires the ability for prompt hot shutdown of the reactor from locations outside the Control Room. C. The Technical Requirements Manual requires the capability to Scram the reactor from outside the Control Room. D. The capability for prompt hot shutdown of the reactor from outside the Control Room is not required but is a safe operating practice. References: HNP-2-FSAR-3 pg 3.1-16 and 17. HNP-2-FSAR-7 pg 7.5-5 thru 7.5-10. Procedure 31RS-OPS-001-IS Rev. 3 A. Incorrect since Technical Specifications do not describe how to shutdown the plant from outside the control room. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since the Technical Requirements Manual does not describe how to shutdown the plant from outside the control room. D. Incorrect since it is a requirement to be able to perform a prompt hot shutdown from outside the control room. .~

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Final RO Test 67. 295018AK2.02 001 Unit 1 is in the process of increasing to full load after a refueling outage when a complete loss of stator cooling occurs. The following conditions existed just prior to the loss of stator cooling: Generator output 650 MWe Stator current 17000 amps Stator cooling disch press 90 psig Stator cooling conductivity .5 micro mho Which ONE of the following is the appropriate plant response? A. The turbine will immediately trip causing a reactor scram. B. The turbine will trip if it does not complete a runback to less then 24% load in two minutes. C* The turbine will trip if stator amps are not less than 4500 amps within 3.5 minutes. D. The turbine will trip if stator amps are not less than 15,000 amps within two minutes and less than 4500 amps within 3.5 minutes. (total time = 3.5 minutes) References: SI-LP-02301 Rev. Sl-00, pg 13 of 21 EO 023.001.c.05 A. Incorrect since a complete loss of stator cooling does not cause an immediate turbine trip. B. Incorrect since the runback does not need to be complete until 3.5 minutes have elapsed. Initial amps are less than 19080 so the 2 minute timer does not start. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since 2 minute timer is not in effect. 66 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM

Final RO Test 68. 295020G2.1.20 001 Unit 2 is at 100% RTP with the I & C Technicians in the process of performing the quarterly Main Steam Line Flow - High functional surveillance. The unit scrams due to a Group 1 isolation. Which ONE of the following actions are required to be performed to reset the GROUP 1 signal? A. Confirm all Group 1 valves are closed. Shift Supervisor determines that signal was spurious since I & C Techs were performing a Group 1 surveillance and orders CBO to reset the Group 1 signal. B. Confirm all Group I valves are closed. CBO places all MSIV control switches to 'closed'. Shift Supervisor stops I & C surveillance and verifies Group 1 signal is spurious by checking associated parameters and orders CBO to reset the Group I signal. C. Shift Supervisor stops I & C surveillance and ensures all equipment is back to normal. Shift Supervisor verifies Group 1 signal is spurious by checking associated parameters including radiation monitors and orders CBO to reset the Group 1 signal. D. Confirm that the Group 1 isolation was valid. Do not reset the Group 1 isolation until the plant enters Mode 4 where the instrumentation is not required to be OPERABLE. References: 34AR-603-208-2S Rev. 4.2 Tech Spec 3.3.6.1, Primary Containment Isolation Instrumentation A. Incorrect since the MSIV's are required to have a closed signal applied with the control switches prior to reseting the isolation signal. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since the Operators must verify isolation occurred properly and also give a closed signal to the MSIV's prior to resetting isolation signal. D. Incorrect since the cause of the Group 1 was spurious and you do not need to wait for Mode 4 to reset the Group 1 since nothing is INOPERABLE. ,&, fl fl o,*oa ORA 67 Thnursd]ay, N~ovember 2 1, 200 0uu u:

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Final RO Test 69. 295021AK2.05 001 The following conditions exist on Unit 1: Reactor is in Condition 5 "B" RHR Pump in Fuel Pool Cooling Assist Reactor cavity is flooded Fuel Pool gates are removed Fuel shuffle has just been completed The supply breaker to 1 B RHR Pump has tripped and cannot be reclosed. Fuel Pool temperature starts to increase. Which ONE of the following is the most appropriate action to lower Fuel Pool temperature? A. Place the "A" RHR Pump in Fuel Pool Cooling Assist. B. Feed the Unit 1 Fuel Pool by opening 1G41-F041, Spent Fuel Pool Make-up from CST. Cý' Place the "D" RHR Pump in Fuel Pool Cooling Assist. D. Remove the transfer canal gates and feed the Unit 2 Fuel Pool by opening 2G41-F054, Spent Fuel Pool Make-up from CST. References: Procedure 34AB-G41-001-IS Rev. 2, Loss of Fuel Pool Cooling pg 2 & 3 of 12. Procedure 34SO-EI1-010-2S Rev. 30.3, Residual Heat Removal System pg 65 of 238. Procedure 34AB-E1I-001-1S Rev. 3, Loss of Shutdown Cooling pg 4 of 19. A. Incorrect since "A" RHR Pump cannot be used for Fuel Pool Cooling Assist. B. Incorrect since feeding the Unit 1 Fuel Pool is allowed when there are no other means of cooling available. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since feeding the Unit 2 Fuel Pool is allowed when feeding Unit 1 Fuel Pool cannot be established. -.,- - - - - - -n, ..... t.oo,,oo.oof 68 ITnursday, November 2 1, ,40u2 0 1:36=*i-i~

Final RO Test 70. 295022G2.1.30 001 Unit 2 CRD pump B has been started from the Remote Shutdown Panel. A System Operator (SO) checking the status of the CRD pump reports the following: CRD Pump B is running. CRD Pump B suction valve is closed. CRD Pump B discharge pressure is about 200 psig. CRD Pump B suction pressure is downscale. Which ONE of the following describes how the CRD pump should have responded? AX SHOULD have started but auto tripped on low suction pressure. B. SHOULD have started but auto tripped on low discharge pressure. C. SHOULD NOT have auto tripped because the low suction pressure trip is presently 'bypassed. D. SHOULD NOT have auto tripped because the low discharge pressure trip is presently bypassed. References: SI-LP-05201-00 Rev. 00 Table 8 SI-LP-00101-00 Rev. SI-00 pg 15-17 of 46 A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since the CRD pump doesn't have a trip for low discharge pressure. C. Incorrect since the CRD pump should have tripped on low suction pressure. The LOCA pump trip is bypassed when taking the RSP switch to Emergency and not the low suction pressure trip. D. Incorrect since the CRD pump should have tripped on low suction pressure. The CRD pump doesn't have a low discharge pressure trip. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM 69

Final RO Test 71. 295023AK1.03 001 The refueling time, SRO sup criticality. )rocess (i.e. core offload/reload sequence, moving one component at a 'ervising all core alterations, etc.) is designed to prevent an inadvertent Which ONE of the following is used as a backup to the refueling process to prevent an inadvertent criticality? A. Secondary Containment is OPERABLE. B. Standby Liquid Control is OPERABLE. C. Refueling Interlocks. 0. Mode Switch locked in REFUEL. References: LT-LP-04502 Rev. 03, pg. 9 of 57. A. Incorrect since this does not prevent inadvertent criticality but protects site personnel and public from exposure from an accident. B. Incorrect since SBLC does not prevent inadvertent criticality but it can take care of it once it happens. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the Mode Switch in this position will allow a control rod to be withdrawn. 70 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM

Final RO Test 72. 295024EA1.04 002 Reactor water level Reactor pressure Drywell pressure Drywell temperature Torus pressure Unit 2 has experienced a LOCA with the following conditions present: Reactor is Shutdown -100" 550 psig 12 psig 2650 F 11.5 psig The Shift Supervisor has ordered initiation of Drywell Sprays. In accordance with 34S0-El1-010-2S, Residual Heat Removal System, which ONE of flow rate required to ensure an effective the following is the MINIMUM drywell spray drywell pressure reduction? A. 700 gpm. B.3 5000 gpm. C. 7700 gpm. D. 17000 gpm. References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control Procedure 34SO-ElI-010-2S Rev. 30.3 pg 71 and 72 of 238 A. Incorrect since this is the value for Torus spray flow. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since this is the flow rate to maintain < if using one pump for drywell spray. D. Incorrect since this is the maximum flow rate for the loop. 71 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM

Final RO Test 73. 295025EA1.07 001 Unit 2 is operating at 100% RTP. A turbine trip causes a reactor scram but not all of the turbine Bypass valves open on rising pressure. RPV pressure increases to 1190 psig and reactor water level drops to -32" and is currently increasing. Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the response of the Alternate Rod Insertion (ARI) system? A. ARI WILL automatically initiate due to Rx Low Water Level. B. ARI WILL NOT automatically initiate until RPV water level decreases further. C. ARI WILL automatically initiate due to high RPV pressure. D. ARI WILL NOT automatically initiate until RPV pressure increases further. References: SI-LP-00101 Rev. SI-00, pg 21 - 24 of 46. EO 010.024.1.02 A. Incorrect since the low reactor water level setpoint of -35" has not been reached. B. Incorrect since the high reactor pressure actuation setpoint has already been reached (1170 psig). C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since ARI should have already initiated on high pressure (1170 psig). 72 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:36 PM

Final RO Test 74 295026EK2.04 001 Reference: LT-LP-05601 Rev. 03 Safety Parameter Display System EO 056.002.c.03 A. Incorrect because the average temp must be <1OOOF to be green. B. Incorrect because there are 2 or more imputs to each group and temp is > 100OF so the box should be red. C. Incorrect because there are 2 or more imputs to each group and temp is > 100OF so the box should be red. D. Correct answer since average temp > 100°F and there are 2 or more inputs to each group. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:37 PM 73 Unit 1 is in Mode 1 with the quarterly HPCI Pump Operability Surveillance in progress. The Suppression Pool average temperature is 1020F. The following signals are being sent to SPDS: Group I signals: 4 out of 5 are operable and reading 102 0F. Group 2 signals: 5 out of 5 are operable and reading 103 0F. Group 3 signals: 4 out of 5 are operable and reading 102 0F. Which ONE of the following conditions describes the SPDS indication? A. Green box with the average temp indicated since average temp is <105OF. B. Yellow box with the average temp indicated since all groups have a signal. C. Yellow box with no temp indicated since all signals are not operable. D'. Red box with the average temp indicated since average temp is >100OF.

Final RO Test 75. 295028EK1.02 001 Which ONE of the following is the basis for initiating drywell sprays before the bulk drywell temperature reaches the drywell design temperature limit? A. To prevent increased degredation of structural concrete and release of hydrogen to the drywell. B. To maintain the equipment qualification of the drywell valves above the 185' elevation, capable of removing the full decay heat load following a LOCA. C.' To ensure that equipment within the drywell will operate when required. D. To ensure that the capacity of the suppression chamber - drywell vacuum breakers is not exceeded. Reference: LR-LP-20310-05, p. 59 99 exam question #15 (answers reordered) A. Incorrect since elevated Drywell temperature has no effect release of Hydrogen to the containment. B. Incorrect since initiating drywell sprays has no effect on equipment qualification. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since drywell temperature does not affect the capacity of the suppression chamber to drywell vacuum breakers. .- - - - - - ..... nno , %A n.oo.o Fk A74 I Tursday, November LI, 2VUL U I:36:3, rlVl

Final RO Test 76. 295029EK1.01 001 In accordance with PC-1 PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL, drywell sprays cannot be initiated unless torus level is below 215 inches. Which ONE of the following describes the reason for this restriction? A. The suppression pool-to-reactor building vacuum breaker connections are submerged preventing their operation if needed. Bt" The drywell-to-suppression pool vacuum breakers are submerged which may cause the containment differential pressure capability to be exceeded. C. The suppression pool-to-reactor building vacuum breaker connections are submerged and containment integrity would be lost when they open. D. The drywell-to-suppression pool vacuum breakers are submerged allowing suppression pool water to be siphoned into the drywell. References: LR-LP-2031 0 Rev. 05, pg. 31 of 96 EO 201.072.a.27, 201.073.a.06, 201.075.b.15, 201.076.a.14 A. Incorrect since 215" is concerned with covering the drywell-to-suppression pool vacuum breakers. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since 215" is concerned with covering the drywell-to-suppression pool vacuum breakers. D. Incorrect since covering the vacuum breakers would not result in siphoning water to the drywell. An~ AffOf4 S)n.q7 OKA 75 Thnursday, NoLveberU;I I 1, ,ZUUgI dofl

Final RO Test 77. 295030EK3.03 001 Per the EOP's HPCI is required to be tripped on lowering Torus level but RCIC is allowed to continue to operate if necessary. Which ONE of the following describes why RCIC operation with lowering Torus level is acceptable? A. The exhaust flow rate of RCIC is approximately equal to decay heat and a low Torus level will cause RCIC to trip on low suction pressure. B. Elevated Torus pressure will cause RCIC to trip much sooner than HPCI and Emergency Depressurization is required before the exhaust line is uncovered. C. Low Torus level will cause RCIC to trip on low suction pressure and Emergency Depressurization is required before the exhaust line is uncovered. D.' Elevated Torus pressure will cause RCIC to trip much sooner than HPCI and the exhaust flow rate of RCIC is approximately equal to decay heat. References: LR-LP-20310 Rev. 05, pg. 23 of 96 A. Incorrect since low torus level will not affect RCIC suction trip since it is set at 10" Hg vacuum. B. Incorrect since Emergency Depressurization is not required before RCIC exhaust line is uncovered. C. Incorrect since low torus level will not affect RCIC suction trip since it is set at 10" Hg vacuum and Emergency Depressurization is not required before RCIC exhaust line is uncovered. 0. Correct answer. LI..__ -O.., 07 .O.A 76 ITnursday, N~ovemerlD* 2 I, 400L 0 :.. : lv

Final RO Test 78. 295032EK3.03 001 The SC-SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL EOP requires Emergency Depressurization if 2 or more areas exceed the Maximum Safe Operating Temperature and a primary system is discharging reactor coolant into secondary containment. Which ONE of the following statements explain the reason for this action? A. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate a wide-spread problem which may pose an indirect but immediate threat to secondary containment integrity or continued safe operation of the plant. B. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate substantial degredation of the primary system and may lead to fuel failure if the leaks are not isolated. C'. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate a wide-spread problem which may pose a direct and immediate threat to secondary containment integrity or equipment located in secondary containment. D. The rise in secondary containment parameters indicate substantial degredation of the primary system and emergency depressurization places the plant in the safest condition as quickly as possible. References: LR-LP-20325 Rev. 05, pg 19 and 20 of 40 EO 201.077.a.14, 201.078.a.15, 201.079.a.19 A. Incorrect since condition pose a DIRECT threat to containment, not an INDIRECT threat. B. Incorrect since this condition does not indicate substantial primary system degredation. C. Correct answer. D. rincorrcct cinco this conditin d u i-,lnaicate subsdIIL.i; l primary ayatzi /* degfedatien. zeoers4Y a ... .. .... ... . , .oo.o, nA 77 I hursday, November 21, LUU2 0i :36:t rv'i

Final RO Test 79. 295036EA1.02 001 The following conditions exist on Unit 2: -Sump alarms in the Control Room indicate a leak in the Southwest Diagonal Area of the Reactor Building. -The plant operator reports water level is 15" above 87' elevation and increasing. -The source of the leak has been identified as a fire protection pipe in the room. -No increase in area temperature or radiation has been noted. -No other emergency condition exists at this time. In accordance with SC-SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL EOP, which ONE of the following actions is appropriate? (Provide copy of SC-SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL EOP) A. Shutdown the reactor per the Fast Shutdown procedure. B. Install a submersible pump to lower level; do not isolate the fire system. C. Declare the affected systems INOPERABLE and enter appropriate Tech Spec. Dt. Isolate the fire system header discharging into the area. References: SC - Secondary Containment Control A. Incorrect since the reactor isn't required to be shutdown until area water level in more than one area is above max safe. B. Incorrect since the system discharging into the affected area must be isolated with some exceptions. These exceptions are not met. C. Incorrect since the systems are not required to be declared INOPERABLE just because the area water level is above max normal. D. Correct answer since level cannot be restored to normal with the leak in progress. -. . . . - - ,.,aaaA ot.r1 f~tA78 Thursday, November 2L, /uuL u0 :36:3 riVi

Final RO Test 80. 295037EK2.05 001 Reference: LR-LP-20314 Rev. 03 pg 13 EO 001.034.a.01 A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect. Additional pressure is placed on the underside of the drive piston. C. Incorrect answer. Increasing cooling water Dp has no effect on drive flow. D. Incorrect answer. Increasing cooling water Dp has no effect on drive flow. 79 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:37 PM Unit 2 has scrammed due to low reactor water level. Multiple control rods did not insert and the ATWS procedure is being directed by the Shift Supervisor. The Shift Supervisor has ordered the RO to insert control rods by increasing CRD cooling water differential pressure (dp). Which ONE of the following describes how this action causes control rods to insert? A* Increased cooling water dp puts additional pressure on the underside of the CRDM drive pistons. B. Increased cooling water dp puts additional pressure on the top of the CRDM drive pistons. C. Increased cooling water dp causes driving flow to increase. D. Increased cooling water dp causes driving flow to decrease.

Final RO Test 81. 295037EK3.02 001 An ATWS has occurred on Unit 2 and RCIC is being used to inject boron. The RCIC Minimum Flow Valve F019, has been closed and system flow has been verified to be greater than 122.5 gpm. The Minimum Flow Valve's breaker was then opened to prevent operation of the valve. Which ONE of the following describes the reason that the Minimum Flow Valve was disabled? A. Ensure that the RCIC pump does not go to run out if the Minimum Flow Valve stuck in the open position. B." Ensure that all boron flow is to the Vessel and not to the Suppression Pool. C. Ensure that all boron flow is to the Vessel an not to the CST. D. Ensure that the RCIC pump has the proper amount of cooling flow. References: LR-LP-20320 Rev. 05, pg. 22 of 28. SI-LP-03901 Rev. 00, Figure 1 EO 039.019.a.11, 039.020.a.07 Changed answer D to relate to pump minimum flow requirements. A. Incorrect since RCIC minimum flow valve would still operate at the appropriate setpoints. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since the minimum flow valve goes back to the Torus. D. Incorrect since the amount of flow is what protects the pump from overheating and not whether the minimum flow valve is deactivated. -,1 A4 04 OflO n ~ORDA 80 I nursday, INovebIIueI 2 I, cUWc U I .QU.

Final RO Test 82. 295038EA2.03 002 Reference: LR-LP-20325 Rev. 05, pg 26,29 EO 201.082.a.09 A. Incorrect answer. This is a bases for the 1000 mr/hr entry to RCA. B. Incorrect since .57 corresponds to an alert action level. C. Incorrect answer. This is a bases for the 1000 mr/hr entry to RCA. D. Correct answer. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:38 PM 81 Which ONE of the following describes the basis for an offsite radioactivity release rate of 0.57 mr/hr as an entry condition to Radioactive Release Control (RR)? A. Represents an immediate threat to the continued health and safety of the public. B. Corresponds to an entry into a Site Area Emergency in the Emergency Plan. C. Indicates a primary system break which cannot be isolated. D. Represents a release rate that is higher than expected during normal plant operations but does not pose an immediate threat to the public.

Final RO Test 83. 295038EK2.03 001 As a result of maintenance the control room ventilation system is aligned to the Isolation Mode. A subsequent off-site release resulted in the initiation of a Main Control Room air intake high radiation signal. Which ONE of the following describes the impact the high radiation signal has on the continued operation of the Control Room HVAC System? A. Since the control room ventilation system is not in the Normal Mode then the Control Room Operator must manually initiate the Pressurization Mode per 34S0-Z4 1-001-1S, Control Room Ventilation System. B. The Control Room Ventilation System will remain in the Isolation Mode until the high radiation signal clears. Then the Control Room Operator must realign the system to the Normal Mode. C. 1Z41-F016, Outside Air Intake Damper will automatically open along with the filter inlet valves. This will place the Control Room Ventilation System in the Pressurization Mode to protect the Control Room personnel. D. The Control Room Ventilation System will automatically shift to the Purge Mode. The Control Room Operator must start the exhaust fan and ensure 1Z41-F018A(B), Suction Damper is open. References: INPO exam bank (Fermi) 34SO-Z41-001-1S Rev. 17 pg 8 - 12 of 33 A. Incorrect since the Control Room HVAC System will automatically shift to the Pressurization Mode upon high inlet radiation levels. B. Incorrect since the Control Room HVAC System will automatically shift to the Pressurization Mode upon high inlet radiation levels. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the Control Room HVAC System will automatically shift to the Pressurization Mode upon high inlet radiation levels. -.-- --- ,-~eann .oo'~onA82 Thursday, November z2, 2002 u i o IoVov

Final RO Test 84. 300000K6.12 001 References: LT-LP-03501-03 Rev. 03 pg 49 of 97 LT 03501 Fig. 03 EO 200.025.a.01 A. Correct answer since the Drywell is de-inerted for ongoing work and nitrogen is not available to operate the valves. B. Incorrect since this supply is isolated when the drywell is de-inerted. C. Incorrect since this supply is isolated when the drywell is de-inerted. D. Incorrect since these bottles cannot be lined up to supply the MSIV's. Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:38 PM 83 Unit 1 is in cold shutdown with repairs being performed on the 1 B Recirc Pump seals. The inboard MSIV's are being stroked for surveillance purposes to determine closing times. A LOSP has occurred and the supply breakers have tripped on undervoltage for the Station Service Air Compressors (SSAC's). Which ONE of the following describes how this will affect the ability to stroke the inboard MSIV's on Unit 1? A." They have failed closed due to the loss of motive force as the Station Service Air Receivers bleed down. B. They may still be operated normally since the Backup Nitrogen Supply valve automatically opens at 90# pressure to supply the motive force. C. They may each be operated once after the Emergency Nitrogen Supply bottles are valved in manually. D. They may still be operated normally since the normal nitrogen makeup is supplying the motive force to operate the valves.

Final RO Test 85. 400000A4.01 001 Unit 1 is operating at 100% RTP with the following lineup for RBCCW pumps: "A" RBCCW Pump Running "B" RBCCW Pump Running "C" RBCCW Pump Auto not running Which ONE of the following is the expected plant response from a trip of 4160V Bus 1 G assuming no operator action is taken? A. No change is plant status as the "C" RBCCW pump has lost power but was not running. B. "A" RBCCW pump trips; "C" RBCCW pump cannot start due to a loss of power; Recirc pump, RWCU NRHX outlet, and CRD pump temperatures increase; Recirc pumps trip due to Recirc M-G set high oil temperatures. C. "B" RBCCW pump trips; "C" RBCCW pump auto starts at 90 psig system pressure; Recirc pump, RWCU NRHX outlet, CRD pump and Recirc M-G set oil temperatures do not measurably change. D. "A" AND "B" RBCCW pumps trip; "C" RBCCW pump auto starts at 90 psig; Recirc pump, Recirc M-G set, RWCU NRHX outlet and the running CRD pump temperatures increase; Recirc M-G set and CRD pumps eventually trip on high temperatures. References: LT-LP-02703-03 Rev. 03 pg 48-49 of 63. SI-LP-00901-00 Rev SI-00 pg 13 of 25 EO 200.014.a.05 A. Incorrect since the "C" RBCCW pump auto starts to maintain RBCCW system pressure. B. Incorrect since the "B" RBCCW pump is the one that trips. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the loss of the 2G Bus does not affect the "A" RBCCW pump. S .. . . . . o^.., oooo,,84 Thursday, November 21, 20UU U01:36:38 riVI

Final RO Test 86. 500000EA1.01 001 After a scram on Unit 2, Reactor Water Level decreases to 0" before being restored to the normal band. When a high Drywell temperature is observed the Shift Supervisor enters the Primary Containment flowcharts. The Shift Supervisor directs H20 2 Analyzers to be placed in service. Which ONE of the following is required to start the H20 2 Analyzers? A. No action is required since the H20 2 Analyzers should be running due to an automatic start signal. B. Depress the H20 2 analyzer reset pushbuttons on the 2H1-1-P700 panel. C. Place the 2P33-S16/$17 LOCA OVERRIDE switches in Bypass on the 2H11-P700 panel. D. Place the 2P33-S25(B)A mode switches in ANALYZE on the 2P33-P601 B(A) panels. References: 34SO-P33-001 A. Incorrect since the analyzers do not have an auto start signal. B. Incorrect since the isolation signal is present and it must be bypassed, action would otherwise be correct. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since the isolation signal is present ain it must be bypassed, otherwise the action would be correct. 85 Thursday, November 21, ZUU0 U2 0*6:8 I'VI

Final RO Test 87. 600000AA2.06 001 A fire has been reported outside the Turbine Building which is producing large amounts of smoke. The Fire Brigade has been dispatched and the Brigade Leader reports back that the fire is under control. He also expresses a concern that the Control Room may get smoke drawn into the ventilation. Per 34AB-X43-O01-2S, Fire Procedure, which ONE of the following describes the action the Control Board Operator (CBO) should take? A. Place the control room ventilation system in the Purge mode. B. Maintain the control room ventilation in the normal lineup until the fire is out. C' Place the control room ventilation system in the isolation mode. D. Secure control room ventilation until the fire is out and the smoke clears. References: 34AB-X43-001-2S, Fire Procedure Rev. 10 ED 6, pg 2 of 77. A. Incorrect since the purge mode will draw in more outside air. B. Incorrect since this lineup still draws in outside air. C. Correct answer per step 4.6. D. Incorrect since the control room ventilation system should not be secured under these circumstances. 88. G2.1.10 001 Which ONE of the following is the maximum power level authorized for Unit 2 operation in accordance with Tech Specs? A. 897 MWe B. 943 MWe C. 2763 MWt D. 2816 MWt Lr....~..-0.4 l~fO 0 .oaoo tLA86 Thursday, N~ovember;* 41I, 4.00U 0 :.UO

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Final RO Test References: Tech Specs Section 1.1 pg 1.1-4. 99 Hatch exam question #9 A. Incorrect since MWe is not discussed in the license. B. Incorrect since MWe is not discussed in the license. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since wrong number. 89. G2.1.2 001 Unit I has just declared a General Emergency due to offsite radioactivity release rates reaching 10OOmR/hr. Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate duties that would be performed by the Control Room Reactor Operator? AX Perform offsite dose assessment calculations as appropriate. B. Activate the Emergency Response Teams and establish communications with the NRC. C. Complete the Emergency Page Announcement Guide as appropriate and initiate site evacuation per the Emergency Plan. D. Assist the Emergency Director with protective action recommendations and take actions to mitigate the consequences of the event. References: 73EP-EIP-005-0 Rev. 6 pg 3-7 of 8. A. Incorrect since the Control Room Operator doesn't activate the Emergency Response Teams. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since the Control Room Operator doesn't initiate site evacuation. D. Incorrect since the Control Room Operator doesn't perform protective action recommendations. , _ .. -L-.-.fl

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Final RO Test 90. G2.1.29 001 During a valve lineup, an operator needs to check a valve in the throttled position. It is noted that the valve has a locking device installed. Which ONE of the following describes the actions the operator should perform? A. Leave the locking device installed and perform a locking device operability check only. B. Leave the locking device installed, verify mark on stem matches the appropriate position established when the valve was initially positioned. C. Unlock the valve, turn the handwheel in the closed direction for 1 full turn to verify the valve is throttled, reopen the valve 1 full turn and install the locking device. D. Unlock the valve, turn the handwheel in the closed direction and count the number of turns until it is seated, reopen the valve to the appropriate position and install the locking device. References: LT-LP-30004 Rev. 04 pg 36 of 64 EO 300.022.a.06 Modified the question from a locked open valve to a throttled valve. Question #85 on 1995 SRO exam. A. Correct answer. B. Incorrect since there is not a mark on the stem when the valve is initially positioned. C. Incorrect since the valve should not be operated to verify position. D. Incorrect since the valve should not be operated to verify position. -, -

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Final RO Test 91. G2.1.32 001 You have just been notified by the SOS that solvent based painting is scheduled to be performed in the Reactor Building which covers an area of the floor approximately 200 ft2. The SBGT system takes a suction from this area when the system is in operation. Which ONE of the following describes the effect of running the SBGT System under these conditions and the actions that should be taken prior to commencing painting? A. The paint fumes increase the load on the SBGT fan. The CBO for each Unit should log that SBGT cannot be started for 4 hours after painting is complete. B. The paint fumes will contaminate the SBGT Charcoal filters if the system is started while painting is in progress. Both SBGT switches should be placed in OFF until painting is complete. C0. The paint fumes will contaminate the SBGT Charcoal filters if the system is started within 4 hours of completing the painting. Tags should be hung on the SBGT Fan control switches stating "SOLVENT BASED PAINTING IN PROGRESS". D. The paint fumes could start a fire in the SBGT Train due to the heater being on when the system initiates. Both SBGT switches should be placed in OFF until painting is complete. Reference: 34SO-T46-001-2S Rev. 14 Pg 3 A. Incorrect since the paint fumes do not increase the load on the SBGT system. The fumes affect the operation of the charcoal filters. B. Incorrect since you do not place the SBGT control switches in OFF when painting is in progress. C. Correct answer per 34SO-T46-001-2S Precaution 5.1.4. D. Incorrect since the paint fumes could not start a fire in the SBGT train and you do not place the SBGT control switches in OFF when painting is in progress. 89 Thursday, November 21, 2002 U1:36N:39 PM

Final RO Test 92. G2.2.1 001 Unit 2 is in a startup and is currently at approximately 20% RTP. A heat balance has been performed and indicates that Core Thermal Power is 23% RTP. The APRM readings should be adjusted such that A. each APRM is reading between -2% to +2% of the heat balance value. B* each APRM is reading between 0% to +2% of the heat balance value. C. each APRM is reading between -2% to 0% of the heat balance value. D. each APRM is reading between -1% and +1% of the heat balance value. References: 34GO-OPS-001-2S Rev. 35.1 pg 33 of 61. Unit 2 Tech Specs Section 3.3.1.1 (SR 3.3.1.1.2) A.l Incorrect since the value must be between 0 and 2%. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect since the value must be between 0 and 2%. D. Incorrect since the value must be between 0 and 2%. 93. G2.2.13 001 During an outage on Unit 1, the 1A Core Spray pump motor has been replaced. The maintenance department has asked to momentarily start the pump to check for proper rotation. Which ONE of the following should the SS/TDO perform in order to support this? A. Release the applicable subclearance that applies to the MWO being worked. B. Release all subclearances that require the 1A Core Spray pump to be tagged. C'. Issue a temporary release after verifying all subclearance holders concur. D. Ensure that the maintenance department is using personalized danger tags. 90 Thursday, November 21, 2UUZ U0:3 6:39 PM

Final RO Test References: 30AC-OPS-001-OS Rev. 23 pg 62-65 of 94. Previous exam 95-SRO-01 test question #89. changed Shift Supervisor to SS/TDO and resequenced answers. A. Incorrect since can't release subclearances until all work is done. B. Incorrect since can't release subclearances until all work is done. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since still need temporary release from other holders. 94. G2.2.3 001 The "B" CRD pump can be operated from the Remote Shutdown Panel AND the Control Room with the Emergency Transfer Switch (ETS) in a certain position. Which ONE of the following describes the position of the Remote Shutdown Panel ETS and the Unit that is affected which will allow this to occur? A' ETS in NORM on Unit 1. B. ETS in NORM on Unit 2. C. ETS in EMERG on Unit 1. D. ETS in EMERG on Unit 2. References: SI-LP-05201 Rev. 00 pg 8 of 56. A. Correct answer. B,C and D. Incorrect since Unit 1 has a switch configuration which allows equipment to be operated from the control room or the RSDP with the Emergency Transfer Switch in the NORM position. If it is the EMERG position then the equipment can only be operated from the RSDP. .. . .. . ........... n 91 Thursday, November 21, ZUU2 Ul :36:39

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Final RO Test References: LT-LP-30008-02 Rev.2 pg 7 and 8 of 28 SRO exam 95-01 test question #92. Modified the question from LDE limit to SDE limit and changed appropriate answer. A. Incorrect since this is the annual admin limit for TEDE. B. Incorrect since this is the annual LDE limit. C. Incorrect since this is the 10 CFR annual LDE limit. D. Correct answer. 96. 02.3.2 001 Health Physics technicians have surveyed the main steam chase during an outage and obtained the following results: Area Dose Rates one foot from the source: 75 mR/hr Airborne Concentration: .23 DAC Smear Results: 650 dpm/100cm2 Bases on these results which ONE of the following states how the area should be posted? A. Contaminated Area. B. Airborne Radioactivity Area. C. Radiation Area. D. High Radiation Area. Thursday, November 21,2002 01:36:39 PM 92

Final RO Test References: LT-LP-30008 Rev. 2 pg 13-17 of 28 SRO exam 95-01 question #93. Changed numbers in stem but with same results and reordered answers. A. Incorrect since < 1OOOdpm/100cm2. B. Incorrect since < .3 DAC. C. Correct answer. D. Incorrect since < 100 mR/hr. 97. G2.4.12 001 Unit 1 was operating at 50% RTP when a steam leak in the Drywell caused a Reactor Scram on High Drywell Pressure. The Shift Supervisor entered all appropriate EOP's for this condition and ordered Torus Sprays to be initiated per PC/P leg. Subsequently, Drywell Temperature increased to 160 0F. Which ONE of the following states the appropriate action for the crew to take in this situation? A. The Control Board Operator announces the new Entry Condition for PC-1 Primary Containment Control. The Shift Supervisor circles this entry condition and continues on in the PC-1 Primary Containment Control flow chart at the current steps. B. The Control Board Operator announces the new Entry Condition for PC-1 Primary Containment Control. The Shift Supervisor circles the entry condition and orders actions for Drywell Temperature leg only. C. The Control Board Operator continues to place Torus Sprays in service and updates the crew at the next Brief that Drywell Temperature has increased >1500F. D.' The Control Board Operator announces the new Entry Condition for PC-1 Primary Containment Control. The Shift Supervisor circles the entry condition and re-enters all legs of PC-1 Primary Containment Control. 93 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:39 PM I

Final RO Test References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control Rev. 4 30AC-OPS-01 3-OS Rev. 9.1 pg 5 of 10. A. Incorrect since Shift Supervisor must re-enter all legs of the flow chart. B. Incorrect since Shift Supervisor must re-enter all legs of the flow chart. C. Incorrect since Control Board Operator should immediately announce an entry condition into the EOP's. D. Correct answer. 98. G2.4.16 001 Unit I is operating at 100% RTP. Drywell temperature has been increasing steadily and is currently at 2750F and increasing. All other parameters are within their normal operating band. Which ONE of the following describes the proper directions and sequence of events to the point of placing the Mode Switch in Shutdown? (Provide RO copy of RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) and PC-1 PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL) A. Enter RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) at Point A due to Drywell High Temperature. Place the Mode Switch in Shutdown per RC-1 then enter PC-1 to control Drywell temperature. B. Enter PC-1 when Drywell Temperature exceeds 150 0F. Enter RC RPV CONTROL at point A before Drywell Temperature reaches 3400 F. Perform RC-1 to manually scram the reactor and place the Mode Switch in Shutdown. C. Enter RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) due to a condition which requires a reactor scram and reactor power is above 5%. Perform RC-1 to manually scram the reactor and place the Mode Switch in Shutdown. Dt. Enter PC-1 when Drywell Temperature exceeds 150 0F. Enter RC RPV CONTROL at point A before Drywell Temperature reaches 2800F. Perform RC-1 to manually scram the reactor and place the Mode Switch in Shutdown. 94 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36U:4U PM

Final RO Test References: RC RPV CONTROL (NON ATWS) Rev. 6 PC-1 PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL Rev. 4 A. Incorrect since this is improper sequence for getting to the point of placing the Mode Switch in Shutdown. B. Incorrect since you enter RC RPV CONTROL "before" drywell temperature reaches 2800 F. 340OF is associated with Unit 2. C. Incorrect since RC RPV CONTROL is entered from PC-1 PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL. D. Correct answer. G2.4.43 001 "ýýi.e has been reported by the Unit 1 EHC skid and the Fire Brigade has been dispa tc* .. Which ONE of the wing describes how the Shift Supervisor maintains constant communications with the d from the Main Control Room? A. A hand held radio dedicated to U annel 2. BýVFbs tto eiated to VHF Channel 2.*-. 44dý &* C. UHF base station dedicated to VHF_ Channel 1.

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D. A hand held radio dedicated to VHF Channel 2. References: LT-LP-10004 Rev. 03 pg 15 of 19. LO LT-10004.008 A. Incorrect since hand held radios are not used in the Control Room. B. Correct answer. C. Incorrect answer since the base channel is VHF and uses Channel 2. D. Incorrect since hand held radios are not used in the Control Room. 95 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:40 PM

Final RO Test 100. G2.4.47 001 The following conditions exist for Unit 2 at the indicated times: 0200 0300 0400 Reactor Power 100% 85% 60% Reactor Water Level +37" +37" +35" Drywell Pressure 1.3 psig 1.5 psig 1.7 psig Torus Pressure .9 psig 1.1 psig 1.2 psig Torus Level 150" 137" 123" Torus Temperature 850F 850F 860F Which ONE of the following indicates the status of the plant when the operator turns over to the next shift at 0700 if current trends continue as they are? A. Reactor in Mode 3 with Drywell Sprays in progress. B. Reactor in Mode 3 with a cooldown in progress at <lOOOF/hr. Cf HPCI operation is prevented and Emergency Depressurization has been initiated. D. Recirc pumps and drywell cooling fans are tripped. Torus cooling and sprays are initiated. References: PC-1 Primary Containment Control Rev. 4 Att. 1 A. Incorrect since drywell sprays are not initiated until you cannot stay below 11 psig torus pressure or 340°F Drywell temperature. Current trends do not come close to these limits. B. Incorrect since an Emergency Depressurization is required prior to 0700 due to torus level <98 inches. This will exceed 100OF cooldown rate. C. Correct answer due to lowering torus level. At 110 inches then HPCI is prevented from operation and at 98 inches the reactor is depressurized. D. Incorrect since drywell coolers and recirc pumps are not directed to be tripped unless conditions noted in A above are met. You have completed the test! 96 Thursday, November 21, 2002 01:36:40 PM

NRC EXAM 2002 PLANT HATCH WRITTEN EXAM REFERENCE BOOK MASTER RO

RO References - NRC Exam 2002 1. Unit 2 CRD Simplified Diagram 2. Unit 1 Tech Spec Section 3.5.1 3. Unit 1 EOP Graph 9 (CS VORTEX) 4. Unit 1 EOP Graph llA (CS NPSH) 5. Unit I EOP Graph 11B(CS NPSH). 6. Unit I Tech Specs Section 3.7.4 7. Unit 2 EOP Graph 5 (BIIT) 8. Unit 2 Secondary Containment Control (SCC) EOP Flowchart 9. Unit 1 RC RPV Control (Non-ATWS) EOP Flowchart 10. Unit 1 Primary Containment Control (PC-i) EOP Flowchart

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. .. . .. . ... .-. t... . .. .... * -* ' .- . . .. ECCS - Operating 3.5.1 3.5 EMERGENCY CORE COOLING SYSTEMS (ECCS) AND REACTOR CORE ISOLATION COOLING (RCIC) SYSTEM 3.5.1 ECCS - Operating LCO 3.5.1 APPLICABILITY: Each ECCS injection/spray subsystem and the Automatic Depressurization System (ADS> function of six of seven safety/relief valves shall be OPERABLE. MODE 1, MODES 2 and 3, except high pressure coolant injection (HPCI) and ADS valves are not required to be OPERABLE with reactor steam dome pressure:s 150 psig. A tIflNSO M t'ý I

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, I. CONDITION A. One low pressure ECCS injection/spray subsystem inoperable. REQUIRED ACTION I . A.1 Restore low pressure ECCS injection/spray subsystem to OPERABLE status. t I B. Required Action and associated Completion Time of Condition A not met. B.1 Be in MODE 3. AND B.2 Be in MODE 4. I t C. HPCI System inoperable. C.1 Verify by administrative means RCIC System is OPERABLE. AND C.2 Restore HPCI System to OPERABLE status. COMPLETION TIME 7 days 12 hours 36 hours 1 hour 14 days (continued) Amendment No. 204 HATCH UNIT 1 3.5-1 I

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,crrq.tI 1ywr.u q9.I.r?¶'7.'.'r - 1 ECCS - Operating 3.5.1 ACTIONS (continued) CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME D. HPCI System inoperable. D.1 Restore HPCI System 72 hours to OPERABLE status. AND OR One low pressure ECCS injection/spray subsystem D.2 Restore low pressure 72 hours is inoperable. ECCS injection/spray subsystem to OPERABLE status. E. Two or more ADS valves E.1 Be in MODE 3. 12 hours inoperable. AND OR E.2 Reduce reactor steam 36 hours Required Action and dome pressure to associated Completion < 150 psig. Time of Condition C or D not met. F. Two or more low pressure F.1 Enter LCO 3.0.3. Immediately ECCS injection/spray subsystems inoperable. OR HPCI System and two or more ADS valves inoperable. Amendment No. 204 HATCH UNIT 1 I 3.5-2

ECCS - Operating 3.5.1 SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY SR 3.5.1.1 Verify, for each ECCS injection/spray subsystem, 31 days the piping is filled with water from the pump. discharge valve to the injection valve. SR 3.5.1.2 --

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Low pressure coolant injection (LPCI) subsystems may be considered OPERABLE during alignment and operation for decay heat removal with reactor steam dome pressure less than the Residual Heat Removal (RHR) low pressure permissive pressure in MODE 3, if capable of being manually realigned and not otherwise inoperable. . Verify each ECCS injection/spray subsystem 31 days manual, power operated, and automatic valve in the flow path, that is not locked, sealed, or otherwise secured in position, is in the correct position. SR 3.5.1.3 Verify ADS air supply header pressure is 31 days > 90 psig.. SR 3.5.1.4 Verify the RHR System cross tie valve is closed 31 days and power is removed from the valve operator. SR 3.5.1.5 (Not used.) SR 3.5.1.6 --.....-------------.--- NOTE - ........------------- Only required to be performed prior to entering MODE 2 from MODE 3 or 41 when in MODE 4 > 48 hours.

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Verify each recirculation pump discharge valve 31 days cycles through one complete cycle of full travel or is de-energized in the closed position. (continued) c yr ' £ 3.5-3 . To Amendment No. 211 HATCH UNIT 1

ECCS -Operating 3.5.1 SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS (continued) SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY SR 3.5.1.7 Verify the following ECCS pumps develop the In accordance with specified flow rate against a system head . the Inservice corresponding to the specified reactor pressure. Testing Program SYSTEM HEAD CORRESPONDING NO. OF TO A REACTOR SYSTEM FLOW RATE PUMPS PRESSURE OF CS a 4250 gpm 1 a 113 psig LPCI >17,000 gpm 2 a 20 psig SR 3.5.1.8 SR 3.5.1.9 SR 3.5.1.10 -

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NOTE- -..................- Not required to be performed until 12 hours after reactor steam pressure and flow are adequate to perform the test. .........-------------------------....---------------- Verify, with reactor pressure < 1058 psig and ? 920 psig, the HPCI pump can develop a flow rate a 4250 gpm against a system head corresponding to reactor pressure. -. .--------------------- NOTE- -...................---- Not required to be performed until 12 hours after reactor steam pressure and flow are adequate to perform the test.

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=-------...-.--..--------...------------- - Verify, with reactor pressure < 165 psig, the HPCI pump can develop a flow rate > 4250 gpm against a system head corresponding to reactor system pressure.

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Vessel injection/spray may be excluded. -

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Verify each ECCS injection/spray subsystem actuates on an actual or simulated automatic initiation signal. 92 days 24 months 24 months S Amendment No.-232 HATCH UNIT 1 tcomn[lUeU) 3.5-4

ECCS - Operating 3.5.1 SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS (continued) SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY SR 3.5.1.11

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NOTE --.........--------------- Valve actuation may be excluded. ---

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Verify the ADS actuates on an actual or simulated 24 months automatic initiation signal. SR 3.5.1.12 Verify each ADS valve relief mode actuator 24 months strokes when manually actuated. Amendment No. 232 HATCH UNIT 1 I 3.5-5

GRAPH 9 UNIT 1 CORE SPRAY VORTEX LIMIT 73 68 63 58 53 dO -. I r r I I SAFE __ __ - = = S C,) 0 00 7, / 1000 2000 3000 4000 CORE SPRAY FLOW (gpm) NOTE: Ma- -7 e SPDS Emergency Displays in place of this Graph. 7 / 5000 ) 7 T11

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. .. '**i ..-. w.. r:** :*:**;;.Ip '*3f l "* -v-r7; - ,- " '* T'rr* '*' " -n -r-J'** MCREC System 3.7.4 3.7 PLANT SYSTEMS 3.7.4 Main Control Room Environmental Control (MCREC) System LCO 3.7.4 Two MCREC subsystems shall be OPERABLE.

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The main control room boundary may be opened intermittently under administrative control. APPLICABILITY: AflTIf'NI* MODES 1, 2, and 3, During movement of irradiated fuel assemblies in the secondary containment, During CORE ALTERATIONS, During operations with a potential for draining the reactor vessel (OPDRVs). CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME A. One MCREC subsystem A.1 Restore MCREC 7 days inoperable, subsystem to OPERABLE status. B. Two MCREC subsystems B.1 Restore control room 24 hours inoperable due to boundary to inoperable control room OPERABLE status. boundary in MODE 1,2, or 3. C. Required Action and C.1 Be in MODE 3. 12 hours associated Completion Time of Condition A or B AND not met in MODE 1, 2, or 3. C.2 Be in MODE 4. 36 hour(s (continued) Amendment No.-225 HATCH UNIT 1 3.7-8

MCREC System 3.7.4 Amendment No. 225 HATCH UNIT 1 CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME D. Required Action and

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associated Completion Time LCO 3.0.3 is not applicable. of Condition A not met

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during movement of irradiated fuel assemblies in D.1 Place OPERABLE Immediately the secondary containment, MCREC subsystem in during CORE pressurization mode. ALTERATIONS, or during OPDRVs. OR D.2.1 Suspend movement of Immediately irradiated fuel assemblies in the secondary containment. AND D.2.2 Suspend CORE Immediately ALTERATIONS. AND D.2.3 Initiate action to Immediately suspend OPDRVs. E. Two MCREC subsystems E.1 Enter LCO 3.0.3. Immediately inoperable in MODE 1, 2, or 3 for reasons other than Condition B. (continued) 3.7-9

MCREC System 3.7.4 ACTIONS (continued) CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME F. Two MCREC subsystems

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inoperable during LCO 3.0.3 is not applicable. movement of irradiated fuel

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............----------------- assemblies in the secondary containment, F.1 Suspend movement of Immediately during CORE irradiated fuel ALTERATIONS, or during assemblies in the OPDRVs. secondary containment. AND F.2 Suspend CORE Immediately ALTERATIONS. AND F.3 Initiate action to Immediately suspend OPDRVs. SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY SR 3.7.4.1 Operate each MCREC subsystem > 15 minutes. 31 days SR 3.7.4.2 Perform required MCREC filter testing in In accordance with accordance with the Ventilation Filter Testing the VFTP Program (VFTP). SR 3.7.4.3 Verify each MCREC subsystem actuates on an 24 months actual or simulated initiation signal. (continued) Amendment No.,232 HATCH UNIT 1 C 3.7-10

7 77 MCREC System 3.7.4 SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS (continued) SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY SR 3.7.4.4 Verify each MCREC subsystem can maintain a 24 months on a positive pressure of 2 0.1 inches water gauge STAGGERED relative to the turbine building during the TEST BASIS pressurization mode of operation at a subsystem flow rate of S 2750 cfm and an outside air flow rate s 400 cfm. Amendment No. HATCH UNIT 1 3.7-11 232

GRAPH 5 0 06 BORON INJECTION INITIATION TEMPERATURE

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-"" " "/ / . 150 / "*:" NUNSAFE 140/ 120- S .. S 110 ': " " 100 S.A 1( IAf?* 1 1 16 18 20 REACTOR POWER (%) NOTE: May use SPDS Emergency Displays in place of this Graph. UNIT 2

2 3 4 1 5 1 x ,2 7 8 9 A Ale Amloaebte.t oriaelerial temer~ature above>ý Table 4 Maximum Normal Opaeuraro TemperatureJ C reaor d t ai Tgrabl aninm NoraOpatgWleLvl Ar or HVA C extraus ra*dmeflato onna ve (Toe 0 Maximum Mnoran Opomling Rpodoron Lane) Ditroeatkl areoo ,raatoaho, e 0 in, bof waer 10 11 PLANTE EI ATCH. 00 XFJ.DV iV ArSCONf N CoNloe 311E0-EOP-14-2S [ REV. 0 1 ATTACHMENT I 8WROG EPG/SAG REV. I 4. In atfectnd areas. La se nodary contarnmenl radiation condition does NOT exist THEN operla tIe il fao ,r -: o Retool Floor HVAC pea N4SO-T411006-25 O Reactor Suildbg HVAC par 3450-T4I-*002-S WAIT UNTIL are amnbient or dilferenlial torsarittare Maximum NormlOeaig. eprtr IsaolaeALL uomems discharging [Io arema EXCEPT syslerm remained to: "O assreadnq*nle cola cooling O sltut down reactor "O suppress cre o nilaiait pr wnnryconlalnmant PnlegRFy I , PERFORM CONCUIRRENTLY WAIT UNTIL hinto aorudar cortxaineal (Table?) BEF OR E ANYmarea i etmb fmienlordia anlitampeela mache MaimuamSated. .perti. Temperlarar (Tahta 4)p PERFORM CONCURRENTLY RC(A) pointA WAIT UNTIL area embleml or drmereI~rtrapeoro Mnoinmtm Sale Opertin TeAmpertur to mar Ibaamnon area (Table 4) (EMERGENCY DEPRESS IS REQUIRED in mOore tht at are fl SECONDARY CONTAINMENT Table 4 OPERATINGTEMPERATURES to Norma Max nate AMBIENT TEMP (2821B-15127S) Ciet Deamni on 2H11-P614, 2G31-R604 yalta Valu 150, Ft PVATION AREA* *RWC U I A ptIrp room (SoUth) (2G31-N 1A 150 215 2 0 pump room (Norh)(2G31.N16B) 1 21 3 Hx Room (2031-NO16)C) 4 HX Room (2G31-NO1D)1 5Pharse Sops TI, Room (2G31-N_0ISE)__ s -50 215 A~100PtWATIONAREAZitWCU 6 RWCU Valve NeSt (2G31.NO16F) 150 215 NORTH4EASOTDAGONALAREA 7 RR4JCSA(2E11-NIOOA) _19 190 H o RHIC0S (2E1-NO*B) IS 190 "* Rump Room (2641-N024 107. 245 10 EmerAor Cr (2E4-P-NO3OA) 107. 245 11 E.a,Ma Cir (2E41-NOtO8) l67.5 245 RCI 12 Pump Room (251-NOII) 107.5 10 13 EnterArea CIr(2E51-N023A) 1075 310 14 EmeAer aro Dir 2ES1.N0238) 07.0 310 15 Went Watl (2E51-N025A) 107.6 212.5 10 NothweasuWall (2E51.NO25B) 1. 2 17 Normneas Wall (20E51-N025C) 7 22E 10 SoutheastWall 2E1N25D7.5 212. hMAtH *T*AM LINE TUNNEL AREA 19 2B21-114 HP(i PIpF PFNF TRATION ROOM 116 2E4.246 I 2E4V1NO46AB 17.0 212.0 I's a r Safe DIFF TEMP (2821 B-2) zn Operan g

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on2Hll-P614, 2031 -R 08 L VFl. F 150. P1 FVATIDON ARFA rRWCIUI SA pump room (2G31-1N22A=123A) 2 B pump room (2G31-N022B1N023B) 3 Ho Room (2G31-NO22Ct1N023C) 4 Ho Room (2G31-N022D0N)23D) 5 Phase Sap T1, Rooem-2G3I.N,022Er1402E). ALEOFFVATIONARE6EIrRCU 6 RWCU Valve Neas (2G31-NO22F1*023F) NORTHEAST DIAGONAL AP 7 IS4IVCSA (2o1410N29AdNO0A) 3QOUTHEAST DAGONAL AREA 8 RHRICS B (2E11-N029B/N030S) TOBt I ROMU ARmo 13 2E51 -NO4206r27A 14 2E51N02NSCW027B IS 2E51-N026CDN027C _MIN RTEAM I NE TUNNEl AREA 17 2B2.O1WA$N016B 1I 67 67 07 07 07 67 40 40 42 42 42 42 70 21 SO 90 99 09 74 74 95ý gB 9e .50 r" T SPRIMARYCONTAINMONTFLOODING IHEU aejrttheOPoard [O IS OR HAS SEEN RE.UIRED cr.er the Severe AcdentoorCdeinesm I My Unit I or Unit 2 secondar coetainnent' m confrm KVAC exhaust radiation level exceeds tre I o Unit land Unit 2 Reactor Buiding isolaston eporpnt (Table 14) I HVAC isoatIon 0 Unit I and UtIh 2 Refuel Floor HVAC notatioen 0 Unit I and Unit 2 BST iglateion I per 34AR-T22-0O3-2s If Refuel FIlor NYAC isolates TI reslad Retaol Floor HVAC per Ift 34SO-T41ý006-2S A Un.1 I or Unit 2 se.ndry orsttalnmert I If necesnad defeat high dIveeli preasure rdiaston cormeswiItO does NOT extstow RWL Ifolaslia int.erlcks "I er 31 EO-EOP-I00-2S SReaclor Building HAVAC lates andum resin React1*R Bualing HVAC per 811. t 34SO-T41005-2S X Unit 1 or Unit 2 reaorduty co.lait.erat I If , ecensat detour high drynelt preasurt redWaon cromditeo does NOT emist I owR L ootatlon roterlocha I par S100OEOp-10'-2S PERFORM CONCURRENTLY SCIL WAIT UNTtL ONE of ha foll i OTtit 0~ole At~ **lt bearMi leemow Mevimu Normal Operaing Water Leel bTlere 5)Lee O Ay floor dr ain stutp waleer ana o MN area wale, tenet Opeatecatabte turnspspumps to~h rgaestor admInto~ wale r rnet alEXEw Maxiems IE ONE at the followng CANNOT be restor m n Sianuale bel Msrinm Nor Oporseing Walter Loane (Tab 5): O Miy floor drainsuunpw~ralber toa THEN isolateALL sytems dlacarobahglregwaer Into strep or uram EXCEPT Syorens Irnegidty F PERPORM CONCURRENTLY WAIT UNTIL is discargin re~uactrcoran (reaw.) BEFORE MANY aea waler leve eact Maorm~unSfie OperasnoWallerLevel ANY ubleS ) PERFORM CONCURRENTLY RC(AO motA WAIT UNTIL Iradrea waleWoe Mxmeiaboplnfxve iaLe axmu SafeOeaigW atrLee IrmIene tbnnonerearea (Table 5)) (EMERGENCY DEPRESS IS REGQUIRED SECONOARYCONTAIN1MIENT Table 5 OPERATINGWATiERUIEVELS ~Max cm udx*ft AREA WATERILEVELMANUNCIATORS Opereerperen, on 2Hl1-POi Va*." Value SOUTISWESTDIAGONAl ABEA 1 RB S.W DIAGONAL FLOOR WRN SUMP LEVEL HIGH (657-033)(2T45IN007) 2 CRO S-W DIAG INSTR SUMP LVL EIGH-HIGH-HIGH (6574032) (2T45-N005) 3 RB S.E DIAGONAL FLOOR DRN SUMP HIGH-HIGH (657-024) (2`45-4OO) 4 RHR.CS S-E DIAG INSTR SUMP LVL HIGH-HIGH-HIGH (657-103) (2T4S-N003B) NDRTHWIFRT D)IAGONAL AO FA 5 RCIC NWDIAG INSR SUMP LVL HIGH-HIGH-HIGH (057-014) (2145-004) NORTHEAST DIAGiONAC ARE A 6 RHR-CS N-E DrAG INSTR SUMP LVL HIGH-NIGH-HIGH (657,016) (2T45-N003A) 7 HPCI COMPT INSLR SUMP LEVEL HIGH-HIGH (657,066) (2T4S-N001) 8 TORUS N-E AREA INSTR SUMP LVL HIGH-HIGH-HIGH (657.013) (2T45-NOO2A) 9 TORUS S-E AREA INSTR SUMP ELVL HIGH-HIGH-HIGH (6674031) (2CT45-N002di) 10 TORUS N-WAREAINSTR SUMP LVL HIGH-HIG1I-HIGH (657-049) (2T45-N002C) 11 TORUS S-WAREAINSTR SUMP LVL HIGH-HIGH-HIGH (657.067) (2T45-N0020) 3 4 High High High High High High High High High HIgh High High High High High High High High High High High High High High High High High High 20 in. above 87' .1, above 22 In, abov*e 14 in. above 14 In. above atxatm Ill.L above 87'er. 5 WAIT UNTiL. awn water level in above Marnimax, Sate Operaline Waler Level in 1110w than one urea (TableS) Shot dawn reactor per 34E0-OPS-013-25 or 24G0-OPS-a14-25 Tbe6SECONDARY CONTAINMENT able 6 OPERATING RADIATION LEVELS Mx Norad Maor"ato HVAC EXHAUST RADIATION ANNUNCIATORS Speritg Cra on 2HII-PRO Value Wse Radiatiorn NA REACTO* Arilt DIN1G pRXI - RBE BLDG POT CONTAM AREA RAOIATION 9.5 SA 12D1 -5<09 AGO) REFUELING Ra MR - REFUEUNG FLOOR VMN"T EXHAUST RAIATION 16.0 NPA (2011-K6011 A-fl) -REFUELING FLOORVENTEXHAUST RADIATION 0.9 WA (2011.K634 A.D - REFUELING FLOOR VENT EXHAUST RADIATION 0.7 WA (2011H.K6)A-D) AREA RADIATION MONITORS operaCg a on 21Hl4-P600, 2D21-POOO Vitle0 I Refoor 10adydownren (2021.,01A00 2 D1rW"sev"upn(2021KeOIEI n 10 3 Spent Feil Pool & New FUel 00oraga (2021-tIM) SO 1000 4 Reastora lessatpn ReW

• 00,a RO2l-KOIIKl

5 ReaCtorVemat Refusing Floor (2D21-K611L) 0 1 253, El flAT1N AROFA iFOATI 6 CR0 Irairaea (2021K01T) O 100 90fl*' DpFANTO ARPA (WEET1 K601 SO01000 ft Spent htel pool pitaageavay 12D21.0 000p O RB 1E*nvepppwng floor(2D21-K601R) 50 1000 10 R 85eriarl paneal e.e (201n-K01S) so 10 1n RB 185 RWCU tunel panel (4,21-K601U) 150 ItW 1mar ELEVAT0ON AREAtNORTN1 2 RB 1W8 area N-E (2021.K6OC) GO -3R8. Wr.a mN-W O2D21 -K10) 0 1000 15W ELEVATION AREA 150 5OT+/- 04 RB l* max, S-E (2021-KntB) Ed 100r 15 Dnomepump and egugean unlomra area 158' 12D21-KnlL) 0 1(0) 301 ELEVATION AREA WNORTI-;oEST) I Sp area (2D21M-t,0eF) 50 100 130 ELEVATION AREAO(NORTH EAST) 17 RB 130'N-EewumgaoeinaD(2021-K6IG) 1 13' ELEVATIONAR*$ASOUTH SP) 10 Soutt CR0 HCU )021-01001N) W30 ELEVATION AREA fSOUTHAFEST) 19 RB I 1W O-WwYdarlng area (I2O-K 01I) NORTOVNEST DIAOONAL AREA SO RCIC .ormo N-Wdlgonr(01-<0 SOUTSIWOST DIAGONAL AREA 21 CR0 pump S-W diagonal (20=I-t<0WI) NORTHEAST OIAGONAL AREA 22 CS& RHER .diagonrl (2021-K05Iy) SOUHEAT IAGIALAREA 2M CS & RHRl SES diagnool (2D2i-KOOIY) O0 1000g tOOD I0 1000 So 100 6 1 7 ,1001 1end SIC' WAIT UNTIL lOegate ALL ystm cdischaorgltn iIo aron EXCEPT systems teaqoirhd to: o asstreaeduqtiate cote cod~ing o shot doln macnor o suppress trel o ma*n*in pmrno i lealnent sntat ity PERFORM CONCURRENTLY WAIT UNTIL is discharnn~iog ecor coomant (Tabl 7) T ' BEFORE JANYM urA railoatonermaca Maximum Sae, Oeaing Radertlon Level (Table 0) PERFORM CONCURRENTLY RC(A)polnIA WAIT UNTIL aremardiatons aver Mdaximum Sara OperatrrguRadation Level CEMERGENCY DEPRESS IS REQUIIRED WAIT" UNTIL,1300le 7 e34 we1 Beito ne RR -RADIOACTIVITY RELEASE CONTROL C* 0sile radldachrb y raeea r e rate above s ra,5 re6l "WHILE PERFORMING THE FOLLOWING it JE PRIMARYCONTAINMENT FLOODING 1IM exi IS OR HAS BEEN REQUIRED I Se WMILE PERFORMI4G THE FOL t the EOPs and entertite vraeAtddent Guldel.r.s LLWINIG iE Tubte Bunildig HVAC Is shutdown MEN restarl Turl* Bulldog HVAC as reutlred per 3450U41-001-25 J Isolale ALL ptmatrynyslema drscharging reactor "oolant t1o nrea oultsde pmrenry end necondaty contalnments (Table?7) ma!noregr.i outy inms(Ro7 EXCEPT systems required 00: o as uar adequat corea Cooida O shuoodowireacoor omaintaln prmarycotannent WAIT UNTIL primty Wtle in Table? rato icedargigre~cader cooan comoeadrnentsWn BEFORE oEfRol . Ora ctollaseP rate macares EMEGECYDERES SR EURE Table 7 PRIMARYSYSTEMS P soartm 50,01m dklnurgkng Into area Is dermaedl REACTOR COOLANT teak from: o CRD 0"CDC O Core Spery o Reactor aam*peng O Freedwler o RWCU O HIM O RHR O Mantleniurn o SBLC O MaIn slteam drains Afystem e comnsidred a 'pima. oysoemW if owerang reactor pes..r Would reduce Mhe henk rate tram the unialed system. 8 1 SECONDARYCONTAINMENTWtVAC Table 14 "EMHUST RADIATION ISOLATION SETPOINTS HVAC EXHAUST RADIATION ANNUNCIATORS lsotooor on 1(2)HIIP601 wna -UNTI RX BLOGPOTCONTAMsAREA lb (1D11.-KO0A-D) -UNIT 1 REFUELING FLOOR VENT EXHAUST 18 (IDII-K611A-D) - UNIT 2 RX BLDG POT CONTA, MAREA 9.5 (2D011-K6g0-l) - UNIT 2 REFUELING FLOOR VENT EXHAUST (2D11"K611A.D) -UNIT2REFUELING FLOOR VENT WEXHAUST (2O11-1<34A-D) -UNIT2REFUELING FLOORVENTEXHAUST (2D11.K635A.D) 9I 5.7 10 11 1 SC - SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL A C D E IF B C D E F G HI J K J K

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