ML103400274

PV-2010-11-DELAYED Release -DRAFT Written Exam

ML103400274
Person / Time
Site:	Palo Verde
Issue date:	11/05/2010
From:	Division of Nuclear Materials Safety IV
To:	Arizona Public Service Co
References
PV-2001-11
Download: ML103400274 (274)

Text

1 ID: Q22660 Points: 1.00Question 1 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

KA STATEMENT:

TECHNICAL

REFERENCE:

JUSTIFICATION:

Question 1 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

2 ID: Q6331 Points: 1.00 Question 2 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:TECHNICAL

REFERENCE:

KA STATEMENT:

JUSTIFICATION:

Question 2 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

3 ID: Q22668 Points: 1.00 Question 3 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:KA STATEMENT:

TECHNICAL

REFERENCE:

JUSTIFICATION:

Question 3 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

4 ID: Q43744 Points: 1.00 Question 4 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: KA STATEMENT:

TECHNICAL

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JUSTIFICATION:

Question 4 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

5 ID: Q43773 Points: 1.00

Question 5 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: TECHNICAL

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KA STATEMENT:

JUSTIFICATION:

Question 5 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

6 ID: Q22656 Points: 1.00 Question 6 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: TECHNICAL

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KA STATEMENT:

JUSTIFICATION:

Question 6 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

7 ID: Q22625 Points: 1.00

Question 7 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:TECHNICAL

REFERENCE:

KA STATEMENT: JUSTIFICATION:

Question 7 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

8 ID: Q22663 Points: 1.00

Question 8 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:TECHNICAL

REFERENCE:

KA STATEMENT:

JUSTIFICATION:

Question 8 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

9 ID: Q7243 Points: 1.00 Question 9 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 9 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

10 ID: Q43812 Points: 1.00

Rev 0 Question 10 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 43812 User-Defined ID: Q43812 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q43812 Blackout action to maintain subcooling Num Field 1:

4.1 Num Field 2:

4.4 Text Field:

4.1 055 EK1.02 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Steam Tables Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO08, BLACKO UT / 40DP-9AP13. BO Tech Guideline K&A:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Station Blackout : Natural circulation cooling.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - Conditions per Blackout of 24 0F superheat are not met, therefore action is required to restore subcooling.

B. Incorrect - Raising RCS pressure would improve subcooling, but the conditions of blackout do not support energizing of heaters.

C. Incorrect - Raising PZR level will not support Natural Circulation conditions, also the conditions of blackout do not support the use of a charging pump.

D. Correct - Per Step 21 Blackout EOP, if the conditions are met, ENSURE proper control of steam generator steaming and feeding.

Question 10 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

11 ID: Q43745 Points: 1.00

Question 11 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 11 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

12 ID: Q43746 Points: 1.00

Question 12 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 12 Table-Item Links

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Question 13 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

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K&A:

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Question 13 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

14 ID: Q10499 Points: 1.00

Question 14 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 14 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

15 ID: Q43742 Points: 1.00

Question 15 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 15 Table-Item Links

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16 ID: Q43747 Points: 1.00

Question 16 Info

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Technical

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17 ID: Q43748 Points: 1.00 Question 17 Info

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18 ID: Q43818 Points: 1.00

Question 18 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 18 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

19 ID: Q43761 Points: 1.00

Question 19 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

A.

Question 19 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

20 ID: Q22435 Points: 1.00

Question 20 Info

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification: Per UIC16 Rev 0. Current Simulator Setup. Updated from 2008 RO NRC Exam.

Question 20 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

21 ID: Q43762 Points: 1.00Question 21 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 21 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

22 ID: Q7819 Points: 1.00

Question 22 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

Reference:

K&A: JUSTIFICATION:

Question 22 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

23 ID: Q43774 Points: 1.00Question 23 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Question 23 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

24 ID: Q8251 Points: 1.00 Question 24 Info

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 24 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

25 ID: Q22624 Points: 1.00

Question 25 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 25 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

26 ID: Q7654 Points: 1.00

Question 26 Info

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Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 26 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

27 ID: Q10330 Points: 1.00 Question 27 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

JUSTIFICATION:

Question 27 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

28 ID: Q43793 Points: 1.00

Question 28 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 28 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

29 ID: Q22665 Points: 1.00

Question 29 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

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Question 29 Table-Item Links

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30 ID: Q22671 Points: 1.00 Question 30 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Question 30 Table-Item Links

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31 ID: Q22673 Points: 1.00Question 31 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Question 31 Table-Item Links

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32 ID: Q22674 Points: 1.00

Question 32 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 32 Table-Item Links

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33 ID: Q22675 Points: 1.00

Question 33 Info

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Question 33 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

34 ID: Q22676 Points: 1.00

Question 34 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

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Question 34 Table-Item Links

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35 ID: Q43775 Points: 1.00

Question 35 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

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36 ID: Q22677 Points: 1.00Question 36 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Question 36 Table-Item Links

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37 ID: Q22678 Points: 1.00

Question 37 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:Justification:

Question 37 Table-Item Links

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38 ID: Q10462 Points: 1.00

Question 38 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:Justification:

Question 38 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

39 ID: Q43763 Points: 1.00

Question 39 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 39 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

40 ID: Q1409 Points: 1.00

Question 40 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 40 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

41 ID: Q4649 Points: 1.00

Question 41 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:Justification:

Question 41 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

42 ID: Q43776 Points: 1.00Question 42 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:Justification:

Question 42 Table-Item Links

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43 ID: Q43777 Points: 1.00 Question 43 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 43 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

44 ID: Q43752 Points: 1.00

Question 44 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:Justification:

Question 44 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

45 ID: Q43765 Points: 1.00

Question 45 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 45 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

46 ID: Q4713 Points: 1.00

Question 46 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 46 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

47 ID: Q43816 Points: 1.00

Question 47 Info

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 47 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

48 ID: Q10344 Points: 1.00 Question 48 Info

Question 48 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

49 ID: Q43817 Points: 1.00 Question 49 Info

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Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 49 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

50 ID: Q4831 Points: 1.00 Question 50 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 50 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

51 ID: Q22680 Points: 1.00 Question 51 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 51 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

52 ID: Q43756 Points: 1.00 Question 52 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 52 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

53 ID: Q9362 Points: 1.00

PCWSYSTRBLPCW DISCH PRESS HI/LO

Question 53 Info

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 53 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

54 ID: Q8375 Points: 1.00Question 54 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A: Justification:

Question 54 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

55 ID: Q43767 Points: 1.00Question 55 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 55 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

56 ID: Q22681 Points: 1.00

Question 56 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:Justification:

Question 56 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

57 ID: Q43769 Points: 1.00

Question 57 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 57 Table-Item Links

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58 ID: Q22683 Points: 1.00 Question 58 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Question 58 Table-Item Links

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59 ID: Q43753 Points: 1.00Question 59 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Justification:

Question 59 Table-Item Links

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60 ID: Q22685 Points: 1.00Question 60 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Question 60 Table-Item Links

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61 ID: Q43732 Points: 1.00

Question 61 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:Justification:

Question 61 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

62 ID: Q10487 Points: 1.00

Question 62 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

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K&A:

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Question 62 Table-Item Links

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63 ID: Q43770 Points: 1.00 Question 63 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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Question 63 Table-Item Links

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64 ID: Q43771 Points: 1.00 Question 64 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

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Question 64 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

65 ID: Q5534 Points: 1.00

Question 65 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

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K&A:

Justification:

Question 65 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

66 ID: Q43733 Points: 1.00Question 66 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 66 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

67 ID: Q43778 Points: 1.00 Question 67 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 67 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

68 ID: Q21189 Points: 1.00ECRP -500 pcm......... ECRP......................... ECRP +500 pcm........

Question 68 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 68 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

69 ID: Q43734 Points: 1.00 Which ONE of the following describes the Reactor Core Safety Limits for DNBR and Peak Fuel Centerline temperature?

DNBR shall be maintained at ____(1)____ and Peak Fuel Centerline temperature shall be maintained < _____(2)____.

A. (1) 1.34 (2) 5080 F B. (1) 1.40 (2) 5000 F C. (1) 1.28 (2) 5150 F D. (1) 1.30 (2) 4950 F Answer: A Question 69 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

2.00 System ID: 43734 User-Defined ID: Q43734 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q43734 RX CORE SLs Num Field 1:

4.0 Num Field 2:

4.7 Text Field:

2.2.22 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

Technical Specifications K&A: Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

Justification:A. Correct - These are the Safety Limits.

B. Incorrect -The safety limit used to be 21 KW/FT but it is no longer used as a safety limit. It is still calculated and will result in a CPC trip.

C. Incorrect - The safety limit used to be 21 KW/FT but it is no longer used as a safety limit. It is still calculated and will result in a CPC trip.

D. Incorrect - The safety limit used to be 21 KW/FT but it is no longer used as a safety limit. It is still calculated and will result in a CPC trip.

Question 69 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections Q - Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.0 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source New O - RO Tier Group Designations Tier 3 Q - RO Exam 2010 RO NRC

Associated objective(s):

Concerning Technical Specifications state the Safety Limits and describe the bases behind these limits in accordance with the Tech Specs.

Rev 0 70 ID: Q43779 Points: 1.00 Which ONE of the following would require entry into a ONE hour or less LCO condition while in Mode 1, steady state conditions?

A. One LPSI Train Inoperable.

B. One Automatic RPS trip channel Inoperable.

C. Containment average air temperature not within limits.

D. One Safety Injection Tank (SIT) Pressure stable at 560 psig.

Answer: C Question 70 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 43779 User-Defined ID: Q43779 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q43779 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> actions for systems Num Field 1:

3.9 Num Field 2:

4.5 Text Field:

2.2.39 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE

Technical

Reference:

Tech Specs

K&A: Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour Technical

Specification action statements for systems.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - This is a 7 day action per TS 3.1.1.

B. Correct - This is a 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> action per TS 3.3.1.

C. Incorrect - This is a 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> action per TS 3.6.5.

D. Incorrect - This is a 24 hour2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> action per TS 3.5.1.

Rev 0 Question 70 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.41 (10) Administrative, normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures for the facility.

Q - Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.9 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source New O - RO Tier Group Designations Tier 3 Q - RO Exam 2010 RO NRC Associated objective(s):

apply the one hour or less actions statements of T.S. 3.3

71 ID: Q43737 Points: 1.00Question 71 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 71 Table-Item Links

Associated objective(s):

Rev 0 72 ID: Q43738 Points: 1.00 The following information is posted on a survey map outside a room you are about to enter. General Area Radiation levels of 500 mrem/hr. Swipes of 150,000 dpm/100cm

2.

The posting of this room should be a ...

A. Radiation Area (RA) and Contamination Area (CA).

B. High Radiation Area (HRA) and Contamination Area (CA).

C. High Radiation Area (HRA) and High Contamination Area (HCA).

D. Locked High Radiation Area (LHRA) and High Contamination Area (HCA).

Answer: C Question 72 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 43738 User-Defined ID: Q43738 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q43738 RADIATION AREAS Num Field 1:

3.4 Num Field 2:

3.8 Text Field:

2.3.14 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

Radwoker Training Handout K&A: Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - RA > 5 mrem/hr, CA > 1000 DPM/100cm 2 B. Incorrect - HRA > 100 mrem/hr, CA > 1000 DPM/100cm 2 C. Correct - HRA > 100 mrem/hr, HCA > 100,000 DPM/100cm 2 D. Incorrect - LHRA > 1000 mrem/hr, HCA > 100,000 DPM/100cm 2

Rev 0 Question 72 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.41 (12) Radiological safety principles and procedures.

Q - Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.4 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source Modified PV Bank O - RO Tier Group Designations Tier 3 Q - RO Exam 2010 RO NRC Associated objective(s):

Radiological Questions. Radworker Training.

1 ID: Q22574 Points: 1.00 Question 1 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Radiation areas are 5 to 100 mrem/hr Contamination areas are 1000 to 100,000 dpm/100cm 2 A is Wrong - B is Correct -

C is Wrong - D is Wrong -

Question 1 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

73 ID: Q43739 Points: 1.00 Question 73 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 73 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

74 ID: Q43780 Points: 1.00

Question 74 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

Reference:

K&A:

Justification:

Question 74 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

75 ID: Q7166 Points: 1.00

Question 75 Info Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Question 75 Table-Item Links Associated objective(s):

Rev 2 1 ID: Q22629 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions Unit 1 tripped due to a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP). SPTAs are in progress.

Subsequently:

RCS pressure is 1800 psia and trending down slowly. The RO has throttled HPSI. Containment temperature is 150°F and rising slowly. Containment pressure is 2.7 psig and rising slowly. RU-1 (CTMT ATMOSPHERE) is in ALERT and rising slowly. Pressurizer level is 8% and stable. RCS subcooling is 40°F and stable. AFB-P01 (Essential Motor Driven Aux Feed Pump) is feeding both Steam Generators. Steam Generator #1 is 50% WR and rising. Steam Generator #2 is 45% WR and rising.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response?

The CRS will direct entering-A. 40EP-9EO03 (LOCA) and re-initiate HPSI flow to restore PZR level.

B. 40EP-9EO05 (ESD) and isolate #2 SG to prevent CTMT overpressure.

C. 40EP-9EO04 (SGTR) and feed #1SG 1360 - 1600 gpm to restore SG level.

D. 40EP-9EO07 (LOOP/LOFC) and isolate RCP seal bleed off to protect the RCP seals.

Answer: A Rev 2 Question 1 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

2.00 System ID: 22629 User-Defined ID: Q22629 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q22629 SRO EOP GEN analyze whether it is permissible to throttle HPSI flow. Num Field 1:

4.2 Num Field 2:

4.4 Text Field:

2.2.44 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO10, Appendix 2 figures, 40EP-9EO03, LOCA.

K&A: Ability to interpret control room indi cations to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.

Justification:

A. Correct - Pzr Level criteria is not met per standard appendix 2 page 3 of 3. Parameters are consistent with a LOCA inside CTMT. CTMT conditions are not harsh.

B. Incorrect - ESD is differentiated by a higher subcooling and rising trend, isolating the faulted SG is the correct mitigation strategy per ESD EOP. ESD is plausible due to the energy being released to CTMT is an indication of ESD.

C. Incorrect - CTMT conditions do not support a SGTR. RCS leak is evident, during a SGTR the LOCA will be contained in the secondary system, therefore the CTMT environment would not change. The indicated level mismatch is easily explained due to normal plant response post trip.

D. Incorrect - LOOP has occurred which makes this a plausible distracter, only the LOOP EOP does not address the RC Inventory Control Safety Function therefore LOOP is not the appropriate EOP.

Rev 2 Question 1 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.4 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

analyze whether it is permissible to throttle HPSI flow.

Rev 1 2 ID: Q43750 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 has been operating at 100% power for 7 days following a refueling outage. A small leak has been identified on the discharge piping of CHA-P01, charging pump A. Charging has been secured until the leak can be isolated. Letdown has been secured due to the charging pump leak. Pressurizer level is 50% and lowering slowly. NCN-P01A, Nuclear Cooling Water pump A is under clearance and unavailable.

Subsequently:

While taking down scaffolding the supply breaker for 4.16 KV bus NBN-S02 is inadvertently tripped. RCP LO NC FLOW alarms are LIT on B04.

Which ONE of the following actions is required?

A. All RCPs must be secured within 3 minutes unless cooling water flow is restored per 40A0-9ZZ03 (Loss of Cooling Water).

B. If charging flow is restored within 3 minutes then the RCPs can run indefinitely per 40A0-9ZZ04 (RCP Motor Emergencies).

C. If charging flow is restored within 10 minutes then the RCPs can run indefinitely per 40A0-9ZZ04 (RCP Motor Emergencies).

D. All RCPs must be secured within 10 minutes unless cooling water flow is restored per 40A0-9ZZ03 (Loss of Cooling Water).

Answer: A Rev 1 Question 2 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 43750 User-Defined ID: Q43750 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q43750 SRO when to secure RCPs Num Field 1:

3.7 Num Field 2:

3.7 Text Field: 4.2 015/017 AA2.10 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

40AO-9ZZ03, Loss of Cooling Water AOP.

K&A: Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow): When to secure RCPs on loss of cooling or seal injection Justification:

A. Correct - Candidate must determine that the RCPs are with out seal injection. This is the correct action for a Loss of NC flow with no seal injection available. Loss of Cooling Water AOP will direct this action. Loss of NBN-S02 results in a Loss of Power to NCN-P01B (NCW Pump B). This causes a loss on NC Flow.

B. Incorrect - RCP operation is allowed for 10 minutes with seal injection flow available without NC flow. RCP Emergencies directs you to the Loss of Cooling Water AOP.

C. Incorrect - RCP operation is allowed for 10 minutes with seal injection flow available without NC flow. RCP Emergencies directs you to the Loss of Cooling Water AOP.

D. Incorrect - RCP operation is allowed for 10 minutes with seal injection flow available without NC flow. Loss of Cooling Water AOP would correct but the time limit is wrong.

Rev 1 Question 2 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.7 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

describe the limitations on RCP operation without NC

Rev 1 3 ID: Q10275 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

SPTAs are in progress. 525 kV switchyard voltmeters East and West indicate 000 volts. Both EDGs have powered their respective class buses. CDN-PI-47 indicates that Main Condenser pressure is 12 inches HgA and continuing to rise. SG levels are being restored by AFB-P01 (Ess Motor Driven Aux Feed Pump). RCS Tcold is being controlled at 562 0F with ADVs. Ess Spray Pond pump "B" has tripped due to an 86 lockout. RO attempted to start AFN-P01 (Non-Ess Motor Driven Aux Feed Pump), but all attempts to open CTA-HV-1 (AFN-P01 Suction Valve) have failed. AFA-P01 (Ess Turbine Driven Aux Feed Pump) is running with a maximum discharge pressure of 900 psia.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate success path?

The CRS should enter...

A. 40EP-9EO02 (Reactor Trip) and feed using AFB-P01.

B. 40EP-9EO09 (Functional Recovery) and feed using AFB-P01.

C. 40EP-9EO06 (Loss of all Feedwater) and feed using condensate pumps.

D. 40EP-9EO07 (Loss of Offsite Power/Loss of Forced Circulation) and feed using AFA-P01. Answer: B Rev 1 Question 3 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

4 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 10275 User-Defined ID: Q10275 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q10275 - analyze whether or not entry into the LOAF EOP is appropriate Num Field 1:

4.2 Num Field 2:

4.4 Text Field:

2.2.44 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Steam Tables Technical

Reference:

EOP Operations Expectations & 40EP-9EO01, Standard Post Trip Actions K&A:

Ability to interpret control room indi cations to verify the status and operation of l a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and l system conditions.

Loss of Offsite Power Justification:

A. Incorrect - AFB-P01 is powered from PBB-S04. The Loss of Offsite Power indicated by the 000 volts has caused both EDGs to start and power their respective electrical bus. EDG 'B' must be emergency stopped due to the 86 lockout on Ess Spray Pond Pump 'B'. Therefore PBB-S04 is de-energized resulting in AFB-P01 losing power. AFN-P01 is po wered from PBA-S03, which is still energized but will not start due to its suction valve being failed closed. Therefore the Rx trip EOP entry conditions are no longer met.

B. Correct - CRS should realize that only available feed source is AF pump "B" and it must be powered by the "A" DG which requires

entry into the FRP.

C. Incorrect - Loss of offsite power precludes the use of Condensate pumps D. Incorrect - AFA-P01 discharge pressure is too low for a T-cold of 562 0F. SG Pressures are 1150 psia.

Rev 1 Question 3 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.4 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2007 SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

analyze whether or not entry into the LOAF EOP is appropriate

Rev 2 4 ID: Q22645 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power. The quarterly Surveillance Test on EDG 'A' is in progress. EDG 'A' is paralleled to Off-Site power, PBA-S03B (EDG 'A' Output Breaker) is closed. EDG 'A' is carrying 5000 KW.

Subsequently:

PKA-M41 faults and is de-energized.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response?

A. Enter 40AO-9ZZ12 (Degraded Electrical) to restore PBA-S03.

B. Enter 40AO-9ZZ13 (Loss of Class Inst and Cntrl Power) to restore PBA-S03.

C. Enter 40AO-9ZZ12 (Degraded Electrical) and trip PBA-S03B due to the EDG 'A' tripping and PBA-S03B remaining closed.

D. Enter 40AO-9ZZ13 (Loss of Class Inst and Cntrl Power) and trip PBA-S03B due to the EDG 'A' tripping and PBA-S03B remaining closed.

Answer: D Rev 2 Question 4 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select

on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

2.00 System ID: 22645 User-Defined ID: Q22645 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q22645 SRO APE LOSS of DC Num Field 1:

4.6 Num Field 2:

4.6 Text Field:

2.1.20 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40AO-9ZZ13, Loss of Class Instrument and Control Power.

K&A: Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps. Loss of DC.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - PBA-S03 is still supplied by offsite power. Therefore entry conditions for Degraded Electrical AOP are not met. Operator may think Loss of Clas s DC control power will cause EDG to trip. Similar to Loss of Non Class DC bus NKN-M45.

B. Incorrect - Loss of Class instrument and control power will not address direct restor ation of PBA-S03.

C. Incorrect - Degraded Electrical AOP does not provide direction to trip the EDG.

D. Correct - EDG 'A' is now being back fed from the grid due to the Loss of tripping power resulting in the motoring of the EDG 'A', must trip the EDG 'A' output breaker to prevent damage to the EDG per Sect 3.0 step 2 of 40AO-9ZZ13.

Rev 2 Question 4 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.6 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

determine if the Loss of Class Instrument or Control Power AOP should be executed Rev 2 5 ID: Q9469 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power. SPTAs are in progress. RCS pressure 2150 psia and rising. Tcold 560°F and rising. DFWCS is in Reactor Trip Override with 0 gpm to each SG. 13.8 Kv non class bus NAN-S02 has a fault and is de-energized. DG "B" is out of service for scheduled maintenance. Class 125 VDC Battery Bus PKC-M43 is de-energized due to an unrelated fault.

Which ONE of the following recovery procedures is designed specifically to mitigate this set of symptoms?

A. 40EP-9EO06 (LOAF).

B. 40EP-9EO02 (Reactor Trip).

C. 40EP-9EO07 (LOOP/LOFC).

D. 40EP-9EO09 (FRP - MVDC).

Answer: B Rev 2 Question 5 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

2 Difficulty:

4.00 System ID:

9469 User-Defined ID: Q9469 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q9469 SRO CE EPE whether or not entry into the Reactor Trip EOP is appropriate Num Field 1:

2.7 Num Field 2:

3.7 Text Field:

4.4 E02 EA2.1 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE

Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip procedure / 40EP-9EO01, SPTAs

K&A: Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Reactor Trip Recovery): Facility cond itions and selecti on of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - Feedrate is correct for current plant conditions. RTO does not feed with Tavg < 564 0F. Operator may see 0 feedrate and choose LOAF EOP.

B. Correct - The indications are within the Rx trip Entry conditions and Safety Functions, therefore entering Rx Trip EOP is correct.

C. Incorrect - Indications of a Partial Loss of Offsite power, NAN-S01 is not listed as de-energized therefore LOOP is not the correct EOP.

D. Incorrect - PBB-S04 is still energized from offsite power, the candidate may interpret the electric plant status not to meet the MVDC safety function in Rx Trip. MVDC safety function directs restoration of a vital DC bus.

If examinee believes that PBB-S04 was de-energized due to the loss of PKA-M43, this would appear to be correct.

Rev 2 Question 5 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.7 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2009 SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

analyze whether or not entry into the Reactor Trip EOP is appropriate

Rev 0 6 ID: Q10273 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 tripped from 100% power. SIAS, CIAS, MSIS, and AFAS-1 have initiated. The RCS is in natural circulation due to a Loss of Offsite power (LOOP). Steam Generator #1 pressure is 750 psia and dropping rapidly. Steam Generator #1 level is 8% WR and dropping rapidly Steam Generator #2 pressure is 940 psia and slowly lowering. Steam Generator #2 level is 37% WR and slowly lowering. Auxiliary feedwater flow is >

2000 gpm to steam generator #1. Auxiliary feedwater flow is 0 gpm to steam generator #2. HPSI pump "B" tripped due to a ground fault. AFN-P01 tripped due SIAS initiation. SPTAs have just been completed.

Which ONE of the following EOPs should the CRS enter?

A. 40EP-9EO05 (Excessive Steam Demand).

B. 40EP-9EO07 (Loss of Offsite Power/Loss of Forced Circulation).

C. 40EP-9EO09 (Functional Recovery Procedure) - HR-2 is jeopardized.

D. 40EP-9EO09 (Functional Recovery Procedure) - MVAC-2 is jeopardized.

Answer: A Rev 0 Question 6 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 10273 User-Defined ID: Q10273 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q10273 EOP Select the ESD procedure Num Field 1:

2.7 Num Field 2:

4.0 Text Field:

4.4 E05 EA2.1 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

EOP Operations Expectations & 40EP-9EO01, Standard Post Trip Actions

K&A:

Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations. Steam Line Rupture - Excessive Heat Transfer Justification:

A. Correct - SIAS, CIAS, MSIS and AFAS-1 are consistent with an inside CTMT ESD on SG 1. There should be no AFW flow to SG 1 due to a high D/P lockout at 185 psia, but it has failed.

B. Incorrect - Examinee may choose LOOP/LOFC due to the Loss of Offsite Power.

C. Incorrect - Examinee may choose HR-2 due to no AFW flow to SG 2 and the tripping of AFN-P01. Excessive AFW flow to #1 SG should be corrected by the board operator once it is known. This is not expected.

D. Incorrect - Examinee may choose MVAC-2 due to the tripping of AFN and HPSI pump B.

Rev 0 Question 6 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.0 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

describe the mitigating strategy outlined in the ESD EOP

Rev 0 7 ID: Q10381 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 tripped on Low SG pressure caused by a steam line break. SG 1 pressure is currently 1170 psia being controlled by ADVs. SG 2 pressure is currently 1180 psia being controlled by ADVs. 4160 bus PBA-S03 has faulted and is de-energized. Both SG levels are 20% WR and slowly lowering. AFA-P01 has tripped on overspeed. AFB-P01 has tripped due to an 86 lock-out. Feed rate to both SGs is 0 gpm. All appropriate ESFAS actuations have initiated.

Which ONE of the following is appropriate to restore the RCS Heat Removal Safety Function?

A. Establish feed using a Main Feedwater pump after 40EP-9EO06 (LOAF) is entered. B. Reset AFA-P01 overspeed trip and establish feed prior to exiting 40EP-9EO01 (SPTAs). C. Depressurize a SG and establish feed with a Condensate pump after 40EP-9EO09 (FRP) is entered D. Override the Downcomer isolation valves and establish feed using AFN-P01 prior to exiting 40EP-9EO01 (SPTAs).

Answer: C Rev 0 Question 7 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

4.00 System ID: 10381 User-Defined ID: Q10381 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q10381 recover the RCS heat sink Num Field

1: 4.3 Num Field 2: 4.6 Text Field:

4.1 074 EA2.02 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

EOP Operations Expectations, 40EP-9EO01 (SPTAs). Relay Resetting (40DP-9OP02)

K&A: Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a Inadequate Core Cooling: Availability of main or auxiliary feedwater

Justification:

A. Incorrect - MFW is not available due to the SLB. Candidate may believe that only one steam line is affected and choose to utilize a MFP in LOAF.

B. Incorrect - Resetting AFA in SPTAs is not allowed per procedure. This is a Standard Appendix to the EOPs that will be performed once the SPTAs are exited.

C. Correct - Due to the lack of Aux Feed available and the MSIS resulting in a loss of MFW and condenser vacuum, the FRP will direct depressurizing and utilizing CD pumps to restore SG levels.

D. Incorrect - AFN is supplied by PBA-S03 therefore the pump does not have electrical power to operate. This action would be performed during the performance of SPTAs if possible.

Rev 0 Question 7 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.6 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2007 SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 2 Associated objective(s):

determine the major mitigating strategies contained in 40EP-9EO06

Rev 2 8 ID: Q22640 Points: 1.00

Rev 2 Question 8 Info

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

Technical

Reference:

K&A:Justification:

Rev 2 Question 8 Table-Item Links 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.Associated objective(s):

Rev 0 9 ID: Q43783 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initially:

Unit 1 was operating at 100% power prior to the trip. A RCS Leak has developed into the RCP 2A HPSC. SPTAs are complete and the CRS has entered 40EP-9EO03 (LOCA).

Subsequently:

A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has occurred. EDG 'B' has tripped on Overspeed. SIAS, CIAS, MSIS and CSAS have initiated.

SESS Panel has the following alarms:

BLUE SEAS and WHITE SEIS Light:

o NCB-UV-401 (NC Supply External CTMT Isolation Valve).

o NCB-UV-403 (NC Return Internal CTMT Isolation Valve). BLUE SEAS Light :

o NCA-UV-402 (NC Return External CTMT Isolation Valve).

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response?

A. Stay in 40EP-9EO03 (LOCA), close NCB-UV-401/403 (NCW CTMT Isolation valves). B. Stay in 40EP-9EO03 (LOCA), close RCN-HV-448/452 (RCP 2A HPSC Isolation Valves). C. Go to 40EP-9EO09 (FRP), cross tie EDG 'A' to PBB-S04 and close NCB-UV-401/403 (NCW CTMT Isolation valves).

D. Go to 40EP-9EO09 (FRP), cross tie EDG 'A' to PBB-S04 and close RCN-HV-448/452 (RCP 2A HPSC Isolation Valves).

Answer: C Rev 0 Question 9 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

4.00 System ID: 43783 User-Defined ID: Q43783 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q43783 CTMT INTEGRITY NCW ALARMS Num Field 1:

4.2 Num Field 2:

4.2 Text Field:

2.4.46 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO09, FRP.

K&A: Ability to verify that the alarms are consistent with the plant conditions: Loss of CTMT Integrity.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - NCB-UV-401/403 do not have electrical power, and LOCA procedure does not provide for restoring bus power to the required electrical bus.

B. Incorrect - Closing RCN-HV-448/452 will isolate the leak but will not meet the Containment Isolation safety function.

C. Correct - This will provide the electrical power required to restore power to NCB-UV-401/403 to allow them to be closed to Meet Containment Isolation.

D. Incorrect - This will provide the electrical power r equired to restore power to NCB-UV-401/403 but the action of closing RCN-HV-448/452 will isolate the leak but will not meet the Containment Isolation safety function.

Rev 0 Question 9 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.2 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 2 Associated objective(s):

Given plant conditions determine whether or not entry into the FRP is appropriate in accordance with 40EP-9EO09.

Rev 1 10 ID: Q43809 Points: 1.00 Which ONE of the following events REQUIRES the Nuclear Regulatory Commission be notified?

A. Manual reactor trip during a shutdown entering a refueling outage.

B. Steam Generator Tube Leak of approximately 275 gallons per day (GPD).

C. Reactor Protection System instrument placed in BYPASS within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of inoperability.

D. Stroking SGE-UV-170 instead of SGE-UV-180 during 73ST-9SG01 (MSIVs -

INSERVICE TEST).

Answer: B Rev 1 Question 10 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

4.00 System ID: 43809 User-Defined ID: Q43809 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q43809 Event requiring reporting Num Field

1: 2.7 Num Field 2: 4.1 Text Field:

2.4.30 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

NUREG 1022, Event Reporting Manual.

K&A: Knowledge of which events related to system operations/status that must be reported to internal organizations or external agencies, such as the State, the NRC, or the transmission system operator. Steam Generator Tube Leak.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - Planned Manual Reactor trips IAW plant procedures is not a reportable event.

B. Correct - This event is a Tech Spec required shutdown condition which requires NRC notification.

C. Incorrect - Tech Spec 3.3.1 Condition 'A' is met, and does not require a shutdown.

D. Incorrect - Specifically described in NUREG 1022 that a notification is not required.

Rev 1 Question 10 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.1 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 1 Group 2 Associated objective(s):

Describe the event reporting process

Rev 1 11 ID: Q22527 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power. NAN-S02 (13.8 Kv non class bus) faults and is de-energized. An automatic reactor trip occurs. Standard Post Trip Actions (SPTAs) are completed. Pressurizer level is 33% and stable.

Subsequently:

Start-up transformer NAN-X03 faults and is de-energized.

The CRS should now anticipate that Pressurizer level will ...

A. rise above the control band, level should be controlled by initiating a cooldown per 40EP-9EO07 (LOOP/LOFC).

B. rise above the control band, level should be controlled by securing all charging pumps per 40EP-9EO02 (Reactor Trip).

C. drop below the control band, level should be controlled by placing the always running charging pump in the AUTO-AFTER STOP position per 40EP-9EO02 (Reactor Trip).

D. drop below the control band, level should be restored by placing the always running charging pump in the AUTO-AFTER STOP position per 40EP-9EO07 (LOOP/LOFC).

Answer: A Rev 1 Question 11 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 22527 User-Defined ID: Q22527 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q22527 affect of a LOOP on the RCS Num Field 1:

4.1 Num Field 2:

4.3 Text Field: 3. 4 002 A2.03 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

LOOP, 40EP-9EO07/ LOIT lesson plan K&A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of forced circulation Justification:

A. Correct - Increasing Thot and loss of Letdown will cause Pzr level to go high. With no cooling flow (NC) to the RCPs charging flow must be maintained, level is controlled by initiating a cooldown. NAN-S02 is faulted which is the normal 13.8 kV bus for Unit 1. When NAN-X03 faults, this causes NAN-S01 to de-energize which results in no 13.8 kV power in Unit 1 Which is a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) and this results in a Loss of Forced Circulation (LOFC), due to no RCPs operating.

B. Incorrect - This is a LOOP event, stopping charging pumps is wrong.

C. Incorrect - level will go high. Examinee may not correctly associate which buses have de-energized or think that charging pumps have become anti-pumped due to the LOP signals. The Reactor Trip procedure allows for maintaining PZR level manually which would direct the operator to correct the Charging Pump configuration to maintain level.

D. Incorrect - level will go high. Examinee may not correctly associate which buses have de-energized or think that charging pumps have become anti-pumped due to the LOP signals. The LOOP/LOFC procedure will allow for maintaining PZR level by cooling down due to no NCW pumps and Charging Pumps required for seal injection.

Rev 1 Question 11 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.3 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2009 SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 2 Group 2 Associated objective(s):

determine whether or not entry into the LOOP/LOFC EOP is appropriate

Rev 0 12 ID: Q43791 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 85% power with both Circulating Water (CW) Loops in service. A Condenser tube leak in the A-B Circulating Water Loop has been confirmed. A normal downpower is in progress in order to remove the ruptured CW train from service. The ability to stabilize power at 40% has been verified. At the present rate 40% power will be achieved in approximately 50 minutes.

Subsequently:

Chemistry reports that Steam Generator sodium (Na) and chloride (Cl) are rising rapidly. It is determined that Steam Generator sodium will be 1.0 ppm in approximately 20 minutes. Based on this report, which ONE of the following actions should the CRS direct?

A. Trip the Reactor, Perform SPTAs, trip both Main Feedwater pumps.

B. Trip the Reactor, Perform SPTAs, align high rate blowdown to the Blowdown Flash Tank (BFT).

C. Initiate Reactor Power Cutback (Loss of Feedpump), align high rate blowdown to the Blowdown Flash Tank (BFT).

D. Initiate Reactor Power Cutback (Loss of Feedpump), place all available Condensate Demineralizer beds in service.

Answer: A Rev 0 Question 12 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select

on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

2 Difficulty:

4.00 System ID: 43791 User-Defined ID: Q43791 Cross Reference Number: 40AO-9ZZ10 Topic: Q43791 Rx trip based on chemistry trend Num Field 1:

2.1 Num Field 2:

2.5 Text Field: 3.4 056 A2.05 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40AO-9ZZ10, Condenser Tube Rupture

K&A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Condensate System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Condenser tube

leakage. Justification:

A. Correct - Per step 3.5 of Cond Tube Rupture 40AO-Correct - Per step 3.5 of Cond Tube Rupture 40AO-9ZZ10 and App M.

B. Incorrect - Trip the Rx is correct, but HR BD is not.

Candidate may think that since Sect 4.0 describes the

use of High Rate Blowdown that it is the correct action.

40OP-9SG03 is the procedure for performing High Rate

Blowdown.

C. Incorrect - CRS may believe that a rapid downpower is warranted and initiate a RPCB per step 13. This is

incorrect due to trending to a trip setpoint.

D. Incorrect - Placing all Demins in service is directed in

step 3.7-10, which will help wi th the Sodium ingress to the SGs, but the RPCB is incorrect.

Rev 0 Question 12 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 2.5 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2007 SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Question Used NRC SRO 2007 Associated objective(s):

Determine the actions required if it is unlikely that the leak can be isolated using a normal downpower before SG samples reach 1.0 ppm

Rev 0 13 ID: Q43790 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 has tripped from 100% due to an event. RVLMS Upper Head level indicates 47%. Both S/G levels are currently at 65% WR and slowly rising. Both S/G pressures are at 1100 psia and slowly rising. Containment pressure is 12.5 psig and Containment spray flow is adequate. Reactor power is 1x10-6 and slowly dropping. VALID RU-148 reading is 1.2 E+7 mrem/HR All three charging pumps are running. Dose Assessment is in progress. HPSI flow is adequate. SIAS, CIAS, and CSAS have actuated.

Given a copy of the EAL Classification Hot and Cold charts and based on the above conditions.

Which ONE of the following is the appropriate EAL classification?

A. FU1 -- Notification of Unusual Event.

B. FA1 -- Alert.

C. FS1 -- Site Area Emergency.

D. FG1 -- General Emergency.

Answer: D Rev 0 Question 13 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

2 Difficulty:

2.00 System ID: 43790 User-Defined ID: Q43790 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q43790 EP Classification LOCA (GE -- FG1) Num Field

1: 2.9 Num Field 2: 4.6 Text Field:

2.4.41 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

EAL HOT/COLD Chart.

Technical

Reference:

EPIP-01 STSC ACTI ONS, EAL HOT/COLD Chart.

K&A:

Knowledge of the emergency action level thresholds and classifications: Reactor Coolant.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - NUE is met but it is not the highest EAL classification of the event. Candidate may confuse any of the indications and not properly apply them to the EAL chart.

B. Incorrect - Alert is met but it is not the highest EAL classification of the event. Candidate may confuse any of the indications and not properly apply them to the EAL chart.

C. Incorrect - SAE is met but it is not the highest EAL classification of the event. Candidate may confuse any of the indications and not properly apply them to the EAL chart.

D. Correct - GE is met and is the highest EAL classification of the event. A loss of Fuel Clad is indicated by the RU-148 reading > 2.1 E+05 mR/hr. A potential loss of containment is indicated by the RU-148 reading > 2.1 E+05 mR/hr. And a potential loss of RCS barrier is indicated by the fact that all 3 charging pumps are running but we have lost level in the RVUH.

Rev 0 Question 13 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.6 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 2 Group 2 Associated objective(s):

determine the emergency plan classification.

Rev 1 14 ID: Q22686 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 50% steady state power.

Subsequently:

Letdown flow as observed on (CHN-FI-202) is lowering. All 4 channels of PPS instrumentation for RCS T-hot are lowering.

Which ONE of the following describes these conditions and appropriate response?

A. VCT level transmitter (CH-LT-227) has failed low, take corrective action per 40AO-9ZZ01 (Emergency Boration).

B. Loop 1 T-hot instrument (RCN-TT-111X) has failed high, take corrective action per 40AO-9ZZ16 (RRS Malfunctions).

C. VCT level transmitter (CH-LT-227) has failed low, take corrective actions per alarm window 3A08B (VCT LVL LO-LO).

D. Loop 1 T-hot instrument (RCN-TT-111X) has failed high, take corrective action per alarm window 4A08B (T-AVG\ T-REF HI-LO).

Answer: C Rev 1 Question 14 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 22686 User-Defined ID: Q22686 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q22686 INADVERTENT BORATION ON CVCS Num Field 1:

4.2 Num Field 2:

4.3 Text Field: 3.2 004 A2.06 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40AL-9RK3A , 3A08B VCT LVL LO-LO Alarm Response K&A:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CVCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Inadvertent boration/dilution.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - Failure is correct, the procedure entry conditions are not met and does not contain direction to correct this failure.

B. Incorrect - RCN-TT-111X (Thot) failing high will cause the Reactor Regulating System to believe that the RCS is too hot and would respond by inserting CEAs except an AMI will prevent rod motion. This would result in the Actual RCS Thot to lower. RRS Malfunction procedure would correct this issue if it were the cause of the indications. Letdown is lowering due to the RCS cooling down resulting in a shrink in the PZR, therefore letdown flow will lower to maintain PZR level. RRS sends Tavg to PZR Level Control and a failed high instrument will send a maximum level program to PLCS which would result in letdown flow lowering.

C. Correct - LT-227 failing low will cause the charging pump suction to shift to gravity feed from the RWT, therefore initiating a constant boration. Only the alarm response procedure w ill address this condition.

D. Incorrect - RCN-TT-111X (Thot) failing high will cause the Reactor Regulating System to believe that the RCS is too hot and would respond by inserting CEAs except an AMI will prevent rod motion. This would result in the Actual RCS Thot to lower. T-AVG\ T-REF HI-LO will not correct this issue. Letdown is lowering due to the RCS cooling down resulting in a shrink in the PZR, therefore letdown flow will lower to maintain PZR level. RRS sends Tavg to PZR Level Control and a failed high instrument will send a maximum level program to PLCS which would result in letdown flow lowering.

Rev 1 Question 14 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.3 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 2 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

Explain the operation of the Volume Control Tank under normal operating

conditions.

Rev 0 15 ID: Q22646 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power. Sub-Cooled Margin is 30°F and lowering slowly. Containment Pressure is 2.1 psig and rising slowly. Containment temperature is 160° F and rising slowly. Pressurizer level is 20% and lowering rapidly. Reactor vessel head is reading 100% in Outlet Plenum. RCS Pressure is 1700 psia and lowering rapidly. SG #1 level is 40% WR, SG #2 level is 35% WR. SG#1 and SG #2 are being fed with AFN-P01 and rising slowly. SG pressures are 1170 psia, maintained with SBCS in automatic. SPTAs are in progress.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected response by ESFAS to the CURRENT conditions and the appropriate procedure selection?

A. SIAS, CIAS and MSIS; Enter 40EP-9EO05 (ESD) upon exiting SPTAs.

B. SIAS and CIAS ONLY; Enter 40EP-9EO04 (SGTR) upon exiting SPTAs.

C. SIAS and CIAS ONLY; Enter 40EP-9EO003 (LOCA) upon exiting SPTAs.

D. SIAS, CIAS and MSIS; Enter 40EP-9EO009 (Functional Recovery Procedure) upon exiting SPTAs.

Answer: C Rev 0 Question 15 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

2 Difficulty:

2.00 System ID: 22646 User-Defined ID: Q22646 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q22646 SRO SYS ESFAS Num Field

1: 4.4 Num Field 2: 4.7 Text Field: 3.2 013 A2.03 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO03, LOCA K&A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ESFAS; and (b) based Ability on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations; Rapid depressurization.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - ESD entry conditions not met, Candidate may confuse the indications of LOCA with ESD. MSIS setpoint of 3.0 psig in CTMT not exceeded, candidate may confuse the SIAS/CIAS setpoint with MSIS.

B. Incorrect - SGTR entry conditions not met, candidate may confuse the difference in SG levels as a SGTR. MSIS setpoint not exceeded, candidate may confuse the SIAS/CIAS setpoint with MSIS..

C. Correct - LOCA entry conditions are met and SIAS and CIAS initiated at 1837 psia in the RCS.

D. Incorrect - MSIS set point not exceeded, candidate may confuse the SIAS/CIAS setpoint with MSIS. FRP could be chosen but not the most appropriate recovery procedure.

Rev 0 Question 15 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.7 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 2 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

determine the major mitigating strategies contained in 40EP-9EO03

Rev 1 16 ID: Q43743 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

Subsequently:

COLSS calculated primary calorimetric power (NKBDELT) is rising. COLSS calculated turbine power (NKTFSP) is lowering. T-cold is 555°F and lowering. Pressurizer pressure is 2210 psia and lowering. Pressurizer level is lowering. Containment pressure is 0.3 psig and stable. Containment temperature is 112°F and stable.

Which ONE of the following events and mitigating procedures is correct?

A. Partial load reject. Implement 40AO-9ZZ08 (Load Rejection).

B. Partial load reject. Trip the reactor, complete SPTAs and implement 40EP-9EO02 (Reactor Trip).

C. Steam leak outside containment. Trip the reactor, complete SPTAs and implement 40EP-9EO05 (ESD).

D. Steam leak outside containment. Maintain reactor power less than 100% per 40OP-9ZZ05 (Power Operations).

Answer: C Rev 1 Question 16 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

2 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 43743 User-Defined ID: Q43743 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q43743 analyze whether ESD or Load Reject is appropriate Num Field 1:

3.3 Num Field 2:

3.6 Text Field: 3.4 039 A2.05 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO05, ESD EOP

K&A: Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the MRSS; and (b) based on predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Increasing steam demand, its relationship to increases in reactor power.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - Turbine power lowering is an indication of a load rejection. The primary power rising does not support this. The Load Rejection AOP would be appropriate response if it was a Partial Load Rejection.

B. Incorrect - Turbine power lowering is an indication of a load rejection. The primary power rising does not support this. Tripping the reactor would only be appropriate in a Load Rejection if RCS temperature was not able to be controlled by SBCS. LR AOP would be the appropriate procedure to address a partial load rejection.

C. Correct - NKBDELT rising is indicative of steam flow rising causing RX power to rise. Since Turbine power is lowering, the steam is not going to the turbine. CTMT conditions are stable; therefore the leak is not inside the CTMT. The correct action is to trip the RX and implement ESD.

D. Incorrect - NKBDELT rising is indicative of steam flow rising causing RX power to rise. Since Turbine power is lowering, the steam is not going to the turbine. CTMT conditions are stable; therefore the leak is not inside the CTMT. The correct action is to trip the RX and implement ESD. In the past, PVNGS has operated with small steam leaks in the Turbine building while repairs and management were contacted. The severity of the steam leaks did not have a significant effect on the RCS temperature and pressure. We would not expect a crew to operate with a steam leak large enough to lower RCS pressure and temperature.

Rev 1 Question 16 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.6 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 2 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

analyze whether or not entry into the ESD EOP is appropriate

Rev 0 17 ID: Q22647 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power. AFA-P01 (Ess Turb Driven Aux Feedpump) is out of service.

Subsequently:

Unit 1 trips. PBA-S03 faults. Containment Pressure is 2.1 psig and rising. Containment Temperature is 113 0F and rising. Containment Humidity is rising. Containment sump levels are rising. PZR Pressure is 2280 psia and rising. PZR Level is 56% and rising. Tcold is 567 0F and rising. SG 1 and 2 levels are 30% WR and lowering. SPTAs are complete.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate EOP to enter?

A. 40EP-9EO03 (LOCA).

B. 40EP-9EO05 (ESD).

C. 40EP-9EO07 (LOAF).

D. 40EP-9EO09 (FRP for Dual Event).

Answer: B Rev 0 Question 17 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 22647 User-Defined ID: Q22647 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q22647 SRO SYS GEN FEED RUPTURE Num Field

1: 4.5 Num Field 2: 4.7 Text Field:

2.4.4 Comments

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO05, ESD K&A: Ability to recognize abnormal indications for system operating parameters which are entry-level conditions for emergency and abnormal operating procedures. Main Feedwater.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - Rising PZR level and CTMT conditions are indicative of PZR steam space LOCA. Candidate may confuse the heat up event with the Steam Space LOCA.

B. Correct - Feed header rupture is a heat up event, ESD will mitigate this event by isolating the affected SG.

C. Incorrect - SG levels lowering are indicative of a LOAF. Candidate may not understand that AFB-P01 is still available for feed; therefore the LOAF entry conditions are not met.

D. Incorrect - Due to the multiple indications given that may be confused with any of the other events, candidate may think that 2 events are in progress and enter the FRP. Only one event is in progress that is what makes the FRP wrong.

Rev 0 Question 17 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.7 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 2 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

Given conditions of an ESD analyze whether or not entry into the ESD EOP is appropriate in accordance with 40EP-9EO05.

Rev 0 18 ID: Q43792 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 is operating in Mode 4 coming out of a refueling outage. RU-1 (Containment Atmosphere) is declared inoperable.

Which ONE of the following describes the required action (if any) per Technical Specification 3.4.16 (RCS Leakage Detection Instrumentation)?

A. No action required in Mode 4.

B. Perform RCS water balance inventory once per 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

C. No action required since containment sump monitor is operable.

D. Analyze grab samples of the containment atmosphere once per 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Answer: D Rev 0 Question 18 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select

on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 43792 User-Defined ID: Q43792 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q43792 TS 3.4.16 (RCS Leak Detection Instrumentation) RU-1 INOP Num Field 1:

3.4 Num Field 2:

4.7 Text Field:

2.2.40 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

Technical Specifications.

K&A:

Ability to apply Technical Specifications for a system: Process Radiation Monitoring.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - This TS applies in Modes 1-4. Candidate may think that it only applies in Modes 1 and 2.

B. Incorrect - The RCS water balance inventory is a 24 hour2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> action statement.

C. Incorrect - Verifying the Containment Sump monitor operable per action D. If it is INOPERABLE you must enter 3.0.3. The CTMT Sump monitor and RU-1 must be operable for the LCO to be met.

D. Correct - TS 3.4.16 requires this action to be taken once every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Rev 0 Question 18 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (2)Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.7 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 2 Group 1 Associated objective(s):

apply Tech Spec Section 3.4.16 (RCS Leak Detection Instrumentation)

Rev 0 19 ID: Q22659 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

The Site Control Rooms are presently staffed by the following personnel.

UNIT 1 UNIT 2 UNIT 3 1 Shift Manager 1 Shift Manager 1 Shift Manager 1 STA (Unlicensed) 1 STA (Unlicensed) 1 STA (Unlicensed) 1 CRS 1 CRS 1 CRS 2 ROs 2 ROs 3 ROs The Fire Team Advisor is being supplied by the Unit 3 third RO. One of the Unit 1 ROs becomes ill and has to leave the site immediately. It is three hours until the end of the shift.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response?

The Operating Crew...

A. can continue to operate with the reduced manning for the remainder of the shift per ODP-2 (Operations Shift Coverage).

B. must commence a plant shutdown to be in MODE 3 within 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> per Technical Specification 5.2.2 (Unit Organization Staff).

C. can continue to operate with the reduced manning, provided that the FTA from Unit 3 assumes the 2nd RO in Unit 1 per Technical Specification 5.3.1 (Unit Staff Qualifications).

D. can continue to operate with the reduced manning for up to 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />, provided immediate action is taken to restore crew manning to the minimum requirements per 40DP-9OP02 (Conduct of Shift Operations).

Answer: D Rev 0 Question 19 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 22659 User-Defined ID: Q22659 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q22659 SRO GEN STAFF MANNING Num Field

1: 2.9 Num Field 2: 3.9 Text Field:

2.1.5 Comments

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations K&A: Ability to use procedures related to shift staffing, such as minimum crew complement, overtime limitations, etc.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - The unit must take action to remedy the situation immediately with manning restored within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

B. Incorrect - The TS allows for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> to meet the 10 CFR 50.54 (m) requirements as long as action is taken to restore shift manning.

C. Incorrect - While this would make the U1 meet the min manning requirements, the site would not meet the requirement to have a FTA on site for all 3 units.

D. Correct - This is correct and will meet all the requirements of site specific procedures and TS.

Rev 0 Question 19 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.9 Q - Cognitive Level Comprehension / Anal Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Associated objective(s):

Describe the required actions if the shift manning is less than the minimum required manning.

Rev 1 20 ID: Q43785 Points: 1.00 Which ONE of the following describes when a plant-wide announcement is required to be made? A. Changing from Mode 3 to Mode 2.

B. Energizing PNA-D25 after a permit has been cleared.

C. Starting HCN-A01C (CTMT Normal ACU Fan) from the Control Room.

D. AFB-P01 (Essential Motor Driven Aux Feed Pump) started automatically on AFAS-1.

Answer: A Rev 1 Question 20 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select

on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

2 Difficulty:

2.00 System ID: 43785 User-Defined ID: Q43785 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q43785 ODP-1 Plant Announcements Num Field 1:

3.1 Num Field 2:

3.1 Text Field:

2.1.14 Comments: Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

ODP-1, Operations Department Principles and Standards

K&A: Knowledge of criteria or conditions that require plant-wide announcements, such as pump starts, reactor trips, mode changes etc.

Justification:

A. Correct - Plant-wide announcements shall be made when changing modes. B. Incorrect - 120 Vac distribution panels are not required to be announced.

C. Incorrect - 480 Vac motor starts are not required to be announced.

D. Incorrect - Equipment that starts automatically is not required to be announced.

Rev 1 Question 20 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.1 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Associated objective(s):

ODP-1 Reactivity Management

Rev 2 21 ID: Q10303 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

You are the Unit 1 CRS during a weekend nightshift. The Effluent Tech has requested a procedure change to 74RM-9EF41, Radiation Monitoring System Alarm Response. The change affects the Radiological Monitoring Group Response to an Alert/High alarm on RU-2/3 (EW 'A' and EW 'B'). You meet the requirements for a TAPA.

Which ONE of the following describes the TAPA process?

As a minimum this change requires a Temporary Approved Procedure Action (TAPA) be generated with ...

A. an approval by two SROs with valid licenses on the affected Unit.

B. an approval by two SROs, one of whom holds a valid SRO license on the affected Unit.

C. a completed 50.59 review and approval by two members of the plant supervisory staff each within the affected discipline.

D. a completed 50.59 review and approval by two members of the plant supervisory staff one of whom holds a valid SRO license on the affected Unit.

Answer: D Rev 2 Question 21 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

4.00 System ID: 10303 User-Defined ID: Q10303 Cross Reference Number: 01DP-0AP01 Topic: Q10303 Describe the process for generating a TAPA. Num Field

1: 3.0 Num Field 2: 3.6 Text Field:

2.2.6 Comments

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

None Technical

Reference:

01DP-0AP01, Procedure Process K&A: Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - SRO does not mean plant supervisory staff, also it does not address the specific discipline. 50.59 reviews are required per 93DP-0LC07.

B. Incorrect - SRO does not mean plant supervisory staff, also does not address the specific discipline. 50.59 reviews are required per 93DP-

0LC07. C. Incorrect - requires 50.59 reviews and needs at least one SRO as supervisory staff.

D. Correct - meets requirements of 01DP-0AP01 section 8.3.5 - 6 and 50.59 reviews are required per 93DP-0LC07.

Rev 2 Question 21 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections Facility licensee procedures required to obtain authority for design and operating changes in the facility.

55.43 (3) Facility licensee procedures required to obtain authority for design and operating changes in the facility Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.6 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2007 SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Associated objective(s):

Describe the process for generating a TAPA.

Rev 1 22 ID: Q5210 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Gaseous radwaste monitor RU-12 IS NOT in service. A waste gas decay tank release is required.

Which ONE of the following must be performed by Operations prior to the release?

A. RU-12 must be restored.

B. The Shift Manager must invoke 50.54(x).

C. Two independent verifications must be performed of the discharge valve lineup.

D. Alternate sampling must be in place per 74RM-9EF60, RMS Sample Collection.

Answer: C Rev 1 Question 22 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on

test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

2 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID:

5210 User-Defined ID:

Q5210 Cross Reference

Number: Topic: Q5210 GEN SRO ADMIN Effl - gas decay tank release is

required Num Field

1: 3.8 Num Field

2: 4.3 Text Field:

2.3.11 Comments:

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

74DP - 9CY08, The Radiological Monitoring Program

K&A: Ability to control radiation releases.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - No requirement to restore the RU monitor.

B. Incorrect -50.54(x) is only used when the ODCM will be exceeded.

C. Incorrect - This only applies to RU141/143/145.

D. Correct - Directed per 74DP-9CY08 The Radiological Monitoring Program.

Rev 1 Question 22 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (4) Radiation hazards that may arise during normal and abnormal situations, including main tenance activities and various contamination conditions.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importan ce classification 4.3 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Associated objective(s):

Define Operations responsibilities

Rev 0 23 ID: Q43815 Points: 1.00 Which ONE of the following describes the EPA Guidance for Life Saving and which position must approve a PVNGS worker receiving Potassium Iodide (KI)?

____(1)____ TEDE is the EPA Gu idance for Life Saving (Non Voluntary Basis) and the ____(2)____ must approve the PVNGS worker receiving Potassium Iodide (KI).

A. (1) 10 Rem per event (2) Emergency Coordinator.

B. (1) 25 Rem per event (2) Emergency Coordinator.

C. (1) 10 Rem per event (2) Radiation Protection Monitor.

D. (1) 25 Rem per event (2) Radiation Protection Monitor.

Answer: B Question 23 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test?

No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

5 Difficulty:

0.00 System ID: 43815 User-Defined ID: Q43815 Cross Reference Number:

Topic: Q43815 SRO GEN EP Authorize Exposre Extension Num Field 1:

3.2 Num Field 2:

3.7 Text Field:

2.3.4 Comments

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

EPIP-01 STSC Actions Sect 10.12 K&A: Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal or emergency conditions.

Justification:

Incorrect - 10 Rem is the limit for protecting valuable property. Incorrect - Per step 10.12 of EPIP-01 and EPIP-99 App K.

Correct - 10 Rem is the limit for protecting valuable property. RPM is used to consult on such matters, but does not approve the dose. Incorrect - Limit is correct. RPM is used to consult on such matters, but does not approve the dose.

Rev 0 Question 23 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (4) Radiation hazards that may arise during normal and abnormal situations, including maintenance activities and various contamination conditions.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 3.7 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Associated objective(s):

Identify the Emergency Coordinator's responsibilities associated with Emergency Exposure.

Rev 2 24 ID: Q22667 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power. A SGTL has been identified and 40AO-9ZZ02 (Excessive RCS Leakage) is in progress. RU-4 (SG #1 Blowdown) is in Alert alarm and trending up.

Subsequently:

The Reactor trips due to an ESD.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate EOP mitigation strategy?

Perform SPTAs and enter...

A. 40EP-9EO09 (FRP).

B. 40EP-9EO05 (ESD).

C. 40EP-9EO04 (SGTR).

D. 40EP-9EO05 (ESD) and 40AO-9ZZ02 (Excessive RCS Leakage).

Answer: A Rev 2 Question 24 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

2.00 System ID: 22667 User-Defined ID: Q22667 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q22667 SRO GEN SGTR ESD EOP mitigation strategy Num Field 1:

3.7 Num Field 2:

4.7 Text Field:

2.4.6 Comments

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination:

NONE Technical

Reference:

40EP-9EO09, FRP K&A: Knowledge of EOP mitigation strategies.

Justification:

A. Correct - FRP will address the dual event. HR-2 Step 14 directs mitigating strategy of this instance that you have a tube rupture and are uncontrollably steaming to atmosphere.

B. Incorrect - ESD is the major trip initiating event here, CRS may determine that the ESD EOP will mitigate the event.

C. Incorrect: Due to the Dual Event must go to FRP, Note in App F of Excessive RCS Leakage states post trip enter SGTR, CRS may choose this based on that note.

D. Incorrect - Due to the Dual Event must go to FRP, Note in App F of Excessive RCS Leakage states post trip enter SGTR, CRS may not know this note and use ESD and AOP to mitigate event.

Rev 2 Question 24 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.7 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source PV Bank Not Modified Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Associated objective(s):

determine whether or not entry into the FRP is appropriate

Rev 1 25 ID: Q43787 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 is operating at 100% power. An Abnormal Operating Procedure (AOP) is in progress due to equipment failure. Conditions requiring a reactor trip are approaching. The CRS will continue to implement the AOP after the reactor has been tripped. The RO manually trips the reactor from B05.

Which ONE of the following statements below describe the rules the CRS must follow to continue implementation of the AOP?

The CRS CANNOT continue implementing the AOP until after-A. addressing all safety functions in the SPTAs.

B. all alarm response procedures have been addressed.

C. addressing the reactivity control safety function in SPTAs.

D. diagnosing the event and transitioning to the Optimal Recovery or Functional Recovery Procedures.

Answer: C Rev 1 Question 25 Info Question Type: Multiple Choice Status: Active Always select

on test? No Authorized for practice?

No Points: 1.00 Time to Complete:

3 Difficulty:

3.00 System ID: 43787 User-Defined ID: Q43787 Cross Reference Number: Topic: Q43787 AOP in EOP USE Num Field 1:

3.8 Num Field 2:

4.5 Text Field:

2.4.8 Comments

Proposed reference to be provided to applicant during examination: NONE Technical

Reference:

40DP-9AP18, AOP Users Guide.

K&A: Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

Justification:

A. Incorrect - Some AOPs must be completed concurrently such as the "PERFORM" direction.

B. Incorrect - No actions are permitted until the Reactivity Safety Function is complete. ARPs must be addressed once plant conditions have stabilized.

C. Correct - This is correct per 40DP-9AP18 step 17 bullet 1. AOP Users Guide.

D. Incorrect - Some AOPs must be exited such as the "Go To" direction.

Rev 1 Question 25 Table-Item Links Q - 10CFR Sections 55.43 (5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Q - Senior Reactor Operator K & A Importance classification 4.5 Q - Cognitive Level Memory Q - Question Source New Q - SRO Exam SRO Exam 2010 O - SRO Tier Group Designation Tier 3 Associated objective(s):

define the required actions for the conditions given