ML21137A286

3_AN2-2021-03 Draft Written Exam

ML21137A286
Person / Time
Site:	Arkansas Nuclear
Issue date:	04/08/2021
From:	Greg Werner Operations Branch IV
To:	Entergy Operations
References
Download: ML21137A286 (198)

Text

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2561 Safety Function 1

System Number 007

Title:

Reactor Trip - Stabilization K/A EK1.05

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the reactor trip: - Decay power as a function of time RO Imp:

3.3 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant is at Full Power at 300 EFPD.

• AFW Pump 2P-75 is OOS for Maintenance.

• Main Generator Lockout trips the Main Turbine.

• EFAS 1 and 2 actuates and EFW Pumps are feeding SGs.

• All 4 RCPs are running from offsite power.

• Repairs on the Generator Lockout relay will take 2 days.

• Main Feedwater pumps are secured.

• The SG levels are raised to 60% manually using EFW pumps.

• Two (2) hours after the Reactor trip, 300 gpm EFW flow is going to EACH SG to maintain a constant 60% level.

To minimize secondary condensate inventory loss, EFW Pump ____(1)____ should be secured.

During the next 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> of Hot Standby NOT/NOP conditions, the feedwater flow rate needed to maintain 60% level in each Steam Generator will ____(2)_____ to EACH Steam Generator.

A. (1) 2P-7A (2) lower B. (1) 2P-7A (2) remain the same C. (1) 2P-7B (2) lower D. (1) 2P-7B (2) remain the same Answer:

A. (1) 2P-7A (2) lower Notes:

Answer A is correct. In Part 1, Both EFW pumps use condensate inventory to feed the SGs but 2P-7A is a steam driven EFW pump and its exhaust steam goes to atmosphere so it uses more secondary inventory than 2P-7B and should be secured thus minimizing secondary coolant inventory loss.

In Part 2, the applicant must understand that the Decay Heat generated in the core is being reduced over time thus less feedwater flow will be needed to maintain the 60% SG level.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as decay heat is reduced over time Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/9/2020 Search 000007K105 10CFR55: 41.8 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EFW OBJ 15 TEST QID #

1 1

Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 requiring less feed water flow but plausible as the 4 RCPs are running putting a constant amount of heat into the RCS that will need to be removed with a constant amount of Feedwater.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Motor Driven EFW Pump 2P-7B uses less secondary inventory than 2P-7A but plausible as the Reactor Trip Recovery procedure directs securing both EFW Pumps and starting AFW pump 2P-75 but it is OOS for Maintenance. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Motor Driven EFW Pump 2P-7B uses less secondary inventory than 2P-7A but plausible as the Reactor Trip Recovery procedure directs securing both EFW Pumps and starting AFW pump 2P-75 but it is OOS for Maintenance. Part 2 is incorrect as decay heat is reduced over time requiring less feed water flow but plausible as the 4 RCPs are running putting a constant amount of heat into the RCS that will need to be removed with a constant amount of Feedwater.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have Knowledge of the operational implications of the Reactor Decay power as a function of time following a reactor trip to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2202.002, REACTOR TRIP RECOVERY, Rev. 12, Entry Section and Step 12.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 0325. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2002 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

2 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2562 Safety Function 3

System Number 008

Title:

Pressurizer (PZR) Vapor Space Accident (Relief Valv K/A AK2.02

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the interrelations between the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident and the following: - Sensors and detectors RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

2.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 Main Turbine tripped from 100% power.

• ATC is evaluating data on SPDS SFD screen.

• Pressurizer level is 65% and rising rapidly.

• RCS pressure is 1220 psia and lowering.

• CV2 DOME temperatures are 575°F and steady.

• Average CET temperature is 561°F and lowering.

• RCS Thot temperature is 559°F and lowering.

• Containment pressure is 15.0 psia and rising.

• Containment temperature is 112°F and rising.

• Containment sump is 40% and rising.

Based on these indications, a ____(1)____ LOCA is in progress.

HPSI Flow ____(2)____ be throttled at this time due to these indications.

A. (1) Pressurizer Vapor Space (2) SHOULD B. (1) Pressurizer Vapor Space (2) SHOULD NOT C. (1) Pressurizer Surge Line (2) SHOULD D. (1) Pressurizer Surge Line (2) SHOULD NOT Answer:

B. (1) Pressurizer Vapor Space (2) SHOULD NOT Notes:

Answer B is correct. In Part 1 due to the rising PZR level due to the super heated dome temperatures causing a bubble to form in the head, the applicant should realize the difference between a leak in the top of the PZR verses a leak in the surge line of the PZR which would cause PZR level to lower. In Part 2 due to the Margin to Saturation (MTS) being below 30°F, the HPSI Flow throttle criteria is NOT met so HPSI Flow should not be throttled.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as MTS is less than 30°F but plausible as PZR level meets the HPSI throttle criteria level.

Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/9/2020 Search 000008K202 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOCA OBJ 3

TEST QID #

2 3

Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as PZR level is rising but plausible as many other indications in the bullets support the PZR surge line leak and LOCA entry conditions. Part 2 is incorrect as MTS is less than 30°F but plausible as PZR level meets the HPSI throttle criteria level.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as PZR level is rising but plausible as many other indications in the bullets support the PZR surge line leak and LOCA entry conditions. Part 2 is correct This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the interrelations between the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident and the associated Sensors and detectors available to be able to interpret between a Pressurizer Vapor Space LOCA and a PZR surge line LOCA and understand the implications of throttling HPSI flow during this event to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2202.003, LOCA EOP, Rev. 16, Entry Conditions and Section 3 Steps 12 & 15.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2188. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2015 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

4 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2563 Safety Function 3

System Number 009

Title:

Small Break LOCA K/A EK2.03

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the interrelations between the small break LOCA and the following: - S/Gs RO Imp:

3.0 SRO Imp:

3.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Given the following plant conditions:

• A small break LOCA is in progress and SIAS has actuated.

• RCS pressure is 1500 psia and steady.

Which one (1) of the following is the reason for maintaining a secondary heat sink during these conditions?

A. To ensure adequate RCS pressure control with at least One (1) RCP running in each loop.

B. To ensure reflux boiling is the primary means of heat removal prior to voiding in the hot legs.

C. To ensure adequate RCS heat removal because cooling from HPSI flow alone will be inadequate.

D. To ensure natural circulation will be established in the RCS since ALL RCPs must be secured.

Answer:

C. To ensure adequate RCS heat removal because cooling from HPSI flow alone may be inadequate.

Notes:

Answer C is correct. In the LOCA EOP OP 2202.003, Step 13, SG levels are verified above the EFAS set point of 22.2%.

This step checks that SG levels are being maintained in order to ensure adequate decay heat removal. For certain small break LOCAs, at least one SG must be available for RCS heat removal in order to ensure that acceptable RCS conditions are maintained. This is especially true if RCS pressure is above the shutoff head of the HPSI pumps which is approximately 1400 psia.

Distractor A is incorrect because RCS pressure control could be maintained by backup auxiliary spray flow into the Pressurizer but plausible as RCPs provide for main Spray flow and need 30°F Margin to Saturation (MTS) to stay running. If all systems operate as expected, then RCS Temperature would be ~ 545°F so MTS would be ~51°F Distractor B is incorrect because reflux boiling in NOT expected to occur on a small break LOCA but plausible as reflux boiling may occur during a Large Break DBA LOCA.

Distractor D is incorrect because RCPs will not need to be secured at this pressure but plausible as SGs provide the heat sink for natural circulation if all RCPs need to be secured.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the interrelations between the small break LOCA and S/Gs to correctly answer the question.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/9/2020 Search 000009K203 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Hatman L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOCA OBJ 3

TEST QID #

3 5

Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20

References:

Loss of Coolant Accident EOP, OP 2202.003, Rev. 16, Section 1, Step 13 Loss of Coolant Accident EOP, OP 2202.003, Rev. 16 Technical Guide Section 1, Step 13 Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1490. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2008 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

6 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2564 Safety Function 3

System Number 011

Title:

Large Break LOCA K/A EA1.09

==

Description:==

Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to a Large Break LOCA: - Core flood tank initiation RO Imp:

4.3 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• A Design Basis Seismic event has occurred in the ANO Area.

• The Plant was tripped due to indications of a Large Break LOCA.

• RCS Pressure is 375 psia and lowering.

• All SITs were within their TS parameters at the beginning of the LOCA.

NOW

• The Safety Injection Tanks (SITs) have the following indications:

- SIT A is at 75.9% level and 399 psig

- SIT B is at 78.1% level and 410 psig

- SIT C is at 77.1% level and 408 psig

- SIT D is at 83.7% level and 250 psig Based on the current indications of the 4 SITs, which of the following SITs are injecting to the RCS?

A. A, B, & C B. B, C, & D C. ALL FOUR D. A, C, & D Answer:

A. A, B, & C Notes:

Answer A is correct. Based on the large earthquake, SIT D had a vent valve/line broken off/cracked thus pressure went to 250 psig/lowering and level has not dropped. A, B, and C are above RCS pressure with level below TS bands thus are injecting to the RCS.

Distractor B is incorrect because SIT D pressure is less than RCS pressure. Plausible as SITs A, B, and C pressures are higher than RCS pressure and injecting into the RCS and plausible as a SIT D could be the location of the LOCA and pressure would drop due to a broken vent valve without a level change.

Distractor C is incorrect because SIT D is lower than RCS pressure and cannot injecting into the RCS but plausible as SIT D pressure has lowered from normal operating pressure to 250 psia due to the broken vent valve stem.

Distractor D is incorrect because SIT D pressure is less than RCS pressure. Plausible as SITs A, B, and C pressures are Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/8/2020 Search 000011A109 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOCA OBJ 5

TEST QID #

4 7

Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 higher than RCS pressure and injecting into the RCS and plausible as a SIT D could be the location of the LOCA and pressure would drop due to a broken vent valve without a level change.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have the ability to monitor the Safety injection Tanks during a Large Break LOCA to ensure they are injecting to the RCS to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-05 EMERGENCY CORE COOLING SYSTEM, Rev. 35, Sections 2.0 and 2.1.5.2 TS 3.5.1, SITs, Amendment 315, LCO and Applicability.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2457. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2019 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

8 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2565 Safety Function 4

System Number 015

Title:

017 Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) Malfunctions K/A AK3.07

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions: - Ensuring that S/G levels are controlled properly for natural circulation enhancement RO Imp:

4.1 SRO Imp:

4.2 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant is at full power.

• A Startup #3 transformer Lockout occurs after a Main Turbine Trip.

• All RCPs trip causing a loss of forced circulation.

• OP-2203.013, Natural Circulation Operation AOP is entered after SPTAs.

The Safety Function Status Checks in the Natural Circulation Operation AOP REQUIRES maintaining at least ONE SG level between a MAXIMUM allowable band of ____(1)____ with feedwater available AND the reason for the SG level band is to ensure ____(2)____.

A. (1) 10 to 90%

(2) the RCS Pressure Control Safety Function is met B. (1) 10 to 90%

(2) SG level is at or above the tube region to enhance natural circulation C. (1) 22.2 to 60%

(2) the RCS Pressure Control Safety Function is met D. (1) 22.2 to 60%

(2) SG level is at or above the tube region to enhance natural circulation Answer:

B. (1) 10 to 90%

(2) SG level is at or above the tube region to enhance natural circulation Notes:

Answer B is correct. Natural circulation occurs whenever there is decay heat in the core and is driven by a change in density between the reactor vessel down comer region (Tcold) and the active fuel area (Thot). RCS water density will change with SG level (adding relatively cold water to the SGs will cool the RCS within the SG tubes). Adjusting and maintaining SG water level will maintain and enhance the density difference between the heat source and heat sink therefore enhances core heat removal. OP-2203.013 Step 6 has the crew verify natural circulation is established by checking key core temperature parameters and Step 8 directs checking at least one SG is available to remove RCS heat by maintaining SG levels between 10% and 90%. The Safety Function Status Checks (SFSC) requires maintaining at least ONE SG level between a band of 10 to 90% with feedwater available to accomplish the RCS Heat Removal Safety Function Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect due to the RCS Pressure Control SFSC looks at PZR Heaters, Aux Spray, and the Pressure-Temperature Limits but plausible because it is a required SFSC in the Natural Circulation AOP and having SG level in band will assist with RCS Pressure Control Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Natural Circulation Operation AOP directs 10 to 90% as the band but Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/8/2020 Search 000015K307 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Foster L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ACIRC OBJ 11 TEST QID #

5 9

Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 plausible as 22.2% is the EFAS set point and 60% is the normal shutdown SG level with Main feedwater. Part 2 is incorrect due to the RCS Pressure Control SFSC looks at PZR Heaters, Aux Spray, and the Pressure-Temperature Limits but plausible because it is a required SFSC in the Natural Circulation AOP and having SG level in band will assist with RCS Pressure Control Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Natural Circulation Operation AOP directs 10 to 90% as the band but plausible as 22.2% is the EFAS set point and 60% is the normal shutdown SG level with Main feedwater. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the reasons for the maintaining an adequate SG Level inventory during a Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions that causes a loss of forced circulation to ensure proper natural circulation to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP-2203.013, Natural Circulation Operations, Rev 018, Steps 6 and 8 and RCS Heat Removal SFSC OP-2203.013, Natural Circulation Operations Tech Guide, Rev 017, Steps 6 and 8.

Historical Comments:

This QID is from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2191 with modifications to make a 2 x 2. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2015 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

10 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2566 Safety Function 2

System Number 022

Title:

Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup K/A AA2.01

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Pump Makeup: -

Whether charging line leak exists RO Imp:

3.2 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant is at 100% power at 400 EFPD.

• Charging Pump 2P36A is the lead and only CVCS pump running.

• Annunciator 2K12-B3, "CHARGING HEADER FLOW LOW" is received.

• Charging Flow 2FIS-4863 is reading 20 gpm CVCS Header Flow.

• Radiation levels are rising in the Auxiliary Building.

• A walkdown reveal a large leak on the flange on the Header Flow Element 2FE-4863 just upstream of the CVCS Header Isolation 2CV-4840-2.

• The CRS implements OP-2203.036, Loss of Charging AOP.

• Charging and Letdown is secured per the CRS directions.

• NOW Charging Header Isolation 2CV-4840-2 is Closed.

Based on these conditions, once the CVCS leak is isolated, 44 gpm Charging Header flow can be re-established to the HPSI injection header using ____(1)____ Charging Pump.

When this 44 gpm flow has been re-established to the HPSI injection header, RCS temperature will start to ____(2)____

due to the existing fluid in the HPSI header.

A. (1) ANY (2) RISE B. (1) ANY (2) LOWER C. (1) Either 2P36B OR 2P36C ONLY (2) RISE D. (1) Either 2P36B OR 2P36C ONLY (2) LOWER Answer:

D. (1) Either 2P36B OR 2P36C ONLY (2) LOWER Notes:

Answer D is correct. The leak location will prevent operating the 2P36A Charging pump because it cannot be isolated from the leak and operated at the same time. CVCS Manual Cross Header Isolation Valve 2CVC-25 can be closed to isolate the leak from the 2P36B/2P36C charging pumps because the HPSI injection header ties off the 2P36B end of the discharge cross connection header so only the 2P36B OR 2P36C pump can be used. According to the note above step 9 of OP 2203.036, LOSS OF CHARGING AOP, injecting into the HPSI header from charging will transfer approximately 390 gallons of highly borated water to the RCS so at 400 EFPD, this borated water will cause the RCS temperature to drop.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/8/2020 Search 000022A201 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ACCP OBJ 3

TEST QID #

6 11 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 That is the basis for OP 2203.036, LOSS OF CHARGING AOP Step 9.G.3.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the 2P36A Charging pump cannot be used due to the leak location but plausible as it is still a good pump. Part 2 is incorrect as the concentrated borated water will cause the RCS temperature to drop but plausible if the applicant does not remember this and thinks he is adding pure water.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the 2P36A Charging pump cannot be used due to the leak location but plausible as it is still a good pump. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the concentrated borated water will cause the RCS temperature to drop but plausible if the applicant does not remember this and thinks he is adding pure water.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have the ability to determine whether an isolable charging line leak exist and interpret the charging line leak location and use the Loss of Reactor Coolant Pump Makeup AOP to isolate and bypass the leak location to regain RCS makeup and interpret the consequences of using the HPSI injection path to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2203.012L, ANNUNCIATOR 2K12 CORRECTIVE ACTION, Rev 54, Annunciator 2K12-B3, "CHARGING HEADER FLOW LOW" OP 2203.036, Loss of Charging AOP, Rev. 15, Entry Section, Steps 2, 5, 6, & 9 AOP 2203.036, Loss of Charging AOP Tech Guide, Rev. 13, Step 9 STM-2-04, CVCS, Rev. 31, Drawing on page 66.

CVCS P&ID M-2331 Drawing.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

12 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2567 Safety Function 8

System Number 026

Title:

Loss of Component Cooling Water (CCW)

K/A AA1.07

==

Description:==

Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling Water: - Flow rates to the components and systems that are serviced by the CCWS; interactions among the components RO Imp:

2.9 SRO Imp:

3.0 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at full power.

• A fire is reported in the CCW Pump room at 0950.

• The Fire Brigade Leader has confirmed the fire.

• The Fire Brigade has responded and is fighting the fire.

NOW at 1000

• The running CCW pump trips and no other pump starts automatically.

• Annunciators 2K11-A1/A3/A5/A7 "CCW DISCH FLOW LO" are in alarm on all RCPs.

• The CRS contacts the Fire Brigade Leader at 1003 and asks if a manual start of a standby CCW pump is feasible with the CCW Pump room on fire.

• The Fire Brigade Leader responds at 1004 and says to wait at least 5 minutes.

Based on these conditions, the REQUIRED action to take would be to ____(1)____.

The MAIN reason for stopping the RCPs is to prevent ____(2)____.

A (1) Trip the Reactor AND stop ALL RCPs by 1005 if CCW flow is NOT restored (2) an unisolable RCS leak B. (1) Trip the Reactor AND stop ALL RCPs by 1005 if CCW flow is NOT restored (2) pump bearing damage C. (1) Restore CCW flow to the RCPs by 1010 OR trip the Reactor and stop ALL RCPs (2) pump bearing damage D. (1) Restore CCW flow to the RCPs by 1010 OR trip the Reactor and stop ALL RCPs (2) an unisolable RCS leak Answer:

A (1) Trip the Reactor AND stop ALL RCPs by 1005 if CCW flow is NOT restored (2) an unisolable RCS leak Notes:

Answer A is correct. Per Step 2.D of the RCP Emergencies AOP, with a fire in the AUX Extension Building and a Loss of CCW to the RCPs, the Reactor Must be tripped and the RCPs STOPPED within 5 minutes. According to the RCP Emergencies AOP Tech Guide, RCPs are stopped within the required 5 or 10 minute time frame to prevent an unisolable RCS leak.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/10/2020 Search 000026A107 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ARCP OBJ 4

TEST QID #

7 13 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the time limit to secure RCPs is specific to seal damage to prevent an intersystem LOCA but plausible as CCW also goes to the Pump Bearing oil cooling Heat Exchangers.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the CCW flow needs to be restored to the RCPs by 1005 but plausible as Step 3 AOP (without a fire) allows 10 minutes to Restore CCW to the RCPs OR Trip the Reactor. Part 2 is incorrect as the time limit to secure RCPs is specific to seal damage to prevent an intersystem LOCA but plausible as CCW also goes to the Pump Bearing oil cooling Heat Exchangers.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the CCW flow needs to be restored to the RCPs by 1005 but plausible as Step 3 AOP (without a fire) allows 10 minutes to Restore CCW to the RCPs. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have the ability to monitor a Loss of Component Cooling Water to the RCPs Heat exchangers and interact with the RCP Emergencies AOP which addresses the Loss of CCW and understand the mitigating actions needed to protect the integrity of the RCP seals to answer the question correctly.

References:

OP-2203.025, RCP Emergencies, Rev. 19, Entry Section and Steps 1, 2 & 3.

AOP-2203.025, RCP Emergencies Technical Guide, Rev. 19, Steps 2 & 3.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

14 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2568 Safety Function 3

System Number 027

Title:

Pressurizer Pressure Control (PZR PCS) Malfunction K/A AA2.05

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions: - PZR heater setpoints RO Imp:

3.2 SRO Imp:

3.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at full power.

• In service PZR Pressure controller set point fails to 2170 psia.

• The CRS implements OP-2203.028, PZR Systems Malfunction AOP.

When evaluating the PZR Pressure Control System during this event, the expected indication of both spray valves would have ____(1)____ light(s) illuminated AND the Pressurizer backup heaters will be ____(2)____.

A. (1) GREEN, AMBER, AND RED (2) ON B. (1) GREEN, AMBER, AND RED (2) OFF C. (1) ONLY THE RED (2) ON D. (1) ONLY THE RED (2) OFF Answer:

B. (1) GREEN, AMBER, AND RED (2) OFF Notes:

Answer B is correct. Greater than 25 psia Pressure above set point (Normal Pressure is 2200 psia so 2200 - 2170 = 30 psia deviation from set point) will open the spray valves to 40 to 50% which is a GREEN & AMBER light indication along with the RED (Green and red indicate intermediate) on the Spray Valve Control switch. Greater than 40 psia above 2200 psia set point will open the spray valves to 100% which is an RED light indication only without the others on the Spray Valve Control switch. Heaters will not come on as the actual pressure must be below the set point by 50 psid for this to happen.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the BU Heaters will be OFF due to set point being below the actual pressure (2200 psia) but plausible as the backup heaters come on at 50 psid below set point and turn off at 30 psid below set point.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Spray valves should go to the 40 to 50% position (RED, GREEN &

AMBER LIGHT) at 2200 psia with a set point of 2170 psia but plausible as the spray valves would go to the RED ONLY full open position if the set point dropped below 2160 psia.. Part 2 is incorrect as the BU Heaters will be OFF due to set point below the actual pressure but plausible as the backup heaters come on at 50 psid below set point and turn off at 30 psid below set point.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/8/2020 Search 000027A205 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-APZRM OBJ 4

TEST QID #

8 15 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Spray valves should go to the 40 to 50% position (RED, GREEN &

AMBER LIGHT) at 2200 psia with a set point of 2170 psia but plausible as the spray valves would go to the RED ONLY full open position if the set point dropped below 2160 psia. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the PZR heater and spray valve set points to have the ability to determine and interpret why the PZR BU Heaters are NOT on with a set point deviation of 30 psid (Setpoint is actually below actual pressure of 2200 psia). Also why the PZR Pressure Control spray valves are open in an intermediate position.

References:

OP 2203.028, PZR SYSTEMS MALFUNCTION AOP, Rev. 17, Entry Conditions, and Steps 1.D & 6.

STM 2-03-1, Pressurizer Pressure And Level Control, Rev. 18, Section 2.2.2 and 2.2.6.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

16 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2569 Safety Function 1

System Number 029

Title:

Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)

K/A EK2.06

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the interrelations between the ATWS and the following: - Breakers, relays, and disconnects RO Imp:

2.9 SRO Imp:

3.1 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at full power operation.

• Grid disturbance has caused MTG to trip.

• RPS has failed to trip the Reactor.

• The Diverse Scram System (DSS) automatically trips the Reactor.

After the Reactor trips, the Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers ____(1)____ be OPEN AND the CEA MG Set output contactors

____(2)____ be OPEN A. (1) WOULD (2) WOULD B. (1) WOULD (2) WOULD NOT C. (1) WOULD NOT (2) WOULD D. (1) WOULD NOT (2) WOULD NOT Answer:

C. (1) WOULD NOT (2) WOULD Notes:

Answer C is correct. The applicant should realize the TCBs failed to open from the signal provided by RPS. This is based on DSS actuating (given in the stem) since RPS failed to open the TCBs allowing the reactor to provide more heat input to the RCS. The heat input causes RCS pressure to rise until the DSS trip set point is reached (2450 psia). DSS opens contacts in the output of the MG sets, de-energizing the CEDM buses (2C70 and 71) causing the CEAs to insert.

Therefore the TCBs would still be closed in this scenario Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because the TCBs would not trip open but plausible as they do trip open on a normal RPS trip signal. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because the TCBs would not trip open but plausible as they do trip open on a normal RPS trip signal. Part 2 is incorrect as these conditions would cause the 'A' and 'B' CEA MG Set output contactors to open AND a Reactor Trip but plausible as these contactors normally stay closed on a normal RPS trip signal.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as these conditions would cause the 'A' and 'B' CEA MG Set output contactors to open AND a Reactor Trip but plausible as these contactors normally stay closed on a normal RPS trip signal.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/4/2020 Search 000029K206 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-DSS OBJ 4

TEST QID #

9 17 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the interrelations between the ATWS and the Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers and CEA MG Set output contactors to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-63-1, Diverse Scram System, Rev 2, Section 2.1, DSS Trip Signal Generation, and drawings on pages 17 and 18.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

18 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2570 Safety Function 3

System Number 038

Title:

Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)

K/A EK3.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the SGTR: - Equalizing pressure on primary and secondary sides of ruptured S/G RO Imp:

4.1 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• A 100 gpm SGTR is in progress on "A" SG.

• OP-2202.004, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, EOP is being implemented.

• RCS cool down to less than 535°F Thot is in progress to isolate "A" SG.

• RCP 2P32B and 2P32D are running.

• The plant was stabilized at 517°F Thot.

• SG "A" pressure is currently 800 psia and stable.

• The CRS directs the ATC to reduce RCS Pressure and keep RCPs running using OP-2202.010, Standard Attachment 48, RCS Pressure Control.

The reason for reducing RCS pressure at this point is to ____(1)____.

The optimum RCS pressure band to maintain per the CRS directions would be ____(2)____ psia.

A. (1) MINIMIZE break flow into the SG (2) 750 to 850 B. (1) MINIMIZE break flow into the SG (2) 1025 to 1125 C. (1) MAXIMIZE HPSI Flow into the RCS (2) 750 to 850 D. (1) MAXIMIZE HPSI Flow into the RCS (2) 1025 to 1125 Answer:

B. (1) MINIMIZE break flow into the SG (2) 1025 to 1125 Notes:

Answer B is correct. IAW OP-2202.004, SGTR EOP Floating step 14.B, to minimize primary to secondary break flow, RCS pressure should be maintained within the following: 1 - Less than 1000 psia as conditions allow; 2 - Within 50 psi of ruptured SG pressure as conditions allow; 3 - within 2202.010 Attachment 1, P-T Limits; And 4 - Within RCP NPSH requirements. The RCP NPSH requirements will limit the pressure reduction the most because the RCP require 30°F margin to saturation for NPSH. At 517 Thot plus 30 °F, the RCS pressure cannot be reduced to less than the saturation pressure for 547°F which is approximately 1020 psia. So RCS pressure should not be reduced below this to keep RCPs running. Keeping RCPs running is a priority to allow back flow of the SG to the RCS once the SG is isolated.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/4/2020 Search 000038K301 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ESGTR OBJ 5

TEST QID #

10 19 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as this would violate RCP NPSH requirements but plausible as the listed band is within 50 psi of ruptured SG pressure.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as HPSI flow into the RCS will rise as RCS pressure is reduced. Part 2 is incorrect as this would violate RCP NPSH requirements but plausible as the listed band is within 50 psi of ruptured SG pressure.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as HPSI flow into the RCS will rise as RCS pressure is reduced. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must knowledge of the reason for reducing or equalizing pressure on primary and secondary sides of a ruptured S/G and the knowledge on how to comply with the SGTR EOP step to minimize primary to secondary break flow and keep RCPs running to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP-2202.004, SGTR EOP, Rev 015, Floating step 14 B and C Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

20 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2571 Safety Function 4

System Number 040

Title:

Steam Line Rupture K/A AK1.06

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Steam Line Rupture: -

High-energy steam line break considerations RO Imp:

3.7 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• There are indications of a Steam Line Break inside Containment.

• Unit 2 is tripped from full power and SPTAs are implemented.

• SG levels drop below EFAS set points and EFAS 1&2 actuates.

FIVE (5) MINUTES LATER

• SG "A" pressure is at 700 psia and dropping.

• SG "B" pressure is at 740 psia and stabilizing.

At this point, EFW feed flow ____(1)____ automatically flowing to the "A" Steam Generator AND EFW feed flow

____(2)____ automatically flowing to the "B" Steam Generator.

A. (1) IS (2) IS B. (1) IS (2) IS NOT C. (1) IS NOT (2) IS D. (1) IS NOT (2) IS NOT Answer:

D. (1) IS NOT (2) IS NOT Notes:

Answer D is correct. Both SG Pressures being less than 751 will secure feed to the "A" (Affected) SG. SG B is not being fed because the differential pressure between the Steam Generators is less than 90 psid. The operational implication of this is that the unaffected "B" SG has a low level and is not being fed to continue to remove RCS Heat. The board operator should monitor the situation and ensure SG "B" starts getting EFW flow as soon as a 90 PSID is developed between the Steam Generators to ensure the RCS Heat removal safety function is MET.

Distractor A is incorrect but plausible as both SGs would have EFW flow to them if SG pressures were above 751 psia with their levels below the EFAS set points and they each did have flow recently.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as SG "A" did have flow prior to its pressure dropping below 751 psia with its level below the EFAS set points. Part 2 is correct.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/4/2020 Search 000040K106 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EFW OBJ 5

TEST QID #

11 21 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as SG "B" did have flow prior "A" SG pressure dropping below 751 psia with its level below the EFAS set points.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must knowledge of the operational implications of what effect a Steam Line Break on a single SG has on the EFW System FCV opening logic and the need to feed the unaffected SG to maintain the RCS Heat Removal Safety Function to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-19-2, EFW and AFW Systems, Rev. 43, Section 2.3.3.1 EFW FCVs.

OP 2202.001, SPTAs, Rev. 17, Step 8.E.

OP 2202.005, EXCESS STEAM DEMAND, Rev. 18, Floating Step 21.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

22 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2572 Safety Function 4

System Number 054

Title:

Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW)

K/A 2.1.20

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

RO Imp:

4.6 SRO Imp:

4.6 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Main Feedwater has been lost at full power operations.

• The CRS implements OP-2202.006, Loss of Feedwater (LOF) EOP, after SPTAs.

NOW

• Both SG Levels have lowered to the point Once Through Cooling Heat Removal is needed.

• The CRS directs actuation of SIAS and CCAS per the LOF EOP Step 15.

These ESFAS signals would be initiated from ____(1)____.

The reason for initiating the CCAS is to ____(2)____.

A. (1) 2C39 or 2C40 (2) align SW to RCB Fan Coolers since Chill Water flow is isolated by the SIAS B. (1) 2C39 or 2C40 (2) limit the pressure rise in Containment during Once Through Cooling C. (1) 2C03 or 2C14 (2) align SW to RCB Fan Coolers since Chill Water flow is isolated by the SIAS D. (1) 2C03 or 2C14 (2) limit the pressure rise in Containment during Once Through Cooling Answer:

D. (1) 2C03 or 2C14 (2) limit the pressure rise in Containment during Once Through Cooling Notes:

Answer D is correct. 2C03 is the Normal ESFAS Actuation Location that the ATC would use to actuate CCAS and 2C14 is the backup location. Both of these panels are in the Control Room Proper and overseen by the CRS. Per the EOP Technical Guide, CCAS aligns the containment cooling system to respond to the raised containment heat load that is expected following the initiation of once through cooling. Hot RCS fluid will be released in Containment (LOCA) so the Reactor Containment Building (RCB) Fan Coolers are shifted to the Emergency Mode.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because 2C03 or 2C14 would be used but plausible as CCAS can be actuated at 2C39 and 2C40 but these panels are in the back of the Control Room and have locked doors. These panels are normally used for ESFAS Relay testing during outages. Part 2 is incorrect as Chill Water to the Containment Fan Coolers is isolated by CIAS NOT SIAS but plausible as SW will be aligned to the RCB Fan Coolers and Chill Water may eventually be isolated if Containment Pressure rises to the CIAS set point.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/4/2020 Search 0000542120 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOSF OBJ 4

TEST QID #

12 23 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because 2C03 or 2C14 would be used but plausible as CCAS can be actuated at 2C39 and 2C40 but these panels are in the back of the Control Room and have locked doors. These panels are normally used for ESFAS Relay testing during outages. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as Chill Water to the Containment Fan Coolers is isolated by CIAS NOT SIAS but plausible as SW will be aligned to the RCB Fan Coolers and Chill Water may eventually be isolated if Containment Pressure rises to the CIAS set point.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have the ability to execute steps in the LOF EOP as directed by the CRS and know the reason for the steps in the procedure to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2202.006 Loss of Feedwater (LOF) EOP, Rev. 13, Step 15 and the EOP Technical Guide for STEP 15 STM 2-45, Main Chill Water, Rev. 19, Section 2.4.5.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

24 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2573 Safety Function 6

System Number 056

Title:

Loss of Offsite Power K/A AA1.30

==

Description:==

Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power: - AFW flow control valve operating switches RO Imp:

3.5 SRO Imp:

3.6 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• A loss of Offsite Power has occurred from full power.

• After SPTAs, the CRS implements OP-2202.007, LOOP EOP.

• The Crew has initiated a cool down due to Offsite Power availability.

20 MINUTES LATER

• Resetting of the MSIS set points were missed during the cool down.

• As a result, MSIS has actuated.

• EFAS has also actuated due to low SG levels.

• SG levels are currently at 15% and lowering.

• The CRS directs establishing feed flow to the SGs using EOP Standard Attachment 46, Establishing EFW Flow.

To establish EFW flow to both SG's, the EFW Flow Control Valves need to be Overridden by placing hand switches to ____(1)____.

Once the hand switches are overridden, flow should be established to each Steam Generator at ____(2)____ for greater than 5 minutes or until SG levels start to rise.

A. (1) EFAS Override (Right) and then to MSIS Override (Left)

(2) less than or equal to 150 gpm to each SG B. (1) MSIS Override (Left) and then to EFAS Override (Right)

(2) less than or equal to 150 gpm to each SG C. (1) EFAS Override (Right) and then to MSIS Override (Left)

(2) greater than 485 total to both SGs D. (1) MSIS Override (Left) and then to EFAS Override (Right)

(2) greater than 485 total to both SGs Answer:

B. (1) MSIS Override (Left) and then to EFAS Override (Right)

(2) less than or equal to 150 gpm to each SG Notes:

Answer B is correct. OP 2202.010, STANDARD ATTACHMENTS, Attachment 46, ESTABLISHING EFW FLOW, Steps 2 and 5 provide direction on how to override and establish flow to the SGs. To override the valves, the hand switch must be taken to the left (MSIS) and then to the right (EFAS). Both SGs are impacted due to a prolonged loss of feed and at 15 % so step 5 of Attachment 46 directs maintaining 150 gpm until a SG level rise is noted or feed flow maintained for Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/3/2020 Search 000056A130 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EFW OBJ 7

TEST QID #

13 25 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 greater than 5 minutes.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the switches have to be taken to both positions but they have to be taken in the correct order to reset the MSIS trip relays. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the switches have to be taken to both positions but they have to be taken in the correct order to reset the MSIS trip relays. Part 2 is incorrect due to the directed flow rate but plausible as 485 gpm is the minimum flow rate to satisfy the RCS heat removal safety function if SGs are less than 10% Narrow Range for decay heat loading from the reactor. After a level rise in the SGs or 5 minutes, then the operator should raise flow to greater than 485 gpm total to both SGs.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect due to the directed flow rate but plausible as 485 gpm is the minimum flow rate to satisfy the RCS heat removal safety function if SGs are less than 10% Narrow Range for decay heat loading from the reactor. After a level rise in the SGs or 5 minutes, then the operator should raise flow to greater than 485 gpm total to both SGs.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have the ability to operate the EFW flow control valve operating switches during a Loss of Offsite Power and monitor feedwater flow to ensure all the limits and precautions are met to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-19-2, EFW and AFW Systems, Rev. 43, Section 2.3.3.1 EFW FCVs.

OP 2202.007, LOOP EOP, Rev. 18, Step 22.

OP 1015.021, ANO-2 EOP/AOP USER GUIDE, Rev. 19, Step 4.41.13, Definition of Impacted SG.

OP 2202.010, STANDARD ATTACHMENTS, Rev. 30, Attachment 46, ESTABLISHING EFW FLOW, Steps 2 and 5 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

26 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2574 Safety Function 6

System Number 057

Title:

Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus K/A AK3.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus: -

Actions contained in EOP for loss of vital ac electrical instrument bus RO Imp:

4.1 SRO Imp:

4.4 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following;

• The plant is at full power.

• Annunciator 2K08 "LOAD CENTER 2B5 UNDERVOLT" comes in.

• The Red Train #1 EDG starts due to undervoltage on Bus 2B5.

• Investigations reveal the Feeder BRK 2A-301 from Bus 2A3 has tripped.

• All attempts to close the 2B5 Bus Feeder BRK 2A-301 have failed.

• OP-2203.045, Loss of 480 Volt Vital Bus is implemented.

If these conditions continue without any mitigating actions for greater than 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />, then the Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus Inverter ____(1)____ would be shutdown to ____(2)____.

A. (1) 2Y24 (2) to limit the load on the Red Train DC Battery B. (1) 2Y24 (2) to limit the load on the Red Train EDG C. (1) 2Y13 (2) to limit the load on the Red Train DC Battery D. (1) 2Y13 (2) to limit the load on the Red Train EDG Answer:

C. (1) 2Y13 (2) to limit the load on the Red Train DC Battery Notes:

Answer C is correct. IAW OP 2303.045, LOSS OF 480 VOLT VITAL BUS, Section 1 (Red Train) Step 17, the 2Y13 inverter which supplies 120 VAC Vital Instrument Bus 2RS3 is chosen as the one to shutdown and per the tech guide for this step, the reason is to reduce the load on the Red Battery 2D11.

Distractor A is incorrect. In Part 1, 2Y24 is incorrect as the procedure directs 2Y13 for Red Train Loss but plausible as shutting down this inverter would reduce the load on the Green Battery 2D12. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. In Part 1, 2Y24 is incorrect as the procedure directs 2Y13 but plausible as shutting down this inverter would reduce the load on the Green Battery 2D12. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the #1 EDG would start on a Loss of 2B5 Undervoltage relays but would not actually tie to the 2B5 Bus because Bus 4160 VAC 4160 VAC Bus 2A3 is still energized.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the #1 EDG would start on a Loss of 2B5 Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/3/2020 Search 000057K301 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-A480V OBJ 4

TEST QID #

14 27 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Undervoltage relays but would not actually tie to the 2B5 Bus because Bus 2A3 is still energized.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the reason for the securing a Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus as directed in the AOP for a Loss of the AC Bus that supplies the inverter backup power and the battery chargers to the Vital DC Battery to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2303.045, LOSS OF 480 VOLT VITAL BUS, Rev. 12, Entry Section, and Section 1 Step 17.

AOP 2203.045, LOSS OF 480 VOLT VITAL BUS AOP Tech Guide, Rev. 11, Step 17 STM 2-32-4, 120 VAC Distribution System, Rev. 20, Drawings on Pages 17 and 29.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 0605. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2006 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

28 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2575 Safety Function 6

System Number 058

Title:

Loss of DC Power K/A AK1.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of DC Power: -

Battery charger equipment and instrumentation RO Imp:

2.8 SRO Imp:

3.1 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

• Green vital electrical DC Bus 2D02 voltage is 130V DC.

• Green battery charger 2D32A load is 135 amps.

• The Green vital battery 2D12 disconnect is inadvertently opened.

Under these conditions, Control Room Annunciator ____(1)____ would come in alarm AND battery charger 2D32A load would ____(2)____.

A. (1) CONT CENTER 2D02 UNDERVOLT (2) rise significantly B. (1) CONT CENTER 2D02 UNDERVOLT (2) stay approximately the same C. (1) BATTTERY 2D12 NOT AVAIL (2) rise significantly D. (1) BATTTERY 2D12 NOT AVAIL (2) stay approximately the same Answer:

D. (1) BATTTERY 2D12 NOT AVAIL (2) stay approximately the same Notes:

Answer D is correct. During normal operations the DC loads are supplied by the Battery Charger as long as the Battery charger has AC input, with the battery acting as a backup. Disconnecting the battery from the bus in this case would result in a "Battery Not Available" alarm due to the battery no longer being connected to the bus. The Charger is still connected and supplying DC loads therefore there is no change in amps or load on the charger.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect based on the incorrect alarm but plausible if the applicant assumes disconnecting the battery would cause a undervoltage condition which could cause this alarm. An undervoltage alarm is caused by bus voltage being <110 volts. Battery voltage would have to degrade as the battery was being used before this alarm would come in. Part 2 is incorrect as disconnecting the battery with the battery charger in service will not effect DC Bus 2D02 bus voltage or amps as the battery charger is still connected. Plausible if the applicant assumes the battery is supplying all the loads.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect based on the incorrect alarm but plausible if the applicant assumes disconnecting the battery would cause a undervoltage condition which could cause this alarm. An undervoltage alarm is caused by bus voltage being <110 volts. Battery voltage would have to degrade as the battery was being used before this Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/3/2020 Search 000058K101 10CFR55: 41.8 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ED125 OBJ 4

TEST QID #

15 29 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 alarm would come in. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as disconnecting the battery with the battery charger in service will not effect DC Bus 2D02 bus voltage or amps as the battery charger is still connected. Plausible if the applicant assumes the battery is supplying all the loads.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the operational implications of a Loss of a DC Battery Power source will have on its associated DC Bus with an operable Battery charger connected and the expected instrument indications changes to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-32-5, 125 VDC Electrical Distribution, Rev. 26, Sections 2.3 & 2.4; Section 3.0 Associated Alarms, AND simplified drawing page 33.

Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2201. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2015 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

30 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2576 Safety Function 4

System Number 062

Title:

Loss of Nuclear Service Water K/A AA2.04

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water: - The normal values and upper limits for the temperatures of the components cooled by SWS RO Imp:

2.5 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

• • • • • • • • • • REFERENCE PROVIDED**********

Consider the following:

• At 0600 today Core Off Load was completed 20 days into 2R27.

• CEA Shuffle to different Fuel assemblies is in progress AND is the current Critical Path Task to keep the outage on schedule.

NOW at 0800 today

• ESFAS relay testing closes the Service Water Supply Isolations to SFP HX 2E-27 2CV-1525-1 and 2CV-1526-2.

• SFP Temperature starts rising from initial temperature of 140°F.

• The CRS enters OP-2203.002 SFP Emergencies.

• All attempts to open these valves remotely and locally have failed.

• Temporary SFP Cooling System from Unit 1 is NOT available.

Based on these conditions, the CEA Shuffle evolution ____(1)____.

If NO SFP cooling is restored, the SFP will reach 200°F at approximately ____(2)____ today.

A. (1) MAY Continue (2) 1200 B. (1) MAY Continue (2) 1500 C. (1) MUST be Suspended (2) 1200 D. (1) MUST be Suspended (2) 1500 Answer:

C. (1) MUST be Suspended (2) 1200 Notes:

Answer C is correct. In Part 1, IAW OP 2203.002, SPENT FUEL POOL EMERGENCIES Step 9. A, if cooling to the SFP is lost with a recent core offload, then the control component (CEA) handling must be suspended. In Part 2, IAW OP 2203.002, SPENT FUEL POOL EMERGENCIES, Step 9.C, Time to 200°F must be predicted using Attachment F, HEATUP TO 200°F ON LOSS OF COOLING - FULL CORE OFFLOAD. Based on this graph, at 20 Days since the Last Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/2/2020 Search 000062A204 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ASFP OBJ 13 TEST QID #

16 31 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Refueling Shutdown, you would go from 140°F to 200°F in 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> so 0800 plus 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> = 1200.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the procedure directs suspending CEA change out but plausible as the evolution could continue at 140°F in the SFP if the procedure did not stop the evolution as it is normally this warm during CEA shuffle. Also plausible as this evolution would be critical path for the outage timeline. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the procedure directs suspending CEA change out but plausible as the evolution could continue at 140°F in the SFP if the procedure did not stop the evolution as it is normally this warm during CEA shuffle. Also plausible as this evolution would be critical path for the outage timeline. Part 2 is incorrect as the correct time is 1200 but plausible if the wrong graph, Attachment E HEATUP TO 200 °F ON LOSS OF COOLING -

NORMAL OPERATION, is used to determine the time to 200°F.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the correct time is 1200 but plausible if the wrong graph, Attachment E HEATUP TO 200°F ON LOSS OF COOLING - NORMAL OPERATION, is used to determine the time to 200°F.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have the ability to determine and interpret the action required and expected time to the upper limit for temperature for a Loss of Service Water cooling to the Spent Fuel Pool (SFP) just after a full core offload with a SFP temperature of 140°F to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2203.002, SPENT FUEL POOL EMERGENCIES, Rev. 21 Steps 3.B, 4, & 9 and Attachment E, HEATUP TO 200°F ON LOSS OF COOLING - NORMAL OPERATION & Attachment F, HEATUP TO 200°F ON LOSS OF COOLING -

FULL CORE OFFLOAD.

STM 2-42, Service Water & Auxiliary Cooling Water Systems, Rev. 38, SW System Drawing on page 62.

OP 2203.002, SPENT FUEL POOL EMERGENCIES, Rev. 21, Attachment E HEATUP TO 200°F ON LOSS OF COOLING - NORMAL OPERATION & Attachment F, HEATUP TO 200 °F ON LOSS OF COOLING - FULL CORE OFFLOAD will be provided as a reference for this question.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

32 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2577 Safety Function 8

System Number 065

Title:

Loss of Instrument Air K/A 2.1.7

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

RO Imp:

4.4 SRO Imp:

4.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following the following:

• The plant has been shutdown for a refueling outage.

• PZR level is 41%.

• SDC Pump 2P-60A has been placed in service through SDC HX 2E-35A.

• The last 2 RCPs have been secured.

• SDC Return Temperature is 220°F and lowering.

• SDC Flow is 4000 gpm and steady.

• The manual valves for SDC FCV 2CV-5091 and SDC TCV 2CV-5093 have NOT been throttled for Loss of Instrument Air IAW OP-1015.008, Unit 2 SDC control.

NOW If the Instrument Air supply going to the SDC Flow Control Valve (FCV) 2CV-5091 and SDC Temperature Control Valve (TCV) 2CV-5093 degrades to 25 psig, the SDC flow going to the Reactor from FCV 2CV-5091 would ____(1)____

AND the temperature of the SDC fluid going to the Reactor would ____(2)____.

A. (1) RISE (2) RISE B. (1) RISE (2) LOWER C. (1) LOWER (2) RISE D. (1) LOWER (2) LOWER Answer:

A. (1) RISE (2) RISE Notes:

Answer A is correct. A loss of Instrument Air below 58 psig will cause the SDC FCV 2CV-5091to fail Open and the SDC TCV 2CV-5093 (outlet of the SDC HX) to fail Closed. This will raise the SDC flow through the system and bypass the SDC HX which will reduce the amount of heat removal from the SDC fluid (The SDC TCV has some minimum flow through it when failed closed due to design of the valve seat and disc) thus the water flow returning to the RCS will go up.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer and could imply the TCV fails open on a degraded IA supply.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/2/2020 Search 0000652107 10CFR55: 41.3 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-SDC OBJ 4

TEST QID #

17 33 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer and could imply the FCV fails closed on a degraded IA supply.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer and could imply the FCV fails closed on a degraded IA supply. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer and could imply the TCV fails open on a degraded IA supply.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have the ability to interpret the degraded IA instrumentation and evaluate SDC flow and temperature due to the degraded IA supply and make operational judgments based on the failure mode of the SDC FCV and TCV on the ability to remove the decay heat in the Reactor to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-14 SDC System, Rev. 18, Sections 2.5, 2.6 & 2.6.2 and drawing on page 64.

Historical Comments:

This QID is from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1639. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2009 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

34 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2578 Safety Function 6

System Number 077

Title:

Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances K/A AK2.07

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the interrelations between Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances and the following: - Turbine / Generator control RO Imp:

3.6 SRO Imp:

3.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant is at full power at 250 EFPD in the spring.

• Most of Arkansas is under a tornado watch.

• Unit 1 is shutdown for a refueling outage.

NOW

• The system dispatcher calls the Control Room to inform them that the Pleasant Hill 500 KV transmission line has been removed from service due to tornado damage.

• The Grid 500 KV Voltage has risen to 530 KV and is unstable.

• Main Generator MEGAVARS are indicating 100 MEGAVARS IN.

• The system dispatcher directs Unit 2 to reduce generator load to 700 MW as soon as possible AND adjust MEGAVARS to 100 MEGAVARS OUT.

After boration to the RCS has started lowering RCS temperature, to lower Main Generator Load, the CBOT should rotate the "LOAD LIMIT SET" potentiometer in the ____(1)____ direction.

To adjust Main Generator MEGAVARS to 100 MEGAVARS OUT, the CBOT should bump the "GEN TERM VOLT ADJUST" hand switch in the ____(2)____ direction.

A. (1) CLOCKWISE (2) CLOCKWISE B. (1) CLOCKWISE (2) COUNTER-CLOCKWISE C. (1) COUNTER-CLOCKWISE (2) CLOCKWISE D. (1) COUNTER-CLOCKWISE (2) COUNTER-CLOCKWISE Answer:

C. (1) COUNTER-CLOCKWISE (2) CLOCKWISE Notes:

Answer C is correct. Turbine load at 100% power is always on the Load Limit. To lower turbine load the potentiometer is turned in the decrease direction or COUNTER-CLOCKWISE. With the Main Generator Voltage regulator in its normal AUTO position, to adjust VARS to the to 100 MEGAVARS OUT "+" the RO is directed by OP 2106.009, TURBINE GENERATOR OPERATIONS, Rev. 87, Section 18.1, Adjusting VARS to bump the "GEN TERM VOLT ADJUST" hand Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/2/2020 Search 000077K207 10CFR55: 41.4 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-AAG OBJ 4

TEST QID #

18 35 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 switch in the CLOCKWISE or RAISE direction.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer.

Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer.

Part 2 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible because it is the opposite direction from the correct answer.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the interrelations between Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances and the Turbine / Generator controls during a grid disturbance and required down power to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-24-1, Main Turbine Control System, Rev. 25, Section 2.2.3, Load Limit Circuit.

STM 2-30, Main Generator Construction And Controls, Rev. 10, Section 2.5.1, VAR Loading, and drawings on Pages 43 and 44.

OP 2106.009, TURBINE GENERATOR OPERATIONS, Rev. 88, Section 18.1, Adjusting VARS.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1625. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2009 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

36 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2579 Safety Function 1

System Number 005

Title:

Inoperable/Stuck Control Rod K/A AK1.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Inoperable/Stuck Control Rod: - Axial power imbalance RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The Plant is at 100% Power.

• A single CEA drops to 25 inches withdrawn and stops.

• The following Annunciators come in on 2K04 and 2K10:

- "CEAC 1/2 CEA DEVIATION"

- "CPC AZ TILT EXCEEDED"

- "TECH SPEC AZ TILT EXCEEDED" Due to the Core AZ TILT Flux imbalance during this event, within a MAXIMUM time of ____(1)____, action MUST be taken to ____(2)____ to ensure compliance with Technical Specifications.

A. (1) 30 minutes (2) insert Group P CEAs to maintain ASI within the CEA Insertion Limits of the COLR B. (1) 30 minutes (2) reset CEA pulse counter position to ensure COLSS is detecting the CEA misalignment C. (1) 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> (2) insert Group P CEAs to maintain ASI within the CEA Insertion Limits of the COLR D. (1) 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> (2) reset CEA pulse counter position to ensure COLSS is detecting the CEA misalignment Answer:

B. (1) 30 minutes (2) reset CEA pulse counter position to ensure COLSS is detecting the CEA misalignment Notes:

Answer B is correct. Per TS 3.2.3.b.1 and Contingency Step 25.B of the OP 2203.003, CEA Malfunction AOP, if the "TECH SPEC AZ TILT EXCEEDED" alarm comes in, then the misaligned CEA pulse counter position on PMS must be reset within 30 minutes to ensure the COLSS is detecting the CEA misalignment.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because there is no specified time limit in the TS or COLR to maintain ASI but plausible as ASI control will be needed during the down power to recover the dropped CEA and the Group P CEAs must be maintained within the insertion limits of the COLR to comply with TS.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the requirement is 30 minutes but plausible as Shutdown Margin must be verified to be adequate with in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of this event to comply with TS. Part 2 is incorrect because there is no specified time limit in the TS or COLR to maintain ASI but plausible as ASI control will be needed during the down power to re-cover the dropped CEA and the Group P CEAs must be maintained within the insertion limits of the COLR to comply with TS.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/1/2020 Search 000005K101 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ACEA OBJ 2

TEST QID #

19 37 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the requirement is 30 minutes but plausible as Shutdown Margin must be verified to be adequate with in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of this event to comply with TS. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must have knowledge of the operational implications of the flux in the core due to a dropped/stuck Inoperable Control Rod and the TS actions required to ensure this flux shift is moni-tored during the event to correctly answer the question.

References:

AOP 2203.003, CEA Malfunction, Rev. 26. Entry conditions, Step 23, 24, and 25. along with the technical basis for step 24 and 25 in AOP 2203.003, Rev.25.

TS 3.2.3 LCO for Azimuthal Power, Action b.1. Amendment 169.

ANO-2 Cycle 28 COLR, Rev. 0, Step 7 and Figure 3, CEA INSERTION LIMITS VERSUS THERMAL POWER.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

38 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2580 Safety Function 2

System Number 028

Title:

Pressurizer (PZR) Level Control Malfunction K/A 2.2.44

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.

RO Imp:

4.2 SRO Imp:

4.4 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

• Pressurizer Level Control System master controller is in AUTO REMOTE.

• Pressurizer Level Control is selected to "CH 4627-A" position.

• Pressurizer Heater Low Level Cutout is selected to "A & B" position.

• Charging Pump Selector Switch, 2HS-4868, is in "A & B" position.

• Pressurizer Reference leg for level transmitter 2LT-4627-1 develops a leak.

• A PZR Control Channel 1 Level annunciator comes in.

• The CRS implements OP-2202.028, PZR Systems Malfunction AOP With the above conditions, there would be ____(1)____.

In accordance with OP-2202.028, PZR Systems Malfunction AOP, the FIRST action to take for this condition would be to ____(2)____.

A. (1) ONE CCP running with MAXIMUM Letdown flow (2) Place Letdown controller in MANUAL and control flow B. (1) ONE CCP running with MAXIMUM Letdown flow (2) Place PZR Level Control Channel to "CH 4627-B" C. (1) THREE CCPs running with MINIMUM Letdown Flow (2) Place Letdown controller in MANUAL and control flow D. (1) THREE CCPs running with MINIMUM Letdown Flow (2) Place PZR Level Control Channel to "CH 4627-B" Answer:

A. (1) ONE CCP running with MAXIMUM Letdown flow (2) Place Letdown controller in MANUAL and control flow Notes:

Answer A is correct. With a leak on the WET PZR level reference leg, the indicated PZR level will go up as the actual level will go down (Inverse DP relationship). As indicated level goes up, PZR CNTRL CH 1 LEVEL HI will come in and letdown will respond by opening the flow control valve to lower level to stay at set point (max letdown 132 gpm),

therefore actual level will trend down. This is the reason Letdown is taken to MANUAL first to prevent the unintentional loss of RCS inventory while analyzing the failure prior to transfer of the level control channels. Also, the backup Coolant Charging Pumps (CCPs) will receive a "off" signal due to the indicated insurge so only the lead CCP will be running.

(makeup will be 44 gpm).

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/11/2020 Search 0000282244 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-APZRM OBJ 2

TEST QID #

20 39 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the sequence of OP 2202.028, PZR SYSTEMS MALFUNCTION AOP Contingency Step 7. C. places Letdown in MANUAL FIRST and selects the other unaffected PZR Level Control Channel SECOND. Plausible as a PZR Pressure transmitter input failure causing a selected control channel failure, the PZR Pressure Channel Select switch is placed to the unaffected channel FIRST. See OP 2202.028, PZR SYSTEMS MALFUNCTION AOP Contingency Step 6.C.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as level will fail high and no backup CCPs will start so only the Lead CCP will be running. Plausible as this part would be correct for a low level or a variable leg leak on level transmitter 2LT-4627-1. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as level will fail high and no backup CCPs will start so only the Lead CCP will be running. Plausible as this part would be correct for a low level or a variable leg leak on level transmitter 2LT-4627-1. Part 2 is incorrect as the sequence of OP 2202.028, PZR SYSTEMS MALFUNCTION AOP Contingency Step 7. C. places Letdown in MANUAL FIRST and selects the other unaffected PZR Level Control Channel SECOND.

Plausible as a PZR Pressure transmitter input failure causing a selected control channel failure, the PZR Pressure Channel Select switch is placed to the unaffected channel FIRST. See OP 2202.028, PZR SYSTEMS MALFUNCTION AOP Contingency Step 6.C.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must interpret the control room indications associated with PZR Level Control malfunction due to a level input failure to verify the status and operation of a Charging and Letdown, and

References:

OP 2203.012J ANNUNCIATOR 2K10 CORRECTIVE ACTION, Rev. 46, Windows J-6 CNTRL CH 1 LEVEL HI and G-6 CNTRL CH 1 LEVEL LO OP 2202.028, PZR SYSTEMS MALFUNCTION, Rev. 17, Entry Conditions, Steps 1, 6 and 7 with the technical guide basis for step 7.

Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1843. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2012 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

40 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2581 Safety Function 4

System Number 051

Title:

Loss of Condenser Vacuum K/A AA2.02

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Condenser Vacuum: - Conditions requiring reactor and/or turbine trip RO Imp:

3.9 SRO Imp:

4.1 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Plant power ascension is in progress following a refueling outage.

• The Main Generator has been tied to the grid.

• Reactor power is at 20% and slowly rising.

• SDBCS is in its normal at power line up.

• Condenser vacuum starts to degrade.

• Annunciators 2K03 A3/A4 "2E11A/B Pressure HIGH" come in.

• Condenser vacuum is 7.2 inches Hg absolute and rising.

In accordance with OP-2203.019, Loss of Condenser Vacuum AOP, the ____(1)____ is REQUIRED to be tripped.

The procedure(s) that should be implemented after the required trip in Part 1 would be ____(2)____.

A. (1) Turbine (2) OP-2203.024, Loss of Turbine Load AOP B. (1) Reactor (2) OP-2202.001, Standard Post Trip Actions EOP C. (1) Turbine (2) OP-2203.024, Loss of Turbine Load then GO TO Standard Post Trip Actions EOP D. (1) Reactor (2) OP-2202.001, Standard Post Trip Actions then GO TO Loss of Turbine Load AOP Answer:

A. (1) Turbine (2) OP-2203.024, Loss of Turbine Load Notes:

Answer A is correct. The Loss of Condenser Vacuum AOP directs tripping the turbine if Reactor power less than available Downstream ADV capacity and then transition to Loss of Turbine Load AOP. The two Downstream ADVs are 11.5%

capacity each for a total of ~ 23% capacity thus the Turbine is tripped.

Answer B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as Reactor power is less than available Downstream ADV capacity but plausible as the Reactor would be tripped if Reactor power was greater than available Downstream ADV capacity. Part 2 is incorrect procedure to implement as the Loss of Condenser Vacuum AOP directs going to Loss of Turbine Load. Plausible as SPTAs would be implemented if the Reactor was tripped.

Answer C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as SPTAs would not need to be implemented as the Reactor will Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/27/2020 Search 000051A202 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-AVAC OBJ 4

TEST QID #

21 41 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 not be tripped. Plausible as SPTAs would be implemented if the Reactor was tripped AND Reactor trip Recovery EOP have actions to take due to the turbine trip.

Answer D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as Reactor power is less than available Downstream ADV capacity but plausible as the Reactor would be tripped if Reactor power was greater than available Downstream ADV capacity. Part 2 is incorrect as SPTAs would not need to be implemented as the Reactor will not be tripped. Plausible as the Turbine trips whenever the Reactor trips.

This question matches the K&A because the candidate must interpret the degrading vacuum conditions and apply the Loss of Condenser Vacuum AOP and determine that actions should be taken to trip the turbine instead of the reactor to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP-2203.019, Loss of Condenser Vacuum AOP, Rev 14, Entry Conditions, Step 3 and 15.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2352. This QID was used as OID #22 on the ANO Unit 2 -

2017 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

42 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2582 Safety Function 9

System Number 059

Title:

Accidental Liquid Radwaste Release K/A 2.1.30

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Ability to locate and operate components, including local controls.

RO Imp:

4.4 SRO Imp:

4.0 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is in MODE 5.

• "A" SG is being released to the flume IAW OP-2106.008, Steam Generator Operations, Supplement 1A, Unit 2 S/G Release Via 2CV-4427 in Mode 5-6 is in progress.

• SG blowdown pumps are running in "AUTO".

• SG discharge to the flume rad monitor, 2RITS-4425, goes into high alarm.

The Radiation HI alarm will come in on panel ____(1)____ AND the release to the flume will be terminated by ____(2)____ automatically on high radiation.

A. (1) 2C138 Unit 1 auxiliary building (2) blowdown pumps tripping B. (1) 2C138 Unit 1 auxiliary building (2) the discharge isolation valve closing C. (1) 2C112 Unit 2 auxiliary building (2) blowdown pumps tripping D. (1) 2C112 Unit 2 auxiliary building (2) the discharge isolation valve closing Answer:

B. (1) 2C138 Unit 1 auxiliary building (2) discharge isolation valve closing Notes:

Answer B is correct. Draining SGs during Mode 5 requires aligning to the discharge of the SG blowdown pumps to the Unit 1 flume. The radiation monitor is located in the Unit 1 auxiliary building on elevation 335'. The Unit 2 CBOT controls the procedure and directs the valve lineup and also monitors SG level and blow down tank level during the drain.

A high radiation condition, or failed rad monitor, will cause an alarm on the local panel (2C138) which will bring in a common alarm on Unit1. Per the release permit, the discharge valve will close on a high radiation reading securing the release to the Unit 1 flume.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the blowdown pumps are not affected by the high rad conditions; however, the blowdown pumps are in automatic and the applicant has to recall that their operation is not tied to a rad monitor and that they would trip on a low level condition.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the alarm is located on panel 2C138 in the Unit 1 aux building Part 2 is incorrect as the blowdown pumps are not affected by the high rad conditions. Plausible as the blowdown pumps are in automatic and the applicant has to recall that their operation is not tied to a rad monitor and that they would trip on a low level condition.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/11/2020 Search 0000592130 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Foster L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RMON OBJ 2

TEST QID #

22 43 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor D.is incorrect but plausible as the alarm is located on a remote panel but it alarms on panel 2C138 which is in the Unit 1 aux building not on 2C112 which is in the Unit 2 aux building. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to locate and operate/monitor components, including local controls associated with an accidental Liquid Radwaste release during a high alarm on the Flume radiation monitoring to prevent an unmonitored liquid radwaste release.

References:

OP-2106.008, Steam Generator Operations, Rev. 049, Supplement 1A Step 2.1 with the note above, Step 2.2..h, I, k & l and Step 20.

STM 2-18, SG Blowdown System, Rev. 17, Section 4.0, 5.1 and drawing on page 25.

Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2208. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2015 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

44 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2583 Safety Function 7

System Number 061

Title:

Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) System Alarms K/A 2.4.45

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm.

RO Imp:

4.1 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The Unit was tripped due to indications of rising Containment pressure and temperature.

• Annunciator 2K10 A-6 " CNTMT Radiation HI" comes into alarm.

• Containment Pressure is currently 19.3 psia.

This alarm indicates that Containment radiation readings have exceeded a MINIMUM of ____(1)____.

If the Containment High Range Radiation Monitors are causing the alarm, then the Containment High Range Radiation Monitor readings are REQUIRED to be validated against the ____(2)____ radiation readings to interpret and determine which accident is in progress.

A. (1) 1000 R/hr (2) Containment Area Radiation Low Range monitors B. (1) 1000 mr/hr (2) Containment Area Radiation Low Range monitors C. (1) 1000 R/hr (2) Containment Atmosphere Monitors (CAMs)

D. (1) 1000 mr/hr (2) Containment Atmosphere Monitors (CAMs)

Answer:

A. (1) 1000 R/hr (2) Containment Area Radiation Low Range monitors.

Notes:

Answer A is correct. Containment High Range Radiation monitor (2RITS-8925-1 or 2RITS-8925-2) greater than alarm set point of 1000 R/hr brings in Annunciator 2K10 A-6 " CNTMT Radiation HI". Rising or lowering CNTMT High Range Radiation may be due to rising and then lowering CNTMT Temperature causing thermally induced current (TIC) that leads to false positive and then negative indication/trends. Trends are required to be validated against Containment Area Radiation Low Range monitors (2RITS-8905/8909/8912). (CR-ANO-C-1998-0054) See Caution above step 2.1 along with Steps 2.1 and 2.5 of the Annunciator Corrective Action OP-2203.012J Window 2K10 A-6 "

CNTMT Radiation HI" Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the set point is 1000R/hr but plausible as this is still a very high radiation value and the numeric number is the same as the correct answer. Part 2 is correct, Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the procedure directs using the Low Range Area Radiation Monitors for validation and the CAMs are isolated due to the CIAS at CNTMT Pressure > 18.3 psia. Plausible as the CAMs are checked for trends during these events but these monitors check for containment particulate particles not area Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/1/2020 Search 0000612445 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RMON OBJ 3

TEST QID #

23 45 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 radiation.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the set point is 1000R/hr but plausible as this is still a very high radiation value and the numeric number is the same as the correct answer. Part 2 is incorrect as the procedure directs using the Low Range Area Radiation Monitors for validation and the CAMs are isolated due to the CIAS at CNTMT Pressure >

18.3 psia.. Plausible as the CAMs are checked for trends during these events but these monitors check for containment particulate particles not area radiation.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of a "

CNTMT Radiation HI" to determine if a LOCA or ESD event is in progress to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2203.012J, ANNUNCIATOR 2K10 CORRECTIVE ACTIONS (ACA), Rev.46, Window A-6, " CNTMT Radiation HI" Steps 1, 2.3, & 2,5 AND the Cautions below Steps 2.0 and 2.5.1.

STM 2-62, Radiation Monitoring System, Rev. 24, Section 2.1.2 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

46 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2584 Safety Function 8

System Number 068

Title:

Control Room Evacuation K/A AK2.03

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the interrelations between the Control Room Evacuation and the following: - Controllers and positioners RO Imp:

2.9 SRO Imp:

3.1 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

• Unit 1 Halon system is inadvertently discharging into the Control Room envelope.

• Unit 2 Shift Manager directs the Unit 2 Control Room to be evacuated.

• OP-2203.030, Remote Shutdown AOP, has been entered.

After the Reactor is tripped and prior to evacuating the Control Room, OP-2203.030 directs establishing boration to the RCS from the ____(1)____ and establishing feedwater flow to the Steam Generators from ____(2)____.

A. (1) Refueling Water Tank (RWT)

(2) Main Feedwater B. (1) Boric Acid Makeup Tanks (BAMTs)

(2) Emergency Feedwater C. (1) Refueling Water Tank (RWT)

(2) Emergency Feedwater D. (1) Boric Acid Makeup Tanks (BAMTs)

(2) Main Feedwater Answer:

B. (1) Boric Acid Makeup Tanks (BAMTs)

(2) Emergency Feedwater Notes:

Answer B is correct. In Part 1, the Remote SD AOP OP-2203.030 directs positioning the BAMT gravity feed valves open and closing the VCT outlet which establishes boration from the BAMTs to the RCS with at least one Charging pump running. In part 2, the procedure also directs positioning ALL eight EFAS switches to ACTUATE on 2C03/2C14 and then returning them back to NORMAL and this action will initiate an EFAS signal.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the AOP OP-2203.030 directs positioning the BAMT gravity feed valves open and closing the VCT outlet valve but plausible as this is another viable source of boric acid solution that is used to perform rapid plant shutdowns. Part 2 is incorrect as the procedure directs tripping the Main Feedwater Pumps but plausible as this is the normal source of feedwater to the SGs during plant operations.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the AOP OP-2203.030 directs positioning the BAMT gravity feed valves open and closing the VCT outlet valve but plausible as this is another viable source of boric acid solution that is used to perform rapid plant shutdowns. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the procedure directs tripping the Main Feedwater Pumps Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/1/2020 Search 000068K203 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ARS OBJ 2

TEST QID #

24 47 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 but plausible as this is the normal source of feedwater to the SGs during plant operations.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have Knowledge of the interrelations between positioning the correct valves to borate the RCS from the BAMTs and positioning the EFAS actuation switches and feeding the SGs from EFW during a Control Room Evacuation to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2203.030, REMOTE SHUTDOWN, Rev. 18, Section 1, Initial Control Room Actions, Steps 3, 6 and 7.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1949. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2014 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

48 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2585 Safety Function 4

System Number 074

Title:

Inadequate Core Cooling K/A EA1.25

==

Description:==

Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to an Inadequate Core Cooling: - Atmospheric dump valve controllers and indicators RO Imp:

3.8 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 4 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Both Units have tripped due to a complete loss of offsite power.

• A Bus Lockout occurs on 4160 VAC Bus 2A3 during 2EDG1 Bus loading.

• SG Pressure's are 1090 psia being controlled by Main Steam safety valves.

• MSIVs are closed to protect the Main Condenser.

• SG Levels are being maintained with EFW.

• RCS Pressure is 2260 psia and steady.

• PZR level is 25% and being maintained with CVCS.

• RCS Thot is 565°F and steady.

• RCS Tcold is 552°F and steady.

• RCS Average CETs are reading 577°F and steady.

• The CRS has implemented OP-2203.007 LOOP EOP.

Based on these conditions, adequate core cooling with natural circulation ____(1)____ exist.

The CRS directs the CBOT to maintain SG Pressures 950 to 1050 psia.

To lower SG Pressures from the control room, the CBOT should ____(2)____.

A. (1) DOES (2) Ensure "A" SG ADV 2CV-1001 Open and throttle its MOV Isolation 2CV-1002 Manually B. (1) DOES (2) Ensure "B" SG ADV 2CV-1051 Open and throttle its MOV Isolation 2CV-1052 Manually C. (1) DOES NOT (2) Ensure "A" SG ADV 2CV-1001 Open and throttle its MOV Isolation 2CV-1002 Manually D. (1) DOES NOT (2) Ensure "B" SG ADV 2CV-1051 Open and throttle its MOV Isolation 2CV-1052 Manually Answer:

C. (1) DOES NOT (2) Ensure "A" SG ADV 2CV-1001 Open and throttle its MOV Isolation 2CV-1002 Manually Notes:

Answer C is correct. In part 1 based on floating step 26 of OP 2203.007 LOOP EOP Natural Circulation criteria is NOT met as Thot/Average CET Delta temps are > 10°F and PZR Level is less than 29% thus adequate core cooling DOES NOT Exist. In Part 2 both Upstream ADVs would be failed Open due to Loss of Instrument Air on both Units thus the MOV Isolations will need to be throttled open to maintain SG pressures. The MOV Isolations are powered off the opposite train electrical buses. The MOV Isolation for the "A" SG 2CV-1002 is powered off of 2B63 which is powered from 4160 VAC Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 9/1/2020 Search 000074A125 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOOP OBJ 5

TEST QID #

25 49 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bus 2A4 which has power from the #2 EDG. The MOV Isolation for the "B" SG 2CV-1052 is powered off of 2B53 which is powered from 4160 VAC Bus 2A3 which has NO power from the #2 EDG because of the bus lockout. Thus the only method to lower SG Pressures from the Control Room is to use 2CV-1002 to lower both Steam Generator pressures and start better natural circulation in the RCS.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as Thot/Average CET Delta temps are > 10°F and PZR Level is less than 29% but plausible as the other parameters meet natural circulation criteria including the contingency criteria. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as Thot/Average CET Delta temps are > 10°F and PZR Level is less than 29% but plausible as the other parameters meet natural circulation criteria including the contingency criteria. Part 2 is incorrect as the "B" SG MOV Isolation 2CV-1052 has no power due to the Bus Lockout but plausible as this is the "B" SG MOV Isolation which is considered Green Train or potentially associated with power from 2A4 which is powered from

1. 2 EDG.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the "B" SG MOV Isolation 2CV-1052 has no power due to the Bus Lockout but plausible as this is the "B" SG MOV Isolation which is considered Green Train or potentially associated with power from 2A4 which is powered from #2 EDG.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have ability to monitor the natural circulation conditions following a LOOP to ensure adequate Core Cooling (in this case it is not adequate) and be able to operate the atmospheric dump valve system to control RCS Heat removal during a LOOP to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2202.007, LOOP EOP Rev. 18, Section 1 Step 26.

STM 2-23, Steam Dump & Bypass Control System, Rev. 18, Section 4.0, Normal System Lineup, Section 2.11.2, showing the ADV controller and Power Supplies for the ADV MOV Isolation Valves 2CV-1002/1052, and the SDBCS Drawing on page 3 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

50 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2586 Safety Function 9

System Number 076

Title:

High Reactor Coolant Activity K/A AK3.05

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the High Reactor Coolant Activity: -

Corrective actions as a result of high fission-product radioactivity level in the RCS RO Imp:

2.9 SRO Imp:

3.6 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Plant is at Full Power Operations.

• From chemistry samples, RCS Gross Activity is 6 microcuries/gram.

• From chemistry samples, RCS Iodine Activity is 3.3 microcuries/gram.

• Aux Building Area Radiation Monitors are reading 0.4 R/Hr and rising.

• RCS Letdown Gross Activity Monitor 2RITS 4806A is rising.

With discretion from the Shift Manager, Letdown flow should be ____(1)_____.

RCP Controlled Bleedoff should be ____(2)____ if Aux Building radiation levels are still high.

A. (1) raised to remove more of the RCS Activity (2) aligned to the VCT B. (1) raised to remove more of the RCS Activity (2) aligned to the Quench Tank C. (1) isolated to limit activity levels in the Aux Building (2) aligned to the VCT D. (1) isolated to limit activity levels in the Aux Building (2) aligned to the Quench Tank Answer:

D. (1) isolated to limit activity levels in the Aux Building (2) aligned to the Quench Tank Notes:

Answer D is correct. High RCS activity circulating though the auxiliary building may raise radiation levels and limit access to vital areas. The 0.1R/hr limit indicates that "high radiation areas" may now be present where "radiation areas" were present earlier. Letdown is isolated to limit activity levels in the auxiliary building. If letdown is isolated and Auxiliary Building radiation levels are still high, then RCP controlled bleedoff flow is isolated to the VCT. This will divert controlled bleedoff flow to the Quench Tank via relief valve 2PSV-4836.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. If Aux Building Rad Levels go above 0.1 R/hr, then the High RCS Activity AOP directs isolating Letdown to limit activity levels in the Aux Building. Plausible as Chemistry may recommend higher Letdown Flow rates to cleanup the activity in the RCS. Part 2 is incorrect. If the Aux Building Radiation levels are still high, then the High RCS Activity AOP directs isolating CBO to the VCT which will direct CBO to the Quench tank inside the Containment Building through a relief valve to limit activity coming into the Aux Building. Plausible as the CBO is normally aligned to the VCT.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/27/2020 Search 000076K305 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ARCSA OBJ 2

TEST QID #

26 51 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. If Aux Building Rad Levels go above 0.1 R/hr, then the High RCS Activity AOP directs isolating Letdown to limit activity levels in the Aux Building. Plausible as Chemistry may recommend higher Letdown Flow rates to cleanup the activity in the RCS. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect. If the Aux Building Radiation levels are still high, then the High RCS Activity AOP directs isolating CBO to the VCT which will direct CBO to the Quench tank inside the Containment Building through a relief valve to limit activity coming into the Aux Building. Plausible as the CBO is normally aligned to the VCT.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the reasons for the corrective action procedural steps as they apply to the High Reactor Coolant Activity Abnormal Operating Procedure to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2203.020, HIGH ACTIVITY IN RCS, Rev. 15, Entry Conditions; Steps 3, 4, & 8.

AOP 2203.020, HIGH ACTIVITY IN RCS AOP TG, Rev, 15, Steps 2B, 4, & 8.

Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 0226. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2000 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

52 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2587 Safety Function 2

System Number A16

Title:

Excess RCS Leakage K/A AK1.2

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the (Excess RCS Leakage): - Normal, abnormal and emergency operating procedures associated with (Excess RCS Leakage)

RO Imp:

3.0 SRO Imp:

3.4 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

• • • • • • • • • • REFERENCE PROVIDED**********

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

• Containment Humidity is trending up slowly.

• RCS temperature is stable.

• ATC gathers the following data:

-PZR level 60.1%

-VCT level 68%

• 15 minutes later:

-PZR level 59.5%

-VCT level 67.6%

-Charging Pump 2P-36A is in service

-Letdown flow is 40 gpm.

• Unit 2 Reactor Trips due to a mistake in PPS testing.

• RCS leak rate does not change.

Following execution of SPTAs, the CRS will diagnose and enter ____(1)____.

RCS leakage limits per T.S. 3.4.6.2 ____(2)____ been exceeded.

A. (1) OP-2203.016 Excess RCS leakage AOP, (2) Have B. (1) OP-2203.003 Loss of Coolant Accident EOP (2) Have NOT C. (1) OP-2203.003 Loss of Coolant Accident EOP, (2) Have D. (1) OP-2203.016 Excess RCS leakage AOP (2) Have NOT Answer:

A. (1) OP-2203.016 Excess RCS leakage AOP, (2) Have Notes:

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/26/2020 Search 00CA16K102 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Kanady L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ALEAK OBJ 3

TEST QID #

27 53 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Answer A is correct. Entry conditions are met for Excess RCS Leakage due to unexplained rise in CNTMT humidity and lowering VCT level. T.S. 3.4.6.2 limits are exceeded due to leak rate being 3.04 gpm which is greater than 1 gpm unidentified leakage. (PZR = 0.6% change times 53.5% gal/% = 32.1 gallons plus VCT = 0.4% change times 33.8 gal/%

= 13.5 gallons so 13.5 plus 32.1 = 45.6 gallons. Therefore leak rate is 45.6 divided by 15 minutes = 3.04 gpm)

Answer B is incorrect on both counts. Per Diagnostic actions, LOCA would only be entered if MSIS or SIAS was actuated. The leak size in question is too small to require SIAS actuation per Excess RCS leakage AOP by neither deviating more than 10% from set point or leakage greater than 44 gpm. Therefore the correct action would be to resume Excess RCS Leakage AOP following SPTAs. Leakage determined by calculation using OP-2305.002 Exhibit 2 is 3.04 gpm. This exceeds the allowable limits per T.S. 3.4.6.2 of 1 gpm unidentified leakage and so have is the correct answer.

Answer C is incorrect in the first part. Per Diagnostic actions, LOCA would only be entered if MSIS or SIAS was actuated. The leak size in question is too small to require SIAS actuation per Excess RCS leakage AOP by neither deviating more than 10% from set point or leakage greater than 44 gpm. Therefore the correct action would be to resume Excess RCS Leakage AOP following SPTAs. Part 2 is correct.

Answer D is incorrect on the second part. Part 1 is correct. In part 2, leakage determined by calculation using OP-2305.002 Exhibit 2 is 3.04 gpm. This exceeds the allowable limits per T.S. 3.4.6.2 of 1 gpm unidentified leakage and so Have is the correct answer.

This questions matches the KA in that the examinee applies the RCS leak rate procedure to determine leakage has exceeded TS limits as well as knowledge of Excess RCS leakage AOP transitional steps.

OP-2305.002 Reactor Coolant System Leak Detection Exhibit 1 will be provided as a reference.

References:

OP-2305.002 Reactor Coolant System Leak Detection Exhibit 2 (Provided)

OP-2202.010 Standard Attachments Exhibit 8 OP-2203.016 Excess RCS Leakage T.S. 3.4.6.2 RCS Leakage OP-2305.002 Reactor Coolant System Leak Detection Exhibit 1 will be provided as a reference.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

54 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2588 Safety Function 4

System Number 003

Title:

Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)

K/A A4.06

==

Description:==

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: - RCP parameters RO Imp:

2.9 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant is at 100% power.

• RCP 2P-32C has the following Seal DP indications on the Plant Data Server (PDS) Page RCPCP:

- UP DP6025 = 868

- MID DP6026 = 705

- LOW DP6024 = 555 Based on these indications, the 2P-32C seal with the MOST degradation would be the ____(1)____ seal.

The Controlled Bleedoff Flow (CBO) from RCP 2P-32C on PDS Page RCPCP should be indicating approximately

____(2)____ gpm.

A. (1) lower (2) ONE B. (1) upper (2) FOUR C. (1) upper (2) ONE D. (1) lower (2) FOUR Answer:

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/26/2020 Search 003000A406 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RCP OBJ 2

TEST QID #

28 55 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet 868.00 705.00 555.00

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 A. (1) lower (2) ONE Notes:

Answer A is correct. The RCP seal assembly is a series of four seals. At normal operating pressure, RCP seal DPs are well in excess of 50 psid. Normally all three should be ~700 psid. Differential pressure dropping indicates a degrading seal the other seals will rise to compensate so the seal with the highest DP would be the least degraded seal. Seal DP less than 50 psid across any RCP seal indicates seal degradation to the point that the seal is offering almost no resistance to flow. With three good seals even with some degradation the CBO flow should be approximately 1 gpm with a total flow of 4 gpm CBO going back to the VCT from all 4 RCPs.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because the lower seal has the lowest DP but plausible as it is one of the RCP seals and it is not reading the ~700 normal DP. Part 2 is incorrect because CBO flow should be approximately 1 gpm but plausible as a total flow of 4 gpm CBO going back to the VCT from all 4 RCPs.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because the lower seal has the lowest DP but plausible as it is one of the RCP seals and it is not reading the ~700 normal DP. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because CBO flow should be approximately 1 gpm but plausible as a total flow of 4 gpm CBO going back to the VCT from all 4 RCPs.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to accurately monitor RCP parameters in the control room to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-03-2, RCPs & RCP Vibration Monitoring System, Rev. 19, Section 1.5.1 and Drawings on page 42 and 47.

AOP 2203.025, RCP Emergencies Technical Guide, Rev. 19, Step 6 Basis.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

56 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2589 Safety Function 4

System Number 003

Title:

Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)

K/A K4.03

==

Description:==

Knowledge of RCPS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: - Adequate lubrication of the RCP RO Imp:

2.5 SRO Imp:

2.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

To protect the bearings on a RCP when manually starting, the HP Lift Oil Pump pressure must be greater than the MINIMUM pressure of____(1)____ psig.

With the RCP running with its HP Lift Oil Pump secured with its hand switch in AUTO, the associated RCP HP Lift Oil Pump will automatically start when ____(2)____.

A. (1) 240 (2) oil pressure is 50 psi below the RCP minimum start pressure B. (1) 240 (2) the RCP Feeder Breaker trips open or is manually opened C. (1) 400 (2) oil pressure is 50 psi below the RCP minimum start pressure D. (1) 400 (2) the RCP Feeder Breaker trips open or is manually opened Answer:

D. (1) 400 (2) the RCP Feeder Breaker trips open or is manually opened Notes:

Answer D is correct. When the hand switch is taken to START the RCP will start IF: (1) there is no bus undervoltage, (2) oil lift pump pressure is > 400 psig and (3) CCW flow to the RCP is > 240 gpm. The oil lift pumps have a three position (maintained) hand switch on 2C04, switch positions are START, AUTO &

STOP. When the hand switch is placed in START the lift pumps will start. When placed in AUTO the lift pumps will start when the RCP breaker is OPENED. When the RCP is running, oil pressure is maintained by the rotating action of the thrust bearing so after an RCP is running, the Lift oil pump is secured and its hand switch is placed in AUTO.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this is the required amount of CCW flow needed to start a RCP. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as many backup oil supply pumps auto start when oil pressure drops below a minimum defined amount below the normal running/starting oil pressure.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this is the required amount of CCW flow needed to start a RCP. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as many backup oil supply pumps auto start when oil pressure drops below a minimum defined amount below the normal running/starting oil pressure.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of RCPs design feature and interlock which provide for adequate lubrication of the RCP to correctly answer the question.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/26/2020 Search 003000K403 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RCP OBJ 4

TEST QID #

29 57 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20

References:

OP 2103.006, RCP Operations Procedure, Rev. 37, Section 6.0 Setpoints.

STM 2-03-2, RCPs & RCP Vibration Monitoring System, Rev. 19, Sections 1.7 and 1.7.1.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

58 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2590 Safety Function 1

System Number 004

Title:

Chemical and Volume Control System (CVCS)

K/A K1.19

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the CVCS and the following systems: - Primary grade water supply RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

The Reactor Makeup Water Flow Control Valve, 2CV-4927, is a(n) ____(1)____ operated valve.

Primary makeup water flow from 2CV-4927 is normally aligned to the ____(2)____ effect on RCS temperature.

A. (1) Air (2) Charging pump suction for a quicker B. (1) Motor (2) Charging pump suction for a quicker C. (1) Air (2) VCT to mix with Letdown for a slower D. (1) Motor (2) VCT to mix with Letdown for a slower Answer:

A. (1) Air (2) Charging pump suction for a quicker Notes:

Answer A is correct. 2CV-4927 is an air operated globe valve that receives a position signal from 2FIC-4927 and fails closed on a loss of instrument air or power. The manually operated valves downstream of the 2CV-4927 and VCT Makeup Valve 2CV-4941-2 are normally positioned to allow makeup flow to go directly to the suction of the charging pumps for a quicker effect on RCS temperature.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as 2CV-4927 is an AOV but plausible as several valves associated with the CVCS and the Boric Acid Makeup Tanks are MOVs. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the manually operated valves downstream of the 2CV-4927 and VCT Makeup Valve 2CV-4941-2 are normally positioned to allow makeup flow to go directly to the suction of the charging pumps but plausible as the manual valves can be aligned to go to the VCT during a blended makeup to the VCT to raise level.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as 2CV-4927 is an AOV but plausible as several valves associated with the CVCS and the Boric Acid Makeup Tanks are MOVs. Part 2 is incorrect as the manually operated valves downstream of the 2CV-4927 and VCT Makeup Valve 2CV-4941-2 are normally positioned to allow makeup flow to go directly to the suction of the charging pumps but plausible as the manual valves can be aligned to go to the VCT during a blended makeup to the VCT to raise level.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the physical connections and cause-effect relationships between the CVCS and the Primary grade water supply to correctly answer the question.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/26/2020 Search 004000K119 10CFR55: 41.6 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CVCS OBJ 16 TEST QID #

30 59 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20

References:

STM 2-04, CVCS, Rev. 32, Drawing at the top of page 37 and Sections 2.3.7 & 2.3.8 OP 2104.0003, Chemical Addition, Rev. 65, Required Positions of Manual Valves 2CVC-68 and 2CVC-83.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

60 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2591 Safety Function 1

System Number 004

Title:

Chemical and Volume Control System (CVCS)

K/A K5.50

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the CVCS: - Design basis letdown system temperatures: resin integrity RO Imp:

2.6 SRO Imp:

2.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• The Plant is at full power.

• The CCW Temperature Control Valve for the Letdown Heat Exchanger (HX) starts to fail closed.

• Letdown HX Outlet Temperature starts to rise.

If the Letdown HX Outlet Temperature rises to a MINIMUM of ____(1)____°F, then the Letdown ____(2)____ will be BYPASSED using a three way valve to protect the integrity of the internal materials.

A. (1) 140 (2) Ion Exchangers B. (1) 145 (2) Ion Exchangers C. (1) 140 (2) Radiation Monitor D. (1) 145 (2) Radiation Monitor Answer:

B. (1) 145 (2) Ion Exchangers Notes:

Answer B is correct. The temperature on the outlet of the Letdown heat exchanger should not exceed 140°F. A Letdown heat exchanger outlet temperature of > 140°F, as measured by 2TE-4805, will actuate annunciator 2K12-C1, "LETDOWN HX 2E29 OUTLET TEMP HI". In addition to causing an alarm, a letdown heat exchanger outlet temperature of 145°F, as measured by 2TE-4805, will isolate the letdown radiation monitor and bypass the Letdown Ion Exchangers.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as a Letdown heat exchanger outlet temperature of > 140 F, as measured by 2TE-4805, will actuate annunciator 2K12-C1, "LETDOWN HX 2E29 OUTLET TEMP HI". Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as a Letdown heat exchanger outlet temperature of > 140 F, as measured by 2TE-4805, will actuate annunciator 2K12-C1, "LETDOWN HX 2E29 OUTLET TEMP HI". Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the radiation monitor is isolated, not bypassed, at same temperature as the Ion Exchangers.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the radiation monitor is isolated, not bypassed, at same temperature as the Ion Exchangers.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/25/2020 Search 004000K550 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CVCS OBJ 4

TEST QID #

31 61 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the operational implications associated with a high Letdown HX outlet temperature and its associated effects on the Letdown Ion Exchanger resin integrity and the actions that will occur to protect the resin.

References:

STM 2-04, CVCS, Rev. 32 Sections 2.1.9, 2.1.12, & 2.1.18, and CVCS Drawing on Page 66.

Historical Comments:

This Question comes from a McGuire 2009 NRC RO Exam Bank ID 42743 in the Western Technical NU-Sec Exam Bank.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

62 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2592 Safety Function 4

System Number 005

Title:

Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

K/A K2.03

==

Description:==

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: - RCS pressure boundary motor-operated valves RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

2.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

The Shutdown Cooling Suction Isolation Motor Operated Valves (MOVs), 2CV-5084-1 and 2CV-5086-2 are DIRECTLY powered from ___________.

A. Load Centers 2B7 and 2B8 B. MCCs 2B71 and 2B81 C. Load Centers 2B5 and 2B6 D. MCCs 2B51 and 2B62 Answer:

D. MCCs 2B51and 2B62 Notes:

Answer D is correct. These valves are powered from MCCs 2B51 and 2B62.

Distractor A is incorrect but plausible as these are Load Centers that feeds MCCs 2B71 & 2B81 AND 2B71 /2B81 MCCs are located inside Containment as are the SDC Suction Isolation MOVs.

Distractor B is incorrect but plausible as these two MCCs are located inside Containment and feed some Containment MOVs and the SDC Suction Isolation MOVs are also located inside Containment.

Distractor C is incorrect but plausible as these are Load Centers that feeds MCCs 2B51 and 2B62 which are the direct power supply to the SDC Suction Isolation MOVs.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of bus power supplies to the RCS pressure boundary motor-operated valves to answer the question correctly.

References:

STM 2-14, SDC System, Rev. 18 Sections 2.1.1 and 2.1.2.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/25/2020 Search 005000K203 10CFR55: 41.7 Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 0473. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2005 ILO RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-SDC OBJ 2

TEST QID #

32 63 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2593 Safety Function 2

System Number 006

Title:

Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

K/A A2.13

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ECCS and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Inadvertent SIS actuation RO Imp:

3.9 SRO Imp:

4.2 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Plant is at 100%

If an inadvertent ____(1)____ ONLY occurs, some valves are procedurally Overridden OPEN to prevent ____(2)____.

A. (1) RAS (2) a Main Turbine Generator Runback B. (1) RAS (2) flooding of the Containment Building C. (1) SIAS (2) a Main Turbine Generator Runback D. (1) SIAS (2) flooding of the Containment Building Answer:

C. (1) SIAS (2) a Main Turbine Generator Runback Notes:

Answer C is correct. An Inadvertent SIAS AOP will direct stopping the Service Water to Auxiliary Cooling Water valve travel prior to them reaching their fully actuated position (closed) and reopen them to prevent a possible MTG runback due to the loss of cooling water to the stator water cooling system.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the inadvertent RAS procedure does direct overriding and Closing Containment Sump Suction isolations because the RAS would cause flooding of the containment building by transferring water from the RWT to the containment sump while the RAS signal is transferring suction valves. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 and 2 are incorrect but plausible as the inadvertent RAS procedure does direct overriding and Closing Containment Sump Suction isolations because the RAS would cause flooding of the containment building by transferring water from the RWT to the containment sump while the RAS signal is transferring suction valves.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the inadvertent RAS procedure does direct overriding and Closing Containment Sump Suction isolations because the RAS would cause flooding of the containment building by transferring water from the RWT to the containment sump while the RAS signal is transferring suction valves.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/25/2020 Search 006000A213 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-AINAD OBJ 2

TEST QID #

33 64 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to (a) predict the impacts of an Inadvertent SIAS at 100% power and take procedural action to mitigate the impact of the inadvertent SIAS actuation.

References:

OP 2203.018, INADVERTENT SIAS, Rev. 11 Section 1 Steps 4 and 5 along with the Technical Guidance for these steps in AOP 2203.018.

OP 2203.040, INADVERTENT RAS, Rev. 11 Section 1 Step 4 along with the Technical Guidance for this steps in AOP 2203.040.

Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2103. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2014-2 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

65 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2594 Safety Function 2

System Number 006

Title:

Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

K/A K6.10

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the ECCS: - Valves RO Imp:

2.6 SRO Imp:

2.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Given the following:

• Unit 2 has tripped from full power.

• Containment pressure is 21.9 psia and slowly rising.

• RCS pressure is 1525 and lowering.

• RWT level is 69% and lowering.

• RWT Outlet Valve 2CV-5630-1 Closes due to a hot short.

At this time, with no operator action, the effect on the Emergency Safety Features (ESF) System Pumps will be ____(1)____

suction for the "A" Red Train ____(2)____.

A. (1) damage due to loss of (2) HPSI, LPSI & Containment Spray Pumps B. (1) damage due to loss of (2) HPSI & LPSI Pumps ONLY C. (1) a transfer to Containment Sump (2) HPSI, LPSI & Containment Spray Pumps D. (1) a transfer to Containment Sump (2) HPSI & LPSI Pumps ONLY Answer:

B. (1) damage due to loss of (2) HPSI & LPSI Pumps ONLY Notes:

Answer B is correct. RWT Outlet valve 2CV-5630-1 is normally open but receives an open signal on a SIAS and feeds the RED (A) train ECCS pumps. Based on the conditions a SIAS signal is present and the HPSI/LPSI pumps are running.

The Containment Sump suction valves outside Containment are normally closed and will not open until the RWT falls below 6% level. Thus in this scenario, the RED (A) Train HPSI and LPSI pumps will lose suction when 2CV-5630-1 closes on the hot short.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because the Containment Spray pump on the Red Train is not running because Containment Pressure has not exceeded 23.3 psia (CSAS set point) but plausible as Containment pressure is 21.9 and rising and will be damaged if a CSAS occurs.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as this will only occur at 6% in the RWT but plausible as RWT is lowering and will eventually transfer the ECCS pumps to the Containment Sump. Part 2 is incorrect because the Containment Spray pump on the Red Train is not running because Containment Pressure has not exceeded 23.3 psia (CSAS set point) but plausible as Containment pressure is 21.9 and rising and will be damaged if a CSAS occurs.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/25/2020 Search 006000K610 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ECCS OBJ 6

TEST QID #

34 66 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as this will only occur at 6% in the RWT but plausible as RWT is lowering and will eventually transfer the ECCS pumps to the Containment Sump. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the knowledge of the effect that a malfunction of the Red Train RWT Outlet Valve Closing early will have on the ECCS system.

References:

STM 2-08, Containment Spray System, Rev. 24, Sections 3.1.2 & 4.0, and Drawing on page 40.

STM 2-05, ECCS, Rev. 35, Drawings on Pages 73 and 83.

Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1741. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2011 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

67 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2595 Safety Function 5

System Number 007

Title:

Pressurizer Relief Tank/Quench Tank System (PRTS)

K/A K3.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the PRTS will have on the following: - Containment RO Imp:

3.3 SRO Imp:

3.6 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant trips from full power due to a Turbine trip.

• RCS pressure rises to 2400 psia during the transient.

• PZR Safety Valve 2PSV-4633 fails Open and will not Close.

• The Quench Tank Rupture Disc 2PSE-4695 ruptures.

• Pressure between the Quench Tank and Containment has equalized.

• PZR Relief Tailpipe temperatures are reading 250°F and steady.

Based on the above conditions, Containment pressure should be reading approximately ____(1)____ psia and a CIAS ESFAS signal ____(2)____ be actuated.

A. (1) 15 (2) WOULD B. (1) 15 (2) WOULD NOT C. (1) 30 (2) WOULD D. (1) 30 (2) WOULD NOT Answer:

C. (1) 30 (2) WOULD Notes:

Answer C is correct. With an opening pressure of 2400 psia, the isenthalpic expansion occurs at approximately 1100 BTU/lbm. Starting at 1100 BTU/lbm on the Mollier Diagram and going right to 250°F, you can see that the discharge will be a saturated wet vapor so there will be a Psat/Tsat relationship. At a steam temperature of 250°F with the pressure equalized between the Quench Tank and Containment, the Containment pressure should be approximately 30 psia.

CIAS actuates at 18.3 psia so a CIAS signal would be present.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. Containment pressure would be ~ 30 psia but this is plausible if the applicant coverts 30 psia to psig which would be ~ 15 psig. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. Containment pressure would be ~ 30 psia but this is plausible if the applicant coverts 30 psia to psig which would be ~15 psig. Part 2 is incorrect. Plausible as there would be no CIAS at 15 psia inside Containment.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect. CIAS comes in a t 18.3 psia so CIAS would be actuated.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/24/2020 Search 007000K301 10CFR55: 41.14 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-TM003 OBJ 12 TEST QID #

35 68 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Plausible if the applicant cannot remember the set point for a CIAS ESFAS actuation.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the knowledge of the effect that a loss of the rupture disc on the Quench Tank with a failed open safety will have on the Containment Pressure and the resulting actuations based on this pressure to answer the question correctly.

References:

PWR Thermodynamics Chapter 3, Rev. 4, Instructor Guide for Use of Mollier Diagrams and Steam Tables.

STM 2-03, RCS, Rev. 24, Sections 2.2.3 and 2.3.

STM 2-70, ESFAS, Rev. 20, Table 8.0, ESFAS Setpoints on page 43.

Historical Comments:

This Question comes from a Comanche Peak 2017 NRC RO Exam Bank ID 60061 in the Western Technical NU-Sec Exam Bank.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

69 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2596 Safety Function 8

System Number 008

Title:

Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

K/A A3.08

==

Description:==

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CCWS, including: - Automatic actions associated with the CCWS that occur as a result of a safety injection signal RO Imp:

3.6 SRO Imp:

3.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is tripped from full power due to a Steam Line Break.

• Containment pressure is 18.8 psia and slowly rising.

• Reactor Coolant Pumps (RCPs) are running.

During SPTAs, Service Water (SW) cooling flow should be restored to the ____(1)____ due to the flow being isolated as a DIRECT result of the ____(2)____ signal.

A. (1) Containment Coolers (2) CIAS B. (1) Containment Coolers (2) SIAS C. (1) CCW Heat Exchangers (2) CIAS D. (1) CCW Heat Exchangers (2) SIAS Answer:

D. (1) CCW Heat Exchangers (2) SIAS Notes:

Answer D is correct. SIAS comes in at 18.3 psia in Containment. The SIAS signal automatically closes the supply and return isolations to the CCW Heat Exchangers and then SW cooling to the CCW HXs is restored using Exhibit 5 Step 2 as directed by SPTAs Step 7.E.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. No ESFAS signal isolates the Containment Coolers but plausible as Service Water flow does provide the cooling to the Containment Coolers but is actuated by a CCAS or MSIS NOT CIAS. Part 2 is incorrect as CIAS signal does NOT affect the Containment Coolers but plausible as the CIAS signal also comes in at 18.3 psia inside Containment along with the CCAS ESFAS signal.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. No ESFAS signal isolates the Containment Coolers but plausible as Service Water flow does provide the cooling to the Containment Coolers but is actuated by a CCAS or MSIS NOT SIAS. Part 2 is incorrect as SIAS signal does NOT affect the Containment Coolers but plausible as the SIAS signal also comes in at 18.3 psia inside Containment along with the CCAS ESFAS signal and SIAS does isolate the CCW HXs..

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the SIAS isolates the CCW Heat Exchangers but plausible as the CIAS signal also comes in at 18.3 psia inside Containment along with the SIAS ESFAS signal.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/21/2020 Search 008000A308 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CCW OBJ 6

TEST QID #

36 70 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have ability to monitor automatic operation of the CCWS, including:

automatic actions associated with the CCWS that occur as a result of a safety injection signal to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2202.010, Standard Attachments, Rev. 30, Attachment 2 for SW to CCW HX Isolation on SIAS.

STM 2-42, Service Water & Auxiliary Cooling Water Systems, Rev. 38, Drawing on page 62..

OP 2202.001, SPTAs, Rev. 17 Step 7. A. B. & E.

OP 2202.010, Standard Attachments, Rev. 30, Exhibit 5 Step 2 and 3.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

71 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2597 Safety Function 8

System Number 008

Title:

Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

K/A A1.04

==

Description:==

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the CCWS controls including: - Surge tank level RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

3.2 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

• Annunciator 2K11 C-10 "PROC LIQUID RADIATION HI/LO" comes into alarm.

• CBOT reports Loop 2 CCW Radiation Monitor, 2RITS-5202, is in high alarm.

• ATC reports Component Cooling Water (CCW) Expansion Tank levels are slowly rising.

• PZR level is at 60% and steady.

• Letdown is 30 gpm with one charging pump running.

• OP-2203.016, Excess RCS Leakage AOP has been implemented.

To prevent an unmonitored radioactive release, the CCW surge tank vents should be aligned to the ____(1)____ AND the CCW Surge Tank levels should be maintained between ____(2)____%.

A. (1) Radwaste Area Exhaust Fans 2VEF-8A/B (2) 29 to 44 B. (1) Radwaste Area Exhaust Fans 2VEF-8A/B (2) 40 to 70 C. (1) Waste Gas Collection Header Vent System (2) 29 to 44 D. (1) Waste Gas Collection Header Vent System (2) 40 to 70 Answer:

B. (1) Radwaste Area Exhaust Fans 2VEF-8A/B (2) 40 to 70 Notes:

Answer B is correct. Normally the CCW surge tank vent valves are lined up to vent the Surge tanks to atmosphere. In the event of a high radiation alarm on one of the CCW process radiation monitors, the vents can be manually aligned to the suction of the Radwaste Area filter Units, 2VEF-8A and B. During a RCS to CCW leak, the Excess leakage AOP 2203.016 Exhibit 1 directs maintaining 40 to 70% in the surge Tanks by draining to the Liquid Waste Tanks to prevent release of radioactive particulate in the CCW liquid.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect level but plausible as this is the normal automatic makeup band (29% to 44%) so these numbers should be familiar to the applicant as a level band for the CCW surge tanks.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the wrong vent alignment is listed but plausible as this header is where a lot of Radioactive tanks are vented to and this header is aligned to the plant plenum which is also monitored for any ra-dioactive gas release.. Part 2 is incorrect level but plausible as this is the normal automatic makeup band (29% to 44%)

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/21/2020 Search 008000A104 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

COBLE L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CCW OBJ 5/11 TEST QID #

37 72 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 so these numbers should be familiar to the applicant as a level band for the CCW surge tanks.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the wrong vent alignment is listed but plausible as this header is where a lot of Radioactive tanks are vented to and this header is aligned to the plant plenum which is also monitored for any radioactive gas release. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have ability monitor changes in parameters in the radiation monitoring system and respond to the indications and operate the correct CCWS controls including: CCW Surge tank levels and vents during a RCS leak to CCW to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2203.012K, ACA for 2K11 C-10, Rev. 51, Page 116.

OP 2203.016, EXCESS RCS LEAKAGE AOP, Rev.23, Entry Conditions, Steps 11 & 12.F, Attachment A Step 1, Attachment B Steps 1 & 2, and Exhibit 1 Step 2.

STM 2-43, Component Cooling Water System, Rev. 17 Section 2.8 and 2.8.2 STM 2-54, Gaseous Radwaste System, Rev. 11 Figure of the Waste Gas Collection Header Vent System on page 17.

Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1743. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2011 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam..

73 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2598 Safety Function 3

System Number 010

Title:

Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)

K/A K4.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of PZR PCS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: - Spray valve warm-up RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

The Pressurizer Pressure Control System design feature that reduces the thermal shock to the Pressurizer spray lines during plant transients is ____(1)____.

The driving force for spray warm-up flow is provided for by the differential pressure of RCPs ____(2)____.

A. (1) the main spray valves throttle open to the 40% position prior to going full open (2) 2P-32A and 2P-32B B. (1) the main spray valves throttle open to the 40% position prior to going full open (2) 2P-32C and 2P-32D C. (1) a small amount of RCS flow is maintained through one inch lines that bypass the main spray valves (2) 2P-32A and 2P-32B D. (1) a small amount of RCS flow is maintained through one inch lines that bypass the main spray valves (2) 2P-32C and 2P-32D Answer:

C. (1) a small amount of RCS flow is maintained through one inch lines that bypass the main spray valves (2) 2P-32A and 2P-32B Notes:

Answer C is correct. A throttled, 1 inch, manual bypass valve is provided around each spray valve to allow approximately 3-4 GPM flow through each of the spray lines during normal, 4 pump, RCP operation (6-8 gpm total). This continuous flow keeps the spray and surge lines warm reducing the thermal shock to these lines during plant transients. The pressurizer spray system uses the differential pressure between the discharge of the RCPs 2P-32A and 2P-32B and the pressurizer steam space as the driving force for flow.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the main spray valves are normally closed but plausible as the main spray valve do throttle open based on rising pressure in the RCS to ~40% open providing an amber light indications. They later go full open. This is to limit the PZR pressure drop due spray flow. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the main spray valves are normally closed but plausible as the main spray valve do throttle open based on rising pressure in the RCS to ~40% open providing an amber light indications. They later go full open. This is to limit the PZR pressure drop due spray flow. Part 2 is the incorrect RCPs but plausible if these two RCPs were connected to the PZR spray lines.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/21/2020 Search 010000K401 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RCS OBJ 3

TEST QID #

38 74 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is the incorrect RCPs but plausible if these two RCPs were connected to the PZR spray lines.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of RCS and PZR PCS design features a which provide for Spray valve warm-up flow to correctly answer the question.

References:

STM 2-03-1, Pressurizer Pressure And Level Control, Rev. 18, Sections 2.1, 2.2.6, and 2.3.

STM 2-03, RCS, Rev. 24, Sections 1.1 and 2.2.1.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

75 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2599 Safety Function 7

System Number 012

Title:

Reactor Protection System K/A K2.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: - RPS channels, components, and interconnections RO Imp:

3.3 SRO Imp:

3.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

• A loss of 120 Volt Vital AC to 2RS-1 has occurred.

Based on this loss of 2RS-1, Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers (TCBs) ____(1)____ would open AND the Reactor ____(2)____.

A. (1) 1, 2, 5, and 6 (2) WOULD B. (1) 1, 2, 5, and 6 (2) WOULD NOT C. (1) 3, 4, 7, and 8 (2) WOULD D. (1) 3, 4, 7, and 8 (2) WOULD NOT Answer:

B. (1) 1, 2, 5, and 6 (2) WOULD NOT Notes:

Answer B is correct. Trip Path 1 and 2 relays will de-energize when 120 Volt Vital AC to 2RS-1 is deenergized and 4 TCBs will open, TCB 1, 2, 5 and 6 will get a signal to open. This will NOT cause a loss of power from the CEA Motor Generators to the CEDMCS CEA Power supply buses therefore NO Reactor Trip will occur.

Distractor A is incorrect Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the right combination of 4 TCBs opening would trip the Reactor.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as a Loss of 2RS 3 or 2RS 4 would open these breakers. Part 2 is correct Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as a Loss of 2RS 3 or 2RS 4 would open these breakers. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the right combination of 4 TCBs opening would trip the Reactor.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of bus power supplies to the RPS channels and the effects on the components, and interconnections to answer the question correctly.

References:

STM 2-63, Reactor Protection System, Rev. 12,, Section 5.0 and drawings on pages 58 & 78.

Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/20/2020 Search 012000K201 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

COBLE L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RPS OBJ 14 TEST QID #

39 76 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2468. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2019 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

77 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2600 Safety Function 2

System Number 013

Title:

Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS K/A 2.4.39

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Knowledge of RO responsibilities in emergency plan implementation.

RO Imp:

3.9 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• A LOCA has occurred from full power operations.

• SIAS, CCAS, CIAS, and CSAS ESFAS signals have actuated.

• The SM/CRS are discussing which EPlan Emergency Action Level (EAL)

Classification to declare.

The EPlan responsibilities of the ATC and CBOT Operators during these ESFAS events would be to:

A. Monitor indicators and parameters for EAL applicability and reporting out negative trends and thresholds that have been exceeded to the SM/CRS.

B. Ensure all State and Local Offsite Authorities are notified within 15 minutes of any EAL classification declared by the SM/CRS.

C Monitor the NRC notifications of any EAL classification declared by the SM/CRS to ensure they are accurate and made within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of the EAL declaration.

D. Ensure Plant Status Report Log Sheet entries are made in chronological order, starting at the top, with time entries on the left side.

Answer:

A. Monitor indicators and parameters for EAL applicability and reporting out negative trends and thresholds that have been exceeded to the SM/CRS.

Notes:

Answer A is correct. All control room operators (including ROs) have responsibility of monitoring indicators for EAL applicability and reporting out negative trends or exceeded thresholds to the CRS/SM for evaluation. This includes panel indicators, computer points or trend screens, or alarms.

Distractor B is incorrect. Incorrect because this is a non-delegable responsibility of the SM/Emergency Director and the Control Room Communicator is responsible to make the actual notification and this is a separate position during EPLan event but plausible as this is a major requirement during all EPLan classifications Distractor C is incorrect. Incorrect because this is a non-delegable responsibility of the SM/Emergency Director but plausible as this is a major requirement during all EPLan classifications and the RO should be monitoring the plant and not NRC phone calls.

Distractor D is incorrect. Incorrect because this is a responsibility of the Control Room Log Keeper and this is a separate position during EPLan events. Plausible as the ATC and CBOT assist the CRS with making Narrative Log entries during plant evolutions and events.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have Knowledge of the RO responsibilities in emergency plan Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/24/2020 Search 0130002439 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-EPLAN OBJ 4

TEST QID #

40 78 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 implementation caused by an event with ESFAS actuations.

References:

Lesson Plan ASLP-RO-EPLAN, Rev. 11, Objective 12 and responsibilities during classifying emergencies.

OP 1903.064, EMERGENCY RESPONSE FACILITY - CONTROL ROOM, Rev. 16, Steps 5.1 & 6.2, Position Guide A, SM/ED, Step 2.a, Position Guide A-1, Control Room Communicator, Steps 2 and 5, and Position Guide A-2, Control Room Log Keeper, Steps 1, 2, and 10.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

79 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2601 Safety Function 5

System Number 022

Title:

Containment Cooling System (CCS)

K/A A3.01

==

Description:==

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CCS, including: - Initiation of safeguards mode of operation RO Imp:

4.1 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 has tripped due to a LOCA.

• RCS pressure is currently 1700 psia and lowering.

• SG Pressures are 1000 psia and stabilizing.

• Containment Pressure is 19.2 and rising.

Based on the above conditions, when checking the status of the Containment Cooling Fans (CCFs),

the proper status would have ____(1)____ CCFs running.

All Containment Cooling Bypass Dampers would be ____(2)____ for the running CCFs.

A. (1) All Four (2) Open B. (1) All Four (2) Closed C. (1) Three out of Four (2) Open D. (1) Three out of Four (2) Closed Answer:

A. (1) All Four (2) Open Notes:

Answer A is correct. All 4 Containment Cooling Units shift to the safeguards mode of operation during a SIAS and CCAS. Both of these actuations have the same set points of Low PZR pressure of 1650 psia or High Containment Pressure at 18.3 psia. Therefore in the conditions above, you do have a CCAS which will start all four CCFs and drop open all four Containment Cooling Unit Bypass Dampers.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible because during normal operations the Bypass Dampers are Closed and sometimes in the summer, All 4 CCFs are ran to reduce temperature inside Containment to maintain TS limits.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible because during normal operations three out of four CCFs are normally in operation for Containment cooling. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible because during normal operations three out of four CCFs are normally in operation for Containment cooling. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible because during normal operations all Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/19/2020 Search 022000A301 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CVENT OBJ 18 TEST QID #

41 80 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bypass Dampers are closed.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have ability to monitor automatic operation of the CCS, during a CCAS ESFAS actuation to answer the question correctly.

References:

STM 2-09, Containment Cooling And Purge Systems, Rev. 17 Sections 1.2.1, 2.2, 2.6, 2.8, and 10.2.2.

OP 2202.010, STANDARD ATTACHMENTS, Rev. 30, Exhibit 9, ESFAS ACTUATION, Step 4.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

81 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2602 Safety Function 5

System Number 022

Title:

Containment Cooling System (CCS)

K/A K1.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the CCS and the following systems: - SWS/cooling system RO Imp:

3.5 SRO Imp:

3.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following :

• Unit 2 trips from 100% power due to a Loss of Offsite Power.

• Main Steam Line break inside Containment on 'B' Steam Generator.

• RCS pressure is currently 1800 psia and lowering.

• 'B' SG Pressure is 700 psia and lowering.

• 'A' SG Pressure is 900 psia and lowering slowly.

• Containment Pressure is 17.9 and rising.

The response of the Service Water (SW) Isolations to/from the Containment Cooling System (CCS) after power is restored by the EDGs would be the supply isolations opening ____(1)____ AND return isolations open after the supply isolations start opening.

The reason for aligning Service Water to Containment in this way during this event is to ____(2)____.

A. (1) immediately (2) assist the normal Chill Water Cooling in reducing Containment pressure B. (1) immediately (2) eliminate severe water hammer due to vacuum voids in the CCS SW coils C. (1) after a time delay (2) assist the normal Chill Water Cooling in reducing Containment pressure D. (1) after a time delay (2) eliminate severe water hammer due to vacuum voids in the CCS SW coils Answer:

D. (1) after a time delay (2) eliminate potential water hammer due to vacuum voids in the CCS SW coils Notes:

Answer D is correct. If a LOOP were to occur and the service water pumps tripped, portions of the service water piping above certain elevations could void due to a vacuum that develops in the piping when the water drains out of the lines.

Once the EDGs restore power to the service water pumps and they start, the sudden water flow would collapse the voids and cause severe water hammer. To eliminate the possibility of severe water hammer in the voided service water cooling coils piping, containment service water cooling coil inlet valves 2CV-1511-1 and 2CV-1510-2 are controlled by a logic that includes a time delay to keep the valves closed immediately after the CCAS or MSIS with a LOOP when undervoltage is detected at vital 480v MCCs 2B54 or 2B63 respectively.

Distractor A is incorrect. In part 1 the valves open after a time delay due to the LOOP but plausible as the isolations would Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/19/2020 Search 022000K101 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CVENT OBJ 4

TEST QID #

42 82 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 go open immediately with no time delay as soon as the MSIS occurs with NO LOOP. Part 2 is incorrect reason for the time delay but plausible as Service Water does supply more cooling to Containment along with Chill Water at this point but Chill Water will isolate on a CIAS at 18.3 psia as Containment pressure rises.

Distractor B is incorrect. In part 1 the valves open after a time delay due to the LOOP but plausible as the isolations would go open immediately with no time delay as soon as the MSIS occurs with NO LOOP. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect reason of the time delay but plausible as Service Water does supply more cooling to Containment along with Chill Water at this point but Chill Water will isolate on a CIAS at 18.3 psia as Containment pressure rises.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have Knowledge of the physical SWS supply isolations and interlocks with the CCS to prevent water hammer damage to the CCS cooling coils to answer the question correctly.

References:

STM 2-09, Containment Cooling And Purge Systems, Rev. 17 Section 2.7 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

83 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2603 Safety Function 5

System Number 026

Title:

Containment Spray System (CSS)

K/A K4.07

==

Description:==

Knowledge of CSS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: - Adequate level in containment sump for suction (interlock)

RO Imp:

3.8 SRO Imp:

4.1 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

During a Large Break LOCA, the containment sump isolation valves and RWT outlet valves are interlocked to automatically swap Containment Spray System (CSS) pump suctions when RWT lowers to a MAXIMUM of ____(1)____% to ____(2)____.

A. (1) 6 (2) ensure adequate NPSH for CSS pumps B. (1) 6 (2) lower radiation levels in the CSS pump vaults C. (1) 7 (2) ensure adequate NPSH for CSS pumps D. (1) 7 (2) lower radiation levels in the CSS pump vaults Answer:

A. (1) 6 (2) ensure adequate NPSH for CSS pumps Notes:

Answer A is correct: During a DBA the ECCS pumps will start and inject water from the RWT through the core and into the containment building. As the RWT is depleted ESFAS will trigger a Recirc Actuation Signal (RAS) when RWT level lowers to 6%. This will provide long term cooling to the core and containment building. When RAS is actuated, it will isolate the RWT from the ECCS system by closing the ECCS recirc isolation valves and swap the ECCS suctions to the containment sump by opening the containment sump isolation valves and closing the RWT outlets. The RAS will prevent possible contamination/radiation release outside the Auxiliary building (isolating the RWT from containment sump water) and provide adequate NPSH to the ECCS pumps (where all of the RWT water was transferred to).

Distractor B is incorrect Part 1 is correct. RAS will occur at 6% RWT level but the ECCS suction is automatically swapped to the containment sump to provide NPSH to the ECCS pumps. Part 2 is not correct for what is asked but plausible due to the RAS signal will isolate the RWT to prevent the possible spread/release of radiation/contamination outside of the auxiliary building. If containment sump water is recirculated through the ECCS rooms radiation levels will rise significantly.

Distractor C is incorrect, In Part 1, a RAS will occur at 6% RWT level not 7% but the ECCS suction do automatically swapped to the containment sump to provide NPSH to the ECCS pumps. Plausible due to when the VCT level drops to 5%, the RWT to charging pump suction will be opened to prevent a loss of Charging and will swap back to the VCT at 7%. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect In Part 1, a RAS will occur at 6% RWT level not 7% but the ECCS suction do automatically swapped to the containment sump to provide NPSH to the ECCS pumps. Plausible due to when the VCT level drops to Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/18/2020 Search 026000K407 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Foster L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-SPRAY OBJ 5

TEST QID #

43 84 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 5%, the RWT to charging pump suction will be opened to prevent a loss of Charging and will swap back to the VCT at 7%. Part 2 is not correct for what is asked but plausible due to the RAS signal will isolate the RWT to prevent the possible spread/release of radiation/contamination outside of the auxiliary building. If containment sump water is recirculated through the ECCS rooms radiation levels will rise significantly.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the interlock set point for RWT which provides for adequate level in containment sump for CSS Pump suction NPSH to answer the question. correctly.

References:

STM 2-08, Containment Spray System, Rev. 24, Sections 3.1, 3.1.1. and INTERLOCK AND TRIP INSTRUMENTATION Table on Page 37.

OP-2203.003, Loss of Coolant Accident, Rev 016, Section 3 step 22. A and 22. J.

STM 2-04, CVCS, Rev. 32, Section 2.2.1 Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2228. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2015 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

85 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2604 Safety Function 4

System Number 039

Title:

Main and Reheat Steam System (MRSS)

K/A 2.1.7

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

RO Imp:

4.4 SRO Imp:

4.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at full power at 400 EFPD in the operating cycle.

• The Extraction Steam flow to the #1 FW HTR 2E-1A is lost.

Based on this failure, RCS cold leg temperature instruments will initially ____(1)____ AND Reactor Power instruments will initially ____(2)____.

A. (1) RISE (2) RISE B. (1) RISE (2) LOWER C. (1) LOWER (2) LOWER D. (1) LOWER (2) RISE Answer:

D. (1) LOWER (2) RISE Notes:

Answer D is correct The loss of reheating steam to the #1 FW heaters will lower Feedwater temperature entering the SG which will lower RCS average temperature. The lower temperature will induce positive reactivity in the core with a negative MTC at 400 EFPD thus causing Reactor power to rise.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible if Extraction Steam temperature was lower than MFW temperature as it is in #6 FW Heater. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible if Extraction Steam temperature was lower than MFW temperature as it is in #6 FW Heater. Part 2 is incorrect at 400 EFPD but plausible if earlier in core EFPD when MTC is a lot less negative and almost positive at the beginning of core life.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect at 400 EFPD but plausible if earlier in core EFPD when MTC is a lot less negative and almost positive at the beginning of core life.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must evaluate plant performance based on loss of the 2E-1A FW HTR Extraction Steam Flow and determine based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation what will be the effect on RCS temperature and power to answer the question. correctly.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/18/2020 Search 0390002107 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-STEAM OBJ 4

TEST QID #

44 86 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20

References:

STM 2-17, Extraction Steam, Rev. 19, Sections 1.1, 2.1 and drawings of the Extraction to #1 FW heaters on Page 30 AND High Pressure Feedwater Heater System on Page 33 Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1751. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2011 ILO RO NRC Exam (Answer was change from B to D to balance exam)

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

87 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2605 Safety Function 4

System Number 059

Title:

Main Feedwater (MFW) System K/A A1.03

==

Description:==

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the MFW System controls including: - Power level restrictions for operation of MFW pumps and valves RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at 100% power.

• Circulating Water inlet temperature is 80°F.

• Main Feedwater Pump (MFP) 2P-1A trips.

To prevent long term degradation to the running 2P-1B MFP, plant power should be reduced to less than a MAXIMUM of ____(1)____% power using ____(2)____.

A. (1) 80 (2) Boration ONLY IAW Loss of MFP AOP Exhibit 1, CBOT Actions for Loss of MFP B. (1) 85 (2) Boration ONLY IAW Loss of MFP AOP Exhibit 1, CBOT Actions for Loss of MFP C. (1) 80 (2) Boration and CEA insertion IAW OP-2203.027, Loss of MFP AOP directions D. (1) 85 (2) Boration and CEA insertion IAW OP-2203.027, Loss of MFP AOP directions Answer:

C. (1) 80 (2) Boration and CEA insertion IAW OP-2203.027, Loss of MFP AOP directions Notes:

Answer C is correct. The Loss of MFP AOP directs reducing power to less than 80% for Loss of one Feedwater Pump.

The Loss of MFP AOP Step 4 Contingency Action Step 4.A directs Boration IAW Exhibit 1, CBOT Actions for Loss of MFP and Step 4 Contingency Action Step 4.B directs CEA Insertion.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as there is a specific Exhibit 1 in the Loss of MFP AOP that directs Boration and does not have any steps to insert CEAs.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this would be the targeted Reactor Power level for a Loss of a Circulating Water Pump in the Loss of Condenser Vacuum AOP Attachment B for a CW Inlet temperature of 80°F.

Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as there is a specific Exhibit 1 in the Loss of MFP AOP that directs Boration and does not have any steps to insert CEAs.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this would be the targeted Reactor Power level for a Loss of a Circulating Water Pump in the Loss of Condenser Vacuum AOP Attachment B for a CW Inlet temperature of 80°F.

Part 2 is correct.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/18/2020 Search 059000A103 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-AMFP OBJ 3

TEST QID #

45 88 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to monitor parameters associated with a Loss of a MFP and take the appropriate actions to reduce plant power to prevent exceeding a SG Low Level design limit trip to answer the question correctly.

References:

OP 2203.027, Loss of MFP AOP, Rev. 18, Exit Condition 1, Step 4 Contingency Action Steps 4.A & 4.B, Step 9 AND Exhibit 1, CBOT Actions for Loss of MFP.

OP 2203.019, Loss of Condenser Vacuum, Rev. 14, Attachment B, Circ Water Temperature Limiting Rx Power Levels.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

89 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2606 Safety Function 4

System Number 061

Title:

Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System K/A A2.03

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the AFW System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Loss of dc power RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

3.4 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 4 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The AACDG is out of service for maintenance.

• A loss of grid occurs and both units trip from full power.

• A Bus Lockout occurs on Red Train 4160 VAC Bus 2A3.

• EFAS 1 and 2 actuate on the Reactor Trip.

• A complete loss of Green DC occurs during SPTAs.

• #2 EDG failed to start automatically and is being started locally.

NOW

• SG levels are 20% and lowering.

• PZR level is 65% and slowly lowering.

• RCS MTS is 55°F and stabilizing.

One of the impacts of this event during SPTAs would be the ____(1)____ Safety Function is NOT Met.

After SPTAs, a method that can be used to restore the Safety Function that is NOT Met would be to use ____(2)____.

A. (1) RCS Inventory Control (2) OP-2202.010, Standard Attachment 53, Recovery from Loss of Feed With EFW Pump 2P-7B B. (1) RCS Inventory Control (2) OP-2106.006, Emergency FW Operations, Exhibit 3, Manual Control of EFW Pump 2P-7A C. (1) RCS Heat Removal (2) OP-2202.010, Standard Attachment 53, Recovery from Loss of Feed With EFW Pump 2P-7B D. (1) RCS Heat Removal (2) OP-2106.006, Emergency FW Operations, Exhibit 3, Manual Control of EFW Pump 2P-7A Answer:

D. (1) RCS Heat Removal (2) OP-2106.006, Emergency FW Operations, Exhibit 3, Manual Control of EFW Pump 2P-7A Notes:

Answer D is correct. The loss of Green DC will cause EFW Pump 2P-7A to over speed and trip. EFW Pump 2P-7B has lost its power supply 2A3 (Locked Out) so it is unavailable. Main Feedwater and AFW Pumps also have no power. This will cause a loss of the RCS Heat Removal Safety Function and to restore feedwater in the Loss of Feedwater AOP (to restore the safety function), the preferred method is 2P-7B first (Motor Driven) which has no power, then 2P-7A next.

2P-7A can be started and controlled Locally without its DC Power supply by performing OP 2106.006, Emergency Feedwater Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/25/2020 Search 061000A203 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EFW OBJ 10 TEST QID #

46 90 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Operations, Exhibit 3, Manual Control OF EFW Pump 2P-7A, after resetting the over speed trip using Exhibit 1 Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because the PZR Level set point is 60% and to meet the Inventory safety function, PZR level needs to be 10 to 80% trending to set point with >30°F MTS so the inventory safety function IS Met.

Plausible as it is a required safety function and Reactor Operators must have the criteria for safety functions in memory.

Part 2 is incorrect because 2P-7B is not powered from 2A4 but plausible as 2P-7B EFW Pump is powered off of a Red train 2A3 bus and 2P-7B is the first preferred feed source.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because the PZR Level set point is 60% and to meet the Inventory safety function, PZR level needs to be 10 to 80% trending to set point with >30°F MTS so the inventory safety function IS Met.

Plausible as it is a required safety function and Reactor Operators must have the criteria for safety functions in memory.

Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because 2P-7B is not powered from 2A4 but plausible as 2P-7B EFW Pump is powered off of a Red train 2A3 bus and 2P-7B is the first preferred feed source.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to predict the impacts of a Loss of Green DC on the EFW System based on those predictions, use procedures to restore the RCS Heat Removal Safety Function using the EFW Pump 2P-7A.

References:

OP-2202.001, SPTAs, Rev 17, Steps 5 and 8.

STM 2-19-2, EFW & AFW Systems, Rev. 43, Section 2.1, 2.1.1, and 2.1.2 OP-2202.006, Loss of Feedwater EOP, Rev. 13, Step 12 A and B.

OP-2202.010, Standard Attachment 54, RECOVERY FROM LOSS OF FEED WITH 2P7A, Rev. 30, Step 6.

OP-2106.006, EFW System Operations, Rev. 104, Exhibit 3, Manual Control of 2P-7A, Note and Step 2 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

91 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2607 Safety Function 4

System Number 061

Title:

Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System K/A A3.03

==

Description:==

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the AFW System, including: - AFW S/G level control on automatic start RO Imp:

3.9 SRO Imp:

3.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• A loss of Offsite Power occurs and the plant trips.

• The 2B6 Bus Feeder Breaker trips open when EDG Power is restored to 2A4.

NOW

• Both 2P-7A and 2P-7B EFW Pumps start on EFAS actuations.

• SG Levels are rising but are still less than EFAS Level Control Valve reset values.

Based on these conditions, when monitoring the automatic operation of the eight (8) EFW SG Level Control Valves (LCVs),

there should be ____(1)____ upstream LCVs Open AND ____(2)____ downstream LCVs Open.

A. (1) 2 (2) 2 B. (1) 2 (2) 4 C. (1) 4 (2) 2 D. (1) 4 (2) 4 Answer:

D. (1) 4 (2) 4 Notes:

Answer D is correct. The two downstream LCVs for EFW Pump 2P-7B are powered from 2B6 480 Vital AC Bus.

However, both of these valves are normally full open (MOVs) in standby and will fail as is (open) on the loss of AC power to the MOVs. The other 6 valves still have power so all eight valves should be open under these conditions.

Distractor A is incorrect. All 4 upstream and 4 downstream valves will be open. Plausible if the applicant does not remember which power supplies goes to which valves and assumes the 4 AC powered MOVs on the 2P-7B EFW pump have lost power so only the 2P-7A EFW Pump is supplying both SGs through its associated LCVs. (a Loss of 2B5 or 2D27 would only allow only 2 upstream valves to be open and SG levels above reset set point would allow 2 downstream valves to go closed)

Distractor B is incorrect. All 4 upstream and 4 downstream valves will be open. Part 1 is Plausible if the applicant does not remember which power supplies goes to which valves and assumes 2B6 power goes to the 2P-7B EFW Pump upstream Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/13/2020 Search 061000A303 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EFW OBJ 10 TEST QID #

47 92 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 LCVs (a Loss of 2B5 or 2D27 would only allow only 2 upstream valves to be open). Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. All 4 upstream and 4 downstream valves will be open. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible if the applicant does remember the correct power supplies but does not remember that the downstream valves are normally full open and are MOVs that fail as is on loss of power. (SG levels above reset set point would allow 2 downstream valves to go closed)

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to monitor automatic operation of the EFW System, including: - EFW S/G level control on automatic start to answer the question. correctly.

References:

STM 2-19-2, EFW & AFW Systems, Rev.43, Section 1.4, 2.3.3, and 2.3.3.1 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

93 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2608 Safety Function 6

System Number 062

Title:

A.C. Electrical Distribution System K/A 2.2.17

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of the process for managing maintenance activities during power operations, such as risk assessments, work prioritization, and coordination with the transmission system operator.

RO Imp:

2.6 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• The Reactor Vessel Head needs to be removed for Refueling.

• SU3 and SU2 Offsite Power sources and Both EDGs are operable.

• Shutdown OPS Protection Plan, SOPP Condition 6 has been verified for entry into Lowered Inventory to remove the vessel head.

During entry into Lowered Inventory communication to ____(1)____ should be made to limit all maintenance activities that could affect switchyard power supplies.

IF any maintenance activities inadvertently cause one of the Offsite Power supplies to become inoperable during Lowered Inventory, then signs stating "Attention: Loss of power could place Unit 2 at risk" should be verified in place at the

____(2)____.

A. (1) Transmission Control Center-North (TCC-North)

(2) Switchyard Main Entrance Gate B. (1) Transmission Control Center-North (TCC-North)

(2) Main Transformers Entrance Gate C. (1) Woodlands Energy Operations Center (EOC)

(2) Switchyard Main Entrance Gate D. (1) Woodlands Energy Operations Center (EOC)

(2) Main Transformers Entrance Gate Answer:

A. (1) Transmission Control Center-North (TCC-North)

(2) Switchyard Main Entrance Gate Notes:

Answer A is correct. In Part 1, IAW OP 1015.048, Shutdown Operations Protection Plan, Attachment L, SOPP for Unit 2 Condition 6, Section 2 Step 3d, ENSURE TCC-N notified of entry into lowered inventory and REQUEST TCC-N to limit to the extent practical, maintenance on equipment outside the switchyard that could affect power supplies to the plant switchyard. In Part 2 IAW OP 1015.048, Shutdown Operations Protection Plan, Attachment L, SOPP for Unit 2 Condition 6, Section 3 Step 2, WHEN key safety function such as an Offsite power source defense in depth is reduced, such as one offsite power source becomes inoperable, then signs stating "Attention: Loss of power could place Unit 2 at risk" are ensured to be in place at the Switchyard Main Entrance Gate.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the Main Transformers will not be supplying power to the plant at this time but plausible as the SU Transformers which are near the Main Transformers are supplying the plant but have separated gate entrances.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/13/2020 Search 0620002217 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-SDCC OBJ 5/7 TEST QID #

48 94 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as ANO should contact the Transmission Control Center-North (TCC-North) but plausible as Woodlands Energy Operations Center (EOC) is an oversite Generation and Transmission center but the Transmission Control Center-North (TCC-North) would contact them not ANO. Part 2 is correct Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as ANO should contact the Transmission Control Center-North (TCC-North) but plausible as Woodlands Energy Operations Center (EOC) is an oversite Generation and Transmission center but the Transmission Control Center-North (TCC-North) would contact them not ANO. Part 2 is incorrect as the Main Transformers will not be supplying power to the plant at this time but plausible as the SU Transformers which are near the Main Transformers are supplying the plant but have separated gate entrances.

NOTE: This QID was written for shutdown plant conditions because SROs normally manage maintenance activities during power operations and ROs may be in the Control Room without a CRS during shutdown operations and may be the one managing the maintenance activity in the control room at that time. Also the Risk associated with the AC Electrical Distribution System during shutdown lowered inventory conditions is greater than during power operations.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the knowledge of the process for managing and prioritizing maintenance activities during high risk conditions such as Lowered Inventory and coordination with the transmission system operator to answer the question correctly.

References:

OP 1015.048, Shutdown Operations Protection Plan, Rev. 27, Attachment L, SOPP for Unit 2 Condition 6, Sections 1.0 Initial Conditions, 2.0 Requirements Step 3, and 3.0 Miscellaneous Step 2.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

95 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2609 Safety Function 6

System Number 063

Title:

D.C. Electrical Distribution System K/A A1.01

==

Description:==

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the D.C. Electrical System controls including: - Battery capacity as it is affected by discharge rate RO Imp:

2.5 SRO Imp:

3.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 has been in a Station Blackout for 60 minutes.

• OP-2202.008, Station Blackout EOP, is in progress.

• All attempts to start any Diesel Power supply has failed.

• FDS-002, Unit 2 Extended Loss of AC Power is NOT in Progress.

• Dispatcher says offsite power is expected to return in 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />.

During these conditions, to ensure the Unit 2 Station Vital Batteries can achieve their designed ____(1)____ hour discharge capacity rating at 2064 amp hours, the ____(2)____ inverter should be secured at this time.

A. (1) 4 (2) 2Y25 PMS B. (1) 4 (2) 2Y26 SPDS C. (1) 8 (2) 2Y25 PMS D. (1) 8 (2) 2Y26 SPDS Answer:

C. (1) 8 (2) 2Y25 PMS Notes:

Answer C is correct. The ANO Unit 2 Station vital batteries (2D11 and 2D12) are each rated for 2064 amp hours over an eight hour discharge period. The 2Y25 PMS Inverter is powered from the Red Train Vital Battery 2D01 The Station Blackout Procedure OP 2202.008 Section 1 Step 19 directs securing of the PMS Inverter 2Y25 if the Blackout is expected to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the design is 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> but plausible as this is how long the Station Blackout is expected to last. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the design is 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> but plausible as this is how long the Station Blackout is expected to last. Part 2 is incorrect as the 2Y26 SPDS Inverter is NOT powered off of a Vital Battery but plausible as this inverter is powered from a Non Vital 2D33 Station Battery (Black Battery)

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as the 2Y26 SPDS Inverter is NOT powered off of a Vital Battery but plausible as this inverter is powered from a Non Vital 2D33 Station Battery (Black Battery)

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/12/2020 Search 063000A101 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ESBO OBJ 3

TEST QID #

49 96 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the knowledge of the design limits of the Unit 2 Vital Batteries and the ability to take the correct actions to prevent exceeding the battery design limits by minimizing the discharge rate thus ensuring adequate battery capacity.

References:

STM 2-32-5, 125 VDC Electrical Distribution, Rev. 26, Section 2.4 Vital Batteries and Figure on page 33.

OP 2202.008, Station Blackout EOP, Rev. 17, Section 1 Steps 19, and 22..

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

97 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2610 Safety Function 6

System Number 064

Title:

Emergency Diesel Generator (ED/G) System K/A A4.01

==

Description:==

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: - Local and remote operation of the ED/G RO Imp:

4.0 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at 100% power.

• A Surveillance test of Green Train 2DG2 is in progress.

• 2DG2 is paralleled to the grid and loaded to 2750 KW.

NOW

• A grid disturbance causes a complete Loss of Off-Site power.

The response of the Red Train EDG, 2DG1, and Vital Bus 2A3 Breakers would be ____(1)____.

The response of the Green Train EDG, 2DG2, and Vital Bus 2A4 Breakers would be ____(2)____.

A. (1) 2A1 to 2A3 BKR 2A-309 Opens; 2DG1 Starts and output BKR 2A-308 Closes (2) 2A2 to 2A4 BKR 2A-409 Remains Closed; 2DG2 output BKR 2A-408 Remains Closed B. (1) 2A1 to 2A3 BKR 2A-309 Opens; 2DG1 Starts and output BKR 2A-308 Closes (2) 2A2 to 2A4 BKR 2A-409 Opens; 2DG2 output BKR 2A-408 Opens then Re-Closes C. (1) 2A1 to 2A3 BKR 2A-309 Remains Closed; 2DG1 Starts and output BKR 2A-308 Closes (2) 2A2 to 2A4 BKR 2A-409 Opens; 2DG2 output BKR 2A-408 Opens then Re-Closes D. (1) 2A1 to 2A3 BKR 2A-309 Remains Closed; 2DG1 Starts and output BKR 2A-308 Closes (2) 2A2 to 2A4 BKR 2A-409 Remains Closed; 2DG2 output BKR 2A-408 Remains Closed Answer:

B. (1) 2A1 to 2A3 BKR 2A-309 Opens; 2DG1 Starts and output BKR 2A-308 Closes (2) 2A2 to 2A4 BKR 2A-409 Opens; 2DG2 output BKR 2A-408 Opens then Re-Closes Notes:

Answer B is correct. When the LOOP occurs, the offsite feeder breakers 309/409 will be tripped along with the 2DG2 Output Breaker 408 due to the Main Generator Trip Lockout Relays 286-G2 and G3. 2DG1 will receive an Auto Start signal and close its associated output breaker 308 when it get to rated speed and Voltage. 2DG2 will remain running and when an undervoltage on 2A4 is detected along with the 409 breaker being open, the 2DG2 output breaker will re-close.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because 2A-409 will open but plausible if the applicant believes the EDG will feed the Vital 2A4 and Non Vital 2A2 buses during a LOOP if already paralleled together.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as 2A-309 will open but plausible as the rest of the statement is correct.

Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as 2A-309 will open but plausible if the applicant believes the EDG will feed Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/12/2020 Search 064000A401 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EDG OBJ 11 TEST QID #

50 98 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 the 2A3 Vital and 2A1 Non-Vital Buses is to remain energized. Part 2 is incorrect because 2A-409 will open but plausible if the applicant believes the EDG will feed the Vital 2A4 and Non Vital 2A2 Buses during a LOOP if already paralleled together.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the ability to monitor the operation of the EDGs and Vital Bus Power Supplies in the control room during a Loss of Offsite power using knowledge of the Local Bus Breaker Logic.

References:

STM 2-31, Emergency Diesel Generators, Rev. 35, Sections 3.2.1, 3.3.1.1 and electrical Prints on pages 120 and 121.

STM 2-32-2, High Voltage Electrical Distribution, Rev. 37, Sections 5.4 and 5.5.

Historical Comments:

This question comes from the ANO Unit 1 NRC Exam Bank Item 0530. Originally developed by the NRC for use on the 2004 ANO Unit 1 RO NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

99 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2611 Safety Function 7

System Number 073

Title:

Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System K/A K1.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the PRM System and the following systems: - Those systems served by PRMs RO Imp:

3.6 SRO Imp:

3.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Plant has returned to 100% power from 70% power after recovery of a dropped CEA.

• Annunciator 2K12-A1, LETDOWN RADIATION HI/LO has actuated.

• The CBOT is directed to monitor RCS Gross and Iodine activities on Letdown Radiation Monitor Recorder, 2RR-4806, on 2C-14.

If both RCS Gross Activity and RCS Iodine 131 Activity have caused the alarm, then ____(1)____ should be suspected but if RCS Gross Activity Only has caused the alarm, then ____(2)____ should be suspected.

A. (1) Fuel Cladding damage (2) Letdown purification filter damage B. (1) Fuel Cladding damage (2) RCS crud burst C. (1) Letdown DI outlet strainer damage (2) Letdown purification filter damage D. (1) Letdown DI outlet strainer damage (2) RCS crud Burst Answer:

B. (1) Fuel cladding damage (2) RCS crud burst Notes:

Answer B is correct. A rise in the radioactivity of RCS could be caused by crud released in the RCS or failure of the fuel cladding of the Reactor fuel assemblies. The Gross gamma indication is read out on 2RITS-4806A while the specific activity level can be read on 2RITS-4806B. The specific activity monitor 2RITS-4806B monitors the Letdown fluid for the presence of Iodine-131. Iodine-131 is a fission product that is released with relative ease from defective fuel assemblies.

A rise in the gross activity only would be an indication of an RCS crud burst. The differential pressure across the Letdown radiation monitors is driven by the pressure drop across the Letdown filter. The only way Letdown filter damage or a Let-down DI outlet strainer failure could cause a rise in RCS activity is if it as located upstream of the radiation monitor.

As such they are in parallel to the radiation monitors or downstream of it thus answers A and C and D are wrong.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect. The differential pressure across the Letdown radiation monitors is driven by the pressure drop across the Letdown filter. The only way Letdown filter damage could cause a rise in RCS activity is if it as located upstream of the radiation monitor. As such they are in parallel to the radiation monitors thus Part 2 of A is incorrect but plausible as a tear in the Letdown filter would release activity into the CVCS system and then returned to the RCS.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/12/2020 Search 073000K101 10CFR55: 41.11 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RMON OBJ 2

TEST QID #

51 100 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. The Letdown DI outlet strainer is located downstream of the Letdown Rad Monitor so it would not see the activity if it were released but plausible as the outlet DI strainer prevents the release of resin that would have potential nuclear isotope in the resin. In Part 2, the differential pressure across the Letdown radiation monitors is driven by the pressure drop across the Letdown filter. The only way Letdown filter damage could cause a rise in RCS activity is if it as located upstream of the radiation monitor. As such they are in parallel to the radiation monitors thus Part 2 of A is incorrect but plausible as a tear in the Letdown filter would release activity into the CVCS system and then returned to the RCS.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. The Letdown DI outlet strainer is located downstream of the Letdown Rad Monitor so it would not see the activity if it were released but plausible as the outlet DI strainer prevents the release of resin that would have potential nuclear isotope in the resin. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the cause-effect relationships between the Letdown PRM Monitoring System and the Reactor Coolant System to answer the question correctly.

References:

STM 2-04, CVCS, Rev. 32, Section 2.1.13 and CVCS Drawing on Page 66.

STM 2-62, Radiation Monitoring System, Rev. 24, Section 2.2.1 and 3.4.6 Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1760. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2011 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

101 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2612 Safety Function 4

System Number 076

Title:

Service Water System (SWS)

K/A K2.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: - Service water RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

2.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• SW pumps 2P-4B and 2P-4C are in service with 2P-4A in standby.

• The reactor trips due to Lowering PZR pressure currently at 1625 psia.

• Coincident with the trip is a loss of off-site power.

• Both DGs are now supplying their respective bus.

Given these conditions, SW pump 2P-4A would be ____(1)____ AND 2P-4B would be ____(2)____.

A. (1) secured (2) running B. (1) secured (2) secured C. (1) running (2) secured D. (1) running (2) running Answer:

C. (1) running (2) secured Notes:

Answer C is correct The Service Water pumps are powered by 4160V vital buses 2A3 (2P-4A) and 2A4 (2P-4C) with the swing pump (2P-4B) supplied by either through disconnect 2A5. The SW pumps receive a start signal on SIAS, MSIS or EFAS. There is a time delay in the start circuit for each pump to prevent 2 pumps from auto starting on a single EDG.

The "A" and "C" SW pumps are the preferred SW pumps with their time delays set at 4.5 seconds whereas "B" SW pump time delay is set at 6 seconds. During this scenario the SIAS would send a start signal to the SW pumps and both EDGs.

In this scenario then when the power is restored to 2A3 and 2A4 by their respective EDGs, the 2P-4A and 2P-4C Pumps would be running and 2P-4B Service Water Pump would be secured.

Distractor A is incorrect. 2P-4A would be ruining but plausible as it was in standby to begin with. 2P-4B would be secured but plausible as it was running to begin with.

Distractor B is incorrect. 2P-4A would be ruining but plausible as it was in standby to begin with. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. 2P-4B would be secured but plausible as it was running to begin with.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of bus power supplies timing relays associated with the automatic starting circuits of the Service Water Pumps during an accident condition to answer the question. correctly.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/11/2020 Search 076000K201 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Simpson L. Plan: A2LP-RO-SWACW OBJ 11 TEST QID #

52 102 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20

References:

STM 2-42, Service Water & Auxiliary Cooling Water Systems, Rev. 38 Section 3.1.1.1.

Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 0579 with modifications to be a 2x2. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2006 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

103 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2613 Safety Function 8

System Number 078

Title:

Instrument Air System (IAS)

K/A K4.02

==

Description:==

Knowledge of IAS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: - Cross-over to other air systems RO Imp:

3.2 SRO Imp:

3.5 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Unit 1/Unit 2 Instrument Air Cross-connect 2CV-3004 connects the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Instrument Air systems ____(1)____.

The Unit 2 Instrument Air Cross-Connect 2CV-3004 AOV will eventually fail Open on an extended loss of IA on Unit 2.

However, during an initial Loss of IA, 2CV-3004 can be Closed AND is designed to remain Closed for a MINIMUM of

____(2)____ minutes to allow isolating Unit 1 from Unit 2.

A. (1) through the Breathing Air compressor discharge header (2) 60 B. (1) at the Instrument Air compressors discharge headers (2) 60 C. (1) through the Breathing Air compressor discharge header (2) 30 D. (1) at the Instrument Air compressors discharge headers (2) 30 Answer:

D. (1) at the instrument air compressors discharge headers (2) 30 Notes:

Answer D is correct. Refer to STM 2-48, Instrument Air drawing on Page 39. Instrument Air (IA) compressors 2C27 A/B can supply Unit 1with air or receive air from Unit 1 through 2CV-3004. An accumulator, 2T-32, provides air to maintain 2CV-3004 closed during a loss of Unit 2 instrument air. The accumulator is sized to allow the valve to be cycled open and close and remain closed for at least 30 minutes. This allows the operator to cross connected the 2 units on a Loss of Unit 2 Instrument Air but if the instrument air pressure continues to decrease, 2CV-3004 can be closed. The 30 minute time limit allows the operator to manually isolate the cross connect header prior to 2CV-3004 failing open.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. Breathing Air (BA) does not go through 2CV-3004 but plausible as BA can supply Unit 2 through IA Cross Connect MOV Valve 2CV-3015. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as 60 psig lowering IA pressure on Unit 2 is when the AOP procedurally required action to isolate IA from Unit 1 is directed.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as 60 psig lowering IA pressure on Unit 2 is when the AOP procedurally required action to isolate IA from Unit 1 is directed.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect. Breathing Air (BA) does not go through 2CV-3004 but plausible as BA can supply Unit 2 through IA Cross Connect MOV Valve 2CV-3015. Part 2 is correct.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/11/2020 Search 078000K402 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-AO-IA OBJ 3/9 TEST QID #

53 104 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of IAS design feature(s) which provide for cross connecting the Unit 1 IA system with Unit 2 to answer the question. correctly.

References:

STM 2-48, Instrument Air, Rev. 18, Sections 2.14, 2.14.1, 3.2 and drawing on Page 39 Historical Comments:

This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 0580 with modifications to be a 2x2. This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2006 ILO RO NRC Exam This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

105 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2614 Safety Function 8

System Number 078

Title:

Instrument Air System (IAS)

K/A K3.02

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the IAS will have on the following: - Systems having pneumatic valves and controls RO Imp:

3.4 SRO Imp:

3.6 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant is experiencing a loss of Instrument Air pressure.

If Instrument air pressure continues to lower to zero, the Upstream Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) would fail

____(1)____ AND Downstream ADVs would fail ____(2)____.

A. (1) OPEN (2) OPEN B. (1) OPEN (2) CLOSED C. (1) CLOSED (2) OPEN D. (1) CLOSED (2) CLOSED Answer:

B. (1) OPEN (2) CLOSED Notes:

B is Correct. Upstream Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) fail Open and Downstream ADVs fail Closed on a Loss of Instrument Air.

A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the upstream ADVs fail Open.

C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the downstream ADVs fail Closed. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the upstream ADVs fail Open.

D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the downstream ADVs fail Closed. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the effect that a loss of the IAS will have on the 4 pneumatically operated Main Steam System ADVs to answer the question. correctly.

References:

OP 2203.021, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR, Rev. 21, Attachment A, SYSTEM VALVE POSITIONS, Page 6 of 19.

STM 2-15, Steam Generators & Main Steam System, Rev. 20, Section 3.2.8 Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/11/2020 Search 078000K302 10CFR55: 41.7 Historical Comments:

Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-STEAM OBJ 2

TEST QID #

54 106 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This QID comes from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1595 with modifications to be a 2x2. This question was originally developed to be used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2005 ILO RO NRC Exam but was not used due to over sampling of the Instrument Air System on the sample plan.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

107 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2615 Safety Function 5

System Number 103

Title:

Containment System K/A K1.05

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the Containment System and the following systems: - Personnel access hatch and emergency access hatch RO Imp:

2.8 SRO Imp:

3.0 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is performing a cool down for a refueling outage.

• RCS pressure is 240 psia and slowly lowering.

• RCS temperature is 220°F and slowly lowering.

• SDC Train A is in service.

• Personnel need to commence routing cables and hoses into Containment for the Refueling Outage though the Personnel and Emergency Escape Air Locks.

• Maintenance calls the Control Room and request permission to defeat all the door interlocks for the Personnel and Emergency Escape Air Locks doors.

• Maintenance says they will ensure that at least one door in each Air Lock is capable of being Closed.

Based on these conditions, in accordance with the applicability of TS 3.6.1.3 and TS 3.9.4 associated with Containment Air Locks door interlocks, Maintenance ____(1)____defeat the door interlocks for both doors on the Personnel and Emergency Escape Air Locks at this time.

The reason for this is because TS ____(2)____ applicable now.

A. (1) CAN (2) 3.6.1.3, Containment Air Locks, IS NOT B. (1) CAN (2) 3.9.4, Containment Building Penetrations, IS STILL C. (1) CANNOT (2) 3.6.1.3, Containment Air Locks, IS STILL D. (1) CANNOT (2) 3.9.4, Containment Building Penetrations, IS NOT Answer:

C, (1) CANNOT (2) 3.6.1.3, Containment Air Locks, IS STILL Notes:

Answer C is correct. Plant is still in Mode 4 (> 200°F and less than 300°F) so TS 3.6.1.3 LCO, Containment Air Locks, Amendment 301, Applicability of Modes 1 through 4 is still applicable and TS should not be entered intentionally and the doors cannot be closed as called for in the TS action if hoses and Cables have been routed through the doors.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/11/2020 Search 103000K105 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-TS OBJ 4

TEST QID #

55 108 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor A is incorrect. Permission should not be given as TS 3.6.1.3 LCO, Containment Air Locks, Amendment 301, Applicability of Modes 1 through 4 is still applicable. Plausible as when TS 3.6.1.3, Containment Air Locks, is NOT applicable in Mode 5 and below as long as no core alteration or fuel movement in progress inside Containment, then hoses and Cables are allowed to be routed through the Air Lock doors per TS 3.9.4 Distractor B is incorrect. Permission should not be given as TS 3.6.1.3 LCO, Containment Air Locks, Amendment 301, Applicability of Modes 1 through 4 is still applicable. Plausible as TS 3.9.4, Containment Building Penetrations when applicable allows hoses and Cables to be routed through the Air Lock doors as long as they have quick disconnects that allow at least one door in each Air Lock to be capable of being Closed.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because there are no core alteration or fuel movement in progress inside Containment. Plausible as TS 3.9.4, Containment Building Penetrations when applicable allows hoses and Cables to be routed through the Air Lock doors as long as they have quick disconnects that allow at least one door in each Air Lock to be capable of being Closed.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge the cause-effect relationships between the Containment System Technical Specifications and the Personnel and emergency access hatches to answer the question.

correctly.

References:

TS 3.6.1.3 LCO, Containment Air Locks, Amendment 301, Applicability.

TS 3.9.4 LCO, Containment Building Penetrations, Amendment 315, Applicability.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

109 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2616 Safety Function 2

System Number 002

Title:

Reactor Coolant System (RCS)

K/A K6.06

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following RCS components: - Sensors and detectors RO Imp:

2.5 SRO Imp:

2.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at full power.

• RCS Wide Range Pressure Detector 2PT-4624-3 fails Low.

Annunciator 2K04 B-3 "PPS" CHANNEL TRIP" ____(1)____ be in alarm.

Annunciator 2K10 ____(2)____ annunciator would be in alarm.

A. (1) WOULD (2) E-2 "CHANNEL 1 MARG TO SAT LO" B. (1) WOULD (2) E-6 "CONTROL CHAN 1 PRESSURE HI/LO" C. (1) WOULD NOT (2) E-2 "CHANNEL 1 MARG TO SAT LO" D. (1) WOULD NOT (2) E-6 "CONTROL CHAN 1 PRESSURE HI/LO" Answer:

A. (1) WOULD (2) E-2 "CHANNEL 1 MARG TO SAT LO" Notes:

Answer A is correct. RCS Wide Range Pressure Detector 2PT-4624-3 provides the input for the Low RCS Pressure PPS Bistable trip. (1 out of 4 logic) so no trip but "PPS" CHANNEL TRIP" Alarm would come in. 2PT-4624-3N also provides an input for the Channel 1 Margin to Saturation Calculator. 2PT-4624-3N failing low with the same RCS temperature inputs would cause Margin to Saturation to go less than 0°F. "CHANNEL 1 MARG TO SAT LO" alarm comes in when Margin to Saturation temperature is less than 20°F.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as RCS Wide Range Pressure Detector 2PT-4624-3 is a Safety Instrument and Pressure transmitters 2PT-4626A is a Control Channel Pressure instrument. Plausible as 2PT-4626A does provide a "CONTROL CHAN 1 PRESSURE HI/LO" alarm if it fails low.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as 2K04 B-3 "PPS" CHANNEL TRIP" would come into alarm but plausible because if the control channel pressure transmitter, 2PT-4626A, failed low, the 2K04 B-3 "PPS" CHANNEL TRIP would not come into alarm. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as 2K04 B-3 "PPS" CHANNEL TRIP" would come into alarm but plausible because if the control channel pressure transmitter, 2PT-4626A, failed low, the 2K04 B-3 "PPS" CHANNEL TRIP would not come into alarm and Part 2 list the "CONTROL CHAN 1 PRESSURE HI/LO" alarm. Part 2 is incorrect as RCS Wide Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/11/2020 Search 002000K606 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RCS OBJ 4

TEST QID #

56 110 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Range Pressure Detector 2PT-4624-3 is a Safety Instrument and Pressure transmitters 2PT-4626A is a Control Channel Pressure instrument. Plausible as 2PT-4626A does provide a "CONTROL CHAN 1 PRESSURE HI/LO" alarm if it fails low.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge the effect of a malfunction of an RCS Pressure Transmitter on the RCS Margin to Saturation Monitoring Program and its associated alarms to answer the question.

correctly.

References:

OP 2203.012D, ACA for 2K04, Rev. 40, 2K04 B-3 "PPS" CHANNEL TRIP".

STM 2-03, RCS, Rev. 24, Section 2.2.5.1, PZR Pressure Instrumentation, Pages 19 & 20.

STM 2-73, Saturation Margin Monitor, Rev. 4, Section 2.1 System Inputs.

OP 2203.012J, ACA for 2K10, Rev. 47, E-2 "CHANNEL 1 MARG TO SAT LO" and K-6 "CONTROL CHAN 1 PRESSURE HI/LO" Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

111 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2617 Safety Function 2

System Number 011

Title:

Pressurizer Level Control System (PZR LCS)

K/A K5.10

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the PZR LCS: -

Indications of reactor vessel bubble RO Imp:

3.7 SRO Imp:

4.0 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• A LOCA has occurred from 100% power.

• LOCA EOP OP-2202.003 has been implemented.

• RCS cool down and depressurization in progress.

• RCS Pressure is currently 900 psia.

• RCS Average CET Temperature is 490°F.

• NO RCPs are in service at this time.

• RVLMS Levels 3 through 11 indicate WET.

• SPDS Point CV2DOMEA is reading 535°F.

• SPDS Point CV2DOMEB is reading 536°F.

• The CRS requests the status of RCS Voids.

Based on the above conditions, the Reactor Vessel ____(1)____ void-free.

During these conditions, Pressurizer level would ____(2)____ when auxiliary spray isolation valve is throttled OPEN during the RCS cool down.

A. (1) IS (2) RISE B. (1) IS (2) LOWER C. (1) IS NOT (2) RISE D. (1) IS NOT (2) LOWER Answer:

C. (1) IS NOT (2) RISE Notes:

Answer C is correct. IAW step 12 of the LOCA EOP Section 3 Step 12, the RCS IS NOT Void Free because RVLMS LVL One is NOT Wet. Also, the Upper head thermocouple temperature indicates super heated conditions. (535/536 degrees F in the Reactor Vessel Head Dome with 900 psia pressure is 3 to 4 degrees of super heat.) When Auxiliary Spray is initiated in the top of the PZR, the cooler water will lower the pressure in the top of the PZR allowing the head bubble to grow and push water into the PZR causing level to Rise.

Distractor A is incorrect. There is a void in the Reactor Vessel but plausible as the average CET temperature compared to Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/10/2020 Search 011000K510 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOCA OBJ 3/6 TEST QID #

57 112 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 RCS pressure indicates subcooled conditions. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. There is a void in the Reactor Vessel but plausible as the average CET temperature compared to RCS pressure indicates subcooled conditions. Part 2 is also incorrect but plausible because an RCS cool down is in progress and under normal conditions, the RCS would contract due to the change in water density and PZR Level would lower.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible because an RCS cooldown is in progress and under normal conditions, the RCS would contract due to the change in water density and PZR Level would lower.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of operational effects of PZR Level when cooling down the RCS during a LOCA with a bubble in the Reactor Vessel head to answer the question. correctly.

References:

OP 2202.003, LOSS OF COOLANT ACCIDENT, Rev. 16, Section 3 Step 12.

OP 2202.010, STANDARD ATTACHMENTS, Rev. 30 Attachment 9, Notes above Steps 3 and 4.

STM 2-75, Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring System, Rev. 9 Figure of RVLMS on Page 16.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

113 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2618 Safety Function 7

System Number 015

Title:

Nuclear Instrumentation System K/A K6.04

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the NIS: - Bistables and logic circuits RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

3.2 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 operating at 100% power.

• Channel "D" upper detector of excore safety channel monitors fails HIGH.

Which one (1) of the following describes the expected response of Channel "D" Reactor Protection System to this failure?

(No other failures are present)

A. High Log Power, High Local Power Density and Low DNBR trips AND pre-trips.

B. High Linear Power, High Local Power Density and Low DNBR trips AND pre-trips.

C. High Log Power, High Local Power Density and Low DNBR trips WITHOUT pre-trips.

D. High Linear Power, High Local Power Density and Low DNBR trips WITHOUT pre-trips.

Answer:

B. High Linear Power, High Local Power Density and Low DNBR trips AND pre-trips.

Notes:

Answer B is correct. The Safety Channels consist of four channels of instrumentation, each channel having three detectors (Lower, Middle, and Upper). The signals from theses detectors are provided to the PPS for high linear power trips, and high log power trips. The High Log Power Trip comes from the middle detector Only so there should be NO High Log Power trip in this scenario. The output from the three detectors in each channel also supply signals to their respective CPCs which process this and other signals to generate PPS trips on Local Power Density (LPD) and Departure from Nucleate Boiling (DNBR). Trip and Pre-Trip lights will be illuminated for trips listed in A. Auxiliary Trips only set trip lights without setting pre-trip lights.

Distractor A is incorrect as the High Log Power trip will not be present since only the upper detector failed but plausible as this trip would be present if the entire detector or middle detector failed high. The rest of the information is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect as the High Log Power trip will not be present since only the upper detector failed but plausible as this trip would be present if the entire detector or middle detector failed high. Also incorrect as the pre-trip lights would be illuminated in this scenario but plausible as an Aux Trip will not have pre-trip lights. The rest of the information is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect as the pre-trip lights would be illuminated in this scenario but plausible as an Aux Trip will not have pre-trip lights. The rest of the information is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the effect of a NI Upper detector failing high will have on the NI detector PPS Bistables and logic circuits to answer the question. correctly.

References:

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/10/2020 Search 015000K604 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Hatman L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-NI OBJ 6

TEST QID #

58 114 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 STM 2-67-1, Excore Nuclear Instrumentation, Rev. 12, Sections 2.2 and 2.2.2.2 STM 2-65-1, Core Protection Calculator System, Rev. 20, Sections 2.4.7 Historical Comments:

This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2008 ILO RO NRC Exam. Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1544 with a rearrangement of the answer/distractors.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

115 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2619 Safety Function 7

System Number 016

Title:

Non-Nuclear Instrumentation System (NNIS)

K/A K4.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of NNIS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: - Reading of NNIS channel values outside control room RO Imp:

2.8 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Which of the following set of indications are ALL available on the Unit 2 Remote Shutdown Panel 2C80?

A. Letdown HX Outlet Flow Steam Generator Levels EFW Flow to Steam Generators B. SDC System Flow Steam Generator Pressures Service Water Header Pressure C. Pressurizer Level SDC System Flow Steam Generator Levels D. Pressurizer Pressure Steam Generator Levels Charging Header Flow Answer:

C. Pressurizer Level SDC System Flow Steam Generator Levels Notes:

Answer C is correct. All three indications listed are on the 2C80, Remote Shutdown Panel and the Remote Shutdown Channel Checks Log OPS-B19..

Distractor A is incorrect. EFW Flow to Steam Generators Flow is NOT on 2C80 Remote Shutdown Panel. Plausible as Letdown HX Outlet Flow and Steam Generator Levels are on 2C80.

Distractor B is incorrect. Service Water Header Pressure is NOT on 2C80. Plausible as SDC System Flow

& Steam Generator Pressures are on 2C80.

Distractor D is incorrect. Charging Header Flow is NOT on the 2C80, Remote Shutdown Panel. Plausible as Pressurizer Pressure and Steam Generator Levels are on 2C80.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the designed BU indications of Non Nuclear Indications channels outside of the control room to answer the question. correctly.

References:

Picture of Remote Shutdown Monitoring Panel 2C80 OPS-B19 Log, REMOTE SHUTDOWN CHANNEL CHECKS, Rev. 5/31/05 Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/10/2020 Search 016000K401 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ARS OBJ TERM TEST QID #

59 116 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Historical Comments:

This Question was used on the Byron Station Unit 1 2010 NRC RO Exam Bank ID 50473 in the Western Technical NU-Sec Exam Bank.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

117 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2620 Safety Function 5

System Number 028

Title:

Hydrogen Recombiner and Purge Control System (HR K/A K5.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the HRPS: - Explosive hydrogen concentration RO Imp:

3.4 SRO Imp:

3.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

During a Design Basis LOCA Accident, mild or rapid combustion may occur if Hydrogen concentration inside the Containment goes above a MINIMUM of____(1)____%.

A violent detonation wave reaction may occur if Hydrogen concentration inside the Containment goes above a MINIMUM of ____(2)____%.

A. (1) 3 (2) 10 B. (1) 4 (2) 10 C. (1) 3 (2) 18 D. (1) 4 (2) 18 Answer:

D. (1) 4 (2) 18 Notes:

Answer D is correct. IAW STM 2-06, Containment Combustible Gas Control System, Rev. 12, Section 1.5 The flammability and detonation of a hydrogen-air-steam mixture that may be expected in the containment post-LOCA is a function of the amount of each gas in the mixture. Below 4% H2, no combustion will occur.

Between 4% and ~18% H2, a mild or rapid combustion may occur. Above ~18% H2, a violent reaction occurs, and the flame propagates as a detonation wave.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect at 3% but plausible as this is the Hydrogen Analyzer 2C128A H2 CONCENTRATION HIGH Alarm in Containment. This alarm is caused by a high hydrogen concentration of > 3.0%

as sensed by hydrogen analyzer. Part 2 is incorrect at 10 % but plausible as this is the minimum dissolved concentration of hydrogen in the RCS (10 cc/kg)

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect at 10 % but plausible as this is the minimum dissolved concentration of hydrogen in the RCS (10 cc/kg)

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect at 3% but plausible as this is the Hydrogen Analyzer 2C128A H2 CONCENTRATION HIGH Alarm in Containment. This alarm is caused by a high hydrogen concentration of > 3.0%

as sensed by hydrogen analyzer. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the operational implications of the concentration Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/10/2020 Search 028000K501 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CONH2 OBJ 2

TEST QID #

60 118 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 of Hydrogen in Containment that will cause a, explosion/detonation to answer the question. correctly.

References:

STM 2-06, Containment Combustible Gas Control System, Rev. 12, Sections 1.4.2.3, 1.5, and 2.4.2 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

119 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2621 Safety Function 8

System Number 029

Title:

Containment Purge System (CPS)

K/A A3.01

==

Description:==

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Containment Purge System, including: - CPS isolation RO Imp:

3.8 SRO Imp:

4.0 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 has just entered Mode 5 during an outage.

• The Containment Equipment and Personnel Hatches are closed.

• Initial Containment Purge of Containment is in progress.

• 2RE-8233, Containment Purge Exhaust Radiation Monitor, is in service.

Consider each case below separately:

NOW if ONLY the 2RE-8233 Radiation Monitor goes into alarm, ____(1)____ Containment Purge Isolation Valves would have automatically closed.

NOW if ONLY an inadvertent CIAS occurs, ____(2)____ Containment Purge Isolation Valves would have automatically closed.

A. (1) 2 (2) 2 B. (1) 2 (2) 6 C. (1) 6 (2) 2 D. (1) 6 (2) 6 Answer:

B. (1) 2 (2) 6 Notes:

Answer B is correct. Refer to STM 2-09, Containment Cooling And Purge Systems, Rev.16 Section 7.3 and 7.5: 2RE-8233, Containment Purge Exhaust Radiation Monitor will cause CPS Isolations 2CV-8283-1(Supply) and 2CV-8285-1 (Exhaust) to automatically close. An inadvertent CIAS will cause all three supply and all three exhaust isolations to automatically close Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as 2 valves - one in the supply line and one in the exhaust lines would isolate Containment Purge.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 and Part 2 are incorrect but plausible as these combinations would isolate Containment Purge if at least one valve in the supply and one in the exhaust lines closes.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/7/2020 Search 029000A301 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CVENT OBJ 13 TEST QID #

61 120 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as all valves closing would isolate Containment Purge. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the automatic actions associated with the CPS isolation system to be able to monitor automatic operation of the CPS Isolation valves.

References:

STM 2-09, Containment Cooling And Purge Systems, Rev.17 Sections 7.3 & 7.5 and Drawing on Page 67 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

121 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2622 Safety Function 4

System Number 035

Title:

Steam Generator System (S/GS)

K/A A1.01

==

Description:==

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the S/GS controls including: - S/G wide and narrow range level during startup, shutdown, and normal operations RO Imp:

3.6 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• During a plant shutdown, a Loss of Feedwater event occurs.

With no operator action, to ensure adequate Core Heat removal as SG levels drop, the Emergency Feedwater System should start and maintain the SGs at ____(1) ____ level.

IF BOTH SG level drop below 70 ____(2)____ level, Once Through Cooling should be established.

A. (1) 22 - 26% Narrow Range (2) inches Wide Range B. (1) 22 - 26 inches Wide Range (2) inches Wide Range C. (1) 58 - 62% Narrow Range (2) % Narrow Range D. (1) 58 - 62 inches Wide Range (2) % Narrow Range Answer:

A. (1) 24 - 26% Narrow Range (2) inches Wide Range Notes:

Answer A is Correct. SG levels in % are associated with SG Narrow Range level; SG levels in inches are associated with SG Wide Range level. This information is not provided in the procedures and the applicant must have this knowledge to be able to monitor the RCS Heat Removal SG Systems. The EFW system is actuated at 22.2% SG Narrow Range level and the level control valves will maintain SG levels at approximately 22 to 26 % Narrow Range.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the Wide Range is part of the SG Level Monitoring System and 22 - 26 is the correct numbers. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this is the normal post trip SG level maintained by the Main Feedwater Control System. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the Narrow Range is part of the SG Level Monitoring System.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because it should be Narrow Range but plausible as the Wide Range is part of the SG Level Monitoring System. Also plausible as 58 - 62 is the normal post trip SG level numbers maintained by the Main Feedwater Control System. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the Narrow Range is part of the SG Level Monitoring Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/7/2020 Search 035000A101 10CFR55: 41.5 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOSF OBJ 4

TEST QID #

62 122 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 System.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of different ranges of SG level monitoring systems to be able to adequately monitor the correct changes in the SG level parameters and predict when automatic action should occur and when manual actions are needed to satisfy the RCS Heat removal safety function.

References:

STM 2-19-2, EFW & AFW Systems, Rev. 43, Section 1.5 OP 2202.006, LOSS OF FEEDWATER EOP, Rev. 13, Step 15.

STM 2-15, Steam Generators & Main Steam System, Rev 20, Section 3.1.4.11 and Drawing of a SG on Page 14.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

123 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2623 Safety Function 4

System Number 041

Title:

Steam Dump System (SDS) and Turbine Bypass Cont K/A K4.11

==

Description:==

Knowledge of SDS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: - T-ave./T-ref.

program RO Imp:

2.8 SRO Imp:

3.1 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

The Reactor Regulating System (RRS) calculator develops a Tave and Tref signal within its program.

The RRS sends the ____(1)____ signal to the Steam Dump and Bypass Control System (SDBCS) to develop a ____(2)____

signal to the SDBCS Valves when the applicable conditions are present.

A. (1) Tave (2) Modulation Open B. (1) Tave (2) Quick Open Block C. (1) Tref (2) Modulation Open D. (1) Tref (2) Quick Open Block Answer:

B. (1) Tave (2) Quick Open Block Notes:

Answer B is Correct. RRS Calculates RCS Tave and provides this to the SDBCS. After a Reactor trip when Tave drops below 553 degrees F, a Quick Open block signal is sent to both downstream dump valves and all three bypass valves.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because the inputs for the SDBCS modulation signal are Steam Pressure, Steam Flow and PZR pressure. Plausible modulation open is just the opposite of a Quick Open signal.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Tref signal is only compared to Tave for indication and alarms.

Plausible as this is another major signal in the RRS program. Part 2 is incorrect because the inputs for the SDBCS modulation signal are Steam Pressure, Steam Flow and PZR pressure. Plausible modulation open is just the opposite of a Quick Open signal.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Tref signal is only compared to Tave for indication and alarms.

Plausible as this is another major signal in the RRS program. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have knowledge of the interrelation between the Tave/Tref RRS program and the SDS design feature that is used for providing a Quick Open Interlock signal to answer the question.

correctly.

References:

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/7/2020 Search 041000K411 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-RPS OBJ 3

TEST QID #

63 124 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 STM 2-64 Reactor Regulating System, Rev. 10, Section 2.2, 2.3.1, and 2.3.2.

STM 2-23, Steam Dump & Bypass Control System, Rev. 18, Section 1.2.2 and Logic Diagram on Page 41.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

125 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2624 Safety Function 4

System Number 045

Title:

Main Turbine Generator (MT/G) System K/A K3.01

==

Description:==

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the MT/G System will have on the following: -

Remainder of the plant RO Imp:

2.9 SRO Imp:

3.2 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is performing a down power and currently at 48% power.

• The Main Turbine inadvertently trips.

• All systems respond as designed.

When the plant has stabilized itself, the Reactor would be ____(1)____ AND Tave would be approximately ____(2)____.

A. (1) tripped (2) 545°F B. (1) tripped (2) 562°F C. (1) approximately 48% power (2) 545°F D. (1) approximately 48% power (2) 562°F Answer:

D. (1) approximately 48% power (2) 562°F Notes:

Answer D is correct. Available Steam Dump capacity on Unit 2 in a normal line up is approximately 49%. Therefore on a trip from 48% power, the Steam Dumps should be able to maintain the reactor online at ~48% power. Tave should be higher than no load Tave of 545°F and should be ~562°F at 48% power.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Reactor would not trip based on power being within the capacity of the SDBCS but plausible as a higher power would cause a Reactor trip on High Pressure. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this would be the Tave at No Load with a Reactor Trip.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the Reactor would not trip based on power being within the capacity of the SDBCS but plausible as a higher power would cause a Reactor trip on High Pressure. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this would be the Tave at No Load with a Reactor Trip.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the knowledge of the interrelated effects of a turbine trip on the Primary plant based on the response of the SDBCS to answer the question. correctly.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/7/2020 Search 045000K301 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Hatman L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-SDBCS OBJ 19 TEST QID #

64 126 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20

References:

STM 2-23, SDBCS, Rev. 18, Section 1.2 ANO Unit 2 SAR Section 10.3, Main Steam and Section 10.3.3 Safety Evaluation.

OP 2102.004, Power Operation, Rev. 68, Attachment C, RCS Temperature verses Reactor Power Historical Comments:

This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2009 ILO RO NRC Exam Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1671.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

127 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2625 Safety Function 4

System Number 056

Title:

Condensate System K/A A2.04

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Condensate System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Loss of condensate pumps RO Imp:

2.6 SRO Imp:

2.8 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at 100% power.

• Condensate Pumps 2P2A, 2P2B, and 2P2C are running.

• Condensate Pump 2P2D is in standby.

NOW

• Condensate Pump 2P2B trips on over current.

• Annunciator 2K03 C-9 "MFWP PUMP SUCT PRESS LO" comes in.

• MFWP Suction Pressure is 435 psig.

The correct action to take for these conditions would be to ENSURE 2P2D Condensate Pump ____(1)____ using the

____(2)____ procedure.

A. (1) is manually started (2) Annunciator Corrective Actions for 2K03 C-9, OP-2203.012C B. (1) is manually started (2) Loss of Main Feedwater Pump AOP, OP-2203.027 C. (1) automatically starts (2) Annunciator Corrective Actions for 2K03 C-9, OP-2203.012C D. (1) automatically starts (2) Loss of Main Feedwater Pump AOP, OP-2203.027 Answer:

C. (1) automatically starts (2) Annunciator Corrective Actions for 2K03 C-9, OP-2203.012C Notes:

Answer C is correct. During a Low MFWP suction pressure, the standby pump will automatically start (refer to logic in the STM Section 2.3.3.2 B) on a trip of one Condensate pump with three running due to seeing at least one MFW Pumps running as the MFW pumps do not trip until less 325 psig suction pressure and IAW the directions in Annunciator 2K03 C-9 "MFWP PUMP SUCT PRESS LO" Annunciator Corrective Actions (ACA) Step 2.4, the RO must ensure the standby condensate pump is running. Condensate pumps will also auto start on low MFW pump suction pressure of less than 425 psig with a time delay.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because 2P2D will auto start based on the above logic but plausible because if only 2 condensate pumps were running instead of three, then one of the standby pumps would have to be manually started.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/7/2020 Search 056000A204 10CFR55: 41.7 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-FWCD OBJ 6/14 TEST QID #

65 128 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because 2P2D will auto start but plausible because if only 2 condensate pumps were running instead of three, then one of the standby pumps would have to be manually started. Part 2 is incorrect because the MFWP Low Suction Pressure trip is at less than 325 psig for >30 SECONDS. Plausible if the applicant associates the MFWP Suction Pressure Low set point/alarm as the trip set point for MFWP trip.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because the MFWP Low Suction Pressure trip is at less than 325 psig for >30 SECONDS. Plausible if the applicant associates the MFWP Suction Pressure Low set point/alarm as the trip set point for MFWP trip.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must predict the impact of a tripped condensate pump on the starting logic for the standby Condensate pumps and the tripping logic for the running MFWP and take action per the ACA to mitigate the tripped Condensate Pump.

References:

Annunciator 2K03 C-9 "MFWP PUMP SUCT PRESS LO", Rev. 38, Steps 1.1, Note above Step 2.1, Step 2.4 and Note above Step 2.4.

STM 2-20, Condensate System, Rev. 18, Section 2.3.3 and 2.3.3.2 Loss of MFW Pump AOP OP 2203.027, Rev. 18, Entry Conditions.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

129 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2626 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.1.21

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Ability to verify the controlled procedure copy.

RO Imp:

3.5 SRO Imp:

3.6 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Per EN-HU-106, Procedure and Work Instruction Use and Adherence, procedure users in Operations performing tasks in the field are responsible for verifying the current approved procedure revision ____(1)____ using the ____(2)____ System.

A. (1) every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> (2) Asset Suite B. (1) every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> (2) eB Reflib C. (1) before each use (2) Asset Suite D. (1) before each use (2) eB Reflib Answer:

D. (1) before each use (2) eB Reflib Notes:

Answer D is correct. Per EN-HU-106, Procedure and Work Instruction Use and Adherence, Prior to use, Procedure Users ENSURE that the Continuous Use, Reference Use, Informational Use, or Multi-Use procedure to be used is the correct revision. According to EN-AD-103, Document Control and Records Management Activities, Site Procedure revisions/changes are verified in EDMS which is known at ANO by the Acronym "Eb Reflib" Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the odds of a procedure revision during the last 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> are low. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this system is used in work management work order documents and engineering change documents to track changes and revisions.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as the odds of a procedure revision during the last 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> are low. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this system is used in work management work order documents and engineering change documents to track changes and revisions.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must have the knowledge and ability to verify the controlled procedure copy to answer the question. correctly.

References:

EN-HU-106, Procedure and Work Instruction Use and Adherence, Rev. 8, Step 7.1.1 EN-AD-103, Document Control and Records Management Programs, Rev. 23, Step 5.7.2 and Definitions Section 3.0 for Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/5/2020 Search 1940012121 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-PRCON OBJ 8

TEST QID #

66 130 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Asset Suite (1) and the Electronic Data Management System (EDMS) Known at ANO as the Eb REFLIB System Historical Comments:

This Question comes from a question on the ANO Unit 2 - 2014 ILO RO NRC Exam. Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1991.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

131 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2627 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.1.26

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Knowledge of industrial safety procedures (such as rotating equipment, electrical, high temperature, high pressure, caustic, chlorine, oxygen and hydrogen).

RO Imp:

3.4 SRO Imp:

3.6 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

In accordance with EN-OP-102, Protective and Caution Tagging, the DEFINED MINIMUM parameter values to designate a high energy system is one containing either fluids or gases that operate with a temperature greater than a MINIMUM of

____(1)____°F OR a pressure of greater than a MINIMUM of ____(2)____ psig.

A. (1) 150 (2) 300 B. (1) 150 (2) 500 C. (1) 200 (2) 300 D. (1) 200 (2) 500 Answer:

D. (1) 200 (2) 500 Notes:

Answer D is correct. High Energy System - Process system that contains either fluids or gases that operates with temperature greater than 200ºF or pressure greater than 500 psig or contains one of the following hazardous substances: Cryogenic, Combustible fluids, or Chemically reactive substances.

Distractor A is incorrect: Does meet the definition of a high energy system per EN-OP-102. Part 1 is plausible as this is still a high temperature that can cause a burn. Part 2 is plausible as this is still a high pressure that can cause injury if a projectile is emitted from the system.

Distractor B is incorrect: Does meet the definition of a high energy system per EN-OP-102. Part 1 is plausible as this is still a high temperature that can cause a burn. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect: Does meet the definition of a high energy system per EN-OP-102. Part 1 correct. Part 2 is plausible as this is still a high pressure that can cause injury if a projectile is emitted from the system.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must use knowledge of industrial safety procedures (such a defined high temperature or high pressure system for tagging control) to answer the question. correctly.

References:

EN-OP-102, Protective and Caution Tagging, Rev 24, Definition 18 Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/5/2020 Search 1940012126 10CFR55: 41.10 Historical Comments:

Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Foster L. Plan:

FLP-OPS-ESOMS OBJ 3

TEST QID #

67 132 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2014-2 ILO RO NRC Retake Exam. Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2138 This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

133 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2628 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.1.15

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Knowledge of administrative requirements for temporary management directives, such as standing orders, night orders, Operations memos, etc.

RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

3.4 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

In addition to the instructions in the operating procedure, a special instruction to Operations personnel from Operations Management which will remain in effect long term until the applicable procedure has been updated is called a(n)

____(1)____.

Any of these new or revised special instructions are REQUIRED to be reviewed as a minimum with each crew ____(2)____.

A. (1) Standing Order (2) twice a shift B. (1) Standing Order (2) during shift turnover C. (1) Adverse Condition Monitoring Plan (2) twice a shift D. (1) Adverse Condition Monitoring Plan (2) during shift turnover Answer:

B. (1) Standing (2) during shift turnover Notes:

Answer B is correct. Standing Order - STANDING ORDER - an instruction from Operations Management (OM/AOM) of continuing applicability to Operations personnel. The information provided is to remain in effect for an extended period of time. Prior to turning over duties to the on-coming shift personnel, on duty shift personnel INFORM their relief of the following as a minimum: New or revised Night and Standing Orders, and special instructions issued since their last shift.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect per the requirement above, but plausible as twice a shift would emphasize the new Standing Order more but is NOT required.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as an Adverse Condition Monitoring Plan (ACMP) is a formalized plan established to enhance monitoring, align organizational support, identify contingency needs, and identify expanded communication requirements when significant equipment or systems are in an adverse condition. Part 2 is incorrect per the requirement in Answer Notes above but plausible as twice a shift would emphasize the new Standing Order more but is NOT required.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as an ACMP is a formalized plan established to enhance monitoring, align organizational support, identify contingency needs, and identify expanded communication requirements when significant equipment or systems are in an adverse condition. Part 2 is correct.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/5/2020 Search 1940012115 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-OPSPR OBJ 4

TEST QID #

68 134 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must use knowledge of the Night and Standing Order procedure along with the administrative requirements of the shift turnover procedure of when to review Night and Standing Orders to answer the question. correctly.

References:

EN-OP-112, Night and Standing Orders, Rev. 3, Definition 3 and Steps 5.1 & 5.2 EN-FAP-OM-029, ADVERSE CONDITION MONITORING AND CONTINGENCY PLANNING, Rev. 001, Purpose and Definition of a Adverse Condition Monitoring Plan, (ACMP).

EN-OP-115-03, Shift Turnover and Relief, Rev. 5, Step 8.

Historical Comments:

This Question comes from a question on the ANO Unit 2 - 2015 ILO RO NRC Exam. Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2254.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

135 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2629 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.2.13

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures.

RO Imp:

4.1 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• The 2P4A Service Water Pump is being tagged out for pump maintenance.

• No Maintenance or testing will be done on the 2P4A supply breaker.

When tagging out the pump 4160 VAC breaker supply, the tag for the breaker would specify Breaker Racked ____(1)____.

According to EN-OP-102 Attachment 5 ANO Site Specific Protective Tagging Standards, the 4160 VAC supply breaker would be placed in a final position of a MINIMUM of ____(2)____ due to seismic concerns.

A. (1) Out (2) one (1) inch out of the cubicle B. (1) Out (2) four (4) inches out of the cubicle C. (1) Down (2) one (1) inch off of the floor D. (1) Down (2) four (4) inches off of the floor Answer:

C. (1) Down (2) one (1) inch off of the floor Notes:

Answer C is correct. IAW EN-OP-102, Protective and Caution Tagging, Attachment 5, Site Specific Tag Standards, Step 1.0, ANO Step 2.b for 4160 VAC Breakers, ENSURE tags specify Breaker Racked Down. And IF breaker is in an ESF Switchgear, THEN ENSURE breaker is racked up one inch off the floor. The 2P4A pump is an ESF pump powered off of ESF Bus 2A3.

Distractor A is incorrect. In part 1, breaker racked out is plausible as this can physically be done if electrical maintenance has work to do on the breaker. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor B is incorrect. In Part 1, breaker racked out is plausible as this can physically be done if electrical maintenance has work to do on the breaker. In Part 2, breaker positioned one foot out of the cubicle is plausible as this would prevent the breaker stabs from coming in contact with the 2A3 Bus receivers if the breaker was inadvertently racked up.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. In Part 2, breaker positioned one foot out of the cubicle is plausible as this would prevent the breaker stabs from coming in contact with the 2A3 Bus receivers if the breaker was inadvertently racked up.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/4/2020 Search 1940012213 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

FLP-OPS-ESOMS OBJ 3

TEST QID #

69 136 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must use knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures to answer the question correctly.

References:

EN-OP-102, Protective and Caution Tagging, Rev. 24, Attachment 5, Site Specific Tag Standards, Step 1.0, ANO Step 2.

a & b Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

137 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2630 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.2.14

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of the process for controlling equipment configuration or status.

RO Imp:

3.9 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Engineering is conducting a special test on the Unit 2 Circulating Water System.

• A valve needs to be deviated from its normally Closed position to Open.

• The SM/CRS have been informed and have approved the deviation of the valve.

• The test with the valve deviated is expected to last three (3) days before restoring.

Based on the deviation of this valve, a(n) ____(1)____ will be generated to track the configuration of this valve.

A. Unit 2 Station Narrative Log entry B. OP 1015.001I, Equipment Status Log entry C. EN-OP-115-07 Attachment 1 Verification Record D. Component Deviation (Configuration Control) eSOMS Tagout Answer:

D. Component Deviation (Configuration Control) eSOMS Tagout Notes:

Answer D is correct. This deviation is considered a Long Term Configuration Control (greater than 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />) IAW EN-OP-115-07, Configuration Control, Section 5.4 so this deviation will require a Component Deviation Tagout (Called a Configuration Control at ANO) to be generated and hung to track the configuration of this valve.

Distractor A is incorrect. A Unit 2 Station Narrative Log entry is incorrect but plausible as it is a method to track configuration but is only used if the deviation is a Short Term Configuration Control (less than 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />).

Distractor B is incorrect. The listed Equipment Status Log is incorrect but plausible as this was the old method of tracking configuration control prior to development of the Corporate EN-OP-115-07 Configuration Control procedure and the eSOMS Configuration Control Module.

Distractor C is incorrect. The EN-OP-115-07 Attachment 1 Verification Record is incorrect but plausible as it is a method to track configuration but is only used if the deviation is a Short Term Configuration Control (less than 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />).

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must use knowledge of the process for controlling equipment configuration or status to answer the question correctly.

References:

EN-OP-115-07, Configuration Control, Rev. 4, Section 5.4 and Attachment 1, Verification Record.

Form 1015.001I, Rev. 60, EQUIPMENT STATUS LOG (COOP LOG)

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/4/2020 Search 1940012214 10CFR55: 41.10 Historical Comments:

Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-OPSPR OBJ 4

TEST QID #

70 138 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

139 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2631 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.2.43

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms.

RO Imp:

3.0 SRO Imp:

3.3 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• An annunciator with several alarm inputs has been frequently alarming in the Main Control Room.

• The cause was discovered to be that the alarm is coming in due to one of the alarm input instruments being out of calibration.

• This alarm DOES have reflash capability.

• The SM has determined to disable this nuisance alarm input so that it does not distract operators from the other alarm inputs.

After the alarm's input is disabled by I&C, a Removed From Service Marker (White X Placard) ____(1)____ be installed.

This disabled alarm will be tracked in the ____(2)____.

A. (1) would (2) control room narrative log B. (1) would (2) annunciator out of service index C. (1) would NOT (2) control room narrative log D. (1) would NOT (2) annunciator out of service index Answer:

D. (1) would NOT (2) annunciator out of service index Notes:

Answer "D" is Correct. 3305.002 states that if the alarm has reflash capability OR there are active alarms for the annunciator then ensure a Removed From Service Marker is NOT installed. The disabled annunciators are tracked in the annunciator out of service index and in the annunciator log book.

Distractor "A" is Incorrect. Part 1 is plausible because a Removed From Service Marker is installed when the alarm does not have reflash capability and no other alarms are active in the annunciator. In this case, the stem states there are other alarm inputs, the alarm has reflash capability, and the SM desires to disable only the nuisance alarm. In Part 2, the control room narrative log is plausible since it is normally used to track actions taken and changes to equipment status, however the disabled annunciator has it's own tracking mechanism so tracking disabled annunciators in the narrative log is unnecessary.

Distractor "B" is Incorrect. Part 1 is plausible because a Removed From Service Marker is installed when the alarm does Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/3/2020 Search 1940012243 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

K.. Smith L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-OPSPR OBJ 4

TEST QID #

71 140 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 not have reflash capability and no other alarms are active in the annunciator. In this case, the stem states there are other alarm inputs, the alarm has reflash capability, and the SM desires to disable only the nuisance alarm. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor "C" is Incorrect. Part I is correct. In Part 2, the control room narrative log is plausible since it is normally used to track actions taken and changes to equipment status, however the disabled annunciator has it's own tracking mechanism so tracking disabled annunciators in the narrative log is unnecessary.

This question matches the K/A since it requires knowledge of the process for removing annunciators from service and the method to track the inoperable alarm to answer the question. correctly.

References:

OP 3305.002, OPS EQUIPMENT REMOVAL FROM SERVICE, TESTING AND RETURN TO SERVICE, Rev. 2, Section 9.2 Historical Comments:

This question was used on the ANO Unit 1 2020 NRC RO Exam. Unit 1 NRC Exam Bank Item 1296.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

141 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2632 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.3.4

==

Description:==

Radiological Controls - Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal or emergency conditions.

RO Imp:

3.2 SRO Imp:

3.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• A Waste Control Operator (WCO) is required to do a surveillance test in an area where the radiation levels are 300 mrem/hour.

• The operator's current Total Effective Dose Equivalent (TEDE) is 1100 mrem for the year.

The amount of time the WCO can work in this area and not exceed their Routine Annual Administrative TEDE Limit would be a MAXIMUM of ____(1)____ hours.

With the proper approvals, the WCO could stay for a MAXIMUM of ____(2)____ hours and not exceed their Federal TEDE Annual Regulatory Limit?

A. (1) 3 (2) 13 B. (1) 3 (2) 26 C. (1) 6 (2) 13 D. (1) 6 (2) 26 Answer:

A. (1) 3 (2) 13 Notes:

Answer A is correct. The WCO Admin Dose Control Limit (DCL) is 2 Rem/Year so he can received 900 mrem (2000 -

1100) which would give him 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> to work before exceeding Admin DCL (900 divided by 300 = 3). His Federal DCL is 5000 with proper approvals which would allow him to work 13 hours1.50463e-4 days <br />0.00361 hours <br />2.149471e-5 weeks <br />4.9465e-6 months <br /> in the radiation area (5000 - 1100 = 3900. 3900 divided by 300 = 13)

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this was the correct answer to the original question.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this was the correct answer to the original question. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this was the correct answer to the original question. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this was the correct answer to the original question.

Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/3/2020 Search 1940012304 10CFR55: 41.12 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-RADP OBJ 10/11 TEST QID #

72 142 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A as the applicant must use knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal conditions to answer the question correctly.

References:

EN-RP-201, Dosimetry Administration, Rev. 5, Steps 5.3 [1] & [3] and 5.4 (Exposure Limits and Controls) pages 8-12 Historical Comments:

This Question was modified from a question on the ANO Unit 2 - 2011 ILO RO NRC Exam. Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1780.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

143 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2633 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.3.12

==

Description:==

Radiological Controls - Knowledge of radiological safety principles pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

RO Imp:

3.2 SRO Imp:

3.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

You have been directed to perform a task in the Volume Control Tank (VCT) Room which is posted as a Locked High Radiation Area (LHRA).

Dose rates in VCT Room are 1.1 R/hr.

The task is expected to take 0.6 hrs.

Which of the following is a SPECIFIC requirement per EN-RP-101, Access Control for Radiologically Controlled Areas, for this entry into the VCT LHRA Room?

A. Rad Worker trip ticket B. Double PC garments C. Continuous RP coverage D. Approval by on-watch Shift Manager Answer:

C. Continuous RP coverage Notes:

Answer C is correct. 1.1 R/hr x 0.6 hr = 660mr so per EN-RP-101, continuous RP coverage is required for workers in a field dose rate where the worker could exceed 500 mrem during the entry. The VCT Room is Posted as a LHRA.

Distractor A is incorrect but plausible as this is required for all Radiation areas as well as LHRA. The trip ticket with a red border or red background are used by RP but these tickets are not specifically described in a procedure.

Distractor B is incorrect but plausible, this may be required for highly contaminated areas but is not for LHRA entry into an area which is NOT highly contaminated. The VCT Room is currently posted as a Contaminated Area which would require Single PC Garments.

Distractor D is incorrect but plausible as Shift Manager approval is required for entry into VHRA (very high radiation areas).

This question matches the K/A since it requires the applicant to recall an essential and unique requirement for entry into a locked high radiation area with an expected dose of > 500 mr.

References:

EN-RP-101, Access Control for Radiologically Controlled Areas, Rev.15, Sections, 5.3, 5.4, 5.5 and 5.6.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/3/2020 Search 1940012312 10CFR55: 41.12 Historical Comments:

Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Cork L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-RADP OBJ 7

TEST QID #

73 144 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question was used on the ANO Unit 1 2016 NRC RO Exam. Unit 1 NRC Exam Bank Item 1081.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

145 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2634 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.4.25

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Knowledge of fire protection procedures.

RO Imp:

3.3 SRO Imp:

3.7 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

According to OP 1015.007, Fire Brigade Organization and Responsibilities, during a active challenging fire in the Unit 2 North EDG #2 Room, the ____(1)____ Fire Brigade Leader will be dispatched to the scene.

Also three designated Fire Brigade Members from ____(2)____ and a fourth designated Fire Brigade Member from either Unit will be dispatched to the scene.

A. (1) Unit 1 (2) Unit 2 B. (1) Unit 2 (2) Unit 1 C. (1) Unit 1 (2) Unit 1 D. (1) Unit 2 (2) Unit 2 Answer:

B. (1) Unit 2 (2) Unit 1 Notes:

Answer B is correct. From OP 1015.007, Fire Brigade Organization and Responsibilities, Section 6.0 ASSIGN the following for Unit 2 Fire Brigade: Unit 2 Fire Brigade Leader; Three Fire Brigade Members from Unit 1; A fourth Fire Brigade Member designated by either unit Shift Manager. This fire is in an Area identified in OP 2203.049, FIRES IN AREAS AFFECTING SAFE SHUTDOWN, Rev. 20, Entry Conditions so the Unit 2 Fire Brigade members will NOT be dispatched.

Distractor A is incorrect due to the Unit 1 FB Leader going to a Unit 2 Fire but plausible as he is a designated FB Leader.

Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect due to the Unit 1 FB Leader going to a Unit 2 Fire but plausible as he is a designated FB Leader.

Part 2 is incorrect as Unit 2 FB Members will respond to a Unit 1 Fire but plausible as this is a Unit 2 Fire.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as Unit 2 FB Members will respond to a Unit 1 Fire but plausible as this is a Unit 2 Fire.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must use knowledge of the admin fire protection procedures and OP 2203.049, FIRES IN AREAS AFFECTING SAFE SHUTDOWN procedure to answer the question. correctly.

References:

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 8/3/2020 Search 1940012425 10CFR55: 41.10 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-FP-INTRO OBJ 2/5 TEST QID #

74 146 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 OP 1015.007, Fire Brigade Organization and Responsibilities, Rev. 36, Section 6.0 OP 2203.049, FIRES IN AREAS AFFECTING SAFE SHUTDOWN, Rev. 20, Entry Conditions.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

147 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2635 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.4.3

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Ability to identify post-accident instrumentation.

RO Imp:

3.7 SRO Imp:

3.9 Lic Level:

RO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Reg Guide 1.97 Post-Accident Instrumentation is identified on the control panels by a ____(1)____ on the instrument face plate AND ____(2)____ be available during a Loss of Offsite Power condition.

A. (1) Green Round Dot (2) WOULD B. (1) Green Round Dot (2) WOULD NOT C. (1) Blue Rectangle Plaque (2) WOULD D. (1) Blue Rectangle Plaque (2) WOULD NOT Answer:

A. (1) Green Round Dot (2) WOULD Notes:

Answer A. is correct. Green Round Dots are required by OP-2305.026, REG GUIDE 1.97 INSTRUMENT VERIFICATION. These instruments would be available during a LOOP (2Y1 and 2Y2 instrument buses are non vital instrument buses but are supplied from EDG backed vital buses)

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as these instruments would be available during a LOOP (2Y1 and 2Y2 instrument are non vital instrument buses but are supplied from EDG backed vital buses). Plausible as 2Y1 and 2Y2 power these instruments and are considered non vital instrument buses.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as Blue Rectangle Plaques are on various instruments in the Control Room to perform channel checks with their sister instrument on the Remote Shutdown Panel 2C-80. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as Blue Rectangle Plaques are on various instruments in the Control Room to perform channel checks with their sister instrument on the Remote Shutdown Panel 2C-80. Post Accident instruments would be available during a LOOP (2Y1 and 2Y2 instrument are non vital instrument buses but are supplied from EDG backed vital buses). Plausible as 2Y1 and 2Y2 power these instruments and are considered non vital instrument buses.

This question matches the K/A as it requires the applicant to have the knowledge and ability to identify post-accident instrumentation to answer the question. correctly.

References:

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/30/2020 Search 1940012403 10CFR55: 41.6 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Foster L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-NI OBJ 3

TEST QID #

75 148 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 OP-1015.021, ANO-2 EOP/AOP USER GUIDE, Rev. 19, Section 8.0, Instrumentation Usage.

OP 2305.026, REG GUIDE 1.97 INSTRUMENT VERIFICATION, Rev. 27, Section 3.0.

Picture of Unit 2 PZR Channel 1 Instruments with a Green Dot and Blue 2C80 Rectangle.

Historical Comments:

This QID was used on the ANO Unit 2 - 2015 ILO RO NRC Exam. Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2259 with a slight modification to "Blue Rectangle Plaque" verses " 2C-80 plaque".

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

149 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2636 Safety Function 3

System Number 009

Title:

Small Break LOCA K/A EA2.01

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to a small break LOCA: - Actions to be taken, based on RCS temperature and pressure, saturated and superheated RO Imp:

4.2 SRO Imp:

4.8 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Eight (8) minutes post trip from full power.

• RCS pressure is 1140 psia and lowering.

• Pressurizer Level is 0%.

• "A" and "B" S/G are 1000 psia and stable.

• All Containment Radiation Monitors are rising.

• Containment Pressure is 17.5 psia and rising.

• All three charging pumps are running.

• RCS Average CETS indicate 565°F and steady.

• SPTA are complete.

Based on these conditions, the RCS is currently in a ____(1)____ condition and the correct Section of OP-2202.003, LOCA Recovery Procedure to mitigate this event would be Section ____(2)____.

A. (1) superheated (2) 2, "Isolated LOCA" B. (1) subcooled (2) 2, "Isolated LOCA" C. (1) superheated (2) 3, "Unisolated LOCA" D. (1) subcooled (2) 3, "Unisolated LOCA" Answer:

C. (1) superheated (2) 3, "Unisolated LOCA" Notes:

Answer C is correct. This is a small break LOCA based on the Containment Pressure being below the SIAS and CIAS ESFAS set point of 18.3 psia eight minutes after the trip. However, based on the RCS Average CET temperature of 565°F and RCS pressure of 1140 psia, the RCS is ~4 °F superheated. Also based on all three charging pumps running and Pressurizer level lowering, the LOCA is beyond the capacity of the charging pumps and thus Section 3 of OP-2202.003, LOCA Recovery Procedure would be used to mitigate this event.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. In Part 2, the wrong section of the procedure is listed. Plausible if the applicant misreads the steam tables and assumes the break is too small to cause an ESFAS actuation thus must be an isolable leak (within capacity of CCP pumps).

Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/9/2020 Search 000009A201 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOCA OBJ 4

TEST QID #

76 150 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the RCS is superheated but plausible if the applicant misreads the steam tables. Part 2 is incorrect because the leak is not within the capacity of the charging pumps as indicated with all three running and PZR level lowering but plausible if the applicant assumes the break is too small to cause an ESFAS actuation thus must be an isolable leak (within capacity of CCP pumps).

Distractor D is incorrect in Part 1 because the RCS is superheated but plausible if the applicant misreads the steam stables and also plausible as the correct section of the implementing procedure is listed so Part 2 is correct This question matches the KA because it requires interpretation of the plant conditions during a Small Break LOCA, and an assessment of the plant status either subcooled or superheated based on RCS temperature and pressure and then selection of the appropriate mitigating action steps.

This is an SRO only question because it requires the SRO to select the correct section of the LOCA EOP recovery procedure to implement.

References:

Steam Tables OP-2203.003 LOCA Recovery Procedure, Rev. 16, Section 1 Step 23 EOP TG 2202.003, Rev. 16, Section 1 Step 23 Historical Comments:

This QID was modified from a SRO question on the ANO Unit 2 - 2014-2 ILO SRO NRC Exam Retake. Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2148.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

151 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2637 Safety Function 4

System Number 025

Title:

Loss of Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

K/A AA2.06

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Residual Heat Removal System: -

Existence of proper RHR overpressure protection RO Imp:

3.2 SRO Imp:

3.4 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 4 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 has been shutdown for an outage from 450 EFPD at 100% Power.

• SDC Train A is in service during a plant cool down.

• All RCPs have been secured.

• RCS Thot is 205°F and lowering; Tcold is 201°F and lowering.

• RCS Pressure is 270 psia and lowering.

NOW

• Pressurizer level starts dropping rapidly.

• The CRS enters Loss of SDC OP-2203.029.

• All available Charging pumps are started.

• RCS level can NOT be maintained.

• SDC Pump 2P-60A is secured.

• RCS temperature and pressure start rising.

• RCS temperature is currently 210°F Thot/Tcold and rising.

• RCS Pressure is 301 psia and rising.

Based on these conditions, the SDC overpressure protection will be provided by ____(1)____.

Based on the degrading conditions, the Lower Mode Functional Recovery Procedure (LMFRP) EOP is being implemented.

During the LMFRP implementation, the crew will determine the Safety Function Status associated with Plant Condition

____(2)____.

A. (1) Automatic closure of SDC suction isolation valves (2) A: SG Heat Removal with LTOPs B. (1) Automatic closure of SDC suction isolation valves (2) B: SDC in service NOT in Lowered Inventory C. (1) Manual closure of SDC suction isolation valves (2) A: SG Heat Removal with LTOPs D. (1) Manual closure of SDC suction isolation valves (2) B: SDC in service NOT in Lowered Inventory Answer:

D. (1) Manual closure of SDC suction isolation valves (2) B: SDC in service NOT in Lowered Inventory Notes:

Source:

NEW Rev:

1 Rev Date: 10/19/2020 Search 000025A206 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ASDC OBJ 3

TEST QID #

77 152 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Answer D is correct. IAW OP 2203.029, Loss of SDC AOPs, The Loss of SDC AOP Steps 9 and 10 directs actions to secure the SDC Pumps and to close the SDC Suction Isolations to protect the SDC Piping from over pressurization and then directs entry into the Lower Mode Functional Recovery Procedure EOP. Step 10 says to determine the plant condition prior to the event so the B SDC in service NOT in Lowered Inventory would be the appropriate section of the procedure to go to.

(Step 14 according to step 12 contingency action.)

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because the auto closure interlock of the SDC suction isolation valve was removed during a past plant modification but plausible as this was changed to a Manual Open inhibit interlock which prevents opening the SDC suction isolations above 350 psia.

Part 2 is the incorrect implementing section as this was not the plant condition prior to the event but plausible as this is the condition that most fits after the event.

Distractor B is incorrect because the auto closure interlock of the SDC suction isolation valve was removed during a past plant modification but plausible as this was changed to a Manual Open inhibit interlock which prevents opening the SDC suction isolations above 350 psia. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is the incorrect implementing section as this was not the plant condition prior to the event but plausible as this is the condition that most fits after the event.

This question meets the K/A because it requires knowledge and the ability to direct action to protect the SDC system with overpressure protection during a Loss of SDC event.

This question is an SRO Only question because the SRO must know which condition is applicable within the Lower Mode Recovery EOP procedure based on conditions prior to event.

References:

OP 2203.029, Loss of SDC AOP, Rev. 24, Entry, Step 7, Step 9 and Step 10 Contingencies.

AOP Tech Guide for 2203.029, Loss of SDC AOP, Rev. 24 Steps 9 and 10 OP 2202.011, Lower Mode Functional Recovery, Rev.15 Purpose, Entry Conditions and Steps 10 and 14.

STM 2-14, SDC System, Rev. 18, Section 2.2.1.1 and 2.1.4 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

153 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2638 Safety Function 1

System Number 029

Title:

Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)

K/A 2.2.38

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.

RO Imp:

3.6 SRO Imp:

4.5 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

• • • • • • • • • • REFERENCE PROVIDED**********

Consider the following:

• The plant is at 100% Power when the Main Turbine trips.

• RCS Pressure is 2400 psia and rising.

• There are no indications of an automatic RPS Reactor trip.

• Depressing Reactor Trip push buttons on 2C03 DOES NOT trip the Reactor.

• Depressing the DSS Emergency Reactor Trip push button on 2C03 DOES trip the Reactor.

The Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS) Diverse Scram System (DSS) MUST be Independent from the RPS system AND is REQUIRED to be in service in Mode ____(1)____.

Based on the above event an ____(2)____ EAL is REQUIRED to be declared.

A. (1) 2 and ABOVE in accordance with (IAW) the DSS TRM (2) UNUSUAL EVENT B. (1) 1 ONLY IAW OP-2105.017, DSS AND DEFAS Operations.

(2) UNUSUAL EVENT C. (1) 2 and ABOVE in accordance with (IAW) the DSS TRM (2) ALERT D. (1) 1 ONLY IAW OP-2105.017, DSS AND DEFAS Operation (2) ALERT Answer:

B. (1) 1 ONLY IAW OP-2105.017, DSS AND DEFAS Operations.

(2) UNUSUAL EVENT Notes:

Answer B is correct. OP 2105.017, DSS AND DEFAS Operations and the FSAR. requires the DSS be in operation in MODE 1 Only. Also the RPS Automatic High Pressure set point of 2362 psia has been exceeded in this event without a Reactor trip; however, the DSS trip function was successful in shutting down the Reactor so SU6.1 "Unusual Event" EAL is applicable. The upgrade to an ALERT would be if both the DSS and Manual trip push buttons failed.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as OP 2105.017, DSS AND DEFAS Operations and the FSAR requires the DSS be in operation in MODE 1 Only but plausible as Mode 2 is from Approach to critical up to 5%

power and most facility license limitations have an associated TS or TRM LCO for Mode 1. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as OP 2105.017, DSS AND DEFAS Operations and the FSAR requires the DSS be in operation in MODE 1 Only but plausible as Mode 2 is from Approach to critical up to 5%

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/13/2020 Search 0000292238 10CFR55: 43.1 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-DSS OBJ 2

TEST QID #

78 154 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 power and most facility license limitations have an associated TS or TRM LCO. In part 2 the Alert EAL call is incorrect but plausible as this would be the correct call if both the DSS and Manual trip push buttons failed.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. In part 2 the Alert EAL call is incorrect but plausible as this would be the correct call if both the DSS and Manual trip push buttons failed.

This QID matches the K/A because it requires the Applicant to know the conditions and limitations in the Facility FSAR license document associated with the ATWS DSS system.

This question is an SRO Only question because it requires the SRO to access a set of plant conditions and determine the correct EAL Classification to implement.

OP 1903.010 Emergency Action Level Unit 2 Wall Chart, Rev. 0, will be provided to the SRO applicants as a reference.

References:

OP-2105.017, DSS and DEFAS Operations, Rev.13, Section 3.0 ANO Unit 2 FSAR, Amendment 27 highlighted parts of Section 7.7.1.6 OP 1903.010, EAL Classification, Rev. 59, Attachment 1, EAL Technical Basis, EAL SU6.1 and SA6.1 OP 1903.010 Emergency Action Level Unit 2 Wall Chart, Rev. 0, will be provided to the SRO applicants as a reference.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

155 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2639 Safety Function 3

System Number 038

Title:

Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)

K/A 2.4.6

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Knowledge of EOP mitigation strategies.

RO Imp:

3.7 SRO Imp:

4.7 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 was tripped from full power due to SGTR indications.

• OP-2202.004 SGTR EOP is being implemented.

• 'A' Steam Generator has been diagnosed as the ruptured SG.

• SG 'A' has been isolated.

• Cool down and depressurization of the 'A' SG has commenced.

• Startup Transformer #3 is Locked Out on the plant trip.

Based on these conditions, an EOP mitigation strategy that can be used to cool down the 'A' SG would be ____(1)____

AND during the cool down using this strategy, the SGTR EOP REQUIRES a SG level band in 'A' SG of ____(2)____.

A. (1) Steaming to the Atmosphere (2) 10% to 38% to maximize heat transfer from the RCS to the secondary B. (1) Steaming to the Condenser (2) 10% to 38% to maximize heat transfer from the RCS to the secondary C. (1) Steaming to the Atmosphere (2) 45% to 90% to minimize transfer of radionuclides from the RCS to the secondary D. (1) Steaming to the Condenser (2) 45% to 90% to minimize transfer of radionuclides from the RCS to the secondary Answer:

C. (1) Steaming to the Atmosphere (2) 45% to 90% to minimize transfer of radionuclides from the RCS to the secondary Notes:

Answer C is correct. Once the Ruptured SG is isolated, Floating Step 36 of the SGTR EOP directs maintaining SG level 45 to 90% The basis for this step listed in ANO-2 EOP Set point Document CALC-90-E-0116-01 Set point G.9 and G.6 AND in the CEN-152 Basis BD-E-4. The reason for the 45 level is to maintain the SG tubes covered to minimize the transfer of radionuclides from the primary to the secondary side of the SG through the pre-existing cracks and the ruptured tube. The 90% level is to prevent overflowing the SG to the Main Steam Lines. The water above the tubes will minimize the release if steaming to the atmosphere which will be the case in this event due to the loss of power to the RCPs and Circulating Water pumps (Powered from SU#3 Transformer to 2H1/2 Bus and SU#2 Transformer will not transfer to the 2H1/2 Bus so no Condenser available or forced RCS circulation)

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect due to the wrong level and wrong reason. 10 to 38% is below the top of the tubes and is plausible as this would be the correct level to maintain if RCPs were running to cool the steam space of the ruptured SG during SG Backflow to the RCS (See Step 50.A of EOP 2202.004 Rev. 14). Should RCPs be running, the reason for 10 to 38% is correct.

Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/14/2020 Search 0000382406 10CFR55: 43.4 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ESGTR OBJ 15 TEST QID #

79 156 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect because there are no CW pumps running after the trip due to the SU#3 Transformer Lockout but plausible as CW Pumps would normally stay running after a plant trip. Part 2 is incorrect due to the wrong level and wrong reason. 10 to 38% is below the top of the tubes and is plausible as this would be the correct level to maintain if RCPs were running to cool the steam space of the ruptured SG during SG Backflow to the RCS (See Step 50.A of EOP 2202.004 Rev. 14). Should RCPs be running, the reason for 10 to 38% is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Pat 1 is incorrect because there are no CW pumps running after the trip due to the SU#3 Transformer Lockout but plausible as CW Pumps would normally stay running after a plant trip. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A because the applicant must access the plant conditions and determine the correct method to cool down the ruptured SG and the correct SG Level per the EOP procedure mitigating strategy without RCPs running for the SGTR event.

This question is an SRO Only question as the applicant must determine the correct SG Level EOP procedure mitigating strategy without RCPs running cooling down the isolated SG and must have the knowledge of the CEN-152 basis for the reason for the proper SG level for these conditions..

References:

OP 2202.004 SGTR EOP Rev. 15 Floating Step 36.

EOP 2202.004 SGTR Tech Guide Rev. 15 Step 36 Basis OP 2202.004 SGTR EOP Rev. 15 Step 50.A and Step 50.C EOP 2202.004 SGTR Tech Guide Rev. 15 Step 50 Basis ANO-2 EOP Setpoint Document CALC-90-E-0116-01 Setpoint G.9 and G.6 CEN-152 Procedure Bases Rev. 6 for SGTR Highlighted parts on Page 92 and 93.

Historical Comments:

This question was modified from a SRO question on the ANO Unit 2 2017 NRC SRO Exam. ANO Unit 2 Exam Bank QID 2422.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

157 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2640 Safety Function 6

System Number 055

Title:

Loss of Offsite and Onsite Power (Station Blackout)

K/A 2.1.32

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Ability to explain and apply system limits and precautions.

RO Imp:

3.8 SRO Imp:

4.0 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 has tripped from 100% power due to a loss of all AC power.

• No AC sources have been recovered.

• OP-2202.008, Station Blackout, is being implemented.

• 40 minutes have elapsed.

In accordance with OP-2202.008, Station Blackout, RCS Inventory Control will be challenged due to ____(1)____ flow and will require Emergency Response Organization (ERO) support to ____(2)____.

A. (1) controlled bleedoff (2) enter containment to isolate leakage B. (1) controlled bleedoff (2) connect a temporary makeup source C. (1) minimum letdown (2) enter containment to isolate leakage D. (1) minimum letdown (2) connect a temporary makeup source Answer:

A. (1) controlled bleedoff (2) enter containment to isolate leakage Notes:

Answer A. is correct: With a total loss of AC power (station blackout) controlled bleedoff (CBO) can not be isolated (bottled up) from inside the control room. The containment isolations valves will close redirecting CBO to the QT through a relief valve. The relief valve would normally be isolated by a MOV (no power) therefore, to stop the 4 gpm RCS leak from CBO, a containment entry is required and this would be controlled by the TSC (ERO)

Distractor B is incorrect: Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because this is not directed by the SBO EOP procedure but plausible as connecting a temporary makeup source is a FLEX (FDS-002) action should the Station Blackout continue past 60 minutes without successful recovery in the SBO EOP.

Distractor C is incorrect: Part 1 is incorrect as Letdown flow would be isolated due to the loss of Instrument Air but plausible as RCS inventory would continue to be lost with minimum Letdown Flow. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect: Part 1 is incorrect as Letdown flow would be isolated due to the loss of Instrument Air but plausible as RCS inventory would continue to be lost with minimum Letdown Flow. Part 2 is incorrect because this is not directed by the SBO EOP procedure but plausible as connecting a temporary makeup source is a FLEX (FDS-002) action should the Station Blackout continue past 60 minutes without successful recovery in the SBO EOP.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/14/2020 Search 0000552132 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

1 Group:

1 Author:

Simpson L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ESBO OBJ 3

TEST QID #

80 158 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 This question matches the K/A because it requires the applicant to apply a precaution and step during a Station Blackout EOP to conserve RCS inventory.

This Question is an SRO Only questions as the SRO must understand the interface between the Emergency Plan activation for this event and the change in responsibilities for entering Containment.

References:

OP-2202.008, Station Blackout EOP, Rev 017, Section 1 Steps 20 and 28 with Caution above step 28.

EOP-2202.008, Station Blackout Tech Guide, Rev 017, Section 1 Steps 20 and 28.

Historical Comments:

BANK Question: ANO Unit 2 NRC Bank QID 2153. Used on the ANO Unit 2 NRC SRO Exam 2014-2 Retake Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

159 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2641 Safety Function 6

System Number 077

Title:

Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances K/A AA2.05

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: - Operational status of offsite circuit RO Imp:

3.2 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 4 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Both Units are at 100% power.

• The SU #2 and SU #3 Transformer Voltage Regulators are in service.

NOW

• Offsite Grid voltage along with Main Generator voltage starts to lower.

• SU #2 Transformer incoming voltage is now reading 156 KV and stable

• SU #3 Transformer incoming voltage is now reading 19.3 KV and stable.

• Electrical Buses 2A3 and 2A4 are reading 4030 Volts and stable.

• Electrical Buses 2B5 and 2B6 are reading 435 Volts and stable.

• Grid Frequency is reading 59.8 Hz and stable.

• OP-2203.054, Abnormal Grid AOP has been implemented.

Based on these conditions, ____(1)____.

OP-2203.054, Abnormal Grid, Attachment A, EDG Fast Start for both EDGs ____(2)____ REQUIRED for the given conditions.

A. (1) One Offsite AC Source is inoperable and T.S 3.8.1.1, A.C. Sources, is applicable (2) IS B. (1) One Offsite AC Source is inoperable and T.S 3.8.1.1, A.C. Sources, is applicable (2) IS NOT C. (1) Both Offsite AC sources are still operable and NO TS entry is required at this time (2) IS D. (1) Both Offsite AC sources are still operable and NO TS entry is required at this time (2) IS NOT Answer:

A. (1) One Offsite AC Source is inoperable and T.S 3.8.1.1, A.C. Sources, is applicable (2) IS Notes:

Answer A is correct. In Part 1, SU#3 Offsite power source is required to be > 21.7 KV with its Voltage Regulator in service per the T.S surveillance of OP 2107.001 Supplement 4 Table 2. SU#2 Offsite power source is required to be

>149.5 KV with its Voltage Regulator in service per the T.S surveillance of OP 2107.001 Supplement 4 Table 1 thus only one offsite power source is inoperable and TS 3.8.1.1 should be entered. In Part 2, OP 2203.054, Abnormal Grid AOP Contingency Step 8.D Requires Attachment A, EDG Fast Start to be performed if 2B5/2B6 bus voltages are less than 436 Source:

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Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Volts. This will align the safety buses to the EDGs and separate the safety buses from offsite.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as this action is required due to low 2B5/2B6 voltage however this action is plausible as this is an action in OP-2203.054 Step 8 Contingency Action D.1 if the 2B5/2B6 bus voltage is less than 445 VAC and trending down but above 436 VAC. Also plausible as per Step 3 of OP-2203.054, the EDG Fast Start IS NOT required based on grid frequency being above 59.5 Hz.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible if the applicant cannot remember the operable voltage for SU#3 Transformer. Also the Main Generator feeds the 500 KV Grid which is fed back into the SU #3 Transformer to feed the plant loads should a Main Generator trip occur which is where the grid frequency is reading from. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible if the applicant cannot remember the operable voltage for SU#3 Transformer. Also the Main Generator feeds the 500 KV Grid which is fed back into the SU #3 Transformer to feed the plant loads should a Main Generator trip occur which is where the grid frequency is reading from. Part 2 is incorrect as this action is required due to low 2B5/2B6 voltage however this action is plausible as this is an action in OP2203.054 Step 8 Contingency Action D.1 if the 2B5/2B6 bus voltage is less than 445 VAC and trending down but above 436 VAC This question matches the K/A as it requires the applicant to assess the operability of the Offsite AC and its affect on the onsite safety buses during an abnormal Generator and Grid Voltage disturbance.

This question is an SRO only question as it requires the SRO to determine if an Attachment in the Abnormal Grid Voltage AOP is Required to be performed or not.

References:

OP 2107.001 Supplement 4, Electrical System Alignment Check, Rev. 133, Tables 1, 2, 5, and 6 T.S. 3.8.1.1a, Amendment 301, Action a. With one offsite A.C. circuit of the above required A.C. electrical power sources inoperable, perform the following:

AOP 2203.054, Abnormal Grid, Rev. 4, Steps 3, 8 and Attachment A and C Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

161 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2642 Safety Function 1

System Number 003

Title:

Dropped Control Rod K/A 2.4.6

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Knowledge of EOP mitigation strategies.

RO Imp:

3.7 SRO Imp:

4.7 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 has reduced plant power to 95% for turbine valve testing.

• CEA Group "6" was inserted during the power reduction for ASI Control.

• Plant power has been stabilized and turbine valve testing is almost complete.

NOW

• AT TIME 1200, the following alarms come in:

- 2K10-C1 "MAJOR CEA DEVIATION"

- 2K10-D1 "MINOR CEA DEVIATION"

• Group "6" CEA 47 Lower Electrical Limit (LEL) light is illuminated.

• All other Group "6" CEAs are 139 inches withdrawn.

• OP-2203.003 CEA Malfunction AOP is implemented at this time.

Based on CEA Malfunction AOP, a power reduction by boration must commence NO later than ____(1)____.

According to the mitigation strategy for the CEA Malfunction AOP Attachment A, Required Power Reduction After CEA Deviation, plant power reduction is REQUIRED to ____(2)____ to recover the dropped CEA if repairs will NOT be completed prior to meeting the down power requirements.

A. (1) 1215 (2) continue down to 60% power before stopping B. (1) 1230 (2) continue down to 60% power before stopping C. (1) 1215 (2) continue down to 67% power before stopping D. (1) 1230 (2) continue down to 67% power before stopping Answer:

C. (1) 1215 (2) continue down to 67% power before stopping Notes:

Answer C is correct. According to OP 2203.003 CEA Malfunction AOP Floating Step 21, COMMENCE power reduction within 15 minutes of misalignment to maintain within ACCEPTABLE region of Attachment A, Required Power Reduction After CEA Deviation, thus 1215 is correct. Per Step 2 of OP 2203.003 CEA Malfunction AOP Attachment A, Power must be reduce 28% below Pre-Misaligned Reactor Power, unless plant power is 60% or below then the power reduction may be stop as desired. (Step 1 of Attachment A). Also per the 2nd Note in Attachment A, CEA realignment Source:

NEW Rev:

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Coble L. Plan:

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82 162 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 may occur as long as operation is within ACCEPTABLE region of curve but in this case, repairs will NOT be completed prior to meeting the down power requirements.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect since Power can be stopped at 67% but plausible as step 1 of Attachment A allows stopping at 60% or below.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as CEA pulse counters must be reset within 30 minutes the CEA deviation per OP 2203.003 CEA Malfunction AOP Step 25 Contingency Action B. Part 2 is incorrect since Power can be stopped at 67% but plausible as step 1 of Attachment A allows stopping at 60% or below.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as CEA pulse counters must be reset within 30 minutes the CEA deviation per OP 2203.003 CEA Malfunction AOP Step 25 Contingency Action B. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A because the applicant must have knowledge of the procedural mitigating strategy for a dropped CEA.

This question is an SRO Only question because the SRO must apply the requirement of an Attachment in the CEA Malfunction AOP and the TLR to determine the proper power level to stop the power reduction.

References:

AOP 2203.003, CEA Malfunction, Rev. 26, Steps 21, 25 and Attachment A.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

163 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2643 Safety Function 7

System Number 032

Title:

Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation K/A AA2.06

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation: - Confirmation of reactor trip RO Imp:

3.9 SRO Imp:

4.1 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• The Unit is at 100% Power at 400 EFPD.

• Startup Channel #2 is out of service for Maintenance.

• A large earthquake occurs locally.

• Unit 2 trips due to a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP).

• Startup Channel #1 has lost power from 2RS-1.

• There are indications of a large steam line break inside Containment.

• The ATC reports that five (5) CEAs did not fully insert on the Reactor trip.

• All actions taken in SPTAs have failed to insert the 5 stuck CEAs.

• The ATC reports that Charging header flow indicates zero (0) gpm.

• The WCO reports a Charging common suction header rupture.

• The Functional Recovery Procedure (FRP) OP-2202.009 has been implemented.

• The ATC reports that all 4 Log NI Channels indicate 0.3% power and slowly rising.

During the initial assessment of safety functions in the FRP, the Reactivity Control Safety Function would be ____(1)____.

During the assessment, of the Reactivity Control Decision Tree, ____(2)____ will be implemented.

A. (1) Jeopardized (2) RC-2, Boration using CVCS, after rupture isolation B. (1) Challenged (2) RC-2, Boration using CVCS, after rupture isolation C. (1) Jeopardized (2) RC-3, Boration using HPSI, using HDR Injection MOVs D. (1) Challenged (2) RC-3, Boration using HPSI, using HDR Injection MOVs Answer:

C. (1) Jeopardized (2) RC-3, Boration using HPSI, using HDR Injection MOVs Notes:

Answer C is correct. In this scenario, the Reactivity Control Safety Function cannot be met in SPTAs due to the Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation and CEAs stuck out with no boration flow, so the FRP must be implemented. In the FRP, the Reactivity Safety Function is Jeopardized due to CEAs are stuck out even with CEDMCS deenergized, power is slowly rising with no boration and the excess steam demand causing positive reactivity addition with no Charging pumps available due to the location of the rupture so RC-3 will be implemented and HPSI will be used to borate the RCS.

HPSI pump shutoff head is ~1400 psia so RCS pressure is reduced per the procedure to < 1265 psia and then flow Source:

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Coble L. Plan:

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83 164 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 established and verified to be > 40 gpm.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible and could be used if the rupture was in a different location in the CVCS system that would allow isolating the rupture and aligning the Charging Pump discharge header up to the HPSI header through 2CVC-115.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect due to the reactivity control safety function being jeopardized but plausible if reactor power was just less than 0.01% power and stabilizing or starting to rise. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible and could be used if the rupture was in a different locations in the CVCS system that would allow isolating the rupture and aligning the Charging Pump discharge header up to the HPSI header through 2CVC-115.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect due to the reactivity control safety function being jeopardized but plausible if reactor power was just less than 0.01% power and stabilizing or starting to rise. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A because the applicant must interpret the Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation and the inability to confirm a reactor trip in SPTAs and then use the FRP to implement actions to ensure the reactor is shutdown.

This question is an SRO Only question as the SRO must know the alternative methods in the FRP to confirm an adequate reactor trip has occurred and the contingency decision tree actions to take should the instrumentation indicate that the Reactivity Safety Function is Jeopardized.

References:

OP-2201.001, SPTAs, Rev.17, Step 3 Reactivity Control SF.

OP-2202.01, Standard Attachments, Rev. 30, Exhibit 1, Emergency Boration, Step 6 and Exhibit 8, Diagnostic Actions.

OP 1015.021 ANO-2 EOP/AOP User Guide, Rev. 19, Definitions 4.41.5 and 4.41.15.

OP-2202.009, FRP, Rev. 24, Entry Section Step 11, Success Path Tracking Page on last page of the procedure, the Reactivity Control Decision Tree, and the RC-2 and RC-3 Instructions.

STM 2-04, CVCS, Rev. 31, Drawing on page 66 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

165 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2644 Safety Function 8

System Number 036

Title:

Fuel Handling Incidents K/A AA2.03

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Fuel Handling Incidents: - Magnitude of potential radioactive release RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

4.2 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

• • • • • • • • • • REFERENCE PROVIDED**********

Consider the following:

• Core Offload is in progress during a Refueling Outage.

• The Refueling SRO notifies the Control Room that a spent fuel assembly has been dropped in the Spent Fuel Pool (SFP).

• There are gas bubbles coming up out of the SFP from the assembly.

• The Control Room has implemented OP-2203.055 Fuel Handling Abnormal Operations.

• SFP Area Rad Monitors, 2RE-8914, 8915, and 8916, are in High alarm.

• At 1200 Fuel Handling Area SPING 7 2RX-9830 is reading 6.9 E+01 µC/cc and rising

• At 1220, Fuel Handling Area SPING 7 2RX-9830 is reading 8.45 E+01 µC/cc and rising.

Based on these conditions, a ____(1)____ EAL classification should be declared AND a Protective Action Recommendation (PAR) ____(2)____ REQUIRED to be issued to the State.

A. (1) SITE AREA EMERGENCY (2) IS B. (1) SITE AREA EMERGENCY (2) IS NOT C. (1) GENERAL EMERGENCY (2) IS D. (1) GENERAL EMERGENCY (2) IS NOT Answer:

B. (1) SITE AREA EMERGENCY (2) IS NOT Notes:

Answer B is correct. The correct EAL call is an Site Area Emergency (SAE) based on OP-.1903.010 EAL Classification AS1.1 based on a damaged irradiated fuel assembly and high activity readings on SPING 7 2RX-9830 exceeding the SAE Classification threshold on Table 2A-1 (Page 41). The high alarms on the Area Rad Monitors listed would be an ALERT EAL Call but this rising activity on the SPING sends you into a higher classification but less than the GE classification activity level.. PARs are only required for General Emergency EAL declarations.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 in incorrect as PARs are only required for General Emergency EAL classifications but plausible as a fuel handling accident could cause a release to the public if the Spent Fuel Area Ventilation system filters failed and PARS are designed to help mitigate the effects of releases.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/16/2020 Search 000036A203 10CFR55: 43.4 Tier:

1 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-ASFP OBJ 11 TEST QID #

84 166 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the correct EAL call is an Site Area Emergency (SAE) based on OP-1903.010 EAL Classification AS1.1 based on a damaged irradiated fuel assembly and high activity readings on SPING 7 2RX-9830 exceeding the SAE Classification threshold on Table 2A-1 (Page41) but less than the GE threshold.

Part 2 is incorrect as PARs are only required for General Emergency EAL calls but plausible as a fuel handling accident could cause a release to the public if the Spent Fuel Area Ventilation system filters failed and PARS are designed to help mitigate the effects of releases.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the correct EAL call is an Site Area Emergency (SAE) based on OP-1903.010 EAL Classification AS1.1 based on a damaged irradiated fuel assembly and high activity readings on SPING 7 2RX-9830 exceeding the SAE Classification threshold on Table 2A-1 (Page41) but less than the GE threshold.

Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A because the applicant has to interpret the radiation readings associated with a Fuel Handling Incident and based on Radiation Alarms and activity readings determine the correct Emergency Plan EAL classification.

This question is an SRO ONLY question as the SRO has to determine the correct Emergency Plan EAL Declaration.

OP 1903.010 Emergency Action Level Unit 2 Wall Chart, Rev. 0, will be provided to the SRO applicants as a reference.

References:

AOP 2203,055, Fuel Handling Abnormal Operations, Rev. 2, Entry Conditions, and Contingency Step 6.D OP 1903.010 EAL Classification, Rev. 59, Attachment 1 EAL Technical Basis for EAL AA2.2, Table 2A-2, EAL AS1.1 and Table 2A-1.

OP 1903.011, Emergency Response/Notifications, Rev 58, Attachment 6 Page 1.

OP 1903.010 Emergency Action Level Unit 2 Wall Chart, Rev. 0, will be provided to the SRO applicants as a reference.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

167 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2645 Safety Function 5

System Number 069

Title:

Loss of Containment Integrity K/A AA2.01

==

Description:==

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Containment Integrity: - Loss of containment integrity RO Imp:

3.7 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following at 100% power:

• At 1100 on April 7th, an earthquake is felt onsite.

• 5 minutes later the National Earthquake Information Center confirms the earthquake occurred nearby at 5.7 on the Richter scale.

• Unit 1 reports the Seismic Instrumentation recorded a 0.05g earthquake.

• Primary and secondary plant parameters are stable and normal on both units.

• At 1115, the CBOT reports that Unit 2 Reactor Containment Building (RCB) pressure has risen from 14.1 to 14.7 psia (atmospheric pressure) over 10 minutes and stabilized.

• The WCO is directed to close BOTH CNTMT Building CAMS M/U VLVs 2HPA-75/78 to lower RCB pressure to the normal operating band of 13.9 to 14.2 psia.

NOW at 1200

• RCB pressure is still reading approximately 14.7 psia (atmospheric pressure).

• RCB pressure and temperature have been verified to be within the limits of T.S 3.6.1.4, Containment Pressure and Temperature for Modes 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Based on these conditions, Unit 2 ____(1)____ AND ____(2)____.

A. (1) CAN maintain 100% power operations (2) continue lowering RCB pressure by maintaining BOTH CAMS M/U valves closed.

B. (1) MUST place the Unit in Mode 3 within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> (2) Stay in Mode 3 and align Service Water to RCB cooling fans to lower pressure.

C. (1) CAN maintain 100% power operations (2) Have Engineering perform EN-DC-356, Post Earthquake Inspection for Damage.

D. (1) MUST place the Unit in Mode 3 within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> (2) Perform a plant cool down to COLD SHUTDOWN within the following 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />.

Answer:

D. (1) MUST place the Unit in Mode 3 within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> (2) Perform a plant cool down to COLD SHUTDOWN within the following 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />.

Notes:

Answer D is Correct. Containment is normally maintained in a slight vacuum to prevent a radioactive gaseous release.

In this scenario, the earthquake has caused a big enough air leak into containment to raise pressure to normal atmospheric pressure and normal methods of reducing RCB pressure using the Containment Atmosphere Monitoring System (CAMS) have failed to lower RCB pressure. Thus Containment structural Integrity has been breached and TS 3.6.1.1, Containment Integrity, and/or TS 3.6.1.5, Containment Structural Integrity Apply. The actions of these two TS are the ones listed in Source:

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Coble L. Plan:

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Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Answer D.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is Incorrect because TS 3.6.1.1/5 require a plant shutdown and cool down but plausible as the limits of T.S 3.6.1.4, Containment Pressure and Temperature for Modes 1, 2, 3 and 4 are met. Part 2 is a correct action to take and is plausible as this is the normal method of reducing RCB pressure per OP 2104.033, Containment Atmosphere Control, Step 13.7.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because TS 3.6.1.1/5 require a plant cool down to Mode 5 but plausible as aligning Service Water to the RCB Fan Coolers per OP 2104.033, Containment Atmosphere Control, Step 19.0 will lower RCB temperature thus assist in lowering RCB pressure.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is Incorrect because TS 3.6.1.1/5 require a plant shutdown and cool down but plausible as the limits of T.S 3.6.1.4, Containment Pressure and Temperature for Modes 1, 2, 3 and 4 are met. Part 2 is plausible as this is a correct action to take in accordance with AOP 2202.008, Natural Emergencies, Section 2, Seismic Event, Step 16 for a > 0.01g validated earthquake.

This question matches the K/A as it requires the applicant to interpret and apply the actions associated with a Loss of Containment Integrity.

This question is an SRO Only because it requires the SRO to apply the actions of TS LCO 3.6.1.1 and 3.6.1.5 based on the given conditions.

References:

TS LCO 3.6.1.1, CONTAINMENT INTEGRITY, Amendment 315. Action TS LCO 3.6.1.5, CONTAINMENT STRUCTURAL INTEGRITY, Amendment 262. Action TS LCO 3.6.1.4, CONTAINMENT INTERNAL PRESSURE AND AIR TEMPERATURE, Amendment 315. Figure 3.6-1 AOP 2203.005, Loss of Containment Integrity, Rev. 8, Step 7 Contingency Actions.

OP 2104.033, Containment Atmosphere Control, Rev. 80, Steps 5.6, 13.7, and 19.0.

OP 2203.008, Natural Emergencies AOP, Rev 54, Section 2 step 16.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

169 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2646 Safety Function 4

System Number 005

Title:

Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

K/A A2.01

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RHRS and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Failure modes for pressure, flow, pump motor amps, motor temperature, and tank level instrumentation RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

• • • • • • • • • • REFERENCE PROVIDED**********

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is in Mode 6 and has completed Core Reload.

• SDC Train B is in service through SDC HX 2E-35B.

• RCS Temperature is 130°F and stable.

• RCS level is being lowered to install the Reactor Vessel Head.

• Draining was stopped to obtain a boron sample prior to going below flange level.

• All RCS levels, including local, currently indicate 110 inches.

• SDC Flow Control Valve 2CV-5091 is set at 4000 gpm flow.

NOW

• The following Alarms come in:

- "SDC FLOW HI/LO" annunciator (2K07-C8)

- "LPSI PUMP MOTOR AMPS HI/LO" annunciator (2K07-C7)

- "LPSI DISCH HEADER PRESS HI/LO" annunciator (2K07-B8)

• SDC Flow is oscillating between 3400 and 4600 gpm.

• SDC Pump 2P-60B Amps are oscillating between 35 to 40 amps.

• SDC Pump 2P-60B Pressure is oscillating between 125 and 200 psig.

Based on these conditions, the CRS should implement ____(1)____ AND ____(2)____.

A. (1) OP-2203.029 Loss of SDC AOP, Step 10 "Check RCS level stable or rising" (2) Stop SDC Pump 2P-60B and start raising RCS level using CVCS or HPSI pumps B. (1) OP-2203.029 Loss of SDC AOP, Step 13 "Check LPSI HDR Flow Control Valve" (2) Operate 2FIC-5091 in Manual and stabilize SDC flow within 500 gpm of set point C. (1) OP-2202.011 Lower Mode Functional Recovery EOP, IC-1 "Forced Makeup" (2) Stop SDC Pump 2P-60B and start raising RCS level using CVCS or HPSI pumps D. (1) OP-2202.011 Lower Mode Functional Recovery EOP, HR-5 "SDC System" (2) Operate 2FIC-5091 in Manual and stabilize SDC flow within 500 gpm of set point Answer:

B. (1) OP-2203.029 Loss of SDC AOP, Step 13 "Check LPSI HDR Flow Control Valve" (2) Operate 2FIC-5091 in Manual and stabilize SDC flow within 500 gpm of setpoint Notes:

Source:

NEW Rev:

1 Rev Date: 10/21/2020 Search 005000A201 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ASDC OBJ 3

TEST QID #

86 170 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Answer B is correct. This scenario simulates a failure of a flow transmitter instrument that inputs to the SDC Flow Control Valve 2CV-5091. This will cause the SDC flow to commence oscillating because the controller is trying to maintain 4000 gpm. This in return will cause the pump amps and discharge pressure to oscillate. The Loss of SDC entry conditions are met, RCS level is adequate (Refer to Attachment A of OP 2203.029 for Reactor Vessel Head Removal/Installation) thus this would be the procedure to implement. OP 2202.011 Lower Mode Functional Recovery EOP may come next if adequate SDC cannot be restored. The Loss of SDC AOP 2203.029 step 7. G applies so then Step 13 Contingency Action B would be performed since flow is oscillating outside 500 gpm of set point.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as step 10 would be used if RCS level was continuing to lower unexpectedly.

In this case level is not dropping any more but plausible if level were to continue to drop. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this would be the Contingency Actions if Step 10 of the SDC AOP were implemented.

Distractor C is incorrect but plausible as OP 2202.011 Lower Mode Functional Recovery (LMFRP) EOP IC-1, would be entered if the AOP was not adequate in restoring normal conditions, (RCS flow less than 500 gpm total or RCS level NOT adequate and cannot be raised or maintained by Contingency Step 10 of the AOP). Part 2 is incorrect as the RCS level is adequate for the evolution in progress but plausible as this is an Action Step of the LMFRP IC-1, Forced Makeup.

Distractor D is incorrect but plausible as OP 2202.011 Lower Mode Functional Recovery EOP (HR-5 would be entered if the AOP was not adequate in restoring normal conditions, (RCS flow within 500 gpm of set point or RCS level NOT adequate and cannot be raised or maintained per Contingency Step 13 of the AOP). Part 2 is incorrect as the RCS level is adequate for the evolution in progress but plausible as this is an Action Step of the LMFRP HR-5 SDC System This question matches the K/A as the applicant has to analyze the given alarms and determine if the pump is cavitating due to low level or if the SDC Flow Control Valve is malfunctioning due to an instrumentation input failure and then implement the correct procedure steps to mitigate the malfunction.

This question is SRO Only as the SRO has to implement the correct procedure, analyze the given conditions and then select the correct steps to correct and mitigating the conditions..

Provide OP-2203.029, Loss of SDC, Attachment A RCS Level, as a reference for this question.

References:

OP 2203.029 Loss of SDC AOP, Rev 24, Entry Conditions, Steps 7.G, 10, 13, and Attachment A.

OP 2202.011 Lower Mode Functional Recovery EOP, Rev. 15, Entry Conditions, IC-1, and HR-5 Provide OP-2203.029, Loss of SDC, Attachment A RCS Level, as a reference for this question.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

171 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2647 Safety Function 7

System Number 012

Title:

Reactor Protection System K/A A2.05

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RPS and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Faulty or erratic operation of detectors and function generators.

RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

3.2 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy: M Question:

Given the following conditions:

• The plant is at 100% Power.

• #2 Control Element Assembly Calculator (CEAC) was placed in INOP in CPCs five hours ago.

• #1 CEAC just now failed.

• #2 CEAC cannot be returned to service.

To prevent a Reactor Trip with both CEAC function generators failed, ____(1)____ should be used to ____(2)____.

A. (1) OP-2105.001, CPC/CEAC Operations, Section 8.4 (2) set CEANOP flag CPC PID 062 to 3 in all four CPC channels within 80 minutes B. (1) OP-2105.001, CPC/CEAC Operations, Section 8.4 (2) verify each CEA is within 7 inches of all other CEAs in its group every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> C. (1) OP-2203.003, CEA Malfunction AOP, Step 26 (2) set CEANOP flag CPC PID 062 to 3 in all four CPC channels within 80 minutes D. (1) OP-2203.003, CEA Malfunction AOP, Step 26 (2) verify each CEA is within 7 inches of all other CEAs in its group every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> Answer:

A. (1) OP-2105.001, CPC/CEAC Operations, Section 8.4 (2) set CEANOP flag CPC PID 062 to 3 in all four PC channels within 80 minutes Notes:

Answer A is correct. Control Element Assembly Calculators (CEACS) are function generators that look at CEA deviations in the core and provide penalty factors into each Core Protection Calculator (CPC) channel. If Both CEAC Function Generators fail, a timer is set for 90 minutes to allow setting the CEAC code (3) for both CEACs to inoperable. The CPC/CEAC Operations procedure direct this action to be completed within 80 minutes because if the action is not complete within 90 minutes, then large penalty factors are inputted to the CPC LPD and DNBR margin calculations and would result in a Reactor trip at 100% power.

CPC channels calculate LPD and DNBR margins and provide the input to RPS when margins to LPD and DNBR are unacceptable and provide the LPD/DNBR Reactor Trips in RPS. TS 3.3.1.1 Table 3.3-1 Action 6-b.2.b) provides the direction to ensure the CPCs are set to Both CEACs inoperable and the actual procedure guidance is found in OP 2105.001, CPC/CEAC Operations, Step 8.4.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct, Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this would be the required action of TS 3.3.1.1 Table 3.3-1 Action 6-a. for one CEAC inoperable.

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/22/2020 Search 012000A205 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CPC OBJ 27 TEST QID #

87 172 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. The CEA Malfunction AOP does not have the guidance required to set the CEA Inoperable flags in CPCs but this procedure is plausible as one of the entry conditions for this AOP is "CEAC 1/2 CEA DEVIATION" annunciator (2K04-J5/J6) in alarm which would come in when the CEACs are set to inoperable. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. The CEA Malfunction AOP does not have the guidance required to set the CEA Inoperable flags in CPCs but this procedure is plausible as one of the entry conditions for this AOP is "CEAC 1/2 CEA DEVIATION" annunciator (2K04-J5/J6) in alarm which would come in when the CEACs are set to inoperable. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this would be the required action of TS 3.3.1.1 Table 3.3-1 Action 6-a. for one CEAC inoperable.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant has to analyze the malfunctions of the CEAC function Generators and then take procedural and TS guidance to mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions.

This question is SRO Only as the SRO has to implement the more restrictive procedural guidance of 80 minutes to comply with the 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> action 6-b.2.b) of TS 3.3.1.1

References:

Tech Specs 3.3.1.1 Amendment 216 Table 3.3-1 Item 14, CEA Calculators, Action 6.b.2.b)

OP 2105.001, CPC/CEAC Operations, Rev. 50, Step 8.4. and L&P 5.3 OP 2203.003, CEA Malfunction AOP, Rev. 26, Entry Conditions and Step 26 Historical Comments:

This is a ANO Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 1696 used on the 2009 NRC SRO Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

173 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2648 Safety Function 2

System Number 013

Title:

Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS K/A 2.2.36

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Ability to analyze the effect of maintenance activities, such as degraded power sources, on the status of limiting conditions for operations.

RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

4.2 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at 100% Power.

• EDG #2 is being removed from service for a 14 day maintenance outage.

• All requirements of OP2104.036, EDG AOT Requirements, have been met.

• The Shift Manager declared EDG #2 inoperable on 04/07/2021 at 1200.

NOW

• On 4/17/2021, the AACDG fails its Pre-Start Check of OP2104.037, AACDG OPS.

• The manual jacking gear eccentric is engaged and efforts to disengaged it have failed.

• The Shift Manager declared the AACDG non-functional on 04/17/2021 at 1200.

• Maintenance has been dispatched to repair the AACDG Jacking Gear eccentric.

Based on these conditions, ____(1)____ MUST be returned to an Operable Status by ____(2)____.

A. (1) EDG #2 ONLY (2) 04/21/2021at 1200 B. (1) EDG #2 ONLY (2) 04/20/2021at 1200 C. (1) Either the AACDG OR the EDG #2 (2) 04/21/2021 at 1200 D. (1) Either the AACDG OR the EDG #2 (2) 04/20/2021 at 1200 Answer:

D. (1) Either the AACDG OR the EDG #2 (2) 04/20/2021 at 1200 Notes:

Answer D is correct. Based on the above conditions and on the Note 1 below TS 3.8.1.1 Action b.3. " If the Alternate A.C.

Diesel Generator (AACDG) is determined to be inoperable during this period, then a 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> restoration period is applicable until either the AACDG or the diesel generator is returned to operable status. Either the EDG or the AACDG must be returned to operable status when the 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> window closes on 04/20/2021 at 1200. This example is also discussed in the basis for TS 3.8.1.1 for NOTE 1.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as Either the EDG or the AACDG is REQUIRED to be restored before the 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> window is up but plausible as the EDG being restored would satisfy the requirement. Part 2 is incorrect as this is a 96 hour0.00111 days <br />0.0267 hours <br />1.587302e-4 weeks <br />3.6528e-5 months <br /> window from the time the AACDG went inoperable but plausible as this date and time is the end of the 14 Day Source:

NEW Rev:

1 Rev Date: 10/22/2020 Search 0130002236 10CFR55: 43.2 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EDG OBJ 12 TEST QID #

88 174 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Allowed Outage Time for the EDG.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as Either the EDG or the AACDG is REQUIRED to be restored before the 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> window is up but plausible as the EDG being restored would satisfy the requirement. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as this is a 96 hour0.00111 days <br />0.0267 hours <br />1.587302e-4 weeks <br />3.6528e-5 months <br /> window from the time the AACDG went inoperable but plausible as this date and time is the end of the 14 Day Allowed Outage Time for the EDG.

This question matches the K/A because the applicant has to analyze the effect of maintenance activities on the EDG and the AACDG emergency power supplies and apply the clarifying NOTE 1 of TS 3.8.1.1 Action b.3.

This is an SRO Only question because the SRO has to apply the clarifying NOTE 1 of TS 3.8.1.1 Action b.3. and determine the conditions needed to start or prevent a plant shutdown

References:

TS 3.8.1.1 LCO for AC Sources, Amendment 301 Action b.3 and Note 1 along with the associated Basis for this TS.

OP 2104.036, EDG Operations, Rev. 99, Attachment C Page 1, EDG AOT Requirements AND Form 2104.036C, Periodic Checklist for Extended EDG Outage, Step 1 and 2,2 OP 2104.037, AACDG Operations, Rev. 35, Step 8.5.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

175 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2649 Safety Function 6

System Number 062

Title:

A.C. Electrical Distribution System K/A 2.2.22

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

RO Imp:

4.0 SRO Imp:

4.7 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Both Unit 1 and 2 are at 100% Power.

NOW

• Annunciator 2K01 A-4 "STARTUP 2 L. O. RELAY TRIP" locks in alarm.

• Both Unit Shift Managers declare SU #2 Transformer inoperable.

Based on these conditions, Unit 2 must evaluate offsite power operability using 2107.001, Electrical System Operations, Supplement 4 within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> and every ____(1)____ hours thereafter until SU #2 Transformer is returned to operable status.

According to TS 3.8.1.1 Action for SU #2 Transformer and its associated basis, the SU #2 Transformer ____(2)____.

A. (1) 8 (2) CAN remain inoperable for up to 30 days if the 30-day outage allowance time has NOT been applied ONCE in the last 10 years B. (1) 8 (2) MUST be returned to an Operable status within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> from time of inoperability OR Unit 2 MUST be in HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> C. (1) 12 (2) CAN remain inoperable for up to 30 days if the 30-day outage allowance time has NOT been applied ONCE in the last 10 years D. (1) 12 (2) MUST be returned to an Operable status within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> from time of inoperability OR Unit 2 MUST be in HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> Answer:

B. (1) 8 (2) MUST be returned to an Operable status within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> from time of inoperability OR Unit 2 MUST be in HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> Notes:

Answer B is correct. The electrical operability check is required to be performed every 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after the initial check. The 30 day Allowed Outage Time (AOT) is only allowed for pre-planned maintenance and not an unexpected issue that cause the transformer to become inoperable.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this is an option for pre-planned, pre-staged, preventative maintenance on SU #2 Transformer once every 10 years.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/23/2020 Search 0620002222 10CFR55: 43.2 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EDSYD OBJ 7

TEST QID #

89 176 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as several TS surveillance's are once per shift or every 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as this is an option for pre-planned, pre-staged, preventative maintenance on SU #2 Transformer once every 10 years.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as several TS surveillance's are once per shift or every 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant must apply the LCO for the Offsite AC Electrical Distribution System.

This question is SRO Only as the applicant must apply action a of TS 3.8.1.1 and have a knowledge of the TS Basis for this action to correctly answer the question.

References:

OP 2203.012A, ACAs for 2K01, Rev. 53 Window A-4 Startup 2 L.O. Relay Trip.

TS 3.8.1.1 LCO for AC Sources, Amendment 301 Action a. along with the associated Basis for Action a.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

177 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2650 Safety Function 6

System Number 064

Title:

Emergency Diesel Generator (ED/G) System K/A A2.03

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ED/G System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Parallel operation of ED/Gs RO Imp:

3.1 SRO Imp:

3.1 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Both Units have experienced a Loss of Offsite Power.

• Both EDGs on Unit 1 start and tie to their respective safety buses.

• The A EDG on Unit 2 starts and energizes the 2A3 Safety bus.

• The B EDG on Unit 2 FAILS to start and energize the 2A4 Safety bus.

• The AACDG has been started and placed on 2A4 Safety bus.

• The LOOP EOP, OP-2202.007, has been implemented.

• The plant has been stabilized using the SDBCS.

NOW

• Offsite Power is restored and the grid is stable.

• Both SU #2 and SU#3 Transformers have operable voltages.

• 4160 VAC Non ESF Electrical Buses 2A1 and 2A2 have been energized.

To re-energize the 2A3/2A4 Safety Buses from 2A1/2A2, Section ____(1)____ of the LOOP EOP, OP-2202.007, will be used to ____(2)____ then the diesel generators can be unloaded and secured.

A. (1) 2 - SU XFMER #2 (2) de-energize 2A3 then restore from 2A1 AND parallel 2A4 (AACDG) to 2A2 B. (1) 2 - SU XFMER #2 (2) parallel 2A3 (A EDG) to 2A1 AND de-energize 2A4 then restore from 2A2 C. (1) 3 - SU XFMER #3 (2) de-energize 2A3 then restore from 2A1 AND parallel 2A4 (AACDG) to 2A2 D. (1) 3 - SU XFMER #3 (2) parallel 2A3 (A EDG) to 2A1 AND de-energize 2A4 then restore from 2A2 Answer:

D. (1) 3 - SU XFMER #3 (2) parallel 2A3 (A EDG) to 2A1 AND de-energize 2A4 then restore from 2A2 Notes:

Answer D is correct. SU XFMER #3 is the normal preferred offsite power source when the plant is shutdown and SU XFMER #2 is the backup due to its smaller size. It is also a BU power source for Unit 1 so If both are available, Unit 2 would align electrical buses to SU XFMER #3 which is Section 3 of the LOOP EOP. IAW Step 7.A of Section 3, the EDG supplied bus 2A3 will be aligned to offsite using 2104.036 then unloaded and secured per Section 3 Step 8. IAW Step 7.B.2 &3, The AACDG supplied bus 2A4 will be de-energized first and then re-energized from 2A2. The AACDG cannot Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/24/2020 Search 064000A203 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

2 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-EDG OBJ 11 TEST QID #

90 178 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 be paralleled with 2A2 when supplying 2A4.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as Section 2 can be used if SU XFMER #3 is not available. Part 2 is incorrect as it is backwards from what the procedure directs but plausible if EDG B was running verses EDG A and the AACDG was on 2A3.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as Section 2 can be used if SU XFMER #3 is not available. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect as it is backwards from what the procedure directs but plausible if EDG B was running verses EDG A and the AACDG was on 2A3.

This question matches the K/A as it has the applicant analyze the failure of an EDG during a LOOP and then use the correct procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of the malfunction to mitigate the event and restore power back to normal.

This question is an SRO Only questions as the SRO must analyze the conditions and select the correct section of the LOOP procedure to mitigate the event and restore power back to normal.

References:

OP 2202.007, LOOP EOP, Rev. 18 Section 1 Steps 29 &30 AND Section 3 Steps 7 & 8.

OP 2104.036 EDG Operations, Rev. 99 Steps 13.3 and 13.4.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

179 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2651 Safety Function 1

System Number 014

Title:

Rod Position Indication System (RPIS)

K/A A2.07

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RPIS and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Loss of reed switch RO Imp:

2.6 SRO Imp:

2.9 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Coming out of the last refueling outage RSPT #1 to Group "P" CEA # 25 failed at power.

• After troubleshooting I&C determined the problem to be on top of the Reactor Head.

• The decision was made to repair CEA #25 RSPT #1 during the next Refueling Outage.

• A plant up power to 100% is in progress following Turbine valve testing.

• Group "P" is being used for ASI Control during the up power.

• CEA #25 position is being monitored by CEAC #2 and Pulse Counters.

NOW

• Annunciator 2K10 C-1 "MAJOR CEA DEVIATION" comes in.

• The CBOT reports that the pulse counter for CEA #25 has stopped updating.

• CEA #25 indicates 131 inches on the PMS and 137 inches on CEAC #2.

• All other CEAs in Group P indicated 137 inches withdrawn on all indications.

• I&C has commenced troubleshoot CEA #25 pulse counter position indication.

• The Shift Manager declares CEA #25 pulse counting indication inoperable.

Based on these conditions, two CEA position indicator channels for CEA #25 MUST be restored to an operable status within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> OR use ____(1)____ to place ____(2)____.

A. (1) OP-2102.004, Power Operations, Section 12, Emergent PWR Reduction (2) the plant in HOT STANDBY at 14%/hr within the NEXT 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> B. (1) OP-2102.004, Power Operations, Section 12, Emergent PWR Reduction (2) the plant in HOT SHUTDOWN within the following 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> C. (1) OP-2105.009, CEDM Control OPs, Exhibit 3, CEDMCS Operations (2) ALL CEAs in Group "P" to 131 inches withdrawn within the initial 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> D. (1) OP-2105.009. CEDM Control OPs, Exhibit 3, CEDMCS Operations (2) ALL CEAs in Group "P" at the fully withdrawn position within the initial 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> Answer:

D. (1) OP-2105.009. CEDM Control OPs, Exhibit 3, CEDMCS Operations (2) ALL CEAs in Group "P" at the fully withdrawn position within the initial 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> Notes:

Answer D is correct. TS 3.1.3.2, CEA Position Indicating Channels - Operating, requires 2 of 3 position indicating channels for each CEA to be operable. If not, then 2 have to be restored within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> OR be in Hot Standby within the initial 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> if Not Restored during the initial 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> OR Position the CEA with the inoperable position indicators at its Source:

NEW Rev:

1 Rev Date: 10/22/2020 Search 014000A207 10CFR55: 43.2 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-CEDM OBJ 17 TEST QID #

91 180 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 fully withdrawn or fully inserted position while maintaining the requirements of Specifications 3.1.3.1, 3.1.3.5, and 3.1.3.6. OP 2105.009. CEDM Control OPs, Exhibit 3, CEDMCS Operations would be used to place CEA #25 at the full out position along with the rest of the CEAs within its group to maintain the requirements of Specifications 3.1.3.1, 3.1.3.5, and 3.1.3.6 Distractor A is incorrect. The power reduction is not required if action c. of TS 3.1.3.2 is taken within the initial 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> but plausible as this would be an action if a CEA misalignment condition existed per OP2203.003, CEA Malfunction but the inward misalignment must be > 7 inches for this procedure to be applicable. In Part 2, the requirement in TS 3.1.3.2 Action b. requires the plant to be in Hot Standby within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> from declaring the pulse counter inoperable - not the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> after trying to repair the CEA position indicating channel. Plausible as some TS do allow an additional 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> from end of restoration time to be in hot standby The CEA Malfunction AOP 2203.003 direct a plant shutdown at 14%/hr for some CEA misalignment issues.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as the power reduction is not required if action c. of TS 3.1.3.2 is taken within the initial 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> but plausible as this would be an action if a CEA misalignment condition existed per OP2203.003, CEA Malfunction but the inward misalignment must be > 7 inches for this procedure to be applicable. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as some TS do direct an additional 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> from end of allowed restoration/ HOT STANBY time to be in HOT SHUTDOWN.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is the correct procedure listed and plausible as this exhibit would be used during any down power for CEA manipulation for ASI control. Part 2 is incorrect as the TS requires a full out or full in position but plausible for a CEA deviation as the CEA Operability TS 3.3.3.1 and the CEA malfunction procedure drives actions to ensure all CEA within a group are aligned within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> however in this case the CEAs are actually aligned. Only the position indication has failed.

This question matches the K/A as it requires procedure use to address the CEA Position indications actions required at power with one of the CEA Reed switches inoperable and failure of a second indication.

This question is SRO Only as it requires the SRO to apply the actions associated with TS 3.1.3.2 and selection of the correct procedure section/exhibit to select to address a CEA indication malfunction.

References:

OP 2105.001, CPC/CEAC Operations, Rev. 50, Step 8.1 TS 3.1.3.2 Position Indicator Channels - Operating, Amendment 208 all actions.

OP 2203.003, CEA Malfunction, Rev. 26, Note above Step 4 which eliminates use of this procedure which would require a potential down power. Also steps 7 and 40.

OP 2102.004, Power Operation, Rev. 68, Section 12 Emergent Power Reduction.

Annunciator 2K10 C-1 "MAJOR CEA DEVIATION" Rev. 46, Steps 2.3 and 2.4 OP 2105.009, CEDM Control System, Rev. 44, Exhibit 3 CEDMCS Operations, Step 3.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

181 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2652 Safety Function 7

System Number 017

Title:

In-Core Temperature Monitor (ITM) System K/A 2.1.7

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

RO Imp:

4.4 SRO Imp:

4.7 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

• • • • • • • • • • REFERENCE PROVIDED**********

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is at 100% power.

• A LOCA occurs in the RCS.

• ESFAS Actuations SIAS, CCAS, CIAS, and CSAS come in.

• All ESFAS Equipment actuated as designed.

• The Loss of Coolant Accident EOP, OP-2202.003, is being implemented.

• RP reports there are no indications of a radiation release from Containment.

After entering the LOCA EOP, the ATC reports:

• RCS Pressure is 1300 psia and trending down.

• RVLMS Level 8 and above indicate DRY.

• Incore Average CET temperature is 595°F and lowering.

• Containment pressure is 35 psia and rising.

• HPSI Flow is acceptable IAW Exhibit 2 of OP-2202.010, Standard Attachments Based on the above conditions, the Shift Manager WILL declare a(n) ____(1)____.

NOW 15 minutes later after the first report, the ATC Reports:

• RCS Pressure is 1100 psia and trending down.

• RVLMS Level 2 and above indicate DRY.

• Incore Average CET temperature is 540°F and lowering.

• Containment pressure is 40 psia and rising.

Based on the conditions, the CRS WILL ____(2)____.

A. (1) ALERT (2) REMAIN in the LOCA EOP Procedure Section 3 "Unisolated LOCA" B. (1) SAE (2) REMAIN in the LOCA EOP procedure Section 3 "Unisolated LOCA" C. (1) ALERT (2) GO TO the Functional Recovery EOP Procedure HR-2 "SG Heat Sink with SIAS" D. (1) SAE (2) GO TO the Functional Recovery EOP Procedure HR-2 "SG Heat Sink with SIAS" Answer:

Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/28/2020 Search 0170002107 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ELOCA OBJ 2/11 TEST QID #

92 182 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 B. (1) SAE (2) REMAIN in the LOCA EOP procedure Section 3 "Unisolated LOCA" Notes:

Answer B is correct. According to the criteria in OP 1903.010, there is a loss of the RCS barrier (ESFAS actuation with unisolable RCS leakage) and a potential Loss of the Fuel Cladding Barrier (RVLMS Levels 1 through 7 indicate DRY for Unit 2). There are no indications of a Loss of the Containment Barrier so therefore based on OP 1903.010 Discussion Item 2.3, Fission Product Barrier Classification Criteria, a Loss or Potential Loss of any two barriers would be a Site Area Emergency. The Safety Function Status Check (SFSC) in the LOCA EOP 2202.003 for Core Heat Removal is not being met for Acceptance Criteria A, B, or C, initially but 15 minutes later, the ESFAS actions have recovered the safety functions so per Step 2 of the LOCA EOP Safety Function Status Check, Page 50 of 68, Rev. 16, of OP-2202.003 LOCA EOP, the CRS should remain in the LOCA EOP instead of transitioning to the Functional Recovery Procedure (FRP) as no additional actions in the FRP can be taken for this event.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as an ALERT would be declared for a Loss or Potential Loss of either Fuel Clad or RCS Barrier. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as an ALERT would be declared for a Loss or Potential Loss of either Fuel Clad or RCS Barrier. Part 2 is incorrect because the safety functions were recovered within 15 to 30 minutes per Step 2 of the LOCA EOP Safety Function Status Check, Page 50 of 68, Rev. 16, of OP-2202.003 LOCA EOP, so the LOCA EOP can remain in effect. Plausible as this is the section of the Functional Recovery EOP (FRP) Procedure that would be implemented if the FRP were entered.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect because the safety functions were recovered within 15 to 30 minutes per Step 2 of the LOCA EOP Safety Function Status Check, Page 50 of 68, Rev. 16, of OP-2202.003 LOCA EOP, so the LOCA EOP can remain in effect. Plausible as this is the section of the Functional Recovery EOP (FRP) Procedure that would be implemented if the FRP were entered.

This question matches the K/A as it requires the applicant to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation including the Incore instruments temperature monitoring system and the incore RVLMS temperature instruments.

This question is an SRO Only question as it requires knowledge of the EPLAN procedures to determine the correct EAL Call and the SRO must realize his implementing procedure SFSCs are met within 30 minutes and remain in the LOCA EOP recovery procedure.

OP 1903.010 Emergency Action Level Unit 2 Wall Chart, Rev. 0, will be provided to the SRO applicants as a reference.

References:

OP 1903.010 EAL Classification, Rev. 59, Attachment 1 EAL Technical Basis Table [2] F-1 Fission Product Barrier Threshold Matrix., RCS Barrier RCB1, Fuel Clad Barrier FCB1, and Discussion Item 2.3, Fission Product Barrier Classification Criteria.

LOCA EOP Procedure OP 2202.003, Rev. 16, SFSC for Core Heat Removal, and Exit Conditions 1, SFSC Steps 2 and 7.

Functional Recovery EOP OP 2202.009, Rev. 24, Entry Condition 2.

STM 2-75, RVLMS, Rev. 99 Section 2.1.

STM 2-67-2 Incore Flux Monitoring System, Rev. 6, Section 2.1 OP 1903.010 Emergency Action Level Unit 2 Wall Chart, Rev. 0, will be provided to the SRO applicants as a reference.

Historical Comments:

Modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank ID# 1912 used previously on the ANO Unit 2 2012 NRC SRO Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

183 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2653 Safety Function 8

System Number 034

Title:

Fuel Handling Equipment System (FHES)

K/A A2.03

==

Description:==

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Fuel Handling System and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: - Mispositioned fuel element RO Imp:

3.3 SRO Imp:

4.0 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• The plant is in Mode 6 with core offload in progress.

• The SFP and Refueling Canal are at 2695 ppm refueling boron concentration.

• Reactor Engineering reports to the Control Room that a fuel assembly has been placed in an incorrect location in the Spent Fuel Pool (SFP) in violation of T.S. 3.9.12.b Table 3.9-1, SFP Loading Restrictions.

Based on the requirements of TS 3.9.12, ____(1)____ MUST be suspended until the correct storage location is determined and the mispositioned fuel assembly has been moved to the correct location.

Boron concentration in the SFP ____(2)____ adequate during the time the fuel assembly is mispositioned to ensure Keff is less than or equal to 0.95 per the basis of TS 3.9.12.

A. (1) movement of other fuel assemblies in the SFP (2) IS B. (1) movement of other fuel assemblies in the SFP (2) IS NOT C. (1) movement of all fuel assemblies in Containment and SFP (2) IS D. (1) movement of all fuel assemblies in Containment and SFP (2) IS NOT Answer:

A. (1) movement of other fuel assemblies in the SFP (2) IS Notes:

Answer A is correct. TS 3.9.12 requires only movement of fuel in the SFP to be suspended. Movement of fuel in the Reactor Building may continue while repositioning the one in the SFP. Based on the conditions presented, SFP boron is greater than 2000 ppm boron. According to the bases for TS 3/9/12, as long as the SFP boron concentration is greater than 2000 ppm boron, then adequate Shutdown Margin is available even with the fuel assembly in the wrong position to ensure Keff is less than or equal to 0.95.

Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible if the applicant is not familiar with the TS 3.9.12 bases and believes that having the SFP Assemblies in the correct configuration of Table 3.9-1 is the only thing ensuring adequate Shut Down Margin (SDM) in the SFP Source:

MODIFIED Rev:

1 Rev Date: 10/22/2020 Search 034000A203 10CFR55: 43.2 Tier:

2 Group:

2 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-FH OBJ 5

TEST QID #

93 184 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as a lot of TS associated with fuel handling requires suspension of fuel movement in the RCB or all fuel movement as an action if the LCO conditions are not met. Part 2 is correct.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as a lot of TS associated with fuel handling requires suspension of fuel movement in the RCB or all fuel movement as an action if the LCO conditions are not met. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible if the applicant is not familiar with the TS 3.9.12 bases and believes that having the SFP Assemblies in the correct configuration of Table 3.9-1 is the only thing ensuring adequate SDM.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant has to predict the impact on the SDM in the SFP based on the given conditions and direct actions required by TS 3.9.12 to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of a mispositioned fuel assembly.

This question is SRO Only as the SRO must have knowledge of the basis for TS 3.9.12 to obtain the correct response.

References:

TS 3.9.12 LCO, Amendment 315, Action Requirements Basis for TS 3.9.12 (3/4.9.12)

Historical Comments:

Modified from the Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank ID# 0501 used previously on the ANO Unit 2 2005 NRC Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

185 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2654 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.1.34

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Knowledge of primary and secondary plant chemistry limits.

RO Imp:

2.7 SRO Imp:

3.5 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

The Steady State limit for Dissolved Oxygen in the RCS primary coolant is ____(1)____ and this limit is applicable

____(2)____.

A. (1) 0.10 ppm (2) At all times B. (1) 0.15 ppm (2) At all times C. (1) 0.10 ppm (2) Tave > 250°F D. (1) 0.15 ppm (2) Tave > 250°F Answer:

C. (1) 0.10 ppm (2) Tave 250°F Notes:

C is correct. TRM 3.4.1 States that the RCS chemistry shall be maintained within the limits specified in TRM Table 3.4.1-1 with an applicability At all Times; however, on Table 3.4.1-1, the Dissolved Oxygen limit has an asterisk which states that the Dissolved Oxygen limit is not applicable at Tave 250°F because corrosion due to dissolved oxygen is only degrading to the RCS materials at high temperatures.

Distractor A is incorrect. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the 3.4.1 TRM does have an applicability of "At all Time" listed on page 3.4.1-1 but the asterisk on page 3.4.1-2 makes an exception for Dissolved Oxygen Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this is the RCS chemistry limit for Chloride and Fluoride. Part 2 is incorrect but plausible as the 3.4.1 TRM does have an applicability of "At all Time" listed on page 3.4.1-1 but the asterisk on page 3.4.1-2 makes an exception for Dissolved Oxygen Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect but plausible as this is the RCS chemistry limit for Chloride and Fluoride. Part 2 is correct.

This question matches the K/A as it requires the applicant to have Knowledge of primary coolant chemistry limits and the applicability including the exceptions This question is SRO Only as it requires the applicant to know the exceptions to the RCS chemistry limits based on the notes/asterisk associated with the limits.

References:

TRM 3.4.1, Rev. 49, RCS chemistry limits on Table 3.4.1-1 Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 10/22/2020 Search 1940012134 10CFR55: 43.2 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-TS OBJ 5

TEST QID #

94 186 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam..

187 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2655 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.1.35

==

Description:==

Conduct of Operations - Knowledge of the fuel-handling responsibilities of SROs.

RO Imp:

2.2 SRO Imp:

3.9 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following;

• Unit 2 Refueling Outage is in Progress.

• The Reactor vessel head has been removed and ready for core offload.

Which of the following conditions would PREVENT the SRO in charge of fuel handling from starting core offload fuel movement in the Reactor Building?

A. The Area Rad Monitor 2RITS-8909, Personnel Hatch EL 386 FT is inoperable.

B. National Weather Service declares a Tornado Watch in effect for Conway County.

C. One Control Room Emergency Air Conditioning System (CREACS) is inoperable.

D. Outage Control Center reports that the reactor has been subcritical for 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

Answer:

D. Outage Control Center reports that the reactor has been subcritical for 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

Notes:

Answer D is correct. TS 3.9.3a Requires that the reactor must be subcritical for greater than 100 hours0.00116 days <br />0.0278 hours <br />1.653439e-4 weeks <br />3.805e-5 months <br /> prior to fuel movement.

Distractor A is incorrect, Containment Radiation Monitors are desired to be operable for monitoring radiation levels on the bridge, however if they are NOT operable, portable survey and monitoring instruments are allowed for monitoring rad levels and continuing fuel movement. Plausible as without any Rad monitors operable, then fuel movement must stop.

Distractor B is incorrect but plausible as Pope, Johnson, Yell and Logan counties in a tornado watch would require stopping fuel movement. Conway county is immediately east of Pope county and most storms move from Westward to Eastward.

Distractor C is incorrect. With one CREACS channel inoperable we have 30 days to repair prior to stopping fuel movement or the other operable unit can be placed in service. Plausible as with both CREACS inoperable, fuel movement must stop.

This question matches the K/A as the SRO must have Knowledge of the TS and administrative requirements for fuel-handling.

This is an SRO Only Question as it pertains to 10 CFR 55.43.7, Fuel handling facilities and procedures.

References:

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/24/2020 Search 1940012135 10CFR55: 43.7 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

S. Pullin L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-FH OBJ 5

TEST QID #

95 188 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 T.S 3.9.3a, Decay Time and Spent Fuel Storage, Amendment 240.

OP 2502.001, Refueling Shuffle, Rev. 59, Section 6.1, Core Offload Requirements, highlighted bullets on pages 11, 12, &

13, TS 3.7.6.1, CREACS LCO, Amendment 304 actions g and j.

Historical Comments:

Used on the ANO Unit 1 2010 NRC SRO Exam. Unit 1 ANO NRC Bank ID 0814 This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

189 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2656 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.2.5

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of the process for making design or operating changes to the facility.

RO Imp:

2.2 SRO Imp:

3.2 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Which of the following procedure changes would require a 10 CFR 50.59 Evaluation per EN-LI-101, 10 CFR 50.59 Evaluations, rather than only a PAD review per EN-LI-100, Process Applicability Determination?

A. A change that removes a step in a procedure that has been evaluated in another procedure's change.

B. A change to the acceptance criteria for the LPSI pumps' surveillance.

C. A change to correct a CVCS valve number in 2104.002, CVCS Procedure.

D. A change that adds a reference in the reference section of an operations procedure.

Answer:

B. A change to the acceptance criteria for the LPSI pumps' surveillance.

Notes:

Answer B is Correct. Any time the method used to evaluate a safety system function is changed, a 50.59 review is required.

Distractors [A], [C], [D] will have PAD reviews but do not require 50.59 reviews but plausible as they require a PAD documented review.

This question matches the K/A since the applicant must know the process for changing the operational acceptance criteria associated with a safety related piece of equipment in the IST program; specifically when a operational change would require a 10 CFR 50.59 Evaluation.

This question is an SRO only questions as 10 CFR 55.43(b)(3) Facility Licensee Procedures is Required To Obtain Authority for Design and Operating Changes in the Facility. For example: screening and evaluation processes under 10

References:

EN-LI-100, Process Applicability Determination (PAD), Rev.29, Definitions 3 &5, Steps 5.2 [1] & [4] and a Attachment 9.1 Step VI.A 50.59 Screening EN-LI-101, 10 CFR 50.59 Evaluations, Rev 20, Definition/Step {6}

Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/27/2020 Search 1940012205 10CFR55: 43.3 Historical Comments:

This Question was used on the ANO Unit 1 2014 and 2020 ANO Unit 1 NRC SRO Exam Unit 1 Exam Bank ID 0409 This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

J. Cork L. Plan:

ASLP-SRO-50.59 OBJ 5

TEST QID #

96 190 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2657 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.2.20

==

Description:==

Equipment Control - Knowledge of the process for managing troubleshooting activities.

RO Imp:

2.6 SRO Imp:

3.8 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• The Unit is at 100% power and the RED Train is protected.

• The 'B' EDG is Out of Service for a Planned 14 day outage.

• Annunciator 2K12 H-9 "EFWP ROOM(S) LEVEL HI" comes in.

• The WCO reports the bearing oil cooler solenoid 2SV-0317-2 on 2P-7A has failed open.

• Two Fin Team I&C technicians are directed to go troubleshoot the control circuit to the solenoid which is located in the EFW Pump 2P-7A control cabinet.

In accordance with EN-OP-119, Protected Equipment Postings, this troubleshooting activity would be considered

____(1)____.

In accordance with EN-OP-119, Protected Equipment Postings, the highest approval needed to conduct this troubleshooting activity would be ____(2) ____.

A. (1) HIGH IMPACT for working on protected equipment.

(2) the GMPO B. (1) MEDIUM VULNERABLE IMPACT for working near protected equipment (2) the Shift Manager C. (1) LOW IMPACT for working in protected equipment area but NOT near the equipment.

(2) any Operations Supervisor D. (1) NO IMPACT for working on non protected equipment since 2P-7A is NOT protected.

(2) the FIN SRO Answer:

A. (1) HIGH IMPACT for working on protected equipment.

(2) the GMPO Notes:

Answer A is correct. The 2P-7A EFW pump is not part of the protected RED (A) Train but based on the 'B' EDG being OOS for an Extended AOT outage, the basis for TS 3.8.1.1 Action b.3 item 7 requires 2P-7A EFW pump to be treated as protected equipment. This is also listed in EDG Operation Procedure OP 2104.036 Attachment C, EDG AOT Requirements, 10th bullet. Since this troubleshooting activity will require connecting test equipment inside the 2P-7A control cabinet, then this would be considered working on protected equipment. In accordance with EN-OP-119, Protected Equipment Postings, Attachment 2, Entry into Posted Protected Equipment/Area, this is considered a HIGH IMPACT activity and would require GMPO approval per EN-OP-119, Protected Equipment Postings, Section 5.5 Step 3 Distractor B is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as this is a HIGH Impact activity but plausible as the activity is in the control cabinet next to 2P-7A but the controls inside the cabinet also include the starting circuit for the pump. Part 2 is incorrect for a high impact activity but plausible as this would be the person to approve a Medium Vulnerable Impact activity.

Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 10/23/2020 Search 1940012220 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-SRO-MNTC OBJ 4.01 TEST QID #

97 191 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Distractor C is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as this is a HIGH Impact activity but plausible as the activity is in the control cabinet for 2P-7A and if the applicant believes the cabinet is outside the room. Part 2 is incorrect for a high impact activity but plausible as this would be the person to approve a LOW Impact activity.

Distractor D is incorrect. Part 1 is incorrect as this is a HIGH Impact activity but plausible as the activity could be considered a NO Impact activity if the applicant does not remember the EDG Extended AOT requirement to post the 2P-7A EFW pump as protected equipment Part 2 is incorrect for a high impact activity but plausible as this would be the person to approve the dispatching of the FIN I&C technicians for a NO Impact activity.

This question matches the K/A as the applicant has to have knowledge of the process for allowing troubleshooting activities to occur on protected equipment.

This question is SRO Only as the SRO would be the one to ensure appropriate approval is obtained from the GMPO for this troubleshooting activity if he is the designated shift manager. He would also authorize the start of the task and he would be the one to know that 2P-7A is protected equipment for the EDG extended AOT.

References:

OP-2203.012L, ACA for 2K12 H-9, Rev. 53, EFWP Room(s) Level HI.

TS Basis for TS 3.8.1.1 Action b.3 Rev.63, Item 7.

OP-2104.036 EDG OPS, Rev. 99, Attachment C, 10th bullet.

EN-OP-119, Protected Equipment Postings, Rev. 13, Section 5.5, Steps 1, 2, 3, and Attachments 2 & 3.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

192 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2658 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.3.11

==

Description:==

Radiological Controls - Ability to control radiation releases.

RO Imp:

3.8 SRO Imp:

4.3 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 4 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.

• OP-2203.020, High Activity in the RCS, is being implemented and actions are being taken due to the following Chemistry sample reports for RCS activity:

- 04/19/2021 at 0200, 1.4 microcuries/gram DOSE EQUVALENT I-131

- 04/20/2021 at 0330, 1.35 microcuries/gram DOSE EQUVALENT I-131

- 04/21/2021 at 0300, 1.2 microcuries/gram DOSE EQUVALENT I-131 Per Tech Spec 3.4.8 for RCS Specific Activity, from 0200 on 04/21/2021, which of the following action(s) is(are) required to control the potential release of radiation?

A. Be in at least HOT STANDBY within six (6) hours to limit offsite dose in case of a SGTR.

B. Be in COLD SHUTDOWN within thirty (30) hours to limit offsite dose in case of a Main Steam Line Break.

C. Restore RCS activity to within limits in the next 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> or place the unit in HOT STANDBY to limit offsite dose in case of a Main Steam Line Break.

D. Trip the Reactor, reduce RCS Thot to less than 535°F and isolate SGs within six (6) hour to limit offsite dose in case of a SGTR.

Answer:

A. Be in at least HOT STANDBY within six (6) hours to limit offsite dose in case of a SGTR.

Notes:

Answer A is correct. With RCS activity being above the limit (See surveillance 4.4.8.2) of 1.0 microcuries/gram DOSE EQUVALENT I-131 for greater than 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> per TS 3.4.8 Action a.2, Restore DOSE EQUIVALENT I-131 within limit within 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />, then action c, With the requirements of ACTION a not met, be in at least HOT STANDBY in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />, will become applicable. Hot Standby must be achieved within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> of exceeding 48 hour5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> with activity being above the limit so Hot Standby must be within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> of 0200 on 4/21/2021. The reason as stated in the TS Basis for TS 3.4.9 is correct: To ensure that the resulting offsite and control room doses will not exceed the applicable 10 CFR 50.67 requirements following a Main Steam Line Break (MSLB) or Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR) accident.

Distractor B is incorrect. Action c of TS 3.4.8 allows 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> to achieve HOT STANDBY and then COLD SHUTDOWN in the following 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />. Plausible as this action is part of TS 3.4.8 action c. and the reason is correct.

Distractor C is incorrect. RCS activity has been above 1 microcuries/gram DOSE EQUVALENT I-131 for > 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> so now T.S. 3.4.8 action c call for a shutdown to HOT STANDBY. Plausible as TS 3.4.8 action a.2 allows 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> from Source:

BANK Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/28/2020 Search 1940012311 10CFR55: 43.4 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Foster L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ARCSA OBJ 5

TEST QID #

98 193 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 initially exceeding the RCS activity limit for DOSE EQUVALENT I-131. Main Steam Line Break is also plausible per the basis for TS 3.4.8.

Distractor D is incorrect. Plausible as T.S 3.4.8 would required taking the Unit off line. Also plausible as the SGTR EOP directs lowering Th to <535°F to allow isolation of the ruptured S/G within one hour. However, there is no indication of a SGTR therefore this is not required and if a SGTR was present only one S/G would be isolated, not both.

This question matches the K/A as it requires analysis of the conditions and TS 3.4.8 requirements and take actions to control the potential radiation release should an accident occur.

This question is SRO Only as the SRO must apply the actions of TS 3.4.8 and have knowledge of the TS 3.4.8 Basis.

References:

OP-2203.020, High Activity in RCS, Rev 015, Entry Conditions & Steps 2 and 5.

TS LCO 3.4.8, Amendment 315, Actions a and c.

TS 3/4.4.8 Basis Amendment 63 Historical Comments:

This is an ANO Unit 2 NRC Exam Bank QID 2169 used on the ANO 2014-2 Retake NRC SRO Exam.

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

194 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2659 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.4.37

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Knowledge of the lines of authority during implementation of the emergency plan.

RO Imp:

3.0 SRO Imp:

4.1 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 2 Taxonomy: M Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 trips due to a Steam Generator Tube Rupture.

• The Unit 2 Shift Manager (SM) declares a SITE AREA EMERGENCY (SAE).

• 30 minutes into the event, the SM has a heart attack and is transported offsite.

• The CRS assume the Emergency Director and Control Authority (ED).

• A replacement Unit 2 SM was contacted and will be onsite within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

One hour later:

• The TSC, OSC, and EOF have become fully Operational.

• The replacement SM arrives 15 minutes after the above ERO is Operational.

NOW based on the above conditions, the CRS would transfer the authority to perform Emergency Direction and Control for the SAE to the ____________.

A. TSC Emergency Plant Manger B. OSC Manager of Operations C. EOF Emergency Director D. Replacement Shift Manager Answer:

C. EOF Emergency Director Notes:

Answer C is correct. IAW EN-EP-801 Attachment 5, when the EOF is activated the EOF Emergency Director will receive a turnover from the current Emergency Director and Assume Command and Control Authority for the SAE.

Distractor A is incorrect but plausible as the title "Emergency Plant Manager (EPM)" implies a higher authority during an emergency and the TSC EPM does provide information and recommendations to the ED but IAW EN-EP-801 Attachment 3, this position is not responsible to assume the ED position Distractor B is incorrect but plausible as the title "OSC Manager of Operations" implies a higher authority during an emergency and the OSC does provide operational support needs but IAW EN-EP-801 Attachment, this position is not responsible to assume the ED position Distractor D is incorrect but plausible as the Shift Manager is a higher authority during an emergency and the Shift Manager is a fully qualified EDs but IAW OP 1903.011, Emergency Response/Notifications, Step 4.0 Definition 4 and Step 5.0, Responsibilities 1 and 2, the ED authority would be transferred to the Emergency Director once the EOF is Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/29/2020 Search 1940012437 10CFR55: 43.1 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

ASLP-RO-EPLAN OBJ 4

TEST QID #

99 195 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 activated.

This question matches the K/A since the applicant must recall the responsibility of the CRS (SRO) during an emergency event associated with the lines of authority during implementation of the emergency plan.

This question is SRO Only since it is linked to 10CFR55.42(b)(5) and is a specific responsibility of the SRO licensed CRS on duty in the Control Room.

References:

EN-EP-801, Emergency Response Organization, Rev.17, Attachments 2, 3, 4, and 5 Responsibilities for the SM, TSC EPM, OSC Manager of Operations, and the EOF ED.

1903.011, Emergency Response/Notifications, Rev. 58, Definition 4.0 (4), and Responsibilities 5.0 (1 & 2)

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

196 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 Bank: 2660 Safety Function System Number GENERIC

Title:

Generic K/A 2.4.23

==

Description:==

Emergency Procedures/Plan - Knowledge of the bases for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation during emergency operations.

RO Imp:

3.4 SRO Imp:

4.4 Lic Level: SRO Difficulty: 3 Taxonomy:

C Question:

Consider the following:

• Unit 2 is shutting down due to Excess RCS Leakage.

• The CRS has implemented OP-2203.016, Excess RCS Leakage AOP.

• The RCS Leakage has increased to 40 gpm with Letdown isolated.

• NOW a complete Loss of Offsite Power occurs.

• EDG #2 fails to start due to low lube oil pressure.

After completion of SPTAs, the correct guidance to use would be to ____(1)____.

The basis for using this procedure is ____(2)____.

A. (1) continue with OP-2203.016, Excess RCS Leakage AOP (2) RCS leak is still within the capacity of the available Charging Pumps B. (1) implement OP-2202.007, LOOP EOP Recovery Procedure (2) Vital Auxiliaries is a higher safety function than RCS Inventory C. (1) implement OP-2202.003, LOCA EOP Recovery Procedure (2) the LOCA EOP has steps in it to restore offsite power.

D. (1) implement OP-2202.009, Functional Recovery EOP Procedure (2) there is more than one event in progress at this time.

Answer:

C. (1) implement OP-2202.003, LOCA EOP Recovery Procedure (2) the LOCA EOP has steps in it to restore offsite power.

Notes:

Answer C is correct. IAW OP 1015.021, ANO-2 EOP/AOP Users Guide, Step 5.5.4, If offsite power is not available the user should transition to the EOP for the event diagnosed as follows: IF 2203.016, Excess RCS Leakage AND Loss of Offsite Power, THEN GO TO 2202.003, Loss of Coolant Accident. The basis for this is each ANO Unit 2 single event EOP LOCA, SGTR, ESD, LOF, SBO has steps in them to address restoration of power to Vital Auxiliaries. The single event EOPs also address natural circulation conditions.

Distractor A is incorrect based on OP 1015.021, ANO-2 EOP/AOP Users Guide, Step 5.5.4. Plausible as the RCS leak is still within the capacity of the available charging pumps and the Excess RCS Leakage AOP will address natural circulation conditions.

Distractor B is incorrect based on 1015.021, ANO-2 EOP/AOP Users Guide, Step 5.5.4. Plausible as Vital Auxiliaries are a higher safety function than RCS Inventory and the applicant must understand the basis of placing steps in all the single event EOPs to restore power to obtain the correct response. Also the LOOP EOP Entry Conditions are Met. The basis for Source:

NEW Rev:

0 Rev Date: 7/29/2020 Search 1940012423 10CFR55: 43.5 Tier:

3 Group:

1 Author:

Coble L. Plan:

A2LP-RO-ESPTA OBJ 9

TEST QID #

100 197 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet

Data Sheets for 2021 NRC RO/SRO Exam 28-Dec-20 using the LOOP EOP is for a Loss of Offsite Power Only.

Distractor D is incorrect based on 1015.021, ANO-2 EOP/AOP Users Guide, Step 5.5.4. Plausible as there is more than one event in progress at this time which is an entry condition for the Functional Recovery EOP Procedure. Also the Diagnostic Flow Chart in OP 2202.010, Exhibit 8 will be used to direct the SRO to the appropriate EOP.

This question matches the K/A as it requires the applicant to have a knowledge of the basis for prioritizing the LOCA EOP Recovery procedure over the LOOP, FRP, and Excess RCS Leakage AOP.

This question is SRO Only because the SRO/CRS position is the one responsible to diagnose and prioritize the correct implementing procedure after SPTAs and he must understand the basis for his decision based on knowledge of the ANO-2 EOP/AOP Users Guide.

References:

OP 1015.021,ANO-2 EOP/AOP Users Guide, Rev.19, Step 5.5.4.

OP 2202.010, Standard Attachments, Rev. 30, Exhibit 8, Diagnostic Actions.

Historical Comments:

This question was proposed for the 2021 NRC Exam.

198 Form ES-401-5 Written Exam Question Worksheet