ML020250037

Final - RO & SRO Written

ML020250037
Person / Time
Site:	Millstone
Issue date:	01/04/2002
From:	Wilson M Dominion Nuclear Connecticut
To:	Conte R NRC/RGN-I/DRS/OSB
Conte R
References
50-423/01302
Download: ML020250037 (193)

Text

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 1 SRO 1 Tier # 1 1 Group# 1 1 K/A# 005.K2.01 Importance Rating 2.5 2.5 Proposed Question:

During power operation it is discovered Bank 'D' Group 1 rods will not move. Investigation reveals a single slave cycler is not putting out the correct current orders to the affected coils.

Which of the following statement explains why the affected rods are, or are not considered trippable?

A. The affected rods are trippable because there is a control system failure.

B. The affected rods are not trippable because there is a control system failure.

C. The affected rods are trippable because the coil currents will not vary greatly from their normal pattern.

D. The affected rods are not trippable because there is a problem with the control rod stepping sequence.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

'A' correct, Note prior to step 1 states that "rods trippability may be confirmed by verification of control system failure, usually electrical in nature or verification of a failure associated with a control rod stepping mechanism" (such as a failed slave cycler).

'B' incorrect, affected rods are trippable with a control system failure.

'C' incorrect, trippability is not linked to coil current variations.

'D' incorrect, affected rods are trippable with a failed slave cycler.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3552, Att. D, Step 1 Note (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03902 Discuss the basis of major precautions, procedure (As available)

Objective: steps and/or sequence of steps within AOP 3552.

Question Source: Bank # 65042 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 2 SRO Tier #

Group #

K/A # E09.KI .02 _ ___

Importance Rating 3.3_____ _

Proposed Question:

Off site power is lost due to an approaching hurricane, and sustained wind speeds of 95 mph are expected on site within 6-8 hours. The crew is preparing to commence a natural circulation cooldown of the RCS.

How is the implementation of ES-0.2, "Natural Circulation Cooldown", affected by these conditions?

A. The crew will maintain RCS pressure at 1950 psia throughout the cooldown.

B. When the crew reaches step 16 of ES-0.2, they should leave the accumulator isolation valves open.

C. The crew should maintain a minimum of 132 0 F subcooling based on core exit TCs during the cooldown.

D. Prior to commencing the cooldown, the crew will transition to ES-0.3 "Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Void in Vessel (with RVLMS)".

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

'B' is correct per ES-0.2 note prior to step 7

'A' incorrect, depressurizing the RCS is desired to approach accumulator injection pressure to mitigate the impact of a potential loss of all AC.

'C' incorrect, this is the action required if CRDM fans are lost.

'D' incorrect, 6-8 hours is adequate time to cooldown to 400 degrees F and a void in the vessel is not desired.

Technical Reference(s): ES-0.2 Note prior to step 7. (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 05944 Discuss the basis of major procedure steps and/or sequence (As Objective: of steps in EOP 35 ES-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown. available)

Question Source: Bank # 67596 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41. 8 and 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 3 SRO 3 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A# 024. K2.04 Importance Rating 2.6 2.5 Proposed Question:

What is the limit on net charging flow (Charging + Seal Injection - RCP Seal Return) when Emergency Boration is aligned by gravity drain from the BAT to the charging pump suction?

A. 5 gpm B. 33 gpm C. 50 gpm D. 75 gpm Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

Charging flow is limited to 75 gpm when gravity boration is utilized from the BAT to the charging pump suction to prevent the loss of gravity drain flow due to excessive charging pump flow.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3566, step 1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 03961, Describe the major action categories contained (As available)

Objective: within AOP-3566, Immediate Boration.

Question Source: Bank # 65130 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.8 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 4 SRO 4 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A # 026.GEN.2.4.10 Importance Rating 3.0 3.1 Proposed Question:

During normal operations with the unit at 100% power, the following alarms are received on annunciator panel MBIC:

"* RPCCW HEADER SPLY FLOW HI

"* RPCCW SUCT HDR A PRESS LO

"* RPCCW SURGE TK LEVEL LO With these alarms active and valid, from the list below choose the most correct immediate crew response:

A. VERIFY "A" RPCCW Pump has tripped.

VERIFY RPCCW CTMT cross connect valves have opened.

Go To AOP 3561, "Loss of Reactor Plant Component Cooling Water".

B. REMOVE RPCCW loads from the affected train.

SHIFT RPCCW pumps and Heat Exchangers.

Go To AOP 3561, "Loss of Reactor Plant Component Cooling Water".

C. OPEN 3CCP-LV20, RPCCW Surge Tank Fill Valve.

Send Operator to check for ruptured Service Water piping.

Go To AOP 3560, "Loss of Service Water".

D. OPEN 3CCP-LV20, RPCCW Surge Tank Fill Valve.

Send Operator to check for ruptured RPCCW piping.

Go To AOP 3561, "Loss of Reactor Plant Component Cooling Water".

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

A wrong: Plausible since a low suction pressure condition exists, and entry condition is met for AOP 3561, Loss of RPCCW.

B wrong: Plausible since these are actions related to RPCCW Heat Exchanger Outlet Temperature Hi/Lo alarm (MBIC,4-6).

C wrong: Plausible since these are the correct actions for low surge tank level and rupture of EDG cooler flow low alarm (MB1C,3-1).

D correct: Correct, per MBIC, 4-7 and MBIC, 2-7B 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Technical Reference(s): OP3353.MB1C, 2-7B, 3-7A, and 4-7 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective: MC-04155 Describe the operation of the RPCCW (As available) system under the following... CCP system leak...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 5 SRO 5 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 2 K/A# 027. K3.03 Importance Rating 3.7 4.1 Proposed Question:

The following sequence of events occurs:

1. A SGTR occurs on the "B" SG

2. The crew is in E-3 "Steam Generator Tube Rupture", and is preparing to depressurize the RCS to minimize break flow and refill the pressurizer.

3. When the RO attempts to commence spraying the pressurizer with the normal spray valves, neither spray valve will open.

What method will the crew use to depressurize the RCS, and why?

A. Depressurize the RCS using a Pzr PORV, to minimize thermal stresses on the spray nozzle.

B. Depressurize the RCS using a Pzr PORV, to prevent adverse containment conditions.

C. Depressurize the RCS using the auxiliary spray valve to provide a more controlled depressurization rate than using the Pzr PORVs.

D. Depressurize the RCS using the auxiliary spray valve to minimize the loss of reactor coolant.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

A Pzr PORV should be used instead of aux spray ("C" and "D" wrong) to minimize thermal stresses on the spray nozzle ("A" correct and "B" wrong), and since aux spray may not be sufficient to rapidly decrease RCS pressure. "C" and "D"are plausible since aux spray is preferred in ES-3.1 if letdown is in service. "B" is plausible since this is a reason given supporting the use of aux spray.

Technical Reference(s): ERG bkgd for E-3, step 17, pg 99 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective: MC-04372 Discuss the bases of major steps or (As available) sequence of steps in EOP35 E-3.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 6 SRO 6 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A # 040.K1.05 Importance Rating 4.1 4.4 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* The reactor is at End of Life

"* The reactor has just been returned to criticality after an extended shutdown period.

"* Tave is 557 0 F.

A major steamline break occurs on one main steam line. All equipment operates as designed, except for the most reactive rod, which sticks fully withdrawn on the reactor trip.

According to the FSAR, which of the following describes the function Safety Injection provides for this limiting event?

A. Limit peak power following recriticality by boron injection.

B. Limit PTS concerns by limiting the cooldown.

C. Prevent loss of pressure control by refilling the pressurizer.

D. Prevent a return to criticality.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

The cooldown can be stopped by isolating the steam break, or by stopping feed to the faulted SG, and allowing it to dry out. SI water will not stop the cooldown ("B" incorrect). The analysis does not cover return of control systems or refill of the pressurizer, and pressure control is difficult with SI injecting on a secondary fault. Pressure will be maintained by cycling Pzr PORVs ("C" incorrect). SI provides borated water which adds negative reactivity to compensate for the positive reactivity added due to the cooldown. It is assumed that the reactor returns to criticality prior to SI water reaching the core, and that the power reached will be limited by the addition of borated water adding negative reactivity ("A" correct, "D" wrong). "B" is plausible since cooldown adds thermal stress to the RCS. "C" is plausible since the cooldown causes a shrinkage of the RCS inventory, emptying the pressurizer.

Technical Reference(s): FSAR 15.1.5 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-04881 Describe the major parameter changes associated (As available)

Objective: with increased heat removal by the Secondary System.

Question Source: Bank # 70074 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 7 SRO Tier # 1 Group # 1 K/A# W/EO8.GEN.2.4.21 Importance Rating 3.7 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* A loss of offsite power has occurred.

"* The crew has been performing a natural circulation cooldown per ES-0.2 "Natural Circulation Cooldown".

"* Manual Status Tree Monitoring is in effect.

"* At 0900, the lowest reading RCS Tcold reads 500°F A large steamline break occurs in Containment. At 1000, the STA checks the integrity status tree, and observes that RCS cold leg temperature has cooled down to 380°F.

What is the color of the RCS Integrity Status Tree at 1000?

A. Green B. Yellow C. Orange D. Red Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Status tree will indicate green until you have > 100F/Hr cooldown in any cold leg, and temperature is <286°F. The status tree turns yellow at <286°F ("A" correct, "B" wrong). The status tree turns orange at 256°F ("C" wrong), and red below a variable setpoint <256 0 F ("D" wrong). "B", "C", and "D"are plausible since a cooldown > 100°F has occurred.

Technical Reference(s): 35 EOP F.04 Integrity Status Tree (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04551, Identify plant conditions that require entry into (As available)

Objective: EOP 35 FR-P.1.

Question Source: New 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

Sample Written Examination ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 8 SRO 8 Tier # 1 1

Group # 1 1 K/A# 051 .GEN.2.4.35 Importanice Rating 3.3 3.5 Proposed Question:

Reactor power is steady at 40% when condenser backpressure starts to increase.

0 The crew has entered AOP 3559, "Loss of Condenser Vacuum".

0 Condenser backpressure is 4.1 inches Hga and increasing.

What action should a PEO currently be performing outside of the control room?

A. Adjusting gland seal pressure to between 2 and 6 psig.

B. Verifying that one process vent fan is running.

C. Closing steam dump isolation valves per AOP 3550 "Turbine Generator Trip".

D. Closing the feeder breaker on 32T to MCC32-3T per ES-0.1 "Reactor Trip Response".

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct, since the condenser air ejectors discharge to the process vent system. "A" is wrong, since this action is performed from the main boards. "C" and "D" are wrong since the foldout page of AOP 3559 requires a reactor trip if condenser backpressure is > 7.5" Hg, or > 5 inches and turbine load is < 360 MWe (30% reactor power). "A" is plausible since this is an action in AOP 3559.

"C" is plausible since power is 40%, and AOP 3550 would normally be entered if a turbine trip setpoint was exceeded. "D" is plausible since if a trip setpoint was reached per AOP 3559 foldout page, E-0 should be entered rather than AOP 3550, since the condenser is not available.

Technical AOP 3559, steps 3.d and 4 (Attach if not previously provided)

SI

• g J Reference(s): AOP 3559 Foldout Page Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03924, Discuss conditions which require use of or transition (As available)

Objective: to other procedures when performing action of AOP 3559.

Question Source: Modified Bank # 64308 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 9 SRO 9 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A# 055.K1.02 Importance Rating 4.1 4.4 Proposed Question:

PLANT CONDITIONS:

"* A loss of all AC power event is in progress.

"* The crew is depressurizing the steam generators to 260 psig.

"* RCS pressure is 1400 psia and decreasing.

"* The RO reports that PZR level is rapidly increasing.

Which of the following actions should be taken by the crew?

A. Continue the depressurization; this is an expected plant response.

B. Continue the depressurization; accumulators are injecting into the RCS.

C. Halt the depressurization and vent the reactor vessel head to remove the voids.

D. Halt the depressurization and allow RCS pressure to rise to collapse the voids.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

"A" is correct, and "C" and "D" are wrong, since PZR level may be lost and reactor vessel upper head voiding may occur due to depressurization of SGs. Depressurization shall NOT be stopped to prevent these occurrences, and one indication of voiding is rapidly increasing PZR level. "B" is wrong since accumulator pressure is 660 psia. "B" is plausible, since one of the main goals of the depressurization is accumulator injection. "C" and "D"are plausible, since these actions are used in other procedures to collapse voids.

Technical Reference(s): ECA-0.0 Note prior to step 17. (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03852, Discuss the basis of major procedure steps and/or (As available)

Objective: sequence of steps in EOP 35 ECA-0.0.

Question Source: Modified Bank # 67590 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 10 SRO 10 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A# 057 '.A2.20 Importance Rating 3.3 3.9 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, the following sequence of events occurs:

1. A loss of power to VIAC-1 occurs.

2. The operators take prompt action to stabilize SG levels

3. The crew enters AOP 3564 "Loss of One Protective System Channel".

4. Rods are placed in MANUAL.

5. The crew has selected the alternate channel on turbine impulse pressure, and has defeated loop 1 Tave.

Assuming power is not restored to the VIAC, what action(s) is (are) physically required at the NIS drawers for NIS channel N-41 in order to restore proper automatic operation of rod control?

A. The "Comparator Channel Defeat" switch must be taken to "bypass" only.

B. The "Power Mismatch Bypass Switch" must be taken to "bypass" only.

C. Both the "Comparator Channel Defeat" switch and the "Rod Stop Bypass" switch must be taken to "bypass".

D. Both the "Power Mismatch Bypass" switch and the "Rod Stop Bypass" switch must be taken to "bypass".

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

The "Power Mismatch Bypass" switch removes the faulty channel from input to rod control. The "Comparator Channel Defeat" switch compares all 4 NIS channels, and provides an annunciator if the highest reading channel differs from the lowest channel by >2% ("A" and "C" wrong). Since C 2 is a 1/4 coincidence, and deenergizes to actuate, the "Rod Stop Bypass" switch must also be operated ("D" correct, "B" wrong). "A" and "C" are plausible, since this switch is also operated on a failed NIS channel. "A" and "B" are plausible since many coincidences are 2/4, in which case the "Rod Stop Bypass" switch would not have to be operated.

Technical AOP3564, step 2; AOP 3571, Att. D, pg 2 of 4. (Attach if not previously Reference(s): OP 3353.MB4C, 3-3; Functional sheet 9 provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05225 Describe the operation of the NIS system controls and (As Objective: interlocks... Control Interlocks... Comparator Channel Defeat... Rod available)

Stop Bypass...

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 11 SRO Tier# 1#

Group # 1 K/A # 062.GEN.2.4.24 Importance Rating 3.3 Proposed Question:

A loss of all service water has occurred, and the crew has entered AOP 3560, LOSS OF SERVICE WATER. No service water pumps can be started, and the crew isolates letdown and trips the reactor.

Which PRA significant local PEO action is also required by the AOP 3560, Attachment "B" under these condions?

A. Trip all RCPs from the 6.9KV switchgear.

B. Start all traveling water screens in fast speed at the intake structure.

C. Isolate seal injection at the Auxiliary Building 4 foot level.

D. Establish alternate cooling to the charging pump cooling system.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

AOP 3560 directs using Attachments "A" and "B" as guidance if a transition to E-0 is made.

Attachment "A" has RCP trip criteria and Attachment "B" is the feed and bleed procedure. "A" is wrong since RCPs are tripped from the control room. "C" is wrong since the crew has isolated letdown, so the VCT is not heating up. "D" is correct since service water cools the charging pump cooling water heat exchangers.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3560 Attachment "B" (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03927 Describe the major action categories (As available)

Objective: contained within AOP-3560.

Question Source: Bank # 63926 Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 12 SRO 12 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A # Plant Specific Plant Specific Importance Rating N/A N/A Proposed Question:

The crew is responding to an out of control fire in the Battery Bus 5 area.

A relief shift PEO is sent to the C02 electro-mechanical pull box (pilot valve) to manually initiate C02 to the East Switchgear Room.

What would be the consequences of the PEO failing to return the pull box handle to the closed position after the required time?

A. The 60 second pre-discharge timer would be defeated, causing the C02 discharge to begin immediately.

B. The initial discharge timer would be defeated, keeping both the initial and extended discharge valve open throughout the discharge.

C. The extended discharge timer is defeated, discharging the entire contents of the C02 storage tanks contents into the area.

D. The electric timer will be defeated because the fire panels will not receive a signal from the system.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"Caution: Manual initiation at the electro-mechanical pull boxes bypasses the extended discharge timer. After the elapsed time posted on the pull box placard is exceeded, the operator must close both electro-mechanical valves to prevent discharging the entire C02 tank into the affected area."

Technical Reference(s): OP 3341C, step 4.5.6 Note (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04574 Describe the function and location of the following C02 Fire (As Objective: Protection (FPL) system components... Electro-Mechanical Pull Box available)

Question Source: Bank # 67316 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 13 SRO 13 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A # 068.A2.08 Importance Rating 3.9 4.1 Proposed Question:

With the plant initially at full power, the following sequence of events occurs:

1. The crew enters EOP 3503 "Shutdown Outside Control Room due to toxic gas in the control room.

2. The crew completes all EOP 3503 control room steps prior to evacuating.

Assuming that no operator action has been taken to control RCS temperature, at what temperature should RCS Tave stabilize?

A. 553 0 F B. 557 0 F C. 561°F D. 567 0 F Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

EOP 3503 has the operators close the MSIVs prior to the evacuation, if possible. The closure of the MSIVs will isolate the main steam header, preventing the use of the condenser steam dump vales. RCS temperature will begin to increase above the no-load Tave value of 557F ("A" and "B" incorrect).

"C" is correct and "D" is wrong, since operators close MSIVs rather than actuate MSI, so Atmospheric Relief valves are available These valve have a normal setpoint of 1125 psig, so RCS temperature is controlled at 561°F (sat. temp. for 1125 psig).

Technical EOP 3503, step 6 (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): OP 3316A, step 4.1.13.o Steam Tables Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Steam Tables Learning MC-04341 Describe the major action categories within (As available)

Objective: EOP 3503.

Question Source: New 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 14 SRO 14 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A # W/E14.A1.03 Importance Rating 3.3 3.8 Proposed Question:

The plant has been operating at 100% power when the following sequence of events occurs:

1. A large break LOCA occurs.

2. The reactor trips and safety injection actuates.

3. The crew manually actuates CDA at E-0, step 12, since CTMT pressure is 37 psia and Quench Spray pumps are not running. Both Quench Spray pumps will not start.

4. The crew transitions to EOP 35 FR-Z.1 RESPONSE TO HIGH CTMT PRESSURE.

5. A PEO is dispatched to the ESF building to realign RSS pump "C", using EOP 35 FR-Z.1, Attachment "A".

How will EOP 35 FR-Z. 1, Attachment "A" align the "C" RSS pump to provide CTMT spray?

A. The suction is aligned from the RWST, and the discharge to the RSS CTMT spray ring.

B. The suction is aligned from the CTMT sump, and the discharge to the RSS CTMT spray ring.

C. The suction is aligned from the RWST, and the discharge to the QSS CTMT spray ring.

D. The suction is aligned from the CTMT sump, and the discharge to the QSS CTMT spray ring.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

EOP 35 FR-Z.1 Attachment "A" aligns an RSS pump to take a suction on the RWST and discharge through its CTMT spray ring. This effectively converts one RSS pump into a QSS pump. CTMT sump level may be inadequate for taking a suction on the CTMT sump ("B" and "D" wrong), and the RSS pump will discharge through its own spray ring ("C" and "D"wrong).

Technical Reference(s): EOP 35 FR-Z.1 Attachment "A" (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04668 DISCUSS the basis of major procedure steps (As available)

Objective: and/or sequence of steps in EOP 35 FR-Z. 1.

Question Source: Bank # 73487 Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 15 SRO 15 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A # W/E07.A1.03 Importance Rating 3.5 3.9 Proposed Question:

FR-C.3 "Response to Saturated Core Cooling" contains the note, "If ECA-3.2, 'SGTR with Loss of Reactor Coolant - Saturated Recovery Desired,' is in effect, this procedure should not be performed".

Why is this note required?

A. FR-C.3 directs re-establishing ECCS flow to increase subcooling, while ECA-3.2 attempts to terminate ECCS flow.

B. FR-C.3 closes any open PZR PORVs, while ECA-3.2 opens PORVs to depressurize the RCS.

C. FR-C.3 restores letdown, while ECA-3.2 maintains letdown isolated.

D. FR-C.3 allows an RCS cooldown rate in excess of 80'F per hour, while ECA-3.2 limits the cooldown rate.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

"A" is correct, since per the ERG background document, the note prior to step one informs the operator not to perform the procedure because ECA-3.2 reduces ECCS flow and subcooling, while performing C.3 would do the opposite. "B" is wrong, since it does not agree with the background document, and the PORVs are only used in ECA-3.2 if normal spray is not available. "C" is wrong, since FR-C.3 removes letdown from service. "D" is wrong, since FR-C.3 does not have a cooldown step.

Technical Reference(s): FR-C.3, note prior to step 1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05975 Discuss the basis of major procedure steps and/or (As Objective: sequence of steps in EOP FR-C.3. available)

Question Source: Bank # 70465 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

STEP DESCRIPTION TABLE FOR FR-H.1 STEP 1 -NOTE NOTE: If ECA-3.2, SGTR WITH LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT - SATURATED RECOVERY DESIRED, is in effect, this guideline should not be performed.

PURPOSE: To inform the operator that this guideline is not intended to be used while performing the saturated recovery actions included in ECA-3.2 BASIS:

Guideline FR-C.3 directs a reestablishment of RCS subcooling, injection flow. This is inconsistent with actions specified via safety reduce RCS subcooling via SI flow reduction in order to in ECA-3;2 which minimize primary-to secondary leakage for a steam generator tube rupture.

Therefore, guideline FR-C.3 shQuld not be used if ECA-3.2 is in effect.

ACTIONS:

Determine if guideline ECA-3.2, SGTR WITH LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT - SATURATED RECOVERY DESIRED, is in effect INSTRUMENTATION:

N/A CONTROL/EQUIPMENT:

N/A KNOWLEDGE:

N/A PLANT-SPECIFIC INFORMATION:

N/A FR-C.3 7 0032V:lb HP-Rev. 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 16 SRO 16 Tier # 1 1 Group # 1 1 K/A # 076.K3.05 Importance Rating 2.9 3.6 Proposed Question:

With the plant in MODE 5, 3CHS-RE69 goes into the ALERT condition. The RO reports that CTMT area radiation monitors are showing an increasing trend.

For these conditions, AOP 3553 "High RCS Activity" cautions the operators to consider restricting access to the ESF building due to the potential for increased radiation levels.

Why does AOP 3553 have this caution?

A. The potential exists for leakage from CTMT into SLCRS areas.

B. Increased radiation levels in CTMT will raise radiation levels in buildings adjacent to CTMT.

C. If Excess Letdown is in operation, RCS activity may be transported through the CVCS system.

D. If the RHR system is in operation, RCS activity may be transported through the RHR system.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

Caution prior to step 1 of the procedure makes the statement for ALARA considerations for the ESF if RHR is operating, since the system is transporting RCS fluid and, therefore, increased radiation levels would be expected. "A" and "B" are plausible, since CTMT area monitors have shown an increasing trend. "C" is plausible since CVCS provides a flowpath for RCS water outside of CTMT.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3553 Note prior to step 1. (Attach if not previously providec:1)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05893 Discuss the basis of major procedure steps (As available)

Objective: and/or sequence of steps in AOP 3553.

Question Source: Modified Bank # 73453 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 17 SRO 17 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 1 K/A# 001 .K1.03 Importance Rating 3.9 4.0 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

S The plant has been on line for 400 days.

S Reactor power is 80%

0 Bank D rods are at 180 steps 0 Control Bank D starts to withdraw automatically with no demand signal present.

Per AOP 3552 "Malfunction of the Rod Drive System", operators place rods to MANUAL, and rod motion stops. The STA determines that approximately 100 pcm of reactivity was added.

Which of the following describes how neutron flux responded, assuming no further operator action?

A. Power will increase promptly to about 85% and remain there.

B. Power will increase promptly to about 85%, and then slowly ramp up to the PR Hi Flux Hi setpoint resulting in a reactor trip.

C. Power will promptly increase to about 85% and subsequently return to about 80% power with an elevated Tave.

D. Power will promptly increase to about 85% and subsequently return to about 80% power with Tave returning to normal.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

The value for MTC will be fairly large due to time in core life. When the rods withdraw, reactor power will increase, and Tave will increase since steam demand has not changed. The temperature rise will add negative reactivity to compensate for the worth of the rods (MTC),

reducing power ("A" and "B" wrong). Final condition will be close to original power with elevated Tave ("C" is correct, "D" is wrong. An overpower reactor trip will not occur, since power defect from 80% to 100% power is approximately 400 pcm, and the rods only added 100 pcm.

Technical Reference(s): Power Defect Curve RE-E-01 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning Learning MC-04899 Describe the major parameter changes associated with (As Objective: reactivity and power distribution anomalies. available)

Question Sou rce: Modified Bank # 64994 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question Cog nitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part I55 Content: 55.41.1, 41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 18 SRO 18 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A# 007. K3.01 Importance Rating 4.0 4.6 Proposed Question:

The plant trips due to a loss of offsite power. The crew is currently in ES-0. 1, "Reactor Trip Response."

Why will the crew start the SBO diesel?

A. To power SBO auxiliaries.

B. To power selected "A" Train non-emergency loads , such as the plant process computer.

C. To power selected "B" Train non-emergency loads, such as an instrument air compressor.

D. To power Primary Grade Water Pumps from either train, allowing for RCS makeup.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

SBO diesel installed to cope with loss of all AC power event, postulated to last eight (8) hours.

With the loss of offsite power, loss of the EDGs results in a station black out. If the SBO diesel battery is depleted, the SBO diesel cannot perform the intended function to supply a source of AC power for an eight (8) hour period.

"B", "C", and "D" are plausible, since non-emergency busses have been lost, and the SBO diesel will be loaded later on in ES-0.2 since running the SBO diesel unloaded for an extended period of time allows buildup of combustibles in the SBO diesel exhaust.

Technical Reference(s): ES-0.1 step 8 deviation document (Attach if not previously providecd)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05512 DISCUSS the basis of major procedure (As available)

Objective: steps &/or sequence of steps in EOP 35 ES-0. 1.

Question Source: Bank # 60749 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 19 SRO 19 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A # 009.K1.01 Importance Rating 4.2 4.7 Proposed Question:

PLANT CONDITIONS:

• A small break LOCA has occurred

• The crew is in ES-I.2, "Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization"

• An RCS cooldown has been initiated by dumping steam to the atmosphere.

• The crew is preparing to start the SI reduction sequence.

Which of the following statements describes the optimum RCP configuration, and the basis for this configuration?

A. No RCPs should be running, to minimize RCS inventory loss during the cooldown, and reduce subcooling requirements for the SI reduction sequence.

B. No RCPs should be running, to protect RCPs from damage since #1 seal requirements are expected to be lost.

C. One RCP should be running to provide improved RCS pressure control, yet minimize RCS heat input.

D. One RCP should be running, to provide RCS mixing while reserving the other RCPs for future use while operating under voided RCS conditions.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, since forced coolant flow is the preferred mode of operation to allow for normal RCS cooldown and provide PZR spray. All but one should be stopped to minimize heat input into the RCS. "A" is wrong since subcooling requirements are greater without an RCP running. "B" is wrong since RCPs are stopped later in the procedure due to seal requirements when preparing to place RHR in service. "D" is wrong, since subcooling requirements are checked prior to starting any RCPs. "A" is plausible, since RCP trip criteria require tripping the RCPs prior to cooldown initiation. "B" is plausible since seal requirements will be lost later in the cooldown. "D" is plausible, since RCS voiding is a basis for stopping an RCP in FR-C.2 Technical Reference(s): ES-1.2, steps 12 and 13. (Attach if not previously provided)

ERG Bkgd for ES-1.2, step 12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-03877 Discuss the basis of major procedure steps (As available)

Objective: and/or sequence of steps contained within EOP 35 ECA-1.2.

Question Source: Bank # 73083 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 20 SRO 20 Tier # 1 Group# 2 1 K/A# 011.A1.05 Importance Rating 4.3 3.9 Proposed Question:

The unit is at full power. An event causes RCS pressure to rapidly drop to 1800 psia. All equipment operates as designed.

Which of the following describes when VCT outlet valve 3CHS*LCV1 12B closes?

A. Immediately.

B. Only after RWST to charging pump suction valve 3CHS*LCV1 12D opens.

C. Only after RWST to charging pump suction valve 3CHS*LCV1 12E opens.

D. Only if VCT level reaches 4%.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

RCS is less than the SIS actuation setpoint, and when SI actuates, 3CHS*LCV1 12D and 3CHS*LCV1 12E open, aligning the suction of the Charging pumps to the RWST. 3CHS*LCV1 12B will not close until 3CHS*LCV1 12D is open to ensure a suction source is available to the charging pumps. "D" is plausible, since the swap to the RWST will also occur if VCT level is less than 4%.

Technical Reference(s):Sf LSK 26-2.2C (Attach if not nreviouslv provided)!

\ ............... r ........ ] r .......

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04203, For the below listed plant events, partial or complete, (As available)

Objective: describe the effects on the Chemical and Volume Control System and its interrelated systems:

A. Loss of Instrument Air B. Loss Of Power C. Safety Injection Actuation D. Containment Isolation Signal Phase A Question Source: Bank # 68372 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 21 SRO 21 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 1 K/A# W/E04. K2.02 Importance Rating 3.8 4.0 Proposed Question:

The crew is in ECA-1.1, "Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation" with RCS pressure at 1000 psia. The crew has just verified that ECCS is in service.

What is the optimal ECCS lineup the crew will establish for core heat removal?

A. Both Trains of CHS pumps and both trains of SIH pumps running.

B. "A" Train CHS pump and "B" Train SIH pump running only.

C. "B" Train CHS pump and "B" Train SIH pump only.

D. Both Trains of CHS pumps only.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

The objective of ECA-1. 1 is restore recirc capability, delay depletion of the RWST and cooldown and depressurize the RCS to RHR conditions. To delay the depletion of the RWST, the procedure has the crew makeup to the RWST and minimize outflow by stopping unnecessary containment spray pumps and decreasing the SI pump flowrate (only one SIS train). The NOTE before step 12 warns to stop SIS pumps on alternate trains. (B correct)

"A" is incorrect, the ECA-1. 1 purpose is to reduce ECCS to one train "C" is incorrect, the NOTE directs alternate pump stoppage.

"D"is incorrect, the NOTE directs CHS and SIH pump.

Technical Reference(s): ECA-1.1, Step 12 NOTE (Attac3h if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03871 Describe the major action categories within (As available)

Objective: EOP 35 ECA-I.1.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 22 SRO Tier# 1#

Group # 2 K/A # W/E03.A2.02 Importance Rating 3.5 Proposed Question:

PLANT CONDITIONS:

A LOCA occurred, and the crew is in ES-1.2, "Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization."

0 One charging pump has been stopped 0 All other high head ECCS pumps are running 0 No RCPs are running 0 Pressurizer level is 30%

Sufficient subcooling exists and the operator stops the "A" Safety Injection pump. Immediately after stopping the pump, RCS pressure begins to decrease.

What action should the crew take immediately in response to the decreasing RCS pressure?

A. Manually reinitiate Safety Injection.

B. Restart the "A" Safety Injection pump to restore RCS pressure to its previous value.

C. Restart the "A" CHS pump to restore RCS pressure to its previous value.

D. Monitor RCS subcooling and pressurizer level to ensure these parameters stabilize above their SI reinitiation values.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"D" is correct, since after stopping any SI pump, RCS pressure should be allowed to stabilize or increase before stopping another SI pump.

The basis for this is that after the SI pump is stopped, RCS pressure may decrease rapidly to a new equilibrium value where the reduced SI flow again matches leakage from the RCS. The criteria for stopping the next SI pump has been calculated assuming steady state conditions.

Hence, to ensure that these criteria are appropriate, RCS pressure and subcooling should be allowed to stabilize or increase before stopping additional SI pumps.

Technical Reference(s): EOP 35 E-1 Foldout Page, (Attach if not previously provided)

ERG ES-1.2 basis doc, step 13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05530 Discuss the basis of major procedure steps and/or (As available)

Objective: sequence of steps in EOP 35 ES-1.2.

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: Bank # 63960 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 23 SRO Tier # 1 Group # 2 K/A # W/E11.A2.02 Importance Rating 3.4 Proposed Question:

The following sequence of events has occurred:

1. The plant was initially at 100% power when an RCS LOCA occurred.

2. When attempting to swap over to cold leg recirculation, the crew was unable to provide a flowpath from the CTMT sump to the RCS.

3. The crew entered EOP 35 ECA-1.1 "Loss of Containment Recirculation" and is preparing to cool down the RCS.

4. Technical support reports that emergency coolant recirculation capability has been restored via the "C" RSS Pump.

What action should the crew take?

A. Commence the cooldown of the RCS per ECA-1.1 and then transition to ES-1.3 "Transfer To Cold Leg Recirculation".

B. Transition to ES-i.2 Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization".

C. Transition to ES-1.3 "Transfer To Cold Leg Recirculation".

D. Complete ECA-1.1 and then transition to ES-1.3 "Transfer To cold Leg Recirculation".

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional): "A" is wrong since this action is taken only if the operators remain in ECA-1.1 and SI termination criteria is not met. "B" is wrong since normal charging is only established if SI termination criteria is met. "C" is correct and "D" is wrong since the crew should transition to the procedure and step in effect, which was ES-1.3.

Technical Reference(s): ECA-1.1, note prior to step 1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC 03873 Discuss conditions which require transition to other (As available)

Objective: procedures from EOP 35 ECA-1.1.

Question Source: Bank # 73534 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10, 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 24 SRO 24 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 1 K/A # 003. K3.06 Importance Rating 2.7 3.0 Proposed Question:

While operating at 100% power, a control bank D group 1 rod drops. The crew has entered AOP 3552 MALFUNCTION OF THE ROD DRIVE SYSTEM and is ready to withdraw the dropped rod.

Shortly before the crew starts withdrawing the dropped rod, AOP 3552, Attachment "B" has the crew reset the control bank D group 1 step counter to zero.

Which of the following describes why the affected group step counter needed to be reset to zero?

A. This ensures that the P/A converter will send the proper rod height data to the RIL circuitry.

B. This ensures that the rod is withdrawn to the proper height with a proper group step counter indication.

C. This prevents a ROD CONTROL URGENT FAILURE (MB4C 4-8) annunciator from coming in during the rod recovery.

D. This prevents a BANK D FULL ROD WITHDRAWAL (MB4C 5-8) annunciator from coming in during the rod recovery.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct since the crew will withdraw the affected rod to the previously recorded group height.

"A" is wrong since the group step counter does not input to the P/A converter. It will need to be restored using AOP 3552 Attachment E. "C" is wrong since this alarm will come in regardless of group step counter position due to no group 2 rods moving during the rod recovery. "D" is wrong since bank D full rod withdrawal is fed by the P/A converter, not the group step counter.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3552, step 5, and basis doc (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03902 (RO, SRO, STA) Discuss the basis of major precautions, (As Objective: procedure steps and/or sequence of steps within AOP 3552. available)

Question Source: 73582 Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 25 SRO 25 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A# 022.K1.01 Importance Rating 2.8 3.2 Proposed Question:

The plant is at 100% power with all equipment in a normal lineup, when the following sequence of events occurs:

1. The "A" charging pump trips.

2. The "B" charging pump fails to start.

3. The crew enters EOP 3509 "Loss of All Charging Pumps".

Which of the following events would require the crew to trip the reactor, and why?

A. The "C" charging pump can not be aligned for service, since there is no method available to add inventory to the RCS.

B. The "C" charging pump can not be aligned for service, since there is no method available to add boron to the RCS.

C. The "B" RPCCW Pump trips, since cooling is lost to the seal return heat exchanger, with the potential for the release of radioactive steam to the auxiliary building.

D. The "B" RPCCW Pump trips, since the potential exists for degradation of the RCP seals, resulting in a significant increase of RCS leakage.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"D" is correct, and "A" and "B" are wrong, since the reactor must be tripped if thermal barrier cooling is lost (RPCCW pump tripped) AND seal injection flow is less than 6 gpm (no charging pump is running). "C" is wrong since the major concern for a loss of seal injection and thermal barrier cooling is degraded seal performance. "C" is plausible since a trip criteria is met, and the rad release concern is the basis for isolating the seal return line on a loss of all AC power. "A" and "B" are plausible since EOP 3506 attempts to line up the swing charging pump for service, and requires an orderly plant shutdown if unsuccessful.

Technical Reference(s): EOP 3506 Foldout Page (Attach if not previously provided)

EOP 3506, step 8 ERG ECA-0.0 BKGD pg 3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-06658 Discuss the basis of major precautions, procedure (As available)

Objective: steps, and/or sequence of steps within EOP 3506.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.3, 41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 26 SRO 26 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A # 025.A1.04 Importance Rating 2.8 2.6 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* The plant is in MODE 5

"* An "A" train electrical outage is in progress.

"* The "C" RPCCW Pump is not available.

The following sequence of events occurs:

1. The "B" RPCCW pump trips.

2. The RO reports that the amber light is lit for the "B" RPCCW pump.

3. The crew enters EOP 3505 "Loss of Shutdown Cooling".

4. EOP 3505 directs the crew to "Start Train B RPCCW System".

How will the crew attempt to start the "B" RPCCW pump, if allowed?

A. The crew will not start the pump, since operating a component with a tripped protective device is prohibited.

B. The RO will take the "B" RPCCW pump start switch to START at Main Board 1 only.

C. The RO will take the "B" RPCCW pump start switch to STOP and then to START at Main Board 1 only.

D. A PEO will be dispatched to reset the 86E relay, and then take the "B" RPCCW pump control switch to START locally only.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"A" is wrong since the SM is authorized to reset any tripped protective devise to protect the plant.

"A" is plausible since resetting a protective devise a second time is prohibited. "B" is wrong since this action will not reset the 86E relay. "B" is plausible since this is how the pump is normally started. "C" is correct since going to "STOP" will reset the 86E relay. "D" is wrong since equipment is to be operated from the remote switches in the control room, unless otherwise specified. "D" is plausible, since locally resetting the 86E relay and closing the breaker will start the pump.

Technical MP-14-OPS-GDLO2 "Operations Standards", Att.2.3 and 2.6 (Attach if not 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Reference(s): EOP 3505, step 4.c.RNO previously provided)

AOP 3561, step 1 RNO ESK-5DB RPCCW Pump Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04150 Describe the operation of the following Reactor Plant (As available)

Objective: Component Cooling System equipment controls and interlocks...

Pump Control Switches (Control Room)...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 27 SRO Tier # 1 Group # 2 K/A # PLANT SPECIFIC A.2 Importance Rating N/A Proposed Question:

The SBO Diesel is being started in accordance with ECA-0.0, "Loss of All AC Power", Attachment "G", when the following sequence of events occurs:

1. As the SBO is coming up to speed, it trips on Engine Overspeed.

2. Maintenance is able to quickly determine that a piece of debris in the overspeed trip lever caused the spurious trip, the debris is removed and the trip lever is reset.

3. Ten minutes after the trip all conditions are restored and the SBO re-start is attempted.

4. The SBO diesel starts normally.

Which of the following describes the results of the SBO diesel after it starts?

A. Normal idle delays will not occur, but the operator will be able to close the SBO Diesel Output Breaker when directed.

B. Normal idle delays will not occur, and the operator will not be able to close the SBO Diesel Output Breaker when directed.

C. Normal idle delays will occur, and the operator will be able to close the SBO Diesel Output Breaker when directed. The SBO will trip 5 minutes after starting.

D. Normal idle delays will occur, but the operator will not be able to close the SBO Diesel Output Breaker when directed.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional): OP 3346D, NOTE Step 4.4.11 states that any trip of the SBO diesel that results in an immediate shutdown will initiate a 15 minutes cooldown timer. The time must lapse before the SBO is re-started or the SBO will shutdown after the timer lapses ("C" correct: 10 minutes + 5 minutes) "A" and "B" are wrong, since the idle delays are not affected. "B" and "D" are wrong, since the SBO Diesel Output Breaker is not affected.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3346D, NOTE Step 4.4.11 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03866 Describe the major action (As available)

Objective: categories within EOP35 ECA-0.3.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 28 SRO 28 Tier # 1 1 Group# 2 2 K/A # 032.K1.01 Importance Rating 2.5 3.1 Proposed Question:

Initial conditions:

"* A reactor startup is in progress

"* Control banks are being withdrawn

"* Source Range counts: N31 = 1500 cps N32 = 1600 cps A faulty power supply causes significant instrument power voltage fluctuations to Source Range channel N31.

Which of the following describes the effect of the power supply voltage fluctuations on the plant?

A. Instrument voltage changes will result in proportional changes in indicated count rate. The reactor will trip on high source range flux.

B. Instrument voltage changes will result in proportional changes in indicated count rate. The reactor will not trip since the source range high flux trip is already blocked.

C. Instrument voltage changes will not result in changes in indicated count rate, since the detector operates in the ion chamber region. The crew will continue the startup.

D. Instrument voltage changes will not result in changes in indicated count rate, since the detector operates in the ion chamber region. The crew will stop the startup and drive rods in.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

"C" and "D"are wrong since the source ranges operate in the proportional region of the gas amplification curve. The Source Range high flux trip will actuate when counts exceed 105 cps on 1/2 channels. Since the coincidence is 1/2, the reactor will trip. "A" is correct, and "B" is wrong, since source ranges are blocked above P-6, which comes in at 1010 amps in the intermediate range, which is above 104 cps. "B" is plausible since source ranges will be blocked during the startup. "C" and "D" are plausible since the intermediate range detectors operate in the ion chamber region.

Technical OP 3360, Precautions 3.3 and 3.4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): OP 3202, step 4.28 NIS015C, pg 13 and 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-05229 For the following conditions, determine the effects on (As available)

Objective: the NIS system and on interrelated systems: Source range instrument failure below P-6...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.6, 41.7, 41.8 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 29 SRO 29 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A # PLANT PLANT SPECIFIC SPECIFIC Importance Rating N/A N/A Proposed Question:

The crew has responded to a Steam Generator tube leak that does not require Safety Injection actuation.

Which of the following conditions would meet the AOP 3576 "Steam Generator Tube Leak" criteria of verifying primary to secondary leakage?

A. Chemistry sample indicates activity equal to twenty gallons per day primary to secondary leakage.

B. Chemistry sample indicates unquantified presence of primary to secondary leakage.

C. Alarm status of air ejector radiation monitor 3ARC-RE21 and auxiliary feedwater pump terry turbine exhaust radiation monitor 3MSS-RE79 not normal.

D. Alarm status of blowdown radiation monitor 3SSR-RE08 and main steam line radiation monitor 3MSS-RE76 not normal.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

Note before step 3 of AOP 3576 states that leakage can be verified with 2 out of 3 criteria met.

Alarm status of blowdown and main steam line radiation monitor not normal are 2 of the possible 4 criteria (D correct). "A" is wrong, since this is similar to step 3 RNO but correct value is >30 gpd not 20 gpd. "B" is wrong and plausible since this is 1 of the criteria needed, and 2 are required.

"C" is wrong, and plausible since two criteria are listed, but 3MSS-RE79 is not one of the 4 criteria.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3576, step 3 Note (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03912 Describe the major action categories within (As available)

Objective: AOP 3555.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 30 SRO 30 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A # 054.GEN.2.4.50 Importance Rating 3.3 3.3 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, a "TDFW PP A/B EAP CONST SIG LOST" annunciator comes in on MB5. The crew references the ARP and the US directs the BOP to take manual control of the "A" TDMFP.

How is speed control for the selected TDMFP returned to the operator?

A. The TDMFP master speed controller is taken to MANUAL and used to adjust TDMFP speed.

B. The DAHL controller for the "A" TDMFP (3FWS-SK46A) is taken to MANUAL and used to adjust TDMFP speed.

C. The Manual Speed Controller (3TFC-M1A) is lowered until TDMFP speed starts to decrease, and then the DAHL controller (3FWS-SK46A) is taken to MANUAL and raised to the high speed stop.

D. The Manual Speed Controller (3TFC-MIA) is lowered until TDMFP speed starts to decrease, and the hydraulic jack for the "A" TDMFP is placed to "ON".

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional): The specified annunciator comes in when the Westinghouse speed control signal is lost. This locks the EAP controllers for both TDMFPs at the "last called for" signal. "A" and "B" are wrong, since both of these require the EAP controller to respond, either to the input from the master controller, or from manual control. "D" is correct, and "C" is wrong, since TDMFP speed is controlled by the lower speed setting of either the DAHL, or the Manual Speed Controller, and the DAHL cannot be raised out of the way manually. The hydraulic jack blocks the hydraulic bleed path from the EAP positioner, driving it to the high speed stop.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB5C, 4-6 (Attach if not previously provided)

LSK-6-1.2E Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04660 Describe the operation of the following Main (As available)

Objective: Feedwater... controls:... Manual Speed Controllers... Speed Controllers... Master Speed Controller... Hydraulic Jack...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 31 SRO 31 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A# W/E05.A1.01 Importance Rating 4.1 4.0 Proposed Question:

The following sequence of events occurs:

1. The reactor trips due to a loss of all main feedwater pumps.

2. The crew exits E-0 at step 4, and is preparing to enter FR-H.1 "Loss of Heat Sink".

3. During the crew brief, the SM states that the expected success path is feeding the SGs via the Main Condensate pumps.

What actions will be physically required in order to meet the interlocks in order to open Feedwater Isolation Trip Valves 3FWS*CTV 41A, B, C and D from the pushbuttons on MB5?

A. Reset Feedwater Isolation signal on MB2 only.

B. Reset the Feedwater Isolation signal on MB5 only.

C. Reset the Feedwater Isolation signal on MB5 and reset the individual Feed isolation trip valves on MB5.

D. Reset the Feedwater Isolation signal on MB2 and reset the individual Feed Isolation trip valves on MB5.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

The CTVs are Train B and only need to have the FWI on MB2 reset to return operation and reset the Feedwater Isolation.

Technical Reference(s): Functional Dwg #13 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04660 Describe the operation of the following Main (As available)

Objective: Feedwater and SGWLC controls and interlocks... Main Feed CTMT Isolation Trip Valves...

Question Source: Bank # 60694 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 32 SRO 32 Tier # 1 1 Group# 2 2 K/A # 060.A1.02 Importance Rating 2.9 3.1 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, an accidental gaseous release occurs from the turbine building stack, accompanied by a reactor trip.

Current conditions:

0 CTMT pressure: 14 psia.

0 RCS pressure: 2030 psia.

0 3HVC*RE16A: High alarm.

0 3HVC*RE16B: High alarm.

Assuming no operator action, how will the Control Room air pressurization system respond?

A. Control building air intake ventilation valves, 3HVC*AOV25 and 3HVC*AOV26 will close after a 60 second time delay.

B. Control room kitchen exhaust isolation valves (3HVC*AOV20 and 3HVC*AOV21) will immediately close.

C. Control building emergency air recirc dampers, 3HVC*AOD1 19A and 3HVC*AOD1 19B immediately open.

D. No valves or dampers will reposition, since no Control Building Isolation signal is present.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

CBI occurs when either a containment pressure HI-1 signal is generated at 18 psia, or safety injection is manually initiated, or HVC*16A-1 or HVC*16B-1 detect 1.5 x 10-5 uci/cc in the incoming air ("D" incorrect), or CBI is manually actuated. CBI signal immediately closes intake ventilation valves, kitchen area exhaust valves ("B" correct), purge exhaust valves, and makeup air dampers ("A" incorrect). Sixty seconds after initiation, the air flask isolation valves open, if the intake dampers are closed. CBI also realigns the tech 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet support center for recirc. The emergency air recirc dampers must be manually realigned within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> after the CBI ("C" incorrect).

Technical Reference(s): LSK22-9. E, G, H, and M (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05215 Describe operation of HVC/HVK systems under the (As Objective: following normal, abnormal, and emergency operation available) conditions... High radiation detected by HVC*RE16A or B.

Question Sou rce: Bank # 69915 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 33 SRO 33 Tier # 1 1 Group # 2 2 K/A # W/E16.K1.03 Importance Rating 3.0 3.3 Proposed Question:

A small LOCA has occurred, accompanied by indications of fuel damage.

The following plant conditions exist:

"* RCS pressure: 1600 psia

"* Hot leg temperatures: 545 0 F

"* Containment pressure: 17 psia

"* Containment temperature: 140°F

"* CTMT radiation: 5 x 10' R/hr

"* The crew has transitioned to FR-H.1 "Loss of Heat Sink".

The BOP operator reports that Steam Generator wide range levels are:

"* SG "A": 55%

"* SG "B": 56%

"* SG "C": 60%

"* SG "D": 54%

Which of the following actions should be taken?

A. Attempt to establish AFW feedwater flow to at least one steam generator.

B. Attempt to establish main feedwater flow to at least one steam generator.

C. Return to E-1 "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant".

D. Stop all Reactor Coolant Pumps and establish RCS bleed and feed.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

Adverse containment exists based on high CTMT radiation, therefore WR level for feed and bleed is 59% in any 3 steam generators. "A" and "B" are plausible, since these are the mitigation strategies of FR-H.1 if bleed and feed criteria is not met. "C" is plausible, since step 1 of FR-H.1 returns the crew to E-1 if RCS pressure is not greater than ruptured SG pressure.

Technical Reference(s): FR-H.1, Steps 1 through 3 (Attach if not previously provided) and Caution prior to step 3.

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 04535, Discuss the basis of major procedure steps and/or (As available)

Objective: sequence of steps in EOP 35 FR-H.1 through H.5 Question Source: Bank # 63906 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 34 SRO 34 Tier # 1 1 Group # 3 3 K/A# 036.K3.02 Importance Rating 2.9 3.6 Proposed Question:

What is the purpose of the upload limit interlock on the new fuel elevator?

A. Prevent dropping a new fuel assembly from excessive heights should the elevator cable fail.

B. Prevent raising an irradiated fuel assembly so that the minimum required depth of water shielding is maintained.

C. Prevent raising the elevator guide rollers out of the water, since the rollers are water lubricated.

D. Prevent raising the elevator when either cable binding is taking place or an obstruction is in the cart's path.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct, since the upload limit interlock stops upward motion of the elevator when loaded with a fuel assembly. Handling equipment used to raise and lower spent fuel also has a limited maximum lift height so that the minimum required depth of water shielding is maintained. "A" and "C" are plausible, since they deal with reasons for limiting upward travel. Also, lubrication is a concern when raising the rollers above existing water level. "D" is plausible, since it deals with limiting travel when load is sensed.

Technical Reference(s): FSAR section 9.1.4 (Attach if not previouslv orovided)

• I . ...... J IT ....... p Lesson Plan FHS034C Westinghouse refueling text Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04541 Describe the operation of the following Fuel Handling (As available)

Objective: System equipment, controls, and interlocks... New fuel elevator...

Question Source: Bank# 74350 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 35 SRO 35 Tier # 1 1 Group # 3 2 K/A # 065.GEN.2.4.11 Importance Rating 3.4 3.6 Proposed Question:

With the plant initially at 100% power, the following sequence of events occurs:

1. An instrument air leak occurs, resulting in a reactor trip.

2. The crew enters ES-0.1 "Reactor Trip Response", in parallel with AOP 3562 "Loss of Instrument Air".

How does AOP 3562 assist the operators in performing ES-0.1, step 1 "Check RCS Temperature"?

A. Operators are informed that the Steam Generator Safety valves will be used to control Tave.

B. Operators are informed that the Condenser Steam Dumps will be used to control Tave.

C. Operators are informed that the Steam Generator Atmospheric Dumps will be used to control Tave.

D. Operators are informed that the Steam Generator Atmospheric Dump Bypass valves will be used to control Tave.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

ES-0.1 step 1 RNO directs using the steam dumps to the condenser, if available, or to the atmosphere ("A" wrong). AOP 3562 informs the operators that the loss of instrument air results in a loss of the steam dumps ("B" wrong),and atmospheric dumps ("C" wrong, "D" correct).

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3562, section "C" (Attach if not previously provided)

ES-0.1, step 1, RNO Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03939 Describe the major action categories contained (As Objective: within AOP-3562. available)

Question Source: Bank # 60670 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 36 SRO 36 Tier # 1 1 Group# 3 3 K/A # W/E13.A1.02 Importance Rating 3.0 3.2 Proposed Question:

The following sequence of events occurs:

1. The reactor trips due to an inadvertent Main Steam Isolation signal.

2. While recovering in EOP 35 ES-0.1 "Reactor Trip Response", the crew transitions to FR-H.2 "Response to High SG Pressure".

Current conditions are as follows:

"* "B" SG pressure is 1250 psig.

"* "B" SG level is 65% narrow range.

"* Tave is 570 0 F.

"* All SG safety valves are closed.

"* The crew was not successful in dumping steam from the "B" SG.

Based on current conditions, what method will the operators use to reduce pressure in the "B" SG?:

A. Initiate blowdown flow from the "B" SG.

B. Feed the "B" SG with maximum auxiliary feed flow.

C. Dump steam from the atmospheric dump valves on the "A", "C", and "D" SGs.

D. Dump steam from the atmospheric dump bypass valves on the "A", "C", and "D"SGs.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

The quickest way to remove heat from the SG is to dump steam. ("D" is correct)

"A" is wrong since blowdown will remove a minimum amount of heat. "A" is plausible since increasing blowdown is an action to recover from a high SG level, but if high level exists, the crew would have transitioned to FR-H.3.

"B" is wrong since FR-H.2 cautions against feeding the SG until a steam release path is available.

"B" is plausible since feed will cool the SG. "C" is wrong since the atmospheric dump valves will not open due to the MSI signal. "C" is plausible since dumping steam would cool the "B" SG.

Technical Reference(s): FR-H.2 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-05965 Describe the major action categories (As available)

Objective: within EOP 35 FR-H.2.

Question Source: Bank # 73186 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 37 SRO 37 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1

K/A # 001.K5.64 Importance Rating 3.3 3.8 Proposed Question:

How is SHUTDOWN MARGIN normally verified with the plant in MODE 1?

A. Inserted rod worth, stuck rod worth, and misaligned rod worth are subtracted from the total rod worth, verified above 1,300 pcm, and documented on the OP3209B form.

B. Control and Shutdown bank rods are verified above RIL and documented in the RO logs.

C. RCS boron concentration is verified above the required value, and documented on the RO logs.

D. Xenon reactivity is determined and converted to a boron worth. This is added to current boron concentration, and verified above the required value on the OP3209B form.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct, since rods above RIL ensures that minimum SHUTDOWN MARGIN is maintained.

"A" is plausible since this is how SDM is determined with a stuck or misaligned rod. "C" and "D" are plausible since this is how SDM is determined in MODE 3.

Technical Technical Specification surveillance requirement (Attach if not previously Reference(s): 4.1.1.1.1. nprvided) r-" .... *v*/

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03472 Perform a SHUTDOWN MARGIN calculation in (As available)

Objective: MODEs 1 & 2.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 38 SRO 38 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A # 001.A3.03 Importance Rating 3.6 3.8 Proposed Question:

AOP 3575 "Rapid Downpower" direct the operators to verify control bank D rods are greater than 120 steps.

Why is this rod height check made?

A. Maintains rods above RIL.

B. Allows better control of AFD.

C. Maintains rods above the "Rod Control Banks Limit LO" Annunciator setpoint.

D. Prevents the operators from overborating the RCS on the downpower.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct, since below 120 steps, bank "D" rods are inserted too far for reduce flux in the upper portion of the core. "A" and "C" are wrong, since RIL and "Rod Lo" setpoints are variable, and operators will continue the downpower whether or not these setpoints are reached. "D" is wrong, since the RNO for the rod height check is to increase the boration rate.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3575, step 15 (Attach if not previously provided)

Lesson Plan A75775C pg 8 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03982 Describe the major action categories contained within (As available)

Objective: AOP-3575.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.1, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 39 SRO 39 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A# 003. K4.07 Importance Rating 3.2 3.4 Proposed Question:

During a failure of the "B" Reactor Coolant Pump #1 seal, the crew trips the RCP and is preparing to place the #2 seal in service.

Why does the crew verify the affected RCP has been tripped prior to placing the #2 RCP Seal in service?

A. The #2 seal is not designed for the differential pressures that are associated with an operating RCP.

B. The #2 seal's ability to function is more favorable under static conditions in the presence of debris from the #1 seal.

C. The #2 seal does not have adequate instrumentation (i.e. leakoff flow) available to the operator to function as a viable backup to an operating RCP.

D. The #2 seal is not designed to provide a seal unless the seal is under static conditions.

"ProposedAnswer: B Explanation (Optional):

1. 2 Seal is designed to be a full pressure seal which functions under both static and dynamic conditions, however, it is best placed in service when the pump has come to a stop to prevent #1 seal debris from being rubbed into the face of the #2 seal.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3554 Basis Doc, step 6 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03907 DISCUSS the basis of major precautions, procedure (As available)

Objective: steps &/or sequence of steps.

Question Source: Bank # 68317 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.3, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 40 SRO 40 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A# 003.A4.06 Importance Rating 2.9 2.9 Proposed Question:

With the reactor at 100% power, annunciator MB4B, 3-1, "RCP A Vibration Hi-Hi" annunciates.

The RO checks RCP vibration on MB3R and reports the following:

RCP "A" frame vibration is 8 mils.

Shaft vibration is 26 mils.

What action is required?

A. Reset the alarm, it is now below the alarm setpoint.

B. Contact RE for an evaluation of continued RCP operation.

C. Reduce load to < P-8 setpoint, and remove "A" RCP from service.

D. Trip the reactor, trip the RCP, and enter E-0, "Reactor trip or Safety Injection".

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

The HI-HI annunciator requires the RCP be tripped, above P-8, the reactor is tripped then the RCP stopped. "A" is plausible, since this is the correct action if vibration indicates below the setpoint.

"B" and "C" are plausible since these are other actions taken in response to RCP malfunctions, depending on the severity.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB4 3-1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05431 Describe the operation of the RCPs under the following (As available)

Objective: abnormal conditions:

A. Automatic RCP Trip B. Conditions requiring a Manual RCP Trip C. RCP Associated Reactor Trips Question Source: Bank # 683,48 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 41 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 1 K/A# 004.K6.27 Importance Rating 3.4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

0 The plant is in MODE 5 0 The "A" RHR train is in service, S The "B" RHR train is in standby in the cooldown mode.

The crew isolates the "B" train of RHR due to a significant RHR piping leak.

What concern is there with the "B" RHR train isolated?

A. The "B" train of RHR normally provides CVCS letdown.

B. The "B" train of RHR is required to provide an ECCS injection flowpath.

C. The "B" train of RHR is needed to prevent exceeding RPCCW temperature limits.

"D. The "B" train of RHR is required if COPPS is not armed.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"D" is correct, since COPPs is required <226°F, from either COPPS or RHR suction relief. "A" is wrong, since letdown is aligned to the in service train of RHR. "B" is wrong, since RHR is not required to be available for ECCS in MODE 5. "C" is wrong, since RPCCW temperature limits can be maintained by slowing the cooldown rate on a single train of RHR. "A", "B", and "C" are plausible since RHR is involved in each of these functions.

Technical OP 3208, step 4.3.27, OP 3310A, step 4.5 (Attach if not previously provided )

Reference(s): Tech Spec 3.4.9.3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05459 Given a failure, partial or complete, of the RHR system, (As Objective: describe the effects on the system and on interrelated systems. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 42 SRO 42 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A # 004.GEN.2.1.8 Importance Rating 3.8 3.6 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, the crew has placed the "B" charging pump in service and has stopped the "A" charging pump in order to remove it from service for maintenance.

What is an item that should be discussed with the PEO prior to sending him out to mechanically isolate the "A" pump?

A. The suction valve must be closed prior to the discharge valve to avoid air binding the operating pump.

B. The suction valve must be closed prior to the discharge valve to avoid slamming the discharge check valve on the operating pump.

C. The discharge valve must be closed prior to the suction valve to avoid overpressurizing the suction line.

D. The discharge valve must be closed prior to the suction valve to avoid draining the recirc line.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, since the suction piping is not rated for discharge pressure, and the running pump is providing discharge pressure. The other answers are plausible, since potential air binding/draining lines has been a problem at Millstone 3, and check valve slamming is a concern when starting large pumps.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3304A, precaution 3.3.6 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04201 Describe the major administrative or procedural precautions (As Objective: and limitations placed on the operation of the CVCS system. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 43 SRO 43 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A # 013.K3.02 Importance Rating 4.3 4.5 Proposed Question:

Which of the following ATWS events would result in RCS pressure exceeding the 3200 psig emergency limit?

A. Loss of feed, turbine trips.

B. Loss of feed, turbine fails to trip.

C. Uncontrolled rod bank withdrawal from subcritical conditions.

D. Uncontrolled rod bank withdrawal from full power conditions.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

According to the analysis, RCS pressure will exceed 3200 psig if the turbine fails to trip on a loss of feed ATWS, since the SGs dry out sooner. For all other ATWS events, RCS pressure will not exceed this limit.

Technical WOG MCD Text, pg 2-14, Fig 2-1.3, 2-1.5 (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): WOG bkgd, FR-S.1, step 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC- 04945 Assuming no Operator-initiated recovery technique, (As Objective: ANALYZE the ATWS Event leading to Core Damage. available)

Question Source: Bank # 70811 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.7, 41.14 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 44 SRO 44 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A# 013.A1.07 Importance Rating 3.6 3.9 Proposed Question:

A small break LOCA has occurred 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> ago and fuel damage has occurred. CTMT High Range radiation monitors 3RMS*RE04A and 3RMS*RE05A are in alarm.

Which equipment does EOP 35 E-1 "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant" have the ADTS consider running intermittently in order to lower radiation levels in CTMT, reducing offsite release rates?

A. CTMT Air Filtration Fans B. CTMT Spray Pumps C. CTMT Purge Fans D. Hydrogen Recombiners Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

Water drops spraying CTMT will absorb radioactive Iodine from the CTMT atmosphere. "A" is plausible, since CAF fans will be run to reduce activity levels in CTMT in non-accident conditions.

"C" is plausible, since purging CTMT will remove radioactive air from CTMT. "D" is plausible since recombiners will be started during high Hydrogen concentrations occurring from fuel damage.

Technical Reference(s): E-1, steps 8.d.RNO and 23 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04361 Describe the major action categories within (As available)

Objective: EOP 35 E-1.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "ExaminationOutline Cross-reference: Level RO 45 SRO 45 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A # 015.A1.03 Importance Rating 3.7 3.7 Proposed Question:

Initial conditions:

1. The current 4 minute average calorimetric output is 3411 MWth based on a steam flow calculation.

2. Feed pressure instrument 3FWS-P37B needs to be removed from service for 3 days for a cable upgrade.

3. The crew desires to maintain the calorimetric as a calculated value, if possible, rather than allow it to auto-shift to a value based on NIS indications.

4. The highest reading NIS channel reads 100.1%. The average of the 4 NIS channels is 100.0%.

Using the attached copy of Attachment 7 of SP31002 "Plant Calorimetric", what actions will the crew take prior to allowing the channel to be removed from service?

A. Reduce power until the highest reading NIS channel is reading _<100%, since the computer will no longer display a value for thermal power.

B. Verify the average of the 4 NIS channels is reading <100% prior to removing the channel from service, since the auto-swap to NIS can not be avoided.

C. Reduce power by about 2% and then force the calorimetric to a feed flow calculation prior to removing the channel from service, since feed flow calorimetric normally reads higher than steam flow calorimetric.

D. Force the calorimetric to a feed flow calculation prior to removing the channel from service.

Power reduction should not be required, since feed flow calorimetric normally reads lower than steam flow calorimetric.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

3FWS-P37B is utilized by both the steam flow and feed flow calculation, so the crew cannot force a feed flow calculation prior to the calibration ("C" and "D" wrong). "C" and "D" are plausible since other channels will only auto-swap the calorimetric to NIS value if in one of the two (steam or feed) calculations. "C" and "D" are also plausible since feed flow calorimetric reads higher than steam flow calorimetric due to the phenomena of feed venturi fouling. "B" is correct, and "A" is wrong, since OP 3204 only requires maintaining the highest NIS channel <100% if the computer thermal power display is unavailable, and thermal power is still indicated, based on a conversion of NIS values.

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Technical Reference(s): SP31002, section 1.2 (Attach if not previously provided)

Attachment 7 of SP31002 OP 3204, step 4.3.1.a and h.

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: SP31002, Attachment 7 Learning MC-05228 Describe the operation of the NIS system under the following (As Objective: plant operating conditions:... Steady state operations >92% power. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 46 SRO 46 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A# 017.A1.01 Importance Rating 3.7 3.9 Proposed Question:

Which of the following indicates that the "Core Cooling" status tree should be "Orange"?

A. Core exit thermocouple temperatures read 15000F and RVLMS plenum indicates 0%.

B. Core exit thermocouple temperatures read 1300°F and RVLMS plenum indicates 0%

C. Core exit thermocouple temperatures read 1000°F and RVLMS plenum indicates 0%

D. Core exit thermocouple temperatures read 600'F and RVLMS plenum indicates 19%

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"A" and "B" wrong since CETCs above 1200°F is a red path., "C" is correct, since orange path criteria is either CETCs > 718°F or RVLMS < 19%. "D" is wrong since 19% is a yellow path.

Technical Reference(s): Core Cooling status tree (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective: MC-04930 DEFINE adequate Core Cooling. (As available)

Question Source: Bank # 70096 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 47 SRO 47 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A # 022. K4.03 Importance Rating 3.6 4.0 Proposed Question:

Which signal will directly cause CAR fan cooling to shift from reactor plant chilled water to RPCCW?

A. SIS B. CIA C. CIB D. CDA Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

CIA or LOP will cause the inlet and outlet valves from CDS to close and the MOVs from RPCCW to open.

Technical Reference(s): P&ID 121B and 122B (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC 04150 Describe the operation of the following Reactor Plant (As available)

Objective: Component Cooling System equipment controls and interlocks...

CCP to Chilled Water Cross-Connect Valves...

Question Source: Bank # 69063 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 48 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 1 K/A # 022.GEN.2.1.32 Importance Rating 3.4 Proposed Question:

Which of the below describes the optimal CAR fan arrangement with the plant at 100% power?

A. CAR fan "A" running only.

B. CAR fans "A" and "B" running only.

C. CAR fans "B" and "C" running only.

D. CAR fans "A", "B", and "C" running.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"A" is wrong since two CAR fans should be in operation during normal plant operations. "B" is wrong an "C" is correct since it is preferred not to run CAR fans "A" and "B" together, since PZR cubicle temperature increases without the "C" CAR fan in operation. "D" is wrong since running 3 CAR fans simultaneously causes a high backpressure and the fans will trip on overcurrent. "A" is plausible since 1 fan is normally run when shutdown, and 3 is plausible since this provides maximum cooling.

Technical Reference(s): OP 33133B, Sections 3.4 and 4.1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04261 Describe the major administrative or procedural precautions (As Objective: placed on the operation of the CTMT Vent System, and the basis for each. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 49 SRO 49 Tier # 2 1 Group# 1 2 K/A # 015.A2.02 033.K1.01 Importance Rating 3.1 3.0 Proposed Question:

Assume that prior to a startup, a common mode failure has resulted in Intermediate Range NI compensating voltage drifting upward on BOTH channels.

Which of the following describes the expected system response to this condition?

A. During startup the Intermediate Range indication will be less than actual, and during shutdown the Source Range may not be automatically reinstated.

B. During startup the Intermediate Range indication will be greater than actual, and during shutdown the Source Range may be reinstated prematurely causing an unwanted reactor trip.

C. During startup the Intermediate Range indication will be less than actual, and during shutdown the Source Range may be reinstated prematurely causing an unwanted reactor trip.

D. During startup the intermediate range indication will be greater than actual, and during shutdown the source range may not be automatically reinstated due to the P10 permissive being active.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

JUSTIFICATION: "B" & "D" are incorrect because readings on startup will be lower than actual not higher. "A" is incorrect and "C" is correct because on shutdown the IR detectors will read lower than actual and be automatically reinstated prematurely.

Technical Reference(s): Functional Dwg 3 & 4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-5229 For the following conditions, determine the (As available)

Objective: effects on the NIS system and on interrelated systems...

Intermediate range instrument failure below P-10.

Question Source: Bank # 73102 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.8 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 50 SRO 50 Tier # 2 2 Group# 1 1 K/A # 059.K3.03 Importance Rating 3.5 3.7 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

• Power is being increased from 90% to 100% in accordance with OP-3204.

• Both turbine driven feedwater pumps are operating.

• Two condensate pumps are in service.

• 6 condensate demineralizers are in service. A malfunction has caused the recirc valve for the "B" TDMFW pump to travel to the full open position.

Without operator action, what impact might this failure have on plant conditions?

A. SG Lo-Lo level resulting in a reactor trip.

B. Lowering demineralizer d/p resulting in degrading SG chemistry.

C. Standby condensate pump start, preventing a reactor trip.

D. Auto start of the MDFW pump, preventing a reactor trip.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Millstone 3 OE has shown that the maximum number of condensate demineralizers should be available to provide adequate feed pump suction flow when increasing feed flow, since condensate pump flow is limited by the number of demins in service. The recirc valve opening will cause condensate flow to increase by 5,400 gpm. Without operator action to start the standby condensate pump or open the demin bypass valve, the added condensate flow due to recirc flow back to the condenser will cause demineralizer dip to increase ("B" incorrect), and suction pressure to the feed pumps to decrease. The feed pump speed will increase, attempting to restore Feed Reg Valve DP, further lowering feed pump suction pressure. After 30 seconds the feed pumps will trip on low suction pressure ("A" correct). The MDFW pump may auto start on low discharge pressure (less than 955 psig), but this will aggravate the low suction pressure condition

("D" incorrect).

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB5C, 3-4 and 3-5 (Attach if not previously provided)

OP 3321, step 4.3.3, 4.3.35 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-04660 DESCRIBE the operation of the following Main (As Objective: Feedwater & Steam Generator Water Level Control Systems available)

Controls & Interlocks... Main Feed Pump Recirculation Valves (FWR-FV21A/B, FV20)... Turbine Driven Main Feed Pump Master Speed Controller (FWS-SK509A)... Low Main Feed Pump Suction Pressure Interlock... Low Main Feed Pump Discharge Pressure Interlock...

Question Source: Bank # 69604 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 51 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 1 K/A # 059.A2.06 Importance Rating 2.7 Proposed Question:

With the plant initially at 100% power, a significant feed heater level transient results in HI-HI levels in all 3 first point feed heaters. Extraction steam isolates to all 3 first point heaters.

Assuming the reactor does not trip, what will be the initial effect on indicated narrow range SG levels, and on actual reactor power?

A. SG NR levels will increase and actual reactor power will increase.

B. SG NR levels will increase and actual reactor power will decrease.

C. SG NR levels will decrease and actual reactor power will increase.

D. SG NR levels will decrease and actual reactor power will decrease.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct since loss of feed preheating will add colder water to the SGs, reducing boiling, resulting in "shrink" ("A" and "B" wrong) and also resulting in a drop in RCS Tcold. The drop in Tcold adds positive reactivity, causing reactor power to increase ("B" and "D" wrong).

Technical NRC Information Notice 96-41 (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): SGLC059C, SGWLC Text, pg 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05652 Describe the following phenomenon associated with the (As Objective: operation of Steam Generators: available)

A. Shrink B. Swell Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.1, 41.4, 41.5, and 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 52 SRO 52 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A# 061.K2.02 Importance Rating 3.7 3.7 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, an LOP occurs, and the "A" EDG fails to start. The crew has just entered EOP 35 ES-0.1 REACTOR TRIP RESPONSE.

Which of the following pumps is running?

A. "B" Heater Drain Pump B. "B" SIH Pump C. "B" MDAFW Pump D. "B" Reactor Coolant Pump Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"A" is wrong since the bus tie breaker to the non-emergency bus opens on the LOP. "B" is wrong since the SIH pump did not start since SIS did not actuate. "C" is correct since the MDAFW pump "B" is powered from emergency bus 34C, which is energized from the EDG. "D" is wrong since the RCPs are powered from the 6.9KV switchgear. "A", "B", and "D" are plausible since they are all large loads on the "B" train.

Technical Reference(s): OPS Form 3322. (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05024 Given the following failure of the 4 kV Distribution (As available)

Objective: system or a portion of the system, determine the effects on the system and on interrelated systems: 4 kV bus deenergization on safety-related and non-safety loads Question Source: Modified Bank# 2000 NRC 42 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question History: Last NRC Exam Mod ified Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 53 SRO 53 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A # 061 .K4.06 Importance Rating 4.0 4.2 Proposed Question:

The following sequence of events occurs:

1. With the plant operating at 15% power, a steam break occurs on the "A" S/G steam header in the Main Steam Valve Building upstream of the MSIV.

2. "A" S/G pressure is 500 psig and decreasing.

3. "A" SG narrow range level is 0%.

4. "B", "C", and "D" SG narrow range levels are 40% and slowly decreasing.

5. All safeguards equipment operates as designed.

6. The crew has just completed E-0 "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection", step 4.

Assuming no further operator action is taken, which AFW pumps, if any, are running?

A. None.

B. The Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump only.

C. Both Motor Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps only.

D. All three Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

Both MDAFW pumps will auto-start on the SIS signal. The TDAFW pump starts on Lo-Lo level in 2/4 SGs, and since initial power was low, the effects of shrink will be minimal, and only the faulted SG will lose narrow range level. "A" is plausible, since initial power level was low, minimizing shrink. "B" and "D" are plausible since a Safety Injection signal actuated.

Technical Reference(s): Functional Dwg #8 and 15 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04638, DESCRIBE the following operations of the Auxiliary (As Objective: Feedwater System under the following normal, abnormal, & emergency available) conditions... ESF Actuation Signal (SI, CDA, or LOP)... Reactor Trip Question Source: Bank # 69476 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.14 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 54 SRO Tier # 2 ______

Group # 1 __________

K/A# 068.K1 .07 Importance Rating 2.7 _____

Proposed Question:

Assuming normal plant valve line-ups and operations, which of the following sets of conditions will send water to a Radioactive Liquid Waste System Drain Tank?

A. The CTMT Drains Transfer Pump ,3DGS-P1A, is running taking a suction on the CTMT Drains Transfer Tank (TK1) with the CTMT Isolation Valve, 3DGS*CTV24, open.

B. The Underdrain Sump Pump ,3SRW-P3A, is running taking a suction on the Underdrain Sump Outside ESF Building (SUMP3) with Hi-Hi level in the sump.

C. The Turbine Plant Component Cooling Drain Pump ,3DAS-P7A, is running taking a suction on the Turbine Plant Component Cooling Drain Sump with Hi level in the sump.

D. The Turbine Building Floor Drain Pump ,3DFT-P2A, is running taking a suction on the Turbine Building Floor Drain Sump under normal conditions.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A wrong: Plausible since this tank pumps to the Radioactive Gaseous Waste System.

B wrong: Plausible since ESF building inside sumps go to LWS.

C correct: TPCCW sump contents always go to LWS. EM-106C, L8 D wrong: Plausible since this line-up will go to LWS on Hi-Rads Technical Reference(s): P&IDs EM-106A, 106C, 107A (Attach if not previously provided))

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04857 Describe the function and location of the following... (As available)

Objective: High Level Waste Drain Tanks...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.13 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 55 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 1 K/A # 003.K1.02 Importance Rating 2.6 Proposed Question:

With the plant in MODE 3 at normal operating temperature and pressure, an inadvertent ESF actuation signal occurs, resulting in the following:

"* The Reactor Plant Chilled Water containment isolation valves close.

"* The RPCCW cross-tie to Chilled Water valves open.

What is the status of cooling to the RCP motors, and are the RCPs required to be tripped?

A. Cooling to both the motor air coolers and the bearing oil coolers--a.I;.t4-*RPCCW. The RCPs are not required to be tripped.

B. The motor air coolers have lost cooling while the bearing oil coolersha-e- hiffe4lRPCCW.

The RCPs are not required to be tripped.

C. The motor air coolers have shifted to RPCCW while the bearing oil coolers have lost cooling.

The RCPs are required to be tripped.

D. Cooling to both the motor air coolers and the bearing oil coolers has been lost. The RCPs are required to be tripped.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

On a CIA, chilled water (CDS) isolates to CTMT, and the RPCCW cross tie valves to CDS open, supplying neutron shield tank cooling and CAR fans, but not RCP motor cooling ("A"wrong).

RPCCW normally supplies the motor bearing oil coolers ("C" and "D" wrong). Since CDS cools the air leaving the RCP motor (assisting in maintaining CTMT temperature), the RCPs are not required to be tripped ("B" correct).

Technical Reference(s): P&ID 121 B, 122A & B (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04189 Given a failure, partial or complete, of the (As available)

Objective: Reactor Plant Chilled Water System, determine the effect on the system and on interrelated systems.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.3, 41.7 Comments:

C1 46Q NUREG02 CReviio 8, Supplement 41 of 46 NUREG-1 021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 57 SRO 57 Tier # 2 2 Group # 1 1 K/A # 071.GEN.2.3.2 Importance Rating 2.5 2.9 Proposed Question:

Why must 3HVR*V42, Unit 3 Discharge to Unit 1 Stack, be CLOSED if no process vent or SLCRS fans are available?

A. Prevent backflow to Unit 3 from the Unit 1 stack B. Prevent a siphon effect from causing uncontrolled discharges from the Unit 3 stack C. Prevent forming an explosive mixture by preventing oxygen inleakage D. Prevent an inadvertent radioactive release through the idle discharge line out the Unit 1 stack Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

If no fan available, 3HVR*V42, stack discharge stop valve should be closed to prevent backflow from the Unit 1 stack. (A) is correct.

Technical Reference(s): OP3337, Precaution 3.3 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 04729, Describe the major administrative or procedural precautions (As Objective: and limitations placed on the operation of the GWS system, available) including the basis for each.

Question Source: Bank # 64365 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.12, 41.13 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 58 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 1 K/A # 072.A1.01 Importance Rating 3.4 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power and all equipment operating normally, 3HVR-RE12 (Degassifier area) fails high.

Which area radiation monitor will go into ALARM due to increasing radiation levels caused by the 3HVR-RE12 failure?

A. 3RMS-RE07 (Aux 66', Calibration room area).

B. 3RMS-RE16 (Aux 43', VCT and boric acid tank area).

C. 3RMS-RE13 (Aux 24', Heat exchanger area).

D. 3RMS-RE10 (Aux 04', Resin discharge pipe chase area).

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct, since the automatic action resulting from the alarm on 3HVR-RE12 causes 3CHS*AOV71 to divert letdown flow to the VCT (away from the degassifier). Radioactive gasses are no longer stripped out of the letdown stream, allowing radioactive gasses to accumulate in the VCT gas space, increasing area radiation. "A", "C", and "D" are plausible, since these area monitors are also in the Auxiliary Building.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3573 Att. A, pg 6 (Attach if not previously provided)

AOP 3573 Att. B, pg 3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05472 Given a failure of the radiation monitoring system (partial or (As Objective: complete), explain the effect on the system and on inter-related systems. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.11 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 59 SRO Tier # 2 Group# 1 K/A # 013.K4.11 Importance Rating 3.2 Proposed Question:

A loss of off-site power has occurred, and all equipment operates as designed.

While the sequencer (EGLS) is in the process of completing the LOP loading sequence, an automatic safety injection occurs.

Which of the following describes what occurs upon initiation of the Safety Injection?

A. The EDG output breakers remain closed, and the sequencers reset to time 0. All previously running loads remain running unless not required for the SIS, and the sequencers then sequence on the remaining SIS loads in the SI/LOP mode.

B. The EDG output breakers open, and the sequencers strip the emergency busses and reset to time 0. The SIS signal causes the EDG output breakers to close. The sequencers then sequence on all required loads in the SI/LOP mode.

C. The EDG output breakers remain closed, and the sequencers remain at the current time in the loading sequence. The sequencers start any required SIS loads without delay, and then resume sequencing at the step in progress in the LOP mode.

D. The EDG output breakers open, and the sequencers strip the emergency busses and reset to time 0. After a 10 second time delay, the sequencers start any required SIS loads without delay, and then sequence on any remaining loads required in the LOP mode.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

"B" & "D"are incorrect because the diesel output breaker does not open. "C" is incorrect because the sequencer resets to time 0. "A" is correct, the sequencer resets, any loads not needed for the m ode, such as RPCCW pumps for CDA would be tripped, any SI loads would be started.

Technical Reference(s): LSK 24-9A (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04416 Describe the operation of the emergency diesel load (As available)

Objective: sequencers under the following... LOP followed by a SIS...

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: Bank # 73185 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.11 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 60 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 2 K/A# 002.A2.01 Importance Rating 4.3 Proposed Question:

The following conditions exist:

"* A LOCA has occurred

"* RCS pressure is stable at 600 psia

"* RHR pumps have just been stopped per E-1, step 9

"* CTMT Temperature is 170°F

"* CTMT Pressure is 22 psia

"* CTMT Radiation level is 10 R/hr Under which of the following conditions will the RHR pumps be required to be restarted?

A. RCS pressure drops to 290 psia.

B. Pressurizer level drops to 14%.

C. Containment temperature increases to 2000 F.

D. Containment radiation increases to 104 R/hr.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

"A" is correct since, to provide adequate ECCS flow, RCS pressure should be monitored to ensure that the RHR pumps are manually restarted if pressure decreases to LESS THAN 300 psia (500 psia ADVERSE CONTAINMENT). "B" is wrong, since ECCS reinitiation criteria (per the foldout page is pressurizer level less than 16%) does not apply until SI has been terminated. "C" is wrong, since RCS pressure is above the adverse CTMT setpoint of 500 psia. "D" is wrong, since RCS pressure is above the adverse CTMT setpoint and CTMT radiation would still be below Adverse CTMT value.

Technical Reference(s): E-1 Caution prior to step 9 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04361 Describe the major action categories within EOP 35 (As available)

Objective: E-1.

Question Source: Bank # 64244 Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 61 SRO 61 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A # 006. K3.02 Importance Rating 4.3 4.4 Proposed Question:

With the plant initially at 100% power, a small cold leg break loss of coolant accident has occurred.

Current conditions are as follows:

"* No CHS or SIH pumps can be started.

"* RCS pressure has stabilized at 1200 psia.

"* The Pressurizer is empty.

Why is it important that an operator controlled cooldown of the RCS is commenced expeditiously?

A. The Fuel Clad temperature limits will be challenged.

B. The Containment pressure limits will be challenged.

C. The RCS pressure limits will be challenged.

D. RCS pressure control has been lost.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Inadequate heat removal exists out the cold leg break, reactor vessel heat maintains RCS pressure above the accumulator and RHR pump shutoff head. All the while inventory continues to be lost, and deep core uncovery will occur unless an operator controlled cooldown reduces RCS pressure to accumulator and RHR pump injection pressures ("A" correct).

Technical WOG MCD Text on Inadequate Core Cooling, (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): pg 2-20 to 2-24 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04933 Assuming no Operator Action, ANALYZE the Loss of (As Objective: Core Cooling Event leading to Core Damage. available)

MC-04935 APPRAISE each Operator-initiated recovery technique in its ability to restore the Core Cooling Critical Safety function.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.7, 41.8 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 62 SRO 62 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A# 010.A1.09 Importance Rating 3.4 3.7 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, a pressurizer code safety valve inadvertently lifts and remains partially open.

The following indications exist:

"* Pressurizer pressure is 2235 psig and DECREASING.

"* Tave is on program.

"* PRT pressure is 20 psia and INCREASING The RO monitors PORV tail pipe temperature on MB4.

What should tail pipe temperature be indicating?

A. 230°F B. 270°F C. 300°F D. 650°F Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

"A" is correct because the enthalpy of the saturated steam in the PZR vapor space does not change as it passes through a safety valve, resulting in a temperature indication corresponding to the pressure in the PRT. The Mollier diagram shows that enthalpy of the PZR steam is approximately 1120 BTU/Ib. Move across (left to right) to the PRT pressure, demonstrating that the steam will be saturated at PRT pressure. Follow the constant pressure line up to the saturation curve, which reads about 230'F. "B" is plausible, since this would be the approximate temperature based on saturation pressure (1400 psia) for the current Tave. "C" is plausible, since this is the temperature obtained if the candidate incorrectly assumes a constant entropy process.

"D" is plausible, since this is the answer if the student incorrectly assumes a constant temperature process (TMI).

Technical Reference(s): Steam Tables, Mollier Diagram (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Steam Tables 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-05349 Describe the Pressurizer Relief Tank System ... under the (As available)

Objective: following... Pressurizer Safety Valve OR Power Operated Relief Valve discharge...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 63 SRO 63 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A# 011.A3.02 Importance Rating 2.6 2.8 Proposed Question:

The crew is reducing power from 100% using OP 3204 "At Power Operation" with all control systems in automatic.

What level will the Pressurizer be maintained at while reactor power is 40%?

A. 41%

B. 46%

C. 51%

D. 56%

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

JUSTIFICATION: Pressurizer level is programmed based on auctioneered high Tave, which is based on reactor power. Pressurizer level program maintains PZR level between 61.5% with Tave at 5870(100% power), and 28% with Tave at 557°F (0% power). At 40% power, PZR level is40%

of the way from the no load level of 28% to the 100% level of 61.5%, or 41% ("A" correct).

Technical Reference(s): Functional Dwg #11 (Attach if not previously provided)

Tech Spec Figure 3.4-5 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 05342, Given a failure, partial or complete, of the Pressurizer (As Objective: Pressure and Level Control System, determine the effects on the available) system and on interrelated systems.

Question Souirce: Bank # 73123 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 64 SRO 64 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A # 012.A2.05 Importance Rating 3.1 3.2 Proposed Question:

A normal shutdown from full power is being performed.

At 40% power, Intermediate Range Channel IR-35 fails high.

If no operator action is taken to address the failed instrument, how will the shutdown be affected?

A. The reactor trips immediately, and both Source Range channels will have to be manually energized.

B. The reactor trips immediately, and both Source Ranges will automatically energize at the proper time.

C. The reactor will trip when power is reduced below 10%, and both Source Range channels will have to be manually energized.

D. The reactor will trip when power is reduced below 10%, and both Source Ranges will automatically energize at the proper time.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

The IR trip is blocked until power decreases below 10% power (P-10) on % PRNI channels "A" and "B" wrong). The failed IR channel causes the trip since it is >25% equivalent. With a high failure of IR N-36, the Source Range instruments will not automatically reenergize since P-6 requires both IR channels to be <5x10-10 amps ("C" correct, "D" wrong).

Technical Reference(s): Functional Sheets 3 & 4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05229 For the following conditions, determine the effects on the NIS (As Objective: system and on interrelated systems... Intermediate range instrument available) failure below P-10... Intermediate range instrument failure above P-10 Question Source: Bank # 60679 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 65 SRO 65 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 1 K/A# 014.A4.02 Importance Rating 3.2 3.2 Proposed Question:

Power is stable at 10-8 amps during a reactor startup. The RO is monitoring indications on MB4.

What rod speed should be indicated on the MB4 Rod Speed Indicator?

A. 8 steps per minute B. 48 steps per minute C. 64 steps per minute D. 72 steps per minute Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

During a reactor startup, the Rod Bank Selector switch is in the MANUAL position. While selected to MANUAL, rod speed is 48 spm ("B" correct). "A" and "D"are plausible, since these are minimum and maximum speeds in AUTO. "C" is plausible, since this is the speed indicated for shutdown banks while in BANK SELECT on the Rod Bank Selector switch.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3202, step 4.13 (Attach if not previously provided)

Training Figure 7 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05477, Describe the operation of the following Rod Control (As Objective: System controls and interlocks.... Bank Selector Switch... available)

Question Source: Bank # 72249 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 66 SRO 66 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A# 016.K5.01 Importance Rating 2.7 2.8 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, the Master Pressurizer Pressure controller develops a ground in its control circuitry.

What should be the effect, if any, on the protection system?

A. There would be no direct effect due to protection and control circuits utilizing separate detectors, power supplies, and circuitry.

B. There would be no direct effect due to the control circuitry being electrically isolated from the protection circuits.

C. The associated protection channel bistable would trip as a direct result of the ground.

D. Pressurizer Low Pressure Safety Injection would actuate as a direct result of the ground.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct since the control signals going to the controller are electrically isolated from the protection circuits. "A" is plausible since separation of this nature is used for some remote shutdown applications. "C" and "D" are plausible since bistable tripping could be the effect of a ground if electrical isolation was not employed.

Technical Reference(s): Process dwg 12 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05243 Discuss the difference between "process control" and (As available)

Objective: "process protection".

Question Source: Bank # 68324 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 67 SRO 67 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 1 K/A # 026.A3.02 Importance Rating 3.9 4.2 Proposed Question:

A CDA occurred and the crew is progressing through the EOP network. The CTMT Recirc (RSS) pumps have just started, and the RO is verifying that equipment is in the desired lineup.

What should be the position of the RPCCW heat exchanger service water inlet isolation valves (3SWP*MOV50A/B), and the service water inlet valves to the containment recirc coolers (3SWP*MOV54A/B/C/D)?

A. Both the RPCCW heat exchanger service water inlet isolation valves and the service water inlet valves to the containment recirc coolers should be OPEN.

B. The RPCCW heat exchanger service water inlet isolation valves should be OPEN and the service water inlet valves to the containment recirc coolers should be CLOSED.

C. The RPCCW heat exchanger service water inlet isolation valves should be CLOSED and the service water inlet valves to the containment recirc coolers should be OPEN.

D. Both the RPCCW heat exchanger service water inlet isolation valves and the service water inlet valves to the containment recirc coolers should be CLOSED.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, since on a CDA, the RPCCW heat exchanger service water inlet isolation valves receive a CLOSE signal, to prevent excessive flow for the service water pumps.

The service water inlet valves to the containment recirc coolers receive an OPEN signal to provide cooling to the CTMT sump water being recirculated. "A" is plausible, since this also supplies cooling to the RSS heat exchangers. "B" and "D" are plausible since there is a 3 minute time delay prior to 3SWP-MOV54C opening, but since the RSS pumps are running, at least 11 minutes has passes since the CDA actuated.

Technical Reference(s): LSK-9-1 G and 27-11 L (Attach if not previously provided)

P&ID 133B Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-05718 Describe the operation of the Service Water System under (As Objective: the following normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions... available)

Containment Depressurization Actuation Question Source: Bank # 69683 Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 68 SRO 68 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A # 029.A2.03 Importance Rating 2.7 3.1 Proposed Question:

Initial conditions:

"* The plant is in MODE 6.

"* Fuel Movement has been suspended due to problems with the refueling machine.

"* The Fuel pool transfer canal gate valve is open.

"* The CTMT access hatch is open.

"* One hour ago, the crew started up the CTMT Purge System, with the "A" Train supply HVU (3HVR-HVU1A) and exhaust fan (3HVR-FN4A) running.

Power has just been restored to the "B" Train, and the crew is preparing to start the second CTMT Purge Exhaust fan (3HVR-FN4B).

According to the precautions in OP 3313F "Containment Purge Air", what potentially adverse effect will result from starting the second CTMT purge exhaust fan?

A. The CTMT Purge System sheet metal ductwork will be damaged in the Auxiliary Building.

B. CTMT Purge System flowrates will exceed the capacity of the air handling unit to maintain air temperature.

C. Level in the spent fuel pool and refueling cavity will change.

D. CTMT air will start flowing out the CTMT hatch into the Auxiliary Building.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, since changing the status of the CTMT Purge system will alter the DP between CTMT and the fuel building. "A" is wrong, since ductwork damage is only a problem when the CTMT is at a vacuum. "A" is plausible, since sheet metal ductwork damage is possible, and has happened in the past at Millstone 3. "B" is wrong, since the HVU is expected to handle the air temperature requirements with two exhaust fans running. "B" is plausible, since air flow will increase through the HVU. "D" is wrong, and plausible, since it is desirable to run two exhaust fans and one supply fan to keep the flow of air into CTMT through the open access hatch.

Technical OP 3313F, Precautions 3.7 and 3.8 (Attach if not previously Reference(s): OP 3313F, NOTEs prior to steps 4.1.6 and 4.1.7 provided) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04261 Describe the major administrative or procedural (As available)

Objective: precautions and limitations placed on the operation of the Containment Ventilation System and the basis for each.

Question Source: Bank # New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

2.1.8 The following surveillances have been completed satisfactory if the Containment Purge and Exhaust System is being operated for the first time since entering cold shutdown conditions [,!Ref 6.5]:

• SP 3449E11, "Fuel Drop Radiation Monitor (3RMS*RIY41 and 3RMS*RIY42) Analog Channel Operational Test" 0 SP 3449E01, "Containment Area Purge and Exhaust Calibration (3RMS*RE41)"

9 SP 3449E02, "Containment Area Purge and Exhaust Calibration (3RMS*RE42)"

2.2 Tools and Consumables 2.2.1 Key for Containment Purge Supply and Exhaust valve from Control Room key locker.

3. PRECAUTIONS 3.1 Do not open containment purge isolation valves during operation in MODE 1, 2, 3 or 4, except as specified in AOP 3568, "Emergency Breaking of Containment Vacuum."

3.2 The minimum recommended temperature in the containment structure during shutdown conditions is 70°F 3.3 If a purge air exhaust high radiation signal from 3RMS*RE41 or 3RMS*RE42) is received during operation, the containment purge air inlet and outlet isolation valves close automatically. Closure of these valves does not stop 3HVR-FN4A or 3HVR-FN4B. [If containment purge air inlet and outlet valves close automatically, stop exhaust fans 3HVR-FN4A and 3HVR-FN4B which will in turn stop the purge supply air handling units.]

3.4 A Safety Injection Signal or air discharge temperatures less than 35°F from the air handling unit heating coils closes the air handling unit inlet dampers. Closure of these dampers stops 3HVR-FN4A or 3HVR-FN4B which in turn stops the air handling unit.

3.5 On loss of power all dampers and valves fail to their respective fail safe conditions.

3.6 A fan motor thermal overload causes that train to stop operation due to associated interlocks.

OP 3313F Level of Use Rev. 009 Continuous W 3 of 19

3.7 The resultant pressure gradients experienced during depressurization and repressurization of the containment structure require closure of containment purge air valves, 3HVU*CT'V32A and 3HVU*CTV32B, to prevent damage to sheet metal ductwork in the Auxiliary Building.

3.8 During Refueling when the fuel transfer tube is open to the spent fuel pool, changes in the status of the Containment Purge System (i.e., turning fans on and off, or changing damper alignments) may affect the level of the spent fuel pool and the refueling cavity due to the differential pressure between Containment and the Fuel Building.

OP 3313F Level of UseA, kAt Rev. 009 Continuous WW 4 of 19

c. WHEN 3HVU*CTV32A and 3HVU*CTV32B, "PURGE VVS," are open, return switch to 'AUTO" (VP1).

d. PLACE key switch for 3HV *CTV33A and 3HVU*CP/33B, "PURGE VVS," to "OPEN" (VP1).

e. WHEN 3HVU*C'IV33A and 3HVU*CTV33B, "PURGE VVS," are open, return switch to 'AUTO" (VP1).

NOTE During outages with containment access open, it is desirable to run two exhaust fans and one supply fan to keep the flow of air into Containment through the open containment accesses.

4.1.6 IF it is desired to start containment purge Train A, PERFORM the following (VP1):

a. OPEN the following "CTMT PURGE" "SPLY DMPRS" "HVUIA':

"* 3HVR*AOD55A

"* 3HVR*AOD174A

b. START 3HVR-FN4A, "EXH FANS."

NOTE 3HVH-TV111A, containment purge air handling unit A hot water valve, modulates to maintain a preset temperature of 70°F

c. START 3HVR-HVU1A, "SPLY HVU'S."

4.1.7 IF it is desired to start containment purge Train B, PERFORM the following (VP1):

a. OPEN the following "CTMT PURGE" "SPLY DMPRS" "HVU1B":

"* 3HVR*AOD55B

"* 3HVR*AOD174B A I OP 3313F Level of Use . L WI-%

Rev. 009 Continuous 6 of 19 IF' IN

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 69 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 2 K/A # 033.K3.02 Importance Rating 2.8 Proposed Question:

The unit is in Mode 0 and all steps in OP3210B, Refueling Operations, Section 4.1, Core Off-Load are complete when Area Radiation Monitors, RMS08-1, Spent Fuel Pool Bridge Hoist Area and RMS36-1, Fuel Pool begin to show increasing radiation level trends higher than expected. The Process Radiation Monitor, HVR17-1, Fuel Building Exhaust shows no change in radiation level.

What is the most likely cause of this condition?

A. Spent Fuel Pool level is decreasing due to a Refueling Cavity Seal leak B. Spent Fuel Pool level is decreasing due to a Fuel Pool Cooling System leak C. One of the Fuel Assemblies is leaking gases from a cladding penetration D. One of the Fuel Assemblies was damaged during offload Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

A is wrong since OP3210B, 4.1 complete, 3FNT-TFT1, Transfer Tube Isolation, is CLOSED, and plausible since level decrease is the cause.

B correct: AOP 3573, Aft A give rad details and leak remedies.

C is wrong since Process Rad Monitor is stable, and plausible since ARMs are showing increases. D is wrong since process monitors are stable, and plausible since ARMs are showing increases.

Technical AOP 3573 Aft A, pg 8; Att B, pg 2 and 4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): OP3210B, Section 4.1, ARP FP, 1-3, ARP MBIA, 3-4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05644 Given the following failures, partial or complete, of the Spent (As Objective: Fuel Cooling System, determine the effects on the system and on available) interrelated systems... Leak in the Spent Fuel Pool...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.11 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 70 SRO 70 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A # 035.GEN.2.4.31 Importance Rating 3.3 3.4 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* The crew is performing a plant cooldown in accordance with OP 3208 "Plant Cooldown".

"* Tave is 540°F and slowly decreasing.

"* PZR pressure is 1900 psia and slowly decreasing.

"* S/G pressures are all approximately 950 psig and slowly decreasing.

While attempting to increase the RCS cooldown rate, the BOP operator inadvertently throttles too far open on the Condenser Steam Dumps. The "SG B PRESSURE RATE HI" setpoint is exceeded, and the annunciator is received on MB5B.

What automatic function(s), if any, occur as a result of this alarm condition?

A. No automatic actions occur.

B. Safety Injection Actuation actuates only.

C. Main Steam Line Isolation actuates only.

D. Main Steam Line Isolation and Safety Injection Actuation occur.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"A" is wrong since when Main Steam SI is blocked, the high steam rate MSI is enabled.

Answer is plausible since Main Steam SI and PZR Pressure SI HAVE been blocked.

"B" is wrong since SIS has been blocked, and is plausible since SIS will actuate if it has not been blocked [Can not be blocked unless < P-11 (2000 psia), and is procedurally done at 1950 psia RCS pressure].

"C" is correct, since, per MB5B, 2-4, high steam rate will actuate MSI with SIS blocked <

P-11.

"D" is wrong since SIS has been blocked, and is plausible since these are the automatic actions for a Low Steamline Pressure annunciator IF SIS is not blocked.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB5B, 2-4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Functional Dwgs #7 and 8 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05493 Describe the operation of the following RPS controls and (As Objective: interlocks... ESF Actuation Signals... available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 and 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 71 SRO 71 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A# 039.K1.02 Importance Rating 3.3 3.3 Proposed Question:

With the plant initially stable at 56% power, a transient occurs, with the following trends currently observed:

Reactor Power: 58% and increasing RCS Pressure: 2240 psia and decreasing Tave (Auct high): 568°F and decreasing SG pressures: 1030 psig and decreasing CTMT pressure: 13.8 psia and stable Based on plant conditions, what event is in progress?

A. A SG Atmospheric dump valve has failed open.

B. A SG tube has ruptured.

C. A dilution is in progress.

D. A small loss of primary coolant accident is in progress.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Reactor power is increasing, indicating a positive reactivity event is in progress ("B" and "D" wrong). Steam pressure and Tave are decreasing, indicating the positive reactivity is due to the secondary plant ("A" correct and "C" wrong).

Technical Reference(s): FSAR Ch. 15.1.3 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: IN lone Learning MC-04881 Describe the major parameter changes associated (As available)

Objective: with increased heat removal by the secondary system.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4, 41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

MNPS-3 FSAR Normal reactor control systems and engineered safety systems are not required to "function. The reactor protection system is assumed to be operable; however, ila)I is not encountered for any case due to the error allowances assumed in a reactor trip the set points. No single active failure will prevent the reactor protection system from performing its intended function.

The cases which assume automatic rod control are analyzed to ensure that the worst case is presented. The automatic function is not required.

Results Figures 15.1-3 through 1 5.1-6 illustrate the transient with the reactor in the manual control mode. As expected, for the minimum moderator feedback case there is a slight power increase, and the average core temperature shows a large decrease.

This results in a DNBR which increases above its initial value. For the maximum moderator feedback, manually controlled case there is a much larger increase in reactor power due to the moderator feedback. A reduction in DNBR is experienced but DNBR remains above the safety analysis limit.

Figures 15.1-7 through 1 5.1-10 illustrate the transient assuming the reactor is in the automatic control mode. Both the minimum and maximum moderator feedback cases show that core power increases, thereby increasing the coolant average temperature and pressurizer pressure above their initial value. For both of these cases, the minimum DNBR (9I-i*)j remains above the safety analysis limit.

"For all cases, the plant rapidly reaches a stabilized condition at the higher power level.

Normal plant operating procedures would then be followed to reduce power. Note that due to the measurement errors assumed in the set points, it is possible that reactor trip could actually occur for the automatic control cases. The plant would then reach a stabilized condition following the trip.

The excessive load increase incident is an overpower transient for which the fuel tempera tures rise. Reactor trip does not occur for any of the cases analyzed, and the plant reaches a new equilibrium condition at a higher power level corresponding to the increase in steam flow.

Since DNB does not occur at any time during the excessive load increase transients, the ability of the primary coolant to remove heat from the fuel rod is not reduced. Thus, the fuel cladding temperature does not rise significantly above its initial value during the transient.

The calculated sequence of events for the excessive load increase incident is shown in Table 15.1-1.

15.1.3.3 Conclusions The analysis presented above shows that for a 10 percent step load increase, the DNBR

• -qI-I)l remains above the safety analysis limit; the design basis for DNBR as described in Section 4.4 is met. The plant reaches a stabilized condition rapidly following the load increase.

15Sl.MP3 15.1-8 May 1998

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 72 SRO 72 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A # 055.GEN.2.1.32 Importance Rating 3.4 3.8 Proposed Question:

With the plant in HOT STANDBY, a PEO is sent out to investigate a decreasing condenser vacuum. The PEO reports the following:

"* There is no flow out of the air ejector atmospheric discharge.

"* There is elevated air ejector suction manifold temperatures.

What is the likely cause of the decreasing vacuum?

A. The SJAE is backfiring.

B. Loss of steam supply to the SJAEs.

C. Loss of circ water flow to a condenser bay D. Loss of condenser vacuum breaker water seal.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

3.1 SJAE backfiring can occur when adjustments are made to steam jet air ejector lineup and can significantly affect condenser vacuum. Indications of backfiring include:- Decreasing condenser vacuum, elevated SJAE suction manifold temperature, and/or reduced or no flow out of SJAE atmospheric discharge Technical Reference(s): OP 3329, Precaution 3.1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 04098, Given a failure (partial or complete) of the Condenser Air Removal (As Objective: system, determine the effects on the system and on interrelated systems. available)

Question Source: Bank # 69789 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 73 SRO Tier # 2 Group# 2 K/A # 062 GEN 2.4.31 Importance Rating 3.3 Proposed Question:

CONVEX notifies the control room that grid instabilities are occurring, when a reactor trip occurs due to a failed reactor trip breaker.

Current conditions are as follows:

"* The crew is in ES-0.1, "Reactor Trip Response".

"* Annunciator "BUS 34C UNDERVOLTAGE" comes in on Main Board 8.

"* Annunciator "4KV BUS LOSS OF RESERVE POWER" comes in on Main Board 8.

"* Bus 34C voltage reads a stable 3700 volts.

What will be the status of bus 34C five minutes after the bus 34C undervoltage annunciator came in?

A. 34C*1T-2, bus tie breaker, tripped Emergency diesel generator A running unloaded RSSA*34C-2, RSSA supply breaker, open B. 34C*1T-2, bus tie breaker, tripped Emergency diesel generator A running unloaded RSSA*34C-2, RSSA supply breaker, closed on bus 34C C. 34C*1T-2, bus tie breaker, tripped and locked out Emergency diesel generator A running unloaded RSSA*34C-2, RSSA supply breaker, tripped and locked out D. 34C*1T-2, bus tie breaker, tripped and locked out Emergency diesel generator A running and sequenced onto bus 34C RSSA*34C-2, RSSA supply breaker, tripped and locked out Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

A and C Wrong, and D correct, since OP 3353.MB8C 3-12, Bus 34C Undervoltage, Step 3; Automatic Action. No SIS or CDA signal present AND the condition has existed for > 4.5 minutes.

Tie Breaker trips, EDG starts, and will close in since the RSST is locked out.

B. Wrong: RSSA will not close due to <90% voltage.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB8C 3-12 and 4-3 (Attach if not previously provided) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03337 Describe the 4kV distribution system under... LOP (As available)

Objective: Sequence... MB8 Alarm Response.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 74 SRO 74 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 1 K/A # 063.K1.02 Importance Rating 2.7 3.2 Proposed Question:

The plant is at 100 % power. All electrical systems are in their normal alignment.

Load Center 32T deenergizes due to a bus differential, and cannot be reenergized.

Which of the following describes the effects, if any, on the 125 VDC electrical distribution system?

A. No effect. The inverter 1 static switch will transfer VIAC-1 loads to the alternate source.

B. Battery 1 begins to discharge, but will stop discharging when swing charger 301A-3 is placed in service.

C. Battery 1 begins to discharge, because it is now supplying Battery Bus 301A-1 loads, while Inverter 1 continues to supply VIAC-1 from the rectifier.

D. Battery 1 begins to discharge, because it is now supplying both Battery Bus 301A-1 loads, and supplying VIAC-1 via the inverter.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"D" is correct, since when 32T is lost, power is lost to the rectifier, the battery charger, and the swing battery charger ("B" and "C" wrong), causing battery 301A-1 to pick up the load on the DC bus. Automatic switchover to the alternate AC source only occurs if the output from the inverter is lost ("A" is wrong), so the battery will also supply VIAC 1 via the inverter. "A" is plausible, since this would occur on a loss of the inverter. "B" is plausible, since batteries 301A-2 and 301 B-2 have the swing charger powered from a different load center than their normal charger. "C" is plausible, since this would be the lineup if only the battery charger was lost.

Technical Reference(s): EE-1BA (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-03325 given a failure of the 480 vac distribution system or a (As a

Objectiv portion of the system, determine the effects on the system and on available) e: interrelated systems a). Loss of 480 volt load center or MCC on applicable loads...

Question Source: Modified Bank # 68029 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.8 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 75 SRO 75 Tier # 2 2 Group# 2 2 K/A # 064.K2.02 Importance Rating 2.8 3.1 Proposed Question:

The crew is responding to a loss of offsite power using ECA-0.0, "Loss of Offsite Power", and the following sequence of events occurs:

1. A PEO starts the "A" EDG using ECA-0.0, Attachment "E".

2. The EDG Output Breaker automatically closes and re-energizes Bus 34C.

3. A PEO reports that the "B" EDG can not be started.

4. After approximately 20 minutes of loaded operation the "DG A Day Tank Level Lo-Lo" annunciator comes in.

5. The PEO reports that the "A" Day Tank Level is 185 gallons and neither of the Fuel Oil Transfer Pumps (3EGF*PIA & 3EGF*P1C) are running.

6. Although power is available, attempts to start the Fuel Oil Transfer Pumps are unsuccessful.

How will the crew fill the "A" EDG Fuel Oil Day Tank?

A. Obtain maintenance department assistance and align hoses from the "B" train Fuel Oil Transfer Pump.

B. Place the 3EGS*PNLA control switch on MCC32-1T-3H to "start" and start the Fuel Oil Transfer Pumps from 3EGS*PNLA.

C. Mechanically align the system, and use Kirk keys to electrically align and operate 3EGF*P1 B, Fuel Oil Transfer Pump, from alternate power supply, 32-1T.

D. Mechanically align the system, and use Kirk keys to electrically align and operate 3EGF*PI D, Fuel Oil Transfer Pump, from alternate power supply, 32-1T.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

A wrong: Power is not available for the "B" fuel oil transfer pump.

B wrong: 3EGS*PNLA contains non-essential loads. This is plausible, since its control switch is on 32-1T, and it is operated when recovering in ECA-0.1.

C wrong: 3EGF*P1 B does not have an alternate power supply D correct: ARP MB8B, 5-3 directs to OP3346B to align 3EGF*PID to alternate power supply and flowpath.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB8B, 5-3 (Attach if not previously provided)

FSAR Figure 8.3-6 OP 3346B, sections 4.6 and 4.8.5 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04404 Given a failure (partial or complete) of the (As available)

Objective: Emergency Diesel Generator System, determine the effects on the system and on interrelated systems.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

" , .BREAKER

""* COMBINATION STARTER F KEY REMOVED FROM DEVICE IN POSITION SHOWN (US 32- A)IT TRAIN BUS (TRAIN )

32-IU F KEY HELD IN LOCK IN DEVICE IN POSITION SHOWS

!K 3L* 3K 4K 2K *L-O LOCKED OPEN, KEY REMOVABLE WHEN OPEN M 3M 0 3M L-O o 4M 0 L-OL-C LOCKED CLOSED, KEY REMOVABLE WHEN CLOSED KEY C-D " KEY A-C HELD CAPTIVE IN 3EGF*TRSIA CBI WHEN OPEN; HELD CAPTIVE IN 32 - IT STR 2K WHEN CLOSED c %KEYA-DKEY B-C HELD CAPTIVE IN 3EGF*TRSIA CBIOR C82 WHEN CH7SGV' KEY C-C HELD CAPTIVE IN SEGP*TRSIA C82 WHEN OPEN; HELD CAPTIVE IN 32-lU BKR 3M WHEN CLOSED SEKEY A-D HELD CAPTIVE IN 3EGF*TRSIB CBI WHEN OPEN; EGF*PIA I S HELD CAPTIVE IN 32-IU STR 4K WHEN CLOSED KEY B-C 'KEY B KEY B-D HELD CAPTIVE IN 3EGF*TRSIB*CBI OR CB2 WHEN C"L.,0Cp KEY C-C KEYC-C HELD CAPTIVE IN 3EG*TRSIB C WHEN OPEN;

\ I HELD CAPTIVE IN 32-IT BKR 3M WHEN CLOSED 3EFG.PIC NORMALLY ALIGNED WITH TRAIN A L-C L-O C I CB 2 L-O L-C L-C L-0 -- C I L-C 3EFGsPID NORMALLY ALIGNED WITH TRAIN B

!]*s, 3EGF*TRS IB 3EGF*TRSiA 3EGF*PID 8.3 FIGURE 8.3-6 _V EMIERGIE!,10r E FUEL.O1

( ( (

4 4 I

i...... . ....

... ...... Si-*

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~ * ~..........

~~ ..........

~'iai

" ......~- ... *~ N. ~;*::*

i* ~.-= **_,:

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r -------

WL.,.,

",h-i' iZ 7_÷......

S...

S....

i II

. .. ~- ----",L

---

0 -- ---------------

, . .. . . .I .

II ...

L .... ...

7.7 NUCLELAR SAFETY*CLATED I: OA ¢,e, .1, IT

4.6 Operation of 3EGF*PID, Fuel Oil Transfer Pump, from Alternate Power Supply V CAUTIONV This section defeats the automatic start and stop feature of 3EGF*P1D, fuel oil transfer pump.

4.6.1 IF aligning 3EGF*PID, fuel oil transfer pump, to alternate power, PERFORM the following:

a. At motor control center "BUS 32-lU" (B DIESEL),

PERFORM the following:

1) TURN 3EGF*P1D, "FEEDER A' (BUS 32-1U (4K)),

to "OFF"

2) TURN Kirk Key #16151 (BUS 32-1U (4K)), and REMOVE.

b. At transfer switch panel "3EGF*TRS1B" (B DIESEL),

PERFORM the following:

1) INSERT Kirk Key #16151, "TRS1B (1DB)," and TURN.

2) TURN "TRANSFER SWITCH BREAKER A" to "OFF"

3) TURN Kirk Key #16158, "TRSIB (1DT)," and REMOVE.

4) INSERT Kirk Key #16158, "TRS1B (2CT)" and TURN.

5) TURN "TRANSFER SWITCH BREAKER B" to "ON."

6) TURN Kirk Key #16155, "TRS1B (2CB)," and REMOVE.

OP 3346B Level of Use 'REIEW" Rev. 009-03 THN Continuous 14 of 46

c. At motor control center "BUS 32-1T" (A DIESEL),

INSERT Kirk Key #16155, "FEEDER B" (32- 1T (3K)), and TURN.

4.6.2 IF starting 3EGF*P1D, fuel oil transfer pump, TURN "FEEDER B" (32- 1T (3K)), to "ON."

4.6.3 IF stopping 3EGF*PID, fuel oil transfer pump, TURN "FEEDER B" (32-1T (3K)), to "OFF."

4.6.4 IF restoring 3EGF*P1D, fuel oil transfer pump, to normal power, PERFORM the following:

a. At motor control center "BUS 32-1T" (A DIESEL),

PERFORM the following:

1) VERIFY 3EGF*TRS1B, "FEEDER B" (32-1T (3K)),

in "OFF."

2) TURN Kirk Key #16155, "FEEDER B" (32-1T (3K)),

and REMOVE.

b. At transfer switch panel "3EGF*TRS1B" (B DIESEL),

PERFORM the following:

1) INSERT Kirk Key #16155, "TRSlB (2CB)," and TURN

2) TURN "TRANSFER SWITCH BREAKER B," to "O4FF."2

3) TURN Kirk Key #16158, "TRS1B (2CT)," and REMOVE.

4) INSERT Kirk Key #16158, "TRS1B (1DT)," and TURN.

5) TURN "TRANSFER SWITCH BREAKER A" to "ON."

6) TURN Kirk Key #16151, "TRS1B (1DB) "and REMOVE..

OP 3346B

[evel of U.. Continuous-.... ... ..... I .Rev. 009-03 Continuous ......

!ii::*......... *:ii:*:15 o.....

of 46

c. At motor control center "BUS 32-1U" (B DIESEL),

PERFORM the following:

1) INSERT Kirk Key #16151 (BUS 32-1U (4K)),

and TURN.

2) TURN 3EGF*P1D, "FEEDER A' (BUS 32- 1U (4K)),

to "ON."

- End of Section 4.6 -

OP 3346B Level of Use T H........... Rev. 009-03 Continuous 16 of 46

1. CLOSE and LOCK 3EGF*V13, cross connect valve (A diesel).

4.8.5 IF using fuel oil transfer pump 3EGF*P1D (powered from alternate power) to fill fuel oil day tank 2A, PERFORM the following:

a. Refer To Section 4.6 and ALIGN 3EGF*P1D to alternate power supply.

b. OPERATE 3EGF*PID, "FUEL OIL TRANSFER PUMP" (32- 1T (3K)), as necessary to raise fuel oil day tank 2B level to approximately 490 gallons. P)

c. UNLOCK and OPEN 3EGF*V14, cross connect valve (B diesel).

d. UNLOCK and CLOSE 3EGF*V12, common pump discharge isolation valve (B diesel).

e. OPERATE 3EGF*P1D, "FUEL OIL TRANSFER PUMP" (32-.1T (3K)), as necessary to MAINTAIN fuel oil day tank 2A level between 350 and 490 gallons.

f. WHEN cross connect operation is no longer required, STOP 3EGF*PID, "FUEL OIL TRANSFER PUMP" (32-1T (3K)).

g. OPEN and LOCK 3EGF*V12, common pump discharge valve (B diesel).

h. CLOSE'and LOCK 3EGF*V14, cross connect valve

,(B diesel).

i. Refer To Section 4.6 and RESTORE 3EGF*P1D to normal power supply.

j. VERIFY 3EGF*PiD, "FUEL OIL TRANSFER PUMP"

,(3EGS*PNLB), in 'AUTO."

k. CLOSE and LOCK 3EGF*V13, cross connect valve (A diesel).

- End of Section 4.8

....... .. OP R e 3346B

.O - 3 Level of Use Continuous ....

,tsw Rev 00-0 22 of 46

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 76 SRO 76 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A # 073.A2.01 Importance Rating 2.5 2.9 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* A large break LOCA occurred 4 days ago.

"* The plant is on hot leg recirculation mode.

"* The "A" Hydrogen Recombiner is in service.

"* The "A" Hydrogen Recombiner cubicle exhaust process radiation monitor, 3HVZ*RE09A, loses power.

What automatic actions occur as a result of this loss of power to 3HVZ*RE09A?

A. The "A" Hydrogen Recombiner trips and the "B" Hydrogen Recombiner automatically starts.

B. The "A" Hydrogen Recombiner cubicle exhaust damper (3HVZ*MOD21A) closes and the Hydrogen Recombiner Bldg. HVAC Equipment Room exhaust damper (3HZ*MOD23A) closes.

C. The "B" Hydrogen Recombiner cubicle exhaust damper (3HVZ*MOD21 B) opens and the "B" Hydrogen Recombiner automatically starts.

D. The "A" Hydrogen Recombiner cubicle supply and exhaust dampers (3HVZ*MOD20A and 3HVZ*MOD21A) close and the "A" Hydrogen Recombiner shuts down Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

Per AOP 3573, Att. A, when HVZ*RE09A alarms (or loses power), the following dampers will close: HVZ*MOD21A and HVZ*MOD20A, and the "A" Hydrogen Recombiner will shut down. "D" is therefore correct.

"A" is incorrect because the "B" H2 Recombiner will not auto start.

"B" is incorrect because the H2 Building HVAC Equipment Room exhaust damper does not receive a close signal when HVZ*RE09A alarms.

"C" is incorrect because the "B" H2 Recombiner does not auto start and its exhaust damper does not auto open when HVZ*RE09A alarms.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3573, Att. A, pg 9 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC04740 Describe the operation of the following HCS system (As Objective: components controls and interlocks: Hydrogen recombiner... available)

Hydrogen recombiner building ventilation system...

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: Bank # 64269 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4, 41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 77 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 2 K/A # 075.K3.07 Importance Rating 3.4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

"* The plant is at 40% power during the winter

"* A large mat of seaweed drifts into the intake structure.

"* A "TRAVEL SCRN DIFF LEVEL HI" annunciator comes in on MB6.

If no operator action is taken during this event, which of the following conditions would always result in an automatic reactor trip?

A. The "A" and "B" circ water bay traveling screen DPs are 38 inches H20.

B. The "C" and "D" circ water bay traveling screen DPs are 38 inches H20.

C. The "A" and "C" circ water bay traveling screen DPs are 44 inches H20.

D. The "B" and "D" circ water bay traveling screen DPs are 44 inches H20.

"ProposedAnswer: B Explanation (Optional):

A reactor trip will occur due to loss of condenser vacuum if two circ pumps trip in the same bay.

"B" is correct, and "A" is wrong, since the "A" and "B" circ pumps trip at 42 inches H20, while all the other circ pumps trip at 36 inches H20. The reason for this is that the "A" and "F" bays do not have service water pumps associated with them, and screen durability becomes the limiting component. "C" and "D" are wrong, since a reactor trip will occur only if the lost circ pumps are in the same bay.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB6B, 5-6 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04284 Given a failure, partial or complete, of the main (As Objective: circulating water, cathodic protection, or vacuum priming systems, available) determine the effects on the system and on interrelated systems.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 78 SRO 78 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A # 079.A2.01 Importance Rating 2.9 3.2 Proposed Question:

The secondary rounds PEO reports an air leak on the instrument air ring header in the turbine building. The RO reports that instrument air header pressure is at 91 psig and decreasing slowly.

If the added capacity of the service air compressor is more than capable of compensating for the leak, how should service air header pressure respond prior to any local actions by PEO's?

A. SAS pressure will remain normal, since local actions by a PEO are required locally to both open 31AS-AOV14 to supply service air to instrument air, and close 3SAS-AOV33.

B. SAS pressure will remain normal, since 31AS-AOV14 opens automatically at 85 psig, but local PEO actions are required to close 3SAS-AOV33.

C. When IAS header pressure lowers to 85 psig, SAS pressure will start to drop as both 31AS AOV14 and 3SAS-AOV33 realign. SAS pressure will start to recover again when IAS header pressure increases to 103 psig.

D. When IAS header pressure lowers to 85 psig, SAS pressure will start to drop as both 31AS AOV14 and 3SAS-AOV33 realign. SAS pressure will continue to drop to zero psig, since both valves will remain in their new positions.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

Pressure switch 31AS-PS14, which senses lAS common header pressure downstream of the IAS receivers, will cause AOV14 to open, and simultaneously cause AOV33 to close when pressure lowers to 85 psig ("A" and "B" wrong). Additionally, when IAS header pressure increases to 103 psig, PS14 will automatically realign the AOV's to their normal positions, and pressure will again start to decrease since the leak has not been isolated ("C" is correct and "D" is wrong).

Technical Reference(s): LSK 12-1C, 2C (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05323 Describe operation of plant air systems under the (As Objective: following normal, abnormal, and emergency operating conditions: available)

a. Normal at power operation, b. Low instrument air pressure...

Question Source: Modified Bank # 67323 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4, 41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 79 SRO 79 Tier # 2 2 Group # 2 2 K/A# 086.K3.01 Importance Rating 2.7 3.2 Proposed Question:

A fire occurs in the instrument rack room, and the Halon system fails to operate. The following sequence of events occurs:

1. The crew enters EOP 3509.1, "Control Room, Cable Spreading Area or Instrument Rack Room Fire"

2. The crew evacuates the control room.

3. The RO places the Train A and Train B transfer switches in LOCAL at the Transfer Switch Panels.

4. Some indicating lights do not illuminate when the RO places the associated components in "LOCAL".

What does this indicate?

A. Previous steps in EOP 3509.1 were not correctly performed B. The Primary Side PEO has not completed EOP 3509.1 Attachment "A" C. Control power fuses have blown D. All steps have been performed correctly. The indicating lights should not illuminate at this step.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

3 correct, since fire damage may draw excessive current, causing a blown fuse, resulting in a loss of indicating lights.

Technical Reference(s): EOP 3509.1, note prior to step 16 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03292 Describe the changes which occur within control (As available)

Objective: circuitry when a Transfer Switch Panel switch is changed from the "Remote" to "Local" position.

Question Source: Bank # 60646 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 80 SRO 80 Tier # 2 2 Group# 3 3 K/A# 005.K1.10 Importance Rating 3.2 3.4 Proposed Question:

The unit has experienced a Large Break LOCA and has worked through the EOP network and is currently aligning the RHR and Recirculation Spray Systems for Cold Leg Recirculation.

Why should the RSS pumps be operated for two minutes prior to opening RHR isolation valves 3RSS*MV8837A and 3RSS*MV8837B?

A. To prevent injecting air into RSS coolers.

B. To prevent runout of the RSS pumps.

C. To prevent injecting air into RHR pumps.

D. To prevent injecting air into SI and Charging pumps.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"D" is correct, since the RSS pumps utilize a portion of the RHR piping to supply the suctions of the Charging and SIH pumps during the recirculation phase. Opening one RHR cold leg injection valve will provide the flowpath from RSS into the RCS and potentially, air introduction. "A & B" are wrong, since they are upstream of the valves 3RSS*MV8837A and 3RSS*MV8837B. "C" is wrong, since while these valves connect to the RHR system, the cross-connection does not involve the RHR pumps.

Technical Reference(s): ES-1.3, CAUTION step 3 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-06260 Describe the major action categories within EOP (As available)

Objective: ES - 1.3 and ES - 1.4 Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5, 41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 81 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 3 K/A # 007.A2.03 Importance Rating 3.6 Proposed Question:

With the plant initially at 100% power, a significant RCS pressure transient occurs.

Current conditions are as follows:

"* Reactor power is still at 100%.

"* Pressurizer pressure is currently stable at 2370 psia.

"* Pressurizer level is 72%.

"* PORV 455A indicates OPEN.

"* PORV 456 indicates CLOSED.

"* PRT pressure and level are increasing.

"* All Pressurizer backup heaters are energized.

What action is required to be taken by the operators?

A. Trip the reactor and enter E-0, since an automatic reactor trip should have occurred.

B. Open PORV 456, since it should already be OPEN.

C. Close PORV 455A, since it should have already CLOSED.

D. Turn all pressurizer backup heaters to OFF, since they should not be energized.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

Justification: "B" is correct, and "C" wrong, since the PORVs open at 2350 psia. "A" is wrong, since the reactor trip setpoint is 2385 psia. "D" is wrong, since even though RCS pressure is high, a PZR insurge has occurred, and heaters energize when actual level is 5% above program.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3353.MB4A, 3-4, 4-1 (Attach if not previously provided)

OP 3353.MB4C, 2-7 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05341 Describe the operation of the Pressurizer Pressure and (As Objective: Level Control System under Normal, Abnormal, and Emergency available)

Operating conditions.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

Setpoint: 2,385 psia 3-4 PRESSURIZER PRESSURE HI AUTOMATIC FUNCTIONS

1. Reactor trip (2 of 4).

CORRECTIVE ACTIONS

1. IF reactor trip has occurred or is required, Go To E-0, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."

2. CONFIRM RCS pressure greater than 2,385 psia on the following indicators (MB4):

• 3RCS-PI 455A, "PZR" "NARROW RANGE PRES"

• 3RCS-PI 456A, "PZR" "NARROW RANGE PRES"

• 3RCS-PI 457, "PZR" "NARROW RANGE PRES"

° 3RCS-PI 458, "PZR" "NARROW RANGE PRES"

3. IF alarm is due to instrument failure, Go To AOP 3571, "Instrument Failure Response."

4. CHECK 3RCS*MV8000A and 3RCS*MV8000B, "PORV BLOCK" (MB4), open.

5. VERIFY 3RCS*PCV455A or 3RCS*PCV456, "PORV" (MB4), open.

6. WHEN pressurizer pressure is less than 2,350 psia, PERFORM the following:

6.1 VERIFY 3RCS*PCV455A and 3RCS*PCV456, "PORV" (MB4), closed.

6.2 Refer to OP 3301G, "Pressurizer Pressure Control," and RESTORE pressure to 2,250 psia.

6.3 PLACE 3RCS*PCV455B and 3RCS*PCV455C, "PZR SPRAY VV" in

'AUTO" (MB4).

Level of Use OP 3353.MB4A Continuous Rev. 002-05 25 of 64

Setpoint: Greater than than 2,350 psia 2-7 PZR PRESS HI PORV ACTUATE AUTOMATIC FUNCTIONS

1. 3RCS*PCV455A and 3RCS*PCV456, open.

CORRECTIVE ACTIONS

1. IF "PRESSURIZER PRESSURE HI" (MB4A 3-4) is lit, Go To OP 3353.MB4A 3-4, "PRESSURIZER PRESSURE HI."

2. IF "PORV OPEN" (MB4B 4-9) lit, Go To OP 3353.MB4B 4-9, "PORV OPEN."

[et-Ref. 2.3]

3. CONFIRM pressurizer pressure greater than 2,350 psia on the following indicators (MB4):

• 3RCS-PI 455A, Pzr narrow range pressure

& 3RCS-PI 456A, Pzr narrow range pressure

• 3RCS-PI 457, Pzr narrow range pressure

• 3RCS-PI 458, Pzr narrow range pressure

4. IF alarm is due to instrument failure, Go To AOP 3571, "Instrument Failure Response."

5. WHEN pressurizer pressure is less than 2,350 psia, PERFORM the following:

• VERIFY 3RCS*PCV455A and 3RCS*PCV456, PORV (MB4), closed.

• Refer To OP 3301G, "Pressurizer Pressure Control," and RESTORE pressure to 2,250 psia.

SUPPORTING INFORMATION

1. Initiating Devices 1.1 3RCS*PT455 1.1 >2,350 psia 2/4 channels 1.2 3RCS*PT456 1.2 >2,350 psia 2/4 channels 1.3 3RCS*PT457 1.3 >2,350 psia 2/4 channels 1.4 3RCS*PT458 1.4 >2,350 psia 2/4 channels Level of Use OP 3353.MB4C Continuous Rev. 004- 07 41 of 143

2-7

2. Computer Points

• RCS20-1

• RCS20-2

• RCS20-3

• RCS20-4

3. Possible Causes 3.1 Pressurizer pressure master controller failure 3.2 Pressurizer heater malfunction 3.3 Pressurizer spray valve malfunction 3.4 Instrument failure 3.5 High RCS temperature 3.6 High pressure level 3.7 Tirbine runback 3.8 Reactor power versus turbine load mismatch 3.9 Charging versus letdown mismatch

4. Technical Specifications 4.1 T/S 2.1.1, "Reactor Core" 4.2 T/S 3/4.3.1, "Reactor Trip System Instrumentation" 4.3 T/S 3/4.4.4, "Reactor Coolant System, Relief Valves"

5. Procedures 5.1 OP 3301G, "Pressurizer Pressure Control" 5.2 OP 3353.MB4A, "Main Board 4A Annunciator Response" 5.3 OP 3353.MB4B, "Main Board 4B Annunciator Response" 5.4 AOP 3571, "Instrument Failure Response"

6. Control Room Drawings 6.1 ESK 10BL 6.2 ESK 10HF 6.3 LSK 25-1.2J Level of Use OP 3353.MB4C SContinuous Rev. 004-07 42 of 143

Setpoint: 5% deviation from program or greater than 70% level PRESSURIZER LEVEL DEVIATION AUTOMATIC FUNCTIONS

1. Pressurizer backup heaters in 'AUTO" energize on high level deviation.

CORRECTIVE ACTIONS

1. IF in MODE 3, 4, 5, or 6 AND alarm is expected due to planned shutdown 2.

evolutions, no further action is required.

CONFIRM pressurizer level deviation from program on the following indicators I

(MB4):

2.1 3RCS*LI 459A, "PZR LEVEE' 2.2 3RCS*LI 460A, "PZR LEVEL' 2.3 3RCS*LI 461, "PZR LEVEL' 2.4 3RCS-LI 462, "PZR LEVEL' "COLD CAL"

3. IF alarm is due to instrument failure, Go To AOP 3571, "Instrument Failure Response."

4. CHECK 3CHS-FI 121A, "CHG LINE FLOW" "CHARGING FLOW" (normally 55 to 100 gpm) (MB3).

5. CHECK 3CHS-FI 132, "LETDOWN" "FLOW" (normally 75 to 120 gpm) (MB3).

6. IF charging or letdown flow is not in normal range, Go To OP 3304A, "Charging and Letdown," and adjust charging and letdown flows.

7. IF in MODE 1, or 2, Refer To T/S 3.4.3.1, "Pressurizer, Startup and Power Operation" for Limiting Condition for Operation. 10 SUPPORTING INFORMATION

1. Initiating Device Setpoint 1.1 3RCS*LT459, Pzr level 1.1 5% deviation from program or greater than 70% level 1.2 3RCS*LT460, Pzr level 1.2 5% deviation from program 0

or greater than 70% level 1.3 3RCS*LT461, Pzr level 1.3 5% deviation from program or greater than 70% level "Levelof Use OP 3353.MB4A Rev. 002-05 Continuous WW^ 31 of 64

4-1

2. Computer Points 2.1 RCS-L459E (HI) 2.2 RCS-L460C (HI) 2.3 RCS-IA59F(LO)

3. Possible Causes 3.1 Charging versus letdown mismatch 3.2 Turbine runback 3.3 Reactor power versus turbine load mismatch 3.4 Instrument failure 3.5 Planned shutdown evolution

4. Technical Specifications 4.1 T/S 3.4.3.1, "Pressurizer, Startup and Power Operation" IC

5. Procedures )

5.1 AOP 3571, "Instrument Failure Response" 5.2 OP 3304A, "Charging and Letdown"

6. Control Room Drawings 6.1 ESK 10HG 6.2 LSK 25-1.2C e Lee of Use..........

ContinUose OP 3353.MB4A

'Rev. 002-05 32 of 64

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 82 SRO 82 Tier # 2 2 Group # 3 3 K/A # 008.K4.07 Importance Rating 2.6 2.7 Proposed Question:

With the plant operating normally at 100% power, the following sequence of events occurs:

1. The "A" RPCCW pump trips.

2. The primary rounds PEO is directed to align the "C" RPCCW pump and heat exchanger to the "A" train.

What, if anything, is required to provide a breaker for the "C" RPCCW pump breaker cubicle?

A. Nothing is required at the breaker cubicle. The swing pump breaker is normally aligned to the "A" train and is already racked up in cubicle 34C10-2.

B. Nothing is required at the breaker cubicle. All actions are completed at the CCP transfer switch to realign the "C" RPCCW pump to either train.

C. The breaker will need to be moved from the "B" train cubicle (34D9-2) and racked up into the "A" train cubicle (34C10-2).

D. The "A" RPCCW pump breaker will need to be racked down from breaker cubicle 34C9-2 and racked up into breaker cubicle 34C10-2.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, and "A" is wrong since the breaker is normally already racked up into the 'B' train cubicle. "D" is wrong, the swing pump has its own separate breaker. "B" is wrong since the transfer switch is necessary to prevent cross-tying busses 34C and 34D, but you still need a breaker installed in one of the swing pump's cubicles. "A" is plausible since the swing pump will be aligned to one train or the other. "B" is plausible since the CCP transfer switch must be operated when aligning the swing pump to the other train. "D" is plausible, since this is how the swing Charging (CHS) pump breaker is operated.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3330A, sections 1.2 and 4.9 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04154 Describe the operation of the Reactor Plant Component (As Objective: Cooling System under the following normal, abnormal, or emergency available) conditions... Shifting Pumps and Heat Exchangers...

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

Sample Written Examination ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: Ban k # 71204 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 83 SRO Tier # 2 Group # 3 K/A # 028.K5.03 Importance Rating 2.9 Proposed Question:

The unit has experienced a Loss of Coolant Accident involving a loss of emergency coolant recirculation and deep core uncovery. The fuel cladding temperature has reached 2200'F.

What are the operational implications of reaching this fuel cladding temperature?

A. The onset of hydrogen production from zirc-water reaction.

B. The acceleration of hydrogen production from zirc-water reaction.

C. The zirc-water reaction becomes autocatalytic.

D. The fuel cladding will begin to melt.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

A wrong: Plausible since this occurs at 1800°F B wrong: Correct per SAMG C correct: Plausible since this occurs at 2600°F D wrong: Plausible since this occurs at 3400°F Technical Reference(s): WOG SAMG, Chapt. 1, Pg. 29-30 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04504 List the 5 final acceptance criteria for ECCS and (As available)

Objective: explain the major concern or significance of each to plant safety.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 84 SRO 84 Tier # 2 2 Group # 3 2 K/A# 034.A2.01 Importance Rating 3.6 4.4 Proposed Question:

While fuel movement is in progress in the spent fuel pool, a fuel element is dropped.

Which of the following is designed to prevent the release of high levels of radioiodine to the environment during this event?

A. The fuel building ventilation system is aligned for filtered exhaust during the fuel movement.

B. At least 10 1/2 feet of water is maintained above the stored fuel assemblies at all times C. At least 23 feet of water is maintained in the spent fuel pool at all times D. The fuel building ventilation system automatically isolates on high radiation.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

The requirement is to maintain 23 feet of water above the assemblies, (B and C incorrect)The ventilation system does not realign or stop on high radiation, (D incorrect)Steps in 3502 has the operator verify a 10 fan running and switch to filtered exhaust. Also when moving fuel with less than 60 days decay, it is a requirement to have a fan running in the filter mode. (A correct)

Technical Reference(s): FSAR 15.7.4 (Attach if not previously provideci)

Tech Spec 3.9.12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05798 Given a waste and fuel building ventilation system diagram, (As Objective: describe the system flow path under the following normal, abnormal available) and emergency conditions... Fuel movement within the fuel building.

Question Source: Bank # 69821 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 85 SRO 85 Tier # 2 2 Group # 3 3 K/A # 041.K6.03 Importance Rating 2.7 2.9 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

"* Reactor power is 60%

"* Steam Dumps are in AUTOMATIC in the STEAM PRESSURE MODE due to I&C testing on turbine impulse pressure instrument 3MSS-PT506.

"* Both TDMFPs are in service.

Main Steam Header Pressure instrument 3MSS-PT507 fails high.

Which of the following describes the initial response of the plant to the failure?

A. Feed Pump speed will INCREASE. Steam dumps will OPEN.

B. Feed Pump speed will DECREASE. Steam dumps will OPEN.

C. Feed Pump speed will INCREASE. Steam dumps will remain CLOSED.

D. Feed Pump speed will DECREASE. Steam Dumps will remain CLOSED.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

"A" is correct, since as PK507 increases, the sensed DP between steam pressure and feed pressure decreases. The Master Speed controller increases pump speed ("B" & "D" incorrect,).

Increasing steam pressure (failed PT507) is sensed by the steam dumps, causing them to open to attempt to maintain set pressure ( "C" & "D" incorrect).

Technical Functional Drawings sheets 10, 13, 7, 14 (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s):

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05636 Given a failure, partial or complete, of the steam dump system, (As available)

Objective: determine the effects on the system and on interrelated systems.

Question Source: Bank # 72279 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

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ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 86 SRO 86 Tier # 2 2 Group # 3 3 K/A # 076.A4.04 Importance Rating 3.5 3.5 Proposed Question:

With the plant initially at 100% power, a safety injection occurs. CTMT pressure has reached 20 psia and the crew is checking the ESF status panel at E-0, step 14. The following valves are all noted to be OPEN:

"* Service water supply to TPCCW 3SWP*MOV71A

"* Service Water supply to RPCCW 3SWP*MOV50A

"* Service water return from the "A" EDG 3SWP*AOV39A What action, if any, should the crew take regarding these three valves?

A. Leave all of the valves in their current positions.

B. CLOSE service water supply to TPCCW 3SWP*MOV71A.

C. CLOSE service water supply to RPCCW 3SWP*MOV50A.

D. CLOSE service water return from the EDG's 3SWP*AOV39A.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

CDA has not actuated, since CTMT pressure has not reached 23 psia. "B" is wrong, since SWP*MOV71 is normally open and shuts on CDA, LOP and SWP low pressure. "C" is wrong since MOV50A is normally open and closes on a CDA. "D" is wrong since AOV39A is normally closed and opens on CDA/LOP or SIS. Therefore, all three valves should be open after SIS ("A" is correct). The distractors are plausible, since all 3 valves are operated by ESFAS signals.

Technical Reference(s): P&ID 133 Series (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05714 Describe the operation of the following Service Water (As available)

Objective: System components controls and interlocks...

EDG Service Water Outlet Valves (SWP*AOV39A/B)

TPCCW Heat Exchanger Service Water Supply Valves (SWP*MOV71AIB)

RPCCW Heat Exchanger Isolation Valves (SWP*MOV50A/B)...

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: Bank # 64332 Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 87 SRO 87 Tier # 2 2 Group # 3 2 K/A # 103.A4.06 Importance Rating 2.7 2.9 Proposed Question:

A small RCS leak in CTMT has caused the crew to shutdown the unit and make a CTMT entry to locate the leak.

As the three person team is attempting to exit CTMT via the CTMT Personnel Air Lock, a complete loss of hydraulics requires that they use the Emergency Manways to exit containment.

What indications will occur when the team opens the Emergency Manway?

A. The Control Room will receive both a Main Board annunciator and a computer priority alarm.

B. The Control Room will receive a Main Board annunciator, and a local bell will ring.

C. A local alarm light on the CTMT Outside Door Control Panel will illuminate, and the Control Room will receive a computer priority alarm.

D. A local alarm light on the CTMT Outside Door Control Panel will illuminate, and a local bell will ring.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

Justification: OP 3312A, Section 4.4, NOTE 4.4.3, notes that a bell will sound, and ANN MB1A, 3 5, will alarm if the emergency manways are opened [B correct]. There are no alarms for the doors on the local panel [C and D wrong], and the priority alarm is not fed from the CTMT hatch (A and C wrong).

Technical OP 3312A, Step 4.4.3 Note (Attach if not Reference(s): OP 3353.MB1A, 3-5 previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective: None available (As available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7, 41.9 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement I

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 88 SRO Tier # 3 Group # 1 K/A# GEN.2.1.3 Importance Rating 3.0 Proposed Question:

A shift turnover is ongoing for the BOP watch, and the following conditions exist:

"* The oncoming BOP operator has been off shift for 3 days.

"* The MET Tower has been declared INOPERABLE.

"* An "Oscillograph Trouble" annunciator is lit on MB8.

"* All other equipment is in a normal lineup.

Per MM-14, which of the following items would be required to be discussed/reviewed during the turnover discussion?

A. A review of the applicable shift logs for the previous 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

B. Met Tower ACTION STATEMENTS, including surveillance requirements.

C. The status of the Turbine Lube Oil System.

D. The reason for the "Oscillograph Trouble" annunciator.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

The oncoming watchstander will review pertinent information on applicable shift logs relating to the past 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> ("A" wrong). Discussion of surveillance requirements is only required for the SM, US, and STA turnovers ("B" wrong). System is only required for "Safety Related" systems ("C" wrong). A discussion of the reasons for actuated alarms is required ("D" correct).

Technical Reference(s): MP-14-OPS-GDLO2, Att3, pg. 39 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-06889 Describe the requirements for On-Coming Shift (As available)

Objective: personnel in shift turnover.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 89 SRO 89 Tier # 3 3 Group # 1 1 K/A# GEN.2.1.14 Importance Rating 2.5 3.3 Proposed Question:

Which of the following planned changes in plant status would NOT require a notification of plant personnel via the plant paging system?

A. Starting the "B" Screen Wash Pump due to a clogged strainer on the "A" pump.

B. Starting the Motor Driven Main Feed Pump in preparation for raising power above 50%.

C. While pulling rods to criticality, a constant positive startup rate is obtained with no rod motion.

D. Starting the "C" CAR fan in CTMT while refueling is in progress.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Plant pages are required during major changes in plant status or major equipment starts. "A" is wrong, since it is specifically identified as a pump not requiring notification of plant personnel, and is plausible, since it is a fairly large pump.

Technical Reference(s): MP-14-OPS-GDLO2 Att. 3 pg 51 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05573 Outline the duties and responsibilities of the Unit (As available)

Objective: Supervisor.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 90 SRO Tier # 3 Group # 1 K/A# GEN.2.1.22 Importance Rating 2.8 Proposed Question:

When performing a Reactor Startup per OP 3202, at what point does the crew log into MODE 2?

A. When the Reactor Trip Breakers are closed with Tave greater than 3500 F.

B. When the reactor is declared to be critical.

C. When all Shutdown Banks are withdrawn.

D. When Control Bank withdrawal begins.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

MODE 2 is procedurally defined as the point in a reactor startup when the shutdown banks are fully withdrawn and the first control bank is moved off the bottom.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3202, section 2.3.3 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05785 List OPERATIONAL MODEs and conditions (As available)

Objective: that define each MODE.

Question Source: Bank # 60774 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 91 SRO Tier # 3 Group# 1 K/A# GEN.2.1 .25_____

Importance Rating 2.8 _ _ _ _ _

Proposed Question:

The Plant is in Mode 3 with a cooldown in progress.

The following parameters exist:

- Pzr Water Temperature: 450°F

- RCS Water Temperature: 350°F

- Pzr Level as read on RCS-L1462 (Cold Calibrated): 40%

Using the attached copy of OP 3208, Attachment 2, which of the following approximates what the Hot Calibrated Pzr level Channels should be reading?

A. 35%

B. 40%

C. 45%

D. 50%

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

OP3208 section 4.2.12 Caution indicates that the Hot Calibrated channels always read higher than the Cold Calibrated channels. Using Attachment 2, it can be determined that actual Pzr level is 45%. Since the Hot Calibrated channels are calibrated for Normal Operating Temperatures, and the Pressurizer temperature is lower than normal, the Hot Calibrated channels are reading higher than actual ("D" correct). "A" is plausible, since this is the answer ifthe candidate goes from PZR temperature up to actual level of 40% on the graph, and over to indicated level on the vertical axis.

"B" is plausible, since Cold Cal reads 40%. "C" is plausible since this approximates the actual level for a Cold Cal reading of 40% at this PZR temperature.

Technical OP 3208 Caution prior to step 4.2.12 (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): OP 3208 Attachment 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: OP 3208 Attachment 2 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-04837 The crew operates the plant in compliance with all (As available)

Objective: applicable plant procedures and technical specifications Question Source: Modified Bank # 69841 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 92 SRO 92 Tier # 3 3 Group # 2 2 K/A# GEN.2.2.2 Importance Rating 4.0 3.5 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* The plant is in MODE 5 with a cooldown in progress.

"* The pressurizer is solid.

"* RCS and pressurizer temperatures are equal.

"* The RO has been directed to lower RCS pressure in accordance with OP 3208 "Plant Cooldown".

What action will the RO take?

A. Place an additional letdown orifice in service.

B. Throttle open auxiliary spray valve 3CHS*AV8145.

C. Throttle open RHR to letdown flow control valve 3CHS*HCV128.

D. Throttle open letdown pressure control valve 3CHS*PCV131.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"D" is correct per OP 3208. "A", and "C" are plausible since each of these actions would reduce RCS inventory when solid, reducing RCS pressure. "B"is plausible, since spray would be used to reduce pressure if there was a bubble in the pressurizer.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3208 steps 4.4.3, 4.4.17 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-0344 Describe the major action categories contained within the OP (As Objective: 3208 procedure. available)

MC-04202 Describe the operation of the Chemical and Volume Control System under normal, abnormal, and emergency operating conditions.

Question Source: Bank # 685*81 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.3, 41.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 93 SRO Tier # 3 Group # 2 K/A # GEN.2.2.33 Importance Rating 2.5 Proposed Question:

Plant conditions:

"* Rod Control is in Automatic

"* RCS Tave is 587TF

"* Trefis 583°F

"* Turbine & Rx Power are equal At how many steps per minute inward should Control Bank "ID" rods be moving?

A. 8 spm B. 32 spm C. 40 spm D. 48 spm Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

Rods move at a minimum of 8 and a maximum of 72 spm. An error of 2 degrees will cause the minimum (8 spm) motion. Speed ramps from 3 to 5 degrees. At 4 degrees, rod speed will be half way or 32 spin plus the 8 they start at, therefore the rod speed is 40 spm. All answers are plausible, since they are in the inward direction, and they are bounded by rod control's minimum and maximum speeds.

Technical Reference(s): Functional Dwg # (Attach if not previously provided)

Rod Control Figure 6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-00014 Describe the operation of the Rod Control System (As Objective: under... Normal at power automatic operation... available)

Question Source: Bank # 64986 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.6, 41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 94 SRO Tier # 3 Group # 2 K/A # GEN.2.2.34 Importance Rating 2.8 Proposed Question:

Current conditions:

"* Plant is at full power.

"* All systems are in auto.

"* Control Bank D is at 223 steps.

"* RCS boron concentration is 900 ppm

"* Boric acid tank boron concentration is 6850 ppm

"* 3CHS-FK1 10, BA Makeup flow controller is set at 2.35 turns A manual makeup to the VCT is in progress per OP 3304C "Primary Makeup and Chemical Addition", section 4.3, "Aligning for Manual Makeup".

Using OP 3304C Attachment 7, attached to the back of the exam, how will the plant respond to the manual makeup?

A. RCS temperature will remain stable. Rods will not move.

B. RCS temperature decreases. Rods will not move.

C. RCS temperature decreases, and rods move out to compensate.

D. RCS temperature increases, rods move in to compensate.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

Desired flow is 10.51 gpm. 0 to 40 gpm corresponds to 0 to 10 turns on 3CHS-FK110. Solving for "X" in the equation X/10 = 10.51/40 provides a desired pot setting of 2.63. Since the current pot setting is too low, a dilution will occur, causing Tave to increase, ("D" correct). "A"is plausible, since this is what would happen if the pot was set correctly. "B" and "C" are plausible, since this is what would happen if the pot was set too high. Rods would move out in this case, except for the fact that rods are at the C-1 1 position, which would prevent outward rod motion.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3304C, Section 4.3, Att. 7 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: OP 3304C Attachment 7 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-04202 Describe the operation of the Chemical and Volume Control (As Objective: System under normal, abnormal, and emergency operating conditions. available)

Question Source: Modified Bank # 064280 (Note changes or attach parent)

Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.1, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 95 SRO 95 Tier # 3 3 Group # 3 3 K/A# GEN.2.3.4 Importance Rating 2.5 3.1 Proposed Question:

A maintenance employee at Millstone has the following exposure records for the current year:

Committed Effective Dose Equivalent (CEDE): 0.95 Rem Deep Dose Equivalent (DDE): 0.06 Rem Dose to the extremities: 18.3 Rem Which dose limits, if any, has this worker exceeded?

A. No limits have been exceeded.

B. Millstone administrative TEDE limit has been exceeded only.

C. Federal TEDE limit has been exceeded.

D. Federal dose limit to extremities has been exceeded.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

TEDE = CEDE + DDE = 0.95 Rem + 0.06 Rem = 1.01 Rem. This exceeds the Millstone Admin limit of 1 Rem/year TEDE ("B" correct and "A" wrong), but is less than the federal limit of 5.0 Rem/year ("C" wrong). "A" is plausible, since CEDE and DDE are each less than 1 Rem/year. "C" is plausible, since CEDE + DDE + dose to extremities = > 5 Rem. "D" is wrong, since the dose limit for extremities is 50 Rem/year. "D" is plausible since 18.3 Rem is > limit for LDE (eyes)

Technical Reference(s): Rad Worker Training Manual, Ch 3 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning GE-00059 State the Federal radiation limits... (As Objective: GE-00064 State the plant administrative guidelines for radiation dose. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.12 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO96 SRO Tier # 3 ______

Group # 3 ______

K/A# GEN.2.3. 10_____

Importance Rating 2.9 _ _ _ _ _

Proposed Question:

A LOCA is in progress and the crew is progressing through the EOP network. It has been 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> since CBI has actuated, and the BOP operator has been directed to realign Control Building Ventilation for filtered recirculation.

What will be the desired position for Outside Air Inlet Isolation Valves 3HVC*AOV 25 and 26, and why?

A. Open, to maintain control room envelope pressure above atmospheric pressure.

B. Closed, to maintain control room envelope pressure above atmospheric pressure.

C. Open, to prevent the supply fans from drawing radioactive contamination into the control room.

D. Closed, to prevent the supply fans from drawing radioactive contamination into the control room.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

The AOVs are opened to allow the supply fans to draw air into the control room envelope, maintaining the control room above atmospheric pressure. The air is filtered prior to entering the control room. The distractors are plausible since filtered recirc without outside air is another lineup available to the operators when not in the EOPs.

Technical Reference(s): E-1 series foldout page (Attach if not previously provided)

OP 3314F, section 4.10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04763 Describe the operation of the HVC/HVK systems under (As Objective: the following... Manual Safety Injection... available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 97 SRO Tier # 3 ______

Group # 4 _____

K/A# GEN.2.4. 12_____

Importance Rating 3.4 _ _ _ _ _

Proposed Question:

The operators have just transitioned from EOP 35 E-0 to EOP 35 ES-0. 1, Reactor Trip Response.

SPDS indicates all green paths, except for "Heat Sink", which indicates Yellow.

Which of the following describes, at a minimum, how often the status trees are required to be monitored?

A. Approximately every 15 minutes.

B. Approximately every 15 minutes, unless there is a significant change in plant status.

C. Approximately every 15 minutes, unless a procedure transition is made.

D. Continuously.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct since status tree checks are performed approximately every 15 minutes unless some significant change in plant status occurs. "C"is plausible, since a status tree review at procedure transitions is a common crew practice. "D" is plausible, since status tree monitoring is continuous if any ORANGE or RED condition is observed Technical Reference(s): OP 3272, section 1.7 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04453 Given a specific plant condition, describe the use of (As available)

Objective: the critical safety function (CSF) status tree rules of priority toward implementation of the functional response procedures including the person(s) responsible for monitoring the CSF status trees and priority of implementation.

Question Source: Bank # 70195 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 98 SRO Tier # 3 Group # 4 K/A # 2.4.27 Importance Rating 3.0 Proposed Question:

EOP 3509.1, Control Room, Cable Spreading Area or Instrument Rack Room Fire, directs you to proceed to the note prior to Step 12 if an immediate control room evacuation is required.

How does EOP 3509.1 deal with the control room actions contained in the skipped steps?

A. The actions contained in these steps will not be completed, since they only enhance plant conditions, and are not critical to the procedure.

B. The actions contained in these steps will not be completed, since the actions accomplished by these steps are not needed if the Control Room is evacuated.

C. Mitigative actions equivalent to the skipped steps are repeated and verified in subsequent steps via local operator actions.

D. All of the skipped steps will be completed after transitioning out of EOP 3509.1, as soon as control room access is restored.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, since steps 13 through 21 locally accomplish the actions in the skipped steps.

Technical Reference(s): EOP 3509.1, note prior to step 5 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-06265 Describe the major action categories contained (As available)

Objective: within the EOP 3509 series procedures.

Question Source: Bank # 60630 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 99 SRO Tier # 3 Group # 4 K/A # GEN.2.4.50 Importance Rating 3.3 Proposed Question:

During normal operations with the unit at 100% power, the following sequence of events occurs:

1. The "COND DEMIN DP HI" annunciator comes in on Main Board 6.

2. The BOP reports that Polisher System Differential Pressure 3CND-PDI20B reads 65 psid and is stable.

Which of the following is the correct corrective action for this alarm condition?

A. Throttle 3CNM-MOV78, Condensate Demineralizer Bypass, to reduce differential pressure to less than 60 psid.

B. Refer to OP 3204, "At Power Operation", and reduce Reactor Power to lower differential pressure to less than 60 psid.

C. Refer to OP 3319C, "Condensate Demineralizer Mixed Bed System", and place an additional Condensate Demineralizer in service.

D. Generate a CR and notify I&C department of an alarm condition below the alarm setpoint.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

A correct: Step 2 of ARP response.

B wrong: Correct action for 70 psid; also plausible since it is the old (per recent revision) remedy for >60 psid condition.

C wrong: Correct action IF insufficient number of demins in service. For 100% power 7 is the correct number. Plausible since it is a correct remedy for some conditions.

D wrong: Requires knowledge of correct setpoint. Plausible since IF the alarm were active below the alarm setpoint "D" describes the correct action.

Technical Reference(s): ARP MB6A, 2-7 OP 3319A, 4.3 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Learning MC-04232 Describe the operation of the following main condensate... (As "Objective: components... Condensate Demineralizer Bypass Valve. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO 100 SRO 100 Tier # 3 3 Group # 4 4 K/A # Plant Specific Importance Rating N/A N/A Proposed Question:

PLANT CONDITIONS:

"* A reactor trip has occurred due to a fault on the "B" Steam Generator outside CTMT, upstream of the MSIVs.

"* All safeguards equipment operated as designed, except for the "A" MDAFW pump, which can not be started.

"* "B" SG pressure is 450 psig and decreasing.

"* "A", "C", and "D" SG pressures are 750 psig and decreasing

"* Tave is 4601F and decreasing.

"* RCS pressure is 1600 psia and decreasing.

"* The crew is performing E-0, step 3 "Verify Power to AC Emergency Busses".

When can the BOP operator isolate AFW flow to the "B" SG?

A. Immediately.

B. Only after receiving direction from the SM/US.

C. Only after completing his immediate actions in E-0.

D. Only after narrow range level in at least one SG is >8%.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, and "A" is wrong, since the BOP operator may, at any time when not required to be performinq an immediate action or sequenced steps, throttle AFW flow if minimum heat sink requirements are satisfied. This includes isolating AFW flow to a faulted SG. The crew is currently performing an immediate action requiring action by the BOP operator. "A" is plausible since the BOP is expected to expeditiously isolate AFW to the faulted SG to minimize the cooldown. "B" is wrong, and plausible, since the BOP must receive direction from the US/SM when isolating AFW flow to a ruptured SG. "D" is wrong, but plausible, since the BOP can has to wait for 8% level prior to throttling AFW flow in two instances: if the SG has a ruptured tube, or if minimum heat sink requirements won't be met after throttling AFW. Even though the "A" MDAFW pump, which feeds two intact SGs, did not start, >530 gpm will exist since the TDAFW pump is also running.

Technical Reference(s): OP3272 attachment 3 (2 of 10) (Attach if not previously provided) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04454 state the conditions which would allow the action of either (As Objective: the throttling or isolation of auxiliary feed water flow to a steam available) generator or steam flow from a steam generator prior to being directed to perform the action by a specific step within the emergency operating procedure network.

Question Soiurce: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

SRO Specific Questions 2

11 22 23 27 41 48 54 55 56 58 59 60 69 73 77 8&1 83 88 90 91 93 94 96 97 98 99,

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 2 Tier # 1 Group # 1 K/A # 005.GEN.2.1.12 Importance Rating 4.0 Proposed Question:

While performing rod cluster control exercises for control bank "D", it is discovered that one Bank "D"rod does not move from the starting position of 220 steps. I&C has reported that the rod is trippable.

What Technical Specification ACTION is required?

A. Verify SHUTDOWN MARGIN within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> and be in HOT STANDBY within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

B. Declare the rod inoperable and align the remainder of the rods in the group to within 12 steps of the inoperable rod while maintaining rods above RIL.

C. Be in HOT STANDBY within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

D. Restore the inoperable rod to OPERABLE within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct per TS 3.1.3.1 ACTION b.2. "A" is wrong, since these are ACTIONS for a stuck rod.

"C" is wrong since these actions are required if more than one rod is inoperable. "D" is wrong since this action is required if more than one rod is misaligned.

Technical Reference(s): TS 3.1.3.1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Tech Spec Sections 3/4 Learning MC-03904 Given a plant condition which requires the use of AOP (As Objective: 3552, identify applicable Technical Specification action requirements. available)

Question Source: Bank # 74492 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2, 43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 7 Tier # 1 Group # 1 K/A # 015/017.A1.06 Importance Rating _2.9 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* A plant cooldown is in progress.

"* RCS temperature is 500 0 F.

"* RCS pressure is 1400 psia.

"* Radiation monitor CCP31-1 has gone into alarm.

"* CCP surge tank level is at 96% and slowly increasing.

"* The RO is monitoring the RPCCW system for indications of the source of the leak.

"* Chemistry has just reported that isotopic analysis indicates the RCS leak is into the "B" Train of RPCCW.

What indication would the RO receive if the existing RCS leak into the RPCCW system significantly worsens?

A. RPCCW flowrate out of the "B" RHS heat exchanger will increase.

B. Letdown pressure control valve 3CHS*PCV131 will throttle closed to maintain letdown pressure.

C. RCP seal water return flows to the seal water heat exchanger will all increase.

D. RCP thermal barrier return valves 3CCP*AOV 178B or 178C will automatically close.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"A" is wrong since RHR is not placed in service during the cooldown until MODE 4. The "B" RHR heat exchanger is isolated from the RCS and vented to RWST pressure. "B" is wrong since the letdown heat exchanger is on Train "A". "C" is wrong since the seal water return pressure is 30-50 psig, or less than RPCCW pressure. "D" is correct since an RCS leak into the "B" RPCCW surge tank can only come from thermal barrier for the B or C RCP or excess letdown heat exchanger. If leakage increases, the RCP thermal barrier return valves automatically close to protect the RPCCW system from overpressure. All distractors are plausible since they are components cooled by RPCCW.

Technical Reference(s): P&ID 121 & 104 series (Attach if not previously provided) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04154 Describe the operation of the Reactor Plant Component (As Objective: Cooling System under the following normal, abnormal, or emergency available) conditions... Plant Cooldown... CCP System leak Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 11 Tier # 1 Group # _____________ 1 K/A# _______ WIEO9.KI .02 Importance Rating _______ 3.7 Proposed Question:

The following plant conditions exist:

T-0: Offsite power is lost, resulting in a plant trip.

T+10 min: ISO New England reports that power is not expected back for several hours.

T+30 min: A PEO reports a significant leak in the CST.

T+35 min: The STA expresses a concern about having enough combined DWST and CST inventory to reach COLD SHUTDOWN.

T+40 min: The crew is preparing to perform a natural circulation cooldown.

What actions should the crew take to reach COLD SHUTDOWN faster?

A. Restart an RCP at step 1 of ES-0.2 NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN and transition to OP 3208 PLANT COOLDOWN.

B. Commence the cooldown prior to verifying Shutdown Margin adequate in step 4 of ES-0.2, NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN.

C. Cooldown at the Tech Spec maximum of 80 degrees F/hr while remaining in ES-0.2 NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN.

D. Complete the first 12 steps of ES-0.2 NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN and then go to ES-0.3 NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN WITH STEAM VOID IN VESSEL (with RVLMS).

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

D correct per ES-0.2, note prior to step 13.

'A' is wrong since there is no power available for RCPs.

B incorrect, ES-0.2 step 4 logic does not allow proceeding prior to verifying adequate Shutdown Margin. Note prior to step 2 recommends completing the boration as soon as possible.

C incorrect, ES-0.2 limits cooldown rate to 50 degrees F/hr to prevent drawing a Void in the head.

Technical Reference(s): ES-0.2, steps 2, 4, and13 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05947 Discuss conditions which require transition to other (As available) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Objective: procedures from EOP 35 ES-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown.

Question Sou rce: Bank # 67600 Question Cog nitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 555 Content: 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 22 Tier # 1 Group # 1 K/A # 026.GEN.2.2.22 Importance Rating 4.1 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, the following sequence of events occurs:

1. The "B" RPCCW pump trips.

2. The crew enters AOP 3561 "Loss Of Reactor Plant Component Cooling Water".

3. The crew immediately OPENS the RPCCW CTMT header cross-connect valves 3CCP*AOV179A, B, C, and D; and CLOSES the RPCCW CTMT Supply and Return header isolation valves for the "B" train.

If no further operator action is taken, how long can the plant remain at full power and satisfy Technical Specifications?

A. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> B. 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> C. 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> D. Indefinitely Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

JUSTIFICATION: As long as only the "B" pump is running, only one loop is OPERABLE, both are required, the crew has 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> to restore to two OPERABLE loops. (C correct)

Technical Reference(s): Technical Specification 3.7.3 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 03936, given a plant condition requiring the use of AOP-3561, identify (As Objective: applicable technical specification action requirements. available)

Question Source: Bank # 73126 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 23 Tier # 1 Group #

K/A# W/E08.GEN.2.4.21 Importance Rating 4.3 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* A loss of offsite power has occurred.

"* The crew has been performing a natural circulation cooldown per ES-0.2 "Natural Circulation Cooldown".

"* Tcold has been steady at 3350F for the past hour, while plant management decides if a cooldown to MODE 5 is necessary.

"* Manual Status Tree Monitoring is in effect.

THE FOLLOWING SEQUENCE OF EVENTS OCCURS:

"* A large steamline break occurs in Containment.

"* The crew actuates safety injection and returns to E-0, step 1.

"* The STA continues manually monitoring the status trees, recording Tcold every 5 minutes.

RCS cold leg temperature trending indicates the following:

TIME Tcold 1300 335 0 F 1305 274 0 F 1310 253 0 F 1315 232 0 F 1320 200 0 F At what time will the crew transition to EOP35 FR-P.1 "Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition"?

A. 1305 B. 1310 C. 1315 D. 1320 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

The status tree will remain green until temperature has cooled down by 100°F in the past 60 minutes ("A" and "B" wrong). With the 100°F cooldown, the status tree will turn ORANGE below 256 0 F ("C" correct, "D" wrong). "A" is plausible, since the temperature is below the point where the status tree would turn YELLOW, if the 100°F cooldown had occurred. "B" is plausible, since it would have been the correct answer until the recent change to the integrity status tree, changing the cooldown requirement from 80°F to 1000 F. "D" is plausible, since at this point, the status tree will have turned from ORANGE to RED.

Technical Reference(s): 35 EOP F.04 (Integrity Status Tree) (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04551 IDENTIFY PLANT CONDITIONS THAT REQUIRE (As available)

Objective: ENTRY INTO EOP 35 FR-P.I.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 27 Tier # 1 Group # 2 KIA# PLANT SPECIFIC Importance Rating N/A Proposed Question:

PLANT CONDITIONS:

"* A loss of all AC power has occurred

"* Power has been restored to the "A" Train 4160 V buses from the SBO diesel.

"* The crew has transitioned out of ECA-0.0 "Loss of All AC Power".

"* The crew has just started the 'A' Charging Pump

"* Containment temperature is 125 0 F

"* Pressurizer level is 10%

"* RCS pressure is 1550 psia

"* Highest CET is 5640 F Which of the following actions should be taken by the crew?

A. Open 3CHS*FCV 121 to increase PZR level above 16%.

B. Actuate Safety Injection.

C. Transition to ECA-0.2, Loss of All AC Power Recovery with SI required.

D. Open one charging pump cold leg injection valve and increase PZR leviel above 16%.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"A" is wrong and "D" is correct because cold leg injection valve is directed t ) be open at Step 7 of ECA-0.3. "B" is wrong because SI is directed to be reset to allow manual Iciading of equipment per caution prior to step 1 of ECA-0.3. "C" is wrong since ECA-0.2 assumes anI emergency bus is energized from an EDG or offsite power. "B" and "D" would align to add wa ter to the RCS, but will not consider the significant limitations created by the capacity of the SBO diiesel.

Technical Reference(s): ECA-0.3, steps 6, 7, and 8. (Attach if nc it previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Noine Learning MC-03866 Describe the major action (As available)

Objective: categories within EOP35 ECA-0.3.

Question Source: Bank # 67595 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 41 Tier # 1 Group # 1 K/A # 062.GEN.2.4.24 Importance Rating 3.7 Proposed Question:

The plant is operating at 100% power when Service Water pumps "A" and "B" trip. Service Water pumps "C" and "D" trip immediately upon starting.

What action is required by the crew?

A. Immediately trip the RCPs.

B. Trip the reactor, go to E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

C. Trip the reactor, trip all RCP's go to E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

D. Isolate charging and letdown, trip the reactor, go to E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

AOP 3560 requires charging and letdown be isolated to prevent a rapid VCT heatup, and then a trip of the reactor.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3560, step 2 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective: 03927, Describe the major action categories contained (As available) within AOP-3560.

Question Source: Bank # 63925 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 48 Tier # 1 Group# ____________ I K/A# _______ 059.K1 .03 Importance Rating _______ 2.9 Proposed Question:

During a refueling outage, radiography is in progress on piping between 3SWP-MOV71A and B.

During the radiography, 3LWS-RE70 trips closed, stopping a discharge of the "B" Waste Test Tank (WTT).

What is required prior to recommencing the discharge of the "B" WTT?

A. Verify the alarm clears within 2 minutes, then re-latch and open 3LWS-HV77.

B. Purge 3LWS-RE70 for 10 minutes then re-latch and open 3LWS-HV77.

C. Flush the discharge piping for 15 minutes, then re-latch and open 3LWS-HV77.

D. Stop the discharge, place the "B" WTT on recirc, and resample the "B" WTT.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

When LWS-RE70 goes into alarm, recirc and sample is required ("D" correct). "A" is plausible, since the cause of the high radiation alarm (radiography) is known. "B" and "C" plausible, since flushing and purging are actions taken in response to alarms other than Hi Radiation.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3335D, Att.1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04869 Describe the operation of the LWS system under the (As Objective: following operating conditions: available)

High radiation condition detected by 3LWS-RE70 during a discharge...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.4, 43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 51 Tier #

Group #

K/A# ________ 058.A2.01 Importance Rating ____ ____ 4.1 Proposed Question:

The plant is at 100% power with all electrical systems aligned normally, when the battery output breaker from battery 3 inadvertently trips open. The BOP operator checks battery bus 3 voltage at MB8.

What voltage will the BOP operator observe on Battery Bus 3?

A. 0 volts B. 125 volts C. 133 volts D. 140 volts Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, and "A"is wrong, since the DC bus will still be energized by the battery charger, which puts out 133 volts. "B"is wrong, but plausible, since this is the voltage put out by the battery, which the bus would indicate if the charger tripped off line. "D"is wrong, but plausible, since this is the voltage put out by the rectifier from the 480 vac bus to the inverter. This voltage is prevented from flowing back to the battery bus by a reverse biased diode.

Technical Reference(s): EE Dwg 1BA (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03296 Describe the function and location of the following major (As Objective: 120 volt AC system components: ... Rectifier, Inverter, Static Switch, available)

Bypass Line Regulator, Manual Bypass Switch.

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8.

55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 54 Tier # 1 Group # 3 K/A # 056.K1.01 Importance Rating 4.2 Proposed Question:

The plant is operating at 100% power when a loss of off-site power causes a reactor trip.

Ten minutes following the trip, the following conditions exist:

"* SG A Pressure 1135 psig and stable

"* SG B Pressure 1125 psig and stable

"* SG C Pressure 1130 psig and stable

"* SG D Pressure 1125 psig and stable

"* RCS Pressure 2250 psia and stable

"* T-hot is approximately 580OF in all 4 loops and slowly decreasing.

"* Core Exit TCs indicate approximately 585OF and slowly decreasing.

"* T-cold is approximately 561OF in all 4 loops and stable Based on the above indications, what is the condition of the RCS?

A. Natural circulation can be verified. Heat removal is being maintained by the condenser steam dumps.

B. Adequate natural circulation can NOT be verified. Heat removal may be established by throttling the condenser steam dumps open.

C. Natural circulation can be verified. Heat removal is being maintained by atmospheric steam dumps.

D. Adequate natural circulation can NOT be verified. Heat removal may be established by throttling the atmospheric steam dump valves open.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A and B are incorrect because on a loss of off site power, condenser steam dumps are unavailable due to loss of circulating water pumps. These answers are plausible since steam dumps are the normal method of controlling RCS temperature post trip. C is correct and D is wrong based on steam table indications, showing about 67 0F subcooling, Tcold approximately equal to the saturation pressure of all 4 SGs and Thot trending down slowly. Also, CETCs and hot leg temperatures are decreasing, Technical Reference(s): ES-0.1. step 10 (Attach if not previously provided) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Steam Tables Learning MC-05511 DESCRIBE the major action categories (As available)

Objective: within EOP 35 ES-0.1.

Question Source: Bank # 72294 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8, 41.10 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 55 Tier #

Group #

K/A# ________ 004. K6.27 Importance Rating ____ ____ 3.6 Proposed Question:

With a plant cooldown in progress, the operators performed the following sequence of actions:

1. With RCS hot leg temperature at 3400F, the "A" train of RHR was placed in service in the cooldown mode.

2. With RCS hot leg temperature at 2550 F, the "B" train of RHR was also placed in service in the cooldown mode.

Current conditions:

"* The "B" train of RHR has just been isolated from the RCS due to a significant RHR piping leak.

"* Hot leg temperature is 210°F.

"* The "A" and "B" RCPs are running.

What concern is there with the "B" RHR train isolated?

A. The "B" train of RHR normally provides CVCS letdown.

B. The "B" train of RHR is required to provide an ECCS injection flowpath.

C. The "B" train of RHR is needed for cooldown to prevent exceeding RPCCW temperature limits.

D. The "B" train of RHR is required if COPPS is not armed.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

"D" is correct, since COPPs is required <226°F, from either COPPS or RHR suction relief valves, and COPPS is not armed. "A" is wrong, since letdown is aligned to the first train of RHR placed in service. "B" is wrong, since only one RHR train is required to be available for alignment to the injection mode in MODE 4. "C" is wrong, since RPCCW temperature limits can be maintained by slowing the cooldown rate on a single train of RHR. "A", "B", and "C" are plausible since RHR is involved in each of these functions.

Technical OP 3208, step 4.3.27, OP 3310A, step 4.5 (Attach if not previously provided )

Reference(s): Tech Specs 3.4.1.3, 3.4.9.3, and 3.5.3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Tech Spec sections 3/4 Learning MC-05459 Given a failure, partial or complete, of the RHR system, (As 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Objective: describe the effects on the system and on interrelated systems. available)

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 55.43.2, 43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 56 Tier # 1 Group# 2 K/A # W/E03.A2.02 Importance Rating 4.1 Proposed Question:

Due to a Small Break LOCA a Plant Trip and Safety Injection has just occurred, and the following conditions exist:

"* The crew is at step 11 of E-0.

"* All automatic equipment responds as expected

"* Containment temperature is 145 0 F

"* Containment High Range Monitors RE04A and 05A read 2R/hr

"* RCS pressure is 1540 psia and stable

"* Core exit thermocouple temperature is 500°F

"* Pzr level is 24% and slowly increasing.

Assuming conditions do not significantly change, in which of the following procedures will the crew be directed to stop one charging pump?

A. E-0 "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection".

"B. ES-1.2, "Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization".

C. ES-1.1, "SI Termination".

D. E-1 "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant" Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

Step 16 of E-0 will not allow stopping the charging pump. Because RCS pressure is less than 1650 psia the operator will move to the right hand column at step 16 of E-0 (i.e. conditions for stopping a CHS pump will not be evaluated). ("A" is wrong).

The operator will transition to E-1 at step 26 of E-0 due to abnormal radiation. E-1 step 6 will allow transition to ES-1.1 if four ECCS termination criteria are satisfied. Subcooling is about 100'F, and 32°F is required. Heat Sink is available (AFW auto started, and operators control feed flow based on EOP steps). RCS pressure is stable. PZR level is > 16%. Therefore a transition to ES-1.1 will be made ("D" wrong), and a charging pump will be stopped lAW Step 4 of ES-I.1

("C" is correct).

A transition from E-1 to ES-1.2 will only be made if the Operator reaches Step 13 of E-1. If the Operator properly executes E-1 he will transition out of E-1 at Step 6 ("B" wrong).

Technical Reference(s): E-0, steps 16 and 26 (Attach if not previously provided)

E-1, steps 6 and 7.

ES-1. 1, step 4.

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05524 Describe the major action categories (As available)

Objective: within EOP 35 ES-1.1.

Question Source: Bank # 63930 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 58 Tier # 2 Group # 1 K/A # 068.A2.02 Importance Rating 2.8 Proposed Question:

Current Conditions:

"* Reactor power is 100%.

"* A thermal backwash is in progress on the "A" Waterbox.

"* The tide is coming in.

"* Both the "A" and the "B" Waste Test Tanks (WTTs) are full.

"* The SM is preparing to authorize the discharge of the "A" WTT.

"* The "A" WTT was recirculated for 40 minutes, as annotated on the discharge permit.

"* All other plant conditions are normal, and all other actions related to the discharge are acceptable.

Which of the following actions should the SM take concerning the discharge of the "A" WTT?

A. Authorize the discharge. All requirements are met.

B. Do not authorize the discharge. Discharges are only allowed during ebb tides.

C. Do not authorize the discharge. Tank recirculation requirements are not met.

D. Do not authorize the discharge. Insufficient dilution flow exists.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

"C" is correct, and "A" is wrong since the WTT requires a 175 minute recirc time. 40 minutes is the time required for the Low Level Waste Drain Tank. "B" is wrong, since while it is desirable to perform discharges during ebb tides, needs of the station may preclude this. "D" is wrong, since the normal requirement for dilution is 3 Circ Pumps, and 5 are running. "D" is plausible, since thermal backwashing reduces the number of operating circ pumps below normal.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3335D, step 4.13 (Attach if not previously provided)

OP 3335D, NOTE prior to step 4.16.1 OP 3335D, Form 16, pg 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04867 Describe the major administrative or procedural (As available)

Objective: precautions and limitations ;laced on the operation of the LWS system, and the basis for each.

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.4, 43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

4.16 Discharging Waste Test Tank A to Circulating Water Discharge Tbnnel NOTE It is desirable to perform radioactive liquid waste discharges during an ebb tide (high tide going out) but the needs of the station may preclude this.

4.16.1 Refer To Section 4.21 and VERIFY B WTT is not being recirculated through 3LWS-DEMN1.

4.16.2 Refer To OPS Form 3335D-016 and PERFORM the following:

a. PERFORM lineup and DOCUMENT

b. PERFORM Independent Verification and DOCUMENT NOTE If activity action limits are met or exceeded, chemistry will not issue a liquid discharge permit and will notify supervision, as directed by CP 3809A, "Liquid Waste Discharges."

4.16.3 REQUEST SM/US permission to set up 3LWS-RE70 for discharge of Waste Test Tank A.

4.16.4 CHECK required dilution flow rate is met.

4.16.5 IF 3LWS-RE70 is OPERABLE, PERFORM the following:

a. ENTER "LWS70 1" and PRESS "DATABASE" to display 3LWS70-1, Liquid Waste Effluent Monitor (3RMS-CNSL1).

b. CHECK 3LWS70-1 unit on line and sample pump on (3RMS-CNSL1).

c. PRESS "PURGE UNIT" to purge radiation monitor (3RMS-CNSL1) (purge lasts for 5 to 10 minutes).

d. CHECK "ENDED PURGE" message is received approximately 5 to 10 minutes after pressing "PURGE UNIT" (3RMS-CNSL1).

Level of Use A, A OP 3335D Continuous Rev. 016-03 35 of 116

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 59 Tier # 1 Group # 2 K/A# W/E1 1.A2.02 Importance Rating 4.2 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power, the following sequence of events occurs:

1. The reactor trips and safety injection actuates.

2. Over the next 10 minutes, RCS pressure decreases to and stabilizes at 1600 psia.

3. The crew is responding using ECA-1.2, "LOCA Outside Containment."

4. While attempting to isolate the break, the final valve the crew closes in attempt to isolate the leak is RHR pump "A" cold leg injection valve (3SIL*MV8809A).

5. After 3SIL*MV8809A closes, RCS pressure holds steady at 1600 psia.

Which procedure will the crew transition to from ECA-1.2?

A. E-1 "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant".

B. ES-l.1 "SI Termination".

C. ES-1.2 "Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization".

D. ECA-1.1 "Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation".

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

JUSTIFICATION: "D" is correct, since if the break is not isolated the crew transitions to ECA 1.1 per the step 5 RNO. It can be determined that the break is not isolated since RCS pressure does not increase ("B" wrong). "B" is plausible, since If the break is isolated, the crew transitions to E-1, and RCS pressure is steady, not decreasing.

"C" is incorrect because there is no entry into ES-1.2 from ECA-1.2. "C" is plausible since the break size is small, which ES-1.2 is designed to mitigate.

"B" is incorrect because if the leak is isolated, the crew must first go to E-1 and subsequently to ES-1.1. "B" is plausible since if the leak is isolated, this procedure will be used to terminate SI.

Technical Reference(s): ECA-1.2, steps 4 and 5 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning 03878, Discuss conditions which require transition to other (As available)

Objective: procedures from EOP 35 ECA-1.2.

Question Source: Modified Bank # 73144 (Note changes or attach parent) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 60 Tier # 2 Group # 2 K/A # 002.A2.01 Importance Rating 4.4 Proposed Question:

The plant tripped and safety injected from 100% power due to a small break loss of coolant accident.

The following conditions currently exist:

• RCS pressure is 1800 psia and stable

• Pressurizer level is 22% and stable

• RCS subcooling based on CETs is 90°F and stable

• AFW flow is 600 gpm

• Containment temperature is 140TF and slowly increasing

• The crew is progressing through ES-1.1 "Sl Termination"

• The "A" and "B" Charging pumps are running The crew stops the "A" Charging pump in ES-1.1, and RCS pressure starts to decrease, and does NOT stabilize.

What action should the crew take?

A. Restart the "A" Charging pump and transition to E-1, "Loss or Reactor or Secondary Coolant".

B. Leave the "A" Charging pump off and transition to E-1, "Loss or Reactor or Secondary Coolant".

C. Remain in ES-I.1, "SI Termination" and restart the "A" Charging pump if Pressurizer level drops to 16%.

D. Remain in ES-1.1, "SI Termination" and establish a normal charging flowpath.

Proposed Answer: B.

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct per ES-I.1 Step 5 RNO. The crew will proceed through E-1 to ES-1.2. "A" is wrong, since if the crew restarts the charging pump, the crew will return to ES-I.1 per E-1, step 6, and be stuck in a "do-loop". This has been a misconception seen at Millstone 3 simulator training in the past. "C" and "D" are wrong, since ES-1.1 step 5 RNO transitions to E-1. Note that "C" is also wrong since it applies foldout page SI reinitiation criteria before SI has been terminated per OP 3272, section 1.5.

Technical ES-1.1, SI Termination, steps 4 and 5. (Attach if not previously provided)

Reference(s): OP 3272, Section 1.5.

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05526 Discuss conditions which require transition (As available)

Objective: to other procedures from EOP 35 ES-1.1.

Question Source: Bank # 74743 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 69 Tier # 2 Group # 2 K/A# 062.GEN.2.4.41 Importance Rating 4.1 Proposed Question:

With the plant at 100% power and the "A' EDG tagged out, the following sequence of events occurs:

1400 The reactor trips due to a loss of offsite power.

1400 Neither EDG starts.

1413 The crew energizes Emergency Bus 34C from the SBO Diesel.

1430 The crew energizes Emergency Bus 34D from the "B" EDG.

1440 Maintenance Department reports problems in restoring the "A" EDG, and they estimate it should become available in approximately 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.

1445 CONVEX reports that they do not have an estimate as to when offsite power will be restored.

What is the classification for this event?

A. General Emergency B. Site Area Emergency C. Alert D. Unusual Event Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct, and the other answers wrong, since Voltage has been lost on busses 34C and 34D for >15 minutes. NOTE that the SBO diesel can NOT be credited as an AC source per the Alert classification ("C" plausible). "C" is also plausible since Alert would be the proper classification in MODEs 5 and 6. "A" is plausible, since the "B" EDG will be out of service for >4 hours. "D"is plausible, since power is restored by the SBO diesel in less than 15 minutes.

Technical Reference(s):. o EAL Tables PS1 and PA2 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: EAL Tables Learning MC-03869 Given a plant condition requiring the use of EOP35 (As available)

Objective: ECA-0.3, classify the event in accordance with EPIP 4400.

Question Source: New 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 73 Tier # ________ 3 Group # ___________ 1 K/A# _____ GEN.2.1 .7 Importance Rating ______ 4.4 Proposed Question:

The Plant is in Mode 3 with a cooldown in progress in accordance with the appropriate procedures. Due to a Tech Spec action requirement, the crew is attempting to cooldown at the maximum administrative cooldown rate limit. The following data has been logged over the last hour:

TIME RCS TEMP RCS PRESS 1500 549 0 F 2075 psia 1515 534 0 F 1700 psia 1530 517°F 1500 psia 1545 498°F 1500 psia 1600 4750F 1250 psia Which of the following actions should be taken at Time 1600?

A. Stop the cooldown.

B. Decrease the cooldown rate but do not stop cooling down.

C. No action is required.

D. Increase the cooldown rate.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Step 4.2.3.d require that the elapsed time between the current and previous readings be used to calculate the cooldown rate and used to adjust the cooldown. DT for cooldown is 23 F in 15 minutes, or 1.53 F/min. The steps also require action in accordance with Attachment 1 be taken.

The attachment shows that for a cooldown rate > 1.33 F/minute, the cooldown should be stopped.

Technical Reference(s): SP 3601G, OPS Form 3601 G.2-1 (Attach if not previously provided) 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04837 The crew operates the plant in compliance with all (As available)

Objective: applicable plant procedures and technical specifications Question Source: Bank # 69843 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 77 Tier # 3 Group #

K/A# GEN.2.1 .4 Importance Rating _____ 3.4 Proposed Question:

In accordance with Technical Specifications, what is the minimum crew composition during CORE ALTERATIONS?

A. One SS, one licensed SRO responsible for fuel handling, one licensed RO in the Control Room, and one PEO.

B. One licensed SRO in the Control Room, one licensed SRO responsible for fuel handling, one licensed RO in the Control Room, and two PEOs.

C. One licensed SRO in the Control Room, two licensed ROs, two PEOs, and one STA.

D. One SS, one licensed RO in the Control Room, and one PEO.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Table 6.2-1 required 1 SS, 1 RO, and 1 PEO in MODE's 5 or 6 ("B" and "C" wrong). Tech Spec 6.2.2 requires a licensed operator in the control room whenever there is fuel in the reactor, and a licensed SRO responsible for supervising and observing CORE ALTERATIONS ("C" and "D" wrong).

Technical Reference(s): Tech Spec. 6.2.2, Table 6.2.1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05792 State minimum shift crew composition for all MODES of (As Objective: operation including requirements regarding health physics technicians, available) observation and supervision of CORE ALTERATIONS, fire brigade composition, and unexpected absences Question Source: Bank # 74372 Question History: Last NRC Exam Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 81 Tier # 3 Group # 1 K/A# GEN.2.1.10 Importance Rating 3.9 Proposed Question:

Which of the following is an "Operator Credited Action" for the Steam Generator Tube Rupture Event?

A. Verifying the PORV Block valve(s) are open within 10 minutes of Safety Injection initiation.

B. Stopping AFW Flow to the ruptured Steam Generator in 16.5 minutes, or by 29% NR Level, whichever is longer.

C. Closing the ruptured Steam Generators atmospheric dump valve within 60 minutes of the valve failing open.

D. Terminating Safety Injection within 60 minutes of event initiation.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"A" is wrong as this is an operator credited action for an inadvertent SI, concern is Pzr overfill. "B" is correct as the AFW flow needs to be stopped by 29% Narrow Range level. "C" is wrong as the valve needs to be closed within 20 minutes not 60 minutes. "D" is wrong as the termination of Safety Injection within 60 minutes is an operator credited action for an inadvertent SI.

Technical Reference(s): FSAR Table 15.6.3-1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04921 OUTLINE the anticipated Operator Actions in response to (As Objective: SGTRs to include the operator credited actions in FSAR chapter 15. available)

Question Source: Bank # 71085 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet "Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 83 Tier # 3 Group # 1 K/A# GEN.2.1.11 Importance Rating 3.8 Proposed Question:

The reactor startup is in progress per OP3202, "Reactor Startup", and power is stable at 1 x 10-8 amps. A feed transient occurs and, the reactor operator notices that Tavg is 5500 F.

What ACTION, if any, is required?

A. Restore Tavg within 15 minutes or be in HOT STANDBY within the next 15 minutes.

B. Restore Tavg within 15 minutes and be in HOT STANDBY within the next 15 minutes.

C. No ACTION required all LCOs are satisfied, once the reactor is critical.

D. Be in HOT STANDBY within the next 15 minutes.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

ACTION: With a Reactor Coolant System operating loop temperature (Tavg) less than 551 OF, restore Tavg to within its limit within 15 minutes or be in HOT STANDBY within the next 15 minutes. Therefore, with the plant in MODE 2 the ACTION is appropriate (A correct).

Technical Reference(s): Tech Spec 3.1.1.4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Tech Spec sections 3/4 Learning MC-03377 Given a plant condition requiring the use of the OP 3202 (As available)

Objectiv procedure, identify applicable technical specification action e: requirements.

Question Source: Bank # 68646 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 88 Tier # ________ 3 Group # _______ 2 K/A# _____ GEN.2.2.1 1 Importance Rating ______ 3.4 Proposed Question:

Which of the following is required in order to ensure strict control of temporary modification tags?

A. The jumper tags must be hung by a licensed operator.

B. Independent or Dual verification as required is performed when installing the tags.

C. The on-shift SM, on-shift US, or designated SRO must approve the temporary modification prior to hanging the tags.

D. Caution tags shall be used and the clearance number noted in the "Comments" section of the Jumper Device Control Sheet.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

A is wrong since the installer does not have to be licensed (i.e. may be from the department requesting the jumper). B is correct since verification (dual or independent) is required. C is wrong since the SM alone approves the installation when the jumper is installed. D is wrong since caution tags may not be required.

Technical WC-1 0 Attachment 4, Temporary (Attach if not previously Reference(s): Modification Control Sheet provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05104 Outline the process for Temporary Modification (As available)

Objective: installation.

Question Source: Bank # 72387 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.3 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 90 Tier # _3 Group # 2 K/A # _GEN.2.2.24 Importance Rating 3.8 Proposed Question:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

"* The plant is at 100% power.

"* The Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump was removed from service one hour ago for preventative maintenance.

"* All other equipment is in service.

The outside rounds PEO reports that the "B" EDG has no oil in its lube oil reservoir.

If neither the EDG nor the TDAFW pump are returned to service, what is the longest time the crew can take to reach HOT STANDBY?

A. 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> B. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.

C. 77 hours8.912037e-4 days <br />0.0214 hours <br />1.273148e-4 weeks <br />2.92985e-5 months <br />.

D. 78 hours9.027778e-4 days <br />0.0217 hours <br />1.289683e-4 weeks <br />2.9679e-5 months <br />.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is correct, since with an EDG and the TDAFW pump inoperable, LCO 3.8.1.1 ACTION d requires the crew to restore the TDAFW pump within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> or be in HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. "D" is plausible since LCO 3.8.1.1 ACTION b requires the crew to restore a single inoperable EDG to service within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> or be in HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. "C" is plausible since LCO 3.7.1.2 ACTION a requires the crew to restore a single inoperable AFW pump to service within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> or be in HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />, and the TDAFW pump has already been out of service for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. "A" is plausible since LCO 3.7.1.2 ACTION b requires the crew to be in HOT STANDBY within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> if two AFW pumps are inoperable.

Technical Reference(s): Tech Spec 3.8.1.1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Tech Spec 3.7.1.2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Tech Spec Sections 3/4 Learning MC-04837 The crew operates the plant in compliance with all (As available)

Objective: applicable plant procedures and technical specifications 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 91 Tier # 3 Group # _2 KIA# GEN.2.2.27 Importance Rating 3.5 Proposed Question:

You are the Refueling Senior Reactor Operator on-duty in Containment during Core Load.

Which of the following conditions would allow Core Alterations to continue (consider each condition independently)?

A. Communications between the Refueling Floor and the Control Room are temporarily (<5 minutes) interrupted.

B. The RHR flow is deliberately suspended for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> in the last 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> period.

C. The RHR flow rates exceed 3,000 gpm per pump.

D. The Refuel SRO is absent from the Refuel floor while replacing sources.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A wrong: Plausible since the "temporary" nature may lead candidate to suppose the interruption is permissible. OP 3210B, Refueling Operations, 3.13, MP-14-OPS-GDLO2, Att.6, pg 88.

B wrong: Plausible since OP 3210B allows RHR flow to be deliberately suspended for 1 hours1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> in the last 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> period if no dilution in progress.(3.10)

C correct: RHR operating range is 2,800 gpm to 4,000 gpm per OP 3210B, 3.9 D wrong: Plausible since the sources may appear not to be a core alteration.

Technical Reference(s): OP 3210B (Attach if not previously provided)

MP-14-OPS-GDLO2, Att.6, pg 88 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-06495 Describe the stop work requirements with regards (As available)

Objective: to fuel movement...

Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.6 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 93 Tier # __________ 3 Group # __________ 2 K/A# ________ GEN.2.2.29 Importance Rating ____ ____ 3.8 Proposed Question:

You are the Refueling SRO and refueling operations are currently taking place. The alarm, "SHUTDOWN MARGIN MONITOR ALARM" (MB4C 2-2) is received AND both of the Source Range channels indicates unexplained flux increase. You direct that "CORE ALTERATIONS" are immediately suspended and all fuel assemblies are placed in a stable condition. From the list below, what is an additional action appropriate for this situation?

A. Refer to EOP 3502, Fuel Handling Accident B. Refer to EOP 3505, Loss of Shutdown Cooling and/or RCS Inventory C. Refer to AOP 3566, Immediate Boration D. Refer to AOP 3572, Failure of the Refueling Cavity Seal Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Wrong: Actions for actual or imminent Fuel Handling Accident B. Wrong: Actions for Loss of RHR C. Correct: OP 3210B, 4.2.4 D. Wrong: Actions for cavity seal failure Technical Reference(s): OP 3210B, 4.2.4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03960 Identify plant conditions that require entry into (As available)

Objective: AOP 3566 Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.6 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet

-__' Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 94 Tier # ____

___ ___ 3 Group # ____

___ ___ 2 K/A# _________ GEN.2.2.32 Importance Rating _____ _____ 3.3 Proposed Question:

During refueling preparation the lifting of the reactor vessel head marks the start of CORE ALTERATIONS. Why is the lifting of the reactor vessel head considered a CORE ALTERATION?

A. Reactor vessel head removal has the potential to change RCS boron concentration.

B. Control rods may move during reactor vessel head removal.

C. RCS temperature may drop after the reactor vessel head is removed D. Reactor fuel configuration may be altered during reactor vessel head removal.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

"B" is Correct per OP 3210A, Note before 4.1.18. "A" is wrong: Prerequisite 2.1.7 ensures RCS Cb >2700 ppm, head lift connects systems with equal Cb.

"C" is wrong: Actually a upper internals removal precaution (step 4.4.8 note)

"D" is wrong: Upper internals are still installed and are not removed with head Technical Reference(s): OP 3210A, Refueling Preparations (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04544 Describe the following... Core Alterations and (As available)

Objective: what specifically marks the start of Core Alterations...

MC-06387 Describe major actions within OP 3210 series procedures Question Source: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.6 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 96 Tier # 3 Group # 3 K/A# GEN.2.3.10 Importance Rating 2.9 Proposed Question:

PLANT CONDITIONS:

"* Plant is in MODE 6

"* No fuel movements are in progress

• Spent Fuel Pool level - 30% and decreasing slowly

• Reactor Cavity seal - intact

• Fuel Building Monitoring Group Histogram - NORMAL

• RWST level - 175,000 gallons For the existing plant conditions, from where would makeup to the spent fuel pool be appropriate?

A. From the RWST using gravity feed.

B. From the RWST using a purification pump.

C. From the Primary Grade Water System.

D. From the Fire Water System.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

RWST is less than 800,000 gallons, therefore, A incorrect. RWST is greater than 100,000 gallons, therefore B correct, and "C" and " D" wrong.

Technical Reference(s): EOP 3505A, step 2 (Attach if not previously provided)

EOP 3505A Att A, steps 1-9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-04357, Discuss the basis of major procedure steps and/or (As Objective: sequence of steps in EOP 3505A, "Loss of Spent Fuel Pool Cooling". available)

Question Source: Bank # 69799 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.4, 43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 97 Tier # 3 Group # 4 K/A # GEN.2.4.11 Importance Rating 3.6 Proposed Question:

A hurricane with sustained winds of 100 mph is reported to be at the site in the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

What is the preferred emergency bus electrical lineup?

A. Both diesels running, supplying their respective emergency buses with the tie breakers open. The non-emergency busses are supplied from offsite power.

B. Both diesels in standby, offsite power supplying both the emergency and non emergency buses.

C. Both diesels running, supplying their respective emergency buses in parallel with offsite power.

D. One diesel supplying it emergency bus, preferably the diesel with the running charging pump; the other emergency bus supplied from offsite power.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

Switchyard and transmission lines are not rated to withstand wind speeds in excess of 90 mph.

For this reason it is best to shutdown to HOT STANDBY and run one EDG supplying one emergency bus. Use the EDG which corresponds to the bus with the operating charging pump.

Consider using the EDG/charging pump combination on the electrical train with the most available safety equipment. RCP seal failure could occur as a result of the loss of all AC power, complicating the accident. Reducing temperature to LESS THAN 400°F prior to a loss of all AC makes seal failure unlikely.

Technical Reference(s): AOP 3569, Attachment A (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-03971 Describe the major action categories contained within AOP- (As Objective: 3569, Severe Weather Conditions. available)

Question Source: Bank # 69938 41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 98 Tier # _______ 3 Group# _______ 4 K/A# ______ GEN.2.4.29 Importance Rating ______ 4.0 Proposed Question:

The Control Room - Director of Station Emergency Organization (CR - DSEO) has the authority to re-assign certain tasks to other available Control Room individuals. Which of the following tasks CAN be re-assigned?

A. Classification of the Event B. Protective Action Recommendations C. Emergency Exposure Dose Extension D. Conduct the Station Evacuation.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

FAP01-001 lists "A", "B", and "C" as items the CR-DSEO can NOT re-assign. "D" is the correct answer, and is plausible, since it is one of the CR-DSEO's responsibilities, but can be reassigned.

Technical Reference(s): FAP01-001 pg 7 of 8 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning EP-00208 List the responsibilities of the shift manager while serving (As Objective: as CR Director of Station Emergency Operations (CR-DSEO). available)

Question Sou rce: New Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-6 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 99 Tier # ________ 3 Group # _______ 4 K/A# ______ GEN.2.4.30 Importance Rating ______ 3.6 Proposed Question:

With the plant operating at 100%, the Shiftly Calculated Average Reactor Power CVQRPSHIFT comes in at 3411.1 MWth at the completion of the computer defined 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> mid shift. The calorimetric had remained in the STEAM CALC mode throughout the shift.

What actions, if any, are required to be taken by the crew?

A. No action is required.

B. Notify Reactor Engineering and submit a CR only.

C. Notify Reactor Engineering, submit a CR, and notify the NRC within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

D. Maintain the highest reading power range NIS channel less than or equal to 100%.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A and B are wrong and C is correct, as required by OP 3204. D is wrong, since this is the action required if computer thermal power display is unavailable.

Technical Reference(s): OP3204 Section 4.3.1.e and f (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning MC-05527 Describe the major administrative or procedural precautions and (As Objective: limitations placed on the operation of the NIS system, and the basis for each. available)

Question Source: Bank # 71058 Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 Comments:

41 of 46 NUREG-1021, Revision 8, Supplement 1