IR 05000244/1996002
| ML17264A423 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Ginna  |
| Issue date: | 03/27/1996 |
| From: | Dantonio J, Meyer G NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION I) |
| To: | |
| Shared Package | |
| ML17264A422 | List: |
| References | |
| 50-244-96-02OL, 50-244-96-2OL, NUDOCS 9604020134 | |
| Download: ML17264A423 (78) | |
Text
U. S.
NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION
REGION I
DOCKET/REPORT NOS:
LICENSEE:
FACILITY:
LOCATED AT:
EXAMINATION DATES:
EXAMINERS:
50-244/96-02 Rochester Gas 8 Electric Company (RGE)
Ginna Nuclear Station Rochester, New York February 13-15, 1996 J. O'Antonio Operations Engineer S. Barr, Operations Engineer CHIEF EXAMINER:
Joseph D'Antonio, Operations Engineer Date Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety APPROVED BY:
Glenn W.
Mey
, Chief Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety
~/~~/yg Date 9'604020i34
'760325 PDR ADOCK 05000244
EXAMINATION SUNNARY Examination Report 50-244/96-02 (OL)
Initial examinations were administered to two reactor operator (RO) applicants during the period of 2/13-15 1996 at the Ginna power station.
OPERATIONS As part of a pilot process, a facility developed examination approved by the NRC was administered to two reactor operator applicants.
Both individuals failed the written portion of the examinations.
Facility procedures were reviewed to verify compliance with an FSAR commitment to provide means of providing alternate cool.ing to the diesel generators and aux feedwater pumps in the event of a loss of normal service water.
Appropriate procedures were found in plac DETAILS 1. 0 INTRODUCTION The NRC administered initial examinations to two reactor operator (RO)
applicants.
The examinations were administered as part of the NRC pilot process that used the resources of the Ginna Training Department to propose a
written and operating test and to administer and grade the written examination.
The examinations were administered in accordance with the pilot program implementation instructions issued to assure consistency with NUREG-1021,
"Examiner Standards,"
Revision 7.
2. 0 PREEXAMINATION ACTIVITIES The facility staff developed the written and operating examinations and submitted these proposed examinations for NRC review and approval.
The NRC reviewed the proposed examinations, provided comments, and approved the examination for administration.
The examinations administered reflected incorporation of the NRC comments.
The NRC staff reviewed the written examination in the office and provided comments on approximately one third of the questions to the facility staff prior to the on-site examination administration.
The comments concerned editorial changes, technical verification, and cognitive level.
The written examination was administered by the Ginna staff on February 13, 1996, with the NRC on site for validation of the operational examination.
The final RO written examination is contained in Attachment l.
The NRC staff reviewed and prepared for the operating examination in the office and validated the operating examination on site.
The original scenarios required additional instrument failures to satisfy criteria in the NRC examiner standards and to ensure all required competencies were tested.
The walk-through examinations required some shuffling of proposed tasks to ensure the required distribution of safety functions, and minor changes to some proposed questions.
3.0 EXAMINATION RESULTS AND RELATED FINDINGS, OBSERVATIONS, AND CONCLUSIONS 3. 1 Examination Results The results of the examinations are summarized below:
Written 0 eratin Overall RO Pass Fail
2 2/0
2
After the written examination administration, the facility staff identified
proposed changes the written examination.
The facility comments provided are contained in Attachment 2;
NRC resolution of these comments is in Attachment 3.
As a result of the comments and resolution, five questions were determined to have two correct answers, five questions were deleted from the written examination, and one answer was changed.
Due to the large number of changes to the examination, the NRC performed an analysis of the topic and content distribution of the remaining questions to determine if sufficient material was covered for the examination to remain valid.
The examination and results were determined to remain valid.
3.2 Applicant Performance The following is a summary of the applicant weaknesses noted during initial examination administration.
No strengths were noted.
This information is being provided to aid the facility in upgrading their training program.
Written Examination The following questions were missed by both applicants, indicating a weakness in the general understanding of the subject.
The missed questions are not concentrated in any one area, which appears to indicate an overall weak knowledge level for these applicants.
19
26
32
42
57
Performance of valve lineup - independent verification.
Channel check of control room instruments.
Control rod malfunction.
Diesel loading sequence, Reactor protection system permissives for reactor coolant pumps.
Effect of a failure in the CVCS system.
Loss of power to rod position indication.
Plant response to steam generator tube rupture mitigation.
Containment spray pump operation during a
LOCA.
Wearing breathing apparatus where a Halon discharge has occurred.
One hour technical specifications.
0 eratin Examination No particular strengths or weaknesses were noted during the operating examinations.
All walk-through test items and scenario events were performed acceptably, with some minor errors noted in individual exam reports.
4.0 NANAGENENT OVERSIGHT An improvement in management oversight of the exam development process is necessary.
This is indicated by the exam results and the 16 post-exam comments about the facility developed written exam, most of which addressed technical errors in the questions or took issue with whether or not the particular question was appropriate for an R.0 REVIEW OF UFSAR COMMITMENTS A recent discovery of a licensee operating their facility in a manner contrary to the updated final safety analysis report (UFSAR) description highlighted the need for a special focused review that compares plant practices, procedures and/or parameters to the UFSAR descriptions.
While performing the inspections discussed in this report, the inspectors reviewed the applicable portions of the UFSAR that related to the areas inspected.
The inspectors verified that the UFSAR wording was consistent with the observed plant practices, procedures and/or parameters."
The NRC reviewed operating procedures to verify compliance with a commitment in FSAR Section 13.5.2 to provide procedures for alternate cooling of the emergency diesels and emergency feedwater pumps in the event of a loss of normal service water.
Appropriate procedures were in place.
The procedure for providing alternate fire water cooling to the auxiliary feedwater pumps was one of the tasks selected as a job performance measure for this examination and was performed satisfactorily by both applicants.
6.0 EXIT MEETING An exit meeting was held after all examinations were completed on February 15, 1996.
The facility presented preliminary written exam results, and stated their intent to conduct a root cause analysis of the results.
Facility management requested the NRC to arrange for a retake examination as soon as possible consistent with regulatory requirements.
The NRC requested the facility to provide their root cause analysis when it was completed.
Facility personnel at the exit meeting are listed below:
Joseph Widay, Plant Manager Robert Mecredy, VP Nuclear Operations Terry White, Ginna Operations Hanager Gary Meier, Manager of Nuclear Training Department Robert Carroll, Manager of Operations and Technical Training Frank Maciuska, Supervisor of Operator Training Attachments:
1.
Final RO Examination and Answer Key 2.
Facility Comments on Written Examinations 3.
NRC Resolution of Facility Comments on the Written Examinations 4.
Simulation Facility Report
ATTACHMENT I FINAL RO EXAMINATION AND ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEY
~1A
~28
~30
~4A
~6D
~7'C
~8D
~9B
~1PCoAP
~11 C
~12 C
~13 D
~14
~15 D
~16 C
~17 C
~18-B
~19
~20 A
~23.
C
~22 C
~23 B
~24 D
~25 A
~26 D
~27 A
~29
~30 A
~31 D
~32 D
~33
~34 D
~35 D
~36 D
~37 D
3~83
~39 B
~40 C
"-
.~41
~42 C
~43 C
~44 A
~45
~46 C
~47 B
~~~
C
D
~51 A
~52 A
~53 D
~54 B
~55 D
~56 B
~57 C
~58 D
~59
~60 A
~61 D
~62 C
~63 C
~64 C
~65 A
~66 C
~67 B
~68
~ D 5
~69
~70 C
~71 D
~72 A
~73 D
7S D
~76 C
~77 D >
~78 A
~79
~80 D
~81
~82 D
~83 D
~85 C
~86
~87 A
~88 C
~89 A
~90 D
~91
~92
~93
~94 C
~95
~96 C
~97 D
~98 A
~99 D
~1.00 A
LICENSED OPERATOR TRAINING INITIALLICENSE PROGRAM EXAM: L96001 Subject:
LC WRITTEN 1996
- KEP *****
Total Points Possible:
100.0 Approved By:
R.
E. Ginna Station Rules and Guidelines for License Examinations NOTE:
Items 1 and 2 must be read verbatim to examinees During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
Cheating on the examination means an automatic removal from licensed duties and possible disciplinary action..
2.
You must sign the statement on the Exam Grade Summary Sheet that indicates that the work is your own and you have not received or been given assistance in completing the examination.
This must be done after the examination has been completed.
3.
Restroom trips are to be limited and only one individual at a time may leave.
You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating..
Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate. legible reproductions.
Print your name in the blank provided on the Exam Answer Sheet.
6.
7.
Fill in the date on the Exam Answer Sheet.
Answer all questions on the.Exam Answer Sheet.
8.
If parts of the examination are not clear as to intent, ask questions of the proctor only.
9.
Section A of the examination is designed to take approximately 45 minutes to complete.
You will be given one hour to complete this section.
The Instructor SHALL allow 5 minutes for Board Walkdown.
10.
Section B of the examination is designed to take-approximately 90 minutes to complete.
You will be given two hours to complete this section.
Due to the existence of questions that will require all examinations to refer to the same indications or controls, particular care must be taken to maintain individual examination security and avoid any possibility of compromise or appearance of cheatin Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0001 Rev:
Status:
One of the first steps in AP-RCS.3, HIGH REACTOR COOLANT ACTIVITY, is to increase letdown flow to 60 GPM.
What is the purpose of this action, assuming that RCS activity is greater than normal'
a.
To increase the ion exchange rate within the demineralizer b.
To strip fission product gases from solution in the VCT c.
To improve removal of fission product gases through increased mechanical filtration d.
To enable charging flow to be increased, thereby increasing the purification rate ANSWER:
a.
To increase the ion exchange rate within the demineralizer
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0002 Rev:
Status:
Given the following conditions:
Inadvertent trip from 100
'-. power Partially stuck open S/G safety valve after the trip Procedural sequence:
E-O to E-2 to E-1 to the final step of ES-1.1 Cold leg temperature is currently 365',
90 minutes after the trip Review of the cold leg temperature recorder and PPCS data indicate that the cold leg temperature was 485',
30 minutes after the trip; 420',
60 minutes after the trip; and 385',
10 minutes ago The safety valve has just reseated fully The Shift Supervisor has received direction to continue the
=cooldown to Cold Shutdown.
Which ONE of the following would describe the appropriate cooldown limitation/rate?
a.. Cooldown may be established at a rate which does not exceed-a temperature of 320 in the next 30 minutes b.
Cooldown may be established at a rate which does not exceed a temperature of 285'n the next 50 minutes c.
Cooldown may be established at a s 100'/hr rate, since the SG is no longer faulted d.
No further cooldown may take place for 60 minutes, since the initial cooldown exceeded 100'/hr ANSWER:
b.
Cooldown may be established at a rate which does not exceed a temperature of 285'n the next 50 minutes
Question:
( l.00 PTS)
E000.0003 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following describes the priority for use of Main Control Board (MCB) and SAS indications?
a.
SAS indications take priority over MCB indications unless the indication from SAS is in white letters b.
MCB and SAS indications have the same priority for use only in post-accident conditions c.
In the event of conflict between MCB and SAS information, SAS information should be used for major decisions d.
In the event of conflict between MCB and SAS information, diverse information from redundant sources should be used for major decisions ANSWER:
d.
In the event of conflict between MCB and SAS information, diverse information from redundant sources should be used for major decisions
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
Given the following conditions:
E000.0004 Rev'.
Status:
Plant at 100; power, steady state operation PZR pressure transmitter PT-431 failed 7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br /> ago and has been taken out of service per ER-INST.1 (BLUE Channel)
RTD hotwell weld fails, resulting in RCS leak and Th instrument T-401 pegged high (open circuit)
Reactor trip first out annunciator D-3, OTiT REACTOR TRIP, lit Reactor remains at 100. power Which ONE of the following is correct?
a ~
b.
C.
d.
This is a valid ATWS condition, and the crew should MANUALLYtrip the reactor or conduct a controlled shutdown This is a valid ATWS
+ SI condition, and the crew should MANUALLYtrip the reactor, then MANUALLYinitiate SI and go to E-O t
This is a ~alid ATWS
+ SI condition, and the crew should MANUALLYtrip the reactor, then MANUALLYinitiate SI and go to FR-S.1 This is an invalid reactor trip signal due to instrument failure(s),
and plant operation may continue ANSWER:
a.
This is a valid ATWS condition, and the crew should MANUALLYtrip the reactor or conduct a controlled shutdown
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0005 Rev:
Status:
In all of the ERG procedures involving the SI flow reduction sequence, there is a CAUTION prior to the step(s)
which secure SI pumps which reads:
"After stopping any SI pump, RCS pressure should be allowed to stabilize or increase before stopping another pump."
Which ONE of the following describes the basis for this CAUTION?
a.
After an SI pump is stopped, RCS pressure will increase in response to the reduced SI and break flow b.
After an SI pump is stopped, RCS pressure will decrease to a new equilibrium value when reduced SI flow again matches leakage from the RCS C.
Before the SI pump is stopped, RCS pressure is increasing in response to the injection flow being greater than break flow d.
This ensures subcooling increases to the required cr'iteria for continuation of SI= Reduction ANSWER:
b.
After an SI pump is stopped, RCS pressure will decrease to a new equilibrium value when reduced SI flow again matches leakage from the RCS
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0006 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following describes the pressurizer level response to a complete loss of instrument air?
a.
PZR level will decrease because PCV-135 fails open and the charging pump speed controller fails to minimum.
b.
PZR level will decrease because the orifice isolation valves fail "as is" and the charging pump speed controller fails to minimum.
c.
PZR level will increase because PCV-135 fails closed and the charging pump speed control fails to maximum d.
PZR level will increase because the orifice isolation valves fail closed and the charging pump speed control fails to minimum ANSWER:
c.
PZR level will increase because the orifice isolation valves fail closed and the charging pump speed control fails to minimum
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
EOOO'.0007 Rev:
Status:
Given the following conditions Plant is in mid-loop operation on RHR A partial loss of the instrument air system in the Auxiliary Building has affected the RHR system What actions should you, as the HCO, take in response to this problem?
a.
Trip the running RHR pump, since the RHR flow control valves will fail closed and result in.a loss of flowpath for this pump.
b.
Start the second RHR pump, since the RHR flow control valves will fail open and the second pump will be necessary to prevent runout of the first pump c.
Monitor the running RHR pump closely, since.the RHR flow control valves will fail open and could lead to vortexing of the pump.
d.
No action will be necessary, for although the flow control valves fail closed, the RHR bypass control valve fails open ANSWER:
c.
Monitor the running RHR pump closely, since the RHR flow control valves will fail open and could lead to vortexing of the pum Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0008 Rev:
Status:
The CAUTION before Step 1 of ES-3.1, POST SGTR COOLDOWN USING BACKFILL, warns that the RCP in the ruptured loop should NOT be started first.
Which ONE of the following explains the reason for this caution?
Starting this RCP could cause:
a.
A rapid repressurization of the RCS b.
An internal pressure surge, resulting in further failure of damaged tubes c.
A rapid cooldown of the reactor vessel, and present a
challenge to the Integrity critical safety function d.
A slug of unborated water to pass through the core and cause a return to criticality ANSWER:
d.
A s ug of unborated water to pass through the core and cause a return to criticality Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0009 Rev:
Status:
Assume a core threat event is in progress.
Which ONE of the following will be the FIRST indication of the onset of core uncovery?
a.
RCS pressure 760 psig, hottest incore T/C's average 514'F b.
RCS pressure 760 psig, hottest incore T/C's average 516 F
c.
RCS pressure 760 psig, hottest incore T/C's average 518'F d.
RCS pressure 760 psig, hottest incore T/C's average 523'F ANSWER:
b.
(760 psig
= 775 psia Tsat
= 514.53')
(a
= Tsat for 770 psia, c= Tsat for 779 psia, d=Tsat for 833 psia)
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0010 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following statements is correct with regards to a loss of CCW flow to the RCP thermal barrier?
a.
In the EOP's (other than E-O), if seal injection flow is also lost, RCP's must be tripped immediately b.
In the EOP's, if seal injection flow is also lost, RCP's can be restarted without concern for seal cooling c.
In E-O, if seal injection flow is also lost, a charging pump may be started (and seal injection reestablished)
without isolating seal injection.
d.
In E-O, if seal injection flow is also lost, a charging pump cannot be restarted unless the seal injection flowpath is isolated first ANSWER:
c.
In E-O, if seal injection flow is also lost, a charging pump may be started (and seal injection reestablished)
without isolating seal injectio Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0011 Rev:
Status:
Ginna administrative Procedure A-503.1, EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PROCEDURES USERS GUIDE, considers that certain anticipatory actions are allowed during EOP implementation to mitigate the consequences of an event.
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the guidance given in A-503.1?
a.
Anticipatory actions can only be initiated if emergency actions are needed to protect public health and safety b.
Anticipatory actions may be initiated only after a transition is"made from E-0 c.
Such anticipatory actions should only be performed with the concurrence of two licensed operators d.
Such anticipatory actions should only be performed with the concurrence of the SRO and both board operators ANSWER:
c.
Such anticipatory actions should only be performed with the concurrence of two licensed operators
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0013 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Reactor trip, SX has occurred.
Normal containment conditions exist Crew is at step 15 of E-O, verifying total AFW flow Which ONE of the following conditions would require an immediate transition to FR-H.1, Loss of Secondary Heat Sink?
a.
SG "A" NR level offscale low,
"B" SG NR level offscale low, AFW flow to 'A'G is 100 GPM, AFW flow to 'B'G 200 GPM b.
C.
d.
SG "A" NR level 5;,
"B" SG NR level 8.,
AFW flow to A S/G is 50 GPM, flow to 'B's zero GPM, no indications of secondary side activity SG "A" NR level offscale low,
"B" SG NR level 2-.,
AFW flow to 'A'G is 100 GPM, flow to 'B'G is 50 GPM, no indications of secondary side activity SG "A" NR level offscale low,
"B" SG NR level 8-.,
AFW flow to 'A'G is 100 gpm, flow to 'B'G is 50 gpm, Main Steamline Monitor R32 in alarm ANSWER:
c.
SG "A" NR level offscale low,
"B" SG NR level 2%,
AFW flow to 'A'G is 100 GPM, flow to 'B'G is 50 GPM, no indications of secondary side activity
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0014 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding the reason for maintaining subcooling during natural circulation conditions?
a.
Subcooling must be maintained because natural circulation cannot occur in a system in which Th has reached saturation b.
Subcooling provides the TDH (thermal driving head)
necessary for natural circulation to take place c.
Subcooling will prevent the formation of a non-condensable gas bubble in the steam generator loop d.
Subcooling minimizes the percentage of voids, allowing PZR level to be an indication of true water inventory in the primary.
ANSWER:
d.
Subcooling minimizes the percentage of voids, allowing PZR level to be an indication of true water inventory in the primar Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0015 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Plant is at full power, steady-state operation 51 seal leakoff has been slowly increasing on RCP A over the last several shifts Current value of g1 seal leakoff is 5.3 GPM and stable Seal injection flows'are normal Ql seal inlet and pump bearing temperatures slightly elevated, but stable If g1 seal leakoff continues to increase to
> 5.5 GPM, which of the following actions is correct?
a.
If labyrinth iP decreases, trip the RCP, then trip the reactor b. If seal inlet/outlet temperatures increase, trip the reactor, then trip the RCP c.
If.labyrinth *P increases, close the seal outlet valve (AOV-270A).and secure the RCP within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> d.
If seal inlet/outlet temperatures increase, close the seal outlet valve (AOV-270A') and secure the RCP within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> ANSWER:
b. If seal inlet/outlet temperatures increase, trip the reactor, then trip the RCP
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0017 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an Independent Verificatin (IV) for a valve lineup?
a.
Actual physical separation between the two individuals performing the initial and IV is required.
b.
The individual performing the IV may rely on the observed actions of the individual performing the initial alignment, provided interaction between them does not occur.
c. If a discrepancy is found during the IV, the individual performing the IV should remedy the discrepancy immediately by properly positioning the valve.
d.
The use of remote position. indicators is acceptable for both verifications where other means of verifications are not available ANSWER:
d.
The use of remote position indicators is acceptable for both verifications where other means of verifications are not available
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0019 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Unit is shutdown during planned out'age
"A" Circulating Water pump is in service,
"B" tagged out One Service Water pump is in service A radioactive liquid release from Monitor Tank A is in progress The operating CW pump trips.
Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding the liquid release?
a.
The release will continue, since one SW pump is still running b.
The release must be manually terminated, since no CW pumps are running c.
The release will be automati'cally terminated, since valve
~
RCV-18 will close d.
A second SW pump must be started or the release manually terminated.
ANSWER:
c.
The release will be automatically terminated, since valve RCV-18 will close
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0020 Rev:
Status:
A minor temporary-permanent change notice (TPCN)
has been issued for procedure 0-6.10, PLANT OPERATION WITH SG TUBE LEAK INDICATION.
Assuming the change is performed correctly, which ONE of the following would you expect to see as an operator if you were to use the procedure?
a.
A copy of the TPCN attached to the cover sheet of the procedure b.
The words
"One Time Use Only" on the cover sheet of the procedure c.
The TPCN number on the cover sheet, and next to the affected steps of the procedure.
d.
A note on the cover sheet of the procedure requiring notification of the Shift Supervisor prior to use ANSWER:
c.
The TPCN number on the cover sheet',
and next to the affected steps of the procedure.
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0021 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is required for an on-coming Control Room Operator prior to relieving the off-going shift?
a.
Perform a general review of the control board b.
Perform a general review of the Shift Supervisor log c.
Do a communication check (radio and paging) with the on-coming AO's d.
Review all significant entries in the official record since the last on-shift date ANSWER:
a.
Perform a general review of the control board
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0022 Rev:
Status:
Daily surveillance in the control room requires CHANNEL CHECKS of the same parameters (e.g.,
flows, temperatures, etc.) for deviation.
Which ONE of the following states the tolerance for when a MWR or trouble card should be submitted if the allowable deviation is exceeded?
a.
+
5-: or greater difference in readings b.
+ 5~ or greater of meter span c.
+ 10: or greater difference in readings d.
+ 10~ or greater of meter span ANSWER:
b.
+
5-. or greater of meter span
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0023 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Reactor at 98. power NIS Channel N-44 is out of service Reactor Engineering is running an incore flux map to determine QPTR Annunciator E-24, RMS AREA MONITOR HIGH ACTIVITY, activates Monitor R-7, Incore Detection Area, is in,.alarm No other RMS alarm conditions exist Which ONE of the following describes the correct action to be taken?
a.
Verify that R-7 is functioning properly; this is an expected alarm for these conditions b.
Immediately terminate the flux map to allow corrective actions per AP-RCS.1, RCS LEAK, to be implemented
~
C.
d.
Notify RP and request a conta'nment air sample Notify RP and the SS, then make preparations for a containment entry to investigate the cause of the alarm ANSWER:
a.
Verify that R-7 is functioning properly; this is an expected alarm for these conditions
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0025 Rev:
Status:
The requirement to'erify the turbine stop valves closed in Step 2 of E-O, REACTOR TRIP OR SAFETY INJECTION, is an Immediate Action (IA) step.
Which ONE of. the following is the PRIMARY reason why this is one of the IA steps?
a.
Failure to verify the turbine off-line soon after the reactor is tripped could lead to a low PZR pressure SI b.
Failure to verify the turbine off-line soon after the reactor is tripped could result in a loss of PZR level indication and the need to manually initiate SI c.
Failure to verify the turbine off-line in certain types of ATWS conditions could lead to SG dryout in less than a minute d.
Failure to verify the turbine off-line in certain types of ATWS conditions could exceed the heat removal capacity of the secondary relief system ANSWER:
c.
Failure to verify the turbine off-line in certain types of ATWS conditions could lead to SG dryout in less than a minute
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0026 Rev:
Status:
The control room crew notices the odor of something burning, accompanied by trace amounts of smoke, from the access door on the right side of the main control board.
Which ONE of the following statement is true regarding the choice of portable fire extinguisher to be used?
a.
Water filled, hard stream type should be used due to its ability to penetrate into tightly wrapped cable bundles.
b.
Dry chemical type should be used due to its ability to smother the tightly wrapped cable bundles.
c.
C02 type should be used due to its ability to extinguish electrical fires without residual effects d.
CO2 type should NOT be used to the displacement of oxygen and the confined-space nature of this area ANSWER:
c.
C02 type should be used due to its ability to extinguish electrical fires without residual effects Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0028 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following states the effect of the dropped rod on subcooling in the RCS?
Assume normal at-power initial conditions and no operator actions.
a.
Subcooling increases due to RCS pressure decrease b.
Subcooling increases due to RCS temperature decrease c.
Subcooling is not affected since RCS pressure will eventually return to normal d.
Subcooling is not affected since RCS temperature will eventually return to normal ANSWER:
b. Subcooling increases due to-RCS temperature decrease
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0029 Rev:
Status:
Assuming that the need to evacuate the control room exists and operators have been directed to report to their local operating stations, which ONE of the following is correct?
a.
The HCO is assigned to D/G A room, and should verify emergency busses 14 and 18 are energized b.
The HCO is assigned to the local operating station in the Charging Pump Room, and should await further direction c.
The CO is assigned to the AFW pump area, and should transfer equipment to local control d.
The CO is assigned to the local operation station in the
~
Charging Pump Room, and should await further direction ANSWER:
d.
The CO is. assigned to the local operation station in the Charging Pump Room, and should await further direction
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0030 Rev:
Status:
The unit is at 50% power.
Which ONE of the following situations would require a manual reactor trip?
a.
A control rod lower than its associated group is being restored per ER-RCC.2, RESTORING MISALIGNED ROD, when the rod suddenly starts driving in at
spm b.
AP-RCC.2, RCC/RPI MALFUNCTION, is being performed when it is discovered that 3 rods in control bank D are misaligned c.
During retrieval of a dropped rod per ER-RCC.l, RETRIEVAL OF A DROPPED ROD, it is determined that the shutdown margin is inadequate d.
While performing PT-1, ROD CONTROL SYSTEM, the selected rod bank moves IN when OUT motion is demanded.
ANSWER a.
A control rod lower than its associated group is being restored per ER-RCC.2, RESTORING MISALIGNED ROD, when the rod suddenly starts driving in at-66 spm Question:
(
F 00 PTS)
E000.0031 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is the last piece of equipment to be sequenced on the Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) if an SI, followed by an undervoltage condition, were to occur?
a.
Containment Spray pumps b.
Selected Service Water Pumps c.
Containment Coolers d.
Motor Driven AFW pumps ANSWER d.
Motor Driven AFW pumps
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0033 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Plant is at 100'-. power Instrument Air (IA) pressure is at 100 psig and slowly decreasing A report is received in the control room that there is an IA line break in the supply tubing to the Heater Drain Tank pump recirc valve The SS directs isolation of the air leak Which of the following states the effect(s)
of this valve isolation on plant operation?
a.
A load reduction will be required because the Heater Drain Tank pumps will trip.
b.
A load reduction will be required because the Heater Drain tank pumps will lose their recirculation flowpath and eventually overheat.
c.
A reactor power reduction will be required.due to the now-colder water entering the SG's.
d. 'here will be minimal effect on plant operation except for the recovery of IA header pressure ANSWER:
a.
A load reduction will be required because the Heater Drain Tank pumps will tri Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000
~ 0034 Rev:
Status:
The plant is at 20~ power.
Which ONE of the following describes what would occur if the turbine first stage pressure transmitter P-485 fails low?
a.
Condenser Steam Dump operation is disabled until the bistables are defeated.
b.
All automatic rod control is disabled until the bistables are tripped.
c.
Blocking of reactor trips is affected due to permissive P-7 d.
Reactor trip due to unblocking of permissive P-10.
ANSWER:
c.
Blocking of reactor tr.'ps is affected due to permissive P-7 Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0035 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
~
Unit startup in progress per 0-1.2 Reactor power is at 20-.
Generator ready to synchronize onto the grid
"A" RCP trips Which ONE of the following is correct?
a.
The reactor will remain at power because power is permissive P-7 b.
The reactor will remain at power because power is
~
permissive P-8 c.
The reactor will trip because power is
~ permissive P-7 d.
the reactor will trip because power is s permissive P-8 ANSWER:
b.
The reactor will remain at power because power is
~
permissive P-8
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0036 Rev:
Status:
Using the Figure attached, which ONE of the following statements are correct regarding this retentive memory circuit?
a.
The output signal can be removed (reset)
with the actuating signal present b.
The output signal cannot be removed (reset)
with the actuating signal present c.
The output signal can be removed (reset)
with the actuating signal present, but only after a time delay d.
The output signal can be removed (reset)
with the actuating signal present, but only for as long as the manual reset pushbutton is held ANSWER:
a.
The output signal can be removed (reset)
with the actuating signal present
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0037 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Steam Dump Mode Selector Switch in AUTO Plant is at 75-. power when 1 of 2 CW pumps trips unexpectedly SRO orders a manual trip and gets a reactor trip in anticipation of a low vacuum trip Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the response of the steam dump system?
a.
The steam dumps will not arm in this condition b.
The "Trip Open" (quick opening)
solenoid valve will cause all 8 steam dump valves to open when the average Tavg is
F
> 547 F
C.
d.
The "Trip Open" (quick opening)
solenoid valve will cause only the 4 steam dump valves on the unaffected waterbox to open when the average Tavg is
F
>.547 F
The turbine tri'p temperature controller (TC401G) will attempt to maintain '547 F by modulating open the
steam dump valves to a linear error signal ANSWER:
d.
The turbine trip temperature controller (TC401G) will attempt to maintain 547'F by modulating open the
steam dump valves to a linear error signal
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0038 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Unit is in solid plant operation, cooling down at 20 F/hr
"A" RHR pump in service,
"B" RHR pump in standby
"A" RCP running,
"B" RCP secured RCS pressure is 325 psig RCS hot leg. temperature is 230~F PZR temperature is 350'F (Aux spray valve AOV-296 is open)
Feeding and steaming of the SG's has been secured Indicated letdown flow is approximately
gpm Which ONE of the following would be the effect of the Non-Regenerative HX temperature control valve, TCV-130, failing OPEN?
(Assume no operator action)
a.
RCS temperature would INCREASE b.
RCS pressure would DECREASE c.
RCS pressure would INCREASE d.
Neglible effect on RCS conditions ANSWER:
d.
Neglible effect on RCS conditions
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0039 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the effect on the rod position indication system if MCC 1K is lost and cannot be recovered?
a.
The MRPI system will be unaffected, since the Data Cabinet provides a redundant power source to each of the detectors b.
MRPI is rendered inoperable by this failure and action will have to be taken to shutdown the plant c.
Although the MRPI displays are affected by this power loss, the PPCS computer can be used to confirm individual rod p'osition indication d.
Power operation may continue as long as the Demand Position Indicators (step counters)
remain operable ANSWER:
b.
MRPI is rendered inoperable by this failure and action will have to be taken to shutdown the plant
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0040 Rev:
Status:
Given the following conditions in the Spent Fuel Pit (SFP):
It is 1 week after the completion of the most recent refueling outage SFP cooling system
"B" in service SFP pump "A" out of service for bearing replacement SFP temperature 102'F A leak has developed on the inlet to "B" SFP heat exchanger Annunciator K-29, SFP HI TEMP 115~F HI-LO LEVEL 20" 12",
has just energized Without operator action:
a.
The standby SFP cooling system will automatically remove decay heat load b.
Temperatures in the SFP can be expected to initially increase at
>25 F/hr c.
SFP pump
"B" will continue to run, resulting in continued loss of inventory
.'d.
SFP pump "B" will trip on a low level condition in the SFP ANSWER:
d.
SFP pump "B" will trip on a low level condition in the SFP
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0041 Rev:
Status:
Given the following:
Crew has entered FR-S.1, RESPONSE TO REACTOR RESTART/ATWS Emergency boration via MOV-350 is not working (MOV jammed)
1 Charging pump and 1 Boric Acid pump are running Given these conditions, which ONE of the following states the quickest method to establish boric acid injection from the BAST's?
a.
Open manual boration valve V-356 b.
Open the bypass around MOV-350 c.
Open the Blender outlet to the charging pump suction (FCV-110B)
d.
Initiate the "normal boration" flowpath ANSWER:
d.
Xnitiate the "normal boration" flowpath Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0042 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding the PZR PORV actuation circuit logic?
a.
A single PZR presssure channel failure can actuate both PORV's b.
A single PZR pressure channel failure can render both
~ PORV's inoperable c.
A single PZR pressure channel failure can cause PORV actuation d.
A single PZR pressure channel failure can render one PORV inoperable ANSWER:
d.
A single PZR pressure channel failure can render one PORV inoperable
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0043 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
A reactor startup was in progress with a (+)
MTC The 1/M plot projected criticality would be achieved outside the
+ 500 pcm bank position allowed by the ECP It was determined that a dilution will be required to get back into the 500 pcm window Which of the following statements is correct, after the dilution has been completed?
The effect on the Moderator Temperature Coefficient will be:
a.
None b.
Cannot be determined c.
Towards a more'ositive value d.
Towards a less positive value ANSWER:
d.
Towards a less positive value Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0044 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is true regarding MSIV operation?
a.
To close the MSIV's on a loss of instrument air, two series, manually locked valves must be opened to vent the air from the operators b.
On a loss of DC power to the solenoid operators, the solenoids and the MSIV's fail "as is" c.
The MSIV's fail "as is" on loss of instrument air to the operating air cylinder d.
The operating air cylinder uses instrument air to close the MSIV, and spring pressure to open the MSIV ANSWER:
b.
On a loss of DC power to the solenoid operators, the solenoids and the MSIV's fail "as is"
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0045 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is correct concerning RESET of the safety injection signal following manual SI initiation?
a.
Reset can be completed at any time after intiation b.
Reset cannot be completed until sequencing is complete c.
Reset cannot be done unless all subsequent
"Auto" SI signals are cleared d.
Reset is not required unless a subsequent
"Auto" SI signal occurs ANSWER:
b.
Reset cannot be completed until sequencing is complete Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0046 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Plant initially at 100%, steady-state operation Control bank
"D" rods at 210 steps Tavg begins to slowly decrease Annunciator C-22, ROD WITHDRAWAL BANK D HIGH, energizes Which ONE of the following events could result in these indications?
a. Inadvertent start of the standby booster pump b. Feedwater line leak c. Opening of the condensate bypass valve d. Inadvertent start of the standby condensate pump ANSWER:
c. Opening of the condensate bypass valve
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0047 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is correct concerning Engineered Safeguards Actuation System logic or actuation signals?
a.
Manual SI initiation will not initiate Containment Ventilation Isolation b.
Manual SI initiation will not initiate Containment Isolation c.
Placing the SI Block Switch to "Block" defeats automatic Containment Spray Actuation d.
Placing the SI Block Switch to "Block" defeats all automatic SI signals ANSWER:
b.
Manual SI initiation will not initiate Containment Isolation
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0048 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Steam generator tube rupture has occurred, with a concurrent loss of offsite power All other systems/equipment are available The initial cooldown required by E-3 has been completed, and the shift crew is preparing to depressurize the RCS Which ONE of the following statements are correct regarding the effects of the impending depressurization?
a.
Actual liquid mass in the RCS will not change, but indicated PZR level will increase (due to the PZR steam space break phenomenon)
b.
Actual liquid mass in the RCS will decrease due to the response of the charging pumps to the probable bubble which will form in the vessel head, but indicated PZR level will increase.
c.
Actual liquid mass in the RCS will increase, and both indicated and actual PZR level will increase d.
Actual mass in the RCS will not change, but indicated PZR level will increase due to the formation of a bubble in the reactor vessel head ANSWER:
c.
Actual liquid mass in the RCS will increase, and both indicated and actual PZR level will increase
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0049 Rev:
Status:
Given the following conditions:
Unit at steady-state, full power, normal lineup conditions Power Range N-44's upper detector fails low Which ONE of the following states a correct response by the Control Rod Drive system?
Assume no operator action.
a.
Control rods would drive out due to the generated OTiT runback b.
Control rods would not move because it requires the total failure (upper and lower detectors)
of a channel to affect control c.
Control rods would attempt to drive out but would be inhibited by a dropped rod signal d.
Control rods would drive out until the Turbine
-
NXS rate circuit exponentially decays away ANSWER:
c.
Control rods would attempt to drive out but would be inhibited by a dropped rod signal
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0050 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Plant is at full load, steady state conditions SG "A" level channel 462 (BLUE) has been taken out of service per ER-INST.1 on the previous shift due to erratic indications Instrument Bus 1A supply breaker has just tripped Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the response of the plant?
a.
Reactor trip signal due to an apparent SG lo-lo water level condition on SG "A" b.
C.
Reactor trip signal due to a reactor coolant low flow condition on loop "A" Plant will not trip, but shutdown will be required due to the inability to meet the minimum number of channels OPERABLE reauirements of Tech Specs.
d.
Inverte 1A's automatic static transfer switch will activate to quickly,reenergize the bus, therefore no further actions are required.
ANSWER:
a.
Reactor trip signal due to an apparent SG lo-lo water level condition on SG "A"
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0051 Rev:
Status:
Assume that a large break LOCA has occurred.
Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding when the realignment of the Containment Spray Pumps to the RHR HX outlet should occur?
a. At an RWST level of 28-o b. At an RWST level of 15-.
c.
When containment pressure is
< 37 psig and RWST level is 28%
d.
When containment pressure is
< 37 psig and RWST level is 15o ANSWER:
b. At an RWST level of 15-o Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0052 Rev:
Status:
What consequences would a loss of cne of the two operating air ejectors (one 1st stage and one 2nd stage)
have on the plant from an initial power level of 100%?
a.
Condenser vacuum would decrease to less than 25"HG, at which time an auto turbine trip would result b.
Condenser vacuum would decrease, but stabilize before load reduction was necessary c.
Condenser vacuum would decrease, and load reduction would be necessary to prevent a low vacuum trip d.
No effects on the plant, since only one stage is required to maintain condenser vacuum ANSWER:
c.
Condenser vacuum would decrease, and load reduction would be necessary to prevent a low vacuum trip
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0053 Rev:
Status:
There have been numerous events in the industry concerning mis-adjustment of NIS trip bistables as core conditions change (e.g.,
from BOL-EOL, or after a refueling outage).
Which ONE of the following would be a conservative decision for adjustment of the Intermediate Range high flux trip bistable?
("Conservative" meaning that the reactor would trip at the required condition/setpoint.)
If the bistable adjustment was:
a.
Left at the EOL adjustment after new fuel was loaded in the core.
b.
Lowered from the EOL adjustment after new fuel was loaded in the core c.
Increased from the EOL adjustment after new fuel was loaded in the core.
d.
Lowered as the cycle progressed (from BOL to EOL)
ANSWER:
b.
Lowered from the EOL adjustment after new fuel was loaded in the core
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0054 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
An SX has occurred Offsite power is available Both Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) are operable Which ONE of the following statements is correct concerning the relationship between the 480 VAC Distribution system and Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) operation?
a.
When the SI signal was received, non-essential loads on Bus 14, 16, 17, a 18 were stripped b.
Both EDG's would start on an undervoltage condition on either the Train "A" or Train "B" safeguards busses c.
Associated EDG would start on an undervoltage condition on either of its safeguards busses d.
On a station blackout, the CCW pumps would restart as soon as the bus is re-energized; all.other loads must be manually started ANSWER:
c.
Associated EDG would start on an undervoltage condition on either of its safeguards busses
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0055 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
A small break LOCA (inside containment)
with concurrent loss of offsite power has occurred SI has been manually initiated It is observed, after the seauencing of safeguards equipment is complete, that none of the Containment Cooling fans have started Attempts to start them manually are unsuccessful Which ONE of the following states the effect that the loss of these cooling fans will have on Steam Generator level indication?
Indicated SG levels will be:
a.
Unaffected by the given conditions b.
Lower than actual level c.
Higher than actual level d.
Not able to be determined ANSWER:
c.
Higher than actual level
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0056 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the relationship between the AC and DC distribution systems?
a.
The DC distribution system is the normal power supply (via the inverters)
to all the AC Instrument Busses b.
The DC distribution system has no direct connection to the AC distribution system, per the power source separation requirements of Tech Spes c.
The DC distribution system, via the battery chargers, is used to provide the backup power supply to inverters 1A and 1B.
d.
The DC distribution system is the normal power supply (via the inverters)
to two of the AC Instrument Busses ANSWER:
d.
The DC distribution system is the normal power supply (via the inverters)
to two of the AC Instrument Busses Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0057 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the. following is correct regarding DC power distribution and the battery charger(s)?
Assume normal system operating conditions and parameters..
a.
DC loads can be supplied by the Batteries or the Battery Chargers b.
The TSC Vital DC system is operated in parallel with the Normal DC system c.
The normal source of power to Inverter 1A is 125 VDC Battery 1A d.
The normal source of power to Battery Charger 1B is Battery Bus 1B ANSWER:
a.
DC loads can be supplied by the Batteries or the Battery Chargers
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0058 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is an administrative requirement (vs.
an actual interlock) associated with the START permissives on a Main Feedwater Pump?
a.
Discharge valve closed b.
Blowdown Selector Switch to NORMAL c.
Recirculation valve open d.
Suction pressure a
185 psig ANSWER:
a.
Discharge valve closed Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0059 Rev:
Status:
The Overcurrent Emergency Diesel Generator trip is blocked with an SI signal present.
Which ONE of the following accurately lists other EDG trips which are also blocked?
a.
MCB stop, Overspeed b.
MCB stop, Local stop c.
Overspeed, Over crank d.
Reverse power, Local stop ANSWER:
d.
Reverse power, Local stop E
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0060 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following would cause a trip of a Main Feedwater Pump?
a.
Recirculation valve full open for > 60 seconds b.
<
15 psid seal water to suction pressure c.
Suction pressure s
185 psig d.
Lube oil temperature
~ 200'
ANSWER:
b.
< 15 psid seal water to suction pressure Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0061 Rev:
Status;.
The EOP's often require a minimum SG narrow range level or minimum AFW flow. Per the design basis accident analyses, what is the basis for the AFW flow requirement?
This flow is:
a. Required to provide enough heat transfer from the RCS to the SG's to ensure natural circulation is established b. Sufficient to maintain SG level at least aS%
(25% ADVERSE)
under accident conditions c. Required to prevent heat transfer loss from escalating into a SGTR event d.
Used as a heat sink requirement, since it is the approximate capacity of one MDAFP ANSWER:
d.
Used as a heat sink requirement, since it is the approximate capacity of one MDAFP
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0062 Rev:
Status:
The Ginna HAZCOM (Hazardous Communication)
Program utilizes certain labels to indicate the type of hazard involved. This includes color codes for storage tanks, drains, vents, etc..
What is the color code used for acid?
a.
Red b. Yellow c. Blue d. Green ANSWER:
b. Yellow Question:
5 ?
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0063 Rev:
Status:
Self-contain:. d breathing apparatus (SCBA) should be worn in an area where a.".alon fire system has discharged because:
a.
Without the SCBA, visibilitywill be limited b.
The HVAC systems will be shut down and the atmosphere oxygen deficient c.
Of the potential effects of Halon and its by-products on the respiratory system d.
The SCBA is part sf the fire brigade turnout gear and is always worn ANSWER:
c.
Of the potential effects of Halon and its by-products on the respiratory system
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0064 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Plant at 100.,
steady state Annunciator A-7, RCP A CCW RETURN HI TEMP OR LOW FLOW, lit CCW surge tank level increasing RMS R-17 cpm's increasing All other plant parameters normal Which ONE of the following statements are correct?
a. Operators should verify that CCW thermal barrier return valve (AOV-754A) has automatically isolated b. Operators should verify that the CCW surge tank vent valve has automatically isolated c. Operators should trip the reactor and, within 2 minutes, trip the affected RCP d. Operators should verify seal injection flow normal, then manually close the thermal barrier return valve (AOV-754A)
ANSWER:
d. Operators should verify seal injection flow normal, then manually close AOV-754A Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0065 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following defines the term TEDE (Total Effective Dose Equivalent)?
a. It is a federal dose rate guideline for whole body exposures b. It is the dose to the whole body from external and internal exposure c. It is the combined dose rate from beta, gamma, and neutron radiation d. It is the term used for exposure to the extremities (hands, elbows, feet, etc.)
ANSWER:
b. It is the dose to the whole body from external and internal exposure
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
Given the following:
E000.0066 Rev:
Status:
A Gas Decay Tank (GDT) release is in progress The Auxiliary Building filter switch is in the OUT.position The 1A and 1B Auxiliary Building Supply fans trip I
Which ONE of the following statements is correct concerning the gas release?
The gas release:
a.
May continue with given conditions b.
Must be manually terminated c.
Is automatically terminated by RCV-14 closing d.
Is automatically terminated by the GDT pump tripping ANSWER:
a.
May continue with given conditions Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0067 Rev:
Status:
FR-C.1, RESPONSE TO INADEQUATE CORE COOLING, has the operating crew trip both RCP's prior to depressurizing the SG's to atmospheric pressure.
What is the reason for tripping RCP's at this time?
a.
To reduce the heat being added to the RCS b.
To ensure RCP's are tripped before the void fraction becomes excessive c.
To anticipate failure of g1 seal due to high RCS temperature d.
To anticipate the loss of g1 seal requirements in subsequent steps ANSWER:
d; To anticipate the loss of gl seal requirements in subsecpxent steps
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0068 Rev:
Status:
Given the following:
Control Room RMS-ll (CNMT PARTICULATE) has a
"RANGE" alarm Indicator display reads
"OEOOO" Procedurally, the operator performs a source check Annunciator A-25, CONTAINMENT VENTILATION ISOLATION (CVI),
alarms during the check Which ONE of the following is correct, given these conditions?
a.
The drawer has failed LOW and prevented CVI from occurring b.
The drawer has failed HIGH and CVI has occurred as a result of the source range check c.
The RANGE alarm is in because the radiation field is low and testing the source resulted in CVI d.
The RANGE alarm is in because the radiation field is above the alarm setpoint.and CVI is expected ANSWER:
c.
The RANGE alarm is in because the radiation field is low and testing the source resulted in CVI Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0069 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following describes the function of the Incore Instrumentation System isolation valves?
They are used to isolate:
a.
A failed incore flux detector b.
A leaking incore thermocouple c.
A leaking thimble d.
The automatic drain valve if it fails open ANSWER:
c.
A leaking thimble
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0070 Rev:
Status:
In ER-ELEC.2, RECOVERY FROM LOSS OF A or B DC BUS, direction is given to the operators to "perform actions manually as required."
Which ONE of the following is the correct reason for the need to perform certain required manual actions?
a.
MCB status indications are lost when either A or B bus is de-energized b.
Reactor trip breaker for the DC bus which is lost will not open c.
Automatic trip of the main generator may not occur d.
Automatic trip of the reactor will not occur ANSWER:
c.
Automatic trip of the main generator may. not occur Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0071 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following process radiation monitors would automatically isolate or terminate a release if its alarm setpoint were reached?
a.
RM-21:
Turbine, Service, and AVT Bldg Retention Tank b.
RM-20A: Spent Fuel Pit HX Service Water c.
RM-13:
Auxiliary Building Particulate d.
RM-36, Control Room Noble Gas Monitor ANSWER:
a.
RM-21:
Turbine, Service, and AVT Bldg Retention Tank
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0072 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Plant initially at full power, steady-state operation Annunciator E-6, LOSS A INSTRUMENT BUS, has energized, along with numerous alarms Which ONE of the following statements are correct regarding this condition?
a.
A turbine runback should occur, and the operator needs only to verify that the rods are in automatic b.
A turbine runback should occur, but the operator can take manual control of the turbine at 75%, since the cause is instrument-failure related c.
A turbine runback should not occur, and the operator should refer to ER-INST.3, INSTRUMENT BUS POWER RESTORATION, for further'guidance d.
A reactor trip should have occurred, and the operator should go to E-0 ANSWER:
c.
A turbine runback should not occur, and the operator should refer to ER-INST.3 for further guidance Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0073 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding the bases for RCS leakage limits allowed by Tech Specs?
a.
RCS pressure boundary leakage of up to
GPM will not significantly alter the probability of a LOCA from occurring b.
The identified leakage rate is restricted to less than 25'.
of the minimum charging capacity powered by emergency power c. If the maximum allowable identified leakage existed, along with the maximum allowable RCS activity, 10CFR20 dose limits could be exceeded d.
The minimum leakage rate spec is the minimum leakrate detectable by other than radiation monitors ANSWER:
b.
The identified leakage rate is restricted to less than 25~
of the minimum charging capacity powered by emergency power
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.00'4 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Reactor startup in progress with Power Range N43 out of service HCO notices the
"POWER ABOVE PERMISSIVE P-10" lamp energizes at the same time that BOTH Source Range instruments de-energize Which ONE of the following are correct regarding t'"'s condition?
a.
b.
Startup may continue by manually re-energizing t.".e source range detectors by depressing both P-6 permissive defeat pushbuttons i 'I Reactor should be tripped immediately, since there
's no longer an indication of reactor power level C.
C.
Reactor startup may continue, as long as both Intermediate Ranges indications are on scale
Reactor startup must be terminated, since the ability tc override a P-10 circuit malfunction does not exist ANSWER:
d.
Reactor startup must be terminated, since the ability to override a P-10 circuit malfunction does not exist
Question:
( 1-00 PTS)
E000.0075 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following explains the reason for Containment isolation on an SI?
a.
Not all piping penetrating the containment is designed for post-accident containment pressure b.
C.
To isolate non-essential process lines to ensure that the total leakage of activity will be within design limits Because not all valves associated with non-essential systems are provided with "fail-safe" operators d.
Because the effects of a loss of air was not considered in the safety analysis for all valves in the plant k
ANSWER:
b.
To isolate non-essential process lines to ensure that the total leakage of activity will be within design limits
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0076 Rev:
Status:
Loss of RHR capability with low reactor vessel water level continues to be an industry concern.
Given the following:
Plant on mid loop operation, approximately 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> after a shutdown from several months of full power operation RCS temperature is approximately 140'F RHR cooling is lost Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the consequences of RHR cooling loss from this condition?
a.
Given the time after shutdown, decay heat has already been reduced to the point where no heatup is likely b.
RCS temperatures will slow'ly increase and, from this initial temperature, there is no sense of urgency for restoration c.
Rapid heatup can be expected; core boiling is likely to occur within 60 minutes, possibly much sooner d.
Significant heatup is probable; core boiling is likely to occur within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> ANSWER:
c.
Rapid heatup can be expected; core boiling is likely to occur within 60 minutes, possibly much sooner Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0077 Rev:
Status:
The plant is in a normal lineup when the following annunciators alarm in sequence:
H-16, INSTRUMENT AIR COMP H-8, INSTRUMENT AIR LOW PRESS 100 PSI H-24, STATION SERVICE AIR LO PRESS 85 PSI Which ONE of the following actions should have occurred between annunciator H-8 and H-24?
a.
"A" and
"B" compressors auto-start b.
"C" compressor auto-loads c.
Service compressor auto-starts d.
Service to Instrument air auto cross-ties ANSWER:
d.
Service to Instrument air auto cross-ties
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0078 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following would occur if an at-power Small Break LOCA (SBLOCA) occurred as a result of a PZR PORV failing partially open?
(Assume it is unisolated)
PZR level indication would:
a.
Initially decrease, then increase b.
Initially increase, then decrease C.
Decrease in the same manner as any other SBLOCA d.
Remain relatively steady ANSWER:
a.
Initially decrease, then increase Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0079 Rev:
Status:
The reactor trip breakers have a modification known as
"reverse tripping logic" which was made to them after the Salem ATWS event.
Which ONE of the following is correct with regard to this modification?
a.
During normal operation the UV coil is now de-energized and the shunt trip coil is now energized b.
All trip signals except the zirconium guide tube interlock de-energize the UV coils c.
It resulted in the addition of a separate trip de~ice, the normally energized'shunt trip coil d. It resulted in two simultaneous mechanical forces acting on the breaker tripper bar following a trip signal ANSWER:
d. It resulted in two simultaneous mechanical forces acting on the breaker tripper bar following a trip signal
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0080 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding a
secondary system break involving the main feedwater lines?
a.
Feedwater line breaks can be identified or distinguished by the slow depressurization of the effected S/G b.
Following reactor trip, both SG's will experience reverse blowdown through faulted feedline until FW isolation occurs c.
Main feedline breaks and steamline breaks exhibit similar plant responses on both the primary and secondary sides d.
Affected SG level will increase during a steamline break, but decrease during a main feedline break ANSWER:
c.
Main feedline breaks and steamline breaks exhibit similar plant responses on both the primary and secondary sides
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0081 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding a continuous rod withdrawal accident (CRWA)?
A CRWA from:
a.
Subcritical conditions should be terminated by the effects of the moderator temperature coefficient before a reactor trip setpoint is reached b.
Subcritical conditions should be terminated by the effects of the doppler coefficient before a reactor trip setpoint is reached c.
At-power conditions involving rapid positive reactivity insertion should be terminated by the OTiT trip in time to prevent exceeding DNBR d.
At-power conditions involving slow positive reactivity insertion should be terminated by the OTiT trip in time to prevent exceeding DNBR ANSWER:
d.
At-power conditions involving slow positive reactivity insertion should be terminated by the OTiT trip in time to prevent exceeding DNBR
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0082 Rev:
Status:
Given the attached references (A-3.3, O-2.3.1A, 0-15.2 and T.S.
3.8) which one of the following would be or result in a loss of required containment integrity/isolation.
During low loop operation:
a.
Both doors on the containment personnel air lock are opened.
(ATT A's utilized)
b.
The containment equipment hatch air lock is opened (ATT
'A's utilized)
During refueling operation:
c.
Main steam safety valve V-3512 is being removed when S/G outside containment isolation is required.
d.
The containment equuipment hatch has only 6 bolts in place but no gaps exist on the sealing surface.
ANSWER:
P c.
Main steam safety valve V-3512 is being removed when S/G outside containment isolation is required.
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0083 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the potential consequences of gradual core uncovery following a LOCA?
a.
The zirconium-water reaction will immediately begin to generate H2 gas and the buildup of H2 in containment b.
Fuel temperatures will increase dramatically, and uranium-dioxide fuel will begin to melt c.
Lower portions of the fuel assemblies will begin to fragment, as Zirconium embrittlement progresses d.
Increasing fuel temperatures will cause weakened Zirconium cladding to deform and fail, releasing fission products ANSWER:
d.
Increasing fuel temperatures will cause weakened Zirconium cladding to deform and fail, releasing fission products
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0084 Rev:
Status:
Given the following conditions:
Reactor at 25-. power, load increasing following plant startup A rod in control bank 'A'rops Tavg decreasing Rods and turbine controls in MANUAL Which one of the following statements is correct regarding RCS temperature?
a.
The reactor must be taken subcritical if Tavg decreases below 500 F
/
b.
Unless the dropped rod causes subcriticality, reduce Tave to 547oF c.
The only requirement is to remain to the right of the criticality limit curve on Fig. 3.1-1 d.
Tavg and Tref shou'ld be equalized by using control rods ANSWER:
a.
The reactor must be taken subcritical if Tavg decreases below 500'F Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
F000.0085 Rev:
Status:
Which one of the following describes the PURPOSE for AP-RCS
~ 4, Shutdown LOCA?
AP-RCS.4 provides guidance for shutdown LOCA's occuring after:
a.
SI pumps are in pull-stop b.
Isolation of the accumulators c.
SI is "Blocked" d.
Mode "Hot Shutdown" is attained ANSWER:
b.
Isolation of the accumulators
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0086 Rev:
Status:
Per a CAUTION in ER-AFW.1, ALTERNATE WATER SUPPLY TO THE AFW PUMPS, which ONE of the following is correct regarding the preferred source of AFW to be used after CST level decreases to
feet?
a.
SAFW pumps, taking their normal suction b.
SAFW pumps, using SAFW test tank c.
AFW pumps, using SW suction supply d.
AFW pumps, using water transferred from Outside CST's to Inside CST's ANSWER:
d.
AFW pumps, using water transferred from Outside CST's to Inside CST's Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0087 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following LCO's have a
1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> ACTION associated with them?
Assume plant is at full power with no other LCO's in effect.
a.
RWST level is 306,000 gallons, boron concentration is 2068 ppm.
b.
The ammonia gas detector in the control room HVAC intake has lost its power supply c.
One train of RVLIS has just become INOPERABLE d.
The breaker on SI pump A has just tripped open during the monthly surveillance test.
ANSWER:
b.
The ammonia gas detector in the control room HVAC intake has lost its power supply
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0088 Rev:
Status:
Assume normal at power alignment and conditions with no operator action:
Which ONE of the following would be expected if a 51 seal on an RCP were to catastrophically fail?
a.
Seal injection flow indication would increase off-scale b.
Seal return flow indication would go to zero c.
Thermal Barrier iP would go high d.
Seal outlet temperature would increase ANSWER:
d.
Seal outlet temperature would increase Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0089 Rev:
Status:
Given the following:
A SGTR event in progress Both RCP's are off Which one of the following would be used to help determine if natural circulation is occurring?
a.
RCS Hot Leg temperatures at saturation temperature for non-faulted S/G pressure b.
The control rod shroud fans are operating c.
The ru tured S
G ressure p
/
p is decreasing d.
Core Exit Thermocouples are stable or decreasing ANSWER:
d.
Core Exit Thermocouples are stable or decreasing
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0090 Rev:
Status:
Which one of the following defines an inoperable control rod?
A control rod:
a.
Immovable due to excessive friction or mechanical interference.
b.
Misaligned more than
+ 12 steps from its group c.
That has dropped but cannot be recovered due to control circuit problems d.
Misaligned more than z 24 steps from its group ANSWER:
a.
Immovable due to excessive friction or mechanical interference.
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0091 Rev:
Status:
Given the following:
Reactor trip from 100'; power (Both RTB's open)
Indications show 1 rod stuck full out, and 2 rods at approximately 100 steps ES-0.1, REACTOR TRIP RESPONSE, is being implemented Which ONE of the following is the correct action?
a.
Transition to FR-S.1, RESPONSE TO REACTOR RESTART/ATWS b.
Transition to FR-S.2, RESPONSE TO LOSS OF CORE SHUTDOWN c.
Borate 1950 gallons'n normal borate mode d.
Borate 1300 gallons in normal borate mode ANSWER:
c.
Borate 1950 gallons in normal borate mode
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0092 Rev:
Status:
Which one of the following requires
"Emergency Boration" at Ginna?
a.
Uncontrolled cooldown due to a main steam safety valve stuck open b.
FR-S.1 is entered from status trees because Intermediate Range SUR is positive (ORANGE PATH)
c.
FR-S.2 is entered from status trees because Source Range SUR is positive (YELLOW PATH)
d.
An operator error causes inadvertant dilution vs. boration while adjusting RCS boron concentration.
ANSWER:
b.
FR-S.1 is entered from status trees because Intermediate Range SUR is positive (ORANGE PATH)
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0093 Rev:
Status:
Assuming auto PZR pressure control does not work, which ONE of the following explains what occurs to PZR pressure on a PZR insurge (i.e.,
an unassisted PZR response)?
a.
Vapor volume decreases causing pressure to increase instantly to
> saturation.
The steam-water interface temperature rises to restore saturation b.
Vapor volume decreases causing pressure to decrease instantly to < saturation.
The steam-water interface temperature rises to restore saturation.
c.
Vapor volume increases causing pressure to increase instantly to
> saturation.
The steam-water interface temperature decreases to restore saturation.
d.
Vapor volume increases causing pressure to decrease instantly to
< saturation.
The steam-water interface temperature decreases to restore saturation.
ANSWER:
a.
Vapor volume decreases causing pressure to increase instantly to
> saturation.
The steam-water interface temperature rises to restore saturation Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0094 Rev:
Status:
EOP Emergency Response Guidelines restrict flow to a dry S/G.
Which one of the following statements explains this restriction.
a.
Prevent overpressurizing a S/G that has a ruptured tube.
b.
To limit the potential for re-establishing a release to the environment.
c.
To minimize the thermal stresses to the S/G d.
To prevent a rapid depressurization of the RCS'NSWER:
c.
To minimize the thermal stresses to" the S/G
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0095 Rev:
Status:
A step in E-2 "Faulted S/G Isolation" has the operator adjust steam dump to minimize RCS heatup.
Which one of the following is the basis for this.
a.
Limits potential overpressurization of RCS b.
Limits the potential for loss of heat sink condition c.
Ensures RCS pressure remains below SI pump shutoff head d.
Ensures a
PTS Red Path condition does not develop ANSWER:
a.
Limits potential overpressurization of RCS Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0096 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following conditions constitutes a violation of a Safety Limit?
a.
90% power, Tavg
= 610 F, RCS pressure
= 2235 psig b.
100< power, Tavg
= 595 F,
RCS pressure
= 2000 psia c.
Reactor shutdown, RCS pressure
= 2485 psig d.
Reactor shutdown, RCS pressure
= 2750 psig ANSWER:
d.
Reactor shutdown, RCS pressure
= 2750 psig Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0097 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following states where PZR level is indicated during a Control Room Evacuation?
a.
AFW Pump area and Feed Reg Valve area b.
Charging Pump room and AFW Pump area c.
Charging Pump'oom and Boric Acid Pump area d.
Boric Acid Pump area and Feed Reg Valve area ANSWER:
b.
- Charging Pump Room and AFW Pump area
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0098 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Loss of all AC power has occurred Neither MDAFP is available Which ONE of the following statements is true regarding turbine-driven AFW flow control?
a.
The TDAFP motor-operated discharge valve fails "as-is" on a loss of AC, and DC control power must be removed to operate locally b.
The TDAFP air-operated discharge valves fail open, and must be pinned to operate locally c.
The TDAFP steam admission valves are AC powered, and must be pinned to operate locally d.
The TDAFP steam admission valves are air operated and can be operated normally during the loss of AC power ANSWER:
b.
The TDAFP air-operated discharge valves fail open, and must be pinned to operate locally Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0099 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following will initiate a turbine runback signal?
a.
2/4 OTiT signals within 1.8'F of OTiT trip setpoint b.
2/4 OPiT signals within 1.5'F of OPiT trip setpoint c.
1/4 OPiT signals within 1.8'F of OPiT trip setpoint d.
1/4 rod drop signals from power range -5. rate trip ANSWER:
b.
2/4 OPiT signals within 1.5'F of OPiT trip setpoint
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0100 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following states why RCP's are tripped in the EOP's?
Even though RCP's running (vs.tripped)
may be beneficial or advantageous under emergency conditions, the RCP's are tripped if indicated requirements are met because:
a.
They can always be restarted later in the event b.
As an operator, you cannot analyze the type of event upon initiation c.
Mass loss is greater if RCP's are left running, resulting in possible deeper core uncovery d.
Mass loss is less if RCP's are turned off, resulting in greater assurance of natural circulation ANSWER:
c.
Mass loss is greater if RCP's are left running, resulting in possible deeper core uncovery Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0101 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
A manual reactor trip is attempted Neither reactor trip breaker indicates open HCO trips supply breakers to 480V busses 13 and
MCB indications (NIS R MRPI) confirm reactor now tripped Crew continues in E-O, rather than FR-S.1, RESPONSE TO ATWS Which ONE of the following is the basis for why this procedural action is correct, vs. transitioning directly to FR-S.1 upon failure of the manual trip?
a.
Simply a procedural preference:
either is correct b.
This avoids an unnecessary procedural transition c.
Condition given is not a true ATWS d.
FR-S.1 applies only to Auto-Trip failures ANSWER:
b.
This avoids an unnecessary procedural transition
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0102 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding turbine trip actuation?
a.
Generator trip > P-9 AND P-7 will trip the turbine after a 60-second time delay b.
Turbine trip > P-7 AND 2/3 auto stop oil pressure
< 45 psig will trip the reactor c.
2/2 turbine stop valves closed AND P-7 AND P-9 will trip the reactor d.
Turbine trip > 40-: power will actuate the AMSAC circuit ANSWER:
c.
2/2 turbine stop valves closed AND P-7 AND P-9 will trip the reactor Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
Given the following:
E000.0103 Rev:
Status:
Crew is responding to a S/G tube leak per procedure 0-6.10, PLANT OPERATION WITH S/G TUBE LEAK INDICATION The leak appears to be getting larger Which ONE of the following would warrant transition from 0-6.'10 to E-O, REACTOR TRIP OR SI?
a.
Unable to attain Hot Shutdown in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> b.
Leakage has been verified to be greater than allowable by Tech Specs c.
Normal Letdown is lost, and Excess L/D is unavailable d.
Leakage exceeds charging capacity ANSWER:
d.
Leakage exceeds charging capacity
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0104 Rev:
Status:
Given the following plant conditions:
Planty initially in normal full power lineup SI actuation has just occurred Offsite power is available All systems are functioning normally Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding service water (SW) cooling to the Diesel Generators?
a.
SW cooling to the EDG's is not interrupted b.
SW cooling is made more reliable by automatic train separation (SW Xsolation)
when SZ is actuated c.
SW will be interrupted for 15 and 17 seconds ("A" and
"B" trains, respectively)
for given conditions d.
SW will be interrupted for 40 seconds for given conditions ANSWER:
a.
SW cooling to the EDG's is not interrupted Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0105 Rev:
Status:
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding Fire Control Panel alarms?
a.
An ALARM annunciates if the zone's fire suppression system has inadvertently actuated b.
A FXRST ALMS'nnunciates if a smoke AND heat detector have sensed a fire in their suppression system c.
A SECOND ALARM annunciates if 2 or more smoke and/or heat detectors sense the actuation of the suppression system d.
A SECOND ALtQQC annunciates if 2 or more smoke and/or heat detectors sense a fire in their suppression system ANSWER:
d.
A SECOND ALPZBC annunciates if-2 or more smoke and/or heat detectors sense a fire in their suppression system
Question:
( 1.00 PTS)
E000.0106 Rev:
Status:
The purpose of the pressurizer relief tank (PRT) is to quench the discharge from the PER safety and relief elves.
Which ONE of the following also relieves to the PRT?
a.
Seal Leakoff (Return) relief ~alve b.
Gas Analyzer relief valve c.
RCP Thermal Barrier relief valve d.
Reactor Coolant Drain Tank (RCDT) relief valve ANSWER:
a.
Seal Leakoff (Return) relief valve
ATTACHMENT 2 FACILITY CONTENTS ON WRITTEN EXAMINATIONS