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Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-16-02, Kansas State University
	ML16153A020
Person / Time
Site:	Kansas State University
Issue date:	06/01/2016
From:	Anthony Mendiola; Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch
To:	Geuther J; Kansas State University
	Mendiola A
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ML16041A054	List: ML16036A163; ML16153A020;
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June 1, 2016 Dr. Jeffrey Geuther, Manager KSU Nuclear Reactor Facility Department of Mechanical and Nuclear Engineering 112 Ward Hall Kansas State University Manhattan, KS 66506-5204

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT, NO. 50-188/OL-16-02, KANSAS STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Geuther:

During the week of April 25, 2016, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Kansas State University reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with you at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosure will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mrs. Paulette Torres at (301) 415-5656 or via e-mail Paulette.Torres@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Anthony J. Mendiola, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-188

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-16-02

2. Facility Comments with NRC Resolution

3. Written Examination cc: w/o enclosure: See next page

Dr. Jeffrey Geuther, Manager June 1, 2016 KSU Nuclear Reactor Facility Department of Mechanical and Nuclear Engineering 112 Ward Hall Kansas State University Manhattan, KS 66506-5204

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO.: 50-188/OL-16-02, KANSAS STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Geuther:

During the week of April 25, 2016, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Kansas State University reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with you and those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosure will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mrs. Paulette Torres at (301) 415-5656 or via e-mail Paulette.Torres@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Anthony J. Mendiola, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-188

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-16-02

2. Facility Comments with NRC Resolution

3. Written Examination DISTRIBUTION w/ encl.

Public Anthony Mendiola Gary Morlang Alexander Adams Spyros Traiforos ADAMS Accession No. ML16153A020 NRR-074 OFFICE NRR/DPR/PROB/CE NRR/DPR/PROB/OLA NRR/DPR/PROB/BC NAME PTorres CRevelle AMendiola DATE 5/24/2016 6/01/2016 6/01/2016

OFFICIAL RECORD COPY Kansas State University Docket NO: 50-188 cc:

Office of the Governor State of Kansas Suite 2415 300 SW 10th Avenue Topeka, KS 66612-1590 Thomas A. Conley, RRPJ, CHP Section Chief Radiation and Asbestos Control KS Dept. of Health & Environment 1000 SW Jackson, Suite 330 Topeka, KS 66612-1365 Mayor of Manhattan City Hall 1101 Poyntz Avenue Manhattan, KS 66502 Test, Research, and Training Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center Gainesville, FL 32611

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.: 50-188/OL-16-02 FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-188 FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-88 FACILITY: Kansas State University Reactor EXAMINATION DATE: April 25, 2016 SUBMITTED BY: __________/RA/ _________ ___05/24/2016_____

Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of April 25, 2016 the NRC administered a licensing examination to four Reactor Operator (RO) candidates. Two candidates failed the written portion of the examination. The remainder candidates passed all applicable portions of the examinations.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner, NRC

2. Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 2/2 0/0 2/2 Operating Tests 4/0 0/0 4/0 Overall 2/2 0/0 2/2

3. Exit Meeting:

Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner, NRC Jeffrey Geuther, Manager, KSU The facility licensee agreed to email their comments on the written examination which were incorporated into the examination report (see Enclosure 2).

FACILITY COMMENTS ON THE WRITTEN EXAM WITH NRC RESOLUTION QUESTION A.01 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the following neutron interactions with its net result. Answers can be used more than once.

Column A Column B

a. Elastic Scattering 1. - Rays

b. Inelastic Scattering 2. Positive Ions

c. Nuclear Reactions 3. Protons

d. Capture Answer: a,3 b,1 c,2 d,1 REF: Denaro and Jayson, Fundamentals of Radiation Chemistry, pg. 51 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: Nuclear reactions can produce a broad range of net results, including gamma rays and protons. For example, two very important nuclear reactions at the KSU TRIGA reactor are the control rod neutron absorption reaction 10B(n,)7Li, which has a 94% chance of emitting a gamma ray, and the reaction which produces 16N in the moderator, which produces a proton: 16O(n,p)16N. Therefore the Facility recommends that all answers be accepted for A.01c.

NRC Resolution: The NRC agrees with the facility comment and accepts all answers (1, 2 and 3) to be correct for question A.01c.

QUESTION A.06 [1.0 point]

During a fuel loading of the reactor core, as the reactor approaches criticality, the multiplication factor:

a. Increases toward unity.

b. Decreases toward unity.

c. Increases toward infinity.

d. Decreases toward zero.

Answer: c REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, pg. 166 of 212 ENCLOSURE 2

Facility Comments &

Recommendations: This question does not specify whether multiplication factor refers to the subcritical multiplication factor M or the neutron multiplication factor k.

Both are commonly used by reactor operators. Therefore the Facility recommends that both A and C be accepted as correct answers for A6.

NRC Resolution: The NRC examiner noted this during the exam and corrected the question to read During a fuel loading of the reactor core, as the reactor approaches criticality, the neutron multiplication factor, M: for the benefit of all candidates. Therefore the NRC will keep answer c as the correct answer.

QUESTION A.08 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the term neutron lifetime?

a. The mean time required for fission neutrons to slow down to thermal energies.

b. The average time that thermal neutrons diffuse before being lost in some way.

c. The time between succeeding neutron generations and is the sum of fission time, slowing down time, and diffusion time.

d. The average time between the release of a neutron in a fission reaction and its loss from the system by absorption or escape.

Answer: d REF: Burns, section 3.3.5, pg. 3-23 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: Both C and D are good descriptions of neutron lifetime. The time to slow down and diffuse is the same as the time for a neutron to be absorbed or escape. It seems that D just lumps the slowing down and diffusion time together, while C considers them separately. The Facility recommends that both answers C and D be accepted. (Note that both answers refer specifically to neutrons born in fission, thereby excluding consideration of delayed neutrons).

NRC Resolution: The NRC will accept both c and d as correct answers for question A.08.

ENCLOSURE 2

QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

The six factor formula is stated as keff = Lf p Lt f .

Match with the correct answer:

Column A Column B

a. Thermal utilization factor (f) 1. Change as fertile material is converted to fissile material.

b. f and p factors 2. Can be changed, by inserting movable control rods in and out.

c. f, p, Reproduction () factors 3. Changes reactor power.

d. Resonance escape probability (p) 4. Change as fuel is burned.

Answer: a,2 b,4 c,1 d,3 REF: DOE Handbook part 2, module 3, pg. 10, 15 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: There are several problems with this question. First of all, the conversion of fertile material to fissile material, insertion of control rods, and fuel burnup all affect most of the factors in the six factor formula, although some are affected more than others. Also, it seems that the intent was to say that resonance escape probability is changed by reactor power, but the answer is changes reactor power. The facility recommends either that this question be withdrawn.

NRC Resolution: The NRC agrees with the facility comment and question A.18 will be deleted from the examination.

QUESTION B.05 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following IS NOT a Reportable Occurrence per Technical Specifications?

a. The Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS) for reactor power level is set at 1250 kW.

b. An unanticipated change in reactivity of $1.00.

c. Airborne contamination levels in the reactor bay lower than 10 CFR 20 limits.

d. The period scram and the linear high power scrams are disabled by the Senior Reactor Operator while in pulse mode.

Answer: d REF: TS 6.9, pg. TS-48 SAR 7.4, pg. 7-19 ENCLOSURE 2

Facility Comments &

Recommendations: It is not a reportable occurrence to have the LSSS set correctly (Answer A) or to have airborne contamination levels within limits (Answer C). The Facility recommends that A, C, and D be accepted as correct answers to this question.

NRC Resolution: All answers are correct. Therefore question B.05 will be deleted from the examination.

QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point]

The Emergency Operations Center (EOC) shall be located in the __________.

a. Emergency Planning Zone

b. Hot Zone

c. Warm Zone

d. Cold Zone Answer: d REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Emergency Plan section 1.5.1, pg. 124 of 212 Emergency Plan & Emergency Plan Procedures, Section 1.5.2, pg. 9 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: It is correct that the Emergency Operation Center must be in the Cold Zone, per EPP 10. However, EP 10.1 also states that During an Unusual Event or an Alert, the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) should be the Reactor Control Room, located in Room 109 or Ward Hall.

The Reactor Control Room is one of two rooms included in the Emergency Planning Zone (see EP 1.5.2). Therefore the Facility recommends accepting both A and D as correct answers to this question.

NRC Resolution: The NRC will accept both a and d as correct answers for question B.17.

ENCLOSURE 2

QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point]

An Airborne Radioactivity Area is an area in which the airborne radioactivity concentration exceeds (DAC is the Derived Air Concentration):

a. 0.1 DAC

b. 0.5 DAC

c. 5 DAC- hours in a week

d. 1 DAC or 12 DAC-hours in a week Answer: a REF: 10 CFR 20.1003 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: The definition of Airborne Radioactivity Area used as a reference to this question, 10CFR20.1003, states that: Airborne Radioactivity Area means a room, enclosure, or area in which airborne radioactive materials, composed wholly or partly of licensed materials, exist in concentrations -

(1) In excess of the derived air concentrations (DACs) specified in Appendix B, to 20.1001 - 20.2401, or (2) To such a degree that an individual present in the area without respiratory protective equipment could exceed, during the hours the individual is present in a week, an intake of 0.6 of the annual limit on intake (ALI) or 12 DAC-hours. Based on this definition, the correct answer should be changed from A to D.

NRC Resolution: The NRC agrees with the facility comment that the correct answer is d for question B.20.

QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point]

The remote area monitors utilize G-M detectors located throughout the reactor bay. A movable detector can be located:

a. At the thermal column.

b. Above the bulk shield tank.

c. At the top of the reactor tank.

d. Near the ion exchanger in the primary coolant system.

Answer: a REF: SAR 7.7, pg. 7-21 ENCLOSURE 2

Facility Comments &

Recommendations: This question statement does not reference any section of the SAR or Procedure. It only asks where a movable detector can be located.

Moveable detectors can be located anywhere in the reactor bay. Even when specifically discussing RMS units, it is possible and common to mount RMS units at the locations listed as answers B, C, and D.

Therefore the Facility recommends that all possible answers be accepted for this question.

NRC Resolution: The NRC will delete question C.08 from the examination.

QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point]

The Primary Water Conductivity meter is located at the:

a. Cleanup Loop Inlet and Outlet

b. Heat Exchanger Inlet and Outlet

c. Water Box

d. Pools Surface Answer: a REF: SAR Table 5.1, pg. 5-3 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: The water box at the outlet of the cleanup loop houses one of the two primary water conductivity meters. Many past exams have asked questions regarding the fact that there is a conductivity meter in the water box. The question statement does not specify whether it is asking about the inlet conductivity monitor, outlet conductivity monitor, or both.

Therefore the Facility recommends that both A and C be accepted.

NRC Resolution: The NRC will accept both a and c as correct answers for question C.17.

QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following can also be used for temporary fuel storage?

a. Reactor Tank

b. Surge Tank

c. Bulk Shield Tank

d. Sump Tank ENCLOSURE 2

Answer: c REF: SAR 1.3.6 c, pg. 1-12 SAR 5.1, pg. 5-2 SAR 9.2, pg. 9-1 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: The reactor tank contains many fuel racks, and is the usual location where the fuel is temporarily stored during fuel inspections, core reconfiguration, initial core loading, etc. Therefore the Facility recommends that both A and C be accepted as correct answers.

NRC Resolution: The NRC will accept both a and c as correct answers for question C.18.

QUESTION C.20 [1.0 point]

The thermocouples in the instrumented fuel element are located:

a. At the interior surface of the cladding.

b. At the center of the zirconium rod.

c. In the outer surface of the fuel.

d. Below the fuel surface.

Answer: d REF: SAR 4.2.1a, pg. 4-4 SAR 7.3.2, pg. 7-11 Facility Comments &

Recommendations: The section of the SAR referenced on the answer key states that the thermocouples in instrumented fuel elements are located 0.76 cm (0.3 in) below the fuel surface. The problem statement just states that they are below the fuel surface, which seems to imply that they are immediately beneath the surface, i.e., at the interior of the cladding. Due to the vagueness of the problem statement, the Facility recommends that this problem be withdrawn.

NRC Resolution: The NRC will delete question C.20 from the examination.

ENCLOSURE 2

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: Kansas State University REACTOR TYPE: TRIGA DATE ADMINISTERED: 04/25/2016 CANDIDATE: ______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 19.00 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 19.00 20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 18.00 20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 56.00 60.00 % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature ENCLOSURE 3

A. Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a b c d ___

A07 a b c d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a b c d ___

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (deleted per facility comment)

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION A *****)

B. Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___ (deleted per facility comment)

B06 a b c d ___

B07 a b c d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION B *****)

C. Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a b c d ___

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___ (deleted per facility comment)

C09 a b c d ___

C10 a b c d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

C20 a b c d ___ (deleted per facility comment)

(***** END OF SECTION C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.

6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

( )2 eff = 0.1sec 1 Q&= m&cP T = m&H =UAT Pmax =

(2 )

t P = P0 e S S SCR = * =1x104 sec 1 K eff eff + &

SUR = 26 .06

( ) (

CR1 1 K eff1 = CR2 1 K eff 2 ) CR1 ( 1 ) = CR2 ( 2 )

(1 ) M=

1 CR

= 2 P = P0 10SUR(t )

P= P0 1 K eff CR1 1 K eff1 1 K eff

M= SDM = =

1 K eff 2 K eff

0.693 K eff 2 K eff1

+ T1 =

eff + & 2 K eff1 K eff 2 K eff 1

= DR = DR0 e t 2 DR1 d1 = DR2 d 2 2

K eff 6 Ci E (n) ( 2 )2 = (1 )2 DR =

R2 Peak2 Peak1 DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet 1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf °F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lbm °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C

KANSAS STATE UNIVERSITY Operator Licensing Examination Week of April 25, 2016

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 2 QUESTION A.01 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the following neutron interactions with its net result. Answers can be used more than once.

Column A Column B

a. Elastic Scattering 1. - Rays

b. Inelastic Scattering 2. Positive Ions

c. Nuclear Reactions 3. Protons

d. Capture QUESTION A.02 [1.0 point]

A ____________ is an adjustment of the channel to that its output responds, with acceptable range and accuracy, to known values of the parameter that the channel measures.

a. Channel Calibration

b. Channel Check

c. Channel Test

d. Measuring Channel QUESTION A.03 [1.0 point]

Shutdown Margin is defined as:

a. The negative reactivity inserted by an increase in moderator temperature within the core when the reactor is brought from zero to full power.

b. Provides a measure of excess reactivity available to overcome fission product buildup, fuel burnup, and power defect.

c. The amount of negative reactivity that would be added to a core if the rods in a critical, cold, clean reactor were fully inserted.

d. The amount of reactivity available above what is required to keep the reactor critical.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 3 QUESTION A.04 [1.0 point]

The count rate is 100 cps. An experimenter inserts an experiment into the core, and the count rate decreases to 60 cps. Given the initial Keff of the reactor was 0.92, what is the worth of the experiment?

a. = - 0.07

b. = + 0.07

c. = - 0.02

d. = + 0.02 QUESTION A.05 [1.0 point]

Emission of a highly energetic helium nucleus from the nucleus of a radioactive atom is called:

a. Alpha Decay

b. Beta Decay

c. Positron Emission

d. Bremsstrahlung QUESTION A.06 [1.0 point]

During a fuel loading of the reactor core, as the reactor approaches criticality, the neutron multiplication factor, M:

a. Increases toward unity.

b. Decreases toward unity.

c. Increases toward infinity.

d. Decreases toward zero.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 4 QUESTION A.07 [1.0 point]

The reactor is critical at 5 watts. Which ONE of the following correctly describes the reactor behavior when a reactivity worth of 0.50 % K/K is IMMEDIATELY inserted to the reactor core?

a. Subcritical

b. Critical

c. Supercritical

d. Delayed critical QUESTION A.08 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the term neutron lifetime?

a. The mean time required for fission neutrons to slow down to thermal energies.

b. The average time that thermal neutrons diffuse before being lost in some way.

c. The time between succeeding neutron generations and is the sum of fission time, slowing down time, and diffusion time.

d. The average time between the release of a neutron in a fission reaction and its loss from the system by absorption or escape.

QUESTION A.09 [1.0 point]

Most text books list for a U235 fueled reactor as 0.0065 K/K and eff as being 0.0075 K/K.

Why is eff larger than ?

a. Delayed neutrons are born at lower energies than prompt neutrons resulting in a less loss due to leakage for these neutrons.

b. Delayed neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons resulting in a greater worth for these neutrons.

c. The fuel includes U238 which has a relatively large for fast fission.

d. Some U238 in the core becomes Pu239 (by neutron absorption) which has a larger for fission.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 5 QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point]

The neutron microscopic cross-section for absorption a generally:

a. Increases as neutron energy increases.

b. Decreases as neutron energy increases.

c. Increases as the mass of the target nucleus increases.

d. Decreases as the mass of the target nucleus increases.

QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements best describes on how moderator temperature affects the core operating characteristics?

a. Increase in moderator temperature will decrease the neutron multiplication factor due to the resonance escape probability decrease.

b. Increase in moderator temperature will decrease the neutron multiplication factor due to the reproduction factor increase.

c. Increase in moderator temperature will increase the neutron multiplication factor due to the resonance escape probability increase.

d. Increase in moderator temperature will increase the neutron multiplication factor due to the fast non leakage probability decrease.

QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the correct reason for an installed neutron source within the core?

A startup without an installed neutron source:

a. Is impossible because there would be no neutrons available to start up the reactor.

b. Would be very slow because it would take a long time to build up neutron population from so low a level.

c. Can be compensated for by adjusting the compensating voltage on the source range detector.

d. Could result in a very short period due to the reactor going critical before neutron population built up high enough to be read on nuclear instrumentation.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 6 QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the correct reason for the 80 second negative period following a reactor scram?

a. The fuel temperature coefficient adding positive reactivity due to the fuel temperature decrease following a scram.

b. The ability of U-235 to fission with source neutrons.

c. The decay constant for the longest lived precursor.

d. The amount of negative reactivity added on a cram being greater that the shutdown margin.

QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point]

A reactor is operating at a power of 10 W. If there is a reactivity insertion of = 0.00065, how long is it before the reactor power reaches 10 kW? (Assume eff = 0.0065, = 0.07 sec-1 and T

= 129 sec)

a. 2 min

b. 10 min

c. 15 min

d. 20 min QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the time period in which the maximum amount of Xe135 will be present in the core? Approximately:

a. 6 to 11 hours1.273148e-4 days 0.00306 hours 1.818783e-5 weeks 4.1855e-6 months after a reactor startup to full power.

b. 3 to 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months after a power increase from 50% to 100%.

c. 3 to 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months after a power decrease from 100% to 50%.

d. 6 to 11 hours1.273148e-4 days 0.00306 hours 1.818783e-5 weeks 4.1855e-6 months after a reactor shutdown from full power.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 7 QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]

A subcritical reactor is being started up. A control blade is raised in four equal steps. Which ONE of the following statement most accurately describes the expected reactor response?

a. Power increases by the same amount for each withdrawal.

b. Each withdrawal will add the same amount of reactivity.

c. The time for power to stabilize after each successive withdrawal increases.

d. A lower critical rod height is attained by decreasing the time intervals between withdrawals.

QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is true concerning the differences between prompt and delayed neutrons?

a. Prompt neutrons account for less than 1% of the neutron population while delayed neutrons account for approximately 99% of the neutron population.

b. Prompt neutrons are released during fast fissions while delayed neutrons are released during thermal fissions.

c. Prompt neutrons are released during the fission process while delayed neutrons are released during the decay process.

d. Prompt neutrons are the dominating factor in determining the reactor period while delayed neutrons have little effect on the reactor period.

QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point, 0.25 each] (deleted per facility comment)

The six factor formula is stated as keff = Lf p Lt f . Match with the correct answer:

Column A Column B

a. Thermal utilization factor (f) 1. Change as fertile material is converted to fissile material.

b. f and p factors 2. Can be changed, by inserting movable control rods in and out.

c. f, p, Reproduction () factors 3. Changes reactor power.

d. Resonance escape probability (p) 4. Change as fuel is burned.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 8 QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point]

Control rods worth is affected by the following factors EXCEPT:

a. Moderator temperature

b. Core age

c. Source position

d. Adjacent rods QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the best approximation of the amount of energy released by the fission of one atom of U-235?

a. 5 - 10 MeV

b. 50 - 70 MeV

c. 100 - 120 MeV

d. 180 - 210 MeV

- - - - End of Section A *****************

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 9 QUESTION B.01 [1.0 point]

If a fuel element is found to have corrosion, mechanical damage, elongation of more than

___________ over manufactured length, or lateral bending of more than ___________, the fuel element SHALL NOT be reinserted in the Reactor core grid plate.

a. 1/10 in.

b. 1/8 in.

c. 1/4 in.

d. 1/2 in.

QUESTION B.02 [1.0 point]

All of the following sources are major gamma emitters EXCEPT:

a. Co-60

b. Sr-90

c. Cs-137

d. Ra-226 QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point]

Steady state fuel temperature shall not exceed 750°C. This is an example of a:

a. Safety Limit

b. Limiting Safety System Setting

c. Limiting Conditions for Operation

d. Surveillance Requirement

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 10 QUESTION B.04 [1.0 point]

Technical Specifications defines Reactor Shutdown as:

a. All rods are fully inserted and the reactor console is secured.

b. The reactor is subcritical by at least $1.00 in the reference core condition with the reactivity worth of all experiments included.

c. The reactor console is secured and no work is in progress involving core fuel, core structure, installed controlled rods or control rod drives.

d. The reactor is subcritical by at least $1.00 of reactivity and the reactor console is secure.

QUESTION B.05 [1.0 point] (deleted per facility comment)

Which ONE of the following IS NOT a Reportable Occurrence per Technical Specifications?

a. The Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS) for reactor power level is set at 1250 kW.

b. An unanticipated change in reactivity of $1.00.

c. Airborne contamination levels in the reactor bay lower than 10 CFR 20 limits.

d. The period scram and the linear high power scrams are disabled by the Senior Reactor Operator while in pulse mode.

QUESTION B.06 [1.0 point]

In accordance with 10 CFR Part 50.47(b)(11), under what conditions an Emergency Team Worker can have exposure in excess of 10 CFR 20 limits?

a. During any emergency.

b. In an emergency situation, on a voluntary basis, whole body exposure > 25 rem dose equivalent per individual for life-saving efforts.

c. As long as the Emergency Team Worker dont exceed 50 rem whole body to save vital reactor equipment.

d. In an emergency declared by the Emergency Director with concurrence of the Senior Reactor Operator.

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 11 QUESTION B.07 [1.0 point]

Reactor Operator works in a high radiation area for eight (8) hours a day. The dose rate in the area is 100 mR/hour. Which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM number of days in which Reactor Operator may perform his duties WITHOUT exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits?

a. 5 days

b. 6 days

c. 7 days

d. 12 days QUESTION B.08 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following measuring channels has a minimum number operable of two in Steady State Mode?

a. Fuel Temperature

b. Reactor Power Level

c. Primary Pool Water Temperature

d. Reactor Bay Differential Pressure QUESTION B.09 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the 10 CFR 55 requirements for maintaining an active operator license in column A with the corresponding time period from column B (answers can be used more than once).

Column A Column B

a. Medical Exam 1 year

b. Pass Requalification Operating Test 2 years

c. Renewal Application of Existing License 4 years

d. Pass Requalification Written Examination 6 years

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 12 QUESTION B.10 [1.0 point]

___________ are thresholds for establishing emergency classes and initiating appropriate emergency measures.

a. Emergency Plan Procedures

b. Emergency Action Levels

c. Emergency Planning Zone

d. Protective Action Guides QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]

During an emergency, the ______________ is responsible of ensuring that proper dosimetry is worn and recorded, that security procedures are followed, and shall record an approximate timeline as events occur.

a. Emergency Director

b. Emergency Radiation Safety Officer

c. Emergency Organization Officer

d. Senior Reactor Operator QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following emergency situations may lead to an UNUSUAL EVENT?

a. Fire within the Reactor Facility causing damage to safety-related Reactor components or loss of security or surveillance capabilities for longer than 15 minutes.

b. Any Medical Incident requiring transportation of a contaminated accident victim to an off-site hospital.

c. Loss of radioactive material control leading to a deep dose equivalent of 75 mrem

d. Confirmed breach of cladding of multiple fuel elements.

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 13 QUESTION B.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the 10 CFR 20 definition of Total Effective Dose Equivalent (TEDE)?

a. The sum of the deep dose equivalent and the committed effective dose equivalent.

b. The dose that your whole body receives from sources outside the body.

c. The sum of the external deep dose and the organ dose.

d. The dose to a specific organ or tissue resulting from an intake of radioactive material.

QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point]

If a gamma source measures 425 mR/hr at one foot, what will it measure at three feet?

a. 0.021 mR/hr

b. 47 mR/hr

c. 142 mR/hr

d. 207 mR/hr QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point]

For at least 36 hours4.166667e-4 days 0.01 hours 5.952381e-5 weeks 1.3698e-5 months prior to commencing the __________ procedure, the secondary cooling system must not be operated. In addition, significant reactor heat (greater than 1 kWh) must not be produced.

a. Annual Remote Area Monitor Calibration

b. Annual Power Level Calibration

c. Temperature Channel Calibration

d. Differential Pressure Channel Calibration

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 14 QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point]

What is the KSU ALARA goal limit for members of the public?

a. KSU does not have ALARA goal limits.

b. ALARA goal limits applicable only for radiation workers.

c. Same as the average annual dose for radiation workers not to exceed 100 mrem.

d. 50 mrem annual TEDE.

QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point]

The Emergency Operations Center (EOC) shall be located in the __________.

a. Emergency Planning Zone

b. Hot Zone

c. Warm Zone

d. Cold Zone QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point]

In order to comply with the Semimanual $1.00 Comparison Pulse procedure you must previously perform the __________ procedure.

a. Control Rod Inspection

b. Pulse Rod Drive Cylinder And Air Supply Inspection

c. Fuel Element Inspection

d. No Inspection Procedure Required

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 15 QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

After calibrating a Portable Radiation Survey Meter, the new calibration sticker on the instrument should indicate all of the following information EXCEPT:

a. Any ranges not calibrated

b. The individual performing the calibration

c. The calibration source used

d. Corrections for any ranges not indicating within +/- 10 percent QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point]

An Airborne Radioactivity Area is an area in which the airborne radioactivity concentration exceeds (DAC is the Derived Air Concentration):

a. 0.1 DAC

b. 0.5 DAC

c. 5 DAC- hours in a week

d. 1 DAC or 12 DAC-hours in a week

- - - - End of Section B ********************************

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 16 QUESTION C.01 [1.0 point]

Which ONE is the major source of radiation dose to the area above the reactor pool?

a. H-3

b. N-16

c. Ar-41

d. Cs-135 QUESTION C.02 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following lattice geometry rings has a maximum number elements of 18?

a. B ring

b. C ring

c. D ring

d. E ring QUESTION C.03 [1.0 point]

The KSU reactor has a ___________ neutron startup source.

a. Am-Li

b. Am-Be

c. Sb-Be

d. Pu-Be

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 17 QUESTION C.04 [1.0 point]

The purpose of the surface skimmer is to:

a. Maintain pool water purity.

b. Provide a filtering mechanism for makeup water.

c. Collect foreign particles that float on the pool surface.

d. Provide a path for makeup water for filling the pool during both normal an emergency pool fills.

QUESTION C.05 [1.0 point]

Per Technical Specifications for Pulse Mode, the transient rod drive is positioned for reactivity insertion (upon withdrawal) less than or equal to:

a. $1.00

b. $2.00

c. $3.00

d. $4.00 QUESTION C.06 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following safety system channel or interlock is required in both Steady State Mode and Pulse Mode of operation?

a. Reactor Power Level

b. Manual Scram Bar

c. Control Rod (Standard) Position Interlock

d. Pulse Rod Interlock

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 18 QUESTION C.07 [1.0 point]

The limiting design parameter for TRIGA fuel is related to:

a. The distortion of the fuel element due to a phase change of the 304 stainless steel.

b. Fission product built up.

c. Excessive pressure from expansion of Argon-41.

d. Buildup of pressure through dissociation of hydrogen in the matrix.

QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point] (deleted per facility comment)

The remote area monitors utilize G-M detectors located throughout the reactor bay. A movable detector can be located:

a. At the thermal column.

b. Above the bulk shield tank.

c. At the top of the reactor tank.

d. Near the ion exchanger in the primary coolant system.

QUESTION C.09 [1.0 point]

During operations, the pulse rod is held in place by:

a. Electromagnets

b. Air pressure

c. Gravity

d. Micro-switches

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 19 QUESTION C.10 [1.0 point]

Backup battery systems are provided for all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Emergency Lighting

b. The Security System

c. The 22-Foot Level Evacuation Alarm

d. The Continuous Air Radiation Monitor QUESTION C.11 [1.0 point]

Per Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following correctly describes the characteristic of the KSU TRIGA fuel elements used in the reactor core?

a. It shall contain a maximum of 8.5 weight percent uranium which has a maximum enrichment of 19%. There shall be 1.50 to 1.60 hydrogen atoms to 1.0 zirconium atom.

b. It shall contain a maximum of 9.0 weight percent uranium which has a maximum enrichment of 20%. There shall be 1.50 to 1.60 hydrogen atoms to 1.0 zirconium atom.

c. It shall contain a maximum of 8.5 weight percent uranium which has a maximum enrichment of 19%. There shall be 1.55 to 1.80 hydrogen atoms to 1.0 zirconium atom.

d. It shall contain a maximum of 9.0 weight percent uranium which has a maximum enrichment of 20%. There shall be 1.55 to 1.80 hydrogen atoms to 1.0 zirconium atom.

QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point]

Technical Specifications require the water temperature at the exit of the reactor pool not to exceed 130°C to:

a. Prevent corrosion of reactor components.

b. Avoid damaging the heat exchanger plates.

c. Prevent slow leakage of fission products from degraded cladding.

d. Maintain the mechanical and chemical integrity of the deionizer resin mixed bed.

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 20 QUESTION C.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following interlocks prevents applying power to pulse rod unless rod inserted/prevent inadvertent pulse?

a. Source Interlock

b. Pulse Rod Interlock

c. Pulse Mode Interlock

d. Pulse Power Interlock QUESTION C.14 [1.0 point]

The reactor operator can determine the reactivity insertion rate for a given interval of rod motion using all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Rod Speed

b. Rod Weight

c. Rod Worth Curves

d. Rod Position Indication QUESTION C.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is an In Reflector Experimental Facility?

a. Central Thimble

b. Pneumatic Transfer System

c. Rotary Specimen Rack

d. Beam Ports

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 21 QUESTION C.16 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is a basic control function of the Secondary Coolant Automatic Control System?

a. To prevent cooling water freeze-up during cold weather operations.

b. To minimize corrosion of reactor components.

c. To minimize production of radioactive materials.

d. To maintain optical clarity of the primary water.

QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point]

The Primary Water Conductivity meter is located at the:

a. Cleanup Loop Inlet and Outlet

b. Heat Exchanger Inlet and Outlet

c. Water Box

d. Pools Surface QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following can also be used for temporary fuel storage?

a. Reactor Tank

b. Surge Tank

c. Bulk Shield Tank

d. Sump Tank

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 22 QUESTION C.19 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the channel that provides multi-range linear power indication?

a. PA-1000

b. NPP-1000

c. NLW-1000

d. NMP-1000 QUESTION C.20 [1.0 point] (deleted per facility comment)

The thermocouples in the instrumented fuel element are located:

a. At the interior surface of the cladding.

b. At the center of the zirconium rod.

c. In the outer surface of the fuel.

d. Below the fuel surface.

- - - - End of Section C ****************************

- - - - End of the Exam ***************************

Kansas State University OL 16-02 Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 23 A.01 Answer: a,3 b,1 c,1,2,3 (per facility comment) d,1 REF: Denaro and Jayson, Fundamentals of Radiation Chemistry, pg. 51 A.02 Answer: a REF: TS Definitions, pg. TS-4 A.03 Answer: c REF: Burns, example 6.2.3 (a), pg. 6-4 A.04 Answer: a REF: CR1 / CR2 = (1 - Keff2) / (1 - Keff1) 100 / 60 = (1 - Keff2) / (1 - 0.92)

Therefore Keff2 = 0.867

= (Keff2 - Keff1) / (Keff2

Keff1)

= (0.867 - 0.92) / (0.867

0.92)

= - 0.0664 A.05 Answer: a REF: DOE Handbook volume 1, module 1, pg. 24 A.06 Answer: c REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, pg. 166 of 212 A.07 Answer: c REF: Burn, Section 4.2, Figure 4-1, pg. 4-2 0.5 % K/K = 0.005 K/K = , > 0

= (keff -1) / keff, then keff = 1.005 When k > 1, > 0 and reactor is supercritical A.08 Answer: c and d (per facility comment)

REF: Burns, section 3.3.5, pg. 3-23 A.09 Answer: a REF: Burns, Section 3.2.4, pg. 3-12

Kansas State University OL 16-02 Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 24 A.10 Answer: b REF: Foster & Wright, Basic Nuclear Engineering 4th ed., Figure 8.3, pg. 202 A.11 Answer: a REF: Burns, Section 3.2.2, pg. 3-18 to 3-20 A.12 Answer: d REF: DOE Handbook volume 1, module 2, pg. 3 A.13 Answer: c REF: Lamarsh, 3rd ed., pg. 345 KSU Reactor Training Manual, pg. 168 of 212 A.14 Answer: c REF: Reactor power: P(t) = P(0) exp(t/T)

Solving for t, we find t = T ln [P(t)/P(0)] = 129 ln (10,000/10) = 891 s =

14.9 min Also,

= 0.00065, then T = (eff - )/( ) = (0.0065 - 0.00065)/(0.07)(0.00065) = 129 seconds A.15 Answer: d REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Figure 30, pg. 190 of 212 Lamarsh, 3rd ed., Figure 7.14, pg. 381 A.16 Answer: c REF: Burns, Section 5.3, pg. 5-7 A.17 Answer: c REF: Lamarsh, 3rd ed., pg. 73 - 75 A.18 (deleted per facility comment)

Answer: a,2 b,4 c,1 d,3 REF: DOE Handbook part 2, module 3, pg. 10, 15

Kansas State University OL 16-02 Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 25 A.19 Answer: c REF: Burns 7.7.12 (b), pg. 7-19 A.20 Answer: d REF: Lamarsh, Table 3.6, pg. 88 Foster and Wright, Basic Nuclear Engineering, 4th ed., table 4.2, pg. 76, The energy release per fission is approximately 200 MeV.

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 26 B.01 Answer: b REF: KSU TRIGA Mark II Operation, Test & Maintenance Procedures, Procedure #10, pg. 2 of 5 B.02 Answer: b REF: KSU TRIGA Mark II Operation, Test & Maintenance Procedures, Procedure #13, pg. 1 of 3 KSU TRIGA Mark II Operation, Test & Maintenance Procedures, Procedure #14, pg. 1 of 4 B.03 Answer: a REF: TS 2.1.3 (2), pg. TS-8 B.04 Answer: b REF: TS Definitions, pg. TS-6 B.05 (deleted per facility comment)

Answer: d REF: TS 6.9, pg. TS-48 SAR 7.4, pg. 7-19 B.06 Answer: b REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Emergency Plan Table EP-1, pg. 151 of 212 Emergency Plan & Emergency Plan Procedures, Table 9.1, pg. 34 B.07 Answer: b REF: 10 CFR 20.1201(a)(1) 1hr 1day 5000 mR = 6.25days 100 mR 8hr B.08 Answer: b REF: TS 3.3 Table 1, pg. TS-14

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 27 B.09 Answer: a, 2 years (10 CFR 55.53) b, 1 years (10 CFR 55.59) c, 6 years (10 CFR 55.55) d, 2 years (10 CFR 55.59)

REF: 10 CFR 55.53 Conditions of Operator Licenses 10 CFR 55.55 Expiration 10 CFR 55.59 Requalification B.10 Answer: b REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Emergency Plan section 2.1, pg. 126 of 212 Emergency Plan & Emergency Plan Procedures, Section 2.1, pg. 10 B.11 Answer: c REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Emergency Plan Section 3.3, pg. 130 of 212 Emergency Plan & Emergency Plan Procedures, Section 3.4, pg. 14 B.12 Answer: b REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Emergency Plan Section 6.1.3, pg. 142 of 212 and Section 7.2, pg. 145 of 212 Emergency Plan & Emergency Plan Procedures, Section 6.1.3, pg. 25 and Section 7.2, pg. 28 B.13 Answer: a REF: 10 CFR 20.1003, Definitions KSU Reactor Training Manual, section 2.1, pg. 100 of 212 B.14 Answer: b REF: Given DR1(d1)2 = DR2 (d2)2 Then DR2 = DR1 (d2/d1)2 DR2 = 425 mR (3/1)2 DR2 = 47.2 mR/hr

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 28 B.15 Answer: b REF: KSU TRIGA Mark II Operation, Test & Maintenance Procedures, Procedure #2, pg. 1 of 4 B.16 Answer: d REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Section 6, pg. 112 of 212 SAR 11.1.3 a, pg. 11-6 B.17 Answer: a and d (per facility comment)

REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Emergency Plan section 1.5.1, pg. 124 of 212 Emergency Plan & Emergency Plan Procedures, Section 1.5.2, pg. 9 B.18 Answer: b REF: KSU TRIGA Mark II Operation, Test & Maintenance Procedures, Procedure #7, pg. 1 of 4 B.19 Answer: c REF: KSU TRIGA Mark II Operation, Test & Maintenance Procedures, Procedure #13, pg. 2 of 3 B.20 Answer: d REF: 10 CFR 20.1003

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 29 C.01 Answer: b REF: SAR 11.1.1, pg. 11-1 C.02 Answer: c REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Lattice Geometry, pg. 7 of 212 C.03 Answer: b REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Startup source, pg. 7 of 212 SAR 4.2.4, pg. 4-13 C.04 Answer: c REF: KSU Reactor Training Manual, Primary Loop, pg. 13 of 212 SAR 5.2, pg. 5-3 C.05 Answer: c REF: TS 3.2.3, pg. TS-13 C.06 Answer: b REF: TS 3.4.3 Table: 2, pg. TS-18 C.07 Answer: d REF: SAR 3.5.1 d, pg. 3-16 C.08 (deleted per facility comment)

Answer: a REF: SAR 7.7, pg. 7-21 C.09 Answer: b REF: SAR 3.5.3, pg. 3-17 SAR 4.2.2 a, pg. 4-11 C.10 Answer: d REF: SAR 8, pg. 8-1 C.11 Answer: d REF: TS 5.1.3 (1), pg. TS-38

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 30 C.12 Answer: d REF: TS 3.8.5 bases, pg. TS-26 C.13 Answer: b REF: SAR table 4.2, pg. 4-11 TS 3.4 Table 2, pg. TS-18 C.14 Answer: b REF: SAR 7.3.4 a, pg. 7-13 C.15 Answer: c REF: SAR 10.2.3 c, pg. 10-5 C.16 Answer: a REF: SAR 5.3.2, pg. 5-6 C.17 Answer: a and c (per facility comment)

REF: SAR Table 5.1, pg. 5-3 C.18 Answer: a and c (per facility comment)

REF: SAR 1.3.6 c, pg. 1-12 SAR 5.1, pg. 5-2 SAR 9.2, pg. 9-1 C.19 Answer: d REF: SAR 7.3.1, pg. 7-9 C.20 (deleted per facility comment)

Answer: d REF: SAR 4.2.1a, pg. 4-4 SAR 7.3.2, pg. 7-11