Text

2012-10-Final Written Exam
	ML12346A244
Person / Time
Site:	San Onofre
Issue date:	11/01/2012
From:	Vincent Gaddy; Operations Branch IV
To:	; Southern California Edison Co
	LAURA HURLEY
References
	50-206/12-10, 50-361/12-10, 50-362/12-10 50-206/OL-12, 50-361/OL-12, 50-362/OL-12
	Download: ML12346A244 (178)
	v • d • e

SONGS 2012 NRC Written Exam Answer Key

1. B

26. C

51. C

76. B

2. B

27. B

52. C

77. D

3. B

28. B

53. A

78. C

4. C

29. B

54. B

79. B

5. C

30. A

55. D

80. A

6. C

31. A

56. B

81. C

7. A

32. A

57. A

82. D

8. C

33. D

58. A

83. D

9. C

34. B

59. B

84. D

10. B

35. A

60. D

85. C

11. B

36. B

61. D

86. C

12. D

37. B

62. D

87. C

13. B

38. A

63. B

88. C

14. A

39. B

64. D

89. B

15. C

40. B

65. A

90. A

16. A

41. B

66. C

91. D

17. B

42. D

67. B

92. B

18. C

43. A

68. C

93. D

19. D

44. A

69. B

94. B

20. B

45. C

70. D

95. A

21. C

46. B

71. D

96. B

22. A

47. C

72. A

97. A

23. B

48. A

73. C

98. A

24. D

49. B

74. C

99. D

25. A

50. C

75. A 100. D

SONGS 2012 NRC Reactor Operator Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Date: 10/25/2012 Facility/Unit: SONGS 2/3 Region:

I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time:

Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items if given in conjunction with the RO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require a final grade of 80.00 percent to pass. You have 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months to complete the combined examination, and 3 hours3.472222e-5 days 8.333333e-4 hours 4.960317e-6 weeks 1.1415e-6 months if you are only taking the SRO portion.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results Examination Values

____75___ Points Applicants Scores

_________ Points Applicants Grade

_________ Percent

Question 1 In accordance with SO23-3-1.7, Reactor Coolant Pump Operations, what is the lowest Mode of Operation in which the 4th RCP may be started?

A. Mode 2 B. Mode 3 C. Mode 4 D. Mode 5

Question 2 Ion Exchanger Bypass Valve, TV-0224B, is in AUTO / ION EXCHANGE.

1. What is the lowest letdown temperature at which TV-0224B will automatically bypass the Ion Exchangers?

2. What is the highest letdown temperature at which TV-0224B will automatically realign to the Ion Exchange position?

A. 1. 140°F

2. 115°F B. 1. 140°F

2. 138°F C. 1. 150°F

2. 115°F D. 1. 150°F

2. 138°F

Question 3 Which ONE of the following correctly states the power supplies for Unit 2 LPSI Pumps P-015 and P-016?

P-015 P-016 A. 2A04 2A04 B. 2A04 2A06 C. 2A06 2A04 D. 2A06 2B06

Question 4 Given the following conditions:

A Unit 2 shutdown was in progress from 100% power.

During the shutdown, a Reactor trip occurred due to a Loss of Coolant Accident concurrent with a Loss of Offsite Power.

The following plant conditions exist:

Emergency Diesel Generators are operating normally.

RCS Tcold is 537°F and slowly lowering.

RCS Thot is 540°F and slowly lowering.

Pressurizer Pressure 1100 psia and stable.

Pressurizer Level 32% and slowly rising.

Reactor Vessel Head Level indicates 2 voids.

Core Exit Temperatures are 548°F and slowly lowering.

Which ONE of the following parameters will NOT allow performance of HPSI Throttle/Stop?

A. Pressurizer Level.

B. RCS Temperature.

C. Subcooling Margin.

D. Reactor Vessel Head Level.

Question 5 Per SO23-3-1.11, Quench Tank Operations, which ONE of the following alignments is used to cool the Quench Tank?

The Quench Tank is...

A. drained to the Containment Sump and refilled with Primary Makeup Water.

B. vented to the Waste Gas System while the contents cool to ambient temperature.

C. drained to the Reactor Coolant Drain Tank and refilled with Primary Makeup Water.

D. vented and drained to the Radwaste Primary Tank using the Reactor Coolant Drain Tank Pumps.

Question 6 Quench Tank level is rising. Which ONE of the following annunciators would assist the operator in determining why this is occurring?

A. 56C46, RCP Intergasket Leakage.

B. 50A35, Reactor Vessel Seal Leakage.

C. 56B59, RCP Bleedoff Relief Valve Leaking.

D. 57B36, SIT Drain Line Relief Valve Leaking.

Question 7 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

Train A CCW/SWC is in service.

CCW Pump P-025 is aligned to Train A and running.

The Letdown Heat Exchanger and Non-Critical Loop are aligned to Train A.

Train A CCW Surge Tank T-003 level is being raised using 2HV-6273, T-003 Makeup Water Supply Valve.

T-003 level is 60% and rising when the RO responds to an unrelated annunciator.

Which ONE of the following:

1. Describes the CCW system response if the RO neglects to close 2HV-6273?

2. What mitigating actions would be required?

Train A CCW Surge Tank T-003 A. 1. level transmitter reference leg will fill with water causing the Non-Critical Loop to isolate.

2. Place Train B CCW/SWC in service and transfer the Non-Critical Loop per SO23-13-7, Loss of CCW/SWC.

B. 1. level rise will cause overall system pressure to rise and trip the running CCW pump on high discharge pressure.

2. Place Train B CCW/SWC in service and transfer the Non-Critical Loop per SO23-13-7, Loss of CCW/SWC.

C. 1. level transmitter reference leg will fill with water causing the Non-Critical Loop to isolate.

2. Lower T-003 level to restore Surge Tank level and pressure to the normal operating bands and reopen Train A Non-Critical Loop isolation valves per SO23-2-17, CCW Operations.

D. 1. level rise will cause overall system pressure to rise and trip the running CCW pump on high discharge pressure.

2. Lower T-003 level to restore Surge Tank level and pressure to the normal operating bands and restart CCW Pump P-025 per SO23-2-17, CCW Operations.

Question 8 Given the following conditions:

Pressurizer pressure is 2250 psia.

Quench Tank pressure is 3 psig.

Which ONE of the following temperatures is the expected response to leakage of a Pressurizer Safety Valve as indicated on tail pipe temperature indicators TI-107 and TI-108?

A. 150°F B. 185°F C. 222°F D. 256°F

Question 9 Unit 2 is operating at 70% power with the following condition:

SBCS valves 2HV-8424 and 2HV-8425 are out of service (planned repair time, several weeks).

What is the maximum value the Loss of Load permissive setpoints should be set to for these conditions in accordance with SO23-3-2.18, Steam Bypass Control System Operation?

A. 22.5%

B. 27.5%

C. 32.5%

D. 43.75%

Question 10 Given the following conditions on Unit 3:

The CRS has directed a manual Reactor trip.

The RO has depressed all four Reactor Trip Pushbuttons.

Reactor Trip Pushbuttons 3 and 4 failed to open their respective Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers (RTCBs).

What is the effect on the RTCBs given the listed conditions?

A. ONLY RTCBs 1, 2, 3, and 4 are open.

B. ONLY RTCBs 1, 2, 5, and 6 are open.

C. RTCBs 1, 2, 3, and 4 opened initially. RTCBs 5, 6, 7, and 8 opened due to the subsequent CPC aux trip.

D. RTCBs 1, 2, 5, and 6 opened initially. RTCBs 3, 4, 7, and 8 opened due to the subsequent CPC aux trip.

Question 11 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

The Reactor tripped due to an ESDE on S/G E-088 outside Containment.

S/G E-088 Pressure is 600 psia and lowering.

S/G E-089 Pressure is 810 psia and rising.

S/G E-088 Level is 55% WR and lowering.

S/G E-089 Level is 10% NR and rising.

Assuming NO operator action has been taken, what is the position of

1.

HV-4716, AFW Pump P-140 Turbine Stop Valve?

2.

HV-8204, S/G E-089 Main Steam Isolation Valve?

A. 1. Open

2. Open B. 1. Open

2. Closed C. 1. Closed

2. Open D. 1. Closed

2. Closed

Question 12 Given the following conditions:

A loss of Normal Containment Cooling is in progress.

Containment temperature and pressure are slowly rising.

How does a rise in Containment temperature and pressure affect indicated Pressurizer level?

Pressurizer level will indicate...

A. less than actual level due to the rise in Containment pressure.

B. greater than actual level due to the rise in Containment pressure.

C. less than actual level due to the rise in Containment temperature.

D. greater than actual level due to the rise in Containment temperature.

Question 13 What is the primary source of cooling water to the Containment Spray Pump motors?

A. Nuclear Service Water System.

B. Component Cooling Water Critical Loop.

C. Component Cooling Water Non-Critical Loop.

D. Recirculation Flow from the discharge of the Containment Spray Pump.

Question 14 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 has been operating at 95% power for 7 days.

Steam Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump (AFW) P-140 is started for maintenance to perform a packing adjustment.

Which ONE of the following describes the automatic plant response to this evolution?

A. The rise in steam demand will lower RCS Tc causing a slight power rise.

B. Main Feed Pump speed will lower due to the additional feedwater being supplied from AFW P-140.

C. The injection of colder feedwater to the S/Gs will cause RCS Tc to lower resulting in a slight power rise.

D. Main Turbine Governor Valves will throttle open slightly to compensate for the steam being diverted to AFW P-140.

Question 15 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 is operating at 100% power.

Condensate Pump P-053 is out of service for maintenance.

Heater Drain Pump P-058 suddenly trips.

Which ONE of the following correctly states the automatic plant response and the effect on S/G levels?

A. Both MFW Pumps will trip on Lo Suction Pressure, the Reactor will trip on Low S/G Level, Reactor Trip Override will control AFW flow to maintain S/G levels between 21 and 26%

NR.

B. Both S/G levels will initially lower, both MFW Pumps speed will rise to restore S/G levels to the FWCS Master Controller setpoint of 68%, the MFW Pumps will remain operating at the new higher speed.

C. Both MFW Pumps will trip on Lo Suction Pressure, the Reactor will trip on Low S/G Level, Emergency Feed Actuation System will actuate and maintain S/G levels on the cycling relays between 21 and 26% NR.

D. Both S/G levels will initially lower, both Feedwater Regulating Valves will modulate open to restore S/G levels to the FWCS Master Controller setpoint of 68%, the Feedwater Regulating Valves will remain at the more open position.

Question 16 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 has just tripped from 100% power.

Following Step 2 of SPTAs, the RO noticed that S/G E-089 Feedwater Control Valve, FV-1111, failed to 70% open.

Which ONE of the following describes the automatic plant response to this failure and what action will the RO take to mitigate this failure per OSM-14, Operations Department Expectations?

1. S/G E-089 level will...

2. The RO will close S/G E-089 A. 1. rise until the S/G is full.

2. Main Feedwater Block Valve, HV-4051.

B. 1. rise until the S/G is full.

2. Main Feedwater Isolation Valve, HV-4052.

C. 1. rise to 68% NR and stabilize.

2. Main Feedwater Block Valve, HV-4051.

D. 1. rise to 68% NR and stabilize.

2. Main Feedwater Isolation Valve, HV-4052.

Question 17 Given the following conditions:

An electrical fault has caused AFW Pump P-140 Woodward 505 Turbine Controller to deenergize.

Subsequently, AFW Pump P-140 received an auto-start signal.

The failure of the Woodward 505 Turbine Controller will cause A. HV-4716, P-140 Turbine Stop Valve, to fail in the fully open position. P-140 will trip on overspeed.

B. SV-4700, P-140 Turbine Governor Valve, to fail in the fully open position. P-140 will trip on overspeed.

C. HV-4716, P-140 Turbine Stop Valve, to fail in the fully closed position. P-140 will only operate in Local-Manual control.

D. SV-4700, P-140 Turbine Governor Valve, to fail in the fully closed position. P-140 will only operate in Local-Manual control.

Question 18 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 was operating at 100% Reactor power when the Reactor tripped due to a Loss of Offsite Power.

The 22 is preparing to parallel Train A EDG, 2G002, with the grid following a restoration of off-site power.

2G002 is supplying 1E 4kV Bus 2A04 in isochronous and loaded to 40% capacity.

2G002 voltage is slightly higher than grid voltage.

The synchroscope is rotating slowly in the counter-clockwise direction.

1. How would 2G002 speed need to be adjusted to make the parallel, per SO23-2-13, Diesel Generator Operation?

2. What is the impact on 2G002 loading if the parallel is made with 2G002 voltage higher than grid voltage?

A. 1. 2G002 speed needs to be lowered.

2. KVAR loading on 2G002 will rise.

B. 1. 2G002 speed needs to be lowered.

2. KW loading on 2G002 will rise.

C. 1. 2G002 speed needs to be raised.

2. KVAR loading on 2G002 will rise.

D. 1. 2G002 speed needs to be raised.

2.

KW loading on 2G002 will rise.

Question 19 Which ONE of the following describes an immediate effect on Train A Emergency Diesel Generator 2G002 upon a loss of 1E 480V Loadcenter 2B24?

A loss of A.

power to Train A EDG Control Panel L-160.

B.

control power to Train A EDG 2G002 Output Breaker.

C.

power to Train A EDG Air Compressors C012A and C012B.

D.

power to Train A EDG AC Lube Oil Circulating Pumps P-996 and P-997.

Question 20 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 100% Reactor power.

Annunciator window 63A37, 2D5 125 VDC Bus Trouble, actuated 1 minute ago.

2D5 voltage is 115 VDC and lowering.

If 2D5 voltage lowers to less than 107 VDC, what will be the impact to Non-1E Instrument Bus #2, 2Q0612?

A. 2Q0612 will de-energize until it is manually transferred to 1E 480V Motor Control Center BRB.

B. Inverter Y005 static switch will automatically realign 2Q0612 to 1E 480V Motor Control Center BRB. 2Q0612 will remain energized.

C. 2Q0612 will de-energize until it is manually transferred to Non-1E 120 VAC Distribution Panel, 2Q069.

D. Inverter Y005 static switch will automatically realign 2Q0612 to Non-1E 120 VAC Distribution Panel, 2Q069. 2Q0612 will remain energized.

Question 21 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 was tripped due to a loss of coolant accident.

SIAS actuated 2 minutes following the trip.

5 minutes after the SIAS actuation, a loss of offsite power occurred.

Which ONE of the following describes the impact of the loss of offsite power in this situation?

After the Emergency Diesel Generators (EDGs) start and load onto their respective 1E 4kV buses, all SIAS actuated equipment A. will automatically restart in a sequential manner to ensure the EDGs will not trip on loss of generator excitation.

B. must be manually restarted one component at a time to ensure the EDGs will not trip on loss of generator excitation.

C. will automatically restart in a sequential manner to prevent overloading the Diesel Generator when it re-energizes the bus.

D. must be manually restarted one component at a time to prevent overloading the Diesel Generator when it re-energizes the bus.

Question 22 Given the following conditions on Unit 3 at full power:

Train A CCW/SWC is in service with the Letdown HX and Non-Critical Loops aligned.

The 32 notices Train A Surge Tank level is rising at a rate of 0.75 gpm.

Annunciator window 61A09, U2 & COMMON INSTRUMENT FAILURE, has just gone into alarm.

3RE-7819, CCW Non-Critical Loop Radiation Monitor is in alarm on the Data Acquisition System (DAS).

Based on the listed conditions, which of the following AOI entry conditions are met?

1. SO23-13-7, Loss of CCW/SWC.

2. SO23-13-14, Reactor Coolant Leak.

3. SO23-13-11, Inadvertent Dilution or Boration.

A. 1 and 2 only.

B. 1 and 3 only.

C. 2 and 3 only.

D. 1, 2 and 3.

Question 23 Which ONE (1) of the following describes the operation of the Train A Saltwater Cooling Heat Exchanger Outlet Valve, HV-6497?

HV-6497 ____(1)____ when Saltwater Cooling Pump P-307 is auto started and ____(2)____ when SWC Pump P-307 is stopped.

A. 1. will automatically open

2. will automatically close B. 1. will automatically open

2. must be manually closed C. 1. must be manually opened

2. will automatically close D. 1. must be manually opened

2. must be manually closed

Question 24 Which ONE of the following is a function of the Saltwater Cooling System?

A. To transfer heat removed from various turbine plant components to the Circulating Water System.

B. To remove heat directly from Reactor Auxiliary Systems carrying radioactive or potentially radioactive fluids.

C. To remove heat from air conditioning cooling coils which are in service during normal plant operation.

D. To transfer heat from the Component Cooling Water System to the ultimate heat sink during normal power generation, startup, shutdown and cooldown.

Question 25 Which ONE of the following components located inside containment uses Instrument Air as its motive force?

A. Pressurizer Spray Valve, PV-0100A B. Safety Injection Tank Outlet Valve, HV-9340 C. Letdown Heat Exchanger Outlet Valve, HV-9267 D. Containment Emergency Sump Outlet Valve, HV-9304

Question 26 Instrument Air Compressors are in the following alignment:

C001 is set for lead

C002 is set for lag 1

C003 is set for lag 2 Instrument Air header pressure has lowered to 89 psig and has stabilized.

What is the status of the Instrument Air Compressors?

A. All Air Compressors are running at 100% load.

B. C001 and C002 are running at 100% load, C003 is unloaded.

C. C001 and C002 are running at 100% load, C003 is running at 50% load.

D. C001 is running at 100% load, C002 is running at 50% load, C003 is unloaded.

Question 27 When set points are reached, which of the following will initiate an automatic Containment Isolation Actuation Signal?

A. ONLY wide range Containment Pressure transmitters PT-0352-1, -2, -3, -4.

B. ONLY narrow range Containment Pressure transmitters PT-0351-1, -2, -3, -4.

C. Wide range Containment Pressure transmitters PT-0352-1, -2, -3, -4, OR Containment Airborne Radiation Monitors RE-7804/7807.

D. Narrow range Containment Pressure transmitters PT-0351-1, -2, -3, -4, OR Containment Airborne Radiation Monitors RE-7804/7807.

Question 28 Given the following conditions while preparing to perform an Emergency Containment Entry:

Containment pressure is 3.2 psig.

Containment average temperature is 125°F.

Containment nitrogen concentration is 82%.

Containment oxygen concentration is 17%.

Which ONE (1) of the following:

1. Identifies the impact on performing an Emergency Containment entry?

2. What action should be taken given the conditions listed?

A. 1. An Emergency Containment entry CAN be performed.

2. Reduce Containment temperature by placing Containment Emergency Cooling Units in service per SO23-1-4.1, Containment Emergency Cooling.

B. 1. An Emergency Containment entry CANNOT be performed.

2. Reduce Containment pressure to less than 3 psig per SO23-1-4.2, Containment Purge and Recirculation Filtration System, Attachment 6, Operation of the Containment Mini-Purge System.

C. 1. An Emergency Containment entry CAN be performed.

2. Don a Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus per SO23-3-2.34, Containment Access Control, with oxygen level less than or equal to 19.5%.

D. 1. An Emergency Containment entry CANNOT be performed.

2. Reduce Containment nitrogen concentration to 80% by purging one volume from Containment per SO23-3-2.34, Containment Access Control.

Question 29 Upon receipt of a high radiation alarm:

1. Containment Airborne Radiation Monitor RE-7804 will

2. Containment Purge Stack Radiation Monitor RE-7828 will A. 1. initiate a Containment Purge Isolation Signal.

2. initiate a Containment Purge Isolation Signal.

B. 1. initiate a Containment Purge Isolation Signal.

2. close ONLY the four outside Containment Purge Isolation Valves.

C. 1. close ONLY the four outside Containment Purge Isolation Valves.

2. initiate a Containment Purge Isolation Signal.

D. 1. close ONLY the four outside Containment Purge Isolation Valves.

2. close ONLY the four outside Containment Purge Isolation Valves.

Question 30 Given the following initial conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 100% Reactor power.

All Charging Pumps are in AUTO.

The Backup Charging Pumps Selector switch is in the P-192 / P-190 position.

Pressurizer Lo-Lo Level Heater Cutout Channel Selector is in the X and Y position.

Pressurizer Level Control is selected to Channel X.

Pressurizer Level transmitter, LT-0110-1, has failed as-is.

Subsequently, the Reactor tripped. Current plant conditions are as follows:

Actual Pressurizer level is 15% and slowly lowering.

Both S/G levels are 17% NR and slowly rising.

With NO operator action, what is the expected status of Pressurizer Heaters and Charging Pumps?

A. All Pressurizer heaters are OFF. ONLY Charging Pump P-191 is running.

B. All Pressurizer heaters are OFF. Charging Pumps P-190, P-191 and P-192 are running.

C. ONLY Channel X 1E Pressurizer heater is ON. ONLY Charging Pump P-191 is running.

D. ONLY Channel X 1E Pressurizer heater is ON. Charging Pumps P-190, P-191 and P-192 are running.

Question 31 Given the following conditions:

Group 6 CEAs are being withdrawn during a power ascension on Unit 3.

A Core Element Assembly Calculator (CEAC) has just detected CEA #20 is 5 inches lower than the other Group 6 CEAs.

All Group 6 CEAs are moveable.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect of this misalignment?

A CEA Withdrawal Prohibit (CWP) signal will be generated by the A. Core Protection Calculators. CEA # 20 CAN be realigned with its group in Manual Individual.

B. Core Protection Calculators. CEA # 20 can NOT be withdrawn due to the CWP signal.

C. Core Operating Limit Supervisory System. CEA # 20 CAN be realigned with its group in Manual Individual.

D. Core Operating Limit Supervisory System. CEA # 20 can NOT be withdrawn due to the CWP signal.

Question 32 As criticality is approached during a reactor startup, successive equal positive reactivity insertions result in a ____(1)____ change in equilibrium count rate and a ____(2)____ time to reach each new equilibrium condition.

A. 1. larger

2. longer B. 1. larger

2. shorter C. 1. smaller

2. longer D. 1. smaller

2. shorter

Question 33 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 was operating at 45% Reactor power when an Operating Basis Earthquake occurred.

Shutdown Bank A CEA # 2 and Part-Length CEA # 30 slipped 15 into the core and became mechanically bound at that position.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected plant response and what actions will the crew take in response to the misaligned CEAs?

The Reactor will A. AUTOMATICALLY trip. Initiate SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions and commence an emergency boration.

B. AUTOMATICALLY trip. Initiate SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions. Emergency boration is NOT required.

C. NOT automatically trip. Manually trip the Reactor, initiate SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions and commence an emergency boration.

D. NOT automatically trip. Manually trip the Reactor and initiate SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions. Emergency boration is NOT required.

Question 34 An operator has manually initiated a Train A Fuel Handling Isolation Signal due to a leak in the Spent Fuel Pool.

1. Radiation levels in the Fuel Handling Building will be monitored by

2. Airborne activity levels will be monitored by A. 1. Train B Fuel Handling Building Airborne Radiation Monitor, RE-7823.

2. local air samples.

B. 1. Fuel Handling Building Spent Fuel Cask Area Radiation Monitor, RE-7850.

2. local air samples.

C. 1. Train B Fuel Handling Building Airborne Radiation Monitor, RE-7823.

2. Fuel Handling Building Spent Fuel Cask Area Radiation Monitor, RE-7850.

D. 1. Fuel Handling Building Spent Fuel Cask Area Radiation Monitor, RE-7850.

2. Train B Fuel Handling Building Airborne Radiation Monitor, RE-7823.

Question 35 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 100% Reactor power.

S/G E-088 Steam Pressure Input to Steam Bypass Control System (SBCS) pressure transmitter, PT-8239, fails high.

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the impact to the SBCS system?

A. Permissive signals will be in on ALL four SBCS valves.

B. Permissive signals will be in on ONLY two SCBS valves.

C. An open signal will be received on ALL four SBCS valves.

D. An open signal will be received on ONLY two SBCS valves.

Question 36 Unit 3 was operating at 100% Reactor power when the following events occurred:

The Main Turbine inadvertently tripped.

The Loss of Load circuitry failed to actuate.

Which ONE of the following describes the automatic response of RCS temperature and pressure to this transient?

RCS temperature and pressure will initially rise until A. SBCS valves Quick Open and restore RCS temperature and pressure to NOT/NOP. The Reactor will NOT trip.

B. the High Pressurizer Pressure Trip trips the Reactor on high pressure at 2375 psia.

C. the Diverse Scram System trips the Reactor on high Pressurizer pressure at 2428 psia.

D. Pressurizer Code Safety Valves open to lower RCS temperature and pressure at 2500 psia.

Question 37 Given the following conditions on Unit 2 at 100% power:

A Liquid Release to the Unit 2 Circulating Water Outfall was in progress from T-057, Radwaste Secondary Tank, when a loss of offsite power occurred.

Which of the following correctly describes the impact to the Liquid Release following the loss of offsite power?

Liquid Release flowrate will be A. flowing at a higher rate due to the loss of Circulating Water System backpressure.

B. terminated due to isolation on loss of the Circulating Water Pumps running interlock.

C. flowing at a lower rate by gravity drain due to loss of the Radwaste Secondary Tank Pumps.

D. flowing at same flowrate due to the release equipment being unaffected by the loss of power.

Question 38 Which of the following correctly states the power supplies for Unit 3 Train A Saltwater Cooling Pumps P-112 and P-307?

P-112 P-307 A. 3A04 3A04 B. 3A04 2A04 C. 3B04 3B04 D. 3B04 2B04

Question 39 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 Reactor tripped 10 minutes ago from 100% power.

SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions, steps 1 through 10 have been completed.

The CRS has just diagnosed SO23-12-2, Reactor Trip Recovery, as the optimal EOI.

SO23-12-1, steps 12-17 have NOT yet been initiated.

At this time, what are the expected setpoints on:

1. Pressurizer Level Controller, LIC-0110?

2. FWCS Master Controller, FIC-1121?

A. 1. 38%

2. 55%

B. 1. 38%

2. 68%

C. 1. 53%

2. 55%

D. 1. 53%

2. 68%

Question 40 Which type of device actuates annunciator 57B17, PZR RELIEF VALVE OPEN?

A. Thermocouple.

B. Acoustic Monitor.

C. Pressure detector.

D. Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD).

Question 41 Given the following conditions:

A small break LOCA is in progress.

Safety Injection Actuation Signal has actuated.

Which ONE of the following is the basis for maintaining a secondary heat sink?

A. To minimize boron stratification of the RCS.

B. Cooling from the break flow alone is inadequate to remove decay heat.

C. Minimize potential for PTS during cooldown and depressurization phase.

D. Reflux boiling is the primary means of heat removal prior to voiding in the hot legs.

Question 42 Given the following conditions on Unit 3:

The Unit tripped from 70% Reactor power due to a large break LOCA.

Representative Core Exit Temperature is 350°F and slowly lowering.

Containment pressure is 20 psig and stable.

What is the maximum Pressurizer pressure at which Shutdown Cooling can be placed in service per SO23-12-3, Loss of Coolant Accident?

A. 380 psia.

B. 360 psia.

C. 340 psia.

D. 320 psia.

Question 43 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

The Unit is operating at 100% Reactor power.

RCP P003 tripped on overcurrent due to a shaft seizure.

Five minutes following the RCP malfunction, which ONE of the following describes the feedwater requirements to maintain levels in the steam generators?

A. Feedwater flow requirement for SG E-089 is lower than SG E-088 because there is significantly less heat input to SG E-089.

B. Feedwater flow requirement for SG E-088 is lower than SG E-089 because there is significantly less heat input to SG E-088.

C. SG E-089 and SG E-088 feedwater flow requirements are approximately the same because steam demand from each S/G remains balanced.

D. SG E-089 and SG E-088 feedwater flow requirements are approximately the same because RCP heat input is a small fraction of core decay heat.

Question 44 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 100% Reactor power.

The crew has just isolated the Charging pump discharge header due to a leak upstream of Charging Pump Discharge Header Isolation Valve, 2HV-9200.

An alternate charging path has NOT yet been aligned.

Which ONE of the following Technical Specification LCOs is applicable in this condition?

A. LCO 3.0.3 due to TWO Boric Acid Flowpaths being inoperable.

B. LCO 3.1.1, Shutdown Margin - Tavg > 200°F, due to ONE Boric Acid Flowpath being inoperable.

C. LCO 3.5.2, ECCS - Operating, due to BOTH Trains of Emergency Core Cooling being inoperable.

D. LCO 3.5.4, Refueling Water Storage Tank, due to the Refueling Water Storage Tank being inoperable.

Question 45 Given the following conditions on Unit 3:

Saltwater Cooling Pump 3P-112 tripped on overcurrent.

3P-307 is being aligned for service.

SO23-13-7, Loss of CCW/SWC, cautions, DO NOT close the DC Control Power for the SWC Pump to be started until the running CCW Pump has been stopped.

What is the basis for this caution?

A. An inadvertent dilution would occur due to changes in letdown temperature.

B. An inadvertent boration would occur due to changes in letdown temperature.

C. SWC Pump breaker failure during the SWC Pump auto start could result in severe injury or death.

D. Applying DC Control Power with a start signal locked in on the SWC Pump will cause control power fuses to blow.

Question 46 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 50% power during a power ascension.

Forcing Pressurizer Spray with two Spray Valves is in progress.

PIC-0100, Pressurizer Pressure Controller setpoint is 2225 PSIA.

Both Spray Valves are in AUTO.

Both Proportional Heaters and all Non-1E Backup Heaters are ON.

Both 1E Backup Heaters are OFF and in AUTO.

Pressurizer Pressure Control System is selected to Channel X.

Subsequently, Pressurizer Pressure Transmitter PT-0100X fails LOW.

With NO operator action, what is the status of the 1E Backup Heaters and Pressurizer Spray Valves one (1) minute later?

A. Both 1E Backup Heaters are OFF, both Pressurizer Spray Valves are OPEN.

B. Both 1E Backup Heaters are ON, both Pressurizer Spray Valves are CLOSED.

C. Train A 1E Backup Heater is ON, Train B 1E Backup Heater is OFF, both Pressurizer Spray Valves are CLOSED.

D. Both 1E Backup Heaters are OFF, Train A Pressurizer Spray Valve is CLOSED, Train B Pressurizer Spray Valve is OPEN.

Question 47 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 Reactor tripped from 100% Reactor power due to a Loss of Offsite Power.

Upon the Reactor trip, a Steam Generator Tube Rupture occurred on S/G E-089.

Pressurizer pressure is 1400 psia and stable.

Steam Generator E-089 has been isolated.

SO23-12-11, FS-3, Monitor Natural Circulation Established, is in progress.

SO23-12-11, Attachment 3, Cooldown and Depressurization, has just been initiated.

Per SO23-12-11, Attachment 3, which ONE of the following correctly describes the

1. initial RCS cooldown rate?

2. method of RCS depressurization?

A. 1. 35-40°F / hr.

2. Normal Pressurizer Spray.

B. 1. 70-95°F / hr.

2. Auxiliary Pressurizer Spray.

C. 1. 35-40°F / hr.

2. Auxiliary Pressurizer Spray.

D. 1. 70-95°F / hr.

2. Normal Pressurizer Spray.

Question 48 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

At 0200, Unit 2 tripped from 100% power.

At 0215, following the transition into SO23-12-2, Reactor Trip Recovery, an Excess Steam Demand Event occurred on S/G E-089.

At 0227, RCS Tc was stabilized by setting HV-8419, S/G E-088 Atmospheric Dump Valve, to 351 psia, in automatic control.

Assuming RCS Tc is maintained stable, what is the earliest time that the Technical Specification cooldown rate limit will be restored?

A. 0323 B. 0330 C. 0335 D. 0342

Question 49 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 has experienced a complete loss of Feedwater.

SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater, is in progress.

Steam Generators are being depressurized to facilitate feedwater restoration.

The CRS directs you to reset MSIS setpoint as controlled cooldown proceeds.

Per SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater, what is the reason for this direction?

To prevent A. isolating steam to AFW Pump P-140.

B. a loss of the Main Feedwater flowpath.

C. a loss of the Auxiliary Feedwater flowpath.

D. inadvertent closure of the Atmospheric Dump Valves.

Question 50 Given the following conditions:

A Station Blackout has occurred on Unit 2.

Unit 3 1E AC buses are being supplied by the Unit 3 Emergency Diesel Generators.

All 1E DC buses indicate 120 VDC and lowering.

All DC load reductions have been completed.

AC power restoration is not expected on Unit 2 for several hours.

SO23-12-8, Station Blackout, directs ____(1)____ when ALL 1E DC Buses voltages lower below a maximum of ____(2)____ VDC.

A. 1. cross-tying Unit 2 1E DC buses with Unit 3 1E DC buses

2. 108 B. 1. cross-tying Unit 2 1E DC buses with Unit 3 1E DC buses

2. 118 C. 1. transferring L411 EPPM Panel power to Portable Generator G005

2. 108 D. 1. transferring L411 EPPM Panel power to Portable Generator G005

2. 118

Question 51 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

The Reactor tripped 5 minutes ago from 100% power.

Emergency Feed Actuation Signal (EFAS) 1 and 2 automatically actuated four minutes ago.

One minute ago, a loss of off-site power occurred.

Train A EDG started and reenergized 1E 4kV bus 2A04.

S/G levels are both 24% NR and slowly lowering.

What is the expected response of Train A AFW Pump P-141?

Pump P-141 will A. start immediately due to the EFAS signal being locked in.

B. remain off until S/G E-089 level lowers to < 21% and then start immediately.

C. start after a 30-second time delay due to the EFAS signal being locked in.

D. remain off until S/G E-089 level lowers to < 21% and then start after a 30-second time delay.

Question 52 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 has experienced loss of Vital Bus Y01 due to a failed inverter.

Y01 is currently being manually transferred to its alternate source of power.

Which ONE of the following Control Room indications will return, giving the crew positive indication that Vital Bus Y01 has been transferred to its alternate source of power?

A. CRT Rod Position indication.

B. DC Bus D1 voltage indication.

C. Channel A lumigraphs on CR56.

D. Pressurizer Pressure controller PIC-0100.

Question 53 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 tripped from 100% Reactor power 5 minutes ago.

SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions are in progress.

All swing equipment is aligned to Train B.

CCW Pump P-025, SWC Pump P-114, and Charging Pump P-191 are running.

A complete loss of 1E 125 VDC Bus D2 has just occurred.

Which ONE of the following actions will require LOCAL operator action to complete?

A. Securing Charging Pump P-191 per SO23-13-18, Loss of a 1E DC Bus.

B. Operation of BOTH Atmospheric Dump Valves per SO23-13-18, Loss of a 1E DC Bus.

C. Opening SWC Pump P-114 Discharge Valve, HV-6203, per SO23-13-7, Loss of CCW/SWC.

D. Transferring the non-critical CCW loop from Train B to Train A per SO23-13-7, Loss of CCW/SWC.

Question 54 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

Unit 2 tripped 5 minutes ago due to a large break LOCA.

Safety Injection (SIAS) and Containment Cooling Actuation Signals (CCAS) have both actuated.

All swing pumps are aligned to Train A.

Train A CCW/SWC was in service prior to the trip.

Train B CCW/SWC was in standby.

Train B SWC Pump 2P-114 failed to auto start on the ESFAS actuations.

Which ONE of the following describes the automatic plant response to SWC Pump 2P-114 failing to start on the ESFAS actuations, and what is the reason for this response?

A. CCW Pump 2P-026 will start, however Train B Emergency Cooling Units WILL NOT start due to the failure of SWC Pump 2P-114 to start.

B. CCW Pump 2P-026 and Train B Emergency Cooling Units will start due to SWC Pump 2P-114 having no effect on their starting circuitry.

C. CCW Pump 2P-026 will not start due to the failure of SWC Pump 2P-114 to start, Train B Emergency Cooling Units will not start due to the CCW Pump 2P-026 not starting.

D. CCW Pump 2P-026 will not start due to the failure of SWC Pump 2P-114 to start, Train B Emergency Cooling Units will start but Containment cooling will be degraded due to the loss of heat sink.

Question 55 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 is in MODE 3 during a MOC startup

Auxiliary Feedwater Bypass Control Valves 3HV-4762 and 3HV-4763 are 20% open.

Steam Bypass Control Valves 3HV-8423 and 3HV-8425 are 10% open.

Subsequently, a complete loss of Instrument Air occurs.

The AFW Bypass Control Valves will fail ___(1)___ and the Steam Bypass Control Valves will fail

___(2)___.

A. 1. as-is

2. as-is B. 1. as-is

2. closed C. 1. closed

2. as-is D. 1. closed

2. closed

Question 56 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 95% Reactor power.

Grid frequency has just risen to 60.5 Hz.

Turbine DCS is selected to frequency loop.

Which ONE of the following describes the Turbine DCS response, if any, to the elevated grid frequency?

HP Governor valves will A. remain in their current position.

B. throttle closed to maintain Turbine speed at 1800 rpm.

C. receive a close signal from the Overspeed Protection Circuitry.

D. throttle open to raise Main Turbine speed to match grid frequency.

Question 57 Given the following Middle-of-Cycle (MOC) conditions:

The Reactor was critical at 2x10-3% power when a CEDMCS malfunction caused a 10 second continuous withdrawal of Group 6 CEAs to occur.

The CEA withdrawal was terminated by placing the CEDMCS Selector Switch in OFF.

The Steam Bypass Control System (SBCS) is in AUTO.

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the automatic Reactor response?

Reactor power will...

A. rise and stabilize above the Point of Adding Heat.

B. rise to the point of tripping on High Logarithmic Power.

C. remain constant and Reactor Coolant System temperature will rise.

D. rise until the point of adding heat and then lower to some point below the Point of Adding Heat.

Question 58 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 was operating at 100% Reactor power when a Shutdown Bank CEA slipped 30 into the core.

All efforts to withdraw the slipped CEA were unsuccessful.

SO23-13-13, Misaligned or Immovable Control Element Assembly, directs lowering Reactor power in accordance with the Core Operating Limits Report.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason for lowering Reactor power in this condition?

A. To compensate for increased Radial Power Peaking in the core.

B. To ensure RCS temperature remains above the Technical Specification limit.

C. To compensate for the reduction in Shutdown Margin from the misaligned CEA.

D. To ensure the License Power Limit is not exceeded when Xenon burns out following the CEA drop.

Question 59 Given the following EOC conditions:

Unit 2 is operating at 100% Reactor power.

RCS Boron Concentration is 90 ppm.

Main Condenser backpressure has degraded to 7.8 Hg and stabilized.

Which ONE of the following describes the optimal mitigating action to be taken in this situation?

A. Immediately trip the Reactor and enter SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions.

B.

Attempt to restore Condenser vacuum by performing a rapid power reduction using the Main Turbine and CEAs ONLY.

C. Attempt to restore Condenser vacuum by performing a rapid power reduction using the Main Turbine and boron ONLY.

D.

Attempt to restore Condenser vacuum by performing a rapid power reduction using the Main Turbine, CEAs, and boron.

Question 60 A liquid release of Secondary Radwaste Tank T-057 is in progress.

Per SO23-8-7, Liquid Radioactive Waste Release Operations, why is it necessary to maintain the process flowrate greater than 60 gpm?

A. The minimum sensitivity of radiation monitor, RE-7813, requires greater than 60 gpm sample flow.

B. Maintaining a flowrate of > 60 gpm minimizes localized hot spots in Radwaste discharge piping.

C. Less than 60 gpm flowrate will not maintain the Marineli Canister around the radiation detector full of sample fluid.

D. To ensure > 2 gpm sample flow through RE-7813, preventing Liquid Radwaste Discharge Valves HV-7641 and HV-7642 from tripping closed on low flow.

Question 61 Which ONE of the following evolutions can be performed from the Evacuation Shutdown Panel, L-042?

A. Start and stop Charging Pumps.

B. Start an Emergency Diesel Generator.

C. Initiate feed flow to a Steam Generator.

D. Close Safety Injection Tank outlet valves.

Question 62 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 tripped 10 seconds ago from 100% Reactor power due to lowering RCS pressure.

Pressurizer level is 5% and lowering rapidly.

RCS pressure is 1575 psia and lowering rapidly.

In this condition, SO23-12-3, Loss of Coolant Accident, directs the operator to ensure SIAS has actuated.

Which ONE of the following describes the primary reason for this direction?

A. To provide adequate core Shutdown Margin during the RCS depressurization.

B. To provide adequate RCS subcooling during and after initial RCS depressurization.

C. To restore RCS pressure control by refilling the Pressurizer during depressurization.

D. To restore RCS inventory control when RCS pressure lowers below HPSI pump shut off head.

Question 63 Given the following conditions:

Unit is operating normally at 100% power.

NO radioactive releases are in progress.

Secondary Radwaste Tank T-057 has developed a large leak at the tank outlet flange.

Which ONE of the following radiation monitors will be the first to indicate a high activity?

A. Liquid Waste Discharge Monitor RE-7813.

B. Plant Vent Stack Range Monitor RE-7808.

C. BPS Neutralization Sump Monitor RE-7817.

D. Containment Purge Stack Monitor RE-7828.

Question 64 Following a steam line rupture inside Containment, SO23-12-5, Excess Steam Demand Event, directs the operator to stabilize RCS temperature using the Atmospheric Dump Valve on the unaffected Steam Generator, once dryout has occurred on the affected Steam Generator.

What is the reason for stabilizing RCS temperature?

A. Ensure minimum RCS Subcooled Margin is maintained.

B. Promote initial development of Natural Circulation flow through the core.

C. Prevent the RCS cooldown rate from exceeding Technical Specification limits.

D. Limit RCS heatup, which may result in Pressurized Thermal Shock conditions.

Question 65 Given the following conditions:

Unit 3 tripped from 100% power 20 minutes ago.

Standard Post Trip Actions have been completed and SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater has been entered.

RCS temperature is 545°F and stable.

RCS pressure is 2050 psia and slowly lowering.

Both S/G pressures are 1000 psia and stable.

S/G E-089 level is 60% WR and slowly lowering.

S/G E-088 level is 5% NR and slowly rising.

Feedwater flow has NOT been established.

Annunciator window 60A46, Secondary Radiation Hi, has just gone into alarm.

The STA has determined the Containment Isolation Safety Function has failed.

How do the current conditions impact the mitigation strategy of the crew?

The crew will A. exit SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater, and enter SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery.

B. initiate SO23-12-4, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, in conjunction with SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater.

C. initiate SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, in conjunction with SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater.

D. continue in SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater, due to RCS Heat Removal being a higher safety function than Containment Isolation.

Question 66 Given the following conditions:

Both Units are operating at 100% Reactor power.

Both Units are manned to minimum Appendix R levels.

There are 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months remaining on the shift.

The Unit 2 CRS is Shift Manager qualified.

The STA does NOT have an SRO license.

The Shift Manager receives a message about a family emergency at home and wants to leave the site immediately.

Which ONE of the following describes the required actions to maintain Minimum Operations Shift Crew Composition requirements, per SO123-0-A1, Conduct of Operations?

A. The Shift Manager may NOT leave the Protected Area until another Shift Manager has been recalled and is within the Protected Area.

B. The Shift Manager can leave immediately if the Unit 2 CRS concurrently performs CRS and Shift Manager duties for the remainder of the shift.

C. The Shift Manager may leave the Protected Area immediately if the Unit 2 CRS assumes Shift Manager duties, however a replacement CRS must be recalled and be within the Protected Area within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months .

D. The Unit 2 CRS may assume the Shift Manager duties immediately, however the Shift Manager may NOT leave the Protected Area until a replacement CRS has been recalled and is within the Protected Area.

Question 67 Given the following post-LOCA Qualified Safety Parameter Display System (QSPDS) indications on Unit 3:

The temperature difference between Heated and Unheated Junction Thermocouples 1 through 6 are all approximately 225°F.

The temperature difference between Heated and Unheated Junction Thermocouples 7 and 8 are both approximately 60°F.

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the inventory conditions in the Unit 3 Reactor Head and Plenum regions?

A. The Head is partially full and the Plenum is completely full.

B. The Head is completely empty and the Plenum is partially full.

C. The Head is completely empty and the Plenum is completely full.

D. The Head is completely empty and the Plenum is completely empty.

Question 68 When a fire is reported, who normally reports to the Fire Department Staging Area as the Fire Department's Technical Advisor, as stated in SO123-0-A2, Operations Division Personnel Responsibilities?

A. Control Room Supervisor.

B. Unit Control Board Operator.

C. Work Process Control Operator.

D. Nuclear Plant Equipment Operator.

Question 69 A Unit shutdown is in progress, with Reactor power at 20%. In this condition, what is the minimum Tcold allowed by Technical Specifications?

A. 495°F B. 522°F C. 535°F D. 543°F

Question 70 A suction valve has been discovered closed, for no apparent reason, on Unit 2 Charging Pump, 2P-191, by the Radwaste Operator on his rounds.

Which ONE of the following is required to be performed as a result of this misalignment per SO123 A4, Configuration Control?

A. Partial alignment verifications on Charging pumps 2P-191 & 3P-191 only.

B. Full alignment verification on the Unit 2 Charging and Letdown system only.

C. Full alignment verifications on the Units 2 and 3 Charging and Letdown system.

D. Partial alignment verifications on Charging pumps 2P-190, 2P-191, 2P-192 and 3P-191.

Question 71 An overload condition has occurred on Reserve Auxiliary Transformer 2XR1.

Per Drawing 30103, which ONE of the following lists an automatic function initiated by operation of Overcurrent Relay, 451-1?

Relay 451-1 will trip Reserve Auxiliary Transformer ___(1)___ circuit breakers and initiate Digital Fault Recorder Channel ___(2)___.

A. 1. 480V

2. 22 B. 1. 480V

2. 23 C. 1. 4.16kV

2. 22 D. 1. 4.16kV

2. 23

Question 72 Given the following conditions:

Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a Steam Generator tube rupture occurred on S/G E-089.

Unit 2 Reactor was tripped and SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions, has been completed.

SO23-12-4, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, is in progress.

S/G E-089 has been isolated.

S/G E-089 level is 75% NR and slowly rising.

Which ONE of the following describes the preferred method of continuing the cooldown to MODE 5?

A. Dump steam to the condenser from S/G E-088 ONLY in order to minimize radiological releases.

B. Dump steam through S/G E-088 ADV ONLY in order to minimize contamination of the condensate and feedwater systems.

C. Dump steam to the condenser from S/G E-088 and E-089 to minimize radiological releases and prevent overfilling S/G E-089.

D. Dump steam through S/G E-088 and E-089 ADVs to minimize contamination of the condensate and feedwater systems and prevent overfilling S/G E-089.

Question 73 An operator is performing a valve lineup which requires entry into an area with a general area radiation level of 1250 mr/hr and a loose contamination level of 50,000 dpm/100cm2 beta/gamma.

Based on the listed conditions, how will the area be posted?

A. A High Radiation and a Contaminated Area.

B. A High Radiation and a High Contamination Area.

C. A Locked High Radiation Area and a Contaminated Area.

D. A Locked High Radiation Area and a High Contamination Area.

Question 74 How are lumigraphs in the Control Room marked to indicate that they are Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation?

The lumigraph label has A. a red stripe.

B. a yellow stripe.

C. PAMI inscribed on it.

D. QSPDS inscribed on it.

Question 75 Given the following conditions:

Both Units 2 & 3 reactors have been tripped.

The Control Room is being evacuated due to dense smoke.

Which ONE of the following correctly identifies the order in which the "IMMEDIATE ACTIONS" are to be completed, per SO23-13-2, Shutdown From Outside the Control Room?

A. 1. Manually initiate MSIS

2. Stop all Charging Pumps and remove from AUTO

3. Stop all RCPs B. 1. Manually initiate MSIS

2. Stop all Charging Pumps and ensure in AUTO

3. Stop all RCPs C. 1. Stop all RCPs

2. Stop all Charging Pumps and remove from AUTO

3. Manually initiate MSIS D. 1. Stop all RCPs

2. Stop all Charging Pumps and ensure in AUTO

3. Manually initiate MSIS

SONGS 2012 NRC Senior Reactor Operator Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Date: 10/25/2012 Facility/Unit: SONGS 2/3 Region:

I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time:

Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items if given in conjunction with the RO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require a final grade of 80.00 percent to pass. You have 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months to complete the combined examination, and 3 hours3.472222e-5 days 8.333333e-4 hours 4.960317e-6 weeks 1.1415e-6 months if you are only taking the SRO portion.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results RO/SRO/Total Examination Values 75 / 25 / 100 Points Applicants Scores

/ / Points Applicants Grade

/ / Percent

Question 1 In accordance with SO23-3-1.7, Reactor Coolant Pump Operations, what is the lowest Mode of Operation in which the 4th RCP may be started?

A. Mode 2 B. Mode 3 C. Mode 4 D. Mode 5

Question 2 Ion Exchanger Bypass Valve, TV-0224B, is in AUTO / ION EXCHANGE.

1. What is the lowest letdown temperature at which TV-0224B will automatically bypass the Ion Exchangers?

2. What is the highest letdown temperature at which TV-0224B will automatically realign to the Ion Exchange position?

A. 1. 140°F

2. 115°F B. 1. 140°F

2. 138°F C. 1. 150°F

2. 115°F D. 1. 150°F

2. 138°F

Question 3 Which ONE of the following correctly states the power supplies for Unit 2 LPSI Pumps P-015 and P-016?

P-015 P-016 A. 2A04 2A04 B. 2A04 2A06 C. 2A06 2A04 D. 2A06 2B06

Question 4 Given the following conditions:

A Unit 2 shutdown was in progress from 100% power.

During the shutdown, a Reactor trip occurred due to a Loss of Coolant Accident concurrent with a Loss of Offsite Power.

The following plant conditions exist:

Emergency Diesel Generators are operating normally.

RCS Tcold is 537°F and slowly lowering.

RCS Thot is 540°F and slowly lowering.

Pressurizer Pressure 1100 psia and stable.

Pressurizer Level 32% and slowly rising.

Reactor Vessel Head Level indicates 2 voids.

Core Exit Temperatures are 548°F and slowly lowering.

Which ONE of the following parameters will NOT allow performance of HPSI Throttle/Stop?

A. Pressurizer Level.

B. RCS Temperature.

C. Subcooling Margin.

D. Reactor Vessel Head Level.

Question 5 Per SO23-3-1.11, Quench Tank Operations, which ONE of the following alignments is used to cool the Quench Tank?

The Quench Tank is...

A. drained to the Containment Sump and refilled with Primary Makeup Water.

B. vented to the Waste Gas System while the contents cool to ambient temperature.

C. drained to the Reactor Coolant Drain Tank and refilled with Primary Makeup Water.

D. vented and drained to the Radwaste Primary Tank using the Reactor Coolant Drain Tank Pumps.

Question 6 Quench Tank level is rising. Which ONE of the following annunciators would assist the operator in determining why this is occurring?

A. 56C46, RCP Intergasket Leakage.

B. 50A35, Reactor Vessel Seal Leakage.

C. 56B59, RCP Bleedoff Relief Valve Leaking.

D. 57B36, SIT Drain Line Relief Valve Leaking.

Question 7 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

Train A CCW/SWC is in service.

CCW Pump P-025 is aligned to Train A and running.

The Letdown Heat Exchanger and Non-Critical Loop are aligned to Train A.

Train A CCW Surge Tank T-003 level is being raised using 2HV-6273, T-003 Makeup Water Supply Valve.

T-003 level is 60% and rising when the RO responds to an unrelated annunciator.