ML090290239

Draft - RO & SRO Written Exam (Folder 2)

ML090290239
Person / Time
Site:	Calvert Cliffs
Issue date:	10/02/2008
From:	Calvert Cliffs
To:	Operations Branch I
Hansell S
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ML082600339	List: IR 05000317/2008302 ML082760115 ML083430602 ML083580024 ML090220477 ML090260359 ML090290231 ML090290235 ML090290239 ML090290246 ML090490182
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TAC U01779
Download: ML090290239 (121)

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1 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RQ NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51150 Points: 1.00 Which of the following alarms would provide the first indication of an Instrument Air header leak on Unit-I and what is the effect of the alarm?

A.

INSTR AIR COMPR(S);

Plant Air to Instrument Air Cross-Connect 1 -IA-2061 -CV has opened.

B.

INSTR AIR SYS MALFUNCTION; Standby Instrument Air Compressor has started.

C.

BACK-UP IA INITIATED; Instrument Air Header is being supplied from the B/U I/A Storage Tanks or the nitrogen system.

D.

CNTMT IA ISOL 1 -1A-2085-CV CLOSED; Containment Spray Header Isolation valves I-SI-4050 and 1 -SI-4051 open.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - This alarm is not indicative of a leak. It monitors Instrument Air compressor parameters. Plant Air to Instrument Air cross-connect CV opens at 88 PSIG.

B. Correct - This action occurs at 93 PSIG, so it would occur first.

C. Incorrect - This indicates the backup system is being placed in service automatically which occurs at 87PSIG.

D. Incorrect - This action occurs at an Instrument Air header pressure of 85 PSIG.

OPERATIONS Page: 1 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 I Question I Info Cognitive Level TierIGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

2.OQ 1 I1 2.9 43.5 I 45.1 3 APE: 065 Loss of Instrument Air AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Instrument Air:

AA2.01 Cause and effect of low-pressure instrument air alarm

-~

-~

Modified question None AOP-7D, 01-19, IC1 3-ARM -Windows K-25 & K-26 Q51150 KIA Match Analysis: This question implicitly tests the KIA by requiring the applicant to understand the causes and effects of a loss of instrument air in order to answer the question. The question tests backward logic but this is deemed to be acceptable. The question was modified in order to prevent using the same bank question used on previous exams.

LOR-02041 0301 -003 OPERATIONS Page: 2 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

2 2.00 1 /1 4.4 41.5/41.10/45.6/45.13 EPE: 009 Small Break LOCA EK3 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the small break LOCA:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q26519 Bank, new or modified?

lhich of the following is the basis for maintaining an upper sL,cooling margin during EOP-5 and what action should be taken if subcooling exceeds 140"F?

Bank Question EK3.26 Maintenance of RCS subcooling Points: 1.00 imit of 140°F References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Com ments :

A.

Prevents a pressurized thermal shock event occurrence; Increase steaming rate and maximize HPSl injection.

EOP-5 Basis Document (Rev. 23), Step J SRO-201-5-1-15 Q26519 B.

Ensures an adequate volume of subcooled liquid is available for decay heat removal; Increase steaming rate and maximize HPSl injection.

C.

Ensures an adequate volume of subcooled liquid is available for decay heat removal; Secure Pressurizer Heaters.

D.

Prevents a pressurized thermal shock event occurrence; Secure Pressurizer Heaters.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Not the basis for maintaining subcooled margin ~140°F as stated in the basis doc for EOP-5. Maintaining a higher value of subcooling would maximize RCS leakage. Increasing steaming rate and maximizing HPSl injection would raise su bcooling.

B. Incorrect - Not the basis for maintaining subcooled margin <140"F, but is the basis for maintaining Pressurizer level as stated in the basis doc for EOP-5. Increasing steaming rate and maximizing HPSI injection would raise subcooling.

C. Incorrect - Not the basis for maintaining subcooled margin c 140"F, but is the basis for maintaining Pressurizer level as stated in the basis doc for EOP-5. The volume of subcooled fluid does not have a direct correlation to the degree of subcooling.

D. Correct - As explained in Step 1V.J of the EOP-5 Basis Document, securing Pressurizer Heaters will lower RCS pressure, lowering subcooling.

3 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: a6867 Points: 1.00 When the RO reports to the CRS that he is MONITORING a safety function, what is the current condition of this safety function?

A.

Safety function parameters are within acceptance criteria but positive trends have NOT been established.

B.

Safety function parameters are NOT meeting the final acceptance criteria but are meeting the intermediate Safety Function Status Check acceptance criteria.

C.

Safety function parameters are NOT within their acceptance criteria and alternate actions have NOT been taken.

D.

Safety function parameters are meeting acceptance criteria after alternate actions were taken.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - as specified in NO-1 -201 B. Incorrect - In this case the RO should report "The safety function cannot be met because..."

C. Incorrect - In this case the RO should report "Taking alternate actions because..."

D. Incorrect - In this case the RO should report the safety function as "Complete".

OPERATIONS Page: 4 of 85 30 October 2008

4 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 425313 Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

0 0

RCS Pressure is 150 PSlA Pressurizer level is 0 inches Containment Pressure has stabilized at approximately 27 PSIG The SM has declared an Alert for loss of the RCS Barrier The RO observes a rapid unexplained drop in Containment pressure to approximately 0 PSIG.

Which of the following actions should the RO take?

A.

With concurrence of the CRS secure the operating Containment Spray Pumps.

B.

Notify the CRS that EOP-8 should be implemented.

C.

Notify the SM the Containment barrier has been lost and the ERPIP classification may be affected.

D.

Verify SIAS, CIS, and CSAS equipment operating per the EOP Attachments.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The Containment Spray Pumps should remain in operation until directed otherwise by the procedure.

B. Incorrect - A recommendation to implement EOP-8 would be incorrect because a single event is in progress.

C. Correct - This information is vital to the Shift Manager in ensuring the correct emergency actions are completed. Loss of a primary containment barrier meets EAL upgrade criteria.

D. Incorrect - These actions will be driven by EOP-5 not by a sudden change in Containment pressure. This information is vital to the Shift Manager in ensuring the correct emergency actions are completed and loss of a fission product barrier meets EAL upgrade criteria.

OPERATIONS Page: 5 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 4 tnfo Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

2.00 1 / I 4.2 41.5 I 43.5 I 45.1 2 EPE: 01 1 Large Break LOCA 2.2.44 Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.

I Bank Question None EOP-5, NO-I -200 Q25313 WA Match Analysis: The second part of the question is tested by the nexus between the Emergency Plan (directives) and system conditions. The applicant has to verify that system conditions are appropriate for the correct classification.

OPERATIONS Page: 6 of 85 30 October 2008

5 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q20393 Points: 1,oo A Unit-I plant cooldown is in progress with the following conditions:

Plant was shutdown 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br /> ago following an extended full power run Shutdown cooling is in service using I 1 LPSl pump RCS pressure is 120 PSIA with a bubble in the Pressurizer A component cooling leak has developed which has rendered both SDC heat exchangers unavailable 0

0 0

RCS temperature is 18OoF 0

0 Which of the following is the first option that should be taken to control RCS temperature?

A.

Allow RCS to heat up and then control RCS temperature by bleeding steam from the S/Gs.

B.

Verify RCS pressure is less than 170 PSIG and align a Containment Spray pump for Shutdown Cooling.

C.

Start a HPSl pump and open the PORVs to provide core cooling.

D.

Start a charging pump and reestablish letdown to provide core cooling.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Per AOP-35.

B. Incorrect - This alignment still relies on the SDC Heat Exchangers for heat removal.

C. Incorrect - This results in needless containment contamination when S/Gs are available.

D. Incorrect - These actions are not directed by the controlling procedure and 1 Charging pump may not provide sufficient flow for decay heat removal until 14 days after shutdown.

owing concepts as I Comments:

I I

OPERATIONS Page: 7 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 6

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 438715 Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

0 0

Unit-I is at 100% power when a loss of offsite power occurred Component Cooling Row was NOT able to be restored during EOP-0 The appropriate procedure has been implemented All Reactor Coolant Pump lower seal and Controlled Bleed-off temperatures indicate 180-190°F with the exception of 11A Reactor Coolant Pump, which has a lower seal temperature of 237°F Which one of the following actions should be taken regarding the Reactor Coolant Pumps?

A.

An engineering evaluation should be performed before restoring Component Cooling flow to the Reactor Coolant Pumps.

B.

Component Cooling flow should not be restored because the Reactor Coolant Pumps seals must be rebuilt.

C.

Component Cooling flow should be restored to the Reactor Coolant Pumps by opening CC-3832-CV.

D.

Component Cooling flow should be restored to the Reactor Coolant Pumps by throttling flow with CC-284.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - An engineering evaluation is not required. Method for re-establishment of Component Cooling flow to the RCPs is dependent on RCP Controlled Bleed-off temperature.

B. Incorrect - Seal rebuild is not required because Controlled Bleed-off temperature did not exceed 250°F.

C. Correct - Seal temp stayed below 280°F which allows the operator to restore Component Cooling flow by opening the Containment isolation valves.

D. Incorrect - Lower Seal temperatures did not exceed the criteria of > 280°F for restoration of Component Cooling by throttling a manual isolation valve.

ump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the OPERATIONS Page: 8 of 85 30 October 2008

7 Cognitive Level TierIGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo 1 / I 3.9 41.4/41.5/41.7141.10/45.

APE: 077 Generator Voltage and Electric Grid CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Corn ments:

References:

ID: Q50?30 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a major grid disturbance occurs.

Which of the following conditions would require a reactor trip?

11 Generator Frequency is currently 58.5 Hz.

Terminal voltage cannot be maintained less than 23 KV.

4 KV Bus voltages cannot be maintained less than 4.31 KV.

Grid disturbance causes frequency swings of plus or minus 2%.

A.

B.

C.

D.

AK2.06 Reactor power New Question None AOP-7M Q50730 Points: 1.00 Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct - Per AOP-7M.

Incorrect - Trip criteria is "Terminal Voltage cannot be maintained less than 26.5 KV" per AOP-7M, 23 KV is the trip limit for Unit-2.

Incorrect - T.S. limits are 4.19 KV to 4.31 KV. There are no specific reactor trip limits based on 4KV bus voltages. 4 KV vital bus feeders would be tripped at 3.71 KV per AOP-7M.

Incorrect - This condition requires notifying engineering and a 24 hour2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> report to DOEINERC. There are no trip criteria associated with this value.

I Question 7 Info Disturbances AK2. Knowledge of the interrelations between Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances and the following:

OPERATIONS Page: 9 of 85 30 October 2008

8 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RCI NRC Exam - 12/08 ID 440704 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following describes why an assessment of condensate inventory must be performed in EOP-7?

A.

The Technical Specification LCO for 12 CST level may need to be entered.

B.

Condensate inventory dictates how long a plant cooldown can be delayed.

C.

CST level is used to determine if the TBVs or ADVs will be used for cooldown D.

EAL classification depends on available AFW suction sources.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - While T.S. entry criteria may need to be considered the Scope & Basis document for EOP-7, Step IV.AB, states the basis for this assessment is to determine the need for a plant cooldown based on condensate inventory.

B. Correct - Per EOP-7 Scope & Basis document, Step IV.AB.

C. Incorrect - Per EOP-7 Scope & Basis document, Step IV.AB, assessment is to determine the need for a plant cooldown based on condensate inventory.

Information is provided, detailing m/u requirements for cooldown with TBVs or ADVs, based on availability. It is unlikely TBVs would be available in an EOP-7 situation.

D. Incorrect - There are no EAL classifications associated with the suction source for the AFW Pumps.

Question 8 Info Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Num ber:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

1 /1 4.3 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 EPE: 055 Loss of Offsite and Onsite Power (Station Blackout)

EK3 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the Station Blackout:

EK3.02 Actions contained in EOP for loss of offsite and onsite power Bank Question None ECIP-7.

LOR-02029041 4-006 Q40704 OPERATIONS Page: 10 of 85 30 October 2008

9 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RQ NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q5Oir70 Points: 1.00 Using provided reference(s):

How would the loss of one Component Cooling Heat Exchanger affect continued operation of the plant in Mode l ?

A.

The plant would be placed in hot standby within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

B.

C.

D.

The plant would be placed in hot standby within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

The plant would be placed in hot standby within 78 hours9.027778e-4 days <br />0.0217 hours <br />1.289683e-4 weeks <br />2.9679e-5 months <br />.

Continued operation is permitted as the Component Cooling Heat Exchangers are cross-connected.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - T.S. 3.7.5 allows an out-of-service time of 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> followed by a requirement to be in Hot Standby within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

B. Incorrect - T.S. 3.7.5 allows an out-of-service time of 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> followed by a requirement to be in Hot Standby within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> and Cold Shutdown within 36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br />.

C. Correct - T.S. 3.7.5 allows an out-of-service time of 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> followed by a requirement to be in Hot Standby within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. Compliance with these conditions would require the plant be in Hot Standby within 78 hours9.027778e-4 days <br />0.0217 hours <br />1.289683e-4 weeks <br />2.9679e-5 months <br />.

D. Incorrect - T.S. 3.7.5 requires two CCW loops operable.

I Question 9 Info I Cognitive Level KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

1.oo 1 I1 I

3.4 41.IO 143.2 143.5 145.3 APE: 026 Loss of Component Cooling Water (CCW) 2.2.40 Ability to apply Technical Specifications for a system.

Bank question T.S. 3.7.5 T.S. 3.7.5 Q50770 This question tests the basic RO tech spec level Knowledge. It requires the RO to identify the LCO and determine the correct action statement. This mirrors the actions that the RO would have to perform on shift in the plant.

CRO-113-5-5-20 OPERATIONS Page: 11 of 85 30 October 2008

10 RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 3.8 41.7 145.5 SYSTEM: 006 Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

References:

ID: Q20385 Points: 1.00 A3.04 Cooling water systems Bank Question None CRO-113-5-5-22 Q20385 01-3A Which one of the following represents how long the HPSI AND LPSl pumps are allowed to operate with no Component Cooling flow to their seal coolers?

A.

Continuously, as long as RCS temperature is maintained at or below 3OO0F for HPSl pumps and at or below 17OoF for LPSl pumps.

B.

Continuously, provided the ECCS Pump Room Air Coolers remain in service with Salt Water flow.

C.

Continuously, as long as RCS temperature is maintained at or below 300'F for HPSl pumps and LPSl Dumps.

D.

Continuously, as long as RCS temperature is maintained at or below 1 70°F for HPSl pumps and at or below 3OO0F for LPSl pumps.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Values are swapped for the HPSI and LPSl Pumps.

B. Incorrect - Not as described in 01-3A. Pumps must be declared 00s if their respective Room Air Cooler is 00s.

C. Incorrect - Value is incorrect for HPSI Pumps.

D. Correct - Per OI-3A, Precaution 5. P.

Question 10 Info Coanitive Level 11.00 I Tier/GrouD I211 A3 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the ECCS, including:

I Comments:

I I

OPERATIONS Page: 12 of 85 30 October 2008 1

11 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 450790 Points: 1.00 The Safety Injection Tank (SIT) Outlet MOVs (3-614, 624, 634 and 644) have green and red indicating lights on Control Room panels 1 (2)CO8 and 1 (2)C09.

What do the red indicating lights being lit. signify?

A.

The MOV breakers are shut.

6.

The MOV keyswitches are in the open position.

C.

The MOVs are open; their breakers may be open or shut.

D.

The MOV keyswitches are in the open position AND the associated breakers are open.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - Red lights are an indication a. valve position only. They do not reflect supply breaker status. (1 -E-76, sheet 75)

Incorrect - Red lights are an indication of valve position only. They do not reflect keyswitch position. (1-E-76, sheet 75)

Correct - Circuit is wired such that position indication remains available with the MOV de-energized (1-E-76, sheet 75). The red light indicates the MOV is open and does not reflect breaker position status.

Incorrect - Red lights are an indication of valve position only. They do not reflect keyswitch or breaker position. (1-E-76, sheet 75)

OPERATIONS Pmge: 13 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 I Question 11 Info CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Com ments:

1.oo 2.5 41.7 SYSTEM: 006 Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

K2 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:

New question None 1 -E sheet 75, OP-2 Q50790 WA match analysis: While this question does not explicitly test the bus power supplied to the MOVs, it tests the interpretation of the indicating lights. The knowledge of the bus power supplies is not as important as understanding what the control room indications actually mean. This is deemed to be an acceptable match and has the benefit of being operationally relevant.

211-K2.02 Valve operators for accumulators CRO-7-1-5-658 OPERATIONS Page: 14 of 85 30 October 2008

12 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: a28472 Points: too A plant transient has occurred. EOP-0 has been completed and the appropriate Optimal Recovery Procedure has been implemented. The following conditions are noted:

0 0

0 0

0 0

Tcold is 490°F and lowering RCS pressure is 1500 PSlA and lowering 11 S/G level is -352 inches and lowering 12 S/G level is -360 inches and lowering PZR level is 70 inches and lowering CETs indicate approximately 493°F and constant What action is appropriate based on above conditions?

A.

Verify Condensate Booster Pump injection is occurring and slowly raise feed flow to approximately 300 GPM per S/G.

B.

Commence Once Through Core Cooling while continuing to pursue Condensate Booster Pump injection or restoring an AFW pump to operation.

C.

Initiate Auxiliary Spray to lower subcooling to approximately 40°F and pursue restoring an AFW pump to operation.

D.

Commence Once Through Core Cooling when an uncontrolled rise of 15°F occurs on the CETs and isolate the last S/G to reach -350 inches.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Booster Pump injection will not occur until approximately 500 PSIG in the S/G. At 490°F, S/G pressure will be greater than 600 PSIG. EOP-3 directs gradually raising S/G levels.

B. Correct - Per EOP-3, Once Through Core Cooling shall be initiated when both S/G levels are less than -350".

C. Incorrect - EOP-3 does not require controlling subcooling low in the 40-140°F band, EOP-5 and 6 do.

D. Incorrect - Once Through Core Cooling is required if an uncontrolled rise of 5°F occurs. Each S/G is required to be isolated at -380".

OPERATIONS Page: 15 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 1 / I 3.7 41.5 I41.a0 I45.6 I45.13 APE: 054 Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW)

CE E06 Loss of Feedwater 0

EK3.3 Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.

Bank question None SRO-201-3-1-25 Q28472 EOP-3 OPERATIONS Pqge: 16 of 85 30 October 2008

13 Cognitive Level TierIGroup RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 1 12 3.0 41.8 141. I O 145.3 CE A16 Excess RCS Leakage CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

ID: Q40701 Points: 4.00 AK1. Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the (Excess RCS Leakage) 0 Bank question None AKI.2 Normal, abnormal and emergency operating procedures associated with (Excess RCS Leakage).

AOP-2A LOR-020270302-001 (240701 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power when a 20 GPM RCS leak develops into the Component Cooling system. The leak is determined to be from 11A RCP.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions to be taken?

A.

Commence a rapid power reduction to shutdown the reactor, secure 11A RCP, and manually isolate Component Cooling to 11A RCP.

B.

Trip the reactor, perform Reactivity Control, stop all RCPs, and isolate Component Cooling to the Containment.

C.

Commence a rapid power reduction to shutdown the reactor, stop all RCPs, and isolate Component Cooling to the Containment.

D.

Trip the reactor, stop all RCPs, isolate Component Cooling to the Containment and implement EOP-0.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - AOP-2A guidance is to trip the unit and to isolate the Component Cooling System using the containment isolation valves.

B. Correct - As specified in AOP-2A, Sect VI, Step E.10 C. Incorrect - AOP-2A guidance is to trip the unit and to isolate the Component Cooling System using the containment isolation valves.

D. Incorrect - AOP-2A directs completion of the Reactivity Safety Function stopping the RCPs.

to OPERATIONS Page: 17 of 85 30 October 2008

14 Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 1 /2 3.4 43.4 / 45.1 3 EPE: 074 Inadequate Core Cooling EA2 Ability to determine or interpret the following as they CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

References:

I Comments:

ID: 440348 Points: 1.00 apply to a Inadequate Core Cooling:

0 EA2.06 Changes in PZR level due to PZR steam bubble transfer to the RCS during inadequate core cooling Bank question None EOP-6 LOR-6J3-S-05 Q40348 A S/G tube rupture has occurred with the RVLMS inoperable. Which condition indicates the presence of a void in the RCS?

A.

RCS pressure increases with increasing Pressurizer level.

6.

RCS pressure increases with decreasing Pressurizer level.

C.

Steady or slowly decreasing RCS pressure with unexplained rapid lowering of Pressurizer level.

D.

Steady or slowly decreasing RCS pressure with unexplained rapid rise in Pressurizer level.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - This condition is not indicative of void formation. These conditions could be thought to occur if the bubble shifts to a hot reactor vessel head, but pressure does not increase.

6. Incorrect - With void formation RCS pressure will not increase and Pressurizer level will not lower.

C. Incorrect - This condition is indicative of a bigger leak or even void collapse.

D. Correct - This is a good indication of void formation per EOP-6.

OPERATIONS Page: 18 of 85 30 October 2008

15 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: a5068 Points: 1.00 Given references:

A reactor trip occurred on Unit-I. It was decided something more than an uncomplicated reactor trip had occurred for which a single event diagnosis was NOT possible (utilizing the diagnostic flowchart of EOP-0). The appropriate procedure was entered. At this time the following plant conditions exist:

Offsite power is lost, all DGs inoperable, SMECO available Both 4KV vital busses are de-energized Startup Rate is -.3 dpm WRNl power is 10 E-5%

Pressurizer level is 85 inches and steady RCS subcooling is 98OF Pressurizer Pressure is 1900 PSlA and slowly increasing All RVLMS indicating lights are green Both S/G levels are -20 inches ARN flow available with 11 AFW pump Thot minus Tcold is 12OF and rising Tcold is 528OF and rising Containment pressure 0.5 PSlG and steady Containment temperature 1 OOOF and steady Which one of the following groups of success paths should be used to verify the status of the safety functions?

A.

RC-1, VA-2, PIC-3, HR-1, CE-2, RLEC-2.

RC-1, VA-3, PIC-4, HR-1, CE-1, RLEC-1.

RC-1, VA-3, PIC-3, HR-1, CE-1, RLEC-1.

RC-1, VA-3, PIC-3, HR-1, CE-2, RLEC-2.

B.

C.

D.

Answer:

C OPERATIONS Page: 19 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Answer Exdanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

lncorredt - VA 2 requires a DG, CE-1 is available, CE-2 may be chosen if candidate justifies that containment pressure is less than 4.25 PSA, so it is applicable. No indications of radiation outside cntmt exist, RLEC-1 is appropriate. RLEC-2 may be chosen if candidate reads only the first line under Resource Conditions and determines he cannot determine if radiation is detected outside of containment because power is not available to some radiation monitors. This thought could be re-enforced by knowing that this safety function would not be met in EOP-0 due to loss of power effects.

Incorrect - Charging pumps are not available for boration, PIC-4 is not an option, and SlAS has not initiated and is not available until power is restored.

Correct - per conditions stated and assessment using the EOP-8 Resource Assessment Table.

Incorrect - CE-1 is available, CE-2 may be chosen if candidate justifies that containment pressure is less than 4.25 PSA, so it is applicable. RLEC-2 may be chosen if candidate reads only the first line under Resource Conditions and determines he cannot determine if radiation is detected outside of containment because power is not available to some radiation monitors. This thought could be re-enforced by knowing that this safety function would not be met in EOP-) due to loss of power effects.

I Question 15 Info Cognitive Level TierlGroup RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

I candidate

~~

References:

Cross Reference Number:

2.00 1 12 4.2 41.7 145.5 145.6 CE EO9 Functional Recovery EA1. Ability to operate and I or monitor the following as they apply to the (Functional Recovery)

EA1.I Components and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Bank question EOP-8 RAT EOP-8 201 -6.8-S-05 Q25068 OPERATIONS Page: 20 of 85 30 October 2008

16 Cognitive Level RO Importance:

CFR:

Tier/G rou p EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 3.00 1 /2 3.0 41.7 / 45.7 CE AI 3 Natural Circulation Operations CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

ID: 414420 Points: 1.00 failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Bank question None SD-56 Following a Unit-2 reactor trip from 100% power, all RCPs were tripped due to an inadvertent CIS that actuated after the trip. The following conditions now exist:

0 0

0 Thot is 547°F and lowering Tcold is 534°F and lowering Condenser vacuum is 2 6 Hg What response would the operator observe on the panel for the ADVs and TBVs with these plant conditions? Assume no operator action has been taken.

A.

ADVS -full Shut:

TBVs - modulate open.

B.

ADVs - full open; TBVs -full open.

C.

ADVs - modulate open; TBVS -full Shut.

D.

ADVs - modulate open:

TBVs - modulate open.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - With Tave > 535"F, the ADVs will modulate. The TBVs should be modulating to maintaining S/G pressure per the setpoint of the TBV controller.

Plausible: if the applicant thinks that the ADVs are controlled by Tcold instead of Tave, they would be shut.

B. Incorrect - With Tave > 535"F, the ADVs will modulate. The TBVs should be modulating to maintaining S/G pressure per the setpoint of the TBV controller.

C. Incorrect -With Tave > 535"F, the ADVs will modulate. The TBVs should be modulating to maintaining SIG pressure per the setpoint of the TBV controller.

D. Correct -With Tave > 535"F, the ADVs will modulate. The TBVs should be modulating to maintaining S/G pressure per the setpoint of the TBV controller.

I Question 16 Info AK2. Knowledge of the interrelations between the (Natural Circulation Operations) and the following:

AK2.1 Components and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, Cross Reference Number: I User-Defined ID:

IC214420 OPERATIONS Page: 21 of 85 30 October 2008

17 RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 3.2 41.5 I45.5 SYSTEM: 039 Main and Reheat Steam System (MRSS)

AI Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the MRSS controls including:

0 AI.05 RCS Tave New question None OP-3, Unit 1 Q50810 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 I Comments:

ID: Q50810 Points: 1.00 A rapid downpower is in progress on Unit I.

RCS Tcold is being maintained within 0.5"F of program. At approximately 65% power, with no adjustment in turbine load, RCS temperature rises approximately 2°F.

What is the cause of the temperature change?

A.

Lowering of S/G level during High Power to Low Power transfer of DFWCS.

B.

Automatic closure of MSR second stage High Load MOVs.

C.

D.

Closure of Turbine Bypass valves during the downpower.

Automatic opening of the MSR 2"d Stage Drain Tank High Level Dump Valves Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - High power to low power transfer occurs at approximately 15% power B. Correct - Per OP-3, Section 6.4.C C. Incorrect - With parameters given TBVs would not be open.

D. Incorrect - Second stage drain tank HLDVs do not open until - 165 MWe (about 20%

power) and do not affect RCS temperature.

Question 17 Info Tier/Grou D I2/1 Cognitive Level 12.00 OPERATIONS Page: 22 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 3.00 1 11 3.5 41.7 145.7 EPE: 007 Reactor Trip CE E02 Reactor Trip Recovery EK2 Knowledge of the interrelations between a reactor trip and the following:

Bank question None FSAR CRO-59-1-5-47 Q20174 EK2.03 Reactor trip status panel 18 ID: 420174 Points: 1.00 The trip path K1 relay has failed to deenergize on a valid high Pressurizer Pressure reactor trip signal.

Which of the following will result?

A.

No Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers open.

B.

Four Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers open resulting in no reactor trip.

C.

A reactor trip occurs as power is interrupted to all CEAs.

D.

The Diverse Scram System will trip the reactor.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Relays K-2 thru K-4 are unaffected and perform as designed deenergizing the Reactor Trip bus.

B. Incorrect - Relays K-2 thru K-4 are unaffected and perform as designed deenergizing the Reactor Trip bus.

C. Correct - Relays K-2 thru K-4 are unaffected and perform as designed deenergizing the Reactor Trip bus.

D. Incorrect - The Diverse Scram System setpoint is 2450 PSIA. RPS will have tripped the reactor at 2385 PSIA.

OPERATIONS Page: 23 of 85 30 October 2008

19 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q24719 Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

0 0

Unit-I is in Mode 6 A Containment Normal Purge is in progress Refueling operations are in progress A fuel assembly is dropped within the core Containment Area Radiation Monitors, 1-RE-5316A through D, are in alarm at 200 mrem/hr What automatic actions occur?

A.

Containment Purge supply and exhaust CVs go SHUT, all Iodine Removal Units receive a START signal, and Hydrogen Purge Outlet Containment Isolation MOVs receive a SHUT signal.

B.

Containment Purge supply and exhaust CVs go SHUT, Containment Purge supply and exhaust fans STOP and Hydrogen Purge Outlet Containment Isolation MOVs receive a SHUT signal.

C.

Containment Purge exhaust CVs SHUT, Penetration Room Exhaust fans receive a START signal, and Hydrogen Purge Outlet Containment Isolation MOVs receive a SHUT signal.

D.

Containment Purge supply and exhaust fans STOP, Penetration Room Exhaust fans receive a START signal, and all Iodine Removal Units receive a START signal.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The IRUs do not receive a start signal when CRS actuates.

B. Correct - A Containment Radiation Signal (CRS) is initiated by a 2/4 coincidence from RE-531 6A thru D. These six components actuate to specified positions per LD-58A.

C. Incorrect -The Purge Supply CV shuts and the Penetration Room Exhaust Fans do not receive an automatic signal when CRS actuates.

D. Incorrect - The Purge Supply and Exhaust CVs shut and the Penetration Room Exhaust Fans and Iodine Removal Units do not receive an automatic signal when CRS actuates.

OPERATIONS Page: 24 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question I 9 Info Cognitive Level TierIGroup RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

1.oo I

R A lI2 I 41.5141.10145.6145.13 AK3. Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM)

System Alarms:

AK3.02 Guidance contained in alarm response for ARM svstem Bank question None SD-15, 1 CO&ALM, 1 C22-ALM CRO-122-1-3-23 OPERATIONS Page: 25 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 2/2 3.2 41.7 / 45.7 035 Steam Generator System (S/GS)

K6 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the S/GS:

20 ID: 428825 Points: 4. 0 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to Unit-I is at 100% power. 11 MSlV is being partial stroke tested per the Surveillance Test Procedure. A system failure results in 11 MSlV shutting completely.

K6.01 MSlVs Bank question How will the plant respond?

candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

A.

RCS pressure will rise due to less steam demand, a Pressurizer Pressure High reactor trip will occur and the PORVs will open.

iYone FSAR, Chapter 14 CR-103-2-4-61A Q28825 B.

11 S/G pressure will rise, 12 S/G pressure will lower due to the steam demand imbalance, resulting in an ASGT reactor trip.

C.

12 S/G level will lower due to the steam demand imbalance, causing a Low S/G level reactor trip.

D.

RCS pressure will lower due to the increased steam demand from 12 S/G, resulting in a TMlLP reactor trip.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - FSAR Table 14.1 2-2 states this event will be terminated by ASGT in 2.7 seconds. Plausible - PORV setpoint is the same as the high pressure reactor trip setpoint - 2400 psig.

B. Correct - FSAR Chapter 14.1 2.2.4 describes these exact conditions.

C. Incorrect - FSAR Table 14.12-2 states this event will be terminated by ASGT in 2.7 seconds.

D. Incorrect - FSAR Table 14.12-2 states this event will be terminated by ASGT in 2.7 seconds.

Plausible because the ASGT trip drives the TM/LP setpoint high which results in a reactor trip. Some applicants may think that it is TM/LP that actually trips the reactor.

~

~~

OPERATIONS Page: 26 of 85 30 October 2008

21 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 428429 Points: 1.00 Unit-I is operating at 100% power, with a burnup of 10,500 MWD/MTU, when an ADV fails open.

What is the effect on reactor power and what action(s) should be taken?

A.

Reactor trips on VOPT; Implement EOP-0.

B.

Reactor power rises but reactor does not trip; Dispatch operators to immediately manually isolate the ADV and Insert CEAs as necessary to control reactor power.

C.

Reactor power rises but reactor does not trip; Insert CEAs as necessary to control reactor power and reduce turbine load to restore Tcold to the program band.

D.

Reactor power lowers; Raise turbine load to restore Tcold to the program band Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - ADV will raise power approximately three percent which is below the VOPT setpoint.

B. Incorrect - Steps to dispatch operators to manually isolate the ADV follow the correct action of reducing turbine load to return Tcold to program.

C. Correct - Per AOP-7K,Section IV.

D. Incorrect - Raising Turbine load would decrease Tcold further and cause reactor power to raise further.

burn up has a positive MTC, the applicant could pick D. A positive MTC only occurs at BOL, not MOL.

In addition, if the applicant thinks that 10,500 MWD/MTU 1

I Question 21 Info CFR:

KA Number:

Cross Reference Number:

3.00 3

I?

. 1 4 I

c). I 41.5 / 45.7 SYSTEM: 041 Steam Dump System (SDS)/Turbine Bypass Control K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the SDS:

0 K5.07 Reactivity feedback effects Bank question None AOP-7K AOP-7K-03-001 Q28429 30 October 2008 OPERATIONS Page: 27 of 85

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level TierlGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate 22 2.00 I

/ I 3.1 41.8 / 41. I O / 45.3 EPE: 038 Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)

EKI Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the SGTR:

0 Bank question Tables EKI.01 Use of steam tables CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

ID: 023208 Poinls: q.00 Q23208 Given references:

EOP-6 is implemented for a tube rupture and RCS pressure is currently 1000 PSIA.

Which one of the following RCS temperatures will come closest to producing a 25OF RCS subcooled margin?

A.

51 9°F B.

541 "F C.

544°F D.

569°F Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Per Table 2 of the Steam Tables saturation temperature for 1000 PSlA is 544°F. 544°F minus 25°F = 51 9°F.

B. Incorrect - Value is based on candidate subtracting 25 PSlA from 1000 PSlA and taking the saturation temperature for 975 PSIA.

C. Incorrect - Value is the saturation temperature for 1000 PSIA.

D. Incorrect - Value is based on candidate erroneously adding 25°F to the saturation temperature for 1000 PSlA instead of subtracting.

I Comments:

OPERATIONS Page: 28 of 85 30 October 2008

23 RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.6 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8 SYSTEM: 055 Condenser Air Removal System (CARS)

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

IJser-Defined ID.

ID: 450830 Points: 1.00 K1 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the CARS and the following system s :

K1.06 PRM system New question None Lesson Plan # LOI-077-1-2 LOR 203-6-S-08 o5nm At 30% power which of the below listed indications would provide the first indication of a small (approximately 5 GPD) Steam Generator tube leak?

A.

N-16 Rad Monitor B.

S/G Blowdown RMSs C.

D.

Condenser Off-gas RMS (RI-I 572A - D)

Main Steam Effluent Radiation monitor Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A.

6.

C.

D.

Incorrect - The N-16 RMS is the second most sensitive of the installed instrumentation but does not provide reliable indication of leakrate when reactor power is less than 40%.

Incorrect - BID RMS is the third most sensitive of the installed instrumentation in detecting a small S/G tube leak of 8 GPD or greater per Chemistry sensitivity estimates.

Correct - Condenser Off-gas RMS is the most sensitive of installed instrumentation in detecting a small S/G tube leak per Chemistry sensitivity estimates.

Incorrect - Main Steam Effluent RMS is the fourth most sensitive of the installed instrumentation per Chemistry sensitivity estimates, but does not provide reliable indication of leakrate when reactor power is less than 50%.

Question 23 Info Cognitive Level I 1.oo Tier/Grou p I 212 OPERATIONS Page: 29 of 85 30 October 2008

24 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: a4549 Points: 1.00 11 and 13 Condensate Booster Pumps are in operation with Unit-1 at 80% power when 11 Condensate Booster Pump trips.

Which ONE of the following is the correct response?

A.

Verify the backup Condensate Booster pump starts, SGFP suction pressure is adequate and S/G level is being maintained at "0" inches.

B.

Attempt to restart the tripped pump; if unable to restart then, trip the reactor and im plement EOP-0.

C.

Reduce power as necessary to maintain Condensate header flow less than 8500 GPM.

D.

Verify the backup Condensate Booster pump starts, bypass Condensate Precoats and Demineralizers, adjust SGFP Bias potentiometers to approximately 4.5, and monitor SIG levels for trends.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Per AOP3G.

B. Incorrect - AOP3G contains provision for tripping the reactor if only one Condensate Booster Pump is running if power is >70%.

C. Incorrect - Valid if power is ~70%

with only one Condensate Booster Pump in operation.

D. Incorrect - Lowering bias setting would reduce SGFP speed complicating the loss of the Condensate Booster Pump. This is plausible because the CBP will auto start -

bypassing precoats is a required action later in the procedure - only adjusting the SGFP bias down is incorrect - would want to increase bias setting.

OPERATIONS Page: 30 of 85 30 October 2008

25 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 450852 Points: 1.W Given the following:

0 0

0 0

0 Unit 2 is at 100% power Pressurizer Level instrumentation is selected to Channel X Pressurizer Pressure instrumentation is selected to Channel X Reactor Reg is selected to Channel X 120 VAC bus 2Y02 has been de-energized Which is a required operator action for this condition?

A.

Shift Pressurizer Pressure and Level instrumentation to Channel Y and shift PZR HTR LO LVL CUTOFF SEL switch to the Y position.

B.

Shift Letdown Controller, 2-PIC-201, to MANUAL and control Letdown backpressure at 440 to 480 PSIG.

C.

Verify LETDOWN THROTTLE VLV CONTROLLER, 2-HIC-1 IO, in MANUAL until RCS loop 22 instruments have been isolated to RRS Channel X.

D.

Place VCT OUT, 2-CVC-501-MOV in OPEN, place CHG PP SUCT, 2-CVC-504-MOV in CLOSE, and adjust turbine load as necessary to maintain Tcold on program.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - This would be the correct response to a loss of 2Y01 with the pressure and level instruments aligned this way. If this step is chosen, the student would be shifting to failed instrumentation.

B. Incorrect - The letdown controller is not affected by a loss of 2Y02, but it is de-energized on a loss of 2Y09.

C. Correct - Per AOP-7J.

D. Incorrect - This step is applicable to a loss of 2Y10. Charging pump suction does not shift to the RWT automatically on a loss of 2Y02.

Question 25 Info Cognitive Level TierlG rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

I 2.00 1 I1 3.5 41.7 145.5 145.6 APE: 057 Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus AA1. Ability to operate and I or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus:

MI.06 Manual control of components for which automatic control is lost New auestion None AOP-7J Q50852 OPERATIONS Page: 31 of 85 30 October 2008 1

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 26 Given references:

ID: Q5#851 Points: 1.00 Unit 2 has been shutdown due to excessive RCS leakage. Initial plant conditions were:

0 RCS pressure - 2250 PSlA 0

Pressurizer level - 160" and stable 0

One charging pump running 0

Letdown flow - 30 GPM 0

PORV block valves 2-RC-403-MOV and 2-RC-405-MOV are shut.

0 Acoustic monitors for PORV-402 and RV-200 indicate.I 2

After fifteen (1 5) minutes, the crew has depressurized the RCS to 1800 PSIA with the following plant conditions:

0 Pressurizer level - 160" and stable 0

One charging pump running 0

Letdown flow - 32 GPM 0

PORV block valves 2-RC-403-MOV and 2-RC-405-MOV are shut.

0 Acoustic monitors for PORV-402 and RV-200 indicate.09 Based on the information provided the initial & final leakrates are:

A.

2 GPM, 0.4 GPM B.

6 GPM, 4 GPM C.

8 GPM, 6 GPM.

D.

8 GPM, 2 GPM.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible if calculation based on difference between letdown flow rates and dividing the difference by the square root of the difference between 2250 PSlA and 1800 PSIA.

B. Plausible based on candidate math error where final leakrate is calculated first.

C. Correct - Charging (44 GPM) minus letdown (30 GPM) minus CBO (6 GPM) = 8 GPM initial leakrate. Charging (44 GPM) minus letdown (32 GPM) minus CBO (6 GPM) = 6 GPM final leakrate.

D. Incorrect - Plausible based on calculation of initial leakrate and use of letdown difference as final value.

OPERATIONS Page: 32 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO importance:

CFR:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 1 /I 3.1 41 8 / 41. I O / 45.3 APE: 008 Pressurizer (PZR) Vapor Space Accident {Relief References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

Valve Stuck Open)

AK1. Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to a Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident:

0 AK1.02 Change in leak rate with change in pressure New question AOP-2A, Attachment 1, Estimate gross leak rate AOP-2A, 1 COG-ALM Window E-22 Q50851 OPERATIONS Page: 33 of 85 30 October 2008

27 Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

I KA Number:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo 1 / I 4.5 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 EPE: 029 Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)

EA1 Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a ATWS:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defi ned ID :

Comments:

References:

ID: 450651 Points: 1.00 Unit-I is at 100% power when annunciator D-45, REACTOR TRIP BUS U/V RELAY TRIP, alarms. 1 C15 instrumentation indicates 414 bus undervoltage relays have tripped, the Reactor Trip pushbuttons at IC05 have been depressed and all the Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers are shut.

Modified None LOR-020590407-001 Q50651 EA1.08 Reactor trip switch pushbutton EOP-0 Which of the following actions should be taken?

A.

Open the 12A and 13A 480V bus feeder breakers ONLY B.

Depress the Reactor Trip pushbuttons at 1C15 ONLY C.

Open the 12A and 13A feeder breakers and their bus tie breakers.

D.

First, Depress the Reactor Trip pushbuttons at 1C15, then open the 12A and 13A feeder breakers and their bus tie breakers.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Per EOP-0, the bus tie breakers must also be opened.

B. Incorrect - EOP-0 does not referencehequire pushing both sets of Reactor Trip pushbuttons.

C. Correct - Per EOP-0.

D. Incorrect - EOP-0 does not referencehequire pushing both sets of Reactor Trip push bu ttons.

OPERATIONS Page: 34 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 28 ID: a34432 Points: 1.00 Which of the following accurately describes how Fire Main System Pressure is maintained during Diesel Fire Pump operation?

A.

Diesel Fire Pump is a centrifugal pump with a max discharge of 125 PSIG.

B.

Diesel Fire Pump Engine has a Governor that receives input from pump discharge pressure, limiting pressure to 125 PSIG.

C.

Diesel Fire Pump's impeller has movable suction vanes that straighten as flow demand goes up.

D.

Diesel Fire Pump discharge RV operates to limit Fire Main pressure.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Diesel Fire Pump is capable of 150 PSIG discharge pressure.

B. Incorrect - Diesel Fire Pump governor maintains a constant speed. Discharge pressure is controlled by discharge RV.

C. Incorrect - Diesel Fire Pump has fixed vane impeller. Candidate may assume pump construction is similar to EHC Pumps, Domestic Water Pumps or Plant Service Water Pumps D. Correct - Per SD-013, 0-RV-6226 operates to maintain fire main pressure c 146 PSIG.

OPERATIONS Page: 35 of 85 30 October 2008

29 Cognitive Level RO Importance:

Tier/G rou p CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo Generic 3.7 41.1 0 / 45.1 3 2.1.3 Knowledge of shift or short-term relief turnover practices.

New question None NO-1-200, Control of Shift Activities Q50870 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 450870 Points: 1.00 Which of the statements below correctly summarizes the administrative requirements regarding who can temporarily relieve the RO and what has to be completed for turnover?

A.

The Shift Manager, PWS (if an SRO or RO) may relieve the RO. Prior to leaving the surveillance area, the RO shall verify the relieving individual has completed the RO Shift Turnover Checklist to ensure cognizance of plant conditions and the status of vital safety parameters and equipment.

B.

The PWS (if an SRO or RO) may relieve the RO. Prior to leaving the surveillance area, the RO shall verbally brief the relieving individual on the status of the plant and any special conditions which may require attention during the ROs brief absence C.

The PWS (if an SRO or RO) may relieve the RO. Prior to leaving the surveillance area, the RO shall verify the relieving individual has completed the RO Shift Turnover Checklist to ensure cognizance of plant conditions and the status of vital safety parameters and equipment.

D.

The Shift Manager or PWS (if an SRO or RO) may relieve the RO. Prior to leaving the surveillance area, the RO shall verbally brief the relieving individual on the status of the plant and any special conditions which may require attention during the RO's brief absence.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - RO is not responsible for ensuring his relief has completed the RO Turnover Checklist. The Shift Manager can relieve the CRS, but cannot relieve the RO.

B. Correct - as specified in NO-1 -200.

C. Incorrect - RO checklist does not have to be completed.

D. Incorrect - The Shift Manager can relieve the CRS, but cannot relieve the RO.

I Question 29 Info I Comments:

I I

OPERATIONS Page: 36 of 85 30 October 2008

30 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q24951 Points: 1.00 Which description accurately describes the PAMS touch screen functions on the Control Room panels?

A.

Each panel touch screen can display only its designated Technical Specification functions.

B.

Each panel touch screen is capable of displaying any of the monitored PAMS functions.

C.

Each panel touch screen is capable of displaying only its designated Technical Specification functions and any alarming PAMS functions.

D.

Each panel touch screen is capable of displaying any of the monitored PAMS functions and can also be used to bypass any failed PAMS instrumentation.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Touch screen displays are fully interchangeable. Plausible because each screen is dedicated per STP-0-63 for PAMS operability.

B. Correct - Per system design.

C. Incorrect - Touch screen displays are fully interchangeable. Plausible because each screen is dedicated per STP-0-63 for PAMS operability D. Incorrect - Bypassing must be accomplished at the 2C144B or 2C182B cabinets.

The screens on 2C144B and 2C182B are exactly like the screens on the control room panels, but the bypass function is not enabled in the control room.

OPERATIONS Page: 37 of 85 30 October 2008

31 Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 Generic 3.4 41.I 2 / 43.4 / 45.1 0 2.3.1 4 Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

ID: Q42267 Points: 1.00 None ERPIP 8.31 Q50890 Unit 1 has experienced a Loss of Coolant Accident and implemented EOP-5. Significant core damage occurred, and the plant has reached the point where it is lining up to go on shutdown cooling (SDC).

The Auxiliary Building Operator (ABO) was sent to the -1 5 foot level of the Auxiliary Building to commence the requisite valve line-ups twenty minutes ago, and has not been heard from.

Repeated attempts to contact him by radio are unsuccessful. The oldest, qualified AB0 is selected to conduct a search and recovery of the lost individual under an emergency work permit (EWP). Health Physics estimates that the average dose rate once exiting the elevator on the -10 of the Aux Building, through the -1 5 foot hallway, is 100 REM per hour. Based on this dose rate, what is the maximum time the searcher can remain on the -IO/-I 5 foot AB before exceeding the CCNPP lifesaving limit?

A.

3 minutes B.

6 minutes C.

10 minutes D.

15 minutes Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Candidate assumes the limit is 5 REM.

9. Incorrect - The allowed dose for plant-saving is I O REM. 100REM160 min I 10 REM

= 6 minutes.

C. Incorrect - Candidate could just divide the 100 REM dose by the 10 REM limit for plant saving actions.

D. Correct - The allowed dose for Lifesaving operations at CCNPP is 25 REM. 100 REM/6O min I 2 5 REM = 15 minutes.

1 conditions or activities.

I Bank question Bank, new or modified?

OPERATIONS Page: 38 of 85 30 October 2008

32 Cognitive Level RO Importance:

TierIGrou p CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate References :

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 Generic 4.5 41.5 141. I O 143.5 143.6 145.1 2.2.1 Ability to perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including operating those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity.

Bank question None OP-2 Unit-I, Step 6.7.F.5 LOR-206-1 1 Q25936 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12108 ID: 02593s Points: 1.00 A Unit-I reactor startup is in progress. The reactor is NOT critical with the regulating group CEAs at the Upper Bound CEA Position on the ECC form.

Which one of the following actions must be taken?

A.

Maintain all regulating CEAs at the upper bound position and dilute the RCS to criticality.

B.

Insert all Regulating CEAs to the lower bound position and recalculate the ECC.

C.

Maintain all CEAs at the upper bound position and notify Reactor Engineering.

D.

Insert regulating CEAs to the ZPDIL position and notify Reactor Engineering.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - OP-2 has no procedural allowance for dilution to criticality. Plausible because this method is used for reactor startup, using PSTP-2, following refueling of the reactor.

B. Incorrect - CEAs are not required to be inserted to the lower bound.

C. Incorrect - These actions are not supported by OP-2.

D. Correct - Per OP-2, Unit-I, Step 6.7.F.5.

I Question 32 Info I

OPERATIONS Page: 39 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 33 ID: 451132 Points: 1.00 After completing OI-26B, Section 6.4 Transferring a 120V Vital AC Bus from its Inverter to the Inverter Backup Bus, what key indication is used to ensure the Inverter Backup bus is successfully supplying a Vital AC Instrument Bus?

A.

The INVERTER BACKUP BUS voltage indicates 120 (+/- 4) VAC as read on l(2)Yll.

B.

C.

D.

Associated VITAL AC INST BUS VOLTS indicate 120 (+/- 4) VAC as read on 1 C24A.

INVERTER B/U BUS INSERV alarm annunciates on 1 (2)C19.

Associated VITAL BUS TRANSFER SWITCH POSITION lights on 1 C24A change from INVERTER being lit to BACKUP BUS being lit.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - No voltage indication is available on the inverter backup bus for the vital bus it is carrying.

B. Correct - Per 01-268, the indications specified is on 1 C24A.

C. Incorrect - This indication is not specified in the 01 for verifying the proper shift to the backup bus.

D. Incorrect - This indication is available, but it does not ensure the vital bus is at the correct voltage.

I Question 33 Info Co nitive Level 1

RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate References :

Cross Reference Number:

1 I Comments:

I

.oo 1 / I 3.7 43.5 / 45.1 3 APE: 058 Loss of DC Power MI. Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of DC Power:

0 AA1.01 Cross-tie of the affected dc bus with the alternate supply New question None 01-26B Q51132 OPERATIONS Page: 40 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level TierlGroup RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 1.oo Generic 2.6 41.I 0 / 43.5 / 45.1 3 2.2.1 7 Knowledge of the process for managing maintenance activities during power operations, such as risk assessments, work prioritization, and coordination with ID: 451170 Points: 1.00 I References provided to landidate I

References:

34 Given the following:

0 Unit-2 is operating at 100% power.

None 01-21 B. Section 6.1 0 0

Following completion of shift turnover at 1830, the 2B DG i_ de due to problems with the fuel oil transfer pump.

You are removing the 28 DG from service.

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

lared out of servic Q51170 What offsite organization is required to be notified per 01-21 B, 28 DIESEL GENERATOR?

A.

The Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

B.

Southern Maryland Electric Co-operative (SMECO)

C.

System Operator - Transmission Systems Operation (SO - TSO)

D.

Answer:

C The Nuclear Safety Review Board (NSRB)

Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The NRC is not required to be notified of DG unavailability.

B. Incorrect - SMECO is not required to be notified of DG unavailability. This choice is plausible because CCNPP makes notifications to SMECO with respect to using the SMECO feed as an emergency power source.

C. Correct - As specified in Unit-2,01-218, Sect 6.10.

D. Incorrect - The NSRB is not required to be notified of DG unavailability. Candidate may think safety related equipment unavailability requires review by the NSRB.

I Question 34 Info I

OPERATIONS Page: 41 of 85 30 October 2008

35 Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 1 /I 3.5 43.5 / 45.1 3 APE: 056 Loss of Offsite Power CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate ID: 418107 Points: 1.00 0. h 2. 7 3 PZR heater on/off Bank question None A Loss of Offsite Power has occurred with the 1 B DG failing to start. Assuming no electrical buses are tied, which of the following is correct?

A.

11 and 13 Pressurizer Heater Backup Banks are available from 1 C43 only.

B.

11 and 13 Pressurizer Heater Backup Banks are available from 1 C06 and 1 c43.

C.

Only 11 Pressurizer Heater Backup Bank is available and only from 1 C43.

D.

Only 13 Pressurizer Heater Backup Bank is available and only from 1 C43.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - 13 Pressurizer Heater Backup Bank is deenergized with the loss of 14 4KV Bus.

B. Incorrect - 13 Pressurizer Heater Backup Bank is deenergized with the loss of 14 4KV Bus.

C. Correct - 11 Pressurizer Heater Backup Bank remains available but must be operated from 1 C43 due to the loss of 1Y10.

D. Incorrect - 13 Pressurizer Heater Backup Bank is deenergized with the loss of 14 4KV Bus.

I Question 35 Info 1

AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power:

Q18107 I Comments:

OPERATIONS Page: 42 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level RO Importance:

CFR:

TierlGroup CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 3.00 211 2.6 41 7 145.5 SYSTEM: 003 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS) 36 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

IO: QI4389 0

K6.14 Starting requirements Bank question None OP-I Step 6.3.Q 01-1A Q14389 Points: I.00 Given the following conditions:

0 Plant is in Mode 5, RCS Heatup in progress 0

RCS pressure is 275 PSIA SG secondary temperature locally is 170°F RCS temperature is 160°F 0

PZR level is 160 inches 12A RCP is tagged out for adjustment of proximeter probes 11A RCP has been running for 3 minutes What action should be taken if 11 B RCP fails to start?

A.

Continue heatup and raise RCS pressure to satisfy NPSH for one RCP operating.

6.

Start the 126 RCP immediately.

C.

Attempt to restart the 11 B RCP in 30 minutes.

D.

Stop 11A RCP and re-initiate Shutdown Cooling.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - OP-I one requires RCPs be operated, in pairs of pumps in the same loop, for NPSH requirements at the given pressure and temperature.

B. Incorrect - OP-I one requires RCPs be operated, in pairs of pumps in the same loop, for NPSH requirements at the given pressure and temperature.

C. Incorrect - OP-I contains no guidance for attempting restart of an RCP. The remaining RCP should NOT be operated at reduced NPSH.

D. Correct - Action is specified by OP-I if two pumpskame loop cannot be placed in operation.

K6 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the RCPS:

OPERATIONS Page: 43 of 85 30 October 2008

37 ROlm portance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 4.6 41.I 0 / 45.1 2 2.1.31 Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

ID: 414376 Points: 1.00 desired plant lineup.

Bank question None 01-IA, D w ~

1. 61075 Q14376 Prior to shifting a running Reactor Coolant Pump power supply to the opposite unit, which interlock for the RCP is satisfied by its "normal" breaker being closed?

A.

Adequate CCW flow.

B.

Adequate oil lift pressure.

C.

Synchronizing stick in place.

D.

Unit service 12/22 bus energized.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The CCW flow interlock must be made up to shift RCPs to their backup power supplies.

B. Correct - Per Drawing # 61 075 the "normal" breaker being shut bypasses the contact for the oil lift pump discharge press switch only.

C. Incorrect - The synchronizing stick interlock must be made up to shift RCPs to their backup power supplies.

D. Incorrect - The procedure for shifting RCPs to their backup power supplies requires 12 & 22 13KV Services Busses be energized as a prerequisite. The RCP "Normal" breakers are not interlocked with the RCP Service Busses.

Question 37 Info E

Cognitive Level 11.oo Tier/Group I2/1 I KA Number:

1 indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the I OPERATIONS Page: 44 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

I Comments:

References:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 211 3.1 41.5 145.5 SYSTEM: 01 0 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR AI Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the PZR PCS controls including:

0 Bank question None PCS)

AI.06 RCS heatup and cooldown effect on pressure LOI-064A1-0 Q14353 38 ID: 414353 Points: 1.00 Which statement represents the initial response of the Pressurizer to control RCS pressure following a 1 "F rise in RCS average temperature?

A.

Steam bubble compresses and steam condenses to liquid to limit the pressure rise.

B.

Steam bubble expands and liquid flashes to steam to limit the pressure rise.

C.

Heaters energize to heat incoming cold water to maintain system pressure.

D.

Pressurizer spray valves close to maintain RCS pressure.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Steam bubble compresses raising pressure which raises saturation temperature for the Pressurizer condensing some of the steam bubble.

B. Incorrect - RCS temperature rises cause RCS expansion which results in an insurge compressing the Pressurizer bubble.

C. Incorrect - A 1°F RCS temperature change would not cause an insurge of sufficient volume to energize the heaters.

D. Incorrect - Pressurizer spray valves would, if anything, modulate open to control a rise in Pressurizer pressure.

I Question 38 Info OPERATIONS Page: 45 of 85 30 October 2008

39 Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 2/ 1 3.3 41.7 145.7 SYSTEM: 01 2 Reactor Protection System (RPS)

K6 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RPS:

K6.10 Permissive circuits Bank question None CRO-59-1-5-74 Q20195 1 C05-ALM, 1 C08-ALM CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q.20195 Poi&: 1.00 Which condition is required to enable the S/G Pressure Trip if it were bypassed using the LOW S/G Pressure Bypass keyswitch?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Both 11 and 12 S/G pressure 767 PSlA (785 PSlA Tech Spec) are required Both 11 and 12 S/G pressures > 703 PSlA (685 PSlA Tech Spec) are required.

Either 11 or 12 SIG pressure > 767 PSlA (785 PSlA Tech Spec) are sufficient.

Either 11 or 12 S/G pressure > 703 PSlA (685 PSlA Tech Spec) are sufficient.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Right setpoint... wrong logic. Low pressure Trip is enabled from either S/G.

B. Incorrect - 685 PSlA is the T.S. minimum S/G Low Pressure Trip Setpoint.

C. Correct - Per 1 COS-ALM, 1 C08-ALM D. Incorrect - 685 PSlA is the T.S. minimum SIG Low Pressure Trip Setpoint.

I Question 39 Info I

I Comments:

OPERATIONS Page: 46 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 1.oo 211 2.8 41 7 SYSTEM: 022 Containment Cooling System (CCS)

K4 Knowledge of CCS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:

Bank question None K4.04 Cooling of control rod drive motors 40 ID: Q51131 Points: 1.00

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

Why is the operating CEDM Cooling Fan secured when RCS temperature is less than 300"F?

SD-GOA, OI-5C, OP-5 CRO-134-1-5-28 Q51131 A.

Prevents exceeding RCS cooldown rates.

B.

Lessens the spread of airborne contamination to support containment entry.

C.

D.

Reduces the heat load on the Component Cooling System.

To prevent condensation in the CEDM coils.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The CEDM Ventilation system will not affect the RCS Cooldown rate with RCPs in operation.

B. Incorrect - Spread of airborne contamination would only be a concern if shroud hatches were open.

C. Incorrect - Statement is true but this is not the concern associated with securing the CEDM Fans at 300°F.

D. Correct - Per OP-5 precaution P.

OPERATIONS Page: 47 of 85 30 October 2008

41 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: (251130 Points: 1.00 What signal automatically starts #23 Iodine Removal Unit and where are it's disconnects normally operated from?

A.

Containment Radiation Signal, 27 and 45 foot Switchgear Rooms.

B.

Containment Radiation Signal, key switches on 2C10.

C.

Safety Injection Actuation Signal, key switches on 2C10.

D.

Safety Injection Actuation Signal, Cable Spreading Room.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Per LD-58A, CRS secures the Hydrogen Purge System, does not start IRUs. Charging Pump and Component Cooling Pump disconnects are operated from the switchgear rooms and are also 480 volt loads.

B. Incorrect - Per LD-58A, CRS secures the Hydrogen Purge System, does not start IRUs.

C. Correct - Per LD-58A, SlAS starts the IRUs. Per OEB, the disconnects are operated by keyswitches located on 2C10.

D. Incorrect - The disconnects are not located in the Cable Spreading Rooms.

A4 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control KA Number:

OPERATIONS Page: 48 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY

~

Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 1.oo 211 4.6 41.10 143.5 145.13 1

1 I,._

42 ID: Q20381 Points: 1.00 Unit-2 is in Mode 1 at 100% power when a loss of Component Cooling occurs.

Which condition would require a Reactor trip?

A.

B.

C.

D.

RCP Seal Cavity temperature of 200°F.

RCP Controlled Bleed-off temperature of 200°F.

Upper Thrust Bearing temperature of 185°F.

Lower Guide Bearing temperature of 190°F.

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - There is no trip criteria associated with RCP Seal Cavity temperature.

B. Correct - Per AOP-7C and 01-1A C. Incorrect - Upper Thrust Bearing trip criteria is 195°F per AOP-7C and 01-1 A.

D. Incorrect - Lower Guide Bearing trip criteria is 195°F per AOP-7C and 01-1 A.

Bank question None CRO-113-5-5-19 (220381 AOP-7C I Question 42 Info I

L. ~. - I Knowiec I actinn ntnnn OPERATIONS Page: 49 of 85 30 October 2008

43 Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Imoortance:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo 2/1 3.0 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate ID: 451210 Points: 1.00 41.7 SYSTEM: 008 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

K2 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:

0 Modified question None K2.02 CCW pump, including emergency backup Given the Component Cooling system in a norrnal lineup, what supplies emergency power to the Unit-2 Component Cooling Pumps?

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

A.

8.

C.

D.

01-1 6 CRO-113-5-5-03 Q51210 21 Component Cooling Pump - 2A DG 22 Component Cooling Pump - 2B DG 23 Component Cooling Pump - 2A DG 21 Component Cooling Pump - 2A DG 22 Component Cooling Pump - 28 DG 23 Component Cooling Pump - 28 DG 21 Component Cooling Pump - 26 DG 22 Component Cooling Pump - 2A DG 23 Component Cooling Pump - 2B DG 21 Component Cooling Pump - 26 DG 22 Component Cooling Pump - 2A DG 23 Component Cooling Pump - 2A DG Answer:

6 Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Lineups are possible but they are not the normal operating lineups specified in 01-1 6.

B. Correct - Normal operating lineup specified in 01-1 6.

C. Incorrect - Lineups are possible but they are not the normal operating lineups specified in 01-16.

D. Incorrect - Lineups are possible but they are not the normal operating lineups specified in 01-1 6.

30 October 2008 OPERATIONS Page: 50 of 85

44 Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo 2/1 4.2 41.2 to 41.9 145.7 145.8 SYSTEM: 026 Containment Spray System (CSS)

K1 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the CSS and the following systems:

0 K1.O1 ECCS Bank question None LD-58A, EOP Attachments CRO-7-1-5-22A (220402 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: a20402 Poi-1.00 Which combination of ESFAS signals is required to automatically initiate Containment Spray flow?

A.

SlAS and CIS.

B.

CSAS and CVCIS.

C.

CSAS and SGIS.

D.

SlAS and CSAS.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - SlAS starts the Containment Spray pump, CIS does not open the Containment Spray header isolation.

B. Incorrect - CSAS opens the Containment Spray header isolation only, CVCIS does not start the Containment Spray Pumps.

C. Incorrect - CSAS opens the Containment Spray header isolations but SGIS does not start the Containment Spray Pumps.

D. Correct - Per LD-58A the Containment Spray pumps start on SIAS, the Containment Spray Header isolations open on CSAS.

I Question 44 Info 1

OPERATIONS Page: 51 of 85 30 October 2008 I

45 RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Com ments:

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 3.6 41.7 143.5 145.12 SYSTEM: 026 Containment Spray System (CSS) 2.2.37 Ability to determine operability andlor availability of safety related equipment.

Bank question None CRO-113-5-5-09 Q17833 UFSAR, SD-52/61 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: (217833 Points: 1.00 During power operation a LOCA occurred and generated SIAS, CSAS and RAS signals. What purpose will the shutdown cooling heat exchangers be providing when this occurs?

A.

Provides cooling of Containment Spray.

B.

Provides a Shutdown Cooling flowpath.

C.

Provides High Pressure Safety Injection cooling.

D.

Provides Low Pressure Safety Injection cooling.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - RAS realigns CCW flow to the SDC HX to cool Containment Spray Pump discharge flow.

B. Incorrect - Use of the Shutdown Cooling Heat Exchangers as part of the Shutdown Cooling flowpath requires manual re-alignment of the LPSl Pumps.

C. Incorrect - High Pressure Safety Injection flow does not pass through the Shutdown Cooling Heat Exchanger.

D. Incorrect - Low Pressure Safety Injection Pumps (LPSI Pps) are secured automatically upon receipt of RAS. Use of the Shutdown Cooling Heat Exchangers in support of Low Pressure Safety Injection cooling (Shutdown Cooling) requires manual re-alignment of the LPSl Pump flowpaths and starting the LPSl Pumps.

Question 45 Info TierlGrou D I211 Cognitive Level 12.00 OPERATIONS Page: 52 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level RO ImDortance:

Tier/G rou p 46 3.00 211 3.5 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Corn ments:

References:

IO: a16704 points: 1.00 41.7 SYSTEM: 061 Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater System K4 Knowledge of AFW design feature(s) andlor interlock(s) which provide for the following:

0 K4.14 AFW automatic isolation Bank question None CRO-34-1-3-25 Q16704 01-32, 1 C04-ALM, LD-58A Given the following conditions:

0 Unit-I Reactor has tripped 0

0 0

0 1 -PI-I 01 3A thru D indicate 890 PSlA ( I 1 S/G pressure) 1 -PI-1 023A thru D indicate 750 PSlA (1 2 S/G pressure) 1 -LI-I 1 14C & 1 -LR-I114D indicate -180 inches (1 1 S/G level) 1 -LI-l124C & 1 -LR-I124D indicate -21 0 inches (1 2 S/G level)

What is the present status of the Auxiliary Feedwater system?

A.

AFAS block signal to 11 S/G with no AFAS signal present; AFAS signal to 12 S/G, restoring S/G level.

6.

AFAS signal to 11 S/G, restoring S/G level; AFAS signal to 12 SIG, AFAS block signal isolating flow.

C.

AFAS signal to 11 SIG, restoring SIG level; AFAS signal to 12 S/G, restoring S/G level.

D.

AFAS signal to 11 S/G, AFAS block signal isolating flow; AFAS signal to 12 S/G, AFAS block signal isolating flow.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - 12 SG press is less than 11 SG by 140 PSIA. AFAS Block is present to 12 S/G therefore no flow.

B. Correct - AFAS to both with S/G level <: -1 70 inches. AFAS block to 12 based on 140 PSID.

C. Incorrect - 12 SG press is less than 11 SG by 140 PSIA. AFAS Block is present to 12 S/G therefore no flow.

D. Incorrect - An AFAS Block signal cannot be present for both S/Gs at the same time.

I Question 46 Info I

OPERATIONS Page: 53 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 1.oo 2/1 3.4 41.5 145.5 SYSTEM: 062 AC Electrical Distribution Svstem 47 ID: WOO08 Poinls: 1.05 What is the continuous power rating for the 1 B Diesel Generator?

A.

2300 KW B.

2500 KW C.

3000 KW D.

3300 KW Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

Answer:

C Bank question None AI.01 Significance of D/G load limits 01-21 B Q20008 Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - This is the 01 limit when the 1 B Diesel Generator is carrying the bus, by itself, with no SlAS present (01-21 B, Sect 6.4.A.4).

B. Incorrect - This was the original rating of the Diesel Generator prior to engine upgrade modification.

C. Correct - Per 01-21 B, 6.4.A.3 D. Incorrect - This is the limit, stated in 01-216, for use during accident conditions.

AI Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the ac distribution system controls including:

OPERATIONS Page: 54 of 85 30 October 2008

48 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q15971 Points: 1.00 The 1A Diesel Generator (DG) is running under load for periodic testing and is paralleled to 4KV Bus 1 1 via 4KV Bus 17. What is the 1A DG response to a Loss of Offsite Power?

A.

The DG output breaker, 152-1 703, will remain closed maintaining power to all required loads, but bus tie breaker 152-1 701 will open, de-energizing 4KV Bus

11.

B.

The DG output breaker, 152-1703, will remain closed. The 1A DG will try to pick up the required loads.

C.

The DG output breaker, 152-1 703, immediately trips open and remains open until 152-1 703 is manually closed by the operator.

D.

The DG output breaker, 152-1 703, will trip open and automatically reclose to 4KV Bus 17 if no faults exist and the 4KV normal and alternate feeder breakers are open.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The DG will supply 11 4KV bus after the UV signal.

B. Incorrect - The DG will not trip on overcurrent, MCC 124 and lighting transformer breakers are tripped to ensure load remains wlin design.

C. Incorrect - No operator action is required, the output breaker will automatically close.

D. Correct - Correct per DWG 9300B and LP LOI-024CC-1-2, slide 140.

Question 48 Info I

Cognitive Level TierIG rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

21 1 2.6 41.5 143.5 145.3 145.13 SYSTEM: 064 Emergency Diesel Generator (EDIG)

System A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the EDIG system; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

A2.18 Consequences of premature opening of breaker under load Bank question None OI-21A, LD-58A, 15664-0252, sh. 5, LOI-024C-1-2 LOI-024c-1-2 Q15971 Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

OPERATIONS Page: 55 of a5 30 October 2008

49 Coanitive Level EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY I 1.oo CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

ID: Q50930 Poi-.

1-00 1.oo 112 3.7 41.7 / 45.7 APE: 068 Control Room Evacuation A severe fire exists in the Control Room and the Shift Manager has determined a Control Room Evacuation is necessary. You are implementing the appropriate procedure on Unit-I.

Tier/G rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

Which statement best describes the procedural direction for tripping the Reactor?

112 3.7 41.7 / 45.7 APE: 068 Control Room Evacuation A.

Trip the Reactor by manually tripping the Main Turbine at the Front Standard.

canoiaare

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

B.

Trip the Reactor by de-energizing the CEDM MG Sets.

AOP-SA, AOP-SA Basis Doc.

LOR-202-SA-06 (250930 C.

Trip the Reactor by depressing one set of manual Reactor Trip Buttons at 1 C05 or IC15 D.

Trip the Reactor by manually opening the Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers in the Cable Spreading Room.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Per the AOP-SA Basis doc, this action is taken to minimize the possibility of an overcooling transient.

B. Incorrect - Per the AOP-SA Basis doc, this action is taken to provide an additional method of ensuring power is removed to the CEDMs and to reduce the noise levels in the Switchgear Rooms.

C. Correct - This action is directed by AOP-SA, Step 1V.B.

D. Incorrect - This action is NOT directed by AOP-SA.

AK2. Knowledge of the interrelations between the Control Room Evacuation and the following:

0 AK2.02 Reactor kit> svstem Bank, new or modified?

I Modified question pnfnrnnene n r n \\ r i A n r ( tn I

I Comments:

I I

30 October 2008 OPERATIONS Page: 56 of 85

50 Cognitive Level TierlGroup RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References provided to

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 3.00 211 3.4 41.5 141.7 SYSTEM: 005 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply the RHRS:

K5.02 Need for adequate subcooling Modified question AOP3B, Att 8 through 12 AOP3B LOR-202-3B-05 Q51121 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 451121 Points: 1.00 Given

References:

The following conditions exist:

0 Unit 2 RCS level is 43 feet 0

RCS temperature is 120'F 0

The reactor was shut down at 0200 on 12/09 after an extended period of full power operation 0

It is now 2300 on 12/10 0

A loss of shutdown cooling has just occurred Approximately how long will it take to reach saturation temperature?

A.

14 minutes.

B.

16 minutes.

C.

61 minutes.

D.

70 minutes.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - From Attachment 8, time to boil is about 14 minutes, but the time after shutdown factor is not included.

B. Correct - 1.20 is the multiplier for the table in hours, 13.5 x 1.20 = 16.2 minutes.

C. Incorrect - 13.5 minutes time to boil, x 4.57 multiplier = 61 minutes if the applicant enters the table with 45 days instead of hours.

D. Incorrect - If attachment 12 is used, this answer may be selected.

OPERATIONS Page: 57 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 3.9 41.7 I41. I O 143.2 143.3 145.3 APE: 067 Plant Fire On Site 2.2.42 Ability to recognize system parameters that are entry-level conditions for Technical Specifications.

Bank question None TRM 15.7.5 POSE-WWDI-16 Q50931 CCNPP has determined this question is appropriate for inclusion on the RO test based on expected level of knowledge and validation.

51 ID: Q50931 Points: 1.00 The minimum volume of water in each Pretreated Water Storage Tank required by the Te6hnical Requirements Manual for fire fighting is:

A.

500,000 gallons B.

300,000 gallons C.

200,000 gallons D.

150,000 gallons Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Total volume of one tank.

B. Correct - Per TRM 15.7.5.

C. Incorrect - Volume of water available for other functions due to suction standpipe.

D. Incorrect - Volume required for an operable CST per Technical Specifications.

Question 51 Info Cognitive Level 1 1.oo TierlG rou p I112 OPERATIONS Page: 58 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level TierlGroup RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank. new or modified?

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 1 /2 2.8 41.7 145.5 145.6 APE: 069 Loss of Containment Integrity AA1. Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Containment Integrity:

AA1.03 Fluid systems penetrating containment New auestion 52 ID: 450932 Which of the following, by itself, is an actual loss of Containment integrity?

A.

B.

C.

D.

2-SRW-1582-CV, 21 CAC EMER DISCH, is open.

2-SRW-1581 -CV, 21 CAC NORM INLET is shut.

2-EAD-5463-MOV, CNTMT NORM SUMP DRN, is open.

2-SI-41 44-MOV, CNTMT SUMP OUTLET ISOL, is open.

References provided to candidate Points: 1.00 None Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Containment Cooler SRW isolation valves get ESFAS signals. As long as the valves are operable, containment integrity is maintained.

B. Incorrect - Containment Cooler SRW isolation valves get ESFAS signals. As long as the valves are operable, containment integrity is maintained.

C. Incorrect - The normal containment sump valves get an ESFAS signal which will automatically shut the valves, so containment integrity is maintained.

D. Correct - Per STP-0-55-2, Att. 2, 2-SI-4144 must be shut.

References:

Cross Reference Num ber:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

STP-0-55-2 204-1 -03 Q50932 OPERATIONS Page: 59 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level TierlGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 1 12 2.9 43.5 145.1 3 APE: 059 Accidental Liquid Radwaste Release 53 ID: 450933 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

Points: 1.00 New question Liquid Waste Permit AA2.02 The permit for liquid radioactive-waste release CP-601 Q50933 Using provided reference (Liquid Waste Discharge Permit):

Unit 1 is at 100% power with 12A Waterbox removed from service for cleaning. Unit 2 is at 100%

power. A discharge of 12 RCWMT is in progress per the attached permit.

Which of the following would require termination of the release per CP-601?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Loss of 23 Circulating Water Pump.

Loss of 11 Circulating Water Pump.

Any event that results in an ERPIP classification above Unusual Event.

Release flow rate lowers to from 120 GPM to 100 GPM.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The permit only takes credit for Unit 1 CWPs for dilution flowrate.

B. Correct - The dilution flowrate is less than required by the permit.

C. Incorrect - There is no guidance in the ERPIP that specifically requires stopping a release. This might be a prudent action, but is not required by CP-601.

D. Incorrect - Release flowrate listed on the permit is only a maximum.

AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Accidental Liquid Radwaste Release:

OPERATIONS Page: 60 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 54 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 450934 Points: 1.00 Unit-2 is in a refueling outage and you are performing the duties of the RCRO.

Which of the below listed is a responsibility of the RCRO?

A.

Provide alternate core locations for fuel assemblies that cannot be inserted due to interference with other assemblies.

B.

Verify direct voice communications between the Control Room and personnel on refueling stations are established within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> prior to Core Alterations.

C.

Provide Core Alteration progress updates to the Outage Control Center once per shift.

D.

Provide guidance as necessary on corrective actions for fuel assembly or CEA hang-ups.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - This activity is the responsibility of the NFM-SE on shift.

Correct - This activity is an RCRO responsibility per Attachment FH-305-11, Core Alterations Restart Checklist.

Incorrect - This activity is not required by the Fuel handling procedures. This activity would be a distraction to the RCRO. Updates, to the OCC, are normally provided by Nuclear Fuel management personnel.

Incorrect - This activity is NOT an RCRO responsibility. This is an FHS responsibility per Attachment FH-305-12, Instructions for the FHS during Refueling.

fuel handling, such as responding to alarms from the fuel handling area, communication with the fuel storage facility, systems operated from the control room in support of KA Number:

OPERATIONS Page: 61 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 55 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q50950 Points: 1.00 A transient causing a reactor trip has occurred. In addition to the alarms associated with a non-complicated reactor trip, the following are also annunciated on 1 C03 and 1 C05:

SGFP(S) SUCT PRESS LO 11 and 12 SGFPT TRIP 0

11 and 12 MSlV HYD SYS 12 STM LINE RUPTURE 0

SGlS A and SGlS B BLOCK PERMITTED 0

AFW STATUS PANEL SG PRESS LO CH PRE-TRIP CNTMT PRESS HI CH PRE-TRIP Which are correct actions, in EOP-0, for the given conditions?

A.

Verify SGIS, initiate AFAS to feed 11 and 12 S/Gs and secure the condensate pumps.

B.

Verify AFAS Actuation, verify AFAS Block to 12 S/G and secure the Feed and Condensate systems.

C.

Verify SGIS, verify AFAS Block to 12 S/G, initiate AFW to feed 11 S/G.

D.

Verify AFAS Block to 11 S/G, secure the condensate pumps and verify AFAS actuation.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - An ESDE is described by the alarms, there is no reason to secure condensate, but the student may think there is a condensate/feed rupture.

Containment pressure pretrips indicate a large leak into containment, not in the turbine building.

B. Incorrect -These actions are also consistent with a feedkondensate system rupture.

C. Correct - Per EOP-0 and actions expected with an ESDE inside containment.

D. Incorrect - The alarms indicate the failed S/G is 12, not 11.

I Question 55 Info

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Cognitive Level Tier/G rou D RO Importance:

CFR:

I KA Number:

User-Defined ID:

3.00 1 /1 4.1 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.12 APE: 040 Steam Line Rupture 2.4.45 Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm.

New question None EOP-0, Alarm Response Manual for 1 C03 1

Q50950 1

OPERATIONS Page: 62 of 85 30 October 2008

56 Cognitive Level Tier/Group RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo 2/1 2.5 41.7 I45.6 SYSTEM 004 Chemical and Volume Control System K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the CVCS:

0 K5.14 Reduction process of gas concentration in RCS:

vent accumulated non-condensable gases from PZR bubble space, depressurized during cooldown or by alternately heating and cooling (spray) within allowed pressure band (drive more gas out of solution)

New question None OP-5, OI-2A, 01-1G Q50970 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 450970 Points: 1.00 Unit-2 is within 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> of a scheduled shutdown to commence a refueling outage. Plant Chemistry requests RCS Hydrogen concentration be adjusted to 15 cc/kg for shutdown.

How is RCS Hydrogen concentration lowered to approximately 15 cclkg?

A.

Lower VCT pressure by 10 PSIG, momentarily start idle Chg Pps, repeat sequence until desired VCT pressure is obtained.

B.

Lower the Pressurizer Pressure controller setpoint and energize all Pressurizer Heaters to maximize Pressurizer Spray flow.

C.

Open Reactor Vessel Vent SVs for the duration specified by Plant Chemistry; maintain RCDTIQT parameters in spec.

D.

Open Pressurizer Vent SVs for the duration specified by Plant Chemistry; maintain RCDT/QT parameters in spec.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - This is the method specified by 01-2A for conduct of degas operations 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> prior to shutdown of the reactor.

6. Incorrect - This outlines the basic methodology for equalizing boron concentration between the Pressurizer and the Reactor Coolant System.

C. Incorrect - Procedure for use of Reactor Vessel Vent SVs covers venting of the RCS after an accident. Procedure is not used for degas of RCS during power operation.

D. Incorrect - Procedure for use of Pressurizer Vent SVs to degas the RCS requires the Unit be in Modes 3, 4 or 5.

57 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q!jO!MO Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

0 0

An overcooling event caused RCS pressure to lower to 1525 PSlA and RCS temperature to lower to 486°F before the overcooling event was terminated RCS pressure is now 2250 PSlA and RCS temperature is 515°F and stable Pressurizer level rose to approximately 255 inches and all charging pumps have been secured It has been 35 minutes since the initial transient began How will the plant respond to resetting SlAS in this condition?

A.

RCS pressure will continue to rise until the Pressurizer heaters are secured and RCS temperature will be stabilized with the ADVs.

6.

RCS pressure will be maintained by Pressurizer heaters and spray at 2250 PSlA and RCS temperature will be stabilized by TBVs when condenser vacuum is restored.

C.

RCS pressure will lower causing an additional SlAS due to the large volume of subcooled water added to the Pressurizer.

D.

RCS pressure will lower until 11 and 13 Pressurizer Backup heaters have been reset. RCS temperature can be maintained with ADVs or TBVs.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - There is not enough energy in the heaters to overcome the cooler water added by the charging pumps, so RCS pressure will lower.

B. Incorrect - There is not enough energy in the heaters to overcome the cooler water added by the charging pumps, so RCS pressure will lower.

C. Correct - This is a description of the January 2004 event at Calvert Cliffs which included a second SIAS. There is not enough energy in the heaters to overcome the cooler water added by the charging pumps, so RCS pressure will lower.

D. Incorrect - Even with all heaters energized, RCS pressure will continue to lower.

OPERATIONS Page: 64 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 57 Info Cognitive Level 12.00 TierIGrouD I211 RO Importance:

CFR.

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

3.7 41.2 to 41.9 145.7 to 45.8 SYSTEM 01 3 Enaineered Safetv Features Actuation System (ESFASj K1 Knowledge of the physical connections andlor cause effect relationships between the ESFAS and the following systems:

K1.I 8 Premature reset of ESF actuation New question None LOl-348-1-9 Q50990 OPERATIONS Page: 65 of 85 30 October 2008

58 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 I D 450992 points: %oo Given the following:

0 0

0 0

Unit-I has tripped due to a Loss of Offsite Power.

1 1 and 14 4KV busses are energized from the Diesel Generators.

Pressurizer level lowers to 80 inches due to the reactor trip.

RCS pressure and temperature are stable at 2250 PSlA and 532OF How will Pressurizer level respond with no operator action?

A.

Pressurizer level will lower approximately 3 inches per minute.

6.

Pressurizer level will rise approximately 6 inches per minute.

C.

Pressurizer level will stabilize at approximately 80 inches.

D.

Pressurizer level will lower approximately 1 inch every 3 minutes.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - candidate may divide 6 GPM into 18 gal/inch and come up with 3 inches per minute instead of 1 inch every 3 minutes.

B. Incorrect - candidate may think three charging pumps start automatically.

C. Incorrect - candidate may forget RCP Bleedoff flow.

D. Correct - assuming 6 GPM RCP Bleedoff flow with a Pressurizer volume of approximately 18 gallonshnch.

actor Coolant Makeup:

OPERATIONS Page: 66 of 85 30 October 2008 t

59 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: (250993 Points: 1.00 Unit-2 is at 100% power when the Turbine Building Operator reports the condensate system has ruptured downstream of the Condensate Booster Pumps.

What affect will this event have on the plant with no operator action, and what action should the operators take?

A.

With no operator action, RCS temperature and pressure will rise, causing a TM/LP reactor trip.

The crew should trip the reactor, verify Reactivity Control, secure the feed and condensate systems, start an AFW pump, and then continue with EOP-0.

B.

With no operator action, RCS temperature and pressure will rise, causing a TMlLP reactor trip.

The crew should trip the reactor, implement EOP-0 and, during Core and RCS Heat Removal, manually initiate SGIS, trip the operating condensate pumps and start an AFW pump.

C.

With no operator action, the reactor will trip on low steam generator level.

The crew should manually initiate SGIS, trip the reactor, verify Reactivity Control, start an AFW pump, and then continue with EOP-0.

D.

With no operator action, the reactor will trip on low steam generator level.

The crew should trip the reactor, verify Reactivity Control, secure the feed and condensate systems, start an AFW pump, and then continue with EOP-0.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - The reactor will trip on low steam generator level due to the loss of feed to the S/Gs.

B. Incorrect - The reactor will trip on low steam generator level due to the loss of feed to the S/Gs. AOP-3G for a condensate or feed system rupture directs the operators to trip the reactor, verify Reactivity Control, trip both SGFPs, secure HTR DRN PPs, Condensate and Condensate Booster pumps, shut main feed MOVs, start an AFW pump and then continue with EOP-0.

C. Incorrect - AOP3G for a condensate or feed system rupture directs the operators to trip the reactor, verify Reactivity Control, trip both SGFPs, secure HTR DRN PPs, Condensate and Condensate Booster pumps, shut main feed MOVs, start an AFW pump and then continue with EOP-0.

D. Correct - The reactor will trip on low steam generator level due to the loss of feed to the S/Gs. AOP3G for a condensate or feed system rupture directs the operators to trip the reactor, verify Reactivity Control, trip both SGFPs, secure HTR DRN PPs, Condensate and Condensate Booster pumps, shut main feed MOVs, start an AFW pump and then continue with EOP-0.

OPERATIONS Page: 67 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 59 Info Cognitive Level TierIGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate References :

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

2.00 211

'11

0.

I 41.5 143.5 145.3 145.1 3 SYSTEM: 059 Main Feedwater (MFW) System A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the MFW; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

0 A2.05 Rupture in MFW suction or discharge line Modified question None AOP-3G LOI-202-3G Q50993 OPERATIONS Page: 68 of 85 30 O c t o b x

60 RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 3.3 41 "7 145.6 SYSTEM: 007 Pressurizer Relief TanWQuench Tank System (PRTS)

K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the PRTS will have on the following:

0 K3.01 Containment New question None ARMS for 1 C06 and 1 C10 Q51010 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: QSlOlO Points: 1.00 Quench Tank Pressure and level are at normal operating values when the Quench Tank RV, RC-242-RV, fails open.

What is the effect of the Quench Tank RV failing open on containment parameters?

A.

There is no effect on containment parameters.

B.

Containment pressure, observed on 1 CIO, rises slightly.

C.

Containment temperature and humidity, observed on 1 C10, rise slightly.

D.

CNTMT NORMAL SUMP LVL HI alarm annunciates.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - The Quench Tank RV lifts at 35 PSI and discharges to the Waste Gas Header. The Quench Tank Rupture Disc does not rupture until 100 PSI. Normal Quench Tank Pressure is less than 10 PSI.

B. Incorrect - The discharge from the Quench Tank RV is contained by the Waste Gas Header.

C. Incorrect - The discharge from the Quench Tank RV is contained by the Waste Gas Header.

D. Incorrect - The discharge from the Quench Tank RV is contained by the Waste Gas Header.

Question 60 Info TiedGrouD I211 Cognitive Level 12.00 OPERATIONS Page: 69 of 85 30 October 2008

61 RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.9 41.7 145.6 SYSTEM: 022 Containment Cooling System (CCS)

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

ID: 451011 Points: 1.00 When implementing CCNPP Emergency Operating Procedures which of the below indications is provided with compensated values for a harsh containment environment?

A.

Pressurizer level B.

Steam Generator pressure C.

D.

Pressurizer Water temperature Hi Range Containment Radiation Monitors K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CCS will have on the following:

0 K3.01 Containment equipment subject to damage by high or low temperature, humidity, and pressure New question None EOP-4 and EOP-5 Q51011 Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Per EOP-4 and EOP-5.

B. Incorrect - Compensated values are not provided for this parameter.

C. Incorrect - Compensated values are not provided for this parameter.

D. Incorrect - Compensated values are not provided for this parameter.

Question 61 Info Coanitive Level I1.oo Tier/G rou D I2/1 OPERATIONS Page: 70 of 85 30 October 2008

62 Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 2/1 3.3 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8 SYSTEM: 062 AC Electrical Distribution System A4 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room :

0 A4.01 All breakers (including available switchyard Bank question None 1 C19-ALM CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: (215852 Points: 1.00 On panel 1 C19 the U-I 4KV ESF FDR BKR TRIP alarm has annunciated. Which of the following is a possible cause?

A.

Breaker 252-1 101, 13KV/4KV Feeder to U-4000-13, has tripped.

B.

Breaker 152-1414, 4KV Bus #14 Feeder from U-4000-21, has tripped.

C.

Breaker 152-1 104, #I 1 LPSl Pump breaker, has tripped D.

Breaker 52-1 1 12, U-440-11A Low Side Feeder Breaker, has tripped.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - This breaker does not feed a safety related bus and is not listed as a possible cause for the U-1 4KV ESF FDR BKR TRIP alarm.

B. Correct - lCl9-ALM, Window R-03, lists this breaker as a possible cause for the U-I 4KV ESF FDR BKR TRIP alarm.

C. Incorrect - This breaker does not feed a safety related bus and is not listed as a possible cause for the U-1 4KV ESF FDR BKR TRIP alarm.

D. Incorrect - This breaker feeds a 480V safety related bus and is not listed as a possible cause for the U-1 4KV ESF FDR BKR TRIP alarm.

Cross Reference Number: I User-Defined ID:

I Q15852 I Comments:

OPERATIONS Page: 71 of 85 30 October 2008

63 RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.6 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8 SYSTEM: 076 Service Water Svstem (SWS)

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

ID: QSlOlZ Points: 1.00 0

A4.02 SWS valves New question None CRO-113-3-5-10 Q51012 1 /2-LD-58A The CAC Service Water inlet isolations on 1 (2)C13 indicate and upon receipt of an RAS.

upon receipt of a SlAS A.

Open on SIAS, throttled on RAS.

B.

Throttled on SIAS, shut on RAS.

C.

Throttled on SIAS, open on RAS.

D.

Shut on SIAS, open on RAS.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Per LD-58A, the CAC SRW inlet isolations go to the throttled position on SlAS and the open position on RAS.

B. Incorrect - Per LD-58A, the CAC SRW inlet isolations go to the throttled position on SlAS and the open position on RAS.

C. Correct - Per LD-58A, the CAC SRW inlet isolations go to the throttled position on SlAS and the open position on RAS.

D. Incorrect - Per LD-58A, the CAC SRW inlet isolations go to the throttled position on SlAS and the open position on RAS.

I Question 63 Info I

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Cognitive Level 11.00 Tier/G rou D 1211 I KA Number:

A4 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room :

OPERATIONS Page: 72 of 85 30 October 2008 i

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY TierIGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate References :

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

64 211 2.5 41.5 143.5 145.3 145.1 3 SYSTEM: 063 DC Electrical Distribution System A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the DC electrical systems; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

A2.01 Grounds New question None 1 C33-ALM, T-20, Ungrounded Electrical Systems Lesson Plan.

GROUND TRAINING PPT, REV 2 Q51013 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 451013 PoinrS: 1.00 A 125V DC GROUND DETECTED alarm is received. It has been determined that a ground exists on 21 DC Bus.

What effect does this have on plant operations and what actions should be taken?

A.

21 DC Bus is automatically de-energized. AOP-7J is implemented for the loss of 21 DC Bus.

B.

21 DC Bus is manually de-energized. AOP-7J is implemented for the loss of 21 DC Bus.

C.

The breaker associated with the grounded load will trip on ground fault.

Operators must identify the failed instrument or equipment and take action as necessary.

D.

21 DC Bus is in jeopardy of being lost. Troubleshooting should be performed to identify and isolate the ground.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - 21 DC bus would not be deenergized by the presence of a single ground.

B. Incorrect - The inverters are not deenergized. The DC Bus would have to be deenergized for the inverters to be deenergized.

C. Incorrect - DC loads are supplied by fused disconnects. There are no breakers to trip.

D. Correct - CCNPP employs an ungrounded 125 VDC System. On an ungrounded system, the presence of a second ground could jeopardize the bus.

Question 64 Info Coanitive Level 12.00 I

OPERATIONS Page: 73 of 85 30 October 2008

65 Cognitive Level TierlG rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo 211 3.6 41.2 to 41.9 145.7 145.8 SYSTEM: 103 Containment System CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 candidate

References:

ID: 425299 Points: 1.00 AOP-SA and AOP-SA Basis Doc During AOP-SA, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION AND SAFE SHUTDOWN DUE TO A SEVERE CONTROL ROOM FIRE, why are two (2) containment air coolers started?

A.

To cool the RCP bays to prevent seal degradation and a possible LOCA.

B.

To aid in maintaining the containment pressure below the SlAS actuation setpoint.

C.

To support equipment operability and personnel habitability upon containment entry.

D.

To reduce the humidity within the containment and keep the WRNls operable.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - Per AOP-SA Basis Doc, 11 and 12 CACs are started to enhance equipment operability and personnel habitability.

Incorrect - Per AOP-SA Basis Doc, 1 1 and 12 CACs are started to enhance equipment operability and personnel habitability.

Correct - Per AOP-SA Basis Doc, 1 1 and 12 CACs are started to enhance equipment operability and personnel habitability.

Incorrect - Per AOP-SA Basis Doc, 11 and 12 CACs are started to enhance equipment operability and personnel habitability.

K1 Knowledge of the physical connections andlor cause effect relationships between the containment system and the following systems:

1.

K1.O1 CCS I Bank auestion Bank. new or modified?

Cross Reference Number: [

User-Defined ID:

I Q25299 I Comments:

I OPERATIONS Page: 74 of 85 30 Octo-

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 0

A3.01 Air pressure Bank question None 202-7-02 Q25078 Dwg 61082 - Sh 0007, AOP-7D 66 ID: a25078 Points: 1.00 Why must the handswitch for Containment Instrument Air Isolation, IA-2085-CV, be placed in "OPEN" and immediately released when restoring Instrument Air to containment?

A.

If held in "OPEN", the solenoid valve will remain energized and overheat causing the CV to fail in the shut position.

B.

The CV will NOT open until the handswitch spring-returns to the "AUTO" position energizing the time delay relay.

C.

If held in "OPEN" for greater than six seconds the time delay is locked in and the CV will NOT shut in "AUTO".

D.

The handswitch spring-returns to "AUTO" allowing the valve to shut if downstream pressure lowers to 75 PSIG.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Overheating of the relay is not a concern.

B. Incorrect - The CV will open as soon as the handswitch is taken to the "OPEN" position.

C. Incorrect - Momentarily placing the handswitch in open does not bypass the time delay associated with the handswitch.

D. Correct - Per AOP-7D, by immediately releasing handswitch 1-HS-2085, it can be determined if the leak is in Containment. If the valve reshuts, there is a leak in Containment.

Question 66 Info Cognitive Level 12.00 Tier/Group I2/1 RO Importance:

13.1 CFR:

141.7 / 45.5 SYSTEM: 078 Instrument Air System (IAS)

A3 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the IAS, including:

KA Number:

67 Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 2/ 1 2.8 41.7 SYSTEM: 076 Service Water System (SWS)

K4 Knowledge of SWS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:

New question None CRO-113-3-5-19 Q51031 K4.06 Service water train separation 01-1 5 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 I D 451031 Points: 1.00 Which of the following provides train separation for the Unit-2 Service Water (SRW) system?

A.

Two separate SRW headers in both the turbine building and the auxiliary building.

B.

Suction and discharge valves for 23 SRW Pump are administratively controlled by locking them in the desired position.

C.

Spoolpieces are removed and blind flanges are installed to separate 21 and 22 SRW subsystems when required.

D.

The time delay associated with the SlAS automatic start of 23 SRW PP when it is aligned to either 21 or 24 4KV bus.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - U-2 Turbine Building SRW loads are supplied from a common header fed from both 21 & 22 SRW subsystems. The Turbine is isolated on a SlAS signal.

Correct - 21 & 22 subsystems can be cross-connected, by manipulation of manual valves, at 23 SRW Pump suction and discharge.

Incorrect - 21 and 22 SRW subsystems can be cross-connected at 23 SRW Pump.

Plausible: The statement is true - but not sufficient - the cross tie at the 23 SRW pump obviates the separation provided by spool pieces Incorrect - This feature prevents 2 pump operation on one header and provides redundancy should the normal pump fail to start.

OPERATIONS Page: 76 of 85 30 October 2008

68 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51032 Points: 1.00 Reactor power is 1 %. The Reactor Operator depresses both Reactor trip push buttons or1 1 C05.

What is the final status of CEDS, what is the initial response of the primary and secondary systems and what actions should be taken?

A.

All 8 Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers open.

All CEAs insert, Tcold lowers, Pressurizer Level lowers and Steam Generator Pressure rises.

Implement EOP-0, Post Trip Immediate Actions.

B.

All 8 Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers open.

All CEAs insert, Tcold lowers, Pressurizer Level lowers and Steam Generator Pressure lowers.

Implement AOP-7E, Main Turbine Malfunctions, for Turbine Trip.

C.

Only 4 Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers open.

All CEAs insert, Tcold is unchanged, Pressurizer Level is unchanged and Steam Generator Pressure is unchanged.

Implement EOP-0, Post Trip Immediate Actions.

D.

Only 4 Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers open; All CEAs insert, Tcold is unchanged, Pressurizer Level is unchanged and Steam Generator Pressure is unchanged; Implement AOP-7E, Main Turbine Malfunctions, for Turbine Trip.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - Initially, 4 TCBs will open causing CEAs to insert. A loss of load trip is not enabled, so RPS will not open the remaining 4 TCBs.

Incorrect - Initially, 4 TCBs will open causing CEAs to insert. A loss of load trip is not enabled, so RPS will not open the remaining 4 TCBs. AOP-7E for Turbine Trip is entered when Rx power is low and the turbine trips, but not the reactor. The candidate may confuse the given condition with the turbine tripping w/o the reactor trip.

Correct - Initially, 4 TCBs will open causing CEAs to insert. A loss of load trip is not enabled, so RPS will not open the remaining 4 TCBs. At 1 % no change of primary or secondary parameters is expected.

Incorrect - AOP-7E for Turbine Trip is entered when Rx power is low and the turbine trips, but not the reactor. The candidate may confuse the given condition with the turbine tripping w/o the reactor trip.

OPERATIONS Page: 77 of 85 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 68 Info Cognitive Level TierlGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

3.00 212 4.1 41.5 I 43.5 145.3 I 45.1 3 SYSTEM: 001 Control Rod Drive System A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunction or operations on the CRDS-and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

0 New question None A2.07 Effect of reactor trip on primary and secondary parameters and systems SD-055, LOI-58-1-2 Q51032 OPERATIONS Page: 78 of 85 30 October 2008

69 TierlGroup RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 212 3.6 41.7 145.5 SYSTEM: 068 Liquid Radwaste System (LRS)

A3 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Liquid Radwaste System including:

0 A3.02 Automatic isolation New question CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 References provided to candidate ID: 451033 Points: 1.00 None 12 RCWMT is being discharged at 120 GPM per an approved permit when the LIQUID WASTE DISCH high alarm is received at 1C22. 0-MWS-2201-CV and 0-MWS-2202-CV fail to shut.

References :

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Which is the correct initial operator response?

1 C22-ALM, 01-1 7C-4, AOP-6B Q51033 A.

Shut the Liquid Waste RMS Outlet Valve, 0-MWS-528 and allow the RCWMT Pump being used for the discharge to continue running.

B.

Stop the pump that was being used for the discharge and shut the Liquid Waste RMS Outlet Valve, 0-MWS-528.

C.

Secure the discharge by isolating Instrument Air to 0-MWS-2201 -CV and 0-MWS-2202-CV.

D.

Place the Operation Selector Switch for 0-RI-2201 to the Level Cal position and flush 0-RI-2201 with DI water.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - 1 C22-ALM specifies these actions for high background radiation levels.

B. Correct - 1 C22-ALM specifies implementation of AOP-6B, Accidental Liquid Waste Release if the RMS alarms high with a Liquid Waste Discharge.

C. Incorrect - Not an action specified by the ARM.

D. Incorrect - Not an action specified by the ARM or the AOP. Plausible because this is the correct response to a highly contaminated liquid waste radiation monitor.

Question 69 Info Coanitive Level I1.oo 1 Comments:

OPERATIONS Page: 79 of 85 30 October 2008

70 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: a17947 Points: 1.430 Whose permission is required for TEDE-ALARA dose to exceed 4000 mrem/yr for Operations personnel?

A.

B.

C.

GS-RP, GS-SO and M-NO.

GS-RP, GS-SO. M-NO, PGM and VP-CCNPP.

GS-RP, GS-SO, M-NO and PGM.

D.

GS-RP, M-NO and VP-CCNPP.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct - These permissions are required to exceed 4000 mrem/yr all Dose (not to exceed regulatory limit) as specified in administrative procedure RP-1-100, Radiation Protection.

Incorrect - These permissions are required to exceed 3000 mrem/yr all Dose, as specified in administrative procedure RP-1 -1 00, Radiation Protection.

Incorrect - These permissions are required to exceed 2000 mrem/yr all Dose, as specified in administrative procedure RP-1-100, Radiation Protection.

Incorrect - This distracter omits GS-SO & PGM permissions.

Question 70 Info Cognitive Level 11.oo RO Importance:

13.2 CFR:

I41.I2 / 43.4 / 45.10 I KA Number:

~

I 3 Q uiowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal I ur erriergency conditions.

I Bank question Bank, new or modified?

I References provided to candidate None I Comments:

OPERATIONS Qage: 80 of 85 30 October 2008

71 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: (251051 Points: 1.80 How is a leak in the Waste Gas System prevented from reaching the environment unmonitored?

A.

The Auxiliary Building Exhaust Fans are secured per AOP-6C, Accidental Gaseous Waste Release.

B.

Roughing filters are installed in the Waste Processing Exhaust Ventilation System.

C.

The Auxiliary Building Ventilation System maintains a negative pressure in the Auxiliary Building.

D.

The Waste Processing Ventilation RMS isolates the Waste Processing Area Ventilation System.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - AOP-6C does not secure the Auxiliary Building Exhaust Fans. Securing the Auxiliary Building Exhaust Fans would prevent a negative pressure from existing in the Auxiliary Building.

B. Incorrect - Roughing filters are designed for removal of particulate material C. Correct - as described in SD-32.

D. Incorrect - The Waste Processing Ventilation RMS provides alarm function only.

Question 71 Info Cognitive Level TierlGroup RO Importance:

I CFR: +

KA Number:

candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

2.00 I

212 L. I 41.7 145.6 SYSTEM: 071 Waste Gas Disposal System (WGDS)

K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Waste Gas Disposal System will have on the following:

SD-32, AOP-6C Q51051 OPERATIONS Page: 81 of 85 30 October 2008

72 Cognitive Level TierIGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Com ments:

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 212 2.7 41.5 145.5 SYSTEM: 033 Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System (SFPCS)

AI Ability to predict andlor monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System operating the controls including:

New question None AI.01 Spent fuel pool water level AOP-6F Q51050 CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51050 Points: 1.00 Spent Fuel Pool Level is 65.5 feet and slowly lowering. The appropriate procedure has been implemented.

Which of the following lists the SFP make-up sources in order of preference?

A.

Borated water from the RWT, Borated water from the CVCS system, Demineralized Water.

B.

Borated water from the RWT, Demineralized Water, Fire Main.

C.

Borated water from the RWT, Demineralized Water, Plant Service Water D.

Borated water from the RWT, Demineralized Water, Condensate.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - No direct flowpath from CVCS System to the SFP Cooling System B. Correct - Per AOP-6F C. Incorrect - PSW is not listed as a make-up source in the AOP.

D. Incorrect - Condensate is not listed as a make-up source in the AOP.

OPERATIONS Page: 82 of 85 30 October 2008

73 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q20605 Points: 1.00 Which radiation monitor detects noble gas releases from the Atmospheric Dump Valves?

A.

Wide Range Noble Gas Monitor (RIC-5415)

B.

Main Steam Line Radiation Monitor (RE-5421)

C.

SIG Blowdown Tank Area Radiation Monitor (RI-7012)

D.

Condenser Off-Gas Radiation Monitor (RE-1 752A-D)

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect -Wide Range Noble Gas Monitor (RIC-5415) monitors Main Vent stack.

B. Correct - Main Steam Line Radiation Monitor (RE-5421, 22)--correct per OM-98 sh.

2.

C. Incorrect - S/G Blowdown Tank Area Radiation Monitor (RI-7012) measures dose rates near the Atmospheric Dump Valve enclosures. It does not detect noble gases.

D. Incorrect - Condenser Off-Gas Radiation Monitor (RE-1 752A-D) incorrect, these monitor the CAR suctions.

OPERATIONS Page: 83 of 85 30 October 2008

74 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12108 ID: Q19570 Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

EOP-1 has been implemented 0

0 Unit I tripped from 100°/~ due to a Turbine trip.

Abnormal conditions noted in EOP-0 were two stuck CEAs and 11 Charging Pump tripped A loss of 14 4KV Bus occurs What is the appropriate action?

A.

Implement EOP-8 due to NOT meeting reactivity control and the loss of 14 4KV bus.

B.

Implement EOP-2 for the loss of power.

C.

Continue with EOP-I and implement AOP-71 for the loss of 14 4 KV bus.

D.

Implement EOP-8 due to NOT meeting Vital Auxiliaries.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Boration is in progress with 13 charging pump.

B. Incorrect - EOP-2 deals with Natural Circulation. The RCPs would remain in service.

C. Correct - Basis NO-1-201 Calvert Cliffs Operating Manual Parallel Actions and boration initiated via 13 charging pump in EOPs.

D. Incorrect - VA is met only one 4k bus is required.

OPERATIONS Page: 84 of 85 30 October 2008

75 Cognitive Level TierlGrou p RO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 211 3.6 41.7 / 45.6 SYSTEM: 073 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM)

System K3 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the PRM system will have on the following:

0 K3.01 Radioactive effluent releases Bank question CCNPP RO NRC Exam - 12/08 References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

ID: a51133 Points: 1.00 None SD 077/079 A discharge of 12 WGDT is in progress when the Waste Gas Discharge RMS, 0-RE-21 91, loses electrical power.

What effect does this have on the discharge, and what operator actions are required?

A.

Discharge valves 0-WGS-2191 and 0-WGS-2192 remain open, dispatch an operator to shut the Waste Gas Discharge Valves locally.

B.

Discharge valves 0-WGS-2191 and 0-WGS-2192 remain open, dispatch an operator to shut Waste Gas Discharge Header Flow Control Valve, O-WGS-21 91 -PCV.

C.

Discharge valves 0-WGS-2191 and 0-WGS-2192 shut, contact Radiation Protection to take surveys of the WGDTs and to evacuate the area.

D.

Discharge valves 0-WGS-2191 and 0-WGS-2192 shut, dispatch an operator to shut Waste Gas Discharge Header Flow Control Valve, 0-WGS-2191-PCV.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - De-energizing the RMS will cause the discharge valves to shut.

B. Incorrect - De-energizing the RMS will cause the discharge valves to shut. No need to shut the CVs locally.

C. Incorrect - The actions are not directed by any procedure, radiation levels in the area should not change.

D. Correct - De-energizing the RMS will cause the discharge valves to shut, per AOP-6C, for this condition, the first step is to verify The CVs and the PCV are shut.

OPERATIONS Page: 85 of 85 30 October 2008

76 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 420627 Points: 1.00 Which of the following is a specific responsibility of the Shift Manager prior to commencing a core onload from a defueled condition?

A.

Verify Containment Purge is in operation and that all required ESFAS equipment is operable to support core alterations.

B.

Review the Temporary Alteration Log for operability impact of equipment required for core alterations.

C.

Review Required Reading for changes in procedures which may affect the operation of equipment required for core alterations.

D.

Certify and initial that no projects OR modifications are currently outstanding which could impact core alterations.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - No requirement exists for Containment Purge to be in operation prior to commencement of core onload. If Containment Purge is in operation, its ESFAS features must be operable in support of Core Alterations.

Correct - OP-7, Sect 6.9.B, Core Alteration Checklist for Fuel Movement, requires Shift Manager initials signifying this requirement is met.

Incorrect - Not a requirement of OP-7.

Incorrect - This is a responsibility (signoff) of Principle Engineers per the OP-7, Core Alteration Checklist for Fuel Movement.

OPERATIONS Page: 1 of 36 30 October 2008

77 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: a14490 Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

0 0

PIC-I OOX is selected Unit-I is at 100% power RCS Pressure Control in AUTO RCS Pressure is 2250 PSlA What is the IMMEDIATE plant response if the selected Pressurizer Pressure controller setpoint fails to 2360 PSlA and what operator action is required?

A.

Spray valves open, proportional heaters output goes to maximum, and all backup heaters energize if in "AUTO".

Place HIC-100 in manual with an output of 0%.

B.

Spray valves shut, proportional heaters output goes to minimum, and all backup heaters deenergize if in "AUTO".

Place HIC-100 in manual with an output of 50%.

C.

Spray valves open, proportional heaters output goes to minimum, and all backup heaters energize if in "AUTO".

Shift Pressurizer Pressure Control to PIC-I OOY.

D.

Spray valves shut, proportional heaters output goes to maximum, and all backup heaters remain deenergized if in "AUTO".

Shift Pressurizer Pressure Control to PIC-I OOY.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Backup heaters energize at 2200 PSlA and deenergize at 2225 PSlA as indicated on the selected PZR PRESS control channel.

B. Incorrect - Backup heaters energize at 2200 PSlA and deenergize at 2225 as indicated on selected control channel.

C. Incorrect - Proportional heaters are on at full power at -25 PSlA and at minimum power +25 PSlA from setpoint on the selected PZR PRESS control channel.

D. Correct - Spray valves begin to open on a + 50 PSlA from setpoint signal, fully open at +IO0 PSlA from selected PZR PRESS control channel. Proportional heaters are on at full power at -25 PSlA and at minimum power +25 PSlA from setpoint on the selected PZR PRESS control channel. Backup heaters energize at 2200 PSlA and deenergize at 2225 PSlA as indicated on the selected PZR PRESS control channel.

OPERATIONS Page: 2 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Group SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 1 /1 3.6 43.5 027 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)

Malfunction:

AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions:

0 Bank question None LOI-064A2-1 Q14490 AA2.10 PZR heater energized/de-energized condition SD-064D Question 77 Info OPERATIONS Page: 3 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

78 2.00 1 /I 4.4 43.5 APE: 054 Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW)

AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW):

Bank question None AA2.01 Occurrence of reactor and/or turbine trip AOP3G Q51072 CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51072 Points: 1.00 Unit-2 is operating at 100% power when 21 SGFP trips.

What trip criteria should the CRS provide the crew to avoid an automatic reactor trip?

A.

B.

C.

D.

LO LVL SG pre-trip alarms in and S/G Level not recovering.

PROT CH TRIP" alarm annunciates.

"21 SGFP TRIP" annunciates and feed flow is less than steam flow.

The Technical Specification limit for DNB is being exceeded (Tcold or RCS pressure).

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct - S/G Low Level Pretrip without feedflow greater than steam flow generally indicates the transient is not under control such that an automatic trip cannot be avoided.

Incorrect - This alarm will annunciate in close proximity to the automatic trip of the reactor and would not allow enough time to manually trip the reactor.

Incorrect - There is enough time to reset the tripped SGFP and restore S/G level.

Incorrect - Tcold of > 548°F could be expected with lowering S/G level and does not in itself require a trip.

OPERATIONS Page: 4 of 36 30 October2008

79 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51073 Points: 1.00 Given references:

The following conditions exist on Unit-I :

0 0

0 0

0 The time is 0330 On 12/06/08 A plant startup is in progress The unit is in Mode 3 Preparations are being made for entry into Mode 2 It has been discovered the last channel check on the Containment High Range Area Radiation Monitors 1 -RE-531 7A and 1 -RE-531 7B was performed at 1200 on 10/23/08 Which ONE of the following describes the operability of the Containment High Range Area Monitors, and the action that will be taken?

I-RE-531 7A and I-RE-531 7B are considered..

A.

The Containment High Range Area Monitors are operable; All surveillance requirements are current and plant startup to Mode 1 may proceed.

B.

The Containment High Range Area Monitors are operable; Surveillance completion may be delayed up to 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> (31 days with a risk evaluation). Plant startup to Mode 1 may proceed.

C.

The Containment High Range Area Monitors are inoperable; Plant startup may NOT proceed to Mode 1 until BOTH channels are restored to operable status.

D.

The Containment High Range Area Monitors are inoperable; Plant startup may NOT proceed to Mode 1 until AT LEAST ONE channel is restored to operability.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

Incorrect - Surveillance requirements are not met, because a 31 day interval plus 1.25 times the interval is 39 days. The surveillance was last performed 44 days ago.

Plausible if candidate either miscounts or refers to surveillance for channel calibration.

Correct - See TS section 3.0 for missed surveillance.

Incorrect - TS section 3.0 refers to missed surveillances and allows operability to be maintained as long as the surveillance is completed within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />. The action required does not have to be performed unless the channel is determined to be inoperable. Plausible because the candidate may assume that not meeting a required surveillance time means the channel is inoperable, and the actual TS does not exclude the LCO from TS 3.0.4 requirements.

OPERATIONS Page: 5 of 36 30 October 2008 I

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 4.6 43.5 SYSTEM: 072 Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) System 2.2.37 Ability to determine operability and/or availability of safety related equipment.

New question T.S. 3.3.7 0 and Section 3.0 of the Tech Specs.

T.S. 3.3.1 0 and Section 3.0 of the Tech Specs.

Q51073 1 OCFR55.43 (b) item 2 is met because the candidate must be able to interpret TS action for missed surveillances.

212 D. Incorrect - Same as C. TS section 3.0 refers to missed surveillances and allows operability to be maintained as long as the surveillance is completed within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

The action required does not have to be performed unless the channel is determined to be inoperable. Plausible because the candidate may assume that not meeting a required surveillance time means the channel is inoperable, and the actual TS does not exclude the LCO from TS 3.0.4 requirements. In this case, the candidate may also fail to correctly read all of the action requirements and assume that at least 1 channel must be operable to continue.

'Page: 6 of 36 30 October 2008 OPERATIONS

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 80 CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51076 Points: 1.00 21 STM LINE RUPTURE alarm annunciates.

What indications are used to validate the alarm and what action is expected to be performed by the RO/CRO?

A.

21 S/G pressure less than or equal to 705 PSIA.

Verify 21 MSlV and Main Feed MOV shut.

B.

C.

D.

21 S/G pressure less than 22 SIG pressure by 115 PSIA or more.

Verify AFW Block Valves shut to 21 S/G.

Containment Pressure 2.8 PSlG or greater.

Verify 21 and 23 HPSl Pumps start, Main and Aux HPSI Header MOVs open.

21 S/G level less than 22 SIG level by 20 inches or more.

Verify 21 Main Feed Regulating Valve fails as is; ensure Bypass Feed Reg Valve controls S/G level.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - This is the SGIS setpoint with partial actions to be verified for SGIS.

B. Correct - Setpoint is the same for this alarm and AFAS Block actuation, and actions per the Alarm Response Manual.

C. Incorrect - This is the setpoint for SIAS, and partial actions to verify SIAS.

D. incorrect - At 20" an automatic transfer from highllow power FDWTR control is stopped. Action is for manual transfer per 01-1 2A.

OPERATIONS Page: 7 of 36 30 October 2008

81 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 451075 Points: 1.00 Given references:

The following conditions exist:

0 A reactor trip has occurred on Unit 2 0

While performing EOP-1, Reactor Trip, 500 KV Off-Site power is lost 0

NEITHER EDG automatically starts 0

The 2A EDG is started from the Control Room and aligned to 21 4KV Bus five (5) minutes after off-site power is lost 0

Eight (8) minutes later, 2B EDG is locally started and aligned to 24 4KV Bus 0

Off-Site power will be available in approximately 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> Which ONE of the following describes the procedure that will be entered upon completion of rediagnosis, and the HIGHEST emergency classification achieved for this event?

A.

EOP-2, Loss of Off-Site PowerlLoss of Forced Circulation; Unusual Event.

B.

EOP-2, Loss of Off-Site Power/Loss of Forced Circulation; Alert.

C.

EOP-7, Station Blackout; Unusual Event.

D.

EOP-7, Station Blackout; Alert.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - EOP-2 is entered when loss of forced circulation occurs. UE declared because OFF-SITE power is lost > 15 minutes, although busses are reenergized from EDGs.

B. Incorrect - Wrong classification because plant is NOT one loss away from a SBO.

C. Incorrect - Event is not an SBO because one 4KV Bus is repowered by a DG.

D. Incorrect - Event is not an SBO because one 4KV Bus is repowered by a DG.

OPERATIONS Page: 8 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 81 Info Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

1 /I 4.6 43.5 E02 Reactor Trip Recovery 2.4.41 Knowledge of the emergency action level thresholds and classifications.

New question EAL Table EOP-0 Diagnostic Flow Chart, EALs, EOP-1 Contingency 1.I --

Q51075 0

10CFR55.43 (b) item 5 is met because the SRO must assess conditions prior to determining correct procedure transition as well as emergency classification.

KA is matched because this event is initiated by an uncomplicated reactor trip and conditions following exit from this procedure initiate the emergency classification.

0 OPERATIONS Page: 9 of 36 30 October 2008

82 Cognitive Level Tier/Group SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank. new or modified?

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo 1 /2 4.3 43.5 APE: 001 Continuous Rod Withdrawal AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Continuous Rod Withdrawal :

Bank auestion AA2.04 Reactor power and its trend CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

ID: 419089 Points: 1-00 UFSAR Chapter 14 CEA Withdrawal event LOR-348-01 Q19089 Given a continuous CEA withdrawal event under UFSAR Chapter 14 conditions, which of the following results in a higher peak nuclear power?

A.

Hot Zero Power, BOC.

B.

Hot Full Power, EOC.

C.

Hot Full Power, BOC.

D.

Hot Zero Power, EOC.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct - Starting from low power gives a greater power overshoot following trip. A positive value for MTC at BOC conditions contributes to the higher peak power level achieved. UFSAR indicates power peak at approximately 127%.

Incorrect - MTC has a much larger negative value at EOC which, when combined with a larger negative FTC, helps turn power limiting the peak value.

Incorrect - Starting from full power gives a smaller power overshoot following trip.

UFSAR indicates power peak at approximately 11 2%.

Incorrect - MTC has a much larger negative value at EOC which, when combined with a larger negative FTC, helps turn power limiting the peak value.

'dto INone Comments:

I I

OPERATIONS Page: 10 of 36 30 October 2008

83 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51078 Points: q.00 The following conditions exist:

0 Unit 2 is at 65 YO power 0

A Group 5 CEA, CEA #34 dropped 0

Recovery is in progress 0

Group 5 is at 132 inches withdrawn 0

Currently, CEA # 34 is at 100 inches withdrawn.

0 While recovering CEA # 34, CEA # 19 (a Group 2 CEA) drops into the core, indicating 6 inches withdrawn.

Which of the following describes the impact of this condition and the correct required action(s)?

A.

Power peaking limits may be exceeded if the conditions are allowed to continue. Manually trip the reactor and enter EOP-0, Post Trip Immediate Actions.

B.

Power peaking limits may be exceeded if the conditions are allowed to continue. Continue realigning CEA # 34, and then align CEA # 19 with their respective groups in accordance with AOP-1 B, CEA Malfunction.

C.

Shutdown Margin requirements CANNOT be met in this condition. Realign CEA # 19, and then continue aligning CEA # 34 with their respective groups in accordance with AOP-1 B, CEA Malfunction.

D.

Shutdown Margin requirements CANNOT be met in this condition. Manually trip the reactor and enter EOP-0, Post Trip Immediate Actions.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Misaligned CEAs affect power distribution and peaking factors. With 2 or more CEAs misaligned by >15 inches, the reactor must be tripped IAW AOP-1 B.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because this is the action taken in accordance with AOP-1 B if only 1 CEA were misaligned.

C. Incorrect - SDM requirements may be met in this condition, particularly since reactor power is only 65%. Actions also plausible same reason as B.

D. Incorrect - Plausible action because this is the action taken for two CEAs misaligned by > 15 inches. SDM requirements are not mentioned in the AOP-16 basis doc. See supporting info for choice "A".

OPERATIONS Page: 11 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY TierlGroup SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 1 12 4.8 43.5 APE: 003 Dropped Control Rod Question 83 Info Coanitive Level I1.oo Bank, new or modified?

2.4.1 Knowledge of EOP entry conditions and immediate action steps.

Bank question CdllUlUdLt:

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

TS Bases, AOP-1 B section V.A.l Q51078 I 0 1 OCFR55.43 (t must understand TS bases for CEA alignment.

10CFR55.43(b) item 5 is met because the candidate must determine that the abnormal condition requires EOP entry I KA is met because conditions for EOP entry are met OPERATIONS Page: 12 of 36 30 October 2008

84 Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank. new or modified?

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 1.oo Generic 3.8 43.4 2.3.6 Ability to approve release permits.

New auestion CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

ID: 451080 Points: 1.00 CP-604, Attachment 1 Q51080 A Waste Gas Decay Tank Gaseous Release Permit is being issued for 12 Waste Gas Decay Tank. You are fulfilling the role of the CRS.

Which of the following choices describes your responsibility prior to signing the release permit?

A.

Understand the release criteria, ensure required plant systems are in operation and ensure the required plant configuration has been established.

B.

Verify radiation monitor setpoints are adjusted to the appropriate values and pre-release source check and channel check have been completed.

C.

Verify radiation monitor setpoints are adjusted to the appropriate values and release parameters do not exceed Action Level criteria.

D.

Verify termination criteria have been entered into the Plant Computer for high flow rate and high activity as indicated on the Release Permit.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Per CP-604, Att. 1, the SMlSRO signature verifies the release criteria are understood, that required plant systems are in operation and that the required plant configuration has been established.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because these are Chemistry and CRO actions that are performed as part of initiating a release.

C. Incorrect - Plausible because these are Chemistry and CRO actions that are performed as part of initiating a release.

I References provided to candidate I None OPERATIONS Page: 13 of 36 30 October 2008

85 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51079 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions on Unit 1 :

0 Reactor power is 100%.

0 A load reduction is planned to take the unit off-line over the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

The crew is performing actions to commence the load reduction in accordance with OP-3, Normal Power Operation.

Which of the following describes the operational concern during the shutdown, and the actions taken in accordance with OP-3 to mitigate the consequences of this concern?

A.

AS1 may exceed the negative limit if CEAs are inserted without RCS boration; CEAs are used for AS1 control and maintaining Tcold on program during and after RCS boration.

B.

AS1 may exceed the negative limit if CEAs are inserted without RCS boration; CEAs are used for AS1 control and turbine load is adjusted to maintain Tcold on program during and after RCS boration.

C.

AS1 may exceed the negative limit if RCS boration is used without CEA insertion; CEAs are used for AS1 control and maintaining Tcold on program during and after RCS boration.

D.

AS1 may exceed the negative limit if RCS boration is used without CEA insertion; CEAs are used for AS1 control and turbine load is adjusted to maintain Tcold on program during and after RCS boration.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A.

Incorrect - AS1 will trend in the positive direction as CEAs are inserted. They are inserted to 120 inches so that when RCS boration is initiated, the positive trend started by CEAs will somewhat offset the negative trend caused by boration.

Tcold is maintained by Turbine load, AS1 maintained by CEAs.

Incorrect - AS1 will trend in the positive direction as CEAs are inserted. They are inserted to 120 inches so that when RCS boration is initiated, the positive trend started by CEAs will somewhat offset the negative trend caused by boration.

Correct use of CEAs and turbine load.

Incorrect - Concern is correct, so option is plausible. Use of CEAs to maintain Tcold is incorrect, because withdrawing CEAs will exacerbate the problem with AS1 going negative due to boration.

Correct - AS1 moves in the negative direction as power is reduced. Management of AS1 is accomplished by use of an AS1 plan and by maintaining RCS temperature using the guidance provided in OP-3.

6.

C.

D.

OPERATIONS Page: 14 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Question 85 Info Cognitive Level Tier/Group SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 3.00 2/2 3.8 43.4 SYSTEM: 01 5 Nuclear Instrumentation System (NE)

A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the NIS; and (b based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

A2.04 Effects on axial flux density of control rod alignment and sequencing, xenon production and decay, and boron vs. control rod reactivity changes New question None OP-3, TS Basis 3.2.5 Q51079 10CFR55.43(b) item 5 is met because the candidate must assess the concern (load reduction under normal circumstance) and select the appropriate procedure flowpath to mitigate the consequence (negative ASI)

OPERATIONS Page: 15 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Group SRO Imeortance:

86 2.00 Generic 3.1 CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 Cognitive Level Tier/Group ID: 424714 Points: 1.00 12.00 I Generic 1

What is the expected crew general response to an unplanned Area Radiation Monitor alarm?

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to A.

Acknowledge alarm, refer to Alarm Response Manual, bypass the alarming RMS, monitor for trends, and evacuate the affected area. Control Room Supervisor evaluates ERPIP 3.0 for a possible Radiological Event.

43.4 2.3.15 Knowledge of radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, personnel monitoring equipment, etc.

Modified question None

6.

Acknowledge alarm, refer to Alarm Response Manual, monitor for trends and contact Radiation Safety. Shift Manager evaluates ERPIP 3.0 for a possible Radiological Event.

candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

C.

Acknowledge alarm, refer to Alarm Response Manual, monitor for trends, and inform Chemistry to sample S/Gs per CP-436. Control Room Supervisor evaluates ERPIP 3.0 for a possible Radiological Event.

1 C17-ALM, 1 C22-ALM, 01-35, ERPIP 3.0 CRO-122-1-3-15 Q24714 D.

Declare the alarm OOS, refer to Alarm Response Manual, monitor for trends, and contact the appropriate group. Shift Manager evaluates ERPIP 3.0 for a possible Radiological Event.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Only the Shift Manager can declare the Radiological Event per ERPIP 3.0.

6. Correct - All actions are supported by the Alarm Response Manuals, NO-1 -200 and the ERPIP.

C. Incorrect - Only the Shift Manager can declare the Radiological Event per ERPIP 3.0, also, Chemistry would only be called if the alarm was from a process radiation monitor.

D. Incorrect - The alarm should not be declared 00s just because it alarmed, although the candidate may reason it is because the alarm is locked in.

OPERATIONS Page: 16 of 36 30 October 2008

87 Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p SRO Importance:

CFR:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 1 /2 4.3 43.5 APE: 033 Loss of Intermediate Range Nuclear CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate ID: 451082 Points: 1.00 Instrumentation 2.4.20 Knowledge of the operational implications of EOP warnings, cautions, and notes.

New question None The following conditions exist:

0 0

A Reactor startup is in progress on Unit-2 Reactor Power is stable at approximately 2 x 1 0-4%

Channel B WRNl has failed to 4 x How is Secondary PDlL affected and why?

References :

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Com ments:

A.

Secondary PDlL is enabled.

4 out of 4 WRNl channels less than or equal to 8 x it.

are required to disable Alarm Response Manual 1 C05 LOI-78B-1-2 Q51082 B.

Secondary PDlL is enabled.

1 or more LRNl channels less than or equal to 8 x it.

is required to disable C.

Secondary PDlL is disabled.

1 or more WRNl channels less than or equal to 8 x it.

is required to disable D.

Secondary PDlL is disabled.

2 or more WRNl channels less than or equal to 8 x disable it.

are required to Answer:

A OPERATIONS Page: 17 of 36 30 October 2008

88 Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 1 /2 2.7 43.5 APE: 051 Loss of Condenser Vacuum AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Condenser Vacuum:

Modified question None AA2.01 Cause for low vacuum condition CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

ID: a41651 AOP-7G Q41651 Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

Unit-I is at 100% power Main Generator output is slowly lowering Tcold is stable at 547.8"F Which report from crew members would indicate the cause of the lowering Main Generator output and what procedure should be implemented?

A.

Main Turbine Control Valve-I indicates 40% open; Implement AOP-7E.

B.

TBV 1 -MS-3944-CV indicates 100% open; Implement AOP-7K.

C.

Suction CV on an idle CAR is not fully shut; Implement AOP-3G.

D.

Main Generator Cold Gas temperature is 51 "C; Implement AOP-7E.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Main Turbine CV normal position at 100% power is approximately 60%. If the valve went to 40% open, Tcold would rise.

6. Incorrect - A TBV failing open would cause Tcold to lower.

C. Correct - The open suction CV on an idle CAR has caused a decrease in Condenser Vacuum and is addressed in AOP-7G.

D. Incorrect - Main Generator Cold gas temperature rising would not change MWe load.

OPERATIONS Page: 18 of 36 30 October 2008

89 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 451083 Points: 1.00 What parameter would indicate an RCP Seal LOCA and what procedure would be used to manage this condition?

A.

RCP Bleedoff Flow indicates 3.0 GPM on the Plant Computer.

Commence an Expeditious Power Reduction per OP-3.

B.

RCP Middle Seal Pressure indicates 2250 PSIA.

Commence an Expeditious Power Reduction per OP-3.

C.

RCP Bleedoff flow indicates 0 GPM on the Plant Computer Implement AOP-2A for RCS leakage.

D.

RCP Upper Seal Pressure indicates 2250 PSIA.

Implement AOP-2A for RCS leakage.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - An RCP Bleedoff Flow of 3.0 GPM is indicative of a failure of the pressure breakdown function of one or more RCP Seals.

B. Incorrect - An RCP Middle Seal Pressure of 2250 PSlA indicates failure of the Lower Seal.

C. Correct - PER 01-1A and ?COG-ALM. "0" GPM RCP bleedoff flow indicates bleedoff flow is leaking by the Vapor Seal bypassing the bleedoff flow element.

D. Incorrect - An RCP Upper Seal Pressure of 2250 PSlA indicates failure of both the Lower and Middle RCP Seals.

OPERATIONS Page: 19 of 36 30 October 2008

90 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 451090 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions on Unit 1 :

0 A Reactor Trip has occurred from 100% power.

The crew is performing actions of EOP-1, Reactor Trip.

The following alarms are acknowledged on the main control board:

o o

o o

1C02, 8-25, SHAFT LUBE OIL PP DISCH PRESS LO 1 C02, V-04, COOLANT - FLO - PRESS - TEMP 1C03, C-30, 12 SGFPT TRIP 1C22, 8-4.1, UNIT 1 CNDSR OFF-GAS 11-14 CAR PPS Which ONE of the following alarms will be the HIGHEST priority to address, and the reason the alarm is addressed?

A.

1 C02, B-25; Represents a degradation of plant conditions and potential damage to the main turbine.

B.

1 C02, V-04; Represents degradation of plant conditions and potential overheating of main generator.

C.

1 C03, C-30; Represents conditions that may require transition to another EOP.

D.

1C22, B-4.1; Represents conditions that may require transition to another EOP Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - As the turbine slows down, shaft discharge pressure will decrease.

Backup pump will start and supply lube oil. This is a concern if pressure does decrease, but lower priority with unit off-line than other alarms.

Incorrect - Stator cooling temperature is a concern, but post trip, cooling requirements are significantly less. While this is an unusual condition, even post trip, it is a lower concern than either C or D.

Incorrect - Only 1 SGFPT tripping still has 1 SGFPT running if no action was taken earlier to realign Feedwater, so transition based upon this pump tripping would not be required.

Correct - This alarm would indicate a steam generator tube leak is occurring and transition to the SGTR ORP would be required upon rediagnosis.

OPERATIONS Page: 20 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 Tier/Grou CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Comments:

Generic 43.5 2.4 45 Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm.

New auestion None 1 C22-ALM, B-4.1, CNG-OP-1.01-1000 Q51090 Meets criteria for 10CFR55,.43(b) item 5 because the candidate must assess status of alarms and prioritize in accordance with rules for Transient Alarm Response, in this case resulting in rediagnosis to another procedure (selection of Drocedures)

OPERATIONS Page: 21 of 36 30 October 2008

91 EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: 451094 Points: 1.00 Given the following Unit-I plant conditions:

A Reactor trip has occurred EOP-0 has been completed and EOP-5, Loss of Coolant Accident, has been entered RCS pressure is 1550 PSlA and lowering slowly RCS temperature is 515°F and stable Five minutes later, the following conditions are observed:

11 S/G pressure is indicating 450 PSlA and lowering RCS temperature is 440°F and lowering RCS pressure is 1350 PSlA and lowering 0

0 0

0 0

0 0

Which of the following describes the correct strategy for current plant conditions?

A.

Remain in EOP-5. ECCS flow is causing the RCS cooldown and the priority for operator action is to ensure core cooling prior to meeting HPSl throttle criteria B.

Transition to the ESDE Optimal Recovery Procedure, EOP-4, to isolate 11 S/G and stabilize RCS temperature.

C.

Implement the Functional Recovery Procedure, EOP-8, and isolate 11 S/G using the appropriate RCS Pressure and Inventory Control Success Path.

D.

Implement the Functional Recovery Procedure, EOP-8, and isolate 11 S/G using the appropriate RCS Heat Removal Success Path.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - S/Gs are leading RCS temperature, because saturation temperature for the S/G is lower than RCS temperature. Plausible because this is a common occurrence during LOCA scenarios. 1350 PSlA is above shutoff head of the HPSl Pumps... there would be NO ECCS injection flow.

B. Incorrect - If no LOCA was in progress, would go to ESD, but since a LOCA is in progress, the crew will now have to mitigate 2 events. Going to the FRP is appropriate so that each event may be addressed using FRP success paths in appropriate safety functions.

C. Incorrect - Heat Removal is the correct success path for this event. Inventory control is plausible because RCS pressure is lowering. Loss of RCS pressure is indicative of either a pressure or inventory control problem. In this case, the problem is being caused by excess heat removal, so that would be the correct success path.

D. Correct - A second event has occurred making EOP-8 the correct procedure to implement. Heat Removal is the correct success path, to isolate 11 S/G, for this event.

OPERATIONS Page: 22 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRQ NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 91 Info Coanitive Level Tier/Grou D SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Com ments:

2.00 1 / I 4 4 -

43.5 APE: 040 Steam Line Rupture 2.4 23 Knowledge of the bases for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation during emergency operations.

New question None SFSC for EOP-5, EOP-8 HR-2, Block steps A and C Q51094 10CFR55.43 (b) item 5 is met because the candidate must assess conditions (multiple events) and select the appropriate recovery procedure, and in this case, strategy.

KA is met because understanding the basis, or reason for this action is implied by the fact that the candidate understands the problem and knows what success path is required to address it.

0 OPERATIONS Page: 23 of 36 30 October 2008

92 Cognitive Level Tier/Group SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 Generic 4.2 43.5 2.4.1 1 Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures New question None AOP-10, AOP-7M, AOP-7C Q51095 CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51095 Points: 1.00 Unit-2 is at 100% Power. The following conditions exist:

0 0

0 22 S/G has tube leakage of 7 GPD The SO-TSO has notified the SM that Solar Magnetic Disturbances of greater than K-7 are expected which could affect grid stability U-2 480V ESF U N Trip, CC PPS DISCM PRESS LO, and RCP AUXILIARIES STATUS PANEL alarms have annunciated What procedures should the CRS direct the crew to implement?

A.

AOP-2A, AOP-71, EOP-0.

B.

AOP-7L, AOP-7A, EOP-0.

C.

AOP-10, AOP-7M, AOP-7C.

D.

AOP-2A, AOP-IO, AOP-71.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - AOP-2A is not implemented for S/G Tube Leakage until it exceeds a value of 50 GPD.

Incorrect - No indications of an Intake Structure malfunction exist.

Correct - AOP-10 is correct procedure to implement for S/G Tube leakage between 5

& 100 GPD, AOP-7M will be used to address the grid disturbance and AOP-7C addresses the CCW issue.

Incorrect - AOP-2A is not implemented for S/G Tube Leakage until it exceeds a value of 50 GPD.

I Question 92 Info I

OPERATIONS Page: 24 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 93 ID: Q51096 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions on Unit-I :

0 0

IC1 3, K-I 9, 1 1 SRW HEAD TK LVL alarm is received and momentarily clears SRW Head Tank Level Control Valve, 1 -SRW-1579-CV, is intermittently opening and closing 1C10-ALM, J-21, CNTMT NORMAL SUMP LVL HI alarm is received The crew enters the appropriate procedure to address the condition Which of the following describes the source of the leak, and the action required in accordance with procedures and Technical Specifications?

A.

11 or 12 CNTMT CLRs; isolate one cooler at a time and determine Head Tank level response; leave the leaking cooler isolated; NO Technical Specification action is required if only 1 CNTMT CLR is isolated.

B.

1 1 or 12 CNTMT CLRs; isolate BOTH coolers and verify Head Tank level stabilizes; determine the leaking cooler by placing them in service one at a time; ONE Train of CNTMT Cooling must be declared inoperable.

13 or 14 CNTMT CLRs; isolate one cooler at a time and determine Head Tank level response; leave the leaking cooler isolated; NO Technical Specification action is required if only 1 CNTMT CLR is isolated.

C.

D.

13 or 14 CNTMT CLRs; isolate BOTH coolers and verify Head Tank level stabilizes; determine the leaking cooler by placing them in service one at a time; ONE Train of CNTMT Cooling must be declared inoperable.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible because isolation procedure is the backup to the actual isolation procedure. Incorrect - A train of cntmt cooling requires 2 coolers. 1 inoperable makes the train inoperable. Minimum safety function for containment cooling is still met, but 1 train must be declared inoperable.

B. Correct - 11 SRW Head Tank Level is affected which is associated with 11 SRW Header which supplies 11 I 12 Cntmt Clrs. AOP-7B directs isolation of the coolers as a pair, unisolating one at a time. Isolation of one cooler removes a T.S. Train from service.

C. Incorrect -Wrong combination of coolers, and plausible for same reasons as A.

D. Incorrect - Wrong train of coolers OPERATIONS Page: 25 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 93 Info Cognitive Level Tier/Group SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

2.00 1 /I 3.5 43.5 APE: 062 Loss of Nuclear Service Water AA2. Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water:

0 New question None

,442.01 Location of a leak in the SWS AOP-76, T.S. 3.6.6

~~

Q51O96 0

10CFR55.43 (b) item 2 is met because the candidate must understand system alignments that result in TS LCO action statement compliance and inoperability of equipment.

KA is matched because the candidate must determine where the leak is located based on conditions presented.

0 OPERATIONS Page: 26 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level TierlGroup SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References:

CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 Generic 4.6 43.5 2.1.20 Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

Bank question None AOP-9R Q45189 94 ID: 445189 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following AOPs would NOT require implementation of EOP-0 if the Reactor tripped during petformance of the AOP?

A.

AOP-7C, Loss of Component Cooling.

B.

AOP-10, Abnormal Secondary Chemistry Conditions.

C.

AOP-SA, Control Room Evacuation and Safe Shutdown Due to a Severe Control Room Fire.

D.

AOP-3G, Malfunction Of Main Feedwater System.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - AOP-7C does not contain the specific steps required for monitoring /

ensuring safety functions. It does contain steps that direct tripping of the reactor, if appropriate, and implementation of EOP-0.

B. Incorrect - AOP-10 does not contain the specific steps required for monitoring /

ensuring safety functions. It does contain steps that direct tripping of the reactor, if appropriate, and implementation of EOP-0.

C. Correct - AOP-SA contains steps covering tripping the reactor, addressing safety functions and cooldown to Mode 4 without reference to any other procedures.

D. Incorrect - AOP-3G does not contain steps required for monitoring / ensuring safety functions. It does contain steps that direct tripping of the reactor, if appropriate, and imdementation of EOP-0.

Page: 27 of 36 30 October 2008 OPERATIONS

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level Tier/Grou p SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

References :

CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 2.00 2/2 2.9 43.5 SYSTEM 045 Main Turbine Generator (MT/G) System A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operation on the MT/G system; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

0 Bank question A2.17 Malfunction of electrohydraulic control AOP-7F CRO-102-2-37 Q25257 95 ID: 425257 Points: 1.00 U-2 is at 100% power when the following conditions are observed:

TCoLD is 548.2"F and rising TAVE - TREF alarm has annunciated Generator output is 850 MWe and lowering What actions should the CRS direct?

A.

Direct an operator to obtain Alarm Response Manuals and evaluate all alarms; Direct use of CEAs and boration to maintain power constant.

8.

Direct the RO to monitor the primary; Direct the CRO to raise turbine load to maintain power and TcoLD constant.

C.

Direct an Expeditious power reduction to take the unit offline per OP-3; Notify the TS-SO the unit is being shutdown.

D.

Direct operation of the TBVs to control SIG pressure and TCOLD, Direct use of CEAs and boration to reduce reactor power and restore TcoLD to program value.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Power cannot be maintained constant with TcoLD above 548°F and comply with the T.S. limit.

B. Incorrect -With a turbine valve malfunction attempting to adjust turbine load could make the problem worse.

C. Incorrect - Performing an expeditious shutdown would require adjusting turbine load which could make the problem worse.

D. Correct - The indications are of a loss of load due to a closure of a turbine valve.

Actions are as stated in AOP-7F.

OPERATIONS Page: 28 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 96 ID: Q51097 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions on Unit 1 :

0 Reactor power is 100%.

0 0

0 0

0 Instrument Air pressure has been lowering slowly for approximately 10 minutes.

Instrument Air header pressure is approximately 93 PSIG.

Instrument Air Compressor discharge pressure is 105 PSIG.

12 IA Dryer Malfunction light is brightly lit.

A small IA leak is identified on 12 IA Dryer Right Chamber.

Which of the following describes the status of 12 IA Dryer and the action that is required?

A.

De-energized with both chambers in service.

Bypass 12 IA Dryer IAW AOP-7D, Loss of Instrument Air and refer to 01-19, Instrument Air, to shift to the standby dryer if desired.

B.

De-energized with both chambers in service.

Ensure the PA to IA cross-connect valve, 1 -PA-2061 -CV, is open.

C.

Energized with both chambers bypassed.

Refer to 01-19, Instrument Air, to shift to the standby dryer if desired. Ensure the PA to IA cross-connect valve, 1 -PA-2061 -CV, is open.

D.

Energized with both chambers bypassed.

De-energize and isolate the Air Dryer IAW AOP-7D, Loss of Instrument Air.

Answer:

A Answer Explanation:

A. Correct - Per AOP-7D,Section V.B.3.

B. Incorrect - Plausible because status is correct, but incorrect because the AOP directs isolating and bypassing the affected dryer. The action for cross-connect is reasonable, but not required (auto action does not occur) until IA pressure reaches 88 psig.

C. Incorrect - Plausible because candidate may assume that a malfunction will bypass the dryer, failing to the safe position. The action for cross-connect is reasonable, but not required (auto action does not occur) until IA pressure reaches 88 psig. Shifting to standby dryer is correct action for the failure presented.

D. Incorrect - Plausible because candidate may assume that a malfunction will bypass the dryer, failing to the safe position. The action is consistent with taking a malfunctioning unit out of service.

30 October 2008 OPERATIONS Page: 29 of 36

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 96 Info Cognitive Level TierlGroup SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

2.00 2/1 2.9 43.5 SYSTEM: 078 Instrument Air System (IAS)

A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the IAS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

0 -

Modified question None

References:

AOP-7D, pg 911 0 A2.01 Air dryer and filter malfunctions Q51097 10CFR55.43 (b) item 5 is met because the candidate must assess conditions (status of a dryer with white light lit) and determines appropriate procedural direction in accordance with the relevant AOP.

OPERATIONS Page: 30 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 97 ID: 451098 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions on Unit-I :

0 0

0 0

0 0

A Reactor trip has occurred.

The crew is performing EOP-0, Post Trip Immediate Actions 11 SIG pressure indicates 800 PSlA and stable 12 S/G pressure indicates 660 PSlA and lowering 11 S/G level indicates -1 80 inches 12 S/G level indicates -21 0 inches NO operator action has been taken Which of the following describes the approximate AFW flow rate to each SG, and the strategy for operation of AFW in the selected Optimal Recovery Procedure upon transition from EOP-O?

A.

150 GPM to 11 SIG; 0 GPM to 12 SIG.

Maintain flow to 11 S/G, initiate flow to 12 S/G to restore level to between -24 and +30 inches.

B.

300 GPM to 11 S/G; 0 GPM to 12 SIG.

Maintain flow to 11 SIG to restore level to between -24 and +30 inches, ensure AFW flow to 12 S/G remains isolated.

C.

300 GPM to EACH S/G.

Maintain flow to each SIG to restore levels to between -24 and +30 inches, maintain RCS temperature and cooldown rate within limits.

D.

150 GPM to EACH S/G.

Reduce flow to each SIG to minimum required to restore SIG levels to between

-24 and +30 inches, maintain RCS temperature and cooldown rate within limits.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible because 12 SIG is below the limit for AFAS actuation, but AFAS is blocked on 12 S/G due to SG DP > 1 15 PSID. Additionally, the Motor Driven Train and Steam Driven Train will each be supplying 150 GPM of AFW Flow to 11 SIG for a total of 300 GPM.

B. Correct - The crew will transition to EOP-4 (ESDE) and stabilize RCS temperature by use of steam dump and AFW on the unaffected S/G. The Motor Driven Train and Steam Driven Train will each be supplying 150 GPM of AFW Flow to 11 SIG for a total of 300 GPM.

C. Incorrect - Plausible because AFAS initiation setpoint is exceeded for both SIGs.

Incorrect because DP is >I 15 PSID, which blocks AFW flow to the S/G with lower pressure.

D. Incorrect - Plausible because AFAS initiation setpoint is exceeded for both S/Gs.

Incorrect because DP is >I 15 PSID, which blocks AFW flow to the SIG with lower pressure and because the Motor Driven Train and Steam Driven Train will each be supplying 150 GPM of AFW Flow to 11 SIG for a total of 300 GPM.

OPERATIONS Page: 31 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 I Question 97 Info Cognitive Level Tier/Group SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

p K

i x

X T

References orovided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

2.00 311

2.9 SYSTEM

061 Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater (AFW)

System A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the AFW; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

0 New question None 43.5 A2.08 Flow rates expected from various combinations of AFW pump discharge valves EOP-4, AFAS LP LO I-036A-1 Q51098 10CFR55.43 (b) item 5 is met because the candidate must assess conditions based upon plant parameters given for a transient, and select the mitigation strategy that is required for the failure given.

OPERATIONS Page: 32 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY Cognitive Level SRO Importance:

TierlG rou p CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 1

Generic 3.3 43.5 2.2.43 Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms.

New question None

References:

CNG-OP-1.01-2003 Q51099 4

9%

ID: Q51099 Points: 1.00 The Control Room Operator has requested CRS authorization for placing an intermittent (nuisance) alarm out of service.

Which of the following does the CRS Initials in the Alarm Annunciator/Recorder Point Out Of Service Log signify?

A.

Verification that the annunciator was correctly removed from service and the Blue Dot has been placed in the correct location.

B.

Approval of the reason for placing the annunciator out of service and concurrence with recommended compensatory actions.

C.

Verification the Shift Manager has been notified and concurrence with recommended compensatory actions.

D.

Approval of the reason for placing the annunciator out of service and verification the Blue Dot has been placed in the correct location.

Answer:

B Answer Explanation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Incorrect - Plausible because there is a signature block for verifying the annunciator was correctly removed from service. The CRS is required to be informed when the Blue Dot is placed but has no signature associated with this action.

Correct - When completing the Alarm Annunciator I Recorder Point Out Of Service Log, the CRS authorization follows completion of the blocks detailing the reason for taking the annunciator 00s and outlining required (if any) compensatory measures.

Incorrect - Plausible because there is a signature block for the compensatory measures. The Shift Manager is required to be informed by the end of shift, but there is no signature associated with this action.

Incorrect - Plausible because there is a signature block for the compensatory measures. The CRS is required to be informed when the Blue Dot is placed but has no signature associated with this action.

OPERATIONS Page: 33 of 36 30 October 2008

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 99 ID: 451100 Points: 1.00 Given the following conditions on Unit 1 :

0 The unit is in Mode 5.

0 The PZR is solid.

0 Shutdown Cooling is in service.

0 Letdown Backpressure Regulator Valves CVC-201 P and CVC-201 Q are in service in MANUAL.

0 RCS pressure is 230 PSIA.

0 RCS temperature is 180°F.

0 PZR PORV protection handswitches are selected to SINGLE MPT ENABLE.

0 A loss of Component Cooling Water to the in-service Shutdown Cooling Heat Exchanger occurs.

Which of the following describes the response of the unit if the loss of Component Cooling Water continues, and the action that must be taken to mitigate the effect?

A.

PORVs will open at an RCS pressure setpoint of 480 PSIA; Direct the RO to lower the output of LID PRESS controller, PIC-201, to maintain RCS pressure stable.

B.

PORVs will open at an RCS pressure of 250 PSIA; Direct the RO to lower the output of Letdown Flow controller, HIC-110 to maintain RCS pressure stable.

C.

PORVs will open at an RCS pressure setpoint of 41 0 PSIA; Direct the RO to raise the output of Letdown Flow controller HIC-1 I O, to maintain RCS pressure stable.

D.

PORVs will open at an RCS pressure of 41 0 PSIA; Direct the RO to raise the output of output of L/D PRESS controller, PIC-201, to maintain RCS pressure stable.

Answer:

D Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - If CCW is lost, RCS temperature will rise. In a solid PZR, this will cause pressure to rise. This action will cause the back pressure control valves to shut, increasing RCS pressure. 480 PSlA is plausible because it is the lowest setpoint for PORV operation in VARIABLE MPT.

B. Incorrect - The Letdown Control valves are fully open per OP-7, and 250 PSlA is the maximum pressure to initiate SDC, not the PORV opening setpoint.

C. Incorrect - The Letdown Control valves are fully open per OP-7. Correct pressure setpoint in SINGLE MPT.

D. Correct - Per the ARM, 410 PSlA is the single MPT setpoint for the PORVs.

Increasing the output of the L/D pressure controller will open 2-CVC-201 P and Q to lower RCS pressure.

OPERATIONS Page: 34 of 36 30 October 2008

Y EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 Question 99 Info Cognitive Level Tier/G rou p SROl m portance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

3.00 211 4 7 CFR: 43.5 SYSTEM: 005 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RHRS, and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

0 A2.02 Pressure transient protection during cold shutdown New question None

References:

1 COG-ALM

~~

Q51166 10CFR55.43 (b) item 5 is met because the candidate must determine plancconditions based on a system failure, and direct appropriate action to mitigate the consequences of that failure.

OPERATIONS Page: 35 of 36 30 October 2008

100 Cognitive Level TierlGroup SRO Importance:

CFR:

KA Number:

Bank, new or modified?

References provided to candidate

References:

Cross Reference Number:

User-Defined ID:

Comments:

EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY 2.00 2/1 4.7 CFR: 43.5 SYSTEM: 073 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System 2.4.6 Knowledge of EOP mitigation strategies.

Modified question None

References:

AOP-6A, 1 C07-ALM, F-21 AOP-6A-03 Q51110 CCNPP SRO NRC Exam - 12/08 ID: Q51110 Points: 1.00 Given the following:

0 0

0 Unit-1 is operating at 100% power RAD MON LVL HI alarm, at 1C07, has annunciated Plant Chemistry has validated the RMS readings What direction should the CRS provide in response to this condition?

A.

Place Letdown in minimum with Purification in service per 01 2-to reduce RCS activity and limit radiation levels in the Auxiliary Building.

B.

Commence a rapid power reduction per OP-3 to reduce reactor power to 50%

within one hour.

C.

Adjust the Letdown and Purification lineup to obtain maximum purification flow to reduce RCS Activity per AOP-6A.

Perform an expeditious shutdown per OP-3 and be in Mode 3 with Tavg 500°F within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

D.

Answer:

C Answer Explanation:

A. Incorrect - These actions will not maximize RCS cleanup.

B. Incorrect - These actions are required, per AOP-2A, for a S/G tube leak in excess of 100 GPD with rising trends.

C. Correct - per AOP-6A basis.

D. Incorrect - A shutdown is not required until 100 hours0.00116 days <br />0.0278 hours <br />1.653439e-4 weeks <br />3.805e-5 months <br /> operation above the limits specified in T.S. 3.4.15 (to provide time to accomplish RCS cleanup).

I Question 100 Info OPERATIONS Page: 36 of 36 30 October 2008