ML050560083
| ML050560083 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Farley  |
| Issue date: | 02/22/2005 |
| From: | NRC/RGN-II |
| To: | Southern Nuclear Operating Co |
| References | |
| 50-348/05-301, 50-364/05-301 | |
| Download: ML050560083 (193) | |
See also: IR 05000364/2004301
Text
Farley
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ANSWER KEY REPORT
for HLT-29 SRO exam Test Form: 0
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ANSWER KEY REPORT
for HLT-29 SRO exam Test Form: 0
Answers
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2
Thursday, February 17, 2
ANSWER KEY REPORT
for HLT-29 SRO exam Test Form: 0
93
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SECTION 1 (100 items)
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Thursday, February 17, 2005 2:10:47 PM
Name:
_
__
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Form: 0
Version: 0
1. OO1A1.02001/2/2/P-IMP/C/A 3.1/3A4/MOD/FA011005/RO/
___
__
Given the following initial conditions:
- Unit 2 is at 50% power (MOL).
- Rod control is in Automatic.
e Step counters show Bank D control rods at 170 steps.
- FIRST STG IMPULSE PRESS SEL SWITCH is selected to PT-446.
- Tavg and Tref are matched and no load change is in progress.
PT-446, TURB FIRST STG PRESS, fails high. Which one of the following
describes how the control rods will respond?
Assume NO operator action.
(1 00% Tref = 5730F)
A. Step out until Bank D reaches 231 steps, then stop and do not move.
B1 Step out until Tavg equals Tref, then step in or out to control Tavg at the new Tref
setpoint.
C. Step out until Bank D reaches C-11, BANK D AUTO ROD STOP, then stop and
do not move.
D. Step out until the rate of change signal decays off, then step in or out to control
Tavg at a 50% Tref value.
A. Incorrect- If the rods were to step out for a while, then they would stop at Bank D at
220 due to C-11 rod stop. The rods would not make it to 231 steps.
B. Correct - Step out until Tavg equals Tref, then step in or out to control Tavg at
the new Tref setpoint.
With Tref failed high, the upper temperature is now 5730F. At 50% power, Tavg is
5600F. With the Rx at MOL there is approx. 15 pcm/0F so to get to 5730F would be
approx. 200 pcm. (130 X 15 = 195). This would put bank D rods at approx 187 steps
and the program would then control Tavg at 5730F.
C. Incorrect - If Bank D rods were to get to C-11, they would stop, however, they would
then control temperature at 5730F and step in/out as necessary. Also for rods to get to
220 steps, they would have to move 50 steps and add 680 pcm to the core. This would
be approx. 450F and would take Tavg to over 6000F.
D. Incorrect - This is partially true in that the rods would step out due to the rate of
change signal, but they would continue out due to the temp deviation. They would then
control temperature at the new Tref of 5730F, which is the high end of that scale.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:35 AM
1
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
001A1.02 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding
design limits) associated with operating the CRDS controls including:
T-ref
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Rod Control System evolutions including the fail condition, alarms, and trip
setpoints (OPS40204108).
o Nuclear Power Range Channel N-44
> Turbine Impulse Pressure Channels, PT-446 & 447
- Tavg Channels
List the automatic actions associated with the Rod Control System components and
equipment during normal and abnormal operations including (OPS40204107):
- Normal control methods
e Automatic actuation including setpoint ( example SI, Phase A, Phase B, MSLIAS,
- Interlocks
modified from ROD CONT-40204107 #27 (this question needs replaced in exam bank)
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:35 AM
2
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
2. 003K5.04 (01/2/1/RCP/C/A 3.2/3.5/BANK1FAOI 1005/RO/CVR
Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit 1 is at 28% power.
- 1A RCP trips on overcurrent.
Which one of the following is the expected INITIAL plant response to the 1A RCP trip?
1 A S/G Narrow Range level
IA S/G Steam Flow
A.
increases
increases
B.
decreases
increases
C.
increases
decreases
D!
decreases
decreases
A. Incorrect. Both parts are wrong as explained in D. below.
B. Incorrect. The first part is correct, the second is incorrect due to the steam pressure
in A SG going down, and at the same time the pressures in the other two SGs are
higher than A SG, A steam flow must go down.
C. Incorrect. This would be true if the long term effects were asked in this question.
After the initial shrink in level, the steam flow is so low, and the feed flow is still as
high as it needed to be for the higher steam flow, level starts going up. AOP-4.0
requires taking manual control of the Feed Reg Valve and going to close to prevent
overfilling the SG.
D. Correct. decreases
decreases
The T cold water from the other two loops gets pumped through the idle A loop
"backwards". The backflow that will occur will cause T cold to be flowing back
through the steam generator tubes instead of T hot. T cold will then be flowing back
into the reactor outlet nozzle for A loop. This causes the steam pressure to be lower
in A SG. The steam flow will thus go down to almost zero flow in A SG. The
reduction in steam flow causes a "shrink" in indicated level initially. Shrink and Swell
is explained fully in the fundamental lesson material, but is simply a reduction in
indicated SG level for a reduction in steam flow, and an increase in indicated SG
Level with an increase in steam flow.
Friday. December 17, 2004 8:45:35 AM
3
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
003K5.04 Reactor Coolant Pump
K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to
the RCPS: (CFR: 41.5 /45.7) - Effects of RCP shutdown on secondary parameters,
such as steam pressure, steam flow and feed flow
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Reactor
Coolant System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS521 01 A02).
RCP-521 01 D02 #18
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:35 AM
4
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
3. 004G2.4.35 001/2/1/FCV-122( /CA
3.3/3.5/NEW/FA)1 1005/ROI/CVR
Local control of charging and letdown is being established on Unit 1 due to a fire in the
cable spreading room.
- FNP-1 -AOP-28.1, Fire or Inadvertent Protection System Actuation in the Cable
Spreading Room, is in progress.
- FCV-1 22, CHG FLOW REG, is oscillating and not responding in manual or
automatic from the controller.
- Pressurizer level is 13%.
Which one of the following is the preferred method to maintain Przr level per
A. Alternate opening and closing MOV-8885, CHG PUMP RECIRC TO RCS COLD
LEGS, to maintain Przr level.
B. Open MOV-8884 or 8886, CHG PUMP RECIRC TO RCS HOT LEGS, THEN
establish at least one letdown orifice on service.
Ce Bypass FCV-1 22 to restore Przr level above 20%, THEN use Charging or Letdown
as desired to maintain Przr level.
D. Open FCV-122 with the manual handwheel to restore Przr level above 15%, THEN
establish at least one letdown orifice on service.
A. incorrect - MOV 8885 is not addressed to be used by procedure but do provide a
flow path to the ROS similar to 8886 and 8884.
B. Incorrect - Even though this would provide a makeup path the RCS, opening these
valves is not addressed by AOP-28.1, and bypassing FCV-1 22 is directed by step 9.
C. Correct - Bypass FCV-122 to restore Przr level above 20%, THEN use Charging
or Letdown as desired to maintain Przr level.
AOP-28.1 step 9 directs bypassing FCV-122 and step 28 directs using charging to
maintain pressurizer level 20-60%.
D. Incorrect- There is no manual handwheel on FCV-1 22. That is why the bypass flow
arrangement is directed by Step 9 of AOP-28.1. Letdown is not required even when
above the automatic isolation setpoint of 15% or above the low limit of pressurizer
level of 20% per AOP-28.1 Step 28. This may be confused with the new procedural
guidance to use the handwheel on the valve which has a manual handwheel for
Letdown Heat exchanger Temperature control. The manual handwheel step has
been recently added for finer temp control of CCW to letdown hx.
-A,
_ .I7
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A. A
5
....
r
1
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
004G2.4.35 Chemical and Volume Control
2.4 Emergency Procedures /Plan
G2.4.35 - Knowledge of local auxiliary operator tasks during emergency operations
including system geography and system implications.
12. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Chemical and
Volume Control System and determine the local actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality. (0PS40301 F1 2)
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:35 AM
6
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
4. 004K5.49 001/2/1/RCS H2/MEM 2 .7/3.3/NEW/FA01 100~/RCVR
In preparation for the upcoming refueling outage on Unit 1, Chemistry is performing a
chemical degas of the RCS to reduce RCS hydrogen concentration to <5cc/kg.
Which one of the following is the correct reason for decreasing RCS hydrogen
concentration prior to refueling?
A. To minimize RCS level indication fluctuations in the tygon hose.
B. To minimize the potential for a crud burst upon opening of the RCS.
C. To minimize corrosion in the RCS during shutdown/draindown conditions.
D! To minimize safety hazard of flammable/explosive gas during maintenance
activities.
A. Incorrect. Candidate may believe that if too much H2 were in the system it could
come out of solution and cause tygon hose level fluctuations. This is not the reason we
degas to get rid of H2, just a by product.
B. Incorrect.
We do some chemical additions such as H2 peroxide to scavenge
oxygen and to cause a crud burst. The candidate may believe that opening the RCS
and having too much H2 and could cause a crud burst.
C. Incorrect. Lowering the pressure in the ROS and opening up the RCS Systems
allows any H2 to come out of solution and exit the system when the systems are
opened. To ensure workers are not exposed to flammable atmospheres, the RCS
H2 concentration is reduced to <5cc/kg prior to opening up RCS Systems. H2 is
ADDED AT POWER to combine with 02 in the presence of Neutron flux for
corrosion control.
D. Correct. Minimize safety hazard of flammable/explosive gas during
maintenance activities.
Lowering the pressure in the ROS and opening up the RCS Systems allows any H2 to
come out of solution and exit the system when the systems are opened. To ensure
workers are not exposed to flammable atmospheres, the RCS H2 concentration is
reduced to <5cc/kg prior to opening up RCS Systems.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:35 AM
7
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
004K5A49 Chemical and Volume Control
K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to
the CVCS: (CFR: 41.5/45.7)
K5.49 - Purpose and method of hydrogen removal from the RCS before opening
system: explosion hazard, nitrogen purge
11. Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including
precautions and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with
the Chemical and Volume Control System including: (OPS40301F1 1)
- VCT Tank
- VCT Level Control Valve (LCV-1 15A)
4. Identify any special considerations such as safety hazards and plant condition
changes that apply to the Chemical and Volume Control System (OPS521 01 F04).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:35 AM
8
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
5. 005A4.02 001/2/1/RHR/C/A 3.4/3. 1/BANK'FA01 1005/RO/
Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit 1 is performing a plant cooldown using the B Train RHR System.
- 1B RHR pump is running with:
- FCV-603B, 1 B RHR HX DISCH VLV, 75% open
- FCV-605B, RHR HX BYP valve, 75% open.
FCV-605B, RHR HX BYP valve, fails closed due to a loss of air. Which one of the
following completes the sentence below to describe the effect on the total RHR flow
and the cooldown rate of the plant?
Assume NO onerator action.
Total RHR flow will
A
A
and cooldown rate will
B
B
decrease
A.
B.
C.
increase
increase
increase
decrease
decrease
decrease
increase
D175041, D205041
A. Incorrect - Total flow decreases and cooldown rate increases
B. Incorrect - total flow decreases and cooldown rate increases
C. Incorrect - total flow decreases and cooldown rate increases
D. Correct - Total RHR flow will decrease and cooldown rate will increase.
FCV 605 failing closed will stop all flow bypassing the hx and force all remaining flow
through the hx. Increased flow through the hx will decrease the temperature of water
returning to the RCS thereby increase the cooldown rate. Bypass FCV failing closed
will decrease the total flow through the system since the total flowmeter FIS605B is
downstream of both 605B and 6036.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
9
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
005A4,02 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:
Heat exchanger bypass flow control.
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Residual Heat Removal System evolutions including the fail condition.
alarms, and trip setpoints (OPS40301 K08)
Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including precautions
and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with the Residuai
Heat Removal System including (0PS40301 K1 1)
RHR-40301 K07 #9
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
1 0
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
6. 005K(2.01 001/2i/l/RIR PWR/CGA 3.0/3.2/MOD/TA011005/RO/
_____
_
Given the following:
e Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
- Unit 2 is in mode 5.
Both units have just experienced a Loss of Off Site Power (LOSP). The power for the
2A Residual Heat Removal (RHR) pump will be supplied from which one of the
following?
All systems and components operate properly.
A. 1 -2A Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bus.
B. 1 B Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bus.
C. 2B Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bus.
D! 1 C Diesel Generator through the 2H bus to the 2F 4160 Volt bus.
OPS 40301 K - A RHR pump is the A train pump
Bus
Normal
Alternate
Emergency
4160V Bus F
S/U Xfmr 1 (2)A
S/U Xfmr 1 (2)B
1/2A Diesel Gen
41 60V Bus G
TSfU Xfmr 1(2)B
S/U Xfmr 1(2)A
1(2)B Diesel Gen
Above is shown in the lesson plan for a single unit LOSP on Unit 2 with no other
failures. In the case of a dual unit LOSP, IAW lesson plan OPS-52103E DG
sequencers, 1 -2A DG will go to unit 1 and IC DG will go to unit 2. 1 C DG will align to
the 2H 41 60V bus and breaker DF1 3 will close to supply power to 2F bus.
A. Incorrect - The 1 -2A DG will align to the 1 F 41 60v bus since unit 1 is affected by the
LOSP.
B. Incorrect - 1 B DG and the I G 4160v bus is B train
C. Incorrect - 2B DG and the 2G 41 60v bus is B train
D. Correct -1C Diesel Generator through the 2H bus to the 2F 4160 Volt bus.
1 C DG will align to the 2H 41 60V bus and breaker DF1 3 will close to supply power to
2F bus.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
1 1
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
005K2.01 Residual Heat Removal Knowledge of the bus power supplies to the
following: RHR pumps
Describe the effect on the Residual Heat Removal of a loss of an AC or DC bus or
instrument air (OPS40301 K06).
List the automatic actions associated with the Diesel Generator Sequencers System
components and equipment during normal and abnormal operations including
(OPS401 02D07).
modified from RHR-40301 K06 #3
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
12
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
7. 006G2.1.33 001/2/1l,JIS 3.5.1/C/A 3.4/4.0/BANKFAo1 1005/RO/CVR
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power on 3/19. 1A ACCUM CHECK VLV is experiencing
seat leak-by. Given the following accumulator indications:
TIME
0200
0300
0400
0500
Level (%)
54
56
58
59
Pressure (psig)
603
635
650
655
Boron (ppm)
2205
2198
2195
2190
What is the latest time that the plant can enter Mode 3 and still comply with Tech Spec
requirements?
Assume NO ooerator action.
REFERENCES PROVIDED
A. Before 0400 on 3/20
B1
Before 1000 on 3/20
C. Before 1100 on 3/20
D. Before 0900 on 3/22
Tech Spec 3.5.1 Reference provided
A. Incorrect. This is the time to enter Condition C which requires entry into MODE 3 in
the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />, but it does not correctly identify the time to BE in Mode 3.
B. Correct. Before 1000 on 3/20
Pressure is out of required TS band at 0400 and requires correcting within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />
per Condition B. If not corrected, Condition C is then entered requiring Mode 3 entry in
the following 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> (0400 3/19 + 24 hour2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> completion time condition B + 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />
completion time condition C = 1000 3/20).
C. Incorrect. This would be correct if the Volume was the only parameter which made
the accum inoperable per condition B (0500 3/19 + 24 hour2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> completion time
condition B + 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> completion time condition C = 1100 3/20).
D. Incorrect. This would be correct if the Boron concentration was the only parameter
which made the accum inoperable per condition A (0300 3/19 + 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> completion
time condition A + 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> completion time condition C = 0900 3/22).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
13
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
006G2.1.33
006 Emergency Core Cooling
2.1 Conduct of Operations
G2. 1.33 - Ability to recognize indications for system operating parameters which are
entry-level conditions for technical specifications.
Identify and apply the following Technical Specifications or TRM requirements,
including the bases and attendant equipment, associated with the Emergency Core
Cooling System (OPS52102B01).
- 3.5.1 Accumulators
- 3.5.2 ECCS-Operating
0 3.5.3 ECCS-Shutdown
o 3.5.4 Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST)
- 2. 1.1 Reactor Core Safety Limits
ECCS-52102B01 #2
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
14
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
8.
0061K5.05 001/2/1/FPA SOLID/C/
3.4/3.S/NEW/FA Ol100S/RO/CVR_____
Unit 2 has had a Pressurizer Safety valve stick open. A Reactor Trip and Safety
Injection has occurred. The Pressurizer is solid.
Which one of the following is correct concerning the actions that ESP-1.2. Post LOCA
Cooldown and Depressurization, will direct?
Av Normal Charging will be established to control subcooling. Letdown will not be
placed in service.
B. Normal Charging and Letdown will be placed in service to establish a bubble and
level in the pressurizer.
C. Safety Injection flow will be maintained to establish and control subcooling. Letdown
will not be placed in service.
D. Safety Injection flow will be reduced by securing HHSI pumps and letdown placed in
service to establish a bubble and level in the pressurizer.
A. Correct. Normal Charging will be established to control subcooling. Letdown
will not be placed in service.
ESP-1.2 note prior to step 21.2, Maintain pressurizer level greater than 48%, states
that with a steam space LOCA, charging is used to maintain subcooling instead of
pressurizer level.
B. Incorrect. Letdown is not placed in service in ESP-1.2 Due to the LOCA providing a
letdown path. A bubble is not established.
C. Incorrect. This would be a true statement if asked whether or not you go to ESP-1 .1,
SI TERMINATION from EEP-1. However, in ESP-1.2, Normal charging is
established and subcooling is maintained.
D. incorrect. Normal charging is established and subcooling is maintained prior to ever
drawing a bubble.
006K5.05 Emergency Core Cooling
K5 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to
ECCS: (CFR: 41 .5 / 45.7)
K5.05 - Effects of pressure on a solid system
3. State the basis for all cautions, notes, and actions associated with ESP-1 .2
(OPS52531 F03).
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
9. 007AL03 001/2/1/PRTI/G,/A 2.6/2.7/NE.W/FAO110C5/RO/
_
_
Given the following plant conditions:
A Unit 1 is in ESP-1 .2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. due to a
small break LOCA.
9 PRT pressure is currently 34 psig.
Which one of the following gives the maximum expected temperature of steam
entering the PRT initially and the maximum PRT temperature that would be
achieved just prior to the rupture disk rupturing?
Maximum Initial Temperature
Maximum Final Temperature
A.
2580F
3270F
B.
2580F
3380F
C.
2800F
3270F
D.Y
2800F
3380F
OPS-52101 E Pressurizer
A. Incorrect - 2580F is the saturation temperature for 34 psia which is a logical mistake
if the examinee does not convert to psia before using the steam table. 3270F is the
temperature for 1 00 psia, which could be assumed by the candidate to be the
setpoint.
B. Incorrect - 2580F is the saturation temperature for 34 psia which is a logical mistake
if the examinee does not convert to psia before using the steam table. 3380F is the
temperature for 115 psia, which is correct.
C. Incorrect - 2800F is correct but the 3270F is the temperature for 100 psia, which
could be assumed by the candidate to be the setpoint.
D. Correct - 2800F
3380F
since this is an isenthalpic process temperature and pressure will be reduced
dependent upon the PRT condition of 34 +15 = 49 psia. Also 1 00 P "g is the pressure
at which the rupture disk ruptures. Add 15 to this = 11 5psij = approx 338 OF.
The PRT is not designed to accept a continuous discharge from the Pressurizer. If the
pressure in the tank exceeds 100 psig, two rupture discs relieve the PRT contents to the
containment atmosphere.
-
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
007A1.03 Pressurizer relief tank- Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in
parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the PRTS
controls including: Monitoring Quench tank temperature.
REFERENCES: 1 OCFR55.41.7/45.5
8. Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Pressurizer System evolutions including the fail condition, alarms, and trip
setpoints (OPS40301 EO8).
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Pressurizer
System and determine the local actions needed to mitigate the consequence of the
abnormality(0PS40301 El 2).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
17
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
10. 008A4.0700O1/2/1/CCWST/MEM 2.9 t /2.9/MOD/FAO11005/RO/_
The CCW Surge Tank Level is reading 35 inches and chemistry has requested that the
level be raised for chemical addition and sampling.
Which one of the following describes the normal water source and makeup method forl
maintaining level in the CCW System Surge Tank lAW SOP-23.0, Component Cooling
Water System?
Manual level control from the
A. Demineralized Water system by the Rover.
B. Reactor Makeup Water system by the Rover.
C. Reactor Makeup Water system from the Main Control Board.
D! Demineralized Water system from the Main Control Board.
A. Incorrect - The Rover can locally fill the surge tank by opening the MOVs. This is not
procedurally correct and is not the normal method. DW is the normal source.
B. Incorrect - The Rover can locally fill the surge tank by opening the MOVs. This is
not procedurally correct and is not the normal method. RMW is NOT the normal
source.
C. Incorrect - Manual control can be accomplished from the MCB from RMW, but there
is P&Ls and a caution in SOP-23 that RMW is the emergency source of water to the
D- Correct. Manual level control from the Demineralized Water system from the
Main Control Board.
Normal makeup is from the demineralized water header through MOV-3030A and B for
their respective trains. Alternate makeup comes from the reactor makeup water
system through valves MOV-3031A and B. All four valves are operated from the MCB
by three-position handswitches.
Reference: CFR: 41.7 / 45.5
OPS-52102G, CCW System
MakeuD Valves (MOV-3030A and B and 3031A and Bi
Makeuc watejr is availab!le o bt tan
o
wosuce-te demineralized water
system and the reactor makeuowater system. Normal makeup is from the dernineralizedjwtater
header thrauah MOV-3030A and E for their resc
e
.
Alternate makeup comes from the
reactor makeup water system through valves MOV-3031A and B. Reactor makeup water should only be
used as an emergency source of makeup water to the ccw surge tank due to possible radioactive
contamination of the system
All four valves are oerated from the MCB b
hanswt
(CLOSE/Neutral/OPENsprig
return to Neutral). Green and red position indicating lights are provided for each valve. The makeup lines
have check valves to prevent reverse flow in the event of a loss of power to the makeup system while the
isolation valves are opened.
SOP-23.O section 4.12 and 4.13.
I-
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-
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18
Friday, December if, zv O;ff usou MEVI
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
008A4.07 Component Cooling Water - Ability to operate and/or monitor in the control
room: Control of minimum level in the CCWS surge tank
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major component associated with
the Component Cooling Water System (OPS40204A02):
e Component Cooling Water Pumps
- Component Cooling Water Surge Tank
- Demineralized Water Fill
- Reactor Makeup Water Fill
Describe, when applicable, the Component Cooling Water System flow path to include
all major components (OPS40204A05).
- Component Cooling Water Pumps
- Component Cooling Water Surge Tank
- Demineralized Water Fill
- Reactor Makeup Water Fill
modified from CCW-40204A05 #9
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
19
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
11. 008AK3.02 001/1/l/ISENTHALPY/MEM 3.6/4.1/NEW/FAO11005/RO/
__
_
_
The following plant conditions exist:
4 Pressurizer steam space temperature is 6500F.
- Pressurizer Relief Tank (PRT) pressure is 50 psia.
- The PORV is stuck partially open.
The approximate temperature downstream of the PORVs will be
than the Pressurizer steam space temperature since the PORV flow is a constant
(Fill in the blanks with the correct answers from below)
A. the same as; enthalpy process.
B. the same as; entropy process.
C?' lower; enthalpy process.
D. lower; entropy process.
A. incorrect - The temperature would not be the same as Pressurizer steam space
temperature since the PORV flow is a constant enthalny process, the
downstream temperature would not be at saturation for the pressurizer. It
would more closely approximate saturation temperature of the downstream
PRT and be saturated, not superheated. Enthalpy is correct.
B. Incorrect- The temperature would not be the same as Pressurizer steam space
temperature since the PORV flow is a constant enthalpy process, the
downstream temperature would not be at saturation for the pressurizer. It
would more closely approximate saturation temperature of the downstream
PRT and be saturated, not superheated. Entropy is NOT correct.
C. Correct- lower; enthalpy process.
Using the Mollier, conditions are saturated and the temperature is 281 OF. This is due to
the process being a constant enthalny process a defined in the General
physics PWR thermodynamics book page 21-23
D. Incorrect- Using the Mollier, conditions are saturated and the temperature is 281 OF.
This is due to the process being a constant enthalov process a defined in
the General physics PWR thermodynamics book page 21-23. Entropy is
NOT correct.
Reference:
CFR 41.8 /41.10/ 45.3
AOP-1 .0
OPS52520A, AOP-1.0 RCS Leakage
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
20
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
008AK3.02 Pressurizer Vapor space accident (Relief Valve Stuck open) - Why PORV
or code safety exit temperature is below RCS or PZR temperature
Explain the condensing process using an enthalpy-entropy (h-s) diagram or
temperature-entropy (T-s) diagram (OPS30901 D09).
Solve throttling process problems, applying the General Energy Equation
(OPS30901 D1 0).
Explain the reduction of process pressure from throttling using an enthalpy-entropy
(h-s) diagram or temperature-entropy (T-s) diagram (OPS30901 D11).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
21
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
12. 00812.02 001/2/1/CCW PWR/MEM 3.0:'/3.0'/BANKRFA011005/RO/
Unit 1 is at 100% power and all electrical buses are aligned to their normal power
source, Component Cooling Water (CCW) Pump 1A is powered from which one of the
following?
A. 41 60V Bus 1 F via S/U Transformer 1 A.
B. 41 60V Bus 1 F via S/U Transformer 1 B.
C. 4160V Bus i G via S/U Transformer 1 A.
D., 41 60V Bus 1 G via S/U Transformer 1 B.
A. Incorrect - 1 A S/U is the correct power source to 1 F, but this is an A train power bus.
B. Incorrect - 1 F 4160v bus is an A train power bus and is normally supplied by IA SU
xfrmr.
C. Incorrect - 1 A S/U is the alternate power source for this bus.
D. Correct -4160V Bus IG via S/U Transformer 1 B.
This a B Train pump and is powered from 1 G 4160 V bus which is normally supplied
from the 1 B SU xfrmr.
Pump A is powered from 4160 bus G; pump B is powered from 4160 bus F or G; and
pump C is powered from 4160 bus F. To ensure that both power supplies are never
simultaneously connected to the swing pump, a key-interlock is used. The swing pump
is mechanically aligned to the same train that it is connected to electrically. The pumps
are normally controlled from the MCB or may be controlled from the hot shutdown
panel (HSP).
LOAD
SUPPLY
SU X-FORM
EDG Supply
Normall/Alt
CCW Pump A
4160V bus G
B / A
1B/2B D/G or 2C
CCW Pump B
4160V bus F or G
A or B
According to Train VSU
COW Pump C
4160V bus F
A/ B
1-2A or 1
008K2.02 Component Cooling Water -Knowledge of the bus power supplies to the
following: CCW pump, including emergency backup.
Identify the power supply for each major electrical component associated with the
Component Cooling Water System including (OPS40204A04):
o Component Cooling Water Pumps
CCW-40204Ao4 #1
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
13. 009EA1.02 001/i/1/SBLOCAC/QA 3.8/3.8/NFW/FA011005/ROi_
Unit 1 is at 100% power when PG3, CTMT SUMP LVL Hi-HI OR TRBL, annunciator
comes into alarm. AOP-1.0, RCS Leakage, is entered and STP-70, Containment Sump
Surveillance, is performed.
LI-3282A and B, CTMT SUMP LVL, shows a level rise
from 1 foot to 2 feet in 30 seconds. Which one of the following describes the relative
size of the leak and actions required?
I
A. The leak is approximately
program.
B. The leak is approximately
program.
C. The leak is approximately
suctions to the RWST.
50 gpm; Secure letdown and maintain PRZR level on
I100 gpm; Secure letdown and maintain PRZR level on
150 gpm; Secure letdown and align the charging pump
D> The leak is approximately 300 gpm; Trip the reactor and Si.
A. Incorrect - This is the wrong number and not completely the correct answer for 50
gpm leak.
B. Incorrect -This is the wrong number and the correct actions for a leak this size.
C. incorrect- This is the wrong number but the correct actions to take for a leak of 150
gpm. Rollover to the RWST with letdown secured is the correct actions. This would be
correct for the same level rise over 1 minute vice 30 secs.
D. Correct- The leak is
In STP 70 the leak rate
to 13 gal/in X
12"
X
30 sec
approximately 300 gpm; Trip the reactor and SI.
is determined. Approx. 13 gal/in (actual is 12.47 gal/in) equates
60 see
= 312 gpm using 12.47 = 299 gpm
1 min
These are the correct actions to take for a leak this size.
009EA1.02 - Small Break LOCA - Ability to operate and monitor the following as they
apply to a small break LOCA: RB sump level
Analyze plant indications to determine the successful completion of any step in
AOP-1.0. (OPS52520A07)
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
23
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
14. 01OK4.02001/2/iPZRHTRS/C/A3.0/3.4/BANK/FA01 1005/RO!..
Given the following:
- Unit 2 is at 100% power.
- All pressurizer backup heaters are in AUTO.
- Variable pressurizer heaters are in the ON position
- PK-444A, Pressurizer pressure master controller is in AUTO and
is functioning properly.
Due to a pressurizer level control malfunction, pressurizer level dropped to 5% and
pressurizer pressure dropped to 1965 psig.
Pressurizer level was then restored to 18% and pressurizer pressure was returned to
2200 psig. Which one of the following describes the current state of the heaters?
Assume NO operator action.
A. Variable and backup heaters are off.
B. Variable and backup heaters came on automatically.
C. Variable heaters came on automatically; backup heaters are off.
D! Backup heaters came on automatically; variable heaters are off.
L
.
_
_
__
_-
___
_._
__
__
___
___
A. Incorrect - The variable heaters will remain off, backups will come on due to being in
the auto position after Pzr level returns above 15% and pressure is at 2200 #.
B. Incorrect - The variable heaters will remain off.
C. Incorrect - This is backwards of what will happen.
D. Correct - Backup heaters came on automatically; variable heaters are off.
OPS-52201 H PZR pressure and level control lesson plan figures 13 and 10.
Due to Pzr level dropping to less than 15%, all the heaters will turn off. When the level
is returned to > 15%, the Backup heaters that are in ON or AUTO position, which in this
case is all of them, will turn on due to RCS pressure being below the auto on setpoint
of backup heaters (<2210 psig htrs come on, >2215 psig htrs go off). The Variable
heaters will stay off until placed in ON by the operator.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
01 OK4.02 Knowledge of the PZR PCS design feature(s) and/or interlocks which provide
for the following:
Prevention of uncovering PZR heaters.
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control System (0PS52201 H02):
- Pressurizer Heat
- Master Pressure Controller
Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including precautions
and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with the Pressurizer
Pressure and Level Control System including (OPS52201 Hi 1):
- Pressurizer Heaters
¢ Pressurizer Spray Valves
- Pressurizer Pressure Detectors
PZR PRS/LVL-52201 H07 #17
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
25
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
15. 011 lK2.02o001/1,1 /LBLOCAC/,A 2.6t/2.7*/MOD/FA01 1005/RO/CVR
__
Unit 1 has experienced a Large Break LOCA.
- EEP-0, Reactor trip or Safety Injection, is in progress.
- Safety Injection had to be manually initiated.
- HHSI pumps will not start.
- Containment pressure is 27.5 psig and rising.
- RCS subcooling has decreased to 00F.
Which one of the following describes the correct operator response to this situation?
Ar Trip all running RCPs and remain in EEP-0.
B. Ensure ROPs are running and remain in EEP-0.
C. Transition to FRP-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling.
D. Transition to FRP-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
26
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Ref: EEP-0
A. Correct; Trip all running RCPs and remain in EEP-0.
EEP-0 fold out page RCP trip criteria has not been met due to failure of the HHSI
pumps; however, with >27 psig in containment phase B actuates and isolates CCW to
the RCPs. RCPs are not run without support conditions unless the core cooling is
degraded to the point of entering FRP-C.1 at >1 2000F CETC.
B - incorrect; This is a valid distracter as evidenced by 1 of 3 validation picks.
Also with ctmt at 27 psig this equates to 42 psia. Superheat is likely at temperatures
greater than 2750F. This would most likely be the case with no HHSI flow and a
LBLOCA. Even though RCP's would not be tripped by fold out page criteria with no
HHSI pumps running, and transition criteria to other procedures have not been met;
CTMT Pressure peaked at >27 psig. A Phase B did occur and CCW is NOT cooling the
RCPs. RCPs are not run without support conditions unless the core cooling is
degraded to the point of entering FRP-C.1 at >1 2000F CETC.
C. Incorrect. CSFs are not monitored this early in EEP-0, AND transition to FRP-C.1 is
made if CETC's are > 12000F, this can not be the case if subcooling has just
decreased to 00F with a LOCA in progress.
D. Incorrect. CSFs are not monitored this early in EEP-0, AND transition to FRP-C.2 is
made if CETC's are > 7000F, this can not be the case if subcooling has just decreased
to 00F with a LOCA in progress.
EPE: 011 Large Break LOCA
EK2 Knowledge of the interrelations between the [there is apparently a typo here in the
k/a document. This is as written except inside these brackets] and the following Large
Break LOCA: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)
EK2.02 Pumps 2.6*
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated
while performing EEP-O/ESP-0.0. (OPS52530A06)
modified from E-0/ESP-0.O-52530A06
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
27
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
16. 012K6.02 00i/2/1/RPS/C/A 2.9/3.1iBANK.'FAO11005,RO/
__
_
_ _
Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit 1 is operating at 90% power.
- STP-33.0B, Solid State Protection System Train B Operability Test, is
in progress.
e ED4, SSPS B TRN TRBL, is in alarm.
e Reactor Trip Breakers "A" & "B" are closed.
- Bypass Breaker "B" is racked in and closed.
- Bypass Breaker "A" is racked in and open.
- "B" Train SSPS Input Error Inhibit Switch is in INHIBIT.
Which one of the following describes the response of the Reactor Trip and
Bypass Breakers if there is a loss of one "A" Train 48 volt power supply?
Assume NO operator action
A.< Reactor Trip Breakers "A" & "B" open, Bypass Breaker "B" opens.
B. Reactor Trip Breakers "A" & "B" open, Bypass Breaker "B" remains closed.
C. Reactor Trip Breaker "A' opens and "B" remains closed, Bypass Breaker "B"
opens.
D. Reactor Trip Breaker "A" opens and "B" remains closed, Bypass Breaker "B"
remains closed.
OPS-52201 I
A. Correct - Reactor Trip Breakers "A" & "B" open, Bypass Breaker "B"
opens.
ALL Rx Trip Breakers open because the K524 relay is active and not
dependant upon the Input Error Inhibit Switch being in INHIBIT. It is in line
with the manual reactor trip handswitches which will open all Rx trip breakers
even in INHIBIT. The K524 relay will energize to de-energize the UV coils for
all Rx trip breakers. They will ALL open on a GW signal.
B. Incorrect - ALL RT breakers open b/c of K524 relay which de-energizes
the UV coil.
C. Incorrect - This would be correct if the GW signal was routed through the
logic cabinet input bay. As it is, the GW signal energizes a relay, K524, which
de-energizes the UV coil for both the RT and BYP breakers.
D. Incorrect - RTB "A" opens however the examinee may believe that
neither the "B" train RTB or bypass will open with "B" train signal inhibited.
The bypass receives an "A" train signal.
Rx Protection lesson plan
As A
28
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
system tests. Only one reactor bypass breaker should be shut at a time. If both bypass breakers
are shut, then an interlock energizes the shunt (trip) coils on both bypass breakers. The general
warning alarm in both trains trips both reactor trip breakers.This interlock prevents both reactor
trip breakers and both bypass breakers from beingshut simultaneously. If all four breakers could
be shut simultaneously, the redundancy requirement for reactor protection system design would
be violated. (A reactor trip sensed by one train but not the other train would not cause a reactor
trip.) The indication of a reactor trip, from receiving a general warning alarm on both trains, is
the SSPS A TRN TRBL and SSPS B TRN TRBL (solid state protection system train A trouble
and solid state protection system train B trouble) alarms. If both alarms are energized, a reactor
trip signal is initiated.
General Warning (Figure 10)
The SSPS has a self-check feature that warns if the system is not entirely operational.
When activated, the general warning circuitry energizes the red indicator on the front of the
affected train's logic panel as well as de-energizing the green LED inside the logic bay. The
nonaffected logic cabinet will indicate that the opposite train is in the general warning condition
by de-energizing the "opposite train in general warning" amber LED. If both redundant trains
develop trouble, the reactor will automatically be tripped.
64 OPS-5220 I / OPS-40302F/ ESP-5220 71
Relays from the tester cards of both trains control contacts in the path between the UV
driver card, the reactor trip, and bypass breaker UV coils. If both trains develop a fault, their
relays energize to break current flow to the breakers.
Faults or actions which cause a protection train general warning are as follows:
1. Loss of either 48V DC power supply
2. Loss of either 15V DC power supply
3. The train's bypass breaker is closed (closure of both bypass breakers will trip the
reactor)
4. INPUT ERROR INHIBIT switch in INHIBIT
5. MULTIPLEXER TEST switch in INHIBIT
6. LOGIC A switch out of OFF (LOGIC B, C, and D are interlocked with this switch so
they do not cause an alarm)
7. PERMISSIVES switch out of OFF
8. MEMORIFS switch out of OFF
9. MODE SELECTOR switch (in Relay Test Panel) in TEST
10. Loose or removed circuit board
11. Open ground return fuse
Review the functions of each of the above mentioned switches to ensure an understanding
of why these positions cause a general warning.
The general warning circuit in a train will energize the appropriate SSPS A(B) TRN
TRBL (solid state protection system train A(B) trouble) alarm, if any of the above problems are
detected.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
29
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
012K6.02 Knowledge of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RPS:
Redundant channels
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Reactor Protection System (OPS522011102):
Input error inhibit switch
Describe the operation and function of the following reactor trip signals, permissives,
control interlocks, and engineered safeguards actuation signals associated with the
Reactor Protection System and Engineered Safeguards Features to include setpoint,
coincidence, rate functions (if any), reset features, and the potential consequences
improper conditions (0PS52201 107):
- All reactor trip signals
Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including precautions
and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with the Reactor
Protection System including (OPS52201 111):
- Reactor trip breakers (RTA and RTB)
e Bypass breakers (BYA and BYB)
RX PROT-52201107 #19 this question was modified slightly in that the other question
had a different reactor trip signal.
SQNP nrc exam 2002 - question was changed to add 48 volt power supply to tie
directly to KA for loss or malfunction and ties to Input error inhibit switch.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
30
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
1 7. 012K6.10 001/2/1/RPS/C/A 3.3/3.5/BANK/FAOI 1005/RO/
__
The following plant conditions exist a few minutes after the Reactor tripped from 33%
power due to a loss of "B" RCP;
- Tavg
5490F and falling
Not tripped
4 Both SGFPs
running
- Feed reg valves
Open
- Steam Dumps
Not Armed and closed
This plant response to the reactor trip suggests that a failure has occurred in which
permissive circuit?
AN' P4, Rx Trip Interlock.
B. P-7, Low Power Rx Trip Block Permissive.
C. P-8, Single Loop Loss of Flow Permissive.
D. P-9, Turbine Trip Permissive.
OPS-522011 Reactor Protection lesson plan
A. Correct - P-4, Rx Trip Interlock.
If P-4 had worked properly, when the Rx tripped the FRVs would be closed at 5540F,
the main turbine would have tripped, the steam dumps, when armed by P-4 would be
controlling temperature at 5470F and the steam dumps would be open at this point. The
steam dumps are not armed by the C-7, loss of load b/c the turbine is removing steam
from the SGs and RCS temp is decreasing due to that. Since C-7 does not arm the
dumps and the Rx tripped, P-4 failing would cause the dumps are closed in this
situation.
B. Incorrect - P-7 prevents unnecessary Rx trips when <10% power. This Reactor trip
did not occur as a result of P-7 not functioning properly. This Rx trip occurred due to a
Loss of one RCP >30% power. P-7 auto unblocks the following Rx trips: Low PCS flow,
RCP bkr trip, RCP bus UV and UF, Pzr low pressure and high level.
C. Incorrect - P-8 prevents a Rx trip from a loss of flow or RCP bkr open in a single loop
when active and auto re-instates > 30% Rx power. Since there was a Rx trip at >30%
power, this permissive worked as designed.
D. Incorrect - P-9 prevents a Rx trip from a turbine trip when <35% power. Since the
power level is 33%, if the turbine tripped then the Rx would not trip. Since the turbine is
still on line, something prevented the turbine from tripping and P-9 has nothing to do
with this feature.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
012K6.10 Knowledge of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RPS:
Permissive circuits
Describe the operation and function of the following reactor trip signals, permissives,
control interlocks, and engineered safeguards actuation signals associated with the
Reactor Protection System and Engineered Safeguards Features to include setpoint,
coincidence, rate functions (if any), reset features, and the potential consequences
improper conditions (OPS52201107):
& All reactor trip signals
- All permissive signals (P-4, P-6, P-7, P-8, P-9, P-10, P-11, P-12, P-13, and P-14)
RX PROT-52201 107 #12
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
32
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
_1 8. 013K1.01 0O1/2/1/ESF/IMFM 4.2/4.4/BANK/FAO11005/RO/
_ _
_
_
With Unit 2 at 100% power, which one of the following is the method used to prevent
an inadvertent spray down of containment components due to a loss of detector power
or protective train power, or an erroneous containment pressure trip signal sent to the
protection system?
A. The Containment Spray pumps start on a "P" signal only if a Safety Injection signal
is also present.
B1 Two containment pressure bistables must energize to send a High-3 pressure
signal to cause a "P' signal.
C. Two containment pressure bistables must energize to send both High-l and High-3
pressure signals to cause a "P" signal.
D. The Containment Spray pumps start on a "P" signal, but the discharge valves open
only if a Safety Injection signal also is present.
A. Incorrect - The CS pumps will start on a P signal with no Si signal unless an LOSP is
present. If an LOSP signal is present, then CS pumps will start only with an SI signal
present as well to prevent starting CS pumps w/o first looking at DC loading.
B. Correct -Two containment pressure bistables must energize to send a High-3
pressure signal to cause a "P" signal.
This is an energize to actuate design to prevent inadvertent spray actuation.
OPS-52201 i under fail-safeness.
C. Incorrect - Hi-1 is a ctmt pressure Si signal and Hi-1 does not have to be in to
actuate CS bistables. 2/4 ctmt pressure transmitters will cause a CS actuation signal
unless an LQSP has occured.
D. Incorrect - the CS discharge valves, 8820NAB always open on a P signal (CS
actuation signal). It is not dependent on CS pump start or Si signal criteria. This
distracter can be confused with the CS pumps that need a Si signal to start only IF an
LOSP is in progress.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
33
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
01 3K1.01 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships
between ESFAS and the following systems:
Initiation signals for the ESF circuit logic.
List the automatic actions associated with the Containment Spray and Cooling System
components and equipment during normal and abnormal operations including
(OPS40302D07):
> Normal control methods
selecting the containment cooler control to local.
- Protective isolations such as high flow, low pressure, low level including setpoint
- Protective interlocks
Describe the operation and function of the following reactor trip signals, permissives,
control interlocks, and engineered safeguards actuation signals associated with the
Reactor Protection System and Engineered Safeguards Features to include setpoint,
coincidence, rate functions (if any), reset features, and the potential consequences
improper conditions (OPS52201 107):
o All reactor trip signals
- All permissive signals (P-4, P-6, P-7, P-8, P-9, P-10, P-11, P-12, P-13, and P-14)
- All control interlocks (C-1, C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5, C-7, C-9, C-11, and C-20)
- Safety injection
o Phase A isolation
- Phase B isolation
- Steam line isolation
e Feedwater isolation
RX PROT-52201 107 #52
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
34
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
1 9. 013K4.03 001,/2/1/MSLI/C'/A 3.9/4.4/BANK/FAO11005/RO/
_
_
_
Given the following:
e Unit 1 Reactor and turbine power is approximately 15% power
during a startup.
- Tavg is 5530F.
- 1A SGFP is on service.
o The steam dumps are in the STM PRESS mode and in automatic.
The main steam header pressure transmitter, PT-464, fails high. Which one of
the following will be a result of this failure?
Assume no orerator action
A. SGFP speed decreases.
Br Main steam line isolation occurs.
C. Feed Regulating Valves modulate open.
D. Steam dumps immediately modulate closed.
35
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect - SGFP speed will actually increase for this failure.
B. Correct - Main steam line isolation occurs.
Due to the temperature and power level, when the steam dumps go full open, which
they would for this failure, with P-imp < 20%, the setpoint for Hi stm flow would be
40% steam flow, and the stm dumps are rated for 40% steam flow. Actual capacity
of the FNP Steam dumps is closer to 50% than 40%. This would cause a MSLI
signal with Tavg < 5540F.
C. Incorrect - PT-464 does not directly affect FRV position. However, the SGFPs speed
would increase some and SGWL would start to rise. There would also be a swell in
SG Level. These would cause the FRV to go in the close direction, not modulate
open.
D. Incorrect- The steam dumps would go full open in auto. Candidate may incorrectly
believe the stm dumps are inversely proportional to PT-464 values.
This originally said the stm dumps will shift to manual and go to min value, but this
correct when the temp reaches 5430F. The MSLI will also occur
A high steam flow and low-low Tavg exist concurrently. (Che high steam flow signal occurs
at 40% steam flow from 0% to 20% turbine load and is programmed to increase linearly to
110% as turbine load increases from 20 to 100% as sensed by 1/2 steam flow detectors in
2/3 steam lines. Low-low Tavg signal occurs when 2/3 primary loop temperature detectors
indicate less than 5430F).
The low-low TAvu((P-12) block actuates when 2/3 TAVG instruments indicate below
5430 F. A LO-LO TAVG SAFETY INJ STEAM DUMP INTLK P-12 status light, located on the
MCB, represents the P-12 actuation.
Secondly, if the low-low TAVG signal (P-12) exists and the BYP INTLK position on
both A and B Train STEAM DUMP INTERLOCK SWITCrHES has not been selected, PK-464
will shift to manual control. By shifting to manual control, the output of the P+I portion of the
controller is set to zero and thus prevents small pressure errors from being integrated into large
controller output signals.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
36
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
01 3K4.03 Knowledge of ESFAS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for
the following:
Main Steam Isolation Signal
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Steam Generator Protection System (OPS52201 K02):
¢ Safety Injections
- Main Steam Line Isolations
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Steam Generator Water Level Control System evolutions including the fail
condition, alarms, trip setpoints (OPS52201 B08).
> Steam Flow
- Steam Pressure
- Steam Header Pressure
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Steam Dump evolutions including fail condition, alarms and trip setpoints.
(OPS52201 G08)
- PT-446
( PT-447
- PT-464
RX PRQT-52201107 #4
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
37
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
20. 014A4.04 0O1/2!2/RPi/MEM 2.7/2.7/NEW/FAO1 1005/RO!
_
_ __
Unit 2 is starting up the reactor after a reactor trip. DRPI shows all rods on the bottom
and the step counters show the At Power rod positions prior to the reactor trip.
IAW UOP-1.3, Startup of Unit following an At Power Reactor Trip, the ROD CONTROL
STARTUP RESET switch on the MOB is taken to the RESET position. Which one of
the following will result from this action?
AM The Bank Overlap Unit will indicate zero.
B. FF3, DRPI Urgent Failure, annunciator will come into alarm.
C. FF1, Rod Cont Urgent Failure, annunciator will come into alarm.
D. Rod Insertion Limit computer will generate a rod position Lo and Lo-Lo alarm.
A. Correct - The Bank Overlap Unit will indicate zero.
This is one of six actions that occur when the ROD CONTROL STARTUP RESET
switch on the MCB is taken to the RESET position.
B. Incorrect - This alarm could be confused with the Rod Cont Urgent Failure
C. incorrect - This alarm will clear, not come in to alarm, if in alarm and the condition
corrected when the ROD CONTROL STARTUP RESET switch is taken to the
RESET position.
D. Incorrect - This is a correct answer if the ROD CONTROL STARTUP RESET switch
on the MCB is taken to the RESET position while at 100% power.
Prior to doing a reactor startup, all counters should be set to zero, and any urgent failures
should be cleared. The rod control startup reset switch on the MCB performs the following six
functions:
1. Resets the step counters on MCB to zero.
2. Resets the master cycler 0-5 counter to zero (This will ensure correct group action.)
3. Resets the slave cyclers 0-127 counters to zero (This will ensure correct sequence of
a step.)
4. Resets the bank overlap unit 0-999 counter to zero (This will ensure correct bank
overlap.)
5. Resets all urgent failure alarms if the conditions have been corrected.
6. Resets the pulse-to-analog convertors in the rod position indication system to zero
(This will ensure correct insertion limit surveillance.)
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
01 4A4.04 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:
Re-zeroing of rod position prior to startup
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions.
capacities,
and protective interlocks of the following major component associated with the Rod
Control System (OPS40204102):
- Rod Control Startup Reset Switch
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
39
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
_ 21. 015K2.01 O01/2/2/NIS/C/A 3.3./3.7/_MO1D/FAO11005/RO/
_
_
_
I
Given the following conditions:
o A Unit 1 Reactor Startup is in progress.
o The startup is on hold due to a problem with SR N-31.
- SR N-32 indicates 1000 cps.
- SR N-31 LEVEL TRIP switch is in the BYPASS position.
- 1A inverter has been placed on the alternate source.
DFO1, 1A S/U transformer to 1 F 4160V bus, has tripped open. Which one of the
following is correct after the associated Diesel Generator ties on 1 F 41 60V bus?
A. The reactor trip breakers will be
de-energized.
B9 The reactor trip breakers will be
energized.
C. The reactor trip breakers will be
energized.
D. The reactor trip breakers will be
de-energized.
open and N-31, N-35 and N-41 will be
open and N-31, N-35 and N-41 will be
closed and N-31, N-35 and N-41 will be
closed and N-31, N-35 and N-41 will be
40
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect - There will be a Rx trip, however the Nis will be powered up after the DG
ties on.
B. The reactor trip breakers will be open and N-31, N-35 and N-41 will be
energized.
Due to the inverter being on the the alternate source, the power comes from 1 F 41 60V
bus. When the bus is de-energized, 1A Vital panel will be de-energized and power is
lost to SR N-31. Even though the level trip BYPASS SW is in BYPASS, control power
is lost and trips the Hi flux SR B/S anyway. A Rx trip is generated. Then when the DG
ties on and energizes the bus, 1 A Vital panel will now have power again and all Nis will
be energized.
C. Incorrect - The Rx trip breakers will be open.
D. Incorrect - The Rx trip breakers will be open and all Nis will be energized.
Possible symptoms/indications of a source range (SR) channel failure include,
SR LOSS OF DET VOLTAGE annunciator (FA3)
The control power fuses supply control power for drawer.
Below the P-6 set point (1/2 intermediate range [IR] channels > 10-10 amps), a reactor
trip signal would be generated if either SR channel exceeded 105 cps as a result of the
failure.
ARP-l.6 (In Part)
FA3 SR LOSS OF DET VOLTAGE
PROBABLE CAUSE
1. During Startup or Shutdown below P-6;
a) Loss of 118 VAC Instrument Power
b) Loss of 118 VAC Control Power
c) High Voltage Power Supply malfunction
2. During Power Operation above P-6, this alarm will normally be on as a result of
manually blocking the Source Range Level Trip from the MCB until power level
exceeds the P-1 0 setpoint above which this alarm is disabled.
3. During power reduction, this alarm should come in when P-10 clears.
AUTOMATIC ACTION
NOTE: This trip will normally be manually blocked after Permissive P-6 is
satisfied.
IF a malfunction causes a Source Range trip setpoint to be reached on one out of
two detectors, THEN a reactor trip will occur.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
41
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
01 5K2.01 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:
NIS channels, components and interconnections.
Identify the power supply for each major electrical component associated with the
Excore Nuclear Instrumentation System including (OPS52201 D04):
- Power Range Channels
- Intermediate Range Channels
- Source Range Channels
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Excore Nuclear Instrumentation System evolutions including the fail
condition, alarms, and trip set points (OPS52201 DOB).
-Source Range Channels
modified from EXCORE-52201 D08 #35
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:36 AM
42
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
22. 016K3.08 001/2/2/'ZR PCS MALF/C'/A 3.5*/3.7*IBANKFA011005/RO,'('VR
___
_
Unit 1 is operating at 100% steady-state power. All systems are in automatic and
functioning properly.
- Pressurizer pressure channel PT-444 fails high.
Which ONE of the following represents the plant/system response?
Assume no operator action
A. The Pressurizer heaters will de-energize and both PORVs open, thus reducing RCS
pressure resulting in a Pressurizer low pressure reactor trip and Si.
B9 The Pressurizer heaters will de-energize and both spray valves will open, thus
reducing RCS pressure resulting in a Pressurizer low pressure reactor trip and SI.
C. Both spray valves close and Pressurizer heaters energize, thus raising RCS
pressure resulting in a Pressurizer high pressure reactor trip.
D. PORV-445A will open, thus reducing RCS pressure resulting in a Pressurizer low
pressure reactor trip and Si.
A. Incorrect. PORV 445A does not open. Only PORV-444B opens and then closes by
P-11 at 2000 psig.
B. Correct. The Pressurizer heaters will de-energize and both spray valves will
open, thus reducing RCS pressure resulting in a Pressurizer low pressure
reactor trip and SI.
Spray valves go full open, the reactor trips at 1865 psig, and Si actuates at 1850 psig.
C. Incorrect. The spray valves open and the heaters deenergize.
D. Incorrect. Pressurizer pressure will be decreasing due to the spray valves opening.
PORV 445A does not open. Only PORV-444B opens.
__:.
. -
,-
.
A
43
Friday, December 1i7, 2)4 8:4537 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
016K3.08 Non-nuclear instrumentation
Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the NNIS will have on the
following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)
K3.08 - PZR PCS
7. Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control System evolutions including the fail
condition, alarms, trip setpoints (OPS52201 H08):
- PT-444
- PT-445
- PT-455
v PT-456
^ PT-457
- LT-459
- LT-460
- LT-462
15. Given a set of plant conditions describe the actions/effects that will occur following
a PZR Pressure Malfunction with no operator action (OPS52201 H1 7).
16. Given a set of plant conditions determine the corrective actions which are required
to be taken following a PZR Pressure Malfunction (OPS52201 H18).
Source: Farley Bank Question #052201 H08 #2
2001 nrc exam
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
44
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
23. 017K1.02 Ool/212/CEI'C/MEM 3.3/3.5/NEW/FAOIIOO5/RO/CVR
_
__
Subcooling is constantly calculated by the Subcooled Margin Monitor using the output
of several instruments. Which one of the following is correct concerning the
temperature instruments used in the Subcooling calculations?
A. In the RTD mode, the lowest reading RTD of the 3 RCS Hot leg and 3 RCS Cold
Legs is used.
B. In the Individual Value display mode, the lowest reading of Core Exit and Upper
Head Thermocouples is used.
C. In the Individual Value display mode, the fifth hottest of all Core Exit
Thermocouples (excluding the Upper Head thermocouples) is used.
D? In the Core Exit Thermocouple mode, the hottest of all Core Exit Thermocouples
(excluding the Upper Head thermocouples) is used.
A. Incorrect. This would be correct if it said the "highest" instead of the lowest.
B. Incorrect. This would be correct if it said the "highest" instead of the lowest.
C. Incorrect. The upper head TCs are not excluded from the cakc in the individual value
mode, and also the fifth hottest is not used in the calc. even though the fifth hottest is
used for diagnostic purposes throughout the ERG procedure network.
D. Correct. In the Core Exit Thermocouple Mode, the hottest of all Core Exit
Thermocouples (excluding the Upper Head thermocouples) is used.
This instrument is correct for this one (of the three) Subcooled Margin Monitor Modes.
The CETC mode is the normal mode of the Subcooled Margin Monitor because the
outlet of the core is the most significant area of concern to monitor the potential for
boiling In the core. The upper head region is somewhat physically separated from
the core outlet, and the Subcooling may be higher or lower in the Upper Head than
at the core outlet.
45
Friday, December 17, uU04 b:4:,J I AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
01 7K1.02 In-core Temperature Monitor
Ki Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between
the ITM system and the following systems: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9/45.7 to 45.8)
K1.02 - RCS
2. Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions as
well as protective interlocks of the following major components associated with the
Inadequate Core Cooling Monitor System (OPS52202E02):
0 Reactor Vessel Level Indication System (RVLIS)
0 HJTC Sensors
- HJTC Level Displays
- Level Display Mimic
e Subcooled Margin Monitor (SMM)
- CETC Monitor
- ICCMS Defeat Panel
- Front Display Panel
3. Describe the physical in plant location of the following major components associated
with the Inadequate Core Cooling Monitor System (OPS52202E03):
- HJTC sensors
o HJTC level displays
v Subcooled Margin Monitor (SMM)
- CETC Monitor
- ICCMS defeat panel
- Front Display Panel
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
46
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
24. 022A2.04 01/2/1/CTM'ITClOG/(C'/A 2.9*/3.2/MOD/FA011005/RO/
The following conditions exist on Unit 1:
- A Large Break LOCA has just occurred.
- A Dual Unit LOSP has occurred.
- 4160v Bus 1K is de-energized due to an electrical fault.
- No other failures have occurred.
Which one of the following is the required action and reason for that action due to the
loss of Service Water for this event?
A. Immediately secure ALL running "A" Train Diesel Generators to prevent
overheating.
B. immediately secure ALL CCW and HHSI pumps to prevent the HHSI pumps from
overheating.
C. Align ONE Unit 2 air compressor to Unit 1 to prevent ALL Unit 1 air compressors
from tripping on high temperature.
D! Verify ONE CS pump and ONE B Train containment cooler operating to ensure
design bases containment pressure reduction capability is maintained.
A. Incorrect -A Train DGs are supplied by unit 2 SW and do not have to be secured
immediately. IAW AOP-10 they will be left running as long as the other unit is
available to provide flow and the LO temp alarm can be kept clear. Also the 1 0 DG is
running supplying the unit 2 busses and this would not be secured.
B. Incorrect - HHSI flow in the affected train is secured in AOP-9.0 at step 10, but all
HHSI flow and CCW flow would not be secured.
C. Incorrect - The air compressors are supplied by both trains of SW and have an
emergency supply of SW when TB isolation valves go closed on a T signal.
D. Correct - Verify EITHER CS pump and a B Train containment cooler operating
to ensure design bases containment pressure reduction capability is
maintained.
Due to the loss of SW and the LOSP, one train of SW will not be available to the
Ctmt coolers and only 1 CTMT cooler will be running in the other train. Even though
the CS system is available and running when Ctmt pressure reaches 27 psig, having
less Ctmt coolers will cause pressure reduction capability to be less than with more
Ctmt coolers and will be seriously degraded in the initial stages of the accident due
to only having one Ctmt cooler available. Ctmt pressure will not exceed design
pressure and will be reduced due to the CS pumps availability, but it will not be
reduced as quickly as with more ctmt coolers.
47
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:4b:31 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
022A2.04
Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or
on the 0CS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct,
mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
Loss of Service Water
operations
control, or
Identify any special considerations such as safety hazards and plant condition changes
that apply to the Service Water System (OPS52102F04).
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities,
and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with the
Containment Spray and Cooling System (OPS40302002):
o Containment Spray Pumps
- Containment Spray Rings and Nozzles
^ Containment Cooling Fans
- Containment Coolers
Kewannee 1 1997 nrc exam
48
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
25. 022AA2.02 OO1/1/1/CVCS/C/A 3.2/3.7,/NEW/FA01 1005/RO/
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power. The OATC is swapping charging pumps. When
1 B charging pump is started and 1 A charging pump is secured, 1 B charging pump
motor ammeter and CHG FLOW, Fl-1 22A, begin to oscillate.
The following annunciators come into alarm:
o EA2. CHG HDR FLOW HI-LO.
- DE1, REGEN HX LTDN FLOW DISCH TEMP HI.
Which one of the following has caused the above indications?
A. FCV-O
22, CHG FLOW, has failed open.
B. i B charging pump discharge relief has stuck open.
C. 1A charging pump outlet check valve is hung open.
De Air or gas intrusion into the charging pump suction.
Reference: FNP-1 -ARP-1.4 Loc. DD1 & DE1, FNP-1 -ARP-1.5 Loc. EA2
A - Incorrect- If a FCV-122 had failed open, DE1, REGEN HX LTDN FLOW DISCI
TEMP HI alarm would not be in because there is max. cooling occurring due to the high
CHG flow. CHG HDR FLOW HI-LO alarm and RCP SEAL INJ FLOW LO alarm could
both be in alarm. Also amps and flow oscillations would not be explained.
B - Incorrect- This could cause the alarms that are in but it is unlikely. It does not
explain the oscillating amps and flow. The relief is on the miniflow line back to the
VCT. Over a long period of time with no CCW flow to the seal water ret Hx these
indications could come in. (OE from an outage experience)
C - Incorrect- This has been another reoccurring problem and this would give a low flow
indication due to flow going back through the non-running charging pump. Seal
injection flow would also drop and be lower. This could possibly give DEI also but does
not explain the cavitating indications given. It also does not explain EB3 in alarm.
D - Correct- Air or gas intrusion into the charging pump suction.
These conditions given would be a result of loss of all charging flow and the ARP EA2
says: CAUTION: Oscillating flow indications and/or oscillating ammeter indications
could be indicative of air or gas intrusion into the charging pump suction.
This is a reoccurring problem at FNP. We are currently venting the suction piping of
the Chg pumps on a routine basis and at present have found some indications of gas/
H2 in the suction piping.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
49
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
000022 Loss of Rx Coolant Makeup /2 Ability to determine and interpret the following
as they apply to Loss of Reactor Coolant pump makeup: AA2.02 - charging pump
problems
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Chemical and Volume Control System evolutions including the fail
condition, alarms, trip setpoints. (OPS40301 F08).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
50
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
26. 024AK2.04 001/1/2/;EMERG BOR/MEM 26./2.5/NEW/,FA011005/RO/
_
_
_
Given the following conditions:
1
- Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with RCS temperature at 1650F.
- 1A RHR loop is being used for cooldown.
- 1 B BAT pump is on service.
- 1A BAT is on recirc.
- 1A CHG pump is on service.
- 1 B and I C CHG pumps are electrically tagged out.
The OATC has determined that an Emergency Boration is required due to the
Shutdown Margin is less than required IAW STP-29.2, Shutdown Margin Calculation
(Tavg <5470F or before the initial criticality following refueling).
Which one of the following emergency boration flowpaths is Immediately available to
restore the Shutdown Margin IAW AOP-27, Emergency Boration?
Borate using the
and
A? 1A CHG pump
the RWST
B. 1A RHR pump
the RWST
C. 1 B BAT pump
1 B BAT
D. 1A BAT pump
1A BAT
A. Correct -1A CHH pump
the RWST
This is the only flow path available in this configuration and this lAW AOP-27 guidance.
B. Incorrect - The RHR system is not an option in AOP-27. However, in this mode, it
seems to be a good alternative since RHR is in the cooldown lineup, 2 valve swaps
would give a flowpath from the RWST to the RCS.
C. incorrect - With the other BAT on recirc, this would make this BAT the only available
tank and the MCC that feeds the pump has no power.
D. Incorrect - This BAT tank is not available when on recirc.
FlA-
17
L
lIR-J I
.
77 AM
51
IIC .ay, I
I m.
1 i , gums ---
- 0 AWI
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
024AK2.04 - Emergency Boration - Knowledge of the interrelations between the
Emergency Boration and the following: Pumps
Analyze plant indications to determine the successful completion of any step in AOP-
27.0, Emergency Boration (OPS52521A06).
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated
while performing AOP-27.0, Emergency Boration (OPS52521A05).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
52
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
27. 025AK2.02 001/1//LiOSSOF RHR-RC'/A 3.2
H3/3.2/NEW/FAO11005/RO/
_
_
Given the following:
- RCS temperature is 11 80F.
- RCS level is at mid loop and indicates 123' 3" preparing for vacuum
refill.
- 1 B RHR pump is running with indicated flow of 2300 gpm.
A leak develops in the RHR system and RCS level begins to drop. 1 B RHR pump has
fluctuating pump amps and flow oscillations, and a possible loss of the 1 B RHR pump
is imminent. Which one of the following is the lowest flow rate for the RCS level given
that would prevent a loss of RHR?
REFERENCE PROVIDED
A. RHR flow is 1500 gpm and RCS level is 122'7".
B? RHR flow is 1700 gpm and RCS level is 122' 9".
C. RHR flow is 2000 gpm and RCS level is 122' 10".
D. RHR flow is 2300 gpm and RCS level is 122' 8".
REFERENCE PROVIDED FIGURE 1 of AOP-12
A. Incorrect - This is the lowest flow but is below the line.
B. Correct- RHR flow Is 1700 gpm and RCS level is 122' 9".
Figure 1 has a line on it and it has to be determined what the line means. If the flow
VS. level is above the line, then there is no cavitation. Below the line indicates
cavitation. Figure 1 shows this to be just above the line and it is the lowest flow rate of
the 2 above the tine.
C. Incorrect- This is above the line but is NOT the lowest flow rate given.
D. Incorrect- This is below the line and it is not the lowest.
025AK2.02 Loss of Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS) - Knowledge of the
interrelations between the Loss of RHRS and the following:
LPI or Decay Heat Removal /RHR pumps.
Describe how an operator would determine if actual reactor coolant system (RCS) level
is sufficient to prevent vortex formation (Generic Letter 88-17)(OPS52520L1 0).
C1
fl
.AA
AOA17 AkA
53
r(ludy, uvuellcuvt I 1, 4uv,
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
28. 026A4.05 001/2/1/CS/MFM 3.5/3.5/BANK/FA011005/RO/
_
_
__
The containment spray system has actuated. The team wants to close MOV-8820A
and B, CS pump to spray header isolation valves.
Which one of the following is the minimum action the operator
MOV-8820A and B remain closed prior to closing the valves?
mtist take to ensure
A. Reset the Phase B actuation signal ONLY by depressing a pair of reset
pushbuttons on the MCB.
B. Wait one minute since the open signal is only present for one minute after the
valves open.
0! Reset the containment spray actuation signal ONLY by depressing a pair of reset
pushbuttons on the MCB.
D. Reset both the containment spray actuation signal and the Phase B actuation signal
by depressing 2 sets of reset pushbuttons on the MCB.
OPS-52102C
A. Incorrect - Phase B is a containment isolation signal and does not open any valves
including MOV882OA/B
B. Incorrect - If the CS actuation signal is not reset then the valves will roll back open
C. Correct - Reset the containment spray actuation signal ONLY by depressing a
pair of reset pushbuttons on the MCB.
P signal or CS actuation opens this valve and remains Sealed in with an
R/L logic and is reset with 2 Pushbuttons on the MCB
D. Incorrect - this is not the min. since Phase B does not need to be reset
A containment isolation phase B and containment spray actuation can be manually
initiated from the safeguards panel. There are four PHASE B CTMT ISO CS ACTUATION
switches. These switches are grouped in two sets of two switches each. Simultaneously placing
both switches in a set in the ACTUATE position will cause a manual containment phase B
isolation and containment spray actuation signal. There are four reset push buttons on the
safeguards panel--two for containment spray (train A and train B) and two for containment
isolation phase B (train A and B). All four push buttons must be momentarily depressed to clear
the containment spray actuation and containment isolation phase B signals.
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54
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
026A4.05 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:
Containment spray reset switches
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Containment Spray and Cooling System (OPS40302D02):
Containment Spray Pump to Spray Header Isolation Valves (MOV-8820A and B)
List the automatic actions associated with the Containment Spray and Cooling System
components and equipment during normal and abnormal operations including
(OPS40302D07):
- Normal control methods
- Automatic actuation including setpoint (example Si, Phase-B, LOSP) and the effect of
selecting the containment cooler control to local.
CS&COOL-40302D07 #14
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
29. 026AA .02C(01/1/1/CC W/C/A 3.2/3.3/BANK-N/FA01 1005/RO/CVR___
__
A leak has developed in the IA RCP thermal barrier heat exchanger. "A" Train CCW is:
the on service train.
- AA4 (AB4), CCW SRG TK LVL A (B) TRN HI-LO, comes into alarm.
Using the list provided below, which one of the following lists the correct alarms and
correct seguence of events that would occur?
Assume no onerator action
A. 3-
1-
2-
4-
B. 2-
3-
1-
CY 3-
1-
2-
D. 3-
2-
1-
4-
1. HV-3045, CCW FROM ROP THRM BARR, closes.
2. HV-3184, CCW FROM RCP THRM BARR, closes.
3. DD2, RCP THRM BARR CCW FLOW HI, comes into alarm.
4. DD3, CCW FLOW FROM RCP OIL CLRS LO, comes into alarm.
0DD2 alarms.
HV-3045 closes.
HV-3184 closes.
DD3 alarms.
HV-31 84 closes.
DD2 alarms.
HV-3045 closes.
i
DD2 alarms.
HV-3045 closes.
HV-31 84 closes.
-DD2 alarms.
HV-3184 closes.
HV-3045 closes.
DD3 alarms.
56
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect; The closing of the HV-3045 and HV-3184 does not affect the flow path
through the RCP oil cooler.
B. Incorrect; Once HV-3184 is closed flow will no longer be going past FE-3045
therefore, DD2 will not alarm if if had not alarmed prior to the closing of HV-3184 and
HV-3045 will not get a close signal.
C. Correct;
-AA4 (AB4), CCW SRG TK LVL A (B) TRN HI-LO annunciator lit;
-DD2, RCP THRM BARR CCW FLOW Hi, annunciator lit;
-HV-3045, CCW FROM RCP THRM BARR valve closes;
-HV-3184, CCW FROM RCP THRM BARR valve closes
The CCW leak from the higher pressure RCS source into the COW system causes
COW tank level to increase (AA4); high flow in the CCW line from the RCS fluid
causes DD2 to alarm and HV-3045 to shut stopping flow; Pressure increases in
CCW piping and shuts HV-3184 in order to prevent overpressurization of the CCW
system. Pressure and flow are sensed on the thermal barrier CCW discharge line.
The pressure sensors (PI-3184A, B, and C) signal HV-3184 to shut when pressure
increases to 75 psig. Flow element FE-3045 shuts HV-3045 if the flow increases to
160 gpm.
D. Incorrect; Once HV-31 84 is closed flow will no longer be going past FE-3045
therefore, DD2 will not alarm if if had not alarmed prior to the closing of HV-3184 and
HV-3045 will not get a close signal. The closing of the HV-3045 and HV-3184 does
not affect the flow path through the RCP oil cooler.
APE: 026 Loss of Component Cooling Water (CCW)
AA1. Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of
Component Cooling Water:
(CFR 41.7 / 45.5/ 45.6)
AAI.02 Loads on the CCWS in the control room .. 3.2
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Component
Cooling Water System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate
the consequence of the abnormality (OPS52102G02).
2003 NRC EXAM
CCW-40204A1 1 #11 reformatted question
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
57
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
30. 027AK2.03 0f'1/1/1 /PZR PCS/C/A 2.6/2.8/BANK/FA01100,5/RO_/
Given the following:
e Pressurizer pressure is 2230 psig and increasing.
- The proportional heaters are energized.
- The spray valves are closed.
X The Master Pressure Controller, PK-444A, fails such that it senses a
constant input pressure equivalent to 2219 psig.
Which one of the following describes the response of the pressure control system?
Assume no operator action
A. The variable heaters will cycle at a higher setpoint.
Br PRZR PORV, PCV 445A will cycle to control pressure.
C. The spray valves will open to control pressure at a higher value.
D. PRZR PORV, PCV 444B will open and remain open until 2000 psig.
A. Incorrect - Variable heaters receive a signal from the master pressure controller and
will be ON exactly like the backup heaters. The master pressure controller will see 2219
psig and the controller will slowly raise the indicated demand signal to 100% at which
time the BU heaters and the Variable heaters will be on. The variable heaters will not
cycle.
B. Correct - PRZR PORV, PCV 445A will cycle to control pressure.
The Error signal caused by the integral function of master pressure controller will
maintain B/U Heaters on causing actual PZR pressure to rise to the setpoint of
PCV-445A which receives its signal from the pressure B/Ss.
C. Incorrect- Spray valves are controlled by control signal from the master pressure
controller. The actual PZR pressure will increase due to B/U heater operation, but the
master controller indicated demand and error signal will continue to increase due to the
integral function and remain below the spray valve setpoint.
D. Incorrect- PORV-444B receives its control signal form the master pressure
controller. This scenario will provide a close signal from the master pressure controller
even though actual PZR pressure is increasing due to B/U & Variable heater operation.
If 444B were to open in this scenario, it would close at 2000#.
Discussion:
The pressure input to the master pressure controller channel is from pressurizer pressure detector
PT-444. This pressure input is compared with an operator-selected pressure setpoint to give an error
signal. The error signal produced is processed through a proportional-plus-integral (P+l) controller, where
the error signal is conditioned to produce a compensated output.
The P portion of the P+l controller produces an output that is directly proportional to the input and is also
multiplied by an amplification factor (gain). The I portion of the controller produces an output equivalent to
thp intanrnl nf tha Prrnr cinnfli {opn kmnn.m:n A thh r=Qatf
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
58
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
The longer an error exists, the larger the integral output becomes. This means that there may be an
output from the integral section of the controller when there is no longer a pressure error.
The I portion of the P+l controller may cause pressure to be controlled above or below the nominal 2235
psig setpoint following a transient. The off-nominal pressure is normal following a transient. The operator
should not adjust the setpoint on the MIA station during these transients. Indication of control demand is
shown by a meter on PK-444A. On this meter, indication going towards zero percent means the system
is trying to lower pressure, and indication going towards 100% means the system is trying to raise
pressure.
The four back-up heater groups receive a control signal from the master pressure controller. With a -25
psig error signal present or 70% Indicated Demand, all back-up heater circuit breakers shut and energize
the shared annunciator, PRZR PRESS REL VLV 445A OR B/U HTRS ON (pressurizer pressure relief
valve 445A or back-up heaters on).
This corresponds roughly to 2210 psig if the master pressure
controller setpoint is set at 2235 psig.
When the error signal rises above -20 psig, 67.5% Indicated
Demand (or about 2215 psig), all back-up heaters' circuit breakers again open, and the annunciator
clears.
PORV PCV-444B receives a pressure error input from the master pressure controller. The following
conditions are required for PCV-444B to automatically open: (See Figure 9)
1.
The pressure error output of the master pressure controller is #100 psig or 7.5%
Indicated Demand or less. (Remember that the controller is normally adjusted to control
plant pressure at 2235 psig.
A +100 psig error implies that actual pressure is
approximately 2335 psig.)
Each PORV is manually controlled through separate PORV control switches located on the MCB. Each
switch is a three-position handswitch (CLOSE/AUTO/OPEN). With its switch selected to the AUTO
position, PCV-444B is controlled through the master pressure controller and protective interlock circuit.
Furthermore, PCV-445A is controlled through the secondary pressure control channel circuit when its
switch is placed in the AUTO position.
Unlike the master pressure controller channel, the secondary pressure control channel does not have P+l
circuitry to condition the pressure signal. Power-operated relief valve (PCV-445A) operates similarly to
the other PORV (PCV-444B). The following conditions are required for PCV-445A to automatically open:
(See Figure 9.)
1.
The secondary control channel pressure (PT-445) must sense greater than the PORV
setpoint value of 2335 psig.
2.
Two of the three protective interlock pressure inputs must exceed 2000 psig.
3.
The PCV-445A CLOSE/AUTO/OPEN control switch is selected to the AUTO position.
The SCR controller receives a control input from the master pressure controller channel. When the
control input is high (the actual pressure is less than the setpoint), the heaters will receive the full voltage
from the SCR controller. When the control input is low, the SCR controller does not allow current flow to
the heaters. The control signal to the SCR operates in a band equivalent to a +/- 15 psig error (2220 to
2250 psig if the AUTO set point is 2235 psig).
The two spray valves, PCV-444C from loop A and PCV-444D from loop B, operate on the same control
signal from the pressurizer pressure master controller. Each spray valve also has its own individual
proportional-type controller. They are set so that an input from the master pressure controller
corresponding to a +25 psig error signal, 45% Indicated Demand, will cause the spray valves to begin to
open.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
59
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
027AK2.03 Knowledge of the interrelations between the Pressurizer Pressure control
Malfunctions and the following:
Controllers and Positioners.
Describe the local actions needed to support plant operation during normal, abnormal
and emergency conditions associated with the Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control
System (OPS52201 H09).
List the automatic actions associated with the Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control
System components and equipment during normal and abnormal operations including
(OPS52201 H07):
- Normal control methods
e Automatic actuation including setpoint, if applicable
PZR PRS/LVL-52201 H08 #6 Changed format of distracters
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60
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
31. 028AK2.03 001/1/2/PZR LCS/C/A 2.6/2.9,NEW/FAO1IOO5/RO/CVR
Unit 1 is at 1 00% power with conditions as follows:
- Pressurizer Level Selector Switch is in the 1I11 Position.
- LT-459, Pressurizer level Transmitter failed high
Which one of the following is correct concerning LK-459F, PRZR LVL Controller
demand; Charging Flow; and the position the PRZR LVL CONT CH Switch needs to be
selected to, to restore automatic level control?
Demand goes _
, Charging flow goes _
, Select position _
.
A.
up
up
I/1.1
B.
up
up
111/11
C.
down
down
I/Ill
D?
down
down
ill/Il
A. Incorrect. This would be true if LT-459 failed low, except selecting I/Ill would not
allow automatic control since LT-459 is channel 1.
B. Incorrect. Demand does go down, except charging flow goes the same direction as
demand.
C. Incorrect. This would be true if LT-459 failed low, except charging flow would also go
up, and selecting I/Ill would not allow automatic control since LT-459 is channel I.
D. Correct. down
down
[lu/ll
The controlling channel is channel 1, LT-459. When it fails hi, the controller tries to
lower level by lowering demand. This lowers charging flow. Selecting 1 /11 will allow
LT-461 to control and LT-459 will isolated from the control function.
028AK2.03 Pressurizer level Malfunction - Knowledge of the interrelations between the
Pressurizer Level control Malfunctions and the following:
Controllers and Positioners.
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control System (OPS52201 H02):
- Master Level Controller
- Secondary Level Controller
PZR PRS/LVL-52201 H02 #1 0
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
_32. 029A2.03 001/2,12/CTMT PURGEYMEM 2.7/3.1/MOD/FAO1O05/RO/CVR
____
Plant conditions are as follows:
- Unit I is shut down in Mode 6 with Refueling in progress.
- Containment Minipurge is in service.
- The Unit Operator was directed to secure Minipurge for an STP.
- Prior to commencing the procedure to secure Minipurge, the Unit Operator
inadvertently places one of the CTMT PURGE DMPRS handswitches to FULL.
Which one of the following describes how the containment purge system is affected by
this action, and lAW UOP-4.1, Controlling Procedure for Refueling, how is refueling
affected?
A. The minipurge supply and exhaust fans will stop. Refueling may continue.
B. The main purge supply and exhaust fans will start in high speed. Refueling may
NOT continue.
C. A set of minipurge supply and exhaust valves will close. NO main purge supply and
exhaust dampers will open. Refueling may NOT continue.
D! A set of minipurge supply and exhaust valves will close AND a set of main purge
supply and exhaust dampers will open. Refueling may continue.
A. incorrect -no fan functions with the HS, ONLY dampers. Refueling may continue
with mini or main purge in service as long as the automatic closure functions are
B. Incorrect - no fan functions with the HS, ONLY dampers. Refueling may continue
with mini or main purge in service as long as the automatic closure functions are
C. Incorrect -this is only partially true. Some main purge supply and exhaust dampers
DO open. Some do not. Refueling may continue with mini or main purge in service
as long as the automatic closure functions are operable.
D. Correct -A set of minipurge supply and exhaust valves will close AND a set of
main purge supply and exhaust dampers will open.
this will cause a set of Main purge dampers to open and a set of mini purge dampers
to close. Placing the handswitch in FULL PURGE causes (1) HV-3197, HV-3196,
HV-31 98C, and HV-31 98B to open (Main purge dampers) and (2) closes HV-2866D
and HV-2867D (minipurge dampers). Refueling may continue with mini or main
purge in service as long as the automatic closure functions are operable, there was
no mention of inoperability of the auto close functions for purge dampers.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
62
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
029A2.03 Containment Purge
Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the
Containment Purge System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to
correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
(CFR: 41.5/43.5/45.3/ 45.13)
A2.03 - Startup operations and the associated required valve lineups
12. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Containment
Ventilation and Purge System and determine the local actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS40304A12).
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Containment
Ventilation and Purge System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to
mitigate the consequence of the abnormality (OPS52107A02).
CTMNT VENT-40304A07 01
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
33. 029EA2.09 oo1/1/1/A'rWS/MEM 4.4/4.5/NEW/FA0I11005/RO/
_ -
-
-
Which one of the following are the correct indications used to verify the Main Turbine is
tripped IAW FRP-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation-ATWT?
A. TSLB2, 13-1, 13-2 and 13-3, TURB AUTO STOP, bistables are illuminated; and the
DEH Valve Test Display may be used for an alternate indication that the turbine is
tripped.
B. TSLB2, 13-1, 13-2 and 13-3, TURB AUTO STOP, bistables are NOT illuminated;
and any FIRST OUT annunciator that shows the Main Turbine is tripped may be
used for an alternate indication.
C,' TSLB2, 14-1,14-2,14-3 and 14-4, TURB STOP VLV CLOSED, bistables are
illuminated; and the DEH Valve Test Display may be used for an alternate
indication that the turbine is tripped.
D. TSLB2, 14-1 through 14-4, TURB STOP VLV CLOSED, bistables are NOT
illuminated; and any FIRST OUT annunciator that shows the Main Turbine is
tripped may be used for an alternate indication.
FRP-S.1 Step 2 and note above
NOTE: The DEH Valve Test Display may be used for alternate indication of turbine
stop valve and governor valve position.
2 Check turbine - TRIPPED.
flTSLB2 14-1 lit
O TSLB2 14-2 lit
f] TSLB2 14-3 lit
fl TSLB2 14-4 lit
A. Incorrect - TSLB-1 thru 3 will show this the turbine is tripped by autostop oil pressure
being low but it is the wrong indication to use IAW FRP-S.1.
B. Incorrect - TSLB-1 thru 3 will show this the turbine is tripped by autostop oil pressure
being low but it is the wrong indication to use IAW FRP-S.1. Also the first out
annunciators are not indications to be used in the S.1 procedure to check if the turbine
is tripped.
C. Correct - TSLB2, 14-1,14-2,14-3 and 14-4, TURB STOP VLV CLOSED, bistables
are illuminated; and the DEH Valve Test Display may be used for an alternate
indication that the turbine is tripped.
this is the correct first method and alternate method to use to ensure the Main Turbine
is tripped lAW FRP-S.1.
D. Incorrect - the first out annunciators are not indications to be used in the S.1
procedure to check if the turbine is tripped.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
64
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
029EA2.09 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to a AWTS:
occurrence of a main turbine/reactor trip.
Analyze plant indications to determine the successful completion of any step in
FRP-S.1 /FRP-S.2. (OPS52533A07)
Describe the sequence of major actions associated with FRP-S.1/FRP-S.2.
(OPS52533A04)
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
34. 034K4.03 001/2/2/FUEL HANDLING/MEM 2.5/3.2/NEW/FA01100S/RO/
Which one of the following is the device on the Unit 1 manipulator crane that will,
protect the core internals from excessive lifting force in the event it becomes
inadvertently engaged during lifting operations and describes what is accomplished by
this device?
AM Hoist Weight Indicator; stops the Hoist movement in the UP direction and lights an
Overload lamp.
B. Slack Cable Interlock; stops the Hoist movement in the UP direction and lights a
Slack Cable lamp.
C. Gripper Weight Indicator; closes the Gripper air solenoid valve to prevent the
gripper from operating and has no indicating lamp.
D. Hoist Gripper Interlock; stops the Hoist movement in the UP direction and closes
the Gripper air solenoid valve to prevent the gripper from operating and has no
indicating lamp.
A. Correct - Hoist Weight Indicator; stops the Hoist movement in the UP direction
and lights an Overload lamp.
This is per page 28 of OPS-52108D and FNP-1 -FHP-5.13 step 1.1.
Also FNP-1-FHP-5.13 age6
- 11.1.5.6 Hoist - Weight Indicator. The weight indicator is connected into the hoist drive circuit
to stop the hoist in the up direction and light the Overload lamDwhen the sensed
weight is greater than 2825 Ibs (15% above the combined weight of gripper tube, fuel assembly
and RCC assembly).
B. Incorrect - In the down direction, the weight indicator stops the hoist drive and lights
the Slack Cable lamp when the suspended weight drops to approximately 600 Ibs. This
is not for overload protection.
C. Incorrect - This indicator ensures there is no fuel assembly suspended from the
gripper so the gripper can be released or disengaged. This is not for overload
protection.
D. Incorrect -this enables operation of the hoist in both the up and down direction to
prevent operation of the hoist with a partially engaged gripper on a fuel assembly. This
does not close the solenoid valve for the Gripper. This is not for overload protection.
Technical Requirement 13.9.3. Manipulator crane BASES
The OPERABILITY requirements for the manipulator cranes ensure the following. The
manipulator cranes will be used for movement of control rods and fuel assemblies. Each crane has
suff icient load capacity to lift a control rod or fuel assembly. The core Internals and pressure vessel are
protected from excessive fina force In the eve
they are Inadvertently engaged during lIft
opeations.
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66
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
034 K4.03 Fuel Handling Equipment Knowledge of the design feature(s) and/or
interlock(s) which provide for the following:
Overload protection.
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Fuel Storage, Handling and Refueling System (OPS40305B02):
- Manipulator Crane
Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including precautions
and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with the Fuel
Storage, Handling and Refueling System including (OPS4030561 1):
- Manipulator Crane
- Hoist Control
- Manipulator Crane Checkout
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
67
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
35. 035K6.02 00'1/I//ATMOS./C/A 3.S*/3.4*/MOD/FAo1 1005/RO/
_---__
The following plant conditions exist on Unit 2:
v The reactor has been tripped due to loss of instrument air.
> No station air compressors are running.
- 2A emergency air compressor has been started and is running.
¢ Tavg is stable at 5560F and being controlled by the lowest set pressure
SG code safeties.
! SG Atmospheric Relief Valves (ARVs) are being lined up locally in the
lower equipment room to control SG pressure.
The air regulator for the 2A ARV fails and 50 psig is inadvertently admitted to the valve
actuator. Which one of the following is correct regarding SG pressure, the ARV
position and the effects on the RCS temperature?
2A SG pressure will
,the 2A ARV will be
_
Ay lower rapidly
full open and a large cooldown of the RCS will commence.
B. lower slowly
partially open and a slow cooldown of the RCS will commence.
C. remain constant
closed and RCS temperature will remain at the current value.
D. lower slowly
partially open to keep the SG code safeties closed and RCS
temperature will remain at the current value.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
68
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
SOP-62.0
CAUTION: Atmospheric reliefs will start to open at 24 +/- 2 psig and will be full
open at 45 psig. Observe local air supply pressure gauge N2P18P12872 AB
(BB,CB). IF the atmospheric relief is full open, THEN Tech Spec cooldown limits
may be exceeded.
A. Correct - lower rapidly
full open and a large cooldown of the RCS will
commence.
This is correct due to the fact that the valve is full open at 45# pressure, on one loop
this will cause SG pressure to drop quickly and become 100 psid lower than the other 2
SGs which will cause a Si to occur.
B. Incorrect; per caution the atmospheric will be full open 45#, a large cooldown will
commence and the ARV will be full open, not partially open and a large cooldown will
result.
C. Incorrect - per caution the atmospheric will be full open 45#, a large cooldown will
commence and the ARV will be full open, not closed.
D. Incorrect; per caution the atmospheric will be full open 45#, a large cooldown will
commence and the ARV will be full open, not partially open and a large cooldown will
result.
035K6.02 Steam Generator system - Knowledge of a Loss or malfunction of the
following will have on the S/Gs: secondary PORV
Describe the local actions needed to support plant operation during normal, abnormal
and emergency conditions associated with the Main and Reheat Steam System
(OPS40201 A09).
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Main and Reheat Steam System (OPS40201A02):
- N-16 Primary to Secondary Leak Detection System
- Main Steam Atmospheric Relief Valves
modified from MN & RHT STM-40201A1 1 #9
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM6
69
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
36. 036AK1.01 001O1/2/AOP-30/C'/A3.5/4.1/MOD,/FO11005/RO/
Both units are in MODE 1 and Unit 1 is conducting a fuel shuffle in the SFP when the
following occurs:
- EH2, SFP LVL HI-LO, annunciator comes into alarm.
- R-5, SFP Area Radiation Monitor, comes into alarm and
reads 10 R/HR.
- FH5, SFP AREA RE-25 A OR B HI RAD, annunciator comes into
alarm.
- R-25A & B, SFP Ventilation Radiation Monitor, reads off scale high.
All automatic actions have taken place as expected. AOP-30, REFUELING
ACCIDENT, is entered. Which one of the following is the correct action for the
conditions stated?
A. Immediately commence filling the SFP and monitor the SFP level.
B. Have HP verify the R-5 alarm is valid and the extent of damage to the fuel.
C. Place a second control room air conditioning unit on service and place the
control room exhaust fans in service.
D? Dispatch personnel to close ALL SFP hatches and doors and evacuate
the SFP area.
70
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect - filling the SFP may need to be done, however with the indications given,
sending a person into this area would require a special RWP and prejob brief as well as
HP coverage and dose extensions. Monitoring the SFP level would have to be done
locally and would require an individual to recieve a high dose rate.
B. Incorrect - This is not required by procedure and would not be done until the reason
for the above alarms have come in. Also due to the number of supporting alarms, this
would not be prudent judgement to send HP in to an area of such high dose rates
without more investigation.
C. Incorrect - Placing the CREFS in service is required per step 2 but placing a control
room AC and exhaust fan is not required.
The note below is in part from FNP-0-SOP-56.0
The Control Room Exhaust System should not be operated with either Unit in Modes I
through 4 except in the case of smoke or toxic gas in the Control Room. Operation of this
system will require that there be no movement of irradiated fuel or loads over irradiated
fuel.
D. Correct - Dispatch personnel to close ALL SFP hatches and doors and
evacuate the SFP area.
AOP-30 has the crew evacuate the affected area. ARP FH5 also has the area
evacuated and HP notified and the area surveyed prior to access being allowed.
Closing the doors and hatches is also accomplished per AOP-30.0.
036AK1 .01 Fuel Handling Incidents - Knowledge of the operational implications of the
following concepts as they apply to Fuel Handling Incidents: Radiation exposure
hazards
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if entry into AOP-30.0 is required
(0PS52521 H02).
State the basis for all cautions, notes, and actions associated with AOP-30.0
(OPS52521 H03).
Describe the sequence of major actions associated with AOP-30.0 (OPS52521 H04).
modified from AOP-30.0-52521 H04 #2 and Summer 1 2002 exam
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
71
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
37. 038EK1.03 .01/1/1,/S'IR/MEM 3.9/4.2'NEW/FA01 1005/RO/
____
Given the following:
- A SG tube rupture has occurred on Unit 1.
e EEP-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, has been entered.
- ALL RCPs have been tripped.
Which one of the following could be a result of the step, "Reduce RCS pressure using
pressurizer PORV to minimize break flow and refill pressurizer" per EEP-3?
A. A rapid drop in core delta T as natural circulation flow is enhanced.
BY A rapid rise in pressurizer level due to reactor vessel steam voiding.
C. A rapid drop in the cold leg temperature due to the loop being stagnant during the
pressure reduction.
D. A rapid rise in containment pressure due to overpressurization of the PRT and
subsequent rupture disc failure.
EEP-3
A. Incorrect -The core delta T will not be affected by the pressure reduction and will be
aided due to the cooldown done before this. As voids start to accumulate in the vessel,
NC flow should decrease.
B. Correct - A rapid rise in pressurizer level due to reactor vessel steam voiding.
This is a caution prior to step 19 of EEP-3.O.
C. Incorrect - The RCS CL temperature may rapidly decrease due to the Si flow going
into the stagnant loop cold leg. EEP-3 lesson plan, page 9
D. Incorrect - If the PRT would rupture due to the use of the PORVs, which is highly
unlikely, Ctmt pressure would not rise rapidly. It would be a very small rise in pressure,
humidity and temperature.
038EK1.03 SGTR - Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts
as they apply to SGTR: Natural Circulation
State the basis for all cautions, notes, and actions associated with EEP-3
(OPS52530003)
Describe the sequence of major actions associated with EEP-3.
(0PS52530004)
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
38. 039K3.04 001/2/1/SGFPCP//A2.5 t/2.6 /NENV/FA(O1100S/RO/l
____
Unit 2 is at 45% power with the 1A SGFP running. The Low Pressure Stop valve
closes due to an EH system malfunction. Which one of the following describes the
response of the lA SGFP five minutes later? The SGFP speed will
A. increase to 5400 rpm.
BD remain essentially the same.
C. decrease and the SGFP will go on BOILER control.
D. decrease until it stops with no SGFP trip annunciators.
A. Incorrect - Speed will not increase due to the HP gov taking over.
B. Correct - remain essentially the same.
The HP is shut at 45% power and the LP gov. has control. When the steam flow
decreases due to the LP stop valve being closed, the HP gov will open when speed
starts to drop. The final effect is that the SGFP will be at essentially the same speed as
before.
C. Incorrect - The SGFP would already be on BOILER control. It would go to speed
setter control when shutting down the SGFP when speed is lowered using the SGFP
controller.
D. Incorrect - The SGFP would go all the way to zero if no steam was present, ie. in the
case of the HP gov or stop valve being shut in addition to the LP stop valve closing.
As main turbine load is increased, reheat steam pressure in the shell side of the MSRs also
increases. At approximately 25 percent main turbine power, the reheat steam pressure is high
enough to cause the feed pump turbine speed to increase. In an effort to maintain the desired
feed pump turbine speed, the control system begins to shut the HP governor valve. Once the
HP governor valve approaches the fully shut position, the control system starts closing the LP
governor valves. During 100 percent power operation, the governor valve alignment is as
follows:
1. The HP governor valve is fully shut.
2. The LP governor valve is throttled partially shut and consequently controls feed
pump turbine speed.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
73
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
039K3.04 Main and Reheat steam - Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction
of the MRSS will have on the following: MFW pumps
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with Condensate and
Feedwater System and determine the local actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS40201 B12).
Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including precautions
and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with the
Condensate and Feedwater including (OPS40201 B1 1)
e Steam Generator Feed Pumps
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of each major component associated with the
Condensate and Feedwater System including (OPS40201 B02):
e Steam Generator Feed Pumps
Friday. December 17, 2004 8:45:37 AM
74
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
39. 040(X2.1.2 001/1/1/SGCTRiC/A 3.0/4.0/lBANKIFA1 1005/RO/CVR
Unit 2 is at 100% power and has a SG tube leak of 40 gpd. A steam break has
occurred. EEP-2.0, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation, is in progress. One of the
steps requiring isolation of the faulted SG has the operator isolate all feedwater to the
affected SG(s).
Which one of the following is the basis for this isolation step?
Ar To minimize RCS cooldown, energy release, and secondary mass release following
a steam line break.
B. To ensure proper diagnosis of a steam generator tube rupture if it occurs in the
faulted steam generator.
C. To prevent damage to Environmentally Qualified (EQ) Equipment in the vicinity of
the steam generator fault.
D. To ensure the release to the environment remains below the 1 OCFR100 limits on a
design basis Steam Break outside of containment.
A. Correct. To minimize RCS cooldown and mass and energy release following a
steam line break.
Per the Background Document for EEP-2.0.
B. Incorrect. Even though it is easier to diagnose a SGTR in a faulted SG which is not
being fed, this is not the basis for isolating AFW to the faulted SG.
C. Incorrect. Even though hot steam has the potential to damage equipment, EQ
Equipment is designed to withstand hostile accident environments. It is good
practice to minimize the length of time a steam leak exists because of potentially
adversely affecting NON-EQ Equipment, but this is not the basis for isolating AFW.
D. Incorrect. This would be a concern in the event of a SGTR, but radiation release in
a steam fault is not expected.
APE: 040 Steam Line Rupture
2.1 Conduct of Operations
2.1.2 Knowledge of operator responsibilities during all modes of plant operation.
(CFR: 41.10 / 45.13) RO 3.0
6. Evaluate plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated while
performing EEP-3. (OPS52530D06)
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
75
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
40. 041G2.2.2 001/2/2/STM DUMPS/C/A 4.03.5/BANK-N/FA011005/RO/
Unit I is at 32% power and ramping up. All systems are in automatic and controlling
properly. Control bank "D" is at 72 steps and controlling RCS temperature.
A DEH control system malfunction results in a turbine trip. The control rods drive into
the core 12 steps prior to being taken to MANUAL. The control rods and the steam
dumps are used to restore reactor power to 32%. Bank "D" control rods were raised to
65 steps.
Which one of the following describes the action(s) that should be taken in accordance
with AOP-3.0, Turbine Trip Below P-9 Setpoint?
I
A. Reduce reactor power to 15%, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure
mode of operation.
B. Maintain reactor power and slowly open the atmospheric relief valves to close the
steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure mode of
operation.
C! Reduce reactor power to less than 8%, slowly open the atmospheric relief valves to
close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure
mode of operation.
D. Reduce reactor power to between 8% and 15%, slowly open the atmospheric relief
valves to close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam
pressure mode of operation.
A - Incorrect; Power level is incorrect. a large plant transient would be caused by this
action when the steam dumps closed and then reopened.
B - Incorrect; Power level is incorrect, too high.
C - Correct; Reduce reactor power to less than 8%, slowly open the atmospheric
relief valves to close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the
steam pressure mode of operation.
Per step 9 of AOP-3.0 and SOP-1 8.0, Steam Dump System. Power must be low
enough for ARV to pass all the steam load.
D - Incorrect; Power level is incorrect, power level is for steam dumps already being in
steam pressure mode. If the Stm dumps were shifted to stm press mode at this time
then the dumps would close and Tavg would increase.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM7
76
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
041 G2.2.2 Steam Dump System -Ability to manipulate the console controls as required
to operate the facility between shutdown and designated power levels.
Describe the sequence of major actions associated with AOP-3.0, Turbine Trip < P-9
Set Point (OPS52520C04).
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated
while performing AOP-3.0, Turbine Trip < P-9 Set Point (OPS52520C05).
Analyze plant indications to determine the successful completion of any step in
AOP-3.0, Turbine Trip < P-9 Set Point (OPS52520C06).
AOP-3.0-52520C04 #2
2003 nrc exam - only question that met KA
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
77
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
41. 054AK1.01 001/141//FEED RUPTURE/C/A 4.1/4.3/MOD/IP'A011005/RO/
Unit 1 experienced an event 2 minutes ago and the following conditions now exist:
e Reactor power is 26% and STABLE.
- RCS Tavg is at normal operating temperature and STABLE.
V RCS pressure is at normal operating pressure and STABLE.
- 1B and 1C SGs are operating normally.
- Containment pressure is 2.2 psig and rising slowly.
The following conditions now exist on 1A SG:
- Stearn flow
STABLE
o Feed flow
RISING
- Pressure
DECREASING
- Level
35% and DECREASING RAPIDLY
Which one of the following are the correct actions to take for this event?
AT Trip the reactor and close the MSIVs.
B. Trip the reactor and close ONLY the 1A MSIV.
C. Ramp to 1-2% power and feed the SGs as necessary with AFW pumps to keep
levels in the operating band.
D. Commence ramping off line at 10 MW/min, open the FRV valves as necessary to
increase the feed rate, start AFW and feed 1 A SG to keep level in the operating
band.
2
J
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78
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A - Correct- Trip the reactor and close the MSIVs.
Main Feed line break INSIDE containment due to the indications given. with Ctmt
pressure rising and no rad monitors in alarm, AOP-14 would be entered as well as the
rise in FW flow and decreasing SG level. With Ctmt pressure greater than 2 psig,
AOP-1 4 has the operator trip the reactor and then close the MSIVs. When EEP-0 is
entered Ctmt pressure is below Si setpoints and would not be initiated.
B - Incorrect, Trip the Rx is correct and close IA MSIV is not enough (all are required).
This was changed at NRC request.
C - Incorrect- The ramp criteria is Loss of Feedwater AOP-1 3 or AOP-1 4 secondary
leakage, actions if the candidate does not remember to Si at 2 psig in ctmt.
D - Incorrect, This would be AOP-1 7 actions if the event is not diagnosed properly. If
the leak was not in CTMT, then this might would be the correct action.
054AK1.01 Loss of Main Feedwater: Knowledge of the operational implications of the
following concepts as they apply to Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW):
MFW line break depressurizes the S/G (similar to a steam line break)
Describe the sequence of major actions associated with AOP-1 4.0. (OPS52521 004)
Evaluate plant conditions and determine if transition to another section of AOP-14.0 or
to another procedure is required. (OPS52521 008)
modifed from EEP-2-52530C02 #1
Source: Byron 2000-301
2001 nrc exam
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
79
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
42. 055EA2.03 00/1//HBLACKOUT/C/A 3.9/4.7/NEW/FA01 1005/RO/
___
There is a Station Blackout in progress for Unit 1. The 2C DG is being started for Unit 1
lAW ECP-0.0, Loss Of All A.C. Power. Which one of the following statements is
correct that will ensure 2C DG is running properly with service water supplied after the
start pushbutton is depressed?
A. * Check DJO6, Unit 1 2C DG output breaker, automatically closes.
0 Close DG13, 1G 4160 V bus tie to 1J 4160 V bus.
- Manually start two service water pumps on B Train.
B. e Close DJ06, Unit I 2C DG output breaker, manually from the EPB.
- Close DG13, 1G 4160 V bus tie to 1J 4160 V bus.
X Manually start two service water pumps on B Train.
Cr e Check DJ06, Unit 1 20 DG output breaker, automatically closes.
- The LOSP sequencer will automatically run.
- All LOSP loads will automatically start.
D. - Close DJ06, Unit 1 2C DG output breaker, manually from the EPB.
e The LOSP sequencer will automatically run.
e All LOSP loads will automatically start.
A. Incorrect - DJ06 will auto close, however, DG13 will auto close and the SW pumps
will auto start since there is no SL.
B. Incorrect - DJO6 will auto close, and the LOSP sequencer will run and start all loads.
C. Correct - Check DJO6, Unit 1 2C DG output breaker, automatically closes, the
LOSP sequencer will automatically run, and all LOSP loads will start.
The Unit I output breaker (DJO6-1) will close automatically when the 20 diesel is running
at rated voltage and frequency, and It was manually started from the EPB In mode 1 with
the USS In the Unit I position. Also, an undervoltage condition must exist on the 1J bus, and
the 1 B diesel output breaker must be open.
Load shed of bus loads must be completed prior to closing the output breaker for any diesel
generator. When the output breaker for the 2C DG is closed, then the LOSP sequencer on
41 60V G should runifnoSISignlisresent.This will load the 20 diesel from the G
sequencer. in which case the onerator needs to carefully monitor the loading on the diesel so
that it will not exceed the continuous load rating of the diesel (2850 kW). If a safety injection
signal is present, then the operator is reminded that neither the LOSP or the SI sequencer will
run and the SI loads must be manually started.
D. Incorrect- DJO6 will auto close.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
80
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
055EA2.03 Station Blackout- Ability to determine and interpret the following as they
apply to a Station Blackout: actions necessary to restore power.
State the basis for all cautions, notes, and actions associated with ECP-0.0/0.1 /02
(OPS52532A03)
Describe the sequence of major actions associated with ECP-0.0/0.1/02.
(OPS52532A04)
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
43. 056AK3.01 001/1//SEQUENCER/MEM 3.5/3.9/NEW/FA011005/RO/
__
Which one of the following indicates the sequencer step when the HHSI pumps will be
running from the start of an LOSP and the reason?
Ar At step 1; to allow time for DG start, MOV alignment and supplying flow to the ROS
within 22 seconds.
B. At step 2 and 3; to allow time for Load shed, bus alignment and load starting current
to decay within 48.6 seconds.
C. At step 4; to allow time for DG start, MOV alignment and sequential loading of the
HHSI pumps within 27.4 seconds.
D. At step 6; to allow time for Load shed, bus alignment, DG start and supplying flow
to the RCS within 55 seconds.
A. Correct - At step 1; to allow time for DG start, MOV alignment and supplying
flow to the RCS within 22 seconds.
Step 1 of the ESF and LOSP sequencers start the HHSI Pumps. given a DG start of 12
sec and loading of 5 sec intervals, at 25 sec steps 1 and 2 should have occured.
OPS-521 03F- DG sequencer lesson plan
1. The SI system is required to begin supplying injection flow to the reactor coolant
system within 22 seconds from the moment the accident occurs. To accomplish this,
the charging pumps must be assigned to step 1 of the load sequencers. This allows
time for the diesel generator to start and the motor-operated valves to open, leaving a
small margin for the generation of the SI.
B. Incorrect - Step 2 and 3 is taken from the SW pumps being split up and the time is
incorrect and the reason is that given for the 5 sec intervals between loading the steps.
C. Incorrect - Step 4 is wrong and the reason and time is for the Ctmt coolers.
D. Incorrect - Step 6 is wrong and the reason and time is that given for CS flow.
2. Containment spray is required to deliver flow to the spray nozzles within 55 seconds
from the generation of the containment spray actuation signal. To accomplish this,
the containment spray pumps must be assigned to step 2 of the load sequencers. An
LOSP is assumed to occur coincident with the generation of the containment spray
actuation signal, so that time must be allowed for the diesel generator to start, the
motor-operated valves to open, and flow to be delivered to the spray nozzles. A small
time margin is incorporated to account for the closure of the pump breakers and any
inaccuracies of the assumed times.
3. Containment coolers are required to start within 27.4 seconds following an LOSP.
However, the service water pumps must be running prior to starting the containment
coolers. The service water pumps have been assigned to step 3, and the containment
coolers have been assigned to step 4 of the load sequencers. The sequencer step in
which the containment fan coolers must be started is determined by a load sequence
time interval of five seconds between any two subsequent steps, diesel start time, fan
cooler breaker closure time, and fan acceleration time.
PAH.,, n.
.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
056AK3.01 Loss of Offsite Power -
Knowledge of the reasons for the following
responses as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power:
order and time to initiation of the power for the load sequencer.
Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including precautions
and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with the Diesel
Generator Sequencers System including (OPS40102D1 1):
- B1F and B2F ESS/LOSP Sequencer
- B1G and B2G ESS/LOSP Sequencer
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Containment
Structure and Isolation System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to
mitigate the consequence of the abnormality (OPS5521 02A02).
DG SEQ-401 02D07 #30
Friday, December 17,2004 8:45:38 AM
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
44. 057G2.4.31 001/1/1/LOSS OF 120VAC BUS/C/A 3.3/3.4/NEW,TFA011GC5/RO/CVR
_
Unit 1 is at 100% power.
- WD1, 1A INV FAULT, comes into alarm.
- N-41 is de-energized.
o lA INVERTER EPB ammeter reads 0 amps.
- Local IA INVERTER indications are:
- BATTERY INPUT BKR tripped
- INVERTER OUTPUT BKR closed
- Bypass Source Powering Load light NOT lit
- BYPASS SOURCE AVAILABLE light lit
Which one of the following is the correct action to take with IA Inverter in order to
re-energize vital loads per ARP-2.2, WD1?
A. Push the BYPASS SOURCE TO LOAD pushbutton.
B. The STATIC TRANSFER switch must be repaired prior to re-energizing vital loads.
C! Transfer the MANUAL BYPASS switch to the BYPASS SOURCE TO LOAD
position.
D. The electrical fault which caused the DC input breaker to trip must be repaired prior
to re-energizing vital loads.
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84
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect. Even though this button would be pushed under normal conditions with
the inverter powering the load, in this condition there would be no "In sync" light lit,
and the "out of sync" light would be lit. This would prevent operation of the push
button. Additionally, the push button operates the static transfer switch which has
already demonstrated that it is not functioning. The ARP thus directs the manual
Bypass switch to be operated to bypass both the inverter and the static bypass
switch in this condition.
B. Incorrect. Even though the static transfer switch needs repair, it does not have to be
repaired prior to energizing the 1 20VAC vital loads.
C. Correct. Transfer the MANUAL BYPASS switch to the BYPASS SOURCE TO
LOAD position. The indications show a DC problem with the Input breaker being
tripped. No AC problem is indicated since the AC output breaker is still closed. The
reason the vital AC Loads are deenergized is that the static bypass switch did not
work to transfer the power source from the deen. inverter to the energized bypass
source. The ARP, for this condition, directs switching the MANUAL BYPASS switch
to the BYPASS SOURCE TO LOAD position as long as the "BYPASS SOURCE
AVAILABLE" light is lit.
D. Incorrect. Even though the electrical fault needs repair, it does not have to be
repaired prior to energizing the 1 20VAC vital loads. The indications and basic
construction of the inverter indicate a DC fault that is electrically isolated from the AC
output. The ARP in this condition gives direction to switch the MANUAL BYPASS
switch to the BYPASS SOURCE TO LOAD position
LOCATION WDI
IMMEDIATE ACTION
1. IF 120 VAC VITAL INSTRUMENTATION PANEL 1A IS DE-ENERGIZED, THEN ATTEMPT TO
RESTORE POWER TO THE BYPASS SOURCE BY PERFORMING THE FOLLOWING:
A. IF THE 'BYPASS SOURCE AVAILABLE" LAMP IS ILLUMINATED ON THE INVERTER, THEN
TRANSFER 1A INVERTER MANUAL BYPASS SWITCH TO THE "BYPASS SOURCE TO LOAD"
POSITION.
APE: 057 Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus
2.4 Emergency Procedures /Plan
2.4.31 Knowledge of annunciators alarms and indications, and use of the
response instructions. (CFR: 41.10/ 45.3) RO 3.3
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the 120 Volt AC
Distribution System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS521013D02).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
45. 058AK1.01 001/1/l/DC/MEM 2.8/3.1*/BANK-N/FA011005/RO/SDR
_
__
_
A loss of Aux. Building DC power has occurred due to a Station Blackout event that
has lasted for 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />. Offsite power has finally been restored and the lineups
complete for restoring the battery charging lineup.
Which ONE of the following describes the operational implications of the Aux. Building
125 volt DC System?
A. The battery chargers will be unable to carry steady state normal or emergency
loads until its associated battery has been fully charged.
B. The battery chargers will be unable to carry steady state normal or emergency
loads until its associated battery is charged for at least 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.
C? The battery chargers will be immediately able to carry steady state normal or
emergency loads while its associated battery is being charged.
D. The battery chargers will be immediately able to carry steady state normal loads but
unable to carry emergency loads until its associated battery has been fully charged. I
_, _
_
_
______
___
__ ___
j
A - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore
its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after the battery has been fully
discharged, while carrying steady state normal or emergency loads.
B - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore
its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after the battery has been fully
discharged, while carrying steady state normal or emergency loads
C - Correct - The battery chargers will be Immediately able to carry steady state
normal or emergency loads while its associated battery is being charged and
will not be fully charged for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.
Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore its associated
battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after the battery has been fully discharged, while carrying
steady state normal or emergency loads. OPS-521 03C lesson plan page 4 and 6 and 13.
D - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore
its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after the battery has been fully
discharged, while carrying steady state normal or emergency loads
86
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
058AK1 .01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they
apply to Loss of DC Power: Battery charger equipment and Instrumentation
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major component associated with
the DC Distribution System (OPS40204E02):
- Batteries
- Battery Chargers
-The auxiliary building 125V DC distribution system
DC DIST-40204E02 #19
2003 NRC exam - only question available
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
87
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
_ 46._059A3.02 001/2/1/MFPWC/A2.9/3.1/NEW/FAO11005/RO/
___
_
Unit 2 is at 85% reactor power and stable, holding for chemistry with the following
conditions:
- Rod control is in MANUAL.
- All other systems are in automatic.
A 200 MW load rejection occurs. Which one of the following describes the overall
initial response and the final conditions for Feed Regulating Valve (FRV) position and
SG water level?
Asume NO) oeratracin
The FRV
- SG water level
Ar a Opens, then returns to a position more closed than its original position.
l Decreases, then returns to original level.
B. e Closes, then returns to a position more open than its original position.
- Increases, then returns to original level.
C. * Closes, then returns to its original position.
@ Increases, then stabilizes at a level lower than the original level.
D. * Opens, then returns to its original position.
l Decreases, then stabilizes at a level lower than the original level.
88
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:3b AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Correct -
r Opens, then returns to a position more closed than its original position.
- Decreases, then returns to original level.
This event has several things that need to be taken into account. First, rod control is in
manual, then steam dumps are in auto and lastly there is no operator action. When the
load rejection occurs, Steam Flow drops significantly and FF > SF. SGWL will
decrease approximately 10% due to shrink. The level decrease causes FRV position to
increase or open and SGFP speed then to increase. As the shrink effect goes away
and more feed causes level to increase, FRV position will close and remain further
closed than at the beginnig of the transient, and SGFP speed will decrease. (There is
no auto rod control and steam dumps open and have a 90F mismatch, and a 200 MW
load rejection, there is no overall change at the end of the transient.)
The opposite effect will be observed in the steam generator when the power level
is decreased. The lower heat transfer rate along with the higher steam pressure causes
less boiling to occur and a contraction of the steam bubbles present. This decreases the
steam-to-water ratio with a subsequent increase in density. Since the mass in the steam
generator is initially constant, the increase in density will be seen as a decrease in steam
generator water level. This phenomenon has been termed "shrink." Then the program will
cause the level to return to its original value.
B. Incorrect - SGWL does not increase to start with, instead it shrinks. The FRV will
open initially to recover level and then return to a position more closed than when it
started due to stm dump program and lower stm flow, which equates to lower feed flow.
C. Incorrect- SGWL does not increase to start with, instead it shrinks. The program
level is constant for the SGWL control but does control lower for the Przr LCS for the
power level.
D. Incorrect- It does open initially but then returns to a value lower than its original
position. The program level is constant for the SGWL control but does control lower for
the Przr LCS for the power level.
059A3.02 Main Feedwater - Ability to monitor automatic operation of the MFW,
including:
Programmed levels of the S/G
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Steam Generator Water Level Control System (OPS52201 B02):
- Program DP for Feedwater Regulating Valves
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
89
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
47. 059AA2.05_001/1 /2/RI8,/MaM3.6/3.9/BANKIFAOI1005/RO/CVR
_
_
_
Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
- The plant is stable at 100% power.
- A Steam Generator Tube leak has occurred.
- Chemistry reports that RCS activity is elevated.
If SGBD Flow Control Valve, FCV-1 152, fails to close, which one of the following
radiation monitors will normally detect, alarm and automatically stop the accidental
liquid radwaste release to the environment in progress?
A. R-23A, Steam Generator Blowdown Processing System Monitor.
Br R-23B, Steam Generator Blowdown Discharge Radiation Monitor.
C. R-19, Steam Generator Liquid Sample Monitor.
D. R-18, Waste Processing System Liquid Effluent Monitor.
A. incorrect. This would normally shut FCV-1 152 at the inlet of the SGBD surge tank,
but FCV-1 152 malfunctions and does not shut per stem.
B. Correct. R-23B, Steam Generator Blowdown Discharge Radiation Monitor.
R-23B shuts RCV-23B at the outlet of the SGBD Surge tank which stops the release.
C. Incorrect. This isolates SGBD sample which isolates the contaminated water in the
SG from the sample room.
D. Incorrect. This monitor isolates a Liquid Waste Release from either Waste monitor
tank to the river, but does not isolate the SGBD release path.
APE: 059 Accidental Liquid Radwaste Release
AA1. Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Accidental
Liquid Radwaste Release: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5/ 45.6)
AA2.05 The occurrence of automatic safety actions as a result of a high PRM system
signal .... 3.6
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the radiation
monitoring System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS52106D02).
RMS-40305A02 13
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Friday, uecemner 11 , ZUU4
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
48. 061A3.03 oO1/2/i/AFW/C/A 3.9/3.9/MOD/FA01 1005/ROi/
___
The following events just occurred on Unit 1:
@ The reactor tripped from 50% power due to the trip of the only
operating SGFP.
e The TDAFW pump is tagged out.
- I B SU transformer just tripped and 1 B DG is tied to the 1 G 4160 V
Emergency bus.
- 1C SG water level is 44% NR and rising.
- 1A and 1 B SG water levels are 25% NR and rising.
d A spurious safety injection has occurred on 'A' Train.
- Both MDAFW pumps are running.
- The team is at step 7 of EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
Light smoke has just been reported coming from 1 B MDAFW pump. The Shift
Supervisor has determined the pump must be stopped. Which one of the following are
the minimum actions that would keep the 1 B MDAFW pump secured and allow for
control of the MDAFW pump Flow Control Valves (FCVs)?
A? Place the 1 B MDAFW pump MCB handswitch to stop; Place the MDAFWP FCV
3227 RESET A TRAIN and B TRAIN handswitches to RESET and adjust the FCV
controller.
B. Place the Local/Remote handswitch on the HSD panel for 1 B MDAFW pump to
LOCAL, Then place the 1 B MDAFW pump MCB handswitch to stop; Adjust the
C. Place the 'B' train AUTO/DEFEAT switch in DEFEAT, Wait for 2/3 SG water levels
to rise above the Lo-Lo level setpoint, Then place the 1 B MDAFW pump MCB
handswitch to stop; Adjust the MDAFWP FCV controllers.
D. Reset the SI, Then place the 1 B MDAFW pump MCB handswitch to stop; When
2/3 SG water levels rise above the Lo-Lo level setpoint, then place the 3227
RESET A TRAIN handswitch to RESET and adjust the FCV controller.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
91
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Correct - Place the I B MDAFW pump MCB handswltch to stop; Place the
MDAFWP FCV 3227 RESET A TRAIN and B TRAIN handswitches to RESET and
adjust the FCV controller.
This is the minimum action required. Due to the B train LOSP and diesel running on
that bus, the MDAFW pump can be secured at any time on the MOB regardless of
autostart signals available. The MDAFWP FCVs can be reset by placing both trains
HS's to RESET and adjusted from the pots at any time.
B. Incorrect - The HSD panel local/remote switch is not required to stop the pump and
the pump will not stop from the MCB after the switch is in LOCAL, and the TDAFWP
FCVs have to have the MDAFWP FCV 3227 RESET switches to RESET before the pot
will control the valve.
C. Incorrect - Placing the AUTO/DEFEAT switches in DEFEAT is not necessary for this
event and waiting for SGWL to increase above 28% normally would be required, but
since the DG is carrying the load it is not necessary and the MDAFWP FCVs have to
have the MDAFWP FCV 3227 RESET switches to RESET before the pot will control
the valve.
D. Incorrect - Resetting the SI is not necessary to stop the MDAFWP and waiting for
the SGWL to increase above the Lo-Lo level setpoint is not necessary, the MDAFWP
FCV 3227 RESET switches both have to be reset not just one train.
061A3.03 Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater - Ability to monitor automatic operation of
the AFW, including: AFW S/G level control on automatic start
Explain the purpose and operation including design features and functions, capacities
and protective interlocks of each major component associated with auxiliary feedwater
(AFW) including (OPS-40201 D02):
- Motor-driven auxiliary feedwater (MDAFW) pumps
2 HV-3228A, B, C - TDAFW Pump Flow Control Valves
Describe the effect on the Auxiliary Feedwater of a loss of an AC or DC bus or
instrument air (OPS-40201 D06).
List the automatic actions associated with the auxiliary feedwater (AFW) system
components and equipment during normal and abnormal operations including (OPS-
40201 D07).
- Normal Control Methods
- Automatic actuation including setpoints (examples - SI, Phase A, Phase B.
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing auxiliary feedwater evolutions including the fail condition, alarms, trip
setpoints (OPS-40201 D08). This also includes:
- HV-3228A, B, C - TDAFW Pump Flow Control Valves
modified from AFW-40201 D07 #35
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
92
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
49. 061K1.07 0O1/2/1/AFW/MEM 3.6/3.8/BANK/FA011005/RO/ _
_ _
_
Given the following Unit 1 plant conditions:
- The CST is ruptured and has no water in it.
' Unit 1 has tripped.
e All S/Gs are below the narrow range indication and decreasing.
- It has been decided to feed the S/Gs from the Service Water system using the
AFW system.
o During the alignment MOV-3209B, MDAFWP SW SUPP, cannot be opened.
Which one of the AFW pumps DO NOT have a suction source?
A. 1A MDAFW pump ONLY.
B6 1 B MDAFW pump ONLY.
C. 1A MDAFW pump and the TDAFW pump.
D. 1 B MDAFW pump and the TDAFW pump.
Reference SOP-22.0 and OPS- 52102H AFW lesson plan
A. Incorrect, MOV-3209B is not in the flowpath for A train SW to supply the A MDAFW
pump
B. Correct - B MDAFW pump ONLY.
3209B is a direct feed to the B MDAFWP. Due to the normal lineup of V01 5 C & D
being LC, this only affects the B pump. 3209A being closed would affect both the A
pump and the TDAFWP.
C Incorrect, the normal SOP-22.0 lineup, the trains are split with the A train supplying
the TDAFW pump.
D. Incorrect, B has no source, however the normal SOP-22.0 lineup, the trains are split
with the A train supplying the TDAFW pump.
0
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93
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M
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
061 K1.07 Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater - Knowledge of the physical connections
and/or cause effect relationships between the AFW and the following systems:
Emergency Water source.
Discuss the operation and alignment of each major component including precautions
and limitations of operation, and applicable procedures, associated with the auxiliary
feedwater system including (040201 D1l1).
- MDAFW Pumps
- TDAFW pump
e MOV-3209A, B - MDAFW Pump Service Water Intake Valves
AFW-521 02H02 #6
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
94
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
50. 062A2.01 001i/21/CW B1C TRIP/C/A 3.4/3.9/BANK/FAO1100S/RO/
____
Unit 1 is at 34% power ramping up at 2 MW/min when the following occurs:
- Amps on 1 B 4160V bus suddenly drop by #900 amps.
- MF4, 4160 VOLT BKR TRIPPED, annunciator alarms.
- "B" loop RCS flow remains stable.
- Condenser pressure is 2.3 psia and slowly degrading.
- KKI, TURB COND VAC LO, annunciator is in alarm.
Which one of the following describes the correct response for these conditions lAW
AOP-8.0, Partial Loss of Condenser Vacuum?
A. Stop the ramp and start the non running condensate pump.
B. Trip the turbine and go to AOP-3, Turbine Trip Below P-9 Setpoint.
C. Trip the reactor, trip the turbine and go to EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
D! Ensure sufficient circulating water flow for plant conditions and reduce turbine load
as necessary.
I
95
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
FNP-1-ARP-1.12, MF4
A. Incorrect, The condensate pump bkr is not an input to the "4160 volt Bkr Tripped'
alarm. and the condensate pumps only draw -400 amps. stopping the ramp is a good
idea.
B. Incorrect, Required per AOP-8 when reactor power <30% and condenser press >1.7
C. Incorrect, Required per AOP-8 when condenser press > 2.7
D. Correct- Ensure sufficient circulating water flow for plant conditions and
reduce turbine load as necessary.
the 1 B CW pump has tripped in this case and by the indications given, the 1 A OW
pump was not running. Starting the CW pump should be enough to fix this problem,
however it may become necessary to ramp to keep cond vac from tripping the unit.
IMMEDIATE ACTION of MF4
1. DETERMINE WHICH BREAKER IS TRIPPED.
2. IF A REACTOR COOLANT PUMP BREAKER HAS TRIPPED, THEN REFER TO FNP-1 -AOP-4.0,
LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT FLOW.
3. IF A CIRCULATING WATER PUMP HAS TRIPPED, THEN ENSURE SUFFICIENT CIRCULATING
WATER FLOW FOR PLANT CONDITIONS.
4. IF REQUIRED, THEN REDUCE TURBINE LOAD AS NECESSARY.
5. START NON RUNNING CNDS PUMP IF HDT PUMP TRIPS.
6. VERIFY PROPER OPERATION OF PRZR HEATERS, IF 600V LC 1 M IS LOST.
3 Stabilize condenser vacuum using any or all of the following actions based on plant
conditions, and the rate at which vacuum is worsening.
3.1 IF Condenser pressure increases above 2.5 psia THEN reduce turbine load as
necessary to maintain pressure at or below 2.5 psia.
3.3 Start additional CW PUMP.
062A2.01 AC Electrical Distribution systesystemm - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of
the following malfunctions or operations on the ac distribution system; and (b) based on
those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of
those malfunctions or operations:
Types of loads that, if de-energized, would degrade or hinder plant operation.
Assess plant conditions to determine if entry into AOP-8.0 is required (OPS52520H02).
Describe the sequence of major actions associated with AOP-8.O (OPS52520H04).
Assess plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated
while performing AOP-8.0 (OPS52520H06).
CW-52104D01 #1
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
96
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
51. 063A1.01 OO1/2/1/iB3AT'IERY/C/A 2.5/3.3/BANK/FA011005,/RO/
Given the following for Unit 1:
- A Loss of All AC Power has occurred.
e At step 1 of ECP-0.0, Loss of All AC Power, the total current available
from 1 B Battery is 1380 Amp-hours.
- The crew is at the step to Minimize DC Loads.
- EM personnel report that 420 Amp-hours have been expended since step 1 of
ECP-0.0.
Assuming loads can be reduced immediately, what is the maximum discharge rate
that can to be allowed before the 1 B Battery will be exhausted during an 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> time
period?
A. 52.5 Amps
B3 120 Amps
C. 172.5 Amps
D. 225 Amps
ECP-0.0 Loss of All AC and EMP-1 340.09
A. Incorrect - 420/8 = 52.5 amps. This will equal to 18.3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> and is not the
maximum discharge rate.
B. Correct -
1380 -420 = 960 amp-hrs /8 hrs = 120 amps. This will equal 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />
C. Incorrect - 1380 / 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> = 172.5 amps. This will equal 5.6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />
D. Incorrect - 1380 + 420 = 1800/8 = 225 amps. This will equal 4.2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />
063A1.01 DC Electrical distribution system. Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in
parameters associated with operating the DC electrical system controls including:
Battery capacity as it is affected by discharge rate.
Assess abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the DC Distribution
System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the consequence
of the abnormality (OPS52103C02).
DC DIST-40204E11 #13
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
52. 064K4.02 001/2/1/DC,/MEM 3.9/4.2/BANKiFAO1100S/RO/
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__
1-2A Diesel Generator has started due to a loss of off-site power (LOSP) signal.
Which one of the following contains choices in which ALL parameters listed will cause
the 1-2A DG to trip automatically?
AM Low lube oil pressure, generator phase differential and engine fail-to-start.
B. High crankcase pressure, generator phase differential, engine fail-to-start.
C. Engine over-speed, generator overvoltage and low lube oil temperature.
D. High crankcase pressure, high generator winding temperature and low lube oil
temperature.
J
OPS-521021 -40102C DG lesson plan
In addition to giving a start signal to the diesel, the ES relay performs the following
functions when it is energized:
1. Removes all of the diesel shutdowns except the essential engine protection
shutdowns (generator phase differential, engine fail-to-start, engine over-speed, and
low lube oil pressure).
A. correct- Low lube oil pressure, generator phase differential and engine
fall-to-start.
These are essential engine trips as described above. Since an LOSP is an emergency
start signal, only essential engine trips will trip the EDG.
B. incorrect, some non-essential trips are present.
C. incorrect, some non-essential trips are present.
D. incorrect, some non-essential trips are present.
064 K4.02 Knowledge of the EDG system design feature(s) and/or interlocks which
provide for the following: Trips while operating the EDG (normal or emergency)
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing Diesel Generator and Auxiliaries System evolutions including the fail
condition, alarms, and trip set points (OPS401 02C08).
- Diesels 1-2A, 1 B, 2B
e Lube Oil High Temperature Engine Shutdown (TS-549, TS-550)
- Low Oil pressure Shutdown Switch (PS-553, PS-554)
DG-40102008 #4
98
Friday, Uecember 1 7, ZU4 u:40:Ji AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
53. 065AA1.03 0011/1/1/EMERG AC/MEM 2.9/3.1,NEW/FAO11005/RO/
___
_
Given the following on Unit 2:
- Instrument air header pressure has dropped to zero psig three hours
ago due to a severe instrument air header rupture.
- The Instrument air header has been repaired and components are being
realigned to a normal lineup.
Which one of the following actions needs to be performed IAW AOP-6.0, Loss of
Instrument Air to restore the plant to a normal lineup?
A. FCV-1 1 3A, BORIC ACID TO BLENDER, and FCV-1 1 4B, REAC MKUP TO
BLENDER, needs to be opened to restore control of the reactor makeup system.
B. The LOCAL/REMOTE handswitch for the Atmospheric relief valves needs to be
placed in REMOTE and control the ARVs from the HSD panel restored to the MCB.
C. The LOCAI/REMOTE handswitch for the TDAFWP steam supply valves needs to
be placed in REMOTE and control the TDAFW pump from the HSD panel restored
to the MCB.
De HV-361 1, INST AIR SUPPLY TO OTMT, HV-3885 and HV-3825, INSTR AIR TO
PENE RM AUTO ISO, needs to be opened to restore control of charging, PORVs,
and PRZR spray valves.
A. Incorrect - FCV-11 3A and FCV-1 14 B will realign when air pressure is restored. the
fail position for FCV-11 3A is OPEN and it will go closed when air is restored, and
FCV-11 4B fails CLOSED on loss of air and it will remain closed when air is restored.
The operator has to re-align RMW by verifying FK-1 13 is adjusted properly, and
checking the RMW is in AUTO and START.
B. Incorrect - The procedure has the operator align EAC to the ARVs IAW SOP-62
which establishes control of the ARVs at the MCB with EAC supplying the ARVs.
C. Incorrect - The procedure has the operator align EAC to the TDAFW pump vales
and control from the MCB. Align emergency air compressors to supply the TDAFW
pump steam supply valves, control the TDAFW pump from the MCB IAW SOP-62.
D. Correct - HV-361 1, INST AIR SUPPLY TO CTMT, HV-3885 and HV-3825, INSTR
AIR TO PENE RM AUTO ISO, needs to be opened to restore control of charging,
PORVs, and PRZR spray valves.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
065AA1.03 Loss of Instrument Air - Ability to manually operate and/or monitor the
following as they apply to the Loss of Instrument Air: Restoration of systems served by
Instrument air when pressure is regained.
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated
while performing AOP-6.0 (OPS52520F06).
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the auxiliary
feedwater (AFW) system and determine the local actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS-40201 D12).
Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing auxiliary feedwater evolutions including the fail condition, alarms, trip
setpoints (OPS-40201 D08). This also includes:
- HV-3235A, B - TDAFW Steam Supply from Steam Generator B (C)
- HV-3226 - TDAFW Steam Supply isolation Valve
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
100
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
54. 07115.04 001/2/2/WASTE GAS/MEM 2.5/3.1/NEW/FA011005/RO/
_
_
__
The Shift Chemist has determined that oxygen concentration levels are 3.5% in the
Waste Gas System. Which one of the following is required to be accomplished IAW
SOP-51.0, Waste Gas System, to prevent an unsafe condition?
A. Dilute with nitrogen and transfer the smaller WGDT to #7 or #8 WGDT for further
sampling.
BI Dilute with nitrogen and vent the WGDT to the plant vent stack per SOP-51 .1,
Waste Gas System Gas Decay Tank Release.
C. Place the waste gas compressor in service and dilute by combining the WGDT with
another WGDT that has a lower oxygen concentration.
D. Transfer the smaller WGDT to #7 or #8 WGDT and vent the WGDT to the plant
vent stack per SOP-5 1.1, Waste Gas System Gas Decay Tank Release.
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Friday, December I 7, 2V0q 0.83.00 6IVA
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Due to the question for KA 004K5.49 on this exam, this question was asked in the
oxygen realm to prevent giving the answer or tips for that question. The words
flammable and explosive mixture were avoided as well and the word hydrogen was
avoided to keep from drawing the 2 questions together. The candidate will have to
either take the unsafe condition at face value or know what the unsafe condition is.
The operational implications of too high an oxygen level is to dilute and get rid of the
WGDT contents to prevent a flammable mixture.
A. Incorrect - Diluting with nitrogen is correct but then the correct action is to get rid of
it, not store it for future problems.
B. Correct - Dilute with nitrogen and vent the WGDT to the plant vent stack per
SOP-51.1, Waste Gas System Gas Decay Tank Release.
This will bring the flammable concentration down and the get it out of the tank to
prevent a future high 02 concentration. This is done to prevent a flammable mixture of
02 to H2 IAW SOP-51.
C. Incorrect - This is not a correct action but the candidate may believe this would
dilute it and allow for a safer environment.
D. Incorrect - There is no need to transfer this from a smaller tanktank to the larger
holding tanks for future disposal.
Reference:CFR: 41.5/45.7
TR 13.12.3. Waste Gas Monitorino Lesson dan
This technical requirement states that the concentration of oxygen in any portion of the
gaseous radwaste treatment system shall be limited to < or equal to 2% by volume whenever the
hydrogen concentration in that Portion of the gaseous radwaste treatment system exceed
and the hydrogen and oxygen monitors required bvTR 13.12.1 are operable. If the hydrogen and oxygen
monitors required by TR 13.12.1 are operable and the concentration of oxygen in the gaseous radwaste
treatment system >2% by volume but < or equal to 4% by volume, then reduce oxygen concentration to
within limits within 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />.
SOP-51.0 P&L
3.11 Gas decay tanks with 02 levels greater than the required limits should be diluted
with N2 and purged to the plant vent in accordance with FNP-1-SOP-51.1,
WASTE GAS SYSTEM GAS DECAY TANK RELEASE, until 02 level is within
limits.
071 K5.04 Waste Gas Disposal - Knowledge of the operational implication of the
following concepts as they apply to the Waste Gas Disposal System.
Relationship of hydrogen/oxygen concentrations to flammability.
Identify any special considerations such as safety hazards and plant condition changes
that apply to the Waste Gas System (OPS52106B04).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:38 AM
102
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
55. 076G2.1.23 001/1/2!HIGH RCS ACTIVITY/MEM 3.9/4.0/BANKIFAOI11005/RO/CVR
Sample results show that an RCS crud burst has caused gross activity to increase
significantly. The Unit Operator reports that the GFFD reads 8 X 104 cpm.
Which one of the following actions is required and would best reduce this activity level
IAW AOP-32.0, High Reactor Coolant Activity?
A. Valve in the cation demineralizer AND reduce letdown flow rate to 45 gpm.
Br Valve in the standby mixed bed demineralizer AND increase letdown to 120 gpm.
C. Reduce power by 25% and valve in the standby mixed bed demineralizer.
D. Reduce power by 25% and valve in the cation demineralizer.
A. Incorrect. The Mixed Bed Demin is used per AOP-32.0, not the Cation bed.
B. Correct. Valve in the standby mixed bed demineralizer AND increase letdown to
120 gpm.
This is directed by AOP-32.O to maximize the removal rate of the high activity fission
products.
C. Incorrect. Ion exchange is the prefered method by which to remove the crud burst
activation products. A power reduction is required only if the high RCS activity is due
to failed fuel, and the GFFD is reading >1e5 above normal background.
D. Incorrect. A power reduction is required only if the high RCS activity is due to failed
fuel, and the GFFD is reading >1e5 above normal background and the Mixed Bed
Demin is used per AOP-32.0, not the Cation bed.
076: High Reactor Coolant Activity
2.1 Conduct of Operations 2.1.23 Ability to perform specific system and integrated
plant procedures during all modes of plant operation. RO 3.9
9. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Gross Failed
Fuel Detector and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (0PS52106E1 2).
7. Evaluate plant conditions and determine if transition to another section of AOP-32.0
[HIGH REACTOR COOLANT ACTIVITY] or to another procedure is required
(OPS52521 J08).
AOP-32.0-52521 J06 02
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56. 076K(3.07 001/2/1/AOP-10QC'/A 3.7/3.9/NEW/FA011005/lRO/
_
___
Given the following on Unit 2:
- 2B D/G is running and the Shift Supervisor has determined that it is required.
- Unit 2 is in Mode 6 with the core unloaded to the SFP.
- B Train SFP cooling is on service.
- B Train Service Water has been lost and can not be restored.
Which ONE of the following describes when the affected D/G is required to be stopped
IAW AOP-1 0.0, Loss of Service Water, and what engineered safeguards feature (ESF)
loads will be affected by the event in progress?
Ay If the local Lube Oil temperature alarm cannot be maintained clear to protect the
D/G from damage due to overheating, 2A SFP pump and heat exchanger will be
affected.
B. If the local Lube Oil temperature alarm cannot be maintained clear to protect the
D/G from damage due to overheating, 2B SFP pump and heat exchanger will be
affected.
C. Immediately, since SW cannot be restored to protect the D/G from damage due to
overheating, 2A SFP pump and heat exchanger will be affected.
D. Immediately, since SW cannot be restored to protect the D/G from damage due to
overheating, 2B SFP pump and heat exchanger will be affected.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:39 AM
104
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Ref: AOP-1 0.0
A - Correct -if the local Lube Oil temperature alarm cannot be maintained clear to
protect the D/G from damage due to overheating, 2A SFP pump and heat
exchanger will be affected.
Step 4.2.6 says that if the LO temp alarm cannot be cleared then Stop the DIG. This
is the correct ESF load that would be affected in that the SFP cooling trains are
reversed 2A SFP train is B Train and it has lost both SW flow and will lose power
as well. This is a HU Perf issue and challenge for our Plant.
B - Incorrect; Step 4.2.6 says that if the LO temp alarm cannot be cleared then Stop the
D/G. However this is the incorrect train of ESF load that is affected.
C - incorrect-AOP-1 0 has the operator isolate SW to the TB and other components as
well as line-up SW flow from the other unit first. This is the correct ESF load that
would be affected in that the SFP cooling trains are reversed 2A SFP train is B
Train and it has lost both SW flow and will lose power as well.
D - Incorrect- AOP-10 has the operator isolate SW to the TB and other components as
well as line-up SW flow from the other unit first. This is the incorrect train of ESF
load that is affected.
Step
Aetionnhxperted Response
_enpone
war obtained
ml~
I
I
4.2.6 IF unable to maintain
running diesel genrsatcr`s)
lube oil temperature alarm
(155'
IX} BLDG; loal cclitral
panel) cleat,
THEN stop affaeoted diegel
generator.
076K3.07 Service Water - Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the
SWS will have on the following: ESF loads.
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Service Water
System and determine the local actions needed to mitigate the consequence of the
abnormality (OPS401 01 612).
Describe the effect on the service water of a loss of an AC or DC bus or instrument air
(OPS401 01 B06).
List all the engineered safety system (ESS) loads supplied by the component cooling
water (CCW) system (OPS40204A13).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:39 AM
105
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
57. 078G2.1.30001,/2/1/IAS/MEM 3.9/3.4/BANK/FA011005/RO_ __--
The Unit 1 crew is recovering from a loss of instrument air. Which one of the following
conditions is the minimum pressure that must be restored and the local action that
must occur for V-904, instrument Air to Service Building to be restored?
A. The air header pressure must be above 55 psig
BOP must be depressed.
B. The air header pressure must be above 65 psig
BOP must be depressed.
C?' The air header pressure must be above 55 psig
local air reset panel must be depressed.
D. The air header pressure must be above 65 psig
local air reset panel must be depressed.
and the reset push button on the
and the reset push button on the
and the reset push button on the
and the reset push button on the
A. Incorrect - The air pressure of 55 psig is correct but the panel is not correct.
B. Incorrect- The air pressure of 65 psig would be correct if the stem did not say
minimum pressure, but the panel is not correct.
C. Correct - The air header pressure must be above 55 psig and the reset push
button on the local air reset panel must be depressed.
OPS-521 08A
Instrument Air to Service Building (V-904)
Refer to Figures 3 & 8. If the pressure at the outlet of the Unit 1 instrument air dryers, as
sensed by PS-506, drops to 55 psig, instrument air to the service building is isolated.
To restore instrument air to the service building, air pressure must be above 55 psig and the
RESET push button on the Unit 1 local air reset panel must be depressed.
D. Incorrect- The air pressure of 65 psig would be correct if the stem did not say
minimum pressure.
106
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
078G2.1.30 Instrument Air -Ability to locate and operate components, including local
controls
List the automatic actions associated with the Compressed Air System components
and equipment during normal and abnormal operations including (OPS40204D07):
e Normal control methods
- Automatic actuation including setpoints for selective isolation on decreasing header
pressure
Describe the local actions needed to support plant operation during normal, abnormal
and emergency conditions associated with the Compressed Air System
(OPS40204D09).
COMP AIR-40204D09 #1
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58. 078K3.01 0O1/2/1/IAS/MPM 3M.1*/3.4'/BANK/FA0lh1OO5/RO/
__
_
_
_
While at 2% power, an air line break in the auxiliary building occurred. All available air
compressors are running and air pressure continues to fall. The following valves have
gone to their fail position: LCV-459, LTDN LINE ISO, FCV-1 22, CHG FLOW CONT
and both PRZR spray valves, PCV-444C and D. Pressurizer level and pressure are
both rising.
lAW AOP-6.0, Loss of Instrument Air, which one of the following would allow the
operator to control PRZR pressure?
A. Align aux spray.
B9 Align nitrogen to the PORVs.
C. Align nitrogen to the spray valves.
D. Align Alternate Instrument air supply to the PORVs.
11 Align nitrogen supply to PRZR PORVs using FNP-2-SOP-62.1, BACK-UP AIR OR
NITROGEN SUPPLY TO THE PRESSURIZER POWER OPERATED RELIEF VALVES.
A. Incorrect - This is not allowed by procedure. Letdown is required to heat chg water
prior to using aux spray.
B. Correct- Align nitrogen to the PORVs.
This is the proper way to control RCS pressure IAW AOP-6
C. Incorrect- NITROGEN does not go to the Spray valves.
D. Incorrect- Alternate Instrument air will not be available in this situation as air
pressure continues to drop. If IA is not available, then alternate would not be available
at some point. The alternate IA comes directly off the header and is not isolated by
automatic valves. If IA would stabilize at some point, and if pressure were high enough
then this would be an alternative. Since pressure continues to drop and the leak is not
isolated, the best method is to use Nitrogen and procedurally this is the only method
__._.
.
n.____
i_
47
OAAA O.A='07 ARA
108
r1ludy, uvvilluuf
I 1, ...
11
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
078K3.01 Instrument Air - Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the IAS
will have on the following: Containment air system
Explain the purpose and operation including the design features and functions,
capacities, and protective interlocks of the following major components associated with
the Compressed Air System (0PS40204D02):
- Atlas Copco air compressors
e Atlas Copco sequencer controllers
e Air dryer units
- Emergency air compressors and air supplies to PORV's
Describe the local actions needed to support plant operation during normal, abnormal
and emergency conditions associated with the Compressed Air System
(OPS40204D09).
AOP-6.0-52520F06 #2
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109
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59. 103A2.03 OlO/2/l/CTMT ISOLMEM 3.5*/3.8/NEW/EFA01005/RO/____
Unit 2 has had a Large break LOCA. Phase A and B signals were actuated by
automatic actuation signals. Which one of the following conditions indicates a system
misalignment and the actions to be taken?
A. CTMT SUMP DISCH (HV-3377) closed, open HV-3377.
B. RCS LOOP 2 & 3 SAMPLE ISO (SV-3333) closed, open SV-3333.
C? 1 B PRF SUCTION DMPR (MOV-3362B) closed, open MOV-3362B.
D. CCW SUPPLY TO SAMPLE COOLER (HV-2229) closed, open HV-2229.
OPS-521 026
A. Incorrect. HV-3377 closes on an phase A signal.
B. Incorrect. These valves close on an phase A signal.
C. Correct. I B PRF SUCTION DMPR (MOV-3362B) closed, open MOV-3362B.
IAW EEP-0, 3362B correct position after a Phase B signal would be open, and the
operator would be required to open the valve.
D. Incorrect. HV-2229 is closed on a S signal. It is not opened.
1 03A2.03 Containment - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions
or operations on the containment system; and (b) based on those predictions, use
procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or
operations: Phase A and B isolation
List the automatic actions associated with the Emergency Core Cooling System
components and equipment during normal and abnormal operations including
(OPS40302C07):
- Normal control methods
- Automatic actuation including setpoint (example Si, Phase A, Phase B, MSLIAS,
- Protective isolations such as high flow, low pressure, low level including setpoint
- Protective interlocks
110
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:39 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
60. G2.1.2 001/3/l/ACP-2/ME;M 3.0/4.0/BANK/A01 1005/RO/
_
_
__
_
Given the following plant conditions:
- An ALERT has been declared on Unit 2.
- The Plant General Manager has assumed the duties of Emergency Director.
Which one of the following personnel can grant permission to enter the AT-THE
CONTROLS AREA per ACP-2.0, Main Control Room Formality?
A. Shift Support Supervisor- Plant.
B. Operations Manager.
C( Shift Supervisor.
D. Unit Operator.
ACP-2.0.
A. Incorrect- During these conditions, The SSS-Plant may be in the CR, but the At the
Controls Area entrance requirements require permission to enter by the SS only.
B. Incorrect -The ops Manager is not listed as a title that can grant permission to this
area but the At the Controls Area entrance requirements require permission to enter by
the SS only.
C. Correct - Shift Supervisor.
Permission shall be obtained from the Shift Supervisor enter the at the controls area in
an emergency situation.
D. Incorrect - The UO and OATC can give permission to enter the Area during normal
operations, but cannot give permission during an emergency.
- The AT-THE-CONTROLS-AREA (ATC) access is limited to those persons on official business only and
loitering in this area should be minimized. The AT-THE-CONTROLS- AREA is the area encompassed by
the glass doors, the Main Control Board (MCB), the Emergency Power Board (EPB), and the Nuclear
Instrumentation/Radiation Monitoring System (NUIRMS) racks.
G2 1.2 -Conduct of Operations - Knowledge of operator responsibilities during all
modes of operation.
Describe the "at the controls area," and explain the controls associated with accessing
this area (OPS40502C07).
PLT COMM-40502C07 #1
nonrrhr1
n
RAN A
AM1
Friday, December I 7, 0uu4 8:qmoU
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
61. G2.18 001./3/1/.AP-60/MEM 3.8/3.6/MOD/FAO1OfJ5/RO/
_
_
___
An oil spill has occurred from a non-PCB oil source in the Turbine Building.
- The oil has reached the Turbine Building sump.
- The sump pump is running and releasing water to the environment.
Which one of the following actions is required to be performed by the control room
team lAW AP-60, Oil Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure Plan, Hazardous
Waste Contingency Plan?
At Dispatch the SSS to the scene, have the TB systems operator stop the sump
pump, close and tag the discharge valve.
B. Dispatch the shift chemist to the scene, have the TB systems operator place the
sump on recirc until the sump contents can be analyzed.
C. Dispatch the SSS to the scene, have the TB systems operator stop the sump pump
only if the oil level gets low enough to reach the sump pump suction.
D. Dispatch the shift chemist to the scene, have the TB systems operator place the
sump on recirc after the release is completed, and then close the discharge valve.
AP-60
A. Dispatch the SSS to the scene, have the TB systems operator stop the sump
pump, close and tag the discharge valve.
AP-60 requires these actions SSS to the scene, stop the release and close and tag
sump discharge valves.
B. Incorrect -The shift radiochemist is not required to be dispatched, though this may
be a good idea, however chemistry supervision is required to be notified. The shift
radiochemist is not necessarily supervision. The TBSO should not place the sump On
reciro. With a release in progress the requirement is to stop the release.
C. Incorrect- The TBSO is required to stop the release immediately, not evaluate how
much more water can be released. The release needs to analyzed prior to starting and
needs supervisor approval to start it.
D. Incorrect -The shift radiochemist is not required to be dispatched, the release
would not continue with oil going to it due to the potential for release to the
environment, and the discharge valve would be closed, and also tagged.
112
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
G2.1 .8 - Conduct of Operations - Ability to co-ordinate personnel activities outside the
control room.
Given a situation involving an oil spill identify the actions that may need to be
performed to limit the consequences of the spill (0PS40502F01).
Evaluate a non-PCB oil spill and determine the correct response (OPS52303F01).
modified from AP-60-52303F01 #3
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:39 AM
113
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
62. G2.2.12 001/3/2/SURV PROCEDURES/MEM 3.0/3.4/BANK/FAO1 1005/__RO_
Plant procedures state that, to be in accordance with the Inservice Test Plan and
l
ASME Code, timing of valve stroke times for an STP will be performed
__.
I
A. locally at the valve only.
B. utilizing the remote indicating lights only.
C. locally at the valve, but exceptions can be documented and approved on a
case-by-case basis.
D! utilizing the remote indicating lights, but exceptions can be documented and
approved on a case-by-case basis.
SOP-0 section 1 6.3
A. Incorrect - the remote indication is the normal indication to use. The local indication
can be used but only with approval and proper documentation.
B. Incorrect -there are exceptions which allow the local timing to be used. Two
exceptions are noted for PRF.
C. Incorrect- the remote indication is the normal indication to use, not locally at the
valve.
D. Correct - utilizing the remote indicating lights, but exceptions can be
documented and approved on a case-by-case basis.
SOP-0.o
16.3
For performance of valve inservice tests, the timing of valve stroke times locally
at the valve, rather than using remote indication, is not in accordance with the
Inservice Test Plan and ASME Code. Therefore, timing of valve strokes in
performance of inservice test will be performed utilizing the remote
indicating lights. Exceptions will be documented and approved on a case by
case basis in the individual inservice test procedure. Examples include the
penetration room filtration system dampers HV3356A (B) and HV3357A (B) on
each unit. Timing of these dampers will continue to be performed locally in
accordance with STP-20.0, PENETRATION ROOM FILTRATION SYSTEM
TRAIN A(B) QUARTERLY OPERABILITY AND VALVE INSERVICE TEST.
G2.2.12 Equipment control -Knowledge of surveillance procedures.
State the general functions that personnel assigned to shift operations perform or are
prepared to perform (SOER 96-01) (OPS40502H04).
INTRO TS-52302A09 #2
114
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
63. G2.2.28 001/3/2/'FUELHANDLINCG/CI/A 2.6/3.5/MOD/FA011005/RO/
___
_I
A reactor core re-load is in progress with ten assemblies loaded in the core. As the
on-coming Unit Operator you have been given the following information during
turnover:
e Both Source Range detectors ARE indicating counts.
- High Flux at Shutdown alarms are BLOCKED.
- Audible Source Range counts are selected to the Control Room only.
- Audible Source Range counts has just been lost in the control room.
& 1/M plot is being continuously performed and monitored.
- Scaffolding is being passed through the equipment hatch.
- One Reactor Operator is in the Control Room.
After reviewing the above information, your direction to the refueling SRO is to suspend
Core Alterations. Which one of the following is the reason for this decision?
A. The High Flux at Shutdown alarm should be in service.
B. The equipment hatch is not closed and secured properly.
Cf Audible Source Range Counts are not working in the control room.
D. At least two licensed Reactor Operators are required to be the Unit 1 control room.
A - Incorrect- Not required to be in service at this time. Allowed to be placed in the
BLOCK position to prevent spurious alarms per P&L 3.3 of UOP-4.1
B - Incorrect - this was changed by Rev 25 of STP-1 8.4 and an amendment to TS
3.9.3, equipment hatch can be open during refueling. Changed 10-8-2004
C - Correct- Audible Source Range Counts are not working in the control room.
UOP-4.1 P&Ls 3.1 and 3.5.4 and initial condition 2.25 state that at least one audible
count rate shall be operating [during refueling] to alert of a possible dilution accident.
TS allows fuel movement. TS allows fuel movement with audible Counts not in the CR
provided a licensed operator is in CTMT to communicate with the CR to alert the
operators of a possible dilution accident. Also Fuel movement can continue w/o any
audible lAW TS if visual indication is in the CR. Our UOP-4.1 does not allow this and a
TCN would be needed to allow this.
D - Incorrect- Only One RO required to be in the Control Room.
.C
115
Friday, uecemDer If, 2004 8:45:39 M
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
G2.2.28 Equipment control - Knowledge of new and spent fuel movement procedures.
Determine the appropriate action for given conditions during performance of UOP-4.1
(OPS40503B03).
modified from INTRO TS-52302A03 #26
Source: 2001 nrc exam
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
64. (02.2.3 01/3,12/RCP/CIA 3.1/3.3/NEW/FA011005/RO/
Both Units are operating at 22% power. Both units 4160v Busses A, B and C are
powered from their respective Startup Transformers.
Due to Severe Weather, the 2A Startup Transformer and 1 B Startup Transformer trip
due to Sudden Pressure.
Which one of the following shows the correct Reactor Coolant Pumps (RCPs) that will
be running after the event?
C. 2A RCP and 1 B and 1 C RCPs.
D. 2B and 2C RCPs and 1 B and I C RCPs.
L
_-
_
_
__
_
_
_
_
_
__
Unit 2 - 2A SU Xformer supplies power to the 2B and 2C 41 60v bus.
Unit 1 - 1 B Startup Transformer supplies power to the 1 B and 1 C 4160v bus.
This is a difference between the units in that U-2 has a different SU xformer supplies to
the SU busses than U-1.
A. Correct- 2A RCP and IA RCP.
Since 2A and 1 B SU xformer trips this means 2B and 2C and 1 B and 1 C RCPs will be
tripped. Therefore the 2A and 1A RCPs will be running.
B. Incorrect - This is for the 2B SU and the 1 B SU tripping.
C. Incorrect - This is for the 2A SU and the 1 A SU tripping.
D. Correct - This is for the 26 SU and the IA SU tripping.
G2.2.3 Equipment control - (multi-unit) Knowledge of the design, procedural and
operational differences between units.
Identify the power supply for the following (OPS40301 D04):
& Reactor coolant pumps (A, B and C)
Identify the power supply for each major electrical component associated with the
Intermediate and Low Voltage AC Distribution System including (OPS401 02B04):
- 4160V AC Buses
117
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
65. 02.3.2 )01/3/3/ALARA/MEM 2.5/2.9/BANK'FAO 1005/ROI
___
_
A valve four feet inside a valve room is producing a 0.2 R/hr field at one feet
(30 centimeters) from the valve.
Which one of the following identifies the proper posting requirement for this room?
A. CAUTION, RADIATION AREA
BY CAUTION, HIGH RADIATION AREA
C. DANGER, EXCLUSION AREA
D. GRAVE DANGER, VERY HIGH RADIATION AREA
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118
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect -this is 200 mr/hr and is too high for a radiation area.
B. Correct- CAUTION, HIGH RADIATION AREA
C. Incorrect - an exclusion area is > 1 rem/hr
D. Incorrect- not high enough for this designation
Reference:CFR: 43.4/45.10
OPS-30401A, Health Physics
POSTINGS
DOSE RATE (mrem/hr)
DISTANCE FROM SOURCE
Radiation Area
> 5 but < 100
30 cm (12 inches)
> 100
30 cm
Exclusion Area
> 1000 or at HP Mgr's Direction
30 cm
Very High Radiation Area
> 500 rads/hr
1 meter
Types of Postings
Several different types of radiological conditions may exist in the plant. High radiation levels and
contaminated areas are some examples. Before entering any type of radiological area, you must meet the
requirements of the RWP. The following are common types of postings that may be encountered in the
plant, and what they mean:
- Radiation Controlled Area - this is an area with restricted access to make individuals knowledgeable of
possible exposure to radiation and radioactive material.
- Radiation Area - This is an area with a dose rate greater than 5 mrem per hour, 30 cm (appox.12") from
the source of radiation. It is posted with a 4-sided rectangle shaped sign.
- High Radiation Area (See Figure 13) -This is an area with a dose rate of greater than 100 mrem per
hour, 30 cm (appox.12") from the source. This is posted with a triangle shaped (3 sided) sign.
X Exclusion Area (See Figure 14) - This is a special type of High Radiation Area where you could receive
greater than one rem/hr at 30 cm (appox. 12"). The access to this area is normally locked due to the high
dose rate. (This area is posted with an 8-sided sign that is the same shape as a traffic control stop sign.)
Very High Radiation Area (See Figure 15) - This is an area which has the words "GRAVE DANGER,
VERY HIGH RADIATION AREA". This area has the potential of being greater than 500 rad
(usually same as rem) per hour at 1 meter.
Very High Radiation Areas will be controlled similar to 'Exclusion Areas", with additional measures taken
to ensure that an individual is not able to gain unauthorized or inadvertent access to the area. This is
posted with an 8-sided sign (shaped like traffic control stop sign).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:39 AM
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
G2.3.2 Radiation Control - Knowledge of facility ALARA program.
List four types of areas posted based on radiation levels and the radiation
levels/distances that require them to be posted (OPS30401A22).
Describe the posting and entry requirements for a High Radiation Area.
(GEN401 03E-01)
Describe the posting and entry requirements for an Exclusion Area.
(GEN401 03E-02)
Describe the posting and entry requirements for a Very High Radiation Area.
(GEN401 03E-03)
Identify the following radiological areas and postings: (GEN401 03D-01)
- Radiation Controlled Area (RCA)
¢ Radiation Area
7 Exclusion Area
- Very High Radiation Area (VHRA)
e Airborne Radioactivity Area
- Radioactive Materials Area
- Radiologically Restricted Area (RRA)
HEALTH PHY-30401A22 #19
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:39 AM
120
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
66. 02.3.4 001/3/3/RAD EXPOSURE LIMITS/MEM 2.5/3.1/BANK/FAOI 1005/RO/
_
_
A member of the search and rescue team has received 2 REM TEDE this year. He
spent 15 minutes in an area with a general area radiation level of 40 R/hr gamma,
while searching for missing persons known to be injured in a waste gas decay tank
explosion. Self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) units are being used by this
person while search and rescue is being performed.
Which one of the following is the MAXIMUM additional whole body exposure that this
individual may be required to recieve in accordance with EIP-14, Personnel Movement,
Relocation, Re-entry and Site Evacuation, while searching for other victims?
A. 2 Rem
B. 5 Rem
C.? 15 Rem
D. 25 Rem
121
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:40 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect -This is the Admin limit for TEDE
B. Incorrect- This is the 1 OCFR20 limit for TEDE
C. Correct - 15 Rem
25 Rem allowed; used 10 rem already during 15 minutes; therefore,
25 - (40/4) = 25 - 10 = 15 Rem remaining
D. Incorrect- This is the maximum limit w/o subtracting the 10 rem.
Reference: CFR: 43.4 45.10 EIP-14
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313
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G2.3.4 Radiation Control - Knowledge of radiation exposure limits and contamination
control; including permissible levels in excess of those authorized.
Determine the actions to be taken by the re-entry personnel if dose rates during
re-entry exceed the dose limits given. (OPS40105B9*). (EIP-1 4.0)
EPIP PERS-40501B09 #19
122
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:40 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
_67.
G2.4.23 001/3/4/SOP-0.8/C/A 2.8/3.8INEW/FA011005/RO/
0
Which one of the following provides the correct priority and reason for monitoring of
Critical Safety Function Status Trees (CSFSTs)?
CSFSTs should be monitored......
AM for information only if ECP-0.0, Loss of All AC, is in effect because none of the ESF
equipment is available.
B. and implemented upon first entering EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, to
protect the barriers and to prevent radiation release.
C. for information only if EEP-0 is in effect because CSFSTs assume two trains of ESF
equipment will be available.
D. initially for information only and then implemented when ECP-0.0 is in effect and all
attempts to restore emergency power have been unsuccessful, to protect the
barriers and to prevent radiation release.
References: SQP-0.8 para. 4.0 and all subparagraphs
A. Correct, for information only if ECIP-0.0, Loss of All AC, is in effect because
none of the ESF equipment Is available.
page 30 of OPS-52301 B, emergency response procedures, says
Direct entry into ECP-O.O due to loss of AC power on alt AC emergency buses is expected to be a rare
occurrence. However, once in ECP-0.0, special considerations come into effect. Because none of the
electrically powered safeguards equipment used to restore CSFs is operable, none of the FRPs can be
implemented. A NOTE at the beginning of Procedure ECP- 0.0 states that, "CSF status trees should be
monitored for information only. FRPs should not be implemented." Once in ECP-0.C, the operator
performs the required actions and is not allowed to transition to any other procedure until some form of
power is restored to one AC emergency bus. Even then, permission is not granted to implement FRPs
until some initial status checks and actions are performed by the operator.
B. Incorrect- the initial stage of EEP-0 ensures barrier protection
C. Incorrect- only one train is required
D. Incorrect- CSFs are not implemented until the operator performs the required
actions and is not allowed to transition to any other procedure until some form of power
is restored to one AC emergency bus. Even then, permission is not granted to
ite
initial statu
checks and actions are
erformed by the
operator.
123
Friday, December 17, 2004 b:4b:4U AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
G2.4.23 - Emergency Procedures / Plan - Knowledge of the bases for prioritizing
emergency procedure implementation during emergency operations.
List the basic categories of emergency transients as categorized by the Emerger
Response Procedures (ERPs) (OPS52301 B01).
List the critical safety functions in order of priority and describe how the critical sc
functions protect the barriers to radiation release (OPS52301 B03).
Identify when the critical safety function status trees (CSFSTs) must be monitore
(OPS52301 B08).
icy
ifety
d
124
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:40 AM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for HLT-29 EXAM 12-13-2004
3.2.4.31 001/3/4/WANNUNCIATORS/MEM 3.3/3.4/NEW/FAO1 1005!RO/
_
_
__
Unit 1 is currently in EEP-1.0, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant. Concerning
annunciators as thev come in to alarm, which one of the following describes the actions
[
required associated with the alarm?
A. All annunciators need to be announced after entry into the ERGs and responded to
by a plant operator in an expeditious manner.
B. Annunciators should NOT be announced until after entry into the ERGs. After
entry, they all should be responded to by a plant operator in an expeditious manner.
C. All annunciators that have a direct effect on the execution of the emergency
procedure in effect should be announced and responded to immediately.
DI Annunciators that have a direct effect on the execution of the emergency procedure:
in effect should be announced and responded to when plant conditions and
procedures allow time to do so.
A. Incorrect- All do not need to be announced.
B. Incorrect- Only those Annunciators that have a direct effect on the execution of the
emergency procedure in effect should be announced and responded to when plant
conditions and procedures allow time to do so.
C. Incorrect- All Annunciators do not have to be announced once in the ERGs, and
they do not all have to be responded to immediately.
D. Correct- Annunciators that have a direct effect on the execution of the
emergency procedure in effect should be announced and responded to when
plant conditions and procedures allow time to do so.
See the procedure below.
Reference:
CFR: 41.10 / 45.3
Operations Policy:
Annunciator Response Policy
General - The purpose of this policy is to describe the expected response of control room operators to
annunciators received in the control room and provide consistency among different crews. The intent of
the policy is to ensure that appropriate members of the control room team are kept aware of plant
conditions during routine operations while minimizing distractions during emergency conditions.
- During ERG and AOP conditions, annunciators should not be announced unless the alarm has
direct effect on the execution of the auplicable ERG/AOP. Annunciators and associated
should
be responded to when
Dlant
conditions and ERG/AOP
procedures allow time to do so. It
mayeto
an
extra member of the team in order to expediti
ly
resDofld to alarms.
Tuesday, December 28, 2004 10:03:31 AM
QUESTIONS REPORT
for HLT-29 EXAM 12-13-2004
G2.4.31 - Emergency Procedures / Plan - Knowledge of annunciators alarms and
indications, and use of the response instructions.
Describe the process for communication of annunciators in the control room
(OPS52303C01).
Time:
I
Points:
1.00
Version:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Answer: DDDDDDDDDD
Group:
Tier:
Keyword:
Source:
Test:
3
Items Not Scrambled
4
MEM 3.3/3.4
FA01 1005
NEW
Cog level:
Exam:
Author/Reviewer:
2
Tuesday, December 28, 2004 10:03:31 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
69. G2.4.39 _01t/3/4/EMERG P[AN/MFM 3.3/3.1/BANK/FAO1100S/RO/
____
During an emergency, a Reactor Operator has determined a need to make an
emergency deviation from Technical Specifications to protect the public health and
safety. Which one of the following is an acceptable way to accomplish this IAW
AP-6.0, Procedure Adherence?
A? The RO must get approval from the Shift Manager prior to taking the action.
B. The RO must get approval from any licensed SRO prior to taking the action.
C. The RO may take the action and must notify the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
within 15 minutes.
D. The RO may take the action and must notify the Shift Manager immediately after
the action was taken.
Reference:
CFR: 45.11
OPS-52303E, AP-6 Procedure Allowance
4.2 Emergency deviations from Technical Specifications are authorized subject to the
following conditions:
4.2.1 Action is needed immediately to protect the public health and safety.
4.2.2 No action consistent with Technical Specifications that can provide
adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent.
4.2.3 The Shift Supervisor, Shift Manager, Operations Manager or
Emergency Director approves the action.
A. Correct - The RO must get approval from the Shift Manager prior to taking the
action.
This is one of 4 people that can approve of this action PRIOR to doing it.
B. Incorrect- There are only 4 classifications that can approve this action.
C. Incorrect - RO can NOT take the action first and NRC notification is not required by
the RO.
D. Incorrect- RO can NOT take the action first.
G2.4.39 - Emergency Procedures / Plan - Knowledge of the RO's responsibilities in
emergency plan implementation.
Explain management's expectations associated with authorizing procedural deviations
(OPS52303E01).
PLT OPER-40502H07 #2
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:41 AM
127
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
70. W/E02EA2.1
1/1/,i2/ESP-1.1/C,/A 3.3/4.2/BANK/FA011005/RO/
___
The following conditions exist on Unit 1:
- A small break LOCA is in progress.
- MSIVs have just closed due to a slow increase in containment pressure.
The operators are evaluating SI termination criteria in EEP-1.0, Loss of Reactor or
Secondary Coolant, with plant parameters as follows:
- RCS pressure is 1700 psig and stable.
- CETCs indicate 5700F.
e SMM indication is 18'F.
- Total AFW flow is 400 gpm.
- PZR level is 42% and rising.
Based on these known conditions, which one of the following actions should the
operators take?
A. Transition to ESP -1.1, SI Termination.
Bi Remain in EEP-1.0 and continue through the procedure.
C. Transition to ESP -1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, immediately.
D. Remain in EEP -1.0 and continue to the step to check RCS pressure rising, then
return to the beginning of EEP-1.0.
At this step in EEP-t1.0, with Ctmt press at >16 #, adverse #s are in affect.
With Pzr level < 50% and SCCM < 450F the operator would go past ESP-1.1 and
continue in EEP-1.0.
A. Incorrect - Terminating the SE with a known LOCA at this step is not correct. The
procedure has the Operator continue in E-1 to ESP-1.2 aftre other steps are
completed.
B. Correct- Remain In EEP-1.0 and continue through the procedure.
With a known LOCA and Ctmt pressure rising, the procedure is completed to a
diagnostic step to either go to ESP-1.2 or 1.3.
C. Incorrect- This will occur later in the procedure when LHSI parameters are checked,
but it is not done at this time.
D. incorrect- This would be correct for a steam space break.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:41 AM
128
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
W/EO2EA2.1 Si Termination - Ability to determine and interpret the following as they
apply to the (Si Termination): Facility conditions and selection of appropriate
procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.
Evaluate plant conditions and determine if transition to another section of ESP-1 .1 or to
another procedure is required. (OPS52531 E08)
EEP-1 -5253OB08 #1
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:41 AM
129
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
71. W/EO4EK3.2 001/1/1/ECP-I.2/MEM 3.4/3.9/BANK/FA011005/RO/
_-
A small break LOCA has occurred outside containment.
Actions of ECP-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, have been <
pressure continues to decrease. A transition is made to ECP
Coolant Recirculation.
Which one of the following describes the reason a transition i
completed
-1.1, Loss
and RCS
of Emergency
s made to ECP-1 .1 ?
A. To terminate the offsite release.
B. To recover after the break was isolated.
C. To secure all pumps that are running in order to preserve inventory.
D?' To take compensatory actions for lack of inventory in the containment sump.
A. Incorrect- ECP-1.1 will not terminate any release. It takes care of equipment without
any suction and fills the RWST. Since ECP-1.1 has been entered b/c the leak could
NOT be isolated, the candidate may believe ECP-1.1 will take care of the release in
progress.
B. Incorrect - This would be correct for EEP-1.0 transition.
C. Incorrect- To secure equipment that is running in order to preserve inventory. This is
true in that some pumps will be secured if RWST level is less than 4.5 feet, but if the
level is higher, the pumps will not be secured unless they are not required for this
accident. The pumps are being secured to protect them from damage and to evaluate
which ones are required for the accident in progress. Also 1 train of ECCS equipment is
checked running which shows not all pumps are secured.
D. Correct- To take compensatory actions for lack of inventory in the containment
sump.
The only two exits from ECP-1 .2 are a transition to EEP-1 when the leak is isolated to
recover the plant or to ECP-1.1 to recover inventory. Prior to transition out of the
ECP-1.2, HP is notified to take surveys in the AB and personnel are sent to inspect the
AB looking for the leak. This actually delays going to the ECP-1.1 procedure.
ECP-1.2, LOCA OUTSIDE CONTAINMENT, has been developed to attempt to isolate a
LOCA outside containment. This procedure is entered from EEP-0 or EEP-1 based on indication
of abnormal auxiliary building radiation or an iSLOCA outside containment . There are two
transitions from this procedure. First, if the break is isolated based upon increasing RCS
pressure, the operator is transferred to EEP-1, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY
COOLANT. Second, if the break cannot be isolated, the operator is sent to ECP-1. 1, LOSS OF
EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION, since there will not be any fluid inventory in
the containment sump to provide recirculation capability.
130
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:41 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
W/EO4EK3.2 LOCA outside containment - Knowledge of the reasons for the following
responses as they apply to the LOCA outside containment:
Normal, Abnormal and emergency operating procedures associated with (LOCA
outside containment)
Analyze plant indications to determine the successful completion of any step in
ECP-1.2 (OPS52532E07).
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if entry into ECP-1.2 is required
(OPS52532E02).
ECP-1.2-52532E03 #1
Source: Byron 2000-301
2001 nrc exam
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:41 AM
131
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
72. W/EO8G2.4.48_OO1/l/2/PTS/C/A3.5/3.8/NEW/FAO1100S/RO/
_
_
_
A steam break has occurred on Unit 1 affecting ALL steam generators. ECP-2.1,
Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators, has been entered.
At time 0900 the following conditions existed:
- RCS cold leg temperatures A = 4850F,
B = 4820F,
C = 4800F
A = 42%,
B40%,
C= 41%
- AFW flow
A = 135 gpm, B = 140 gpm, C = 145 gpm
- RCS pressure Pi 402 = 1400 psi
PI 403 = 1450 psi
At time 1000 the following conditions exist:
1 RCS cold leg temperatures A = 3500F, B = 3480F,
C = 3550F
' All RCS hot leg temperatures are continuing to decrease slowly.
A = 22%,
B20%,
C= 21%
- AFW flow
A = 50 gpm, B = 50 gpm, C = 5o gpm
P1403 = 1450 psi
Based on the above information, which one of the following is the correct action to
take in regards to AFW flow and the reason for that action?
AY Throttle AFW flow to as low as 20 gpm to prevent SG tube damage and control
RCS hot leg temperature stable or falling.
B. Stop AFW flow to All SGs to stop the cooldown of the ROS and to prevent brittle
fracture of the beltline region the of the reactor vessel.
C. Throttle AFW flow to one SG to 20 gpm and stop AFW flow to the other two SGs to
maintain one SG available for cooldown and to prevent SG tube damage to the
other two SGs.
D. Increase AFW flow to greater than 395 gpm to prevent entry into FRP-H.1,
Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, and maintain SG water levels above the
SG tube bundle to prevent tube damage.
_.0~. AA ARA
132
riluay, uvuilcuw'
, "
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Reference ECP-2.1, OPS-52532F and CSF-0.0
A. Correct, Throttle AFW flow to as low as 20 gpm to prevent SG tube damage and
control RCS hot leg temperature stable or falling.
This is the correct action to take in ECP-2.1. 20 GPM is to limit the cooldown of the
RCS to prevent a PTS concern and to maintain SG flow to prevent SG tube damage
during a time when the SG may be hot and operating with a very low level of liquid
available in the SG for proper heat transfer.
B. Incorrect, Stopping AFW flow to any SG is incorrect as tube damage could result.
The reason given is for PTS concerns and P.1 is not in effect at this time due to RCS
temp and pressure.
C. Incorrect -Throttling AFW flow to just 1 SG is not an option in the procedure. Step 4
has the team maintain at least 20 gpm to SGs with NR < 31%. Also allowing 2 SGs to
dry out is a concern for tube damage, we don't allow them to dry out to prevent tube
damage.
D. Incorrect, the note prior to step 5 states:
NOTE:
Throttling AFW flow in the following RNO step may result in a Red Path.
However, transition to FNP-1-FRP-H.1, RESPONSE TO LOSS OF SECONDARY
HEAT SINK should only be made when AFW flow of 395 gpm is unavailable, and NOT
due to deliberate operator action. Step 5 has the operator reduce AFW flow to <20 gpm
if RCS cooldown is >1 000F in 60 min period and then to stabelize or cause HL
temperature to decrease.
W/E08 RCS OVERCOQOLING - PTS G2.4.48 - Ability to interpret control room
indications to verify the status and operation of system, and understand how operator
actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.
Analyze plant indications to determine the successful completion of any step in
ECP-2.1. (OPS52532F07)
Evaluate plant conditions and determine if transition to another section of ECP-2.1 or to
another procedure is required. (OPS52532F08)
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if the critical safety functions are satisfied while
performing ECP-2.1. (OPS52532F09)
ECP-2.1-52532F06 #2
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:42 AM
133
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
73. W/EO9EK3.3 001/I/2/ESP-0.l/C/A 3.5/3.6/MOD/FA01 1005/RO/
_ _
_
ESP-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, has been entered following an LOSP. A check of
RCP support conditions is in progress to determine if RCPs can be started.
The following conditions exist:
@ HH1,
2 and 3, RCP 1A,1B and 1C UPPER/LOWER OIL RES LO LVL
annunciators are in alarm.
- Off-Site Power has been restored.
e RCS AT is 68'F and increasing.
- SG pressure is rising.
- RCS subcooling is 25'F.
o Przr level is 25% and rising.
e RCS Hot Leg temperatures are rising.
Which one of the following is the correct action and the reason for the action
considering the above indications?
A? Dump steam at a faster rate to improve natural circulation.
B. Start the 1 6 RCP to reduce Delta T to get forced flow through the core.
C. Secure dumping steam to increase Delta T and improve natural circulation.
D. Align emergency boration and borate to Cold Shutdown boron concentration to
establish adequate shutdown margin.
A. Correct- Dump steam at a faster rate to improve natural circulation.
This is IAW the procedure to improve NC flow at step 15 RNO.
B. Incorrect- All of the start criteria is not met so a RCP can not be started.
C. Incorrect- Stopping steam dumping will slow down or stop NC flow.
D. Incorrect- Establishing CSD born concentration on a heatup is not required.
Emergency boration requirements have not been met so this is incorrect. Also with the
plant heating up, SDM is increasing.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:42 AM
134
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
W/EO9 EK3.3 Natural Circulation - Knowledge of the reasons for the following
responses as they apply to the (Natural Circulation Operations):
Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal,
and emergency situations.
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated
while performing ESP-O. 1. (OPS52531 B06)
modified from ESP-0.1 -52531 B06 #2
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:43 AM
135
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
74. NV/El1G2.4.20 01'I /1l/ECP-1.1/C'./A 3.3/4.0/NEW/FA0 1005,/RO/
Unit 1 had completed ESP-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation, and transferred
back to EEP-1 .0, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant. Both RHR pumps have
oscillating amps, discharge pressure and flow. Both CS pumps have oscillating
discharge flow. ECCS sump level is reading 3.8 feet.
ECP-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, has been entered.
Which one of the following is the action that needs to be taken and the most likely
cause of the problem?
A. Secure one train of RHR pumps, HHSI pumps and CS pumps since the flow rate is
too high to support both trains running with all sump screens clogged.
B. Secure BOTH trains of RHR and CS pumps since the flow rate is too high to
support both trains running with all sump screens clogged.
C? Secure BOTH trains of RHR pumps, HHSI pumps and CS pumps since insufficient
NPSH or vortexing may exist due to the low sump level.
D. Secure one train of RHR and CS pumps since insufficient NPSH or vortexing may
exist due to the low sump level.
R
_
A
136
r I uay, U.,Ue, I uel
I , cuvv~.1.~'
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect - Securing one train will not correct the problem and since the sump
suctions are located so far from each other this will not be a common cause and is not
MOST likely the problem. One train being secured will not decrease the flowrate for the
other train and will not correct the problem.
B. Incorrect - Securing both trains of RHR without securing the HHSI pump would
damage the HHSI pump. Not the correct action to take.
C. Correct - Secure Both RHR pumps, HHSI pumps and CS pumps since
insufficient NPSH or vortexing may exist due to the low sump level.
Securing all the pumps taking a suction on the EGCS sump would be the correct action
to prevent damage to the pump. The ECCS sump level could be raised and correct the
problem. The Caution and Note of ECP-1.1 say the pumps should be secured if the
suction is lost and the intent of the Note is to point out that if both trains are affected,
then the problem is most likely a common problem (ie. sump level) which the note
alludes to by giving the 4.8 feet level.
D. Incorrect - The operator would not leave the HHSI pumps running due to the lineup.
The RHR pumps are now supplying the HHSI pumps with their water source and if they
are secured, the HHSI pumps will run dry and damage will occur. Securing one train will
not alleviate the problem since it is a common cause problem.
CAUTION: Si or spray pump damage will occur if suction is lost and the pump is not secured.
NOTE: IF both trains of RHR have lost emergency coolant recirculation capability AND ECCS sump level
is approximately 4.8 ft or less, THEN the loss may be due to insufficient NPSH or air entrainment
(vortexing) due to the low ECCS sump level.
W/E1 I G2.4.20 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc - Knowledge of operational
implications of EOP warnings, cautions, and notes.
State the basis for all cautions, notes, and actions associated with ECP-1 .1
(OPS52532D03).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:44 AM
137
HLT-29 SRQ exam submitted 12-14-2004
75. W/E14EA1.1 001/1/2/IŽBLOCAICiA 3.7/3.7/BANK/FA01 1005/RO/
_
A dual Unit Loss of Site Power (LOSP) has occurred. The following conditions also
exist 3 minutes into the LOSP:
- Unit 2 has had a spurious Si.
- 1 B Diesel Generator has tripped.
Five minutes later Unit 1 has a Large Break LOCA. Which one of the following is a
load that is required to be started in this condition that will have to be manually started
by the OATC and the reason?
A. Service Water Pumps; Unit 1 'A' Train ESS sequencer will not run for this event.
By Containment Spray Pumps; Unit 1 'A' Train ESS sequencer will not run for this
event.
C. Control Room Air Conditioners; Unit 1 'A' Train ESS sequencer will not energize
MCC 1 F for this event.
D. 1 A Air Compressor; Unit 1 'A' Train ESS sequencer will not energize 1 C Air
Compressor for this event.
AAA
138
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Unit 2 will get 1-2A DG and it has the 2B DG running. All ESF loads will be running.
The subsequent SI on unit 1 with no B Train power will only run the LOSP sequencer.
The SI sequencer will not run due to the fact that the 1 C DG is on that bus and an
LOSP signal is in. The only loads that do not start when the LOSP sequencer runs that
would run off the SI sequencer is the Ctmt spray pumps, RHR pumps, Rx cavity H2
dilution fans. The operator is required to start the CS pumps. They are required to be
operating w/i 55 seconds of the CS actuation signal which in this case is a few minutes
after the LOCA.
A. Incorrect - Service Water pumps come off both the ESS and LOSP sequencer so
they will be running. The steps on the SW pumps are different than other pumps in
that 1 SW pump starts at step 2 and 3 of the LOSP seq. and step 3 of the ESS seq.
The second part of this is a correct statement in that the ESS seq. will not run.
B. Correct - Containment Spray Pumps; Unit 1 'A' Train ESS sequencer will not
run for this event.
page 13
Containment spray is required to deliver flow to the spray nozzles within 55 seconds from the
generation of the containment spray actuation signal. To accomplish this, the containment spray pumps
must be assigned to step 2 of the load sequencers. An LOSP is assumed to occur coincident with the
generation of the containment spray actuation signal, so that time must be allowed for the diesel
generator to start, the motor-operated valves to open, and flow to be delivered to the spray nozzles. A
small time margin is incorporated to account for the closure of the pump breakers and any inaccuracies of
the assumed times.
Upon receipt of the LOSP and SI actuation signals, all diesel generators would start and energize
their respective emergency bus or buses. The 1 -2A diesel generator aligns to the A train of the unit that
received the SI first. The other A train diesel generator, the 1 C diesel, aligns to the other unit's A train.
Since the 1-2A diesel generator is the only A
ai diesel generator with th
apacit
to operate all
reauire/ ESS loads, the A train ESS sequencer memories will oniv allow the unit with the 1-2A diesel
generator to run its ESS sequencer The unit with the 1 C diesel generator will run its A train LOSP
sequencer. The train dedicated I B and 2B diesel generators align to their respective B train buses. Since
both B train dedicated diesel generators have the capacity to operate all required ESS loads, both B train
ESS sequencers run.
C. Incorrect - the CR A/C will be supplied power from F MCC which is not load shed but
does have a 60 sec TD that allows for the seq. to run prior to allowing the CRAC to
start. This is a relatively new design change.
C.5.9 CONTROL ROOM AIR CONDITIONER
Compressor units and blower units are fed from MCCs F and G.
Control Room temperature must be maintained at some reasonable level hut it is not
critical that the air conditioner system start operating during initial diesel loading.
Therefore, a tme delayrelay reventsthe controlroomairconditioner syemfom
operating until one minute after the diesel breaker closes. This places initial control room
air conditioner start (under diesel power), after the final sequence steR, minimizing voltage
dips during sequencing.
D. Incorrect - The 0 Air comp. will be sequenced on by both sequencers and will be
running. If for some reason the 1 C AC was not powered up, then the procedure would
ahve the 1A AC placed in service manually.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:44 AM
139
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
W/E1 4 High Containment Pressure
EAI.1 - Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (High
Containment Pressure): Components, and functions of control and safety systems,
including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual
features. RO 3.7
Evaluate plant conditions to determine if any system components need to be operated
while performing FRP-Z.1/Z.2/Z.3. (OPS52533M06)
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Diesel Generator
Sequencers System and determine the local actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS40102D12).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:44 AM
140
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
76. 002A2.03 001/i2/2/'NATURAL CLRC/C/A 4.3,NEW/FAO1 1005/S/GTO
Unit 2 is at 8% power with a startup in progress with the following conditions:
o An electrical fault occurs due to a grid perturbation.
- 2A, 2B & 2C 4160V busses are de-energized.
- All other 4160V busses remain energized after the perturbation and
voltage is stable.
Which one of the following is the correct plant response and then procedural flow path
for the above conditions?
A. An automatic reactor trip will occur; enter EEP-O, Reactor Trip or Safety injection,
ESP-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, ESP-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown to prevent
Vessel Head Steam Voiding.
B. An automatic reactor trip will occur; enter EEP-O, ESP-O.1, UOP-2.3, Shutdown of
Unit Following Reactor Trip.
C. An automatic reactor trip will NOT occur; enter AOP-4.0 and trip the reactor, then
go to EEP-0, ESP-0. 1, and UOP-2. 1.
Do An automatic reactor trip will NOT occur; enter AOP-4.0, Loss of Reactor Coolant
Flow, then shutdown per UOP-2.1, Shutdown of Unit from Minimum Load to Hot
Standby, and return to AOP-4.0 for additional guidance.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:45 AM
141
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect. Below P-7 (10%), loss of all RCPs does not initiate Auto Reactor trip. If it
did, since there is no reason given to require a cooldown, ESP-0.2 would be
incorrect anyway.
B. Incorrect. Below P-7 (1 0%), loss of all RCPs does not initiate Auto Reactor trip. If it
did, such as if this occured above 1 0%, the procedure flow path would be correct.
C. Incorrect. Even though manually securing RCPs at power without tripping the
Reactor first is prohibited by plant policy, Tech Specs allows controlled shutdown
after RCPs trip at power as long as the permissives are met (<P-7 for loss of all
RCPs & <P-8 for loss of up to two ROPs). UOP-2.1 would not be transitioned to from
ESP-0.1 unless 1 RCP was running.
D. Correct. An automatic reactor trip will NOT occur; enter AOP-4.0, Loss of
Reactor Coolant Flow, then shutdown per UOP-2.1 and return to AOP-4.0 for
additional guidance.
An automatic reactor trip will not occur. AOP-4.0 is entered when no auto trip is
supposed to occur or does not occur whenever any RCP trips in modes 1-4. The
procedure directs shutdown per UOP-3.1 & 2.1 within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> (which is also the
Tech Spec requirement). AOP-4 is being completed along with UOP guidance and
UOP-2.1 is set up for having at least 1 RCP running. Since no RCP is running,
AOP-4 will direct transition to ESP -0.2 or to start 1 RCP prior to transitioning out.
002A2.03 Reactor Coolant
A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the
RCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or
mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
(CFR: 41.5 1 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.5)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
A2.03 - Loss of forced circulation.
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Reactor Coolant
Pumps and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the consequence
of the abnormality (OPS521 01 D02).
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Reactor Coolant
System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the consequence
of the abnormality (OPS52101A02).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:45 AM
142
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
77. 004A2.14 001/2/1/EMER BORATE/C/A 3.9/,NEW/TAO 100S/S/CVKt'GTO _0
__
_
Given the following conditions during a ramp down IAW AOP-1 7.0, Rapid Load
Reduction:
o 2A BAT is on service.
- 2B BAT is on standby.
- FE2, CONT ROD BANK POSITION LO-LO, is in Alarm.
The OATC initiates an emergency boration using MOV-8104, EMERG BORATE TO
CHG PUMP SUCT, when the 2A BAT Pump trips and cannot be restarted.
Which one of the following actions will meet minimum AOP-27, Emergency Boration,
requirements for this situation?
A. Start the 2B BAT Pump, verify one letdown orifice on service, verify boration flow of
35 gpm and charging flow of 35 gpm.
Bi Start the 2B BAT Pump, verify two letdown orifices on service, verify boration flow
of 40 gpm and charging flow of 45 gpm.
C. Open LCV11 5B, RWST TO CHG PUMP and Close LCV1 15C, VCT OUTLET ISO,
verify one letdown orifice on service, and verify charging flow of 90 gpm.
D. Open LCV1 15D, RWST TO CHG PUMP and Close LCV1 15C, VCT OUTLET ISO,
verify two letdown orifices on service, and verify charging flow of 45 gpm.
A. INCORRECT. The AOP directs the emergency boration flow path to be aligned from
the Bat pump and this also requires two orifices on service and charging flow >40gpm,
which is clearly not the case here.
B. CORRECT. Start the 2B BAT Pump, two letdown orifices on service, boration
flow of 40 gpm and charging flow of 45 gpm.
Since the 2B Bat pump is available, the procedure has the team start that pump and
check for certain flow rates with 2 letdown orifices aligned. Charging flow rates are >40
gpm and normal boration flow is >30 gpm.
C. INCORRECT. If this path were to be used which is not the proper intent of this part
of the procedure, Two orifices must be aligned, not one, and charging flow must be >
92 gpm.
D. Incorrect - If this path were to be used which is not the proper intent of this part of
the procedure, Two orifices must be aligned which is correct, however charging flow
must be > 92 gpm.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
004A2.14 Chemical and Volume Control Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the
following malfunctions or operations on the CVCS; and (b) based on those predictions,
use procedures to correct, control,or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions
or operations:(CFR: 41.5/ 43/5 /45/3/ 45/5)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal abnormal, and emergency situations.
A2.14 - Emergency Boration
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Reactor Makeup
and Chemical Addition System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to
mitigate the consequence of the abnormality (0PS52101 G02).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:45 AM
144
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
78. 01 IEA2.13 001/1/1/LBLOCA/C/A 3.7NEW/FA01 1005/S/GTO
Unit 2 has experienced a Reactor Trip and Safety Injection due to a Large Break
LOCA. EEP-1.0, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, has just been entered.
Conditions are as follows:
@ Peak Containment pressure was 33 psig, but now is 3 psig and dropping.
- RCS Cold leg temperatures are 225'F.
- RCS Pressure is 15 psig.
e R-2, R-7, & R-1 1 are in alarm.
- LHSI flow is 3300 gpm.
Which one of the following procedural flow paths is correct and the reason?
A. Go to FRP-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Conditions,
and it WILL direct actions to mitigate the cooldown event.
B. Continue in EEP-1.0, and it WILL direct actions to mitigate the cooldown event.
C. Continue in EEP-1.0, but it will NOT direct actions to mitigate the cooldown event
because there is no concern for PTS during this plant condition.
D! Go to FRP-P.1, but it will NOT direct actions to mitigate the cooldown event
because there is no concern for PTS during this plant condition.
A. INCORRECT. FRP-P.1 step 1 will direct to procedure and step in effect.
B. INCORRECT. FRPs must be addressed when they are in effect. In this case, the
FRP-P.1 directs to discontinue use of the mitigation strategy at step one. PTS would
be a concern during this large of a cooldown if it was not caused by a large break
LOCA.
C. INCORRECT. FRPs must be addressed when they are in effect even though PTS
is not a concern during a LBLOCA.
D. CORRECT. Go to FRP-P.1, but It will NOT direct actions to mitigate the
cooldown event because there is no concern for PTS during this plant condition.
FRPs must be addressed when they are in effect. In this case, the FRP-P.1 directs to
discontinue use of the mitigation strategy for PTS Potential at step one. PTS is not a
concern during a large break LOCA.
.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
01 1 EA2.13 Large Break LOCA / 3 Ability to determine or interpret the following as they
apply to a Large Break LOCA:(CFR 43.5 / 45.13):
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
EA2.13 - Difference between overcooling and LOCA indications
State the basis for all cautions, notes, and actions associated with FRP-P.1/2
(0PS52533K03).
Assess plant conditions and determine if transition to another section of FRP-P.1/2 or
to another procedure is required (OPS52533K08).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:45 AM
146
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
79. 015i17AA2.08_001/1/1/RCP/C/A 3.5E/NW/FA01 1005/S/CVR'_GTO
____
Unit 2 is at 25% power when the following annunciators are received:
- DC2, RCP #1 SEAL LKOF FLOW HI
D0B5, 1 B RCP #2 SEAL LKOF FLOW HI
The unit operator reports the following plant indications:
o 1 B RCP #1 Seal leakoff Flow is 6.8 gpm.
- RCDT Level rise trend is 0.8 gpm.
1 B RCP Seal injection is 7.9 gpm.
- lB RCP Lower Seal Water Bearing temperature is 2270F and stable.
Which one of the following is the correct procedurally directed action?
A. Commence a shutdown to be in mode 3 in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.
Br Trip the reactor, secure 1 B RCP and close 1 B RCP seal leakoff valve, V81 41 B.
C. Hold power at 25%, contact the OPS Manager to obtain engineering support.
D. Secure 1 6 RCP and close 1 B RCP seal ieakoff valve, V81 41 B; initiate a shutdown
lAW AOP-4.0, Loss of Reactor Coolant Flow.
A. INCORRECT. This would be true if the seal bearing was <225 and stable, based on
the #1 seal leakoff flow being >6 but <8 gpm.
B. CORRECT. Trip the reactor, secure 1 B RCP and close 1 B RCP seal leakoff
valve 8141 B.
ARP 1.4 DC2 Step 6 RNO of immediate action directs this due to seal water bearing
temp >2250F.
C. INCORRECT. This would be true if the #1 seal leakoff was < 6 AND DB5 was NOT
in alarm (DC2 step 3 RNO).
D. INCORRECT. This is a valid distracter if the candidate believes securing the RCP at
power is a viable option. This is not guided in any procedure, but if a RCP were to
trip, this would be the correct actions to take.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:45 AM
147
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
015/1 7AA2.08 RCP Malfunctions / 4 Ability to determine and interpret the following as
they apply to the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow):
(CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
AA2.08 - When to secure RCPs on high bearing temperatures
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Reactor Coolant
Pumps and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the consequence
of the abnormality (OPS521 01 D02).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:45 AM
148
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
80. 02.50C2.1.32001/l/l/RHR TS/C'/A3.8/NEW/FAO11005s/S/CVR
-
_-_
Unit 1 is in Mode 6 with the refueling cavity at 153' 6". 1 A RHR pump is tagged out.
1 B RHR pump is being placed on service. Which one of the following is the flow
requirement for this condition and the reason for maintaining this flow?
A. Less than or equal to 1750 gpm; to prevent exceeding 110% of RHR design
discharge pressure during an ROS overpressurization event.
B. Less than or equal to 2750 gpm; to reduce the thrust loading of the RHR pump
thrust bearing.
¢! Greater than or equal to 3000 gpm; to prevent boron and thermal stratification and
provide sufficient decay heat removal.
D. Greater than or equal to 3300 gpm; to reduce the potential for pipe thinning due to
cavitation of the downstream orifices.
Reference TS 3.9.4 & bases
A. Incorrect- Less than or equal to 1750 gpm; to prevent exceeding 110% of RHR
design discharge pressure during an RCS overpressurization event.
This P&L does not apply in this condition.
3.17 In order to prevent exceeding 110% of RHR design discharge pressure during an
RCS overpressurization event; the minimum allowable flowrate, for Unit 1, is
1750 gpm when the RHR loop is aligned to the RCS. This limitation would not
be apuhicable when RCS overpressurization is not feasible (i.e.. with the reactor
vessel head removed. midloop. Reactor Vessel Cover installed, etc. Reference:
Westinghouse letter ALA-95-580).
B. Incorrect -
Less than or equal to 2750 gpm; to reduce the thrust loading of the RHR
pump thrust bearing.
This is incorrect b/c the P&L is to minimize the time less than 2750 gpm, not maintain
this flow rate.
3.18 When operating an RHR pump at a reduced flowrate, the time operating lessthan
2750 gpm should be minimized, when practical, to reduce thrust loading of the
RHIR pump thrust bearing. (IN 93-08; NMS-93-0181)
C. CORRECT. Greater than or equal to 3000 gpm; to prevent boron and thermal
stratification and provide sufficient decay heat removal.
P&L SOP-7.0, RHR system
IF in Mode 6, THEN maintain > or equal to 3000 gpm flow in the RHR loop required to be in
operation.
NOTE: IF RHR pump to be shutdown is running in parallel with another RHIR pump, THEN
adjust the RHR pump to remain in service's IA(1B) RHR HX DISCH VLNV HIK 603A(B) and
1A(lB) RHR HX BYP FLOW FK 605A(B) as required to control RCS temperature AND
maintain total RHR flow > 3000 gpm. IF in Mode 6, THEN maintain > or equal to 3000 gpm
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
149
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
flow in the RHR loop required to be in operation.
SR 3.9.4.1 every 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> maintain a flow rate of > or equal to 3000 gpm.
SURVEILLANCE SR 3.9.4.1 REQUIREMENTS
This Surveillance demonstrates that the RHR loop is in operation and circulating reactor coolant. The flow
rate is determined by the flow rate necessary to provide sufficient decay heat removal capability and
to prevent thermal and boron stratification in the core. The Frequency of 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> is sufficient, considering
the flow, temperature, pump control, and alarm indications available to the operator in the control
room for monitoring the RHR System.
D. incorrect- Greater than or equal to 3300 gpm; to reduce the potential for pipe
thinning due to cavitation of the downstream orifices.
NOTE: ¢ When RCS pressure is less than 50 psig, the time operating at greater than 3300
gpm through the cold lea iniection lines should be minimized to reduce the
potential for pipe thinning from possible cavitation downstream of the orifices.
(Ref ABN 95-0-0722).
025G2.1.32 Loss of RHR System /4 Ability to explain and apply all system limits and
precautions. (CFR: 41.10/43.2/ 45.12)
(2) Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.
1. Identify and apply the following Technical Specifications or TRM requirements,
including the bases and attendant equipment, associated with the Residual Heat
Removal System (OPS52101KO1).
( 3.9.4, Residual Heat Removal (RHR) and Coolant Circulation - High Water Level
- 3.9.5, Residual Heat Removal (RHR) and Coolant Circulation - Low Water Level
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
-i50
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
81. 026A2.08 001/2/1/CONTAINMENT SPRAY/C./A 3.7/BANK-20044/FA01100s/S/GTO
Given the following conditions on Unit 2:
- The plant was at 100% power when the 2A S/G Main Steam line ruptured
inside containment.
- All systems actuated as per design.
- Containment pressure spiked to 33 psig and is now continuing to decrease
slowly.
e The crew has entered ESP-.1, SI Termination.
Which one of the following provides the correct procedure which will align the
Containment Spray (CS) system and the plant parameters which allow for securing the
CS system?
A. ESP-1.1, SI Termination. Containment pressure is 12 psig and the RWST level is
10.5 feet and continuing to decrease.
BY ESP-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirc. Containment pressure is 15 psig and CS
has been aligned for recirculation flow for 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />.
C. ESP-1 .3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirc. Containment pressure is 16 psig and CS
has been aligned for recirculation flow for 7.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
D. ESP-1.1, SI Termination. Containment pressure is 15 psig, RWST level is <5.5 feet
and it has been 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> since the initiation of the event.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Meets 10 CFR 55.43 (b) 5 requirements for SRO level question.
The requirement to secure CS is found in EEP-1, ESP-1.3 AND ESP-1.1 (WHEN,
THEN statements). It is defined as 'WHEN CS recirculation flow has been aligned for
at least 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> and ctmt pressure is less than 16 psig THEN stop both CS pumps."
A - Incorrect, ESP-11.1 does provide guidance, but ESP-1.3 would be in progress at 4.5
ft in the RWST to commence placing the CS on recirc per the foldout page. In
ESP-1.3, at 4.5 ft, IF transfer to recirc is not imminent, THEN the CS pumps are
secured. This guidance is not in ESP-1.1. It takes about 1.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> to lower the RWST
to 4.5 ft with both spray pumps running with full flow: 2 x 2600 gpm/(60min/hr)=
-1 .5hrs. This is when the CS is initially placed on recirc. The requirement of 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />
on recirc could not have been met.
B - Correct, ESP-1.3, TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRC. CS has been aligned for
recirculation flow for 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> and containment pressure Is 15 psig.
ESP-1.3, does provide guidance; Containment pressure is <1 6# and the time on recirc
is > 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.
C - Incorrect, ESP-1.3, does provide guidance. The 7.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> of operation applies to
HHSI/LHSI transferring from Cold Leg recirc to Simultaneous hot/cold leg recirc, but is
not long enough to meet the 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> minimum for operation of CS on recirc prior to
securing CS.
D - Incorrect, ESP-1.1 does provide guidance, but 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> from the initiation of the
event is not long enough to have 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> of CS recirc time elapsed.
A2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the
CCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or
mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
SRO -A2.08 - Safe securing of containment spray (when it can be done).
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Containment
Spray and Cooling System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to
mitigate the consequence of the abnormality (OPS501 02C02).
Bank from 2004 NRC exam HLT 28A (NOT ON HLT 29 AUDIT)
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
152
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
82. 026AA2.02 001/1/1/'CCW/C/A 3.6/MOD/FAl 1 005/S/
_
_
__ _ _
_
_
Unit 1 is at 100% steady-state power with the following lineup:
miscellaneous header.
- 1 B CCW pump is out of service for maintenance.
The following alarms come in:
- AA4- CCW SRG TK LVL A TRN HI-LO
o AB4- CCW SRG TK LVL B TRN HI-LO
- AA5- CCW SRG TK LVL A TRN LO-LO
CCW surge tank level stabilizes at 20 inches. Which one of the following describes
the possible location of the leak and the correct operator response lAW AOP-9.0, Loss
of Component Cooling Water?
A. Letdown heat exchanger. Initiate makeup to the CCW surge tank; evaluate tripping
the reactor and RCPs due to imminent loss of CCW.
B3w One of the sample coolers. Initiate makeup to the CCW surge tank; do not
cross-connect CCW trains or transfer the miscellaneous header to the other train.
C. Seal water return heat exchanger. Trip the reactor and RCPs; transfer the
miscellaneous header to the opposite train to allow immediate restarting of the
ROIPs.
D. RCP motor oil cooler. Initiate makeup to the CCW surge tank; transfer the
miscellaneous header to the opposite train to allow continued operation while trying
to isolate the leak.
References:
A. INCORRECT. This leak would cause a rising ST level and cross connecting the
trains with the leak still in would not be correct.
B. CORRECT. One of the Sample coolers. Initiate makeup to the CCW surge
tank; do not cross-connect CCW trains or transfer the miscellaneous header to
the other train.
The sample coolers is the only choice that will isolate automatically - HV2229 is
closed on lo to level. The proper actions iaw AOP-9 is to fill the CCW ST and
continue operating.
C. INCORRECT. This would give these indications with the exception of isolating the
leak automatically. If the leak did not stop, these would be the correct actions.
D. INCORRECT. This would not auto isolate. This would be the actions if the leak were
not on the misc header.
_
.
-
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153
Friday. December I7, 2uuq 8:45:46 AMli
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
026AA2.02 Loss of Component Cooling Water /8 Abiity to determine and interpret the
following as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling Water: (CFR: 43.5 /4513)
The cause of possible CCW loss
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures durnng
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Component
Cooling Water System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate
the consequence of the abnormality (OPS52102G02).
AOP-9.0-52520106 #17
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
1 54
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
83. 028AA2.02 001/1/2/PZR LVIJG/A 3.8/NEW/FA0 I 1005/S/CVR/GTO
A Unit 2 startup is in progress with plant conditions as follows:
- Reactor Power is 54%.
Tavg 1A ROS LOOP, output is failed high.
Which one of the following is the correct pressurizer level, if the operator takes no initial
action, and the procedure the operator will use for the event?
Ar Pressurizer level will rise to approximately 50% and stabilize. Manual control of
FCV-1 22, Chg Flow Reg, will be required to control pressurizer level at program per,
SOP-2.1, Chemical and Volume Control System Plant Startup and Operation.
B. Pressurizer level will stabilize at approximately 36%. Manual control will not be
required and UOP-3.1, Power Operation, will be maintained as the controlling
procedure.
C. Pressurizer level will drop to approximately 21% and stabilize. Manual control of
FV-1 22, Chg Flow Reg, will be required to control pressurizer level at program per
SOP-2.1.
D. Pressurizer level will drop to to 15% causing an automatic isolation of Letdown.
Restoration of letdown per AOP-16.0, Loss of Letdown, and manual control of
FCV-122, Chg Flow Reg, will be required to control pressurizer level at program per
SOP-2. 1.
A. CORRECT. Pressurizer level will rise to approximately 50% and stabilize.
Manual control of FCV-122, Chg Flow Reg, will be required to control
pressurizer level at program per SOP-2.1, Chemical and Volume Control
System Plant Startup and Operation.
When B Tc fails high, B Tavg fails high also (B delta T fails low). this causes both A &
B loop Tavg to be failed high. That causes Median Tavg to fail high also which
causes Prz Program level to fail high. Program level is limited high to 50.2%.
B. INCORRECT. This would be correct if the failed B loop Tavg failed low instead of
high. If that were the case, the remaining operable C loop Tavg would be the
median signal.
C. INCORRECT. This would be correct if 2 out of 3 Tavg failed low instead of high.
D. INCORRECT. This would be correct if 2 out of 3 Tavg failed low instead of high AND
pzr level program was not limited low to 21.4%.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
028AA2.02 Pressurizer Level Malfunction / 2
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to
the Pressurizer Level Control Malfunctions: (CFR: 43.5/ 45.13)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
AA202 - PZR level as a function of power level or T-ave including interpretation of
malfunction
4. Predict and explain the following instrument/equipment response expected when
performing TAVG, .T, and PIMP System evolutions including the fail condition, alarms,
trip setpoints (OPS52201JO8):
^ Thot RTD fails high
¢ Thot RTD fails low
- Tcold RTD fails high
- Tcold RTD fails low
- PT-446 failures
- PT-447 failures
- High TAVG Alarm
- TAVG Deviation Alarm
- Rod Insertion Limit Computer
@ .T Deviation Alarm
o Steam Dump control
^ Pressurizer Level Control
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
156
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
84. 028G2.4.48 00112/2/112 RECOMB/C/A 3.8/BANK/FAO11005/S/CVR/GTO
Given the following plant conditions:
e A large break LOCA has occurred on Unit 2 thirty (30) minutes ago.
- Hydrogen concentration inside containment is 4.5%.
Which ONE of the following is the correct actions which should be taken within the next
30 minutes to reduce hydrogen concentration?
A. Place only ONE Post LOCA containment hydrogen recombiner in service at a
power setting of 100 kilowatts.
B. Place BOTH Post LOCA containment hydrogen recombiners in service at a power
setting of 50 kilowatts.
C! Evaluate placing the post LOCA containment pressurization and venting system in
service.
D. Evaluate placing the post LOCA containment air mixing system in service.
A - Incorrect, Recombiner operation should commence within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of the event,
however, the max power setting is initially set at approximately 68 kilowatts and
recombiners should not be put in service if hydrogen concentration is above 4%.
B - Incorrect, Recombiner operation should commence within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of the event,
however, the recombiners should not be put in service if hydrogen concentration is
above 4%.
C - Correct, Evaluate placing the post LOCA containment pressurization and
venting system in service.
Per EEP-1, the post accident containment venting system should be evaluated to be
placed in service when hydrogen concentration is above 4%.
D - Incorrect, The post LOCA containment air mixing system is used to prevent the
formation of hydrogen pockets and not to reduce the overall concentration.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
028G2.4.48
028 Hydrogen Recombiner and Purge Control
2.4.48 Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of
system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system
conditions.
(CFR: 43.5/ 45.12)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Post LOCA
Atmospheric Control System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to
mitigate the consequence of the abnormality (OPS521 02D02).
EEP-1 -52530B04 01
Source: Farley NRC Exam 1998
2001 nrc exam
Given the following plant conditions:
- A large break LOCA has occurred on Unit 2 thirty (30) minutes ago.
- Hydrogen concentration inside containment is 4.5%.
Which ONE of the following actions should be taken within the next 30 minutes to
reduce hydrogen concentration?
A. Place only ONE Post LOCA containment hydrogen recombiner is service at a power
setting of 100 kilowatts.
B. Place BOTH Post LOCA containment hydrogen recombiners in service at a power
setting of 50 kilowatts.
C. (CORRECT) Evaluate placing the post LOCA containment pressurization and
venting system in service.
D. Evaluate placing the post LOCA containment air mixing system in service.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
158
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
85. 029G2.4.21 OO1/1/l/ATWT/C/A 4.3/NFW/FAOl1100S/S/CVR/GTO
_
_
U nit 1 was at 100% when both SGFPs tripped. The Reactor failed to t
and manually and one Rod Control Motor Generator breaker did not tri
Current plant conditions are as follows:
- Manual Control Rod insertion in progress.
- Reactor Power is 1% and falling.
- Intermediate Range Startup rate is negative.
rip automatically
0 A Safety Injection has occurred.
Containment pressure is 16 psig and rising.
During the performance of FRP-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ ATWT,
at the step to Verify AFW pumps running, the following is reported by the Unit
Operator:
e Narrow Range Steam Generator water levels are: A-33%, B-35%, C-30%
- Total AFW flow of 200 gpm is the maximum obtainable.
Which one of the following is the correct procedural response?
A. Exit FRP-S.1 immediately. Enter FRP-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat
Sink.
Bv Complete FRP-S.1, then enter FRP-H.1.
C. Exit FRP-S.1 immediately. Enter EEP-0, then enter FRP-H.1 when directed by
EEP-0.
D. Complete FRP-S.1,
EEP-0.
then enter EEP-0, then enter FRP-H.1 when directed by
159
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect. Even though the red path on Subcriticality is no longer in, SOP-0.8 step
4.4 states that once a FRP is initiated due to a red or orange path the procedure
must be continued to the point that the procedure directs exit.
B. Correct. Complete FRP-S.1, then enter FRP-H.1.
The FRP-S.1 will be completed at step 14 and the red path (which is red due to
adverse numbers requiring at least one SG >48% NR LVL or AFW flow >395 gpm)
on heat sink will be addressed by FRP-H.1.
C. Incorrect. Even though the red path on Subcriticality is clear, SOP-0.8 states that
once a FRP is initiated due to a red or orange path the procedure must be
completed to the point that the procedure directs exit. During the performance of
FRP-S.1, the note prior to step 6 directs doing steps 1-15 of EEP-0 only as
manpower and time permit in conjunction with FRP-S.1.
D. Incorrect. This would be true if Adverse numbers were not in effect, or if >395 gpm
AFW flow was obtainable. Since there is a red path on Heat Sink, it must be
addressed, but not until FRP-S.1 directs exit.
029G2.4.21 ATWS / 1
2.4.21 Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety
functions including:
1. Reactivity control
2. Core cooling and heat removal
3. Reactor coolant system integrity
4. Containment conditions
5. Radioactivity release control.
(CFR: 43.5 /45.12)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
9. Using appropriate ERPs, recognize the symptoms and perform the procedural
guidance to mitigate the consequences of the conditions to include (OPS52504A09):
a. Reactor trip (w/wo stuck rod)
b. Safety injection (steam break, SGTR, LOCA, or Spurious)
c. Anticipated transient without trip (ATWT)
d. Reactor trip recovery
e. Si termination
f. Loss of secondary heat sink
g. Loss of forced flow
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
160
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
86. 032G2.4.46 001/1/2/SR NI/C/A 3.6iNEWFA) 11005/S/
Following a reactor trip, when both source range instruments are energized, the Unit
Operator discovers both source range instruments to have failed.
The following indications exist:
- Source range channel NI-31 is de-energized due to a blown fuse.
- Source range channel NI-32 has failed high.
Which one of the following lists ALL the annunciators that will be in alarm due to the
source range failures above and the minimum actions required to be taken within
one (1) hour IAW ESP-0.1, Reactor Trip Response and Technical Specifications ?
A. *FA2, SR HI FLUX AT SD ALARM BLKD.
- FA3, SR LOSS OF DETECTOR VOLTAGE.
-Verify adequate shutdown margin.
'Take the Hi Flux AT S/D switch on BOTH source range instruments to BLOCK.
'Verify Both Reactor Trip breakers open and CRDM MG set supply breakers open.
B. *FA2, SR Hi FLUX AT SID ALARM BLKD.
- FA3, SR LOSS OF DETECTOR VOLTAGE.
-Close unborated water source isolation valves.
-immediately suspend operations involving positive reactivity additions.
'Verify Both Reactor Trip breakers open and CRDM MG set supply breakers open.
00 'FA1 ,SR Hi FLUX AT S/D.
- FA3, SR LOSS OF DETECTOR VOLTAGE.
'Verify adequate shutdown margin.
-Close unborated water source isolation valves.
'Suspend operations involving positive reactivity additions.
D. *FA1,SR Hi FLUX AT S/D.
- FA2, SR Hi FLUX AT SD ALARM BLKD.
- Verify adequate shutdown margin.
'Take the Hi Flux AT SID switch on BOTH source range instruments to BLOCK.
-Verify Both Reactor Trip breakers open and CRDM MG set supply breakers open.
.
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect - FA2 will not come into alarm for this event. Adequate shutdown margin
within one hour and Verify Both Reactor Trip breakers open and CRDM MG set supply
breakers open is an ARP requirement for loss of both SRs when in Mode 2, not for this
event.
B. Incorrect -FA3 will come into alarm, but so will FA1. Close unborated water source
isolation valves within one hour and Immediately suspending operations involving
positive reactivity additions is correct but Verifying Both Reactor Trip breakers open
and CRDM MG set supply breakers open is an ARP requirement for loss of both SRs
when in Mode 2, not for this event.
C. Correct-
- FA1,SR Hi FLUX AT SID.
- FA3, SR LOSS OF DETECTOR VOLTAGE.
-Verify adequate shutdown margin.
- Close unborated water source isolation valves.
- Suspend operations involving positive reactivity additions.
TS 3.3.1 condition L
L. Required Source Range Neutron Flux channel inoperable.
L.1 Suspend operations involving positive reactivity additions. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />
AND
L.2 Close unborated water source isolation valves. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />
AND
L.3 Perform SR 3.1.1.1. Immediately and Once per 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> thereafter
D. Incorrect- FA2 will not come into alarm and Take the Hi Flux AT S/D switch on
BOTH source range instruments to BLOCK and Verifying Both Reactor Trip breakers
open and CRDM MG set supply breakers open is not required in this situation.
ESP-O.1-
11.1.1 Verify source range i 1.1.1 IF no source range detector - ENERGIZED. THEN within one hour
verify adequate shutdown margin using FNP-1-STP-29.1, SHUTDOWN MARGIN CALCULATION
(TAVG 547 'F), or FNP-1-STP-29.2, SHUTDOWN MARGIN CALCULATION (TAVG <547 0F OR
BEFORE THE INITIAL CRITICALITY FOLLOWING REFUELING)
032G2.4.46 Loss of Source Range NI - Ability to verify that the alarms are consistent
with the plant conditions. (CFR: 43.5/45.3 /45.12)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
9. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Excore Nuclear
Instrumentation System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate
the consequence of the abnormality (OPS52201 D12).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
162
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
87. 054AA2.04 OO1/1/i/AFV/C/A 4.3/N-EW/FA011005/S/CVR
Unit I has tripped due to a loss of all Main Feed.
- FRP-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, is in progress.
- The TDAFWP tripped when it Auto started.
o TDAFWP STM SUPP from 1 B SG, HV3235A/3226 and from 1 C SG,
HV3235B, will not close. The SS has instructed the UO to continue with the
procedure with these valves open.
- The UO adjusted all three TDAFWP FCVs potentiometers to the '0 DEMAND
position.
o TDAFWP FCV 3228 RESET light is LIT.
@ The UO ran the TDAFWP speed control to SLOW on the potentiometer.
When
starts.
the SSS-plant resets the TDAFW pump trip throttle valve, the TDAFW pump
Which one of the following will be the correct position of the TDAFWP FCVs after the
pump start, the pump speed and the earliest that the crew can exit FRP-H.1 ?
Ae OPEN; approximately 2000 rpm; As soon as total AFW flow to the SGs is verified
to be greater than 395 gpm.
B. OPEN; approximately 3980 rpm; As soon as total AFW flow to the SGs is verified to
be greater than 395 gpm AND at least one SG WIDE range level is rising or core
exit TC temperatures are falling.
I
C. CLOSED; approximately 2000 rpm; As soon as total AFW flow to the SGs is
verified to be greater than 395 gpm AND at least one SG WIDE range level is
or core exit TO temperatures are falling.
rising
D. CLOSED;
verified to
approximately 3980 rpm; As soon as total AFW flow to the SGs is
be greater than 395 gpm.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
163
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
SOP-0.8
FRP-H.1
NOTE: Step 5.3.3.3 is a continuing action until step 12 is reached.
5.3.3.3 WHEN any available AFW pump started, THEN return to step 5.4.
5.3.3.4 Proceed to step 6.
In this question, the TDAFW pump had an auto start signal in. The first step of SOP-22
has the operator close HV3235A13226 and 3235B. Since there is an AUTO start
signal in the valves will not shut and stay shut. The UO could have an SO close the
valves locally. Since no other feed flow is available and the crew is in H. 1, the need
to get the pump running would supersede the closing of these locally. IAW AP-6, the
SS could continue with the procedure.
When the SSS-P resets the TDAFW pump MOV3406 valve, the pump wili have steam
flow due to the auto start signal. The flow will be limited by the speed control being
run down to slow. The last step in SOP-22 to reset the TDAFWP trip throttle valve
has the operator run the speed control to fast, but this question asks what happens
when the pump starts and it will start on the auto start signal prior to the SSS-P
calling the CR. The operator will not have adjusted the TDAFWP speed control prior
to this. The stem was modified and this feedback added on 12-116-2004 in response
to a question by a validation review by a SM.
A. Correct. OPEN; approximately 2000 rpm; As soon as total AFW flow to the SGs
is verified to be greater than 395 gpm.
The FCVs go full open on an auto open signal regardless of POT setting. The
TDAFWP will go to max speed unless the pot is run back, which in this case it is. If
the pot is at a min speed, then the TDAFWP will go to a min speed of approx 2000
rpm.
H.1 directs the operator in a continuing action step (see note prior to step 5.3.3.3) to
continue efforts to establish AFW flow while continuing in the procedure, when you
get AFW flow > 395 gpm, then go to procedure and step in effect.
B. Incorrect. OPEN and speed is Incorrect. Procedure does not say Either AFW Flow
>395 gpm OR at least one SG WIDE range level is rising or core exit TO
temperatures are falling. If AFW flow is established, the procedure does not require
additional indications of flow as in step 10 of H.1.
C. Incorrect. FCVs incorrect, speed correct, Procedure does not say Either AFW Flow
>395 gpm OR at least one SG WIDE range level is rising or core exit TC
temperatures are falling. If AFW flow is established, the procedure does not require
additional indications of flow as in step 10 of H.1.
D. Incorrect. FCVs incorrect, speed incorrect,correct reasoning.
This is a fairly recent change to FRP-H.1 that when the AFW pumps are RTS, then the
team can go back to step 5 and then go to procedure and step in affect. We used to
check WR level increasing OR CETCs falling to exit.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
164
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
054AA2.04 Loss of Main Feedwater /4 Ability to determine and interpret the following
as they apply to the Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW):(CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)
AA2.04 - proper operation of AFW pumps and regulating valves
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Auxiliary
Feedwater System (AFW) and determine the integrated plant actions needed to
mitigate the consequence of abnormality (OPS-521 02H02).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
165
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
88. 060AA2.5 001/1/2/GAS RElE.AS/C,/A 4.2/NEW/FA011005/S/CVR
_
___
A Waste Gas Decay Tank containing 30 psig of radioactive gas is leak
Unit 1 Aux Building due to a through wall pipe leak. The following alan
- R-14, PLANT VENT GAS.
- M
D
MI ALITr '/C-KIT
rTACWk
ing into the
-ns are in:
- r-44, rLrAI'. I V-ToI
II
f
laI
s
- R-35A & B, CONTROL ROOM VENTS.
Which one of the following does NOT automatically occur AND must be performed per
LD4, R-35A Hi ALARM, and ND4, R-35B Hi ALARM, to protect the control room team?
A. Secure one Auxiliary Building Main Exhaust Fan.
Bi Start one of the Control Room Pressurization units.
C. Close the Control Room Utility Exhaust Fan Suction Damper.
D. Shift the Technical Support Center HVAC into the recirc mode.
A. incorrect. This is not an auto action nor is it required to be done by ARP-3.1. It
would slow the release from the Aux. Building down some, but would also
concentrate the airborne activity in the Aux. Building. Protecting the Control Room
personnel by isolating the Control Room is necessary, slowing the release rate from
the Aux. Building is not.
B. Correct. Start one of the Control Room Pressurization units.
This is directed by ARP-3.1 & 3.2, LD4 & ND4 and does not automatically occur. This
helps insure that the airborne activity does not get into the Control Room.
C. Incorrect. This is an auto action per ARP-3.1 & 3.2, LD4 & ND4 and are directed to
be verified, but do not have to be manually performed unless they malfunction and
do not occur. This should have occurred, and it is not stated that it did not occur
automatically as required. Knowledge of auto actions and procedure requirements is
tested by this question.
D. Incorrect. This is an auto action per ARP-3.1 & 3.2, LD4 & ND4 and are directed to
be verified but do not have to be manually performed unless they malfunction and
do not occur. This should have occurred, and it is not stated that it did not occur
automatically as required. Knowledge of auto actions and procedure requirements is
tested by this question.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
166
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
060AA2.05 Accidental Gaseous Radwaste Rel. / 9 - Ability to determine and interpret
the following as they apply to the Accidental Gaseous Radwaste: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)
AA2.05 - that the automatic safety actions have occurred as a result of a high ARM
system signal.
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Waste Gas
System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the consequence
of the abnormality (OPS52106B02).
Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Control Room
Ventilation System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the
consequence of the abnormality (OPS521 07C02).
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
167
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
89. 064G2.2.22 001/2/1/E.S. 3.8.1,/(CiA 4.1/NEW/FA011005/S/CVR
Both Units are at 100% power with the following conditions:
0 All Big emergency diesel generators are INOPERABLE pending resolution of
an industry-wide concern with the Colt-Pielstick diesel fuel injectors.
- All required surveillances are current.
Concerning BOTH units, which one of the following has correct minimum times that
will clear the LCO(s) in effect at this time and not require either unit to ramp to Mode 3?
References Provided
A. Restore 1-2A DG, 1 B DG and 2B DG to OPERABLE status in 7 days.
B. Restore I B and 2B DG to OPERABLE status in 15 hours1.736111e-4 days <br />0.00417 hours <br />2.480159e-5 weeks <br />5.7075e-6 months <br />, then restore 1 -2A DG to
OPERABLE status in 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />.
C:? Restore 1 -2A DG to OPERABLE status in 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />, then restore 1 B and 2B DG to
OPERABLE status in 6 days.
D. Restore I B DG to OPERABLE status in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, then restore 2B DG in 15 hours1.736111e-4 days <br />0.00417 hours <br />2.480159e-5 weeks <br />5.7075e-6 months <br />
and 1-2A DG to OPERABLE status in 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.
_
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
T. S. 3.8.1 PROVIDED thru 3.8.1- 99 - Do not include surveillance requirements
A. Incorrect. This will meet the requirements for condition B but does not meet
condition E. After 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> Condition F will need to be entered and Mode 3 in the next 6
hours.
B. Incorrect. This meets the requirements of condition E, the last condition if 1 C DG
was Inop. This is not the TS they are in and so it does not apply. Condition E is
required to be met w/i 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> which is to have either 1 -2A DG or 1 B and 2B DG
OPERABLE in 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.
C. Correct. Restore 1-2A DG to OPERABLE status in 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />, then restore 1 B and
2B DG to OPERABLE status in 6 days.
This meets Condition E requirements of getting either 1 -2A DG or 1 B and 28 DG
OPERABLE w/i 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />, then Condition B comes in to play and you now have 10 days
to get the other set on both units OPERABLE.
D. Incorrect. Getting 1 B DG in 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> is correct for Unit 1 but 2B DG has to be back in
the next 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> since 1-2A DG does not come back until 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> to prevent Unit 2
from being required to ramp to mode 3.
B and D distracters were changes from 12 and 13 hours1.50463e-4 days <br />0.00361 hours <br />2.149471e-5 weeks <br />4.9465e-6 months <br /> to 15 hours1.736111e-4 days <br />0.00417 hours <br />2.480159e-5 weeks <br />5.7075e-6 months <br /> b/c the TS 3.8.1
condition E shows 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> to restore, then be in M-3 in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. 8+6=14. therefore
the distracters of 12 and 13 hours1.50463e-4 days <br />0.00361 hours <br />2.149471e-5 weeks <br />4.9465e-6 months <br /> could technically be correct since the stem asks the
question "not require either unit to ramp". Technically, if I got a DG set back at time 13
hours the ramp that may be in progress would be stopped. 15 was chosen b/c it was
outside the band of the 14 hours1.62037e-4 days <br />0.00389 hours <br />2.314815e-5 weeks <br />5.327e-6 months <br /> and b/c in B distracter this still meets the requirements
of condition E, last choice of 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> if DG 1 c and DG 1 (2)B are inoperable.
For distracter D, 15 hours1.736111e-4 days <br />0.00417 hours <br />2.480159e-5 weeks <br />5.7075e-6 months <br /> still meets the same reasoning as if 12 or 13 were to be
used.
064G2.2.22 Emergency Diesel Generator
2.2.22 Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.
(CFR: 43.2/ 45.2)
(2) Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.
1. Identify and apply the following Technical Specifications or TRM requirements,
including the bases and attendant equipment, associated with the Diesel Generator
and Auxiliaries System (OPS52102101).
- 3.8.1 AC Sources - Operating
- 3.8.2 AC Sources - Shutdown
e 3.8.3 Diesel Fuel Oil, Lube Oil, Starting Air
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90. 068A2.04 001/2/1/R-18/MEM 3.3/MOD/FAQ!1005/S/'GTO __-
A radioactive liquid release is in progress from the #2 Waste I
the river in accordance with a liquid waste permit and SOP-5C
Processing System Liquid Waste Release from Waste Monitc
Monitor Tank (WMT) to
.1, Liquid Waste
)r Tank.
X Annunciator FH1, RMS HI RAD, has just alarmed.
- R-18, LIQ WASTE DISCH, is pegged high on the Radiation Monitoring
system console and the High Alarm light is illuminated.
' The Radside SO reports that RCV-18, WMT Disch to Environment, did not
close.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions required in accordance with
SOP-50.1 and the sample requirements necessary to release a WMT while RCV-18 is
INOPERABLE per the ODCM?
A. Immediately have the Rad side SO secure #2 WMT pump, and inform the OSS.
No liquid release is allowed until R-1 8 is returned to service.
Bv Close the manual discharge valve to the environment, and inform the SSS. At least
two independent samples must be analyzed for each Batch release prior to
discharging the Waste Monitor Tank.
C. Manually close RCV-18 and inform the Shift Radio chemist. A grab sample must
be taken and analyzed after the release is initiated and once per hour while the
release is in progress.
D. Fail air to RCV-1 8 and notify Chemistry. At least one independent sample must be
analyzed for each Batch release prior to discharging the Waste Monitor Tank and a
grab sample taken hourly while the release is in progress.
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ODCM page 2-1, 2-3: 2-4, 2-7, 2-9
A. Incorrect - a release is permitted as long as the ODCM is adhered to. Securing the
pump will stop the release and the OSS is not the correct person per procedure to
notify.
B. Correct -Close the manual discharge valve to the environment, and inform the
SSS. At least two independent samples must be analyzed for each Batch release
prior to discharging the Waste Monitor Tank.
per ODCM and Page 90 of 0521 06D
SOP-50.1 states that if the discharge is in progress and R-1 8 becomes inoperable the
discharge is to be immediately stopped and the Shift Support Supervisor notified. The
manual discharge valve will stop the release.
C. Incorrect - No grab sample is required per Table 2-3 and sample requirements per
action 28 call for 2 independent samples. Also the SRC is the wrong person to notify.
D. Incorrect - No grab sample is required per Table 2-3 and sample requirements per
action 28 call for 2 independent samples. Also if RCV 18 did not close on the auto
close signal, it may not shut when air is failed. Also the wrong person is notified.
068A2.04 Liquid Radwaste
Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the
Liquid Radwaste System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to
correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
(CFR: 41.5/ 43.5 ! 45.3 / 45.13)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
A2.04-Failure of automatic isolation
1. Identify and apply the following Technical Specifications or TRM requirements,
including the bases and attendant equipment, associated with the Liquid and Solid
Waste System (OPS52106A01).
-Technical Specification 5.5.1, Offsite Dose Calculation Manual (ODCM)
Technical Specification 5.5.4, Radioactive Effluent Controls Program
-Technical Specification 5.6.2, Annual Radiological Environmental Operating Report
Technical Specification 5.6.3, Radioactive Effluent Release Report
-TR 13.12.2, Liquid Holdup Tanks
modified from RMS-40305A1 2 #1 and LIQ SD WAST-40303A1 1 #7
Modified from the 2000 and 2001 NRC exams.
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91. 073G2.2.25 001/2/Il/R-I 1/12/C/A 3.7/NEW/FA01 1005/S/GTO
Which one of the following meets the MINIMUM reactor coolant leakage detection
system(s) that must be in operation and OPERABLE in Mode 4 without entering an
LCO and the reason?
A. The containment air cooler condensate level monitoring system (CACCLMS) ONLY;
since the likelihood of leakage and crack propagation in Mode 4 is much smaller
than in Modes 1, 2 and 3.
B. R-1 2 AND the containment air cooler condensate level monitoring system: to be
able to detect ROS pressure boundary leakage to minimize the potential for a gross
failure to occur.
0?' R-1 1 AND R-1 2; to be able to detect RCS pressure boundary leakage to minimize
the potential for a gross failure to occur.
D. R-1 1 ONLY; since the likelihood of leakage and crack propagation in Mode 4 is
much smaller than in Modes 1, 2 and 3.
A. Incorrect -The CACCLMS in mode 4 by itself would put you in an LCO condition A
The reason is NOT correct for this mode but is correct for mode 5/6.
B. Incorrect - R-1 1 has to be in operation or Condition A is entered. The reason is
correct for R-11
C. Correct - R-11 AND R-12; to be able to detect RCS pressure boundary leakage
to minimize the potential for a gross failure to occur.
IAW TS 3.4.15; R-1 1 and 12 or R-1 1 and CACCLMS is all that is required to be
operable in Modes 1-4. The reason given is from Bases.
D. Incorrect - R-1 1 alone would cause condition B to be entered.
The reason is NOT correct for this mode but is correct for mode 5/6
073G2.2.25 Process Radiation Monitoring
Knowledge of bases in technical specifications for limiting conditions for
safety limits.(CFR: 43.2)
operations and
(2) Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.
1. Identify and apply the following Technical Specifications or TRM requirements,
including the bases and attendant equipment, associated with the Radiation Monitoring
System (OPS52106D01).
- Technical Specification 3.4.15, RCS Leakage Detection Instrumentation
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92. 07662.1.20 001/2/1/SW/C/A 4.2/NEW/FAOl1005/S/CVR/GTO
___
_
____
Unit 1 is at 38% power. LJ3, H2 TEMP Hi, has come into alarm. H2 temp on the MCB
reads 5000 and stable. Investigation reveals the following:
SW TO TURB BLDG A(B) TRN Q1 P16V514, V515, V516, & V517 are
CLOSED and will not open.
Which one of the following is the correct action directed by AOP-7.0, Loss of Turbine
Building Service Water?
A. Reduce Main Generator load until the alarm clears.
B. Maintain load as long as the Main Generator H2 temp is stable.
C?' Trip the Reactor and enter EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
D. Trip the Turbine and enter AOP-3.0, Turbine Trip Below P-9 Setpoint.
A. Incorrect. ARP-LJ3 directs reducing load until the alarm clears in the case of high
temperatures if the temperatures are not due to Loss of SW.
B. Incorrect. Operating with this alarm in without reducing load to clear the alarm is not
allowed by procedure.
C. Correct. Trip the Reactor and enter EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
This is be true since the alarm was caused by a loss of SW to the Turbine Building and
power level are >35%. It would be directed by ARP-LJ3 & AOP-7.0.
D. Incorrect. This would be true since the alarm was caused by a loss of SW to the
Turbine Building AND guidance was obtained from ARP-AF5, OR AOP-7.0 but
power is >35%.
076G2.1.20 Service Water, Ability to execute procedure steps.
(CFR: 41.10/43.5 /4512)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Service Water
System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the consequence
of the abnormality (OPS521 02F02).
173
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
93. 02.1.33 001/3/il'1. S./C/A4.0/BANK/FA011005/S/--
-
--
____
Which one of the following renders 1A Auxiliary Building battery bank INOPERABLE?
Reference Provided
Al Average cell float voltage of 2.10 volts.
B. Average electrolyte temperature of the representative cells is 620F.
C. Electrolyte level greater than 1/4" above the top of the plates but not overflowing.
D. Specific gravity, corrected for electrolyte temperature of 770 F, of 1.191 for one of
the connected cells.
J
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
Reference provided TS 3.8.6
A. Correct; Average cell float voltage of 2.10 volts.
This violates condition "B" of the TS with the required action being a declaration of
inoperability. "One or more required batteries with the average cell float voltage less than
or equal to 2.13 volts. "
B. Incorrect; this satisfies TS as stated in Condition B (>60 0F).
C. Incorrect; this satisfies Category "C" criteria of Table 3.8.6-1 of 3.8.6.
D. Incorrect; this satisfies Category "C" criteria of Table 3.8.6-1 of 3.8.6.
Table 3.8.6-1 (page 1 of 1)
Battery Cell Parameters Requirements
PARAMETER
CATEGORY A: LIMITS
CATEGORY B: LIMITS
CATEGORY C:
FOR EACH
FOR EACH
ALLOWABLE LIMITS
DESIGNATED PILOT
CONNECTED CELL
FOR EACH
CELL
CONNECTED CELL
Electrolyte Level
> Minimum level
> Minimum level
Above top of plates,
indication mark, and 1/4
indication mark, and
1/4
and not overflowing
inch above maximum
inch above maximum
level indication mark(a)
level indication mark(a)
2.08 V
2.08 V
> 2.02 V
1.195(c)
1.190
if a cell is < 1.190, then
it shall not have
AND
decreased more than
0.080 from the
Average of all
previous 92 day test.
connected cells
> 1.195
AND
Average of all
connected cells 1.190
(a)
It is acceptable for the electrolyte level to temporarily increase above the specified maximum
during equalizing charges provided it is not overflowing.
(b)
Corrected for electrolyte temperature and level. Level correction is not required, however, when
battery charging is < 2 amps when on float charge.
(c)
Or battery charging current of < 2 amps when on float charge is acceptable for meeting specific
gravity limits.
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G2.1.33 Conduct of Operations Ability to recognize indications for system operating
parameters which are entry-level conditions for technical specifications.
(CFR: 43.2/43.3 1 45.3)
(2) Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.
(3) Facility licensee procedures required to obtain authority for design and operating
changes in the facility.
Identify and apply the following Technical Specifications or TRM requirements,
including the bases and attendant equipment, associated with the DC Distribution
System (OPS52103C01).
- 3.8.4 DC Sources - Operating
- 3.8.5 DC Sources - Shutdown
- 3.8.6 Battery Cell Parameters
- 3.8.9 Distribution Systems - Operating
- 3.8.10 Distribution Systems - Shutdown
DC DIST-521 03C00
- 10
Before rearranging this question, distracter C was the correct answer. The data in the
statistics is for distracter C being correct which means 8 of 14 picked C, 1 picked D, 1
picked A and 4 picked B from an LOOT exam cycle in July of 2003. This means 57%
picked the correct answer and 43% missed the question at an LOCT level.
Friday, December 17, 2004 8:45:46 AM
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94. G2.2.22 001/3,/2T. S./MEM 4.1/BANK/FAOI 005/SI
_
_
During a review of the surveillance schedules it is discovered that a 31 day surveillance
for a particular component was last performed 42 days ago. Within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> of this
discovery, the surveillance was performed.
e The surveillance failed because it did not meet surveillance criteria.
- Two hours later, a valve was adjusted and retesting provided satisfactory
results.
Which one of the following is correct for this condition?
The component was INOPERABLE
until satisfactory retesting was
completed.
A. for the last 42 days
B. from the time the grace period expired
Cy% from the time of the failed surveillance
D. from the time of identifying the surveillance NOT performed
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
A. Incorrect - because of 3.0.3 If it is discovered that a Surveillance was not performed within its
specified Frequency, then compliance with the requirement to declare the
LCO not met
be eay
B. Incorrect -SR 3.0.3 and SR 3.0.1. The grace period is the time of the surveillance
which is 31 days X 1.25 = 38 days. The candidate may believe the INOPERABLE time
period starts after the grace period runs out, which in this case is at approx. day 37 of
the 42 day time period. This is incorrect also.
C. Correct - The component was INOPERABLE since the time of unacceptable
results until satisfactory retesting was completed.
D. Incorrect - There is a delay period of 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />, and may be greater if a risk
evaluation is performed and the risk impact managed. Since this was accomplished w/i
24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> and it failed its surveillance, the component is declared INOPERABLE
immediately, and the LCO entered.
SR 3.0.3 If it is discovered that a Surveillance was not performed within its specified Frequency, then
compliance with the requirement to declare the LCO not met may be delayed. from the time Of
discovery. u t
ified Frequenc
whichevr ie
This
delay period is permitted to allow performance of the Surveillance. A risk evaluation shall be performed for
any Surveillance delayed greater than 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> and the risk impact shall be managed.
If the Surveillance is not performed within the delay period, the LCO must immediately be declared not
met, and the applicable Condition(s) must be entered.
When the Surveillance I performed within the delay
dilance
is not met
LCO must ImE
alicae
o
G2.2.22 Equipment Control- Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety
limits. (CFR: 43.2/ 45.2)
(2) Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases.
5. Describe the application and Bases of LCO Section 3.0 and Section SR 3.0 of
Technical Specifications (OPS52302A05).
INTRO TS-52302A03 #44
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95. G2.2.29 001/3/2/lREFUELING SRO/MEM 3.8NEW/rAo1100s/S/CVR/GTO
_
Unit 2 is in a refueling outage and in MODE 6.
Which one of the following is required to be done by the SRO in charge of refueling in
accordance with FNP-2-FHP-1.0, Refueling Operations?
A. Approve withdrawing tools and equipment from the refueling water.
Br Give permission prior to unlatching a fuel assembly in the Reactor Vessel.
C. Document current status of fuel handling operations by keeping status maps up to
date.
D. Be present in Containment OR the Spent Fuel Pool Room in constant
communications with the refueling team prior to starting core unload or reload.
A. Incorrect. Approval must be coordinated with HP per step 3.2 of FNP-2-FHP-1., not
the SRO.
B. Correct. To give permission prior to unlatching a fuel assembly in the Reactor
Vessel.
Per FNP-2-FHP-1.0 Step 3.7.
C. Incorrect. Engineering Support does this per FNP-2-FHP-1.0 Step 3.11.
D. Incorrect. The SRO in charge of refueling must be in Containment (SFP is not
allowed) prior to unload or reload per FNP-2-FHP-1 .OA & B Steps 1.4.
G2.2.29. Equipment Control - Knowledge of SRO fuel handling responsibilities.
(CFR: 43.6/45.12)
(6) Procedures and limitations involved in initial core loading, alterations in core
configuration, control rod programming, and determination of various internal and
external effects on core reactivity.
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Fuel Storage,
Handling and Refueling System and determine the integrated plant actions needed to
mitigate the consequence of the abnormality (OPS521 08D02).
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96. G2.3.1 001/3/3/IOCFR20/MEM 3.0/MOD/FA011005/S/GTO_
_0_
___
During a reentry, the reentry team finds an injured employee. The rescue will take the
team on a different route than planned.
The reentry team:
A. is required to withdraw to a safe area and contact the OSC for further instructions.
B. is allowed to deviate from the planned route ONLY if the TSC agrees to the new
route.
C;? is allowed to deviate from the planned route and should call the OSC as soon as
possible.
D. is required to withdraw to a safe area and contact the TSC for further instructions.
K
_
___
__
_
_
_
_
_
__
_
_
__
_
_
A. Incorrect, This is not required if an injured person is involved and does not exceed
emergency dose rates.
B. Incorrect, EIP 14 allows deviation for injured personnel. OSC is the correct place to
call LAW EIP-1 4 figure 3.
C. Correct - is allowed to deviate from the planned route and should call the OSC
as soon as possible.
EIP-14 states: Re-entry personnel shall not deviate from a planned route unless
unanticipated conditi
h as rescue. performing an operation which would
minimize the emergency condition, etc., require such a deviation. OSC is the correct
place to call IAW EIP-1 4 figure 3.
If emergency dose rates observed during re-entry exceed the limits established by the
re-entry guideline or other adverse conditions are encountered, re-entry personnel shall
return to a safe area and contact the OSC/TSC/Control Room.
Figure 3 of EIP-1 4 also says it is acceptable for the team to modify the transit route
based on the conditions encountered during the reentry. If the route is modified, the
OSC or CR should be notified asap if the change places the team in areas that are not
on the route.
D. incorrect- This is not required if an injured person is involved and does not exceed
emergency dose rates. OSC is the correct place to call IAW EIP-14 figure 3.
-
-- --- .
. _X
A.
....
180
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HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
G2.3.1 Radiation Control
2.3.1 Knowledge of 10 CFR: 20 and related facility radiation control
requirements.(CFR: 41.12 /43.4. 45.9 / 45.10)
(4) Radiation hazards that may arise during normal and abnormal situations, including
maintenance activities and various contamination conditions.
5. Using the appropriate ElPs, classify abnormal events, make notifications, and apply
the required actions (OPS-52504A05).
modified from EPIP PERS-40501 B09 #3
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181
97.
1_,-
HLT-29 SRO exam submitted 12-14-2004
G2.3.6_Oi1/3/3/LWRP/,MEM 3. 1/NEW/FA01 1005/S/CVR/GTO__
_
Both Units are at 100% power with normal Service Water system alignments and
Dilution Flow rates. The Shift Radiochemist has issued a Liquid Waste Release Permit
(LWRP) for Unit 1 Waste Monitor Tank (WMT) #1. The SSS is reviewing the LWRP in
preparation for issuing the key to the Locked closed discharge valve for WMT #1.
Which one of the following conditions requires the SSS to NOT issue the Key and
prevent the release per FNP-1 -SOP-50.1, APPENDIX 1, Waste Monitor Tank 1
Release to the Environment?
A. There is a Unit 2 WMT release in progress.
B. The Unit 1 SW dilution flow recorder is INOPERABLE.
C. The Unit 1 WMT Flow indicator, Fl-1 085B, is INOPERABLE.
I> The key for the Unit I WMT #2 Discharge Valve has been returned and the valve
position is logged as "Unlocked Open".
A. Incorrect. Chemistry would require only one WMT tank per unit released at a time
per FNP-0-OCP-212, LIQUID WASTE RELEASE PROGRAM, Step 4.10 only IF
either unit was <20,000 gpm SW dilution flow. This occasionally occurs. In the case
given, normal 100% power dilution flow was stated which is well above 20,000 gpm
on each unit. The operations procedure SOP-50.1 does not address this low dilution
flow condition and the requirement for one WMT release at a time between both
units is directed by Chemistry when necessary (i.e. when either unit dilution flow is
<20,000). Normally one WMT per unit can be released at one time.
B. Incorrect. This does not prohibit releasing the WMT. As long as the SW Dilution
totalizer is operable the SSS does not even have to be notified by the SO per Note
prior to step 2.1 fifth bullet in SOP-50.1 APP 1. The ODCM table 2.1 states that as
long as flow is estimated at least once every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, the release can continue in this
condition.
C. Incorrect. This does not prohibit releasing the WMT. As long as the the pump
curves are used to estimate the flowrate per SOP-50.1 APP 1 Step 2.5.14 the
release can occur. This is also allowed per the ODCM table 2.1.
D. Correct. The key for the Unit 1 WMT #2 Discharge Valve has been returned and
the valve position is logged as "Unlocked Open".
The main function of the SRO during approval of the release is the initialed step 2.5.3.
It states the the release permit is reviewed, the correct tank is being released, and
the other tank key is signed in with the valve logged "locked closed". If this is the
case, the key may be issued. With the other WMT discharge valve "unlocked and
open" as given in this situation the wrong tank could be released.
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G2.3.6 Radiation Control, Knowledge of the requirements for reviewing and approving
release permits.
(CFR: 43.4/45.10)
(4) Radiation hazards that may arise during normal and abnormal situations, including
maintenance activities and various contamination conditions.
2. Identify any special considerations such as safety hazards and plant condition
changes that apply to the Liquid and Solid Waste System (OPS521 06A04).
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98. G2.4.41 001/3/4/I;IP/MFlM 4.1,/N W, /AO1105/S/CVR-TO
,_/___
__
_
A Unit 2 Reactor Trip and Safety Injection has occured. The Shift Manager is
classifying the event in accordance with FNP-0-EIP-9.0, Emergency Classification and
Actions.
Which one of the following is correct with regards to the order of requesting and
evaluating Dose Assessment, evaluating Plant Conditions & classifying the event?
A. Request Dose Assessment first, evaluate Plant Conditions next. Classify the event
only after obtaining and evaluating both the Dose Assessment and Plant
Conditions.
B. Evaluate Plant Conditions first, then request Dose Assessment. Classify the event
only after obtaining and evaluating both the Dose Assessment and Plant conditions.
C0 Request Dose Assessment first, evaluate Plant Conditions next. Classify the event
as soon as either Plant Conditions or Dose Assessment meet criteria for an
Emergency Classification.
D. Evaluate Plant Conditions first, then request Dose Assessment. Classify the event
as soon as either Plant Conditions or Dose Assessment meet criteria for an
Emergency Classification.
A. Incorrect- The second part is wrong. Do not wait for DA and PC to classify.
B. Incorrect- Both first and second part are wrong. DA is called for first.
C. Correct - Request Dose Assessment first, evaluate Plant Conditions next.
Classify the event as soon as either Plant Conditions or Dose Assessment meet
criteria for an Emergency Classification.
4.1 Plant Conditions
While performing the remainder of step 4.1 . have the On Shift Dose Analyst commence performing the
calculations for dose assessment per steop 4.2. Use the following guidelines to determine
4.3.1 Compare the emergency classifications determined from steps 4.1 and 4.2 to determine the highest
required emergency classification and declare the emergency. Do not wait for dose assessment results
from step 4.2 to classify the event if plant conditions require an initial classification or an upgrade
classification. As soon as a criteria for classification has been met, the event should be classified by the
Operations Shift Superintendent or ED and an upgrade can be done later if required.
D. Incorrect-The first part is wrong. DA is called for first
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G2.4.41 Emergency Procedures / PRan
2.4.41 Knowledge of the emergency action level thresholds and classifications.
(CFR: 43.5 / 45.1 1)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal. abnormal, and emergency situations.
1. Using plant procedures/references, analyze a set of plant conditions to classify the
emergency condition as being a NOUE, Alert, Site Area, or General Emergency
(OPS53002C01) (EIP- 9.0).
2. Using plant procedures/references, determine the appropriate actions that are to be
performed by the OSS/ED during a NOUE, Alert, Site Area, or General Emergency
including the consequences of inadequate actions. (OPS53002002) (EIP-9.0).
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99. G2.4.9_001/3/4/SFP/C/A 3.9/NEW/AFARI 100/S/CVR/G'1'O
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_
I
Spent Fuel Pool (SFP) cooling has been lost due to the loss of both Trains of GCW.
ElI11, SFP TEMP Hi, alarm has just come in.
Which one of the following is the correct mitigation strategy in order of preference per
_]
AOP-36.0, Loss of Spent
(Assume the first method
water.)
A. Feed and Bleed using
maintaining SFP level
By Feed and Bleed using
loss while maintaining
C. Feed and Bleed using
using the RWST.
Fuel Pool Cooling?
slows but does NOT stop the temperature rise of the SFP
the Recycle Holdup Tanks (RHTs). Evaporative loss while
using the Demineralized water system.
the Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST). Evaporative
SFP level using the Demineralized water system.
the RHTs. Evaporative loss while maintaining SFP level
D. Feed and Bleed using the RWST. Evaporative loss while maintaining SFP level
using the RWST.
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A. Incorrect. First part wrong, second part right. The RHT can be aligned to makeup to
the charging pump suction, but no procedural guidance exists to make up to the SFP
in this condition.
B. Correct. Feed and Bleed using the Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST).
Evaporative loss while maintaining SFP level using the Demineralized water
system.
Note prior to 10 clarifies the intent of step 10 & 11. The RWST is used to feed and
bleed using the cooler water of the RWST which is at the correct boron
concentration to supply the SFP. Warmer water from the SFP is bled back to the
RWST and mixed with the cooler water of the tank contents.
C. Incorrect. Both parts wrong. Under certain conditions the RHT would be a makeup
source to the RCS via the charging pump suctions, but no procedural guidance
exists for use of the RHTs to make up to the SFP in this condition. Evaporative loss
in this condition per AOP-36.0 would be compensated for in the same way that it is
during normal evaporation per SOP-54.0: Demineralized or Reactor Makeup water,
The reason is that the boron stays in the pool when the water evaporates out.
Making up for evaporation with RWST water would eventually cause the SFP boron
concentration to be higher than allowed.
D. Incorrect. First part right, second part wrong. Evaporative loss in this condition per
AOP-36.0 would be compensated for in the same way that it is per SOP-54.0 during
normal evaporation: Demineralized or Reactor Makeup water. The reason is that the
boron stays in the pool when the water evaporates out. Making up for evaporation
with RWST water would eventually cause the SFP boron concentration to be higher
than allowed.
G2.4.9 Emergency Procedures / Plan
2.4.9 Knowledge of low power / shutdown implications in accident (e.g. LOCA or loss of
RHR) mitigation strategies.(CFR: 41.10 1/43.5 / 45.13)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during
normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
2. Evaluate abnormal plant or equipment conditions associated with the Spent Fuel
Pool Cooling and Purification and Refueling Water Storage Tank Purification Systems
and determine the integrated plant actions needed to mitigate the consequence of the
abnormality (OPS521081L02).
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100. WEOlG2.1.20 001l1/2,ESP-1.1/MEM_4.2/NEWFA011005/S/CVR
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___
An inadvertent Safety injection has occurred on Unit 1. The team was expecting to
terminate SI in ESP-1.1, SI Termination, but conditions have changed, and the team is
not sure what event has occurred. ESP-0.0, Rediagnosis, has been entered to
evaluate which procedure to transition to next.
The following conditions exist:
- R-2 and 7, CTTMT rad monitors, are in alarm.
- A controlled cooldown has not been commenced.
- SG narrow range water levels are:
1 B SG -30%
1C SG - 32%
' All MVISIVs are open.
- All SG pressures are dropping rapidly.
Which one of the following shows the correct procedural actions of ESP-0.0 and the
procedural transition for the above conditions?
A. * Check containment radiation normal.
- Enter EEP-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.
B. e Check any SG level rising in an uncontrolled manner.
- Enter EEP-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.
Ca e Check any SG pressure stable or rising.
e Check for a controlled cooldown in progress.
- Enter EEP-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation.
D. 6 Check any SG pressure stable or rising.
- Close the MSIVs.
- Check any SG level rising in an uncontrolled manner.
0 Enter EEP-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.
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A. Incorrect. ESP-0 never looks at CTMT radiation. EEP-0 does look at this in
diagnostics. Also ESP-0 looks at SG pressures first and would transition to that
procedure.
B. Incorrect. This will be done at step 3 and would be correct if all SG pressure were
not falling rapidly.
C. Correct.
e Check any SG pressure stable or rising.
o Check for a controlled cooldown in progress.
- Enter EEP-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation.
ESP-0.0 looks at the faulted SGs first. If no controlled cooldown is in progress, then the
operator is directed to isolate MS lines in EEP-2.
D. Incorrect. The first step is correct, however, the MSIVs are closed in EEP-2.0 and
the SGs are isolated in that procedure. While it is obvious that a SGTR is also going
on here, it is the last step of ESP-0.
WE01 G2.1.20 Rediagnosis Ability to execute procedure steps.
(CFR: 41.10 /43.5 ! 45.12)
(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures
during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
8. Evaluate plant conditions and determine if transition to another section of ESP-1 .1 or
to another procedure is required. (0PS52531 E08)
You have completed the test!
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