ML023510338
| ML023510338 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Watts Bar  |
| Issue date: | 11/26/2002 |
| From: | Tennessee Valley Authority |
| To: | Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation |
| References | |
| 50-390/02-301, 50-391/02-301 | |
| Download: ML023510338 (101) | |
Text
Final Submittal (Blue Paper)
- 1. Senior Operator Written Examination WATTS BAR EXAM 2002-301 50-390 NOVEMBER 26 &
DECEMBER 9 - 13, 2002
Name: Wafts Bar SRO Form: 0 Version: 0
- 1. 001AK3.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Plant at 65% power.
- Impulse pressure transmitter, 1-PT-1-73, fails HIGH causing rods to step at 72 steps per minute.
- Rods were placed in MANUAL causing rod motion to stop 14 steps from their original position.
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate course of action?
A. Ensure turbine load remains constant and dilute to restore original rod position.
B. Reduce turbine load to compensate for the rise in reactor power.
C. Withdraw rods manually to restore Tavg to program.
D. Insert rods manually to drop Tavg to program.
Reference:
A010400.06 Question Analysis:
- a. Incorrect - Diluting would further increase the difference between Tavg and Tref if turbine load were held constant.
- b. Incorrect - Turbine load would need to be increased to offset the increase in T-avg due to rods stepping out from the NI failure.
- c. Incorrect - withdrawing rods would further increase the difference between Tavg and Tref.
- d. Correct - Tavg would be elevated due to the rods stepping out on the PT failure.
Inserting rods manually to decrease Tavg to program is appropriate.
Watts Bar SRO
- 2. 001K1.05 001 Given the following:
- Unit power is 66%
- Control Rods are in Automatic
- No operator actions Which ONE of the following would cause rods move in, then remain at the new position with a reduced T-avg.
A. Loop A Th fails low B. PT 1- 73 fails high C. Loop A Tc fails low D. PRM channel N-41 fails high REF: 3-OT-SYS85A
- a. incorrect - rod control circuit uses auct High Tave - failing low does not make this the auct hi
- b. incorrect - this channel of turbine pressure inputs the control rod logic and the Tref program is topped out at 588.2
- c. incorrect - rod control circuit uses auct High Tave - failing low does not make this the auct hi
- d. correct - Rods move in until the power mismatch rate signal decays, then remain at the new position with a reduced T-avg.
Watts Bar SRO
- 3. 002K5.10 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is at 90% power and ramping up.
- Rods are in automatic with Bank D at 216 steps
- The operator has met all requirements to raise turbine load and has pressed the turbine control GO button
- Turbine control valves are opening and megawatts are rising
- Tavg is on program Which ONE of the following describes Tref/Tavg behavior assuming no dilution by the operator as the turbine load is raised to bring the unit to 100%?
A. Tavg and Tref will rise and continue to be matched.
B. Tref will rise, but Tavg will remain constant.
C. Tavg and Tref will remain constant.
D. Tref will rise and Tavg will drop.
Ref: WB lesson plant 3-OT-SYS085A, obj 7 &21
Watts Bar SRO
- 4. 003A2.02S 001 Unit 1 Reactor power has been reduced to remove Loop 3 RCP in accordance with AOI-5, Unscheduled Removal of One RCP Below P-8.
Which ONE of the following describes the initial plant response when the RCP is tripped and action required.
A. Tavg in loop 3 rises to Thot of the other 3 loops and MFW flow must be reduced.
BY Tavg in loop 3 drops to less than Tcold of the other 3 loops and MFW flow must be reduced.
C. Tavg in loop 3 rises to Thot of the other 3 loops and loop 3 PZR spray valve must be closed.
D. Tavg in loop 3 drops to less than Tcold of the other 3 loops and loop 3 PZR spray valve must be closed.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-AOI0500, obj. 6 WB AOI-5, pp. 10 A &C are incorrect because loop 3 Tavg decreases (see quote from AOI 5 below)
D is incorrect because loop 3 has no spray valve B is correct based on based on quote from AOI 5 below and step 1, section 3.3 of AOI 5.
"When a RCP is removed from service, a reverse flow occurs in the affected loop. The result is a significant reduction in the RCS hot leg temperature and reduction in steam generation from the affected SG. Previous experience in losing a RCP "at power' at WBN showed that Tavg in the affected loop went below Tcold in the active loops until feedwater was isolated and a thermal equilibrium was reached. Inthis instance, Tavg for the affected loop went below the minimum temperature for criticality. Tavg returned to greater than 551°F in approximately 6 minutes following isolation of feedwater to the idle S/G. "
Watts Bar SRO
- 5. 004K5.04 001 Which ONE of the following is the primary reason for maintaining a hydrogen cover gas in the VCT during normal at power operations?
A. to assure N-16 concentrations are ALARA B. to maintain RCS pH within TRM limits C. to maintain conductivity below .017 micro Mhos D. to maintain oxygen concentration below the TRM upper limit Ref: NA 2002 Lesson plan 3-OT-SYS062A, TRM 3.4.4 Chemistry
- b. incorrect RCS pH is controlled by primary chemistry not with cover gases
- c. incorrect conductivity is controlled by water quality efforts not cover gases
Watts Bar SRO
- 6. 005AK2.02 001 Unit 1 was at 25% power and ramping up when the RO noticed that one of the Bank C control rods is 13 steps below the other rods in Bank C which are at 215 steps.
At 0900, immediately after discovery, power assension was halted.
At 0945, the rod was determined to have an electrical problem which was repaired.
At 1015, the management staff has concurred with realignment of the misaligned rod in accordance with AOI-2, Malfunction of the Reactor Control System.
Which ONE of the following outlines the method of realigment?
A. Record information from Bank Overlap Unit, step counters, and P/A converter. Disconnect lift coil for the affected rod, reset step counters, select Bank C and insert Bank C control rods.
B. Disconnect lift coil of the affected rod, select Bank C and insert Bank C.
C. Record information from Bank Overlap Unit, step counters, and P/A converter. Disconnect all lift coils in Bank C except the affected rod, reset step counters, select Bank C and withdraw affected control rod.
D. Disconnect all lift coils in Bank C except the affected rod, select Bank C and withdraw the affected rod.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-AOI-0200, Obj. 8 WB procedure AOI-2 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect the procedure for aligning a rod misaligned for >lhr (ie. move the rod to the bank, not the bank to the rod)
B is incorrect same as A, also missing some steps. However, this is the method at step 13 for recovery prior to repair IF it were a Bank D rod.
C is correct per AOI 2 steps 33 through 37 D is incorrect because information from BOU, P/A and step counters must be recorded prior to realignment.
43.5 Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
Wafts Bar SRO
- 7. 005K5.03S 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- The unit is in MODE 6, refueling activities in progress inside containment.
- "A" train RHR in service for core cooling and letdown to CVCS.
- Chemistry reports RCS boron concentration is 1925 ppm.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct actions and the reason?
A. Isolate Refueling Cavity from the Spent Fuel Pit by closing the transfer tube wafer valve to prevent dilution of the Spent Fuel Pit.
B. Place train"B" RHR in service, remove "A"train to isolate dilution paths connected to "A"train RHR.
CY Initiate boration using AOI-34, "Immediate Boration" to raise boron concentration to minimum required limits.
D. Evacuate containment and verify contaiment integrity intact to ensure Technical Specfication 3.9.4, Contaiment Penetrations is met.
Ref: WB Exam bank GO-6 AOI-34 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect in that closing the transfer tube valve will not help the regain SDM.
B is incorrect because swapping trains will not increase SDM C is correct because AOI provides guidance immediately increase Cb = 2100 ppm.
D is incorrect due to no procedural guidance to do so and it does not increase SDM.
Watts Bar SRO
- 8. 006A1.11 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- A SGTR has occurred on SG #1.
- ES-3.1, "Post SGTR Cooldown Using Backfill", is in progress.
- Ruptured SG level is 25%.
- RCS is at 390°F.
- RCS is at 400 psig.
- Cooling down using steam dumps to condenser.
- RCP #4 in service.
ES-3.1 step 13 requires a return to step 3 if RCS temperature is greater than 200°F.
Step 3 requires the operator to ensure adequate shutdown margin.
Why is it necessary to reverify adequate shutdown margin at this point in the procedure?
A. The RCS temperature change during cooldown will cause significant boron concentration changes due to PZR outsurge.
B. Charging to maintain PZR level during cooldown will cause significant boron concentration changes.
C. The secondary fluid in the ruptured SG will cause significant boron concentration changes.
D. The auxiliary spray will cause significant boron concentration changes.
REF: ES-3.1, Post-SGTR Cooldown using Backfill
Watts Bar SRO
- 9. 006K1.07 001 Given the following conditions:
- The plant is operating at 100% power.
- Inadvertent Safety Injection occurred
- #1 SG level transmitter that controls MDAFW pump LCV failed low.
- #4 SG PORV opened momentarily after the reactor trip and developed a large packing leak.
Which ONE of the following would cause the initial main feedwater isolation during this transient?
A. The #1 SG level reached 83%.
Bý The safety injection actuation signal.
C. Tavg dropping to 564 0F following the reactor trip.
D. When the south valve vault level had risen to 4 inches due to the PORV packing leak.
Reference:
SYS003A.14
- a. Incorrect - level may reach 83% but FWI would already have been actuated by the SI.
- b. Correct - SI causes immediate FWI.
- c. Incorrect - would normally actuate FWl following a reactor trip however the SI initiated the FWI immediately.
- d. Incorrecty - PORV leak would cause increase in level in the vault room however FWI would have already been actuated by the SI.
Watts Bar SRO
- 10. 007EA1.03 001 An RCS cooldown is in progress per ES-0.2, "Natural Circulation Cooldown". The plant is being depressurized using auxiliary spray. As pressure drops through 1300 psig, a rapid rise in pressurizer level is observed. Charging and Letdown are in manual and are matched.
Which ONE of the following describes the expected operator actions and the reason?
A. Isolate charging flow and raise the cooldown rate to 50 degrees F/hr to help shrink RCS inventory.
B. Isolate charging flow and place additional letdown orfice(s) in service to remove the excess RCS inventory.
C. Isolate the Cold Leg Acculmulators to prevent further introduction of nitrogen to the RCS.
D' Isolate the auxiliary spray and energize pressurizer B/U heaters to collapse the bubble in the Rx head.
REF: WB Bank Lesson Plan 3-OT-EOPOOOO
- a. incorrect - increasing the cooldown rate will further decrease RCS pressure
- b. incorrect - this will decrease the inventory but not address the pressure drop
- c. incorrect - isolating the cold leg accumulators will not effect the level or ppressure at this time
- d. correct - stopping the aux spray flow will stop the depressurization and truning the B/U htrs on will help recover the pressure.
Watts Bar SRO
- 11. 008AKI.01 001 Given the following:
- Unit I is stable at 100% power
- A pressurizer safety valve opens and fails to reseat and the Unit trips as a result of this Which ONE of the following indications would the operator expect to see event over the next 30 min?
A. Safety tailpipe temperature would increase to greater than 600 F and then slowly decrease.
increase.
B. Safety tailpipe temperature would increase to greater than 600 F and then slowly 330 F and then slowly C. Safety tailpipe temperature would increase to between 220 F and decrease and stabilize.
330 F and then slowly D. Safety tailpipe temperature would increase to between 220 F and increase and stabilize.
Ref- Farley 2000 Reactor Coolant System N3-68-4001 ARI-88-94 Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS068A
- a. incorrect - the temperature is correct for pressures of 2240
- b. incorrect - the temperature is correct for pressures of 2240 until the rupture disc relieves
- c. correct - since it relieves to the PRT, the pressure will increaseand eventually stablize (85 psig) and then the pressure (and temperature ) will decrease relieves.
- d. incorrect - will not continue to increase once the PRT rupture disc
Watts Bar SRO
- 12. 009EA2.34 001 Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
- Reactor trip and safety injection have occurred
- Crew is performing E-0 step 10.
- MSIVs have just closed due to Hi-Hi containment pressure
- RCS pressure is 1700 psig and stable
- CETCs indicate 570 F
- Total AFW flow is 700 gpm
- PZR level is 25%
Based on these known conditions, the operators should .........
A. implement FR-Z.1 to address the high containment pressure.
B. implement ES-1.1 to terminate Safety Injection.
C0 verify Phase B and stop all RCPs.
D. reduce AFW flow to less than 500 gpm.
Ref: Byron '00, WB E-0 ES-1.1
Watts Bar SRO
- 13. 010K3.01 001 Given the following:
- Pressurizer pressure is 2230 psig and rising.
- The variable heaters are energized.
- The spray valves are closed.
- The Master Pressure Controller, 1-PIC-68-340A, fails to a constant output equivalent to 2230 psig.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the pressure control system if the operator takes no further action?
A. Pressure will rise until PORV's 1-PCV-68-334 and 1-PCV-68-340A open to control pressure.
B! Pressure will rise until relief valve I -PCV-68-334 opens to control pressure.
C. Pressure will rise until the spray valves open to control pressure.
D. Pressure will cycle on the variable heaters at a higher setpoint.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS068C Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because PORV continues to receive a constant input and therefore remains closed.
B is correct because PORV 334 receives input from PT 323 which is seeing the actual pressure rise.
C is incorrect because the spray valves remain closed because there input is not changing from the master controller and is spray open setpoint.
D is incorrect because the input to the variable heaters is constant at a value less than their shutoff point.
Watts Bar SRO
- 14. 011A3.03 001 Given the following:
- Unit is at 50% power.
- All automatic control systems are in their normal lineup.
- Pressurizer level program fails to an output corresponding to 50% load.
- Assume no operator action is taken.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on charging flow and PZR level as the plant load is raised to 100%?
A. Charging flow rises to maintain actual PZR level constant.
B. Charging flow drops and actual PZR level drops.
C. Charging flow drops to maintain actual PZR level constant.
D. Charging flow remains constant and actual PZR level rises.
Reference:
WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS068C Obj. #14 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because Tav increases as power increases which will make PZR actual level increase.
B is incorrect, same reason as A C is correct because as PZR level rises with coolant expansion due to Tav increase, with LT-339 output at 50%, an error is generated that PZR level is too high, causing charging flow to decrease.
D is incorrect, same as A for PZR level, charging flow increases, see C.
Note, WB exam bank had answer C as "Charging flow rises and actual PZR level rises." Need to check this with them.
Watts Bar SRO
- 15. O 1EA1.04 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit I tripped due to a Large Break LOCA.
- Containment pressure =12.5 psid.
- RWST level = 20%.
- Containment Emergency Sump level = 15%.
- RHR Swapover to the Containment Sump could not be performed.
- The operating crew has transitioned to ECA - 1.1, "Loss of RHR Sump Recirculation."
- The crew is performing step 3 of ECA - 1.1, "Loss of RHR Sump Recirculation", to determine the proper Containment Spray pump alignment and operation.
Which ONE of the following actions will result in the Containment Spray pumps being in the proper alignment under the existing plant conditions?
A. Leave both Containment Spray pumps running until RWST level drops to 8%.
B. Stop both Containment Spray pumps and place handswitches in "pull-to-lock."
C. Stop one Containment Spray pump and allow the remaining pump to take suction from the RWST.
D. Stop both Containment Spray pumps, until suction can be aligned to the Containment Sump, then restart one pump.
REF: ECA-l.1, Loss of RHR Sump Recirculation
Watts Bar SRO
- 16. 011EK2.02 001 Given the following conditions:
- A large break LOCA occurred
- Operators have just completed swapover to Containment Sump
- A loss of offsite power occurs Which ONE of the following describes the actions required for this condition?
A. Pull to lock SI pumps and CCPs until the RHR pumps have been restarted after the shutdown boards are reenergized.
B.1 Pull to lock the CCPs until the RHR pumps are restarted after the shutdown boards are reenergized.
C. Ensure both RHR pumps are started by the blackout sequencer after the diesel generators reenergize the shutdown boards then restart the SI pumps.
D. Ensure all ECCS pumps are started by the blackout sequencer when the diesel generators reenergize the shutdown boards.
REF: ES-1.3 step 18, Lesson plan 3-OT-EOPOIOO p. 45
- a. incorrect - only the CCPs are required to be placed in pull to lock but examinee may select this distractor since the SI pumps suction is also being supplied by the RHR pumps.
- b. correct - Since SI is reset the RHR pumps will not automatically sequence on following a blackout signal. ES-1.3 requires the operator to place the CCPs in pull to lock, restart the RHR pumps and then restart the CCPs.
- c. incorrect - The RHR pumps will not sequence on following a blackout with SI reset, but examinee may select since he/she must associate resetting SI with the transfer sequence to containment sump and may assume the RHR pumps sequence on with SI reset since they are supplying CCP and SIP suction.
- d. incorrect - All ECCS pumps will not sequence on since SI has been reset. May assume the SI pumps are the only ECCS pumps that don't sequence on following SI reset and the RHR pumps start prior to the CCPs since they are supplying suction to the pumps.
Watts Bar SRO
- 17. 012K6.10 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is at 100% power
- Permissive 70-D, P-7 LO POWER TRIPS BLOCKED illuminates Which ONE of the following describes the effects on RPS?
A. The reactor will not trip on Pressurizer High Pressure.
B. The reactor will not trip on Pressurizer Low Water Level.
C' The reactor will not trip on Pressurizer Low Pressure.
D. The reactor will not trip on Loss of Flow in one loop.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS099A, obj. 17 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because P-7 is not an input to the trip.
B is incorrect because PZR Lo Water Level is not a trip.
C is correct, because P-7 blocks it when P-7 is off (light on).
D is incorrect because P-8 is unaffected and trips Rx on 1/4 logic.
Watts Bar SRO
- 18. 013K2.01 001 Given the following:
- 1A-A and 1B-B SI pump breakers are "racked in"
- A fuse blows in the NORMAL DC Trip Circuit for the 1A-A SI pump
- A safety injection (SI) acutation occurs Which ONE of the following describes the response of the SI pumps to the SI signal?
A. 1B-B SI pump will start, but 1A-A SI pump will not auto start until the control power supply is transferred.
B. 1B-B SI pump will start, but 1A-A SI pump will not auto start and must be started from MCR handswitch.
C. Both SI pumps will auto start, but the 1A-A SI pump can not be stopped from the MCR.
D. Both SI pumps will auto start, but the IA-A SI pump can not be stopped mechanically at the breaker.
REF: Watts Bar exam bank 3-OT-SYS57C
- a. Incorrect - examinee may believe that the pump will not start with fuse blown in the trip circuit. They may believe it is the same dc power is supplied to the pump start circuit.
- b. Incorrect - examinee may confuse the control power supplies to the pump and the start logic.
- c. Correct - both pumps will start automatically, however with fuses blown in the trip circuit the pump breaker cannot be opened from any electrical control handswitch.
- d. Incorrect - both pumps will start automatically. Examinee may believe that the with a blown fuse in the trip circuit that it cannot be stopped locally since the trip fuses are in the same compartment with the breaker and mechanical trip switch.
Watts Bar SRO
- 19. 014A4.01 001 Given the following:
- Operators are preparing for a reactor startup
- All shutdown banks were withdrawn
- All control banks are fully inserted
- The rod control startup reset switch is manipulated in error Which ONE of the following describes the required actions to proceed with the startup?
A. Restore the P/A converter to 230 steps Bf Restore the shutdown group step counters to 230 steps C. Restore the bank overlap unit to 230 steps D. Reinsert all shutdown banks REF: INPO bank WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS85A
- a. incorrect - P/A converter does not need to be reset because the control banks are fully inserted
- b. correct - all group step counters are reset to 0 by the reset switch
- c. incorrect - bank overlap counters are at 0 because the control rods are fully inserted
- d. the shutdown group counters can be manually reset - reinsertion is not required
Watts Bar SRO
- 20. 015K4.06 001 While operating at 90% power, one power range channel of nuclear instrumentation Power Range has been removed from service which resulted in the OTDeltaT trip bistable placed in bypass.
What is the coincidence for a NIS OTDeltaT reactor trip?
A. 2 out of 4 Br 2 out of 3 C. 1 outof4 D. 1 outof3 REF: INPO bank Neutron Monitoring System N3-92-4003
- a. incorrect - coincidence changes to 1 out of three when in bypass
- b. correct - coincidence changes to 2 out of 3
- c. incorrect - wrong logic and bypass limited to 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />
- d. incorrect - bypass status limited to 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />
Watts Bar SRO
- 21. 017AK1.04 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit is operating at 30% power.
- All control systems are in AUTO.
- Loop 3 Reactor Coolant Pump has just tripped.
Which ONE of the following is the overall plant response?
A. Reactor trips on HIGH steam generator level when the #3 steam generator level "swells".
B.0 Unit power remains the same with steam flow rising on the other steam generators.
C. Unit power is reduced to approximately 22% power (3/4 of original power level).
D. The reactor trips on a Low RCS Flow condition.
REF: WB bank Lesson plan 3-OT-TAA015, Student Handout, p. 8-9
- a. correct - Core flow will decrease and if reactor power remains constant then DT across the core will increase to a higher value.
- b. incorrect - Core flow will decrease and if reactor power remains constant then DT across the core will increase to a higher value. Examinee may misinterpret a decrease in flow correlating to a decrease in DT.
- c. incorrect - Core flow will decrease and if reactor power remains constant then DT across the core will increase and stabilize at a higher value. Examinee may misinterpret a constant reactor power with a constant DT.
- d. incorrect - Core flow will decrease and if reactor power remains constant then DT across the core will increase and stabilize at a higher value. Examinee may misinterpret a decrease in flow correlating to a decrease in DT and returning to the original value since reactor power remains constant.
Watts Bar SRO
- 22. 017K3.01 001 Ifall core-exit thermocouples are inoperable during an event in which the RCPs were tripped, what indication(s) may be used to verify that natural circulation cooling is occurring?
A. RCS hot leg temperatures only B. RCS cold leg temperatures only C. Both RCS cold leg and hot leg temperatures D. There are no direct indications to verify natural circulation for this condition.
REF: Bank (NA'02)
Wafts Bar, ES-01, "Reactor Trip Response
- a. incorrect - insufficient information
- b. incorrect - insufficient information
- c. correct - the difference in temperatures will be adequate to determine of natural circulation has been established
- d. incorrect, using both hot and cold legs is adequate
Watts Bar SRO
- 23. 022AG2.1.32 001 During water Solid operations with letdown from RHR, SOI-62.01 requires that 1-FCV-62-83, RHR LETDOWN FLOW CONTROL be full open.
Which ONE of the following describes the basis for this precaution?
A. To ensure maximum letdown flow rate for purification.
B. To ensure VCT level can be maintained under all charging flow conditions.
C. To ensure 1-PCV-62-81, Letdown Pressure Control can control pressure transients.
D. To ensure RCS to RHR Suction Relief Valve (1-RFV-74-505) isn't challenged.
REF: RHR, 3-OT-SYS074A Distractor analysis:
Answer A is incorrect because charging flow controls letdown flow.
Answer B is incorrect because balancing charging and letdown controls VCT level.
Answer C is correct because with FCV-62-83 less than full open, it can in effect limit flow and prevent pressure reduction when PCV-62-81 fully opens in response to a high pressure transient.
Answer D is incorrect because the suction relief can be challenged by other factors (eg. pump starts) even with FCV-62-83 full open.
Watts Bar SRO
- 24. 022G2.1.10 001 Which ONE of the following correctly identifies the minimum and maximum allowable temperatures per Tech Spec for the Containment upper compartment temperature in Mode 2.
A. Between 85°F and 120°F.
Bt Between 60°F and 110°F.
C. Between 60°F and 120°F.
D. Between 85°F and 110°F.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS030C, obj 3 WB TS 3.6.5 Modified from WB exam bank which asked MODE 1 limits.
Distractor analysis:
See attached TS
Watts Bar SRO
- 25. 024AK2.01 001 A condition has occurred which warrants entry into AOI-34, "Immediate Boration". While attempting to borate, the aligned boric acid pump TRIPS.
Which ONE of the following Immediate Boration flowpaths should be used in this condition?
A. To the suction of the CCPs through Emergency Borate valve 1-FCV-62-138 after re-aligning the boric acid pump on tank recirc.
B. To the suction of the CCPs through Manual Boration valve 1-ISV-62-929 after re-aligning the boric acid pump on tank recirc.
Cf To the suction of the CCPs through 1-FCV-62-135 and 136 using the RWST as the boration source.
D. From the discharge of the CCPs through 1-FCV-63-25 and 26 using the BIT as the boration source.
REF: AOI-34, Immediate Boration
Watts Bar SRO
- 26. 025A3.02 001 Given the following:
- Large Break LOCA has occurred causing a Reactor Trip and Safety Injection
- OAC observes annunciator "Glycol Exp Tank Level HI/HI-Hi" is lit Which ONE of the following describes the most likely reason the annunciator is illuminated?
A. Phase A closes the glycol containment isolation valves; glycol inside containment heats up and relief valves on the auxilary building side of the isolation valves relieve glycol into the glycol expansion tank.
up B. Phase A closes the glycol containment isolation valves; glycol inside containment heats and expands into the glycol expansion tank.
C. Phase B closes the glycol containment isolation valves; glycol inside containment heats up and relief valves on the auxilary building side of the isolation valves relieve glycol into the glycol expansion tank.
up D. Phase B closes the glycol containment isolation valves; glycol inside containment heats and expands into the glycol expansion tank.
REF: Bank lesson plan OT-SYS061A drawing 1-47-814-2 In the event of a LOCA, the glycol heats up from approximately -5 F to the containment accident temperature and expands harmlessly into the expansion tank. The liquid trapped between a pair of isolation valves is relieved around the inner isolatin valve through a bypass line via a small check valve. The bypass line also contains test connections for periodic leak testing of the isolation valves and check valve.
- a. incorrect - no relief valves feedback to the expansion tank
- b. correct
- c. incorrect - no relief valves feedback to the expansion tank
- d. incorrect - phase B does not close the these valves
Watts Bar SRO
- 27. 025AA2.07 001 Given the following:
- RCS temperature is 118 F
- Reactor Vessel head is removed
- Reactor Upper Internals are installed in the reactor vessel
- Refueling Level is 718' 6"
- RCS draining is in process at 10 gpm
- RHR pump A is running with indicated flow of 2700 gpm
- RHR pump A begins to exhibit indications of cavitation The cavitation and subsequent loss of RHR heat removal is occurring due to .......
A. draining with the upper internals in place, which reduced the RHR suction pressure.
B. steam binding of the RHR pump, caused by low recirculation flow.
CQ air entrapment at the RHR suction inlet, caused by the high flow conditions.
D. draining with the upper internals in place, which reduced the RHR discharge pressure.
Ref. Bank SOI-74.01 AOI-14 GO.10
- a. incorrect, upper internal installation will not effect RHR suction pressure.
- b. incorrect, recirculation flow valve shuts.at 1400gpm
- c. correct, air entrapment occurs at higher flow rates, normal midloop flow rate is 2000
- d. incorrect, upper internals installed will not effect RHR discharge pressure to this extent
Watts Bar SRO
- 28. 025G2.1.27 001 Which ONE of the following is a purpose of the Ice Condenser System?
A. Helps limit peak clad temperature of the fuel by maintaining a minimum back pressure on the RCS during blowdown phase.
B. Uses sodium tetraborate to remove elemental hydrogen from the containment atmosphere.
C. Absorbs (thermal) energy released during LOCA to control the peak pressure in containment.
D. Uses sodium hydroxide to remove elemental iodine from the containment atmosphere.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS061A, obj 2
Watts Bar SRO
- 29. 026A1.01 001 Given the following:
- A Rx trip/Safety Injection has occurred due to a Large Break LOCA
- Containment Pressure is 1.6 psig and rising
- One High Containment Pressure bistable has illuminated Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response to prevent Containment Pressure from exceeding design limits?
Aý Continue to closely monitor Containment Pressure and the High Containment Pressure bistable status.
B. Manually actuate HS-30-64A, Phase B Actuation Switch on M-6, and HS-30-68A, Phase B Actuation Switch on M-5, simultaneously.
C. Manually start and align Train A and Train B Containment Spray Systems.
D. Manually actuate HS-30-64A, Phase BActuation Switch on M-6, and HS-30-64B, Phase B Actuation Switch on M-6, simultaneously.
REF: WB bank 3-OT-SYS072A, Containment Spray System Lesson Plan N3-72-4001, Containment Heat Removal Spray System
Watts Bar SRO
- 30. 026AK3.03 001 Given the following:
- Unit is at 100% power.
"- "A" Train CCS Surge tank level is dropping due to a leak.
- US has entered AOl-15, Loss of Component Cooling Water.
Which ONE of the following describes required actions in the event "A"Train CCS surge tank level cannot be maintained.
A. Transfer "A"Train CCS suction to the "B"Train side of the surge tank, isolate non ESF header.
B. Shift Thermal Barrier Booster pump suction to "B"train, shutdown affected "A" Train components, start "B"Train components as necessary.
C. Stop the thermal barrier booster pumps, trip the Reactor and stop all RCPs.
D. Shutdown running "A"Train components and place in auto, start "B"Train components as necessary.
Reference:
SYS072A.08 WB Bank
Watts Bar SRO
- 31. 027AK3.03 001 Given the following:
- Unit I is at 100% power.
- Annunciator 89A, PZR PORV LINE TEMP HI, illuminates.
- Both PORV's indicate closed.
- Pressurizer pressure is normal.
In accordance with AOI-6,Small Reactor Coolant System Leak, which ONE of the following is the correct action and reason?
A. Close the associated block valve because a vapor-space leak causes PZR level to increase.
B. Close both block valves because a vapor-space leak causes PZR level to increase.
Cf Close the associated block valve because the PRT will rupture.
D. Close both block valves and remove power because the PRT will rupture.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-AOI1800, obj. I & 5 AOI-18 AOI-6 ARI 89-A Disaster analysis:
that Answer A and B are incorrect because PZR level rise is only associated with large leaks affect PZR pressure.
Answer C is correct because it follows the ARI guidance and small leaks can raise PRT pressure to the rupture disc setpoint.
Answer D is incorrect because power should not be removed.
Watts Bar SRO
- 32. 028AA2.12 001 Question Deleted from Exam Given the following:
-Unit 1 is at 100% power
-Pressurizer level is dropping slowly
-The output of the Pressurizer Level Controller, 1-LIC-68-339, is rising
-The Charging Flow Controller, 1-HIC-62-93A, is rising
-Charging flow dropping.
-Annuciator 92C, PZR LEVEL LO-HTRS OFF & LTDN CLOSED is illuminated Which ONE of the following is the cause of the Pressurizer level decrease?
A. 1-FCV 93, charging flow control valve has developed a diaphram leak.
B. The Charging Flow Controller output, 1-HIC-62-93A, is failing high.
C. The PZR Level Controller, 1-LIC-68-339, is failing high.
D. The Tavg input to the PZR is failing high.
Question Deleted from exam due to addition of incorrect annuciator alarm.
Ref: Watts Bar lesson plan 3-OT-SYS068C, obj. 15 Watts Bar lesson plan 3-OT-SYS062A Distractor analysis:
to Answer A is incorrect because FCV-62-93 fails open, hence a diaphram leak would tend enough, the flow controller would make the valve open (higher flow). Note: If the leak is small out handle it with increased output, but flow would stay on program until the controller max'ed and then flow would increase.
Answer B is correct because the Charging Flow Controller failing, in this case high, causes FCV-62-93 to close thus decreasing flow and hence PZR level.
Answer C is incorrect because the PZR Level Contoller failing high would call for more charging flow thus causing Charging flow and PZR level to increase.
Answer D is incorrect because the auctioneeried high controlling Tav would call for a level or increase until it max'ed out the program. This would cause charging flow to either increase remain the same.
Watts Bar SRO
- 33. 029EA1.13 001 Which ONE of the following is the NEXT action the operator is required to take if the main turbine does NOT trip automatically and CANNOT be tripped from the MCR: per FR-S.1, "RESPONSE TO NUCLEAR POWER GENERATION/ATWS"?
A. Place both EHC pumps control switches in P-T-L.
B. Trip the turbine locally at the front standard.
CŽ Manually RUNBACK the turbine.
D. Shut the MSIV's.
REF: WB lesson plan 3-OT-FRS-0001, Obj. 3 WB exam bank Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because it is a followup action later in the procedure, step 9 RNO.
B is incorrect because it is a local action if MCR actions fail, step 9 RNO.
C is correct per RNO step 2 D is also in RNO step 2, but only occurs if runback doesn't work.
Watts Bar SRO
- 34. 029K1.02 001 Which ONE of the following describes the sample path of RE-90-130, Cntmt Purge Exhaust, and effect of the alarm exceeding the alarm setpoint?
A. RE-90-130 samples the Cntmt Purge Exhaust discharge and initiates a Containment Phase A Isolation upon alarm.
Bf RE-90-130 samples the Cntmt Purge Exhaust suction and initiates a Containment Vent Isolation upon alarm.
C. RE-90-130 samples the Cntmt Purge Exhaust discharge and initiates a Containment Vent Isolation upon alarm.
A D. RE-90-130 samples the Cntmt Purge Exhaust suction and initiates a Containment Phase Isolation upon alarm.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS030C, obj. 10 WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS090A, pp. 63 SOI 88.1, Checklist #3 Dwg. 1-47W866-1
Watts Bar SRO
- 35. 032AK1.01 001 Given the following conditions:
- Reactor Startup in progress
- Shutdown Banks withdrawn Control Bank withdrawal is imminent SRM N132 indicates approximately 1000 cps SRM N131 is in bypass Which ONE of the following will occur if the control power fuse for SRM N131 blows?
A. Lose indication for SRM N131 on Main Control Board and NIS cabinets B. Both SRM drawers deenergizes and "non-operate" alarm acuates Cr Reactor Trips D. Rod withdrawal is blocked REF: WB bank Lesson Plan SYS092A
- a. incorrect-not all indicatipon lost since instrument power is available
- b. incorrect-SRM N132 unaffected by loss of control power to SRM N131
- c. correct- loss of control power deenergizes bistables and initiates trip signal (1/2 logic)
- d. incorrect - Source range low does not initiate rod stop
Watts Bar SRO
- 36. 034K4.01 001 Which ONE of the following describes a feature of the Refueling Machine designed to prevent the accidental release of a fuel assembly?
A. The Gripper is mechanically engaged and disengaged by a remote operating handle on the bridge and requires no power or air to operate.
Bf The gripper requires air to disengage, however, a mechanical latch prevents gripper release under load even if air is supplied.
C. The gripper disengages upon loss of air, however, a mechanical latch prevents gripper release under load even ifair is removed.
D. When the gripper is engaged, operators mechanically lock gripper in place with extension shaft which must be unlocked before the gripper can release.
Ref: lesson 3-OT-SYSO79 (LO 11)
- a. incorrect - air required to disengage
- b. correct - mechanical latch on gripper works under load
- c. incorrect - engages on loss of air
- d. incorrect - no operator action required for gripper mechanical latch to operate
Watts Bar SRO
- 37. 035K1.09 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- The reactor is operating at 50% power.
- Rod control is in MANUAL.
- Turbine control is in IMP-IN.
- #3 S/G PORV fails OPEN.
Which ONE of the following describes the resulting steady-state conditions?
(Assume no reactor trip or operator action and turbine power remains constant)
Ar Final Tavg < initial Tavg and final power > initial power.
B. Final Tavg < initial Tavg and final power = initial power.
C. Final Tavg = initial Tavg and final power > initial power.
D. Final Tavg = initial Tavg and final power = initial power.
Ref: TAA01 1, General theory section Distractor analysis:
A is correct steam loss through PORV causes Tav decrease which adds positive reactivitiy which causes power to rise. Tav will remain less than initial Tav because some of the reactivity is used to overcome power defect associated with power rise.
B, C, and D are incorrect because they conflict with the above correct answer.
Note: Since IMP-IN is given, do we need to tell them that turbine power remains constant?
Watts Bar SRO
- 38. 037AK3.07 001 Given the following:
- A SG tube leak of approximately 30 gpm has been identified on SG #3.
- The operating crew has entered AOI-33, Steam Generator Tube Leak.
- Operators have completed Step 21 of the AOI and have isolated feed flow to SG #3 after verifying level greater than 10%.
Which ONE of the following is a basis for ensuring the affected SG level greater than 10%?
A. To ensure that the pressure and temperature limits of the SG shell are maintained.
B. To prevent the RCS cooldown from causing depressurization of the affected SG.
C. To prevent SG overfill.
D. To prevent thermal shock to the tubes during RCS cooldown.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-AO13300, obj. 8 A is incorrect in that these limits apply to CSD conditions in B is correct because the insulating layer of water above the tubesheet helps trap pressure the S/G and minimize tube dip during cooldown.
C is incorrect because level control is not an issue.
D is incorrect because there is no sudden introduction of cold water after the level is attained.
Watts Bar SRO
- 39. 038EA1.04 001 Given the following:
- Unit I was at 100% and experienced a failed open PZR PORV for which the block valve only partially closed.
- After the immediate actions of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, it has been determined that #3 SG is ruptured.
- The operating crew has isolated the ruptured SG and transitioned to ECA-3.1, SGTR and LOCA - Subcooled Recovery
- RCS pressure is 1750 psig and rising
- Pressurizer level is 100%
- RCS temperature is 5300 F
- #3 SG Narrow Range level is 80% and rising
- All automatic systems have functioned properly and RCP's are running Which ONE of the following describes the actions required to stabilize SG break flow?
A. Cooldown by dumping steam from the non-ruptured SG's followed by depressurization of the RCS with Pressurizer Spray Valves.
B. Cooldown with RHR followed by depressurization of the RCS with Pressurizer Spray valves.
Cf Cooldown by dumping steam from the non-ruptured SG's followed by depressurization of the RCS by sequenced removal of ECCS pumps.
D. Cooldown with RHR followed by depressurization of the RCS by sequenced removal of ECCS pumps.
Ref: WB EOP E-3, Stm Gen Tube Rupture, pg 16 and 17 Distractor analysis:
ECA-3.1 does not allow depressurization by PORV's or spray if PZR level is greater than 29%.
Watts Bar SRO
- 40. 039A1.03 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Startup in progress.
- Operators are warming the main steam lines using the MSIV bypasses.
- The OAC observes that the RCS has cooled down 108°F in the past hour.
- The CRO observes that the main steam lines have heated up 102'F in the past hour.
Which ONE of the following indicates the actions that should be taken by the operators and why?
A. Close the MSIV bypass valves; RCS cooldown limit was exceeded.
B. Close the MSIV bypass valves; main steam line heat-up limit was exceeded.
C. Close the MSIV bypass valves; both RCS and main steam line limits were exceeded.
D. Leave MSIV bypass valves open; NO RCS or main steam line limits were exceeded.
Ref: WB Exam Bank WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS001A, obj 24
- a. Correct - RCS cooldown limit of 100°F/hr was exceeded; main steam line limit of 200°F/hr was NOT exceeded. Closing the bypass valves would terminate the cooldown
- b. Incorrect - main steam line limit was not exceeded. Examinee could confuse the RCS and main steam line limits.
- c. Incorrect - only the RCS cooldown limit was exceeded. Examinee may believe the limits were the same. Closing the bypass valve would terminate the cooldown.
- d. Incorrect - examinee could confuse the limits and believe that neither limit was exceeded, however the RCS cooldown limit was exceeded and closing the bypass valve would terminate the cooldown.
Watts Bar SRO
- 41. 040AG2.4.6 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit was at 100% power.
- A main steam line break occurred in the Turbine Building.
- Operators were unable to close the MSIVs and transitioned to ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators.
- SI termination steps are in progress.
- Loop 3 MSIV is closed locally.
- The CRO observes the #3 SG pressure rising slowly.
Which ONE of the following actions should be performed?
A. Transition to E-2, "Faulted SG Isolation".
B. Transition to ES-1.1, "SI Termination".
C. Remain in ECA-2.1 until RHR is in service.
D.I Remain in ECA-2.1 until SI is terminated.
REF: ECA-2.1 Caution prior to step 17; Lesson plan 3-OT-EOP0201 p. 10 WBN Exam Bank but
- a. incorrect - With SI termination in progress the crew should remain in ECA-2.1, examinee may select since this would be the correct transition ifSI termination was not in progress. but
- b. incorrect - With SI termination in progress the crew should remain in ECA-2.1, examinee may misinterpret step action and select the normal SI termination procedure vs. ECA-2. 1. but
- c. incorrect-With SI termination in progress the crew should remain in ECA-2.1, is examinee may select to stay in ECA-2.1 until complete which is after RHR placed in service.
with if
- d. correct - A caution prior to the SI termination steps of ECA-2.1 states that E-2 should any intact S/G is restored during SI termination steps that transition to be delayed until SI is terminated.
Watts Bar SRO
- 42. 041K3.04 001 Given the following conditions:
- Unit at 100% power, EOL conditions.
- Turbine operating in IMP OUT.
- A steam dump valve inadvertently comes full open.
- All other control systems normal.
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the plant conditions, when plant stabilizes, and assuming NO operator action?
A. Megawatts electrical same as initial; reactor power rises.
B. Megawatts electrical same as initial; reactor power drops.
C! Megawatts electrical drops; reactor power rises.
D. Megawatts electrical drops; reactor power drops.
Ref: WB Exam Bank WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYSOOIB, obj 27 WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS001 B, pp. 24
Watts Bar SRO
- 43. 045A3.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Plant operating at 100% power.
- All systems aligned normal.
- Turbine EHC control is in IMP OUT.
Which ONE of the following describes turbine governor valve operation while in IMP OUT mode?
NOT A. Governor valve position is adjusted to maintain generator load constant and will respond to changes in system frequency.
will B. Governor valve position is adjusted to maintain generator load constant and respond to changes in system frequency.
C. Maintains governor valves at a set reference position and will NOT respond to changes in system frequency.
in D. Maintains governor valves at a set reference position but will respond to changes system frequency.
Ref: WB Exam Bank WB Lesson Plan OT SYS047A Obj. 2 Lesson plan pp. 12 and 18 Info on pp. 12 and 18 seem to conflict, need to follow up w/ site.
- a. Incorrect - in the IMP OUT mode governor valves adjust to maintain load and system frequency.
- b. Incorrect - in the IMP OUT mode governor valves adjust to maintain load and system frequency.
- c. Incorrect - governor valves are set at a reference set in by the operator, but WILL change in response to system frequency changes
- d. Correct - governor valves are set at a reference set in by the operator and WILL change in response to system frequency changes.
Watts Bar SRO
- 44. 05IAA2.02S 001 Given the following:
- Condenser pressure rising; operators dropping turbine load in attempt to maintain vacuum.
- Condenser backpressure is 5.7" Hga.
- Main turbine load is 43%.
Which ONE of the following would be the FIRST to automatically occur or be procedurally required if condenser pressure continues to rise?
A. Auto main turbine trip on low vacuum.
B. Manual reactor trip.
C. Loss of steam dump capability.
D. Manual turbine trip.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-AOII100, obj. 2 AOI-11, Sec. 2.3; Sec. 3.0 steps 6-8 WB Exam bank Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because auto trip does not occur until vacuum >7.0 Hga B is incorrect because the procedure directs turbine trip first.
C is incorrect because are capable unitl vacuum reaches >6.5 Hga D is correct per guidance in AOI II
Watts Bar SRO
- 45. 054AG2.4.48 001 Given the following:
- Unit I is at 100% power.
- Annunciator 63-F, SG LEVEL DEVIATION, alarms and the operator notices S/G #1 level rising along with MFP speed and the remaining S/G levels constant.
Which ONE of the following describes the (1) cause, (2) required action and (3) consequence of no operator action?
Runback A. (1) #1 S/G FRV is opening, (2) return #1 S/G level to program, (3) Auto Turbine initiated Isolation B. (1) #1 S/G FRV is opening, (2) return #1 S/G level to program, (3) Feedwater initiated (3) Auto C. (1) MFP master contoller failing high, (2) control MFP speed using manual, Turbine Trip initiated Isolation D. (1) MFP master contoller failing high, (2) manually trip turbine, (3) Feedwater initiated Ref: WB 3-AOI-1600 Distractor analysis:
a FW isolation.
A is incorrect because the consequence is a P-14, Hi-Hi SG level which initaties AOI-16 for cause, action is from B is correct because only one SG is rising, hence a FRV is the FRV failure and FW isolation occurs with no operator action at P-14.
the same.
C is incorrect because a problem with the MFP controller would affect all SG's D is incorrect same as C.
Watts Bar SRO
- 46. 055EK3.02 001 Which ONE of the following is a purpose for depressurizing all intact SGs to 300 psig during the performance of ECA-0.0, "Loss of Shutdown Power"?
A. Reduces DP across SG U-tubes to minimize possibility of tube rupture.
Bf Reduces DP across RCP seals to minimize leakage and loss of RCS inventory.
C. Maximizes Natural Circulation flow before Reflux cooling begins as the RCS becomes saturated.
D. Maximizes Natural Circulation flow to allow reactor vessel head to cool since CRDM are unavailable.
References:
ECA-0.0; ECAOOOO.03 WB bank, ECA-0.O
Watts Bar SRO
- 47. 055K3.01 001 Given the following conditions:
- Reactor power is steady-state at 100%.
- Rod control is in automatic.
- Condenser Vacuum Pumps IA and lB are running with 1C pump out of service for maintenance.
Which ONE of the following conditions could result if NO operator action is taken in response to a COND VACUUM PUMP 1B SEAL WTR PRESS LOW alarm?
A. Rising megawatt output and rising steam seal header pressure.
B. Rising megawatt output and rising condenser hotwell level.
C. Dropping megawatt output and dropping condensate temperature.
D. Dropping megawatt output and rising condensate temperature.
REF: WB Lesson plan 3-OT-SYS1100, obj 4 Distractor analysis: A Degraded vacuum causes megawatt output to decrease due to reduce delta H. Therefore, and B are incorrect. D is correct Condenser is a saturated system, so higher Psat means higher Tsat. Therefore and C is incorrect.
Watts Bar SRO
- 48. 056AK1.OIS 001 Given the following:
-Unit 1 has experienced a Loss of Offsite Power
-The operating crew is currently performing a cooldown, in accordance with ES-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown
-Prior to initiating the cooldown, two CRDM fans trip Which ONE of the following describe the implications of the loss of the two CRDM fans?
A. The time to achieve RHR conditions is longer, requiring additional CST makeup.
AFW suctions.
B. Steam voiding in the RCS vessel will occur unless ERCW is supplied to the C. Loss of RCS subcooling will occur as the RCS is being depressuized.
to commencing D. At least one of the tripped fans must be restarted (total of 3 running) prior cooldown.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-EOPOOOO, obj. 15 WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-EOPOOOO pp. 41 &42 Distractor analysis:
reduced from A is correct because with less than three CRDM's, the max cooldown rate isfor step in lesson 50°F/hr to 25°F/hr which challenges the CST makeup capability (see basis plan) in not related to B is incorrect because voiding in the vessel is related to depressurization which the choice of filling the CST from ERCW.
C is incorrect because the procedure contols subcooling margin during depressurization prior to start of D is incorrect because the procedure does not require 3 or more CRDM fans cooldown.
including (5) Facility operating characteristics during steady state and transient conditions,changes, effects coolant chemistry, causes and effects of temperature, pressure and reactivity these operating characteristics.
of load changes, and operating limitations and reasons for
Watts Bar SRO
- 49. 056K1.03 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is at 72% power.
- Both MFPT's in service to
- A control problem causes 1-FCV-2-210, Condensate Inlet to 1A MFPT Condenser, close.
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on continued plant operation?
A. The Standby MFP starts and Rx power must be reduced.
B! The Standby MFP starts and Rx power can remain 72%.
C. The Standby MFP does not start and Rx power must be reduced.
D. The Standby MFP does not start and Rx power can remain at 72%.
Ref: 3-OT-SYS002A, obj. 15 3-OT-SYS003A, obj. 5 &7 Distractor analysis:
A and D are incorrect, because the 1A MFP trips on low condenser vacuum C is incorrect because the standby feed pump auto starts -15% turbine power B is correct, because the standby feed pump starts and is able to carry and the I B MFP can carry 67%, the sum of which is above 72%.
Watts Bar SRO
- 50. 057AA2.19 001 Unit 1 is shutting down due to a failure of 120 VAC Vital Instrument Power Board 1-1. When Rx power is approximately 10%, the unit trips.
Which ONE of the following decribes the reason for the trip?
A. SRM High Flux Trip B. IRM High Flux Trip C. Low Setpoint of PRM High Flux Trip D. High Setpoint of PRM High Flux Trip REF: WB lesson plan 3-OT-A012500, Obj. I and 2 WB procedure AOI-25, pp. 8 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because the plant is above P-6 B is correct because 1 of 2 IRM's high flux trip is in when the plant goes below P-10 which reinstates the IRM High Flux Trip function.
C is incorrect because coincidence for PRM trip not met power less than trip setpoint.
D is incorrect because coincidence for PRM trip not met and
Watts Bar SRO
- 51. 059AA1.01 001 Given the following:
-Unit 1 is operating at 50% power
-Annunciator 178-A, SG BLDN 1-RM-120/121 LIQ RAID HI alarms Which ONE of the following correctly describes plant response and the actions of the control room operators?
A. No automatic action and operators verify alarm validity.
B! Operators verify SG Blowdown is isolated to Cooling Tower Blowdown and aligned to Condensate Demin.
the C. Operators verify Auxiliary Bldg Rad Waste discharge header is isolated from blowdown line.
D. Operators verify Cooling Tower blowdown flow is bypassed to the 35 acre pond.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-AO131000, obj. 2 & 3 ARI 178-A Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because RM 120/121 have auto actions B is correct base on ARI 178-A C is incorrect the Aux Bldg in not involved in SGBD stream D is incorrect because this action would not prevent an offsite release.
Wafts Bar SRO
- 52. 059K6.09 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is at 60% power with both 1A and 1 B MFP's operating in AUTO.
- I-PT-1-33, Steam Header Pressure, output begins to slowly drift LOW.
- Assume no operator action Water System?
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the Main Feed pressure begins to A. Feed Water Reg valves begin to close and then both MFP's discharge rise.
Water Reg valves begin to B. Both MFP's discharge pressure begins to rise and all Feed open.
Water Reg valves begin to C. Both MFP's discharge pressure begins to drop and all Feed open.
discharge pressure begins to D. Feed Water Reg valves begin to close and then both MFP's drop.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS0003A, obj. 6 WB Dwg. 47W611-03-02 Distractor analysis:
because steam flow remains C is correct because input from dip program remains constant dip actual (as sensed) to increase above contant. However, PT-1-33 failing low, causes the its output to the speed control program. This in turn causes the speed summer to decrease pressure. Flow rate will decrease station which will reduce feedpump speed and it's discharge and the FRV's will open to increase flow to the S/G's.
answer with one parameter All other answer's are incorrect because they are variations of the going in the wrong direction.
Wafts Bar SRO
- 53. 060AA2.04 001 Given the following plant condtions:
- Gas Decay Tank release in progress with ABGTS running for dilution air flow to the Auxiliary
- A leak occurs on the waste gas compressor which results in a gas release building
- O-RE-90-101, Auxiliary Building Vent Monitor, is in alarm
- Assume no operator action Which ONE of the following indicates the effect this leak will have on the plant?
A. Gas Decay Tank release will be terminated; ABGTS will be stopped run B. Gas Decay Tank release will be terminated; ABGTS will continue to C. Gas Decay Tank release will continue; ABGTS will be stopped D. Gas Decay Tank release will continue; ABGTS will continue to run REF: WB EXAM 01
Watts Bar SRO
- 54. 061A1.04 001 for a Which ONE of the following describes the base assumptions for minimum CST volume Loss of Offsite Power?
A. 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> in Mode 3 followed by 50 °F/hr cooldown rate to Mode 5.
B. Immediately cooldown at 50 °F/hr cooldown rate to Mode 4.
4.
C' 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> in Mode 3 followed by a 50 °F/hr cooldown rate to Mode D. Immediately cooldown at 50 °F/hr cooldown rate to Mode 5.
REF: Byron WB AFW System description N3-3B-4002
- a. incorrect - capacity is for a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> hold then cool to mode 4
- b. incorrect - capacity for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> and then cool to mode 4 to mode 4
- c. correct - stand pipe in CST ensures 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> hold and then 50 F/hr cooldown 4
- d. incorrect - capacity to hold for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> with 50 F/hr cooldown to mode
Watts Bar SRO
- 55. 061AA1.01 001 Isolation?
Which ONE of the following area radiation monitors intiate a Containment Ventilation A. Waste Disposal System Gas Effluent Monitor, O-RM-90-118 Bý Containment Purge Rad Monitor, 1-RM-90-130 C. Fuel Pool Area Monitor, O-RM-90-102 D. Personnel Access Area Monitor, 1-RM-90-2 REF: Lesson plan SYS90A
- a. incorrect - hi rad closes the vent header isol
- b. correct
- c. incorrect - isolates the aux building, does not generate an ABI
- d. incorrect - no auto actions
Watts Bar SRO
- 56. 062A3.05 001 Given that the following occurred in sequence:
- A small break LOCA occurred which resulted in a reactor trip and SI.
- The SI signal was reset during the performance of E-1, "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant."
- A loss of offsite power (LOOP) occurred and the diesel generators loaded as designed.
loads on Assuming no operator actions, which ONE of the following would be the status of the the 6.9kV SD boards?
in automatic will A. All equipment powered from the SD boards with the control board switch be restarted.
B. No 6.9kV SD board loads are automatically restarted.
and RHR C. Equipment normally started during a LOOP will be automatically restarted; SI pumps remain OFF.
All D. All equipment that was operating prior to the LOOP will be automatically restarted; running ESF equipment will be reenergized
Reference:
WB Exam Bank
Watts Bar SRO
- 57. 062AG2.4.24 001 to the Which ONE of the following correctly identifies the emergency cooling water supply 3 "Loss of ERCW", if normal ERCW control and station service air compressors, per AOI-1 supply is lost?
A. Raw Cooling Water header Bf Raw Service Water header C. Unit 1 Primary Water header D. Demin Water header Ref: AOI-13 DWG 47w850-1 47w845-5
- a. incorrect - RCW does not support the compressers
- c. incorrect - no ERCW connection to support compressers
- d. incorrect -
Watts Bar SRO
- 58. 063K3.02 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 was at 100% power when a reactor trip occurred due to Lo-Lo S/G level
- 1A-A DG was running paralled to the 6.9kV Shutdown Board for surveillance.
- In additon to the expected post trip annuciators, the operator notes A 125 DC VITAL CHGR/BATT I ABNORMAL B 125 DC VITAL BATT BD I ABNORMAL CKTS ISOLATED by 1A-A DG?
Which ONE of the following describes the response to this event A. IA-A DG trips and its output breaker opens B. lA-A DG continues to run and it's output breaker opens C. 1A-A DG trips and its output breaker remains closed D' 1A-A DG continues to run and its output breaker remains closed Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-AOI2100, obj. I & 2 3-OT-SYS057P, obj. 8 WB Dwg's 1-45W724-1 1-45W727 1-45W760-82-2 1-45W760-211-4 Distractor analysis:
power, but the output breaker A is incorrect because the DG can run using its own DC control has not control power to trip.
B is incorrect because the output breaker has no control power to trip.
C is incorrect because the DG does no trip output breaker remains closed D is correct because the DG has its own control power and the due to no control power.
Watts Bar SRO
- 59. 064K2.03 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is at 100% power
- All Diesel Generators are in standby
- Annunciator 281-A, DG CONTROL POWER FAILURE for 1A-A DG the Which ONE of the following describes the status of the Diesel Generator(s) AFTER annunciator alarms?
A. 1A-A DG starts and is operable.
B! 1A-A DG does not start and is inoperable.
C. All four diesel generators start and are operable.
D. All four diesel generators do not start and are inoperable.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYSOB2B, obj. 10 ARI 281-A Dwg 1-45W727 1-45W760-82-2 1-45W760-82-4 1-45W760-82-6 Distractor analysis:
Diesel 125V DC A is incorrect because the starting air solenoids need power from the evidenced by the annunciator 281-A.
Distribution Panel 1-DPL-82-A-A which is deenergized as cannot respond to an auto B is correct because the starting air solenoids have no power and start signal and all 125V vital battery C and D are incorrect because they continue to have control power boards are still energized.
Watts Bar SRO
- 60. 065AA1.01 001 Given the following:
- Unit I is at 100% power
- Annuciator 42E, C&SS AIR COMPR SEQUENCER UNDERVOLTAGE
- Control Air pressure is slowly decreasing Which ONE of the following describes actions for locally controlling air pressure?
A. Take manual control of the Foxboro 43AP pneumatic controller B. Shift AC control power C. Start and stop Control Air Compressors D. Take manual control at the local control station using the solenoid manual valve REF: Watts Bar ARI 42-E lesson plan 3-OT-SYS032A, obj 11 Distractor analysis:
A incorrect because controller has no power B incorrect because control power is DC, but shifting control power takes precedence over taking manual control of unloader C is incorrect due to no procedural guidance and undesirable from equipment standpoint D is correct lAW ARI
Watts Bar SRO Watts Bar Exam SYS026A.21
Watts Bar SRO
- 62. 068AK3.18 001 of Evacuation of the Control Room is required due to a control room fire. The actions which ONE of AOI-30.2, "Fire Safe Shutdown", prior to evacuating the control room include the following?
A. Manual trip of all feedwater pumps B! Deenergizing the RCP start busses at the Electrical Control Board C. Initiating manual Safety Injection D. Manual trip of all unloaded diesel generators Ref: AOI-30.2 Fire Safe Shutdown, appendix C steps I - 8,
Watts Bar SRO
- 63. 068K1.07 001 the Which ONE of the following describe how Incore Intrumentation Seal Table leakage enters Liquid Radwaste System?
A. Drains to the Reactor Coolant Drain Tank then pumped to the Tritiated Drain Collector Tank.
B! Drains to the Reactor Building Floor and Equipment Drain Pocket Sump then pumped to the Reactor Building Floor and Equipment Drain sump and then pumped to the Tritiated Drain Collector Tank.
and C. Drains to the Containment Pit Sump then pumped to the Reactor Building Floor Equipment Drain Sump and then pumped to the Floor Drain Collector Tank.
to the Floor D. Drains to the Reactor Building Floor and Equipment Drain Sump then pumped Drain Collector Tank.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYSO77A, obj.
Dwg. 1-47W851-1
Watts Bar SRO
- 64. 069AK2.03 001 Given the following:
- Unit I is at 100% power.
- Personnel report that they are working in uppr containment and can not get the inner personnel access door closed due to damage.
and Which ONE of the following describes the correct actions for Technical Specifications access to repair the door?
door is via the A. Declare the Upper Airlock Inoperable, preferred access to repair the inner Upper Airlock outer door.
inner door is via the Bf Declare the Upper Airlock Inoperable, preferred access to repair the Lower Airlock and Containment Divider Barrier Hatch.
door is via the Upper C. Upper Airlock remains operable, preferred access to repair the inner Airlock outer door.
door is via the Lower D. Upper Airlock remains operable, preferred access to repair the inner Airlock and Containment Divider Barrier Hatch.
Ref: WB 3-OT-AO1200, obj. 4 WB 3-OT-AO11200, pp. 5 WB Tech Specs Distractor analysis:
door is operable. These A is incorrect because the air lock is not inoperable because the outer actions are for an inoperable air lock.
one hour.
B is incorrect because there is no requirement to repair the inner door within C is correct per Tech Specs 6.2 condition A.
within 1 D is incorrect because there is no requirement per AOl 12 to commence shutdown hour.
Watts Bar SRO
- 65. 071K3.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- A Gas Decay Tank is being released to the atmosphere using the normal release path.
- The tank being released has HIGH gaseous activity.
- O-PCV-77-117, Plant Vent Pressure Control Valve fails toward the open position.
Which ONE of the following radiation monitor pairs will alarm to alert the operators and secure the release, respectively?
Monitor A. Shield Building Ventilation Monitor [E-RE-90-400] and Aux Building Vent
[0-RE-90-1O1].
Ventilation B. Auxiliary Building Ventilation Monitor [0-RE-90-101A] and Shield Building Monitor [E -RE-90-400].
Monitor C. Shield Building Ventilation Monitor [1-RE-90-400] and WDS Gas Effluent
[0-RE-90-118].
D. Auxiliary Building Ventilation Monitor [0-RE-90-101A] and WDS Gas Effluent Monitor [0-RE-90-118].
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYSO77B, obj. 9 3-OT-SYS090A, obj. 7 Distractor analysis A is incorrect because the AB monitor is unrelated to WDS release B is incorrect same as A monitor will trip C is correct because the Shield Bldg monitor will upscale and the WDS effluent FCV-77-119 shut and secure release.
D is incorect same as B
Wafts Bar SRO
- 66. 072G2.4.31 001 Given the following:
-Unit 1 is in Mode 6
-Fuel Movement is in progress
-Annuciator 186-B MCR AREA 0-RM-90-135 RAD HI alarms Which ONE of the following correctly describes the actions of the control room operators?
A. Verify Control Building Isolation occurs.
B. Notify fuel handling crew to stop all fuel movement.
C. Notify RADCON to investigate the alarm.
D. Verify emergency control building air cleanup and pressurizing fans RUNNING.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-090A, obj. 9 ARI 186-B Distractor analysis:
the MCR Intake rad A and D are incorrect because these are auto actions which occur if monitors 125 or 126 alarm area rad monitor and B is incorrect because there would be no relation between Control Room refueling operations (and no other rad monitor alarms are in)
C is correct per ARI guidance
Watts Bar SRO
- 67. 073A2.01S 001 The following conditions exist for Unit 1:
-Mode 6
-Fuel movement in Containment in progress
-Contaiment Purge operating
-Annunciator 174-D, CNTMT PURGE EXH 1-RM-130/131 INSTR MALF alarmed operators?
Which ONE of the following describes the required actions by the control room A. Restore the rad monitor to service within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> or suspend fuel movement.
B. Immediatley shutdown containment purge when the annunciator alarms.
C. Verify that containment purge automatically tripped.
D. Suspend fuel movement until the rad monitor is restored to service.
Ref: WB lesson plan OT-SYS09OA, obj 7 ARI 174-D TS 3.6.6 Distractor analysis:
fuel movement.
A is incorrect because neither the TS nor the ARI direct stoppingrunning B is correct because the ARI directs shutting down purge if it is count rate will C purge does not automatically trip on RM 130/131 low flow (instrument decrease). movement and D is incorrect because again there is no guidance in TS or the ARI to suspend purge).
there are specific actions required within specified timeframes (ie secure
Watts Bar SRO
- 68. 075A4.01 001 Given the following:
- Reactor trip and Safety Injection occurred while the plant was operating at 100% power
- Four ERCW pumps were running in their normal alignment before the SI occurred.
on Which ONE of the following identifies ERCW pump status after the SI and the effect it has the Condenser Circulating Water (CCW) system make-up?
A. Four ERCW pumps running; CCW make-up is provided only from ERCW since RCW bypass strainer is isolated by the SI signal.
RCW B. Four ERCW pumps running; CCW make-up is provided only from ERCW since bypass strainer is routed through the overflow structure.
Co Four ERCW pumps running; CCW make-up is provided from both ERCW and RCW.
D. Four ERCW pumps running; CCW make-up is not required since the Unit is tripped.
REF: lesson plans 3-OT-SYS027A (LO 2) and 067A (LO 13)
- a. incorrect - RCW has a bypass that ensures continuous make-up to CCW
- b. incorrect - RCW has a bypass that ensures continuous make-upto CCW
- c. correct - 2 pumps per train start on SI and RCW has a bypass that ensures continuous make-up to CCW
Watts Bar SRO
- 69. 076AA2.02S 001 Given the following:
- Unit is at 100%
- Chem - Lab reported Reactor Coolant Dose Equivalent Iodine-1 31 Specific Activity is 6.3 gii/gm.
Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following operator actions are now required?
Reference provided power A. Place both CVCS mixed bed demins in service at maximum flow rate and continue operations.
per 4 hr and Bf Monitor Dose Equivalent 1-131 within acceptable region of Appendix A once region of Appendix A.
reduce power as necessary to maintain within acceptable 0
C. Place unit in Mode 3 at less than or equal to 500 F within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.
D. Continue power operations with no additional restrictions.
REF: WB Bank AOI-28 lesson plan 3-OT-AO112800
- a. incorrect - CVCS demins not required be
- b. incorrect - c. incorrect - monitoring not requiredThis action causes the plant to unnecessarily reduce power.
- c. This action causes the plant to be unnecessarily reduce power.
Appendix A
- d. correct - The Reactor Coolant Dose Equivalent lodine-131 Specific Activity per about Dose Equivalent of AOl 28 is less than the limit of 10 mCi/gm. No information is given Iodine-131. Therefore, no action is required.
Spec and the Note: This procedure, AOl 28, poorly distinguishes between the Specific Activity Dose Equivalent Iodine Spec. 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> action.
Watts Bar SRO
- 70. 076K2.08 001 Containment Which ONE of the following describes the power supply for 1-FCV-67-91, Lower 1C Cooler Supply?
Aý 480 V Reactor MOV Board 1B2-B B. 480 V Shutdown Board 1 B2-B C. 480 V Reactor MOV Board 2B1-B D. 480 V Shutdown Board 1BI-B Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS067A, no specific learning objective Dwgs: 1-45W760-67-5 1-45W751-11 1-45W749-4 1-45-W724-2 Distractor Analysis:
A is correct based on attached dwg's.
directly feed any MOV's B and D are incorrect because the 480 V shutdown board does not C is incorrect because they have unit 2 designators.
Watts Bar SRO
- 71. 079K4.01 001 If Station Control and Service Air System air pressure is dropping, the Service Air System automatically isolates from the Control Air System when pressure drops below which ONE of the following?
A. 80 psig.
B. 79.5 psig.
C. 78 psig.
D. 70 psig.
Ref: WB Exam Bank WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-SYS032A, obj. 16 Distractor analysis:
A is correct, see lesson plan pp. 33 (attached)
B is incorrect, corresponds to isolation setpoint of Aux Air C is incorrect, doesn't correspond to any auto event Bldg isolatation D is incorrect, corresponds to essential and non-essential air to the Rx
Watts Bar SRO
- 72. 086G2.4.25S 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is currently at 100%
- A fire has been reported in the Main Steam Valve Room In accordance with AOI-30.2, Fire Safe Shutdown procedure, which ONE of the following equipment failures would result in a loss of the Secondary Side Isolation Function?
Reference provided A. One Main Steam Isolation Valve fails to close B. One Governor Valve fails to close C. One Main Feed Water Isolation Valve fails to close D. One Secondary Safety Valve fails to close Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-AOI 3000, obj 12 AOI-30.2
Wafts Bar SRO
- 73. 103A2.03S 001 Given the following:
-Unit 1 has Safety Injected
-Phase A actuated
-Phase B just actuated not running
-A review of the Main Control Board indicates that the Air Return Fans are Which ONE of the following describes the correct action and reason?
started on a Phase B A. Immediately start the Air Return Fans because they should have Isolation Signal.
Hydrogen gas pockets from Bf Start Air Return fans when 10 minutes have elapsed to prevent forming in Containment.
pockets from forming in C. Immediately start the Air Return Fans to prevent Hydrogen gas Containment.
overloading safety related D. Start Air Return fans when 10 minutes have elapsed to prevent electrical busses during initial transient.
REF: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS03OD, obj 3 WB procedure E-0, step 11, RNO Distractor analysis:
A and C are incorrect because E-0 requires waiting 10 min.
to electrical loading D is incorrect because there are no reference in FSAR, or lesson plans issues.
B is correct based on guidance in E-0 and secondary purpose of system
Watts Bar SRO
- 74. G2.1.14 001 Which ONE of the following is required to be notified when a Temporary Alteration installation has been completed or returned to normal?
A. Unit Operator B. Operations Superintendent C. Shift Manager D. Unit Manager Ref: WB procedure SPP-9.5, Temporary Alterations Distractor analysis:
SPP-9.5 states Shift Manager or "designee", which is the Unit Supervisor.
Watts Bar SRO
- 75. G2.1.2 001 Operators may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or consistent Technical Specifications in the event of a national security emergency and no isaction immediately with the license condition or TS that can meet the national security objectives objectives....
apparent and the action is immediately needed to implement national security Af as designated by the national command authority through the NRC.
B. as designated by the national command authority through TVA Management.
C. as designated by the Technical Support Center during REP activation.
D. as designated by the Technical Support Center with approval by Senior Executive Management.
Ref: WB procedure OPDP-1, sec. 3.4.3, TS compliance A is correct B is incorrect, lacks SRO approval statement C is incorrect, lacks national command authority requirement D is incorrect, refers to risk significant equipment
Watts Bar SRO
- 76. G2.1.3 001 A Unit I UO is preparing to relieve the on-shift UO for a lunch break during a normal shift.
Which ONE of the following describes their required minimum actions when this occurs?
A. A review of the Operating Log since last held shift or 3 days, whichever is less, Standing Orders, LCO(s) in actions B. A review of the Rounds sheets/Abnormal readings , Standing Orders, any SI/Test in progress/planned Cf Abnormal or unusual plant conditions existing, any evolutions in progress, actions anticipated D. Radiological changes in plant during shift, a walkdown of the MCR control boards, SI/Test in progress/planned Ref: Surry exam 2002 OPDP-1, pp. 24 Shift Turnover Checklist A, B, and D are items from the Shift Turnover Checklist which is NOT required for a temporary relief per page 24 of OPDP-1, pp.24 and are therefore incorrect.
C are the items listed on pp. 24 as required for temporary turnover.
Watts Bar SRO
- 77. G2.1.32 001 Flowrates in the Component Cooling Water System is limited to 12000 gpm shell side flow.
Which ONE of the following explains the basis for this precaution?
A. It limits tube dip and Heat Exchanger loading.
B. It limits pump runout and tube vibration.
C. It limits tube vibration and Heat Exchanger loading.
D. Itlimits pump runout and tube erosion.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS070A, obj. 1 SOI-70.01, section 3, P&L's Distractor analysis:
C is correct, see P&L not mentioned but is A,B, and D are incorrect due to either erosion or pump runout which are plausible at high flowrates.
Watts Bar SRO
- 78. G2.2.12 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is at 100%
SI-68-32, Reactor Coolant System Water Inventory Balance is in progress
- 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> has elapsed since commencing data collection
- Final readings from the RCSWIB indicate that the total RCS leakage rate is -0.08 gpm Which ONE of the following describes the correct action to be taken?
A. Sign the surveillance as satisfactory BY Continue data collection for an additional hour C. Void the surveillance and perform at a later time D. Investigate to determine the source of inleakage to the RCS Ref: WB procedure S1-68-32, pp. 16 & 17 A is incorrect because data must be collected for at least an additional hour before the surveillance can be termed complete B is correct, see SI-68-32, pp. 16 & 17 C is incorrect because it is contrary to procedure guidance D is incorrect unless the leakage continues to be negative by more than -0.10 gpm after the second data collection
Wafts Bar SRO
- 79. G2.2.13 001 Which ONE of the following is NOT a reason to tag a device, component, or piece of equipment per SSP-10.2, Clearance Program?
A. Design deficiency B. DCN C. Test activity D. Open Work Orders REF: WB procedure SPP-10.2, pp. 9
Watts Bar SRO
- 80. G2.2.22 001 Which ONE of the following sets of conditions represents a violation of a technical specification safety limit and required action?
Reference Provided A. Power = 10%, Pressure = 2400 psig, Tavg = 655TF, be in Mode 3 within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> 0
Bf Power = 80%, Pressure = 2250 psig, Tavg = 640 F, be in Mode 3 within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> 0
C. Power = 10%, Pressure = 2400 psig, Tavg = 655 F, restore to within limits in 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> D. Power = 80%, Pressure = 2250 psig, Tavg = 640TF, restore to within limits in 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> Ref: TP 2000 WB TS Section 2, Safety limits Distractor analysis:
A and C are incorrect because they are within limits and no action required hours is D is incorrect, because even though it is out of limits, it must be restore within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, 2 the DNB parameter spec.
B is correct because it is both out of limits and has the correct required action per TS
Watts Bar SRO
- 81. G2.2.29 001 The following plant condition exists:
You are SRO for refueling into the reactor vessel when the US informs you that one source range channel has failed it's surveillance.
Which ONE of the following is the required action?
A. Suspend core alterations until the failed source range channel is operable.
B. Continue fuel reload as one channel is operable.
C. Continue fuel reload for = 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> in any 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> period until two source range channels operable.
D. Suspend core alterations until boron sampling has been completed.
Ref: San Onofre Bank 2000 WB Tech Specs, section 3.9.3 B and C are incorrect because they violate TS D is incorrect because it is part of the actions for loss of two source ranges
Watts Bar SRO
- 82. 02.2.8 001 Changes to which ONE of the following will require a 10CFR50.59 review?
A. Change to the Physical Security Plan that requires moving a section of the perimeter fence.
B. Revision to the Radiological Emergency Plan that changes the designated assembly areas for accountability.
C! System modification that adds a full flow recirculation test line to the discharge of the Safety Injection pumps.
D. Changes to the Nuclear Quality Assurance Plan.
Reference:
WB procedure SPP-9.4
Watts Bar SRO
- 83. G2.3.1 001 Which ONE of the following dose components are included in a Radiation Worker's Occupational Dose?
A. Total Effective Dose Equivalent and Planned Special Exposures.
B. Planned Special Exposures and Committed Effective Dose Equivalent.
C. Deep Dose Equivalent and Planned Special Exposure D. Deep Dose Equivalent and Committed Effective Dose Equivalent.
Ref: Surry exam 2002 WB Rad con procedure SPP-5.1, section 5, pp. 32 WB lesson plan 3-OT-RAD0003, pp.10
Watts Bar SRO
- 84. G2.3.4 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- A LOCA has occurred and a SAE has been declared.
- The TSC and OSC have been activated.
- To prevent core damage it is recommended that entry be made into Safety Injection Pump Room 1A.
- Projected dose rate in the pump room is 1.16x10 5 mr/hr.
- Duration of the exposure is expected to be 3 minutes.
Which ONE of the following must authorize this exposure?
A. Site Vice President B. Plant Manager Cf Site Emergency Director D. Radcon Manager
REFERENCES:
EPIP-15 p.3, SPP-5.1 p.10 WBN Exam Bank
- d. incorrect - per EPIP-1 5 of the Radiological Emergency plan the Site Emergency Director must authorize emergency dose limits in excess of TVA admin limits and 10 CFR 20. Examinee may select since the Radcon Manager is responsible for completing the paperwork and he must authorize exceeding the limit during non-emergency conditions.
- c. correct - With a projected dose of 1.16E+5 mr/hr, the total dose to respond to this emergency condition is 5.8 Rem.(1.16E+5 mR/hr / 60 minutes x 3 minutes). Per EPIP-15 of the Radiological Emergency plan the Site Emergency Director must 20.
authorize emergency dose limits in excess of TVA admin limits and 10 CFR
- b. incorrect - per EPIP-15 of the Radiological Emergency plan the Site Emergency Director must authorize emergency dose limits in excess of TVA admin limits and 10 CFR 20. Examinee may select since Plant Manager must authorize exceeding 5 R during non-emergency conditions.
- a. incorrect - per EPIP-15 of the Radiological Emergency plan the Site Emergency Director must authorize emergency dose limits in excess of TVA admin limits and 10 CFR 20. Examinee may select since Plant Manager must authorize exceeding 5 R during non-emergency conditions.
Watts Bar SRO
- 85. G2.3.8 001 Unit 1 is preparing to release Waste Gas Decay Tank E, which was removed from service 32 days ago, in accordance with SOI-77.02, WASTE GAS DISPOSAL SYSTEM.
Which ONE of the following decribes the minimum approval authority for the release?
A. UNIT OPERATOR and CHEMISTRY DUTY MANAGER B. SHIFT MANAGER and UNIT OPERATOR Cf SRO and CHEMISTRY DUTY MANAGER D. SHIFT MANAGER and another SRO Ref: WB procedure SOI-77.02 Distractor analysis:
A and B are incorrect because the Unit Operator is not listed in the procedure as an approval authority.
D is incorrect because the Chemistry Duty Manager must approve release of tanks less than 60 days old.
C is correct per attached procedure
Watts Bar SRO
- 86. G2.3.9 001 Given the following:
-Unit 1 is in Mode 3 following a refueling outage
-Both Containment Purge Systems are in operation
-The Shift Manager has directed that the Containment Purge System be secured in accordance with SOI-30.02, CONTAINMENT PURGE SYSTEM.
Which ONE of the following should be considered prior to securing Containment Purge?
Reference Provided A. Outside air temperature B. Outside atmospheric pressure Cf Radiological implications D. Containment Purge HEPA and Charcoal filter DP Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS30C, obj. 12 WB procedure SOI-30.02 Distractor analysis:
A and D are incorrect because they only apply while the system is in service B is incorrect, because it only applies when placing the system in service C is correct because changes in ventillation, particularly reduction in ventillation can have adverse affects on radiation levels. This is also a precaution in the procedure related to securing CTMT purge. (see below)
CAUTION Radiological implications (e.g.: causing an area to become airborne or raising the humidity in contaminated areas) should be considered any time Containment Purge is secured.
Watts Bar SRO
- 87. G2.4.1 001 Given the following:
-The Unit is at 100% power.
-Atotal Loss of Shutdown Power occurs Which ONE of the following describes the correct procedure and immediate operator action.
A. E-0, Rx Trip or Safety Injection, ensure Rx is tripped by Rod all bottom lights lit Bf ECA-0.0, Loss of Shutdown Power, ensure Rx tripped by neutron flux dropping C. FR-S.1, Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS, ensure Rx is tripped by neutron flux dropping D. ECA-0.0, Loss of Shutdown Power, ensure Rx tripped by rod bottom lights lit Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-PAI1204, obj 1 PAl-1204, E-0, ECA-0.0 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because rod bottom lits will not have power B is correct because emergency procedures can be entered directly from a Loss of Shutdown power and Ni's will still be powered from battery via inverter.
C is incorrect because FR-S.1 is not an allowable procedure to enter EOP's D is incorrect because rod bottom lits will not have power
Watts Bar SRO
- 88. G2.4.11 001 Given the following:
- Unit 1 is at 100% power with known leakage in SG 2 of 0.05 gpm
- The Chem Lab reports that today's leakage is 0.06, up from yesterday's reading of 0.05 gpm Which ONE of the following should be performed?
Reference provided A. Be in Mode 3 within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> B. Reduce load to hot standby in accordance with AOI-39, then cooldown and depressurize the RCS.
C. Trip the reactor; enter E-0, then transition to E-3.
D. Convene PORC to evaluate continued operation.
WB lesson plan 3-OT-AO1300, obj. 8 Procedure AOI-33, appendix B and C Distractor analysis:
A is correct per table in App. B B is incorrect because it the action for greater than 600 per day thru all or 150 per day thru one C is incorrect because 0.6 is well within charging capability which is the decision point for E-0 D is incorrect because it is the action for leaks less than 0.05 per day
Wafts Bar SRO
- 89. G2.4.16 001 While in the Emergency Response procedures the team is directed to "Go To" another procedure, which ONE of the following is the correct implementation of this action?
A. The "GO TO" implies the procedure in use is no longer applicable, and any tasks in progress need not be completed.
B. Tasks still in progress must be completed prior to the transition directed by the "GO TO" step.
C. The "GO TO" implies the procedure in use is no longer applicable, but any tasks in progress should be completed.
D. Tasks still in progress need not be completed prior to the transition directed by the "GO TO" step, unless preceded by a double asterisk.
REF: WB lesson plan 3-OT-PAI-1204, obj. 13 & 19 WB procedure PAI-1204 Bank: From Surry 2002 Distractor analysis:
Answer C is correct, see below paragraph from PAI-1204 Answer A and B are incorrect due to timing or required completion Answer D is incorrect because double astericks relates to high and low level steps vice transitions.
From PAl-1204:
Transition to another step or instruction may be completed before completion of the task in progress, provided that completion of the task is verified at a later time.
Transitions which are not high level action steps are identified with a double asterisk preceding the words GO TO and are in bold face type.
Watts Bar SRO
- 90. G2.4.8 001 Given the following condition:
- The crew has entered ECA-0.0 due to a loss of both SD Bds.
- The Load Dispatcher has recovered one 161KV line from Wafts Bar Hydro.
- The crew has implemented AOI-35.
Which ONE of the following actions should the crew take?
A. Immediately transition to ECA-0.1, Recovery from Loss of Shutdown Power without SI required.
B. Immediately transition to ECA-0.2, Recovery from Loss of Shutdown Power with Sl required.
C. Manually actuate SI and return to E-0, Rx Trip or Safety Injection.
D. Continue with ECA-0.0, Loss of Shutdown Power while concurrently performing AOI-35, Loss of Offsite Power.
Ref: WB procedure ECA-0.0 and AOI-35 WB bank question
Watts Bar SRO
- 91. WE02EK1.2 001 Given the following conditions:
- Main steam line break has occurred outside containment, resulting in a reactor trip/safety injection (SI).
- MSIV closure stopped the steam release.
- SI termination criteria was met and the crew is currently terminating the SI per ES-1.1, "SI Termination."
Which ONE of the following combinations of parameters would require an immediate reinitiation of safety injection?
Maximum RCS RCS PZR CNTMT Press Subcooling Pressure Level A. 1 psig 75 0 F Stable 18%
B. 2 psig 72 0 F dropping 20%
C. 3 psig 87 0 F dropping 34%
D. 4 psig 60°F Stable 24%
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-EOP-0000, Obj. 8 Distractor analysis:
- a. Incorrect - with containment conditions below the adverse setpoint of 2.8 psig 65 0 F.
the reinitiation criteria is PZR level <15% and subcooling <
- b. Incorrect - both PZR level and subcooling are above the minimum for conditions below adverse setpoints.
- c. Incorrect - both PZR level and RCS subcooling are above the minimum for adverse containment conditions.
- d. Correct - with adverse containment conditions (>2.8psig) the reinitiation criteria 0
is PZR level <33% or RCS subcooling <85 F.
Watts Bar SRO
- 92. WE03EK2.2 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- A small break LOCA has occurred.
- RCPs have been tripped.
- Appropriate actions in accordance with E-0 and E-1 have been completed.
- RCS pressure is stable at 1475 psig.
- ECCS is operating in cold leg injection mode.
Which ONE of the following statements describes the primary method of decay heat removal at this time?
Aý Heat transfer between the RCS and the S/Gs due to natural circulation flow.
B. Heat transfer between the RCS and CCS via the RHR Heat Exchangers.
C. Heat transfer from the injection of water from the RWST and the removal of steam/water out of the break.
D. Heat transfer from Reflux boiling in the S/Gs.
REF: WB lesson plan 3-OT-EOP0100 WB lesson plan 3-OT-SYS063A WB exam bank Distractor Analysis: and A is correct because due to the thermodynamic ? H between the primary and secondary water.
resultant heat transfer rate will exceed the heat transfer into the injection flow in the accident.
B is incorrect because CCS flow is isolated from the RHR Hx's at this point C is incorrect same as A with water.
D is incorrect because at this point in the accident the S/G U-tubes are still filled
Watts Bar SRO
- 93. WE04EA2.1 001 Given the following:
-Unit 1 was at 100% and was manually Safety Injected due to dropping pressurizer level.
-The Operating Crew is performing E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection
- All automatic actions occurred
-RCS pressure is stable at 1600 psig
-CETC IS 560 F
-Pressuizer level is slowly rising at 17%
-Steam Generator pressures are stable and levels are 38%
-Steam Generator Blowdown Rad monitors were trending normal prior to isolation and Condenser exhaust rad monitor is normal
-Containment conditions are pre-event
-Area monitor recorder 1-RR-90-1 and 0-RR-90-12A have significantly upscaled
-Vent monitor recorder 0-RR-90-101 was trending up prior to isolation Which ONE of the following describes the correct procedure transition?
A. Go to E-1.1, SI Termination.
B. Go to E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.
C. Go to ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment.
D. Go to ES-0.0, Rediagnosis.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-EOPOOO, obj. 1 WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-ECA0101, obj. 8 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because Step 29 directs transition to ECA-1.2 due to abnormal Aux Bldg radiation levels.
B is incorrect because Containment conditions are pre-event.
C is correct because Step 29 directs transition to ECA-1.2 due to abnormal Aux Bldg radiation levels.
D is incorrect because it only applies after transition from E-0.
Watts Bar SRO
- 94. WE05EA1.3 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit is operating at 100% power at EOL.
- Total loss of feedwater occurs and operators implement FR-H. 1, "Loss of Secondary Heat Sink".
- No means of feedwater addition is available and the operators have initiated bleed and feed.
- Manual Safety Injection was initiated and when the operator attempted to open the pressurizer PORVs, PCV-68-340 failed to open.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator mitigation strategy to respond to this problem?
A. Stop one Centrifugal Charging Pump to reduce loss of inventory through PORVs.
B. Close any open Pzr PORV to conserve RCS inventory and return to the steps to re-establish Main Feedwater.
C. Open the reactor head vents to reduce RCS pressure since one pressurizer PORV may not provide sufficient heat removal capacity.
D. Verify PORV, 1-PCV-68-334, and it's block valve open to reduce RCS pressure since 1 Pzr PORV provides adequate heat removal capacity for a loss of heat sink.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-FRHOO01, obj. 9 & 10 Distractor analysis:
- a. Incorrect - one PORV is not sufficient to provide adequate heat removal.
- b. Correct - increases the bleed path capability and reduce pressure to ensure the core remains cooled.
- c. Incorrect - procedure directs bleed and feed not depressurizing a SG which would be a less effective cooling method.
- d. Incorrect - more bleed path capacity is needed to ensure pressure reduction and cooling capability, not less injection.
Watts Bar SRO
- 95. WE06EA2.1 001 Given the following:
A LOCA is in progress with all RCPs secured, and the control room operators are attempting to stabilize plant conditions. An operator who is monitoring plant parameters observes the following:
Core exit TCs: 780°F RCS Pressure 885 psig RVLIS: 50%
Which ONE of the following describes current core cooling conditions and operational requirements?
A. Subcooled. Operator action is not required because core cooling is satisfactory.
B. Saturated. At their discretion, the operators can take action to restore subcooled core cooling per FR-C.3, "Response to Saturated Core Cooling."
C. Degraded. Prompt action must be taken per FR-C.2, "Response to Degraded Core Cooling," or conditions could degrade.
D. Inadequate. Prompt action must be taken per FR-C.1 "Response to Inadequate Core Cooling, or core uncovery and fuel damage could occur.
REF: Surry Bank Question # 425.
Lesson Plan 3-OT-FRC0001 FR-C.1,C.2,C.3, objective # 1 A. Incorrect, the conditions given indicate that the RCS is in a superheat condition.
B. Incorrect, the conditions given indicate that the RCS is in a superheat condition.
C. Correct, the conditions given indicate that the RCS is in a degraded core cooling condition, and this is the correct remedial action to take.
D. Incorrect, the conditions given indicate a degraded core cooling condition.
Watts Bar SRO
- 96. WE08EA2.IS 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Crew is responding to a large-break LOCA
- FR-P.1 currently being performed in response to a PTS ORANGE path
- Containment status tree is ORANGE Which ONE of the following is the correct crew response if the PTS status tree turns YELLOW prior to the completion of the Function Restoration Instruction?
A. Crew should stop performance of all Function Restoration Instructions, then evaluate all Critical Safety Functions to determine the appropriate procedure to implement.
B. Crew must complete FR-P.1 since it is equivalent to the PTS RED path Function Restoration Instruction, unless it is superceded by a higher priority RED path.
C. Crew should continue with FR-P. 1 until transitioned out or the procedure is completed. Status trees will be evaluated at that time to determine the appropriate procedure.
D. Crew should stop performing FR-P.1 and implement the Containment ORANGE path Function Restoration Instruction since it is now the highest priority.
Ref: WB Lesson Plans 3-OT-FRPOO01, obj. 10 3-OT-PA11204, obj. 5 Procedure PAl-1204, pp. 26 WB exam bank A is incorrect because while in FRP's, CSF status trees are monitored continuously B is incorrect because the plant conditions, not the procedure number determines implimentation priority.
C is correct based on reference PAI-1204 D is incorrect because it conflicts with guidance in PAI-1204
Watts Bar SRO
- 97. WE1OEA2.2 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Reactor trip occurred with subsequent loss of RCPs.
- Operators have implemented ES-0.2, "Natural Circulation Cooldown".
- A cooldown rate of 25°F/hour has been established.
- RCS depressurization has been initiated while maintaining subcooling
> 165 0 F.
- Operators are monitoring PZR level and RVLIS for void formation.
- The OAC observes that loss of inventory in the Condensate Storage Tank is imminent.
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate procedural actions?
A. Stop the cooldown and remain in ES-0.2.
B. Raise the cooldown rate and remain in ES-0.2.
C. Transition to ES-0.3, "Natural Circulation Cooldown With Steam Voids in Vessel (With RVLIS) and lower the cooldown rate.
D.' Transition to ES-0.3, "Natural Circulation Cooldown With Steam Voids in Vessel (With RVLIS) and raise the cooldown rate.
REF: ES-0.2; ES-0.3; Modified INPO exam bank question
- a. Incorrect - loss of CST inventory should cue the examinee that transition to ES-0.3 is appropriate. Examinee may believe stopping cooldown is appropriate to conserve inventory.
- b. Incorrect - loss of CST inventory should cue the examinee that transition to ES-0.3 is appropriate. Examinee may believe raising cooldown rate would be appropriate in order to reach RHR conditions sooner however ES-0.2 does not provide instruction to do this.
- c. Incorrect - loss of CST inventory is an appropriate condition to require transition to ES-0.3 since more rapid cooldown rate is allowed while addressing voids in the RCS. Examinee may believe it is necessary to lower cooldown rate to conserve inventory.
- d. Correct - loss of CST inventory is an appropriate condition to require transition to ES-0.3 since more rapid cooldown rate is allowed while addressing voids in the RCS.
Watts Bar SRO
- 98. WEI1IEA1.3 001 Given the following plant conditions:
- Reactor trip and SI occurred on Unit 1 due to a small break LOCA.
- Crew has transitioned from ES-1.3, "Transfer to RHR Containment Sump", to ECA-1.1, "Loss of RHR Sump Recirculation", due to the failure of both RHR sump suction valves to open.
- Crew has reduced ECCS flow to 1 CCP, closed BIT outlet valves and established charging flow
- Crew is performing Step 23 of ECA-1.1 to check makeup flow adequate and observes the following indications:
- Loop 2 RCP running
- RVLIS = 60% and slowly dropping Which ONE of the following lists the correct operator action for this condition?
A. Ensure additional makeup source to RWST has been aligned.
B. Control charging to raise makeup flow.
C. Place RHR shutdown cooling in service.
D. Slowly depressurize RCS to inject CLAs.
Ref: WB lesson plan 3-OT-ECA0101, obj. 1 WB procedure ECA-1.1 Distractor analysis:
A is incorrect because this is a continuing action from earlier in the procedure, not a hold point.
B is correct per step 23 RNO because RVLIS <63% w/ RCP running.
C is incorrect because stem does not indicate that pressure-temp conditions would allow.
D is incorrect because the depressurization step is later in the procedure assuming adequate subcooling and PZR level which are not indicated in the stem.
In original bank question the following was a distractor:
been replaced "Place at least one train of ECCS pumps inservice until RVLIS > 65%.". It has because step 23 RNO also has "OR restart ECCS pumps as necessary".
Watts Bar SRO
- 99. WE13EA2.IS 001 Given the following:
- The Unit 1 operating crew is currently executing E-1, "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant".
- Containment pressure is 1.5 psig and slowly dropping.
- RCS temperature is 570°F.
- S/G Pressures: S/G #1 = 1200 psig; S/G#2 = 1190 psig; S/G#3 = 1230 psig; S/G#4 = 1205 psig.
- SG NR Levels: S/G #1 = 25%; S/G#2 = 30%; S/G#3 = 87%; S/G#4 = 35%.
- FR-H.2, "Steam Generator Overpressure", has been entered.
For the existing plant conditions, the Unit Supervisor should:
FR-H.3, "Steam A. Direct the operators to NOT release steam from S/G#3 and transition to Generator High Level" to control and lower S/G#3's level.
FR-H.2 to reduce B. Direct the operators to NOT release steam from S/G#3 and continue with S/G pressure.
1220 psig then C. Direct the operator to open the PORV on S/G#3 to drop pressure below S/G#3's level.
transition to FR-H.3, "Steam Generator High Level" to control and lower 1220 psig and D. Direct the operator to open the PORV on S/G#3 to drop pressure below continue with FR-H.2 to reduce S/G pressure.
Ref: WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-FRHO001 obj 6 WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-FRHOO01 pp 41 &42 of 56 WB exam bank last used in '98 SRO audit Distractor analysis:
Answer A is correct based on FR-H.2 procedure step 3 RNO directions Answers B, C, & D are incorrect based on inappropriate actions and branching
Watts Bar SRO 100. WE16G2.3.10 001 Given the following:
- A Small Break LOCA occurred 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> ago.
- Containment pressure is 1.7 psig.
- Containment temperature is 220 0 F.
- Lower containment radiation indicated level is 25 R/hr.
- FR-Z.3, "High Containment Radiation", is entered.
Which ONE of the following actions is required in accordance with FR-Z.3?
A. Peform a manual Phase B isolation.
Bf Ensure control room isolation.
C. Sample containment atmosphere using PASF.
D. Ensure that all lower compartment coolers are in service.
Ref: WB Exam Bank WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-FRZ0001, no specific learning objective WB Lesson Plan 3-OT-FRZ0O01, pp. 15 Distactor analysis:
B correct because of step 4 in FR-Z.3.
A, C, D, are incorrect because they are not required by the procedure.