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NRC Operator Licensing Exam Repts 50-317/99-301OL & 50-318/99-301OL (Included Completed & Graded Test) for Exam Administered on 990122 & 25-29 (Administration) & 990201-05 (Grading).All Applicants Passed All Portions of Exams
	ML20207G876
Person / Time
Site:	Calvert Cliffs
Issue date:	02/25/1999
From:	; NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION I)
To:	;
Shared Package
ML20207G868	List: IR 05000317/1999301; ML20207G863;
References
	50-317-99-301OL, 50-318-99-301OL, NUDOCS 9903120188
	Download: ML20207G876 (85)
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U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION REGION 1 1

i Docket Nos: 50-317, 50-318'

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~ Report Nos: i 50-317/99-301(OL) and 50-318/99-301(OL)

License Nos: DPR-53, DPR-69 .

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Licensee: Baltimore Gas and Electric Company (BG&E) l Facility: Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant, Units 1 and 2 i

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Location: Lusby, Maryland _

l Dates: ' January 22,1999 and January 25-29,1999 (Administration)

February 1-5,1999 (Grading) ;

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. Chief Examiner: J. Williams, Senior Operations Engineer / Examiner l

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Examiners: J. D' Antonio, Operations Engineer / Examiner ~

l L. Briggs, Senior Operations Engineer / Examiner !

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- Approved by: Richard J. Conte, Chief Human Performance & Emergency Preparedness Branch l Divic:on of Reactor Safety i- 1'

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9903120188 99022S

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EXECUTIVE SUMMAR Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant, Units 1 and 2 Inspection Report Nos. 50-317/99-301(OL) and 50-318/99-301(OL)

Operations e Five reactor operator (RO), five senior reactor operator instant (SROl) and one senior reactor operator upgrade (SROU) applicants were administered initial licensing exam .

All applicants successfully passed all portions.of the examinations, The applicants, with few exceptions, performed well on the operating portions of the exam. A number of positive observations were made in the following areas during the dynamic simulator portion of the exam: communication skills; SRO applicant control of plant operations; timely crew briefings; self checking practices; and peer checking -

practices during activities involving significant plant change e . Overall quality of the initial submittal was acceptable. Exam development problems were -

noted particularly on the walk-through tests reflecting a weak attention to detail by the facilit ;e- The writ sn examinations ns onginally submitted to the NRO were of high quality. Only three of 129 questions were changed and revisions were made to several question

stems and distractors to increase question discriminatory validity, to enhance question clarification or to make distractors more plausibl * The proposed simulator scenarios were of high quality. Very few changes were made t the scenarios as a result of the NRC review. One change that was necessary was to include an instrument failure that required meaningful and/or significant operator action * The walkthrough consisted of appropriate JPMs as test instruments. However, changes -

were made to several of the JPM follow up questions to provide more discrimination between the RO and SRO exams and to increase the number of open book question One JPM was replaced. Also, as a result of administration, there were quality control type problems evident with the walkthrough. For example: the prepared answers to some of the JPM questions were incorrect; completed procedures and other data supplied to the applicants was not always correct; some questions relied on Unit 2 data which was not available in the simulator; and the initiating cue for one JPM was incorrec e . Operator license training and eligibility is being conducted in accordance with NRC Regulatory Guide (RG) 1.8, " Qualification and Training of Personnel for Nuclear Power Plants," Rev. 2, and ES 202 of NUREG 1021, " Operator Licensing Examination Standards for Power Reactors," Interim Rev. ii

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. . . _ Report Details

l. Operations

06 Operator Training and Qualifications l

0 Reactor Operator and Senior Reactor Operator Initial Exams i i Scope I The NRC examiners reviewed the drafts of the written and operating initial examinations submitted by BG&E to ensure that they were prepared in accordance with the guidelines !

of the Examination Standards for Power Reactors (NUREG 1021, Interim Revision 8). !

The review was conducted both in the Region 1 office and at the Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant facility. Final resolution of comments and test revisions were performed during the on site preparation week. The NRC examiners administered the operating

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portion of the exams to all applicants. The written exams were administered by Calvert Cliffs training staff on January 22,199 ] Obser.ations and Findinas l

J Gradina and Results The results of the exams are summarized below: )

SRO PASS Fall RO PASS EAIL

. Written 6 0 5 0 Operating 6 0 5 0

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Overall 6 0 5 0 l Examination Preparation and Quality The exam development and validation team was comprised of Calvert Cliffs training and operations representatives. Each individual signed onto a security agreement before I they became involved in the development of the exam. The NRC subsequently reviewed !

and validated all portions of the proposed exams. Some changes and/or additions to the i proposed exams were requested by the NRC prior to and during the onsite NRC revie Calvert Cliffs personnel incorporated the agreed-to comments and finalized the exam l

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Two NRC examiners in Region I and one examiner in NP.C Headquarters reviewed samples of the written exam questions and independently determined that the exam was acceptable for further NRC review. As a result of further NRC review of f ; written examinations, there was a replacement of three of 129 questions and there were revisions to several question stems (3) and distractors (16). Twenty two minor edito ial changes were also made. Changes were made to increase question discriminatory validity, to enhance question clarification or to make distractors more plausibl Cha,1ges were made to three JPM follow up ouestions to provide more d:scrimination between the RO and SRO exams. In addition, several JPM questions were revised to increase the number of open book questions (from 10 to 16 open book questions on the RO exam). One JPM was replaced as a result of NRC comments. Three JPMs included alternate path action >

The proposed simulator scenarios were of high quality. They were well developed, ran smoothly and were good test instruments. Very few changes were made to the scenarios as a result of the NRC review. One change that was necessary was to include an instrument failure that required meaningful and/or significant operator action Overall, the quality of the initial submittal was acceptable. The facility had no post-examination comments conceming quality or technical accurac Written Test Administration and Performance The Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant training staff performed an analysis of questions missed on the written exam for generic and individual weaknesses. There were nine questions that were missed by more that half of the SRO applicants and four such questions missed by the RO applicants. Three of these questions were missed on both exams. Topics identified as possibly needing corrective actions from the facility exam analysis included:

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Loss of containment integrity (SRO)

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Waste gas system design and operation (SRO & RO)

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Alarm response to Area Radiation Monitors (SRO)

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Refueling operations and design (SRO)

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Appendix R requirements (SRO & RO)

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Core cooling during two phase natural circulation (SRO)

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Safety evaluation screening process (SRO & RO)

These questions were discussed with the applicants during the post exam review process. The licensee is using their corrective action program to evaluate appropriate l corrective cetions. The licensee's actions in this area were determined to be acceptabl _ _ - - - -

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Operating Test Administration and Performance The operating test consisted of ten JPMs for all RO and SROI applicants and five JPMs for the SROU applicant. Two followup questions were associated with each JPM. Each

, applicant was also tested on administrative subjects as part of the operating test. All applicants performed three simulator scenario exercises in crew positions appropriate to

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The walkthrough examinatio.1 consisted of good JPMs for test instruments. Three JPMs

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involved alternate path actions. Notebooks were prepared for each applicant with each day's exam material separated out. These notebooks and the control of applicants during the examination provided good Wm securit However, there were attention to detail problems evident with the walkthrough. For example: the prepared answers to two of the JPM questions were incorrect; completed

. procedures and other data supplied to the applicants was not always correct; some -

. questions relied on Unit 2 data which was not available in the simulator and the initiating cue for one JPM was incorrec The examiners noted that the ' calculations of reactor coolant system (RCS) leakrate and estimated critical condition were involved enough to be JPMs rather than just JPM questions. Also, many applicants had trouble using the ASME steam tables when calculating RCS leakrat The applicants demonstrated good communications and teamwork during the dynamic simulator exercises in both the routine and emergency portions of the scenari Briefings were routinely conducted by the SRO applicants. The briefings were well controlled and ensured that all crew members knew the plant (simulator) status. The applicants demonstrated good self checking practices. All applicants demonstrated good peer checking practices during activities involving significant plant change Conclusions Five reactor operator (RO), five senior reactor operator instant (SROI) and one senior reactor operator upgrade (SROU) applicants were administered initial licensing exam All applicants successfully passed all portions of the examination The applicants, with few exceptions, performed well on the operating portions of the exam. A number of p@e observations were made in the following areas during the dynamic simulator portion of the exam: communication skills; SRO applicant control of plant operations; timely crew briefings; self checking practices; and peer checking practices during activities involving significant plant change Overall qua:ity of the initial submittal was acceptable. Exam development problems were

- noted particularly on the walk-through tests reflecting a weak attention to detail by the

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The written examinations as originally submitted to the NRC were of high quality.. Only l three of 129 questions were changed and revisions were made to several question !

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- stems and distractors to increase question discriminatory level, to enhance question !

clarification or to make distractors more plausibl !

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The proposed simulator scenarios were of high quality.' Very few changes were made to !

the scenarios as a result of the NRC review. One change that was necessary was '.o j include an instrument failure that required meaningful and/or significant operator action l The walkthrough consisted of appropriate JPMs as test instruments. ' However, changes l were made to several of the JPM follow up questions to provide more discrimination

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between the RO and SRO exams and to increase the number of open book question One JPM was replaced. Also, as a result of administration, there were quality control )

, ' type problems evident with the walkthrough. For example:' the prepared answers to j

- some of the JPM questions were incorrect; completed procedures and other data j supplied to the applicants was not always correct; some questions relied on Unit 2 data i which was not available in the simulator; and the initiating cue for one JPM was incorrec Overall, the quality of the initial submittal was acceptable. Exam development problems were noted reflecting a weak attention to detai .2 NRC Regulatory Guide (RG) 1.8. Rev. 2. Anolication insoection

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NRC Regulatory Guide (RG) 1.8, Rev. 2. " Qualification and Training of Personnel for Nuclear Power Plants," specifies guidelines for training and eligibility which should be satisfied by a license applicant prior to taking the NRC examination for a hot Reactor Operator or Senior Reactor Operator licens Observations and Findinas The inspectors reviewed the licensee's updated final safety analysis report, the administrative section of ti,e licensee's technical specifications and selective portions of the licensee's training program procedures. The licensee's program commits to maintain i licensed operator qualifications and traiaing in accordance wi+ the guidelines of NUREG-1021 and ANSI N18.1-1971. NUREG-1021 appl .e guidelines of RG 1.8, Rev. 2. The licensee's training program is Institute of Nucit.. r Power Operations -

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accredited. The applicants' qualifications met the guidance of NUREG-1021 cnd hence RG 1.8, Rev. 2.

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Operator license training and eligibility is being conducted in accordance with NRC !

Regulatory Guide (RG) 1.8, " Qualification and Training of Personnel for Nuclear Power Plants," Rev. 2, and ES 202 of NUREG 1021, " Operator Licensing Examination Standards for Power Re.:ctors," Interim Rev. l l

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V. Manaaement Meetinos X1 Exit Meeting Summary On February 12,1999, the preliminary observations were discussed with Calvert Cliffs operations and training management representative PARTIAL LIST OF PERSONS CONTACTED Calvert Cliffs Pete Katz, Plant General Manager Nancy Winters, General Supervisor, Nuclear Training Charles Zapp, Assistant General Supervisor, Operator Training John Homick, Supervisor Initial Operator Training Dave Holm, General Supervisor Nuclear Operations Mike Navin, Superintendent Nuclear Operations Tim Grover, Nuclear Regulatory Matters NRC Larry Briggs, Senior Operations Engineer / Examiner Joe D' Antonio, Operations Engineer / Examiner Herb Williams Senior Operations Engineer / Examiner Chief Examiner Scott Stewart, Senior Resident inspector, Calvert Cliffs Attachments:

1. Calvert Cliffs RO Written Exam w/ Answer Key 2. Calvert Cliffs SRO Written Exam w/ Answer Key

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CALVERT CLIFFS RO WRITTEN EXAM W/ ANSWER KEY l

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ES-401 Site-Specific Written Examination Form ES-401-7 Cover Sheet .

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U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission -

Site-Specific Written Examination i

Applicant Information Name: Region: @/II/III/IV

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Date: I - OD -99 Facility / Unit: 00 M PP L4na n i.;)-

License Level: (iE00') / SR0 Reactor Type: W /(fE')/

E BW / GE Start Time: Finish Time: :

Instructions ,

Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answnr sheets. The passing grade requires a final grade of at least 80.00 percent. Examination papers will be collected four hours after the examination start Applicant certification All work done on this examination is my ow I have neither given nor received ai Applicant's Signature Results Examination Value Points Applicant's Score Points Applicant's Grade Percent NUREG-1021

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39 of 39 Interim ,Rev. 8, January 1997 Name:

1. dug 4 a Waste Gas discharge, the RMS goes in alarm. Why must the discharge

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lineup be promptly securod?

A. Prevent damage to the Weste Gas Compressor B. Prevent an unmonitored releas C. Prevent WG header relief from discharging to tha Main Ven D. Prevent WG header relief from discharging to the Surge Tan . Given the following:

Unit 1 is in Mode 3

- RCS pressure is 1950 PSIA

RCS temperature is 532'F

11 A SlT boron concentration is 2325 ppm

11A SITlevelis 195 inches

11A SlT pressure is 195 PSIG,

11 A SIT Outlet isolation 1-SI-614 MOV is OPEN with MCC breaker shut Which ONE of the following identifies the operability status of 11A SIT that requires correction per TS based on the stated conditions?

A.11 A SIT Outlet MOV power must be removed, open mov breaker within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

B.11 A SIT is above the required level, restore to the required level within 1 hou C.11 A SIT is below the required pressure, restore to the required pressure within 1 hou ,

D.11 A SIT boron is below the required concentration, restore concentration within 72 hour8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months . Using the provided references Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 98% power

1 PT-102B transmitter is OOS due to reliability concerns by System Engineering

CRO bypasses Channnel B RPS trip units 5 and 6 to comply with TS 3. The CRS directs you to perform a peer check per 016, determine the compliance with TS 3. Which ONE of the following is the proper action based on TS 3.3.1:

A. Notify the CRS that the 016 peer check is complete and the correct channel RPS is i bypasse B. Notify the CRS that the 016 poor check is unset because the wrong channel RPS is bypassed C. Notify the CRS that the 016 peer check is complete and the correct trip units are W$.

D. Notify the CRS that the 016 peer check is unset because the wrong trip units are bypasse RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 1

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4. Unit 2 is at 50%. The designated CRO requests e break cnd requires e temporary relief. The Shift Manager directs the SM Assistant to relieve the CR ,

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Which of the following describes the minimum action for the temporary watch relief per NO-1-2007 - '

A. Verbally brief the SM B. Walkdown the panels with the SM C. No turnover required, SMA is already signed i __ D. Complete the tumover requirements of NO-1-207 (Shift Turnover)

5. Which ONE of the following is the responsibility of the Safety Evaluation Screening Preparer?

A. Ensure the reason for the change includes a specific detailed explanation, attaching additional pages if necessar B. Ensure that the proposed change will not alter what is to be accomplished by the pror.edure in a safety significant manne ,

C. Ensure that the proposed change will not cause equipment operation in a manner '

that violates the Technical Specifications and UFSA D. Ensure that the proposed change is not a Change of intent, is consistent with the Tech Specs and does not require a Safety Evaluatio ,

6. Fuel handling is in progress with a contractor on the refueling machire. The CRO via the RCRO has requested that the FHS immediately investigate a continuous containment sump alar Which ONE of the following represents the correct action?

A. Secure fuel handling, move the refueling machine out of the core area,and proceed

- to the containment basemen B. Proceed to the containment basement after directing the refueling machine operator and the RCRO which step to perfor C. Leave the refueling machine but remain on the 69 foot area of the containment and direct the RFP upender operator to investigat '

D. Relieve the refueling machine operator and direct him/her to proceed to W '

containment basement to investicat . Given the following:

Unit 1 turbine startup in progress * Unit 2 turbine startup in progress

Unit 1 MT at 1800 RPM * Unit 2 MT at 560 r'PM

"420 HZ MALFUNCTION" light is on *" EMERGENCY h.)WER SUPPLY" light is on

Determine the action required, if any, for osch Unit's Main Turbine conditio A. Roset the light on Unit 1, No action required for Unit B. No action required for Unit 1, reset the light for Unit C. Trip Unit 1 Main Turbine, trip Unit 2 Main Turbin D. Shut down Unit 1 Main Turbine, shut down Unit 2 Main Turbin RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 2

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8. During the performance of a routine valve line up while the unit is in Mode 5, a vriva listed as OPEN is discovered to be CLOSE Which ONE of the following describes the correct action to be taken for this valve line up condition?

A. Since the unit is not in Mode 1 or 2, an entry in the CRO log is require I B. Note the valve position in the "discrapancy section" of the coversheet and notify SRO to evaluat C. Wdh concurrence of the CRO, the valve is immediately returned to the

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D. An abnormal valve position tag is attached to the vaive and the step is signed off as complete . Unit 1 is at 100% power when scheduled maintenance on #11 SG Channel C, 1-PT-1013C, will require this transmitter to be taken out of service. Which safety signals, RPS and ESFAS, are affected by the transmitter inoperability?

A. Low SG Pressue trip, ASGT(TM/LP) trip and AFW flow to brea B. Low SG Pressure trip, SGIS and AFAS Star C. Low SG Pressure trip, ASGT (TM/LP) trip, SGIS and SGIS Bloc D. Low SG Pressure trip, SGIS and SGIS Bloc . Given the following:

Unit 1 is in Mode 3, RCS Cooldown to Mode 5 in progress

RCS pressure is ~2050 PSIA

"CHG HDR * FLOW LO PRESS LO" alarms repeatedly at 1C07 Which ONE of the following is the proper action, if any, for this condition?

A. None, start a backup charging pump to increase charging flow to 88 GP B. Notify CRS, remove alarm card and place a megenta dot on alarm window per NO1-20 C. None, shift charging pump and check for proper desurger pressure on the pump discharg D. Notify CRS, remove alarm card and place a blue dot alarm window per NO-1-20 d RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 3 s l l

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11. Given the following:

CRS directs you to cssist with the performance of vdva line ups in the Auxiliary Building

After SWP review, RCSS discussion and sign in for the EPD, you go to the 27

' foot Valve Alley

While in the Valve Alley, your EPD alarms continuously Which ONE of the following is the required actions and basis for the described condition?

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A. Exit the RCA, report to the Red Con for evaluation of exceeding dose limi B. Exit the Valve Alley, report to the level RST for evaluation of exceeding dose limi C. Exit the RCA, report to Dosimetri for evaluation of EPD malfunctio D. Exit the Valve Alley, report to the level RST for evaluation of EPD malfunctio . Given the following:

Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with SDC in operation

You have been assigned to tag out and drain 11 Charging pump for maintenance

Your dose limit is 100 mrom/ shift per the SWP

Your present accumulated dose is 70 mrom this shift

The RST states the expected dote rate in the area is 10 mrom/hr Which ONE of the following is the calculated time in the area based on CCNPP Admin limits?

A. 60 minutes B. 90 minutes C.120 minutes D.180 minutes 13. A call is received on the control room emergency phone extension (911) and the caller identifies himself and reports that a worker in the SFP ventilation room was hurt from a load that pinched his hand and it is cut with heavy bleedin The CRS assigns you with making the notification of the appropriate response l personne .

Which ONE of the following is proper notification, per the ERPIP?

A. Activate the Emergency recall peger system for recalling the FS B. Sound the emergency alarm for 5 seconds, announce"a personnel emergency exists in the 69 foot Auxiliary Building with a hand injury, Medical department and Decon Team respond'. Repeat onc C. Activate the Emergency Recall pager system for recalling a BGE Physica D. Sound the emergency alarm for 5 seconds, announce"a personnel emergency l exists in the 69 foot SFP ventilation room with a hand injury, First Aid team and Radiation Safety Technician respord'. Repeat onc i

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t 14. Given the following:

Unit 2 has implemented EOP 1 for an ursTpncated trip L * RO observes that VCT pressure is 4 PSIG and VCT level is at 50 inches l * RO commences auto makeup to the VCT per 012B -

What additional actions are required based on the stated conditions?

l A. Verify Pressurizer heaters are ON to equalize boron .

B. Notify Chemistry to sample the BAST C. Start or vent any idle charging' pump D. Add H to the VCT to maintain 10 to 15 PSI . What is the basis for reducing RCS Tavg to < 500*F if RCS activity limits are ,

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A. Prevent the iodine spiking phenomenon which occurs et NO B. Lower the saturation pressure of the RCS below the lift setpoint of the ADVs a d MSSV .

C. Minimize fuel damag D. Ensure unit is in mode 3 to allow chemistry to accurately determine extent of fuel damag _

16. Given the following:

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Unit 2 is in Mode 3 with Total Loss of Feedwater

EOP 3 is implemented, natural circulation has been verified l * Both SG water levels are -250 inches Evaluate the effect on RCS temperatures as SG water level continues to lower during natural circulation but before cooldown commences:

A. Tave is constant as Th minusTc increase B. Tave will increase as Th and Tc increas C. Tave is constant as Th minus Tc' decrease D. Tave will decrease as Th and Tc decreas i

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17. A fire has occurred in the control room requiring evacuation. Whera will the U-1 RO, U-2 CRS, and OWC (designated STA) proceed to upon "lMMEDIATE" evacuation of the control room por AOP 9A?

Assume U-1 la in Mode 1. U-2 la in a defueled mode, and shift manning ;

requirementa are being met per NO-1-200 ;

' A. U-145 Ft. switchgear room, U-2 45 Ft. switchgear room, and Plant Computer Room i on 72 F B. U-2 45 Ft. switchgear room, U-145 Ft. switchgear room, and U-145 Ft. switchgear roo '

. C. U-1 Main Turbine front standard, U-2 45 Ft. switchgear room, and U-145 F switchgear roo D. U-145 Ft. switchgear room, U-2 45 Ft. switchnaar room, and Fire Brigade Locke .

18. Given the following

Unit 2 is in Mode 3 with a SG Tube Rupture event in progress i

EOP 6 is implemented ;

RCS is at NOT and NOP Which ONE of the following is the basis to commence RCS boration prior to lowering i RCS temperature below 515'F? !

A. Ensures SIAS has initiated properly before the affected SG is isolate '

B. Ensures SDM requirements and to compensate for backfil ;

C. Ensures the assumed uncontrolled cooldown at 515'F keeps the core suberitica D. Ensures RCP trip strategy does not result in diluted areas of RC . Given the following: ;

Unit 1 has tripped and EOP O has been completed ,

EOP 3 has been diagnosed and implemented

The CRS directs that the RCPs to be tripped

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Which one of the following is the reason for tripping all reactor coolant pumps?

A. Prevents RCP cavitation when the RCS reaches saturation conditions from rapid cooldown to Condensate Booster pump injectio B. Reduces RCP heat input to the RCS, increasing the SG water inventory effectivenes C. Minimizes RCP seal damage from SIAS isolating bleed off flow to VC D. Reduces RCP motor damage from steam when once-through core cooling is initiated

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20. Given the following :

Unit 2 is at EOC and at 85% power and steady l

Regulating Group 5 CEAs are at -125 inches . i

System Engineer discovers and reports Regulating Group 5 CEA #1 is

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untrippable ,

' * AOP 1B is implemented and a rapid power reduction per OP 3 is commenced i Determine the effect of plant transient on the axial power distribution: :

A.' As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will shift towards the upper region of the cor B. As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will shift towards the lower region of the cor C. As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will not change towards either upper or lower region of the cor I D. As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will initially shift to the lower region then shift to the upper reolo . Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100% power i

"RCP AUXILIARIES STATUS PANEL" alarms !

"CCW FLOW LO" alarms

RO reports increasing temperatures on all RCPs from the plant computer trends

CRO reports that a CC Containment Cooling isolation CV is SHU T Which ONE of the following may result in component damage? !

A. RCP Controlled Bleedoff temperature of 225* B. RCP Upper Guide bearing temperature of 190* C. RCP Downward Thrust bearing temperature of 190' D. RCP Seal cavity temperature of 195' . A loss of condenser vacuum occurred on Unit 1 with reactor power at 60%. The :

operators are reducing power and are able to maintain condenser vacuum at 24 inches H Which OK. >f the following indicates the power level at which the turt>ine will have to be tripped if vacuum can NOT be increased to greater than 25 inches Hg?

A. 88 MWE B.176 MWE C. 270 MWE D. 440 MWE RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 7

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23. Given the following:

Unit 1 is in Mode 4 with hoatup to 532*F in progress

The ABO performing a Containment tour reports the Personnel Airlock interlock j mechanism is broke Determine the immediate action required based on plant conditions:

A. Direct the ABO to lock the inner Personnel Airlock door and remain in the area until a guard is poste B. Direct the ABO to verify a Personnel Airlock door is SHUT and maintain one door shut during ingresslegres C. Notify the CRS for an operability determination por the Technical Requirements Manua o - D. Notify the CRS for an operability determination por NO-1-114 (Containment Closure) !

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Unit 1 and 2 are in Mode 5 i

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Unit 1 and 2 Salt Water Systems are lined up on the Emergency Overboard Which ONE of the following describes how the minimum / maximum flow requirements for the applicable Salt Water pumps are met?

A. Unit 1 automatic operation of 12NB SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by manual throttling of 22 or 23 SW pump discharge valve.

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. B. Unit 1 automatic operation of 11NB SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by manual throttling of 21 or 23 SW pump discharge valv C. Unit 1 automatic operation of 12NB SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by manual throttling of Emergency Overboard Control Valv D. Unit 1 automatic operation of 11NB SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by preset throttling by the Emergency Overboard header orific . Unit 1 is in Mode 1. AFAS Sensor Channel "ZE" has been de-energized for maintenance por the 01. While the maintenance is ongoing, a loss of 120V Vital AC Bus 13 occurs. What best describes the response of AFAS?

A. No effect on system operation other than alarm B. AFAS "A" and AFAS "B" actuation occur C. Only AFAS "A" actuation occur D. Sensor logic is reduced to 1 out of 2 to generate an AFA '

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26. Select the statement that describes the operatKm of the pressunzer heaters from 1(2)C43:

A. Heaters trip 10 minutes after pressurizer level drops below 101" as associated time delay dropout relay actuate B. Pressurizer level must be raised above 101" initially to reset low level cutout relay - l and energize heaters when placing keyswitch in LOCAL at 1(2)C4 C. Operator escures the heaters when pressurizer level drops below 101". ,

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D. Heaters trip on pressurizer low level cutout below 101" as indicated on 1(2)C4 . 27. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at MOC and 100% power * Unit 2 is at MOC and 100% power

Unit 1 trips due loss of Offsite power * Unit 2 trips due to a seized rotor on 21 A RCP Evaluate the effect, if any, on each Unit from the described transients:

A. Unit i DNB limits are approached more closely compared to the Unit 2 transient effect B. Unit 2 DNB limits are approached more closely compared to the Unit 1 transient effect C. Unit 1 and Unit 2 DNB limits are approached equally for each transien ,

D. Unit 1 and Unit 2 DNB limits are not approached due the automatic RPS trip action for each Uni l i

28. Which one of the following is the basis for maintaining a maximum of 140*F subcooled l margin during EOP-5 implementation? l A. prevent a pressurized thermal shock event occurrence ,

B. minimize pressure across the break thereby reducing the leak rate '

C. prevent RCS pressure from increasing to the PORV setpoint i D. maintain an adequate amount of subcooled fluid to remove decay heat i

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29. Given the following:

Aloss of Offsite power has occurred ;

Unit 1 has implemented EOP 7 Which one of the following conditions must be met to allow transition to the next appropriate procedure for Unit 17 A. Energizing any 4 KV bus and associated load center B. Completing the SFSC final acceptance criteria in EOP C. TSC determination that sufficient battery cepec;ty exist D. Emergency boration has been completed for Mode 5 entry.

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30. The plant is at 100% power when a large excess steam demand event occurs. Which of the following RPS and/or ESFAS signals actuates first to prevent violations of DNB or the exceeding of SAFDLs?

A. Low pressurizer pressure

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B. High containment pressure C. Low steam generator pressure D. Low S/G Level Trip 31. Given the following:

Unit 1 had a loss of MFW which resulted in a automatic reactor trip

Both SG levels are ~ -100" when MFW capability is restored in EOP O Select the reason for AFW to be used to restore SG levels to ~0":

A.' Prevent a severe water hammer which may occur in the main feed rin B. AFW will fill the SGs slower which limits the cooldown of the RC C. MFW can result in an overfeed condition which is a reactivity conce D. Prevent a thermal shock to the SG tube sheet to ensure tube integrity 32. Five (5) minutes following a reactor trip from 100% power, all RCPs were tripped. The following conditions exist during EOP O implementation:

- Thot is 547 F and lowering

- Toold is 534 F and lowering

- RCS pressure is 2050 PSIA and slowly rising What response would the operator observe on the panel for the ADVs and TBVs with these plant conditions ?

8E IE Full Shut Modulated Opm

. Full Open Full Open Modulated Open Modulated Open Modulated Open Full Shut 33. The pressure band of 1850 to 2300 PSIA per EOP.O is based on the following:

A. Ensuring adequate NPSH for operating RCPs is maintained for all non-LOCA conditions to prevent lifting of SG safety valve B. Ensuring RCS fluid is maintained in a subcooled condition following a LOCA for adequate heat removal and time for HPSI injection after a trip from > 85% powe C. Ensuring single phase flow continues and SGs are available for heat removal (under flow and no410w conditions) for en uncomplicated " standard' reactor tri D. Ensuring adequate RCS subcooling and preventing lifting a primary relief or safety valve and representing the values for en uncomplicated " standard' reactor tri RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 10

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34. A SG tube rupture event has occurred _with both RVLMS inoperable. Which condition indicates the presence of a void in the RCS? -

A. Unexplained rapid increase in PZR leve B. PZR level steady and subcooled margin of 50*F using CET C. Charging flow greater than letdown flo '

D. Unexplained rapid decrease in PZR level 35. Given the following:

Unit 2 has tripped and EOP 6 (SG Tube Rupture) has been implemented

21A and 22B RCPS are running

RCS Pressure is ~1050 PSIA and slowly lowering _

RCS Subcooling is 38T and sleady

Pressurizer level is 105" and rising

22 SG is removing heat from the RCS

RVLMS lights are out Select the required action based on plant conditions:

A. Depressurize the RCS to minimize the d/p with the affected S B. Commence RCS Boration to ensure SDM is met dunng current bacl(ill from the affected S C. Commence RCS cooldown to isolate the unaffected S D. Commence HPSI termination to prevent a solid pressurizer and RCS repressurizatio . Given the following:

Unit 1 has tripped and EOP 5 has been subsequently implemented

RCS pressure is 1720 PSIA and slowly lowering l

RCS Tc is 527T and slowly lowering

Containment pressure is 1.0 PSIG and slowly rising Select the required actions for the plant conditions:

A. Verify SIAS actuation based on containment environment safety function.

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B. Verify SIAS actuation with a minimum of 345 GPM HPSI flo C. Implement RCP trip strategy with 11 A and 12A RCPs runnin D. Implement RCP trip strategy with 11B and 12A RCPs runnin .

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37. Given the followmg-

Unit 1 is at 100% power

Liquid Waste discharge is in progress to Unit 1 Circulating Water

RO is preparing to make up the RWT due to "11 RWT-LEVEL-TEMP" alarm

CRO reports 11 RWT level is decreasing

ABO reports that "11 REFUEL WTR STORAGE AREA SUMP LEVEL Hi" alarm at j 1C63'

' Which ONE of the following is the proper action for the described conditions?

. A. Implement AOP 6B (Accidental Release of Radioactive Liquid Weste) due to the Liquid Waste Discharge in progres : B. Implement AOP 6B (Accidental Release of Radioactive Liquid Release) due to the RWT level sang l C. Direct the ABO to investigate the Liquid Waste Discharge line u !

D. Direct the ABO to investigate the RWT makeup line u . Given the following:

CRS observes 2 out of 4 RPS trip logic for RCS flow tripped with no protective channel trip alarm on Unit 1

RO observes Reactor power is at 100% st 1C05

EOP O is implemented by the crew

RO observes prompt drop in Ni power and negative SUR while performing his IMMEDIATE ACTIONS for Resctivity Safety Function Which ONE of the following was the method used to respond to the ATWS event?

A. Deanergizing 11 A and 14A 480 Volt busse B. Deenergizing 128 and 13B 480 volt busse C. Depressing Reactor Trip buttons at 1C0 D. Emergency Bnration with all avalloble Charging pump . Given the following:

Unit 1 Reactor startup in progress after Refueling Outage per applicable PSTP

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and OP-2

All Shutdown groups are fully withdrawn

RO has completed his first 30 inch CEA pull en Regulating group 1

RO observes that Regulating Group 1 primary and secondary CEA position indication areincreasing ;

What actions are required for the existing plant conditions?

A. Insert group 1 CEAs to stop the outward motion per OP B. Place the CEDS Control Panel in OFF and implement AOP 1 C. Emergency borate with all available Charging pumps per PST ;

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D. Commence a reactor shutdown by inserting all CEAs per 014 ^

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40. Given the following: _ __

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2 CEAs have dropped into the core- H

Pressurizer level decreases to ~195 inches

Reactor power decreases from 100% to ~85%

RCS Pressure decreases to ~2225 PSIA Which ONE of the following is the action required per AOP7 A. Trip the Reactor and perform Standard Post Trip Action B. Reduce Turbine load to match Reactor power, C. Commence a Reactor shutdown to subcritica . D. Reduce Reactor power to less than 70%.

- 41. Which one of the following describes the design basis core heat removal process

- during a large break LOCA7 A. HPSI iriection provides makeup and heat is removed via natural circulation flow to the S/Gs B. HPSI pumps, LPSI pumps and the SITS provide makeup and heat is removed via flow out the break C. LPSI pumps and the SITS provide makeup and heat is removed via forced flow to the S/Gs D. HPSI pumps and CS pumps provide makeup and heat is removed via flow out the break 42. The Unit is operating at 80% power when steam demand is increased by 5% due to a turbine bypass valve failing open. How wil! the Pressurizer spray valves and heaters initially respond? l A. Spray valves shut, heaters energized in auto contro B. Spray valves shut, heater of C. Spray valves open, heaters energized in auto contro I D. Spray valves open, heaters of !

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1-p 43. Given the following:.

~ * Unit 1 and 2 at 100% power 1 *"RMS PANEL" alarms at 1C17 i

CRO reports that area red monitor " UNIT 1 SAMPLE RM"is in alarm

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RO reports the VCT level trend indicates an increased leak rate I - Which ONE of the following is the correct sequence of the alarm response actions for j these plant conditions?

j A. Notify Red Safety to perform en area survey, evacuate the immediate area, nave r Chemistry check sample sink isolation valves s, hut.

i B. Contact Chemistry to check sample sink isolation valves shut, evacuate the j immediate area and have Red Safety perform an area survey.

C. Notify Red Safety to update the area survey map, evacuate the immediate area,

[ have Chemistry check sample sink isolation valves shut.

D. Contact Chemistry to check sample sink isolation valves shut, evacuate the i immediate area, and have Rad Safety update the area survey map.

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! 44. Given the following:

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Unit 2 has tripped and EOP O implemented !

i * EOP O Safety functions completed were:

i * Reactivity

{ * Vital Auxiliaries i * Rad Level External to Containment i

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! * All other Safety Functions were not met

CRS directs implementation of the Functional Recovery Procedure EOP 8 l

Which ONE of the following is the appropriate implementation method for EOP 87 l

[ A. Evaluate PIC, HR and CE Safety functions success paths in order as a minimum.

j B. Evaluate All Safety functions success paths in any order as directed by the CRS.

i C. Evaluate HR, Plc and CE Safety functions success paths in order as a minimu i D. Evaluate recommended safety function success paths based on STA inpu .

45. While operating U-2 at 100% power, a loss of 125 vdc bus #11 occurs. Which one of the following actions, if any, must be taken to ensure a reactor / turbine trip?

A. No actions are required as the loss of this bus does not affect automatic tripping of the turt>inalroacto B. The turt>ine must be manually tripped at 2002 at the same time the reactor is manually tripped from 2C0 C. The turbine must be tripped from the front standard at the same time the reactor is tripped from 200 D. The turbine must be tripped from the cable spreading room at the same time the ;

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46. Given the following:

Unit-1 is in Mode 5

#11 LPSI pump is in servir:e providing shutdown coolin * The shutdown cooling retum valves are ope * The RCS is being drained below the mkiplane of the hot legs for maintenanc * 11 LPSI pump amps, discharge pressure and flow are fluctuating.

.

Which one of the following actions should be taken in this situation?

A. Secure draining of the RCS and raise vessel level until LPSI pump flow comes back *

u B. Place the LPSI pumps in pull-to-lock, drain the vessel to the desired level, then

- restart a LPSI pum C. Stop the running LPSI pump and place in pull-to-lock. Secure draining and raise reactor vessel level.Verd and restart a LPSI pum D. Stop the running LPSI pump, secure draining the RCS and start the standby LPSI pum . 47. Given the following:

Unit 2 is in Mode 6 with refueling in progress, core on load is complete

CEA swaps are being performed per the applicable fuel handling procedure

RCRO observes that Channel A and B WRNI indicate steady at 10 CPS and Channel C WRNI indicates ~1 CPS and decreasing after a Shutdown CEA -

insertion What response is required, if any, to the plant conditions?

A. Channel A and B WRN1 are inoperable, notify the CR B. Channel A and B WRNI are operable, no action is neede C. Channel C WRNI is seeing the effect of the Shutdown CEA insertio D. Channel C WRNI has failed, notify the FHS and NF . An RCS leak has resulted in implementing AOP-2A (Excess RCS Leakage). What direction from the CRS is provided when RCS taak=ca exceeds TS 3.4.13 but is within the capacdy of one charging pump?

Assume the initial actions to locate the source of leakage has commence A. Evaluate operation of the plant with letdown isolated and operate charging pumps not to exceed a pressurizer level of 225".

B. Commence a plant shutdown to COLD SHUTDOWN per OP-3, OP-4, and OP- C. If PZR level cannot be maintained within 15 inches of program level, then trip the reactor and implement EOP- D. Trip the reactor when RCS pressure drops below 2200 PSI RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 15

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l 49. During a pra job brief for a planned Trtnsfer Cisk operation (to be moved from the SFP to the cask washdown pit), a review of AOP 60 is performed. It was noted that dropping the Transfer Cask may spill fuel bundles in the Auxiliary Building causing high radiation levels (according to AOP 6D).

Which ONE of the following describes the purpose for the warning in AOP 6D?

A. The Transfer Cask as it is being removed from the SFP is very close to the load limit for the crane until the cask is dowatered in the Cask washdown pi B. The Transfer Cask operation can take it over the New Fuel Storage area where a dropped Caskwill damage new fue C. The Transfer Cask lid may not retain the spent fuel 'in the Transfer Cask until placed in the Cask washdown pi D. The Transfer Cask operation can take it over areas where damage is possible to ESFAS piping and cwrgr,nent . Which one of the following describes the reason for an assessment of secondary water sources to be performed in EOP 2 when offsite pow will not be promptly restored?

A. Tech Spec Action statement for 12 CST may need to be entere B. Condensate inventory dictates how long a plant cooldown can be delaye C. Tech Spec Action statement for AFW system may need to be entere D. Condensate inventory is used to determine Wnether TBVs or ADVs will be used for cooldown 51. Given the following:

Reactor startup in progress per OP-2

Core is at MOC Select the event that is expected to cause the actual CEA position at criticality to be lower than the calculated position from the Estimated Critical Condition (ECC):

A. The TBV controller setpoint is manually adjusted to 950 PSIA B. Both steam generator levels are raised by 25 inches with AFW flow C. The pressurizer pressure controller malfunctions to lower RCS pressure to 2000 PSIA .

D. A loss of gland sealing steam results in condenser vacuum dropping to 17"Hg ,

52. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100% power

12 Charging pump is running with 11 and 13 Charging pumps in standby

a loss of 208/120 Volt instrument bus 12 (1Y10) occurs Which ONE of the following describes the effect the loss of the instrument bus will have on charging pump operation?

A.12 Charging pump trips on low suction,11 and 13 start as backup pump B.11 and 13 Charging pumps stai with in Charging pump runnin C. Charging pump suction shifts to the BAST's via gravity feed D. Loss of suction to charging pumps due to 1-CVC-501-CV (VCT Outlet ) shutting.

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53. The "Contairtment Pressure Transmitters isolated" alarm has annunciated on 1 C08 due to 1-HS-5313A in the shut position. Which 3 ESFAS signals are potentially affected?

A. SGIS, CSAS, SLAS B. CVCIS, CSAS, CIS

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C. SIAS, SGIS, CIS D. CIS, CSAS, SlAS 54. Following a U-1 turbine trip, what is the response of the Main Feed Valves (MFVs)?

Assume reactor power is at 12% when turbine trips A. MFVs ramp shut at specified rate for 20 seconds and then contact is opened and MFVs shut full k B. The Controller output signal is initially grounded to shut MFVs and after 20 seconds contact opens and MFVs shut full C. Controller output signal goes to maximum to open BFVs fully as steam flow is reduced when main stop valves shu D. MFVs remain shut with a -5.0 % demand signal and BFVs continue to operate to control SG level . Given the following:

Unit 2 is at 95% power

#22125 Volt Vital AC Bus is lost due to a ground fault

EM has determined that the ground was in the Linear Range NI cabinet

The affected Linear Range NI is electrically isolated

#22125 Volt Vital AC Bus is restored Which ONE of the following is the expected effect from the doenergized Linear Range Ni cabinet?

A. Channel B RPS Trip Units tripped for Hi power, TM/LP and AP B. Channel B RPS Trip Units tripped for Hi power, SUR, TM/LP and AP C. Channel B RPS Trip Units tripped for Hi power, TM/LP, APD and loss of 1 C05 indicatio D. Channel B RPS Trip Units tripped for Hi power, SUR, TM/LP and loss of 1C05 indication RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 17

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56. Given the following:

#12 waste gas decay tank release through the U-1 plant vent in progress

Waste Gas discharge radiation monitor (RI-2191) alarms Which valve must be manually shut to prevent a possible waste gas decay tenk

' discharge to the waste gas surge tank?

,

A. Waste gas discharge isolation (WGS-2191-CV) J B. Weste gas discharge to Unit 1 plant vent (WGS-683)

C. Waste gas discharge pressure control (WGS-2191-PCV)

, D. Waste gas discharge final filter bypass (WGS 630)

57. The RCSS reports to the control room and describes a high red material move from 45 foot truck loading area to the Unit 145 foot east penetration roo Which of the following Area RMS alarm would be expected at 1C22 based on the movement path?

A. " UNIT 1 CC".

B. " DRUM GTORAGE RM" C. " UNIT 1 S/C B/D TK AREA" D. " MISC WASTE EVAP RM" 58. The CRS directs you to perform the check source of RMS per 013 Which of the fo.' %ng RMS should NOT have the " check source" test performed per 0135 due to t t .matic functions?

A. SFP Platform Rl-7025 B. CAR Discharge RI-1752 C. Containment ICI Rl-7008 D. Liquid Waste RI-2201 59. Which condition below would cause the AFAS NO FLOW alarm to initiate?

A. AFW flow 60 gpm,60 seconds after an AFAS START signa B. AFW flow 90 gpm,60 seconds after an AFAS START signa C. AFW flow 60 gpm,30 seconds after an AFAS START signa D. AFW flow 90 gpm,30 seconds after an AFAS ETART signa RONRC.TST Version:O Page: 18

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60. Given N follomng

Lu iOffsite power has occurred c

Unit 1 tripped and no DGs are available .

Unit 2 tripped and 2A and 2B DGs are supplying power Which one of the follomng describes the operation of AFW flow control valves on ,

Unit 17 l A. Override Open the steam driven train block valves for both SGs at 1C4 B. Align N 2to the AFW amplifier air system to meintain operation from the control roo C. Direct the ABO to a4ust local handwhool and observe local flow indicator for respons D. Place the output signal on controllers at 1C43 to 100% value to maintain operation from the control roo \

61. Given the following-

Unit 2 is at 65% I

21 and 22 Condensate pumps are running

23 Condensate pump is in standby

21 Condensate pump mechanically seizes,23 Condensate pump starts Which ONE of the following is the design feature that resulted in the auto start:

A. 21 Condensate Pump low discharge pressure at 150 PSI !

B. Main Feedwater Suction header pressure at or below 220 psi C. Condensate Header discharge pressure at 175 psi !

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D. Condensate Booster Pump Suction pressure at or below 20 psi l 62. Using provided reference:

i Unit 1 is in Mode 1 and #11 SRW HDR is OOS for maintenance. What effect, if any, j does this have on the operability of the Containment Spray and Air Cooling System if l

12 Containment Spray Pump is declared OOS? i

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A. No effect, both Containment Cooling trains of the Containment Air Cooling system remain operabl ,

B. The inoperable Containment Cooling train must be restored to operable status within 10 day C. The inoperable Centainment Spray train must be restored to operable status within 72 hour8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months D. The inoperable Containment Spray train must be restored to operable status within seven (7) day RONRC.TST Version:O Page: 19

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63. What ESFAS actuation (s) based on plant pi meters and circuit logic are required to automatically initiate Containment Spray flow?

A. Containment pressure of 2.8 PSIG for SIAS OR containment pressure of 4.25 PSIG for CSA B. RCS pressure of 1725 PSIA for SIAS AND containment pressure of 2.8 PSIG for CSA C. RCS pressure of 1725 PSIA for SIAS OR containment pressure of 4.25 PSIG for CSA D. Cor;tainmcnt pressure of 2.8 PSIG for SIAS AND containment pressure of 4.25 PSIG for CSA . When subcritical in Mode 2, adequate SHUTDOWN MARGIN is determined by:

A. Verifying that CEA Shutdown Group withdrawal is in the correct sequenc B. Verifying that the predicted critical CEA position is within the INSERTION limits of TS 3. C. Verifying that RCS boron concentration is sufficient to maintain the SHUTDOWN ,

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MARGIN requirements of TS 3. D. Verifying that CEA Regulating Group withdrawal is in the correct sequenc . Given the following:

Unit 2 at EOC and power reduced to 95% power for waterbox cleaning one hour ago '

Regulating Group 5 CEAs were moved out one step to 129 inches for ASI control

Condenser Water Box cleaning has started and the first waterbox has been returned to service

21 CVCS lon exchanger has been filled with new resin and placed in service

RO observes RCS temperatures trending upwards for several minutes j Which ONE of the following would explain the change in RCS temperatures?: I A. Xenon decay from the power reduction for water box cleanin B. Starting the Circulating Water pump with clean waterbo C. Placing an 21 CVCS lon Exchanger in servic D. Group 5 CEA movement to control the AS . During recovery from a LOCA on Unit 2, you are directed by the U-2 CRS to reset SIAS

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from the control room using the EOP procedure. Containment pressure is 2.0 PSIG and Pressurizer pressure is 800 PSI '

Which ONE of the following is the sequence to properly complete this action? l A. Match required hardswitches, block PZR Pressure SIAS, and depress both SIAS channel reset pushbutton B. Block PZR Pressure SIAS and depress either SIAS channel reset pushbutton C. Match required handswitches and depress both SlAS channel reset pushbutton D. Block the PZR Pressure SIAS and depress both SIAS channel reset pushbutton RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 20

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67. While operating in mode 3 on naturcl circulation, how many CETs should be read as a

. minimum to ensure consistency with Th?

A. One per quadrant B. Two per quadrant C.Two

' D. One

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68. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100%

Unit 2 is in Mode 3 heating up to 532'F

21 Degasifier vacuum pump accumulator level control is erratic

ABO is filling the Degasifier vacuum pump accumulator per 0117C -1 l Which ONE of the following is the result, if any, of opening the level transmitter vent to atmosphora during the accumulator fill?

A. No effect since the accumulator discharges directly to Main Vent via Aux building ventilatio B. Release of radioactive gases from the Waste Gas Surge Tank through the accumulator ven C. Release of water from the accumulator during vacuum pump startup during Unit i diversio D. Release of water from the accumulator during vacuum pump startup during Unit 2

. diversio . Given the following:

Unit 2 is defueled

Instrument Air is tagged out for LLRT testing

2-SI-4150-CV and 2-SI-4151-CV indicate OPEN

Both CS pumps are in PTL

Safety Tagger calls the control room to notify that he will be tagging out and draining Component Cooling to the RCPs

Shortly thereafter, "CNTWIT NORMAL SUMP LVL Hi" alarms at 2C10 Which ONE of the following is the conect operator actions per Ol 17D for the conditions?

A. Ensure an Operator is stationed in 21 ECCS Pump Room, drain the containment <

sump using EAD 5462 until drained, shut EAD 546 B. Verify 21 ECCS Pp Rm sump pumps in AUTO, drain the containment sump using EAD 5482 and 5463 for at least 5 seconds, shut EAD 5462 and 546 C. Ensure an Operator is stationed in 22 ECCS Pump Room, drain the containment sump using EAD 5463 until drained, shut EAD 546 D. Verify 22 ECCS Pp Rm sump pumps in AUTO, drain the containment sump using EAD 5462 and 5463 for at least 5 seconds, shut EAD 5462 and 546 l l

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[ 70. Given the followmg: ,

i * Unit i has tripped and EOP 0 is impierrented 3 * " ACTUATION SYS SGIS TRIP" and " ACTUATION SYS CSAS TRIP" alarms

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annunciate at 1C08 >

1 Select the plant components that receive both a SGIS and CSAS signals from ESFAS.

! A. Condensate pumps, Condensate Booster pumps, Hester Drain pumps and MSIVs.

j B. Heater Drain pumps, SGFPs, MFIVs, and MSlV :

i C. SGFPs, CS pumps, SG Blowdown CVs, and MSlV ;

D. Condensate Booster pumps, SG Blowdown CVs, MFIVs, and SGFP I 71. Which of the following occurs on a loss of high voltage power supply to the LRNis? i j A. HV bistable trip j B. Power On light goes off j

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C. Channel fails to 200% ,

D. Actuation of the 15 VDC interlock i 72. Given the following:

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Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with RCS temperature at 125'F

Shutdown Cooling has been secured for plant heatup i * RCS pressure has been raised to 300 PSIA for RCP start

} * Pressurizer level at 170 inches j * Preparing to start 11 A and 11B RCPs for plant heatup i * ABO reports that 11 and 12 SG temperatures are 165'F

[

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RCP portion of the LTOP Tagout is cleared Which ONE of the folkwing describes the plant response to starting the first RCP l based on stated condaions?

l A. RCS pressure willirrerease, the Pzr Safeties will open from the RCS pressure

! surg '

B. RCS pressure will decrease, the Pzr Backup heaters will automatically energize.

C. RCS pressure will increase, PORVs will open from the RCS pressure surge.

! D. RCS pressure will decrease, PZR Proportional heaters will automatically increase

! their output i

l 73. What are the oxygen and curie content limits for the waste gas decay tanks?

A. Oxygen 4% by volume, 58,500 Curies of noble gas

B. Oxygen 4% by weigh (, 53,500 Curies of noble gas i C. Oxygen 6% by volume, 58,500 Curies of noble gas !

) D. Oxygen 6% by weight, 53,500 Curies of noble gas l

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74. Using provided reference: !

U-1 is at full power when the reactor automatically trips and SIAS actuates. Upon completion of EOP.C it is determ:ned that a LOCA has occurred. Approximately 10 minutes have elapsed since the event began. RCS pressure has stabilized at 950 PSIA. Actuation of RAS is not imminen What is expected HPSI flow in each HPSI injection path assuming Sl operates properly and HPSIflow is' balanced?

A.110 gpm B. 220 gpm C. 435 gpm D. 880 gpm 75. Given the following:

Unit 1 and 2 are at 100% power

"0C DG" alarms at 1C19 ;

The CRO directs the OSO respond to the alarm

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OSO reports that " STARTING AIR PRESS LO" alarmed at OC188 and the !

indication lights for the compressor handswitch at 0C188 are doenergize * The OSO reports the compressor motor appears normal by touch and smell Which ONE of the following is the correct action?

A. Direct the OSO to investigate the breaker trip status at MCC 02 B. Direct the OSO to investigate the breaker trip status at 07 480 Volt Load Cente C. Direct the OSO to investigate the breaker trip status at 17 480 Volt Load Cente D. Direct the OSO to investigate 'he breaker trip status at MCC 12 . Which statement describes the basis for the Axial Power Distribution Trip?

A. DNB and peak linear heat rate will not be exceede B. DNB SAFDL of 1.25 is not exceede ,

C. Tech Spec license power limit will not be exceeded D. Asymterical Steam Generator limits are not exceeded .

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77. Given the following:

Unit 2 has tripped and EOP 5 (LOCA) has been implemented

RCS Pressure is ~800 PSIA

SIAS, CSAS and CIS have been verified

Containment Pressure is at 3.8 PSIG and lowering What conditions per the EOP are required to secure Containment Spray?

. A. Containment Pressure is maintained <2.8 PSIG by CS flow and SIAS has been RESE B. Contairweent Temperature is maintained <1200F by CACs and SIAS has been RESE C. Containment Pressure is maintained <2.8 PSIG by CS flow and SIAS and CSAS have been RESET.'

D. Containment Temperature is maintained <120 0F by CACs and SIAS and CSAS have been RESE . Using the provided reference:

.Given the following:

' *Unit is at 97% with Regulating Group 5 CEAs at 110 inches for NFM testing

RO observes a difference of 10 inches between the primary and secondary CEA position indications for all Group 5 CEAs

Initial diagnosis is the primary CEA position indication may be inoperable and the TRM is reviewed by the operators Which ONE of the following is the expected effect of this condition? _

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A. Implement Nonconformance A by contingency measure A.2.1 of the TR I B. Implement Nonceriormance B by contingency measure B.1 of the TR C. Implement Nonceriormance A by contingency measure A.1 of the TR ;

D. Implement Nonconformance C by contingency measure C.1 of the TR .1 A DG is running under load during periodic testing and is paralleled to 4KV bus i 11-1 What is the DG response to a loss of offsite power?

A. DG output breaker,152-1703, will remain closed, repower all required loads, and continue to supply power to loads on 4KV bus 1 B. DG output breaker,152-1703, will remain closed, attempt to pick up the required loads and trip on overcurren C. DG output breaker,152-1703, will trip open and remain open until the synch stick is ,

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inserted and manually closed by the operato D. DG output breaker,152-1703, will trip open and automatically reclose on 4KV bus 17 with normal and altamate feeders open to 4 KV Bus 1 RONRC.TST Version:O Page: 24

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80. Given the following:

Unit 2 is in Mode 5

Preparations for drawing a Main Condenser vacuum were completed by the

' previous shift

CRO starts all 4 CARS-

' * Shortly thereafter the CRO observes indication of all 4 CARS tripped on 1C13

TBO reports that all 4 CAR shell stops isolation valves are OPEN and all 4 CAR i breakers have tripped on overcurrent and have been reset Which ONE of the following is the correct action for the condition? !

A. Restart one CAR, wait for Condenser vacuum to reach ~20 inches Hg, start the last .

3 CAR i B. Direct the TBO to throttle all CAR Shell Stop valves to ~25% OPEN, restart CARS *

C. Direct the TBO to throttle 2 CAR Shell Stop valves to ~25% OPEN, restart the applicable CAR D. Restart 2 CARS, wait for condenser vacuum to reach- 20 inches Hg, start the last 2 i CAR l 81._Which instrumentation must be operable to ensure the Containment Purge System will l be automatically secured should a fuel handling incident occur inside containment? i A. Containment High Range Monitors (RE-5317 A/B) ;

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B. Containment Area Radiation Monitors (RE-5316 A/B/C/D)

C. Main Vent Gaseous Monitor (RE-5415)

D. Wide Range Noble Gas Monitor (RIC-5415)

- 82. An electrical transient has occurred and the following indications are observed at 1C24A-

- 1YO2 is deenergized

- 2YO2 is doenergized

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Which one of the following buses has been lost?

A.120 VAC vital bus #12 B.120 VAC vital bus #22 C.125 VDC vital bus #21 D.125 VDC vital bus #11

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l 83. A recent change to the operation of the 1 A DG requires the operator to verify load is I greater than the unloaded value to minimize c feori buildup in the cylinders. When the DG is operating in the unloaded range what action is required when this condition is present? ,

A. An alarrn appears on the plant computer CRT near CRO's desk and a cleanout run i'

of at least 2000 KW for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months should be performe B. A control room alarm is received informing the operator that DG is below minimum load and loads should be started within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months to achieve t 1620 KW.

l C. Close monitoring by the CRO ensures unloade6 operation of the DG does not l exceed 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months ; if time limit is exceeded, the engine is shutdown and inspecte D. A control room alarm is received and as long as the time does not exceed 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months no further action is require . Given the following: I

Unit 1 is at 100% power * Unit 2 is in Mode 5 for planned outage

IAS 3.7.3 for 13 AFW pump OOS * Attachment 6 (MEEL) completed for Conduct of Lower Mode Operations l with Pressurizer Manway removed '

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The OWC notifies the Unit 2 control room that 23 AFW pump is to be tagged out I for 2 weeks for scheduled maintenance j l

Which ONE of the following describes the effect this tagout?

A. Unit 1 is effected due to Tech Spec requirementr for AF B. Unit 2 is effected due to Tech Spec requirements for AF C. Unit 1 will be losing an Appendix R redundant component l D. Unit 2 will be losing an Appendix R redundant componen . Which ONE of the following describes what normally starts to shift the Full Range ,

Digital Feedwater Control System to the High Power Mode of operation during plant i startup? ,

A. When the High Power Mode button is depresse l B. When the average of Reactor Reg Channels X and Y indicate greater than or equal to 17% powe C. When reactor power has been greater than or equal to 19% power for 5 minute !

D. When the average of the Wide Range NI channels A thru D indicate greater than 15% power.

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86. Given the following:

Unit 1 heatup in progress per OP 1-

RCS Tc is 450*F

RCS Pressure is 1750 PSIA

Panel 1T22 MS Line Drain handswitches are in the NORMAL operating position per the valve lineup Describe the actions and effect, if any, with the drain valves in the NORMAL position:

A. None, this is the expected position of the drain valves at 1T22 for plant heatup B. Place drain valves in the STARTUP position to minimize corrosion from air /non<:ondensible gases C. OPEN MS Line drain valves (1-HS-6622) at 1CO2 to continue heatup D. Place drain valves in the STARTUP position to prevent steam / water hammers .

87. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 65% and increasing to 100%

" RADIATION MONITOR LEVEL Hi" alarms at 1C07

Letdown flow is adjusted per the appropriate AOP

Reactor power is stabilized at 67% power

Chemistry reports that the RCS specific activity has stabilized below the chemistry action level 1 for Tech Spec 3.4.15

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Which ONE of the following is the action taken and the response of the Process Radiation Monitor to the letdown flow aqustment over the next few days?

A. Letdown flow is increased in conjunction with the purification IX lineup to obtain maximum purification flow resulting in decreasing activity level on the monito B. Letdown flow is reduced to minimum to allow Red Con surveys in the 27' East Penetration Room resulting in increasing activity level on the monito C. Letdown flow is increased to allow the diversion to be processed by the Reactor Coolant Waste system IXs resulting in decreasing activity level on the monito D. Letdown flow is secured until the leak in the letdown line that was detected by the radiation monitor alarm can be located and isolated for repair . Which of the following descnbos the plant response if the selected Pressurizer Level control channel fails low at 100% power? Assume no operator action is taken A. All heaters doenergize, letdown goes to minimum, standby charging pumps start,

. actual pressurizer level and pressure increase and reactor trips on High Pressurizer Pressur B. All heaters doenergize, actual pressurizer level and pressure decrease and reactor trips on TM/L C. All heaters energize, letdown goes to maximum, only the selected charging pomp runs, actual pressurizer level and pressure decrease and reactor trips on TM/L D. All heaters energize, letdown goes to minimum, actual pressurizer level and pressure increase and the reactor trips on High Pressurizer Pressur RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 27

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i 89. Given the following-

! * Uniti is at 25% power

! * "U-1480V ESF TRIP UNDERVOLTAGE" alarms at 1C19 j * CRO reports that 114KV Bus is energized

TBO reports that 15 Battery Charger. and MCC 117T are doenergized -

1- * AOP 71 (Loss of 4KV,480 VOLT or 208/120 VOLT INSTRUMENT BUS POWER) 1

[ is implemented

l Which ONE of the following is also effected by this event?

i- A.11 Pressurizer Proportional heater benk is doenergized.

l B.12 Charging pump is doenergized.

! C.13 Component Cooling pump is doenergized.

l D.14 Pressurizer Backup bank is doenergized.

i 90. Given the following:

! * Unit 2 is at 100% power l

IAS 3.4.11 D due to both PORVs are not operable

Main Turbine trips due to loss of bearing oil i

j Which ONE of the following will initially limit the effects of the RCS transient?

A. A single 2500 PSIA setpoint Primary Code Safety valv B. 2 out of 4 RPS Loss of Load logic trip.

I C. Both Primary Code Safety valves.

D. 2 out of 4 RPS High Pressurizer Pressure logic trip.

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91. Given the following:

l * Unit 2 is at 100% power j * RO reports the Reactor tripped due an overpower transient

CRO observes the RPS response ;

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l Which ONE of the following is the expected effect on RPS from the Reactor Trip?

A. 2/4 Channels Hi Power trip relays energized,4 Matrices doenergize, trip path paths i L doenergize,4 TCBs ope !

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l B. 4/4 Channels APD trip relays energize,6 Matrices doenergize, trip paths energize, j 8 TCBs open.

! C. 4/4 Channels Hi Power trip relays energize,6 Matrices doenergize, trip paths

] doenergize,8 TCBs open.

i D. 2/4 Channels APD trip relays energize,4 Matrices doenergize, trip paths

_-. . r ,4 TCBs open.

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. . _ .._ ______ _ . _ _...__.._ _ _..___ _ __._._. _ _ _ _. _ . Given the following:

Unit 1 core has been off loaded to the SFP for 10 year ISI Reactor vessel inspection, RFP level is at 63 foot elevation

~ * Unit 1 RFP boron cor: centration is at the COLR concentration (2310 PPM) and the SFP boron concentration is at 2450 PFM Which ONE of the following actions, if any, is required to maintain the design SDM for the stored fuel?

A. No action is required, the SFP boron is above the Tech Spec required concentration of 2300 ppm -

B. Borate the RFP to the SFP concentration to prevent the dilution of the required SFP boron concentratio C. No action is required, the SFP Racks are designed to maintein the design SD D. Shut Transfer tube gate valve to isolate RFP from SFP and maintain SFP boron concentratio . Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 10%, preparing to parallel to the Grid

AOP 3G (Malfunction of MFW system) is implemented

11 BFRV control is in manual due to erratic controller operation

11 SG level is -25 inches and 12 SG level is -10 inches

The CRO raises the bias on the speed controller for 12 SGFP due to low FRV d/p on both 11 and 12 FRV l

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approximately 15 seconds later, the CRO observes a large feed flow / steam flow mismatch (feed greater than steam)

Both SG levels are lowering Which ONE of the following is the correct action for the conditions?

A. Start 13 AFW pump and monitor auto AFW initiation to raise both SG water level B. Decrease the SGFP speed bias or lower BFRV controller output, maintain a slight positive feed flow / steam flo C. Place 11 MFV controller in manual and open MFV to increase the positive feed flow / steam flow mismatch to 11 S D. Shut the TBVs to reduce steam flow and raise SG pressure to increase SG water level for the available FW flo !

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94. Using the provided reference:

Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with the RCS partially drained and shutdown cooling in setvic Outstanding entries exist in the Containment Fiosure Deviation Log to document unisolated containment penetrations. Addit . ally, given the following:

12A Si loop check valve is removed for maintenance

7 days have elapsed since shutdown

RCS level is at the middle of the hot leg

Initial RCS temperature is 160'F

Pressurizer manway is removed Determine the time available to establish containment closure in the event shutdown cooling is lost:

A.10 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 60 minutes D.120 minutes 95. During LOCA (EOP 5), hydrogen generation is a concem in maintaining the '

containment as a barrier to fission product releases during the even Select the time frame and the sources where hydrogen generation occurs:

A. Within minutes of LOCA initiation from aluminum and zinc source B. Within a few hours of LOCA initiation from aluminum and zinc source C. Within minutes of LOCA initiation from aluminum and steel source D. Within a few hours of LOCA initiation from aluminum and steel source . Given the following:

EOP 5 (Loss of Coolant Accident) is implemented on Unit 2

RCS pressure is - 1000 PSIA

RCS Subcooling is 25'F

Containment pressure is 3.2 PSIG and rising

"22 CNTMT FILT " alarms at 2C09 Which ONE of the following is the proper alarm response action for the CRO due to the condition?

A. Verify handswitch in NORMAL and 22 lodine Filter Fan starts on CIS at 4.25 PSIG B. Ensure 21 and 23 lodine Filter Fans have started and attempt to start 22 lodine Filter Fa C. Ensure there is no common mode failure and attempt to start 22 lodine Filter Fa D. Verify handswitch in NORMAL and 22 lodine Filter Fan starts on CSAS at 4.25 PSIG.

RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 30

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MINIMUM refueling Pool level per Tech Specs must be at least 23 feet abova the top of 1 the fuel seated in the core. This corrIsponds to an indicated I;;vtl of . Fuel handling cnd opercting procedur:s requiro that cn tirrm band of feet from RFP level to warn the control room and FHS of an increase or decrease in RFP leve A. 57.7 feet,010.2 feet l 6. 56.7 feet, Oi O.5 feet C. 57.7 feet, 0 0.5 feet D. 56.7 feet,010.2 feet 98. The normal power supply and header lineup of #13 and 23 Component Cooling pumps l-is:

A. Powered from bus 14A(21B) and aligned to 11(22) CCW header B. Powered from bus 14B(248) and aligned to both CCW header ,

C. Powered from bus 11 A(24A) and aligned to 12(21) CCW header l D. Powered from bus 11B(21B) and aligned to both CCW header . Given the following: ;

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RCS heatup in progress l l

RCS Pressure was 2250 PSIA I

An acoustic monitor for a safety valve indicates valve leakage l * A management decision is made to cooldown the plant for repairs Which ONE of tne following describes the tailpipe temperature response and fluid state as RCS pressure is decreased to 500 PSIA in the subsequent plant cooldown?

(assume pressure downstream of the RV is constant) i A. Tailpipe temperature will be higher than at NOP with superheated vapor downstream of the safety valv ;

B. Tailpipe temperature will be lower than at NOP with wet vapor downstream of the l safety valv C. Tailpipe temperature will be higher than NOP with saturated vapor downstream of I

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the safety valv !

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D. Tailpipe temperature will be lower than it was at NOP with saturated liquid downstream of the safety valv RONRC.TST Version: O Page: 31 l

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100. Given the fallowing:

Unit 1 is at 100% power * Unit 2 is at 95% power

Condenser delta T hourly * 26 Circulating Water pump is OFF average is 11.5'F and slowly * Condenser Water Boxes being cleaned rising

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Travelling Screen d/ps are rising on both Units i

Senrice Water Heat Exchanger d/ps are rising on both Units

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Bay conditions have changed due to a stonn coming from the North East which has resulted in large quantities of " grass" migrating into the intake structure. The OSO

, reports that " grass" is carrying over the travelling screens on both unit i

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Which ONE of the following is the effect of the described conditions A. Unit 2 SRW HX strainers will auto back flush, Unit 1 SRW HX will require frequent - !

I monitoring per 012 !

. B. Unit 2 Travelling Screens are placed in off for Water Box cleaning, Unit 1 Travelling '

I Screens are left in AUT C. Unit i SRW HX strainers will auto back flush, Unit 2 SRW HX will require frequent -

monitoring per 012 l

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D. Unit 1 Travelling Screens are left in AUTO, Unit 2 Travelling Screens are placed in l

HAND to prevent " grass" carryover i

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r l Fdday, January 22,1999006:14 AM- Answ r Key _ Page: 1

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L TestNan* RONRC.TST ~ f Test Date: Friday, January 22,1999

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QuestumID Type Pts 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8-9 L 1: '1 ACCD GAS RELEASE 002 MC-SR ~ l DA BC DAB CDA ,

1: 2 CONDUCTOF OPS .003 MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD ;

1: 3 CONDUCT OF OPS 001 MC-SR 1 D A B C. D A B CDA t 1: 4 CONDUCTOF OPS 002 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB l 1: 5 ' CONDUCTOFOPS 004 MC-SR l' -C DAB C DAB CD j 1: 6 P4UIPMENTCONTROL 004.- MC-SR 1 A B C D.A B C DAB

1: 7 EQUIPMENTCOKIROL 001- . MC-SR . 1 ABCDAB C DAB ,

i 1: 8 EQUIPMENTCOKTROL 002 - MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC l 1: 9 EQUIPMENTCONIROL 003- MC-SR - 1 C DAB CDABCD l li 10 EOUIPMENT CON 1ROL 005 MC-SR 1 D A B'C DAB CDA l 1: ,11 RADIADONCONIROL ~ 001 MC-SR -1 ABCDABC DAB :

1: 12 RADIATIONCONTROL 002 MC-SR . 1 B CDABCDABC !

1: 13 EMERPROC ERPIP 002 MC-SR 1 D A B C'D A B CDA l 1: 14 EMERPROC ERPIP 003 MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD j 1: 15 HIRCS ACRVTTY 001 ' MC-SR 1 B'C D A B CDABC !

1: 16 ~ NATURALCIRC 001 MC-SR 1 B C DABCDABC 1: 17 PIANTFIRE 001 MC-SR 'l C DAB CDAB CD l 1: 18 EMERGENCYBORATION 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC !

I 1: 19 INADEQUATECORECID 001 MC-SR 1 B CDAB CDAB C 1: 20 INOP/ STUCK ROD 001 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC DAB ,

l 1: 21 IDSS OF CCW 001 MC-SR .1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 22 LOSS OF COND VAC 001 MC-SR 1 C DAB CDABCD

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1: 23 IDSSOFCONTINTEG 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 24 LOSS OF SALTWATER 001 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC DAB l 1: 25 IBSS OF VTTAL AC 001 MC-SR 1 B C DABCD AB C ,

1: 26 PZRPRESSCONTROL 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDAB CD '

1: 27 RCPMAIEUNCHON 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC j 1: 28 RCS OVERCOOLING 001 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB l 1: 29 STADONBIACKOUT 002 MC-SR 1 B CDAB CDABC 1: 30 SIM LINE RUPTURE 001 MC-SR I C DAB C DA B CD 1: '31 IDSS OF MFW 001 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 32 REACTOR 1RIPSTABIL 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDA B CD 1: 33 REAC1DRTRIP STABIL 002 MC-SR 1 D A'B C DAB CDA 1: 34 - SO1UBE LEAK 001 MC-SR 1 A BCDABC DAB 1: 35 SO1UBE RUPTURE 001 MC-SR I D ABC DAB C DA 1: 36 ' SMAILBREAKLOCA 001- MC-SR I DABC DAB C DA

.1: 37 ACCD LIQ RELEASE 001 MC-SR 1 B CDAB CDABC p 1: 38 A1WS 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDAB CD ;

l 1: 39 CONTRODWITHDRAWL 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC I l 1: 40 DROPPEDROD 001 MC-SR 1 A B CD ABC DAB j 1: 41 LARGE BREAK LOCA 001 MC-SR 1 B CDAB CDABC 1: - 42 STMDUMP/TURBBYP 001 - MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB

! 1: 43 AREA RAD MONTTORS 001 MC-SR 1 A BCD ABC DAB !

1: . 44 FUNCHONALRECOVERY 001 MC-SR I ABCDABC DAB ,

l 1: 45 LOSS OF DC 001 MC SR I C DAB C DA B C D i

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y Friday, January 22,1999 @ 06:14 AM Answer Key Page: 2 Test Name: ' RONRC.TST Test Date: Friday, January 22,1999

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QueshanID Type Pts - 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1: 46 LOSSOFSDC 001 MC-SR 1 CDAB C DAB CD 1: 47 ' IDSS OF SR NIS ' 001 MC-SR 1 DABCDAB CDA 1: 48 EXCESSRCSMAKAGE 001- MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: ' 49 FUEL HANDLING ACCD 002 MC-SR I C DAB C D A B C'D 1: 50 IDSS OF OFFSTIE 002 MC-SR I B C DAB CDABC 1: 51 CON 1ROLRODDRIVE 002 MC-SR - 1 'B C DAB CDABC 1: 52 CVCS 001 MC-SR 1 B C DABCDABC 1: 53 ESFAS ~001, MC-SR 1 DABC DAB C DA 1: 54 MAINFEEDWATER 002 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB C-D A-1: 55 NUCINSTRUMENTA110N ' 001 MC-SR 1 A B CDABC DAB 1: SC WASTEGAS 002 ~ MC-SR I C DAB CDAB C D'

1: . 57 AREARADMONTIORING 001 ' MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD 1: 58 AREARADMONTIORING 002 MC-SR 1 DABC D 'A B CDA 1: 59 AUXFEEDWATER 001 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB

' 1: 60 AUXFEEDWATER 002 MC-SR 1 B C DA B CD AB C 1: 61 CONDENSATE 001 MC-SR I C DAB C DABCD 1: 62 CONTAINMENT CID 001 MC-SR I C DAB C DA B CD 1: 63 CONTAINMENTCLO 002 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB CDA 1: 64 CONIROLROD DRIVE 001 MC-SR I B CDAB CDABC 1: 65 CVCS 002 MC-SR I C DAB CDA B C D 1: 66 ESFAS 002 MC-SR I ABCDABC DAB 1: 67 INCORETEMP 001 MC-SR I C DAB C DAB CD 1: 68 IJQUIDRADWASTE 002 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 69 IJQUIDRADWASTE 003 MC-SR 1 DAB C DAB C DA 1: 70 MAINFEEDWATER 003 MC-SR 1 B C DA B C D ABC 1: 71 NUCINSTRUMENTA110N 002- MC-SR 1 B CDA B CDABC 1: 72 REACTOR COOLANTPP 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD 1: 73 z WASTE GAS 001 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC DAB 1: 74 ECCS 001 MC-SR 1 B C DABC DABC 1: 75 EMERGENCY DO 002 MC-SR 1 A B CDAB C DAB 1: 76 REACTORPRO1ECDON 001 MC-SR 1 A BCDABC DAB 1: 77 CONTAINMENTSPRAY 001 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB C DA 1- 78 RODPOSITIONIND 001 MC-SR 1 B C DABCDABC 1: 79 ACDISTRIBUTION 001 MC-SR 1 DAB C DAB CDA 1: 80 CONDENSER AIR REMVL 001 MC-SR 1 B C DA D C DAB C 1: ; 81 CONTAINMENTPUROE 001 MC-SR 1 B C DAB CDABC 1: 82 DCDISTRIBUDON 001 MC-SR I C DAB C DAB CD

'1: 83 EMERGENCYDO 001 MC-SR 1 B C DABCDABC 1: 84 F1 REPRO 1ECHON 001 MC-SR I C DAB C DA B CD 1: 85 INSTRUMENTA110N 001 MC-SR 1 B C DA B C DABC 1: 86 MAIN /RHTSTEAM 001 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB C DA 1: 87 PROCESSRADMCN '001 MC-SR 1 A BCDABC DAB 1: 88 PZREVELCONTROL 001 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC DAB 1: 89 PZRPRESSURE CONTROL 001 ' MC-SR 1 A B CDAB C DAB 1: 90 REACTORCOOlANT 001 MC-SR I B C DA B CD ABC

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Friday, January 22,1999 @ 06:15 AM Answer Key Page: 3

Test Name: RONRC.TST Test Date: Friday, January 22,1999 ;

Answa(s)

Q=shan ID ' Type Pts 0 1 23 4 5 6 7 8' 9 1: '91 REACTORPROIECHON 002 MC-SR -1 C DAB CDABCD 1: 92 SFPCOOLING 001 MC-SR I C DAB ~CDAB CD I 1: 93 . SIEAM OENERATOR ' 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC j 1: 94 CONTAINMENT 001 MC-SR 1 'ABCDABC DAB 1: 95 HYDROGENRECOMBINER 001 MC-SR 1 .B C DA B CDABC 1: 96 CONTIODINEREMOVAL 001 MC.SR 1 B CDABCDABC !

1: 97 FUEL HANDLING EQUIP 001 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB CDA 1: 98 COMPONtNTCOOUNO 001 MC-SR 1 B CDA B CDABC ,

1: 99 - PZRRELIEF/QT 001. MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 100 SERVICE WATER 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDA B CD

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Attachment 2 i CALVERT CLIFFS SRO WRITTEN EXAM W/ ANSWER KEY i

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/ M.uta ES-401 Site-Specific Written Examination Form ES-401-7 ,

Cover Sheet '

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission -

Site-Specific

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Written Examination Applicant Information :

Name: Region: @/II/III/IV Date: 1-00-% Facility / Unit: CCNPP unds la g

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License Level: R0 /M Reactor Type: W /(CE)/ BW / GE ,

Start Time: Finish Time: : ;

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answer Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. The passing grade requires a final grade of at least 80.00 percent. Examination papers will be collected four hours after the examination start ;

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my ow I have neither given nor received ai Applicant's Signature Results Examination Value Points

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Applicant's Score Points Applicant's Grade Percent l

l NUREG-1021

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39,of 39 Interim Rev. 8, January 1997

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Nrme:

1. Using the provided references Given the following: !

Unit 1 is at 98% power . .

1-PT-1028 transmitter is OOS due to reliability concerns by System Engineering

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CRO bypasses Channnel B RPS trip units 5 and 6 to comply with TS 3. The CRS directs you to perform a peer check per 016, determine the compliance with l TS 3. !

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Which ONE of the following is the proper action based on TS 3.3.1:

A. Notify the CRS that the 016 peer check is complete and the correct channel RPS is l

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bypassed.'

B. Notify the CRS that the 016 peer check is unset because the wrong channel RPS is !

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I bypasse C. Notify the CRS ' hat the 016 peer check is complete and the correct trip units are bypasse .

i D. Notify the CRS that the 016 peer check is unsat because the wrong trip units are !

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2. Unit 2 is at 50%. The designated CRO requests a break and requires a temporary ;

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relief. The Shift Manager directs the SM Assistant to relieve the CR i

' Which of the following describes the minimum action for the temporary watch relief per l NO-1-200? _

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' A. Verbally brief the SM ;

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B. Walkdown the panels with the SM C. No turnover required, SMA is already signed in.' l D. Complete the turnover requirements of NO-1-207 (Shift Turnover) !

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3. Given the following:

Unit 1 turbine startup in progress * Unit 2 turbine startup in progress !

Unit 1 MT at 1800 RPM * Unit 2 MT st 560 RPM !

"420 HZ MALFUNCTION" light is on *" EMERGENCY POWER SUPPLY' ;

light is on l

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' Determine the action required, if any, for each Unit's Mdn Turbine conditio ;

A. Roset the light on Unit 1, No action required for Unit l B. No action required for Unit 1, reset the light for Unit l C. Trip Unit 1 Main Turbine, trip Unit 2 Main Turbin i

' D. Shut down Unit 1 Main Turbine, shut down Unit 2 Main Turbin SRONRC.TST Version: O Page: 1 e yw3 - , ,m-e , ---em,- + w -- e-,,- a n- w-,e+- , - , -

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l 4. During the performance of a routine valve line up while the unit is in Mode 5, a valve listed as OPEN is discovered to be CLOSE Which ONE of the following describes the correct action to be taken for this valve line up condition?f A. Since the unit is not in Mode 1 or 2, an entry in the CRO log is require B.' Note the valve position in the " discrepancy section" of the coversheet and notify SRO to evaluate.

l C. With concurrence of the CRO, the valve is immediately returned to the recommended positio D. An abnc mal valve position tag is attached to the valve and the step is signed off as completed.

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5. Unit 1 is at 100% power when scheduled maintenance on #11 SG Channel C, 1-PT-1013C, will require this transmitter to be taken.out of service. Which safety signals, RPS and ESFAS, are affected by the transmitter inoperability? ,

A. Low SG Pressue trip, ASGT(TM/LP) trip and AFW flow to brea !

l B. Low SG Pressure trip, SGIS and AFAS Start.

I C. Low SG Pressure trip, ASGT (TMILP) trip, SGIS arid SGIS Block.

l D. Lou SG Pressure trip, SGIS and SGIS Bloc . Given the following:

CRS directs you to assist with the performance of valve line ups in the Auxiliary Building

After SWP review, RCSS discussion and sign in for the EPD, you go to the 27 foot Valve Alley i

While in the Valve Alley, your EPD alarms continuously i

Which ONE of the following is the required actions and basis for the described i condition?

A. Exit the RCA, report to the Rad Con for evaluation of exceedir ;e limi B. Exit the Valve Alley, report to the level RST for evaluation of exceeding dose limi C. Exit the RCA, report to Dosimetry for evaluation of EPD malfunctio D. Exit the Valve Alley, report to the level RST for evaluation of EPD malfunctio l I

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. 7. Given the following:

Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with SDC in operation

You have been assigned to tag out and drain 11 Charging pump for maintenance

Your dose limit is 100 mrom/ shift por the SWP

Your present accumulated dose is 70 mrom this shift

The RST states the expected dose rate in the area is 10 mrom/hr Which ONE of the following is the calculated time in the area based on CCNPP Admin limits?

A. 60 minutes B. 90 minutes C.120 minutes

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D.180 minutes i

8. A call is received on the contrei room emergency phone extension (911) and the caller identifies himself and reports that a worker in the SFP ventilation room was hurt from a load that pinched his- hand and it is cut with heavy bleedin The CRS assigns you with making the notification of the appropriate response perenne Which ONE of the following is proper notification, per the ERPIP7

.. A. Activate the Emergency recall pager system for recalling the FS B. Sound the emergency alsam for 5 seconds, announce"a personnel emergency exists in the 69 foot Auxiliary Building with a hand injury, Medical department and Decon Team respond". Repeat onc C. Activate the Emergency Recall pager system for recalling a BGE Physica D. Sound the emergency alarm for 5 seconds, announce"a personnel emergency exists in the 69 foot SFP ventilation room with a hand injury, First Aid team and Radiation Safety Technician respond". Repeat once 9. Given the following:

Unit 2 has implemented EOP 1 for an uncomplicated trip

RO observes that VCT pressure is 4 PSIG and VCT level is at 50 inches

RO commences auto makeup to the VCT per 0128 What additional actions are required based on the stated conditions?

A. Verify Pressurizer heaters are ON to equalize boron .

B. Notify Chemistry to sample the BAST C. Start or vent any idle charging pump D. Add H2to the VCT to maintain 10 to 15 PSIG.

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10. Given the following:

Unit 2 is in Mode 3 with a SG Tube Rupture event in progress

EOP 6 is implemented

RCS is at NOT and NOP

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Which ONE of the following is the basis to commence RCS boration prior to lowering RCS temperature below 515'F A. Ensures SIAS has initiated properly before the affected SG is isolate B. Ensures SDM requirements and to enmpensate for backfil C. Ensures the assumed uncontrolled cooldown at 515'F keeps the core suberitica '

D.' Ensures RCP trip strategy does not result in diluted areas of RC . Given the following:

Unit 1 has tripped and EOP O has been completed

EOP 3 has been diagnosed and implemented

The CRS directs that the RCPs to be tripped Which one of the following is the reason for tripping all reactor coolant pumps?

A. Prevents RCP cavitation when the RCS reaches saturation conditions from rapid cooldown to Condensate Booster pump injection.

, B. Reduces RCP heat input to the RCS, increasing the SG water inventory

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!' C. Minimizes RCP seal damage from SIAS isolating bleed off flow to VC D. Reduces RCP motor damage from steam when once-through core cooling is initiated i

l 12. Given the following:

l * Unit 2 is at EOC and at 85% power and steady ,

* Regulating Group 5 CEAs are at ~125 inches i j * System Engineer discovers and reports Regulating Group 5 CEA #1 is i untrippable

AOP 1B is implemented and a rapid power reduction per OP 3 is commenced Determine the effect of plant transient on the axial power distribution:

A. As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will shift towards the upper region of the cor B. As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will shift towards the lower region of the cor !

C. As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will not change towards either upper or j lower region of the cor ;

D. As Reactor power is decreased, axial power will initially shift to the lower region j then shift to the upper regio !

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l 13. Given the following: i

Unit 1 is at 100% power

"RCP AUXILIARIES STATUS PANEL" alarms

"CCW FLOW LO" alarms

RO reports increasing temperatures on all RCPs from the plant computer trends

CRO reports that a CC Containment Cooling isolation CV is SHUT

Which GNE of the following may result in component damage?

. A. RCP Controlled Bleadoff temperature of 225'F.

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B. RCP Upper Guide bearing temperature of 190' C. RCP Downward Thrust bearing temperature of 190'F.

l D. RCP Seal cavity temperature of.195'F.

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.14. A loss of condenser vacuum occurred on Unit 1 with reactor power at 60%. The operators are reducing power and are able to maintain condenser vacuum at 24 inches l H !

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W1ich ONE of the fo!!owing indicates the power level at which the turbine will have to

. be tripped if vacuum can NOT be increased to greater than 25 inches Hg?

A. 88 MWE l B.176 MWE ,

! C. 270 MWE j D. 440 MWE i

15. Given the following:

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Unit 1 is in Mode 4 with heatup to 532'F in progress

The ABO performing a Containment tour reports the Personnel Airlock interlock I

mechanism is broke Determine the immediate action required based on plant conditions: l A. Direct the F!O to lock the inner Personnel Airlock door and remain in the area until l l a guard is phte ! B. Direct the At30 to verify a Personnel Airlock door is SHUT and maintain one door i shut during ingress / egres C. Notify the CRS for an operability determination per the Technical Requirements Manua D. Notify the CRS for an operability determination per NO-1-114 (Containment .l'

Closure)

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16. Given the following:

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Unit 1 and 2 are in Mode 5

Unit 1 and 2 Salt Water Systems are lined up on the Emergency Overboard l

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Which ONE of the following describes how the minimum / maximum flow requirements for the applicable Salt Water pumps are met?

A. Unit 1 automatic operation of 12NB SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by manual i throttling of 22 or 23 SW pump discharge valv B. Unit 1 automatic operation of 11NB SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by manual throttling of 21 or 23 SW pump discharge valv C. Unit 1 automatic operation of 12NB SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by manual throttling of Emergency Overboard Control Valv D. Unit 1 automatic operation of 11 A/B SRW HX bypass valve, Unit 2 by preset throttling by the Emergency Overboard header orifice.

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l 17. Unit 1 is in Mode 1. AFAS Sensor Channel "ZE" has been de-energized for maintenance per the 01. While the maintenance is ongoing, a loss of 120V Vital AC Bus 13 occurs. What best describes the response of AFAS?

A. No effect on system operation other thatn alarm B. AFAS "A" and AFAS "B" actuation occur C. Only AFAS "A" actuation occur D. Sensor logic is reduced to 1 out of 2 to generate an AFA . Select the statement that describes the operation of the pressurizer heaters from ,

1(2)C43: i A. Heaters trip 10 minutes after pressurizer level drops below 101" as associated time l delay dropout relay actuates, i B. Pressurizer level must be raised above 101" initially to reset low level cutout relay and energize heaters when placing keyswitch in LOCAL at 1(2)C4 C. Operator secures the heaters when pressurizer level drops below 101".

D. Heaters trip on pressurizer low level cutout below 101" as indicated on 1(2)C4 i I

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i l 19. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at MOC and 100% power * Unit 2 is at MOC and 100% power

Unit 1 trips due loss of Offsite power * Unit 2 trips due to a seized rotor on 21 A RCP

Evaluate the effect, if any, on each Unit from the described transients:

A. Unit 1 DNB limits are approached more closely compared to the Unit 2 transient -

effect B. Unit 2 DNB limits are approached more closely compared to the Unit 1 transient effect C. Unit 1 and Unit 2 DNB limits are approached equally for each transien D. Unit 1 and Unit 2 DNB limits are not approached due the automatic RPS trip action for each Uni . Which one of the following is the basis for maintaining a maximum of 140*F subcooled

! margin during EOP-5 implementation?

A. prevent a pressurized thermal shock event occurrence B. minimize pressure across the break thereby reducing the leak rate C. prevent RCS pressure from increasing to the PORV setpoint D. maintain an adequate amount of subcooled fluid to remove decay heat 21. Given the following:

l * A loss of Offsite power has occurred l * Unit i has implemented EOP 7 Which one of the following conditions must be met to allow transition to the next appropriate procedure for Unit 17 A. Energizing any 4 KV bus and associated load centers.

l B. Completing the SFSC final acceptance criteria in EOP C. TSC determination that sufficient battery capacity exist D. Emergency boration has been completed for Mode 5 entr . The plant is at 100% power when a large excess steam demand event occurs. Which of the following RPS and/or ESFAS signals actuates first to prevent violations of DNB or the exceeding of SAFDLs?

l A. Low pressurizer pressure B. High containment pressure C. Low steam generator pressure D. Low S/G Level Trip l

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23. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100% power

Liquid Weste discharge is in prcaress to Unit 1 Circulating Water

RO is preparing to make up the RWT due to'11 RWT-LEVEL-TEMP" alarm

CRO reports 11 RWT level is decreasing

ABO reports that "11 REFUEL WTR STORAGE AREA SUMP LEVEL Hi" alarm at 1C63 Which ONE of the following is the proper action for the described conditions?

A. Implement AOP 6B (Accidental Release of Radioactive Liquid Waste) due to the Liquid Waste Discharge in progres B. Implement AOP 68 (Accidental Release of Radioactive Liquid Release) due to the RWT level chang C. Direct the ABO to investigate the Liquid Waste Discharge line u D. Direct the ABO to investigate the RWT makeup line u . Given the following:

CRS observes 2 out of 4 RPS trip logic for RCS flow tripped with no protective channel trip alarm on Unit 1

RO observes Reactor power is at 100% at 1C05 ,

EOP O is implemented by the crew

RO observes prompt drop in Ni power and negative SUR while performing his IMMEDIATE ACTIONS for Reactivity Safety Function Which ONE of the following was the method used to respond to the ATWS event?

A. Deenergizing 11 A and 14A 480 Volt busse B. Deenergizing 12B and 138 480 volt busse C. Depressing Reactor Trip buttons at 1C0 D. Emergency Boration with all available Charging pump . Given the following:

Unit 1 Reactor startup in progress after Refueling Outage per applicable PSTP and OP-2 '

All Shutdown groups are fully withdrawn

RO has completed his first 30 inch CEA pull on Regulating group 1

RO observes that Regulating Group 1 primary and secondary CEA pcaition ;

indication are increasing '

What actions are required for the existing plant conditions?

A. Insert group 1 CEAs to stop the outward motion per OP B. Place the CEDS Control Panel in OFF and implement AOP 1 C. Emergency borate with all available Charging pumps per PST ' D. Commence a reactor shutdown by inserting all CEAs per 014 SRONRC.TST Version: O Page: 8

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26. Given the following:

2 CEAs have dropped into the core .

Pressurizer level decreases to ~195 inches

Reactor power decreases from 100% to ~85% -

RCS Pressure decreases to ~2225 PSIA Which ONE of the following is the action required per AOP'?

A. Trip the Reactor and perform Standard Post Trip' Action B. Reduce Turt>ine load to match Reactor powe C. Commence a Reactor shutdown to subcritica D. Reduce Reactor power to less than 70%.

27. Which one of the followng describes the design basis core heat removal process during a large break LOCA? .

A. HPSI injection provides makeup and heat is removed via natural circulation flow to

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B. HPSI pumps, LPSI pumps and the SITS provide makeup and heat is removed via

. flow out the break C. LPSI pumps and the SITS provide makeup and heat is removed via foroad flow to the S/Gs D. HPSI pumps and CS pumps provide makeup and heat is removed via flow out the break 28. Given the following:

Unit 1 and 2 are at 100%

Unit 1 is at EOC and had returned to service from a maintenance outage with

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subsequent indications of 1% failed fuel

13 WGDT is in service and full, ABO requests placing 12 WGDT in service Which ONE of the following describes the expected conditions while shifting the WGDT7-A.13 WGDT will contain primarily radioactive Xenon and Krypton and dose rates will be slightly elevated above norma B.13 WGDT will contain primarily radioactive lodine and Argon and dose rates will be slightly elevated above norma C.13 WGDT will contain primarily radioactive Xenon and Krypton and dose rates wil!

be substantially elevated above norma D.13 WGDT will contain primarily radioactive lodine and Argon and dose rates will be substantially elevated above normal.

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29. Given the following:

Unit 1 and 2 at 100% power

"RMS PANEL" alarms at 1C17 -

CRO reports that area rad monitor " UNIT 1 SAMPLE RM" is in alarm

~ * RO reports the VCT level trend indicates an increased leak rate Which ONE of the following is the correct sequence of the alarm response actions for these plant conditions?

A. Notify Rad Safety to perform an area survey, evacuate the immediate area, have Chemistry check sample sink isolation valves shu B. Contact Chemistry to check sample sink isolation valves shut, evacuate the immediate area and have Rad Safety perform an area survey, C. Notify Rad Safety to update the area survey map, evacuate the immediate area, have Chemistry check sample sink isolation valves shu D. Contact Chemistry to check sample sink isolation valves shut, evacuate the immediate area, and have Rad Safety update the area survey ma _

. 30. Given the following:

Unit 2 has tripped and EOP O implemented

EOP O Safety functions completed were:

Reactivity

Vital Auxiliaries

Red Level External to Containment

All other Safety Funct' ens were not met

CRS directs implementation of the Functional Recovery Procedure EOP 8 Which ONE of the following is the appropriate implementation method for EOP 87 A. Evaluate Plc, HR and CE Safety functions success paths in order as a minimu <

B. Evaluate All Safety functions success paths in any order as directed by the CR C. Evaluate HR, Plc and CE Safety functions success paths in order as a minimu D. Evaluate recommended safety function success paths based on STA inpu . While operling U-2 at 100% power, a loss of 125 vde bus #11 occurs. Which one of i the following actions, if any, must be taken to ensure a reactor / turbine trip?

A. No actions are required as the lop of this bus does not affect automatic tripping of the turbine / reacto B. The turbine must be manually tripped at 2C02 at the same time the reactor is manually tripped from 2C0 C. The turbine must be tripped from the front standard at the same time the reactor is tripped from 2C0 .

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32. Given the following: i

Unit-1 is in Mode 5 ;

#11 LPSI pump is in senrice providing shutdown coolin l

The shutdown cooling return valves are ope ;

' * The RCS is being drained below the midplane of the hot legs for maintenanc * 11 LPSI pump amps, discharge pressure and flow are fluctuatin !

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Which one of the followng actions should be taken in this situation? i A. Secure draining of the RCS and raise vessel level until LPSI pump flow comes back l

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u . l B. Place the LPSI pumps in pull-to-lock, drain the vessel to the desired level, then l restart a LPSI pum C. Stop the running LPSI pump and place in pull-to-lock. Secure draining and raise reactor vessel level. Vent and restart a LPSI pum D. Stop the running LPSI pump, secure draining the RCS and start the standby LPSI pum l 33. Given the following:

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Unit 2 is in Mode 6 with refueling in progress, core on load is complete

CEA swaps are being performed per the applicable fuel handling procedure

RCRO observes that Channel A and B WRNI indicate steady at 10 CPS and Channel C WRNI indicates ~1 CPS and decreasing after a Shutdown CEA insertion What response is required, if any, to the plant conditions?

A. Channel A and B WRNI are inoperable, notify the CR B. Channel A and B WRNI are operable, no action is neede C. Channel C WRNI is seeing the effect of the Shutdown CEA insertio D. Channel C WRNI has failed, notify the FHS and NF . The RCSS reports to the control room and describes a high rad material move from 45 foot truck loading area to the Unit 145 foot east penetration roo Which of the following Area RMS alarm would be expected at 1C22 based on the mcmment path?

A. " UNIT 1 CC".

' B. " DRUM STORAGE RM" !

C. " UNIT 1 S/G B/D TK AREA" l D. " MISC WASTE EVAP RM" l

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35.The CRS directs you to perform the check source of RMS per 013 Which of the following RMS should NOT have the " check source" test performed per 0135 due to automatic functions?

A. SFP Platform RI-7025 B. CAR Discharge RI-1752-C.- Containment ICI RI-7008 -

D. Liquid Waste RI-2201 36. Which condition below would cause the AFAS NO. FLOW alarm to initiate?

A. AFW flow 60 gpm,60 seconds after an AFAS START signa B. AFW flow 90 gpm,60 seconds after an AFAS START signa C. AFW flow 60 gpm,30 seconds after an AFAS START signa D. AFW flow 90 gpm, 30 seconds after an AFAS START signa . Given the following:

Loss of Offsite power has occurred

Unit 1 tripped and no DGs are available

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Unit 2 tripped and 2A and 2B DGs are supplying power Which one of the following describes the operation of AFW flow control valves on Unit 17 A. Override Open the steam driven train block valves for both SGs at 1C4 B. Align N 2to the AFW amplifier air system to maintain operation from the control roo C. Direct the ABO to adjust local handwheel and observe local flow indicator for respons D. Place the output signal on controllers at 1C43 to 100% value to maintain operation from the control roo . Given the following:

Unit 2 is at 65%

21 and 22 Condensate pumps are running

23 Condensate pump is in standby

21 Condensate pump mechanically seizes,23 Condensate pump starts Which ONE of the following is the design feature that resulted in the auto start:

A. 21 Condensate Pump low discharge pressure at 150 PSI B. Main Feedwater Suction header pressure at or below 220 psi C. Condensate Header discharge pressure at 175 psi D. Condensate Booster Pump Suction pressure at or below 20 psig.

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[ 39. Using provided reference:

i Unit 1 is in Mode 1 and #11 SRW HDR is OOS for maintenance. What effect, if any, l does this have on the operability of the Containment Spray and Air Cooling System if

#12 Containment Spray Pump is declared OOS?

A. No effect, both Containment Cooling trains of the Containment Air Cooling system remain operabl B. The inoperable Containment Cooling train must be restored to operable status within 10 day C. The inoperable Containment Spray tra'n must be restored to operable status within 72 hour8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months D. The inoperable Containment Spray train must be restored to operable status within seven (7) day : 40. What ESFAS actuation (s) based on plant parameters and circuit logic are required to automatically initiate Containment Spray flow?

A. Containment pressure of 2.8 PSIG for SIAS OR containment pressure of 4.25 PSIG

. for CSA B. RCS pressure of 1725 PSIA for SIAS AND containment pressure of 2.8 PSIG for CSA C. RCS pressure of 1725 PSIA for SIAS OR containment pressure of 4.25 PSIG for CSA D. Containment pressure of 2.8 PSIG for SIAS AND containment pressure of 4.25 PSIG for CSA . When suberitical in Mode 2, adequate SHUTDOWN MARGIN is determined by:

A. Verifying that CEA Shutdown Group withdrawal is in the correct sequenc B. Verifying that the predicted critical CEA position is within the INSERTION limits of TS 3. C. Verifying that RCS boron concentration is sufficient to maintain the SHUTDOWN MARGIN requirements of TS 3. C. Verifying that CEA Regulating Group withdrawal is in the correct sequenc II l

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42. Given the following: l

Unit 2 at EOC and power reduced to 95% power for waterbox cleaning one hour ago ;

Regulating Group 5 CEAs were moved out one step to 129 inches for ASI control l

Condenser Water Box cleaning has staited and the first waterbox has been ;

returned to service ;

21 CVCS lon exchanger has been filled with new resin and placed in service i

RO observes RCS temperatures trending upwards for several minutes j Which ONE of the following would explain the change in RCS temperatures?: l A. Xenon decay from the power reduction for water box cleanin B. Starting the Circulating Water pump with clean waterbo I C. Placing an 21 CVCS lon Exchanger in servic i

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D. Group 5 CEA movement to control the AS . During recovery from a LOCA on Unit 2, you are directed by the U-2 CRS to reset SIAS from the control room using the EOP procedure. Containment pressure is 2.0 PSIG and Pressurizer pressure is 800 PSI Which ONE of the following is the sequence to properly complete this action?

A. Match required handswitches, block PZR Pressure SIAS, and depress both SIAS channel reset pushbutton B. Block PZR Pressure SIAS and depress either SIAS channel reset pushbutton C. Match required handswitches and depress both SIAS channel reset pushbutton D. Block the PZR Pressure SIAS and depress both SIAS channel reset pushbutton . While operating in mode 3 on natural circulation, how many CETs should be read as a minimum to ensure consistency with Th?

A. One per quadrant B. Two per quadrant C.Two D. One l

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45. Given the following: i

U st 2 s n 3 heating up to 532*F -

21 Degasifier vacuum pump accumulator level control is erratic

ABO is filling the Degasifier vacuum pump accumulator per Ol 17C '-1

- Which ONE of the following is the result, if any, of opening the level transmitter vent to !

. atmosphere during the accumulator fill?

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. A. No effect since the accumulator' discharges directly to Main Vent via Aux building )

ventilatio _

B., Release of radioactive gases from the Waste Gas Surge Tank through the )

accumulator ven C. Release of water from the accumulator during vacuum pump startup during Unit 1 diversio ,

D. Release of water from the accumulator during vacuum pump startup during Unit 2 1 diversio )

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46. Given the following:

Unit 2 is defueled

Instrument Air is tagged out for LLRT testing

2-SI-4150-CV and 2-Sl4151-CV indicate OPEN

Both CS pumps are in PTL

Safety Tagger calls the control room to notify that he will be tagging out and draining Component Cooling to the RCPs

Shortly thereafter, "CNTMT NORMAL SUMP LVL Hi" alarms at 2010 Which ONE of the following is the correct operator actions per 0117D for the conditions?

A. Ensure an Operator is stationed in 21 ECCS Pump Room, drain the containment sump using EAD 5462 until drained, shut EAD 546 B. Verify 21 ECCS Pp Rm sump pumps in AUTO, drain the containment sump using EAD 5462 and 5463 for at least 5 seconds, shut EAD 5462 and 546 C. Ensure an Operator is stationed in 22 ECCS Pump Room, drain the containment

. i sump using EAD 5463 until drained, shut EAD 546 !

D. Verify 22 ECCS Pp Rm sump pumps in AUTO, drain the containment sump using !

EAD 5462 and 5463 for at least 5 seconds, shut EAD 5462 and 546 ,

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--47. Given the following .

Unit i has tripped and EOP 0 is implemented j

" ACTUATION SYS SGIS TRIP" and " ACTUATION SYS CSAS TRIP" alarms annunciate at 1C08 l i

Select the plant components that receive both a SGIS and CSAS signals from ESFA l A. Condensate pumps, Condensate Booster pumps, Hester Drain pumps and MSIV l

B. Heater Drain pumps, SGFPs, MFIVs, and MSIV C. SGFPs, CS pumps, SG Blowdown CVs, and MSIV ,

D. Condensate Booster pumps, SG Blowdown CVs, MFIVs, and SGFP l

48. Which of the following occurs on a loss of high voltage power supply to the LRNis?

A. HV bistable trip I B. Power On light goes off C. Channel fails to 200%

D.' Actuation of the 15 VDC interlock j 49. Given the following:

Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with RCS temperature at 125'F

Shutdown Cooling has been secured for plant heatup ,

RCS pressure has been raised to 300 PSIA for RCP start

Pressurizer level at 170 inches

Preparing to start 11 A and 11B RCPs for plant heatup

ABO reports that 11 and 12 SG temperatures are 165'F

RCP portion of the LTOP Tagout is cleared Which ONE of the following describes the plant response to starting the first RCP

! based on stated conditions?

} A. RCS pressure will increase, the Pzr Safeties will open from the RCS pressure I

1- surge.

! 3. RCS pressure will decrease, the Pzr Backup heaters will automatically energize.

[ C. RCS pressure will increase, PORVs will open from the RCS pressure surge.

l D. RCS pressure will decrease, PZR Proportional heators will automatically increase j their output _

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50. What are the oxygen and cune content limits for the waste gas decay tanks? ,

[ : A. Oxygen 4% by volume,58,500 Curies of noble gas l

[ B. Oxygen 4% by weight,63,500 Curies of noble gas C. Oxygen 64 by volume, 58,500 Curies of noble gas

! D. Oxygen 6% by weight,53,500 Curies of noble gas j I

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-51. Given the following: _

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Unit 2 has tripped and EOP 5 (LOCA) has been implemented ,

RCS Pressure is ~800 PSIA - .

SIAS, CSAS and CIS have been verified ;

Containment Pressure is at 3.8 PSIG and lowering - l

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What conditions per the EOP are required to secure Containment Spray? !

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A. Containment Pressure is maintained <2.8 PSIG by CS flow and SIAS has been RESE l B. Containment Temperature is maintained <120 0F by CACs and SIAS has been l RESE l C. Containment Pressure is maintained <2.8 PSIG by CS flow and SIAS and CSAS :

have been RESE l D. Containment Temperature is maintained <120 0F by CACs and GIAS and CSAS l have been RESE . Using the provided reference:

) 1 Given the followin * Unit is at 97% with Regulating Group 5 CEAs at 110 inches for NFM testing

RO observes a difference of 10 inches between the primary and secondary CEA position indications for all Group 5 CEAs

Initial diagnosis is the primary CEA position indication may be inoperable and the TRM is reviewed by the operators Which ONE of the following is the expected effect of this condition?

A. Implement Nonconformance A by contingency measure A.2.1 of the TR B. Implement Nonconformance B by contingency measure B.1 of the TR C. Implement Nonconformance A by contingency meesure A.1 of the TR D. Implement Noncuivrinance C by contingency mossure C.1 of the YRM.

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53.1 A DG 'is running under load during periodic testing and is paralleled to 4KV bus 11-1 j

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What is the DG response to a loss of offsite power? !

A. DG output breaker,152-1703, will remain closed, repower all required loads, 'and !;

continue to supply power to loads on 4KV bus 1 B. DG output breaker,152-1703, will remain closed, attempt to pick up the required :

loads and trip on overcurren C. DG output breaker,152-1703, will trip'open and remain open until the synch stick is inserted and manually closed by the operato D. DG output breaker,152-1703, will trip open and automatically reclose on 4KV bus 17 with normal and altemate feeders open to 4 KV Bus 1 i

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54.Given the following

Unit 2 is in Mode 5i i

Preparations for drawing a Main Condenser vacuum were completed by the i previous shiR . {

CRO starts all 4 CARS .

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Shortly theresRer the CRO observes indication of all 4 CARS tripped on 1C13

TBO reports that all 4 CAR shell stops isolation valves are OPEN and all 4 CAR breakers have tripped on overcurrent and have been reset !

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l Which ONE ohhe following is the correct action for the condition? l A. Restart one CAR, wait for Condenser vacuum to reach ~20 inches Hg, start the last i'

3 CAR B. Direct the TBO to throttle all CAR Shell Stop valves to ~25% OPEN, restart CARS C. Direct the TBO to throttle 2 CAR Shell Stop valves to ~25% OPEN, restart the ~1 applicable CAR D. Restart 2 CARS, wait for condenser vacuum to ' reach- 20 inches Hg, start the last 2 3 CARS 1 55.Which instrumentation must be operable to ensure the Containment Purge System will be automatically secured should a fuel handling incident occur inside containment?

A. Containment High Range Monitors (RE-5317 NB)

B. Containment Area Radiation Monitors (RE-5416 A/BIC/D)

C. Main Vent Gaseous Monitor (RE-5415)

D. Wide Rcnge Noble Gas Monitor (RIC-5415)

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56. An electrical transient has occurred and the following indications are observed at 1C24A-I

- 1YO2 is deer.orgized 1

- 2YO2 is doenergized

Which one of the following buses has been lost?

A.120 VAC vital bus #12 B.- 120 VAC vital bus #22 C.125 VDC vital bus #21 D.125 VDC vital bus #11 SRONRC.TST' Version: O Page: 18

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i 57. A recent change to the operation of the 1 A DG requires the operator to verify load is )

_ greater than the unloaded value to minimize carbon buildup in the cylinders. When the

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l - DG is operating in the unloaded range what action is required when this condition is present? ;

A. An alarm appears on the plant computer CRT near CRO's desk and a cleanout run l of et least 2000 KW for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months should be performe ;

B. A control room alarm is received informing the operator that DG is below minimum j load and loads should be started within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months to achieve 11620 K <

l C. Close monitoring by the CRO ensures unloaded operation of the DG does not

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exceed 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months ; if time limit is exceeded, the engine is shutdown and inspecte D. A control room alarm is received and as long as the time does not exceed 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months no further action is require . Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100% power * Unit 2 is in Mode 5 for planned outage

IAS 3.7.3 for 13 AFW pump OOS * Attachment 6 (MEEL) completed for

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Conduct of Lower Mode Operations

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with Pressurizer Manway removed The OWC notifies the Unit 2 control room that 23 AFW pump is to be tagged out for 2 weeks for scheduled maintenance Which ONE of the following describes the effect this tagout?

l A. Unit 1 is effected due to Todi Spec requirements for AFW.

l B. Unit 2 is effected due to Tech Spec requirements for AF C. Unit 1 will be losing an Appendix R redundant component D. Unit 2 will be losing an Appendix R redundant componen . Which ONE of the following describes what normally starts to shift the Full Range Digital Foodwater Control System to the High Power Mode of operation during plant I startup?

l A. When the High Power Mode button is depresse B. When the average of Reactor Reg Channels X and Y indicate greater than or equal to 17% powe ,

C. When reactor power has been greater than or equal to 19% power for 5 minute D. When the average of the Wide Range Ni channeta A thru D indicate greater than !

15% powe )

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60. Given the following:

Unit 1 heatup in progrcss por OP 1

RCS Tc is 450*F

RCS Pressure is 1750 PSIA

Panel 1T22 MS Line Drain handswitches are in the NORMAL operating position per the valve lineup Describe the actions and effect, if any, with the drain valves in the NORMAL position:

A. None, this is the expected position of the drain valves at 1T22 for plant heatup ,

B. Place drain valves in the STARTUP position to minimize corrosion from !

uir/non-condensible gases C. OPEN MS Line drain valves (1-HS-6622) at 1CO2 to continue heatup D. Place drain valves in the STARTUP position to prevent steam / water hammers 61. Given the following: .

Unit 1 is at 65% and increasing to 100%

" RADIATION MONITOR LEVEL Hi" alarms at 1C07

Letdown flow is adjusted per the appropriate AOP

Reactor power is stabilized at 67% power

Chemistry reports that the RCS specific activity has stabilized below the chemistry action level 1 for Tech Spec 3.4.15 Which ONE of the following is the action taken and the response of the Process Radiation Monitor to the letdown flow aqustment over the next few days?

A. Letdown flow is increased in conjunction with the purification IX lineup to obtain maximum purification flow resulting in decreasing activity level on the monito B.' l.etdown flow is reduced to minimum to allow Rad Con surveys in the 27' East Penetration Room resulting in increasing activity level on the monito C. Letdown flow is increased to allow the diversion to be processed by the Reactor Coolant Waste system IXs resulting in decreasing activity level on the monito D. Letdown flow is secured until the leak in the letdown line that was detected by the radiation monitor alarm can be located and isolated for repair . Which of the following describes the plant response if the selected Pressurizer Level ,

control channel fails low at 100% power? Assume no operator action is taken l

. A. All heaters doenergize, letdown goes to minimum, standby charging pumps start, !

actual pressurizer level and pressure increase and reactor trips on High Pressurizer !

Pressur i

B. All heaters deenergize, actual pressurizer level and pressure decrease and reactor trips on TM/L C. All heaters energize, letdown goes to maximum, only the selected charging pump runs, actual pressurizer level and pressure decrease and reactor trips on TMIL :

D. All heaters energize, letdown goes to minimum, actual pressurizer level and pressure increase and the reactor trips on High Pressurizer Pressur i i

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63. Given the following:

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Uniti is at 25% power t

"U-1480V ESF TRIP UNDERVOLTAGE" alarms at 1C19 !

CRO reports that 114KV Bus is energized !

TBO reports that 15 Battery Charger and MCC 117T are deenergized

AOP 71 (Loss of 4KV,480 VOLT or 208/120 VOLT INSTRUMENT BUS POWER)

is implemented 6

Which ONE of the following is also effected by this event?

A.11 Pressurizer Proportional heater bank is doenergize "

B.12 Charging pump is doenergize ,

- C.13 Component Cooling pump is doenergize l

- D.14 Pressurizer Backup bank is doenergize .

64.Given the following: .

Unit 2 is at 100% power .

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IAS 3.4.11 D due to both PORVs are not operable

Main Turbine trips due to loss of bearing oil ;

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Which ONE of the following will initially limit the effects of the RCS transient? i A. A single 2500 PSIA setpoint Primary Code Safety valv ,

B. 2 out of 4 RPS Loss of Load logic tri C. Both Primary Code Safety valve D. 2 out of 4 RPS High Pressurizer Pressure logic tri . Given the following:

Unit 2 is at 100% power

RO reports the Reactor tripped due an overpower transient

CRO observes the RPS response Which ONE of the following is the expected effect on RPS from the Reactor Trip? j A. 2/4 Channels Hi Power trip relays energized,4 Matrices deenergize, trip path paths doenergize,4 TCBs ope B. 4/4 Channels APD trip relays energize,6 Matrices doenergize, trip paths energize,

8 TCBs ope C. 4/4 Channels Hi Power trip relays energize,6 Matrices deenergize, trip paths j

. deenergize,8 TCBs ope l i

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D. 2/4 Channels APD trip relays energize,4 Matrices deenergize, trip paths doenergize,4 TCBs ope l l

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4 l 66. Given the following- '

Unit 1 core has been off loaded to the SFP for 10 year ISI Reactor vessel inspection, RFP level is at 63 foot elevation

Unit 1 RFP boron concentration is at the COLR concentration (2310 PPM) and ,

~ the SFP boron concentration is at 2450 PPM I

Which ONE of the following actions, if any, is required to maintain the design SDM for !

the stored fuel?

A. No action is required, the SFP boron is above the Tech Spec required j concentration of 2300 ppm "

l B. Borate the RFP to the SFP concentration to prevent the dilution of the required SFP boron concentratio C. No action is required, the SFP Racks are designed to maintain the design SD D. Shut Transfer tube gate valve to isolate RFP from SFP and maintain SFP boron concentratio I 67. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 10%, preparing to parallel to the Grid

AOP 3G (Malfunction of MFW system) is implemented

11 BFRV control is in manual due to erratic controller operation

11 SG level is -25 inches and 12 SG level is -10 inches

The CRO raises the bias on the speed controller for 12 SGFP due to low FRV d/p on both 11 and 12 FRV * approximately 15 seconds later, the CRO observes a large feed flow / steam flow mismatch (feed greater than steam)

Both SG levels are lowering Which ONE of the following is the correct action for the conditions?

A. Start 13 AFW pump and monitor auto AFW initiation to raise both SG water level B. Decrease the SGFP speed bias or lower BFRV controller output, mainteln a slight positive feed flow / steam flo C. Place 11 MFV controller in manual and open MFV to increase the positive feed ~

flowl steam flow mismatch to 11 S '

D. Shut the TBVs to reduce steam flow and raise SG pressure to increase SG water level for the available FW flo ]

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f 68. Given the following:

EOP 5 (Loss of Coolant Accident) is implemented on Unit 2

RCS pressure is ~ 1000 PSIA

RCS Subcooling is 25'F

Containment pressure is 3.2 PSIG and rising

"22 CNTMT FILT " alarms at 2009 Which ONE of the following is the proper alarm response action for the CRO due to the condition? l A. Verify handswitch in NORMAL and 22 lodine Filter Fan starts on CIS at 4.25 PSIG I B. Ensure 21 and 23 lodine Filter Fans have started and attempt to start 22 lodine -

Filter Fa l C. Ensure there is no common mode failure and attempt to start 22 lodine Filter Fa l D. Verify handswitch in NORMAL and 22 lodine Filter Fan starts on CSAS at 4.25 PSI !

69. To perform movement of fuel assemblies seated within the reactor pressure vessel, the j

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MINIMUM refueling pool level per Tech Specs must be at least 23 feet above the top of the fuel seated in the core. This corresponds to an indicated level of . Fuel handling and operating procedures require that an alarm band of feet from RFP level to warn the control room and FHS of an increase or decrease in RFP leve A. 57.7 feet,010.2 feet B. 56.7 feet,010.5 feet C. 57.7 feet,0 0.5 feet D. 56.7 feet,010.2 feet 70. The normal power supply and header lineup of #13 and 23 Component Cooling pumps is:

. A. Powered from bus 14A(21B) and aligned to 11(22) CCW header B. Powered from bus 14B(24B) and aligned to both CCW header C. Powered from bus 11 A(24A) and aligned to 12(21) CCW header ,

D. Powered from bus 11B(21B) and aligned to both CCW header I l

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L 71. Given the following:

RCS heatup in progress - .

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RCS Pressure was 2250 PSIA-

' * An acoustic monitor for a safety valve indicates valve leakap ,

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A management decision is made to cooldown the plant for repairs .

Which ONE of the following describes the tailpipe temperature response and fluid ' state ,

as RCS pressure is decreased to 500 PSIA in the subsequent plant cooldown? )

(assume pressure downstream of the RV is constant)

A. Tailpipe temperature will be higher than at NOP with superheated vapor downstream of the safety valv B. Teilpipe temperature will be lower than at NOP with wet vapor downstream of the safety valv C. Tailpipe temperature will be higher than NOP with saturated vapor downstream of the safety valv D. Tailpipe temperature will be lower than it was at NOP with saturated liquid downstream of the safety valv .

72. Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100% power * Unit 2 is at 95% power j * Condenser delta T hourl * 26 Circulating Water pump is OFF j average is 11.5'F and slowly * Condenser Water Boxes being cleaned p nsmg

Travelling Screen' dips are rising on both Units

Service Water Heat Exchanger d/ps are rising on both Units Bay conditions have changed due to a storm coming from the North East which has resulted in large quantities of " grass" migrating into the intake structure. The OSO reports that " grass" is carrying over the travelling screens on both unit Which ONE of the following is the effect of the described conditions A. Unit 2 SRW HX strainers will auto back flush, Unit 1 SRW HX will require frequent monitoring per Ol 2 B. Unit 2 Travelling Screens are placed in off for Water Box cleaning, Unit 1 Travelling .

Screens are left in AUT !

C. Unit 1 SRW HX strainers will auto back flush, Unit 2 SRW HX will require frequent monitoring per Ol 2 l D. Unit 1 Travelling Screens are left in AUTO, Unit 2 Travelling Screens are placed in ,

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73. The Unit is operating at 80% power when steam dem nd is incrcised by 5% due to a l turbine bypass v;lva f iling open. How will the Prsssurizer spr y vilvas End heat::rs )

initially respond? .

l A. Spray valves shut, heaters energized in auto contro '

B. Spray valves shut, heater of C. Spray valves open, heaters energized in auto contro ,

~ D. Spray valves open, heaters of . Given the following:

The fire starts in the control room and AOP 9A is implemented

Unit 1 RO depresses the Raactor trip pushbuttons at 1CO5 before leaving the control room

Unit 1 CRO was not in the control room prior to the evacuation Which ONE of the following watchstanders ensures the Unit is shutdown, with regards to the Main Turbine?

A. CRO trips the Main Turbine at the front standar B. RO trips the Main Turbine at the front standar C. TBO trips the Main Turbine at the front standar D. PWS trips the Main Turbine at the front standar . Given the following:

Unit 2 is at 100% power

21 and 22 Salt Water headers in normal lineup

"22 SW HDR PRESS LO" alarms at 2C13

CRO reports that 22 SW header pressure indicates 8 PSIG

CRS directs the implementation of AOP 7A

CRO verifies the CC and SRW HX saltwater outlet valves in their normal positions .

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OSO verifies the sluice gates on 22 SW pump are open and Emergency i Overboard valve is shu i Which one of the following is the proper action for a suspected leak on 22 SW l header? )

A. SHUT the CC and SP.W HX saltwater outlet valves and observe 22 SW header i pressure greater than 10 PSI !

B. Start 23 Salt Water pump, stop 22 Salt Water pump and dispatch an operator to identify the location of the lea C. Shift Salt Water lineup to the Emergency Overboard and observe 22 SW header l pressure greater than 10 PSI D. Stop 22 Salt Water pump and dispatch an operator to identify the location of the lea SRONRC.TST Version: O Page: 25

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76. Given the following: ,

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~ 10 minutes ago a Loss of Offsite power occurred

EOP 2 is implemented on Unit 1

MSlVs and SG Blowdown valves have been shut

Shutdown sequencer loads have been verified

Establishment of RCS heat sink is in progress

AFW flow is at the auto initiation setpoint for both SGs

CRO reports the following parameters:

11 SG pressure is 850 PSIA 12 SG pressure is 925 PSIA !

Tc is 532 *F and steady Tcis 536*F and slowly increasing i 11 SG is steady at -30 mbs 12 SG is at -100 inches and slowly rising l

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11 ADVindicatesintermediate 12 ADV indicates shut-As CRS, which ONE of the following is the proper direction to the CRO for plant conditions?

A. Direct the CRO to OPEN the TBVs further to balance natural circulation flow in 12 ,

RCS loop with 11 RCS loo B. Direct the CRO to increase AFW flow to 12 SG to restore level to balance natural circulation flow in both loops .

C. Direct the CRO to shift the ADV controller to AUTO to maintain SG pressure 850 to 920 PSIA and Tc 525 to 535* D. Direct the CRO to shift to local manual operation on 12 ADV and maintain 12 SG balanced with 11 SG pressure and loop T . Given the following:

A SBO has occurred

EOP 7 is implemented on Unit 1 and EOP 8 on Unit 2

The following parameters exist on both Unrts: j Unit i subcooled margin is 40*F Unit 2 subcooled margin is 0 F Loop Tc's are 530*F and lowering Loop Tc's are 516 F and erratic PZR levelis 110 inches RVLMS last indicating light is ON SIAS actuation has been verified Which ONE of the following is used to verify sufficient natural circulation flow to maintain Core /RCS Heat Removal safety function for Unit 27 A. HPSI and LPSI at required flow rat B. Steaming the SG with the TBV l C. CETs indicate less than superhea )

D. Both Th's consistent with CET i l

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78. At 1605 o fire is reported in 45 foot solid w sta crea and the ERPIP actions tro implemented. At 1612 the fire brigade trader informs the Control Room that the fira brigade is on the scene and fire fighting efforts will start momentarily. The fire brigade leader reports at 1821 that the water was applied to the fire in the solid waste area and is extinguishe Which ONE of the following is correct EAL, if any, based on the described conditions?

A. No EAL is appropriate, since fire was not in a safe shutdown are B. UNUSUAL EVENT for fire not extinguished within 15 minutes of notificatio C. ALERT for fire not extinguished within 15 minutes of notification in the RC D. NO EAL is appropriate since fire was extinguished within 30 minute . Given the following:

A ESDE occurred on Unit 2, implemented EOP 4

21 SG pressure is 450 PSIA and decreasing

22 SG pressure is 780 PSIA and steady

CETs indicate 484'F

SIAS actuated and verified at required flow

Containment pressure is 3 PSIG Which one of the following is the required action and basis for the described conditions? !

A. Direct the RO posform alternate actions for the Containment Environment safety function to meet containment criteri B. Direct the CRO to cooldown 22 SG to 680 PCR to prevent RCS expansion after blowdown is complet C. Direct the RO to perform alternate actions and borate to 2300 ppm to met the Reactivity safety function criteri D. Direct the CRO to initiate SGIS to isolate 21 SG blowdown and meet the Heat Removal safety functio . Given the following:

Unit 2 is at 100% power

CRO reports instrument Air pressure is 80 PSIG and lowering

When instrument Air pressure reaches 40 PSIG, The reactor is tripped and EOP O is implemented Which ONE of the following is the basis for the reactor trip?

A. Both Main Feedwater Regulating Valves cannot control SG water level B. Both CCW isolation valves to the containment isolated cooling to the RCP C. All SRW Turt>ine Building isolation valves isolated cooling to the Main Generator D. Condensate Precoat Bypass valve failed closed isolating condensate flow to CBP l SRONRC.TST Version: O Page: 27

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- 81. Assume that a loss of main feedwater flow has resulted in low SG levels. Why must !

! auxiliary feedwater be used to restore SG levels to 0 inches before reestablishing . ,

main feedwater flow to the SGs? .!

A. Severe water hammer may occur when steam voids collapse in the main feed rin !

B. Feedwater isolation valves are prevented from opening unless SG level is greater j than -26 inche _

i C. The SG downcomer must be refilled slowly to avoid thermal shock to the tube shee l

- D. Thermal shock may occur to the metal of the main feed ring resulting in mechanical .

dameos !

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82. Given the following

AOP 2A on unit 2 is implemented with the following:

- STA estimated the RCS leak rate to be ~40 gpm ;

l Containment environment parameters are steady j l Preliminary cf.ecks have determined no observable SG tube leakage !

j Letdown is isolated with 21 Charging pump running l RCS pressure is 2250 PSIA !

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Charging header pressure is 2150 PSIA l \

l Which ONE of the following is the assumed leakage location based on these j conditions?

A. Either SG until chemistry reports on the SG sample result i B. Charging header downstream of 2-CVC-269 MOV (Chg hdr to aux HPSI).

C. RCP pump seal to Component Cooling syste D. Charging header downstream of 21 Charging pump.

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83. Given the following: l

Unit 2 has just completed a power reduction to 95% !

Pressurizer Backup heaters were ON for boron equalization !

Pzr Pressure Channel 100X was selected as the control channel !

"PZR CH 100 PRESS" alarms at 2C06 and the RO reports the following:

Pzr pressure alarm is unexpected l PIC-100X is reading 2250 PSIA and steady l PIC-100Y is reading 2050 PSIA and steady l Pressure Recorder 1058 shows pressure trended down to 2065 PSIA - l'

Pressurizer level trended down during the transient and is returned to programmed level ,

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Which ONE of the following is the proper response?

A. Shift PIC-100X to manual, restore RCS pressure, go in TS action for DNB !

parameter l B. Shift pressure control to Channel 100Y, restore RCS pressure, go in TS for DNB l parameter _ l C. Declare Pzr pressure Channel 100X OOS due to failed channel check with 100Y )'

per Post Accident Monitoring Tech Spe D. Declare Pzr pressure Channel 100Y OOS due to failed channel check with 100X per Post Accident Monitoring Tech Spe . During a LOCA on the top of the Pressurizer, the RCS inventory is being restore l

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' Which ONE of the following is the HPSI Throttling criteria?

A. Loop Subcooled Margin >30*F, PZR level <225 inches,1 SG available for heat ,

removal, RVLMS indicates level above top of hot le j B. Loop Subcooled Margin > 30*F, PZR level > 101 inches,2 SGs available for heat j removal, RVLMS indicates level above middle of hot le C. CET Subcooled Margin >30'F, PZR level >101 inches,1 SG available as a heat sink, RVLMS indicates level above the top of hot le D. CET Subcooled Margin > 30*F, PZR level <225 inches, 2 SGs available for heat removal, RVLMS indicates level above middle of hot le <

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i 85. Given the following:

An overcooling event occurs resulting in SIAS actuation and HPSI injection, the appropriate procedure is implemented

RVLMS indicates RCS level above the top of the hot leg

Affected SG Blowdown is complete

Pressurizer level is ~160 inches and rising rapidly

RCS pressure is rising rapidly Which ONE of the following is the proper response for plant conditions?

A. Restore and maintain subcooling by energizing pressurizer heaters and operation of the charging syste B. Perform SlAS verification por EOP attachment, block Pressurizer Pressure SMS, secure the LPSI pump C. Cooldown the unaffected SG and maintain subcooling by use of Auxiliary Spray to lower RCS pressur D. Perform SIAS verification per EOP attachment, block Containment Pressure SIAS ,

terminate HPSI Bo . Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100% power g

Reactor trips due to loss of 500KV bus

EOP 0 is implemented ful

CRO reports that " Core and RCS heat removal can not be met due to low Tc and '

SG pressures" The CRS directs the CRO to perform his alternate action Which ONE of the following is the proper action and basis to be taken by the CRO?

A. Reduce AFW flow due to excess flow from automatic initiation of steam driven Pum B. SHUT both MSlVs due to MTCV failure to close on loss of power C. Reduce AFW flow due to excess flow from automatic start of 13 AFW pum D. SHUT both MSIVs due to MSR second stage MOVs failed to close on loss of powe i SRONRC.TST Version: O Page: 30

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87. Given the following:

Unit 2 is at 100% power . ;

21 Charging pump is running, 23 is OOS for maintenance

CRO reports that Main Steam / N-16 Red Monitor indicates leakage in 21 SG at 4

.GPD and 22 SG at 8 GPD

Approximately 30 minutes later the STA reports that calculated RCS leak rate is

.064 GPM from the combined SG tube leakage and the MainSteaml N-16 Rad ;

Monitor indicates leakage in 21 SG at 4 GPD and 22 SG at 88 GPD ;

RO reports Pressurizer level is steady with no noticeable trend on VCT level trace Which ONE of the following is the proper response and basis for plant conditions?

A. Implement AOP 10 (Abnormal Secondary Chemistry Conditions) to respond to a ,

small SG tube leak less than 5 GP B. Implement AOP 2A (Excessive Reactor Coolant Leakage) to respond to a small SG tube leak greater than 100 GP C. Implement AOP 10 (Abnormal Secondary Chemistry Conditions) to respond to a small SG tube leak rate change of greater than 60 GP D. Implement AOP 2A (Excessive Reactor Coolant Leakage) to respond to a small SG i tube leak rate chanDe of Dreater than 60 GP .88. Given the following:

a SGTR has been diagnosed in 21 SG with EOP 6 implemented

The applicable block steps for initial response to the event have been completed

Plant stabilization steps are in progress to depressurize the RCS, maintain 21 SG level and restore 22 SG level to 0 inches

Block step for HPSI or LPSI throttling / termination criteria has been implemented with 21 HPSI pump the running pump and RCS pressure steady at ~ 650 PSIA and both LPSI pumps are secured

CETs indicate ~460*F Why doesn't the RCS inventory control require the LPSI pumps?

A. RCS Subcooling is maintained greater than 20* B. RCS pressure is controlled above 200 PSI C. Unaffected 22 SG is maintaining RCS temperature contro D. 21 SG level backfills the RC ,

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89. Using the provided reference: !

Given the following: '!

EOP 5 has been implemented on Unit 2 ;

l * RCS pressure rapidly decreased to 1200 PSIA l L * RO has started the RCP trip strategy ,

l * RCS Tc is 515'F - .i i * 21 and 22 Penetration Room Exhaust fans have automatically started i

All automatic safety systems have actuated as designed

Pressurizer spray Valve RC-100E-CV indicates OPEN :

Which ONE of the following is the required action? :

. A. Trip all RCP >

B. Trip 218 and 22A RCP .

!~ C. Trip 21 A and 22A RCP !

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l D. Trip 21 A and 21B. RCP i j 90. Given the following: }

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Unit 2 is at 100% power l

STP O-27-2 RCS leak rate has been performed with total of 8 GPM j

the source of leakage has been identified Based on the leakage identification, a power reduction is started to be in Mode 3 in 6 )

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hours per TS 3.4.13 condition l

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.Which ONE of the following requires the action of TS 3.4.13 condition B7

- A. 2-CVC-515 Letdown isolation body to bonnet gasket leak . ;

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. B. PORV-402 leakage to Quench Tank C. 22 SG primary to secondary leakage at 11 GP .D. 21 SG tube leakage of.07 GPM

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91. Given the following: , !

Unit 2 is in Mode 6 with fuel handling in progress j

The FHS observes the refueling pool level rapidly lowering directs the j implementation of AOP 6E (loss of Unit 2 Refueling Pool Level)

Which ONE of the following provides the basis to minimize the containment activity ]

levels and Offsite release to the public?

A. Actuation of CRS to isolate Containment Purge, manually starting 4 CAC in slow speed and opening 4 CAC normal outlet SRW CVs, CIS actuation starting lodine ;

Filter Fans and Pentration Room Exhaust Fan and operators verify SFP charcoal l filters in servic !

B. Containment Closure,-isolation of Containment Purge, manually starting all lodme :

Filter Fans, manually starting 4 CAC in fast speed and opening 4 CAC emergency -

outlet SRW CVs, manually starting both Pentration Room Exhaust Fan C. Actuation of CRS to isolate Containment Purge, manually starting 4 CAC in fast l speed and opening 4 CAC normal outlet SRW CVs, manually starting lodine Filter i Fans, manually starting a Pentration Room Exhaust Fan and verify SFP charcoal l filters in servic D. Containment Closure, isolation of H2 Purge, manually starting an lodine Filter Fan, ;

manually starting 4 CAC in slow speed and opening 4 CAC emergency outlet SRW ]

CVs, manually: starting a Pentration Room Exhaust Fa I 92. Given the following:

Unit 1 is stabilized at 100% power after completion of Refueling Outage PSTP

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Unit 2 is at 100% power for the past 100 days

A loss of Offsite power has occurred

EOP O is implemented with a transition to EOP 2 on both Unit * Block step Maintaining Natural Circualtion Flow Verification is implemented on both Units

Tc is being controlled manually at 532'F on both Units

Condenser vacuum is 20 inches Hg on both Units Which ONE of the following describes the expected plant responses?

A. U1 ADV controller output signal is greater than U2 ADV controller output signa B. U1 TBV controller output signal is greater than U2 TBV controller output signa C. U1 ADV controller output signal is less than U2 ADV controller output signa D. U1 TBV coi & viler output signal is less than U2 TBV controller output ' signal

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93. Given the followin * Unit 1 is in Mode 5

11,12 and 13 Charging pumps are in "PTL"

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Nonborated water source tagout in progress

RCS is being drained to 110 inches after th9 collapse of the Pressurizer bubble

At termination of RCS drain, RO reports that LI-103 indicates 80 inche Which ONE of the following is the required direction from the CRS?

A. Direct the CRO to compare Li-103 with the Refueling level indicator and write an lasue Report on Ll-10 B. Direct IM to fill the reference leg on 1-LT-103 and compare the Pressurizer level indication C. Direct the RO to start all charging pumps to raise Pressurizer level to 110 inche D. Direct the CRO and RO to verify SDM, RCS level above the bottom of the hot leg and sources of nonborated water less than 88 GPM .

94. Unit 2 is in Mode 3 preparing for Unit startup per OP What are the additional dedicated Operators specified by OP 27 A. SM to observe startup, a SRO at 2C02 and a licensed operator at 200 B. SRO to supervise startup , a licensed operator at 2C02, and a licensed operator at 200 C. SM to supervia,o startup a licensed operator at 2002, and a license operator at 200 D. SRO to observe startup, a SRO at 2C02,' and a licensed operator at 2005, 95. Which ONE of the following describes the intent of the Safety Evaluation Screenings required by PR-1-101 for proposed procedure changes?

A. Evaluate the proposed change for safety significance (industrial and nuclear). ;

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B. Evaluate the proposed change for Tech Spec or UFSAR complianc C. Evaluate the proposed change for technical accurac ,

D. Evaluate the proposed change for an Unreviewed Safety Questio !

96. During refueling operations, the Refueling machine operator observes that during the withdrawal of fuel assemblies, the Refueling Machine cable makes noise. Upon closer examination by the FHS, the RFM hoist cable has a few broken strand Which ONE of the following must be notified of the adverse condition?

A. FHS notifies the Shift Manager and NFM Shift Enginee i B. FHS notifies the CRS and NFM Shift Enginee i C. FHS notifies the NFM Shift Engineer and System Enginee D. FHS notifies the NFM Shift Engineer and OW SRONRC.TST Version: O Page: 34

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97. Unit 2 is in Mode 6 with Refueling in progress. The refueling machine is at the upender to grepple a spent fuel assembly for insertion into the core. When the refueling machine is clear of the upender, the operator starts to lower the opender for transfer to .

the SFP side. Seconds later, the FHS observes a rapid drop in refueling pool level and AOP 6E is implemente Which ONE of the following is the proper location for the spent fuel assembly on the i refueling machine?

A. Continue to the core area and lower the assembly in its designated locatio B. Continue to the core area and lower the assembly in any open locatio C. Stop the refueling machine movement and lower the assembly to the bottom of the RFP cavit ;

D. Stop the refueling machine over the 44 foot ledge and lower the assembly on the !

ledg ;

98. As CRS, you are conducting the prejob brief for a valve operation in the 27 foot Valve Alley. The ABO informs you that he has a yearly dose of 805 mrem. The RST states !

the job is expected to result in a dos of 100mro )

Which ONE of the following are the approvals required, if any, for a dose extension?

A. No approval is required since the Operations SWP allows for 100 mrem / shif l'

B. Rad Safety reviews the dosimetry record, Shift Manager and S-NO approvals require C. Rad Safety reviews the dosimetry record, GS-NPO and GS-RS approvals require D. High Rad area brief, RCSS and Shift Manager approvals require . Given the following:

Unit 1 tripped and EOP O is implemented

The following is the status of the Safety functions as reported by the RO and CRO and reassessed:

Reactivity -not met, Vital Auxiliaries- met RCS Pressure and inventory-met Core /RCS Heat Removal-met 1

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Containment Environment-met Rad Levels Extemal to Containment-met Which ONE of the following is the proper action for the described conditions? .

A. Direct the RO to determine the success path for Reactivity Safety function using the l

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Resource Assessment Tabie per EOP B. Direct the CRO to determine the success paths for all Safety Functions using the i Resource Assessment Table per EOP !

C. Direct the RO to determine the success paths for Reactivity and direct the CRO to determine the success path for Containment Environment using the Resource Assessment Table per EOP D. Direct the STA to determine the success paths for Reactivity, Vital Auxiliaries and Core /RCS Heat Removal using the Resource Assessment Table per EOP j SRONRC.TST Version: O Page: 35

i 100. Given the following:

Unit 1 at 100% power

" UNIT 1 SPDS" alarms at 1C06 Which ONE of the following is the sequence to determine the alarm status?

A. Depress the " ALARM CUTOUT" key, select the alarmed critical safety function box, select the alarm or indication page of the aNected critical safety function and the alarmed parametet will be yellow or magent B. Depress the " ALARM ACKNOWLEDGE" pushbutton, select the alarmed criticel safety function box, select the alarm or indication page of the affected critical safety function and the alarmed parameter will te blue or gree C. Depress the " ALARM CUTOUT" key, select the alarmed critical safety function box, select the alarm or indication page of the affected critical safety function and the alarmed parameter will be yellow or re D. Depress the " ALARM ACKNOWLEDGE" pushbutton, select the alarmed critical safety function box, select the alarm or indication page of the affected critical safety function and the alarmed parameter will be blue or magenta.

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Friday, January 22,1999 @ 06:21 AM Ariswer Key Page: 1 Test Name: SRONRC.TST Test Date: Friday, December i1,1998 gg QuestionID Type Pts 0 1 2 3 4 5 6. 7 8 9 1: 1 CONDUCTOF OPS 001 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB CDA 1: 2 CONDUCTOFOPS 002 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 3 EQUIPMENTCONTROL 001 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: ' 4 - EQUIPMENTCONIROL 002 MC-SR ' 1 B CDAB CDABC 1: 5 EQUIPMENT CON 1ROL 003 MC-SR 1 C DAB CDA B CD 1: 6 RADIADON CONTROL 001 MC SR 1 AB C D.A B C DAB 1: 7 RADIADONCONIROL 002 MC-SR I B CDAB CDABC 1: 8 D4ER PROC ERPIP 002 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB CDA >

1: 9 EMER PROC ERPIP 003 MC-SR I C D-A B CDAB CD 1: 10 EMERGENCY BORATION 001 MC-SR 1 B C DAB C D ABC 1: 11 INADEQUATE CORE CID 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 12 INOP/STUCKROD 001 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 13 LOSS OF CCW 001 MC-SR I ABCDABC DAB 1: 14 LOSS OF COND VAC 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDAB CD 1: 15 LOSSOFCONTINIEO 001 MC-SR 1 B C DA B CD ABC 1: 16 LOSSOFSALTWATER 001 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC DAB 1: 17 IDSS OF VITAL AC 001 MC-SR 1 B CDAB CDAB C 1: 18 PZRPRESSCONTROL 001 MC-SR 1 C DAB CDABCD 1: 19 RCPMALFUNCDON 001 MC-SR I B CDABCDABC 1: 20 RCSOVERCOOLING 001 MC-SR I ABCDABC DAB 1: 21 STADONBIACKOUT 002 MC-SR 1 BCDABCDABC 1: 22 SIMLINERUPTURE 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDAB CD 1: 23 ACCDLIQ RELEASE 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 24 ATWS 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDAB CD 1: 25 CONT ROD WITHDRAWL 001 MC-SR 1 B CDA BCDABC 1: 26 DROPPEDROD 001 MC-SR I ABCDABC DAB 1: 27 LARGEBREAKIDCA 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 28 ACCDGASRELEASE 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDAB CD 1: 29 AREARADMONITORS 001 MC-SR I ABCDABC DAB 1: 30 FUNCTIONALRECOVERY 001 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC DAB 1: 31 LOSS OF DC 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD 1: 32 '41SS OF SDC 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDA B CD 1: 33 IDSS OF SR NIS 001 MC-SR I DABC DAB CDA 1: 34 AREARAD MONflWJNG 001 .MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD 1: 35 AREARADMONITORING 002 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB C DA 1: 36 AUXFEEDWATER 001 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC DAB 1: 37 AUX FEEDWATER 002 MC-SR 1 B CDAB CDABC 1: 38 CONDENSATE 001 MC-SR I C DAB C DAB CD

.1: . CONTAINMENT CLO 001 MC-SR - 1 C DAB CDAB CD 1: 40 CONTAINMEFTCLO 002 MC-SR 1 D AB C DAB C DA 1: 41 CONTROL ROD DRIVE 001 MC-SR 1 B C DAB CDABC 1: 42 CVCS- 002 MC-SR I C DAB CDA B CD 1: 43 ESFAS 002 MC-SR I ABCDABC DAB 1: ' 41 INCORE1EMP 001 MC-SR I C DAB CDA B CD 1: 45 IJQUID RADWASTE 002 MC-SR 1 B C DA BCD ABC . . . - - . . ~ . . . . . - . - . , - . - - . .

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L . Friday, January 22,1999 @ 06:21 AM ; Answer Key Pese:2

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Test Name: SRONRC.TST -l Test Date: ' Friday,nnnnehar 11,1998 g ]

QuestionID Type' Pts ' 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 '8 9 l

1: 46 IJQUIDRADWASTE 003- MC-SR 1 LD A B C~D A B C D A 1: 47 MAINPEEDWA1ER 003 MC-SR 1 B.C-D A B C D A B C 1

' 1: 48 NUCINSTRUMENTA110N 002 - MC-SR 1 B C:D A B C D A B C l 1: 49 REACTORCOOU0ff PP - 001: MC-SR I C D'A.B C D'A B : 50 WAS1E GAS 001 MC-SR 1 A-B C D A B C DAB i 1: 51 CONTAINMENTSPRAY .001 MC-SR < 1 D A'B C D'A B CDA t 1: 52 - ROD POSm0NIND - 001 MC-SR 1 -- B C~D A B C D A'B C !

. li 53 ' ACDISTRIBUI10N 001 MC-SR 1- D A B:C DAB CDA 1: 54. 00NDENBERAIRREMVL 001 MC-SR 1 B C D A'B C D A B C _

l 1: 55 OONTAINMENTPURGE ' 001 MC-SR 1 B CDA BCD ABC j 1: 56 DCDISTRIBU110N 001 MC-SR 1 C DAB CDABCD ;

1: 57 EMERGENCYDG 001 MC-SR 1 B.C D A B CDABC j l 1: 158 FIItEPRO1ECDON 001 . MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD .

1: 59 INSTRUMENTA110N 001 ~ MC-SR 1 B C D A B C D A'B C j 1: 60 MAIN /RHTSTEAM 001 MC-SR I DABC DAB CDA !

1: 61 PROCESS RADMON 001 ' MC-SR 1 A.B C D A B C DAB I 1: 62 PZR12VELCONTROL 001 MC-SR I ABCDABC D-A B 1: 63 PZRPRESSURECON1ROL 001- MC SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 64 REACTORCOOUGTT 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 65 REACTOR PROTEC110N 002 MC-SR I C DAB C D A'B CD 1: 66 SFPC00tJNO 001 MC-SR I C DAB C D A B l 1: 67 STEAMOENERATOR 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC I

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1: 68 CONT 10 DINE REMOVAL 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 69. FUELHANDlJNGEQUIP 001 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB CDA

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1: 70 COMPONENTCOOiJNO 001 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC '

1: .71 PZR REIJEF/QT 001 MC-SR ~ l ABCDABC D.A B 1: 72 SERVICEWATER 001 MC-SR .1 C DAB C D A B'C D I

- 1: 73 SIMDUMP/TURBBYP 001- MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB l 1: 74. CREVACUA110N - 001 MC-SR 1 B C.D A B C D A B C

,1: 75 IDSS OF SALTWATER 002 MC-SR 1 D ABC D-A B C DA 1: 76 NATURALCIRCULA110N 001 MC-SR I D.A B C DAB CDA 1: 77 NATURALCIRCULA110N 002. MC-SR 1 C DAB CDABCD 1: 78 PLANTFIRE 002 MC-SR 1 B C.DABCDABC 1: 79 SIMIJNERUPTURE 002 MC-SR I B CDABCDABC

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.1: 80 ' IASS OFINST AIR 001 MC-SR 1 A B C D ,A B C DAB 1: 81 IDSS OF MFW 002 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 82 IDSS OF RC MAKEUP 001 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB C D A-1: 83 ; PZR PRESS CONT MAIF 001 MC-SR 1 BCDABCDABC 1: 84 PZR VAPOR SPACE ACCD 001 MC-SR I' C DAB CDABCD 1: 85 REAC10R11tIPSTABIL 003= MC-SR 1 C DAB C DA BCD 1: 86 REAC1Ut1RIPSTABIL 004 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB C DA 1: 87 807UBE, ' EAK 002 MC-SR 1 D A B'C DAB CDA 1: 88 SG1UBERtUTRE 002 MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC 1: 89 SMALLBREAKLOCA 002 MC-SR 1 A BCDABC DAB p J: 90 EXCESSRCS12AKAGE 002 MC-SR I DAB C DAB C DA J

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i Friday, January 22,1999 @ 06:21 AM Answer Key Page: 3 ;

Test Name: SRONRC.TST l

Test Date: Friday, December 11,1998

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QuestenID Type Pts 0 1 2 3 4 567 8 9 l 1: 91 FUELHANDLINGACCD 003 MC-SR 1 B C D A-B C D A B'C !

1: 92 IDSS OF OFFSITE 003 MC-SR I C DAB CDABCD !

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1: 93 CONDUCTOFOPS 006 MC-SR 1 DABC DAB ~ CDA 1: 94 CONDUCTOFOPS 005 . MC-SR 1 B CDABCDABC i 1: 95 CONDUCT OF OPS 007 MC-SR 1 B CDA B CD ABC

.1: % EQUIPMENI CONTROL 006 MC-SR 1 AB CDABC D A B.. j 1: 97 EQUIPMENTCONIROL 007- MC-SR 1- C DAB CDABCD l 1: 98 ' RADIATION CONIROL 003 MC-SR I C DAB C DAB CD 1: 99 EMERPROCERPIP 004 MC-SR 1 ABCDABC DAB 1: 100 EMER PROC ERPIP 005 MC-SR I C DAB CDA B CD i

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v t e Inspection Report - Calvert Cliffs - 1999301 (Operator Exams)
80 \| 81 \| 82 \| 83 \| 84 \| 85 \| 86 \| 87 \| 88 \| 89 \| 90 \| 91 \| 92 \| 93 \| 94 \| 95 \| 96 \| 97 \| 98 \| 99 00 \| 01 \| 02 \| 03 \| 04 \| 05 \| 06 \| 07 \| 08 \| 09 \| 10 \| 11 \| 12 \| 13 \| 14 \| 15 \| 16 \| 17 \| 18 \| 19 \| 20 \| 21 \| 22 \| 23 \| 24 \|
1999 Quarterly Integrated 1Q (0) 2Q (0) 3Q (0) 4Q (0) Assessments Mid Cycle End of Cycle Security Operator Exams 301(0) Emergency Planning Other

IR 05000317/1999301

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