ML19084A075

Examination Report No. 50-020-OL-19-02, Massachusetts Institute of Technology

ML19084A075
Person / Time
Site:	MIT Nuclear Research Reactor
Issue date:	04/02/2019
From:	Anthony Mendiola Research and Test Reactors Oversight Projects Branch
To:	Foster J Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
Torres P, 415-5656
Shared Package
ML19024A067	List: ML19024A068 ML19084A075
References
50-020/19-02 05-020/OL-19
Download: ML19084A075 (56)

Text

April 2, 2019 Mr. John P. Foster, Director of Reactor Operations Nuclear Reactor Laboratory Massachusetts Institute of Technology 138 Albany Street, MS NW12-110 Cambridge, MA 02139

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-020/OL-19-02, MASSACHUSETTS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

Dear Mr. Foster:

During the week of March 05, 2019, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Massachusetts Institute of Technology Research Reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mrs. Paulette Torres at (301) 415-5656 or via internet e-mail Paulette.Torres@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Anthony J. Mendiola, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Licensing Projects Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No.50-020

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-020/

OL-19-02

2. Written examination cc: Edward Lau, Assistant Director Reactor Operations, MIT cc: w/o enclosures: See next page

ML19084A075 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DLP/PROB/CE NRR/DLP/IOLB/OLA NRR/DLP/PROB/BC NAME PTorres QLChen AMendiola DATE 03/14/2019 03/25/2019 04/02/2019 Massachusetts Institute of Technology Docket No. 50-20 cc:

City Manager City Hall Cambridge, MA 02139 Department of Environmental Protection One Winter Street Boston, MA 02108 Mr. Jack Priest, Director Radiation Control Program Department of Public Health 529 Main Street Schrafft Center, Suite 1M2A Charlestown, MA 02129 Mr. John Giarrusso, Chief Planning and Preparedness Division Massachusetts Emergency Management Agency 400 Worcester Road Framingham, MA 01702-5399 Test, Research and Training Reactor Newsletter Attention: Amber Johnson Dept of Materials Science and Engineering University of Maryland 4418 Stadium Drive College Park, MD 20742-2115 Ms. Sarah M. Don, Reactor Superintendent Massachusetts Institute of Technology Nuclear Reactor Laboratory Research Reactor 138 Albany Street, MS NW12-116B Cambridge, MA 02139

U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.: 50-020/OL-19-02 FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-020 FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-37 FACILITY: Massachusetts Institute of Technology Reactor EXAMINATION DATES: March 5-7, 2019 SUBMITTED BY: /RA/ 03/14/2019 Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of March 5, 2019, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to two Senior Reactor Operator Instant (SROI) candidates and two Reactor Operator (RO) candidates. All candidates passed all portions of the written and operating exam.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner, NRC

2. Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 2/0 2/0 2/0 Operating Tests 2/0 2/0 2/0 Overall 2/0 2/0 4/0

3. Exit Meeting:

Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner, NRC Edward Lau, Assistant Director Reactor Operations, MIT Marshall Wade, Training Supervisor, MIT Sarah Don, Superintendent of Operations and Maintenance, MIT The NRC examiner found one area of common deficiency between all four candidates:

1) Understanding the 10 CFR 50.59 process and how it applies to the replacement of reactor equipment important to safety. The facility should consider strengthening this area for future examinations.

ENCLOSURE 1

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: Massachusetts Institute of Technology REACTOR TYPE: MITR II DATE ADMINISTERED: 03/05/2019 CANDIDATE: _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00  % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature

A. Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a b c d ___

A07 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a b c d ___

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION A *****)

B. Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a b c d ___

B07 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a b c d ___

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION B *****)

C. Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a b c d ___

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a b c d ___

C10 a b c d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

C20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.

6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

=

Pmax =

( )2 (2 ) eff = 0.1sec 1 t

P = P0 e S S SCR = * =1x104 sec 1 K eff eff +

SUR = 26 .06

( ) (

CR1 1 K eff1 = CR2 1 K eff 2 ) CR1 ( 1 ) = CR2 ( 2 )

(1 ) M=

1

= 2 CR P = P0 10SUR(t )

P= P0 1 K eff CR1 1 K eff1 1 K eff

• M= SDM = =

1 K eff 2 K eff

• 0.693 K eff 2 K eff1

+ T1 =

eff + 2 K eff1 K eff 2 K eff 1

= DR = DR0 e t 2 DR1 d1 = DR2 d 2 2

K eff 6 Ci E (n) ( 2 )2 = (1 )2 DR =

R2 Peak2 Peak1 DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet 1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf °F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lbm °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C 1ft = 30.48 cm

Massachusetts Institute of Technology Operator Licensing Examination Week of March 4, 2019

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 2 QUESTION A.01 [1.0 point]

Energy Yield (Q) from a nuclear fission reaction is in the range of (or is approximately):

a. < 1 eV

b. 1.86 keV

c. 200 MeV

d. 1000 MeV QUESTION A.02 [1.0 point]

A reactor is subcritical if:

a. = 1.0

b. Keff < 1.0 or < 0.0

c. K= 1.0, =

d. Keff > 1.0 or > 0.0 QUESTION A.03 [1.0 point]

What is the meaning of any point on a differential rod worth curve? Represents

a. The amount of reactivity that one inch of rod motion would insert at that position in the core.

b. The zero reactivity when the rod is on the bottom and the positive reactivity being added as the rod is withdrawn.

c. The negative reactivity added as the rod is inserted.

d. The cumulative area under the differential curve starting from the bottom of the core.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 3 QUESTION A.04 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following changes does not require a movement of control rods in order to maintain constant reactor power?

a. Pool water temperature decrease

b. U-235 burnup

c. Xe-135 buildup

d. N-16 formation QUESTION A.05 [1.0 point]

The effective multiplication factor (Keff) can be determined by dividing the number of neutrons produced from fission in the fourth generation by the number of neutrons produced from fission in the _________ generation.

a. First

b. Second

c. Third

d. Fifth QUESTION A.06 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following effects results in the most-immediate change in core reactivity?

a. Fuel Temperature Coefficient

b. Moderator Temperature Coefficient

c. Fission Product Poisons

d. Void Coefficient

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 4 QUESTION A.07 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the items in Column A with the isotopes in Column B.

The most important fission product poison is 135Xe. The process that show how this isotope is formed and its decay is:

Column A Column B

1. 135 Ba

2. 135 Cs

3. 135 I

4. 135 Te QUESTION A.08 [1.0 point]

Delayed neutrons contribute more to reactor stability than prompt neutrons because they ________

the average neutron generation time and are born at a __________ kinetic energy.

a. Decrease, lower

b. Increase, lower

c. Decrease, higher

d. Increase, higher QUESTION A.09 [1.0 point]

The neutron interaction in the reactor core that is MOST efficient in thermalizing fast neutrons occurs with the:

a. Hydrogen atoms in the water molecules.

b. Nitrogen-16 from Oxygen.

c. Boron atoms in the control rods.

d. Aluminum atoms in the fuel cladding.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 5 QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point]

Effective Multiplication Factor is defined as the:

a. Fractional change in neutron population per generation.

b. Number of neutrons by which neutron population changes per generation.

c. Rate of change of reactor power in neutron per second.

d. Change in the number of neutrons per second that causes a fission event.

QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point]

What is the average number of neutrons produced from every fission of Uranium-235 with thermal neutrons?

a. 2.42 neutrons

b. 2.66 neutrons

c. 2.81 neutrons

d. 2.93 neutrons QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]

What order process is the radioactive decay differential equation?

a. Zero

b. First

c. Second

d. Third

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 6 QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the major source of heat generation after an operating reactor has been shut down and cooled down for several days?

a. Resonance capture

b. Fission fragment decay

c. Delayed neutron reactions

d. Corrosion product activation QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the primary mechanism for transferring heat through the cladding of a fuel rod?

a. Conduction

b. Convection

c. Radiation

d. Mass Transfer QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point]

The reaction 93Np239 _____ + 94Pu239 is an example of:

a. Alpha Decay

b. Beta Decay

c. Gamma Emission

d. Electron Capture

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 7 QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]

What is the effect of delayed neutrons on the neutron flux decay following a scram from full power?

a. Adds negative reactivity creating a greater shutdown margin.

b. Adds positive reactivity due to the fuel temperature decrease following the scram.

c. Limits the final rate at which power decreases to a -80 second period.

d. Decreases the mean neutron lifetime.

QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point]

About two minutes following a reactor scram, period has stabilized, and is decreasing at a CONSTANT rate. If reactor power is 10-5 % full power what will the power be in three minutes?

a. 5 x 10-6 % full power

b. 2 x 10-6 % full power

c. 1 x 10-6 % full power

d. 5 x 10-7 % full power QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following most accurately describes the reason that fission products such as Xenon-135 and Samarium-149 have the most substantial impact in reactor design and operation?

a. Xenon-135 and Samarium-149 cause excess positive reactivity in the core.

b. Xenon-135 and Samarium-149 burn up causes an increase in the thermal flux.

c. Xenon-135 and Samarium-149 have large absorption cross sections resulting in a large removal of neutrons from the reactor.

d. Xenon-135 and Samarium-149 produce fast fission neutrons, resulting in the net increase in the fast neutron population of the reactor core.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 8 QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point]

If Beta for U-235 is 0.0065 and Beta effective is approximately 0.007, how does this difference affect reactor period in the reactor period equation, T=(-p)/p? This difference produces a

_________ for a given addition of reactivity with Beta effective.

a. Longer period

b. Shorter period

c. Stable period

d. Decay constant () increase QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is defined as the balance between production of neutrons and their absorption in the core for which core leakage can be neglected?

a. Utilization Factor

b. Reproduction Factor

c. Infinite Multiplication Factor

d. Effective Multiplication Factor

• • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • End of Section A *****************

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 9 QUESTION B.01 [1.0 point]

What is the HALF LIFE of the isotope contained in a sample which produces the following count rates?

Time (Minutes) Counts per Minute (cpm)

Initial count 840 30 740 60 615 90 512 180 270

a. 310 minutes

b. 210 minutes

c. 110 minutes

d. 60 minutes QUESTION B.02 [1.0 point]

In an emergency in order to protect the public health and safety, 10 CFR 50 allows the operator to depart from a license condition or a technical specification. What is the minimum level of authorization needed to deviate from this action?

a. Reactor Director

b. Reactor Supervisor

c. Licensed Reactor Operator

d. Licensed Senior Reactor Operator

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 10 QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point]

The exposure rate for a point source is 100 mR/hr at a distance of 4 m. What is the exposure rate at a distance of 2 m?

a. 200 mR/hr

b. 400 mR/hr

c. 600 mR/hr

d. 800 mR/hr QUESTION B.04 [1.0 point]

Given the following instruments, which ONE is the best to check your hands and clothing for beta-gamma contamination upon leaving a contamination zone?

a. GM Pancake

b. Ionization chamber survey instrument

c. Portable sodium Iodide (NaI) detector

d. Zinc Sulfide (ZnS) detector QUESTION B.05 [1.0 point]

As a research reactor licensed operator, you were unable to perform the functions of an operator for the minimum number of hours during the previous calendar quarter. What are the minimum number of hours of licensed activities you must complete under direction of a licensed operator before resumption of functions authorized by your license?

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 12

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 11 QUESTION B.06 [1.0 point]

Per Reactor Core Parameter, Limiting Condition for Operations, the reactor shall not be made critical unless the reactor can be made subcritical using shim blades__________ from the cold, xenon-free critical condition with the most reactive operable blade and the regulating rod fully withdrawn and with all movable and non-secured experiments in their most reactive state.

a. By at least 1.0% K/K

b. Less than 1.8% K/K

c. Greater than 0.78% K/K

d. Less than 0.5% K/K QUESTION B.07 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the situations listed in Column A with its Emergency Classification listed in Column B.

Items in Column B can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Column A Column B

a. A fire within the containment building that last 1. Notification of Unusual Events for more than fifteen minutes, but does not prevent any safety system from performing its intended function.

b. Actual or projected dose radiation levels at the 2. Alert site boundary in the exposure pathway of 1 rem whole body or 5 rem thyroid.

c. Significant releases of radioactive materials 3. Site Area Emergency limited to the operations or site boundary, as a result of experiment failures.

d. 100 mrem/hour for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> whole body or 500 4. General Emergency mrem thyroid dose at the site boundary.

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 12 QUESTION B.08 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following facilities/buildings is not available as the Emergency Support Center (ESC)?

a. MIT Police Headquarters

b. MIT Medical Department

c. Building NWI2-116 Operations Office

d. MIT Environment, Health, and Safety Office QUESTION B.09 [1.0 point]

Experiments that are not connected by a mechanical, chemical, or electrical link are _________.

a. Independent Experiments

b. Movable Experiments

c. Non-Secured Experiments

d. Secured Experiments QUESTION B.10 [1.0 point]

Insertion and removal at the hot cell or primary chemistry room in the reactor basement occur for all of the following EXCEPT:

a. 1PH1

b. 1PH2

c. 1PH3

d. 1PH4

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 13 QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following analysis will be a daily requirement for operations?

a. Primary gross activity

b. D2O gross activity

c. Secondary tritium

d. D2O tritium QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following scam panel alarms is also designated as a "weekend alarm"?

a. Withdraw Permit Circuit Open

b. Low Flow Primary Coolant

c. Smoke Detector System

d. Make-Up Water System QUESTION B.13 [1.0 point]

This alarm means that the reactor is receiving insufficient cooling for the power at which it is operating.

a. Low Flow Primary Coolant

b. High Temperature Core Tank MTS-1/MTS-1A

c. No Overflow Core Tank

d. Low Pressure Reactor Inlet MP-6, MP-6A

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 14 QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is a credible Accident Not Leading to an Off-Site Radiological Emergency?

a. Breach of security.

b. Spill of tritiated heavy water.

c. Blockage of fuel element channels.

d. Reactor safety limit being exceeded.

QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following scrams can be bypassed at power levels less than 100 kW?

a. Period

b. Neutron Flux Level

c. Reflector Tank Level

d. Primary Coolant Outlet Temperature QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point]

Per Emeregency Plan, fire control, repair and damage control, attenuation of radiation by the placement of temporary shielding, cessation of a release by the closure of containment penetrations, are all examples of a:

a. Reassessment Action

b. Corrective Action

c. Immediate Action

d. Protective Action

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 15 QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point]

The Continuous Power Operation based on a heat balance derived from the flow rates and temperature rises of the primary, reflector, and shield coolant systems is:

a. Full -Power Operation

b. Thermal Power Calibration

c. Half-Power Operation

d. 100 kW Operation QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point]

The __________ is the area encompassing only the containment building.

a. Operations Boundary

b. Reactor Site

c. Restricted Area

d. Site Boundary QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

The Sample Station has a contact dose at full power of:

a. 3-5 mR/hour

b. 10 mR/hour

c. 100 mR/hour

d. 140 mR/hour

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 16 QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point]

If secondary water tritium concentration equals or exceeds __________, the cooling tower spray must be secured, any secondary system water discharge to the sanitary sewer stopped, and the D2O reflector heat exchanger isolated until tritium leakage into the secondary system has been controlled.

a. 5 mCi/ml

b. 6 mCi/ml

c. 1 Ci/liter

d. 1 Ci/liter

• • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • End of Section B ********************************

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 17 QUESTION C.01 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following Rod Control System interlocks has an all shim safety blades at intermediate position (5 inches) required conditions to activate or clear?

a. Withdraw Permit (Startup interlock)

b. Subcritical Limit Interlock

c. Automatic Control Permit

d. Automatic Rundown QUESTION C.02 [1.0 point]

What is the maximum total worth for all movable and non-secure experiments?

a. 0.2% K/K

b. 1.0% K/K

c. 1.5% K/K

d. 1.8% K/K QUESTION C.03 [1.0 point]

Closure of the __________ allows movement of the control blade lead screws and energizing of the control blade magnets.

a. All Rods In Circuit

b. Automatic Rundown Circuit

c. Scram Circuit

d. Withdraw Permit Circuit

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 18 QUESTION C.04 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following figures represent a Shim Bank Integral Worth?

a.

b.

c. d.

QUESTION C.05 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following experimental facilities restricts sample insertion/removal to periods when the reactor is shutdown or at less than 50 kW?

a. Fission Converter Beam Facility

b. Primary Beam Ports

c. Vertical Thimbles

d. Pneumatic Tube System

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 19 QUESTION C.06 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following sensors provides a high temperature core outlet alarm and scram as well as being recorded on the temperature recorder in the control room.

a. MTS-3A

b. MT-4

c. MT-5

d. MT-5A QUESTION C.07 [1.0 point]

__________ cover gas flow is normally supplied to the graphite reflector.

a. CO2

b. He

c. N2

d. Air QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point]

The _________ is used for for rapid reduction of reactivity by lowering the D2O level by aproximately 2 feet.

a. Core Tank

b. Dump Tank

c. D2O Storage Tank

d. Primary Storage Tank

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 20 QUESTION C.09 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following equipment the motor control center (MCC-1) energizes?

a. Sump Pumps

b. Primary Pump MM-1

c. Intake Damper Hydraulic Pump

d. Exhaust Damper Hydraulic Pump QUESTION C.10 [1.0 point]

The Scram and Power Measuring Channels shall be _________ at least annually.

a. Checked

b. Calibrated

c. Replaced

d. Tested QUESTION C.11 [1.0 point]

The Core Purge Blower is located:

a. Near the stack

b. In the utility shelf

c. In the equipment room

d. Downstream of the plenum effluent monitors

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 21 QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following coolant/cooling systems is also an Engineered Safety Feature?

a. Primary Coolant System

b. Auxiliary Cooling System

c. Reflector Coolant System

d. Emergency Core Cooling System QUESTION C.13 [1.0 point]

The exhaust air system includes the discharge of all of the following EXCEPT _________.

a. The Auxiliary Fans

b. The Utility Room Ceiling Fan

c. The Core Purge Blower

d. The Pneumatic Tube Blower QUESTION C.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the use of the photoneutron source in the reactor core?

a. Ensure the reactor change from subcritical to critical by using neutron source only.

b. Provides a reference point where all instruments undergo a check before the reactor is brought to a critical position.

c. Provides enough neutron to assure proper nuclear instrumentation response during initial reactor startup.

d. Prevent the reactor changing from a manual to automatic if a period exceeds 10 seconds.

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 22 QUESTION C.15 [1.0 point]

All of the following components in the reactor building are supplied by the compressed air system EXCEPT the:

a. NW13 pneumatic tube automatic isolation valve

b. Reactor core purge gas isolation valves

c. D2O reflector dump valve

d. Anti-siphon valves QUESTION C.16 [1.0 point]

The automatic control mode cannot be initiated until certain requirements imposed by the automatic control permit circuit are met EXCEPT:

a. The regulating rod control switch must be in the neutral position.

b. The fine control regulating rod operates independently of the shim blades.

c. The deviation between power set and actual power must not exceed 1.5%.

d. The regulating rod must be withdrawn beyond its near-in position (~1.5 inches).

QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point]

The purpose of this interlock is to ensure that the shim blades are at a uniform bank height prior to the final approach to criticality.

a. Startup

b. Subcritical

c. Automatic Control

d. Automatic Rundown

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 23 QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

Excess reactivity is controlled by six 1% natural ________ impregnated stainless steel shim blades and one __________ regulating rod.

a. Boral / Erbium

b. Cobalt / Aluminum

c. Graphite / Carbon

d. Boron / Cadmiun QUESTION C.19 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following required radiation monitors has a containment isolation Interlock/Action?

a. Stack Area

b. Stack Gaseous

c. Plenum Particulate

d. Building Airborne Radioactivity Gaseous QUESTION C.20 [1.0 point]

Per Technical Specifications, irradiated fuel elements may be stored in any of the following locations EXCEPT:

a. In the cadmium-lined fuel storage ring attached to the flow shroud.

b. In the spent fuel storage pool in the basement of the reactor building.

c. In the storage safe in the reactor containment building (fuel plates also).

d. In the fuel element transfer cask or other proper shield within the controlled area.

• • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • End of Section C ****************************

• • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • End of the Exam ***************************

Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 24 A.01 Answer: c REF: Lamarsh 3rd, Table 3.6, pg. 88 A.02 Answer: b REF: Burns, Table 3.5, pg. 3-22 A.03 Answer: a REF: Burns, Example 7.2 (b), pg. 7-4 A.04 Answer: d REF: Burns, Problem 7.7.4, pg. 7-17 A.05 Answer: c REF: Burns, Section 3.3.1, pg. 3-16 A.06 Answer: a REF: Lamarsh 2rd ed., Section 7.3, pg. 308 DOE Fundamentals Handbook, NP-03, pg. 26 A.07 Answer: a, 4 b, 3 c,2 d,1 REF: Lamarsh 3 ed., Section 7.5, pg. 377 rd Burns, Figure 8.1, pg. 8-6 A.08 Answer: b REF: Burns, Section 3.2.4, pg. 3-12 and Section 3.4.4, pg. 3-33 A.09 Answer: a REF: Burns, Section 6.4.1, pg. 6-5 A.10 Answer: a REF: Burns, Section 1.3.1, pg. 1-5 A.11 Answer: a REF: DOE Fundamentals Handbook, NP-03, Table 1, pg. 7

Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 25 A.12 Answer: b REF: Burns, 2.4.6, pg. 2-30 Mathematically, radioactive decay can be represented by the first order, linear differential equation dA/dt = -A where A is the number density of radioactive atoms of a substance and is called the decay constant.

A.13 Answer: b REF: DOE Fundamentals Handbook, NP-03, pg. 34 A.14 Answer: a REF: Lamarsh 3rd, Section 8.3, pg. 417 A.15 Answer: b REF: DOE Fundamentals Handbook, NP-01, pg. 24 A.16 Answer: c REF: Burns, Section 4.10.12, pg. 4-32 to 4-33 A.17 Answer: c REF: P = P0 e-(t/T) = 10-5 x e-(180sec/80sec) = 10-5 x e-2.25 = 0.1054 x 10-5 = 1.054 x 10-6 A.18 Answer: c REF: DOE Fundamentals Handbook, NP-03, pg. 34 A.19 Answer: a REF: Burns, Example 3.4.3, pg. 3-32, 3-33 In the reactor period equation, T=(-p)/p, if Beta effective is used instead of Beta for U-235, the term (eff-p) is larger giving a longer period.

A.20 Answer: c REF: DOE Fundamentals Handbook, NP-03, pg. 9

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 26 B.01 Answer: c REF: A = A0e- t 270 = 840e-180, 180 = -ln (0.321), = 0.00631 min-1 t1/2 = 0.693 / , = 0.693 / 0.00631 min-1 = 109.8 minutes B.02 Answer: d REF: 10 CFR 50.54(y)

B.03 Answer: b REF: I2=I1D12/d22 = (100 mR/hr)(4m)2 / (2m)2 = 400 mR/hr B.04 Answer: a REF: Glasstone, Sesonske, Nuclear Reactor Engineering, Section 9.88, pg. 537 B.05 Answer: b REF: 10 CFR 55.53 (f)

B.06 Answer: a REF: TS 3.1.2, pg. 3-3 B.07 Answer: a. 1, b. 4, c. 2, d. 3 REF: EP 4.4.1.1, 4.4.1.2, 4.4.1.3, 4.4.1.4, pg.19-22 B.08 Answer: b REF: EP 4.2.1.k, pg. 5 B.09 Answer: a REF: TS 1.3.14, pg. 1-4 B.10 Answer: c REF: PM 1.10.2.1 (a), pg. 1 B.11 Answer: c REF: TS 4.3.4, pg. 4-11 B.12 Answer: c REF: PM 4.4.5.2

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 27 B.13 Answer: b REF: PM 5.2.6 B.14 Answer: b REF: EP 4.5.2.2, pg. 30 B.15 Answer: c REF: TS Table 3.2.3-1, pg. 3-19 B.16 Answer: b REF: EP 4.2.1.c, pg. 4 B.17 Answer: b REF: PM 2.4.2 B.18 Answer: a REF: EP 4.2.1.r, pg. 5 B.19 Answer: c REF: PM 5.0 B.20 Answer: d REF: TS 3.7.2.2, pg. 3-56 RSM 7.4.1

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 28 C.01 Answer: b REF: RSM 9.4.1 C.02 Answer: c REF: TS 6.1.1, pg. 6-1 C.03 Answer: d REF: RSM 4-1 C.04 Answer: d REF: RSM Figure 10.21 C.05 Answer: c REF: RSM 2-4 C.06 Answer: d REF: RSM 3.2.2 C.07 Answer: a REF: RSM 3.7.2 C.08 Answer: b REF: RSM 1-1 C.09 Answer: c REF: RSM Table 8.8-1 C.10 Answer: b REF: TS 4.2.4, pg. 4-4 & 4-5 C.11 Answer: c REF: RSM 7.7 RSM 8.3.4 C.12 Answer: d REF: SAR 6.4 RSM 3.2.7

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 29 C.13 Answer: b REF: RSM 8.3.6 C.14 Answer: c REF: SAR 9.5.2, pg. 9-19 C.15 Answer: d REF: RSM 8.6.1 C.16 Answer: b REF: RSM 4.3 C.17 Answer: b REF: SAR 7.2.2.1, pg. 7-7 RSM 4.2 C.18 Answer: d REF: RSM 10.4 C.19 Answer: c REF: TS Table 3.7.1-1, pg. 3-54 RSM 7.1 C.20 Answer: c REF: TS 5.4, pg. 5-7