ML13261A083
| ML13261A083 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | MIT Nuclear Research Reactor |
| Issue date: | 10/01/2013 |
| From: | Gregory Bowman Research and Test Reactors Licensing Branch |
| To: | Moncton D Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) |
| Nguyen J | |
| Shared Package | |
| ML13162A770 | List: |
| References | |
| 50-20/OL-13-02 | |
| Download: ML13261A083 (45) | |
Text
October 1, 2013 Dr. David E. Moncton, Director of the Nuclear Reactor Laboratory Massachusetts Institute of Technology 138 Albany Street Mail Stop NW 12-208 Cambridge, MA 02139
SUBJECT:
EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-020/OL-13-02, MASSACHUSETTS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
Dear Dr. Moncton:
During the week of September 2, 2013, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Massachusetts Institute of Technology reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.
In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. John T. Nguyen at (301) 415-4007 or via internet e-mail John.Nguyen@nrc.gov.
Sincerely,
/RA/
Gregory T. Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-20
Enclosures:
- 1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-13-02
- 2. Facility comments on written examination with NRC resolution
- 3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc: Frank Warmsley w/o enclosures: See next page
Massachusetts Institute of Technology Docket No.50-020 cc:
City Manager City Hall Cambridge, MA 02139 Department of Environmental Protection One Winter Street Boston, MA 02108 Beverly Anderson, Interim Director Radiation Control Program Department of Public Health Schrafft Center, Suite 1M2A 529 Main Street Charlestown, MA 02129 John Giarrusso, Planning and Preparedness Division Chief Massachusetts Emergency Management Agency 400 Worcester Road Framingham, MA 01702-5399 Test, Research, and Training Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center Gainesville, FL 32611
October 1, 2013 Dr. David E. Moncton, Director of the Nuclear Reactor Laboratory Massachusetts Institute of Technology 138 Albany Street Mail Stop NW 12-208 Cambridge, MA 02139
SUBJECT:
EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-20/OL-13-02, MASSACHUSETTS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
Dear Dr. Moncton:
During the week of September 2, 2013, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Massachusetts Institute of Technology reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.
In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. John T. Nguyen at (301) 415-4007 or via internet e-mail John.Nguyen@nrc.gov.
Sincerely,
/RA/
Gregory T. Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-20
Enclosures:
- 1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-13-02
- 2. Facility comments on written examination with NRC resolution
- 3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc: Frank Warmsley w/o enclosures: See next page DISTRIBUTION PROB r/f RidsNrrDprPrta RidsNrrDprPrtb ADAMS ACCESSION No.: ML13261A083 NRR-074 OFFICE NRR/DPR/PROB NRR/DPR/PROB NRR/DPR/PROB NAME JNguyen CRevelle GBowman DATE 9/17/13 9/25/13 10/01/13 OFFICIAL RECORD COPY
ENCLOSURE U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.:
50-20/OL-13-02 FACILITY DOCKET NO.:
50-20 FACILITY LICENSE NO.:
R-37 FACILITY:
MITR-II EXAMINATION DATES:
September 3 - 5, 2013 SUBMITTED BY:
_________/RA/_________________
_____09/17/2013__
John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner Date
SUMMARY
During the week of September 2, 2013, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to two Reactor Operator (RO) candidates. The candidates passed all portions of the examinations.
REPORT DETAILS
- 1.
Examiners: John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC
- 2.
Results:
RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 2/0 0/0 2/0 Operating Tests 2/0 0/0 2/0 Overall 2/0 0/0 2/0
- 3.
Exit Meeting:
John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC Thomas H. Newton, Director of Reactor Operations, MIT John P. Foster, Superintendent, MIT Frank Warmsley, Training Supervisor, MIT At the conclusion of the examinations the chief examiner thanked the facility for their support during the examinations.
ENCLOSURE 2 FACILITY COMMENTS WITH NRC RESOLUTION FACILITY COMMENT QUESTION A.7, Part C The answer key lists DECREASE as the correct answer; however, we believe the only correct answer is INCREASE.
NRC RESPONSE Facility comment accepted.
FACILITY COMMENT QUESTION B.6 The answer key lists d as a correct answer. However, we believe that a is also a correct answer per Technical Specifications 1.3.32.8. We request answer a and d be accepted as correct answers. We also request this question be modified in the future.
NRC RESPONSE Facility comment accepted.
FACILITY COMMENT QUESTION B.13, Part B The examiner did not provide a shim bank worth curve for this question. In the future, this question should include the current MIT worth curves. We request the question B.13, Part B be deleted.
NRC RESPONSE Facility comment accepted.
FACILITY COMMENT QUESTION B.16 The distractors and the answer key of this question list the titles of individuals for the reactor operations. The MIT Emergency Plan lists these individuals in accordance with the emergency titles. We suggest that the distractors and answer key be changed in accordance with the Emergency Plan.
NRC RESPONSE Facility comment accepted.
FACILITY COMMENT QUESTION C.9, Part C The answer key lists 4 as the correct answer; however, we believe the correct answer is 1.
MP-6 has a normal reading of 7.0 +/-0.25 PSIG and the scram setpoint is about 6.3 PSIG.
NRC RESPONSE Facility comment accepted.
FACILITY COMMENT QUESTION C.19, Part D The answer key lists 1 (CO2) as the correct answer; however, this question is not clear by not providing additional information whether the gas surrounding is in external or internal tank. If it is in the external tank, then 1 (CO2) is a correct answer. Otherwise, 4 (Helium) is the correct answer for internal. We request answer 1 and 4 be accepted as correct answers. We also request this question be modified in the future.
NRC RESPONSE Facility comment accepted.
U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION
NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY:
Massachusetts Institute of Technology REACTOR TYPE:
MITR II Research DATE ADMINISTERED:
9/3/2013 CANDIDATE:
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:
Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.
% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00 % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.
Candidate's Signature
A. RX THEORY, THERMO & FAC OP CHARS A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.
A01 a b c d ___
A02 a b c d ___
A03 a b c d ___
A04 a b c d ___
A05 a b c d ___
A06 a b c d ___
A07 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
A08 a b c d ___
A09 a b c d ___
A10 a b c d ___
A11 a b c d ___
A12 a b c d ___
A13 a b c d ___
A14 a b c d ___
A15 a b c d ___
A16 a b c d ___
A17 a b c d ___
A18 a b c d ___
A19 a b c d ___
A20 a b c d ___
(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)
B. NORMAL/EMERG PROCEDURES & RAD CON A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.
B01 a b c d ___
B02 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
B03 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
B04 a b c d ___
B05 a b c d ___
B06 a b c d ___
B07 a b c d ___
B08 a b c d ___
B09 a b c d ___
B10 a b c d ___
B11 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
B12 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
B13 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
B14 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
B15 a b c d ___
B16 a b c d ___
B17 a b c d ___
B18 a b c d ___
B19 a b c d ___
B20 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)
C. PLANT AND RAD MONITORING SYSTEMS A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.
C01 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each) e ___ f ___ g ___ h ___
C02 a b c d ___
C03 a b c d ___
C04 a b c d ___
C05 a b c d ___
C06 a b c d ___
C07 a b c d ___
C08 a b c d ___
C09 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
C10 a b c d ___
C11 a b c d ___
C12 a b c d ___
C13 a b c d ___
C14 a b c d ___
C15 a b c d ___
C16 a b c d ___
C17 a b c d ___
C18 a b c d ___
C19 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)
(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
- 1.
Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
- 2.
After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
- 3.
Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
- 4.
Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
- 5.
Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.
- 6.
Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
- 7.
The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
- 8.
If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
- 9.
When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
- 10.
Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
- 11.
To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
- 12.
There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
EQUATION SHEET eff = 0.1/sec T
=
H m
=
T c
m
=
Q p
(k) 2
)
(
=
P 2
max seconds 10 x 1
=
-4 sec
-1 eff 0.1
=
)
K (1
CR
=
)
K (1
CR eff 2
eff 1
2 1
K 1
S
=
SCR eff
26.06
=
SUR eff K
1 K
1
=
M eff eff 1
0 CR CR
=
K 1
1
=
M 2
1 eff 10 P
=
P SUR(t) 0 e
P
=
P t
0 P
)
(1
=
P 0
=
eff
+
=
K
)
K (1
=
SDM eff eff K
x k
K K
=
eff eff eff eff 2
1 1
2
0.693
=
T K
1)
K
(
=
eff eff
e DR
=
DR t
0 R
6CiE(n)
=
DR 2
d DR
=
d DR 2
2 2
1 2
1
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics 1 Curie = 3.7x1010 dps 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 hp = 2.54x103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41x106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf EF = 9/5EC + 32 931 Mev = 1 amu EC = 5/9 (EF - 32)
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.1
[1.0 point]
Attached is the applicable portion from the chart of the nuclides, what will U-234 decay into?
- a.
- b.
Pa-232
- c.
- d.
Np-234
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.2
[1.0 point]
The reactor is operating in the automatic mode at 1 MW with the regulating rod at 8 inches. A malfunction of equipment in the secondary cooling system causes primary temperature to increase by 10 °C. Disregarding any other automated system design features, the new position of the regulating rod is between:
- a.
7.00 - 7.25 inches
- b.
8.00 - 8.50 inches
- c.
9.50 - 10.0 inches
- d.
10.75 - 11.25 inches Given:
The integral worth curve of the REG rod (attached)
The temperature coefficient =- 0.04 %K/K per °C
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.3
[1.0 point]
The reactor is critical. The reactor operator accidentally inserts a fuel element in the core and Keff changes to 1.010. What is the period of the reactor? Given a prompt neutron lifetime (*) of 1 x 10 -5 seconds.
- a.
0.001 sec
- b.
0.01 sec
- c.
0.10 sec
- d.
1.0 sec QUESTION A.4
[1.0 point]
A subcritical nuclear reactor has a stable source range count rate of 150 cps with a shutdown reactivity of -2.0% K/K. Approximately how much positive reactivity must be added to establish a stable count rate of 600 cps?
- a.
0.53% K/K
- b.
1.02% K/K
- c.
1.54% K/K
- d.
2.00% K/K QUESTION A.5
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the most correct reason for having an installed neutron source within the core?
An installed neutron source is very important during startup because without a neutron source...
- a.
the reactor could result in a sudden increase in power if the control rods were pulled out far enough
- b.
the compensating voltage on the source range detector doesnt work
- c.
the startup channel would NEVER indicate neutron population
- d.
the chain reaction in the reactor core would NOT start
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.6
[1.0 point]
Two critical reactors at low power are identical, except that Reactor 1 has a beta fraction of 0.0065 and Reactor 2 has a beta fraction of 0.0078. Which ONE of the following best describes the response if a reactivity of 0.30% K/K is inserted into both reactors?
- a.
Period of the Reactor 1 ( =0.0065) will be longer than the period of the Reactor 2
(=0.0078)
- b.
The final power in the Reactor 1 ( = 0.0065) will be lower than the final power in the Reactor 2 ( = 0.0078)
- c.
The trace (power vs. time) of the Reactor 1 ( = 0.0065) will be higher than the trace of the Reactor 2 ( = 0.0078)
- d.
The trace (power vs. time) of the Reactor 1 ( = 0.0065) will be identical to the trace of the Reactor 2 ( = 0.0078)
QUESTION A.7
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Fill out the blank with INCREASE or DECREASE due to effects of moderator temperature increase.
- a.
Slowing down length _____________
- b.
Thermal non-leakage probability _____________
- c.
Fast leakage _____________
- d.
Core excess _____________
QUESTION A.8
[1.0 point]
In a just critical reactor, the reactor operator immediately inserts a rabbit of 0.5 %K/K reactivity worth into the core. This insertion will cause:
Given:
T: reactor period, *: Prompt neutron lifetime; : reactivity insertion; : beta fraction
- a.
A sudden drop in delayed neutrons
- b.
A number of prompt neutrons equals to a number of delayed neutrons
- c.
The resultant period to be a function of the prompt neutron lifetime (T=*/)
- d.
A sudden change of power that equals to the initial power multiplied by (1- )/ ( -)
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.9
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the MAIN reason for operating with thermal neutrons instead of fast neutrons?
- a.
Decrease the -effective, so it is easy to control the reactor
- b.
Moderator temperature coefficient becomes positive as neutron energy increases
- c.
Neutron absorption in non fuel material increases exponentially as neutron energy increases
- d.
The fission cross section of the fuel is much higher for thermal energy neutrons than fast neutrons QUESTION A.10
[1.0 point]
An example of a FISSIONABLE NUCLEI is:
- a.
- b.
- c.
- d.
U-233 QUESTION A.11
[1.0 point]
During a reactor startup, the reactor operator observes the position of the current control rods is LOWER than the last startup. Which ONE of the following reasons could be the cause?
- a.
Higher moderator temperature (assume negative temperature coefficient)
- b.
Insertion of a negative reactivity worth experiment
- c.
Burnout of xenon
- d.
Fuel depletion
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.12
[1.0 point]
A reactor with Keff = 0.8 contributes 1000 neutrons in the first generation. Changing from the first generation to the THIRD generation, how many TOTAL neutrons are there after the third generation?
- a.
1800
- b.
2440
- c.
3240
- d.
6400 QUESTION A.13
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following will be the resulting stable reactor period when a 0.00245 k reactivity insertion is made into an exactly critical reactor core? Neglect any effects from prompt. Given
=0.0078 and =0.1
- a.
13 seconds
- b.
16 seconds
- c.
18 seconds
- d.
22 seconds QUESTION A.14
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is a correct statement of why delayed neutrons enhance the ability to control reactor power?
- a.
Delayed neutrons are born at higher energy levels than prompt neutrons
- b.
Delayed neutrons increase the average neutron lifetime that allows a reactor to be controlled
- c.
Prompt neutrons can cause fissions in both U-235 and U-238; whereas delayed neutrons can only cause fissions in U-235
- d.
The average number of delayed neutrons produced per fission is higher than the average number of prompt neutrons
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.15
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the SIX-FACTOR FORMULA?
- a.
K4 = Keff
- the resonance escape probability (p)
- b.
K4 = Keff
- the total non-leakage probability (f H th)
- c.
Keff = K4
- the total non-leakage probability (f H th)
- d.
Keff = K4 * (the resonance escape probability (p)* the reproduction factor ())
QUESTION A.16
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the reason that Xenon peaks after a shutdown?
- a.
Iodine decays faster than Xenon decays
- b.
Samarium decays faster than Xenon decays
- c.
Xenon decays faster than Iodine decays
- d.
Xenon decays faster than Promethium QUESTION A.17
[1.0 point]
Which ONE statement below describes a NEGATIVE moderator temperature coefficient?
- a.
When moderator temperature increases, negative reactivity is added
- b.
When moderator temperature decreases, negative reactivity is added
- c.
When moderator temperature increases, positive reactivity is added
- d.
When moderator temperature increases, no change in reactivity QUESTION A.18
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following factors in the six factor formula is the MOST affected by the CONTROL BLADES?
- a.
Fast fission factor
- b.
Reproduction factor
- c.
Thermal utilization factor
- d.
Resonance escape probability
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.19
[1.0 point]
A few minutes following a reactor scram, the reactor period has stabilized and the power level is decreasing at a CONSTANT rate. Given that reactor power at time t0 is 200 kW power, what will it be five minutes later?
- a.
0.50 kW
- b.
2.30 kW
- c.
4.70 kW
- d.
110.0 kW QUESTION A.20
[1.0 point]
Use Figure 3.3 attached. Calculate the effective delayed neutron fraction (-effective). At birth energies, there are 65 delayed neutrons and 9935 prompt neutrons. In the process of slowing down, there are only 56 delayed neutrons and 7352 prompt neutrons at the thermal range. The resultant -effective of Figure 3.3 is:
- a.
0.00654
- b.
0.00756
- c.
0.00762
- d.
0.00348
(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.1
[1.0 point]
The radiation from an unshielded source is 1 rem/hr. You insert 60 mm thickness of lead sheet; the radiation level reduces to 250 mrem/hr. What is the half-value-layer of lead? (HVL:
thickness of lead required so that the original intensity will be reduced by half)
- a.
10 mm
- b.
20 mm
- c.
30 mm
- d.
40 mm QUESTION B.2
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the radiation reading from Column A with its corresponding radiation area classification (per 10 CFR 20) listed in Column B. Answer in Column B can be used more than once or not at all. Assume a Quality Factor of 1.
Column A Column B
- a.
10 mrem/hr at 30 cm
- 1. Public Area
- b.
550 mrem/hr at 30 cm
- 2. Radiation Area
- c.
10 mrem/hr at 1 m
- d.
550 rem/hr at 1 m
- 4. Very High Radiation Area QUESTION B.3
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Identify each of the following surveillances as a channel check (CHECK), a channel test (TEST), or a channel calibration (CAL).
- a.
During the startup, you withdraw the control blades and verify proper response of Reactor Period Channel
- b.
During 5 MW power, you compare the readings of coolant outlet temperatures
- c.
During the startup, you verify the Hold-Down Grid Unlatched scram
- d.
Adjust the Linear Power Channel in accordance with recent data collected on the reactor power calibration QUESTION B.4
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following conditions requires the NRC APPROVAL for changes?
- a.
Revise chapter 4 of the Safety Analysis Report
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls b
Revise the requalification written examination c
Major Changes in the Administrative Procedure, PM 1.1.1 d
Reduce a minimum of the MIT Reactor Safeguards Committee members from nine persons to five QUESTION B.5
[1.0 point]
Assume that there is no leak from outside of the primary demineralizer tank. You use a survey instrument with a window probe to measure the dose rate from the demineralizer tank.
Compare to the reading with a window CLOSED, the reading with a window OPEN will :
- a.
increase, because it can receive an additional alpha radiation from (Al-27) (n,),(Na-24) reaction
- b.
remain the same, because the Quality Factors for gamma and beta radiation are the same
- c.
increase, because the Quality Factor for beta and alpha is greater than for gamma
- d.
remain the same, because the survey instrument would not be detecting beta and alpha radiation from the tank QUESTION B.6
[1.0 point]
According to MIT Tech Spec, which ONE of the following would most likely be considered a Reportable Event (the Director shall report to the NRC within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />)?
- a.
You receive a bomb threat directed toward the facility.
- b.
You did not pay attention while raising the control blades to power, which causes reactor scram.
- c.
You observe an abnormal loss of core coolant at a rate that exceeds the normal makeup capacity.
- d.
You load an unknown sample of 0.008 k/k worth of reactivity during reactor operation.
The reactor scrams due to your loading.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.7
[1.0 point]
A radioactive source reads 70 Rem/hr on contact. Ten hours later, the same source reads 3.0 Rem/hr. How long is the time for the source to decay from a reading of 3 Rem/hr to 100 mRem/hr?
- a.
5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />
- b.
11 hours1.273148e-4 days <br />0.00306 hours <br />1.818783e-5 weeks <br />4.1855e-6 months <br />
- c.
16 hours1.851852e-4 days <br />0.00444 hours <br />2.645503e-5 weeks <br />6.088e-6 months <br />
- d.
22 hours2.546296e-4 days <br />0.00611 hours <br />3.637566e-5 weeks <br />8.371e-6 months <br /> QUESTION B.8
[1.0 point]
A critical monitor of the fuel storage vault activates the evacuation horn and indicates high radiation level around the vault. The reactor staff needs to evacuate to ______ for the accountability.
- a.
Reactor Control Room
- b.
Reactor Parking Lot
- c.
Rear of building NW-13
- d.
Nuclear Measurements Lab (building NW-12)
QUESTION B.9
[1.0 point]
The MIT reactor has been shutdown due to a fuel element leak. Which ONE of the following radioactive GASES poses the most significant hazard during the search for the leaking fuel element? Assume the fuel element is leaking during the search
- a.
- b.
- c.
- d.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.10
[1.0 point]
A change to the Licensed Personnel Requalification Program is classified as a(n) ______
proposal
- a.
Class A
- b.
Class B
- c.
Class C
- d.
Administrative QUESTION B.11
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Fill out the following Limiting Safety System Settings with MAXIMUM or MINIMUM in accordance with the MIT Technical Specifications. Given that reactor is in the 2-pump MODE operation
- a.
Primary Coolant Flow 1800 gpm ( )
- b.
Reactor Power 7.4 MW ( )
- c.
Coolant Height 10 ft above top of fuel plates ( )
- d.
Core Outlet Water Temperature 60 °C ( )
QUESTION B.12
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the license requirement listed in Column A for an actively licensed operator with the correct 10 CFR listed in Column B. Item listed in column B can be used only once.
Column A Column B
- a.
Facility licenses
- 1.
- 2.
- c.
Radiation protection
- 3.
- d.
Maintain an active operator or senior operator license
- 4.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.13
[1.0 point, 0.25 each] change made per facility comment Match each of the Technical Specification Limits in column A with its corresponding value limit in column B. Value in Column B may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Column A Column B
- a. Reactivity worth of a single experiments (secured)
- 1. 0.5 % K/K
- b. Total excess reactivity in core
- 2. 1.8 % K/K
- c. Reactivity worth of a single experiment (non-secured)
- 3. 1.0 % K/K
- d. TS Shutdown Margin
- 4. 7.3 % K/K QUESTION B.14
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the terms in column A with their respective definitions in column B.
Column A Column B
- a.
Radioactivity
- 1.
To remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits in 10 CFR 52.
- b.
Contamination
- 2.
An impurity pollutes or adulterates another substance. The transferable radioactive materials are the sources of ionizing radiations.
- c.
Dose
- 3.
The quantity of radiation absorbed per unit mass by the body or by any portion of the body.
- d.
Decommission
- 4.
That property of a substance which causes it to emit ionizing radiation. This property is the spontaneous transmutation of the atoms of the substance.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.15
[1.0 point]
How many hours per calendar quarter must you perform the functions of an RO or SRO to maintain an active RO or SRO license?
- a.
2
- b.
4
- c.
6
- d.
8 QUESTION B.16
[1.0 point]
The individual authorized to terminate or downgrade the emergency and to initiate recovery operation is the:
- a.
Senior Reactor Operator in Duty
- b.
Superintendent
- c.
Shift Supervisor
- d.
Director of Reactor Operations QUESTION B.17
[1.0 point]
___________ specifies the limiting conditions for operations of the facility.
- a.
- b.
Physical Security Plan
- c.
Technical Specifications
- d.
Operator Licensing Requalification Plan QUESTION B.18
[1.0 point]
Radiation level at the distance corresponding to the nearest site boundary of 120 mRem/hr for one hour whole-body is classified as:
- a.
Unusual Event
- b.
Alert
Section A Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics
- c.
Site Area Emergency
- d.
General Emergency QUESTION B.19
[1.0 point]
Per SOP, which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM power in which the reactor can be operated in Half-Power operation (only one primary coolant pump and heat exchanger on-line)?
- a.
100 kW
- b.
1 MW
- c.
2.5 MW
- d.
3.2 MW QUESTION B.20
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Per MIT Technical Specifications, match each event listed in column A with its associated time required for a written report to the U.S. NRC listed in column B. (Items in column B can be used more than once or NOT at all)
Column A Column B
- a.
Operation in violation of a safety limit
- 1.
10 days
- b.
Total tritium radioactivity released
- 2.
30 days
- c.
Significant change in the transient as described
- 3.
60 days in the SAR
- d.
Permanent changes in Level 1of the facility
- 4.
Annually organization
(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.1
[2.0 point, 0.25 each]
Figure 8-1 depicts the MIT normal and emergency electrical distribution. In the event of loss of off-site power, provide your inputs (YES or NO) to following panels/equipments whether they receive emergency power distribution. Assume that the Emergency Power Distribution System is operable.
- a. MM-2 in Panel 1 A _____
- e. Panel 1 A _______
- b. Panel 1 Circuits 1-12 _____
- f. Panel 2 A _______
- c. Utility Room Lighting ______
- g. NW-12 Building _______
- d. Experimental Receptacle Load Center
- h. MCC-2 _______
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.2
[1.0 point]
You observe an LED display of the radiation area monitor control unit indicated by all dashes
(-). The display of all dashes means:
- a.
Detector saturation
- b.
Over-range of count rate
- c.
Control unit is currently self-check
- d.
Source Test is remotely activated QUESTION C.3
[1.0 point]
A Low Pressure Personnel Lock and a Main Personnel Airlock Gaskets Deflated alarm in the control room. This annunciation means:
- a.
A check valve fails; causing the Utility Room (UR) air compressor stops supplying air to door gaskets; but directly vented air to the Nuclear Engineering Building (NEB) air compressor.
- b.
A check valve fails; causing both the UR and the NEB air compressors supplied air to door gaskets.
- c.
The UR air compressor is NOT operable, only the Nuclear Engineering Building air compressor is supplied air to door gaskets.
- d.
Both the UR and the NEB air compressors are inoperable. No air is supplied to door gaskets.
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.4
[1.0 point]
The MIT Thermal Power Calibration is calculated by:
- a.
measuring the neutron flux in a beam port at power
- b.
irradiating gold foils and counting to determine power level
- c.
performing a heat balance with the reactor at power and in equilibrium
- d.
obtaining a tank water temperature constant (tank water temperature rises at 1 MW-Hr)
QUESTION C.5
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the method used to operate the reactor MAIN exhaust damper of the ventilation system?
- a.
Air to open/spring to close/butterfly valves
- b.
Spring to open/Air to close/ ball valves
- c.
hydraulic to open/spring to close/ ball valves
- d.
hydraulic to open/hydraulic to close/ butterfly valves QUESTION C.6
[1.0 point]
Auto control system will prevent reactor switching to auto control mode if the deviation between the power-set and the actual power exceeds 1.5%. This actual power comes from:
- a.
Period Channel (Channel 1)
- b.
Level Channel (Channel 4)
- c.
Linear Flux Channel (Channel 7)
- d.
Automatic Control Channel (Channel 9)
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.7
[1.0 point]
Why does the Argon-41 monitor mainly detect Ar-41 (excluding most of radioactive particulates)? Ar-41 cannot detect particulates because:
- a.
It is impossible to have any radioactive particulate presented in the reactor air
- b.
The atomic weight of Ar-41 is higher than atomic weight of particulates, so the filter paper in the Ar-41 monitor mostly traps Ar-41 nuclide
- c.
The reactor air is pre-filtered by using HV-70 filter paper to eliminate particulates before passing reactor air to Ar-41 detector
- d.
It has a neutron source that interacts with Ar-40 in air, provides its corresponding level of Ar-41 QUESTION C.8
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is an INCORRECT statement regarding the LCO temporary bypasses (not part of an approved procedure) for maintenance purpose? The bypass can be implemented when:
- a.
the reactor is in shutdown
- b.
the bypass is removed before reactor startup
- c.
the bypass is approved by the Duty Shift Supervisor
- d.
the physical installation of bypass must be checked after installation by the Director of Reactor Operations.
QUESTION C.9
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Reactor is at 5 MW power with 2-pump operation. Match the input signals listed in column A with their respective responses listed in column B. (Items in column B can be used more than once or not at all.)
Column A Column B
- a.
Primary Coolant Flow = 1900 gpm
- 1.
Indication
- b.
Outlet Conductivity = 1 µS/cm
- 2.
Interlock
- c.
Pressure Reactor inlet (MP-6) = 9 psig
- 3.
Rod Run Down
- d.
Reg rod reaches near-in limit
- 4.
Scram position for 30 sec
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.10
[1.0 point]
Suppose a level in the core tank cannot be maintained at the level of the reactor inlet penetration (Mode 3). Which ONE of the following best describes how CITY WATER passes through the reactor core?
- a.
Manually connect the quick-connect hoses to a pair of spay nozzle 4-way valves (MV-67 and 68), then open MV-69 in the control room and MV-70 in the Utility Room.
- b.
Turn the primary coolant pump (MM-1) ON, open the reflector valve (DV-1), and thus providing city water to the core with pressure.
- c.
Low pool water level automatically opens valve MV-69, thus providing city water to the core.
- d.
There is no way for city water to be sent directly to the reactor core; the only source is the makeup water tank.
QUESTION C.11
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following provides a correct reason for comparison of the thermal power balance and the output signal of the neutron level channel? The purpose of the comparison is to:
- a.
calibrate the REG blade worth
- b.
set the Safety Channel level trip points
- c.
calibrate the SHIM blade positions at full power
- d.
adjust neutron source level in accordance with neutron level channel QUESTION C.12
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the MINIMUM level drop in the reflector tank that will cause a Low Level D2O reflector alarm?
- a.
2 inches below the overflow position
- b.
4 inches below the overflow position
- c.
6 inches below the overflow position
- d.
8 inches below the overflow position
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.13
[1.0 point]
The MAIN purpose for voiding the D2O shutter in the reflector tank is to:
- a.
maximize epithermal flux to the medical therapy facility
- b.
minimize the fuel burnup in the lower half of the core
- c.
increase fast neutron flux to the medical therapy facility
- d.
predetermine a ratio between the epithermal flux and thermal flux to the medical therapy facility QUESTION C.14
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following resistor levels will cause an OPEN circuit alarm in the MIT water leak detection system?
- a.
100
- b.
25 K
- c.
300 K
- d.
4 M QUESTION C.15
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following best describes on how the Uncompensated Ion Chamber (UIC) and Compensated Ion Chamber (CIC) operate?
- a.
The CIC has two chambers, both can sense gamma rays but only one is coated with boron-10 for (n,) reaction; whereas the UIC has only one chamber coated with boron-10 for (n,) reaction.
- b.
The CIC has two chambers, one is coated with U-235 for fission reaction and the other is coated with boron-10 for (n,) reaction; whereas the UIC has only one chamber coated with U-235 for fission reaction.
- c.
The CIC has only one chamber coated with boron-10 for (n,) reaction; whereas the UIC has two chambers, one is coated with U-235 for fission reaction and the other is coated with boron-10 for (n,) reaction.
- d.
The CIC has only one chamber coated with U-235 for fission reaction, whereas the UIC has two chambers, both can sense gamma rays but only one is coated with boron-10 for (n,) reaction.
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.16
[1.0 point]
During reactor STARTUP, which ONE of the following best describes on how the amplifier in the Channel 1 works? The amplifier converts pulses from:
- a.
(n,) reaction into a d.c. signal then amplifies the d.c. signal in a logarithmic manner
- b.
(n,) reaction into a d.c. signal then amplifies the d.c. signal in a logarithmic manner
- c.
fission fragment into a d.c. signal then amplifies the d.c. signal in a logarithmic manner
- d.
(n,p) reaction into an a.c. signal then amplifies the a.c. signal in a logarithmic manner QUESTION C.17
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following information is NOT required for the independent Estimated Critical Position (ECP) calculation?
- a.
K due to burnup
- b.
K due to +50 second period
- c.
K due to REG rod height
- d.
K due to primary coolant flow rate QUESTION C.18
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following information will indicate a leak that occurs from the D2O tank to the reflector heat exchanger in the secondary system? A possible leak occurs if a presence of ____
is found in the reflector heat exchanger.
- a.
Xe
- b.
F-18
- c.
Na-24
- d.
Ar-41
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.19
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the location or feature listed in column A with their respective gases listed in column B.
(Items in column B can be used more than once or not at all.)
Column A Column B
- a.
D2O Reflector
- 1.
- b.
Pneumatic Tube operating Gas
- 2.
Ar-40
- c.
Graphite Reflector
- 3.
Air
- d.
Fission Converter Shield
- 4.
- 5.
(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
(***** END OF EXAMINATION *****)
A.1 Answer:
c
Reference:
Chart of the Nuclides (alpha decay)
A.2 Answer:
c
Reference:
The temperature increase has added -0.40% K/K of reactivity which must be accounted for by the regulating rod to maintain 1 MW. Therefore, the Reg rod must be withdrawn 0.40% K/K worth. Using the integral rod worth curve, with the Reg rod initially at 8 in (1.35 % K/K), the new rod height at 1.75 % K/K is 9.65 in.
A.3 Answer:
a
Reference:
Using equations provided in the equation sheet:
= (1.01-1)/1.01
= 0.01 For prompt,
=
= 0.00001/0.01 = 0.001 sec A.4 Answer:
c
Reference:
First, find Keff1 with = -2.0% K/K
-0.02 Keff1 = Keff1 -1 so 1.02 Keff1 = 1 Keff1 = 0.980 CR2/CR1 = (1 - Keff1)/(1 - Keff2) 600/150 = (1 - 0.980)/(1 - Keff2)
Then find: Keff2 = 0.995
= (Keff2-Keff1)/(Keff1*Keff2) = (0.995-0.980)/(0.995*0.98) = 1.54% K/K A.5 Answer:
a
Reference:
NRC Standard Question A.6 Answer:
c
Reference:
Equation Sheet. = (*/) + [(-)/eff. Since the period of the reactor 1 is shorter than the reactor 2, the trace (power vs. time) of the Reactor 1 will be higher than the trace of the Reactor 2 A.7 Answer key changed per facility comments Answer:
a, Increase b, Decrease c, Decrease Increase d, Decrease
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 3.3.2 K
1)
K
(
=
eff eff
K 1)
K
(
=
eff eff
A.8 Answer d
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 4.6, page 4-17 A.9 Answer:
d
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, Figure 2.6, page 2-39 A.10 Answer:
b
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, 1988 Section 3.2 page 3-2 A.11 Answer c
Reference:
Burn out of xenon (poison) will add a positive reactivity, cause the control rod lower A.12 Answer:
b
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 5.3, p. 5.6 3-nd generation=n + K*n + K2 *n=1000+800+640= 2440neutrons A.13 Answer:
d
Reference:
T = (-)/
T = (0.0078 - 0.00245)/0.1 x 0.00245 = 21.8 seconds A.14 Answer:
b
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, Section 3.3.7 page 3-37 A.15 Answer:
c
Reference:
DOE Handbook Vol 2, L Theory (Nuclear Parameters), E.O. 1.1 a&b, pg.
A.16 Answer:
a
Reference:
Introduction to Nuclear Operation, Reed Burn, 1982, Sec 8.4.2 A.17 Answer a
Reference:
Introduction to Nuclear Operation, Reed Burn, 1982, Sec 6.4 A.18 Answer:
c
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, Sec 3.2.2, page 3-18.
A.19 Answer:
c
Reference:
P = P0 e-T/J = 200 kW H e(300sec/-80sec) = 200 kW H e-3.75 = 0.0235 H 200 kW = 4.7 KW A.20 Answer:
b
Reference:
-effective =56/(56+7352) =0.00756 Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, Figure 3.3
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls B.1 Answer:
c
Reference:
DR = DR*e -X Find : 250 = 1000* e -*60 ; = 0.0231 If insertion of an HVL (thickness of lead), the original intensity will be reduced by half.
Find X: 1 = 2* e -0.0231*X ; X= 30 mm Find HVL by shortcut:
1000mR-500 mR is the 1st HVL 500 mR - 250 mR is the 2nd HVL So HVL=60mm/2 = 30 mm B.2 Answer:
a(2);
b(3);
c(3);
d(4)
Reference:
10 CFR 20.1003 Definitions equivalent dose: 1 rem= 1 rad x Q (quality factor) 550 rads/hr x (QF = 1) 550 rem/hr, 10 mrem/hr at 1 m : 10 mR/hr at 100 cm = 111 mrem/hr at 30 cm, High Radiation Area: 100 mrem/hr at 30 cm Radiation Area : 5 mrem/hr at 30 cm Very High Radiation Area: 500 rads/hr at 1 m B.3 Answer:
a = TEST; b = CHECK; c = TEST; d = CAL
Reference:
MIT Technical specification, Definitions B.4 Answer:
d
Reference:
10 CFR 50.59 B.5 Answer:
d
Reference:
BASIC Radiological Concept (Betas and alpha don't make through the demineralizer tank)
B.6 Answer key changed per facility comments Answer:
d or a
Reference:
TS 7.7.2 and TS 1.3.32 B.7 Answer:
b
Reference:
DR = DR*e -t 3.0 rem/hr =70 rem/hr* e -(10hr)
Ln(3.0/70) = -*10 --> =0.315; solve for t: Ln(.1/3)=-0.315 (t) t=10.8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> B.8 Answer:
c
Reference:
Emergency Plan, Section 4.7.4
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls B.9 Answer:
b
Reference:
Standard NRC question B.10 Answer:
a
Reference:
MIT Administrative Procedure, PM 1.4 B.11 Answer:
a (MINIMUM) b(MAXIMUM) c(MINIMUM) d(MAXIMUM)
Reference:
MIT TS 2.2 B.12 Answer:
a (2);
b(4);
c(1);
d(3)
Reference:
10 CFR B.13 b(4) deleted per facility comments Answer:
a(2) b(4) c(1) d(3)
Reference:
Technical Specifications 3.1 and 6.1 B.14 Answer:
a(4) b(2) c(3) d(1)
Reference:
10 CFR 20 B.15 Answer:
b
Reference:
B.16 Answer:
d
Reference:
Emergency Plan, PM Section 4.3.3 B.17 Answer:
c
Reference:
10 CFR 50.36 B.18 Answer:
c
Reference:
EP Table 4.5.3-3 B.19 Answer:
c
Reference:
SOP, Chapter 2, PM 2.4 B.20 Answer:
a (1) b(4) c(2) d(2)
Reference:
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems C.1 Answer:
a (YES) b (NO) c (YES) d (NO) e (YES) f (YES) g (NO) h (NO)
Reference:
MIT SAR 8.1 and 8.2 C.2 Answer:
a
Reference:
RSM 7-2 C.3 Answer:
d
Reference:
RSM 8.2.1 C.4 Answer:
c
Reference:
d
Reference:
RSM 8.3.6 C.6 Answer:
d
Reference:
SAR 7.3.1 and Figure 7-1 C.7 Answer:
c
Reference:
RSM 7.3 C.8 Answer:
d
Reference:
MIT Operation Procedures, PM 1.9 C.9 Answer key changed per facility comments Answer:
a(4) b(1) c (4) (1) d(3)
Reference:
RSM 9.3 and 9.4 C.10 Answer:
a
Reference:
SAR 6-4, page 6-4 and SAR, page 5-18 C.11 Answer:
b
Reference:
RSM 6.3.4 C.12 Answer:
b
Reference:
RSM 6.5.2
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems C.13 Answer:
d
Reference:
RSM 1.5.1 C.14 Answer:
d
Reference:
RSM 3.3.6 C.15 Answer:
a
Reference:
RSM 5.2.1 and 5.2.2 C.16 Answer:
c
Reference:
SAR 7.4.1.1 C.17 Answer:
d
Reference:
PM 3.1.5 C.18 Answer:
b
Reference:
RSM 7.4.1 C.19 Answer key changed per facility comments Answer:
a(4) b(3) c(1) d(1) or (4)
Reference:
RSM 3.7 and 6.9