Text

Examination Report Letter No. 50-027/OL-24-01 Washington State University
	ML24150A312
Person / Time
Site:	Washington State University
Issue date:	08/29/2024
From:	Travis Tate; NRC/NRR/DANU/UNPO
To:	Hines C; Washington State Univ
References
	50-027/24-001 50-027/OL-24
	Download: ML24150A312 (37)
	v • d • e

Corey Hines, Director Washington State University Nuclear Radiation Center 50 Roundtop Drive Pullman, WA 99164 1300

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-027/OL-24-01, WASHINGTON STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Corey Hines:

During the week of August 12, 2024, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Washington State University research reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC website at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Michele DeSouza at 301-415-0747 or via email at Michele.DeSouza@nrc.gov.

Sincerely, Travis L. Tate, Chief Non-Power Production and Utilization Facility Oversight Branch Division of Advanced Reactors and Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No.50-027

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-027/OL-24-01

2. Written examination cc: w/enclosures to GovDelivery Subscribers August 29, 2024 Signed by Tate, Travis on 08/29/24

ML24150A312 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DANU/UNPO/CE NRR/DANU/UNPO/OLA NRR/DANU/UNPO/BC NAME MDeSouza NJones TTate DATE 8/29/2024 8/29/2024 8/29/2024 U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT

REPORT NO.: 50-027/OL-24-01

FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-027

FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-76

FACILITY: Washington State University

EXAMINATION DATES: Week of August 12, 2024

SUBMITTED BY: Michele DeSouza 8/28/2024 Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Date Examiner

SUMMARY

During the week of August 12, 2024, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to three Reactor Operator (RO) candidates and one Senior Reactor Operator-Instant candidate. All candidates passed all applicable portions of the examination.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC

2. Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL

Written 3/0 1/0 4/0

Operating Tests 3/0 1/0 4/0

Overall 3/0 1/0 4/0

3. Exit Meeting:

Clark Filip, WSU NSC Reactor Manager Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC Timothy Ayers, Reactor Engineer, NRC

Prior to administration of the written examination, based on facility comments, adjustments were accepted. Comments provided corrections and additional clarity to questions/answers and identified where changes were appropriate based on current facility conditions.

Upon completion of all operator licensing examinations, the NRC examiner met with facility staff representatives to discuss the results. At the conclusion of the meeting, the NRC examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examination.

Washington State University

Operator Licensing Examination

Week of August 12, 2024 U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION

FACILITY: Washington State University

REACTOR TYPE: TRIGA

DATE ADMINISTERED: 08/15/2024

CANDIDATE: _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY

20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS

20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS

20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS

60.00 % TOTALS FINAL GRADE

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

A N S W E R S H E E T

Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

A07 a b c d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

A19 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

A N S W E R S H E E T

Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.50 each)

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

B07 a b c d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

A N S W E R S H E E T

Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a b c d ___

C10 a b c d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS

During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.

6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category and a 70 percent overall.

12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

2 Qmc T mH UAT P 0.1sec1 P max 2 eff

t S S P P0e SCR *1104 sec 1Keff

SUR 26.06eff CR CR P P 10SUR(t) 1 1 2 2 0

1

P P CR11 KeffCR2 1Keff 0 1 2

1 Keff 1 CR2 Keff2Keff1 M 1 M 1 Keff2 1 Keff CR1 Keff1Keff2

=+ 1 Keff 0.693 SDM T K 1 eff 2

Keff1 K DR d 2 DR d 2 DR 6Ci En eff 1 1 2 2 2 R

2 2 DR DR et 2 1 0 Peak Peak 2 1

DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet

1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lb 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr

1 BTU = 778 ft-lb °F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lb °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lb/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.01 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements illustrates a characteristic of Subcritical Multiplication?

a. The number of source neutrons decreases for each generation

b. The number of fission neutrons remains constant for each generation

c. Number of neutrons gained per generation gets larger for each succeeding generation

d. As k-effective approaches unity (1), for the same increase in k-effective, a greater increase in neutron population occurs

QUESTION A.02 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the expected stable neutron count rate, given a source strength of 360 neutrons per second (N/sec) and a multiplication factor of 0.4?

a. 450 neutrons/second

b. 525 neutrons/second

c. 600 neutrons/second

d. 715 neutrons/second

QUESTION A.03 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the definition of excess reactivity? The amount of reactivity ______.

a. associated with burnable poisons.

b. needed to achieve prompt criticality.

c. available above that which is required to keep the reactor critical.

d. available below that which is required to make the reactor subcritical.

Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.04 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following parameters is the MOST significant in determining the differential rod worth of a control rod?

a. Flux shape

b. Rod speed

c. Reactor power

d. Fuel temperature

QUESTION A.05 [1.0 point]

How high will the reactor power get given the following: the lowest of the reactor high power scram set points is 117%, the scram delay time is 0.5 seconds, the reactor is operating at 100%

power prior to the scram, and the reactor period is positive 30 second?

a. 114%

b. 119%

c. 123%

d. 137%

QUESTION A.06 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the following neutron term in Column A with the appropriate definition in Column B.

(Answers used only once)

Column A Column B

a. Fast 1. Neutron in equilibrium with its surroundings.

b. Prompt 2. Neutron born directly from fission.

c. Thermal 3. Neutron born due to decay of a fission product.

d. Delayed 4. Neutron at an energy level greater than its surroundings.

Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.07 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is defined as the balance between the rate of production of fast neutrons from thermal fission and rate of absorption of thermal neutrons by the fuel?

a. Utilization factor

b. Reproduction factor

c. Infinite Multiplication factor

d. Effective multiplication factor

QUESTION A.08 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the MAIN reason for the decrease in reactivity following an increase in fuel temperature?

a. reactor fuel type

b. fuel matrix in the reactor core

c. high fuel element reactivity worth

d. long delay time for transferring heat to the core cooling water

QUESTION A.09 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements describes fast fission factor? Fast fission factor is the ratio of the number of_____.

a. fast neutrons produced by all fissions to the number of fast neutrons produced by thermal fission.

b. fast neutrons produced by all fissions to the number of thermal neutrons produced by fast fission.

c. fast neutrons produced by all fissions to the number of thermal neutrons produced by thermal fission.

d. thermal neutrons produced by fast fission to the number of fast neutrons produced by all fissions.

Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the effects of moderator temperature DECREASE on neutron multiplication? Lf - Fast non-leakage probability Lt - Thermal non-leakage probability

t, rod wortha. Lf, L

t, rod worthb. Lf, L

t, rod worthc. Lf, L

d. Lf, Lt, rod worth

QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements describes the term power defect?

a. The negative reactivity resulting from fission products that build up during reactor operations.

b. The negative reactivity introduced into a reactor due to increasing moderator temperature while lowering reactor power.

c. The negative reactivity introduced into a reactor due to increasing moderator temperature while bringing a reactor to power.

d. The change in either positive or negative reactivity resulting from introduction of an experiment into or near the reactor core.

QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]

A subcritical reactor, keff is increased from 0.811 to 0.845. Which ONE of the following is the amount of reactivity that was added to the core?

a. 3.64%k/k

b. 3.85%k/k

c. 4.96%k/k

d. 5.53%k/k Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following changes that can occur during reactor operator would require the operator to INSERT control rods to maintain constant power?

a. U-235 burnup

b. Increase in pool water temperature

c. Removal of installed neutron source

d. Decrease in pool water temperature

QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Identify each one of the following isotopes as either a FERTILE or FISSILE material. (Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all)

a. Thorium-232

b. Uranium-235

c. Uranium-238

d. Plutonium-239

QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the direct source of DELAYED neutrons in the fission process?

a. Fission of U-235

b. Absorption of U-235

c. Decay of the fission product daughters

d. Spontaneous fission of the fission products Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following terms best matches the definition, the number of neutrons passing through one cm2 of target material per second?

a. neutron flux

b. neutron density

c. neutron population

d. neutron impact potential

QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the definition of eff?

a. The fractional change in neutron population per generation

b. The fraction of all delayed neutrons that reach thermal energy

c. The time required for the reactor to change by a factor of e

d. The fraction of all fission neutrons that are born as delayed neutrons

QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point]

The current count rate is 515 cps. An experimenter inserts a sample into the reactor core and the count rate decreased to 175 cps. If the initial keff was 0.581, what is the worth of the experiment?

a. + 5.469

b. - 5.815

c. + 6.012

d. - 6.765 Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Identify each one of the following as either an ABSORBER (A), POISON (P), or REFLECTOR (R). (Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all).

a. Beryllium

b. Xenon-135

c. Boron-10

d. Graphite

QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following power changes will take the SHORTEST time to complete? Assume the reactor is on a constant positive period.

a. 5% power - from 1% to 6% power

b. 10% power - from 10% to 20% power

c. 15% power - from 20% to 35% power

d. 20% power - from 40% to 60% power

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.01 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following defines the term Radiation Area?

a. Any area to which access is limited due to the presence of radioactive materials.

b. Any area to which access is limited for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials.

c. Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 5 mrem (0.05 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.

d. Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.

QUESTION B.02 [2.0 points, 0.50 each]

Given a mother isotope of 35Br87 identify each of the daughter isotopes as a result of:, +, -,

, or n? (Answers may be used once, more than once or not at all).?

a. 33As83

b. 34Se87

c. 35Br86

d. 36Kr87

QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point]

According to the WSU NSC Emergency Plan, the Emergency Director is responsible for the termination of an emergency. Which ONE of the following is NOT required to terminate an emergency?

a. Restricted areas are clearly posted.

b. No foreseeable subsequent events exist.

c. Local, state, and federal authorities have given permission.

d. Verify all areas to be opened meet requirements of 10CFR20.

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.04 [1.0 point]

Reactor Operator works in a high radiation area for eight (8) hours a day. The dose rate in the area is 100 mrem/hour. Which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM number of days in which Reactor Operator may perform his duties WITHOUT exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits?

a. 5 days

b. 6 days

c. 7 days

d. 12 days

QUESTION B.05 [1.0 point]

You were away from the facility for an extended period over the summer break and did not complete your MINIMUM number of hours per calendar quarter in accordance with (IAW) 10 CFR Part 55.53(e). IAW 10 CFR 55.53(f)(2), what is the MINIMUM number of hours required to resume licensed operator functions?

a. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

b. 5 hours5.787037e-5 days 0.00139 hours 8.267196e-6 weeks 1.9025e-6 months

c. 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months

d. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months

QUESTION B.06 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Identify each of the following surveillances as a channel check (CHECK), a channel test (TEST) or a channel calibration (CAL).

a. During a reactor startup, you verify a reactor period interlock.

b. During reactor operations, you compare radiation monitor readings.

c. During annual shutdown, you adjust the continuous air monitor scram set point to match recent data collected.

d. During a startup, you verify the reactor interlock system by performing simultaneous withdrawal of two control rods.

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.07 [1.0 point]

In accordance with WSU NSC Emergency Plan, Transient Rod stuck in the UP position, which ONE of the following is the emergency action level classification?

a. Operational procedure, not an emergency classification

b. Safety Event

c. Unusual Event

d. Alert

QUESTION B.08 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the MINIMUM staffing requirement when fuel relocations are scheduled to take place?

a. Licensed Reactor Operator

b. Licensed Reactor Operator and Senior Reactor Operator

c. Reactor Supervisor

d. Facility Director

QUESTION B.09 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the following events in accordance with WSU NSC Emergency Plan Classification [Safety Event Non-Reactor Related (SA), Unusual Event Reactor Related (UE), Alert (A)].

a. Earthquake directed toward the reactor facility.

b. Sabotage of the reactor with release of radioactive materials.

c. Experimenter spills radioactive material and the exposure levels are 15 mrem/hr at on foot.

d. Terrorist attempts to steal the reactor fuel.

QUESTION B.10 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following changes would require submittal to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission for approval prior to implementation?

a. Add a new limit to the pre-startup checklist procedure

b. Replace a primary coolant pump with an identical one Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

c. Delete section 6.3, Radiation Safety listed in the WSU Technical Specifications

d. Add responsibilities to the Radiation Safety Officer listed in the health physics procedures QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]

In accordance with 10 CFR 20, individual members of the public are limited to an annual TEDE of:

a. 50 mrem.

b. 100 mrem.

c. 500 mrem.

d. 5000 mrem.

QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

According to the WSU Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following is an example of a record to be retained for the lifetime of the reactor facility?

a. Reactor log book

b. Drawings of the reactor facility

c. Experiments performed with the reactor

d. Records of meeting and audit reports of the Reactor Safety Committee

QUESTION B.13 [1.0 point]

In the event of an In-Core Experiment Failure or Fuel Element Failure, what CAM reading level requires activation of the facility evacuation alarm and facility?

a. 5 x 10 4 CPM

b. 5 x 105 CPM

c. 6 x 103 CPM

d. 6 x 105 CPM

QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point]

You are currently a licensed operator at WSU. Which ONE of the following would be a violation of 10 CFR Part 55.53 Conditions of licenses?

a. Your last medical examination was 14 months ago.

b. Your last requalification operating test was 13 months ago.

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

c. Last quarter you were the licensed operator for 7 hours8.101852e-5 days 0.00194 hours 1.157407e-5 weeks 2.6635e-6 months .

d. The new requalification program cycle started 18 months ago.

QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point]

In accordance with WSU NSC Emergency Plan, during an emergency, which ONE of the following has the responsibility for authorizing volunteer emergency workers to incur radiation exposure in excess of normal occupation limits?

a. Senior Reactor Operator

b. Radiation Safety Officer

c. Emergency Coordinator

d. Emergency Director with concurrence of Radiation Safety Officer

QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point]

According to the WSU NSC Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following will require a report to the US NRC within 60 days?

a. Violation of a safety limit

b. Any reportable occurrence according to Section 1 of the Technical Specifications

c. A significant change in the transient or accident analysis as described in the Safety Analysis Report

d. An evaluation of facility performance to date in comparison with design predictions and specifications

QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point]

In order to ensure the health and safety of the public, 10 CFR 50.54(x) allows the operator to deviate from Technical Specifications in an emergency. What is the minimum level of authorization needed to deviate from Technical Specifications in accordance with 10 CFR 50.54(y)?

a. Reactor Director

b. Senior Reactor Operator

c. Radiation Laboratory Director

d. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point]

An experiment reading 30 rem/hr was removed from the reactor. Five hours later, it reads 10 rem/h. What is the half-life of the experiment?

a. 1.23 hours2.662037e-4 days 0.00639 hours 3.80291e-5 weeks 8.7515e-6 months

b. 3.15 hours1.736111e-4 days 0.00417 hours 2.480159e-5 weeks 5.7075e-6 months

c. 5.13 hours1.50463e-4 days 0.00361 hours 2.149471e-5 weeks 4.9465e-6 months

d. 6.98 hours0.00113 days 0.0272 hours 1.62037e-4 weeks 3.7289e-5 months

QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

In the event of a suspected fuel leak, which ONE of the following nuclides would be present?

a. N-16

b. Ar-41

c. Fe-60

d. Kr-85

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.01 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements best describes the operation of the three-way solenoid valve of the Transient Rod air system?

a. When the solenoid valve is de-energized, the vent port is closed. Air flows from the pneumatic cylinder back to the accumulator.

b. When the solenoid valve is energized, the supply port is opened and the actual port is closed. Air from the accumulator is vented through the vent port.

c. When the solenoid valve is de-energized, the vent (exhaust) port is closed, the supply port is opened and the actual port (to the cylinder) is opened. Air from the accumulator is continuously supplied to the pneumatic cylinder of the Transient Rod.

d. When the solenoid valve is energized, the vent (exhaust) port is closed, the supply port is opened and the actual port (to the cylinder) is opened. Air from the accumulator is continuously supplied to the pneumatic cylinder of the Transient Rod.

QUESTION C.02 [2.0 points, 0.50 each]

Match the input signals in Column A with their AUTOMATIC responses listed in Column B.

(Assume the reactor is in operation. Items in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all).

Column A Column B

a. Perform Pulse at 2 kW 1. Alarm only

b. Low Pool Level = 8 inches 2. Interlock

c. Linear High Flux. = 110% 3. Scram

d. Loss of CIC High Voltage

QUESTION C.03 [1.0 point]

In the event of a SECONDARY to PRIMARY heat exchanger leak, during reactor operation, which ONE of the following conditions correctly indicates this heat exchanger leak?

a. Pool water level will increase and pool water conductivity will increase

b. Pool water level will increase and pool water conductivity will decrease

c. Pool water level will decrease and pool water conductivity will increase

d. Pool water level will decrease and pool water conductivity will decrease Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.04 [1.0 point]

The reactor is stable at a reactor power of 100 kW. You receive an Exhaust Gas Monitor (EGM) alarm, what are your required actions?

a. Immediately secure the reactor and notify the Senior Reactor Operator on duty

b. Immediately secure the reactor and contact the Radiation Safety Officer on duty

c. Continue with the reactor operations, this is within normal limits, and deactivate the EGM alarm.

d. Continue reactor operations after isolation of the ventilation and notify the Senior Reactor Operator on duty.

QUESTION C.05 [1.0 point]

The figure below depicts which ONE of the following nuclear instrumentation detectors?

a. Fission Chamber

b. Geiger-Mueller Detector

c. Compensated Ion Chamber

d. Uncompensated Ion Chamber Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.06 [1.0 point]

In accordance with WSU NSC Technical Specifications, when the pulse mode is selected, which ONE of the following can cause a control rod interlock?

a. Pneumatic cylinder is UP and power level is at 2 kW

b. Control rod is DOWN and standard rod drive is DOWN

c. Transient rod is DOWN and pneumatic cylinder is DOWN

d. Pneumatic cylinder is UP and preset timer is set at 10 seconds

QUESTION C.07 [1.0 point]

You are currently operating the reactor. Which ONE of the following will result in an AUTOMATIC scram?

a. 2 kW pulse

b. fuel temperature is 515 oC

c. linear high voltage = 110%

d. low pool level = 8 inches

QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the MAIN purpose of the small flow holes at the bottom of the shroud?

a. increase the control rod speed during withdrawal

b. prevent corrosion on the control rods

c. allow water to cool the rod during shutdown

d. reduce the effects of viscous damping on the rod fall time

QUESTION C.09 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is a radioactive source that can be used to calibrate the Argon-41 monitor?

a. Carbon-14

b. Chlorine-36

c. Cesium-137 Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

d. Strontium-90 Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.10 [1.0 point]

While you are operating the reactor at 1 MW, you receive a Continuous Air Monitor (CAM) high alarm?

a. Immediately notify the radiation safety officer on duty

b. Continue with reactor operations and deactivate the CAM alarm

c. Isolate ventilation, continue reactor operations, and notify the senior reactor operator on duty

d. Immediately secure the reactor and notify the senior reactor operator on duty

QUESTION C.11 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the MAIN function performed by the discriminator in the log count rate of the Wide Range Log Channel?

a. To convert the signal from a fission counter to linear output over a range of 10-8 to 150% of full power.

b. To convert the logarithmic signal output of the circuit meter to a delta time output for period meter purposes.

c. To filter out small pulses due to gamma interactions, passing only pulses thru due to neutron events within the log count rate.

d. To generate a current signal equal and opposite of polarity as the signal due to gamma generated within the log count rate.

QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point]

While operating the reactor in steady state mode, which ONE of following indications does the NPP-1000 provide?

a. percent power only

b. percent power and energy (MW-sec)

c. percent power and 1 kW interlock

d. energy (MW-sec) and low count rate Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements best describes how the Wide Range fission chamber operates?

a. The fission chamber is lined with highly enriched U-238. Neutrons interact with the U-238 to produce fission, which ionize the fill gas. Gamms also ionize the fill gas. At low powers, the circuitry uses a pulse height discriminator to differentiate the neutrons from the gammas to provide an indication of reactor power.

b. The fission chamber is lined with highly enriched U-235. Neutrons interact with the U-235 to produce fission, which ionize the fill gas. Gammas also ionize the fill gas. At low powers, the circuitry uses a pulse height discriminator to differentiate the neutrons from the gammas to provide an indication of reactor power.

c. The fission chamber has two chambers, with one chamber filled with BF3 gas and the other filled with an inert gas. Neutrons fission with the Boron to produce alpha particles which ionize the gas. Gammas also ionize the fill gases in both chambers. The gamma signal is subtracted from the neutron signal to provide an indication off reactor power over the full range of operation.

d. The fission chamber lined with B-10. Neutrons fission with the B-10 to produce alpha particles which ionize the gas. Gammas also ionize the fill gas. The combined signal provides an indication of reactor power.

QUESTION C.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the MAIN purpose of the interlock to prevent withdrawal of more than one control rod at a time?

a. prevent damage of control rod drive system

b. prevent inadvertent large reactivity insertion

c. prevent initiation of a pulse during a reactor startup

d. prevent initiation of a pulse while on a positive period

QUESTION C.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following limit switches actuates when the piston reaches its lower limit of travel?

a. Rod UP

b. Drive UP

c. Rod DOWN

d. Drive DOWN Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.16 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is an indication of a clogged demineralizer?

a. high radiation at the demineralizer

b. high flow rate through the demineralizer

c. high pressure upstream of demineralizer

d. high radiation downstream of the demineralizer

QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following components is used to reduce the drive speed on the blade type control rods?

a. magnetic coupler

b. worm gear assembly

c. mechanical drive clutch

d. nut and ball bearing screw system

QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following ensures the reactor power level will return to a low level after the pulsing of the reactor?

a. preset timer

b. power level preventer

c. Input transmitter signal

d. coolant temperature flow reducer Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.19 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the MAIN reason for the requirement that the fuel temperature, as measured by the instrumented fuel rod, shall not be more than 10oC above the pool temperature during the fuel movement?

a. Maintain the fuel element cladding integrity

b. Ensure a lateral bending and an elongation of a fuel element are correctly measured

c. Ensure the fuel temperature increase will not cause any damage to the fuel measurement tool

d. Ensure the reactivity measurement to be made at low power, without having to correct for negative temperature coefficient contributions.

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

((********** END OF EXAMINATION **********))

Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

A.01 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Volume 2, Module 4, page 1-9

A.02 Answer: c

Reference:

CR=S/(1-k)360/(1-0.4) = 600 N/sec

A.03 Answer: c

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Volume 2, Module 2, page 50

A.04 Answer: a

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Volume 4, Section 7.2

A.05 Answer: b

Reference:

P/Po = 117%, T = 30 seconds, t = 0.5, P/Po = 117 e^0.5/30 = 118.97% = 119%

A.06 Answer: a. 4; b. 2; c. 1; d. 3

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Volume 1, Module 1

A.07 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Volume 2, Module 3, page 6

A.08 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Volume 1, Module 1 & 2

A.09 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Volume 2, Module 3, page 3

A.10 Answer: d

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Volume 2, Section 3.3.2

A.11 Answer: c

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Volume 3, Section 6.2

A.12 Answer: c

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Volume, 2, Section 3.3.4, eff1*k=(keff2-keff1)/(keff2) = (0.845-0.811)/(0.845*0.811) = 0.0496k/k=4.96%k/k Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

A.13 Answer: d

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Volume 4, Section 7.7

A.14 Answer: a. Fertile; b. Fissile; c. Fertile; d. Fissile

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Volume 2, Section 3.2

A.15 Answer: c

Reference:

LaMarsh, Introduction to Nuclear Engineering, 3 rd Edition, page 87

A.16 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Volume 3, Section 2.2

A.17 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Volume 2, Module 2

A.18 Answer: c

Reference:

CR1 / CR2 = (1 - Keff2) / (1 - Keff1) 515 / 170 = (1 - Keff2) / (1 - 0.581) 2.94285714 = (1 - Keff2) / 0.419 1.23305714 = 1 - Keff2 Therefore Keff2 = -0.23305714

= (K eff2 - Keff1) / (Keff2

Keff1)

= (-0.23305714 - 0.581) / (-0.23305714

0.581)

= 6.01196356 = 6.012

A.19 Answer: a. Reflector; b. Poison; c. Absorber; d. Reflector

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Volume 2, Module 3 & 4

A.20 Answer: d

Reference:

P=Poet/Tt=T*ln(P/Po) assume constant period=1; smallest ratio of P/P o is the shortest to complete; 6/1=6; 20/10=2; 35/20=1.75; 60/40=1.5 So, 1.5 is smallest

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

B.01 Answer: c

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1003

B.02 Answer: a. ; b. +; c. n; d. -

Reference:

Chart of Nuclides

B.03 Answer: c

Reference:

WSU NSC Emergency Plan 3.3

B.04 Answer: b

Reference:

10CFR20.1201(a)(1) [5000 mr x 1 hr x day] = 6.25 days = MAXIMUM 6 days; 100 mr

8 hr B.05 Answer: c

Reference:

10 CFR 55.53(f)(2)

B.06 Answer: a. Test; b. Check; c. Cal; d. Test

Reference:

WSU NSC Technical Specifications Definitions

B.07 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU NSC Emergency Plan 5.3

B.08 Answer: b

Reference:

WSU Technical Specifications 6.2

B.09 Answer: a. UE; b. A; c. SE or SA; d. A

Reference:

WSU NSC Emergency Plan 5.1, 5.2, and 5.3

B.10 Answer: c

Reference:

WSU Technical Specifications changes require an amendment

B.11 Answer: b

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1301

B.12 Answer: b

Reference:

WSU Technical Specifications 6.9.2

B.13 Answer: a

Reference:

WSU NSC Implementing Procedures 15.2 & 16.2 Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

B.14 Answer: b

Reference:

10 CFR 55.59(a)(1)

B.15 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU NSC Emergency Plan 3.5

B.16 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU NSC Implementing Procedures 3.4

B.17 Answer: b

Reference:

10 CFR 50.54(y)

B.18 Answer: b

Reference:

DR=DR,T1 = 0.693 0

2 DR = DR0 e-.693/T1/2 10 = 30 e-(.693)(5)/T1/2 0.33 = e-(.693)(5)/T1/2 ln(0.33) = ln(e-(.693)(5)/T1/2)

-1.099 = -3.465 / T1/2 T1/2 = -3.465 / -1.099 T1/2 = 3.15 hr

B.19 Answer: d

Reference:

NRC standard question

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

C.01 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU NSC SAR 4.2.2, Control Element Drive

C.02 Answer: a. 2; b. 1; c. 1; d. 3

Reference:

WSU NSC Technical Specifications Table 3.2 & 3.3

C.03 Answer: a

Reference:

WSU NSC SAR 5.3 & 5.4

C.04 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU SOP-15, Section C.e Exhaust Gas Monitor

C.05 Answer: c

Reference:

Standard NRC question

C.06 Answer: a

Reference:

WSU NSC Technical Specifications Table 3.3

C.07 Answer: b

Reference:

WSU NSC Technical Specifications Table 3.2

C.08 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU NSC SAR 4.2.2

C.09 Answer: c

Reference:

WSU NSC SOP 7, B.4

C.10 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU NSC SOP 15, C.2.d.2

C.11 Answer: c

Reference:

WSU NSC SAR Figure 7-4

C.12 Answer: a

Reference:

WSU NSC SAR 4.5.10

C.13 Answer: b

Reference:

NRC standard question C.14 Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

Answer: b

Reference:

WSU NSC Technical Specifications 3.2.3 C.15 Answer: c

Reference:

WSU NSC SAR 4.2.2 W

C.16 Answer: c

Reference:

NRC standard question

C.17 Answer: b

Reference:

WSU NSC SAR 4.2.2

C.18 Answer: a

Reference:

WSU NSC Technical Specifications Table 3.2

C.19 Answer: d

Reference:

WSU NSC SOP 25, A.9

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

((********** END OF EXAMINATION **********))

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