ML16152A328

Draft Written Exam with Answer Key

ML16152A328
Person / Time
Site:	Diablo Canyon
Issue date:	04/15/2016
From:	Vincent Gaddy Operations Branch IV
To:	Pacific Gas & Electric Co
References
Download: ML16152A328 (149)

Text

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Diablo Canyon RO Written Examination Applicant Information Name: ANSWER KEY Date: 15 April, 2016 Facility/Unit: Diablo Canyon Region: I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination, you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent. Examination papers will be collected 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> after the examination begins.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results Examination Value __________ Points Applicants Score __________ Points Applicants Grade __________ Percent

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Diablo Canyon SRO Written Examination Applicant Information Name:ANSWER KEY Date: 15 April, 2016 Facility/Unit: Diablo Canyon Region: I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets.

To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items. Examination papers will be collected 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after the examination begins.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results RO/SRO-Only/Total Examination Values / / Points Applicants Scores / / Points Applicants Grade / / Percent

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Multiple Choice (Fill in your choice) NAME:__ANSWER KEY__

If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank and initial.

1. A B C D 26. A B C D

2. A B C D 27. A B C D

3. A B C D 28. A B C D

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25. A B C D 50. A B C D Page i

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Multiple Choice (Fill in your choice) NAME:_ANSWER KEY__

If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank and initial.

51. A B C D 76. A B C D

52. A B C D 77. A B C D

53. A B C D 78. A B C D

54. A B C D 79. A B C D

55. A B C D 80. A B C D

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99. A B C D

75. A B C D 100. A B C D DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 003 A3.05 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RCPS, Tier # 2 including: RCP lube oil and bearing lift pumps Group # 1 K/A # 003 A3.05 Rating 2.7 Question 01 The control room operator starts the lift oil pump for RCP 1-1.

One minute later, the operator attempts to start RCP 1-1 and notes RCP 1-1 red light is OFF and the green light is LIT.

This indication is:

A. unexpected. This in an indication that lift oil pressure is less than the interlock pressure of 255 psig.

B. expected. The lift oil pump must run for a minimum of 2 minutes prior to starting the RCP.

C. unexpected. This in an indication that lift oil pressure is less than the interlock pressure of 800 psig.

D. expected. The lift oil pump must run for a minimum of 4 minutes prior to starting the RCP.

Proposed Answer: B. expected. The lift oil pump must run for a minimum of 2 minutes prior to starting the RCP.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The oil lift pump must run for 2 minutes and oil pressure greater than 500 psig before the pump will start. 255 psid is the minimum dp for starting and RCP.

B. Correct. The oil lift pump must run for 2 minutes and oil pressure greater than 500 psig before the pump will start.

C. Incorrect: Oil lift pressure must be at least 500 psig to be able to start the RCP.

D. Incorrect. Time is two minutes, not four.

Technical

References:

LA6, page 26 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 35738 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the RCP Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #S-47185 X New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 004 A1.06 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in Tier # 2 parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with Group # 1 operating the CVCS controls including: VCT level K/A # 004 A1.06 Rating 3.0 Question 02 Unit 1 reactor is at full power with the plant in a normal lineup.

VCT level transmitter LT-112 fails to 90% level.

Actual VCT level will start to lower and will continue to lower until the actual VCT level reaches:

A. 14%. Auto makeup will raise VCT level until the actual level reaches 24%.

B. 14%. Auto makeup will raise VCT level until the actual level reaches 87%.

C. 5%. An automatic swap over to the RWST will occur.

D. 0%. An automatic swap over to the RWST will NOT occur.

Proposed Answer: D. 0%. An automatic swap over to the RWST will NOT occur.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Auto makeup will not occur because it is controlled by the failed channel which is failed high. Plausible because it may be thought that channel L-111 will cause auto makeup when actual VCT level lowers to 14%, in which case auto makeup would automatically stop at 24%.

B. Incorrect. Auto makeup will not occur because it is controlled by the failed channel which is failed high. Plausible because it may be thought that channel L-111 will cause auto makeup when actual VCT level lowers to 14%, and it may not be realized that letdown is already diverted.

C. Incorrect. An automatic swap over to the RWST will NOT occur because it requires both level channels at 5%. Plausible because 5% is the setpoint that causes auto swap over, and after a few minutes of borated water addition, RCS temperature would be seen to lower.

D. Correct. L112 indication exceeds the 87% trip open signal setpoint for LCV-112A (letdown is diverted to radwaste) causing VCT level to drop. Auto makeup would not occur because that is controlled by LT112, which is failed high. Level continues to drop until the VCT is empty. Auto transfer to the RWST does not occur because it requires both channels L112 and L114 at 5%.

Technical

References:

OIM B-1-4; LB-1A CVCS Rev 16, page 31 of 81 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40449 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the CVCS Question Source: Bank # S-86165 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 005 K1.12 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Tier # 2 effect relationships between the RHRS and the following systems: Group # 1 Safeguard pumps K/A # 005 K2.12 Rating 3.1 Question 03 A large break LOCA occurred on Unit 1. The operators have begun aligning for cold leg recirculation.

When attempting to open 8804A, RHR Heat Exchanger 1-1 Discharge to Charging and SI Pumps Suction valve, it will not open from the Control Room.

Which of the following would be preventing 8804A from opening?

A. 8982A, RHR Pump 1-1 Suction from Containment Recirculation Sump valve, is open.

B. 8974A & B, SI Pump Recirc valves, are open.

C. 8701, Loop 4 Hot Leg supply valve to RHR, is closed.

D. One train of Phase A did not reset.

Proposed Answer: B. 8974A & B, SI Pump Recirc valves, are open.

Explanation: purpose of 8804A/B (RHRS) is to provide the ability to supply the suction of the SI Pumps and CCPs (safeguard pumps) with cooled RHR system water.

A. Incorrect. 8982A open would allow 8804A to open. Plausible because 8982A is interlocked with 8804A.

B. Correct. 8974A open would allow transfer of containment sump water to be diverted to the RWST. Interlocks are provided to prevent transferring either containment sump or RCS water to the RWST, and to ensure that the RHR is in SI recirc alignment. To open 8804A requires 1) 8701 or 8702 closed, 2) 8974A or B closed, and 3) 8982A and B to be open.

C. Incorrect. 8701 closed would allow 8804A to open. Plausible because 8701 is interlocked with 8804A and prevents opening if 8701 and 8702 are open.

D. Incorrect. Phase A is not interlocked with 8804A or B. Plausible because there are other components, such as FCV-584, which are positioned by phase A that, if it was not reset, would be prohibited from being positioned manually from the control room.

Technical

References:

LB-2, LK-1, OIM page B-3-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the RHR System. (35317)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 005 K6.03 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the Tier # 2 following will have on the RHRS: RHR heat exchanger Group # 1 K/A # 005 K6.03 Rating 2.5 Question 04 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is in MODE 5

• Both trains for RHR are in service

• Total RHR flow is 3000 gpm (both RHR pumps running)

Instrument air pressure to HCV-637, 1-2 RHR Heat Exchanger outlet valve, has just been lost.

RHR flow to loop 3 and 4 cold legs will:

A. rise.

B. lower to zero.

C. remain the same.

D. lower to about half its original value.

Proposed Answer: A. rise.

Explanation:

A. Correct. RHR heat exchanger outlet valves (HCV-637 and 638) are fail open valves. With HCV-637 open (to its stop) flow can rise to ³ 3976 gpm and < 4319 gpm. Flow to the loops will rise.

B. Incorrect. HCV-637 will fail open raising flow. Plausible because it may be thought that the valve will fail closed on loss of air.

C. Incorrect. HCV-637 will fail open raising flow. Plausible because it may be thought that the Heat Exchanger 1-1 valves supply those loops.

D. Incorrect. HCV-637 will fail open raising flow. Plausible because it may be thought that both Heat Exchangers supply all loops and when HCV-637 fails closed, flow will be reduced by half.

Technical

References:

LB-2 Residual Heat Removal System Rev 18 page 20; OIM B-3-1 ECCS Composite Drawing References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the RHR system (20950)

Question Source: Bank # A-1008 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 006 A3.08 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the ECCS, Tier # 2 including: Automatic transfer of ECCS flowpaths Group # 1 K/A # 006 A3.08 Rating 4.2 Question 05 Safety Injection has actuated.

The following indications are noted on Safety Injection portion of Monitor Light Box C:

• 8107 ON

• 8108 OFF

• 8801A OFF

• 8801B ON

• 8803A OFF

• 8803B ON Notes:

1. 8107, 8108: Normal Charging Line isolation valves

2. 8801A, 8801B, 8803A, 8803B: Charging Injection isolation valves Which of the following are represented by these indications?

NORMAL CHARGING CHARGING INJECTION A. Isolated In service B. Isolated Isolated C. In service In service D. In service Isolated Proposed Answer: A. Isolated; In service Explanation:

A. Correct. White Lights OFF indicate valves are in their required position for SI. Normal Charging isolation valves are in series, only one is required closed to isolate the flowpath (either 8107 or 8108 OFF will satisfy this). 8807B is off, so normal charging is isolated.

Charging Injection isolation valves are aligned in parallel pairs which are in series (8801A and B in parallel with each other. These are in series with 8803A and B which are also in parallel with each other). A flowpath exists if at least one of the 8801s and one of the 8803s are open (White Lights OFF). 8801A and 8803A are open so an open flowpath exists, charging injection is in service.

B. Incorrect because charging injection is in service. Plausible because the light indications could be misinterpreted.

C. Incorrect because normal charging is isolated. Plausible because the light indications could be misinterpreted.

D. Incorrect because normal charging is isolated and charging injection is in service. Plausible DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 because the light indications could be misinterpreted.

Technical

References:

EOP E-0, Appendix E; EOP E-1, Appendix P pages 25, 26, 27, picture MLB C.

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the operation of the Emergency Core Cooling System. (8051)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 006 A4.08 ECCS Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in Tier # 2 the control room: ESF system, including reset Group # 1 K/A # 006 A4.08 Rating 4.2 Question 06 The crew is responding to a LOCA.

The SFM directs an operator to reset SI.

After the operator resets SI, which of the following would indicate that one train of SI had NOT reset?

PK08-21, PK08-22, SI Actuation Auto SI Blocked A. OFF OFF B. ON ON C. OFF ON D. ON OFF Proposed Answer: B. ON / ON Explanation:

Answer: (PK08-21 and PK08-22 both ON). PK08-21 ON tells you that at least one of the trains of SI is actuated. PK08-22 ON tells you that at least one train of SI has been blocked/reset. If both trains had reset, PK08-21 would go OFF with PK08-22 staying ON. If both alarms are on, the operator is directed to use OP B-6B to locally reset SI at the cabinets.

D1 (Both OFF): Incorrect because this would indicate neither train was actuated, nor neither train is blocked. Plausible because it may be thought that both trains must be actuated to cause PK08-21, and both trains must be reset to cause PK08-22.

D2 (PK08-21 ON, -22 OFF): Incorrect because PK08-22 would be ON if either train of SI was reset. Plausible because it may be thought that both trains must be reset to cause PK08-22.

D3 (PK08-21 OFF, -22 ON): Incorrect because PK08-21 would be ON because one train is still actuated. Plausible because it may be thought that both trains of SI must be actuated to cause PK08-21.

Technical

References:

Operator Information Manual page B-6-5; LPE1B, page 44.

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Given an industry event, assess DCPP applicability with regard to DCPP design, operation, and improving operator performance. (41844)

Question Source: Bank # A-1036 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 007 G2.1.20 - PRT: Ability to interpret and execute procedure Tier # 2 steps. Group # 2 K/A # 007 G2.1.20 Rating 4.6 Question 07 GIVEN:

• A leaking Pressurizer PORV has been isolated by the crew

• PK05-25, PRT PRESS LVL/TEMP is in alarm due to high PRT temperature (140°F)

• PRT level (62%) and pressure (7 psig) are slowly rising In accordance with AR PK05-25, PRT PRESS/LVL/TEMP, PRT temperature is lowered by:

A. venting the PRT to the Vent Header.

B. filling the PRT using primary water, then draining, if required, to the RCDT.

C. draining the PRT to the Containment Structure Sump, refilling with primary water to the high level alarm, and draining again.

D. ensuring RCS-1-PCV-472, PRT Vent to Vent Header, closes.

Answer: B. filling the PRT using primary water, then draining, if required, to the RCDT.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Plausible. The temperature is lowered by adding primary water to the PRT.

Isolating the leaking PORV would prevent a further increase in the temperature.

B. Correct - In accordance with the AR PK step 2.1.6, primary water introduction is used to cool the quench volume, once quenched, the PRT is drained if level is high.

C. Incorrect - The volume is cooled first with primary water and then drained, not vice versa.

D. This is an automatic action that occurs at 10 psig and has no effect on cooling the PRT.

Technical

References:

AR PK05-25 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40576 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the PRT system Question Source: Bank # X (L081 NRC Q6)

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 (7)

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 008 K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Tier # 2 the CCWS will have on the following: Loads cooled by CCWS Group # 1 K/A # 008 K3.01 Rating 3.4 Question 08 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power in a normal lineup

• One CCW heat exchanger is in service

• Containment temperature is 80°F

• Spent Fuel Pool temperature is 85°F CCW heat exchanger outlet temperature is 95°F and rising. The crew is going to reduce CCW loads in accordance with OP AP-11, Malfunction of Component Cooling Water system, Appendix B, CCW Heat Load Isolation.

Which of the following CCW heat loads could the operators isolate to lower CCW temperature while the unit is at power?

A. Spent Fuel Pool Heat Exchanger B. RHR Heat Exchanger C. Seal Water Heat Exchanger D. RCP oil coolers Proposed Answer: C. Seal Water Heat Exchanger Explanation:

A. Incorrect. SFP heat exchanger may act as a heat sink and should not be isolated.

B. Incorrect. while the RHR heat exchangers, could be isolated at power, it would not have any affect on lowering CCW temperature.

C. Correct. CCW isolated and excess letdown placed in service.

D. Incorrect. Not isolated.

Technical

References:

OP AP-11 Appendix B References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe CCW System components: Vital Header B Question Source: Bank # L091 NRC Q33 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 010 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Tier # 2 malfunctions or operations on the PZR PCS; and (b) based on Group # 1 those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate K/A # 010 A2.02 the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Spray Rating 3.9 valve failures Question 09 Unit 1 is operating steady state at 100% power when Turbine Governor Valve #4 fails closed.

At the onset of the transient, the Control Operator notices that HC-455K, Pressurizer Pressure Master Controller has failed to MANUAL.

In accordance with AP-13, Malfunction of Reactor Pressure Control System, and AP-5, Malfunction of Eagle 21 Protection or Control Channel, the Control Operator should ________

the output (demand) of HC-455K to __________ Pressurizer pressure.

A. raise; raise B. raise; lower C. lower; raise D. lower; lower Proposed Answer: B. raise; lower Explanation:

A. (Raise output, raise pressure) Incorrect because pressure will go high in response to the partial load rejection. Output should be raised to lower pressure. Plausible because raising output is the correct response, however the response of pressure to the initial transient may be misunderstood.

B. (Raise output, lower pressure) Correct. AP-5 step 1 RNO 1.a directs taking manual control of systems that are not responding correctly in automatic and restoring the parameter to normal operating limits. AP-13 step 7.a directs using manual control to restore pressure to normal. Pressure control should be taken to manual and an attempt made to lower Pressurizer Pressure using the controller and normal sprays. Raising the output of PC-455K results in an increased signal to the individual spray valve controllers, which should cause the valves to open.

C. (Lower output, raise pressure) Incorrect because lowering PC-455K output would prevent the spray valves from opening and turn on pressurizer heaters, which would increase Pressurizer Pressure. Plausible because lowering the output would raise pressure, and the response of pressure to the initial transient may be misunderstood.

D. (Lower output, lower pressure) Incorrect because lowering PC-455K output would prevent the spray valves from opening and turn on pressurizer heaters, which would increase Pressurizer Pressure. Plausible because lowering pressure is the correct objective, and it may seem proper to lower its output to lower pressure.

Technical

References:

AP-13 , AP-5, LA-4A page 33.

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Pressurizer, Pressure & Level Control System. (36924)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.5, 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO K5.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following Tier # 2 concepts as the apply to the RPS: DNB Group # 1 K/A # 012 K5.01 Rating 3.3 Question 10 Which of the following lists includes two reactor trips which protect against DNB?

A. Overpower T, Loop Low Flow B. Overpower T, Low PZR Pressure C. Overtemperature T, Loop Low Flow D. Overtemperature T, Power Range Hi Flux Proposed Answer: C. Overtemperature T, Loop Low Flow Explanation:

A. Incorrect because the OPT Trip does not protect against DNB. Plausible because loop flow flow is DNB related.

B. Incorrect because the OPT Trip does not protect against DNB. Plausible because low pressure is DNB related.

C. Correct. The trips which protect against DNB are:

• Overtemperature T

• Loop Low Flow

• RCP Breaker

• RCP Bus Undervoltage

• RCP Bus Underfrequency

• PZR Low Pressure D. Incorrect PR high flux does not protect against DNB. Plausible because OTT is DNB related.

Technical

References:

OIM B-6-4a, -4b References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe Reactor Protection System components. (7373)

Question Source: Bank # P-23676 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.13 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 013 K6.01 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the Tier # 2 following will have on the ESFAS: Sensors and detectors Group # 1 K/A # 013 Rating 2.7 Question 11 GIVEN:

• Unit 2 is at 100% power

• A Containment pressure channel that inputs to High Containment Pressure SI and Containment Spray is declared inoperable

• The remaining Containment pressure channels remain OPERABLE

• Required actions per OP AP-5, U1&2, Malfunction of Eagle 21 Protection, have been completed

• To meet the Technical Specification LCO for the failed channel:

o The "High Containment" pressure bistable is placed in "TRIP" o The "High-High Containment Pressure" bistable is placed in "BYPASS" The MINIMUM remaining coincidences for ESF actuations from the remaining OPERABLE Containment pressure channels are:

Safety Containment Injection Spray A. 1/2 2/2 B. 1/2 2/3 C. 2/3 1/2 D. 2/3 2/3 Proposed Answer: B. 1/2 & 2/3 Explanation:

A. Incorrect. High Containment Pressure SI actuation is 2 of 3 channels and Containment Spray is 2 of 4 channels. The remaining coincidence is then 1 of 2 for SI and 2 of 3 for Containment Spray because the bistable for the failed channel is in bypass, not trip. This answer could be true if it is thought that both are 2 of 3, with one in bypass, it would require the remaining 2 to cause actuation.

B. Correct. High pressure is the SI bistable, and in trip. the remaining coincidence is 1 of the 2 remaining channels. High-high is normally 2 of 4. With one channel in BYPASS, the coincidence is reduced to 2 of 3.

C. Incorrect. SI coincidence is normally 2 of 3, while Containment Spray is 2 of 4. If believes the logic is 2/4 and 2/3, (the logic is reversed), this answer is correct.

D. Incorrect. This would be correct if the candidate assumes the 4 channels input to both DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 signals. This would cause actuation, but is not the minimum coincidence.

Technical

References:

OIM pages B-6-5 and B-6-8, Technical Specification 3.3.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 41313 - Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Eagle-21/SSPS Question Source: Bank # (L091C NRC Q10) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 013 ESFASA4.02 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in Group # 1 the control room: Reset of ESFAS channels K/A # 013 A4.02 Rating 4.3 Question 12 GIVEN:

• The crew is performing the actions of E-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, following a trip due to a seismic event

• Both reactor trip breakers are open

• RCS temperature is 547°F The operator depresses the FDWTR ISOL RESET pushbuttons on VB3.

What is the response of the following indications?

Monitor Light Box C PK09-11, FWI Red light Feedwater Isolation A. Goes OUT Stays LIT B. Goes OUT Goes OUT C. Stays LIT Stays LIT D. Stays LIT Goes OUT Proposed Answer: B. Goes OUT Goes OUT Explanation:

• P-4 (reactor trip and bypass breakers being open) with 2 of 4 loop Tave <554°, causes a feedwater isolation alarm PK 09-11. This causes FRVs and FRV bypass valves to close. The red FWI light will illuminate for monitor light box C. This signal can be manually reset even if the 2 signals are still present.

• If no SI or P-14 signal was received the FWI signal can be reset by simply pressing the manual reset buttons (even if the trip breakers are still open and Tave still <554°. PK 09-11 will clear and the red FWI light will go out. The FRVs or bypass valves can now be opened normally.

A. Incorrect because the PK will also go out, since no SI signal is present.

B. Correct. The FWI red light and PK will go out.

C. Incorrect because both the red light and annunciator will go out.

D. Incorrect because the FWI red light will go out.

Technical

References:

LB-6A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Reactor Protection System. Feed water Isolation Actuation Signals Question Source: Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 022 K1.01 - Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 1 effect relationships between the CCS and the following systems: K/A # 022 K1.01 SWS/cooling system Rating 3.5 Question 13 Which of the following lists ALL Unit 2 Containment Fan Coolers cooled by CCW Vital Header A?

A. 2-1 and 2-2 B. 2-3 and 2-4 C. 2-1, 2-2 and 2-5 D. 2-3, 2-4 and 2-5 Proposed Answer: B. 2-3 and 2-4 Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 2-1 and 2-2 are two of the three on header B.

B. Correct. Only two CFCUs are cooled by header B, 2-3 and 2-4 C. Incorrect. These three are cooled by header A D. Incorrect. 2-3 and 2-4 are cooled by header B, but 2-5 is cooled by header B.

Technical

References:

LH-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe CFCU components.

• Component Cooling Water Supply (37580)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 026 K4.06 - Knowledge of CSS design feature(s) and/or Group # 1 interlock(s) which provide for the following: Iodine scavenging K/A # 026 K4.06 via the CSS Rating 2.8 Question 14 A design basis LOCA has occurred and containment pressure has risen above the containment spray setpoint.

Which of the following describes the minimum valve alignment to ensure sufficient sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is delivered?

NaOH To CS Eductor Containment Spray Discharge Valves (CS-8994A & B) Valves (CS-9001A & B)

A. Both OPEN Both OPEN B. At least one OPEN Both OPEN C. Both OPEN At least one OPEN D. At least one OPEN At least one OPEN Proposed Answer: D. At least one OPEN / At least one OPEN Explanation:

The valves are in parallel, and only one train is required, therefore, only one of each is required.

If its believed one set or the other is in series or both trains are required, the other options are plausible.

A. Incorrect. Only one train of spray is required. Both the educator valves and the discharge valves are in parallel, either one open is what is required.

B. Incorrect. Only one of each is required.

C. Incorrect. Only one train required, D. Correct. Only one of each are required.

Technical

References:

LI-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Containment Spray System. (40804)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 026 G2.4.11 - Containment Spray - Knowledge of abnormal Group # 1 condition procedures. K/A # 026 G2.4.11 Rating 4.0 Question 15 GIVEN:

• A design basis LOCA has occurred

• Containment Spray is in operation Which of the following alarms would be UNEXPECTED?

1. PK01-17 CFCU DRAIN LEVEL HI

2. PK01-19, SPRAY ADD TANK LEVEL LOW

3. PK01-20, CONTMT SPRAY PUMPS A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 3 only Proposed Answer: D. 3 only Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The LOCA will cause the high level alarm to occur.

B. Incorrect. The LOCA will cause the high level alarm to occur. The spray pump alarm should not occur.

C. Incorrect. The LOCA will cause the drain level alarm. Depletion of the NaOH will cause the alarm.

D. Correct. The alarm only occurs if there are problems with the pumps (OC or high bearing temperatures).

Technical

References:

PK01-17, 19 and 20, LOCA SBT page 172 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37578 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the CSS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 039 K1.04 - Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 1 effect relationships between the MRSS and the following systems: K/A # 039 K1.04 RCS temperature monitoring and control Rating 3.1 Question 16 The plant is being cooled down from minimum load to cold shutdown per OP L-5, Plant Cooldown From Minimum Load to Cold Shutdown.

When 2 of 4 _______ channels reach 543°F, the operator may bypass steam dump group(s)

A. Tcold; I only B. Tavg; I only C. Tcold; I and IV D. Tavg; I and IV Proposed Answer: B. Tavg; I only Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Tcolds are used to trend RCS temperature when RCPs are not running, however, for P-12, Tavg is always used, regardless of RCP status.

B. Correct. Tavg is the input to close ALL steam dumps. Only the group I valves are used to continue the cooldown by using the bypass interlock.

C. Incorrect. Tavg is used.

D. Incorrect. The group IV valves do go closed at P-12 and can be used by using their individual controllers, but they are not enabled to work by bypassin P-12.

Technical

References:

LC-2B References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37810 -Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Steam Dump System Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 059 A1.03 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 1 effect relationships between the MFW and the following systems: K/A # 059 A1.03 Power level restrictions for operation of MFW pumps and valves Rating 2.7 Question 17 Unit 2 is at 10% power.

At 10% power, _______ steam supplies the Main Feedwater pump and the _______ valves control feed flow.

A. HP; Main Feedwater Regulating B. HP; Feedwater Regulating Bypass C. LP; Main Feedwater Regulating D. LP; Feedwater Regulating Bypass Proposed Answer: B. HP; Feedwater Regulating Bypass Explanation:

A. Incorrect. at low power, the LP valves are full open but there is not enough pressure to run the MFP, the HP valves open to supply steam to the MFP. At this power, main feedwater is still on the bypass valves.

B. Correct. at low power, the LP valves are full open but there is not enough pressure to run the MFP, the HP valves open to supply steam to the MFP. At this power, main feedwater is still on the bypass valves.

C. Incorrect. While the LP valves are open, they are not supplying steam pressure for pump operation.

D. Incorrect. While the LP valves are open, they are not supplying steam pressure for pump operation.

Technical

References:

LC-8A, OP L-3, OP L-4 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 4966 - Describe the operation of the MFW system Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.13 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 061 K5.01 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the Group # 1 following concepts as they apply to AFW: Relationship between K/A # 061 K5.01 AFW flow and RCS heat transfer Rating 3.6 Question 18 An operator is performing Appendix E, ESF Auto Actions, Secondary and Auxiliaries Status, of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

At step 9 of Appendix E, the operator checks that AFW flow is at least 435 gpm.

The basis for this minimum AFW flow requirement is to:

A. remove RCS decay heat.

B. maintain SG water level in the narrow range.

C. make up for the initial shrink in SG water level.

D. minimize RCS cooldown.

Proposed Answer: A. remove RCS decay heat.

Explanation:

A. Correct - AFW flow is necessary for secondary heat sink. If SG level is in the narrow range in at least one SG, a heat sink is available. Therefore, AFW flow is needed only to maintain level. If adequate AFW flow for decay heat removal cannot be established, the transition to the FR-H.1, RESPONSE TO LOSS OF SECONDARY HEAT SINK, is necessary to establish an alternate source of feed flow or an alternate heat sink.

B. Incorrect - While the SG level will initially shrink, it is not the basis for the AFW flow requirement.

C. Incorrect - SG level may shrink out of the narrow range but this is not the reason for the minimum AFW flow rate.

D. Incorrect - once a heat sink is established, the operator takes control of AFW to control the RCS cooldown.

Technical

References:

E-0 App E & Background Document References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 8430 - Explain significant Auxiliary Feed Water System design features and the importance to nuclear safety.

Question Source: Bank # L111 #15 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams Yes DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 061 A3.04 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the AFW, Group # 1 including: Automatic AFW isolation K/A # 061 A3.04 Rating 4.1 Question 19 Unit 2 trips from full power. All AFW pumps start.

Five minutes after the reactor trip, PT-433, AFW Pp 2-2 discharge pressure transmitter, is reading zero. There are no PCS alarms.

LCV-110 and LCV-111 will indicate:

A. 100% valve position; the "LCV-110 and LCV-111 Pp Running Intlk Byp C/O" switch should be cut in to allow control of these valves.

B. 100% valve position; the controllers should be taken to Manual to restore control of these valves.

C. 0% valve position; the valves will need to be operated locally.

D. 0% valve position; the controllers should be taken to Manual to restore control of these valves.

Proposed Answer: D. 0% valve position; the controllers should be taken to Manual to restore control of these valves.

Explanation:

PT-433 monitors AFW pump 22 discharge pressure for runout protection. When the pressure signal fails low, the low pressure is converted to a simulated high level signal. The high select circuit applies this signal to the level controller and a signal is sent to close level control valves LCV-110 and 111. Note: Placing the hand controller on the vertical board in manual will regain control of the valves.

A. Incorrect. It is unnecessary to cut in the pump breaker interlock bypass because the pump is running (breaker is closed - interlock is satisfied) and power is therefore applied to the LCVs.

B. Incorrect. Valves close C. Incorrect. power is available to the valves, local operation is not necessary.

D. Correct. The PT provides actual pump discharge pressure to the control circuit. The control circuit converts the pump discharge pressure signal to an equivalent valve position limit signal (low pressure of 1065 psig will limit valve full closed, high pressure of 1203 psig will limit valve full open). This signal (demand) is sent to the low select circuit. This input is used as run out protection for the pump, and will cause the valve to close on low pump discharge pressure. The end result is 0% valve position (approximately, may be a negative number) indicating that the valves are closed.

Technical

References:

LD-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37635 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Auxiliary Feed Water System.

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016

• MDAFW Pump LCVs LCV-110, LCV-111, LCV-113, and LCV-115 Question Source: Bank #A-0692 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 062 A2.05 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 1 malfunctions or operations on the ac distribution system; and (b) K/A # 062 A2.05 based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or Rating 2.9 mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Methods for energizing a dead bus Question 20 GIVEN:

• The crew is performing the actions of ECA-0.0, Loss of All Vital AC Power

• PK16-15, DSL GEN 11 SHUTDOWN RELAY TRIP, is lit due to Diesel Generator 1-1 trip on overspeed when off site power was lost

• Maintenance on the diesel has been completed and the diesel is available to start

• The diesel control switch is in AUTO

• The output breaker for Diesel Generator (D/G) 1-1 is open An operator is performing ECA-0.3, Restore 4 kV Buses.

Which of the following is the expected response of diesel generator and its output breaker when the operator presses the D/G Shutdown Rly and Alarm Reset pushbutton on Vertical Board 4?

A. The diesel will start automatically and then the output breaker will automatically close.

B. The diesel will start automatically; the output breaker will remain open and must be closed locally after the diesel starts.

C. The diesel will not start but can now be started in MANUAL; the output breaker will then automatically close after the diesel starts.

D. The diesel will not start but can now be started in MANUAL; the output breaker will remain open but can be closed by the operator after the diesel starts and is up to rated speed and voltage.

Proposed Answer: A. The diesel will start automatically and then the output breaker will automatically close.

Explanation:

A. Correct. Once the relay is reset, the diesel will start due to the automatic transfer to diesel signal still present. When the diesel starts, the breaker will automatically close.

B. Incorrect. The breaker will close automatically once the diesel is up to speed.

C. Incorrect. If the candidate believes that simply resetting the relay only removes the block and allows the diesel to be started.

D. Incorrect. If it is believed the diesel must be manually started, then the need to manually close the breaker is also a possibility.

Technical

References:

LJ-15, PK16-15, ECA-0.3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37725 - Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Diesel Generator System Question Source: Bank #10 NRC L091 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 063 K2.01 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Group # 1 Major DC loads K/A # 063 K2.01 Rating 2.9 Question 21 GIVEN:

• Vital DC Bus 1-2 is de-energized.

• 480V bus G is de-energized.

What effect, if any, will this event have on the capability of the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feed Pump 1-1 to automatically start and feed all four Steam Generators?

A. No effect, AFW Pump 1-1 and associated LCVs will still function normally.

B. AFW Pump 1-1 is capable of an auto start, but all associated LCVs are de-energized.

C. AFW Pump 1-1 will NOT be capable of an auto start, but the LCVs will still function normally.

D. AFW Pump 1-1 will NOT be capable of an auto start and all associated LCVs are deenergized.

Proposed Answer: D. AFW Pump 1-1 will NOT be capable of an auto start and all associated LCVs are deenergized.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. TDAFP will not auto start, no DC power available to open FCV-95 and the LCV-s are de-energized due to loss of bus G. Plausible if DC bus is either not known or thought to be one of the other 2 buses.

B. Incorrect. TDAFP will not auto start, no DC power available to open FCV-95.

C. Incorrect. The LCV-s are de-energized due to loss of bus G D. Correct. Appendix B of AP-23, Loss of Vital DC Bus, discusses the equipment lost based on the loss of Vital Bus 1-2, FCV-95 will not open, DC power supply and TDAFP LCVs will be open and deenergized..

Technical

References:

OP AP-23 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain the consequences of loss of DC vital bus. (7116)

Question Source: Bank #13 L061 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 064 A2.16 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 1 malfunctions or operations on the ED/G system; and (b) based on K/A # 064 A2.16 those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate Rating 3.3 the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of offsite power during full-load testing of ED/G Question 22 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power

• STP M-9A1, Diesel Engine Generator 1-1 Routine Surveillance Test, is in progress

• Diesel Generator 1-1 is fully loaded A Main Unit trip occurs.

Which of the following actions should be taken by the operator?

A. Immediately open the Diesel Generator 1-1 output breaker.

B. Ensure the auxiliary bus feeder breaker has automatically tripped open and then place D/G Mode Sel switch in AUTO.

C. Immediately trip open the auxiliary bus feeder breaker and place D/G Mode Sel switch in AUTO.

D. Immediately trip open the startup bus feeder breaker and place D/G Mode Sel switch in AUTO.

Proposed Answer: B. Ensure the auxiliary bus feeder breaker has automatically tripped open and then place D/G Mode Sel switch in AUTO.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. This would be correct if paralleled to startup.

B. Correct. At full power, the diesel will be paralleled thru the aux transformer. When the main unit trips, the aux breaker will open. The operator ensures the breaker is open and places the mode select switch in AUTO to place the diesel back into "isochronous" mode to carry the bus.

C. Incorrect. The actions are not time critical and the breaker auto opens.

D. Incorrect. At full power, the diesel will not be aligned to startup.

Technical

References:

STP M-9A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 6408 Describe significant precautions and limitations associated with the Diesel Generator System Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Level of Difficulty: 3.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 064 A4.07 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the Group # 1 control room: Transfer ED/G (with load) to grid K/A # 064 A4.07 Rating 3.4 Question 23 The crew is about to parallel a diesel generator to startup for a load test.

When the diesel is paralleled to startup:

1. what will be the mode of operation?

2. how will the operator raise load?

A. 1. Isochronous

2. Voltage Control switch B. 1. Droop

2. Voltage Control switch C. 1. Isochronous

2. Manual Speed Control switch D. 1. Droop

2. Manual Speed Control switch Proposed Answer: D. Droop; take the Manual Speed Control switch to RAISE.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. When paralleled, started in MANUAL (droop mode). Voltage control raises/lowers MVAR.

B. Incorrect. The diesel is started in MANUAL (droop) however, voltage adjust is for MVAR, speed picks up load.

C. Incorrect. Started in MANUAL (droop)

D. Correct. Frequency drops, speed must be raised.

Technical

References:

LJ-6B References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 6437 - Describe the operation of Diesel Generator system Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 073 K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Group # 1 the PRM system will have on the following: Radioactive effluent K/A # 073 K3.01 releases Rating 3.6 Question 24 A discharge of a gas decay tank is in progress.

RE-22, Gaseous Radwaste Discharge Header radiation monitor loses power.

Which of the following describes the effect on the release?

A. RCV-17, GDTS to Plant Vent, will close.

B. FCV-410, GDTS Outlet Header to Plant Vent, will close.

C. The release continues and is now unmonitored.

D. The release continues but is monitored by RE-14, Plant Vent radiation monitor.

Proposed Answer: A. RCV-17, GDTS to Plant Vent, will close.

Explanation:

A. Correct. When power is lost, the monitor fails low, but tThe auto action associated with RE-22 occur - RCV-17 closes.

B. Incorrect. FCV-410 is upstream of RE-22, it would also isolate the discharge (but is not the valve associated with RE-22)

C. Incorrect. Isolation occurs with RCV-17 closing. If its thought the valve did not close, then its plausible to think its an unmonitored release.

D. Incorrect. the release is thru the plant vent, RE-14 would indicate but there is no isolation on high radiation.

Technical

References:

STG G4A, LG-2, AR PK11-21 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the Radiation Monitoring System. (37878)

Question Source: Bank #38 L051 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.13 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 076 K2.01 - K2.01 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the Group # 1 following: Service water (DCPP - ASW) K/A # 076 K2.01 Rating 2.7 Question 25 What are the power supplies for the Unit 1 Auxiliary Saltwater Pumps, 1-1 and 1-2?

ASW 1-1 ASW 1-2 A. Bus F Bus G B. Bus F Bus H C. Bus G Bus H D. Bus H Bus F Proposed Answer: A. Bus F / Bus G Explanation:

A. Correct. ASW pumps are powered from bus F (1-1) and G (1-2)

B. Incorrect. This would be correct for SI pumps.

C. Incorrect. This would be correct for Containment Spray Pumps D. Incorrect. This would be correct for AFW pumps.

Technical

References:

OIM J-1-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 5339 -State the power supplies to ASW system components Question Source: Bank #25 L081 01/2010 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 1.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 078 K4.01 Knowledge of IAS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) Group # 1 which provide for the following: Manual/automatic transfers of K/A # 078 K4.01 control. Rating 2.7 Question 26 Unit 1 was at 100% power when a total loss of Instrument Air and LP Nitrogen occurred.

Which of the following describes the action(s) necessary to control the 10% steam dumps using the backup air bottles?

A. Place the AUTO/MANUAL controller in MANUAL and use the increase/decrease pushbuttons, only.

B. Use the OPEN/CLOSE switch, only.

C. Cut-in toggle switch and place the AUTO/MANUAL controller in MANUAL and use the increase/decrease pushbuttons.

D. Cut-in toggle switch and use the OPEN/CLOSE switch.

Proposed Answer: D. Cut in toggle switch and use OPEN/CLOSE switch.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The toggle switch is required, however, the controller is not in the circuit.

B. Incorrect. The open/close switch is in the circuit by using the toggle switch.

C. Incorrect. OPEN/CLOSE switch usage is required, not AUTO/MANUAL controller.

D. Correct. Requires toggle switch cut in, and OPEN/CLOSE switch used.

Technical

References:

LC-2B References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Steam Dump System. (37810)

Question Source: Bank #54 NRC L031 02/2005 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 103 K3.03 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Tier # 2 the containment system will have on the following: Loss of Group # 1 containment integrity under refueling operations K/A # 103 K3.03 Rating 3.7 Question 27 Unit 1 is in MODE 6.

An issue with Containment Purge Exhaust valve, RCV-11, causes the Shift Foreman to enter Technical Specification LCO 3.9.4, Containment Penetrations, and suspend CORE ALTERATIONS to satisfy the LCO.

Which of the following evolutions would have to be stopped because it is a CORE ALTERATION?

1. Lifting the reactor vessel head

2. Coupling the RCCA drive shafts

3. Disconnecting incore thermocouples A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3 Proposed Answer: B. 2 only Explanation:

A. Incorrect. lifting the head, while part of the reactor vessel but not a fuel, source, or reactivity control component B. Correct. in the vessel and a reactivity control component C. Incorrect. Incore thermocouples are not a fuel, source, or reactivity control component D. Incorrect. Incore thermocouples are not a fuel, source, or reactivity control component Technical

References:

TS definition, TS Definitions, LCO 3.9.4, OP L-6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 9696 - Define Technical Specification items found in the Definitions Section Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #P-30406 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 103 G2.4.8 Containment: Knowledge of how abnormal operating Group # 1 procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs. K/A # 103 G2.4.8 Rating 3.8 Question 28 The crew is performing step 7, CHECK If Containment Spray Should Be Stopped, of E-1, Loss or Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

Which of the following PK's will be checked as "OFF" if the crew is to secure containment spray operation?

A. PK01-16, CONTAINMENT ENVIRONMENT PPC B. PK01-25, CONTMT HYDROGEN MONITOR C. PK02-01, CONTMT ISOLATION PHASE A/B D. PK11-19, CONTMT RADIATION Proposed Answer: D. PK11-19, CONTMT RADIATION Explanation:

A. Incorrect. This is an indication that there is a problem in containment, (temperature or pressure) but setpoints are not tied to containment spray.

B. Incorrect. This is ON to indicate that containment hydrogen is at or above 2.0% and if its thought that spray can reduce hydrogen, (as it is for radiation), its plausible that a low hydrogen concentration would be checked prior to stopping spray.

C. Incorrect. An absence of isolation alarms, seems plausible that conditions would exist to stop spray.

D. Correct. If there is high containment radiation in containment, spray is left in operation regardless of containment pressure.

Technical

References:

E-1, PK01-16, 01-18, 01-19, 11-19 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37578 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the CSS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.13 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 001 A3.02 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CRDS, Tier # 2 including: Rod height Group # 2 K/A # 001 A3.02 Rating 3.7 Question 29 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at 80% power

• All rods out is Control Bank D at 228 steps

• Rod Control is in automatic

• Control Bank D rods are at 210 steps Rods begin to move due to Tavg 2.0°F less than Tref.

Two minutes later, what is expected Control Bank D rod height?

A. 228 steps B. 226 steps C. 220 steps D. 194 steps Proposed Answer: C. 220 steps Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The rod motion is 8 steps per minute in AUTO from 1.5 to 3°F. In Manaul, rod speed is 48 steps per minute and this would be plausible if C-11 is not taken into account.

B. Incorrect. This is where the rods would be in 2 minutes if not for C-11 C. Correct. C-11 at at 220 and will stop auto rod motion.

D. Incorrect. This is correct if rod motion is incorrectly assumed to be IN and not OUT.

Technical

References:

LA-3a References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the operation of the Rod Control System. (40755)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 002 A2.03 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 2 malfunctions or operations on the RCS; and (b) based on those K/A # 002 A2.03 predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the Rating 4.1 consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of forced circulation Question 30 Unit 2 reactor power is 30% and the crew is raising power.

PK05-01, RCP No. 21 alarms. The operator notes the blue light and green lights are on, the red light is out for RCP 2-1.

Which of the following describes the expected flow indication in Loop 1 and the action to be taken by the crew?

A. Flow of approximately 0%; verify the reactor automatically tripped B. Flow of approximately 0%; manually trip the reactor C. Flow of approximately 30%; verify the reactor automatically tripped D. Flow of approximately 30%; manually trip the reactor Proposed Answer: D. Flow goes to approximately 30%; manually trip the reactor.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Reverse flow in the loop will cause flow to go to approximately 30%. Power is below P-8, and will not automatically trip.

B. Incorrect. Reverse flow in the loop will cause flow to go to approximately 30%.

C. Incorrect. Power is less than P-8, a manual trip per AR PK05-02 is required. Operation with less than 4 RCPs is not allowed.

D. Correct. Flow goes to approximately 30% and a trip is required.

Technical

References:

TH18T, AR PK05-01, OIM B-6-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7927 - Given initial conditions and assumptions, determine if a reactor trip or safety injection actuation is required Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #30 NRC L051 04/2007 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO 011 A4.04 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control Tier # 2 room: Transfer of PZR LCS from automatic to manual control Group # 2 K/A # 011 A4.04 Rating 3.2 Question 31 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power

• Pressurizer level channels are reading as follows:

o LI-459= 59.5%

o LI-460=60.0%

o LI-461=60.0%

LI-459 begins rising slowly, while the other channels are steady. When LI-459 reaches 64%,

HC-459D is taken to manual. No manual adjustments are made to controller output.

Assuming the plant continues in steady state full power operation, what is the expected behavior of pressurizer level?

A. Pressurizer level will rise slowly until the reactor trips on high level B. Pressurizer level will be approximately constant C. Pressurizer level will lower until the pressurizer empties D. Pressurizer level will lower until letdown isolates, then rise until the reactor trips on high level Proposed Answer: B. Pressurizer level will be approximately constant Explanation:

A. Incorrect because pressurizer level will remain approximately constant. Plausible because the response of the system may be misunderstood. It may be thought that the system selects the high channel (such as the Tave input to level control), and manual output will track the rising level channel.

B. Correct. The level control system responds to the median signal, which at the initiation of the event is either LT-460 or 461 (60%). After LT-459 has risen to 64%, the median signal will still be either LT-460 or 461 (60%). Level input to the level controller will be constant, and the automatic output will be constant. Manual output tracks automatic output. Therefore when the controller is placed in manual, the HC-459 controller output to FC-128 charging flow controller will be unchanged, charging flow should be constant, and pressurizer level should remain constant.

C. Incorrect because pressurizer level will remain approximately constant. Plausible because it may be thought that the system will control on the rising level channel, and lower the controller output, which will lower charging flow, and therefore pressurizer level. Manual tracks the automatic output, and therefore if placed in manual with a lower output, level will continue to lower.

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 D. Incorrect because pressurizer level will remain approximately constant. Plausible because it may be thought that the system will control on the rising level channel, and lower the controller output, which will lower charging flow, and therefore pressurizer level. Manual tracks the automatic output, and therefore if placed in manual with a lower output, level will continue to lower. If that occurs, level would continue to lower until letdown isolated at 17%. Then, charging would continue to raise level until the high level reactor trip setpoint (90%) was reached.

Technical

References:

OIM A-4-3, LA-4A Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control System pages 51, 52 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: LA-4A Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control System, Objective 5:

State the purpose of Pressurizer, Pressure & Level Control System components.

Level Control Circuit; Master Level Controller (36922)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.b.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 015 K6.02 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the Group # 2 following will have on the NIS: Discriminator/compensation K/A # 015 K6.02 circuits Rating 2.6 Question 32 A plant startup is in progress.

Intermediate Range channel N35 is overcompensated.

How will the channels overcompensation affect its operation as the startup progresses?

The channel will begin to come on scale:

A. lower in the Source Range and indicate higher at 100% power.

B. lower in the Source Range but indicate correctly at 100% power.

C. higher in the Source Range and indicate lower at 100% power.

D. higher in the Source Range but indicate correctly at 100% power.

Proposed Answer: D. higher in the Source Range but indicate correctly at 100% power.

Explanation:

A incorrect - at power gamma has very little effect on IR indication.

B incorrect - undercompensation will cause the IR to see gammas and indication to come on scale lower in the source range. At power, gamma will not affect indication.

C incorrect - IR responds later due to cutting out neutrons as well as gammas, however, once at power, indications will be normal.

D. Correct. The IR will not respond until a higher source range level. Once in the power range, indication will be unaffected.

Technical

References:

OIM B-4-3, LB-4 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 5992 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the NIS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #59 NRC L061C 02/2009 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 017 K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of Group # 2 the ITM system will have on the following: Natural circulation K/A # 017 K3.01 indications Rating 3.5 Question 33 The crew is verifying natural circulation is established in accordance with E-0.1, Reactor Trip Response. Subcooling, as displayed on VB2, is 40°F. All thermocouples are reading 570°F.

How, if at all, will failure of one thermocouple, (high or low), affect the current subcooling indication on VB2?

A single thermocouple failure, A. high or low, will affect subcooling indication.

B. high will affect indication; low failure will not affect indication.

C. low will affect indication; high failure will not affect indication.

D. high or low, will not affect subcooling indication.

Proposed Answer: B. high will affect indication; low failure will not affect indication.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Unlike wide range pressure, which is used to determine train specific subcooling, only the highest temperature is used. A low failure would not affect indication.

B. Correct. The highest temperature, Thot or thermocouple is fed to the Subcooled Margin Monitor for determining subcooling.

C. Incorrect. Subcooling uses the highest temperature.

D. Incorrect. With PCS components, once a parameter is out of range, it is automatically deselected. Subcooling determination is not part of the PCS instrumentation.

Technical

References:

LA-2D, E-0.1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe RVLIS components.

• Subcooled Margin Monitor Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 027 K2.01 Containment Iodine Removal System: Knowledge of Group # 2 bus power supplies to the following: Fans K/A # 027 K2.01 Rating 3.1 Question 34 Which of the following describes the power supply for the Containment Iodine Removal fans and when they may be used?

A. Non-vital 480 VAC; post-LOCA B. Non-vital 480 VAC; fuel handling accident C. Vital 480 VAC; post-LOCA D. Vital 480 VAC; fuel handling accident Proposed Answer: B. Non-vital 480 VAC; fuel handling accident Explanation:

The actual power supply is non vital, the candidate should know they are non-vital (unlike vital power supplies, not the actual bus) and not used in accident conditions (carbon filters are a fire danger)

A. Incorrect. Not used for accident conditions, filters may catch fire.

B. Correct. per the "required knowledge" of the PK, they power supply is non-vital. They are started in OP AP-21, if a fuel handling accident occurs.

C. Incorrect. not vital power.

D. Incorrect. not vital power.

Technical

References:

OP AP-21, LH-3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the Iodine Removal System.

(5241)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 028 A1.02 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in Group # 2 parameter (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with K/A # 028 A1.02 operating the HRPS controls including: Containment pressure Rating 3.4 Question 35 At a minimum, how many recombiners are required to limit post LOCA containment hydrogen and what is the concern if hydrogen ignition occurs?

A. 1; pressure spike in containment B. 2; pressure spike in containment C. 1; damage to required ECCS components D. 2; damage to required ECCS components Proposed Answer: A. 1; pressure spike in containment Explanation:

Hydrogen is a flammable concern, and could cause a pressure spike in Containment if ignited (similar to TMI-2) This could pose a challenge to Containment integrity Hydrogen concentration between 4 and 75% is considered flammable, and >9% is considered explosive Operation of hydrogen recombiners above 3.5% hydrogen concentration could result in a hydrogen burn. Two 100% capacity independent hydrogen recombiner systems are provided.A single recombiner is capable of maintaining the hydrogen concentration in containment below the 4.0 volume percent (v/o) flammability limit. Two recombiners are provided to meet the requirement for redundancy and independence.

A. Correct. Only 1 is required, the concern is containment pressure.

B. Incorrect. Only 1 is required.

C. Incorrect. while an ignition of hydrogen could be harmful to equipment in containment, the concern is the challenge to containment integrity.

D. Incorrect. only 1 is required and the concern is a challenge to containment integrity.

Technical

References:

LMCDFRZ References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain hydrogen formation, limits, and concerns in Containment. (7094)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #34 L081 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 035 K1.01 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause- Group # 2 effect relationships between the S/GS and the following systems: K/A # 035 K1.01 MFW/AFW systems Rating 4.2 Question 36 GIVEN:

• A Unit 1 plant startup is in progress per OP L-3, Secondary Plant Startup

• The reactor is at 9% power with a Main Feedwater Pump in service While rolling the Main Turbine, S/G level control malfunctions resulting in S/G 1-2 level exceeding 90%. All other steam generator levels are on program.

Which of the following automatic AFW pump starts, if any, will occur?

A. None.

B. Both motor driven AFW pumps will immediately start.

C. All AFW pumps will immediately start.

D. All AFW pumps will start following a time delay.

Proposed Answer: B. Both motor driven AFW pumps will immediately start.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Although steam generator levels are not low, the AFW pumps (MDAFW) will start due to the trip of the MFW pumps.

B. Correct. Steam Generator Level > 90% is P-14. This Trips both Main feed Pumps resulting in an immediate start signal to Motor Driven pumps only.

C. Incorrect. Only the Motor Driven AFW pumps start on Trip of Main Feed Pumps.

D. Incorrect. Only the Motor Driven AFW pumps start on Trip of Main Feed Pumps. A time delay is only associated with the low-low steam generator start signal below 50% power Technical

References:

OIM B-6-2, D-1-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40559 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the steam generators Question Source: Bank # 19 L081 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 072 A1.01 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in Group # 2 parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with K/A # 072 A1.01 operating the ARM system controls including: Radiation levels Rating 3.4 Question 37 Both units are at full power. All Control Room Vent Train Mode Selector Switches are in Mode 1.

Control Room Vent Intake radiation monitors, 1-RE-25 and 1-RE-26, go into high alarm.

Control Room Press Intake radiation monitors, 1-RE-51 and 52, are not in alarm.

Which of the following describes the effect, if any, on the Control Room Ventilation System lineup?

A. No effect, the system remains in Mode 1.

B. The system switches to Mode 3 and no pressurization fans start.

C. The system switches to Mode 4 and S-99, Unit 1 Pressurization Fan, starts.

D. The system switches to Mode 4 and S-97, Unit 2 Pressurization Fan, starts.

Proposed Answer: D. The system switches to Mode 4 and S-97, Unit 2 Pressurization Fan starts.

Explanation:

The predicted parameter for the KA is the alignment of the Control Room ventilation system to prevent exceeding 10CFR dose in the CR due to high radiation.

A. Incorrect. Mode 3 is a full recirc mode of operation, originally designed for chlorine.

Howerver, its plausible to think a full recirc mode would be preferred if there is high radiation.

B. Incorrect. High radiation on U1, starts the U2 fan (unless 51 and 52 are in alarm).

C. Incorrect. The opposite unit pressurization fan starts.

D. Correct. The opposite unit pressurization fan starts.

Technical

References:

LH-5 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Control Room Ventilation System - Mode 4 Operation Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.11 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 2 079 K4.01 - Knowledge of SAS design feature(s) and/or Group # 2 interlock(s) which provide for the following: Cross-connect with K/A # 079 K4.01 IAS Rating 2.9 Question 38 Instrument air (IA) has been aligned to supply Service (SA) through PCV-114.

Which of the following describes how instrument air is protected from depressurizing if a leak developed on the service air header?

A. PCV-114 closes on low IA pressure.

B. PCV-114 closes on low SA pressure.

C. PCV-114 closes on high IA flow.

D. PCV-114 closes on high SA flow.

Proposed Answer: A. PCV-114 closes on low IA pressure..

Explanation:

A. Correct. PCV closes on low IA pressure.

B. Incorrect. Closes on lowering IA pressure. Its plausible to believe its SA pressure that causes isolation.

C. Incorrect. Plausible that high flow, due to a leak, causes isolation.

D. Incorrect. Plausible that high flow, due to a leak, causes isolation.

Technical

References:

LK-1, STG K-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the basic flow path of the Compressed Air System. (7227)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 4.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 007 G2.2.44 - Reactor Trip - Stabilization - Group # 1 Recovery: Ability to interpret control room indications to K/A # EPE 007 G2.2.44 verify the status and operation of a system, and Rating 4.2 understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.

Question 39 GIVEN:

• The crew has entered E-0.1, Reactor Trip Response

• Startup power has been lost

• Highest Core Exit Thermocouple is 590°F and stable

• RCS pressure is 2050 psig

• All Steam Generator pressures approximately 985 psig and stable

• RCS Hot leg temperatures are 595°F and stable

• RCS Cold Leg temperatures are 540 - 545°F and stable The crew is verifying natural circulation.

Natural circulation:

A. exists and may be enhanced by opening the condenser dump valves.

B. exists and may be enhanced by opening the SG atmospheric dump valves.

C. does NOT exist, but may be established by opening the SG atmospheric dump valves.

D. does NOT exist, but may be established by opening the Condenser Steam Dump Valves.

Proposed Answer: B. exists and may be enhanced by opening the SG atmospheric dump valves.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. With the loss of offsite power to startup, the circ pumps are not available therefore, condenser steam dumps are not available.

B. Correct. Saturation for 985 psig (1000 psia), is 544.6 °F. 540 - 545 meet the criteria that Tcolds at saturation temperature for S/G Pressure (within meter readability).

C. Incorrect. the delta T is large which may cause the candidate to believe natural circ is not established and Thots are well above Tsat for steam generator pressure. However, a large delta T, approaching full power delta T should be expected once natural circ is established.

Tcolds should be at Tsat for the steam generators, not Thot.

D. Incorrect. Condenser dumps are not available and natural circ is established.

Technical

References:

E-0.1 step 10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 5810 - Identify the parameters used to verify natural circulation flow Question Source: Bank # NRC-45992 X DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 009 EA2.11 - Ability to determine or interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to a small break LOCA: Containment K/A # EPE 009 EA2.11 temperature, pressure, and humidity Rating 3.8 Question 40 GIVEN:

• The plant is at full power

• Pressurizer level is 53% and lowering

• Pressurizer pressure is 2220 psig and lowering

• Pressurizer backup heaters energized

• Charging flow is 90 gpm and rising

• PRT pressure is 3 psig and stable

• Steam generator pressures are 880 psig and stable

• RCS Tavg is stable

• PK01-16, Containment Environment PPC alarms

• Containment temperature and pressure are rising Which of the following has occurred?

A. Steam leak B. RCS leak C. Pressurizer spray valve has failed open D. Pressurizer PORV leaking Proposed Answer: B. RCS leak Explanation:

A. Incorrect. While a steam leak would affect containment parameters, steam generator pressure is stable. If there was a steam leak, one steam generator pressure would be affected.

B. Correct. lowering RCS parameters and rising containment parameters are indications of an RCS leak.

C. Incorrect. Containment parameters would not be affected.

D. Incorrect. PRT pressure is stable and containment parameters are changing.

Technical

References:

AP-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3465 - Identify and discuss RCS leakage paths, including means used to detect and identify leaks.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 011 EA1.04 - EA1.04 Ability to operate and monitor Group # 1 the following as they apply to a Large Break LOCA: ESF K/A # EPE 011 EA1.04 actuation system in manual Rating 4.4 Question 41 A design basis LOCA has occurred.

Containment Spray did NOT actuate as required.

1. What is the minimum required action to manually actuate Containment Spray?

2.What is the minimum number of trains of Containment Spray required to limit Containment pressure below the design value?

A. 1. BOTH Phase B switches to Actuate.

2. ONE train required.

B. 1. BOTH Phase B switches to Actuate.

2. BOTH trains required.

C. 1. ONE Phase B switch to Actuate.

2. ONE train required.

D. 1. ONE Phase B switch to Actuate.

2. BOTH trains required.

Proposed Answer: A. BOTH Phase B switches to Actuate. 2. ONE train required.

Explanation:

A. Correct. Unlike some signals which are train specific, such as Phase A, or SI, to actuate spray BOTH switches must be taken to ACTUATE. Only one train of spray is assumed to operate.

B. Incorrect. Both switches are required, however, only one train is the minimum required to operate.

C. Incorrect. Both switches required.

D. Incorrect. Both switches required.

Technical

References:

LB-6A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the Reactor Protection System. (37048)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 015/017 - Knowledge of the interrelations between the Group # 1 Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) K/A # APE015/017 and the following: RCP seals AK2.07 Rating 2.9 Question 42 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

Which of the following RCP seal parameters would indicate a FAILURE of the # 2 Seal?

1. 1 Seal Leakoff Flow (gpm) RCDT Level Trend A. 2.0 Trending Up B. 0.5 No Change C. 2.0 No Change D. 0.5 Trending Up Proposed Answer: D. 0.5 Trending Up Explanation:

A. Incorrect because indicated No. 1 seal leakoff flow would be low, as a significant portion of the flow would be going through the No. 2 seal to the RCDT instead of to the VCT.

Plausible because RCDT level would be trending up.

B. Incorrect because RCDT level would be trending up. Plausible because indicated No. 1 seal flow would be lower.

C. Incorrect because RCDT level would be trending up and indicated No. 1 seal leakoff flow would be lower. Plausible because actual No. 1 seal leakoff would not be significantly affected. However, indicated leakoff flow would be less.

D. Correct. No. 1 seal leakoff flow would be allowed to flow through the failed No. 2 seal to the RCDT. As a result, indicated No. 1 seal leakoff flow to the VCT would be less, and RCDT level would be trending up.

Technical

References:

OP AP-28, Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunction, Rev. 15 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 6137 - Explain effects of RCP seal failures.

Question Source: Bank #1 NRC L081 01/2010 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 022 AK1.02 - Knowledge of the operational implications of Group # 1 the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Reactor Coolant K/A # APE 022 Makeup: Relationship of charging flow to pressure differential AK1.02 between charging and RCS Rating 2.7 Question 43 Which of the following describes the basis for opening a PORV in FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS, if pressure is greater than 2335 psig?

A. To prevent passing two phase flow through the safety valves.

B. To ensure PTS limits will not be exceeded when the reactor is tripped and cools down.

C. To minimize primary-to-secondary leakage in case of a SGTR, until other recovery actions can be taken.

D. To allow sufficient borated injection flow into the RCS to ensure the addition of negative reactivity to the core.

Proposed Answer: D. To allow sufficient borated injection flow into the RCS to ensure the addition of negative reactivity to the core.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 2 phase flow through safeties is a concern for accidents such as steam generator safeties and overfill, but not the bases for this check of pressure in FR-S.1 B. Incorrect. PTS is a concern for overcooling events, such as a steam break.

C. Incorrect. SGTR is not a concern in FR-S.1 at this time. The concern is inserting negative reactivity to shutdown power generation.

D. correct. From FR-S.1

Background:

The check on RCS pressure is intended to alert the operator to a condition which would reduce charging or SI pump injection into the RCS and, therefore, boration. The PRZR PORV pressure setpoint is chosen as that pressure at which flow into the RCS is insufficient. The contingent action is a rapid depressurization to a pressure which would allow increased injection flow. When primary pressure drops 200 psi below the PORV pressure setpoint, the PORVs should be closed. The operator must verify successful closure of the PORVs, closing the isolation valves, if necessary.

Technical

References:

FR-S.1 background for step 4 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920 - Explain basis of emergency procedure step Question Source: Bank # 5 NRC L091 07/2011 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 025 AK2.05 Knowledge of the interrelations between Group # 1 the Loss of Residual Heat Removal System and the K/A # APE025 AK2.05 following: Reactor building sump Rating 2.6 Question 44 Following a LOCA, indications of Containment sump blockage were noted and EOP ECA-1.3, "Sump Blockage Guideline," was entered.

The operator is instructed to throttle RHR Flow Control valves, HCV-637 and HCV-638.

Per ECA-1.3, what is the basis for throttling these valves?

A. Delay depletion of RWST inventory.

B. Maintain flow less than 1500 gpm.

C. Prevent/stop cavitation of the running RHR pump.

D. Maintain less than 57 amps on the running RHR pump.

Proposed Answer: C. Prevent/stop cavitation of the running RHR pump.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. This is a goal of ECA-1.1 B. Incorrect. 1500 gpm is a limit in some operating procedures, such as draining to mid-loop (A-2:III)

C. Correct. The valves are throttled if there is indication of cavitation or to prevent cavitation when establishing recirculation flow.

D. Incorrect. 57 amps is a limit in E-1.3 Technical

References:

EOP ECA-1.3 Sump Blockage Guideline steps 1 and 7; EOP E-1.3 Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation step 9; EOP ECA-1.1 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation page 1; OP A.2.III Reactor Vessel - Draining to Half Loop / Half Loop Operations with Fuel in Vessel step 5.8; LPE-1C page 50 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps for ECA-1.3 (46462)

Question Source: Bank #44 NRC L091C 03/2012 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.50 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 026 AK3.04 Knowledge of the reasons for the following Group # 1 responses as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling K/A # APE026 AK3.04 Water: Effect on the CCW flow header of a loss of CCW Rating 3.5 Question 45 CCW heat exchanger fouling is causing CCW temperatures to rise slowly.

The crew is about to perform CCW heat load isolation in accordance with OP AP-11, Malfunction of the Component Cooling Water System, Appendix B, CCW Heat Load Isolation.

In accordance with OP AP-11, which of the following describes whether or not the Containment Fan Cooler Units, (CFCUs), should be isolated and why?

A. The CFCUs should be isolated because this will substantially reduce CCW heat load.

B. The CFCUs should NOT be isolated because they may be used as a heat sink for the CCW system.

C. The CFCUs should be isolated to prevent steam binding and water hammer in the units due to CCW flashing.

D. The CFCUs should NOT be isolated to prevent steam binding and water hammer in the units due to CCW flashing.

Proposed Answer: B. The CFCUs should NOT be isolated because they may be used as a heat sink for the CCW system.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. They should not be isolated and while a large load, they will be removing heat from the system.

B. Correct. Unless leaking or there is the possibility of exceeding containment temperature tech spec limit, the CFCUs are typically a heat sink for the CCW system.

C. Incorrect. Steam binding and water hammer are concerns for a LOCA and transfer to diesel scenario and the reason for the nitrogen pressurization system..

D. Incorrect. Steam binding and water hammer are concerns for a LOCA and transfer to diesel scenario and the reason for the nitrogen pressurization system.

Technical

References:

AP-11 appendix B, LF-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 35490 Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the CCW system Question Source: Bank #45 NRC L091C 3/2012 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.25 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 027AK3.03 Knowledge of the reasons for the following Group # 1 responses as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control K/A # APE 027 AK3.03 Malfunctions: Actions contained in EOP for PZR PCS Rating 3.7 malfunction Question 46 Unit 1 is 7% power.

The crew has entered OP AP-13, Malfunction of Reactor Pressure Control System due to Pressurizer spray valve, PCV-455B, failing open. The operator is unable to close the spray valve.

Which of the following actions will be taken by the crew?

A. Trip the reactor and stop both RCP 1-1 and 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B.

B. Trip the reactor and stop all RCPs to terminate the flow through PCV-455B.

C. Stop RCP 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B but leave RCP 1-1 running to maintain RCS pressure control and perform a plant shutdown per OP L-4, Normal Operation at Power.

D. Stop both RCP 1-1 and 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B and perform a plant shutdown per OP L-4, Normal Operation at Power.

Proposed Answer: A. Trip the reactor and stop both RCP 1-1 and 1-2 to terminate the flow through PCV-455B.

Explanation:

A. Correct. OP AP-13 directs that both RCPs are tripped to ensure flow thru the failed spray valve. Additionally, if the spray valve is open and cannot be closed, direction is to trip the reactor.

B. Incorrect. While PCV-455B comes off loop 2, two RCPs are stopped to ensure flow thru the spray valve is terminated, however, if its felt that any forced flow will continue flow thru the spray valve, then stopping all the RCPs would be an action to stop that flow.

C. Incorrect. Both RCPs are stopped. There is a step to perform a plant shutdown if manual control is not effective in controlling RCS pressure between 2210 to 2260 psig.

D. Incorrect. Both RCPs are tripped, but despite being below the power that stopping RCPs would be an automatic reactor trip, the reactor is tripped before stopping the pumps. There is a step to perform a plant shutdown if manual control is not effective in controlling RCS pressure between 2210 to 2260 psig.

Technical

References:

OP AP-13 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3477N - Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of OP AP-13 to mitigate an event in progress.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 029 EA1.07 -Ability to operate and monitor the Group # 1 following as they apply to a ATWS: Operating switch for K/A # EPE 029 EA1.07 charging pump recirculation valve Rating 3.4 Question 47 The operator is establishing emergency boration in accordance with FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS.

Which of the following describes the action, if any, the operator should take for charging pump recirc valves, 8105 and 8106?

A. No action, the valves will be closed with green lights lit and red lights out.

B. No action, the valves are open and should remain open with red lights lit and green lights out.

C. Place the control switch for each valve to "CLOSE" (position maintain) then verify the green lights lit and the red lights out.

D. Take the control switch for each valve to "CLOSE", then release the switch (spring return to neutral), then verify the green lighs lit and the red lights out.

Proposed Answer: B. No action, the valves are open and should remain open with red lights lit and green lights out.

Explanation:

Meets KA in that the lights are part of the switch circuit. The knowledge is that the valves have no auto close feature and are (in most cases) open to provide recirc flow for the CCPs (directed back to the suction of the pumps).

A. Incorrect. Unlike the SI pumps, which recirc to the RWST, the charging pumps recirc back to their suction. Because they are open during normal ops and do divert some of the injection flow, its plausible to think they would close on an SI to ensure all flow is directed forward.

B. Correct. No auto close feature for the valves. They are not operated as part of aligning emergency boration. They are normally always open (there are exceptions such as aligning for cold leg recirc, the valves are closed).

C. Incorrect. These are not "position maintain" positions. Plausible to think to close the normally open valves, then the valves would be of this type.

D. Incorrect. Proper operation but the valves are not operated as part of aligning for emergency boration.

Technical

References:

FR-S.1, E-1.3, LB-1A, LB-3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40448 - Describe the controls, indications, and alarms associated with the CVCS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 038 G2.1.28 - SGTR: Knowledge of the purpose and Group # 1 function of major system components and controls. K/A # EPE038 G2.1.28 Rating 4.1 Question 48 A Steam Generator Tube Rupture has occurred and EOP E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, has been entered. Depressurization of the RCS is in progress.

The PRIMARY purpose of opening the RCS sprays valves, or PORVs, to depressurize the RCS is for which of the following?

A. To establish sub-cooling and prevent ruptured steam generator overfill.

B. To establish sub-cooling and collapse voids in the reactor vessel head.

C. To minimize break flow and collapse voids in the reactor vessel head.

D. To minimize break flow and establish pressurizer level.

Proposed Answer: D. To minimize break flow and establish pressurizer level.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Subcooling is minimized in this step.

B. Incorrect. Subcooling is minimized as RCS pressure lowers. Head void formation is not a concern for a SGTR.

C. Incorrect. Head void formation is not a concern for a SGTR and actually may occur during depressurization.

D. Correct. Break flow is minimized by lowering RCS pressure to lower than ruptured steam generator pressure. Also, pressurizer level should be established as injection flow rises.

Technical

References:

EOP E-3 (Steam Generator Tube Rupture), LPE-3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920F - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (E-3 series)

Question Source: Bank #47 L081 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 040 AA2.02 -Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Steam Line Rupture: K/A # APE 040 AA2.02 Conditions requiring a reactor trip Rating 4.6 Question 49 Unit 1 is at 100% power.

The following events occur:

• PK09-02, SG 1-2 PRESS, LVL, FLOW alarms.

• Steam flow from the 1-2 Steam Generator has risen above feed flow

• Steam Generator 1-2 level is 67% and rising

• Reactor power is rising

• Turbine load is stable Which of the following states the probable failure and the action that should be taken by the crew?

A. A steam flow channel has failed high, go to AP-5, Malfunction of Eagle 21 Protection or Control Channel.

B. A main feed reg valve is opening, take manual control of the valve and attempt to restore level.

C. A Steam Generator Safety has opened, trip the reactor.

D. A Steam Generator Safety has opened, reduce turbine load as necessary to maintain reactor power less than 100% while taking corrective action.

Proposed Answer: C. A Steam Generator Safety has opened, trip the reactor.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect, no channel failure has occurred (reactor power and steam flow increasing)

B. Incorrect. While level is rising, it is due to swell (increasing steam flow), not a problem with the main feed reg valve.

C. Correct. Given the plant conditions, an increase in steam flow has occurred. A steam generator safety passes sufficient steam flow to cause a steam/feed flow mismatch and swell due to increased steam flow. If a safety has opened at power, it is below the setpoint where it should be closed. Per AR PK09-02, if a steam generator safety is open, the action is to trip the reactor.C incorrect, no channel failure has occurred (reactor power and steam flow has increased).

D. Incorrect, the action to take is trip the reactor, (it cannot be isolated).

Technical

References:

AR PK09-02, SG 1-2 PRESS, LVL, FLOW References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40559 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 steam generators Question Source: Bank #35 NRC L051 (04/2007) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 054 AA1.01 Ability to operate and / or monitor the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of Main Feedwater K/A # APE 054 AA1.01 (MFW): AFW controls, including the use of alternate AFW Rating 4.5 sources Question 50 The crew is performing the actions of FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Which of the following describes the setpoint for switching AFW suction to an alternate source and what is the preferred alternate source?

A. 10% CST level; FWST B. 33% CST level; FWST C. 10% CST level; Raw Water Reservoir D. 33% CST level; Raw Water Reservoir Proposed Answer: A. 10% CST level; FWST Explanation:

A. Answer A correct - setpoint for switchover is 10%, preferred source IAW OP D-1:V is the FWST.

B. Answer B incorrect - setpoint is 10%. 33% is the (RWST) cold leg recirc switchover setpoint.

C. Answer C incorrect - RWR is the second preferred source.

D. Answer D incorrect - setpoint is 10%, RWR is the second preferred source.

Technical

References:

FR-H.1 Fold Out Page, and OP D-1:V References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3850 - Describe system interrelationships between the AFW system and other plant systems Question Source: Bank #49 NRC L081 (11/2009) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 EPE 055 EK1.02 Knowledge of the operational Group # 1 implications of the following concepts as they apply to the K/A # EPE 055 EK1.02 Station Blackout: Natural circulation cooling Rating 4.1 Question 51 The crew is performing ECA-0.0, Loss of All Vital AC Power, step 18, DEPRESSURIZE Intact Steam Generators To Reduce RCS Pressure To Inject Accumulators.

Which of the following conditions, monitored during the depressurization, would cause the crew to stop the depressurization in order to ensure natural circulation is not interrupted?

A. RCS cold leg temperatures lower to less than 310°F.

B. Steam generator pressures lower to less than 300 psig.

C. RCS cooldown rate exceeds 100°F.

D. Pressurizer level goes offscale low.

Proposed Answer: B. Steam generator pressures lower to less than 300 psig.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. temperature limit ensures a challenge to RCS integrity does not occur.

B. Correct, Caution prior to the step states: Accumulator Nitrogen injection into the RCS may occur if S/Gs are Depressurized to LESS THAN 200 PSIG. From the bases: Steam generators should be depressurized to maximize delivery (into the RCS) of the water contained in the SI accumulators while minimizing delivery of nitrogen. Maintaining steam generator pressures above a value that prevents introduction of a significant volume of nitrogen into the RCS ensures that accumulator nitrogen will not impede natural circulation.

C. Incorrect. This is the rate that is maintained, however, the depressurization is not stopped if it is exceeded. Purpose is to minimize RCS inventory loss while cooling the RCP seals in a controlled manner.

D. Incorrect. Note in the step states: PZR Level may be lost and Reactor Vessel Upper Head VOIDING may occur due to depressurization of S/Gs. Depressurization SHOULD NOT be stopped to prevent these occurrences.

Technical

References:

ECA-0.0, ECA-0.0 background page 159 and 160 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920G - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (ECA-0 series) including: Bases for TCOAs with operator actions of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less.

Question Source: Bank #50 L051 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 057 AK3.01 - Knowledge of the reasons for the Group #

following responses as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC K/A # APE 057 AK3.01 Instrument Bus: Actions contained in EOP for loss of vital Rating 4.1 ac electrical instrument bus Question 52 Unit 2 is at full power.

A loss of PY-21 occurs. The PY is now re-energized and systems are being restored, however, the AFW controllers for LCV-113 and LCV-115 are in MANUAL.

What is the purpose of assigning an operator to the controllers while the LCV's are in MANUAL?

A. The operator must reopen the valves and remain there for runout protection.

B. The valves are full open; the operator is stationed at the valves for runout protection.

C. The operator must reopen the valves and remain there for level control.

D. The valves are full open; the operator is stationed at the valves for level control.

Proposed Answer: B. The valves are full open, the operator provides runout protection.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Demand goes to 100%, (4.0 mA). However, in Manual, there is no automatic runout protection. Plausible to think the operators are put in full control of the valves (starting full closed, opening as necessary) to provide that protection.

B. Correct. Demand goes to 100% and valves are full open. The operator is assigned the duty to provide runout protection by controlling flow and maintaining less than 75 amps.

C. Incorrect. Valves must be open to maintain pump operability and purpose is runout protection. Plausible because in manual, the auto setpoint would not be maintained.

D. Incorrect. Purpose is runout protection.

Technical

References:

OP O-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37199 - Describe the failure modes of Process Hand controllers including:

basic controller power losses how various Process Hand controlled valves are affected after failures how Process Hand controller setpoints react to manual and automatic operations Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.50 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 058 AA1.02 Ability to operate and / or monitor the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of DC Power: Static K/A # APE 058 AA1.02 inverter dc input breaker, frequency meter, ac output Rating 3.1 breaker, and ground fault detector Question 53 The plant is at full power.

PK 19-19, UPS Failure alarms. Inverter input voltages have not changed and there are no other alarms.

Which of the following has occurred?

A. Loss of a bypass regulating transformer B. Loss of UPS AC output to a PY panel C. The AC input breaker for an inverter has opened D. The DC input breaker for an inverter has opened Proposed Answer: D. The DC input breaker for an inverter has opened Explanation:

A. Incorrect. No change in voltage, however, it is not a failure of the UPS. PK19-18 alarms.

B. Incorrect. While it alarm PK19-19, output voltage would be zero and the PY de-energized,with multiple alarms.

C. Incorrect. PK19-18, not PK19-19, alarms, not a failure input and voltage would be slightly lower.

D. Correct. Loss of DC alarms PK19-19 but voltage does not change due to the inverter still supplied by the AC source, which is at a slightly higher voltage.

Technical

References:

ARPK19-18, 19-19, J-10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37807- Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Instrument AC System Question Source: Bank #13 NRC L091 07/2011 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E04 EK2.1 Knowledge of the interrelations between the (LOCA Group # 1 Outside Containment) and the following: Components, and K/A # E04 EK2.1 functions of control and safety systems, including Rating 3.5 instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Question 54 The crew is performing ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment.

The operator is instructed to close 8809A, RHR to Cold Legs 1 and 2.

Which of the following describes the condition(s) that must be met to close 8809A NOTE:

8701 - RCS RHR Suct LP4 HL 8702 - RCS RHR Suct LP4 HL 8703- RHR to hot legs 1 and 2 A. 8701 or 8702 closed only.

B. 8701 or 8702 closed AND series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN".

C. 8703 closed AND series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN".

D. Series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN", only.

Proposed Answer: D. Series contactor for 8809A "CUTIN", only.

Explanation:

All 3 valves are verified closed (step 1) prior to operating 8809A (step 2). However, none of these prevent operation of 8809A. Only the series contactor must be cutin.

A incorrect. These valves are in series and are interlocked when placing RHR in service. They are verified closed in the step before operating 8809A, but are not interlocked with the valve.

B incorrect. The series contactor must be closed but the valves are not interlocked.

C incorrect. 8703 is not interlocked with 8809A.

D correct\. One contact on each phase closes, which allows AC to be applied to the motor when the switch is taken to the open or close position. The contactors are normally "cutout" to prevent inadvertent operation. The only requirement to operate 8809A is to take the contactor to "cutin".

Technical

References:

LB-2, ECA-1.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the RHR System.

Question Source: Bank (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E11 EA2.2 - Ability to determine and interpret the following as Group # 1 they apply to the (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation). K/A # E11 EA2.2 Adherence to appropriate procedures and operation within the Rating 3.4 limitations in the facilitys license and amendments.

Question 55 The crew is performing step 6, of ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Recirculation, "Determine Containment Spray Requirements.

In order to determine the number of Containment Spray pumps required for containment heat removal, the crew will check containment pressure,:

A. Refueling Water Storage Tank level and hydrogen concentration.

B. Containment Recirculation Sump level and hydrogen concentration.

C. Refueling Water Storage Tank level and number of containment fan coolers running.

D. Containment Recirculation Sump level and number of containment fan coolers running.

Proposed Answer: C. Refueling Water Storage Tank level and number of containment fan coolers running.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect - Containment Spray pumps do not take a suction off of the Containment Recirculation Sump. Hydrogen concentration is not a factor, but plausible because there is an explosive atmosphere if concentration is too high and some equipment, such as recombiners, are not operated in high hydrogen concentrations.

B. Incorrect - Containment Spray pumps do not take a suction off of the Containment Recirculation Sump, number of required containment spray pumps is affected by the total number of containment fan coolers running.

C. Correct - ECA-1.1, Step 6 requires RWST level, containment pressure and number of containment coolers running to determine the required number of containment spray pumps.

D. Incorrect - RWST does supply the containment spray pump but, number of required containment spray pumps is affected by the total number of containment fan coolers running not hydrogen concentration.

Technical

References:

ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Recirculation, Revision 24 Background Documents WOG Emergency Response Guidelines for ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, Revision 3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 20400 - Determine containment spray requirements during response to LOCA with loss of ECR capabilities Question Source: Bank #54 NRC L111 11/2012 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams Yes Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E05 G2.4.18 - Loss of Secondary Heat Sink: Knowledge of the Group # 1 specific bases for EOPs. K/A # E05 G2.4.18 Rating 3.3 Question 56 GIVEN:

• The crew has transitioned out of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection

• PK08-21, Safety Injection Actuation is ON

• Charging injection flow is 210 gpm

• RCS pressure is 2285 psig and rising

• RCS temperature is 550°F and rising

• Total Aux feed flow is 0 gpm

• Steam generator narrow range levels are offscale low

• Steam generator wide range levels are 33% and lowering Why will the RCPs be tripped under these conditions?

A. so natural circulation can be established.

B. so bleed and feed can be immediately established.

C. to prevent core uncovery if they trip later in the event.

D. to delay the time until bleed and feed must be initiated.

Proposed Answer: D. to delay the time until bleed and feed must be initiated.

Explanation:

Given the conditions, a determination must be made that a loss of secondary heat sink has occurred and then determine the reason the RCPs are tripped in FR-H.1 A. Incorrect. Removing RCP heat input to the RCS is the reason. Plausible because natural circulation must now be established and is adequate to remove decay heat.

B. Incorrect. If bleed and feed must be established, tripping RCPs is an action on the foldout page, however, its to remove the heat input.

C. Incorrect. Removing RCP heat input to the RCS is the reason. This is the reason they are tripped for a small LOCA.

D. Correct. RCPs are stopped to reduce heat input to the RCS to make the water in the SGs last longer, to delay the time until RCS bleed and feed must be initiated.

Technical

References:

FR-H.1 & background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Hs) (7920N)

Question Source: Bank # B-0063 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 024 G2.4.6 - Emergency Boration: Knowledge of EOP Group # 2 mitigation strategies. K/A # APE024 G2.4.6 Rating 3.7 Question 57 Which of the following lists the first three (3) boration options from MOST preferred to LEAST preferred to mitigate a positive reactivity event in accordance with OP AP-6, Emergency Boration?

1. Emergency boration valve, CVCS-8104.

2. VCT makeup system, FCV-110A.

3. RWST, SI-8805A/B A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 2 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 3, 1 Proposed Answer: C. 2, 1, 3 Explanation:

Per OP AP-6 Four Emergency Boration Methods

1. Start VCT makeup control in BORATE, Set BA flow SP > 30 gpm

2. Open Emergency Borate valve, CVCS-8104.

3. Swap charging pump suction to RWST & verify at least 90 gpm charging flow.

4. Locally open Manual Emergency Borate valve, CVCS-8471 (100' Blender Room).

A. Incorrect. The Emergency Borate valve is the second preferred choice. Plausible because the procedure is named "Emergency B. Incorrect. 8104 is second preferred.

C. Correct. The preferred order is makeup; 8104 then RWST D. Incorrect. RWST is the least preferred of the 3 listed Technical

References:

OP AP-6, LPA-6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of the abnormal operating procedure to mitigate an event in progress. Order of emergency boration.

(3477)

Question Source: Bank # P-68694 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 028 AA2.09 - Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 2 following as they apply to the Pressurizer Level Control K/A # APE028 AA2.09 Malfunctions: Charging and letdown flow capacities Rating 2.9 Question 58 Unit 1 is at full power.

Pressurizer level begins to lower due to a RCS leak. The crew enters OP AP-1, Excessive Reactor Coolant System Leakage.

Which of the following describes the maximum leakage that could occur without initiating safety injection per OP AP-1?

Pressurizer level stable with:

A. one charging pump with letdown in service.

B. one charging pump with letdown isolated.

C. two charging pumps with letdown in service.

D. two charging pumps with letdown isolated.

Proposed Answer: D. two charging pumps with letdown isolated.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. OP AP-1 scope states that the procedure covers conditions where the charging system is capable of maintaining pressurizer level while heaters maintain normal pressure.

One charging pump w/letdown is the normal lineup. This would be a leak, but not the largest the procedure allows.

B. Incorrect. The procedure directs isolating letdown, but max charging is two pumps.

C. Incorrect. This is the maximum charging however, letdown isolation is directed by AP-1 D. Correct. AP-1 directs starting an additional charging pump and if level is still lowering, isolate letdown. If level continues to lower, SI is initiated. If level stabilizes, the crew would continue in AP-1.

Technical

References:

OP AP-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3538 - List the leakage criteria which would require manual initiation of a safety injection Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 1.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E09 EK3.3 - Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses Group # 2 as they apply to degraded core cooling: Manipulation of controls K/A # E09 EK3.3 required to obtain the desired operating results during abnormal Rating 4.0 and emergency situations.

Question 59 The crew is performing the actions of EOP FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling.

The operator is directed to trip one of the four running RCPs.

Why is the one RCP tripped and not all four?

A. Preserve one pump from damage that may occur during operation under highly voided conditions; the other three pumps are kept running to avoid stagnant (inactive) loop formation.

B. Limit the heat input from the RCP to an already degraded core cooling condition; the other three pumps are kept running to avoid stagnant (inactive) loop formation.

C. Limit the heat input from the RCP to an already degraded core cooling condition; the other three are left running to maintain flow through the core.

D. Preserve one pump from damage that may occur during operation under highly voided conditions; the other three are left running to maintain flow through the core.

Proposed Answer: D. Preserve one pump from damage that may occur during operation under accident conditions; the other three are needed for core cooling.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. One pump is stopped (preferably #2) due to operating in a highly voided condition.

Stagnant loop is an issue of natural circulation cooldown w/o ECCS injection.

B. Incorrect. Limiting heat input is an issue for FR-H.1. Stagnant loop is an issue during natural circulation and no ECCS injection.

C. Incorrect, Heat input is an issue in FR-H.1. The other RCPs continue to provide single or two phase flow thru the core.

D. Correct. One pump is stopped (preferably #2) due to operating in a highly voided condition.

The other RCPs continue to provide single or two phase flow thru the core.

Technical

References:

LPE-C, FR-C.2 background, H.1 background, E-0.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920M - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Cs).

Question Source: Bank # B-0556 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.50 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 APE 076 AA2.01 -Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 2 following as they apply to the High Reactor Coolant Activity: K/A # APE 076 Location or process point that is causing an alarm AA2.01 Rating 2.7 Question 60 GIVEN:

• A large LOCA has occurred

• There is high RCS activity

• Containment pressure is 12 psig

• Containment temperature is elevated

• The crew has entered E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant

• RM-30 and RM-31, Containment High Range Area Monitors are in alarm The operator reports readings on Steamline Radiation Monitors, RM-71, 72, 73 and 74 are rising.

Which of the following has occurred?

A. The monitors are responding properly to a steam generator tube rupture.

B. The monitors are responding properly to radiation streaming from containment (shine).

C. Radiation streaming from containment (shine) is causing the monitors to fail.

D. High temperatures in the area of the monitors is causing them to fail.

Proposed Answer: B. The monitors are responding properly to radiation streaming from containment (shine).

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. A tube rupture would not affect all rad monitors, the MSIVs are closed due to high containment pressure.

B. Correct. High radiation levels in Containment due to clad or fuel failure can increase process monitor readings outside Containment due to increased background levels. Normally the Containment wall will provide >105 reduction in radiation levels, however, RM-71 to 74 can be exposed to Containment radiation by streaming through the main steam lines causing an increase in ALL steam line radiation monitors. This should not be interpreted as a SG tube rupture if there are other indications of LOCA or fuel damage that can explain the high level reading in all steam lines.

C. Incorrect. the montors are not failing, they are functioning properly.

D. Incorrect. For events, such as a faulted steam generator outside containment, various instruments can fail, the rad monitors are not one of those and the steamlines are intact.

Technical

References:

LG-4A, E-2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37878 -Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the RMS DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #24 NRC L061C (02/2009) X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.9 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO E02 EK2.2 - SI termination: Knowledge of the interrelations Tier # 1 between SI termination and the following: Facilitys heat removal Group # 2 systems, incl primary coolant, emergency coolant, decay heat K/A # E02 EK2.2 removal systems, and relations between the proper operation of Rating 3.5 these systems to the operation of the facility.

Question 61 Which of the following is the key SI termination parameter that demonstrates there is adequate core cooling?

A. RCS inventory B. RCS pressure C. Secondary heat sink D. RCS subcooling Proposed Answer: D. RCS subcooling Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Two separate indications of RCS inventory are used in SI termination criteria steps, level and reactor vessel level.Pressurizer level should be relied on only with hot leg or core exit subcooling present. In SI termination steps in the ERGs, pressurizer level is only checked after adequate RCS subcooling is confirmed.

B. Incorrect. RCS pressure is used as one of the SI termination criteria as a confirmatory symptom. RCS pressure is used as a trended value since the requirement is for it to be stable or increasing. Stable or increasing RCS pressure ensures that RCS subcooling will also be stable or increasing and that SI flow is effective in increasing RCS inventory. It should be noted that this symptom is only valid if adequate secondary heat sink is available and, therefore, always comes after the secondary heat sink check in the SI termination criteria.

C. Incorrect. purpose is to ensure continued secondary heat removal capability and, therefore, RCS subcooling after SI flow termination.

D. Correct. An indication of RCS subcooling, preferably at the core exit, is used in all SI termination criteria steps within the ERGs. Subcooling is the most direct indication available that core cooling is being adequately maintained. It also provides an indication that adequate secondary heat sink is being provided.

Technical

References:

Executive Volume: SI Termination/Reinitiation References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: State the criteria for SI termination (7685)

Question Source: Bank # A-1035 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E13 EK1.3 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the Group # 2 following concepts as they apply to the (Steam Generator K/A # E13 EK1.3 Overpressure). Annunciators and conditions indicating signals, Rating 3.0 and remedial actions associated with the (Steam Generator Overpressure Question 62 GIVEN:

• The Heat Sink CSF has a YELLOW "GO TO H.2" due to pressure in one steam generator rising to 1130 psig

• The crew is going to cooldown the RCS to less than 554 °F using the other three steam generators 554°F corresponds to the _______________ pressure.

A. lowest steam generator safety valve opening B. highest steam generator safety valve opening C. 10% steam dump opening D. main steam design Proposed Answer: A. lowest steam generator safety valve opening Explanation:

Cooling down to 554 is a remedial action, the fact that it corresponds to the lowest safety valve setpoint is the operational implication.

A. Correct. The safeties are rated to prevent exceeding 110% of steam generator design pressure. The setpoint for the lowest safety is 1065 psig (1080 psia) for a Tsat of 554F.

B. Incorrect. Safety valves highest pressure lift setpoint is 1135 psig..

C. Incorrect. 10% steam dump setpoint is 102 psig or 550F D. Incorrect. Design pressure is 1185 psig Technical

References:

LC-2A, LPEH References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Hs) (7920N)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E15 EK1.2 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the Group # 2 following concepts as they apply to the (Containment Flooding): K/A # E15 EK1.2 Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures Rating 2.7 associated with containment flooding.

Question 63 What concern do the actions required by EOP FR-Z.2, "Containment Flooding," address?

A. Loss of required RWST inventory B. Damage to post-accident equipment C. Loss of ECCS recirculation capability D. Boron dilution of ECCS recirculation sump contents Proposed Answer: B. Damage to post-accident equipment Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The concern is damage to equipment needed for safe shutdown.

B. Correct. Guideline FR-Z.2, RESPONSE TO CONTAINMENT FLOODING, provides actions to respond when the containment level is greater than design flood level. This level is significant since the critical systems and components, which are necessary to ensure an orderly safe plant shutdown and provide feedback to the operator regarding plant conditions, are normally located above the design flood level.

C. Incorrect. The concern is damage to equipment needed for safe shutdown.

D. Incorrect. The concern is damage to equipment needed for safe shutdown.

Technical

References:

FR-Z.2 background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3551R - Explain the general purpose/function (including MACs) of EOPs (FR-Zs)

Question Source: Bank #P-85720 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.8 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E16 G2.4.20 - High Containment Radiation: Knowledge of the Group # 2 operational implications of EOP warnings, cautions, and notes. K/A # E16 G2.4.20 Rating 3.8 Question 64 GIVEN:

• A LOCA has occurred

• Containment pressure is 2 psig

• The crew is performing the yellow path actions of FR-Z.3, Response to High Containment Radiation Level

• In accordance with FR-Z.3, the Shift Foreman is consulting with the TSC about starting the containment spray pumps Which of the following:

1) lists a radiation monitor that drives entry into FR-Z.3?

2) in accordance with the background for FR-Z.3, states the potential undesirable effect of starting the containment spray pumps?

NOTE:

• RM Containment Area High Range Monitor

• RM-44A - Containment Exhaust Radiation Monitor Potential Undesirable Effect A. RM-30 unnecessary depletion of the RWST B. RM-44A unnecessary depletion of the RWST C. RM-30 challenge the lower limit of containment pressure D. RM-44A challenge the lower limit of containment pressure Proposed Answer: D. RM-30 challenge the lower limit of containment pressure.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. RM-30 and 31 are the accident monitors used to drive the Containment Integrity status tree for high radiation. The reason, however, is the potential to draw a negative pressure in containment and challenge lower limit of containment pressure. The spray pumps take a suction from the RWST and its plausible to think that, as such, their operation would lead to unnecessary depletion.

B. Incorrect. RM-44A & B has an auto action to isolate containment purge, therefore, plausible to believe they would also be part of the CSF. Reason as stated above is for a challenge to containment pressure.

C. Correct. Operation could challenge the low limit of containment, and the radiation monitors are 30 (& 31). Starting the pumps could lower containment temperature and pressure, possibly challenge the low limit of -3.5 psig.

D. Incorrect. Operation could challenge the low limit of containment,however, the monitors are RM-30 and 31, not RM-44A and B.

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Technical

References:

LPE-ZI, F-0, FR-Z.3 & background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain the basis of emergency procedure steps. (7920Q)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #P-29660 X New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.75 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 1 E08 EA1.2 - Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as Group # 2 they apply to the (RCS Overcooling). Operating behavior K/A # E08 EA1.2 characteristics of the facility. Rating 3.2 Question 65 FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition, allows termination of SI if RVLIS Full Range level is at least 60%.

The 60% indication (including allowance for instrument uncertainties) corresponds to:

A. The top of the core B. The top of the hot legs C. The reactor vessel flange D. Three and a half feet above the bottom of the active fuel Proposed Answer: A. The top of the core Explanation:

A. Correct. 60% corresponds to the top of the core. As long as there is sufficient subcooling, then core cooling is assured.

B. Incorrect. Top of the hot legs is approximately 70%. This is a level usually associated with maintaining natural circulation (hot legs full which inhibits void migration into the U-tubes)

C. Incorrect. this would assure the vessel is full.

D. Incorrect. this level (32%) is entry into C.1 (inadequate core cooling)

Technical

References:

OIM A-2-2, FR-P.1, LPE-P References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (FR-Ps). (7920P)

Question Source: Bank # P-51729 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.1.5 - Ability to use procedures related to shift staffing, such as Group # 1 minimum crew complement, overtime limitations, etc. K/A # 2.1.6 Rating 2.9 Question 66 According to OP1.DC37, Plant Logs, which of the following is the preferred operator for filling the Ops Responder position?

A. A Turbine Building watch B. An Auxiliary Building watch C. Polisher Watch (non-regen unit)

D. Unit 1 or non-outage unit BOPCO Proposed Answer: C. Polisher Watch (non-regen unit)

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Turbine building watch is one of the possibilities listed but not the preferred.

B. Incorrect. Aux Building building watch is one of the possibilities listed but not the preferred.

C. Correct. Per OP1.DC37, of the choices listed, the preferred watchstander is the non-regen unit Polisher watch.

D. Incorrect. Not listed, but there are positions, such as the person who fills out the watch list that the term "non-outage unit".

Technical

References:

OP1.DC37 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.1.19 - Ability to use plant computers to evaluate system or Group # 1 component status. K/A # 2.1.19 Rating 3.9 Question 67 Time 0 2 seconds later What is the status of rod control and charging?

A. Rods are not moving and charging is not changing.

B. Rods are inserting at maximum speed and charging flow is not changing.

C. Rods are not moving and charging is rising.

D. Rods are inserting at maximum speed and charging flow rising.

Proposed Answer: A. Rods are not moving and charging is not changing.

Explanation:

A. Correct. The loop 1 input is thrown out by PCS as soon as the temperature deviates by 10F. Prior to the failure, Loop 2 was controlling and still is controlling. No change to rod control will occur or to pressurizer level program.

B. Incorrect. If Loop 1 was not de-selected, rods would be inserting at max speed. The level program is from 547F to approximately 577F but because the unit is full power at less than 577F (normal plant condition), its plausible that charging would not change (at the top of band).

C. Incorrect. Top of level band is 577F and could be causing charging to rise but may know that rod control de-selected the channel.

D. Incorrect. This is the proper response if the channel is not de-selected.

Technical

References:

LA-1, LA-4A, LA-3A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 40457 - Discuss abnormal conditions associated with the RCS Question Source: Bank #68 8/2014 (L121) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.1.29 - Knowledge of how to conduct system lineups, such as Group # 1 valves, breakers, switches, etc. K/A # 2.1.29 Rating 4.1 Question 68 An operator is tasked with performing a breaker operation that if performed incorrectly could result in a significant reduction in power.

In accordance with OM15.ID8, Human Performance Error Prevention Tools, which of the following human performance tools requires the performer and verifier to reference the guiding document separately and mutually agree on the following?

• Component

• Expected equipment condition prior to action

• Action to take

• Equipment condition to achieve A. Peer checking B. Concurrent verification C. Independent verification D. Correct Component Verification Proposed Answer: B. Concurrent verification Explanation:

OM15.ID8, step 9.5.1 Concurrent verification shall be used if improper equipment manipulation can result in any of the following:

• Fuel damage

• Loss of a safety function

• Loss of reactivity control

• Death or disabling injury

• Overexposure to ionizing radiation

• Plant trip or unintended significant reduction in power

• Severe equipment damage or property loss

• OP1.ID5 Step 5.7.1.a

• Uncontrolled discharge or emission of harmful substances A. Incorrect. Peer check is performed by two operators, but at the same time and place to prevent an error by the performer.

B. Correct. CV is a series of actions taken by two workers working together, at the same time and place, to separately confirm the condition of a component before, during, and after an action, when consequences of an incorrect action would lead to immediate and irreversible DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 harm to the plant or personnel.

C. Incorrect. A series of actions taken by at least two workers working separately and independently to confirm the condition of a component after the performer places it in that condition.

D. Incorrect. A comparison of the working documents to the equipment tags and labels to ensure the correct components has been located prior to operating equipment or beginning work.

Technical

References:

OM15.ID8 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the expectations for the use of Human Error Prevention Tools.

(41665)

Question Source: Bank # P-33379 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 1.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.2.3 - Knowledge of the design, procedural, and operational Group # 2 differences between units. K/A # 2.2.3 Rating 3.8 Question 69 Which of the following are the maximum allowable cooldown rates for Unit 1 and Unit 2 in E-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown?

A. The rates for Unit 1 and Unit 2 are the same, (25 °F/hour).

B. The rates for Unit 1 and Unit 2 are the same, (50 °F/hour).

C. The Unit 1 rate is half of the Unit 2 rate, (U1 - 25 °F/hour / U2 - 50 °F/hour).

D. The Unit 1 rate is twice of the Unit 2 rate, (U1 - 50 °F/hour / U2 - 25 °F/hour).

Proposed Answer: C. The Unit 1 rate is half of the Unit 2 rate, (U1 - 25 °F/hour / U2 - 50

°F/hour).

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Unit difference, max rate for U2 is 50 F/hr B. Incorrect. Unit difference, max for U1 is 25 F/hr, U2 is 50 F/hr C. Correct. Correct rates for Unit1 and Unit 2 D. Incorrect. Correct rates but for wrong units.

Technical

References:

E-0.2 (unit 1 and 2)

References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 7920C - Explain basis of emergency procedure steps (E-0.2 series)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #69 L091 NRC (07/2011) X New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.25 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.2.12 - Knowledge of surveillance test procedures Group # 2 K/A # G2.2.12 Rating 3.7 Question 70 The operator is performing STP I-1A, Routine Shift Checks Required by Licenses.

12.5.2 - Check all current RCS accumulator levels are 59% [52%] AND 75% [82%].

What is the significance of the bracketed 52% and 82% values?

A. These are the Technical Specification limits.

B. These are the acceptance criteria with uncertainties.

C. These are the limits if using control board meters and not the PPC.

D. These are the limits if the readings are taken on instruments outside the Control Room.

Proposed Answer: A. These are the Technical Specification limits.

Explanation:

The acceptance criteria are given in the subsection for each verification. The Technical Specification limits, if different than the acceptance criteria, are shown in brackets [ ]. The acceptance criteria take into account instrument inaccuracies, gauge readability and other uncertainties.

A. Correct. Brackets are used to denote TS limits if different from the acceptance criteria.

B. Incorrect. Opposite of the meaning, the acceptance criteria are not bracketed.

C. Incorrect. Either can be used, values are the same.

D. Incorrect. no provision for outside the control room readings. There are readings takent in the field, but they are separate parts of the STP.

Technical

References:

STP I-1A References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 45712 - Demonstrate the ability to make log entries and correct mistakes on log entries.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.10 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.2.22 -Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and Group # 2 safety limits. K/A # 2.2.22 Rating 4.0 Question 71 In accordance with Safety Limit SL 2.1.2, RCS Pressure SL, what is the maximum allowable RCS pressure and the action, if any, taken if exceeded in MODE 1?

A. 2500 psig; restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within one hour B. 2500 psig; does not apply in MODE 1 C. 2735 psig: restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within one hour D. 2735 psig: does not apply in MODE 1 Proposed Answer: C. 2735 psig: restore pressure and be in MODE 3 within one hour Explanation:

A. Incorrect. This is the design pressure. Time is correct.

B. Incorrect. This is the design pressure. Time is MODE 1 or 2 time.

C. Correct. Design pressure x 110%, time is 5 minutes (more limiting than MODE 1 or 2 due to lower RCS temperature)

D. Incorrect. Correct pressure, MODE 1 or 2 time.

Technical

References:

SL 2.1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 9701 -Explain Technical Specification 2.1 & 2.2 (Safety limits)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.3 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.3.4 - Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal or Group # 3 emergency conditions. K/A # 2.3.4 Rating 3.2 Question 72 Which of the following would be the highest exposure a male operator could receive in a year without requiring an extension above the DCPP administrative guideline?

A. 490 mrem B. 1450 mrem C. 1950 mrem D. 2475 mrem Proposed Answer: C. 1950 mrem Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 500 mrem is the limit for declared pregnant worker.

B. Incorrect. If thought the admin guideline limit was 1500 mrem C. Correct. Admin guideline is 2000 mrem. To exceed, need an extension.

D. Incorrect. would be correct if its thought the admin guideline is have the federal limit (2500 mrem).

Technical

References:

RP1.ID6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.12 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.3.12 - Knowledge of radiological safety principles pertaining Group # 3 to licensed operator duties, such as containment entry K/A # 2.3.12 requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked Rating 3.2 high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

Question 73 Unit 1 is at full power.

An operator is preparing to enter Unit 1 containment for a non-emergency entry.

In accordance with RCP D-230, Radiological Control for Containment Entry, as part of exposure control for the operator, who shall maintain possession of the MIDS keys during the containment entry?

A. The operator making the entry B. The Unit 1 Shift Foreman (or designee)

C. The Work Control Shift Foreman (or designee)

D. The Radiation Protection Foreman (or designee)

Proposed Answer: D. The Radiation Protection Foreman (or designee)

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. While it may seem that having the operator control the key would be a positive control, the keys shall be in the possession of the RP Foreman (or designee)

B. Incorrect. The SFM authorizes entry and controls keys, but not the MIDS keys.

C. Incorrect. The WCSFM is responsible for authorizing work packages, but does not control the MIDS keys.

D. Correct. The RP foreman shall be in possession of the keys (or designee).

Technical

References:

RCP D-230 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.12 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.4.2 - Knowledge of system set points, interlocks and automatic Group # 4 actions associated with EOP entry conditions. K/A # 2.4.2 Rating 4.5 Question 74 Unit 1 is at 8% power when Pressurizer Spray Valve PCV-455B fails open.

Which of the following identifies the automatic reactor trip, if any, that could occur and cause the crew to enter E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, as RCS pressure lowers?

A. Pressurizer low pressure SI only. Pressurizer low pressure reactor trip is blocked by P-7.

B. Pressurizer low pressure SI only. Pressurizer low pressure reactor trip is blocked by P-10.

C. Either Pressurizer low pressure SI or Pressurizer low pressure reactor trip.

D. None, low pressure SI is blocked by P-11 and Pressurizer low pressure reactor trip is blocked by P-7.

Proposed Answer: A. Pressurizer low pressure SI only. Pressurizer low pressure reactor trip is blocked by P-7.

Explanation:

A. Correct. For the current plant conditions, RCS pressure is above P-11, enabling the low pressure SI. Power is less than 10%. Therefore, the P-7 trips are blocked. Therefore, low pressure reactor trip will not occur.

B. Incorrect. P-10 is an input to P-7 but it is P-7 that blocks/enables the "at power" trips.

C. Incorrect. Power is below P-7, blocking low pressure, high pressurizer level, RCP trips and loop low flow.

D. Incorrect. RCS pressure is above P-11. At the low pressure SI setpoint, a reactor trip will be generated.

Technical

References:

PK08-02, 08-05, 08-06, 08-08 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 37048 - Analyze automatic features and interlocks associated with the RPS Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level RO Tier # 3 G2.4.3 - Ability to identify post accident instrumentation. Group # 4 K/A # 2.4.3 Rating 3.7 Question 75 Which of the following is monitored on PAM1?

A. Pressurizer Level B. Auxiliary Feedwater Flow C. Steam Line Pressure D. Reactor Cavity Sump Level Proposed Answer: D. Reactor Cavity Sump Level Explanation:

All instruments listed are PAM instruments, but only Sump Level is PAM1 A. Incorrect. Not monitored on PAM1 B. Incorrect. Not monitored on PAMS 1 C. Incorrect. Not on PAM1 D. Correct. (WR) Containment Sump level is monitored by PAMS 1 Technical

References:

LB-10, Post-Accident Monitoring System References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the PAMS.

- PAMS Panel 1 Question Source: Bank # 74 NRC L081 (1/2010) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 1.75 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Small Break LOCA: Ability to evaluate plant performance Tier # 1 and make operational judgments based on operating Group # 1 characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument K/A # EPE009 G2.1.7 interpretation. Rating 4.7 Question 76 GIVEN:

• The crew is performing EOP E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, Step 9, CHECK If RHR Pps Should Be Stopped

• RCPs are secured

• MSIVs are closed

• RCS subcooling is 10°F and stable

• RCS Hot Leg Temperatures are approximately 380°F and stable

• RCS Cold Leg Temperatures are approximately 375°F and stable

• Steam Generator Narrow Range Levels are approximately 35% and rising slowly The BOPCO reports Loop 3 Tcold is 270°F failing low at a rate of approximately 25°F/minute.

All other RCS and steam generator parameters are unchanged.

What action should be taken by the Shift Foreman?

A. Continue with E-1 until the transition to E-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation is required.

B. Continue with E-1 until transitioning to E-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

C. Address the RCS Integrity Magenta path by entering FR-P.2, Response to Anticipated Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition.

D. Address the RCS Integrity Red path by entering FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition.

Proposed Answer: B. Continue with E-1 until transitioning to E-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

Explanation:

Due to the subcooling and RCS temperatures, a small break has occurred. The SRO must understand the instrument reading is invalid and that the correct procedure transition is to E-1.2 in a few steps when RCS pressure is checked to be stable and above 300 psig.

This supports the KA by testing the SROs understanding of the appropriate procedure to be used for a small break, based on RCS pressure and temperature and the interpretation of the validity of the false challenge to RCS integrity.

OP1DC10 step 5.1.5 states that when available, operators shall use redundant indications to check parameter validity. Also, in attachment 9, operator fundamentals, states "Validate the accuracy and proper function of indications through multiple independent means, if available, avoiding undue focus on any single indicator."

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 A. Incorrect. Good operator fundamentals (use of diverse indications) shows that the Tcold failure is an instrument failure and not a challenge to RCS Integrity. The proper response is to continue on in the procedure. However, because it is a small break, the crew will transition out of E-1 prior to RWST level reaching 33% and go to E-1.2 B. Correct. RCS pressure is above 300 psig and the Tcold indication is not valid, the proper procedure for recovery will be to transition to E-1.2 for small break LOCA recovery.

C. Incorrect. While the status tree is Magenta, but not valid. If valid the proper action would be to enter P.1, not P.2. While the integrity CSF Red and Magenta go to the same procedure, for CSF such as core cooling, a Magenta path transition is to C.2. Plausible that the operator would go to the procedure to verify it does not apply for the given conditions, such as in FR-H.1 D. Incorrect. The RCS Integrity status tree directs entering P.1 for Red or Magenta, however, the tree is Magenta at this time and not a valid indication. Plausible that the operator would go to the procedure to verify it does not apply for the given conditions, such as in FR-H.1 Technical

References:

E-1, E-1.2, F-0 (RCS Integrity and Core Cooling), OP1.DC10, FR-H.1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 APE026 AA2.06 - Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling K/A # APE026 AA2.06 Water: The length of time after the loss of CCW flow to a Rating 3.1 component before that component may be damaged Question 77 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 reactor is at 100% power

• A 200 gpm CCW leak occurs

• CCW makeup is NOT available Per the bases for LCO 3.7.7, Vital Component Cooling Water (CCW) System, which of the following describes the minimum time the surge tank is designed to provide system make-up, and what the time is based on?

A. 20 minutes; to allow time for the operators to cross-tie the units.

B. 20 minutes; system impairment due to water loss.

C. 5 minutes; to prevent damage to RCP seals.

D. 5 minutes; nitrogen gas intrusion in CCW loads.

Proposed Answer: B. 20 minutes; system impairment due to water loss.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Tech spec bases states that the surge tank volume provides a minimum of 20 minutes before the system becomes impaired. Incorrect reason. The system may be crossed tied, but only after the leak is identified and isolated. The 20 minutes stated in 3.7.7 does not state there is time for cross-tie.

B. Correct.Tech Spec Bases 3.7.7 states that 20 minutes based on a non-mechanistic leakage rate of 200 gpm, for operators to locate and isolate the leak or realign the CCW system into two separate vital loops before the system becomes impaired due to water loss.

C. Incorrect.Time is 20 minutes to take action. AP-11 states RCPs could be damaged in as little as 5 minutes if all cooling is lost.

D. Incorrect. Time is 20 minutes. The system maintains a nitrogen cover gas. It could migrate into the system (and cause impairment), if the surge tank emptied.

Technical

References:

TS bases B3.7.7 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 9694G -Apply TS 3.7 Technical Specification bases 3477L - Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of OP AP-11 to mitigate an event in progress including: Bases for TCOAs with operator actions of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less.

Question Source: Bank #L081 #78 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 EPE029 G2.2.25 - ATWS: Knowledge of the bases in Group # 1 Technical Specifications for limiting conditions for K/A # EPE029 G2.2.25 operations and safety limits Rating 4.2 Question 78 According to the bases of ECG 4.1, ATWS Mitigation System Actuation Circuitry, which of the following constitute(s) the basis for the automatic actions that occur when AMSAC actuates?

1. Loss of Offsite Power

2. Complete Loss of Feedwater

3. Complete Loss of Load A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 only Proposed Answer: C. 2 and 3 Explanation:

Note: AMSAC is a licensing requirement specified by 10 CFR 50.62 A. Incorrect. Plausible as it is the most threatening Primary Side Heat Removal Accident analyzed and results in high RCS pressure.

B. Incorrect. The LOOP is the most threatening primary side heat removal accident and the loss of feedwater is one of the two loss of secondary side heat removal accidents.

C. Correct. Secondary side heat removal accidents result in the highest challenge ATWS scenario.

D. Incorrect. Loss of feedwater is also part of the basis.

Technical

References:

ECG 4.1, LMCDFRS References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 11301 - Describe the categories of events evaluated and the limiting parameters for the ATWS accident analysis.

66039 - Apply the requirements of System 4 ECGs Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 APE 057 AA2.20 - Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 1 following as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC K/A # APE057 AA2.20 Instrument Bus: Interlocks in effect on loss of ac vital Rating 3.9 electrical instrument bus that must be bypassed to restore normal equipment operation Question 79 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power

• IY-12 inverter input voltage is 0 VDC

• The static switch fails to transfer The crew is going to force the transfer of the IY-12 static switch to power PY-12 from TRY-12, in accordance with OP J-10:IV, Instrument AC-Transfer of Vital Power Supply, section 6.17, Forced Transfer of PY Panel to Bypass With a Failed Sync Board.

1) After the transfer is made to TRY-12, what the status of PY-12? (Operable/Inoperable)

2) Which of the following describes the preferred method of forcing the transfer of the IY-12 static switch?

STATUS PREFERRED METHOD A. Operable Operation of the Manual Bypass Switch B. Operable Open IY AC and DC input breakers C. Inoperable Operation of the Manual Bypass Switch D. Inoperable Open IY AC and DC input breakers Proposed Answer: A. Operable Operation of the Manual Bypass Switch Explanation:

The transfer action may be RO knowledge, but the SRO knowledge is the operability of the PY once it is powered from its alternate source. Its plausible that being on an alternate source could be considered powered but not operable until realigned back to its inverter.

A. Correct. The method is correct, the manual bypass switch is preferred. Bases B3.8.9 states:

The 120 VAC vital buses are arranged in four buses and are normally powered from the inverters. The alternate power supply for the 120 VAC vital buses are Class 1E constant voltage source transformers powered from the same bus as the associated inverter.

OPERABLE 120 VAC vital bus electrical power distribution subsystems require the associated buses to be energized to their proper voltage from the associated inverter via inverted DC voltage, inverter using internal AC source, or Class 1E constant voltage transformer.

B. Incorrect. Opening the AC and DC input breakers is a method of forcing the transfer, but not preferred.

C. Incorrect. IAW OP J-10:IV, the preferred method is to use the manual bypass switch DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 because it is a make-before-break. The loss of DC to the IY makes the IY inoperable and the applicable Action is 3.8.7 Condition A which directs entry into 3.8.9 to "re-energize" the PY. The PY, once powered is then considered operable.

D. Incorrect. This is not the preferred method of forcing the transfer.

Technical

References:

Tech Spec 3.8.7, 3.8.9 and bases, J-10:IV, LJ10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: Describe the operation of the Instrument AC System. (6242)

Discuss significant Technical Specifications and Equipment Control Guidelines associated with the Instrument AC System. (9694, 9697, 9633)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 E04 LOCA Outside Containment: Knowledge of the bases Group # 1 for prioritizing emergency procedure implementation K/A # E04 G2.4.23 during emergency operations. Rating 4.4 Question 80 GIVEN:

• An RCS break in the Auxiliary building has occurred

• The crew transitioned from E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection to ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment A few minutes after isolating the second train of RHR, the following conditions exist:

• ECCS flow is stable

• RCS pressure is 400 psig and stable Which of the following describes the action to be taken by the Shift Foreman?

A. The LOCA is isolated; go to E-1.1, SI Termination, to perform SI termination.

B. The LOCA is NOT isolated, go to EOP ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation to delay depletion of the RWST by adding makeup and reducing outflow.

C. The LOCA is isolated; go to E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, for further recovery actions.

D. The LOCA is NOT isolated, go to EOP ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation to attempt to establish conditions to restore recirculation.

Proposed Answer: B. The LOCA is NOT isolated, go to EOP ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation to delay depletion of the RWST by adding makeup and reducing outflow Explanation:

To answer this question, the SRO must know the bases which explains what the expected response is if the LOCA is isolated, the procedures that can be entered from ECA-1.2.

A. Incorrect. The bases for ECA-1.2 states: This step instructs the operator to check RCS pressure to determine if the break has been isolated by previous actions. If the break is isolated in Step 2, a significant RCS pressure increase will occur due to the SI flow filling up the RCS with break flow stopped. The operator transfers to E-1, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLANT, if the break has been isolated, for further recovery actions. If the break has not been isolated, the operator is sent to ECA-1.1, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION, for further recovery actions since there will be no inventory in the sump.

B. Correct. The break is not isolated, ECA-1.1 is the appropriate procedure. The objective of the loss of ECR guideline is threefold: 1) to continue attempts to restore emergency coolant recirculation capability, 2) to delay depletion of the RWST by adding makeup fluid and reducing outflow, and 3) to depressurize the RCS to minimize break flow and DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 cause SI accumulator injection C. Incorrect. The break is not isolated. The operator transfers to E-1, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLANT, if the break has been isolated, for further recovery actions. If the break has not been isolated, the operator is sent to ECA-1.1, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION, for further recovery actions since there will be no inventory in the sump.

D. Incorrect. There is no inventory in the sump, recirculation cannot be established. The procedure will makeup to the RWST but there is no steps to attempt to identify and isolate the leak path.

Technical

References:

E-0, ECA-1.1 and 1.2 & background References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event Question Source: Bank #100 L091 07/2011 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 E11 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc.: Facility conditions Group # 1 and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal K/A # E11 EA2.1 and emergency operations Rating 4.2 Question 81 GIVEN:

• A LOCA has occurred

• Bus G is de-energized

• RCS pressure is 150 psig

• The crew transitioned from E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant to E-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation

• 8982B, RHR Pp 2 Suct from Containment Recirc Sump, can NOT be opened from the Control Room or locally The Shift Foreman should:

A. Finish E-1.3 and then transition back to E-1.

B. Transition from E-1.3 to ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

C. Remain in E-1.3 while attempting to establish a recirculation flow path until either a flowpath is established and then go to E-1 OR the RWST lowers to less than 4% and then go to ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

D. Remain in E-1.3 and implement Appendix M, RWST Makeup, until a flow path can be established, then transition back to E-1.

Proposed Answer: B. Transition from E-1.3 to ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. IF a train of RHR could be aligned, this would be the proper transition, as the LOCA is sufficiently large that if E-1 was entered, it would be the correct procedure.

B. Correct. No trains of RHR will be able to be aligned for cold leg recirc. The procedure will direct a transition to ECA-1.1. The power supplies are G and H. Therefore, RHR pump 1-1 is not powered. If its believed the power supplies are F and G (like the ECCS CCPs), then RHR pump 1-1 would be running and could be aligned for recirc.

C. Incorrect. There is not an IF/THEN step to allow for the crew to continue actions to establish a flowpath in this procedure. Note: containment spray pumps are tripped at 4%

(the RWST is "empty")

D. Incorrect. Appendix M is used in ECA-1.1 and is not used in E-1.3 to delay a transition if a flowpath cannot be established..

Technical

References:

E-1.3, ECA-1.1, E-1, OIM J-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank # R-32996 X New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 APE024 AA2.04 - AA2.04 Ability to determine and Group # 2 interpret the following as they apply to the Emergency K/A # APE 024 AA2.04 Boration: Availability of BWST (RWST - DCPP) Rating 4.2 Question 82 GIVEN:

• RCS WR Thot (all loops) - 205°F

• RCS WR Tcold (all loops) - 197°F

• SI-1-8805B, RWST to Charging Suction valve is inoperable An electrical short results in damaging the breaker for SI-1-8805A, RWST to Charging Suction valve.

Which of the following describes the impact, if any, on the required boration flowpaths and the RWST?

A. The required number of MODE 4 boration flowpaths is still met and the RWST is OPERABLE.

B. The required number of MODE 5 boration flowpaths is still met; the RWST is not required in this MODE.

C. The required number of MODE 4 boration flowpaths is NOT met but the RWST remains OPERABLE. Only ECG 8.4 ACTION D entry is required.

D. The required number of MODE 4 boration LCO flowpaths is NOT met and the RWST is inoperable. Entry into ECG 8.4, ACTION D and 3.5.4, ACTION B.1 is required.

Proposed Answer: A. The required number of MODE 4 boration flowpaths is still met and the RWST is OPERABLE.

Explanation:

The SRO must determine the proper mode (RO) and then make an OPERABILITY call on required flowpaths and the RWST.

A. Correct. The plant is in MODE 4 (WR TAVE greater than 200F), however, it is below the LTOP setpoint, therefore only one injection flowpath is required. A flowpath from the boric acid pumps satisfies the flowpath requirement. While 8805A and B open on SI to align a flowpath from the RWST, their inoperability does not impact RWST OPERABILITY.

B. Incorrect. The plant is in MODE 4. This would be correct if in MODE 5.

C. Incorrect. The plant is below the LTOP setpoint. If the plant was above LTOP, this would be the correct answer. There is no impact on RWST.

D. Incorrect. The failure has no impact on the RWST and the flowpath LCO is satisfied.

Technical

References:

ECG 8.4, 8.5, Tech Spec 3.5.4 and bases, LB-1B.

References to be provided to applicants during exam: ECG 8.4, 8.5, Tech Spec 3.5.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 036 AA2.02 Ability to determine and interpret the Group # 2 following as they apply to the Fuel Handling Incidents: K/A # APE 036 AA2.02 Occurrence of a fuel handling incident Rating 4.1 Question 83 Unit 1 refueling is in progress.

The RED overload light comes on at the Containment Manipulator Crane Console. The SRO suspects the fuel assembly being moved has been damaged.

Which of the following would be a positive indication to the SRO that the fuel element has been damaged?

A. Increased drag indicated on the Dillon Cell.

B. Increasing radiation levels on RE-58 and RE-59.

C. Report from the Control Room of increasing Source Range counts.

D. Gas bubbles coming to the surface of the water in the refueling cavity.

Proposed Answer: D. Gas bubbles coming to the surface of the water in the refueling cavity.

Explanation:

A incorrect, increased drag would be an indication of the assembly possibly resisting movement but not that it has actually been damaged. NOTE, if the limit is exceeded, then its a possible, additional indication.

B incorrect, these radiation monitors are in the SFP area.

C incorrect, this would be an indication of approaching criticality but not fuel damage.

D correct, a damaged fuel assembly would release the gas in the assembly. The gas comes to the surface which would indicate the integrity of the assembly is compromised.

Technical

References:

AP-21 References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective - 6619 - Explain the actions for fuel damage, actual or suspected Question Source: Bank #83 L051 NRC Exam 04/07 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.7 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 APE060 G2.4.44 - Accidental Gaseous Radwaste: Group # 2 Knowledge of emergency plan protective action K/A # APE060 G2.3.44 recommendations. Rating 4.4 Question 84 GIVEN:

• Gas Decay Tank 1-1 ruptures

• 1-RM-87 initially reads 1 E+1 uCi/cc

• 15 minutes later, 1-RM-87 rises to 3 E+1 uCi/cc When is the Shift Manager required to notify the US Coast Guard of applicable Protective Action Recommendations?

A. At the SAE declaration, after notifying the county, state and NRC.

B. At the GE declaration, after notifying the county, state and NRC.

C. At the SAE declaration, after notifying the county and state but prior to notifying the NRC.

D. At the GE declaration, after notifying the county and state but prior to notifying the NRC.

Proposed Answer: D. At the GE declaration, after notifying the county and state but prior to notifying the NRC.

Explanation:

PARs are declared for GE (unless dose assessment or field measurements exceed PAG criteria.

This could be the case if the EOF is manned. If this was the case, the SM would not be making the call).

Recent plant change to PARs removed any PAR below GE. Previously, at SAE PARs were possible.

A. Incorrect. USCG is not notified until after notifying the county and state, at the GE level.

Desired outcome is all are notified within 15 minutes. This is done prior to notifying the NRC.

B. Incorrect. Correct level of PAR declaration.County and state notifications made first and the Coast Guard is done prior to the NRC.

C. Incorrect. Required at the GE level, notification sequence is correct.

D. Correct. USCG is notified after county and state at the GE level (above 2.0 E+1) and prior to the NRC.

Technical

References:

LEP-2, LEP-3, EP-G3, EAL wall chart (All page)

References to be provided to applicants during exam: EAL All chart Learning Objective: 42287 - As described in EP G-3, state the requirements for the following:

• Initial Notifications (Time Critical)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 1 E16 G2.4.41 - High Containment Radiation: Knowledge of Group # 2 the emergency action level thresholds and classifications. K/A # E16 G2.4.41 Rating 4.6 Question 85 GIVEN:

• A design break LOCA has occurred

• RCS pressure is 50 psig

• Containment pressure spiked to 27 psig

• Currently Containment pressure is 23 psig and lowering slowly

• One train of Containment Spray is in service

• All CFCUs are running in LOW

• Containment radiation as read on RM-30 is 22 R/hr

• Containment radiation as read on RM-31 is 17 R/hr

• Heat Sink Critical Safety Function Status Tree is RED Which of the following EAL classifications should be made by the Shift Manager?

A. GE due to loss of three barriers B. GE due to loss of two barriers and potential loss of the third barrier C. SAE due to loss of two barriers D. SAE due to potential loss of two barriers Proposed Answer: C. SAE due to loss of two barriers Explanation:

Current Status:

Loss of Fuel Cladding (RM-30 > 20 R/hr) Note, loss is EITHER RM-30 OR RM-31 (both not required)

Potential Loss of Fuel Cladding - Heat Sink - RED - not met as heat sink not required for large LOCA Loss of RCS (RM-30 or RM-31 >6 R/hr) (or Loss due to RCS leak rate greater than makeup as indicated by loss of subcooling (as there is for a LOCA)

Containment barrier is not affected A. Incorrect. Containment is not affected. The lowering pressure (Containment Loss (1)) is due to spray and not an "unexplained Containment pressure drop following initial increase".

B. Incorrect. Containment is not affected. Containment pressure is greater than 22 psig, but one train of spray is in service. Also, there is a potential loss of fuel cladding but as cladding is already counted as "Loss", it is not a third barrier to count the MAGENTA as the potential loss.

C. Correct. RM-30 above 6 R/hr and 20 R/hr results in loss of two barriers (Fuel and RCS)

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 D. Incorrect. Only one "potential loss" possible (RCS leak greater than capacity of one charging pump in the normal charging mode), but if the heat sink RED is a potential loss, or the containment pressure (7) was assumed to be met, then this would also be correct.

Technical

References:

EAL charts Hot References to be provided to applicants during exam: EAL charts, LEP2 page 49 Learning Objective: Given indications of an event, use EP G-1 to classify the event with 100%

accuracy within 15 minutes. (42285)

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 005 G2.2.25 - RHR: Knowledge of the bases in Technical Group # 1 Specifications for limiting conditions for operations and K/A # 005 G2.2.25 safety limits. Rating 4.2 Question 86 GIVEN:

• At 2000 on the 2nd Unit 1 began a shutdown

• At 0700 on the 3rd Unit 1 entered MODE 3

• At 0700 on the 5th Unit 1 entered MODE 6 When the crew entered MODE 6, what was the minimum RHR flow required and a reason for the requirement?

A. 1300 gpm; remove decay heat.

B. 1300 gpm; prevent vortexing and air entrainment of the RHR system piping.

C. 3000 gpm; remove decay heat.

D. 3000 gpm; prevent vortexing and air entrainment of the RHR system piping.

Proposed Answer: C. 3000 gpm; remove decay heat.

Explanation:

Bases for LCO 3.9.6 states:

The flow rate of more than 3000 gpm is determined by the flow rate necessary to provide sufficient decay heat removal capability and to prevent thermal and boron stratification in the core prior to 57 hours6.597222e-4 days <br />0.0158 hours <br />9.424603e-5 weeks <br />2.16885e-5 months <br /> subcritical. With 57 hours6.597222e-4 days <br />0.0158 hours <br />9.424603e-5 weeks <br />2.16885e-5 months <br /> or more of core subcriticality a reduced flow rate of 1300 gpm based upon a reduced decay heat load. Both of these flow rates are points of the same flow rate verses decay heat curves. The 1300 gpm limit also precludes exceeding the 1675 gpm upper flow limit to prevent vortexing and air entrainment of the RHR piping system.

RHR pump vortexing (failure to meet pump suction requirements) during mid-loop operation may result in RHR pump failure and nonconservative RCS level indication.

Surveillance serves the same function but with A. Incorrect. Time since subcritical is less than 57 hours6.597222e-4 days <br />0.0158 hours <br />9.424603e-5 weeks <br />2.16885e-5 months <br /> (time from MODE 3 is 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />).

Required flow is 3000 gpm. Time since shutdown began is greater than 57 hours6.597222e-4 days <br />0.0158 hours <br />9.424603e-5 weeks <br />2.16885e-5 months <br /> and would be a possibility if incorrectly calculated.

B. Incorrect. Time subcritical is less than 57 hours6.597222e-4 days <br />0.0158 hours <br />9.424603e-5 weeks <br />2.16885e-5 months <br />. This is the bases reason for the 1300 gpm requirement at mid-loop.

C. Correct. Time subcritical is 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br />, per the bases, the reason is to remove decay heat.

D. Incorrect. Per the bases, the reason is decay heat removal, air entrapment is possible if at mid loop and limit is 1300 gpm to prevent exceeding 1675 gpm.

Technical

References:

LCO 3.9.6 and Bases References to be provided to applicants during exam: LCO 3.9.6 Learning Objective: 9694I -Apply TS 3.9 Technical Specification bases Question Source: Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 006 A2.06 - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the Group # 1 following malfunctions or operations on the ECCS; and (b) K/A # 006 A2.06 based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, Rating 3.5 control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Water hammer Question 87 Unit 1 is at full power.

STP M-89, ECCS System Venting is in progress following maintenance.

The Shift Foreman is informed that level at inspection point SI-1-125 is 4.4 inches.

What action(s) should be taken by the SFM?

A. No action required, level is acceptable.

B. Enter LCO 3.0.3 only.

C. Enter LCO 3.0.3 and use STP M-89A to determine acceptability of the void.

D. Enter LCO 3.5.2 ACTION A.

Proposed Answer: C. Enter LCO 3.0.3 and use STP M-89A to determine acceptability of the void.

Explanation:

M-89 checks for minimum water levels at all ECCS vent locations. These levels represent the levels which can challenge the ECCS and RCS components by voiding, water hammer, pump cavitation, gas binding or pumping of non-condensable gases into the reactor vessel following an SI signal or during shutdown cooling.

A. Incorrect. Low level equates to larger than allowable voids. Therefore, action is required because level is less than the required 5.3 inches (attachment 9.1)

B. Incorrect. SI-1-125 is an "A" for Potential Plant Impact". Per Attachment 9.1, A points are TS 3.0.3 entry. ADDITIONALLY, note 8 states M-89A must also be used to determine void size. There are A points that do not have note 8, so its possible for misapplication.

C. Correct. SI-1-125 is an "A" for Potential Plant Impact". Per Attachment 9.1, A points are TS 3.0.3 entry. ADDITIONALLY, note 8 states M-89A must also be used to determine void size.

D. Incorrect. Points such as SI-1-171 (right above SI-1-125) are "B" points which are train related and only require entry into 3.5.2.

Technical

References:

STP-89 Attachment 9.1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: STP-89 Attachment 9.1 Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.3 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 008 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 1 malfunctions or operations on the CCWS, and (b) based on K/A # 008 A2.02 those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or Rating 3.5 mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: High/low surge tank level Question 88 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 is at full power.

• AR PK01-07 "CCW SYS SURGE TK LVL/MK-UP" alarms

• LI-139 is reading 2% and lowering

• LI-140 is reading 1% and lowering

• Makeup is NOT available

• All CCW Pump amps are stable

• RCP radial bearing outlet temperatures are 190 degrees F. and slowly rising

• Leak location has determined to be CCW piping in the Auxiliary Building Which procedure and action(s) per procedure should be immediately implemented by the Shift Foreman?

A. Go to AP-11, Malfunction of Component Cooling Water System, section C, CCW System Outleakage. Trip the reactor, all RCPs, and all CCW pumps.

B. Go to AP-11, Malfunction of Component Cooling Water System, section C, CCW System Outleakage. Trip the reactor and all RCPs. Monitor CCW Pumps for signs of cavitation.

C. Go to AP-28, Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunction, section E, Loss of CCW to an RCP or RCP High Temperature. Monitor RCP parameters, including the radial bearing temperatures.

D. Go to AP-28, Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunction, section E, Loss of CCW to an RCP or RCP High Temperature. Trip the reactor and all RCPs.

Proposed Answer: B. Go to AP-11, Malfunction of Component Cooling Water System, section C, CCW System Outleakage. Trip the reactor and all RCPs. Monitor CCW Pumps for signs of cavitation.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The RNO for section has the reactor tripped when surge tank level is off-scale low. CCW pumps are monitored for cavitation.

B. Correct.If level is off scale low, (continuous action), then the reactor is tripped and RCP tripped. The action is then to monitor the CCW pumps for cavitation.

C. Incorrect. while bearing temperatures are rising, the imminent danger to be addressed first is the loss of CCW. Temperatures are low enough that if the setpoint is known, this DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 would be the appropriate action if AP-28 was the priority. Currently the entry conditions are not met, section E looks for a cause of loss of CCW or high RCP temperatures. The immediate concern is CCW (AP-11)

D. Incorrect. while bearing temperatures are rising, the imminent danger to be addressed first is the loss of CCW. If AP-28 was the priority and the setpoint is not known, the assumption could be made the conservative action is to trip the RCPs (foldout page item, setpoint is 225°F)

Technical

References:

OP AP-11 section C & AP-28 and FOP References to be provided to applicants during exam: None Learning Objective: 3477L - Given an abnormal condition, summarize the major actions of OP AP-11 to mitigate an event in progress including: Bases for TCOAs with operator actions of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 012 G2.2.22 - RPS: Knowledge of limiting conditions for Group # 1 operations and safety limits. K/A # 012 G2.2.22 Rating 4.7 Question 89 Unit 1 is in MODE 2 performing a plant startup.

A review of surveillance paperwork finds that the setpoint for the Power Range High Flux Low trip setpoint for Power Range N43 is out of tolerance.

Which of the following describes:

1) If entry into MODE 1 is permitted

2) The accident or condition that is the basis for the setpoint of the Power Range High Flux Low trip A. 1) The plant may enter MODE 1.

2) DNBR.

B. 1) The plant may enter MODE 1.

2) Positive reactivity addition excursion from low power.

C. 1) The plant may NOT enter MODE 1.

2) DNBR.

D. 1) The plant may NOT enter MODE 1.

2) Positive reactivity addition excursion from low power.

Proposed Answer: B. 1) The plant may enter MODE 1. 2) Positive reactivity addition excursion from low power Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Per LCO 3.0.4 because there is not a shutdown requirement, as there is in ACTION B, the plant may change modes. The accident is rod bank withdrawal.

B. Correct. Because there is not a shutdown requirement in LCO 3.3.1 ACTION E which states that the only required action is to place in trip in 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />. Once that is done, the plant has met the LCO. Per the bases, the accident is rod bank withdrawal.

C. Incorrect. Mode change can be made.

D. Incorrect. Mode change can be made.

Technical

References:

LCO 3.0.4, 3.3.1 ACTION E and bases References to be provided to applicants during exam: TS 3.3.1 Learning Objective: 9694C - Apply TS 3.3 Technical Specification bases.

Question Source: Bank (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #S-1308 New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 062 A2.11 - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following Group # 1 malfunctions or operations on the ac distribution system; and (b) K/A # 062 A2.11 based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or Rating 4.1 mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Aligning standby equipment with correct power source (D/G)

Question 90 GIVEN:

• A Site Area Emergency was declared 90 minutes ago

• All Emergency facilities are fully staffed and operational

• Bus G is energized from its Emergency Diesel Generator

• Bus F and H are de-energized The Shift Foreman is considering implementing Appendix X of ECA-0.3, Crosstie of Vital Bus to cross-tie 4 kV Vital Bus G to Bus F.

Whose approval is required to implement Appendix X?

A. The Shift Manager B. TSC Director C. Site Emergency Coordinator D. Emergency Director Proposed Answer: C. Site Emergency Coordinator Explanation:

A. Incorrect. If the SM still had the responsibility, this would be correct.

B. Incorrect. The TSC director has the responsibility to coordinate ongoing TSC operations.

If unsure of roles and responsibilities, it may appear the "director" is in charge of the TSC (like the ED is in charge at the EOF).

C. Correct. At 90 minutes, TSC is manned (required in 60 minutes). Per ECA-0.3 Appendix X, SEC approval required.

D. Incorrect. The EOF is manned and ED in charge of the EPlan response, however, the SEC approval is required.

Technical

References:

OP1.DC10, page 47, ECA-0.3, EP EF-1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #L091 #91 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 017 G2.2.23 - In-core Temperature Monitor: Ability to Group # 2 track Technical Specification limiting conditions for K/A # 017 G2.2.23 operations. Rating 4.6 Question 91 Unit 1 is at full power. Thermocouples 1 and 7 are inoperable.

The following sequence of events occur:

• At 0800 on 04/01, Thermocouple 42 and 2 are declared inoperable

• At 1200 on 04/04, Thermocouple 47 and 11 are declared inoperable Which of the following describes the LCO 3.3.3 actions, if any, to be taken for each thermocouple failure?

When Thermocouple 42 & 2 When Thermocouple 47 & 11 Fail Fail A. No action required ACTION A, due by 1200, 05/04 B. ACTION A, due by 0800, 05/01 ACTION A, due by 1200, 05/04 C. ACTION A, due by 0800, 05/01 ACTION C, due by 0800, 04/08 D. No action required No action required Proposed Answer: A. No action required ACTION A, due by 1200, 05/04 Explanation:

A. Correct. All thermocouples are in Quadrant 1. 1 and 7 are Train A and B respectivel.TC 42 is one of 3 remaining in the interior for Train A and TC 2 is one of 2 remaining in the outer for train A. When they fail, there are still 2 in the interior and one in the perimeter.

The requirement is 4 OPERABLE, two in each train, therefore, no action is required as ALL train B TCs are OPERABLE (meeting the 4 per quadrant) and the two per train (one inner and one outer is required). When 47 and 11 fail, no there is only one in the train and LCO 3.3.3, condition A applies.

B. Incorrect. No entry required for the failure of 42 and 2.

C. Incorrect. No entry required for failure of 42 and 2.

D. Incorrect. While there are greater than 4 OPERABLE TCs for quadrant I, there are not the required number for Train A and the ACTION must be taken. Because there are more than 4 TCs still OPERABLE, although not on Train A, it is plausible to believe the LCO is still met.

Technical

References:

Tech Spec 3.3.3, STP R-27A References to be provided to applicants during exam: Tech Spec 3.3.3, STP R-27A Learning Objective: 9697C -Apply TS 3.3 Technical Specification LCOs.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

Level of Difficulty: 3.0 New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.2 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 033 A2.03 - Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the Group # 2 following malfunctions or operations on the Spent Fuel K/A # 033 A2.03 Pool Cooling System ; and (b) based on those predictions, Rating 3.5 use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Abnormal spent fuel pool water level or loss of water level Question 92 GIVEN:

• Unit 1 core reload is in progress

• The upender in containment contains a spent fuel assembly that sustained some damage to its grid straps when being inserted into the upender

• PK11-04, Spent Fuel Pool LVL/Temp alarms

• The operator in the Fuel Handling Building reports that Spent Fuel Pool level is currently 23'6" and lowering slowly

• There are no other alarms Which of the following actions should be taken by the Shift Foreman?

A. Enter OP AP-22, Spent Fuel Pool Abnormalities and direct the operator to close SFS-50, Fuel Transfer Tube to Refueling Canal Isolation Valve.

B. Enter OP AP-22, Spent Fuel Pool Abnormalities and direct the operators to evacuate the Fuel Handling Building.

C. Enter OP AP-21, Irradiated Fuel Damage and suspend core alterations.

D. Enter OP AP-21, Irradiated Fuel Damage and direct the operators to evacuate the Fuel Handling Building.

Proposed Answer: A. Enter OP AP-22, Spent Fuel Pool Abnormalities and direct the operator to close SFS-50, Fuel Transfer Tube to Refueling Canal Isolation Valve.

Explanation:

A. Correct. With the transfer cart on the containment side, SFS-50 can be closed.

B. Incorrect. In the absence of a radiation alarm, the action is to close SFS-50 OR close the door on the SFP. With the cart in containment, the only action necessary is to close the door or SFS-50. No evacuation is required at this time (no radiation alarms).

C. Incorrect. while the assembly in the upender is damaged, there are no alarms or indications to enter AP-21. Also, there are no actions in AP-21 to aid in the low SFP level.

D. Incorrect. The entry requirements are not met and evacuation would not be warranted.

Technical

References:

OP AP-22, AP-21 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 6497 - State the responsibility and duties of Refueling SRO.

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 3.5 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 2 034 A1.01 - A1.01 Ability to predict and/or monitor Group # 2 changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) K/A # 034 A1.01 associated with operating the Fuel Handling System Rating 3.2 controls including: Load limits Question 93 While a bowed fuel assembly is being loaded into the core, the Refueling SRO observes the SLACK CABLE light energize.

Which of the following would be an indication that the fuel assembly was properly loaded onto the core plate and not hung up on an adjacent assembly?

A. Underload light is also lit.

B. Z-Z tape indicates the full down.

C. Minimal load indicated on the fuel cell.

D. Verification that the assembly has been lowered on index.

Proposed Answer: B. Z-Z tape indicates the full down.

Explanation:

A. Incorrect. underload would be encountered for both situations.

B. Correct. per OP B-8DS2,6.9.13 indications are:

• Minimal load is indicated on the load cell

• SLACK CABLE light is ON

• TUBE DOWN light is ON

• Z Z tape indicates full down

• Expected Gemco position for down on core plate C. Incorrect. this indication could indicate either condition.

D. Incorrect. if the assembly is bowed, it may have to be loaded off-index (as stated in precaution 5.4.11.a:If a fuel assembly being lowered is bowed or out of plumb such that the bottom nozzle is off the core location when the crane is indexed, or if the top of an adjacent assembly is violating the space for an assembly being lowered, it may be necessary to move the crane off index to permit entry into the core.) Additionally, just a verification that the assembly was on index does not mean it is on the core plate.

Technical

References:

OP B-8SD2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 36964 - Describe controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Fuel Handling system Question Source: Bank #91 NRC Exam 2/2009 (L061C) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.5 Comprehensive/Analysis DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.7 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.13 - Knowledge of shift or short-term relief turnover Group # 1 practices. K/A # G2.1.3 Rating 3.9 Question 94 Which of the following is on the SFM Turnover checklist from OP1.DC37, Plant Logs, that is posted at Shift Foreman Workstation for the on-coming Shift Foreman to review when preparing to take the watch?

1. Sealed components out of position

2. Key log

3. Technical Specification summary report A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only Proposed Answer: C. 2 and 3 only Explanation:

A. Incorrect. 1 on the WCSFM checklist.

B. Incorrect. 1 is on the WCSFM checklist.

C. Correct. Both are on the checklist.

D. Incorrect. Key log is also on the list.

Technical

References:

OP1.DC37, attachment 2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 3093 - Discuss the requirements for proper relief of the Shift Foreman Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.3 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.1.5 - Ability to use procedures related to shift staffing, Group # 1 such as minimum crew complement, overtime limitations, K/A # 2.1.5 etc. Rating 3.9 Question 95 Both units are at full power.

In accordance with OP1.DC37, Plant Logs, which of the following watch positions is the MOST preferred and which is the LEAST preferred for filling the Shift Technical Advisor (STA) function, assuming all are STA qualified?

1.) Both Units' Shift Foremen 2.) Shift Manager 3.) Work Control Shift Foreman Most Least Preferred Preferred A. 1 3 B. 2 3 C. 2 1 D. 1 2 Proposed Answer: C. 2 / 1 Explanation:

A. Incorrect. U1 and U2 SFM as STA is the last preferred option.

B. Incorrect. The Shift Manager is always the first preferred option but Both Units SFM is the last preferred option.

C. Correct. The Shift Manager is always the first preferred option followed by the WCSFM, then both Units Shift Foremen.

D. Incorrect. U1 and U2 SFM as STA is the last preferred option.

Technical

References:

OP1.DC37 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 2.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.2.7 - Knowledge of the process for conducting special or Group # 2 infrequent tests. K/A # G2.2.7 Rating 3.6 Question 96 Per OP1.ID4, Conduct of Infrequently Performed Tests or Evolutions, approval to perform Infrequently Performed Tests or Evolutions (IPTE) is the responsibility of the:

A. Shift Foreman B. Shift Manager C. Test Director D. Work Control Shift Foreman Proposed Answer: B. Shift Manager Explanation:

A. Incorrect. The SFM controls work on their respective unit, but approval of IPTE performance is the responsibility of the SM B. Correct. the SM approves the IPTE to be performed.

C. Incorrect. The Test Director has many responsibilities during an IPTE, but cannot approve its performance.

D. Incorrect. Most work goes thru the WCSFM but approval of an IPTE is the responsibility of the SM.

Technical

References:

OP1.ID4 step 5.7.1 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 33440 - Identify the responsibilities associated with various participants in the conduct and oversight of infrequently performed tests and evolutions.

Question Source: Bank # 95 NRC 3/2012 (L091C) X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.3 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.2.12 - Knowledge of surveillance procedures. Group # 2 K/A # G2.2.12 Rating Question 97 At 1200 a piece of Technical Specification equipment is declared inoperable.

Per the ACTION of the LCO, the crew is required to do an initial surveillance within one hour and then every 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> thereafter. It was initially performed at 1305 and again at 2145.

Which of the following describes the performance of the surveillances? (Including any allowable extensions.)

The 1305 surveillance _____ done within the required time; the 2145 surveillance _____ done within the required time.

A. was; was B. was not; was C. was; was not D. was not; was not Proposed Answer: B. was not; was Explanation:

Per SR 3.0.2 -

The specified Frequency for each SR is met if the Surveillance is performed within 1.25 times the interval specified in the Frequency, as measured from the previous performance or as measured from the time a specified condition of the Frequency is met.

For Frequencies specified as "once," the above interval extension does not apply.

If a Completion Time requires periodic performance on a "once per ..." basis, the above Frequency extension applies to each performance after the initial performance.

Therefore, the initial surveillance must be done within one hour (1300) and the subsequent surveillances must be done within 1.25 x 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> (10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />) or 2300.

A. Incorrect. the initial surveillance must be done within one hour (no extensions). The second surveillance would be within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> (plus 25%) of the initial completion or 2305.

B. Correct. The initial is not within the required time. The subsequent time is within the 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> after the initial completion.

C. Incorrect. Initial time is too late (no extension allowed for initial completion).

D. Incorrect. No extension for initial time and second surveillance is within allowed time..

Technical

References:

SR 3.0.2 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 9700 -Explain LCO 3.0 & SR 3.0 general requirements Question Source: Bank #

DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental Level of Difficulty: 2.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.1 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.3.4 - Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under Group # 3 normal or emergency conditions. K/A # G2.3.4 Rating 3.7 Question 98 In accordance with EP RB-2, Emergency Exposure Guidelines, the maximum whole body exposure (TEDE) for Radiological Assessment Sampling and Property Saving (mitigating damage to valuable property) is:

Radiological Assessment Property Saving A. 5 rem 5 rem B. 5 rem 10 rem C. 10 rem 5 rem D. 10 rem 25 rem Proposed Answer: B. 5 rem 10 rem Explanation:

The SRO (SM) is responsible for authorizing emergency exposure until the EOF/TSC is activated.

A. Incorrect. This is the limit for radiological assessment. Plausible because there are emergency exposures that re the same (dose saving and lifesaving)

B. Correct. This is the limit for radiological and property saving C. Incorrect. limits are reversed.

D. Incorrect. Limits for property and life saving respectively Technical

References:

RB-2 attachment 9.6 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 7954 - State the emergency dose limits Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank # P-33433 X New Question History: Last NRC Exam No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.4 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.4.5 - Knowledge of the organization of the operating Group # 4 procedures network for normal, abnormal, and emergency K/A # G2.4.5 evolutions. Rating 4.3 Question 99 GIVEN:

• Reactor trip and safety injection from 100% power due to a Main Steamline break upstream of the 1-1 MSIV

• The operator reports increasing radiation on steamline 1-3

• PK11-18, MAIN STM LINE HI RAD is ON

• NO RED or MAGENTA paths exist on the CSFSTs The proper procedure flowpath for this event will be E-0 to:

NOTE:

• E-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation

• E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture

• ECA-3.1, SGTR With Loss of Reactor Coolant - Subcooled Recovery Desired A. E-2 to E-3 B. E-3 to E-2 C. E-2 to E-3 to ECA-3.1 D. E-3, foldout page transition to E-2 and then back to E-3 Proposed Answer: A. E-2 to E-3 Explanation:

A correct. E-0 diagnostic steps are E-2, E-3, E-1. Crew would first go to E-2.

B incorrect, E-3 is performed after the faulted SG is isolated in E-2 .

C incorrect, although there is a faulted SG, it is not the ruptured SG, so a transition to ECA-3.1 is not appropriate.

D incorrect, although there is a transition to E-2 from the E-3 foldout page, this would mean an improper transition to E-3 was made from E-0.

Technical

References:

E-0, E-2, E-3 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 3552 - Given initial conditions, assumptions, and symptoms, determine the correct Emergency Operating Procedure to be used to mitigate an operational event Question Source: Bank #100 L051 2/2007 X (note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Level of Difficulty: 3.0 Comprehensive/Analysis X 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Level SRO Tier # 3 G2.4.11 - Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures. Group # 4 K/A # G2.4.11 Rating 4.2 Question 100 In accordance with OP1.DC10, Conduct of Plant Operations, which of the following is a responsibility of the Shift Foreman during an Abnormal Plant Operation?

A. Provide direction and supervision of the unit while maintaining an overall view of the plant situation.

B. Evaluate the relative risk to the plant by determining if plant conditions are improving, stabilizing or degrading.

C. Activate the emergency plan and assume emergency response command and control until relieved D. Ensures crew diagnostics are correct, proper procedure is being used and proper prioritization of tasks.

Proposed Answer: A. Provide direction and supervision of the unit while maintaining an overall view of the plant situation.

Explanation:

All responsibilities listed are SRO responsibilities, but each SRO position has unique responsibilities A. correct. This is the responsibility of the SFM. (step 5.2.2.c.1)

B. Incorrect. Responsibility of the STA/IA. (step 5.2.3.c.2)

C. Incorrect. Responsibility of the SM (step 5.2.1.e.1.

D. Incorrect. Responsibility of the SM (step 5.2.1.e.1.a).

Technical

References:

OP1.DC10 References to be provided to applicants during exam: none Learning Objective: 41661 -Describe the duties of the WCSFM/STA during abnormal conditions Question Source: Bank #

(note changes; attach parent) Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Last Two NRC Exams No Question Cognitive Level: Memory/Fundamental X Level of Difficulty: 1.5 Comprehensive/Analysis 10CFR Part 55 Content: 55.43.5 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Question Difficulty Question Difficulty 2.00 2.75 1 26 2 2.75 27 3.00 3.00 3.13 3 28 4 2.50 29 2.50 5 2.00 30 2.75 6 2.50 31 2.25 7 3.00 32 2.50 8 3.00 33 3.00 2.50 2.75 9 34 10 3.13 35 2.25 2.75 3.00 11 36 12 3.50 37 2.75 13 3.00 38 4.00 14 2.75 39 2.75 2.50 2.25 15 40 16 2.00 41 2.25 17 3.13 42 2.25 18 2.00 43 2.00 19 2.75 44 2.50 2.50 3.25 20 45 21 3.00 46 3.50 22 3.25 47 3.75 23 3.25 48 2.25 24 2.50 49 3.00 25 1.50 50 3.00 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1

DCPP L141 NRC Exam 15 April, 2016 Difficulty Difficulty Question Question 51 3.00 76 3.00 52 2.50 77 2.50 53 2.75 78 3.00 54 3.00 79 3.00 55 2.75 80 3.50 56 2.50 81 3.50 57 2.75 82 3.50 58 1.50 83 2.00 59 2.50 84 2.00 60 2.00 85 2.50 61 2.00 86 2.00 62 2.50 87 3.00 63 2.25 88 3.00 64 2.75 89 3.00 65 2.25 90 2.50 66 2.50 91 3.00 67 2.25 92 3.50 68 1.50 93 3.50 69 2.25 94 2.00 70 2.50 95 2.50 71 3.00 96 3.00 72 2.00 97 2.00 73 2.00 98 3.00 74 3.00 99 3.00 75 1.75 100 1.50 AVG DIFF (RO): 2.61 AVG DIFF (SRO): 2.76 DCPP L141 Answer Key Rev 1