Text

Initial Exam 2012-301 Draft RO Written Exam
	ML12270A394
Person / Time
Site:	Oconee
Issue date:	09/24/2012
From:	; NRC/RGN-II
To:	; Duke Energy Carolinas
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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 1 APEOO8 AK2.O1 Pressurizer (PZR) Vapor Space Accident (Relief Valve Stuck Open)

Knowledge of the interrelations between the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident and the following: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

Valves Given the following Unit I plant conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

I RC-66 (PORV) is leaking past its seat

Pressurizer temperature = 648 °F

Quench tank pressure = 5 psig Which ONE of the following describes the expected tailpipe temperature (°F) downstream of I RC-66?

A. 162 B. 228 C. 272 D. 648 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 1 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 1 General Discussion Answer A Discussion irrect: Plausible because this will be the answer if 5 psig is not converted to psia.

Answer B Discussion 3Ct. The enthalpy for the steam leaving the pressurizer at 648 OF will be the same at 5 psig (2Opsia).. 1124 BTU/lb. This enthalpy at 20 psia constitutes a wet vapor with a temperature of 228 OF. Throttling processes are constant enthalpy processes and energy remains

[pproximately the same on both sides of a throttling process.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect: Plausible if one thinks that the throttling process is a constant entropy process and looks for the same entropy as at 6480F 1.27 BTU/RJIb Answer D Discussion Incorrect: Plausible with the same misconception made at TMI which was assuming constant temperature across the valve due to throttling process.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of pzr vapor space accident (leaking PORV) on tailpipe temp by applying thermodynamic flow characteristics of a leaking Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension BANK ONS 2009A Ql Development References dent References Provided 34 EZRR APEOO8 AK2.O1 Pressurizer (PZR) Vapor Space Accident (Relief Valve Stuck Open)

Knowledge of the interrelations between the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident and the following: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

Valves 4O19 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 2 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 2 2 EPEOO9 EK2.03 Small Break LOCA Knowledge of the interrelations between the small break LOCA and the following: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

S/Gs Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time= 0400

Reactor Trip

SBLOCA has occurred

Rule 2 (Loss of SCM) in progress

IA and I B MD EFDWPs are operating Current conditions:

Time=0405

Rule 7 (SG Feed Control) in progress

RCS cooldown rate = 61°F! ,z hr 1

I) In accordance with Rule 2, initially (1) gpm EFDW flow will be established to each SG.

2) At 0405, in accordance with Rule 7 (SG Feed Control), EFDW flow must be throttled (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. 300

2. until RCS cooldown rate is within the TS limit B. 1. 300

2. to reduce the RCS cooldown rate however SG level must continue to increase C. 1. 450

2. until RCS coold own rate is within the TS limit D. 1. 450

2. to reduce the RCS cooldown rate however SG level must continue to increase Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 3 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 2 2 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because flow must be throttled to attempt to reduce the CID rate to less than the TS limit. However SG level must continue to increase.

Answer B Discussion Correct. EFDW is initially set to 300 gpm to each SG per Rule 2.

Per Rule 7 Note: After initial feed rates are established, flow should be throttled to maintain cooldown rate within Tech Spec limits but SG levels must continue to increase until LOSCM setpoint is reached. TS cooldown rate is 50 degrees per half hour.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect: First part is plausible because 450 gpm would be established if only one SG were available. Second part is plausible because flow must be throttled to attempt to reduce the C/D rate to less than the TS limit. However SG level must continue to increase.

Answer 0 Discussion Incorrect: First part is plausible because 450 gpm would be established if only one SG were available. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how EFDW flow is established to SGs during a SBLOCA.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L Job Level RO Cognitive Level Comprehension QuestionType NEW Question Source Development References Student References Provided EAP-LOSCM Attachment I Rule 2 R7 EOP Rule 2 and 7 EPEOO9 EK2.03 Small Break LOCA Knowledge of the interrelations between the small break LOCA and the following: (CFR 41.7 / 457)

S/Gs 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 4 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTON 3 3j EPEO1 1 EA2.O1 Large Break LOCA Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a Large Break LOCA: (CFR 43.5 /45.13)

Actions to be taken, based on RCS temperature and pressure saturated and superheated Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Core Subcooling Margin = 0°F

Loop A Subcooling Margin = (-)13°F

Loop B Subcooling Margin = 0°F

LPI Flow Train A= 1800 gpm stable

LPI FlowTrain B= 1780 gpm stable

Rule 2 (Loss of SCM) in progress.

IMAs complete

1) The SRO will direct actions from the (1) tab of the EOP.

2) In accordance with Rule 2, performance of Rule 3 (Loss of Main or Emergency FDW) (2) required.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1.LOSCM

2. is B. 1.LOSCM

2. is NOT C. 1.1CC

2. is D. 1.1CC

2. is NOT Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 5 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 3 3 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if total LPI flow were less than 3400 gpm.

Answer B Discussion

[brect. Transfer to LOSCM is required because any SCM is zero. Rule 3 is not performed because total LPI flow is greater than 3400 gpm.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because one SCM indication is super heated. However the Core must indicate super heat to require a transfer to the ICC tab. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if total LPI flow were less than 3400 gpm.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because one SCM indication is super heated. However the Core must indicate super heat to require a transfer to the ICC tab. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires determining the status of the RCS following a Large Break LOCA and what actions to take because the RCS is saturated.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only r

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided EOP SA EOP Rule 2 EPEOIl EA2.01 Large Break LOCA Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a Large Break LOCA: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13)

Actions to be taken, based on RCS temperature and pressure saturated and superheated 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 6 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 4 APEO15/017 AK2.lO Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) Malfunctions Knowledge of the interrelations between the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the following: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

RCP indicators and controls Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 65%

I LPSW-6 (UNIT I RCP COOLERS SUPPLY) fails closed Current conditions:

AP/16 (Abnormal RCP Operation) in progress

RCP Temperatures:

IAI 1A2 IBI 1B2 Upper Guide 182 197 188 185 Bearing Temp (°F)

Upper Seal 174 186 195 184 Housing Temp (°F)

Which ONE of the following is required per AP/1 6?

A. Manually trip the Reactor and stop ALL RCPs B. Manually trip the Reactor and stop RCPs 1A2 & IBI ONLY C. Stop RCP 1A2 ONLY and verify FDW re-ratios properly D. Stop RCP IBI ONLY and verify FDW re-ratios properly Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 7 of 202

FOR REVIEW ONLY - DO NOT DISTRIBUTE ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 4 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect: Plausible in that AP/24 (Loss of LPSW) directs tripping the reactor and then tripping all the RCPs. AP/24 is not in progress. Plausible if t is assumed that closing of LPSW-6 caused entry into AP/24.

Answer B Discussion irrect: Plausible because AP/1 6 directs that if any RCP meets immediate trip criteria and less than 3 RCPs will remain, then manually trip the Rx and immediately stop the affected RCPs. In this case only the I A2 RCP is exceeding the Immediate Trip Criteria. However, the 1 B 1 Upper Seal Housing Temperature of 195 degrees is below the trip criteria of 260 degrees but is above the MTR UPPER TH BRG TEMP 1 immediate trip criteria of 190 degrees.

Answer C Discussion Correct: The 1A2 RCP is the only RCP above the trip criteria. (Upper Guide Bearing Temp is greater than 195 degrees) Since only one RCP is tripped below 70% power a Rx trip is not required and FDW reratio is verified.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect: Plausible in that failure to recognize that I A2 is above trip criteria and believe that the I B 1 is then AP/1 6 would direct tripping the dverifying FDW re-ratios.

Basis for meeting the KA uires the ability to evaluate RCP indications and determine which RCPs require tripping.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only ob Level Cognitive Lev& QuestionType Question Source RO I Comprehension MOD IFIED ONS 2009 RO Q#5 Development References Student References Provided AP/l6 ONS 2009 Q5 APEO15/017 AK2.I0 Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) Malfunctions Knowledge of the interrelations between the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the following: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

RCP indicators and controls 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 8 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 5 5 APEO22 AKI.03 Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 /

45.3)

Relationship between charging flow and PZR level Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power =100%

Current conditions:

I HP-I 20 air line becomes detached from the actuator I) Pzrlevelwill (I)

2) In accordance with AP/I4 (Loss of Letdown and/or Makeup) (2) will be used to control Pzr level.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. I. increase

2. IHP-26 B. I. increase

2. IHP-4I0 C. I. decrease

2. IHP-26 D. I. decrease

2. IHP-410 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 9 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 5 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because other air operated primary valves fail open on loss of IA. Such as 1 HP-3 I (RCP SEAL FLOW CONTROL). Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because other air operated primary valves fail open on loss of IA. Such as 1 HP-3 I (RCP SEAL FLOW CONTROL). Second part is plausible because itis normally used if 1HP-26 will not open.

Answer C Discussion Correct. IHP- 120 fails closed on a loss of IA. This will cause a loss of normal makeup and Pzr level will decrease. AP/l 4 uses I HP-26 to control Pzr level if 1HP-120 fails closed.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it is normally used if 1HP-26 will not open.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the relationship between losing normal makeup and Pzr level.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References References Provided API14 ent AP/22 APEO22 AK1.03 Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 /

45.3)

Relationship between charging flow and PZR level 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status

-J Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 10 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUES9 TON 6 L 6 APEO26 2.4.49 Loss of Component Cooling Water (CCW)

APEO26 GENERIC Ability to perform without reference to procedures those actions that require immediate operation of system components and controls. (CFR:

4110/43.2/45.6)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Time = 0400

. Reactor power = 100%

. I CC-8 fails CLOSED CRD Stator Temps (°F)

Time CRD D4 CRD F6 CRD H8 CRD L1O 0401 116 145 118 139 0402 138 163 138 162 0403 165 184 176 191 0404 179 198 186 202 Which ONE of the following states the earliest time that initiating a manual reactor trip is required in accordance with OMP 1-18, Attachment A (Licensed Operator Memory Items)?

A. 0401 B. 0402 C. 0403 D. 0404 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 11 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 6 General Discussion Answer A Discussion rrect. Plausible because 145 degrees exceeds the OAC high alarm setpoint of 140 degrees.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because 162 and 163 degrees exceed the OAC high alarm setpoint of 140 degrees. There are now two above the alarm setpoint.

Answer C Discussion Correct. Two CRD temps are above 180 degrees. This requires an immediate reactor trip per OMP 1-18.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. 3 CRDs are above 1 80 degrees and this does meet the trip criteria. However it is not at the earliest time.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of immediate operator actions based on high CRD temperatures that are a result of losing CC flow.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L

Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source 0

H Development References Student References Provided OMP 1-18 APEO26 2.4.49 Loss of Component Cooling Water (CCW)

APEO26 GENERIC Ability to perform without reference to procedures those actions that require immediate operation of system components and controls. (CFR:

41.10/43.2/45.6) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 12 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 7 7j EPEO29 EA1.O1 Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)

Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a ATWS: (CFR 41.7/ 45.5 / 45.6)

Charging pumps Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Main Turbine trip

Reactor power = 29% decreasing

Rule I (ATWS/UNPP) initiated

1) Rule I will ensure (1) HPI pumps are operating.

2) In accordance with Rule 6 (HPI), to allow throttling HPI, (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1.two

2. CETCs must be decreasing B. 1. two

2. ALL WRNlsmustbe< 1%

C. 1. three

2. CETCs must be decreasing D. 1. three

2. ALLWRNIsmustbe<1%

Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 13 of 202

FOR REVIEW ONLY DO NOT DISTRIBUTE ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 7 L B General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if HPI F/C were in progress.

Answer B Discussion Correct. Rule 1 will ensure only two HPI pumps are operating. Per Rule 6, ALL WR Nis must be less than or equal to 1% prior to throttling HPI.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because per Rule 2, three HPI pumps would be operating. Second part is plausible because it would be correct i HPI F/C were in progress.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because per Rule 2, three HPI pumps would be operating. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how the HPI pumps are required to be operated during an ATWS.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memoiy NEW Development References Student References Provided Rule I and Rule 6 EPEO29 EAI.01 Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)

Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a ATWS: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Charging pumps 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status j

Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 14 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 8 8 EPEO38 EKI.02 Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the SGTR: (CFR 41.8/41.10 / 45.3)

Leak rate vs. pressure drop Unit I plant conditions:

SGTRintheIASG

SGTR tab in progress

RCS temperature = 540°F decreasing

I TA and 1 TB are de-energized (I) The SGTR tab directs minimizing core SCM during cooldown to (I)

(2) The method that will be used to reduce SCM is cycling (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. reduce the primary to secondary leak rate

2. Pzr spray B. 1. reduce the primary to secondary leak rate

2. the PORV C. 1. ensure the IA SG is isolated as quickly as possible

2. Pzr spray D. 1. ensure the IA SG is isolated as quickly as possible

2. the PORV Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 15 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 8 8 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if the RCP spray pump was operating.

Answer B Discussion Correct. The purpose of reducing SCM during a SGTR is to reduce RCS pressure as much as possible while still maintaining SCM and RCP NPSH. This minimizes the differential pressure between the RCS and the affected SG(s), thus minimizing the tube leak flow Using the PORV is a strategy used in the SGTR tab to reduce SCM in this case because the RCPs are not operating.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect: First part is plausible since cooling down and de-pressurizing in order to isolate the affected SG isamajor goal of the SGTR tab.

However it is not the reason for reducing SCM. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if the RCP spray pump was operating.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect: First part is plausible since cooling down and de-pressurizing in order to isolate the affected SO is major goal of the SGTR tab.

However it is not the reason for reducing SCM. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowing the reason for equalizing pressure on primary and secondary sides of ruptured S/G and how that is done.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension BANK ONS 2010A Q9 Development References int References Provided IEAP-SGTR R6 SGTR tab IONS 2010AQ9 EPEO38 EKI.02 Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the SGTR: (CFR 41.8 /41.10 / 45.3)

Leak rate vs. pressure drop 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 16 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 9 9 APEO54 2.4.4 Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW)

APEO54 GENERIC Ability to recognize abnormal indications for system operating parameters that are entry-level conditions for emergency and abnormal operating procedures. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 50% stable

ONLY the IA Main FDW pump is operating Which ONE of the following IA Main FDW Pump parameters would result in entry into the EOP?

A. Bearing oil pressure = 3 psig B. Turbine oil level = 5 inches below normal C. Discharge pressure = 1252 psig D. Turbine speed = 5000 rpm Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 17 of 202

FOR REVIEW ONLY DO NOT DISTRIBUTE ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 9 L General Discussion Answer A Discussion 1

Correct. Bearing oil pressure less than 4 psig will result in a Main FDW pump trip. This will result in a reactor trip and EOP entry.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because the low level alarm is 2.5 inches below normal. The ARG requires a manual trip of the FDWP if level reaches 7 inches below normal.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because this would be coritct for the B Main FDW pump.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it would be correct above 5200 rpm. Also 5000 rpm is above the MSC and MGU high speed stops.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of Main FDWP parameters which if exceeded would result in a FDWP trip and thus entry into the EOP.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only

[ Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided CF-F WPT R8 ARG 1SA-081B-3 APEO54 2.4.4 Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW)

APEO54 GENERIC Ability to recognize abnormal indications for system operating parameters that are entry-level conditions for emergency and abnormal operating procedures. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 18 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 10 EPEO55 EA2.03 Loss of Offsite and Onsite Power (Station Blackout)

Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a Station Blackout: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13)

Actions necessary to restore power Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

ACB-3isCLOSED Current conditions:

Switchyard Isolation occurs

PCB-8 is failed CLOSED

Keowee Unit I Emergency Lockout Which ONE of the following describes how power will be restored to the Unit I Main Feeder Buses?

A. Breakers I El and I E2 will automatically close to restore power via CT-I.

B. Breakers SKI and SK2 will automatically close to restore power via CT-4.

C. Encl.5.38 (Restoration of Power) will direct manually closing ACB-4 to restore power via CT-4.

D. Encl.5.38 (Restoration of Power) will direct manually closing SL-I and SL-2 to restore power via CT-5.

Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 19 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUES9 ION 10 L General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because this would be correct if PCB-8 were not failed closed.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Not correct because ACB-3 is KHU #ls undergmund feeder. With KHU #1 locked out it cannot tie to Unit 1 .Plausible because this would be correct if Keowee Unit 1 did not lockout.

Answer C Discussion Correct. Keowee Unit 1 is aligned to the Underground. When the Switchyard Isolation occurs, ONS Unit I will trip on high RCS pressure due to a load rejection. PCB-8 failing closed will prevent KHU #2 from energizing Unit ls MFBs via CT-i because the SWYD isolation is NOT complete. Since KHU #1 is locked out End. 5.38 will direct opening ACB-3 and closing ACB-4. This will line up KHU @2 to CT-4 and restore power.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate thinks that the next source of power is CT-5 instead of the other Keowee unit. CT-S would restore power.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how power is restored in accordance with EOP End. 5.38 for a given blackout event.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided EOP End. 5.38 EL-EPD Rl8 EPEO55 EA2.03 Loss of Offsite and Onsite Power (Station Blackout)

Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a Station Blackout: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13)

Actions necessary to restore power 401-9 Comments: [marks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 20 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 11 APEO56 AK3.02 Loss of Offsite Power Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power: (CFR 41.5,41.10/45.6 / 45.13)

Actions contained in EOP for loss of offsite power Given the following Unit 1 plant conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor trip from 1 00% power due to a loss of offsite power (Switchyard Isolation)

CT-I lockout Current conditions:

AP/I I (Recovery from Loss of Power) initiated

LOAD SHED COMPLETE is NOT lit on the ES Component Status Panel In accordance with AP/1 1, secondary loads must be secured to Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. prevent overrating CT-4 B. prevent overrating CT-5 C. ensure Standby Buses are operated within limits D. ensure adequate voltage to ES equipment during a subsequent LOCA Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 21 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUES1 ION 11 ii General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. Loads are reduced to prevent overmting CT-4 or CT-5. In this case power will be from CT-4.

Answer B Discussion incorrect. Plausible because it would be correct if power were coming from CT-5.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. The Standby Buses have current limits but that is not why loads must be reduced.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because the LOCA Load Shed circuit ensures adequate voltage to ES equipment during non-loss of power ES actuations.

Basis for meeting the KA The EOP has no actions for a Loss of Offsite Power only a blackout. This question was written for reasons of actions contained in AP/l 1 (Restoration of power) which does have actions for a loss of offsite power. This question requires knowledge of reasons for an action taken in AP/l I during a loss of offsite power.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References dent References Provided EAP-APG AP/l 1 AP/Il EL-EPD APEO56 AK3.02 Loss of Offsite Power Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power: (CFR 41.5,41.10 / 45.6! 45.13)

Actions contained in EOP for loss of offsite power 401-9 Comments: Remarks!Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 22 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 12 APEO57 AAI.O1 Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5/45.6)

Manual inverter swapping Given the following IDIC Vital Bus Inverter conditions:

INVERTER DC INPUT breaker Tripped-Open Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

IKVIC Panelboard is_______

A. automatically energized via the ASCO switch B. automatically energized via the Static Transfer Switch C. de-energized until the Manual Bypass Switch is used to align the alternate power source D. de-energized until the Alternate Source to Load Pushbutton is used to align the alternate power source Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 23 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 12 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because would be correct for an essential inverter.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because would be correct for an essential inverter.

Answer C Discussion Correct. The Manual Bypass Switch is used to align the loads to AC line.

Answer D Discussion

[incorrect. Plausible because this switch can be used to swap an essential inverter to AC line.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how a vital bus inverter in manually swapped to its alternate power source.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided EL-VPC R2/R5 APEO57 AAI .01 Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus: (CFR 41.7 /45.5 /45.6)

Manual inverter swapping 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 24 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 13 131 APEO58 AKI.01 Loss of DC Power Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of DC Power: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3)

Batteiy charger equipment and instrumentation Given the following plant conditions:

Initial conditions:

ALL three Units Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

I CA battery is inoperable due to the failure of the I CA Battery Charger Unit(s) MEET(s) the minimum requirements of LCO 3.8.3 (DC Sources Operating).

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 2 ONLY B. 3 ONLY C. 2and3ONLY D. 1, 2,and3 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 25 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 13 l3 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate could have the misconception that Unit 1 and the Unit that it backs up would be affected. Unit I backs up Unit 3 but could believe that it backs up Unit 2.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate could have the misconception that Unit 1 and the Unit that it backs up would be affected. Unit 1 backs up Unit 3.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate could have the misconception that only Unit 1 is affected.

Answer D Discussion Correct. With ALL three units at 100% power 5 of 6 batteries are required. ALL units meet the requirements of LCO 3.8.3.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of the operational implications of a failed batteiy charger and the operational impact of the loss on the DC system.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionTypo Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided TS 3.8.3 APEO58 AK1.01 Loss of DC Power Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of DC Power: (CFR 41.8 /41.10 / 45.3)

Battery charger equipment and instrumentation 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 26 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 14 APEO62 AAI.07 Loss of Nuclear Service Water Ability to operate and! or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water (S WS): (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Flow rates to the components and systems that are serviced by the SWS; interactions among the components Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time = 0400

LPI in Normal Decay Removal mode

I LPSW-251/252 (IA/lB LPI COOLER OUTLET CONTROL) in AUTO

All operating LPSW pumps are tripped

LPSW header = 15 psig Current conditions:

Time = 0405

B LPSW pump operating

LPSW header pressure = 96 psig increasing

IA LPI Cooler LPSW Flow = 3100 gpm increasing

1) At 0400 LPSW valves (1) automatically closed to isolate flow to the RBCUs.

2) At 0405, 1 LPSW-251 will automatically control LPSW flow in the IA LPI Cooler to a MAXIMUM of (2) gpm.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. have

2. 5200 B. 1. have

2. 7500 C. 1. have NOT

2. 5200 D. 1. have NOT

2. 7500 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 27 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 14 l4j General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. LPSW flow to the RBCUs will be isolated at a LPSW header pressure of 18 psig. When LPSW flow is re-established flow may increase in the LPI cooler above the control limit because the valve is in AUTO and will be full open and because other LPSW loads have been isolated including the RBCUs. If LPSW flow through the LPI Cooler reaches 5900 gpm 1LPSW-251 will reduce flow to about 5200 gpm.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct.. Second part is plausible because 7500 gpm is the LPI cooler Shell Side operability limit.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because other LPSW cooled components do not isolate on low pressure. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because other LPSW cooled components do not isolate on low pressure. Second part is plausible because 7500 gpm is the LPI cooler Shell Side operability limit.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of automatic operation of components during a loss of LPSW and how when flow is re-established this will caus flow to increase in the LPI coolers and how this flow is controlled..

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References [Student References Provided SSS-LPSW R6 PNS-RBC R5 PNS-LPI APEO62 AA1.07 Loss of Nuclear Service Water Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water (SWS): (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Flow rates to the components and systems that are serviced by the SWS; interactions among the components 401-9 Comments: [Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 28 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 15 APEO65 2.1.28 Loss of Instrument Air APEO65 GENERIC Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls. (CFR: 41.7)

1) During a loss of IA, I HP-5 (1) be supplied by the Auxiliary Instrument Air system.

2) A purpose of the Auxiliary Instrument Air system is to supply IA to components (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1.wilI

2. after a Switchyard Isolation B. 1. will

2. if a two inch diameter IA line break occurs C. 1. will NOT

2. after a Switchyard Isolation D. 1. will NOT

2. if a two inch diameter IA line break occurs Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 29 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 15 Genera! Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because one of the purposes of the AlA system is to supply air after a load shed event. A load shed does not occur during a Switchyard Isolation.

Answer B Discussion

[rrect. I HP-S is supplied by the AlA system. One of the purposes of the AlA system is to supply air to components if a line break greater than 1.5 inches occurs on the IA system.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because not all important HPI valves are supplies by AlA. 1HP- 15 (LDST MAKEUP CONTROL) is an example. Second part is plausible because one of the purposes of the AlA system is to supply air after a load shed event. A load shed does not occur during a Switchyard Isolation.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because not all important HPI valves are supplies byAlA. 1HP-l5 (LDST MAKEUP CONTROL) is an example. Second part is correct..

Basis for meeting the KA uires knowledge of the purpose of the AlA system in relation to a loss of IA.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only r

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW evelopment References 5

[ Student References Provided SSS-lA R37, 41

/22 APEO65 2.1.28 Loss of Instrument Air APEO65 GENERIC Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls. (CFR: 41.7) 4O19 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 30 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 16 l6 APEO77 AA1.01 Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: (CFR:

41.4, 41.5,41.7,41.10 /45.8)

Definition of terms: volts, watts, amps, VARs, power factor Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time =0400

Generator output = 850 MWe and 236 MVARs Current conditions:

Time=0415

Generator output = 850 MWe and 336 MVARs

1) The power factor at 0415 is (1) than at 0400.

2) If the generator exceeds the Underfrequency Maximum Allowable Time given in AP134 (Degraded Grid) the Main Turbine (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 1. higher

2. will automatically trip B. 1. higher

2. requires a manual trip C. 1. lower

2. will automatically trip D. 1. lower

2. requires a manual trip Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 31 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESI ION 16 16 General Discussion r

Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the candidate could have the misconception that as VARs increase so does power factor. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion

[rrect. First part is plausible because the candidate could have the misconception that as VARs increase so does power factor. Second part plausible because the AP does have the operator monitor how long a low frequency conditions lasts and trip the unit if it does not.

Answer C Discussion Correct. If MVARs increases and MWs stay the same power factor decreases. The Digital T/G control system monitors how long the unit operates in a low frequency condition and will trip the unit if the time limit is exceeded.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part plausible because the AP does have the operator monitor how long a low frequency conditions lasts and trip the unit if it does not.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowing the definition of power factor to determine how it changes with plant conditions.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided GFES CPO5 rPI34 Capability curve AP/34 EAP-ARG Attachment AP135 R6 I____________________________________

APEO77 AAI.01 Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: (CFR:

41.4,41.5,41.7,41.10 / 45.8)

Definition of terms: volts, watts, amps, VARs, power factor 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 32 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 17 BWEO4 EA2.1 Inadequate Heat Transfer Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Inadequate Heat Transfer)

(CFR: 43.5 /45.13)

Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time =0400

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Time = 0430

ALL Main and Emergency FDW pumps are NOT operating

LOHT tab in progress

RCS pressure = 2258 psig increasing

Pzr level = 381 inches increasing

1) At 0430, Rule 4 (Initiation of HPI Forced Cooling) (1) required to be initiated.

2) If Rule 4 is initiated, it will direct securing (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1.is

2. one RCP/loop B. 1.is

2. all butone RCP C. 1.isNOT

2. one RCP/loop D. 1. is NOT

2. all butone RCP Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 33 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 17 l7j General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it is what the LORT tab does prior to initiating Rule 4.

Answer B Discussion Correct. Rule 4 is initiated because Pzr level is greater than 375 inches. When implemented Rule 4 secures all but one RCP.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because RCS pressure is below 2300 psig which is criteria to initiate Rule 4. Second part is plausible because it hat the LOHT tab does prior to initiating Rule 4.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because RCS pressure is below 2300 psig. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires evaluating plant conditions to determine if Rule 4 should be run during a LOHT event.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided LOHT Tab Rule 4 BWEO4 EA2. I Inadequate Heat Transfer Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Inadequate Heat Transfer)

(CFR: 43.5 /45.13)

Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.

401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 34 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QIJESII.ON 18 18 BWEO5 EK3.3 Excessive Heat Transfer Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (Excessive Heat Transfer)

(CFR: 41.5 /41.10,45.6, 45.13)

Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal, and emergency situations.

Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

IAMSLB occurs Current conditions:

Rule 5 (MSLB) is complete

lASGTubeto SheIIzT= 146°F

Enclosure 5.16 (SG Tube-to-Shell zT Control) initiated IFDW-315 is throttled tofeed the IASG to cool the (1) and this is done to reduce the (2) stresses on the IA SG.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. shell more than the tubes

2. tensile B. 1. shell more than the tubes

2. compressive C. 1. tubes more than the shell

2. tensile D. 1. tubes more than the shell

2. compressive Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 35 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTiON 18 l8 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. Tubes are colder than the shell. The shell must be cooled more than the tubes to decrease the Tube-to-Shell delta t. A delta T of+ 146 degrees is a tensile stress concern.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it would be true for negative delta Ts.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it would be true for negative delta Ts. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it would be true for negative delta Ts. Second part is plausible because it would be true for negative delta Ts.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of manipulating controls during EHT to control SG Tube-to-Shell delta T.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References dent References Provided EAP-EHT R9, Ri 5 EOP End. 5.16 BWEO5 EK3.3 Excessive Heat Transfer Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (Excessive Heat Transfer)

(CFR: 41.5 /41.10,45.6,45.13)

Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal, and emergency situations.

4019 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 36 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUES9 TON 19 APEO24 AK3.01 Emergency Boration Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to Emergency Boration: (CFR 41.5, 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

When emergency boration is required Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

RCS pressure = 2360 psig increasing Current conditions:

Reactor power = 7% decreasing

1) The MINIMUM power level at which Rule I (ATWS/UNPP) is required to be performed to address Emergency Boration is (1)

2) The reason this power level is chosen is so the Boron will reduce reactor power to within the capacity of the (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1.1%

2. TBVs B. 1.1%

2. EFDW system C. 1.5%

2. TBVs D. 1.5%

2. EFDW system Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 37 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 19 l9 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because HPI can be throttled below 1% power. Second part is plausible because of a misconception that power is reduce within TBV capacity to ensure that the Main Steam relief valves close in a timely manner.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because HPI can be throttled below 1% power. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because of a misconception that power is reduce within TBV capacity to ensure that the Main Steam relief valves close in a timely manner.

Answer D Discussion Correct. During performance of IMAs, if power is greater than 5% Rule I must be performed. This is to reduce reactor power to within the heat removal capacity of the EFDW system.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the reason for the power level that will require emergency boration to be performed.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L

L Job Level RO Cognitive Level Memory QuestionType NEW Question Source Development References Student References Provided EOP IMAs EOP RULE 1 EAP-UNPP R2 APEO24 AK3.0l - Emergency Boration Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to Emergency Boration: (CFR 41.5, 41.10 / 45.6 /45.13)

When emergency boration is required 401-9 Comments: Remarks!Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 38 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 20 APEO5I AK3.O1 Loss of Condenser Vacuum Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Condenser Vacuum: (CFR 41.5,41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Loss of steam dump capability upon loss of condenser vacuum

1) The reason the TBVs are interlocked on low condenser vacuum is to prevent (1)

2) With the low condenser vacuum interlock active, the TBVs (2) be operated from the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. turbine exhaust hood heating

2. can B. 1. turbine exhaust hood heating

2. can NOT C. 1. damage to the main condenser

2. can D. 1. damage to the main condenser

2. can NOT Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 39 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 20 20 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because turbine exhaust hood heating will result from an increase in condenser back pressure. However it is not the reason for the interlock. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because turbine exhaust hood heating will result from an increase in condenser back pressure. However it is not the reason for the interlock. Second part is plausible because normally an interlock cannot be overridden.

Answer C Discussion Correct. The low vacuum interlock is to prevent damage to the condenser and the TBVs can be operated from the Aux Shutdown Panel.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because normally an interlock cannot be overridden.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the reason the TBVs have an interlock with low condenser vacuum.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided ICSDBD IC-ASP R6 STG-MT APEO5I AK3.01 Loss of Condenser Vacuum Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Condenser Vacuum: (CFR 41.5,41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Loss of steam dump capability upon loss of condenser vacuum 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 40 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 21 L 21 APEO37 AK3.05 Steam Generator (S/G) Tube Leak Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Steam Generator Tube Leak: (CFR 41.5,41.10 / 45.6 /45.13)

Actions contained in procedures for radiation monitoring, RCS water inventory balance, S/G tube failure, and plant shutdown Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 92% decreasing

Unit shutdown in progress per the SGTR tab

1) In accordance with the SGTR tab, Pzr level will be maintained between (1) inches.

2) The reason for this Pzr level band is to provide adequate inventory to (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. 140180

2. ensure Pzr heaters will remain covered if a subsequent reactor trip occurs B. 1. 140180

2. accommodate system shrinkage during shutdown/cooldown from 18%

power C. 1. 220260

2. ensure Pzr heaters will remain covered if a subsequent reactor trip occurs D. 1. 220260

2. accommodate system shrinkage during shutdown/cooldown from 18%

power Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 41 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUEST ON 21 2l General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because this is the correct level if the reactor is tripped.. Second part is plausible because Pzr level is maintained greater than 100 inches post trip in part to ensure Pzr heater are still available.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because this is the correct level if the reactor is tripped.. Second part is correct..

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because Pzr level is maintained greater than 100 inches post trip in part to ensure Pzr heater are still available.

Answer D Discussion Correct. Since the reactor has not been tripped, Pzr level is maintained 220 260 inches early in the shutdown to provide sufficient inventory to accommodate for the system shrinkage that will occur during the later stages of the shutdowri/cooldown from 18% power.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge concerning RCS inventory balance during a SGTR.

1 Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuostionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided EAP-SGTR R4 SGTR tab APEO37 AK3.05 Steam Generator (S/G) Tube Leak Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Steam Generator Tube Leak: (CFR 41.5,41.10 / 45.6 /45.13)

Actions contained in procedures for radiation monitoring, RCS water inventory balance, S/G tube failure, and plant shutdown 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 42 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 22 22 APEO68 AA1.07 Control Room Evacuation Ability to operate and for monitor the following as they apply to the Control Room Evacuation: (CFR 41.7 /45.5 /45.6)

PZR heaters Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Control Room evacuation is required due to a fire In accordance with plant procedures, RCS pressure will be controlled from the (1) using Pzr heater Bank 2 Groups B and (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. Auxiliary Shutdown panel 2.C B. 1. Standby Shutdown Facility 2.C C. 1. Auxiliary Shutdown panel 2.D D. 1. Standby Shutdown Facility 2.D Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 43 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 22 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because this would be correct if not for the fire. Second part is plausible because Prz bank 2 Group C heaters are controlled from the ASDP.

Answer B Discussion Correct, Per AP/8, since the evacuation is due to a fire, the plant will be controlled from the SSF. Pzr heater Bank 2- Group B and C are controlled from the SSF.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because this would be correct if not for the fire. Second part is plausible because the candidate could have a misconception on which group is controlled from the ASDP.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because the candidate could have a misconception on which group is controlled from the ASDP.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of Pzr heater operation following a CR evacuation.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-PZR AP/8 APEO68 AAI.07 Control Room Evacuation Ability to operate and I or monitor the following as they apply to the Control Room Evacuation: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

PZR heaters 4O19 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 44 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 23 23 EPEO74 EK2.02 Inadequate Core Cooling Knowledge of the interrelations between the Inadequate Core Cooling and the following (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

PORV Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

Initial conditions:

SBLOCA Current conditions:

EOP ICC tab initiated

ONLY the 3A HPI pump is injecting into the core

CoreSCM=(-)15°F

1) In accordance with the ICC tab 3RC-66 will (1)

2) In accordance with Rule 2 (LOSCM) HPI flow will be maximized . (2) gpm.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. be opened

2. 950 B. 1. be opened

2. 475 C. 1. remain in auto

2. 950 D. 1. remain in auto

2. 475 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 45 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 23 23 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect: First part is correct. Second part is plausible becase 950 gpm would be the limit with 2 HPI pumps and and 3HP-409 open.

Answer B Discussion Correct. JAW the ICC tab the PORV will be opened to increase ECCS flow into the core. With onl;y one HPI pump in the A header flow is limited to 475 gpm.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the PORV is allowed to cycle in LOHT tab. Second part is plausible becase 950 gpm would be the limit with 2 HPJ pumps and and 3HP-409 open.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the PORV is allowed to cycle in LOHT tab. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of how the PORV is used during ICC conditions.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided EAP-ICC R5 EOP ICC Tab Rule 2 EPEO74 EK2.02 Inadequate Core Cooling Knowledge of the interrelations between the Inadequate Core Cooling and the following : (CFR 41.7 /45.7)

PORV 4019 Comments Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 46 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 24 24 BWAO1 2.1.31 Plant Runback BWAO1 GENERIC Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup. (CFR:

41.10 /45.12) 7_RUNBACKS___\

QQQQ 1

IIIH 0

i: i:i I I I [-lI Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time = 0400

Reactor power = 100% decreasing

Control Rod Group I Rod 3 = 0% withdrawn Current conditions:

Time = 0430

Reactor power = 68% decreasing

IBI RCP trips

1) At 0400, the power to which the ICS is running the plant back is displayed in the (1) window. (refer to the drawing above)

2) Afterthe RCP trips, the unit (2) automatically stabilize at the required reactor power.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. upper

2. will B. 1. upper

2. will NOT C. 1. lower

2. will D. 1. lower

2. will NOT Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 47 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 24 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate has the misconception that the upper window is CTPD SET. Second part is plausible because it would be correct is power were above 74%.

Answer B Discussion if the candidate has the misconception that the upper window is CTPD SET. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it would be correct is power were above 74%.

Answer 0 Discussion Correct. During a runback the CTPD SET is shown in the lower window. This is the power the plant is going to. The runback light on the Load Control Panel would not be lit at 0430 because 68% is below the Loss of RCP pump load limit of 74%.

Basis for meetinq the KA Question requires knowledge of the location of controls used while monitoring a unit runback and if indications are as expected for current plant conditions.

Basis for Hi Cog L

Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW DeveIopment References Student References Provided STG-ICS R3 STG-ICS objectives AP/Ol Unit runback BWAO1 2.1.3 1 Plant Runback BWAO1 GENERIC Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup. (CFR:

41.10 /45.12) 401-9 Comments: Remarks!Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 48 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 25 25 BWAO4 AKI.3 Turbine Trip Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the (Turbine Trip)

(CFR: 41.8 /41.10 /45.3)

Annunciators and conditions indicating signals, and remedial actions associated with the (Turbine Trip)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time = 0400

Reactor power = 100%

Turbine in HAND Current conditions:

Time=0415

Reactor trip occurs

IMAs in progress, Rx Trip pushbutton just depressed

Turbine Stop Valve positions as indicated below

1) At 0400 the controlling signal to the TBVs is the (1) error signal.

2) At 0415, in accordance with the EOP an RO will (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Turbine Header pressure

2. Initiate Rule 5 (MSLB)

B. 1. Turbine Header pressure

2. Place BOTH EHC pumps in PULL TO LOCK C. I. SG Outlet pressure

2. Initiate Rule 5 (MSLB)

D. 1. SG Outlet pressure

2. Place BOTH EHC pumps in PULL TO LOCK Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 49 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 25 25 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part would be correct if the Turbine were not in MANUAL. Second part is plausible because if the Turbine is not successfully tripped an EHT will occur and Rule 5 must be initiated.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part would be correct if the Turbine were not in MANUAL. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion ect: First part is correct. Second part is plausible because if the Turbine is not successfully tripped an EHT will occur and Rule 5 must be tiated.

Answer D Discussion Correct. SG Outlet pressure is the TBV controlling signal with the Turbine in HAND. During IMAs if the Turbine is not tripped (all stop val closed) then BOTH EHC pumps are locked out to cause the Turbine stop valves to close.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires determining that the Turbine has not tripped and then taking the proper action to ensure the turbine trips in accordance with the EOP IMAs.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension MODIFIED ONS 2010A Q#85 Development References Student References Provided STG-ICS Ch3 EOP IMAs ONS 20010A Q85 BWAO4 AKI.3 Turbine Trip Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the (Turbine Trip)

(CFR: 41.8 /41.10 /45.3)

Annunciators and conditions indicating signals, and remedial actions associated with the (Turbine Trip) 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 50 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 26 26 BWEO8 EA1.1 LOCA Cooldown Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (LOCA Cooldown)

(CFR: 41.7/45.5/45.6)

Components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Time = 0400

LOCA CD tab in progress

ALL SCMs = 4°F increasing

RCS pressure is controllable

Statalarm ISA-071E6 (ES LPI Bypass Permit) actuated

1) The RCS pressure setpoint which will cause Statalarm ISA-07/E6 toactuateis (I) psig.

2) At 0400, in accordance with the LOCA CD tab, LPI (2) be manually bypassed.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. 865

2. will B. 1. 865

2. will NOT C. 1. 890

2. will D. 1. 890

2. will NOT Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 51 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 26 261 General Discussion Answer A Discussion rCorrect. Statalarm I SA-07/E6 (ES LPI Bypass Permit) will actuate at an RCS pressure of 865 psig. The LOCA CD tab requires the following to be met to bypass the ES channels.

L All SCMs> 0°F ES Bypass Permit satisfied RCS pressure controllable In this case all three conditions are met so the channels will be bypassed.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible in that SCM is low at 4 degrees. Candidate must know that all of the required conditions are met.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because 890 psig is where the permit resets. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because 890 psig is where the permit resets.. Second part is plausible in that SCM is 4 degrees. Candidate must know that all of the required conditions are met.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of safety system and manual actions taken during a LOCA cooldown.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension MODIFffiD 2007 RO RETEST Q#27 Development References Student References Provided ISA7/E6 (LP Injection ES Bypass Permit), EOP LCD Tab Ons 2007 Q27 IC-ES BWEO8 EA1.l LOCA Cooldown Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (LOCA Cooldown)

(CFR: 41.7/45.5 / 45.6)

Components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

4019 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 52 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUEST. iON 27 27 BWEI4 EA2.1 EOP Enclosures Ability to detennine and interpret the following as they apply to the (EOP Enclosures)

(CFR: 43.5 /45.13)

Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 83% stable Current conditions:

Switchyard Isolation

RCS pressure decreased to 1740 psig and is slowly increasing

1) The first EOP Enclosure that is required to be initiated by an RO after completion of IMAs and Symptoms Check is (I)

2) In accordance with OMP 1-18 (Implementation Standards During Abnormal and Emergency Events), the CRSRO (2) allowed to direct the RO to operate a valve while he in performing the above enclosure.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Enclosure 5.38 (Restoration of Power)

2. is B. 1. Enclosure 5.38 (Restoration of Power)

2. is NOT C. 1. Enclosure 5.5 (Pressurizer and LDST Level Control)

2. is D. 1. Enclosure 5.5 (Pressurizer and LDST Level Control)

2. is NOT Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 53 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 27 27 General Discussion E Answer A Discussion rrect. First part is plausible if the candidate believes power has not been restored. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion orrect. First part is plausible if the candidate believes power has not been restored. Second part is plausible because while running Rules the SRO cannot interrupt the RO to take EOP actions.

Answer C Discussion Correct. Enclosure 5.5 will be initiated per the EOP Subsequent Actions tab. OMP 1-18 does not prohibit an operator performing an EOP enclosure to be interrupted to perform actions from the EOP.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect: Firs part is correct. Second part is plausible because while running Rules the SRO cannot interrupt the RO to take EOP actions.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires the student to recognize plant conditions and select the appropriate EOP Enclosure to initiate.

Basis for Hi Cog L Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source

RO Comprehension MODIFIED 2009 RO Q#27 Development References Student References Provided EP/l/1800/00l Parallel Action Page, OMP 1-18 NS 2009 Q27 BWEI4 EA2.1 EOP Enclosures Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (EOP Enclosures)

(CFR: 43.5 /45.13)

Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.

401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 54 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 28 SYSOO3 K2.02 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

CCW pumps Which ONE of the following is the normal power supply to the IA CC pump?

A. IXL B. IXR C. 1XSI D. IXS2 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 55 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 28 28 General Discussion orrrect. I A CC pump is powered from 1 XL.

Answer A Discussion Correct. 1XL supplies power to the lA CC pump.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible since 1XR is a load center that does supply major primary components including RB Main purge Fan however it does not supply power to the CC pumps.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible since 1XS I is a load center that does supply major primary components including lA RBCU however it does not supply power to the CC pumps.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible since 1XS2 is a load center that does supply major primary components including IC RBCU however it does not supply power to the CC pumps.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of CC pump power supplies.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS CC SYSOO3 K2.02 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

CCW pumps 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 56 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 29 SYSOO4 K3.05 Chemical and Volume Control System Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CVCS will have on the following: (CFR: 41.7/45/6)

PZRLCS Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power 100%

1 HP-I 4 fails to the Bleed position I) I HP-120 will (I) to maintain Pzr level constant.

2) (2) will be entered to mitigate this event.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. I. open

2. AP/02 (Excessive Leakage)

B. 1. open

2. AP/32 (Loss of Letdown)

C. I. remain in its current position

2. AP/02 (Excessive Leakage)

D. I. remain in its current position

2. AP/32 (Loss of Letdown)

Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 57 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 29 29 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because a leak from the RCS exists. However since Letdown flow is being diverted LDST level will decrease but Pzr level will not be affected. Second part is correct, Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because a leak from the RCS exists. However since Letdown flow is being diverted LDST level will decrease but Pzr level will not be affected. Second part is plausible because Letdown flow is affected but is not lost.

Answer C Discussion Correct. When 1HP-14 fails in the Bleed position letdown flow will be diverted to the BHUT. This will cause LDST level to decrease but Pzr level will not be affected. !HP-l4 failing to the Bleed position is an entry conditions of AP/002.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because Letdown flow is affected but is not lost.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of LCS response to a failure of 1 HP-14. 1 HP-14 is a part of the CVCS.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided AP/002 SYSOO4 K3.05 Chemical and Volume Control System Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CVCS will have on the following: (CFR: 41.7/45/6)

PZRLCS 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 58 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 30 SYSOO5 A4.02 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7/45.5 to 45.8)

Heat exchanger bypass flow control Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

Reactor in MODE 4

Placing LPI in service for cooldown are initially throttled to stabilize RCS temperature in accordance with 0P13/AJ1 102/010 (Controlling Procedure for Unit Shutdown).

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 3LP-1 1 and 3LP-13 (3A/B LPI Cooler In let)

B. 3LP-12 and 3LP-14 (3A/B LPI Cooler Outlet)

C. 3LP-92 and 3LP-93 (3A/3B LPI CIr Byp Controller)

D. 3LPSW-4 and 3LPSW-5 (3N3B LPI CIr Shell Outlet)

Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 59 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 30 General Discussion Answer A Discussion orrect. Plausible because the inlet valve for a cooler could be throttled to control cooling.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because these valves are used to control LPI cooling at other times. They are used after the initial temperature stabilization.

Answer C Discussion Correct. 3LP-92 and 3LP-93 (3A/3B LPI Cir Byp Controller) are used to initially stabilize temperature when establishing an RCS cooldown with LPI.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because thses valves are used to control LPI cooling at other times. They are directed to be used in EOP End. 5.1 (ES Actuation).

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires when the bypass valves on the LPI coolers are used during an RCS cooldown.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-LPI R29 OP/I 103/010 SYS0O5 A4.02 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Heat exchanger bypass flow control 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 60 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 31 SYSOO6 K6.02 Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the ECCS: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Core flood tanks (accumulators)

Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

U3AU Core Flood Tank

> Pressure = 587 psig

> Level=12.87ft

3B Core Flood Tank

> Pressure = 629 psig

> Level=13.36ft Which ONE of the following describes the potential adverse effects if a large break LOCA were to occur?

A. 3A CFT will discharge an inadequate volume of water into the core due to the CFT level.

B. 3A CFT will discharge an inadequate volume of water into the core due to the CFT pressure.

C. 3B CFT will discharge too much inventory during the blow down phase and not cover the hotspot during re-flood due to CFT level.

D. 3B CFT will discharge too much inventory during the blow down phase and not cover the hotspot during re-flood due to OFT pressure.

Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 61 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 31 3j General Discussion Answer A Discussion

[rect:. Plausible because level is low but within the TS range.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect:. Plausible because pressure is low but within the TS range.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because level is high but within the TS range.

Answer D Discussion Correct. The CFT pressure is high> 625 psig. This can cause the CFT to discharge too soon and not cover the hot spot during re-flood.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how CFT conditions (pressure and level) can affect ECCS.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-CF R17 SYSOO6 K6.02 Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the ECCS: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Core flood tanks (accumulators) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 62 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 32 SYSOO6 K6.lO Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

Knowledge of the effect ofa loss or malfunction on the following will have on the ECCS: (CFR: 41.7 /45.7)

Valves Given the following Unit I conditions:

Time = 0400

Reactor power = 100%

Time = 0405

RCS pressure = 550 psig decreasing Time = 0445

RCS pressure 100 psig decreasing

I LP-1 7 is failed CLOSED

1) At 0405, if RCS pressure remains above LPI pump shutoff head, the LPI pumps are required to be secured by (1) in accordance with EOP End. 5.1 (ES Actuation).

2) At 0445, LPI flow (2) entering the core through BOTH LPI injection nozzles.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. 0415

2. is B. 1. 0415

2. is NOT C. 1. 0435

2. is D. 1. 0435

2. is NOT Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 63 of 202

FOR REVIEW ONLY - DO NOT DISTRIBUTE ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 32 32 General Discussion Answer A Discussion

[Incorrect. First part is plausible in the candidate has the misconception that the time allowed is 10 minutes. 10 minutes is the time allowed to ensure HPI flow is aligned following ES actuation due to a LOCA.. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible in the candidate has the misconception that the time allowed is 10 minutes. 10 minutes is the time allowed to ensure HPI flow is aligned following ES actuation due to a LOCA.. Second part is plausible because the main injection valve for the A header (1LP-17) is closed.

Answer C Discussion Per End. 5.1 the LPI must not operate against a shutoff head greater than 30 minutes. Due to the crossover mod LPI flow will enter the core through both nozzles even with 1 LP- 17 closed.

Answer D Discussion ect. First part is correct,. Second part is plausible because the main injection valve for the A header (1LP-1 7) is closed.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledege of ECCS response when a valve is failed closed.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L JobROLevel Cognitive Level Comprehension QuestionType Question Source NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-LPI R49 EOP End. 5.1 (ES Actuation)

SYSOO6 K6. 10 Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the ECCS: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Valves 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 64 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 33 33 SYSOO7 2.1.7 Pressurizer Relief Tank/Quench Tank System (PRTS)

SYSOO7 GENERIC Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation. (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12 / 45.13)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

OP/11A111031002, (Filling and Venting RCS) Enclosure 4.14 (Establishing Pzr Steam Bubble And RCS Final Vent) in progress

Quench Tank level = 83 inches

Quench Tank pressure = 1 .5 psig

The Pressurizer is vented to the Quench Tank for 30 minutes Which ONE of the following describes QT parameters that would indicate that Pzr Steam Bubble Formation is complete?

QT level (inches) QT pressure (psig)

A. 83.1 1.6 B. 83.1 3.5 C. 85.1 1.6 D. 85.1 3.5 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 65 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 33 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect: Plausible if you have the misconception that the Pzr vent line is above the water level in the QT and therefore both QT pressure and level increase only slightly as some but not all of the steam would condense as it was vented to the QT.

Answer B Discussion

[iorrect: Plausible if you have the misconception that the Pzr vent line is above the water level in the QT and therefore the steam being vented to the QT would cause preure to increase with little impact on level.

Answer C Discussion rrect. Per OP/I 103/002, Pzr steam bubble formation is complete (ie, all the N2 gas is vented out of the Pzr) when a change (rise) in QT pressure of less than 0.2 psig occurs and QT level increas by 2 inches. Since the Pzr vent is underwater in the QT, when N2 is being vented it will rise to the surface and cause a corresponding increase in QT pressure therefore minimal pressure response is a sign that all of the N2 has been vented. Additionally, as water is vented it is condensed under the water level of the QT therefore minimal QT pressure change in conjunction with increasing QT level is indicative of all N2 being out of Pzr.

Answer 0 Discussion riorrect: Plausible if you have the misconception that the Pzr vent line is above the water level in the QT and therefore both QT pressure and level increase as some but not all of the steam would condense as it was vented to the QT.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires evaluating plant data concerning the QT and make an operational judgment. le is a bubble formed in the Pzr.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension MODIFIED ONS 2OlOA Q34 Development References Student References Provided PNS-PZR Rl 7 OP/1/A11l03/002, End. 4.14 ONS 2OlOA Q34 SYSOO7 2.1.7 Pressurizer Relief Tank/Quench Tank System (PRTS)

SYSOO7 GENERIC Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation. (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12 / 45.13) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 66 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 34 L SYSOO7 K1.03 Pressurizer Relief Tank/Quench Tank System (PRTS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the PRTS and the following systems: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 /

45.7 to 45.8)

RCS Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

The LOWER RCS pressure that would cause a QT temperature increase is psig.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 2260 B. 2310 C. 2460 D. 2510 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 67 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 34 L General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because at 2250 psig the ICS increases FDW and inserts CRs. A candidate could confuse this setpoint with another that would cause QT pressure to increase.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it is the RCS pressure where HPI forced Cooling would be initiated for a loss of heat transfer and it would cause QT temperature to increase.

Answer C Discussion Correct. The PORV will open at an RCS pressure of 2450 psig and it discharges in to the QT.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it is the RCS pressure where the RCS Code Relief valves lifi and they would cause QT temperature to increase.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the cause effect relationship between RCS pressure and the QT.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-PZR R9 STG-ICS Chapter 3 SYSOO7 K1.03 Pressurizer Relief TanklQuench Tank System (PRTS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the PRTS and the following systems: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 /

45.7 to 45.8)

RCS 4O19 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 68 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESI TON 35 35 SYSOO8 K4.09 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

Knowledge of CCWS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

The standby feature for the CCW pumps Which ONE of the following will result in the Standby Component Cooling pump receiving an automatic start signal?

A. CC Total Flow = 568 gpm B. CRD Outlet HDR Flow = 136 gpm C. Component Cooling Pump Pressure = 95 psig D. BOTH Main Feeder Buses de-energized for 11 seconds Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 69 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 35 35{

General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. The Standby CC pump will start when total CC flow is less than 575 gpm.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because 136 gpm is below the interlock (138 gpm) to prevent energizing the CRDs.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. 95 psig is well below the normal system pressure of about 125 psig. A candidate could have the misconception that the standby pump started on low header pressure.

Answer D Discussion

[irect. Plausible because it would be correct it BOTH MFBs were deenergized for greater than 20 seconds. MFB Monitior Panel would actuate and send a start signal to BOTH CC pumps.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the auto start feature of the CC pumps.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-CC R15 SYSOO8 K4.09 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

Knowledge of CCWS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

The standby feature for the CCW pumps 401-9 Comments:

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 36 SYSOIO 2.2.42 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)

SYSOIO GENERIC Ability to recognize system parameters that are entry-level conditions for Technical Specifications. (CFR: 41.7 / 41.10 / 43.2/43.3 / 45.3)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Time = 0400

Reactor power = 100%

I RC-1 fails OPEN Time 0405

Reactor power = 100%

RCS pressure = 2115 psig increasing Time = 0415

RCS pressure = 2145 psig increasing

Pzr temperature = 640°F increasing

1) At 0405 the requirements of LCO 3.4.1 (RCS Pressure, Temperature, and Flow Departure from Nucleate Boiling (DNB) Limits) (1) met.

2) At 0415 Pzr Heater Bank 2 (Groups B and D) are (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. are

2. energized B. 1. are NOT

2. energized C. 1. are

2. de-energized D. 1. are NOT

2. de-energized Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 71 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 36 I 361 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate does not know the RCS pressure limit in the COLR. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Correct. The requirments of LCO 3.4.1 are not met because RCS pressure is below the COLR value of 2125 psig.

Pzr Heater Bank 2 Groups B and D will be energized due to the Pzr Saturation recovery Circuit. The Pzr is subcooled and Pzr Psat is greater than 20 psig below actual RCS pressure.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate does not know the RCS pressure limit in the COLR. Second part is plausible because RCS pressure is in the normal operating window and above the Bank #2 cutoff at 2150 psig.

Answer D Discussion

[Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because RCS pressure isin the normal operating window and above the Bank #2 cutoff at 2150 psig Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of TS enrty due to RCS pressure.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided ADM-ITS R8 PNS-PZR Unit 1 COLR TS 3.4.1 SYSOIO 2.2.42 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)

SYSO1O GENERIC Ability to recognize system parameters that are entry-level conditions for Technical Specifications. (CFR: 41.7 / 41.10 / 43.2 / 43.3 / 45.3) 401-9 Comments: Remarks!Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 72 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 37 37 SYSOI2 K1.04 Reactor Protection System (RPS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the RPS and the following systems: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

RPIS Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Time = 0400

Main Turbine trips

CRD AC Breakers B and C remain CLOSED

1) At 0400, API will indicate that ALL Control Rods (1) automatically inserted into the core.

2) At 0401, the API and RPI indications will indicate (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. have

2. the same B. 1. have

2. different C. 1. have NOT

2. the same D. 1. have NOT

2. different Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 73 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 37 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. Even though two CRD breakers did not open, a reactor trip will be occur. This signal will cause the API to indicate all CRs inserted.

A Trip Confirm signal will be gerated and this will cause the I to match the API.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because since two CRD breakers did not open the candidate may have the misconception that a trip confirm signal would not be generated.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the candidate must know that even with two CRD breakers open a trip will occur. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the candidate must know that even with two CRD breakers open a trip will occur. Second part is plausible because since two CRD breakers did not open the candidate may have the misconception that a trip confirm signal would not be generated.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how RPS effects RPIS following a reactor trip.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source

RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided IC-CRI R29, R35 SYSOI2 Kl.04 Reactor Protection System (RPS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the RPS and the following systems: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

RPIS 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 74 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUES1.ION 38 38 SYSO13 K5.02 Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the ESFAS: (CFR: 41.5 I 45.7)

Safety system logic and reliability Given the following Unit I conditions:

Time 0400

IBI Instrument Channel:

> IAI Channel Input RB NR Pressure

- = 13.5 psig (Faulted)

> 1 BI Channel In put RB NR Pressure

- = 0.1 psig 101 Channel Input RB NR Pressure

- = 0.2 psig

ISA-07/A-1 (IA1 ES TRIP) actuated Time = 0415

1B1Instrument Channel:

> IAIChannel Input- RB NR Pressure = 13.5 psig (Faulted)

> 1 BI Channel Input RB NR Pressure

- = 3.1 psig 1 Cl Channel Input RB NR Pressure

- = 2.8 psig

1) At 0415, the value that will be used for Channel Actuation by the 1 B1Instrument Channeltothevotersis (1)

2) An ES actuation (2) occurred.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. 2.8psig

2. has B. 1. 2.8psig

2. has NOT C. 1. 3.1 psig

2. has D. 1. 3.1 psig

2. has NOT Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 75 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 38 Genera! Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because if it is not known that the faulted signal is not used then two signals would be above the trip setpoint of 3 psig.

Answer B Discussion Correct. The 2.MAX is 2.8 psig because the 13.5 psig signal is faulted and not used in the 2.MAX detennination. ES actuation has NOT occurred because the 2.MAX signal is 2.8 psig which is below the 3.0 psig setpoint. The 2.MAX signal will be used by all three ES channels so the 2 out of 3 logic will not be satisfied.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because if the 13.5 signal was deviated instead of faulted it would be correct. Second part is plausible because 2 of the 3 channels are above 3 psig.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect First part is plausible because if the 13.5 signal was deviated instead of faulted it would be correct. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how ES system logic works for system actuation while maintaining system reliability.

Basis for Hi Cog L

Basis for SRO only ib Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided IC-ES R23 07/A-l SYSOI3 K5.02 Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the ESFAS: (CFR: 41.5 /45.7)

Safety system logic and reliability 4019 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 76 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 39 39j SYSO22 A3.O1 Containment Cooling System (CCS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CCS, including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Initiation of safeguards mode of operation Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Time = 0400

Reactor power 100%

IA and IC RBCU operating in HIGH speed Time = 0405

RCS pressure = 1580 psig decreasing

RB pressure = 2.3 psig increasing Time = 0407

RCS pressure = 1080 psig decreasing

RB pressure = 3.0 psig increasing

BOTH Main Feeder Buses de-energized Time 0415

Power to BOTH Main Feeder Buses is restored Time = 0428

RCS pressure = 920 psig decreasing

RB pressure = 10.3 psig increasing Which ONE of the following describes the earliest time when all RBCUs would be operating in LOW speed?

A. 0405 B. 0415 C. 0418 D. 0431 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 77 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 39 39j General Discussion Answer A Discussion iorrect. Plausible if candidate has the misconception that the RBCUs are on ES channels 1 and 2 which actuate at 1600 psig RCS pressure.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate has the misconception that the 3 minute time delay begin when ES actuation occurs. The time delay would have timed out at 0410 and they would start when power was restored.

Answer C Discussion Correct. The RBCUs will receive an ES start signal at 0407. However they will not start until 3 minutes after power is restored.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible if candidate has the misconception that the RBCUs are on ES channels 7 and 8 which actuate at 10 psig RB pressure.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the automatic operation of the RBCUs during ES actuation and a loss of power.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-RBC R14 SYSO22 A3.01 Containment Cooling System (CCS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CCS, including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Initiation of safeguards mode of operation i1-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 78 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 40 SYSO26 K4.02 Containment Spray System (CSS)

Knowledge of CSS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Neutralized boric acid to reduce coriosion and remove inorganic fission product iodine from steam (NAOH) in containment spray Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor trips from 100% power due to a LBLOCA TSP (Trisodium Phosphate Dodecahydrate) is added (1) to the RB Emergency Sump to allow RBS to (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. manually

2. minimize hydrogen production from the boric acid reaction with Zircoloy B. 1. manually

2. aid in keeping Iodine in solution to minimize dose from iodine in the RB atmosphere C. 1. automatically

2. minimize hydrogen production from the boric acid reaction with Zircoloy D. 1. automatically

2. aid in keeping Iodine in solution to minimize dose from iodine in the RB atmosphere Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 79 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 40 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because prior to a mod TSP was added to the RB sump manually by chemistry. Second part is plausible since it does inhibit H2 production due to the boric acid reaction with Zinc and Aluminum.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because prior to a mod TSP was added to the RB sump manually by chemistry. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion

[incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since it does inhibit H2 production due to the boric acid reaction with Zinc and Aluminum.

Answer D Discussion Correct. TSP is loaded into baskets in the RB basement. When RBS suction is swapped to the RBES TSP will be added to the RBES water.

TSP is added to aid in keeping Iodine in solution to minimize dose from iodine in the RB atmosphere.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how and why caustic is added to the RB Spray system.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided PNS-BS R5, 10 SYSO26 K4.02 Containment Spray System (CSS)

Knowledge of CSS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Neutralized boric acid to reduce conosion and remove inorganic fission product iodine from steam (NAOH) in containment spray 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 80 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 41 41 SYSO39 K5.O1 Main and Reheat Steam System (MRSS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the MRSS: (CFR: 441.5 / 45.7)

Definition and causes of steam/water hammer Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

Unit startup in progress

Turbine heatup has been initiated

Turbine Bypass Lines Pumping Trap has malfunctioned and is not removing moisture

1) Plant damage, as a result of the malfunctioning pumping trap is a concern due to the potential of (1)

2) The Turbine Bypass Lines Pumping Trap is aligned to the (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. a water hammer

2. Condenser B. 1. a water hammer

2. Condensate Storage Tank C. 1. moisture impingement on the turbine blades

2. Condenser D. 1. moisture impingement on the turbine blades

2. Condensate Storage Tank Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 81 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 41 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. A water hammer could result. The pumping trap is aligned to the condenser.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because other steam condensate drains are aligned to the CST. Ex. CSAE after cooler drains, Steam Packing exhauster condenser drains, etc.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because on Unit 1 it would be correct because the MS lines use the Turbine Bypass Line Pumping Trap.

Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because on Unit 1 it would be correct because the MS lines use the Turbine Bypass Line Pumping Trap.

Second part is plausible because other steam condensate drains are aligned to the CST. Ex. CSAE after cooler drains, Steam Packing exhauster condenser drains, etc.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the operational implications of water hammer that could result from a broke pumping trap.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided STG-MS R15, 23 BNT-TH1 1 CF-C SYSO39 K5.O1 Main and Reheat Steam System (MRSS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the MRSS: (CFR: 441.5 / 45.7)

Definition and causes of steam/water hammer 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 82 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 42 42!

SYSO59 A2.07 Main Feedwater (MFW) System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the MFW; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 I 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13)

Tripping of MFW pump turbine Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time = 0400

Reactor power = 80%

Reactor Diamond in MANUAL

BOTH FDW Masters in MANUAL Current conditions:

Time=0405

I B Main FDW pump trips

Plant Transient Response is complete

AP/1 (Unit Run back) initiated I) At 0405, the 1A Main FDW pump speed will initially (I)

2) AP/1 will direct reducing reactor power to a MAXIMUM of (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. I. increase

2. 55%

B. 1. increase

2. 65%

C. 1. stay the same

2. 55%

D. I. stay the same

2. 65%

Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 83 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 42 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it is correct for a dropped control rod.

Answer B Discussion Correct. Initially the 1 A MFDW pump speed will increase due to the loss of flow from the lB MFDWP. The Unit will runback to 65% on a loss of one Main FDW pump.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because with the FDW Masters in MANUAL the candidate could have the misconception that FDW speed would not change until changed by the operator. Second part is plausible because it is correct for a dropped control rod.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because with the FDW Masters in MANUAL the candidate could have the misconception that FDW speed would not change until changed by the operator. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA

QtJestion requires knowledge of MFDWs respone to a loss of FDW pump and the guidance in AP/l to mitigate the event.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided EAP-APG AP/l R2 lAP/I (Unit Runback)

SYSO59 A2.07 Main Feedwater (MFW) System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the MFW; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 /45.13)

Tripping of MFW pump turbine 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 84 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 43 43 SYSO61 A1.03 Auxiliary! Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the AFW controls including: (CFR: 41.5 /45.5)

Interactions when multi unit systems are cross tied Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Loss of ALL Main and Emergency FDW

HWPs and CBPs are tripped

Rule 3 (Loss of Main or Emergency FDW) in progress Current conditions:

The alternate units TDEFDW pump is supplying EFDWto Unit 1

IA Total EFDW Flow = 490 gpm

I B Total EFDW Flow = 490 gpm

1) The alternate source of EFDW may be from (1)

2) In accordance with Rule 7 (SG Feed Control), EFDW flow (2) required to be throttled.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Unit2 ONLY

2. is B. 1. Unit2ONLY

2. is NOT C. 1. Unit2orUnit3

2. is D. 1. Unit2orUnit3

2. is NOT Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 85 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 43 General Discussion Answer A Discussion iorrect. First part is plausible because some systems can only be backed up by one unit. ie DC power. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion

[iorrect. First part is plausible because some systems can only be backed up by one unit. ie DC power. Second part is plausible because the flows are within the EFDW header limits of 1000 gpm per header and also within the 600 gpm per MDEFDW pump limit. The limit that is exceeded is the 950 gpm for Unit 2s TDEFDW pump.

Answer C Discussion

[-rect. The alternate EFDW source can be from Unit 2 or Unit 3. The 950 gpm flow limit for Unit 2s TDEFDW pump is being exceeded and flow must be reduced using 1FDW-315/3l6.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because the flows are within the EFDW header limits of 1000 gpm per header and also within the 600 gpm per MDEFDW pump limit. The limit that is exceeded is the 950 gpm for Unit 2s TDEFDW pump.

Basis for meeting the KA stion requires monitoring the EFDW alignment and flows while the units are cross connected and determine the correct action to prevent EFDW pump damage.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only r Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided CF-EF R27 Rule 7 SYSO61 AI.03 Auxiliary! Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System Ability to predict and!or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the AFW controls including: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Interactions when multi unit systems are cross tied 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 86 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 44 44 SYSO61 K5.03 Auxiliary! Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the AFW: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Pump head effects when control valve is shut Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor has tripped due to loss of both Main FDW pumps Current conditions:

IA and lB MDEFDW pumps are operating

IFDW-315 and IFDW-316 are in MANUAL

IA and I B SG levels = 30 inches XSUR stable I) If IFDW-315 is closed, minimum flow provided by (I) protects the IA MDFDW pump from damage due to dead heading.

2) The IA MDEFDW pump recirculation flow path will be to the (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. an automatic recirculation control valve

2. Hotwell B. I. an automatic recirculation control valve

2. UpperSurgeTank C. 1. recirculation orifices

2. Hotwell D. I. recirculation orifices

2. Upper Surge Tank Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 87 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 44 44 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because EFDW pumps suction can be from the Hotwell and the UST provides makeup flow to the Hotwell.

Answer B Discussion Correct. An Automatic Recircualtion Control valve provisd recirc flow for the MDEFDW pumps. The reciic flow path is to the Upper Surge pk.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it is correct for the TDEFDW pump. Second part is plausible because EFDW pumps suction can be from the Hotwell and the UST provides makeup flow to the Hotwell.

Answer 0 Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it is correct for the TDEFDW pump. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Questions requires knowledge of implications of a closed control valve ari how the pump is protected.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided CF-EF R7, RI I SYSO61 K5.03 Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the AFW: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Pump head effects when control valve is shut 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 88 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 45 45 SYSO62 A 1.03 AC Electrical Distribution System Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the ac distribution system controls including: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Effect on instrumentation and controls of switching power supplies Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactorpower=: 100%

I KI Breaker #1 is inadvertently opened

I SA-2/B-1 I (ICS AUTO POWER FAILURE) actuates

1) Pzr level will (1) as a result of the power failure.

2) 1 HP-120 can now be operated in (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. stay the same

2. MANUAL ONLY B. 1. stay the same

2. MANUAL or AUTOMATIC C. 1. decrease

2. MANUAL ONLY D. 1. decrease

2. MANUAL or AUTOMATIC Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 89 of 202

FOR REVIEW ONLY - DO NOT DiSTRIBUTE ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 45 B General Discussion When the AC breaker 1 KI #1 is opened power is automatically swapped to I KU. When powered from 1 KU, 1 HP- 120 is still operable in Ai1I1 and HAND.

Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it is true for most of the ICS stations.

Answer B Discussion Correct. 1HP-120 will remain is AUTO on a loss of AUTO power and can be controlled in HAND or AUTO. Pzr level will be controlled at setpoint.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the candidate may have the misconception that 1HP-120 fails closed on loss of AUTO power. Second plausible because it is true for most of the ICS stations.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the candidate may have the misconception that IHP-120 fails closed on loss of AUTO power. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowdelge of how I HP- 120 will operate when its AC power supply is swapped. 1 HP-i 20 is important to ensure that the Pzr level is kept within the limits of TS.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided ISTG-ICS Objectives R33 STG-ICS Chapter 8 AP/23 SYSO62 A 1.03 AC Electrical Distribution System Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the ac distribution system controls including: (CFR: 41.5 /45.5)

Effect on instrumentation and controls of switching power supplies 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 90 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 46 46 SYSO62 K 1.04 AC Electrical Distribution System Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the ac distribution sys- tern and the following systems (CFR:

41.2 to 41.9)

Off-site power sources Given the following plant conditions:

The Standby Buses are being powered from the 100 kV line

The SL Breakers Auto/Manual Selector switches are in AUTO

The TRIP INTERLOCK DEFEAT SWITCH is in the LEE position Which ONE of the following conditions will cause the SL Breakers to open?

A. The 1st level 100KV Degraded Voltage Relay has been satisfied for 9 seconds AND the 2nd level 100KV Degraded Voltage Relay is now satisfied.

B. The 1st level 100KV Degraded Voltage Relay is now satisfied AND the 2nd level 100KV Degraded Voltage Relay has been satisfied for 9 seconds.

C. Undervoltage condition exists on EITHER Standby Bus I or Standby Bus 2.

D. Undervoltage condition exists on BOTH Standby Bus I and Standby Bus 2.

Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 91 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 46 L46 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because this would cause a trip if the Trip Interlock Defeat Switch was in the Central position.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because this would cause a trip if the Trip Interlock Defeat Switch was in the Central position.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because under voltage will cause the breakers to open. However it takes under voltage on both buses.

Answer D Discussion Correct. Undervoltage protection is all that will trip the SL breakers in this case. UV protection is only active if the Auto/Manual Switches are in Auto and it requires both busses to have an undervoltage condition.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of how the off-site power source (CT-5) relates to the ONS AC distribution system. Including what would cause the SL breakers to open. This would allow the onsite power source (keowee) to then power the MFBs.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension BANK ONS Bank #EL052201 Development References Student References Provided EL-PSL R22 ONS Bank ELO522O1 SYSO62 K1.04 AC Electrical Distribution System Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the ac distribution sys- tem and the following systems (CFR:

41.2 to 41.9)

Off-site power sources 401.9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 92 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 47 SYSO63 A3.O1 DC Electrical Distribution System Ability to monitor automatic operation of the DC electrical system, including: (CFR: 41.7 /45.5)

Meters, annunciators, dials, recorders, and indicating lights Given the following plant conditions:

3CA Battery Charger fails output voltage - = 0 VDC

3CA Battery voltage = 120 VDC

3DCB Bus voltage = 123 VDC

Unit I DCA/DCB Bus voltage = 125 VDC

Unit 2 DCA/DCB Bus voltage = 127 VDC Which ONE of the following will automatically supply power to 3DIA panelboard?

A. 3CA Battery B. Unit 1 DC Bus C. 3DCB Bus D. Unit 2 DC Bus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 93 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 47 47 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because the 3CA battery will supply power to the bus if its voltage is higher than the backup source. In this case it is not.

Unit ls voltage is higher.

Answer B Discussion Correct, The voltage from Unit I is higher than the 3CA battery voltage since Unit 1 is being supplied from the charger, so Unit 1 will supply power.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. For the Vital DC system, the 3DCB bus is not aligned to the 3DCA bus. Plausible because 3DCB Bus is aligned to backup the essential inverters Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Unit 2s DC Bus is not connected to Unit 3. Plausible because Unit 2 is next to Unit 3.

Basis for meeting the KA r

Requires knowledge of the automatic operation of the DC system using volatge meters.

Basis for Hi Cog L

Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension MODIFIED 2009 RO Q#14 Development References Student References Provided EL-DCD R4 DC Drawing ONS 2009 Q14 SYSO63 A3.01 DC Electrical Distribution System Ability to monitor automatic operation of the DC electrical system, including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Meters, annunciators, dials, recorders, and indicating lights 401-9 Comments; RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 94 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 48 481 SYSOI2 K5.O1 Reactor Protection System (RPS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the RPS: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

DNB Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

I BI Reactor coolant pump trips

1) When the RCP trips, DNBR will initially (1)

2) For this event, the (2) RPS trip will prevent exceeding the DNBR limit.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. increase

2. Flux/Pump B. I. increase

2. Flux/Flow/Imbalance C. 1. decrease

2. Flux/Pump D. I. decrease

2. Flux/Flow/Imbalance Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 95 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 48 48 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate does not understand how DNBR is derived. Second part is plausible because Flux/pump does protect against exceeding the DNBR limit. However in this case Flux/Pump will not trip the reactor because two RCPs have not tripped.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate does not understand how DNBR is derived. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because Flux/pump does protect against exceeding the DNBR limit. However in this case Flux/Pump will not trip the reactor because two RCPs have not tripped.

Answer D Discussion Correct. When the RCP is tripped DNBR will decrease toward the limit of 1.8/1.9. The Flux/Flow/Imbalance trip will trip the reactor and prevent exceeding the DNBR limit.

Basis for meeting the KA --

Question requires understanding how RCP operation affects DNB and how RPS prevents exceeding the DNBR limit.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension MODIFIED ONS NRC 2007 Retest Q#38 Development References Student References Provided IC-RPS R4 ONS 2007 restest Q38 SYSOI2 K5.0l Reactor Protection System (RPS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the RPS: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

DNB 4019 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 96 of 202

FOR REVIEW ONLY DO NOT DISTRIBUTE ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 49 49 SYSO73 A4.O1 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7/45.5 to 45.8)

Effluent release Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

I A GWD tank release in progress

1 RIA-38 OOS Current conditions:

Loss of power to I RIA-37 RM-80 skid

1) IGWD-4 (AGWD TANK DISCHARGE) will (1).

2) Unit ls Waste Gas Decay Tank discharge flow rate is monitored on (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. automatically close

2. IVB1 B. 1. automatically close

2. IAB3 C. 1. remainopen

2. IVBI D. 1. remainopen

2. IAB3 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 97 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 49 491 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. I GWD-4 will close on loss of power to RIA-37. The flow rate is read on a recorder on 1 VB 1.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect, First part is correct. Second part is plausible because this is the control room location for the GWD controls.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect, First part is plausible because the candidate could have the misconception that a loss of power to the RIA will prevent the interlock from occurring. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect, First part is plausible because the candidate could have the misconception that a loss of power to the RIA will prevent the interlock from occurring. Second part is plausible because this is the control room location for the GWD controls.

Basis for meeting the KA

[Requires knowledge of impact of a loss of power to an RIA skid and monitor its affect on the effluent release.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension MODIFIED ONS 2007 RO RETEST Q#5l Development References Student References Provided

[RAD..GWD R15 RAD-RIA IONS 2007 retest Q51 SYSO73 A4.0I Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Effluent release 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 98 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 50 5O SYSO76 K2.O1 Service Water System (SWS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Service water Which ONE of the following states ll of the switchgear that can supply power to the B LPSW pump?

A. lTD ONLY B. 2TC ONLY C. ITC0r2TC D. 1TD0r2TD Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 99 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 50 5O General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it can supply power to the B LPSW pump but 2TD can also.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it it would be correct for the C LPSW pump.

Answer C Discussion ncorrect. Plausible because they both supply power to the LPSW pumps; A and C respectively.

Answer D Discussion Correct. The B LPSW pump can be supplied power from 1 TD or 2TD.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knopwledge of the power supply for one of the LPSW pumps.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References ent References Provided SSS-LPWR11 SYSO76 K2.O1 Service Water System (SWS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Service water 401-9 Comments:

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 51 SYSO76 K3.07 Service Water System (SWS)

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SWS will have on the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

ESF loads Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Which ONE of the following describes an effect of a loss of LPSW?

ASSUME NO OPERATOR ACTIONS A. The HPI pumps motors would overheat.

B. The Primary IA Compressor would overheat.

C. In a subsequent LOCA, LPI effectiveness would be reduced during the injection phase.

D. In a subsequent LOCA, RB Spray effectiveness would be reduced during the recirculation phase.

Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 101 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 51 511 General Discussion Answer A Discussion iect. Plausible because LPSW does provide cooling to the HPI pumps but is backed up by HPSW.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because LPSW does provide cooling for many loads in the Turbine Building but not the Primary IA Compressor. It is cooled by HPSW.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it would be correct during the recire phase.

Answer D Discussion Correct. Although RB Spray is not directly cooled by LPSW it would be affected in this case due to the lack of cooling of the RBES contents by the LPI Coolers during the recirc phase.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the effect of a loss of LPSW would have on ES equipment.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided SSS-LPWR16 SYSO76 K3.07 Service Water System (SWS)

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SWS will have on the following: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

ESF loads 401 9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 102 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 52 52j SYSO78 A3.O1 Instrument Air System (lAS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the lAS, including: (CFR: 41,7 /45.5)

Air pressure Given the following plant conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time = 0400

Primary IA compressor tripped Current conditions:

Time = 0405

IA pressure decreased to 87 psig and is now stable Which ONE of the following describes the status of the following IA components at 0405?

A. Auxiliary IA Compressors OFF Backup IA compressors OFF B. Auxiliary IA Compressors Operating Backup IA compressors OFF C. Auxiliary IA Compressors OFF Backup IA compressors Operating D. Auxiliary IA Compressors Operating Backup IA compressors Operating Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 103 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 52 General Discussion

2. Automatic Systems Actions 2.1 Backup IA Compressors in STD-BY 1 start at 93 psig.

2.2 Unit 1 Aux IA Compressor starts at 88 psig.

2.3 SA-141 (SA to IA Controller) automatically regulates IA header pressure to 85 psig.

2.4 Diesel Air Compressors in Auto start at 90 psig.

Answer A Discussion rrect;. Plausible if the setpoints for various IA componets were confused. As an example SA-141 (SA to IA Controller) opens at 85 psig.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect:. Plausible if the setpoints for various IA componets were confused. As an example SA-141 (SA to IA Controller) opens at 85 psig.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect:. Plausible if the selpoints for various IA componets were confused. As an example SA- 141 (SA to IA Controller) opens at 85 psig.

Answer D Discussion Correct;. Backup IA (93 psig) and Aux IA (88 psig) compressors would be operating.

Basis for meeting the KA iioi requires knowledge of how IA system components responds to a change in IA pressure.

Basis for Hi Cog L

Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided SSS-IA R8 SYSO78 A3.01 Instrument Air System (lAS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the lAS, including; (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Air pressure 1-9 Comments: Remarks/Status L H Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 104 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUES1.ION 53 53 SYSO78 K2.02 Instrument Air System (lAS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Emergency air compressor Which ONE of the following describes the power supply for the A Backup IA Compressor (VVorthington)?

A. 1XD B. IXP C. B3T D. 3X1 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 105 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTiON 53 531 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct, 1XD supplies power to the A Backup IA Compressor.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect, plausible because IXP supplies the AlA compressor.

Answer C Discussion

[Incorrect, plausible because B3T supplies power to the Primary Instrument compressor.

Answer D Discussion

[rrect, plausible because 3X1 powers the A Sullair compressor.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of the power supply for the AlA compressors.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided SSS-IA R37 ONS 2007 Q49 SYSO78 K2.02 Instrument Air System (lAS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Emergency air compressor 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 106 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 54 54 SYS 103 A2 03 Containment System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the containment system and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13)

Phase A and B isolation Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time = 0400

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Time=0410

RCS pressure = 1500 psig decreasing

RB pressure = 3.3 psig increasing

ALL SCMs = 10°F decreasing At 0410:

1) Reactor Building (1) will have automatically closed.

2) In accordance with EOP Enclosure 5.1 (ES Actuation) a previously closed containment isolation valve will be opened by first placing the associated (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. non-essential isolation valves ONLY

2. ES Channel in MANUAL B. 1. non-essential isolation valves ONLY

2. voter in OVERRIDE C. 1. non-essential and essential isolation valves

2. ES Channel in MANUAL D. 1. non-essential and essential isolation valves

2. voter in OVERRIDE Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 107 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 54 54 General Discussion Answer A Discussion

[fncorrect. First part plausible because it would be correct if RB pressure was < 3 psig. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it would be correct if RB pressure was < 3 psig. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if Channel 5 would not go to MANUAL..

Answer C Discussion Correct. Since RB pressure is> than 3 psig, both essential and non-essential RB isolation valves will be closed.

As an example, EOP End. 5.1 direct first taking ES Channel 5 to MANUAL to open 1CC-7. If Channel 5 will not go to MANUAL then the ODD voter is placed in OVERRIDE.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct.. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if Channel 5 would not go to MANUAL..

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the impact RB pressure has on RB essential and non-essential isolation (Phase A and B). When it occurs and ye-open a closed valve in accordance with procedures.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level RO L Cognitive Level Comprehension QuestionType NEW Question Source Development References Student References Provided IC-ES RI EOP End. 5.1 (ES Actuation)

SYS 103 A2 03 Containment System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the containment system and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations (CFR: 41.5 I 43.5 / 45.3 I 45.13)

Phase A and B isolation 4019 Comments Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 108 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 55 55j SYS 103 K4.06 Containment System Knowledge of containment system design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Containment isolation system Which ONE of the following will result in automatic closure of ALL of the RB Purge isolation valves 3 PR-I, 2, 3, 4, 5, AND 6?

A. 3RIA-45 HIGH alarm B. 3RIA-46 ALERT alarm C. Manual actuation of ES channels 5 and 6 D. Low RCS pressure actuation of ES channels I and 2 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 109 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 55 55 General Discussion Answer A Discussion

[iorrect. Plausible since 3RIA-45 High alarm will close 3PR-2 thru 5 however it will NOT close 3PR-l &6.

Answer B Discussion

[iorrect. Plausible since 3RIA-46 High alarm will close 3PR-2 thru 5 however it will NOT close 3PR- I &6.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible since ES 5&6 do contain essential RB Isolation valves for various systems and components however the Purge valves are all on ES l&2.

Answer D Discussion Correct. 3PR I & 6 are on ES channel 1 and 3PR-2 thru 5 are on ES channel 2 therefore any ES I &2 actuation will result in closing 3PR-1 thru 6.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of what will cause automatic operation of the Containment Purge system valves. Knowing which valves should operate on a signal from ES 1&2 is an integral part of the ability to monitor automatic operation especially since different valves operate based on what the initiating signal is (ex. RIAs only close PR 2-5).

Basis for Hi Cog EBasis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory BANK ONS 2009B Q#60 Development References Student References Provided IC-ES Rl8 NS2OO9BQ6O SYS 103 K4.06 Containment System Knowledge of containment system design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Containment isolation system

[4O19 Comments:

kS/SttUS Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 110 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 56 SYSOO1 K2.03 Control Rod Drive System Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

One-line diagram of power supplies to logic cilcuits Which ONE of the following describes ALL of the MCCs which supply power to Unit ls Control Rod Drive System?

A. I X9 and 2X1 B. lX9 and 2X2 C. IXI and 2X9 D. IXI and 3X9 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 111 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 56 56j General Discussion and Alternate power supplies for each unit is listed below:

Unit 1: 1X9 - 2Xl Unit2:2X9 - lXl Unit 3:3X9 - 2X2 Answer A Discussion Correct. Normal CRD supply is 1X9. Alternate supply is 2X1.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because 1X9 is correct and 2X2 is plausible because 2X2 is Unit 3s Alternate supply.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because would be correct for Unit 2.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate had the misconception that Unit 3 backed up Unit 1. The DC system does this.

Basis for meeting the KA I

Question requires knowledge of the normal and alternate power supplies for the CRD system including the logic circuits.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided IC-CRI R25 SYSOO1 K2.03 Control Rod Drive System Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: (CFR: 41.7)

One-line diagram of power supplies to logic circuits 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 112 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 57 57 SYSOO2 A3.03 Reactor Coolant System (RCS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RCS, including: (CFR: 41.7 /45.5)

Pressure, temperatures, and flows Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power 80%

IBI RCP trips The ICS will initiate a unit runback to (I) % power at a rate of_ (2) %/minute.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1.65

2. 20 B. 1.65

2. 25 C. 1.74

2. 20 D. 1.74

2. 25 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 113 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 57 57 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it is true for a loss of a Main FDW pump. Second part is plausible because it is the runback rate for RCS flow degradation.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it is true for a loss of a Main FDW pump. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it is the runback rate for RCS flow degradation.

Answer D Discussion Correct. When the RCP trips, the ICS will initiate a run back to 74% power at 25% per minute.

Basis for meeting the KA The question requires the ability to monitor automatic operation of the ICS based on loss of RC Flow caused by a loss of a RCP.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided STG-ICS L

SYSOO2 A3.03 Reactor Coolant System (RCS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RCS, including: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Pressure, temperatures, and flows Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 114 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 58 58 SYSOI5 K4.1O Nuclear Instrumentation System (NIS)

Knowledge ofNIS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Redundant sources of information on power level Given the following Unit I conditions:

Nl-5 99.7

Nl-6 = 98.8

NI-7 = 98.7

NI-8 = 99.9

1) The NI selected to feed reactor power to the ICS is (1)

2) In accordance with PT/11A10600/OO1 (Periodic Instrument Surveillance), (2) is an alternate method for determining reactor power.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. NI-5

2. power from core delta T B. 1. NI-5

2. Main FDW flow C. 1. NI-6

2. power from core delta T D. 1. Nl-6

2. Main FDW flow Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 115 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 58 58 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. NI-5 will be the selected NI using 2nd Max. In accordance with PT/600/OOl Power from Core delta T can be used to verify power level.

Answer B Discussion i.orrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because Total FDW flow is indicative of power but is not used as an alternate indication.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate had the misconception that NI selected was the 2nd lowest. This done for some instruments such as ES low RCS pressure. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate had the misconception that NI selected was the 2nd lowest. This done for some instruments such as ES low RCS pressure. Second part is plausible because Total FDW flow is indicative of power but is not used as an alternate indication..

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of the 4 redundant NI channels and how they are used to select the controlling NI for the ICS and what will be

[d for verify reactor power.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided IC-ICS objectives R24 IC-ICS Chapter 5 IC-NI PT/600/OOI SYSO15 K4.IO Nuclear Instrumentation System (NIS)

Knowledge of NIS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) provide for the following: (CFR: 41.7)

Redundant sources of information on power level 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 116 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 59 SYSOI7 A1.O1 In-Core Temperature Monitor (ITM) System Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the I1M system controls including: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Core exit temperature Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor trip from 1 00% power

Rule 5 (MSLB) in progress Current conditions:

The overcooling has been stopped

Condenser vacuum = 15 inches Hg stable

1) In accordance with Rule 5, the unaffected SG would initially be steamed to maintain (1) constant.

2) The TBVs (2) available to control RCS temperature.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Tcolds

2. are B. 1. Tcolds

2. are NOT C. 1.CETCs

2. are D. 1. CETCs

2. are NOT Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 117 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 59 C 9

VS General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because Tcold is normally used for RCS cooldown. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because Tcold is normally used for RCS cooldown. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if vacuum were below 7 inches. Vacuum is low but above the TBV interlock. Below 7 inches the TBVs fail closed and the ADVs would be used.

Answer C Discussion Correct. Per Rule 5, CETCs are to be maintained constant after the overcooling is stopped. The TBVs will be used to adjust the steaming rate.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because it would be correct if vacuum were below 7 inches. Vacuum is low but above the TBV interlock. Below 7 inches the TBVs fail closed and the ADVs would be used.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of what indication to monitor to stabilize RCS temperature following a MSLB. CETCs are stabilized to help control RCS pressure increasing and along with throttling HPI prevent Thermal Shock conditions from developing.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References V Student References Provided EAP-EHT R14 Rule 5 SYSOI7 A1.O1 In-Core Temperature Monitor (ITM) System Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the ITM system controls including: (CFR: 41.5 /45.7)

Core exit temperature 019 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 118 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 60 SYSO29 A4.04 Containment Purge System (CPS)

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Containment evacuation signal Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Reactor in MODE 5

RB Purge in operation Which ONE of the following in HIGH alarm would result in a RB evacuation alarm actuation?

A. IRIA-3 B. IRIA-5 C. IRIA-45 D. IRIA-49 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 119 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 60 6 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it is an area monitor in the fuel canal area. It has a local alarm.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it is an area monitor in the incore instrument tank area. It has a local alanm Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it is Unit vent Normal gas and will isolate the RB purge on a high alarm.

Answer D Discussion Correct. 1 RIA-49 will actuate the RB evacuation alarm if in high alram.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of what RIA to monitor which will cause the RB evaluation alarm to actuate.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only L_

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memoiy NEW Development References Student References Provided RAD-RIA R2 SYSO29 A4.04 Containment Purge System (CPS)

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Containment evacuation signal 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 120 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 61 L SYSO33 2.4.9 Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System (SFPCS)

SYSO33 GENERIC Knowledge of low power/shutdown implications in accident (e.g., loss of coolant accident or loss of residual heat removal) mitigation strategies.

(CFR: 41.10/43.5/45.13)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor shutdown on 5-01 / 0800

Defueling in progress Current conditions:

Date/time = 5-05 / 1200

15 fuel assemblies remain in the core

Unit I and 2 SFP cooling is lost

Unit I and 2 SEP Temperature = 108°F In accordance with AP/35 (Loss of SEP Cooling and/or Level):

1) The calculated time for the SEP to reach 200 °E is (1) hours.

2) If the SEP begins to boil, makeup to the SEP with at least (2) gpm is required to offset the loss of inventory?

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 1. 7.5

2. 70 B. 1. 7.5

2. 250 C. 1. 9.6

2. 70 D. 1. 9.6

2. 250 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 121 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTiON 61 611 General Discussion Answer A Discussion incorrect. First part is plausible because it is the value if the 180 degree table is used. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because it is the value if the 180 degree table is used. Second part is plausible because a note in AP/35 requires a minimum of 250 gpm SFC flow per pump.

Answer C Discussion Correct. Using the correct table 9.6 minutes is correct and 70 gpm is required to offset SFP loss of inventory.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because a note in AP/35 requires a minimum of 250 gpm SFC flow per pump.

Basis for meeting the KA -

Question requires knowledge of mitigation strategies of loss of SFP cooling including how long to get to 200 degrees and the minumum makeup required to replace the inventory when it is boiled off.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided FH-SFC R22 AP/35 End. 5.4 AP/35 SYSO33 2.4.9 Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System (SFPCS)

SY5033 GENERIC Knowledge of low power/shutdown implications in accident (e.g., loss of coolant accident or loss of residual heat removal) mitigation strategies.

(CFR: 41.10/43.5 /45.13) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 122 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 62 62]

SYSO56 A2.04 Condensate System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Condensate System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45 13)

Loss of condensate pumps Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time = 04:00:00

Reactor power = 70% stable

lBCBPtrips

1A Main FDW Pump suction pressure = 236 psig decreasing Current conditions:

Time=04:01:25

IA Main FDW Pump suction pressure = 230 psig increasing At 04:01:25:

1) 1 C-61 (Cond Cooler Bypass Control) will be (1) .

2) The entry conditions for (2) are met.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. open

2. API1, Unit Run back B. 1. open

2. the EOP C. 1. closed

2. AP/I, Unit Run back D. 1. closed

2. theEOP Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 123 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 62 62]

General Discussion Answer A Discussion

[rrect: When MFDWP suction pressure is less than 235 psig 1C-61 will open and the unit will runback. This unit runback is an entry condition for AP/1.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect: First part is correct. Second part is plausible because if MFDWP suction pressure is < 235 psig for 90 seconds then the reactor will trip and the EOP would be correct.

Answer C Discussion

[iorrect: First part is plausible because closed is the normal postion for I C-6 1 and if the setpoint is not known. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect: First part is plausible because closed is the normal postion for IC-61 and if the setpoint is not known. Second part is correct.

Second part is plausible because if MFDWP suction pressure is < 235 psig for 90 seconds then the reactor will trip and the EOP would be correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of how a loss of a CBP affects Main FDWP suction pressure and when it will cause a unit runback / trip and the ability to determine the procedure to enter.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Deve!opment References Student References Provided CF-C Rl8 SYSO56 A2.04 Condensate System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Condensate System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13)

Loss of condensate pumps Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 124 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 63 63 SYSO68 K6.1O Liquid Radwaste System (LRS)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the Liquid Radwaste System: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Radiation monitors Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 86% decreasing

lASGtubeleakrate=8gpm

AP/31 (Primary to Secondary Leakage) initiated Current conditions:

I RlA54 sample pump trips In accordance with AP/31 the:

1) TB Sump pump breakers are required to be opened and (1) tagged.

2) TB Sump (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. red

2. release path will be determined by Secondary Chemistry B. 1. red

2. will be immediately aligned to the LAWT C. 1. white

2. release path will be determined by Secondary Chemistry D. 1. white

2. will be immediately aligned to the LAWT Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 125 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 63 63 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the candidate could believe that it will require red tags to repair. Second part is correct.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because the candidate could believe that it will require red tags to repair. Second part is plasuible because it a location that the TBS can be pumped to.

Answer C Discussion Correct. AP/3 I requires the TB Sump breakeis to be opened and White tagged if 1 RIA-54 is inoperable. The Sample pump off makes it inoperable. Chemistry is required to determine the release path for the TB Sump.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plasuible because it a location that the TBS can be pumped to.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of actions to take if I RIA-54 is not operable during a SG tube leak.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References EAP-APG AP/3 1

AP/3 1 OP/l 104/048 SYSO68 K6.10 Liquid Radwaste System (LRS)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the Liquid Radwaste System: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Radiation monitors 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 126 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 64 64 SYSO72 K5.O1 Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) System Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the ARM system: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Radiation theory, including sources, types, units, and effects Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor Power = 29% decreasing

A SGTR is occurring in the IA SG

SGTR tab in progress

1) 1 RIA-59 & I RIA-60 determine SG tube leak rate by monitoring (1) activity in the Main Steam lines.

2) 1 RIA-59 & I RIA-60 (2) be used at this time to determine the SG tube leak rate in accordance with the SGTR tab.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. I. N-I6

2. will B. 1. N-16

2. will NOT C. I. gross

2. will D. 1. gross

2. will NOT Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 127 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QIJESTION 64 64 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect: First part is correct. Second part is plausible in that I RIA-59 &-60 (MS Line N- 16 gamma detectors) are accurate above 40% power.

Below 40% they provide a trend but can not be used to determine leakrate.

Answer B Discussion Correct: 1 RIA-59/60 monitor N-i 6 to detennine the leak rate. 1 RIA-59/60 will not be used to determine the leak rate at this time. They are only accurate above 40% power. Below 40% they only provide a trend and can not be used to determine leakrate.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect: First part is plausible because another RIA (RIA-40) does monitor RCS gross activity and can be used to calculate tube leakage.

Second part is plausible in that 1RIA-59 &-60 (MS Line N- 16 gamma detectors) are accurate above 40% power. Below 40% they provide a trend but can not be used to determine leakrate.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect: First part is plausible because another RIA (RIA-40) does monitor RCS gross activity and can be used to calculate tube leakage.

Second part correct.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowing which type of radiation is used by certain Area Monitors and the operational implications of this. Can they be used due to power level?

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension NEW Development References Student References Provided EAP-SGTR R2 SGTR Tab RAD-RIA SYSO72 K5.01 Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) System Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the ARM system: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Radiation theory, including sources, types, units, and effects 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 128 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 65 65 SYSO79 K1.O1 Station Air System (SAS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the SAS and the following systems: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9/ 45.7 to 45.8) lAS Given the following conditions:

Time=0400

IA header pressure = 88 psig decreasing At 0400 the Diesel Air Compressors are (1)and SA-141 (SAto IA Controller) is (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. Operating

2. Open B. 1. Operating

2. Closed C. 1. Shutdown

2. Open D. 1. Shutdown

2. Closed Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 129 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTiON 65 65 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. SA-l4l opens at 85 psig. Plausible because there ate numerous IA setpoints in this pressure range.

Answer B Discussion Correct. DG Air Compressors start at 90 psig I SA-141 opens at 85 psig.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect.. DG Air Compressors start at 90 psig. Plausible because there are numerous IA setpoints in this pressure range.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. DG Air Compressors start at 90 psig. Plausible because there ate numerous IA setpoints in this pressure range.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of SAS interlocks associated with cross connecting with the IA system.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided SSS-IA Obj R27, 52 AP/22, Loss of IA SYSO79 Kl.Ol Station Air System (SAS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the SAS and the following systems: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8) lAS 4019 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 130 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUEST..i.ON 66 66 GEN2.1 2.1.17 GENERIC Conduct of Operations Conduct of Operations Ability to make accurate, clear, and concise verbal reports. (CFR: 41.10/45.12/45.13)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

The BOP determines that the Steam Packing Exhauster is OFF

1) The SOP will communicate this to the crew using a crew (I)

2) The above communication (2) required to be 3-way.

Per SOMP 1-07 (Control Room Oversight), which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. update

2. is B. 1. update

2. is NOT C. 1. brief

2. is D. 1. brief

2. is NOT Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 131 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 66 General Discussion The applicant is given a scenario where an OAC alarm has been received in the CIR that is associated with planned maintenance. OMP 2-2

( Conduct of Ops) requires the following actions: This alarm is considered an Unexpected Alarm because even though it is associated with a planned activity, it was not pre-identified prior to the activity being performed. The alarm is required to be announced to the crew and repeated back by the CRS. Additionally upon first receipt of an unexpected alarm the alarm response is required to be reviewed. This is true for both annunciators and priority (below the line) OAC alarms.

Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because 3-way is required when communicating this to the CRSRO.

Answer B Discussion Correct. Per SOMP 1-7, identifed equipmet problems are to be communicated to the crew using crew update. 3-way communication not required during updats.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because crew briefs are used to ensure the crew understands plant conditions and direction. Second part is plausible because 3-way is required when communicating this to the CRSRO Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because crew briefs are used to ensure the crew understands plant conditions and direction.. This is the case for computer alarms above the line. Second part is correct.

Basis for meeting the KA K/A is matched because the candidate is required to demonstrate the ability to properly respond to an unexpected alarm received in the Control Room. This response includes the requirement to verbally communicate the event.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided ADM-OMP R58 SOMP 1-7 GEN2.l 2.1.17 GENERIC Conduct of Operations Conduct of Operations Ability to make accurate, clear, and concise verbal reports. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.12 / 45.13) 401-9 Comments: arks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 132 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 67 67j GEN2.1 2.1.20 GENERIC Conduct of Operations Conduct of Operations Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 /45.12)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

EOP in progress Current conditions:

The OATC determines that an IAAT step is met in an EOP tab In accordance with OMP 1-18 (Implementation Standard During Abnormal and Emergency Events):

1) theOATCwill (1)

2) when the IAAT step is complete the next step to be performed will be (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. perform the IAAT step and then inform the SRO that the step is complete

2. the step after the IAAT step.

B. 1. perform the IAAT step and then inform the SRO that the step is complete

2. the step after the last step completed prior to performing the IAAT step.

C. 1. inform the SRO that the IAAT step is met and then complete the step at the SROs direction

2. the step after the IAAT step.

D. 1. inform the SRO that the IAAT step is met and then complete the step at the SROs direction

2. the step after the last step completed prior to performing the IAAT step.

Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 133 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 67 671 General Discussion Answer A Discussion 1

Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate has the misconception that he should complete the IAAT step before informing the SRO. This would be true for IMAs. Second part is plausible because this is the normal flow of a procedure.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible if the candidate has the misconception that he should complete the IAAT step before informing the SRO. This would be true for IMAs. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because this is the normal flow of a procedure.

Answer D Discussion Correct. Per OMP 1-18 the RO should inform the SRO when the conditions are met for the applicable IAAT step and then complete the step at his direction. The PD will go back to the step he was on and continue with the procedure.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of how IAAT steps are completed.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level RO Cognitive Level Memory QuestionType I Question Source NEW Development References ent References Provided OMP 1-18 GEN2.1 2.1.20 GENERIC Conduct of Operations Conduct of Operations Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps. (CFR: 41.10 /43.5 / 45.12) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 134 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 68 681 GEN2.1 2.1.39 GENERIC Conduct of Operations Conduct of Operations Knowledge of conservative decion making practices. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Which ONE of the following activities is allowed in accordance with the conservative operating guidance contained in SOMP 1-2 (Reactivity Management)?

A. Manual rod withdrawal during a Feedwater transient to stop a temperature decrease caused by an instrument failure B. Manually increasing Feedwater flow to stop an RCS pressure increase caused by an RCS temperature increase C. Manually raising one Loop FDW demand while lowering the other Loop FDW demand to control LiTcold following an RCP trip D. Manually increasing turbine demand to reduce Turbine Header Pressure and RCS temperature Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 135 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 68 General Discussion Answer A Discussion

Ic0lTect Plausible because a manual rod withdrawal could be used to stabilize the plant. However it is not permitted.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect: Plausible because increasing FDW would stop an RCS temperature increase. However, increasing FDW Flow is not permitted as part of Plant Transnet Response (PTR).

Answer C Discussion Correct: The sequence given is permitted as there is no intent to raise FDW Flow. Total FDW flow must remain the same.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect: Plausible because an increase in Turbine demand is allowed if intent is to stabilize Turbine Header Pressure but is not allowed not to educe pressure or RCS temperature.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of conservative reactivity management actions allowed during plant transients.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory BANK ONS 2009 RO#68 Development References Student References Provided SOMP l-2Rev6 ONS 2009 Q68 OMP 1-18 Attch. J GEN2.1 2.1.39 GENERIC Conduct of Operations Conduct of Operations Knowledge of conservative decision making practices. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 136 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 69 69 GEN2.2 2.2.1 GENERIC Equipment Control Equipment Control Ability to perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including operating those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity. (CFR: 41.5 / 41.10 / 43.5 / 43.6 / 45.1)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

Unit startup in progress

Reactor is in MODE 3

SG levels are being controlled in MANUAL A MAXIMUM allowed SG level of (I) is one method to prevent (2) caused by overcooling due to a Main Steam line break in accordance with the OP/I/NI 102/001 (Controlling Procedure for Unit Startup).

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. <40 inches SUR

2. accidental criticality B. I. <40 inches SUR

2. exceeding the NDT Limit C. I.<96%OR

2. accidental criticality D. I. <96%OR

2. exceeding the NDT Limit Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 137 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 69 General Discussion Answer A Discussion

[ct. The L&P of the startup procedure limit SG levels to <40 inches startup range to prevent criticality due to a MSLB.

Answer B Discussion

[iorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because a MSLB would cause a cooldown. This would cause the RCS to approachi NDT limit.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because 96% operating range is where the MFDW pumps will trip. This is to prevent an overcooling. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion incorrect. First part is plausible because 96% operating range is where the MFDW pumps will trip. This is to prevent an overcooling. Second part is plausible because a MSLB would cause a cooldown. This would cause the RCS to approach the NDT limit.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires knowledge of how SG levels are controlled during a unit startup. The SO levels are controlled to prevent a reactivity event.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only r

Job Level I Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided CP-0ll R3 CF-FPTR8 OP/i 102/001 L

GEN2.2 2.2.1 GENERIC Equipment Control Equipment Control Ability to perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including operating those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity. (CFR: 41.5 / 41.10 / 43.5 / 43.6 / 45.1) 401-9 Comments; Remarks/Status I

Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 138 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 70 L 70 GEN2.2 2.2.39 GENERIC Equipment Control Equipment Control Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour Technical Specification action statements for systems. (CFR: 41.7 / 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13)

Given the foHowing Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Group 3 Rod 6 drops into the core

Rod cannot be recovered In accordance with TS 3.1 .5 (Safety Rod Position Limits), the MAXIMUM time allowed toverify SDM is Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 5 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 139 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 70 70 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect, Plasible because TS 2.2 has a 5 minute competion time to restore RCS pressure within 5 minutes.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect, Plasuible because if SDM is not within the limit, TS 3.1.1 requires initiaion of boration within 15 minutes.

Answer C Discussion correct. Plausible because TS 3.2.3 has a completion time of 30 minutes to reduce power when QPT limits are exceeded.

Answer D Discussion Correct. TS 3.1.5 requires verifying SDM within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months with a dropped control rod.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of 1 hr or less actions required by TS 3.1.5.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only r

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memoiy NEW I

Development References Student References Provided TS 3.1.5 ITS 3.1.1 TS 2.0 TS 3.2.3 GEN2.2 2.2.39 GENERIC Equipment Control Equipment Control Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour Technical Specification action statements for systems. (CFR: 41.7/41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 140 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 71 GEN2.2 2.2.6 GENERIC Equipment Control Equipment Control Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures. (CFR: 41.10 /43.3 / 45.13)

Given the following Unit I conditions:

The BOP is performing a Periodic Test (PT)

The BOP determines two steps must be performed out of sequence to complete the PT In accordance with NSD-704 Technical Procedure Use and Adherence:

1) A note explaining the sequence deviation will be documented (1)

2) (2) is allowed to approve this deviation.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. on the procedure coversheet

2. Any SRO B. 1. on the procedure coversheet

2. ONLYtheOSM C. 1. in the procedure body

2. Any SRO D. 1. in the procedure body

2. ONLYtheOSM Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 141 of 202

FOR REVIEW ONLY DO NOT DISTRIBUTE ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 71 7l General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because when a step is N/Aed it can be documented on the cover sheet. Second part is plausible because for other groups any supervisor can approve the change.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because when a step is N/Aed it can be documented on the cover sheet. Second part is correct.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because for other groups any supervisor can approve the change.

Answer D Discussion Correct. Per NSD-704, Appendix M a sequence change must be documented in the procedure body. It must be approved by the OSM.

Basis for meeting the KA Process for making changes to procedures. NSD-704 provides the processes for procedure use and adherence, including documenting a change in step sequence.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level I Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided NSD-704 GEN2.2 2.2.6 GENERIC Equipment Control Equipment Control Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures. (CFR: 41.10/43.3! 45.13) 401-9 Comments: I Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 142 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 72 72 GEN2.3 2.3.11 GENERIC Radiation Control Radiation Control Ability to control radiation releases. (CFR: 41.11 / 43.4 / 45.10)

Which ONE of the following describes the actions taken, in accordance with the SGTR tab, to limit the activity released to the atmosphere?

A. The Condensate Steam Air Ejectors are lined up to the Main Steam system.

B. The TD EFDW pump is placed in Pull To Lock.

C. The Auxiliary Steam systems for all three units are split.

D. The Turbine Building Sump pump breakers are opened.

Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 143 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 72 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Incorrect. The SJAEs are lined up to the AS system. Plausible because the supply to the SJAEs are switched per the SGTR tab however they are switched from MS to AS.

Answer B Discussion

[rect. The TDEFDW pump is placed in pull to lock to limit the contaminated steam from going to atmosphere.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect: The AS system at ONS is not split for a SGTR. Instead, ONS ensures it is being fed from a non-affected unit. Plausible because then action of splitting all the units would prevent cross contamination.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. During a SGTR, the TBS breakers are opened if RIA-54 is not operable. However this will prevent a liquid release not a release to atmosphere.

Basis for meeting the KA Question requires the ability to determine when certain EOP actions are used to control release of radioactive contamination to the atmosphereZ Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory MODIFIED ONS 2009B Q72 Development References I Student References Provided EAP-SGTR R6 ONS 2009B Q72 GEN2.3 2.3.11 GENERIC Radiation Control Radiation Control Ability to control radiation releases. (CFR: 41.11 / 43.4 / 45.10) 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 144 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 73 L GEN2.3 2.3.7 GENERIC Radiation Control Radiation Control Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal orabnormal conditions. (CFR: 41.12 / 45.10)

Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

A NEC is to valve out the Unit IA Seal Supply filter.

Based on the RWP and the Plan View, the maximum time that can be taken to perform this task before having to exit the area is minutes Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 27 B. 46 C. 136 D. 230 Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 145 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 73 General Discussion Answer A Discussion Correct. Using correct dose rate and dose alarm setpoint. Dose allowed from RWP is 10 mr. Dose rate from plan view is 22 mr[hr. Stay time is 27 minutes.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it would be correct if dose rate of 13 mr/hr on the B SS Supply Filter was used instead of 22mr/hr.

Answer C Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it would be correct if RWP dose alarm was misread as 50 mr.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. Plausible because it would be correct if RWP dose alarm was misread as 50 mr and a dose rate of 13 mr/hr on the B SS Supply Filter was used instead of 22mr/hr.

Basis for meeting the KA quires knowledge of how to use radiation work permits and RWPs to determine stay time.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Lev& Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Comprehension MODIFIED ONS 2007 Re-test Q7 1 Development References ent References Provided RAD-RPP r24 Plan View ONS 2007 retest Q7l RWP 23 GEN2.3 2.3.7 GENERIC Radiation Control Radiation Control Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal orabnormal conditions. (CFR; 41.12 / 45.10) 401-9 Comments: Remarks/Status Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 146 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUES1 ION 74 GEN2.4 2.4.29 GENERIC Emergency Procedures / Plan r

Emergency Procedures / Plan Knowledge ofthe emergency plan. (CFR: 41.10/43.5 / 45.11)

1) The on-site emergency facility that assumes responsibility for communications with offsite agencies including the NRC once it is activated is the (1)

2) The minimum level of emergency classification that always requires activation of the TSC and OSC is a(n) (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Technical Support Center (TSC)

2. Alert B. 1. Technical Support Center (TSC)

2. Unusual Event C. 1. Operations Support Center (OSC)

2. Alert D. 1. Operations Support Center (OS C)

2. Unusual Event Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 147 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 74 General Discussion The TSC becomes the stations central control area for emergency response and technical management. The TSC is activated at the Alert Status and will assume responsibility for communication with offsite agencies, including NRC, after activation.

Site Evacuation may occur for Site Area Emergency and ALWAYS occurs for General Emergency, must be preceded by a Site Assembly. All non-essential site personnel should proceed to one of two Evacuation Sites based on site selection criteria.

Answer A Discussion Correct. TSC assumes responsibility for off site communications once it is activated. An Alert is the minimum classification that always requires activation of the TSC and OSC.

Answer B Discussion Incorrect. Firat part is correct. Second part is plausible because the TSC and OSC can be activated in an Unusual Event but are not required to Answer C Discussion Incorrect.. Firat part is plausible because the OSC is responsible for onsite communications. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect.. Firat part is plausible because the OSC is responsible for onsite communications. Second part is plausible because the TSC and OSC can be activated in an Unusual Event but are not required to be.

Basis for meeting the KA Requires knowledge of the E plan.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory MODIFIED CNS 2008 NRC Q75 Development References ident References Provided EAP-SEP CNS 2008 Q75 GEN2.4 2.4.29 GENERIC Emergency Procedures / Plan Emergency Procedures / Plan Knowledge of the emergency plan. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.11) 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April II, 2012 Page 148 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 75 GEN2.4 2.439 GENERIC Emergency Procedures / Plan Emergency Procedures I Plan Knowledge of RO responsibilities in emergency plan implementation. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.11)

Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

A Site Area Emergency has been declared

1) In accordance with RPIO/B/10001015A (Offsite Communications From The Control Room) the initial communication to the Offsite Agencies is required to be made within a MAXIMUM of (1) from the classification determination.

2) In accordance with RPIOIB/1000/009 (Procedure For Site Assembly), personnel shall be accounted for within a MAXIMUM of (2) minutes of the initiation of the site assembly.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. l5minutes

2. 30 B. 1. l5minutes

2. 75 C. 1. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months

2. 30 D. 1. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months

2. 75 Wednesday, April 11,2012 Page 149 of 202

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ILT41 ONS SRO NRC Examination QUESTION 75 75 General Discussion

Answer A Discussion Correct. The initial communication is required to the Offsite agencies within 15 minutes. RP/1000/009 requires accounting of personnel to b complete within 30 minutes.

Answer B Discussion

[orrect. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because this is the time for the EOF to be activated.

Answer C Discussion ncorrect. First part is plausible because followup communications are required every hour. Second part is correct.

Answer D Discussion Incorrect. First part is plausible because followup communications are required every hour. Second part is plausible because this is the time for the EOF to be activated.

Basis for meeting the KA The KA is matched since ROs can serve has the NRC communicator and typically make the announcements for Site Assemblies from the Control Room.

Basis for Hi Cog Basis for SRO only E

Job Level Cognitive Level QuestionType Question Source RO Memory NEW Development References Student References Provided RP 1000/009 RP/I000/015A GEN2.4 2.4.39 GENERIC Emergency Procedures / Plan Emergency Procedures / Plan Knowledge of RO responsibilities in emergency plan implementation. (CFR: 41.10 / 45.11) 401-9 Comments: RemarkslStatus Wednesday, April 11, 2012 Page 150 of 202

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