ML111020321

Initial Exam 2010-302 Draft SRO Written Exam

ML111020321
Person / Time
Site:	Brunswick
Issue date:	04/06/2011
From:	NRC/RGN-II
To:	Progress Energy Carolinas
References
50-324/10-302, 50-325/10-302
Download: ML111020321 (112)

Text

76. S203000 G2.4.21 001 During a LOCA with a LOOP the following plant conditions exist:

2B RHR pump Injecting and has just exceeded its NPSH Limit 2B CS pump Injecting and approaching its NPSH Limit All other ECCS Pumps Unavailable Reactor Water Level 2/3 core height and steady Which one of the following identifies:

(1) the consequence of continued RHR operation outside its NPSH limit in accordance with 0OI-37.4, Reactor Vessel Control Procedure Basis Document, and (2) the required procedure to maintain adequate core cooling IAW RVCP?

A. (1) Immediate RHR pump damage is expected to occur.

(2) LEP-01, Alternate Coolant Injection, Section 5, Fire Protection/ Demineralized Water Tank Injection B. (1) Immediate RHR pump damage is expected to occur.

(2) 2OP-18, Core Spray System Operating Procedure, Section 8.3, Shifting Suction Source from CST to Suppression Pool C. (1) Long term operation is expected to cause RHR pump damage.

(2) LEP-01, Alternate Coolant Injection, Section 5, Fire Protection/ Demineralized Water Tank Injection D. (1) Long term operation is expected to cause RHR pump damage.

(2) 2OP-18, Core Spray System Operating Procedure, Section 8.3, Shifting Suction Source from CST to Suppression Pool

Feedback K/A: SRO 203000 G2.4.21 RHR/LPCI: Injection Mode Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc. (CFR: 41.7 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.0/4.6 Objective:

CLS-LP-300-D Obj. 9, Given plant conditions, the Reactor Vessel Control Procedure, and which steps have been completed, determine the required operator actions.

Reference:

None Cog Level: hi Explanation: From OI-37.4, Immediate and catastrophic failure is not expected if a pump is operated beyond the NPSH or vortex limit. The undesirable consequences of uncovering the reactor core could thus outweigh the risk of equipment damage Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because per the OI immediate pump damage is not expected to occur.

Choice B: Plausible because per the OI immediate pump damage is not expected to occur. with level at 2/3 core height the CS pump can not be secured to transfer the suction to the CST, or adequate core cooling would not be assured.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because with level at 2/3 core height the CS pump cannot be secured to transfer the suction to the CST, or adequate core cooling would not be assured.

SRO Basis: Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations (43(b)(5)

Notes From OI-37.4 Categories K/A: S203000 G2.4.21 LOK: HI RO Rating: 4.0 Tier/Group: T2G1 SRO Rating: 4.6 Source: BANK LP Obj: 300D-9 Category 8: 2

77. S215005 G2.1.20 001 Unit Two was operating at rated power with the OPRMs inoperable when a trip of 2A RFP occurred followed immediately by a trip of the 2B Reactor Recirc pump.

Which one of the following completes the statement below?

(assume first 5 minutes of event)

The RO is required to determine the current operating point on the OPRM Inoperable, (1) Power to Flow Map, which is directed by (2) Supplementary actions.

A. (1) Two Loop Operation (2) ONLY 2AOP-04.0, Low Core Flow, B. (1) Two Loop Operation (2) 2AOP-04.0, Low Core Flow AND 0AOP-23.0, Condensate/Feedwater System Failure, C. (1) Single Loop Operation (2) ONLY 2AOP-04.0, Low Core Flow, D. (1) Single Loop Operation (2) 2AOP-04.0, Low Core Flow AND 0AOP-23.0, Condensate/Feedwater System Failure,

Feedback K/A: SRO S215005 G2.1.20 Average Power Range Monitor/Local Power Range Monitor System Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.6/4.6 Objective: CLS-LP-302-C

4. Given plant conditions and AOP-04.0, determine the required supplementary actions.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

AOP-04 & AOP-23 both provide guidance to insert a manual reactor scram if the current operating point is in Region A of the Power to Flow Map. Without I&C doing adjustments to APRMs the current power to flow map is still the two loop map.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because two loop operation is correct and AOP-4.0 does have an action but AOP-23 also has an action to determine the current operating point on the power to flow map.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because the unit is operating in with one loop of recirc in operation but the setpoints have not been adjusted to the single loop criteria so the two loop power to flow map is still used. This is required by both AOP-4.0 & 23.

Choice D: Plausible because the unit is operating in with one loop of recirc in operation but the setpoints have not been adjusted to the single loop criteria so the two loop power to flow map is still used. This is required by both AOP-4.0 & 23.

SRO Basis: Requires assessing plant conditions and prescribing a procedure to mitigate, recover, or with which to proceed.

Notes

From AOP-23:

Categories K/A: S215005 G2.1.20 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 4.6 Tier/Group: T2G1 SRO Rating: 4.6 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-302-C*004 Category 8: NRC REVIEWED

78. S233000 G2.2.37 001 During normal power operations on Unit One, two weeks following a refueling outage, a loss of both Fuel Pool Cooling pumps occurs.

Which one of the following completes the statement below based on the above conditions IAW 0AOP-38.0, Loss of Fuel Pool Cooling?

The procedure that will mitigate the rising fuel pool temperature is (1) and the Fuel Pool temperature will be monitored using (2) .

A. (1) 1OP-17, Residual Heat Removal System Operating Procedure, (2) E41-TR-R605, Point 17, on Panel H12-P614 (Control Room Back panel)

B. (1) 1OP-17, Residual Heat Removal System Operating Procedure, (2) a calibrated thermocouple near the skimmer surge tank inlet (RB 117' elevation)

C. (1) 0OP-13.1, Supplemental Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System Operating Procedure, (2) E41-TR-R605, Point 17, on Panel H12-P614 (Control Room Back panel)

D. (1) 0OP-13.1, Supplemental Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System Operating Procedure, (2) a calibrated thermocouple near the skimmer surge tank inlet (RB 117' elevation)

Feedback K/A: SRO S233000 G2.2.37 Fuel Pool Cooling and Clean-up Ability to determine operability and/or availability of safety related equipment.

(CFR: 41.7 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/4.6 Objective: CLS-LP-302-L

4. Given plant conditions and AOP-38.0, Loss of Fuel Pool Cooling, determine the required supplementary actions.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation: Availability of RHR to support FPC in Mode 1.

A loss of FPC requires entry into AOP-38. AOP-38 provides guidance to restore FPC and place SSFPC in service if available. OP-13.1 P&L maintains SSFPC system available following a refueling outage.RHR FPC Assist mode of operation is only available with the unit in Mode 4 or 5 and is NOT available. Normal SFP temperature indication (E41-TR-R605, Point 17, on Panel H12-P614) will not provide accurate indication without FPC system in service.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because RHR FPC assist is the correct choice if SFP temperature cannot be maintained below 125°F AND the Unit is required to be in Mode 4 or 5 to be used.

E41-TR-R605 is the preferred & normal SFP temperature indication and is only available with FPC in service.

Choice B: Plausible because RHR FPC assist is the correct choice if SFP temperature cannot be maintained below 125°F AND the Unit is required to be in Mode 4 or 5 to be used. Local thermocouple readings is correct.

Choice C: Plausible because SSFPC is correct and E41-TR-R605 is the preferred & normal SFP temperature indication and is only available with FPC in service.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

Categories K/A: S233000 G2.2.37 LOK: HI RO Rating: 3.6 Tier/Group: T2G2 SRO Rating: 4.6 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-302-L*004 Category 8: 2

79. S239001 G2.2.3 001 Which one of the following choices complete the statements below identifying the minimum number of inoperable bypass valves that would make the Main Turbine Bypass System inoperable IAW TS 3.7.6, Main Turbine Bypass System?

The Unit One Main Turbine Bypass System is inoperable if (1) Bypass Valve(s) is/are inoperable.

The Unit Two Main Turbine Bypass System is inoperable if (2) Bypass Valves are inoperable.

A. (1) 1 (2) 2 B. (1) 1 (2) 3 C. (1) 2 (2) 3 D. (1) 2 (2) 4

Feedback K/A: SRO 239001 G2.2.3 Main and Reheat Steam System (multi-unit license) Knowledge of the design, procedural, and operational differences between units. (CFR: 41.5 / 41.6 / 41.7 / 41.10 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.8/3.9 Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-25 Obj. 9, Given plant conditions and Technical Specifications, including the Bases, TRM, ODCM and COLR, determine whether given plant conditions meet minimum Technical Specifications, the TRM or ODCM requirements for the Main Steam system

Reference:

None Cog Level: low/memory Explanation:

From the bases document 2 on U1 and 3 on U2.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because U2 has more bypass valves than U1, so the logical thought would be that more can be inoperable on U2. The LCO statement is with turbine bypass system inoperable where one could think that one valve inoperable could make the system inoperable.

Choice B: Plausible because U2 has more bypass valves than U1, and 3 inoperable on U2 is correct.

The LCO statement is with turbine bypass system inoperable where one could think that one valve inoperable could make the system inoperable.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because U2 has more bypass valves than U1, and 2 inoperable on U1 is correct.

SRO Basis: Facility operating limitations in the TS and their bases (10 CFR 55.43(b)(2)).

Notes From Unit One Bases:

From Unit Two Bases:

Categories K/A: S239001 G2.2.3 LOK: LOW RO Rating: 3.8 Tier/Group: T2G2 SRO Rating: 3.9 Source: NEW LP Obj: 25-9 Category 8: 2

80. S261000 A2.05 001 During accident conditions on Unit Two, primary containment is being vented through SBGT trains due to high containment pressure.

SBGT 2A Train red Emerg Oper light on XU-51 is extinguished.

Which one of the following completes the statements below?

The SBGT 2A fan will trip if charcoal compartment temperature reaches (1) .

If a fire were to occur in the SBGT train, the deluge system is manually initiated IAW (2) .

A. (1) 180° F (2) 2OP-10, Standby Gas Treatment System Operating Procedure B. (1) 180° F (2) 0OP-41, Fire Protection and Well Water System C. (1) 210° F (2) 2OP-10, Standby Gas Treatment System Operating Procedure D. (1) 210° F (2) 0OP-41, Fire Protection and Well Water System

Feedback K/A: SRO 261000 A2.05 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the STANDBY GAS TREATMENT SYSTEM; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6)

Fan Trips RO/SRO Rating: 3.0/3.1 Objective:

CLS-LP-10 Obj. 6, Describe the function of the temperature switches under abnormal operations.

Reference:

None Cog Level: hi Explanation:

If the charcoal area reaches 210°F without the suction temperature greater than 180°F the SBGT Fan will trip. The steps to actuate the deluge system which is normally valved out are contained in the SBGT procedure while the steps to reset the deluge are contained in the fire procedure.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because 180°F on the fan inlet is the actuation of the red Emergency Operating light that will bypass the fan trip. OP-10 is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because 180°F on the fan inlet is the actuation of the red Emergency Operating light that will bypass the fan trip. Since this is a fire system it may be thought that the steps to actuate the deluge would be in the fire procedure. The actions to reset the deluge are contained in the fire procedure.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because 210°F is the trip of the fan when the suction temperature is less than 180°F.

Since this is a fire system it may be thought that the steps to actuate the deluge would be in the fire procedure. The actions to reset the deluge are contained in the fire procedure.

SRO Basis: Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations (10 CFR 55.43(b)(5))

Notes

Categories K/A: S261000 A2.05 LOK: HI RO Rating: 3.0 Tier/Group: T2G1 SRO Rating: 3.1 Source: NEW LP Obj: 10-6 Category 8: 2

81. S263000 A2.02 001 During an equalizing charge on 125 VDC Battery 1B, the following annunciators are received:

UA-14 4-1 BATT RM 1B VENT FAN TRIP UA-06 2-5 SUB 1F 480V FEEDER BKR TRIP Which one of the following completes the statement below?

The procedure that directs securing the equalizing charge to mitigate the above conditions is (1) and it is secured due to an immediate concern with (2) .

A. (1) APP UA-14, BATT RM 1B VENT FAN TRIP (2) room temperature B. (1) APP UA-14, BATT RM 1B VENT FAN TRIP (2) hydrogen concentration C. (1) 1OP-51, DC Electrical System Operating Procedure (2) room temperature D. (1) 1OP-51, DC Electrical System Operating Procedure (2) hydrogen concentration

Feedback K/A: SRO S263000 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the D.C. ELECTRICAL DISTRIBUTION ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations:

Loss of ventilation during charging (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6)

RO/SRO Rating: 2.6/2.9 Objective:

CLS-LP-51

6. Describe the battery room ventilation system including:

a) Purpose c) Room temperature control CLS-LP-37

8. Given plant conditions, determine the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Control Building Ventilation and Emergency Recirculation Systems will have on the following: (LOCT)

c. Battery Operation

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

The primary purpose of the battery room ventilation system is twofold: first, to remove hydrogen gas (generated during the charging process) to prevent a fire and explosion hazard from existing in the room and second, to control room temperature and cleanliness. First action of the APP UA-14 4-1 is to Ensure Batteries 1B and 2B are not on an equalizing charge.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the APP is correct and the room temperature rise is not the immediate concern for shutting down the equalizing charge. Room temperatures could rise with no ventilation.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because due to having two annunciators in alarm would make 1OP-51, the DC system operating procedure, a logical choice, but does not provide battery equalizing charge guidance. Equalizing charge guidance is contained in 0PM-BAT004, Equalizing 125 VDC Batteries. Room temperature rise will occur during periods when outside temperatures are elevated (summer), but will lower during cold periods (purpose of duct heaters) and is not the immediate concern.

Choice D: Plausible because due to having two annunciators in alarm would make 1OP-51, the DC system operating procedure, a logical choice, but does not provide battery equalizing charge guidance. Equalizing charge guidance is contained in 0PM-BAT004, Equalizing 125 VDC Batteries. Hydrogen concentration is correct as the immediate concern.

SRO Basis: Assessing plant conditions and then prescribing a procedure to mitigate, recover, or with which to proceed. (55.43(b)(5))

Notes

Categories K/A: S263000 A2.02 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 2.6 Tier/Group: T2G1 SRO Rating: 2.9 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-37*008C Category 8: NRC REVIEWED

82. S288000 A2.01 001 Unit One is operating at power when a nitrogen leak causes Drywell Pressure to rise to 2 psig.

Which one of the following completes the statements below based upon the conditions above?

RBHVAC (1) to maintain Secondary Containment integrity.

Drywell pressure control is provided by isolating the affected pneumatic system IAW (2) .

A. (1) automatically isolates (2) PCCP, Primary Containment Control Procedure B. (1) automatically isolates (2) 0AOP-14.0, Abnormal Primary Containment Conditions C. (1) must be manually aligned (2) PCCP, Primary Containment Control Procedure D. (1) must be manually aligned (2) 0AOP-14.0, Abnormal Primary Containment Conditions

Feedback K/A: SRO S288000 A2.01 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the PLANT VENTILATION SYSTEMS ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations:

High drywell pressure: Plant-Specific (CFR: 41.5 / 45.6)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.3/3.4 Objective: CLS-LP-37.1

4. List the signals and setpoints that will cause the Reactor Building Ventilation System to automatically isolate.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

A pneumatic leak in the drywell will cause drywell pressure to rise. AOP-14 will be initially entered and directs venting the drywell IAW OP-10 and ensuring drywell cooling is operating properly. At 1.7 psig drywell pressure, RBHVAC isolates and SBGT auto starts to maintain secondary containment integrity. If drywell pressure exceeds 1.7 psig, AOP-14 is exited and PCCP is entered.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because RBHVAC auto isolation is correct and AOP-14 initially provides drywell pressure control guidance below 1.7 psig.

Choice C: Plausible because RBHVAC during a loss of RB Non-interruptible Air, RBHVAC isolation dampers fail as-is and require manual closure and PCCP is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because RBHVAC during a loss of RB Non-interruptible Air, RBHVAC isolation dampers fail as-is and require manual closure and AOP-14 initially provides drywell pressure control guidance below 1.7 psig.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

Categories K/A: S288000 A2.01 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 3.3 Tier/Group: T2G2 SRO Rating: 3.4 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-37.1*004 Category 8: 2

83. S295004 A2.04 001 Unit Two is operating at rated power when the following alarms are received:

DG-4 CTL POWER SUPPLY LOST DG-4 LO START AIR PRESS DG4/E4 ESS LOSS OF NORM POWER DG-2 CTL POWER SUPPLY LOST Subsequently, DG4 control power was transferred to its alternate DC source and returned to Standby.

Which one of the following identifies the DC panel that is currently supplying DG4 control power and the impact on the operability of DG4 IAW LCO 3.8.1, AC Sources Operating and LCO 3.8.7, Distribution Systems - Operating?

A. 125V DC Distribution Panel 1B; DG4 is operable on its alternate source for up to 7 days.

B. 125V DC Distribution Panel 1B; DG4 must be declared inoperable the entire time it is on its alternate source.

C. 125V DC Distribution Panel 2B; DG4 is operable on its alternate source for up to 7 days.

D. 125V DC Distribution Panel 2B; DG4 must be declared inoperable the entire time it is on its alternate source.

Feedback K/A: SRO 295004 A2.04 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF D.C. POWER : (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

System lineups RO/SRO Rating: 3.2/3.3 Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-200-B Obj. 12, Identify conditions and limitations in the facility license. (SRO/STA only)

Reference:

None Cog Level: Hi Explanation:

Alarms on DG4 indicate that loss is from 2B. Alarm on DG2 is from alternate supply being lost. (DG4 inop and DG2 operable on power loss) DG4 power transferred to alternate DP 1B and DG returned to STBY Tech specs give you 7 days to fix while you are on alternate, during this time it is operable.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because the DC panel 1B is correct and cascading is not required for 7 days on alternate before declaring inop.

Choice C: Plausible because the DC panel 2B is the normal supply and would be correct if question asked for the normal supply and 7 days is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because the DC panel 2B is the normal supply and would be correct if question asked for the normal supply and cascading is not required for 7 days on alternate before declaring inop.

SRO Basis: Facility operating limitations in the TS and their bases (10 CFR 55.43(b)(2)).

Notes Categories K/A: S295004 A2.04 LOK: HI RO Rating: 3.2 Tier/Group: T1G1 SRO Rating: 3.3 Source: BANK LP Obj: 200B-12 Category 8: 2

84. S295006 G2.1.20 001 Which one of the following identifies an AOP for one of the primary BOP systems specified in this step that the operator would enter and execute concurrently with the RSP IAW 0OI-37.3, Reactor Scram Procedure Basis Document?

A. 0AOP-02.0, Control Rod Malfunction / Misposition B. 0AOP-12.0, Loss of Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

C. 0AOP-16.0, RBCCW System Failures D. 0AOP-23.0, Condensate / Feedwater System Failures

Feedback K/A: SRO S295006 G2.1.20 SCRAM Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.6/4.6 Objective: CLS-LP-300-C

10. Given plant conditions and the Reactor Scram Procedure, determine the required operator actions.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

This step has the operator monitor systems which if left unattended could lead to degradation of plant conditions. The primary BOP systems of concern are: RBCCW, TBCCW, Instrument Air, Conventional Service Water and Nuclear Service Water. These support systems are required for operation of many of the ECCS and other safety related systems used to control critical reactor and containment parameters.

If any of these systems fail, the operator should enter the AOP and execute it concurrently with the EOPs.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: CRD is a critical reactor parameter but is not addressed by this step.

Choice B: UPS is a critical reactor parameter but is not addressed by this step.

Choice C: Correct answer, see explanation.

Choice D: Condensate and feedwater is a critical reactor parameter but is not addressed by this step. It would be addressed in RVCP.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes Categories K/A: S295006 G2.1.20 LOK: LOW RO Rating: 4.6 Tier/Group: T1G1 SRO Rating: 4.6 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-300-C*010 Category 8: 1

85. S295008 G2.2.38 001 Unit Two is operating at rated power when a failure of the Feedwater Level Control System causes maximum feedwater flow and rising reactor water level.

Which one of the following is the reason a REACTOR SCRAM is indirectly initiated during this event IAW the Bases for TS 3.3.2.2, Feedwater and Main Turbine High Water Level Trip Instrumentation?

A. Mitigates the reduction in MCPR during the overfeed event.

B. Prevents fuel damage during significant reactivity increases.

C. Reduces level by collapsing voids to prevent filling steam lines.

D. Protects the main turbine from damage due to water entering the turbine.

Feedback K/A: SRO S295008 G2.2.38 High Reactor Water Level Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.

(CFR: 41.7 / 41.10 / 43.1 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.6/4.5 Objective: CLS-LP-32.2

12. Given plant conditions and Technical Specifications, including the Bases, TRM, ODCM, and COLR, determine whether given plant conditions meet minimum Technical Specifications, TRM, or ODCM requirements associated with the Digital Feedwater Control System.

Reference:

None Cog Level:High Explanation:

Per TS Bases 3.3.2.2 Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because this is the TS bases for APRM Neutron Flux -High (Setdown) Scram and positive reactivity is added.

Choice C: Plausible because this is a result of scram, not reason for scram Choice D: Plausible because this is the TS bases for main turbine high level trip SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(2) - Facility operating limitations in the TS and their bases.

Notes

Categories K/A: S295008 G2.2.38 LOK:

RO Rating: 3.6 Tier/Group: T1G2 SRO Rating: 4.5 Source: BANK LP Obj: CLS-LP-32.2*012 Category 8: NRC REVIEWED

86. S295016 G2.4.35 001 0AOP-32.0, Plant Shutdown From Outside Control Room, is in progress.

Which one of the following completes the statements below?

The Auxiliary Operator assigned the position of MCC Operator on Unit One is directed to perform Attachment (1) to ensure RCIC availability.

Based on the indications below, after the 1-E51-F007, RCIC Steam Supply Inboard Isolation Valve, NORMAL / LOCAL Switch is placed in LOCAL, indication will (2) .

(red light is on)

A. (1) 3A, Unit 1, Station 3, Remote Shutdown Panel Initial Switch Alignment (2) change B. (1) 3A, Unit 1, Station 3, Remote Shutdown Panel Initial Switch Alignment (2) remain the same C. (1) 5A, Unit 1, Contingency Action, Equipment Status (2) change D. (1) 5A, Unit 1, Contingency Action, Equipment Status (2) remain the same

Feedback K/A: SRO S295016 G2.4.35 Control Room Abandonment Knowledge of local auxiliary operator tasks during an emergency and the resultant operational effects.

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.8/4.0 Objective: CLS-LP-302-E

8. Given plant conditions and entry into 0AOP 32.0, Plant Shutdown From Outside Control Room, explain the basis for a specific caution, note, or series of procedure steps.

Reference:

None Cog Level:High Explanation: Following control room evacuation, operators meet at the respective RSDPs to receive communication equipment and procedures. Once communications between stations have been established, the priority actions for Stations 1,2,& 3 are to make RCIC available for injection and inject if reactor level is less than 170. This is accomplished by each station performing the associated Remote Shutdown Panel Initial Switch Alignment Attachments 1,2,& 3A for Unit 1. For each component, prior to placing its NORMAL/LOCAL control switch to LOCAL, requires the CLOSED/OPEN control switch to be aligned to match the current position. This ensures inadvertent equipment operation is avoided. The operator placing NORMAL/LOCAL control switch to LOCAL under the current conditions will cause the valve to close which will remove steam supply to the RCIC turbine making it unavailable. For this component, the operator is required to veifiy the control switch in the OFF position prior to transferring to LOCAL to prevent inadvertant operation of equipment.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because Attachment 3A is correct and not recognizing the steam supply valve closing by going to local or the impact of this closure would make this choice correct.

Choice C: Plausible because Attachment 5A is performed in AOP-32 to support configuration control for equipment not aligned properly and could be confused if assumptions beyond the question are made (if stem required starting a CRD pump this Attach would be correct) and indication change is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because Attachment 5A is performed in AOP-32 to support configuration control for equipment not aligned properly and could be confused if assumptions beyond the question are made (if stem required starting a CRD pump this Attach would be correct) and not recognizing the steam supply valve closing by going to local or the impact of this closure would make this choice correct.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

Categories K/A: S295016 G2.4.35 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 3.8 Tier/Group: T1G1 SRO Rating: 4.0 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-302-E*008 Category 8: 1

87. S295020 G2.2.40 001 Unit Two is operating at rated conditions.

2-RCC-V28, RBCCW Drywell Supply Valve, had an electrical short resulting in closure of the valve.

With regards to Tech Spec 3.6.1.3, Primary Containment Isolation Valves, which one of the following statements is correct?

(Reference provided)

A. No Required Action because 2-RCC-V28 is in its required isolation position.

B. No Required Action because 2-RCC-V28 is not a designated PCIV.

C. Enter Condition A and take the appropriate Required Actions.

D. Enter Condition C and take the appropriate Required Actions.

Feedback K/A: SRO 295020 G2.2.40 Inadvertent Containment Isolation Ability to apply Technical Specifications for a system. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 43.5 / 45.3)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/4.7 Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-200-B Obj. 12, Identify conditions and limitations in the facility license. (SRO/STA only)

Reference:

TS 3.6.1.3 Cog Level: hi Explanation:

From the TRM the valve is PCIV related and it applies to Condition C of the TS.

This line only has one isolation valve in it. condition A is for one inop valve in a line with two isolation valves.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because the valve is in its isolation position but the required action still exists for the 31 days to verify closed.

Choice B: Plausible because there are valves in this line that are not PCIV designated, student has to know this is a designated valve.

Choice C: Plausible because there are lines that have two isolation valves but this is not one of them.

This would be correct for a line with one of two isolation valves inoperable.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: Facility operating limitations in the TS and their bases (10 CFR 55.43(b)(2)).

Notes

Categories K/A: S295020 G2.2.40 LOK: HI RO Rating: 3.4 Tier/Group: T1G2 SRO Rating: 4.7 Source: BANK LP Obj: 200B-12 Category 8: 2

88. S295023 G2.1.20 001 Unit One is in a Refueling Outage when a fuel bundle is dropped in the fuel pool.

0815 Refuel SRO reports lowering Spent Fuel Pool level 0830 FUEL POOL LEVEL LOW annunciator is received 0845 Refuel SRO reports Spent Fuel Pool level is recovering 0900 PROCESS RX BLDG VENT RAD HI annunciator is received Which one of the following meets the declaration and reporting time requirements specified in the emergency plan for the conditions above?

(Reference provided)

Declaration of an ALERT by (1) and notification of State/Counties by (2) .

A. (1) 0845 (2) 0900 B. (1) 0845 (2) 0945 C. (1) 0915 (2) 0930 D. (1) 0915 (2) 1015

Feedback K/A: SRO 295023 G2.1.20 Refueling Accidents Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.6/4.6 Objective:

CLS-LP-301 Obj. 5, Given PEP-02.1.1, Emergency Control - Notification of Unusual Event, Alert, Site Area Emergency and General Emergency discuss the following:

a. Site Emergency Coordinator (SEC) Responsibilities (SRO Only)

Reference:

0PEP-02.1 (Given to students)

Cog Level: hi Explanation:

The EAL has to be declared 15 minutes from when the conditions are present and then the state and county have to be notified 15 minutes from the declaration of the event. An unusual event would be declared Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because if an Alert was determined by the timeline of 0830 this would be correct and then 15 minutes from declaration to notify state and counties is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because if an Alert was determined by the timeline of 0830 this would be correct for the classification, but the 60 minutes is to notify the NRC not state and counties which is 15 minutes from declaration.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because 0914 is the correct time that the classification has to be made by but the 60 minutes is to notify the NRC not state and counties which is 15 minutes from declaration.

SRO Basis: Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations (43(b)(5) Knowledge of administrative procedures that specify implementation of emergency procedures.

Notes From 0PEP-02.2.1 The expectation is that emergency classifications are to be made as soon as conditions are present and recognizable for the classification, but within 15 minutes or less in all cases of conditions present.

From 0PEP-02.1.1 Categories K/A: S295023 G2.1.20 LOK: HI RO Rating: 4.6 Tier/Group: T1G1 SRO Rating: 4.6 Source: NEW LP Obj: 301-5A Category 8: 2

89. S295026 G2.4.18 001 Which one of the following identifies the procedure that directs the following step and the bases for the step?

This step is directed by (1) and is required to (2) .

A. (1) PCCP (2) assure long term core cooling B. (1) PCCP (2) minimize off-site releases per Alternative Source Term calculations C. (1) RVCP (2) assure long term core cooling D. (1) RVCP (2) minimize off-site releases per Alternative Source Term calculations

Feedback K/A: SRO 295026 G2.4.18 Suppression Pool High Water Temperature Knowledge of the specific bases for EOPs.

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.1 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.3/4.0 Objective: CLS-LP-300-D

2. Given plant conditions and the Reactor Vessel Control Procedure, determine if any of the following are appropriate or required:

b. Primary Containment Flooding

Reference:

None Cog Level: Low Explanation:

Suppression pool temperature is a primary containment parameter that is controlled IAW the PCCP. This step provides additional guidance from RVCP to ensure long term operation of LP ECCS pumps to prevent premature SAMG - Primary Containment Flooding.

From OI-37.4:

The calculation for the NPSH to the Core Spray and RHR pumps specify establishing cooling at ten minutes into the design basis LOCA. The calculation also assumes that the temperature of the suppression pool will be at approximately 169°F at ten minutes. If containment cooling is not established, then it is possible that the Core Spray or RHR pumps will be lost due to inadequate NPSH.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because PCCP provides suppression pool parameter control and long term cooling is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because PCCP provides suppression pool parameter control and assuring long term cooling will minimize off-site release rates per Alt Source Term calculations which require actions of Table 5 to be performed (no SPC requirement).

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because RVCP is correct and assuring long term cooling will minimize off-site release rates per Alt Source Term calculations which require actions of Table 5 to be performed (no SPC requirement).

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

Categories K/A: S295026 G2.4.18 LOK: LOW RO Rating: 3.3 Tier/Group: T1G1 SRO Rating: 4.0 Source: BANK LP Obj: CLS-LP-300-B02B Category 8: 2

90. S295028 A2.01 001 Following a small break LOCA on Unit Two, the following conditions exist:

Drywell temperature on CAC-TR-778 Point #1 320°F Point #3 263°F Point #4 250°F Drywell pressure 4.5 psig Suppr Chamber pressure 3.5 psig Suppr Pool level +5 inches Which one of the following completes the statements below?

(References provided)

The calculated Drywell Average Air temperature is (1) and the procedure that is required to be performed based on these conditions is (2) .

A. (1) 265°F (2) SEP-02, Drywell Spray Procedure B. (1) 265°F (2) SEP-03, Suppression Pool Spray Procedure C. (1) 277°F (2) SEP-02, Drywell Spray Procedure D. (1) 277°F (2) SEP-03, Suppression Pool Spray Procedure

Feedback K/A: SRO S295028 A2.01 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE :

Drywell temperature (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.0/4.1 Objective: CLS-LP-300-L*

11. Given the Primary Containment Control Procedure, which steps have been completed and plant parameters, determine the required operator actions.

17.Given plant conditions and EOP 01 Users Guide, calculate the following:

b.Drywell Average Air Temperature

Reference:

EOP-UG Attachment 4, Drywell Average Air Temperature Calculation Drywell Spray Initiation Limit Graph Cog Level: High Explanation:

Drywell temperature will have to be calculated IAW EOP-UG, Att.4 which should equal 265°F. Drywell spray in this condition is not allowed until suppression pool pressure is greater than 11.5 Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because 265°F is correct as calculated from the form, but spraying the drywell is not allowed (outside the graph).

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation.

Choice C: Plausible because 277 is the average of the three numbers and spraying the drywell is not allowed (outside the graph).

Choice D: Plausible because 277 is the average of the three numbers and spraying the suppression chamber is correct.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

Categories K/A: S295028 A2.01 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 4.0 Tier/Group: T1G1 SRO Rating: 4.1 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-300-L*011 Category 8: NRC REVIEWED

91. S295034 A2.02 001 Unit Two is operating at rated power when the following annunciators are received:

PROCESS RX BLDG VENT RAD HIGH PROCESS RX BLDG VENT RAD HI-HI RX BLDG ROOF VENT RAD HIGH AREA RAD RX BLDG HIGH 0AOP-05.0, Radioactive Spills, High Radiation, and Airborne Activity, has been entered.

Which one of the following completes the statements below?

The cause of these radiation alarms is due to a (1) .

0AOP-05.0 is (2) .

A. (1) RWCU filter demineralizer leak (2) performed concurrently with RRCP B. (1) RWCU filter demineralizer leak (2) exited and RRCP performed ONLY C. (1) dropped and damaged fuel bundle (2) performed concurrently with RRCP D. (1) dropped and damaged fuel bundle (2) exited and RRCP performed ONLY

Feedback K/A: SRO S295034 A2.02 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SECONDARY CONTAINMENT VENTILATION HIGH RADIATION:

Cause of high radiation levels (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.7/4.2 Objective: CLS-LP-300-N

19. Given plant conditions and 0EOP-04-RRCP, determine the following:

a. Release path (LOCT)

b. Required actions to be taken. (LOCT)

c. If a leak is on a primary system. (LOCT)

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

Alarms coming in is indication of RB HVAC isolating.

Damaged fuel may release a substantial amount of radioactive noble gases, halogens, and other fission products into the secondary containment. AOP-5 has additional actions that are required for a fuel bundle / high radiation conditions that would be required in addition to the RRCP.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because RWCU is a primary system, but a leak from the F/D would be water not be steam (T<140°F) which does not provide for airborne radioactive gas release. Performing RRCP concurrently is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because RWCU is a primary system, but a leak from the F/D would be water not be steam (T<140°F) which does not provide for airborne radioactive gas release and other AOPs are exited to EOPs (AOP-14) once the entry conditions are met but is not correct for AOP-05 which has additional actions.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because fuel damage is correct and and other AOPs are exited to EOPs (AOP-14) once the entry conditions are met but is not correct for AOP-05 which has additional actions.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

Categories K/A: S295034 A2.02 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 3.7 Tier/Group: T1G2 SRO Rating: 4.2 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-300-N*019A Category 8: NRC REVIEWED

92. S295037 A2.05 001 With Unit Two operating at rated power a complete loss of UPS occurs.

The SCO has directed the RO to insert a manual reactor scram due to rising drywell pressure. Plant conditions are:

Manual Scram pushbuttons Depressed Mode Switch Shutdown position RPS Lights NOT lit ARI Initiated Drywell pressure 2.1 psig APRM Downscales Not lit SCRAM VALVE PIL AIR HDR PRESS HI/LO In alarm Which one of the following choices completes the statement below?

The SCO will direct the RO to perform Section _____, of LEP-02, Alternate Control Rod Insertion.

A. 2, De-energize the Scram Pilot Valve Solenoids B. 3, Reset RPS and Initiate a Manual Scram C. 5, Insert Control Rods with the Reactor Manual Control System D. 7, Maximize Cooling Water Header Pressure

Feedback K/A: SRO 295037 A2.05 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN : (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

Control rod position RO/SRO Rating: 4.2/4.3 Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-301-B Obj. 9, Given a hypothetical abnormal event and plant operating mode, use 0PEP-02.1 to properly classify or re-classify the event.

Reference:

none Cog Level: hi Explanation:

With UPS lost there is no power for rod selection so the operator cannot insert control rods using RMCS.

Rods will have to be attempted to be inserted using LEP-02 section 3 (Scram reset Scram).

APRM recorders do not have power so a power reading is not available. The APRM downscale lights (on the apron) still have power.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because if the RPS lights were still lit (electrical ATWS) this would be correct.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation.

Choice C: Plausible because this is would be correct if rod select power was available.

Choice D: Plausible because this is would be correct if DW pressure was not high allowing the scram to be reset without the use of jumpers, Scram cannot be reset directs going back to another section.

SRO Basis: Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations (43(b)(5) Knowledge of administrative procedures that specify implementation of emergency procedures.

Notes Categories K/A: S295037 A2.05 LOK: HI RO Rating: 4.2 Tier/Group: T1G1 SRO Rating: 4.3 Source: NEW LP Obj: 301B-9 Category 8: 2

93. S400000 G2.1.25 001 Following a LOCA on Unit One, with NO RBCCW pumps in service, the following peak Drywell air temperatures were obtained:

CAC-TR-778 347°F @ 88 ft elevation CAC-TR-4426 347°F @ 23 ft elevation Which one of the following completes the statements below for RBCCW pump restart IAW 1OP-21, Reactor Building Closed Cooling Water System Operating Procedure?

(Reference Provided)

Attachment (1) is used to determine when the RBCCW pumps may be started.

The RBCCW pumps may be restarted (2) minutes after the peak local temperatures have cooled to <230°F.

A. (1) 4, RBCCW Pump Restart Determination Using CAC-TR-4426 (2) 30 B. (1) 4, RBCCW Pump Restart Determination Using CAC-TR-4426 (2) 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> and 21 C. (1) 5, RBCCW Pump Restart Determination Using CAC-TR-778 (2) 30 D. (1) 5, RBCCW Pump Restart Determination Using CAC-TR-778 (2) 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> and 21

Feedback K/A: SRO 400000 G2.1.25 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

Ability to interpret reference materials, such as graphs, curves, tables, etc.

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.9/4.2 Objective:

CLS-LP-21 Obj. 12, Given plant conditions and OP-21, determine any limitations to restart of RBCCW pumps due to high drywell temperature.

Reference:

Attachments 4-6 of 2OP-21.

Cog Level: Hi Explanation:

NRC Generic Letter 96-06 pertains to issues that could affect containment integrity and equipment operability during accident conditions. In particular, the GL discusses cooling water systems serving containment air coolers (RBCCW supply to the drywell coolers) which may be exposed to the hydrodynamic effects of waterhammer during either a loss-of-coolant accident (LOCA), or a main steam line break (MSLB). These cooling water systems were not designed to withstand the effects of waterhammer. At BNP, the method used to address this concern is to establish a philosophy for restoring RBCCW flow to the drywell, in a controlled manner, after the RBCCW pumps have tripped or have been secured. While SBO is outside the scope of GL 96-06, and control of RBCCW pump restart due to this event is not required to resolve GL 96-06, prevention of inappropriate pump restart under this condition will contribute to preservation of system piping and containment integrity. At the beginning of the event, or in any case, prior to restoration of power, the pump control switches should be placed to OFF. This action will prevent potential waterhammer caused by an automatic pump restart when power is restored and worst-case local drywell temperatures have met or exceeded the threshold. If the RBCCW pumps can be restarted during or after this event, prior to drywell temperatures meeting or exceeding the threshold of 260 degrees F, then waterhammer will not be a concern. If the temperature threshold has been reached, then pump restart should be controlled to prevent damage to plant structures and equipment. If the pumps cannot be restarted, containment integrity will not be compromised since no credit is currently taken for RBCCW pump operation during this event.

The 4426 recorders are used unless they are inoperative, which makes Attachment 4 the correct attachment. Based on attachment 4, with the highest temperature being above the 29' elevation and

>260'F, Table 1on Attachment 6 is used. With temperatures in the range of 300 - 350°F the correct time allotment is 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> and 21 minutes.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because Attachment 4 is correct but 30 minutes would be correct if Table 1 was used.

Choice B: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice C: Plausible because attachment 5 would be correct if the data was not available from CAC-TR-4426. 30 minutes would be correct if Table 1 was used.

Choice D: Plausible because attachment 5 would be correct if the data was not available from CAC-TR-4426 and 4 hrs and 21 min is correct.

SRO Basis: Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations (10 CFR 55.43(b)(5))

Notes

Categories K/A: S400000 G2.1.25 LOK: HI RO Rating: 3.9 Tier/Group: T2G1 SRO Rating: 4.2 Source: NEW LP Obj: 21-12 Category 8: 2

94. SG2.1.23 001 Unit One is at 20% power during plant shutdown with plans to perform a rapid shutdown from the current power level.

Excessive cooldown is of concern due to recent power history.

Which one of the following actions is allowed to be performed prior to inserting the manual scram to minimize cooldown?

A. Raise reactor water level to 195 inches IAW 0GP-05, Unit Shutdown.

B. Secure both Steam Jet Air Ejectors and start Mechanical Vacuum Pumps IAW 0GP-05, Unit Shutdown.

C. Raise reactor water level to 195 inches IAW 2PT-01.7, Heatup/Cooldown Monitoring.

D. Secure both Steam Jet Air Ejectors and start Mechanical Vacuum Pumps IAW 2PT-01.7, Heatup/Cooldown Monitoring.

Feedback K/A: SRO SG2.1.23 Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.2 / 45.6)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.3/4.4 Objective: CLS-LP-307-B

1. GP-05, Unit Shutdown

f. Describe how reactor vessel cooldown rate is controlled in accordance with GP 05.

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

Inserting a scram will cause reactor level shrink due to rapid reduction in steam generation. This level drop will cause injection of a large amount of relatively cool feedwater to restore reactor level to the normal band. This large amount of relatively cool feedwater will cause a reduction in reactor pressure. If decay heat is low due to extended coast down at end of cycle, this initial pressure reduction can contribute to challenging cooldown rate limit of 100°F/Hour. Raising level prior to the scram minimizes the level drop and associated feedwater injection immediately following the scram, thus minimizing the associated pressure drop. One SJAE may shut down per Attachment 2 to reduce steam loads prior to the scram but the mechanical vacuum pump cannot be aligned greater than 5% power due to hydrogen concerns. The second SJAE cannot be shut down and mechanical vacuum started until after the scram.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because securing SJAEs is an option of GP-05, but with reactor power greater than 5% is not allowed.

Choice C: Plausible because raising reactor water level to 195 inches is correct but not IAW 2PT-01.7 which provides for monitoring only - no steps for controlling.

Choice D: Plausible because securing SJAEs will reduce cooldown but not IAW 2PT-01.7 which provides for monitoring only - no steps for controlling.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

Categories K/A: SG2.1.23 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 4.3 Tier/Group: T3 SRO Rating: 4.4 Source: BANK LP Obj: CLS-LP-307-B*01F Category 8: 2

95. SG2.1.7 001 Unit One is in an accident condition and is executing RVCP with the following conditions:

Reactor Water Level -60 inches Reactor Pressure 800 psig Reference Leg Temperature 208° F Injection sources available None (Reference Provided)

Which one of the following identifies the required procedure(s) that is/are required to maintain adequate core cooling?

A. Below the minimum steam cooling water level Enter STCP. Do NOT perform Emergency Depressurization.

B. Below the minimum steam cooling water level Enter STCP and perform Emergency Depressurization.

C. Above the minimum steam cooling water level Remain in RVCP. Do NOT perform Emergency Depressurization.

D. Above the minimum steam cooling water level Remain in RVCP and perform Emergency Depressurization.

Feedback K/A: SRO SG2.1.7 Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

(CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 4.4/4.7 Objective: CLS-LP-300-D

3. Given plant conditions and the Reactor Vessel Control Procedure, determine if any of the following are appropriate or required:

a. Steam Cooling

e. Emergency Depressurization

Reference:

EOP-01-UG, Attachment 6, Figures 17, 18, & 19 (Unit One TAF, LL4, and LL5 graphs with MSCWL &

MZIWL verbiage deleted to support plausibility)

Cog Level: High Explanation:

Determines that level is less than LL4 and no injection sources, so STCP must be entered.

When leaving RVCP only the pressure leg is exited and the level leg is executed concurrently with STCP.

CHOICE A - Correct Answer, see explaination.

CHOICE B - Plausible because level is below LL4 is correct and ED would not be required until LL5.

CHOICE C - Plausible because level is below LL4 and could be confused with LL5 graph and remaining in RVCP would require ED which would be required if below LL5 from STCP.

CHOICE D - Plausible because level is below LL4 and could be confused with LL5 graph and remaining in RVCP and ED would be correct if an injection source was available.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Notes

RVCP Steps

Categories K/A: SG2.1.7 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 4.4 Tier/Group: T3 SRO Rating: 4.7 Source: PREV 08 LP Obj: CLS-LP-300-D*03E Category 8: 2

96. SG2.2.23 001 Considering the following sequence of events:

10:00 12/18/10 2A SLC Pump declared INOP 14:00 12/20/10 2B SLC Pump declared INOP 18:00 12/20/10 2A SLC Pump declared OPERABLE Which one of the following is the latest time the Reactor would be required to be in MODE 3 IAW Tech Spec 1.3, Completion Times and LCO 3.1.7, Standby Liquid Control (SLC) System?

A. 10:00 12/25/10 B. 22:00 12/25/10 C. 22:00 12/26/10 D. 02:00 12/28/10 Feedback K/A: SRO G2.2.23 Ability to track Technical Specification limiting conditions for operations.

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.1/4.6 Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-200-B Obj. 7, Explain the rules for completion times and apply these rules to any given Tech Spec. (SRO/STA Only)

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Cog Explanation:

10:00 12/18/10 declared inop

+ 7 days condition A

+ 24 hour2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> extension as defined in TS 1.3 completion Times

+ 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> condition C

= 22:00 12/26/10 Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because applies the Condition B statement of two pumps being inop and then 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> to Mode 3.

Choice B: Plausible because this applies the seven days from being inop, only.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice D: Plausible because this applies the seven days and the 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> to be in Mode 3 statements, not the extension from TS 1.3 to the two pumps inop time.

SRO Basis: Facility operating limitations in the TS and their bases. (10CFR55.43(b)(2)). Application of generic completion time requirements.

Notes Categories K/A: SG2.2.23 LOK: HI RO Rating: 3.1 Tier/Group: T3 SRO Rating: 4.6 Source: BANK LP Obj: 200B-7 Category 8: 2

97. SG2.2.43 001 At the start of your shift (0800 hours0.00926 days <br />0.222 hours <br />0.00132 weeks <br />3.044e-4 months <br />) an I&C technician plans to work on a nuisance alarm. The annunciator audible alarm feature will be altered by installing a modified annunciator card. The work will be completed in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

Which one of the following completes the statements below IAW 0OI-01.01, BNP Conduct of Operation Supplement?

The installation of the modified annunciator card requires a (1) dot to be placed on the annunciator.

Attachment 24, Annunciator Removal From Service Form, is (2) to be completed for documentation of the disabled annunciator.

A. (1) white (2) required B. (1) white (2) NOT required C. (1) black (2) required D. (1) black (2) NOT required

Feedback K/A: SRO G2.2.43 Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.0/3.3 Objective:

CLS-LP-61, Obj 7, State the meaning for the following annunciator window color codes:

e. Black dot

Reference:

None Cog Level: Low Explanation:

IAW 0OI-01.01 Black flag (dot) - Indicates that the annunciator audible alarm feature has been altered per temporary modification by installing a modified annunciator card.

An annunciator may be disabled for a short duration (not to exceed shift turnover) without completing 4 if approved by the CRS. If approved, a label will be affixed to the RTGB indicating which annunciator is disabled.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because a white dot is used for control room deficiencies, but not for disabled annunciators. Attachment is not required because it will not be through shift turnover.

Choice B: Plausible because a white dot is used for control room deficiencies, but not for disabled annunciators. Attachment is not required because it will not be through shift turnover.

Choice C: Plausible because a black dot is required, but the attachment is not required if it does not go through shift turnover.

Choice D: Correct Answer, see explanation SRO Basis: Facility licensee procedures required to obtain authority for design and operating changes in the facility. (10CFR55.43(b)(3)). Administrative processes for disabling annunciators.

Notes Categories K/A: SG2.2.43 LOK: LOW RO Rating: 3.0 Tier/Group: T3 SRO Rating: 3.3 Source: NEW LP Obj: 61-7E Category 8: 2

98. SG2.3.14 001 Unit Two shutdown is in progress to support Drywell entry due to Recirculation Pump oil level concerns.

E&RC has determined by sampling that the Drywell atmosphere is not suitable for unfiltered release.

Which one of the following completes the statement below?

Aligning Primary Containment Purging (Deinerting) flowpath through the SBGT System with Drywell pressure above 0.7 psig can result in (1) and can only be performed with the Unit (2) IAW 2OP-24, Section 8.13.

A. (1) contamination of the RB 50' (2) in Mode 4 B. (1) contamination of the RB 50' (2) below 15% power C. (1) exceeding ODCM Main Stack release rates (2) in Mode 4 D. (1) exceeding ODCM Main Stack release rates (2) below 15% power

Feedback K/A: SRO SG2.3.14 Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities.

(CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.10)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.4/3.8 Objective: CLS-LP-10

9. Determine the effect that the following will have on SBGT:

j.High Drywell Pressure

Reference:

None Cog Level: High Explanation:

ONLY allowed to purge through purge fans if drywell atmosphere is suitable for unfiltered release. Must purge through SBGT and procedure ONLY allows purge through SBGT in Mode 4 due to LOCA concerns.

Drywell pressure above .7 psig can cause the loss of the SBGT System water seal which will cause the RB 50' to be contaminated with airborne activity.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because contaminating the RB 50' is correct and deinerting the drywell cannot be commenced greater than 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> before the unit being gets 15% power. Based on not suitable for unfiltered release, deinerting will be delayed until Mode 4 is reached.

Choice C: Plausible because higher drywell pressure would provide for higher Main Stack release rates but the Main Stack Rad Hi-Hi isolation is set to ensure ODCM release rates will not be exceeded and Mode 4 is correct.

Choice D: Plausible because higher drywell pressure would provide for higher Main Stack release rates but the Main Stack Rad Hi-Hi isolation is set to ensure ODCM release rates will not be exceeded and deinerting the drywell cannot be commenced greater than 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> before the unit gets below 15% power. Based on not suitable for unfiltered release, deinerting will be delayed until Mode 4 is reached.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(4) - Radiation hazards that may arise during normal and abnormal situations, including maintenance activities and various contamination conditions.

Notes

Categories K/A: SG2.3.14 LOK: HIGH RO Rating: 3.4 Tier/Group: T3 SRO Rating: 3.8 Source: NEW LP Obj: CLS-LP-10*09J Category 8: 1

99. SG2.3.5 001 Unit Two is in an ATWS condition with the given Drywell Monitor indications.

Which one of the following identifies the Fission Product Barrier(s) that has(have) been lost IAW 0PEP-02.1, Brunswick Nuclear Plant Initial Emergency Action Level Matrix?

(Reference provided)

A. Fuel Clad Barrier ONLY.

B. Reactor Coolant System Barrier ONLY.

C. Both the Fuel Clad and Containment Barriers.

D. Both the Containment and Reactor Coolant System Barriers.

Feedback K/A: SRO G2.3.5 Ability to use radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, personnel monitoring equipment, etc.

(CFR: 41.11 / 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.9)

RO/SRO Rating: 2.9/2.9 Objective:

CLS-LP-11.1*03a Describe the function/operation of the following: Drywell High Range Radiation Monitors

Reference:

0PEP-02.1 Cog Level: Low Explanation:

Drywell high range area monitors provide indications of gross fuel failure and are used to determine emergency plan emergency action level associated with abnormal core conditions. With the function switch in the E2-E5, meter readings are taken from the lower scale between 100 - 10,000 R/h. This reading would be 3000 R/h. Under the old EALs the reading had to be greater than 5000 R to have fuel cladding failure.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Correct Answer, see explanation Choice B: Plausible because if the wrong scale is applied to the DW Rad Monitor or if the scale selector switch was in a different position and the reactor was shutdown this would be correct.

Choice C: Plausible because if the wrong scale is applied to the DW Rad Monitor then this would be correct Choice D: Plausible because if the reactor was shutdown this would be correct.

SRO Basis: Radiation hazards that may arise during normal and abnormal situations, including maintenance activities and various contamination conditions. 10 CFR 55.43(b)(4)

(Analysis and interpretation of radiation readings including comparison to emergency plan criteria.)

Notes

Categories K/A: SG2.3.5 LOK: LOW RO Rating: 2.9 Tier/Group: T3 SRO Rating: 2.9 Source: NEW LP Obj: 11.1-03A Category 8: 2

100. SG2.4.28 001 The NRC has notified the Control Room of an Imminent Airborne Threat.

Which one of the following completes the statement below?

The Control Room is required to dispatch (1) operator(s) to both Unit One and Unit Two Reactor Buildings IAW (2) .

A. (1) one (2) 0AOP-40.0, Security Events B. (1) one (2) 0EDMG-001, Extreme Damage Mitigation Initial Response C. (1) two (2) 0AOP-40.0, Security Events D. (1) two (2) 0EDMG-001, Extreme Damage Mitigation Initial Response

Feedback K/A: SRO SG2.4.28 Knowledge of procedures relating to a security event (non-safeguards information).

(CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

RO/SRO Rating: 3.2/4.1 Objective:

LOI-CLS-LP-302-M*04G

4. Given plant conditions and any of the following AOPs, determine the required Supplementary Actions:

g. 0AOP-40.0, Security Events

Reference:

0PEP-2.1 Cog Level: Low Explanation:

Requires knowledge of the AOP supplemental actions to dispatch two operators to both of the reactor buildings. This is a recent change that was implemented last year from only one operator. The procedure that contains the actions for an Imminent Airborne Threat.

Distractor Analysis:

Choice A: Plausible because one operator used to be correct (recent change). AOP-40 is correct.

Choice B: Plausible because one operator used to be correct (recent change). EDMG procedures would be entered when the aircraft impacted the plant.

Choice C: Correct Answer, see explanation.

Choice D: Plausible because two operators is correct. EDMG procedures would be entered when the aircraft impacted the plant.

SRO Basis: 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5) - Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.

Additional knowledge of the procedures content is required to correctly answer the written test item.

Notes From 0AOP-40.0 Categories K/A: SG2.4.28 LOK: LOW RO Rating: 3.2 Tier/Group: T3 SRO Rating: 4.1 Source: NEW LP Obj: LOI-CLS-LP-302-M*04G Category 8: 2