Text

Initial Exam 2009-301 Final RO Written Exam
	ML092890637
Person / Time
Site:	Crystal River
Issue date:	10/16/2009
From:	; NRC/RGN-II
To:	; Progress Energy Florida
References
	50-302/09-301, ES-401, ES-401-7
	Download: ML092890637 (88)
	v • d • e

ES-401, Rev. 9 Site-Specific RO Written Examination Form ES-401-7 Cover Sheet U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Site-Specific RO Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Date: September 22, 2009 Facility/Unit: Crystal River Region: 1/ " / III/IV Reactor Type: W / CE / BW / GE Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination, you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicant's Signature Results Examination Value Points Applicant's Score Points Applicant's Grade Percent

Name:

Name: ________________________________ RO 2009 NRC Exam

Form: 0 Version: 0

1. The following plant conditions exist:

Following a plant runback due to the loss of RCP -lA, an I CS failure occurs.

AP-504, Integrated Control System Failure, has been entered and the Immediate Actions are complete.

The plant is now stable.

Maintenance and Engineering have been contacted.

Twenty minutes later the following conditions are observed:

Tave is rising RCS pressure is rising PZR level is rising Assuming NO additional operator actions have occurred which ONE of the following describes the event in progress and the required operator action?

A. MUV-3l inadvertently opened Close MUV-596, Common Seal InjectionlMakeup Isolation B. MUV-3l inadvertently opened Close MUV-27, MUP-lAJlB/lC to RCP-lA Discharge Isolation C. Continuous rod withdrawal Select Sequence Override D. Continuous rod withdrawal Start Emergency Boration Monday, September 21 , 2009 7:43: 13 AM 1

RO 2009 NRC Exam

2. The following plant conditions exist:

An ICS malfunction occurred.

After completion of AP-504, Integrated Control System Failure, Immediate Actions a control rod dropped to the bottom of the core.

NI-5 upper chamber 35.2% NI-7 upper chamber 37.9%

NI-5lower chamber 43.3% NI-7lower chamber 44.4%

NI-6 upper chamber 43.3% NI-8 upper chamber 35.1%

NI-6lower chamber 44.6% NI-8lower chamber 42.9%

Which ONE of the following describes the required initial actions lAW TS 3.2.4, Quadrant Power Tilt (QPT)? (reference provided)

A. Perform SR 3.2.5.1 once per two hours AND restore QPT to less than or equal to the steady state limit within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months .

B. Reduce thermal power to < 60% of the allowable thermal power within two hours AND reduce the nuclear overpower trip setpoint to:s 65.5% of the allowable thermal power within 10 hours1.157407e-4 days 0.00278 hours 1.653439e-5 weeks 3.805e-6 months .

C. Reduce thermal power:::: 2% RTP from the allowable thermal power for each 1% of QPT greater than the steady state limit within 30 minutes AND restore QPT to less than or equal to the transient limit within two hours.

D. Reduce thermal power:::: 2% RTP from allowable thermal power for each 1% of QPT greater than the steady state limit within two hours AND reduce the nuclear overpower trip setpoint and nuclear overpower based on RCS flow and Axial Power Imbalance trip setpoint :::: 2% RTP from allowable thermal power for each 1% of QPT greater than the steady state limit.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:13 AM 2

RO 2009 NRC Exam

3. The following plant conditions exist:

A plant startup is in progress.

RCP-IA, RCP-IC, and RCP-ID are running.

RCP-2B, AC Lift Oil Pump, has tripped.

All RCP oil reservoirs are at normal level.

SWP-IC, "C" Nuclear Services Closed Cycle Cooling Pump, is running.

RCS temperature is 430 0 F.

RCS pressure is 1000 psig.

All RCP seal flows are stable at 6 gpm per pump.

Which ONE of the preceding conditions would prevent the start of the "B" Reactor Coolant Pump, RCP-IB?

A. RCP lift oil pressure is too low B. RCS pressure is too low C. RCP seal flow is too low D. RCS temperature is too low Monday, September 21,20097:43:13 AM 3

RO 2009 NRC Exam

4. With the plant operating at 100% power an electrical transient occurs. The following indications are observed on the NNl and lCS Power Supply Monitors.

Based on the indications below which ONE of the following describes the current status*ofMUV-31? [White indicates light is ON]

NNI-X NNI-Y ICS-POWER A. Failed closed - manual valve control, from MCB, is available.

B. Failed closed - manual valve control, from MCB, is NOT available.

C. Maintained "as is" - manual valve control, from MCB, is available.

D. Maintained "as is" - manual valve control, from MCB, is NOT available.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 4

RO 2009 NRC Exam

5. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is at 90% power.

Control rod Group 7 is at 80%.

Control rod 7-4 drops 10% from the group average.

(1) reactor power to approximately 60% which ensures that (2) limits are not exceeded.

A. (1) An automatic plant runback will occur reducing (2) local linear heat rate (LHR)

B. (1) An automatic plant runback will occur reducing (2) DNBR C. (1) The operator must manually reduce (2) local linear heat rate (LHR)

D. (1) The operator must manually reduce (2) DNBR Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 5

RO 2009 NRC Exam

6. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant has shut down for a forced outage to replace a portion of the "A" ES 4160Vbus.

Bus replacement is now in progress and is expected to take 4 days to complete.

Annunciator window Q-07 -06, Plant Line 4 Fault (feed to BEST and Startup transformers), has just annunciated.

Which ONE of the following describes the procedure(s) required to be entered?

AP-404, Loss of Decay Heat Removal AP-770, Emergency Diesel Generator Actuation EOP-12, Station Blackout A. EOP-12 ONLY B. AP-404 ONLY C. EOP-12 and AP-770 D. AP-770 and AP-404 Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 6

RO 2009 NRC Exam

7. "A" Decay Heat Removal train is in service. Instrument air pressure is 75 psig and lowering.

Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response for the above conditions lAW AP-470, Loss of Instrument Air?

Manually throttle DCV-17 (A DH Cooler Bypass Control Valve) (1) and manually throttle DCV-177 (A DH Cooler Outlet Control Valve) (2) to limit the initial RCS (3)

A. (1) closed (2) open (3) heatup B. (1) open (2) closed (3) heatup C. (1) closed (2) open (3) cooldown D. (1) open (2) closed (3) cooldown Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 7

RO 2009 NRC Exam

8. The following plant conditions exist:

A large volume add was made to the BWST.

Chemistry reports that the BWST boron concentration is 1890 ppm.

The sample results are confirmed by Chemistry.

RCS boron concentration is 300 ppm.

Which ONE of the following describes the impact of this error on the ability of the Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS) to maintain adequate Shutdown Margin (SDM) during a LOCA and what procedural guidance would be used to address the potential consequences caused by this condition?

A. SDM could be lost.

EOP-13, Rule 6, Reactivity Control, would be used to start an RCS boration from the BWST.

B. SDM will be maintained.

EOP-13, Rule 6, Reactivity Control, would be used to start an RCS boration from the BWST.

C. SDM could be lost.

EOP-13, Rule 6, Reactivity Control, would be used to start an RCS boration from the BASTs.

D. SDM will be maintained.

EOP-13, Rule 6, Reactivity Control, would be used to start an RCS boration from the BASTs.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 8

RO 2009 NRC Exam

9. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant was at 100% power when a small break LOCA occurred.

Rule 1, Loss of SCM, has just been completed.

Current RCS pressure is 1300 psig.

Current Tincore indication is 425 0 F.

RCS cooldown rate is 65 0 F per 112 hr.

Based on these conditions which ONE of the following describes why Rule 4, PTS, is in effect and why HPI flow must be throttled?

Rule 4, PTS, is in effect because _----'(.=.I)L--_. HPI must be throttled to _---->.::(2::.<.)__

A. (1) HPI flow exists with no RCPs running (2) prevent exceeding NDT limits B. (1) ITS cooldown rate was exceeded (2) prevent exceeding NDT limits C. (1) HPI flow exists with no RCPs running (2) lower and maintain RCS pressure below 1000 psig D. (1) ITS cooldown rate was exceeded (2) lower and maintain RCS pressure below 1000 psig Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 9

RO 2009 NRC Exam

10. The following plant conditions exist with the plant at 100% power.

RB pressure at 0.2 psig and stable RB sump level is 12 inches and slowly rising RCS pressure is stable PZR level is 220 inches and stable RCDT level is 103 inches and stable RCDT temperature is 127 0 F and stable RCDT pressure is 4.5 psig and stable Which ONE of the following describes a condition that could result in the above indications?

A. RC-1-LT1 (PZR level transmitter) condensing pot leakage.

B. A Core Flood Tank relief valve has lifted.

C. RCP Seal leakage is draining to the sump.

D. A small main steam leak is in progress.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 10

RO 2009 NRC Exam

11. During the Immediate Actions following a reactor trip from 100% power, the following conditions exist:

Seven control rods (three in group 3, four in group 6) remain withdrawn.

Power Range NI average power is approximately 6% and stable.

The reactor operator is performing this step:

"Verify Nls indicate reactor is shutdown".

Which ONE of the following actions would be the next action for these conditions lAW EOP-02, Vital System Status Verification?

A. Manually actuate both trains of HPI for Emergency Boration.

B. Start both Chemical Addition pumps, CAP-IA and IB, and manually borate RCS through the Batch Controller.

C. De-energize the CRDs by opening breakers 3305 and 3312.

D. Concurrently perform EOP-13, Rule 6, Reactivity Control.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 11

RO 2009 NRC Exam

12. The following plant conditions exist:

1000 The plant is in Mode 5 SWT-1 (SW surge tank) level is 9' 6" and stable SWT-1 pressure is 85 psig and stable 1005 SWV-199, SWT-1 relief valve, fails open and will not reseat.

Per system design adequate NPSH for the SW pumps (1) maintained and entry into TS 3.7.7, Nuclear Services Closed Cycle Cooling Water (SW), (2) required.

A. (1) IS (2) IS B. (1) IS (2) is NOT C. (1) is NOT (2) IS D. (1) is NOT (2) is NOT Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 12

RO 2009 NRC Exam

13. A plant trip has occurred from 100% power due to the loss of the "B" MFWP.

EOP-I0, Post Trip Stabilization, is in progress when the following indications are observed:

RCS pressure is 1900 psig and lowering.

All PZR heaters are on.

PZR level is 100 inches and stable.

Makeup Tank level is lowering at a rate of approximately 15 gpm.

RCDT level and temperature are rising.

RB sump, temperature and pressure are normal.

This event would be caused by a (1) . AP-520, Loss of RCS Coolant or Pressure, will be entered and if the transient can NOT be terminated, then initiate (2) within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months .

A. (1) PZR spray valve leakby (2) EOP-08A, LOCA Cooldown B. (1) PZR steam space leak (2) EOP-08A, LOCA Cooldown C. (1) PZR spray valve leakby (2) OP-209, Plant Cooldown D. (1) PZR steam space leak (2) OP-209, Plant Cooldown Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 13

RO 2009 NRC Exam

14. Which ONE of the following describes the normal method for maintaining/controlling the level in the Nuclear Services Closed Cycle Cooling System Surge Tank (SWT -I)?

A. Manual control by the Primary Plant Operator.

B. Automatic valve control set to maintain level between two setpoints.

C. Manual operation of the control switch for the fill valve on the Main Control Board.

D. Manual operation of the Demin Water transfer pumps on the Main Control Board.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 14

RO 2009 NRC Exam

15. The plant has experienced an RCS leak of approximately 100 gpm. A cooldown to Mode 5 is in progress. RCS temperature trend is shown below.

1200 535 0 F 1230 500 0 F 1300 470 0 F The cool down rate is (1) _---->.=(2::.<.)__

the TS limit and _---->.=(2::.<-)

A. (1) above (2) cannot be controlled due to HPllbreak cooling B. (1) above (2) can be controlled by adjusting TBVs or ADVs C. (1) below (2) cannot be controlled due to HPllbreak cooling D. (1) below (2) can be controlled by adjusting TBVs or ADVs Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 15

RO 2009 NRC Exam

16. At 1000 the following plant conditions exist:

Reactor power is 100%

All RCS parameters are normal At 1002 a transient occurs resulting in the following plant conditions:

RCS pressure is 2105 psig PZR temperature is 636 0 F Which ONE of the following describes the initial response of RCS pressure following the 1002 transient and at what minimum PZR temperature will the PZR Spray valve open?

A. RCS pressure rises because all PZR heaters being energized PZR temperature of 6440 F B. RCS pressure lowers because the PZR is subcooled PZR temperature of 644 0 F C. RCS pressure rises because all PZR heaters being energized PZR temperature of 651 0 F D. RCS pressure lowers because the PZR is subcooled PZR temperature of 651 0 F Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 16

RO 2009 NRC Exam

17. The following plant conditions exist:

A loss of all offsite power has occurred.

After the plant trip a large break LOCA occurs.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason the MUP recirc to MUT (MUV-53 and 257) valves are closed for these conditions?

A. HPI pump runout is avoided.

B. EDG maximum loading is not exceeded.

C. Maximum HPI flow to the RCS is achieved.

D. Balanced HPI flow through all injection valves is achieved.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 17

RO 2009 NRC Exam

18. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant was operating at 100% power when the "B" MFWP tripped.

AP-545, Plant Runback, was entered.

During the runback the PORV opened and operated as designed.

Which ONE of the following describes the required actions for this event?

A. Manually trip the reactor and enter EOP-02, Vital System Status Verification.

B. Verify plant conditions are approaching stability and complete AP-545, Plant Runback.

C. Ensure AMSAC actuation has occurred and enter EOP-02, Vital System Status Verification.

D. Perform OP-507, Operation of the ES, RPS, and ATWS Systems.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 18

RO 2009 NRC Exam

19. Which ONE of the following "As Found" RPS trip setpoints could have resulted in a departure from nucleate boiling (DNB) event?

(consider each setpoint independently)

A. Thot trip setpoint of 625 0 F.

B. High RCS pressure trip setpoint of 2400 psig.

C. Flux/delta flux/flow trip setpoint corresponding to -20% imbalance at 80% power.

D. Flux/delta flux/flow trip setpoint corresponding to +20% imbalance at 80% power.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 19

RO 2009 NRC Exam

20. The following plant conditions exist:

Plant is at 100% full power.

ES Channel 3 "Pressure Test Module" is selected to the "Test/Operate" position for maintenance.

The plant now experiences a loss ofVBDP-3.

Which ONE of the following describes the status of the ES system?

A. Only ES Channell will be tripped; no ES actuation will occur.

B. Only ES Channel 3 will be tripped; no ES actuation will occur.

C. Both ES Channels 1 and 3 will be tripped; both "A" and "B" train HPI and LPI actuations will occur.

D. Both ES Channels 1 and 3 will be tripped; both "A" and "B" train HPI, LPI and RBIC actuations will occur.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 20

RO 2009 NRC Exam

21. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is at 32% power.

Delta Tcold indicates that "B" OTSG is 5° F hotter than "A" OTSG.

This indication could be caused by a loss of the (1) RCP. Continued operation with these conditions will cause (2) concerns.

A. (1) "B" (2) QPT B. (1) "c" (2) QPT C. (1) "B" (2) axial power imbalance D. (1) "c" (2) axial power imbalance Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 21

RO 2009 NRC Exam

22. The plant is operating at 34% power with a -6% axial power imbalance.

Which ONE of the following describes the RPS response if the upper chamber of NI-7 fails?

IfNI-7 upper chamber fails (1) the associated RPS channel would trip due to a large (2) imbalance.

A. (1) high (2) positive B. (1) low (2) positive C. (1) high (2) negative D. (1) low (2) negative Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 22

RO 2009 NRC Exam

23. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is at 100% power.

RC-1-LT1, PZR level transmitter, is selected for control.

"SASS Mismatch" annunciator alarms and does not clear.

Investigation reveals the amber "Mismatch" lamp to be lit on the Pressurizer Level channel.

All other lamps in that channel and all other "Mismatch" lamps are off.

Current PZR level readings are as follows: RC-1-LIR-1 = 220" RC-1-LIR-3 = 228" RIP indications match MCB indications.

The alarm is:

A. valid. SASS has functioned properly.

B. valid. However, SASS should have also selected RC-1-LT3 for control.

C. NOT valid. The operator should depress the "Annunciator Reset" pushbutton to return the channel to normal operation.

D. NOT valid. The operator should issue a work request on the SASS channel.

Monday, September 21, 20097:43:14 AM 23

RO 2009 NRC Exam

24. The following plant conditions exist:

RCS pressure is 750 psig 0

Tincore (CET) is 520 F Which ONE of the following describes the CET (core exit thermocouple) inputs to subcooling margin indications and the condition of the RCS?

A. (1) The highest one of the CET inputs to SPDS is used to determine SCM.

(2) Current plant conditions indicate that the RCS is subcooled.

B. (1) The highest one of the CET inputs to SPDS is used to determine SCM.

(2) Current plant conditions indicate that the RCS is saturated.

C. (1) The average of the CET inputs to SPDS is used to determine SCM.

(2) Current plant conditions indicate that the RCS is subcooled.

D. (1) The average of the CET inputs to SPDS is used to determine SCM.

(2) Current plant conditions indicate that the RCS is saturated.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 24

RO 2009 NRC Exam

25. The following plant conditions exist:

Plant is at 100% power.

PZR level has risen to 250 inches due to a minor FW control problem.

AP-504, Integrated Control System Failure, has been entered and the plant is stable.

Alarm window H-04-08, Makeup Valves Air Failure, has just annunciated for MUV-31 due to air pressure at its positioner lowering to 20 psig.

Which ONE of the following describes the position of MUV-31 and PZR level response to the above conditions?

Due to MUV-31 being locked in the _---->.=(I:o.L)

_-----'-'(1"-'-)_ _ position PZR level will __(=2:

(l.!:2.'-t.L. )__

A. (1) full closed (2) lower B. (1) full closed (2) remain stable C. (1) throttled (2) lower D. (1) throttled (2) remain stable Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 25

RO 2009 NRC Exam

26. Which ONE of the following describes how the discharge air temperature of the Penetration Cooling Fans (AHF-9A & 9B) is controlled?

A. Running fan's discharge dampers modulate to control discharge air temperature.

B. Standby fan auto starts when discharge air temperature reaches its high setpoint.

C. Chilled Water (CR) supply to the cooling coils is adjusted to control discharge air temperature.

D. Nuclear Services Closed Cycle Cooling Water (SW) supply to the cooling coils is adjusted to control discharge air temperature.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 26

RO 2009 NRC Exam

27. The following plant conditions exist:

The RCS is in a drain down condition with level at 133 feet.

DHP-IA discharge flow is rapidly oscillating between 1600 and 2000 gpm.

Annunciator window A-03-06, DH Pump A Flow Low, is cycling in and out of alarm.

Which ONE of the following describes the cause for this alarm and the action that would be taken lAW OP-404, Decay Heat Removal System?

A. DH flow rate is below low flow alarm setpoint Trip DHP-IA B. DH flow rate is below low flow alarm setpoint Throttle open DHV-II0 (DHP-IA discharge control valve) to raise flow C. DHP amperage is below operator set low amperage alarm setpoint Trip DHP-IA D. DHP amperage is below operator set low amperage alarm setpoint Throttle open DHV-II0 (DHP-IA discharge control valve) to raise flow Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 27

RO 2009 NRC Exam

28. The following plant conditions exist:

While in EOP-4, Inadequate Heat Transfer, attempting to restore EFW a LOCA occurred causing a loss of adequate SCM.

Lowest RCS pressure was 1700 psig.

Highest RB pressure was 3 psig.

EOP-3, Inadequate Subcooling Margin, has now been entered and Rule 1, Loss of SCM, is complete.

Currently BSV-3 and 4 (BS flow control valves) are (1) and if RB pressure exceeds 30 psig BSP-IA and IB will (2)

A. (1) open (2) auto-start B. (1) closed*

(2) auto-start C. (1) open (2) NOT auto-start D. (1) closed (2) NOT auto-start Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 28

RO 2009 NRC Exam

29. The following plant conditions exist:

1000 An ES RBIC actuation occurs 1002 SWT-1 (SW surge tank) low level alarm actuates Which ONE of the following describes the response of the SW system associated with the RCPs and the reason for this response?

SW cooling to the RCPs will automatically isolate at (1) . Per FSAR Chapter 9 this action is to ensure that (2)

A. (1) 1000 (2) containment atmosphere leakage through this potential path is isolated B. (1) 1002 (2) containment atmosphere leakage through this potential path is isolated C. (1) 1000 (2) sufficient cooling water flow to the RB main fan assemblies will be maintained D. (1) 1002 (2) sufficient cooling water flow to the RB main fan assemblies will be maintained Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:14 AM 29

RO 2009 NRC Exam

30. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant tripped from 100% power due to a loss of RCP-1B.

Following the trip, Atmospheric Dump Valve (ADV) MSV-26 failed open.

Prior to isolating the ADV pressurizer level lowered to 10 inches.

MSV-26 has been isolated and the overcooling terminated.

Tincore is now 546 0 F and stable.

RCS pressure is 1835 psig.

Pressurizer level has just been stabilized at 100 inches.

Pressurizer temperature is currently reading 590 0 F.

Which ONE of the following describes the response of RCS pressure over the next five minutes?

A. Rise because spray flow has been minimized with the trip of RCP-1B.

B. Rise because pressurizer heaters are raising pressurizer temperature.

C. Lower because all heaters remain de-energized until manually reset.

D. Lower because subcooled liquid insurged into the pressurizer.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 30

RO 2009 NRC Exam

31. Which ONE of the following describes the function of the trisodium phosphate dodecahydrate (TSP) baskets located on the 95' elevation of the Reactor Building (RB)?

The TSP baskets add chemicals which __('-'!lo.L..)

(>-=1'-1-)_ _ the PH of the water in the RB to limit (2)

A. (1) raise (2) iodine revolatization when sprayed back into the RB atmosphere B. (1) lower (2) iodine revolatization when sprayed back into the RB atmosphere C. (1) raise (2) the production of hydrogen when injected back into the RCS D. (1) lower (2) the production of hydrogen when injected back into the RCS Monday, September 21,20097:43:14 AM 31

RO 2009 NRC Exam

32. The boron value used in calculating an ECP (Estimated Critical Position) for reactor startup was higher than actual RCS boron concentration.

Which ONE of the following describes this impact on achieving criticality and a procedural requirement for mitigation of this error?

A. Criticality may be achieved below the 1% Shutdown (Mode 2) position of the ECP. All control rods, except Group 1, must be fully inserted.

B. Criticality may be achieved below the 1% Shutdown (Mode 2) position of the ECP. Immediately trip the reactor and go to EOP-02, Vital System Status Verification.

C. Criticality may NOT be achieved prior to reaching the upper limit of the ECP (Maximum Rod Height). All control rods, except Group 1, must be fully inserted.

D. Criticality may NOT be achieved prior to reaching the upper limit of the ECP (Maximum Rod Height). Immediately trip the reactor and go to EOP-02, Vital System Status Verification.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 32

RO 2009 NRC Exam

33. An ATWS event has occurred.

Which ONE of the following describes the required actions to be performed lAW EOP-2, Vital System Status Verification, and the EOP Cross-Step document?

Depress the manual Rx trip push button and verify:

A. control rod groups 1 through 7 are fully inserted.

If any control rod group has NOT fully inserted then open breakers 3305 and 3312.

If breaker 3305 does not open then open additional breakers as required to de-energize the CRDs.

B. control rod groups 1 through 7 are fully inserted.

If any control rod group has NOT fully inserted then open breakers 3305 and 3312.

If breaker 3305 does not open then start emergency boration and ensure adequate primary to secondary heat transfer is maintained.

C. all control rods are fully inserted.

If any control rod has NOT fully inserted then open breakers 3305 and 3312.

If the associated buses remain energized then open additional breakers as required to de-energize the CRDs.

D. all control rods are fully inserted.

If any control rod has NOT fully inserted then open breakers 3305 and 3312.

If the associated buses remain energized then start emergency boration and ensure adequate primary to secondary heat transfer is maintained.

Monday, September 21, 20097:43:15 AM 33

RO 2009 NRC Exam

34. The following plant conditions exist:

The "B" Decay Heat Train is in operation.

The Borated Water Storage Tank (BWST) recirculation in progress using SFP-2.

A Reactor Building (RB) purge is started.

Refueling operations are in progress.

The RB Equipment hatch is installed.

Annunciator G-OB-Ol, Spent Fuel Pool Level HighILow, and G-OB-03, Cask Area Level High/Low, have come into alarm.

NO other alarms are indicated.

Which ONE of the following could be the cause of this condition?

A. The "B" DHHE failed to the full cooling mode which caused SF Pool temperature to lower.

B. The transfer canal deep end drain valves are leaking.

C. The purge has lowered pressure in the RB.

D. BOTH Spent Fuel Heat Exchangers were aligned for cooling which caused SF Pool temperature to lower.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 34

RO 2009 NRC Exam

35. Which ONE of the following fuel assemblies can be stored in a Spent Fuel Pool without entering a Technical Specification action? (reference provided)

Burnup Enrichment (%) (MWD/KgU) Configuration 1 4.5 2.0 Checkerboard A with any Category B assembly 2 2.0 2.0 Checkerboard B with any Category A or B assembly 3 3.5 3.0 Side by Side A with any Category B or F assembly 4 3.0 3.0 Side by Side B with any Category B assembly A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 35

RO 2009 NRC Exam

36. An OTSG tube rupture has occurred coincident with a loss of all offsite power.

EOP-2, Vital System Status Verification, Immediate Actions have been performed. A Symptom Scan is now in progress.

For these conditions which ONE of the following describes the operation of the main steam radiation monitors?

A. RM-G26 and RM-G27, main steam line radiation monitors, can be used to measure gamma radiation levels in the steam flowing to the condenser.

B. RM-G26 and RM-G27, main steam line radiation monitors, can be used to approximate tube leak rate.

c. RM-G25 and RM-G28, main steam line release monitors, can be used to measure gamma radiation levels in the steam flowing to atmosphere.

D. RM-G25 and RM-G28, main steam line release monitors, can be used to approximate tube leak rate.

Monday, September 21, 20097:43:15 AM 36

RO 2009 NRC Exam

37. The reactor has just been taken critical when an atmospheric dump valve (ADV) fails open.

Which ONE of the following describes what will happen to Tave and nuclear power and what operator actions would be taken?

A. Tave will rise; final power will be at the point of adding heat (pOAH).

The ADV should be closed and rods inserted to restore Tave.

B. Tave will rise; final power will exceed the POAH. The ADV should be closed and secondary parameters used to restore Tave.

c. Tave will lower; final power will be at the POAH. The ADV should be closed and rods withdrawn to restore Tave.

D. Tave will lower; final power will exceed the POAH. The ADV should be closed and secondary parameters used to restore Tave.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 37

RO 2009 NRC Exam

38. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is at 40% power with turbine control in lCS/Auto.

The main turbine is selected to "A" header pressure for control.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant response if the selected "A" header pressure transmitter failed instantly to mid-scale?

SASS will:

A. swap to the unaffected transmitter. Turbine and TBV control will not be affected.

B. swap to the unaffected transmitter. Turbine control will not be affected but the TBV associated with the failed transmitter must be controlled in manual.

C. NOT swap to the unaffected transmitter. Turbine control and control of the TBV associated with the failed transmitter will be affected.

D. NOT swap to the unaffected transmitter. Turbine control will be affected but the TBV associated with the failed transmitter will not be affected.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 38

RO 2009 NRC Exam

39. The following plant conditions exist:

A loss of all offsite power has occurred with the plant previously at 40%

power.

EFP-2 did not start.

EFP-3 has a red light on the control handle but no flow is indicated.

Which ONE of the following "prompt and prudent" actions, as described in AI-505, Conduct of Operations During Abnormal and Emergency Events, would be taken?

Attempt to:

A. start EFP-1.

B. start FWP -7.

C. open MSV-55 and/or MSV-56 (EFP-2 steam isolation valves).

D. open ASV-5 and/or ASV-204 (EFP-2 steam control valves).

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 39

RO 2009 NRC Exam

40. Which ONE of the following describes why selected DC motors must be stopped in EOP-12, Station Blackout?

This is necessary for the IE batteries to meet their:

A. 2 hour2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months TS requirement.

B. 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months TS requirement.

C. 2 hour2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months coping requirement.

D. 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months coping requirement.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 40

RO 2009 NRC Exam

41. The following plant conditions exist:

MUP-1A is tagged out.

EDG-1A is tagged out.

A Loss of all Offsite Power occurs coincident with an RCS leak.

EOP-03, Inadequate SCM, has been entered.

Rule 1, Loss of SCM, has been completed.

Lowest RCS pressure attained was 750 psig.

Based on the following ES Status Light indications, which ONE of the following describes th~ status of ES components following completion of Rule 1, Loss of SCM?

"A" Train "B" Train ES Status ES Status Component Lights Component Lights MUP-1A OUT MUP-1B OUT MUP-1B GREEN MUP-1C GREEN MUV-23 AMBER MUV-25 GREEN MUV-24 AMBER MUV-26 GREEN MUV-586 GREEN MUV-586 GREEN MUV-587 GREEN MUV-587 GREEN DHP-1A AMBER DHP-1B AMBER A. All components have actuated/responded as expected.

B. All "A" Train components have actuated/responded as expected with the exception of MUV-23 and MUV-24.

C. All "B" Train components have actuated/responded as expected with the exception ofDHP-1B.

D. All "A" Train components have actuated/responded as expected with the exception of MUP-1B.

Monday, September 21 , 2009 7:43: 15 AM 41

RO 2009 NRC Exam

42. Which ONE of the following describes the direct signal that lowers condensate flow demand on a loss of one MFWP at 80% power?

A. A signal from the DFT high level interlock.

B. A runback signal from the ULD sub-section of the lCS.

C. A signal that compares existing CD flow with FW flow and HW level.

D. A signal that compares existing CD flow with FW flow and DFT level.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 42

RO 2009 NRC Exam

43. The following plant conditions exist:

Annunciator P-07-09, Battery Ground, alarmed.

One minute later annunciator P-07 -08, Battery Charger Trouble, alarmed and the Battery Ground annunciator cleared.

Local inspection finds Battery Charger 3A (DPBC-1A) tripped.

The ground detector for the 3A Battery shows no indication of a DC ground.

Which ONE of the following describes the possible cause for the above conditions and the action necessary to prevent a loss of DC power?

(1) caused Battery Charger 3A (DPBC-1A) to trip. Place Battery Charger (2) in service lAW OP-705, Emergency Power-DC System.

A. (1) A battery charger internal fault (2) 3E (DPBC-1E)

B. (1) A ground on the ES MCC AC supply breaker to the battery charger (2) 3E (DPBC-1E)

C. (1) A battery charger internal fault (2) 3F (DPBC-1F)

D. (1) A ground on the ES MCC AC supply breaker to the battery charger (2) 3F (DPBC-1F)

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 43

RO 2009 NRC Exam

44. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant was at 85% power when RCP-1D tripped.

The plant has stabilized following the runback.

Which ONE of the following describes the status of the "B" FW main block valve and the "B" MFW pump Bailey control station indication?

The "B" FW main block valve is (1) . Selecting "Me as Var" on the "B" MFW pump Bailey control station should indicate (2)

A. (1) open (2) 50 B. (1) closed (2) 50 C. (1) open (2) 80 D. (1) closed (2) 80 Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 44

RO 2009 NRC Exam

45. With the plant at 55% power which ONE of the following sets of conditions will cause an Emergency Feedwater (EFW) actuation?

FWP-1A1B Main FW Booster pumps FWP-2A1B Main FW Turbine driven pumps (1) trips concurrent with (2)

A. (1) FWP-1A (2) FWP-2A tripping B. (1) FWP-1A (2) FWV-2 (FWP-1B suction valve) stroking 10% from full open C. (1) FWP-2A (2) FWV~8 (FWP-1B discharge valve) stroking 90% from full open D. (1) FWP-2A (2) High - High Deaerator level Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 45

RO 2009 NRC Exam

46. A channel functional test is being performed on RM-G6 (Makeup Tank Area radiation monitor) lAW SP-335A, Radiation Monitoring Instrumentation Functional Test RMGs. The "As Found" meter reading is normal.

After holding the "Alarm Reset-Operate-Check Source" switch to the "CHECK SOURCE" position for one (1) minute there was no response observed on the RMG meter.

Which ONE of the following could cause the response observed above and based on these results what is the next action directed by SP-335A to be taken for RM-G6?

A. Minor drift of detector high voltage.

Direct HP personnel to expose detector to a wand.

B. High background radiation.

Direct HP personnel to expose detector to a wand.

C. Minor drift of detector high voltage.

Declare RMG channel inoperable and submit work request for repair.

D. High background radiation.

Declare RMG channel inoperable and submit work request for repair.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 46

RO 2009 NRC Exam

47. A maintenance worker inadvertently hits the power supply wiring for EFV-58, EFP-3 to 'A' OTSG control valve, pulling the wire out of the valve body.

Which ONE of the following describes how this will affect the EFW system and the actions required to isolate this line?

If an EFIC actuation were to occur, "A" OTSG (1) . To isolate this EFW line EFV-14, block valve for EFV-58, will be closed and its power supply de-energized at (2)

A. (1) will overfIll to 100%

(2) DPDP-8C B. (1) EFW flow would be excessive (2) DPDP-8C C. (1) will overfIll to 100%

(2) DPDP-8D D. (1) EFW flow would be excessive (2) DPDP-8D Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 47

RO 2009 NRC Exam

48. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is operating at 100% power when Q-04-02, 4KV ES Bus Degraded Volt Trip, alarm is received.

Two of the three 'A' ES Bus degraded voltage (SLUR) relays have actuated.

Which ONE of the following describes the status of the 'A' EDG and which Abnormal Procedure would be entered?

The 'A' EDG should:

A. start. AP-730, Grid Instability, should be entered.

B. start. AP-770, Emergency Diesel Generator Actuation, should be entered.

C. NOT start.AP-730, Grid Instability, should be entered.

D. NOT start. AP-770, Emergency Diesel Generator Actuation, should be entered.

Monday, September 21 , 2009 7:43: 15 AM 48

RO 2009 NRC Exam

49. The "Bus A1125V DC Available" light on the MCB 'Standby Power Status' section has extinguished.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason why this light has extinguished?

A. DC Bus Al discharge current is > 75 amps B. "A" Battery Charger voltage is > 140 VDC C. DC Bus Al voltage is < 72 VDC D. "A" Battery Charger voltage is < 124 VDC Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 49

RO 2009 NRC Exam

50. The following plant conditions exist:

Window B-08-03, Diesel Gen A Out of Service, has annunciated due to the total loss of D PD P -6A.

Event Point 1206, "A" EDG Starting Air Pressure Low, is in alarm.

Based on the conditions above the "A" EDG is:

A. runnmg. The "A" EDG can ONLY be stopped locally.

B. runnmg. The "A" EDG can be stopped from the MCB.

C. NOT running. Investigation for the cause of low air pressure should be commenced.

D. NOT running. Consideration should be given to cross connecting the diesel start air systems by opening EGV-25 and EGV-26.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 50

RO 2009 NRC Exam

51. The diesel is powering the ES bus while separated from the grid.

While loading the diesel which ONE of the following describes a condition that will trip the diesel engine?

A. The KI (exciter field short) relay actuates.

B. The 46 (negative phase sequence) relay actuates.

C. A governor malfunction resulted in lowering speed to 795 rpm.

D. A governor malfunction resulted in raising speed to 1005 rpm.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 51

RO 2009 NRC Exam

52. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant was operating at 100% RTP.

IAP-4 is removed from service for overhaul.

The "A" EDG is removed from service for maintenance.

A weather related event has caused a loss of ALL offsite power.

A fire in the "B" ES 4160V switchgear room prevents the "B" ES Diesel from energizing "B" ES 4160V bus.

Which ONE of the following describes the procedure(s) that is/are initially performed?

AP-470, Loss of Instrument Air AP-880, Fire Protection EOP-12, Station Blackout A. EOP-12 ONLY B. EOP-12 and AP-470 ONLY C. EOP-12 and AP-880 ONLY D. EOP-12, AP-470 and AP-880 Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 52

RO 2009 NRC Exam

53. With the plant in Mode 1 which ONE of the following describes the operation of the RM-L21L7 ValvelPump Interlock Bypass key switch?

When selected to 0) a liquid release to the environment through (2) is available (3)

A. (1) Normal (2) RM-L7 (3) without starting additional RWPs B. (1) Normal (2) RM-L2 (3) without starting additional RWPs C. (1) Bypass (2) RM-L7 (3) ONLY if RWP-3A or 3B is started D. (1) Bypass (2) RM-L2 (3) ONLY if RWP-2A or 2B is started Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 53

RO 2009 NRC Exam

54. Which ONE of the following represents the effect of depressing the "CHECK SOURCE" button on RM-L2 and the reason for having a check source?

Pressing this button (1) . A check source is used to _--,C-,=,2.L)_

_-->(=2..1.-)_

A. (1) exposes the detector to a known radioactive substance (2) verify proper monitor response B. (1) injects an electronic signal downstream of the detector (2) verify proper monitor response C. (1) exposes the detector to a known radioactive substance (2) provide a signal for monitor calibration D. (1) injects an electronic signal downstream of the detector (2) provide a signal for monitor calibration Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 54

RO 2009 NRC Exam

55. The following plant conditions exist:

A LOCA occurred when the plant was tripped for a fire in the Turbine Bldg.

To assist fighting the fire the Unit 6900/4160V buses have been de-energized.

The only available High Pressure Injection (HPI) pump tripped.

EFP-3 is the only available EFW/AFW pump.

EOP-7, Inadequate Core Cooling, has been entered based on superheat conditions indicated on SPDS.

Ten minutes later Tincore is 700° F and RCS pressure is 500 psig.

EOP-07, Step 3.13 states the following:

3.13 Establish and maintain *_ Maintain OTSG PRESS using OTSGs as a heat sink. TBVs (preferred) or ADVs to establish primary to secondary

~T ~ 100°F.

See Figure 2 Which ONE of the following describes the action necessary to establish and maintain OTSGs as a heat sink? (reference provided)

A. Lower OTSG pressure to 160 psig using the Turbine Bypass valves (TBVs).

B. Lower OTSG pressure to 200 psig using the Turbine Bypass valves (TBVs).

C. Lower OTSG pressure to 160 psig using the Atmospheric Dump valves (ADVs).

D. Lower OTSG pressure to 200 psig using the Atmospheric Dump valves (ADVs).

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 55

RO 2009 NRC Exam

56. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant was at 100% power when a loss of ALL offsite power occurs.

EDG-1B fails to start.

After completion of the Symptom Scan in EOP-2, Vital System Status Verification, which ONE of the following describes the additional procedure(s) that is (are) applicable and would be in use lAW AI-505, Conduct of Operations During Abnormal and Emergency Events?

A. ONLY AP-770, Emergency Diesel Generator Actuation, will be applicable and should be concurrently performed.

B. AP-770, Emergency Diesel Generator Actuation, AND AP-330, Loss of Nuclear Service Cooling, will be applicable and should be concurrently performed.

C. ONLY AP-770, Emergency Diesel Generator Actuation, will be applicable but shall NOT be concurrently performed until directed by EOP-2.

D. AP-770, Emergency Diesel Generator Actuation, AND AP-330, Loss of Nuclear Service Cooling, will be applicable but shall NOT be concurrently performed until directed by EOP-2.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 56

RO 2009 NRC Exam

57. The following plant conditions exist:

CR-3 is operating at 100% RTP.

The electrical grid is at near record load with minimal reserve capacity.

CR-5 has tripped due to a failed boiler tube.

CR-3 remains on line.

Which ONE of the following identifies the response of CR-3's main generator operating parameters IMMEDIATELY following the loss of CR-5?

(Disregard any affects caused by System Load Control functions.)

A. MWe - rise Hz - rise MVAR out - rise B. MWe - rise Hz -lower MVAR out - rise C. MWe -lower Hz -lower MVAR out - rise D. MWe -rise Hz - rise MVAR out - lower Monday, September 21,2009 7:43:15 AM 57

RO 2009 NRC Exam

58. Which ONE of the following automatic actions would be expected on a total loss of Secondary Services Closed Cycle Cooling (SC)?

A. FWP-1B will trip on high oil cooler temperature at 155 0 F.

B. CDP-1A will trip on high motor air temperature at 185 0 F.

C. IAP-3B will trip on high oil cooler temperature at 165 0 F.

D. IAP-3A will trip on high 2nd stage air temperature at 125 0 F.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 58

RO 2009 NRC Exam

59. The following plant conditions exist:

A LOCA is in progress RCS pressure is 1085 psig RCS temperature is 5540 F No automatic ES actuations have occurred Following the Symptom Scan which ONE of the following procedures must be entered and what actions must be performed lAW with that procedure?

(reference provided)

A. EOP-3, Inadequate Subcooling Margin Manually actuate HPI and RBIC B. EOP-3, Inadequate Subcooling Margin Manually actuate HPI and Diverse Containment Isolation C. EOP-4, Inadequate Heat Transfer Manually actuate HPI and RBIC D. EOP-4, Inadequate Heat Transfer Manually actuate HPI and Diverse Containment Isolation Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 59

RO 2009 NRC Exam

60. Which ONE of the following describes the minimum equipment required during a design basis LOCA for maintaining RB parameters within design limits and removal of iodine from the RB atmosphere?

A. ONE RB spray system and NO RB cooling units.

B. ONE RB spray system and ONE RB cooling unit.

C. NO RB spray system and TWO RB Cooling units.

D. NO RB spray system and ONE RB cooling unit.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 60

RO 2009 NRC Exam

61. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is in Mode 4.

PM-161, NNI Power Supply/AC Auto Transfer Check and Alarm Verification, is in progress.

Switch Sl (VBDP-5 input to NNI-X DC power supply) has been opened.

Prior to re-closing switch Sl VBDP-1loses power.

Based on the conditions above which ONE of the following describes the status of NNI-X power?

A. ONLY AC power is lost B. ONLY DC power is lost C. BOTH AC and DC power are lost D. NEITHER AC nor DC power is lost Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:15 AM 61

RO 2009 NRC Exam

62. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is in Mode 3 with RCS pressure at 2150 psig.

AP-990, Shutdown from Outside the Control Room, has been entered and transfer to the Remote Shutdown Panel is complete.

The CRS directs that PZR level be maintained at an indicated:::::! 100 inches.

Which ONE of the following actions would be taken lAW AP-990 and what would be the approximate actual PZR level for these conditions?

A. Locally control MUV-31; : : :! 160 inches.

B. Use an available HPl valve; : : :! 160 inches.

C. Locally control MUV-31; : : :! 40 inches.

D. Use an available HPl valve;:::::! 40 inches.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 62

RO 2009 NRC Exam

63. One of the reasons AP-I040, Aux Building Flooding, was developed is to prevent or mitigate a loss of power to _ _ _ __

A. RCV-II (pORV Block vlv)

B. AHF -1 C (RB Cooling Fan)

C. DHV-3 (Decay Heat Dropline suction)

D. DHV-4I (Decay Heat Dropline isolation)

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 63

RO 2009 NRC Exam

64. The following plant conditions exist:

Inadequate Heat Transfer (IHT) is in progress due to a loss of Main and Emergency Feedwater.

HPIIPORV cooling has been established lAW EOP-4, Inadequate Heat Transfer.

The Subcooling Margin Monitor indicates -7 shortly after opening the PORV.

AFW restoration is expected.

OTSG integrity does exist.

Based on these conditions which ONE of the following describes the actions that would be taken?

Perform Rule 1, Loss of SCM, and:

A. remain in EOP-4, Inadequate Heat Transfer.

B. transition to EOP-3, Inadequate Subcooling Margin.

C. transition to EOP-8A, LOCA Cooldown.

D. transition to EOP-8B, HPI Cooldown.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 64

RO 2009 NRC Exam

65. Which ONE of the following describes the reason for ensuring only 1 ES selected RB cooling unit is running in low speed per EOP-8A, LOCA Cooldown Cross-Step Document and what indication would be expected to ensure AHF-1A is operating in low speed?

sw temperatures could exceed design limits if the RB Fan Coolers were in a (1) condition. AHF-1A % load meter is indicating approximately (2)

A. (1) clean, non-degraded (2) 0%

B. (1) fouled, degraded (2) 0%

C. (1) clean, non-degraded (2) 45%

D. (1) fouled, degraded (2) 45%

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 65

RO 2009 NRC Exam

66. The plant is at 100% power. The CRS, OAC and BOP are the only licensed operators in the control room. The OAC needs to step out of the control room to make a personal phone call. Per AI-500, Conduct of Operations, which ONE of the following describes the requirements for this activity?

The OAC:

A. must be relieved by a licensed operator other than the current BOP or CRS.

B. may be relieved by the current BOP.

C. must remain in the Red Carpet Area at all times unless formally relieved by another licensed operator.

D. may leave the control room, with CRS permission, for up to 10 minutes without being relieved.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 66

RO 2009 NRC Exam

67. Refueling is in progress with eight (8) fuel assemblies in the core. As the ninth assembly is being placed in the core the following NI readings are observed:

NI -1 rises from a base count of 203 to 430 cps.

NI-2 rises from a base count of 240 to 390 cps.

Which ONE of the following actions, if any, would be taken for these conditions?

A. No action is required. This is an expected NI response for initial core reloading.

B. Once the assembly is placed in the core contact reactor engineering to perform a Co/Ci calculation.

C. Stop insertion of the fuel assembly and maintain assembly in its current position until reactor engineering is contacted for resolution.

D. Withdraw the fuel assembly, stop any other core alterations in progress, perform Co/Ci calculations and obtain a boron analysis.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 67

RO 2009 NRC Exam

68. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is in "No Mode" condition with the reactor defueled.

Preparations are being made to reload the core.

Main Fuel Handling Bridge (FHCR-I) testing is in progress when a limit switch failure prevents testing from being completed.

The control room has been informed that initial troubleshooting is in progress.

The troubleshooting team desires to operate TS-3, Bridge Interlock bypass, in order to move the bridge to repair the limit switch.

Which ONE of the following describes the approval and concurrence, if any, required for this action in accordance with FP-60IA, Operation of Main Fuel Handling Bridge FHCR-I?

A. The Shift Manager must approve. NO concurrence is required.

B. The Shift Manager must approve with concurrence of Reactor Engineering.

C. The Refueling Supervisor must approve. NO concurrence is required.

D. The Refueling Supervisor must approve with concurrence of Reactor Engineering.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 68

RO 2009 NRC Exam

69. After performance ofa surveillance procedure on the "A" EDG the diesel is determined to be inoperable.

Which ONE of the following actions would be taken lAW AI-500, Conduct of Operations Department Organization and Administration, to ensure troubleshooting activities will not render the redundant train inoperable?

A. Fill out a cross train work authorization form.

B. Assign one individual to be the single point of accountability for the duration of the repairs.

C. Verify protected train signs are posted and conduct a field walkdown of the appropriate opposite train equipment.

D. Post a dedicated operator at the doors to the "B" ES 4160V switchgear room so that only personnel approved by the Shift Manager will have access.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:15 AM 69

RO 2009 NRC Exam

70. Which ONE of the following describes the equipment required to meet the Limiting Condition of Operation (LCO) for ITS 3.4.14, RCS Leakage Detection Instrumentation?

A. Wide range RB sump level and RM-A6 iodine channel B. Wide range RB sump level and RM-A6 particulate channel C. Narrow range RB sump level and RM-A6 iodine channel D. Narrow range RB sump level and RM-A6 particulate channel Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43: 16 AM 70

RO 2009 NRC Exam

71. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is operating in Mode 5.

The Reactor Building (RB) Equipment Hatch is off.

An RB purge is in service.

High radiation in the RB caused RM-Al to actuate.

All purge supply and exhaust fans remain running.

Which ONE of the following describes the operator actions necessary to terminate an unmonitored release from the RB?

A. Stop the purge fans lAW AP-250, Radiation Monitor Actuation, to terminate any unmonitored release path from the RB.

B. Establish Containment Closure lAW AP-250, Radiation Monitor Actuation, to terminate any unmonitored release path from the RB.

C. Stop the purge fans IAW OP-417, Containment Operating Procedure, to terminate any unmonitored release path from the RB.

D. Establish Containment Closure lAW OP-417, Containment Operating Procedure, to terminate any unmonitored release path from the RB.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:16 AM 71

RO 2009 NRC Exam

72. An area in the RCA is fenced and conspicuously posted with a flashing red light.

Which ONE of the following describes the classification of this area and the MINIMUM approval authority needed for entry?

Area Classification Individual Approving Entry A. Very High Radiation Area Shift Outage Director B. Very High Radiation Area Supervisor Radiation Control C. Locked High Radiation Area Shift Outage Director D. Locked High Radiation Area Supervisor Radiation Control Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:16 AM 72

RO 2009 NRC Exam

73. The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is operating at 100% RTP.

RB pressure, temperature and sump level are normal.

PZR level is stable.

MDT level is lowering at approximately 5 gpm.

RM -A12, Condenser Vacuum Pump Exhaust Gas Radiation Monitor, is rIsmg.

Which ONE of the following describes the event procedure that is applicable and a potential location for significant elevated radiation levels?

A. AP-510, Rapid Power Reduction; the affected condensate and feedwater heaters.

B. EOP-06, Steam Generator Tube Rupture; the affected condensate and feedwater heaters.

C. AP-510, Rapid Power Reduction; the condensate demineralizers.

D. EOP-06, Steam Generator Tube Rupture; the condensate demineralizers.

Monday, September 21,20097:43:16 AM 73

RO 2009 NRC Exam

74. AP-990, Shutdown from Outside the Control Room, has been entered.

After control has been transferred to the RSP a followup step directs the RO to ensure the BSP-IA auto-start function is defeated.

Which ONE of the following describes where this action is performed and its purpose?

A. The "A" ES 4160V switchgear room; to protect the pump from loss of essential support functions.

B. The "A" ES 480V switchgear room; to protect the pump from loss of essential support functions.

C. The "A" ES 4160V switchgear room; to ensure pump runout conditions will not occur due to the loss of automatic control of the pump's discharge control valve.

D. The "A" ES 480V switchgear room; to ensure pump runout conditions will not occur due to the loss of automatic control of the pump's discharge control valve.

Monday, September 21, 2009 7:43:16 AM 74

RO 2009 NRC Exam

75. Which ONE of the following choices completes the statement below?

IAW AI-505, Conduct of Operations During Abnormal and Emergency Events, if an Abnormal Procedure (AP) Entry Condition is met during the performance of an Emergency Operating Procedure (EOP) the (1) will direct (2)

A. (1) Procedure Director (2) concurrent performance of the AP by an available operator B. (1) Shift Manager (2) concurrent performance of the AP by an available operator C. (1) Procedure Director (2) performance of the AP after major actions of the controlling EOP have been completed D. (1) Shift Manager (2) performance of the AP after major actions of the controlling EOP have been completed You have completed the test!

Monday, September 21, 20097:43:16 AM 75

QPT 3.2.4 3.2 POWER DISTRIBUTION LIMITS

( 3.2.4 QUADRANT POWER TILT (QPT)

CQPT)

LCO 3.2.4 QPT shall be maintained less than or equal to the steady state limits specified in the COLR.

APPLICABILITY: MODE 1 with THERMAL POWER> 20% RTP.

ACTIONS CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME A. QPT greater than the A.l.l Perform SR 3.2.5.1. Once per steady state limit and 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months less than or equal to OR the transient limit.

A.l.2.1 Reduce THERMAL POWER 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months

~ 2% RTP from the ALLOWABLE THERMAL OR POWER for each 1% of QPT greater than the 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months after c steady state limit.

AND last performance of SR 3.2.5.1 A.l.2.2 Reduce nuclear 10 hours1.157407e-4 days 0.00278 hours 1.653439e-5 weeks 3.805e-6 months overpower trip setpoint and nuclear OR overpower based on Reactor Coolant 10 hours1.157407e-4 days 0.00278 hours 1.653439e-5 weeks 3.805e-6 months after System fl ow and AXIAL 1 as t POWER IMBALANCE trip performance of setpoint ~ 2% RTP SR 3.2.5.1 from the ALLOWABLE THERMAL POWER for each 1% of QPT greater than the steady state limit.

(continued)

Ccontinued)

(

Crystal River Unit 3 3.2-7 Amendment No. 149

QPT 3.2.4

( ACTIONS CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME A. (continued) A.2 Restore QPT to less 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months from than or equal to the discovery of steady state limit. failure to meet the LCO.

B. QPT greater than the B.1 Reduce THERMAL POWER 30 minutes transient limit and 2: 2% RTP from less than or equal to ALLOWABLE THERMAL the maximum limit due POWER for each 1% of to misalignment of a QPT greater than the CONTROL ROD or an steady state limit.

APSR.

AND B.2 Restore.QPT to less 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months than or equal to the transient limit.

(

C. Required Action and (,1 Reduce THERMAL POWER 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months associated Completion to < 60% of the Time of Condition A ALLOWABLE THERMAL or B not met. POWER.

AND

(,2 Reduce nuclear 10 hours1.157407e-4 days 0.00278 hours 1.653439e-5 weeks 3.805e-6 months overpower trip setpoint to ~ 65.5%

of the ALLOWABLE THERMAL POWER.

(contlnued)

(

Crystal River Unit 3 3.2-8 Amendment No. 149

QPT 3.2.4

( ACTIONS (continued)

CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME D. QPT greater than the D1 Reduce THERMAL POWER 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months transient limit and to < 60% of the less than or equal to ALLOWABLE THERMAL the maximum limit due POWER.

to causes other than the misalignment of AND either CONTROL ROD or APSR. D.2 Reduce nuclear 10 hours1.157407e-4 days 0.00278 hours 1.653439e-5 weeks 3.805e-6 months overpower trip setpoint to ~ 65.5%

of the ALLOWABLE THERMAL POWER.

E. Required Action and E.1 Reduce THERMAL POWER 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months associated Completion to ~ 20% RTP.

Time for Condition C or D not met.

( F. QPT greater than the E.1 Reduce THERMAL POWER 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months maximum limit. to ~ 20% RTP.

Crystal River Unit 3 3.2-9 Amendment No. 149

FO? -0006, Revision ~~

Crystal River Unit 3 Attachment 1 Cycle 16 Core Operating Limits Report Page 12 of 2?

( QUADRANT POWER TILT QUADRANT POWER TILT Limits For Thermal Power::::: 60%

For Operation from 0 EFPD to EOC 100%RTP = 2609 MWt QUADRANT POWER TILT STEADY-STATE TRANSIENT MAXIMUM As Measured By: LIMITe%) LIMITe%) LIMIT(%)

Symmetrical Incore 7.50 10.03 20.0 Detector System Power Range Channels 4.94 6.96 20.0 Minimum Incore Detector 3.07 4.40 20.0 System Measurement System 8.58 11.07 20.0 Independent QUADRANT POWER TILT Limits For Thermal Power> 60%

( For Operation from 0 EFPD to EOC 100%RTP = 2609 MWt QUADRANT POWER TILT STEADY-STATE TRANSIENT MAXIMUM As Measured By: LIMITe%) LIMIT(%) LIMIT(%)

Symmetrical Incore 4.29 10.03 20.0 Detector System Power Range Channels 1.96 6.96 20.0 Minimum Incore Detector 1.90 4.40 20.0 System Measurement System 4.92 11.07 20.0 Independent These limits are referred to by Technical Specification LCO 3.2.4

(

Spent Fuel Assembly Storage 3.7.15

3. 7 PLANT SYSTEMS

(

3.7.15 Spent Fuel Assembly Storage LCO 3.7.15 The combination of initial enrichment and burnup of each spent fuel assembly stored in Storage Pool A and Storage Pool B, shall be within the acceptable region of Figure 3.7.15-1 or Figure 3.7.15-2.

APPLICABILITY: Whenever any fuel assembly is stored in Storage Pool A or Storage Pool B of the spent fuel pool.

ACTIONS CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME A. Requirements of the A.l ---------NOTE--------

LCO not met. LCO 3.0.3 is not c applicable.

Initiate action to Immediately move the noncomplying fuel assembly to an acceptable configuration.

(

Crystal River Unit 3 3.7-30 Amendment No. 193

Spent Fuel Assembly Storage 3.7.15

( SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS SURVEILLANCE FREQUENCY SR 3.7.15.1 Verify by administrative means the initial Pri or to enrichment and burnup of the fuel assembly storing the is in accordance with Figure 3.7.15-1 or fuel assembly Figure 3.7.15-2. in Storage Poo 1 A or Storage Pool B.

(

Crystal River Unit 3 3.7-31 Amendment No. 193

Spent Fuel Assembly Storage 3.7.15

(

45 40 -

35 - Category B (above curve) 30 -

Cl

~

Cl

2:

0:20 -

I

...::Ic:

CJ Category A 15 (between curves) 10

(

5 Category F (beneath curve) 0-2 2.5 3 3.5 4 4.5 5 Initial Enrichment, Weight Percent U235

1. Category B: Fuel from this category can be stored with no restrictions except as noted below.

2. Category A: Fuel from this category can be stored with fuel from Categories A or B.

3. Category F: Fuel from this category must be stored in a one-out-of-two checkerboard configuration with fuel from Category B or empty water cells. Category F fuel stored in a checkerboard pattern with either Category B fuel or empty water cells must be separated from Category A fuel by a transition row of Category B fuel.

Figure 3.7.15-1 Burnup versus Enrichment Curve for Spent Fuel Storage Pool A Crystal River Unit 3 3.7-32 Amendment No. 227

Spent Fuel Assembly Storage 3.7.15

(

45 40 .

Category B 35 (above curves) 30*

Ol

s::::

-25*

Cl

~

2:

ci:20 Category BP

I

...:::I c::: (between curves) m 15

(

10 . Category BE (below curves) 5*

O*

2 2.5 3 3.5 4 4.5 5 Initial Enrichment, Weight Percent U235

1. Category B: Fuel from this category can be stored with no restrictions except as noted below.

2. Category BP: Fuel from this category (between lower and upper curves) can be stored in the peripheral cells of the pool.

3. Category BE: Unacceptable for storage unless surrounded by eight empty water cells.

4. Fuel of any enrichment and burnup including fresh, unburned fuel may be stored in Pool B if surrounded by eight empty water cells. Category BE fuel assemblies must be separated by two adjacent empty cells in Pool B.

( Figure 3.7.15-2 Burnup versus Enrichment Curve for Spent Fuel Storage Pool B Crystal River Unit 3 3.7-33 Amendment No. 227

4.0 FIGURE 2 OTSG PRESS TO ESTABLISH 100°F PRIMARY TO SECONDARY ilT

(' 1100 I/

I II L

I 1000 I/

V 1/

IJ ,

I 900 /

I I/

II IL 800 I/ r

/

L

/

lI ... 100°F Primary to 1--1 700 ........

""'l1lI I-Secondary Ll T

/

C)

L

/

I fA C. V 1/

600 jJ (J)

(J) I/

W I r 0::

Q. /I I/

\, ~

500 J

(J) I/

l- V e /

400 I I/

V II

/

300 IJ I

I/

t V 200 /

I/

IJ 1/ ,

/

100

/

V

/

o o 500 1000 1500 2000 2500 Res PRESS (psig)

EOP-07 REV 15 PAGE 57 of 65 ICC

4.0 FIGURE 1 Res PRESS AND TEMP (WIDE RANGE) 2700 2500

-en 0) 2300 a.

- 2100 (J).

(J) w 0::

a. 1900 (J)

U 0::

(!) 1700 0) s::

( ~

0::

(!) 1500*+--

"'C

~

a. 1300 0

0

...J Cll s- 1100 o

900 Rep NPSH 700 500 250 300 350 400. 450 500 550 600 650 EOP-03 REV 15 PAGE 53 of 59 ISM

4.0 FIGURE 2 Res PRESS AND TEMP (lOW RANGE)

(

-_._------+-.- -

450

.-en t/)

400 en en c.

w et::

a..

en 300 0

et::

Cl>

( en c 250 co et::

~

0 200 - ---- --------.-

..J CO 0

c( 150 - r r-------.

Rep NPSH 100

.--------c~-~

.----,--------~

50 ; . I

-~---.,----------Hl--T----'--+--*----....~-A

-~---.,----------'i-l --i-----t--.----....,I----/r

- I

--- ---- -.-- ---.-- - -r------,-.------- -- I

I+--+---+~/-

o 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450 500 EOP-03 REV 15 PAGE 55 of 59 ISM

Crystal River 3 Questions 1-75 RO Exam. Questions76-100 SRO Exam.

Examination Answer Key 09/22/2009 Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer 1 C 26 C 51 D 76 B 2 C 27 C 52 C 77 B 3 D 28 A 53 B 78 C 4 C 29 B 54 A 79 C 5 C 30 D 55 C 80 D 6 D 31 A 56 A 81 D 7 D 32 A 57 B 82 C 8 C 33 A 58 D 83 A 9 A 34 C 59 A 84 B 10 C 35 A 60 B 85 A 11 A 36 C 61 B 86 A 12 B 37 D 62 B 87 B 13 D 38 C 63 C 88 C 14 C 39 D 64 A 89 C 15 D 40 D 65 C 90 C 16 D 41 A 66 B 91 A 17 C 42 D 67 D 92 D 18 A 43 A 68 C 93 AorB ~

19 A 44 D 69 C 94 C DJ5 t &-wI 20 C 45 B 70 D 95 A ~.

21 A 46 B 71 B 96 C 22 A 47 D 72 D 97 A 23 D 48 C 73 D 98 A 24 B 49 C 74 A 99 B 25 A 50 A 75 A 100 B

ML092890637

Text

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