ML092850018

Final (Reference) RO Written Exam

ML092850018
Person / Time
Site:	Summer
Issue date:	10/15/2009
From:	NRC/RGN-II
To:	South Carolina Electric & Gas Co
References
50-395/09-301
Download: ML092850018 (189)

Text

(-INIIL QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

1. 001 A2.07001 Given the following plant conditions:

90% power An instrument failure causes a plant transient, which results in a Reactor Trip.

On the trip, TWO (2) control rods remain at 6 steps, ONE (1) control rod remains at 12 steps, and ONE (1) control rod remains at 18 steps.

According to EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery, which ONE (1) of the following describes the required response and the MINIMUM amount of boric acid to be added?

A. Borate through the Boric Acid Blender and set the batch integrator to 2500 gallons.

B. Borate through the Boric Acid Blender and set the batch integrator to 5800 gallons.

C. Emergency borate 2500 gallons through MVT-81 04, EMERG BORATE.

D~ Emergency borate 5800 gallons through MVT -8104, EMERG BORATE.

A.

Plausible because Alternative Action of Step 5 of EOP-1.1 does require a boration via (Emergency Boration) for greater than 1 control rod not fully inserted into the core (2500 gallons for 2 rods; 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods. Also plausible because borating through the belender is one of the acceptable methods in AOP-1 06.1, Emergency Boration.

Incorrect because the first part identifies a possible but incorrect boration method and the incorrect amount of boric acid (2500 gallons) vs. the 5800 gallons required based upon the conditions given.

B Plausible because Alternative Action of step 5 of EOP-1.1 does require a boration via (Emergency Boration) for greater than 1 control rod not fully inserted into the core (2500 gallons for 2 rods; 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods. Also plausible because borating through the belender is one of the acceptable methods in AOP-1 06.1, Emergency Boration.

Incorrect because the first part identifies a possible but incorrect boration method.

C.

Plausible because Alternative Action of Step 5 of EOP-1.1 does require a boration via (Emergency Boration) for greater than 1 control rod not fully inserted into the core (2500 gallons for 2 rods; 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods.

Incorrect because the first part uses the correct boration method, however, identifies the incorrect amount of boric acid (2500 gallons) vs. the 5800 gallons required based upon the conditions given.

D.

CORRECT: Based upon the given conditions the correct boration method and number of gallons of boric acid are identified per Alternative Action of Step 5 of EOP-1. 1,

(Emergency Boration of 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods not fully inserted).

Thursday. July 16. 20096:39:23 AM 1

(-INIIL QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

1. 001 A2.07001 Given the following plant conditions:

90% power An instrument failure causes a plant transient, which results in a Reactor Trip.

On the trip, TWO (2) control rods remain at 6 steps, ONE (1) control rod remains at 12 steps, and ONE (1) control rod remains at 18 steps.

According to EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery, which ONE (1) of the following describes the required response and the MINIMUM amount of boric acid to be added?

A. Borate through the Boric Acid Blender and set the batch integrator to 2500 gallons.

B. Borate through the Boric Acid Blender and set the batch integrator to 5800 gallons.

C. Emergency borate 2500 gallons through MVT-81 04, EMERG BORATE.

D~ Emergency borate 5800 gallons through MVT -8104, EMERG BORATE.

A.

Plausible because Alternative Action of Step 5 of EOP-1.1 does require a boration via (Emergency Boration) for greater than 1 control rod not fully inserted into the core (2500 gallons for 2 rods; 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods. Also plausible because borating through the belender is one of the acceptable methods in AOP-1 06.1, Emergency Boration.

Incorrect because the first part identifies a possible but incorrect boration method and the incorrect amount of boric acid (2500 gallons) vs. the 5800 gallons required based upon the conditions given.

B Plausible because Alternative Action of step 5 of EOP-1.1 does require a boration via (Emergency Boration) for greater than 1 control rod not fully inserted into the core (2500 gallons for 2 rods; 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods. Also plausible because borating through the belender is one of the acceptable methods in AOP-1 06.1, Emergency Boration.

Incorrect because the first part identifies a possible but incorrect boration method.

C.

Plausible because Alternative Action of Step 5 of EOP-1.1 does require a boration via (Emergency Boration) for greater than 1 control rod not fully inserted into the core (2500 gallons for 2 rods; 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods.

Incorrect because the first part uses the correct boration method, however, identifies the incorrect amount of boric acid (2500 gallons) vs. the 5800 gallons required based upon the conditions given.

D.

CORRECT: Based upon the given conditions the correct boration method and number of gallons of boric acid are identified per Alternative Action of Step 5 of EOP-1. 1,

(Emergency Boration of 5800 gallons for greater than 2 rods not fully inserted).

Thursday. July 16. 20096:39:23 AM 1

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 001 A2.07:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Control Rod Drive and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Effect of reactor trip on primary and secondary parameters and systems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-1.1, Rev 15 2

2 R04.1 NRC Bulletin 96-01 WOG Background Document HES01 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105 IC-5, p57, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

NONE Learning Objective:

IC-5-20A Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know that a few rods stuck out of the core on a reactor trip and apply the correct procedure (i.e. emergency borate 5800 gallons).

Thursday. July 16. 2009 6:39:23 AM 2

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 001 A2.07:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Control Rod Drive and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Effect of reactor trip on primary and secondary parameters and systems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-1.1, Rev 15 2

2 R04.1 NRC Bulletin 96-01 WOG Background Document HES01 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105 IC-5, p57, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

NONE Learning Objective:

IC-5-20A Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know that a few rods stuck out of the core on a reactor trip and apply the correct procedure (i.e. emergency borate 5800 gallons).

Thursday. July 16. 2009 6:39:23 AM 2

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_G IVEN 2.001 AKI.16 002 Given the following plant conditions:

A plant load increase at Y2% per minute is in progress.

A malfunction in the Rod Control System results in Control Rods stepping out TEN (10) steps, at which point they are placed in MANUAL and stop moving.

The load increase is stopped 2 minutes after the rods are placed in MANUAL.

Control Rods are manually inserted to restore Tavg to Tref.

Considering ONLY the conditions stated, which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

Total Power Defect has become ______ negative, and Control Rods were inserted to restore Tavg to Tref.

A. less; less than 1 0 steps B. less; 10 steps C¥' more; less than 1 0 steps D. more; 10 steps A.

Plausible 1 st part because the increase in fuel temperature directly inserts negative reactivity through the Doppler effect, one might think that the power defect has decreased, especially if they forget that the total power defect is the product of the overall power coefficient X the change in Rx power.

Plausible because 2nd part is correct. Since the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes this will result in a net power change of a 1 %

power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref (to compensate for the positive reactivity of the 10 step withdrawal and because power defect added some negative reactivity).

Incorrect because power has increased by 1 %, therefore, Total Power Defect has increased adding negative reactivity. (Ref VCSNS curve book Figure 1/-2). Since Tref as increased as a result of the turbine load increase, Tavg would have to be increased to match Tref. From the conditions stated, rod height will have to be higer to offset the Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 3

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_G IVEN 2.001 AKI.16 002 Given the following plant conditions:

A plant load increase at Y2% per minute is in progress.

A malfunction in the Rod Control System results in Control Rods stepping out TEN (10) steps, at which point they are placed in MANUAL and stop moving.

The load increase is stopped 2 minutes after the rods are placed in MANUAL.

Control Rods are manually inserted to restore Tavg to Tref.

Considering ONLY the conditions stated, which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

Total Power Defect has become ______ negative, and Control Rods were inserted to restore Tavg to Tref.

A. less; less than 1 0 steps B. less; 10 steps C¥' more; less than 1 0 steps D. more; 10 steps A.

Plausible 1 st part because the increase in fuel temperature directly inserts negative reactivity through the Doppler effect, one might think that the power defect has decreased, especially if they forget that the total power defect is the product of the overall power coefficient X the change in Rx power.

Plausible because 2nd part is correct. Since the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes this will result in a net power change of a 1 %

power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref (to compensate for the positive reactivity of the 10 step withdrawal and because power defect added some negative reactivity).

Incorrect because power has increased by 1 %, therefore, Total Power Defect has increased adding negative reactivity. (Ref VCSNS curve book Figure 1/-2). Since Tref as increased as a result of the turbine load increase, Tavg would have to be increased to match Tref. From the conditions stated, rod height will have to be higer to offset the Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 3

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN negative reactivity inserted by the increase in Power Defect. Therefore, when the rods are manually inserted to match Tavg and Tref following the outward rod motion, the rods will not have been inserted the full 10 steps they withdrew.

B.

Plausible 1 st part because the increase in fuel temperature directly inserts negative reactivity through the Doppler effect, one might think that the power defect has decreased, especially if they forget that the total power defect is the product of the overall power coefficient X the change in Rx power.

Plausible 2nd part because if no power change occurs, and negating all other effects, the amount of inward rod motion required to restore Tavg to Tref is the same as the total outward rod motion.

Incorrect because since the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes, this will result in a net power change of a 1 % power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power, rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref.

C.

CORRECT: 1 st part is correct. Because Power has increased by 1 % Total Power Defect has increased (Ref VCSNS curve book figure 11-2). Also correct because the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes this will result in a net power change of a 1% power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power, and negative reactivity has been added due to the increase in total power defect, rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref (to compensate for the positive reactivity of the 10 step withdrawal and because power defect added some negative reactivity).

D.

Plausible because 1st part is correct. Because power has increased by 1%, Total Power Defect has increased (Ref VCSNS curve book Figure 11-2).

Plausible 2nd part because if no power change occurs, and negating all other effects, the amount of inward rod motion required to restore Tavg to Tref is the same as the total outward rod motion.

Incorrect because since the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes this will result in a net power change of a 1 % power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power, rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 4

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN negative reactivity inserted by the increase in Power Defect. Therefore, when the rods are manually inserted to match Tavg and Tref following the outward rod motion, the rods will not have been inserted the full 10 steps they withdrew.

B.

Plausible 1 st part because the increase in fuel temperature directly inserts negative reactivity through the Doppler effect, one might think that the power defect has decreased, especially if they forget that the total power defect is the product of the overall power coefficient X the change in Rx power.

Plausible 2nd part because if no power change occurs, and negating all other effects, the amount of inward rod motion required to restore Tavg to Tref is the same as the total outward rod motion.

Incorrect because since the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes, this will result in a net power change of a 1 % power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power, rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref.

C.

CORRECT: 1 st part is correct. Because Power has increased by 1 % Total Power Defect has increased (Ref VCSNS curve book figure 11-2). Also correct because the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes this will result in a net power change of a 1% power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power, and negative reactivity has been added due to the increase in total power defect, rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref (to compensate for the positive reactivity of the 10 step withdrawal and because power defect added some negative reactivity).

D.

Plausible because 1st part is correct. Because power has increased by 1%, Total Power Defect has increased (Ref VCSNS curve book Figure 11-2).

Plausible 2nd part because if no power change occurs, and negating all other effects, the amount of inward rod motion required to restore Tavg to Tref is the same as the total outward rod motion.

Incorrect because since the turbine load change is allowed to continue to increase for two minutes this will result in a net power change of a 1 % power increase when Tavg is restored to Tref, Since no dilution has occurred and Tref has increased due to the change in turbine power, rod height will have to be higher for Tavg to match Tref on the power increase. Rods would not have to be inserted the full 10 steps that they step out in order to match Tavg with Tref.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 4

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 001 AK1.16:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Continuous Rod Withdrawal and the following: Definition and application of power defect.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 2

R03.0 TS-12, p11-12, Rev 4 Figure 11-2 (Rev 1-4-07) of the VC Summer Curve Book RT-13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

NONE Learning Objective:

RT-13-1547 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(1), (5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the definition and application of reactivity (in terms of Power Defect) and its operational implications as it applies to Continuous Rod Withdrawal.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 5

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 001 AK1.16:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Continuous Rod Withdrawal and the following: Definition and application of power defect.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 2

R03.0 TS-12, p11-12, Rev 4 Figure 11-2 (Rev 1-4-07) of the VC Summer Curve Book RT-13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

NONE Learning Objective:

RT-13-1547 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(1), (5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the definition and application of reactivity (in terms of Power Defect) and its operational implications as it applies to Continuous Rod Withdrawal.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 5

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 3.002 A4.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

ALL offsite power (ESF & BOP) is lost, resulting in a Reactor Trip following 30 days of operation at 100% power.

The operating crew is responding per EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery.

Both MDEFPs are running.

RCS pressure is 2085 psig.

ALL S/G pressures are 1035 psig.

The Core Subcooling Monitor is NOT available.

Which ONE (1) of the following combinations of RCS Thot and Tcold indicate that natural circulation is in progress?

A.

B.

615 C.

585 0:'

585 Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM STEAM TABLES PROVIDED Tcold COF) 557 551 557 551 6

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 3.002 A4.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

ALL offsite power (ESF & BOP) is lost, resulting in a Reactor Trip following 30 days of operation at 100% power.

The operating crew is responding per EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery.

Both MDEFPs are running.

RCS pressure is 2085 psig.

ALL S/G pressures are 1035 psig.

The Core Subcooling Monitor is NOT available.

Which ONE (1) of the following combinations of RCS Thot and Tcold indicate that natural circulation is in progress?

A.

B.

615 C.

585 0:'

585 Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM STEAM TABLES PROVIDED Tcold COF) 557 551 557 551 6

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because given Tcold is at no-load Tavg. Also plausible because it is possible to have a sgnificantly elevated Thot after a loss of forced cooling flow due to the loss of offsite power.

Incorrect because subcooling is less than 30°F. RCS pressure = 2085 psig = 2100 psia; Tsat for 2100 psia = 642.76°F - 615°F = 27.76°F subcooled.

B.

Plausible because Tcold is correct for the given S/G pressure (1035 psig = 1050 psia; Tsat for 1050 psia = 550.53 OF). Also plausible because it is possible to have a sgnificantly elevated Thot after a loss of forced cooling flow due to the loss of offsite power.

Incorrect because subcooling is less than 30°F. RCS pressure = 2085 psig = 2100 psia; Tsat for 2100 psia = 642.76°F - 615°F = 27.76°F subcooled.

C.

Plausible because subcooling is greater than 30°F and because Tcold is at no-load Tavg.

Incorrect because Tcold should be equivalent to the saturation temperature for the S/G pressure (1035 psig = 1050 psia; Tsat for 1050 psia = 550.53 OF).

D.

CORRECT. RCS subcooling is greater than 30°F (RCS pressure = 2085 psig = 2100 psia; Tsat for 2100 psia = 642.76°F - 585°F = 57.76°F subcooled) and Tcold is equivalent to the saturation pressure for the given S/G pressure (1035 psig = 1050 psia; Tsat for 1050 psia = 550.53 OF).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 7

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because given Tcold is at no-load Tavg. Also plausible because it is possible to have a sgnificantly elevated Thot after a loss of forced cooling flow due to the loss of offsite power.

Incorrect because subcooling is less than 30°F. RCS pressure = 2085 psig = 2100 psia; Tsat for 2100 psia = 642.76°F - 615°F = 27.76°F subcooled.

B.

Plausible because Tcold is correct for the given S/G pressure (1035 psig = 1050 psia; Tsat for 1050 psia = 550.53 OF). Also plausible because it is possible to have a sgnificantly elevated Thot after a loss of forced cooling flow due to the loss of offsite power.

Incorrect because subcooling is less than 30°F. RCS pressure = 2085 psig = 2100 psia; Tsat for 2100 psia = 642.76°F - 615°F = 27.76°F subcooled.

C.

Plausible because subcooling is greater than 30°F and because Tcold is at no-load Tavg.

Incorrect because Tcold should be equivalent to the saturation temperature for the S/G pressure (1035 psig = 1050 psia; Tsat for 1050 psia = 550.53 OF).

D.

CORRECT. RCS subcooling is greater than 30°F (RCS pressure = 2085 psig = 2100 psia; Tsat for 2100 psia = 642.76°F - 585°F = 57.76°F subcooled) and Tcold is equivalent to the saturation pressure for the given S/G pressure (1035 psig = 1050 psia; Tsat for 1050 psia = 550.53 OF).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 7

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 002 A4.02:

(Reactor Coolant) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Indications necessary to verify natural circulation form appropriate level, flow and temperature indications and valve positions upon loss of forced circulation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

Steam Tables EOP-1.1, Step 12 2

2 R04.3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Steam Tables Learning Objective:

EOP-1.3-07 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Open Reference questions EOPS 246 and AOPS 55 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b)( 5), (7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know the indications necessary to verify that Natural Circulation is occurring within the RCS, after a loss of Forced Circulation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 8

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 002 A4.02:

(Reactor Coolant) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Indications necessary to verify natural circulation form appropriate level, flow and temperature indications and valve positions upon loss of forced circulation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

Steam Tables EOP-1.1, Step 12 2

2 R04.3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Steam Tables Learning Objective:

EOP-1.3-07 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Open Reference questions EOPS 246 and AOPS 55 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b)( 5), (7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know the indications necessary to verify that Natural Circulation is occurring within the RCS, after a loss of Forced Circulation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 8

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

4. 003 G2.1.7 00 1

.~~--~-----~-----------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

8% power The crew is making preparations to roll the Main Turbine to 1800 RPM.

Which ONE (1) of the following conditions REQUIRES the associated Reactor Coolant Pump(s) to be stopped IMMEDIATELY using SOP-1 01, Reactor Coo/ant System?

A. RCP 'C' #1 seal DP is 350 psid and decreasing.

B. MVG-9600, RCP THERM BAR ISOL, closes due to a failure in the control circuit.

C. Annunciator RCP 'B' UP OIL RESVR HIILO (XCP-617, 1-4) actuates due to a HIGH level.

D!" Annunciator RCP 'A' VIBR HI (XCP-617, 1-3) actuates. Shaft vibration is 15.1 mils and increasing at 0.1 mils I hr. Frame vibration is 5.1 mils and increasing at 0.1 mils I hr.

A.

Plausible because #1 Seal DP is an RCP trip criteria.

Incorrect because the trip setpoint is 200 psid, not 350 psid.

B.

Plausible because, if MVG-9600 were to close, CCW to the RCP thermal barriers would be lost, which could eventually require RCPs to be shutdown.

Incorrect because, even if all CCW were lost to the RCPs, the crew would still have 10 minutes to restore prior to securing the RCPs.

C.

Plausible because ARP-001-XCP-617, 1-4, Corrective Action 3, requires checking if the level is HI or LOW. If LOW, an immediate trip is required.

Incorrect since the ARP requires monitoring bearing temp for a HIGH level, not tripping the RCP.

D.

CORRECT. lAW ARP-001-XCP-617, 1-3, Supplemental Action 2, if frame vibration is greater than 5 mils, the RCP should be secured if power is less than 38%.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 9

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

4. 003G2.1.7001 ___________________ ~ ________

Given the following plant conditions:

8% power The crew is making preparations to roll the Main Turbine to 1800 RPM.

Which ONE (1) of the following conditions REQUIRES the associated Reactor Coolant Pump(s) to be stopped IMMEDIATELY using SOP-1 01, Reactor Coo/ant System?

A. RCP 'C' #1 seal DP is 350 psid and decreasing.

B. MVG-9600, RCP THERM BAR ISOL, closes due to a failure in the control circuit.

C. Annunciator RCP 'B' UP OIL RESVR HIILO (XCP-617, 1-4) actuates due to a HIGH level.

D!" Annunciator RCP 'A' VIBR HI (XCP-617, 1-3) actuates. Shaft vibration is 15.1 mils and increasing at 0.1 mils I hr. Frame vibration is 5.1 mils and increasing at 0.1 mils I hr.

A.

Plausible because #1 Seal DP is an RCP trip criteria.

Incorrect because the trip setpoint is 200 psid, not 350 psid.

B.

Plausible because, if MVG-9600 were to close, CCW to the RCP thermal barriers would be lost, which could eventually require RCPs to be shutdown.

Incorrect because, even if all CCW were lost to the RCPs, the crew would still have 10 minutes to restore prior to securing the RCPs.

C.

Plausible because ARP-001-XCP-617, 1-4, Corrective Action 3, requires checking if the level is HI or LOW. If LOW, an immediate trip is required.

Incorrect since the ARP requires monitoring bearing temp for a HIGH level, not tripping the RCP.

D.

CORRECT. lAW ARP-001-XCP-617, 1-3, Supplemental Action 2, if frame vibration is greater than 5 mils, the RCP should be secured if power is less than 38%.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 9

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 003 G2.1.7:

(Reactor Coolant Pump) Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior and instrument interpretation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R04.4 ARP-001-XCP-617 (1-4)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AB-4-20 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring an operational decision that must evaluate reactor power, TS requirements, the validity of the alarm, and RCP running time.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 10 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 003 G2.1.7:

(Reactor Coolant Pump) Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior and instrument interpretation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R04.4 ARP-001-XCP-617 (1-4)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AB-4-20 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring an operational decision that must evaluate reactor power, TS requirements, the validity of the alarm, and RCP running time.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 10

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_-_AS_GIVEN

5. 004 A3.IS 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 5 The RCS is solid with pressure being automatically maintained.

A licensed operator trainee inadvertently energized one set of PZR Backup Heaters.

Assuming NO operator action, which ONE (1) of the following describes the FIRST response to the rising RCS pressure?

A. Annunciator LP LTDN FLO/PRESS HI (XCP-613, 2-4) actuates.

B. Letdown flow increases as HCV -142, L TDN FROM RH R, opens.

C. Annunciator DEMIN FLO DIVERT TEMP HI (XCP-613, 1-2) actuates.

D~ Letdown flow increases as PCV-145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve, opens.

A.

Plausible because this would eventually occur at 400 psig if PCV-145 did not initially control the rising pressure.

Incorrect because, in this case, no adjustments to charging and letdown have been made and PCV-145 would act first and automatically maintain pressure until it is 100%

open.

B.

Plausible because flow will increase due to PCV-145 opening.

Incorrect since HCV-142 is normally full open while solid.

C.

Plausible because this alarm may come in if TCV-144 did not respond appropriately as flow increased.

Incorrect because TCV-144 should respond to increasing flow in the letdown steam.

D.

CORRECT. PCV-145 controls RCS pressure with the system solid. With the term "automatically" specified in Bullet 2, PCV-145 is set at 350 PSIG. Until PCV-145 is 100% open, system pressure will be maintained.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 11 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_-_AS_GIVEN

5. 004 A3.IS 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 5 The RCS is solid with pressure being automatically maintained.

A licensed operator trainee inadvertently energized one set of PZR Backup Heaters.

Assuming NO operator action, which ONE (1) of the following describes the FIRST response to the rising RCS pressure?

A. Annunciator LP LTDN FLO/PRESS HI (XCP-613, 2-4) actuates.

B. Letdown flow increases as HCV -142, L TDN FROM RH R, opens.

C. Annunciator DEMIN FLO DIVERT TEMP HI (XCP-613, 1-2) actuates.

D~ Letdown flow increases as PCV-145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve, opens.

A.

Plausible because this would eventually occur at 400 psig if PCV-145 did not initially control the rising pressure.

Incorrect because, in this case, no adjustments to charging and letdown have been made and PCV-145 would act first and automatically maintain pressure until it is 100%

open.

B.

Plausible because flow will increase due to PCV-145 opening.

Incorrect since HCV-142 is normally full open while solid.

C.

Plausible because this alarm may come in if TCV-144 did not respond appropriately as flow increased.

Incorrect because TCV-144 should respond to increasing flow in the letdown steam.

D.

CORRECT. PCV-145 controls RCS pressure with the system solid. With the term "automatically" specified in Bullet 2, PCV-145 is set at 350 PSIG. Until PCV-145 is 100% open, system pressure will be maintained.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 11

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_DA TABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 004 A3.15:

Ability to monitor automatic operations of the Chemical and Volume control including: PZR pressure and temperature.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

AS-7, Page 37 2

1 R03.5 AS-3, Figure AS 3.1 (Page 87 of 99)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IC-3-13 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by considering PCV-145 alignment and response to a change in PZR temperature and therefore pressure since the plant is solid.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 12 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_DA TABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 004 A3.15:

Ability to monitor automatic operations of the Chemical and Volume control including: PZR pressure and temperature.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

AS-7, Page 37 2

1 R03.5 AS-3, Figure AS 3.1 (Page 87 of 99)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IC-3-13 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by considering PCV-145 alignment and response to a change in PZR temperature and therefore pressure since the plant is solid.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 12

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

6. 004 K2.05 001 Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

LCV -1150, RWST TO CHG PP SUCT, is powered from ___ and MVG-81 06, CHG PP, is powered from __ _

A. 10A2Z; 10B2Z B. 10B2Y; 10B2Z C~ 10B2Y; 10A2Y O. 10A2Z; 10A2Y A

Plausible because both choices are vital busses.

B Plausible because both choices are vital busses.

C.

CORRECT. LCV-115D is powered from 1 DB2Y and MVG-8106 is powered from 1DA2Y.

D.

Plausible because both choices are vital busses.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 13 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

6. 004 K2.05 001 Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

LCV-1150, RWST TO CHG PP SUCT, is powered from ___ and MVG-81 06, CHG PP, is powered from __ _

A. 10A2Z; 10B2Z B. 10B2Y; 10B2Z C~ 10B2Y; 10A2Y O. 10A2Z; 10A2Y A

Plausible because both choices are vital busses.

B Plausible because both choices are vital busses.

C.

CORRECT. LCV-115D is powered from 1 DB2Y and MVG-8106 is powered from 1DA2Y.

D.

Plausible because both choices are vital busses.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 13

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 004 K2.05:

(Chemical and Volume Control) Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: MOVs.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.7 AB-3, Page 70 of 80 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-3-16 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA since applicant must know the power supply to injection-related CVCS MOV's.

None of the valves are direct "give-aways" by bus letter designation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 14 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 004 K2.05:

(Chemical and Volume Control) Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: MOVs.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.7 AB-3, Page 70 of 80 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-3-16 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA since applicant must know the power supply to injection-related CVCS MOV's.

None of the valves are direct "give-aways" by bus letter designation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 14

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 7.005 KS.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

A cooldown is in progress.

Mode 4 was just entered.

RHR Train 'A' was just started in the cooldown mode.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the operability of RHR Train 'A' with respect to Technical Specification 3.5.3, ECCS SUBSYSTEMS - TAVG <350°F?

A'I INOPERABLE until Thot is < 250°F because of RHR suction voiding concerns.

B. INOPERABLE because it is no longer in the injection alignment described in the surveillance.

C. OPERABLE because Train 'A' is capable of being manually realigned to RWST in the injection mode.

O. OPERABLE because Train 'A' is fulfilling the core cooling basis for the Limiting Condition for Operation.

A.

CORRECT. lAW SOP-115, CAUTION 2.0. Realignment is NOT permitted by SOP-115 until Thot is <250°F due to the potential for voiding in the RHR Pump suction caused by the higher temperature.

8.

Plausible because it would be correct for the Mode 1-3 LCO (TS 3.5.2) but Mode 4 is specified in the conditions. Since they must be opened for a cooldown alignment on Train A, the loop suction isolation valves will not be in their required alignment per survelliance 4.5.2.a. (LCO 3.5.2).

C.

Plausible because it would be correct if Thot was <250°F. Realigning is prohibited by SOP-115 until Thot is <250°F.

D.

Plausible because it is partially correct because RHR loop A is cooling the RCS, but not in the injection mode as prescribed by the LCO. It must also be capable of taking suction from the RWST and shifting to the containment sump. Realignment is NOT permitted by SOP-115 until Thot is <250°F due to the potential for voiding in the RHR pump suction caused by the higher temperature.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 15 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 7.005 KS.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

A cooldown is in progress.

Mode 4 was just entered.

RHR Train 'A' was just started in the cooldown mode.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the operability of RHR Train 'A' with respect to Technical Specification 3.5.3, ECCS SUBSYSTEMS - TAVG <350°F?

A'I INOPERABLE until Thot is < 250°F because of RHR suction voiding concerns.

B. INOPERABLE because it is no longer in the injection alignment described in the surveillance.

C. OPERABLE because Train 'A' is capable of being manually realigned to RWST in the injection mode.

O. OPERABLE because Train 'A' is fulfilling the core cooling basis for the Limiting Condition for Operation.

A.

CORRECT. lAW SOP-115, CAUTION 2.0. Realignment is NOT permitted by SOP-115 until Thot is <250°F due to the potential for voiding in the RHR Pump suction caused by the higher temperature.

8.

Plausible because it would be correct for the Mode 1-3 LCO (TS 3.5.2) but Mode 4 is specified in the conditions. Since they must be opened for a cooldown alignment on Train A, the loop suction isolation valves will not be in their required alignment per survelliance 4.5.2.a. (LCO 3.5.2).

C.

Plausible because it would be correct if Thot was <250°F. Realigning is prohibited by SOP-115 until Thot is <250°F.

D.

Plausible because it is partially correct because RHR loop A is cooling the RCS, but not in the injection mode as prescribed by the LCO. It must also be capable of taking suction from the RWST and shifting to the containment sump. Realignment is NOT permitted by SOP-115 until Thot is <250°F due to the potential for voiding in the RHR pump suction caused by the higher temperature.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 15

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 005 K5.02:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the (Residual Heat Removal): Need for adequate subcooling.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

RO 3.4 SOP-115, Precaution 11.12 (Page 2 of 116)

SOP-115, CAUTION 2.0 (Page 15 of 116)

AS-7, Page 44 of 73 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AS-7-17 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA because it considers the operational implication of placing RHR in service for cooldown at the high end of the temperature (lowest subcooling) range.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 16 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 005 K5.02:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the (Residual Heat Removal): Need for adequate subcooling.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

RO 3.4 SOP-115, Precaution 11.12 (Page 2 of 116)

SOP-115, CAUTION 2.0 (Page 15 of 116)

AS-7, Page 44 of 73 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AS-7-17 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA because it considers the operational implication of placing RHR in service for cooldown at the high end of the temperature (lowest subcooling) range.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 16

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

8. 006 AI.09 001 Given the following plant conditions:

A large break LOCA has occurred.

The operating crew has verified cold leg recirculation alignment per EOP-2.2, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

RHR Pump 'A' and 'B' are in service with 3750 gpm flow indicated on FI-602A1B.

RHR Pump 'A' amps have decreased and are oscillating.

RHR Pump 'A' flow and discharge pressure have begun to oscillate.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the FIRST required action(s) to stabilize RHR Pump

'A' amps?

A. Go to EOP-2.4, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

B. Place Charging Pump 'A' in PULL TO LK NON-A; then evaluate RHR Pump amps.

C. Ensure HCV-603A, A OUTLET, is closed; then throttle closed FCV-605A, A BYP, as necessary D¥' Ensure FCV-605A, A BYP, is closed; then throttle closed HCV-603A, A OUTLET, as necessary.

A.

Plausible because this is an existing transition from EOP-2.2 if at least one train of recirculation cannot be established.

Incorrect because Train '8' of RHR is still available and the transition to EOP-2.4 would not occur unless both trains could not be established.

B.

Plausible because it is correct if EOP-2.2 corrective actions are unsuccessful and a flowpath cannot be established from an RHR sump. Also plausible because this is a typical action for a cavitating pump.

Incorrect because this would not be required until the RHR pump is secured.

C.

Plausible because it is the reverse of Choice D.

Incorrect because 605 is closed and 603 is throttled.

D.

CORRECT. EOP-2.2 continuous action directs this action to reduce flow in the event of the onset of RHR Sump blockage.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 17 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

8. 006 AI.09 001 Given the following plant conditions:

A large break LOCA has occurred.

The operating crew has verified cold leg recirculation alignment per EOP-2.2, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

RHR Pump 'A' and 'B' are in service with 3750 gpm flow indicated on FI-602A1B.

RHR Pump 'A' amps have decreased and are oscillating.

RHR Pump 'A' flow and discharge pressure have begun to oscillate.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the FIRST required action(s) to stabilize RHR Pump

'A' amps?

A. Go to EOP-2.4, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

B. Place Charging Pump 'A' in PULL TO LK NON-A; then evaluate RHR Pump amps.

C. Ensure HCV-603A, A OUTLET, is closed; then throttle closed FCV-605A, A BYP, as necessary D¥' Ensure FCV-605A, A BYP, is closed; then throttle closed HCV-603A, A OUTLET, as necessary.

A.

Plausible because this is an existing transition from EOP-2.2 if at least one train of recirculation cannot be established.

Incorrect because Train '8' of RHR is still available and the transition to EOP-2.4 would not occur unless both trains could not be established.

B.

Plausible because it is correct if EOP-2.2 corrective actions are unsuccessful and a flowpath cannot be established from an RHR sump. Also plausible because this is a typical action for a cavitating pump.

Incorrect because this would not be required until the RHR pump is secured.

C.

Plausible because it is the reverse of Choice D.

Incorrect because 605 is closed and 603 is throttled.

D.

CORRECT. EOP-2.2 continuous action directs this action to reduce flow in the event of the onset of RHR Sump blockage.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 17

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 006 A1.09:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the (Emergency Core Cooling) controls including: Pump amperage, including start, normal and locked.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.8 EOP-2.2, Step 12 (Page 8 of 12)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-2.2-07 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Open Reference question EOPS 212 and Closed Reference questions AOPS 306 & 388 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring the operator to monitor parameters (pump amps) associated with operating ECCS controls (throttle HCV-603).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 18 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 006 A1.09:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the (Emergency Core Cooling) controls including: Pump amperage, including start, normal and locked.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.8 EOP-2.2, Step 12 (Page 8 of 12)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-2.2-07 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Open Reference question EOPS 212 and Closed Reference questions AOPS 306 & 388 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring the operator to monitor parameters (pump amps) associated with operating ECCS controls (throttle HCV-603).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 18

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 9.007 A2.03 001 Given the following plant conditions:

55% power A Main Generator Field Failure (40 Relay) occurs.

Due to the transient, ALL Pressurizer PORVs opened for ONE (1) minute.

The NROATC notes that PRT pressure rises, then rapidly drops.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

Pressurizer Relief Tank (PRT) pressure will __ _ The crew will then initially implement ___ _

A. stabilize at a higher than normal pressure.

EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation B. stabilize at a higher than normal pressure.

AOP-214.2, Response to Load Rejection/Runback C!" stabilize at a lower than normal pressure.

EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation D. stabilize at a lower than normal pressure.

AOP-214.2, Response to Load Rejection/Runback Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 19 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 9.007 A2.03 001 Given the following plant conditions:

55% power A Main Generator Field Failure (40 Relay) occurs.

Due to the transient, ALL Pressurizer PORVs opened for ONE (1) minute.

The NROATC notes that PRT pressure rises, then rapidly drops.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

Pressurizer Relief Tank (PRT) pressure will __ _ The crew will then initially implement ___ _

A. stabilize at a higher than normal pressure.

EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation B. stabilize at a higher than normal pressure.

AOP-214.2, Response to Load Rejection/Runback C!" stabilize at a lower than normal pressure.

EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation D. stabilize at a lower than normal pressure.

AOP-214.2, Response to Load Rejection/Runback Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 19

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because PRT pressure could stabilize at a high pressure without rupturing the PRT rupture disc if the PORVs could be closed in a timely manner. Also plausible because the second half is the correct procedural flowpath.

Incorrect because, with the rupture disc blown, PRT pressure will equalize with RB pressure, which should be well below the normal operating pressure of 3-5 psig.

B Plausible because PRT pressure could stabilize at a high pressure without rupturing the PRT rupture disc if the PORVs could be closed in a timely manner. Procedural flowpath is plausible because given information matches Entry Conditions into AOP-214.2; however, at 55% Oust above P-9 setpoint of 50%), an immediate Reactor Trip will result from a Turbine Trip, which resulted from the generator field failure. See drawing E-203-201. (Field Failure (40)/Generator Backup Lockout (86GC)/Generator Electrical FaultlEHC System External Trips/Mechanical Trip Relay/Mechanical Trip Solenoids/Mechanical Trip Valve (Turbine Trip).

Incorrect because, with the rupture disc blown, PRT pressure will equalize with RB pressure, which should be well below the normal operating pressure of 3-5 pSig. Also incorrect because EOP-1.0 will be implemented, not AOP-214.2.

C.

CORRECT. The PRT rupture disc will fail shortly after all PORVs open, then PRT pressure will drop and equalize with RB pressure.

For this event, RB pressure will be less than the normal PRT pressure. The Field Failure will result in a Turbine Trip (see drawing E-203-201) and, at 55%, this will cause a Reactor Trip, so EOP-1.0 will be implemented. When the CRS reaches the diagnostic steps, RB sump levels will NOT be normal and this warrants a transition to EOP-2.0.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - the PRT rupture disc will fail shortly after all PORVs open, then PRT pressure will drop and equalize with RB pressure..

Procedural flowpath is plausible because given information matches Entry Conditions into AOP-214.2; however, at 55% Oust above P-9 setpoint of 50%), an immediate Reactor Trip will result from a TurbineTrip.

Incorrect because EOP-1.0 will be implemented, not AOP-214.2.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 20 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because PRT pressure could stabilize at a high pressure without rupturing the PRT rupture disc if the PORVs could be closed in a timely manner. Also plausible because the second half is the correct procedural flowpath.

Incorrect because, with the rupture disc blown, PRT pressure will equalize with RB pressure, which should be well below the normal operating pressure of 3-5 psig.

B Plausible because PRT pressure could stabilize at a high pressure without rupturing the PRT rupture disc if the PORVs could be closed in a timely manner. Procedural flowpath is plausible because given information matches Entry Conditions into AOP-214.2; however, at 55% Oust above P-9 setpoint of 50%), an immediate Reactor Trip will result from a Turbine Trip, which resulted from the generator field failure. See drawing E-203-201. (Field Failure (40)/Generator Backup Lockout (86GC)/Generator Electrical FaultlEHC System External Trips/Mechanical Trip Relay/Mechanical Trip Solenoids/Mechanical Trip Valve (Turbine Trip).

Incorrect because, with the rupture disc blown, PRT pressure will equalize with RB pressure, which should be well below the normal operating pressure of 3-5 pSig. Also incorrect because EOP-1.0 will be implemented, not AOP-214.2.

C.

CORRECT. The PRT rupture disc will fail shortly after all PORVs open, then PRT pressure will drop and equalize with RB pressure.

For this event, RB pressure will be less than the normal PRT pressure. The Field Failure will result in a Turbine Trip (see drawing E-203-201) and, at 55%, this will cause a Reactor Trip, so EOP-1.0 will be implemented. When the CRS reaches the diagnostic steps, RB sump levels will NOT be normal and this warrants a transition to EOP-2.0.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - the PRT rupture disc will fail shortly after all PORVs open, then PRT pressure will drop and equalize with RB pressure..

Procedural flowpath is plausible because given information matches Entry Conditions into AOP-214.2; however, at 55% Oust above P-9 setpoint of 50%), an immediate Reactor Trip will result from a TurbineTrip.

Incorrect because EOP-1.0 will be implemented, not AOP-214.2.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 20

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 007 A2.03:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the (Pressurizer Relief/Quench Tank) and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Overpressurization of the PZR.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

AS-2, Page 46 2

1 R03.6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AS-2-27 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions EOPS 530 and RCS 41 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Matches the KIA in that it involves overpressure on the PZR (opening of the PZR PORVs), and actions taken in response (implementation of EOP-1.0).

A.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 21 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 007 A2.03:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the (Pressurizer Relief/Quench Tank) and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Overpressurization of the PZR.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

AS-2, Page 46 2

1 R03.6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AS-2-27 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions EOPS 530 and RCS 41 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Matches the KIA in that it involves overpressure on the PZR (opening of the PZR PORVs), and actions taken in response (implementation of EOP-1.0).

A.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 21

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

10. 008 Al.03 002 --------------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power CCW Loop 'A' is the Active Loop.

The CCW Booster Pump alignment is as follows.

CCW Booster Pump (CCBP) 'A' is in AUTO and NOT running.

CCBP 'B' is in AUTO and running.

CCBP 'c' is in OFF.

A leak develops in the discharge header of CCBP Pump 'B' and discharge pressure drops to 40 psig.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the resulting Component Cooling Booster Pump configuration?

A. No CCBPs are running.

B. ONLY CCBP 'A' is running.

C. ONLY CCBP 'B' is running.

D~ CCBPs 'A' and 'B' are running.

A.

Plausible because the operating pump will trip on low CCBP suction pressure of 30 psig. (see IB-2, pg 30)

Incorrect because the given pressure of 40 psig is above the trip setpoint.

B.

Plausible because it is partially correct - CCBP 'A' will start at 50 psig.

Incorrect because both CCBP 'A' and 'B' will be running.

C.

Plausible because this would be true if discharge pressure had remained above 50 psig.

Incorrect because CCBP 'A' will start at 50 psig.

D.

CORRECT. CCBP 'B' will still be running since suction pressure should remain above the trip pressure of 30 psig (should still be close to discharge of the running CCW pump). Since CCBP 'A' is in AUTO, it will start when discharge pressure drops to 50 psig.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 22 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

10. 008 Al.03 002 --------------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power CCW Loop 'A' is the Active Loop.

The CCW Booster Pump alignment is as follows.

CCW Booster Pump (CCBP) 'A' is in AUTO and NOT running.

CCBP 'B' is in AUTO and running.

CCBP 'c' is in OFF.

A leak develops in the discharge header of CCBP Pump 'B' and discharge pressure drops to 40 psig.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the resulting Component Cooling Booster Pump configuration?

A. No CCBPs are running.

B. ONLY CCBP 'A' is running.

C. ONLY CCBP 'B' is running.

D~ CCBPs 'A' and 'B' are running.

A.

Plausible because the operating pump will trip on low CCBP suction pressure of 30 psig. (see IB-2, pg 30)

Incorrect because the given pressure of 40 psig is above the trip setpoint.

B.

Plausible because it is partially correct - CCBP 'A' will start at 50 psig.

Incorrect because both CCBP 'A' and 'B' will be running.

C.

Plausible because this would be true if discharge pressure had remained above 50 psig.

Incorrect because CCBP 'A' will start at 50 psig.

D.

CORRECT. CCBP 'B' will still be running since suction pressure should remain above the trip pressure of 30 psig (should still be close to discharge of the running CCW pump). Since CCBP 'A' is in AUTO, it will start when discharge pressure drops to 50 psig.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 22

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 008 A1.03:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the (Component Cooling Water) controls including: CCW pressure.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R02.7 IB-2, Pages 30 and 46 of 66 IB-2, Figure IB-2.2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

IB-2-15 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Meets KJA by predicting Component Cooling Booster Pump status given unique conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 23 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 008 A1.03:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the (Component Cooling Water) controls including: CCW pressure.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R02.7 IB-2, Pages 30 and 46 of 66 IB-2, Figure IB-2.2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

IB-2-15 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

Meets KJA by predicting Component Cooling Booster Pump status given unique conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 23

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

11. 008 AAl.06 002

~~~----------------------------------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power PZR level is 59% and slowly DECREASING.

Tavg is 5srF and stable.

RCS pressure is 2220 psig and slowly DECREASING.

RM-A2 gaseous and particulate radiation monitor indications are INCREASING.

RB pressure is 1.1 psig and slowly RISING.

Annunciators RBCU 1 Al2A (1 B/2B) DRN FLO HI (XCP-607 (60S) 2-2) actuated.

PZR PORV and safety valve tailpipe temperatures are slowly RISING.

PRT pressure is 7 psig and STABLE.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The event in progress is a and charging flow will ____ prior to a subsequent automatic Reactor Trip/SI.

A. leaking PZR PORV; increase B. leaking PZR PORV; decrease C't' PZR steam space leak; increase D. PZR steam space leak; decrease Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 24 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

11. 008 AAl.06 002

--~------------------------------------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power PZR level is 59% and slowly DECREASING.

Tavg is 5srF and stable.

RCS pressure is 2220 psig and slowly DECREASING.

RM-A2 gaseous and particulate radiation monitor indications are INCREASING.

RB pressure is 1.1 psig and slowly RISING.

Annunciators RBCU 1 Al2A (1 B/2B) DRN FLO HI (XCP-607 (60S) 2-2) actuated.

PZR PORV and safety valve tailpipe temperatures are slowly RISING.

PRT pressure is 7 psig and STABLE.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The event in progress is a and charging flow will ____ prior to a subsequent automatic Reactor Trip/SI.

A. leaking PZR PORV; increase B. leaking PZR PORV; decrease C't' PZR steam space leak; increase D. PZR steam space leak; decrease Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 24

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because most of the given symptoms are consistent with a leaking PZR PORV. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct for a PZR steam space break.

Incorrect because RM-A2 would not be increasing for a leaking PZR PORV.

B Plausible because most of the given symptoms are consistent with a leaking PZR PORV.

Incorrect because RM-A2 would not be increasing for a leaking PZR PORV.

C.

CORRECT. The given symptoms of RB pressure, RBCU drain flow high, tailpipe temperatures, and RM-A2 conditions are consistent with a PZR steam space break.

Initially, as inventory is lost to the leak, PZR level will decrease and charging flow will increase when level drops below program.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. For steam space leaks, pressurizer level will eventually go off scale high. Examinee should remember that and may determine that normal charging flow would decrease when the controller responds to the increasing PZR level.

Incorrect since charging flow will increase due to the lowering PZR level.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 25 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because most of the given symptoms are consistent with a leaking PZR PORV. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct for a PZR steam space break.

Incorrect because RM-A2 would not be increasing for a leaking PZR PORV.

B Plausible because most of the given symptoms are consistent with a leaking PZR PORV.

Incorrect because RM-A2 would not be increasing for a leaking PZR PORV.

C.

CORRECT. The given symptoms of RB pressure, RBCU drain flow high, tailpipe temperatures, and RM-A2 conditions are consistent with a PZR steam space break.

Initially, as inventory is lost to the leak, PZR level will decrease and charging flow will increase when level drops below program.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. For steam space leaks, pressurizer level will eventually go off scale high. Examinee should remember that and may determine that normal charging flow would decrease when the controller responds to the increasing PZR level.

Incorrect since charging flow will increase due to the lowering PZR level.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 25

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 008 AA1.06:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the operating the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident controls including: Control of PZR level.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.6 TS-16 (p12-13, Rev 5)

EOP-2.1, Rev 13.

WOG ES-1.2 Background Document (HES12BG.doc, HP-Rev. 2, 4/30/05, p41, Figure 13, p56)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-2.1-03 & 04 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10), (14)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to monitor PZR level for expected response during a PZR Vapor Space Accident.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 26 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 008 AA1.06:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the operating the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident controls including: Control of PZR level.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.6 TS-16 (p12-13, Rev 5)

EOP-2.1, Rev 13.

WOG ES-1.2 Background Document (HES12BG.doc, HP-Rev. 2, 4/30/05, p41, Figure 13, p56)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-2.1-03 & 04 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10), (14)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to monitor PZR level for expected response during a PZR Vapor Space Accident.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 26

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

12. OIOA2.01 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Backup Group 1 PZR heaters control switch is in NORMAl-AFTER-STOP.

Backup Group 2 PZR heaters control switch is in NORMAl-AFTER-START.

Control Group PZR heaters control switch is in NORMAl-AFTER-START.

The CNTRl GRP AMPs meter reads approximately 12 amps.

PZR pressure is 2235 psig and decreasing slowly.

The NROATC then notes the following:

B/U Group 1 Heaters:

B/U Group 2 Heaters:

Control Group Heaters:

Green Light ON ON OFF Amber Light OFF ON OFF Red Light OFF OFF ON The NROATC takes manual control of PK-444A, PZR PRESS MASTER CONTROL Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies the alarm that should accompany these indications and the action that would mitigate the downward trend in PZR pressure?

A. PZR HTR CNTRl OR BU GRP 1/2 TRIP (XCP-616, 3-1);

Increase the MIA station output (% demand)

BY' PZR HTR CNTRl OR BU GRP 1/2 TRIP (XCP-616, 3-1);

Decrease the MIA station output (% demand)

C. SCR OUTPUT lOSS (XCP-616, 4-6);

Increase the MIA station output (% demand)

D. SCR OUTPUT lOSS (XCP-616, 4-6);

Decrease the MIA station output (% demand)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 27 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

12. OIOA2.01 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Backup Group 1 PZR heaters control switch is in NORMAl-AFTER-STOP.

Backup Group 2 PZR heaters control switch is in NORMAl-AFTER-START.

Control Group PZR heaters control switch is in NORMAl-AFTER-START.

The CNTRl GRP AMPs meter reads approximately 12 amps.

PZR pressure is 2235 psig and decreasing slowly.

The NROATC then notes the following:

B/U Group 1 Heaters:

B/U Group 2 Heaters:

Control Group Heaters:

Green Light ON ON OFF Amber Light OFF ON OFF Red Light OFF OFF ON The NROATC takes manual control of PK-444A, PZR PRESS MASTER CONTROL Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies the alarm that should accompany these indications and the action that would mitigate the downward trend in PZR pressure?

A. PZR HTR CNTRl OR BU GRP 1/2 TRIP (XCP-616, 3-1);

Increase the MIA station output (% demand)

BY' PZR HTR CNTRl OR BU GRP 1/2 TRIP (XCP-616, 3-1);

Decrease the MIA station output (% demand)

C. SCR OUTPUT lOSS (XCP-616, 4-6);

Increase the MIA station output (% demand)

D. SCR OUTPUT lOSS (XCP-616, 4-6);

Decrease the MIA station output (% demand)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 27

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plaudible because the 1 st part is correct. Group 2 status lights of Amber Light ON and Red Light OFF, along with the control switch in Normal-After-Start, indicate that they have tripped Incorrect because raising the output would cause the trend to worsen.

B.

CORRECT. Group 2 status lights of Amber Light ON and Red Light OFF, along with the control switch in Normal-After-Start, indicate that they have tripped. Lowering the MIA station output would cause more firing time for the proportional heater's SCRs, thus terminating the downward trend.

C.

Plausible because this alarm is indicative of problems with the control group heaters.

Incorrect because there is nothing given in the stem that would indicate overheating or a blown fuse (which are Probable Causes for the alarm). Also incorrect because raising the output would cause the trend to worsen.

D.

Plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

Incorrect because there is nothing given in the stem that would indicate overheating or a blown fuse (which are Probable Causes for the alarm).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 28 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plaudible because the 1 st part is correct. Group 2 status lights of Amber Light ON and Red Light OFF, along with the control switch in Normal-After-Start, indicate that they have tripped Incorrect because raising the output would cause the trend to worsen.

B.

CORRECT. Group 2 status lights of Amber Light ON and Red Light OFF, along with the control switch in Normal-After-Start, indicate that they have tripped. Lowering the MIA station output would cause more firing time for the proportional heater's SCRs, thus terminating the downward trend.

C.

Plausible because this alarm is indicative of problems with the control group heaters.

Incorrect because there is nothing given in the stem that would indicate overheating or a blown fuse (which are Probable Causes for the alarm). Also incorrect because raising the output would cause the trend to worsen.

D.

Plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

Incorrect because there is nothing given in the stem that would indicate overheating or a blown fuse (which are Probable Causes for the alarm).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 28

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 010 A2.01:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Pressurizer Pressure Control and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Heater failures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.3 IC-3, Table IC3.2 (Page 51 of 53)

TS 3.4.3 (Page 3/4 3-9)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

IC-3-21 & 22 Question History:

Designated as MODIFIED because it is similar in nature to Closed Reference PZR PRESS CNTRL SYS 011 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by predicting associated alarm for B/U heater group breaker trip and determining action to mitigate downward trend in PZR pressure..

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 29 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 010 A2.01:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Pressurizer Pressure Control and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Heater failures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.3 IC-3, Table IC3.2 (Page 51 of 53)

TS 3.4.3 (Page 3/4 3-9)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

IC-3-21 & 22 Question History:

Designated as MODIFIED because it is similar in nature to Closed Reference PZR PRESS CNTRL SYS 011 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by predicting associated alarm for B/U heater group breaker trip and determining action to mitigate downward trend in PZR pressure..

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 29

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN

13. Oil EK3.15 002 Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

After a Large Break LOCA, the crew must initiate Hot Leg Recirculation within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />

____, and to minimize boron precipitation in the ____ _

A. of the transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation; core B. of the transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation; cold leg nozzles C~ after event initiation; core D. after event initiation; cold leg nozzles Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 30 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN

13. Oil EK3.15 002 Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

After a Large Break LOCA, the crew must initiate Hot Leg Recirculation within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />

____, and to minimize boron precipitation in the ____ _

A. of the transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation; core B. of the transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation; cold leg nozzles C~ after event initiation; core D. after event initiation; cold leg nozzles Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 30

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because it is a common misconception that HLR must be initiated 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after CLR. 2nd part is plausible because the downcomer is uncovered during a DBA LOCA. It is conceivable that boron could precipitate in this region and block coolant flow.

Incorrect since HLR must be initiated within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> of the event..

B.

Plausible because it is a common misconception that HLR must be initiated 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after CLR.

Incorrect since the limiting location is the core, not the downcomer. According to WOG ES-1.4 Background Document, during the Hot Leg break, CLR will be injected into the cold legs and forward flush the core into, and out of, the hot legs alleviating the Boron buildup problem.

C.

CORRECT. At Step 27 of EOP-2.0 the operator is directed to GO TO EOP-2.3 within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after event initiation. According to the WOG E-1 Background Document (HE1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30/05), Step 19 each plant has a specific time following the initiation of a LOCA for switchover to hot leg recirculation. This time is established from analysis of the minimum time when boric acid concentrations could approach the solubility limit in the reactor vessel/core region following a double-ended COLD LEG guillotine break.

D.

Plausible because the first part is correct. At Step 27 of EOP-2.0 the operator is directed to GO TO EOP-2.3 within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after event initiation. 2nd part is plausible because the downcomer is uncovered during a DBA LOCA. It is conceivable that boron could precipitate in this region and block coolant flow.

Incorrect since the limiting location is the core, not the downcomer. According to WOG ES-1.4 Background Document, during the Hot Leg break, CLR will be injected into the cold legs and forward flush the core into, and out of, the hot legs alleviating the Boron buildup problem.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 31 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because it is a common misconception that HLR must be initiated 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after CLR. 2nd part is plausible because the downcomer is uncovered during a DBA LOCA. It is conceivable that boron could precipitate in this region and block coolant flow.

Incorrect since HLR must be initiated within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> of the event..

B.

Plausible because it is a common misconception that HLR must be initiated 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after CLR.

Incorrect since the limiting location is the core, not the downcomer. According to WOG ES-1.4 Background Document, during the Hot Leg break, CLR will be injected into the cold legs and forward flush the core into, and out of, the hot legs alleviating the Boron buildup problem.

C.

CORRECT. At Step 27 of EOP-2.0 the operator is directed to GO TO EOP-2.3 within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after event initiation. According to the WOG E-1 Background Document (HE1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30/05), Step 19 each plant has a specific time following the initiation of a LOCA for switchover to hot leg recirculation. This time is established from analysis of the minimum time when boric acid concentrations could approach the solubility limit in the reactor vessel/core region following a double-ended COLD LEG guillotine break.

D.

Plausible because the first part is correct. At Step 27 of EOP-2.0 the operator is directed to GO TO EOP-2.3 within 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> after event initiation. 2nd part is plausible because the downcomer is uncovered during a DBA LOCA. It is conceivable that boron could precipitate in this region and block coolant flow.

Incorrect since the limiting location is the core, not the downcomer. According to WOG ES-1.4 Background Document, during the Hot Leg break, CLR will be injected into the cold legs and forward flush the core into, and out of, the hot legs alleviating the Boron buildup problem.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 31

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 011 EK3.15:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Large Break LOCA will have on the following: Criteria for shifting to recirculation mode.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-1.0, Rev 22 EOP-2.0, Rev 13 EOP-2.2, Rev 14 1

1 R04.3 HE1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105 HES14BG.doc, HP-Rev 2,4/30105 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-2.3-1865 Question History:

None 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the criteria for shifting recirculation mode as they apply to the Large Break LOCA.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 32 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 011 EK3.15:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Large Break LOCA will have on the following: Criteria for shifting to recirculation mode.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-1.0, Rev 22 EOP-2.0, Rev 13 EOP-2.2, Rev 14 1

1 R04.3 HE1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105 HES14BG.doc, HP-Rev 2,4/30105 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-2.3-1865 Question History:

None 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the criteria for shifting recirculation mode as they apply to the Large Break LOCA.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 32

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 14.011 K6.05 002 Given the following plant conditions:

A Small Break LOCA has occurred.

PZR pressure is stable at 1275 psig.

Containment temperature is 192°F.

Actual PZR level is 50%.

I Which ONE (1) of the following describes the effect that the above plant conditions will have on U-460, PZR LEVEL %?

A'I Both containment temperature and PZR pressure will make U-460 read HIGHER than actual.

B. Containment temperature will make U-460 read HIGHER than actual, while PZR pressure will make U-460 read LOWER than actual.

C. Both containment temperature and PZR pressure will make U-460 read LOWER than actual.

D. Containment temperature will make U-460 read LOWER than actual, while PZR pressure will make U-460 read HIGHER than actual.

A.

CORRECT. If the reference leg heats up from <135°F to 192°F, the net effect would be a level error with the actual level far less than the indicated level. The lower pressure cause a lower saturation temperature in the PZR. Since L T -460 is hot calibrated (for 653°F Tsat) and liquid temperature is now 575°F (Tsat for 1275 psig), the actual water level will be less than indicated.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. The 2nd part would be true 11 a pressure gauge were used for level measurement.

Incorrect since pressure drop will cause indicated level to read HIGHER, not lower.

C Plausible because the 2nd part is true. The 1 st part would be true 11 the PZR cubicle were normally hotter than 192°F.

Incorrect since both the containment temperature effect and the RCS pressure effect cause indicated level to be HIGHER, not lower.

D Plausible if examinee made a common error of reversing the effect of reference leg heatup.

Incorrect since the containment temperature effect causes indicated level to be HIGHER, not lower EXCERPT FROM IC-3:

Level Measurement (Figures IC3.5 and IC3.14)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 33 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 14.011 K6.05 002

.~--------------~-----------------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

A Small Break LOCA has occurred.

PZR pressure is stable at 1275 psig.

Containment temperature is 192°F.

Actual PZR level is 50%.

I Which ONE (1) of the following describes the effect that the above plant conditions will have on U-460, PZR LEVEL %?

A'I Both containment temperature and PZR pressure will make U-460 read HIGHER than actual.

B. Containment temperature will make U-460 read HIGHER than actual, while PZR pressure will make U-460 read LOWER than actual.

C. Both containment temperature and PZR pressure will make U-460 read LOWER than actual.

D. Containment temperature will make U-460 read LOWER than actual, while PZR pressure will make U-460 read HIGHER than actual.

A.

CORRECT. If the reference leg heats up from <135°F to 192°F, the net effect would be a level error with the actual level far less than the indicated level. The lower pressure cause a lower saturation temperature in the PZR. Since L T -460 is hot calibrated (for 653°F Tsat) and liquid temperature is now 575°F (Tsat for 1275 psig), the actual water level will be less than indicated.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. The 2nd part would be true 11 a pressure gauge were used for level measurement.

Incorrect since pressure drop will cause indicated level to read HIGHER, not lower.

C Plausible because the 2nd part is true. The 1 st part would be true 11 the PZR cubicle were normally hotter than 192°F.

Incorrect since both the containment temperature effect and the RCS pressure effect cause indicated level to be HIGHER, not lower.

D Plausible if examinee made a common error of reversing the effect of reference leg heatup.

Incorrect since the containment temperature effect causes indicated level to be HIGHER, not lower EXCERPT FROM IC-3:

Level Measurement (Figures IC3.5 and IC3.14)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 33

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN Three pressurizer level transmitters are used for the control system. These are differential pressure detectors. They are calibrated for use at normal operating temperature (about 650°F) and are labeled LT-459, -460, and -461. A fourth detector (L T -462) is calibrated for low (80°F) temperature and is used for indication during cold shutdown, refueling, and heatup. Each channel is physically and electrically isolated.

See Figure IC3.5.

The operator must understand the significance of these calibration pOints during various operational conditions. Calibration at a given temperature leads to differences between actual and indicated level when temperature departs from the calibration value. At normal operating temperature, the three hot calibrated channels indicate true level, while the cold calibrated indicates low. This indication is due to the variation in density of the water in the pressurizer at different temperatures. The cold channel sees a lower level than actual because it is calibrated so that a certain differential pressure corresponds to a certain number of inches level. At 640°F, that certain height difference does exist, but because the water is less dense, the differential pressure is less than it would be for the same height of water at 80°F. Therefore, the cold channel indicates low. The opposite is true of the hot channels. At 80°F they indicate high, while the cold channel will be accurate. This is important to remember during cooldown as hot level indication is initially accurate and then slowly goes high compared to actual level as the cooldown progresses. The opposite is true during a plant heatup.

To arrive at a level signal, the detectors measure the pressure difference resulting from the height of the column of water in the pressurizer versus the height of the column of water in the reference leg (Figure IC3.14). This comparison is accomplished by attaching a connection from the variable leg to the low pressure side of the detector and a connection from the reference leg to the high pressure side. The reference leg connection is near the top of the pressurizer. If pressurizer level is at this connection, the differential pressure across the detector is zero. At normal operating level, the higher pressure exerted by the height of the water in the reference leg creates a differential pressure across the level detector. This differential pressure is inversely proportional to pressurizer level.

The accuracy of this measurement is highly dependent on the maintenance of full level in the reference leg (Figure IC3.14). The reference leg is kept full by condensation of steam from the top of the pressurizer. A 3/4" pipe taps into the top of the pressurizer and extends out to a tee. This tee is called a condensate pot. Unlike most of the RCS piping, the tee is not insulated and is exposed to the ambient conditions of the Reactor Building. As energy is lost to the surrounding air, the steam inside condenses ensuring a full reference leg off the bottom of the tee. Any excess condensate spills back into the pressurizer.

There are potential problems with this reference leg arrangement. Under major accident conditions where RCS pressure drops significantly and Reactor Building temperature rises (LOCA or Main Steam Line Break), the reference leg could flash to steam reducing the weight of the reference leg. This condition would cause pressurizer level to indicate erroneously high. These conditions could be further complicated if non-condensable gases have built up in the water, which fills the reference leg. During Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 34 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN Three pressurizer level transmitters are used for the control system. These are differential pressure detectors. They are calibrated for use at normal operating temperature (about 650°F) and are labeled LT-459, -460, and -461. A fourth detector (L T -462) is calibrated for low (80°F) temperature and is used for indication during cold shutdown, refueling, and heatup. Each channel is physically and electrically isolated.

See Figure IC3.5.

The operator must understand the significance of these calibration pOints during various operational conditions. Calibration at a given temperature leads to differences between actual and indicated level when temperature departs from the calibration value. At normal operating temperature, the three hot calibrated channels indicate true level, while the cold calibrated indicates low. This indication is due to the variation in density of the water in the pressurizer at different temperatures. The cold channel sees a lower level than actual because it is calibrated so that a certain differential pressure corresponds to a certain number of inches level. At 640°F, that certain height difference does exist, but because the water is less dense, the differential pressure is less than it would be for the same height of water at 80°F. Therefore, the cold channel indicates low. The opposite is true of the hot channels. At 80°F they indicate high, while the cold channel will be accurate. This is important to remember during cooldown as hot level indication is initially accurate and then slowly goes high compared to actual level as the cooldown progresses. The opposite is true during a plant heatup.

To arrive at a level signal, the detectors measure the pressure difference resulting from the height of the column of water in the pressurizer versus the height of the column of water in the reference leg (Figure IC3.14). This comparison is accomplished by attaching a connection from the variable leg to the low pressure side of the detector and a connection from the reference leg to the high pressure side. The reference leg connection is near the top of the pressurizer. If pressurizer level is at this connection, the differential pressure across the detector is zero. At normal operating level, the higher pressure exerted by the height of the water in the reference leg creates a differential pressure across the level detector. This differential pressure is inversely proportional to pressurizer level.

The accuracy of this measurement is highly dependent on the maintenance of full level in the reference leg (Figure IC3.14). The reference leg is kept full by condensation of steam from the top of the pressurizer. A 3/4" pipe taps into the top of the pressurizer and extends out to a tee. This tee is called a condensate pot. Unlike most of the RCS piping, the tee is not insulated and is exposed to the ambient conditions of the Reactor Building. As energy is lost to the surrounding air, the steam inside condenses ensuring a full reference leg off the bottom of the tee. Any excess condensate spills back into the pressurizer.

There are potential problems with this reference leg arrangement. Under major accident conditions where RCS pressure drops significantly and Reactor Building temperature rises (LOCA or Main Steam Line Break), the reference leg could flash to steam reducing the weight of the reference leg. This condition would cause pressurizer level to indicate erroneously high. These conditions could be further complicated if non-condensable gases have built up in the water, which fills the reference leg. During Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:23 AM 34

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN any significant depressurization, the gases will come out of solution and some liquid may be forced out of the reference leg. This loss of mass from the reference leg would cause pressurizer level to read higher than actual.

If the reference leg itself leaks or flashes, pressurizer level indication would be erroneously high. During normal operations this can be determined by comparison among the other level indications to find the faulty channel.

KIA - 011 K6.05:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the Pressurizer Level Control: Function of PZR level gauges as post accident monitors.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 2

R03.1 IC-3, p35, Rev 9, MD-3 p12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

Question History:

IC-3-3.1, 8.4 and 10.1, MD-3,1151 Farley Bank - PZR PRS/LVL-52201 H11 003 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the effect that changing conditions has on the way PZR level indicators function during accident conditions (SBLOCA).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 35 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN any significant depressurization, the gases will come out of solution and some liquid may be forced out of the reference leg. This loss of mass from the reference leg would cause pressurizer level to read higher than actual.

If the reference leg itself leaks or flashes, pressurizer level indication would be erroneously high. During normal operations this can be determined by comparison among the other level indications to find the faulty channel.

KIA - 011 K6.05:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the Pressurizer Level Control: Function of PZR level gauges as post accident monitors.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 2

R03.1 IC-3, p35, Rev 9, MD-3 p12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

Question History:

IC-3-3.1, 8.4 and 10.1, MD-3,1151 Farley Bank - PZR PRS/LVL-52201 H11 003 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the effect that changing conditions has on the way PZR level indicators function during accident conditions (SBLOCA).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 35

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

15. 012 K4.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

25% power Reactor Engineering is evaluating physics data prior to giving clearance to raise power.

LT-460, Pressurizer Level Channel, failed and has been removed from service and the associated bistables are tripped per AOP-401.6, Pressurizer Level Control and Protection Channel Failure.

According to Technical Specifications Table 3.3-1, Reactor Trip Instrumentation, the Pressurizer Water Level - High reactor trip is to be operable for these conditions.

The number of REMAINING channels necessary to initiate a PZR high water level trip wouldbe __ _

A. NOT required; ONE (1)

B~ required; ONE (1)

C. NOT required; TWO (2)

D. required; TWO (2)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 36 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

15. 012 K4.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

25% power Reactor Engineering is evaluating physics data prior to giving clearance to raise power.

LT-460, Pressurizer Level Channel, failed and has been removed from service and the associated bistables are tripped per AOP-401.6, Pressurizer Level Control and Protection Channel Failure.

According to Technical Specifications Table 3.3-1, Reactor Trip Instrumentation, the Pressurizer Water Level - High reactor trip is to be operable for these conditions.

The number of REMAINING channels necessary to initiate a PZR high water level trip wouldbe __ _

A. NOT required; ONE (1)

B~ required; ONE (1)

C. NOT required; TWO (2)

D. required; TWO (2)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 36

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the high level trip is not required to be OPERABLE <5%. Also plausible because the second part is correct.

Incorrect since the trips must be OPERABLE in MODE 1.

B.

CORRECT. TS Table 3.3-1 requires the trip function to be OPERABLE in in MODE 1.

Since plant is at 25% the high level trip function is required. Since AOP-401.6 requires the failed channel bistables to be tripped, only one of the two remaining channels (L T -460, 461) are required to initiate a trip.

C.

Plausible because the first part is correct because TS Table 3.3-1 does NOT require the trip function to be OPERABLE < 5%. Also plausible because the logic would be correct if the failed channel were bypassed per Action 6.b of T.S. Table 3.3-1, rather than tripped per the AOP.

The second part is incorrect in that the AOP-401.6 requires the failed channel bistables to be tripped; therefore, only one of the two remaining channels (L T -460, 461) are required to initiate a trip.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true - high level trip must be OPERABLE in MODE 1.

Also plausible because the logic would be correct if the failed channel were bypassed per Action 6.b of T.S. Table 3.3-1, rather than tripped per the AOP.

The second part is incorrect in that the AOP-401.6 requires the failed channel bistables to be tripped; therefore, only one of the two remaining channels (LT-460, 461) are required to initiate a trip.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 37 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the high level trip is not required to be OPERABLE <5%. Also plausible because the second part is correct.

Incorrect since the trips must be OPERABLE in MODE 1.

B.

CORRECT. TS Table 3.3-1 requires the trip function to be OPERABLE in in MODE 1.

Since plant is at 25% the high level trip function is required. Since AOP-401.6 requires the failed channel bistables to be tripped, only one of the two remaining channels (L T -460, 461) are required to initiate a trip.

C.

Plausible because the first part is correct because TS Table 3.3-1 does NOT require the trip function to be OPERABLE < 5%. Also plausible because the logic would be correct if the failed channel were bypassed per Action 6.b of T.S. Table 3.3-1, rather than tripped per the AOP.

The second part is incorrect in that the AOP-401.6 requires the failed channel bistables to be tripped; therefore, only one of the two remaining channels (L T -460, 461) are required to initiate a trip.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true - high level trip must be OPERABLE in MODE 1.

Also plausible because the logic would be correct if the failed channel were bypassed per Action 6.b of T.S. Table 3.3-1, rather than tripped per the AOP.

The second part is incorrect in that the AOP-401.6 requires the failed channel bistables to be tripped; therefore, only one of the two remaining channels (LT-460, 461) are required to initiate a trip.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 37

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 012 K4.01:

Knowledge of Reactor Protection design feature(s) and or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Trip logic when one channel OOS or in test.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.7 TS Table 3.3-1, Line Item 11 (Page 143 of 588)

TS Table 3.3-1, Action 6# (Pages 146 and 147 of 588)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-401.6-07 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(8), (10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by considering operability requirement and trip logic with a failed channel and one in test.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 38 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 012 K4.01:

Knowledge of Reactor Protection design feature(s) and or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Trip logic when one channel OOS or in test.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.7 TS Table 3.3-1, Line Item 11 (Page 143 of 588)

TS Table 3.3-1, Action 6# (Pages 146 and 147 of 588)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-401.6-07 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(8), (10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by considering operability requirement and trip logic with a failed channel and one in test.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 38

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

16. 012 K6.1O 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 3 The plant is being cooled down to Cold Shutdown per GOP-6, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown (Mode 3 to Mode 5).

The NROATC begins depressurizing the RCS to 900-950 psig.

At 1970 psig, the NROATC takes both PZR SI Train 'A', and Train 'B', Switches to BLOCK.

PT-457, PRESSURIZER PRESSURE TRANSMITTER, fails HIGH.

All remaining Pressurizer Pressure Transmitters read 1950 psig and slowly decreasing.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the result of this failure?

A. PZR PORV 445B block logic changes state.

B. The Pressurizer Pressure Safety Injection block is automatically reset.

C. PZR PORV 445B will automatically open.

0:' The Pressurizer Pressure Safety Injection block is unaffected.

A.

Plausible because CAUTION 3.4.d of GOP-6 warns the operator that P-11 blocks the auto-opening of the PORVs and the failure of PT-457 HIGH would cause 1 channel to reset.

Incorrect because it takes 2/3 channels above 1985 psig to reset the block of the auto open signal to the PORVs.

B.

Plausible because CAUTION 3.4.d of GOP-6 warns the operator that the 81 blocks reset above 1985 psig and the failure of PT-457 HIGH would cause 1 channel to reset.

Incorrect because it takes 2/3 channels above 1985 psig to reset the block of the PZR Pressure 81.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part would be true if 1 of the remaining channels were to rise above 1985 psig.

Incorrect because PZR PORVs open on a control signal, not a protection channel signal.

D.

CORRECT. 2 of 3 channels (PT-455, PT-456, & PT-457) below 1985 psig will allow manual blocking of the PZR Pressure 81. If PT-457 failed HIGH, the two remaining channels will still be below 1985 psig and the 81 block is unaffected. (see Figure IC9.21, 8heet 2 of 2)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 39 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

16. 012 K6.1O 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 3 The plant is being cooled down to Cold Shutdown per GOP-6, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown (Mode 3 to Mode 5).

The NROATC begins depressurizing the RCS to 900-950 psig.

At 1970 psig, the NROATC takes both PZR SI Train 'A', and Train 'B', Switches to BLOCK.

PT-457, PRESSURIZER PRESSURE TRANSMITTER, fails HIGH.

All remaining Pressurizer Pressure Transmitters read 1950 psig and slowly decreasing.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the result of this failure?

A. PZR PORV 445B block logic changes state.

B. The Pressurizer Pressure Safety Injection block is automatically reset.

C. PZR PORV 445B will automatically open.

0:' The Pressurizer Pressure Safety Injection block is unaffected.

A.

Plausible because CAUTION 3.4.d of GOP-6 warns the operator that P-11 blocks the auto-opening of the PORVs and the failure of PT-457 HIGH would cause 1 channel to reset.

Incorrect because it takes 2/3 channels above 1985 psig to reset the block of the auto open signal to the PORVs.

B.

Plausible because CAUTION 3.4.d of GOP-6 warns the operator that the 81 blocks reset above 1985 psig and the failure of PT-457 HIGH would cause 1 channel to reset.

Incorrect because it takes 2/3 channels above 1985 psig to reset the block of the PZR Pressure 81.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part would be true if 1 of the remaining channels were to rise above 1985 psig.

Incorrect because PZR PORVs open on a control signal, not a protection channel signal.

D.

CORRECT. 2 of 3 channels (PT-455, PT-456, & PT-457) below 1985 psig will allow manual blocking of the PZR Pressure 81. If PT-457 failed HIGH, the two remaining channels will still be below 1985 psig and the 81 block is unaffected. (see Figure IC9.21, 8heet 2 of 2)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 39

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 012 K6.10:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the Reactor Protection: Permissive circuits.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.3 GOP-6, CAUTION 3.4.d Figure IC9.21, Sheet 2 of 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

IC-3-22 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

Meets KJA in that the status of the P-11 Interlock must be determined on one of the input failures.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 40 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 012 K6.10:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the Reactor Protection: Permissive circuits.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.3 GOP-6, CAUTION 3.4.d Figure IC9.21, Sheet 2 of 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

IC-3-22 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

Meets KJA in that the status of the P-11 Interlock must be determined on one of the input failures.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 40

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

17. 013 K6.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power IPT-951, Reactor Building Pressure Channel II, has failed HIGH.

IPT-951 was properly removed from service per Technical Specifications.

Which ONE (1) of the following indicates the number of OPERABLE channels required to initiate a HIGH-1 and a HIGH-3 RB pressure actuation signal?

REFERENCE PROVIDED HIGH -1 HIGH-3 A.

1 1

B~

1 2

C.

2 1

D.

2 2

A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - the HI-1 channel would be tripped; therefore, only one remaining channel would be needed for HIGH-1 actuation. Also plausible since the second part would be correct if HI-3 were tripped, not bypassed. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped, to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure.

Incorrect since it would still require 2 of the 3 remaining channels to initiate a HIGH-3..

B.

CORRECT because the HI-1 channel would be tripped; therefore only one remaining channels would be needed for HIGH-1 actuation. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped (to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure); therefore, the HI-3 logic will be 2 of 3 remaining channels.

C.

Plausible because this is the normal coincidence for HI-1. Also plausible since the second part would be correct if HI-3 were tripped, not bypassed. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped, to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure.

Incorrect since it would still require 2 of the 3 remaining channels to initiate a HIGH-3..

D.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because this is the normal coincidence for HI-1 if no channels were already in the tripped condition.

Incorrect since HI-I logic changes to 1 of 2 remaining channels. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped (to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure);

therefore, the HI-3 logic will be 2 of 3 remaining channels.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 41 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

17. 013 K6.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power IPT-951, Reactor Building Pressure Channel II, has failed HIGH.

IPT-951 was properly removed from service per Technical Specifications.

Which ONE (1) of the following indicates the number of OPERABLE channels required to initiate a HIGH-1 and a HIGH-3 RB pressure actuation signal?

REFERENCE PROVIDED HIGH -1 HIGH-3 A.

1 1

B~

1 2

C.

2 1

D.

2 2

A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - the HI-1 channel would be tripped; therefore, only one remaining channel would be needed for HIGH-1 actuation. Also plausible since the second part would be correct if HI-3 were tripped, not bypassed. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped, to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure.

Incorrect since it would still require 2 of the 3 remaining channels to initiate a HIGH-3..

B.

CORRECT because the HI-1 channel would be tripped; therefore only one remaining channels would be needed for HIGH-1 actuation. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped (to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure); therefore, the HI-3 logic will be 2 of 3 remaining channels.

C.

Plausible because this is the normal coincidence for HI-1. Also plausible since the second part would be correct if HI-3 were tripped, not bypassed. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped, to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure.

Incorrect since it would still require 2 of the 3 remaining channels to initiate a HIGH-3..

D.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because this is the normal coincidence for HI-1 if no channels were already in the tripped condition.

Incorrect since HI-I logic changes to 1 of 2 remaining channels. HI-3 is bypassed, NOT tripped (to prevent an inadvertent RB Spray on a channel or power supply failure);

therefore, the HI-3 logic will be 2 of 3 remaining channels.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 41

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 013 K6.01:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the (Engineered Safety Features Actuation): Sensors and detectors.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.7

• IC-9, Figure IC9.23 (Pages 125 and 126 of 132)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

T.S.3.3.2 T.S. Table 3.3-3 (ppg 16,17,23,24)

Learning Objective:

IC-9-38 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KJA by requiring knowledge of automatic actuation of ESFAS with a failed input channel (RS Pressure).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 42 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 013 K6.01:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the (Engineered Safety Features Actuation): Sensors and detectors.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.7

• IC-9, Figure IC9.23 (Pages 125 and 126 of 132)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

T.S.3.3.2 T.S. Table 3.3-3 (ppg 16,17,23,24)

Learning Objective:

IC-9-38 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KJA by requiring knowledge of automatic actuation of ESFAS with a failed input channel (RS Pressure).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 42

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

18. 015 AK2.07 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power The NROATC notes the following conditions exist on RCP 'A':

1. 1 Seal Leakoff flow drops to 0.6 gpm.

RCP A STNDPIP LVL HIILO (XCP-617, 2-4) has NOT actuated.

The Lower Seal Water Bearing Temperature is 205°F and increasing at 3°F/minute.

The Seal Water Outlet Temperature is 200°F and increasing at 2°F/minute.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the malfunction that has occurred AND the required action?

A'I The #1 Seal is NOT operating properly; Trip the reactor and stop RCP 'A'.

B. The #1 Seal is NOT operating properly; Reduce power to less than P-8 using GOP-4C, Rapid Downpower, stop RCP 'A',

and perform a controlled shutdown of the plant.

C. The #2 Seal is NOT operating properly; Trip the reactor and stop RCP 'A'.

D. The #2 Seal is NOT operating properly; Reduce power to less than P-8 using GOP-4C, Rapid Downpower, stop RCP 'A',

and perform a controlled shutdown of the plant.

A.

CORRECT. According to AB-4 (p46, Rev 12), a low #1 Seal Leakoff flow can be caused by improper operation of the #1 seal (i.e. it is cocked; pinching off actual flow through the seal. As described in OE24699 [excerpted below], these indications are also consistent with a #1 becoming blocked due to debris), or the #2 seal. In the case of the #2 Seal, the Seal is NOT seated properly robbing flow from the #1 Seal Leakoff line. Also according to AB-4 (p40-41), insufficient flow through the #1 seal can result in insufficient cooling and lubrication of the lower RCP Radial Bearing causing an increase in bearing water temperature and Sealwater outlet temperature. If #1 seal is blocked/cocked, then it would force seal injection flow down past the thermal barrier, robbing cooling flow to the lower radial bearing and the seals (Note that seal injection flow enters the RCP below the lower radial bearing [see Figure AB4.14]). Since temperatures are increasing in the stated conditions, the cockinglblocking, or pinching off of flow, is indicated through the

1. 1 Seal. AOP-1 01.2, Reactor Coolant Pump Seal Failure, (Rev 0) has the operator check for abnormal temperatures early in the mitigation process of an RCP Seal Failure event. Step 4 of the AOP evaluates the bearing water temperature and sealwater outlet Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 43 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

18. 015 AK2.07 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power The NROATC notes the following conditions exist on RCP 'A':

1. 1 Seal Leakoff flow drops to 0.6 gpm.

RCP A STNDPIP LVL HIILO (XCP-617, 2-4) has NOT actuated.

The Lower Seal Water Bearing Temperature is 205°F and increasing at 3°F/minute.

The Seal Water Outlet Temperature is 200°F and increasing at 2°F/minute.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the malfunction that has occurred AND the required action?

A'I The #1 Seal is NOT operating properly; Trip the reactor and stop RCP 'A'.

B. The #1 Seal is NOT operating properly; Reduce power to less than P-8 using GOP-4C, Rapid Downpower, stop RCP 'A',

and perform a controlled shutdown of the plant.

C. The #2 Seal is NOT operating properly; Trip the reactor and stop RCP 'A'.

D. The #2 Seal is NOT operating properly; Reduce power to less than P-8 using GOP-4C, Rapid Downpower, stop RCP 'A',

and perform a controlled shutdown of the plant.

A.

CORRECT. According to AB-4 (p46, Rev 12), a low #1 Seal Leakoff flow can be caused by improper operation of the #1 seal (i.e. it is cocked; pinching off actual flow through the seal. As described in OE24699 [excerpted below], these indications are also consistent with a #1 becoming blocked due to debris), or the #2 seal. In the case of the #2 Seal, the Seal is NOT seated properly robbing flow from the #1 Seal Leakoff line. Also according to AB-4 (p40-41), insufficient flow through the #1 seal can result in insufficient cooling and lubrication of the lower RCP Radial Bearing causing an increase in bearing water temperature and Sealwater outlet temperature. If #1 seal is blocked/cocked, then it would force seal injection flow down past the thermal barrier, robbing cooling flow to the lower radial bearing and the seals (Note that seal injection flow enters the RCP below the lower radial bearing [see Figure AB4.14]). Since temperatures are increasing in the stated conditions, the cockinglblocking, or pinching off of flow, is indicated through the

1. 1 Seal. AOP-1 01.2, Reactor Coolant Pump Seal Failure, (Rev 0) has the operator check for abnormal temperatures early in the mitigation process of an RCP Seal Failure event. Step 4 of the AOP evaluates the bearing water temperature and sealwater outlet Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 43

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN temperature to ensure that they are less than required limits (225°F and 235°F respectively), AND not significantly increasing. In both situations, the limits are NOT exceeded; however, temperatures are increasing at at least 2°F/minute. Because of this, the operator will be directed to trip the Reactor and stop the affected pump (Steps 6-8).

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because Step 6 of AOP-1 01.2 allows use of GOP-4C to place the plant in HOT STANDBY and because the Alternative Action for Step 6 requires load at less than 38% (P-8).

Incorrect since given condition of 100% requires a Reactor Trip. If candidate considered trying to reduce power first, power would have to be reduced by 62% in less than 7 minutes because, at 3°F/min, the RCP trip criteria would of 225°F Lower Seal Water Bearing Temperature would be met in less than 7 minutes. This means that Reactor Power would have to be reduced by nearly 10%/min, which is prohibited by GOP-4C (see Reference Page criteria below)

C.

Plausible because, with an unseated #2 seal, low leakoff flow would be indicated from the #1 seal. Also plausible since #2 seal failure is listed as a Probable Cause for RCP A(B,C) #1 SL LKOFF FLO HI/LO alarms. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct for the given conditions.

Incorrect because the increase in water temperatures would not occur with an unseated

1. 2 Seal. Flow would be normal through the radial bearing, providing normal cooling to the bearing.

D.

Plausible because, with an unseated #2 seal, low leakoff flow would be indicated from the #1 seal. Also plausible since #2 seal failure is listed as a Probable Cause for RCP A(B,C) #1 SL LKOFF FLO HI/LO alarms. Also plausible because Step 6 of AOP-101.2 allows use of GOP-4C to place the plant in HOT STANDBY and because the Alternative Action for Step 6 requires load at less than 38% (P-8).

Incorrect because the increase in water temperatures would not occur with an unseated

1. 2 Seal. Flow would be normal through the radial bearing, providing normal cooling to the bearing. Incorrect since given condition of 100% requires a Reactor Trip. If candidate considered trying to reduce power first, power would have to be reduced by 62% in less than 7 minutes because, at 3°F/min, the RCP trip criteria would of 225°F Lower Seal Water Bearing Temperature would be met in less than 7 minutes. This means that Reactor Power would have to be reduced by nearly 10%/min, which is prohibited by GOP-4C (see Reference Page criteria below)

REACTOR TRIP CRITERIA DURING RAPID LOAD REDUCTION (GOP-4C)

A. If any of the following conditions occur, trip the Reactor and implement EOP-1.0:

1) RCS T avg is less than 551°F for greater than 15 minutes.

2) Tavg/Trefmismatch exceeds 10°F.

3) Pressurizer pressure approaches 1870 psig.

4) Power reduction at 5% per minute is not sufficient to mitigate the event.

This scenario is plausible based on OE26499, Decreasing No. 1 Seal Leakoff Flow on Reactor Coolant Pump Requires Unit Shutdown (North Anna Unit 2), as excerpted below.

North Anna Unit 2 was shut down mid-cycle for 8 days on 02/01/08 to repair the "A" RCP seal Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 44 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN temperature to ensure that they are less than required limits (225°F and 235°F respectively), AND not significantly increasing. In both situations, the limits are NOT exceeded; however, temperatures are increasing at at least 2°F/minute. Because of this, the operator will be directed to trip the Reactor and stop the affected pump (Steps 6-8).

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because Step 6 of AOP-1 01.2 allows use of GOP-4C to place the plant in HOT STANDBY and because the Alternative Action for Step 6 requires load at less than 38% (P-8).

Incorrect since given condition of 100% requires a Reactor Trip. If candidate considered trying to reduce power first, power would have to be reduced by 62% in less than 7 minutes because, at 3°F/min, the RCP trip criteria would of 225°F Lower Seal Water Bearing Temperature would be met in less than 7 minutes. This means that Reactor Power would have to be reduced by nearly 10%/min, which is prohibited by GOP-4C (see Reference Page criteria below)

C.

Plausible because, with an unseated #2 seal, low leakoff flow would be indicated from the #1 seal. Also plausible since #2 seal failure is listed as a Probable Cause for RCP A(B,C) #1 SL LKOFF FLO HI/LO alarms. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct for the given conditions.

Incorrect because the increase in water temperatures would not occur with an unseated

1. 2 Seal. Flow would be normal through the radial bearing, providing normal cooling to the bearing.

D.

Plausible because, with an unseated #2 seal, low leakoff flow would be indicated from the #1 seal. Also plausible since #2 seal failure is listed as a Probable Cause for RCP A(B,C) #1 SL LKOFF FLO HI/LO alarms. Also plausible because Step 6 of AOP-101.2 allows use of GOP-4C to place the plant in HOT STANDBY and because the Alternative Action for Step 6 requires load at less than 38% (P-8).

Incorrect because the increase in water temperatures would not occur with an unseated

1. 2 Seal. Flow would be normal through the radial bearing, providing normal cooling to the bearing. Incorrect since given condition of 100% requires a Reactor Trip. If candidate considered trying to reduce power first, power would have to be reduced by 62% in less than 7 minutes because, at 3°F/min, the RCP trip criteria would of 225°F Lower Seal Water Bearing Temperature would be met in less than 7 minutes. This means that Reactor Power would have to be reduced by nearly 10%/min, which is prohibited by GOP-4C (see Reference Page criteria below)

REACTOR TRIP CRITERIA DURING RAPID LOAD REDUCTION (GOP-4C)

A. If any of the following conditions occur, trip the Reactor and implement EOP-1.0:

1) RCS T avg is less than 551°F for greater than 15 minutes.

2) Tavg/Trefmismatch exceeds 10°F.

3) Pressurizer pressure approaches 1870 psig.

4) Power reduction at 5% per minute is not sufficient to mitigate the event.

This scenario is plausible based on OE26499, Decreasing No. 1 Seal Leakoff Flow on Reactor Coolant Pump Requires Unit Shutdown (North Anna Unit 2), as excerpted below.

North Anna Unit 2 was shut down mid-cycle for 8 days on 02/01/08 to repair the "A" RCP seal Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:23 AM 44

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN range. The Unit 2 'A' RCP #1 sealleakoff flow had slowly and consistently trended down during the current cycle that began in April 2007. The most notable change occurred following the recent return to seNice on 01/01 lOB from an outage. Following unit startup on 1/1/0B, the "A" RCP seal leakoff flow took a series of step changes down to approximately 0.B4 gpm and the unit was removed from seNice for repairs. The "A" RCP seals were disassembled and inspected. The #1 ring and runner faceplates were found coated with brick red colored deposits and a substantial amount of debris was found under the #1 faceplates. The debris was analyzed and found to consist primarily of iron oxide, predominately in the 1 to 5 micron size range.

Background:

In November 2005, prior to the March 2007 Unit 2 refueling outage, the in-service 0.1 micron filter seal injection filter failed during return to service, however, the failure went unnoticed for approximately 6 months because the filter had satisfactory differential pressure. The watchstanders were not aware that filter had not been changed during the outage and did not know that the filter should have had approximately a 12 pound differential pressure when returned to seNice, similar to pre-outage differential pressure. In May 2006, the standby filter (5.0 micron nominal) was placed in seNice until the 0.1 micron filter could be changed out and placed back in seNice. Unit 2 was successful in reaching the next planned refueling outage in March 2007, however RCP #1 seals were indicating slight anomalies in behavior up to the outage, including low sealleakoff flow conditions on the 'B' RCP. During the refueling outage, seals on all three Unit 2 RCPs were inspected and all seals in the "B" pump were replaced due to an accumulated 47,000 hrs of seNice and degrading seal performance. The "A" and "C" #1 seals were externally cleaned without disassembling the #1 runner or replacing internal high-temperature o-rings since they met inspection criteria and had no apparent degradation in seal performance. The seal injection lines for all 3 pumps were flushed using primary grade makeup water. The seal return lines were not flushed during the refueling outage.

The seal vendor practice, confirmed with discussions with seal vendor field service representatives at the time, is that #1 seal runner high-temperature o-rings are not to be replaced on site. O-ring replacement is only done at the seal vendor facilities, with seal testing performed after o-rings are changed. On the other hand, the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) field personnel routinely remove #1 seal faceplates for o-ring replacements. Based on discussions with OEM personnel, removal of #1 faceplates would typically be done if a large amount of debris is present in the seals (as seen in Spring 2007). Seal vendor personnel were on site during the Spring 2007 RFO, and there was no recommendation to remove the #1 seal faceplates or to replace the #1 seal.

Other seal performance related information discussed in the draft RCE:

Typically during system recovery and vacuum filling loops, the seal return line for each pump was un isolated by procedure when placing a vacuum on the loop to be filled. This practice can result in backwashing debris in the seal return header into the pump seals on the loop being filled. If another loop is full with seal injection and seal return in service, pressure in the seal leakoff return header can result in backflow to the RCP seals associated with the empty loop, which is in a vacuum. Other current practices associated with backfilling loops from the refueling cavity are also being evaluated.

CAUSES: The direct cause was accumulation of particle contamination in the #1 seal, including foreign material under the #1 seal faceplates. The source of the foreign material was the seal injection filter failure in 2005. Inadequate clean up following the introduction of this foreign material may have resulted in, or contributed to, the accumulation of the material found in the seals, and specifically the material found under the faceplates. Not disassembling the #1 Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 45 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN range. The Unit 2 'A' RCP #1 sealleakoff flow had slowly and consistently trended down during the current cycle that began in April 2007. The most notable change occurred following the recent return to seNice on 01/01 lOB from an outage. Following unit startup on 1/1/0B, the "A" RCP seal leakoff flow took a series of step changes down to approximately 0.B4 gpm and the unit was removed from seNice for repairs. The "A" RCP seals were disassembled and inspected. The #1 ring and runner faceplates were found coated with brick red colored deposits and a substantial amount of debris was found under the #1 faceplates. The debris was analyzed and found to consist primarily of iron oxide, predominately in the 1 to 5 micron size range.

Background:

In November 2005, prior to the March 2007 Unit 2 refueling outage, the in-service 0.1 micron filter seal injection filter failed during return to service, however, the failure went unnoticed for approximately 6 months because the filter had satisfactory differential pressure. The watchstanders were not aware that filter had not been changed during the outage and did not know that the filter should have had approximately a 12 pound differential pressure when returned to seNice, similar to pre-outage differential pressure. In May 2006, the standby filter (5.0 micron nominal) was placed in seNice until the 0.1 micron filter could be changed out and placed back in seNice. Unit 2 was successful in reaching the next planned refueling outage in March 2007, however RCP #1 seals were indicating slight anomalies in behavior up to the outage, including low sealleakoff flow conditions on the 'B' RCP. During the refueling outage, seals on all three Unit 2 RCPs were inspected and all seals in the "B" pump were replaced due to an accumulated 47,000 hrs of seNice and degrading seal performance. The "A" and "C" #1 seals were externally cleaned without disassembling the #1 runner or replacing internal high-temperature o-rings since they met inspection criteria and had no apparent degradation in seal performance. The seal injection lines for all 3 pumps were flushed using primary grade makeup water. The seal return lines were not flushed during the refueling outage.

The seal vendor practice, confirmed with discussions with seal vendor field service representatives at the time, is that #1 seal runner high-temperature o-rings are not to be replaced on site. O-ring replacement is only done at the seal vendor facilities, with seal testing performed after o-rings are changed. On the other hand, the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) field personnel routinely remove #1 seal faceplates for o-ring replacements. Based on discussions with OEM personnel, removal of #1 faceplates would typically be done if a large amount of debris is present in the seals (as seen in Spring 2007). Seal vendor personnel were on site during the Spring 2007 RFO, and there was no recommendation to remove the #1 seal faceplates or to replace the #1 seal.

Other seal performance related information discussed in the draft RCE:

Typically during system recovery and vacuum filling loops, the seal return line for each pump was un isolated by procedure when placing a vacuum on the loop to be filled. This practice can result in backwashing debris in the seal return header into the pump seals on the loop being filled. If another loop is full with seal injection and seal return in service, pressure in the seal leakoff return header can result in backflow to the RCP seals associated with the empty loop, which is in a vacuum. Other current practices associated with backfilling loops from the refueling cavity are also being evaluated.

CAUSES: The direct cause was accumulation of particle contamination in the #1 seal, including foreign material under the #1 seal faceplates. The source of the foreign material was the seal injection filter failure in 2005. Inadequate clean up following the introduction of this foreign material may have resulted in, or contributed to, the accumulation of the material found in the seals, and specifically the material found under the faceplates. Not disassembling the #1 Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 45

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN seal faceplates left the accumulated debris undiscovered. The filtration strategy following the unit start-up also exacerbated the low seal leakoff condition. Latent causes for chronic iron and oxygen effects on seal performance may not have manifested themselves for years had this acute filter failure not identified programmatic gaps.

KIA - 015 AK2.07:

(RCP Malfunctions) Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: RCP seals.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R02.9 AB-4, p40-41, 46, Rev 12 AOP-1 01.2, Rev 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-101.2-05 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 356 and RCP 72 and Open Reference questions AOPS 99, 158, &

159 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of how the operation of the RCP Seals affect the continued operation of the RCP, and the implications of this (Le. trip).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 46 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN seal faceplates left the accumulated debris undiscovered. The filtration strategy following the unit start-up also exacerbated the low seal leakoff condition. Latent causes for chronic iron and oxygen effects on seal performance may not have manifested themselves for years had this acute filter failure not identified programmatic gaps.

KIA - 015 AK2.07:

(RCP Malfunctions) Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: RCP seals.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R02.9 AB-4, p40-41, 46, Rev 12 AOP-1 01.2, Rev 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-101.2-05 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 356 and RCP 72 and Open Reference questions AOPS 99, 158, &

159 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of how the operation of the RCP Seals affect the continued operation of the RCP, and the implications of this (Le. trip).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 46

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

19. 016 KS.OI 001 Given the following plant conditions:

60% power An electrical fault occurs in the non safety-related circuit of the Turbine 1 st Stage Pressure PT-446.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies a set of signals that are potentially affected by this fault?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. High Steamline Flow coincident with Lo-Lo Tavg actuation; AND P-13 actuation.

B. High Steamline Flow coincident with Lo-Lo Tavg actuation; AND Steam Dump actuation.

C. AMSAC actuation; AND P-13 actuation.

D~ AMSAC actuation; AND Steam Dump actuation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 47 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

19. 016 KS.OI 001 Given the following plant conditions:

60% power An electrical fault occurs in the non safety-related circuit of the Turbine 1 st Stage Pressure PT-446.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies a set of signals that are potentially affected by this fault?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. High Steamline Flow coincident with Lo-Lo Tavg actuation; AND P-13 actuation.

B. High Steamline Flow coincident with Lo-Lo Tavg actuation; AND Steam Dump actuation.

C. AMSAC actuation; AND P-13 actuation.

D~ AMSAC actuation; AND Steam Dump actuation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 47

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because PT-446 does provide an input to High Steam Flow Coincident with LO-LO Tavg MS line isolation Signal and also provides 1 of 2 inputs to P-13. Incorrect because these are protection and permissives circuits which are electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT -446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore could not be affected by an electrical fault in this circuit. (Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

B.

Plausible because PT-446 does provide an input to High Steam Flow Coincident with LO-LO Tavg MS line isolation signal. Also plausible because PT-446 does provide a control signal input to Steam Dump Control Circuits. Incorrect because the 1 st part is wrong in that the input to High Steam Flow Coincident with LO-LO Tavg MS line isolation signal is electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT -446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore could not be affected by an electrical fault in this circuit.(Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

C.

Plausible because PT-446 does provide 1 of 2 inputs to both the AMSAC Acutation circuitry and the P-13 Permissive. Incorrect because the 2nd part is wrong in that the input to the P-13 Permissive is electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT -446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore could not be affected by an electrical fault in this circuit.(Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

D.

Correct: PT-446 does provide an input to both the AMSAC Acutation circuitry and the Steam Dump Control Circuits. However these are not electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT-446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore an electrical fault in this circuit could result in adverse effects on AMSAC actuation Circuitry and Steam Dump Control Circuits.(Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 48 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because PT-446 does provide an input to High Steam Flow Coincident with LO-LO Tavg MS line isolation Signal and also provides 1 of 2 inputs to P-13. Incorrect because these are protection and permissives circuits which are electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT -446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore could not be affected by an electrical fault in this circuit. (Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

B.

Plausible because PT-446 does provide an input to High Steam Flow Coincident with LO-LO Tavg MS line isolation signal. Also plausible because PT-446 does provide a control signal input to Steam Dump Control Circuits. Incorrect because the 1 st part is wrong in that the input to High Steam Flow Coincident with LO-LO Tavg MS line isolation signal is electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT -446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore could not be affected by an electrical fault in this circuit.(Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

C.

Plausible because PT-446 does provide 1 of 2 inputs to both the AMSAC Acutation circuitry and the P-13 Permissive. Incorrect because the 2nd part is wrong in that the input to the P-13 Permissive is electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT -446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore could not be affected by an electrical fault in this circuit.(Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

D.

Correct: PT-446 does provide an input to both the AMSAC Acutation circuitry and the Steam Dump Control Circuits. However these are not electrically isolated from the control signal provided by PT-446 to the Rod Control Reactor Control Unit, and therefore an electrical fault in this circuit could result in adverse effects on AMSAC actuation Circuitry and Steam Dump Control Circuits.(Ref IC15 pg 9; IC-9 ppg 26 and 57-60; Figure IC9.27; P Impulse Loop Drawings IPT00446-RC-0001 (2)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 48

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 016 K5.01:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Non-nuclear Instrumentation: Separation of control and protection circuits.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

Figure IC9.27 2

2 R02.7 IC-9, p26, 57-60, Rev 13 IC-15, p9, 40, Rev 8 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Figure IC9.27 Learning Objective:

IC-9-03, 05.2 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the operational implications of separation of control and protection circuits in the Non-Nuclear Instrumentation such as Turbine 1 st Stage Pressure instrumentation.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 49 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 016 K5.01:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Non-nuclear Instrumentation: Separation of control and protection circuits.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

Figure IC9.27 2

2 R02.7 IC-9, p26, 57-60, Rev 13 IC-15, p9, 40, Rev 8 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Figure IC9.27 Learning Objective:

IC-9-03, 05.2 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the operational implications of separation of control and protection circuits in the Non-Nuclear Instrumentation such as Turbine 1 st Stage Pressure instrumentation.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 49

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 20.022 A4.05 003 Which ONE (1) of the following describes the limitation on Containment Air Temperature in Technical Specification 3.6.1.5, Containment Air Temperature?

A. The HIGHEST temperature reading cannot exceed 120°F.

B. The HIGHEST temperature reading cannot exceed 135°F.

C~ The AVERAGE temperature reading cannot exceed 120°F.

D. The AVERAGE temperature reading cannot exceed 135°F.

A.

1 st part plausible because this is the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref T.S. 3.6.1.5).

2nd part plausible because there are nine temperature elements that are utilized for determining the average containment temperature. (Ref OAP -106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13). It would be conservative to use a peak/highest temperature.

Incorrect because this is not the method for determining the containment temperature defined in OAP-1 06.1 attachment III ppg 10-13. Surveillance requirement 4.6.1.5 states: The primary containment average air temperature shall be the arithmetical average of the temperature at or above the following locations. 1) Elevation 412' - 3 locations. 2) Elevation 436' - 3 locations. 3)

Elevation 463' - 3 locations. This does not, however, completely describe the method of averaging these temperatures as detailed in OAP-1 06.1 B.

1 st part plausible because this is the High Temperature Alarm for the discharge of the Reactor Building Cooling Units. (Ref XCP-606 1-3). Also plausible because 135°F is the alarm setpoint for every HI TEMP alarm in the RB on the HVAC panel (see XCP-6210-LCB1).2nd part plausible because there are nine temperature elements that are utilized for determining the average containment temperature. (Ref OAP -106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13). It would be conservative to use a peak/highest temperature.

Incorrect 1 st part because this is not the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref T.S. 3.6.1.5). Also incorrect 2nd part because this is not the method for determining the arithmetical average for the T.S. reading of average containment temperature defined in OAP-1 06.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13.

Surveillance requirement 4.6.1.5 states: The primary containment average air temperature shall bee the arithmetical average of the temperature at or above the following locations. 1) Elevation 412' - 3 locations. 2) Elevation 436' - 3 locations. 3) Elevation 463' - 3 locations. This does not, however, completely describe the method of averaging these temperatures as detailed in OAP-1 06.1 C.

CORRECT: This is the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref.

T.S. 3.6.1.5), and this represents the correct method for determining the T.S.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 50 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 20.022 A4.05 003 Which ONE (1) of the following describes the limitation on Containment Air Temperature in Technical Specification 3.6.1.5, Containment Air Temperature?

A. The HIGHEST temperature reading cannot exceed 120°F.

B. The HIGHEST temperature reading cannot exceed 135°F.

C~ The AVERAGE temperature reading cannot exceed 120°F.

D. The AVERAGE temperature reading cannot exceed 135°F.

A.

1 st part plausible because this is the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref T.S. 3.6.1.5).

2nd part plausible because there are nine temperature elements that are utilized for determining the average containment temperature. (Ref OAP -106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13). It would be conservative to use a peak/highest temperature.

Incorrect because this is not the method for determining the containment temperature defined in OAP-1 06.1 attachment III ppg 10-13. Surveillance requirement 4.6.1.5 states: The primary containment average air temperature shall be the arithmetical average of the temperature at or above the following locations. 1) Elevation 412' - 3 locations. 2) Elevation 436' - 3 locations. 3)

Elevation 463' - 3 locations. This does not, however, completely describe the method of averaging these temperatures as detailed in OAP-1 06.1 B.

1 st part plausible because this is the High Temperature Alarm for the discharge of the Reactor Building Cooling Units. (Ref XCP-606 1-3). Also plausible because 135°F is the alarm setpoint for every HI TEMP alarm in the RB on the HVAC panel (see XCP-6210-LCB1).2nd part plausible because there are nine temperature elements that are utilized for determining the average containment temperature. (Ref OAP -106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13). It would be conservative to use a peak/highest temperature.

Incorrect 1 st part because this is not the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref T.S. 3.6.1.5). Also incorrect 2nd part because this is not the method for determining the arithmetical average for the T.S. reading of average containment temperature defined in OAP-1 06.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13.

Surveillance requirement 4.6.1.5 states: The primary containment average air temperature shall bee the arithmetical average of the temperature at or above the following locations. 1) Elevation 412' - 3 locations. 2) Elevation 436' - 3 locations. 3) Elevation 463' - 3 locations. This does not, however, completely describe the method of averaging these temperatures as detailed in OAP-1 06.1 C.

CORRECT: This is the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref.

T.S. 3.6.1.5), and this represents the correct method for determining the T.S.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 50

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN average containment temperature reading. (Ref. OAP-106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13).

D.

1 st part plausible because this is the High Temperature Alarm for the discharge of the Reactor Building Cooling Units. (Ref XCP-606 1-3). Also plausible because 135°F is the alarm setpoint for every HI TEMP alarm in the RB on the HVAC panel (see XCP-6210-LCB1).

2nd part plausible because it is correct and represents the correct method for determining the T.S. average containment temperature reading. (Ref.

OAP-106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13).

Incorrect 1 st part because this is not the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref T.S. 3.6.1.5).

KIA - 022 A4.05:

(Containment Cooling System) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Containment readings of temperature, pressure, and humidity system.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

R03.8 Technical

References:

OAP-1 06.1, Attachment III, Pages 10-13 of 21 T.S. 3.6.1.5 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-13-17, 18, & 19 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions TECH SPEC 93 & 94 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must monitor RB temperature (via the Control Building Operator T.S. logs)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 51 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN average containment temperature reading. (Ref. OAP-106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13).

D.

1 st part plausible because this is the High Temperature Alarm for the discharge of the Reactor Building Cooling Units. (Ref XCP-606 1-3). Also plausible because 135°F is the alarm setpoint for every HI TEMP alarm in the RB on the HVAC panel (see XCP-6210-LCB1).

2nd part plausible because it is correct and represents the correct method for determining the T.S. average containment temperature reading. (Ref.

OAP-106.1 Attachment III ppg 10-13).

Incorrect 1 st part because this is not the correct T.S. temperature limit for containment. (Ref T.S. 3.6.1.5).

KIA - 022 A4.05:

(Containment Cooling System) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Containment readings of temperature, pressure, and humidity system.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

R03.8 Technical

References:

OAP-1 06.1, Attachment III, Pages 10-13 of 21 T.S. 3.6.1.5 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-13-17, 18, & 19 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions TECH SPEC 93 & 94 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must monitor RB temperature (via the Control Building Operator T.S. logs)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 51

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 21.022 AA2.02 002 Given the following sequence of events:

100% power The following annunciators actuate:

VCT LVL HI/LO VCT LCV-115A TO HU-TK LVL HI LI-112A, VCT LEVEL %, reads 0%

LI-115, VCT LEVEL %, reads 100%

PZR level starts to decrease.

The NROATC notes the following conditions:

Charging flow decreases to 0 gpm.

Charging Pump amps are at minimum and fluctuating.

Charging Pump discharge pressure is 15 psig and fluctuating.

The ABAO reports charging pump suction pressure at 15 psig.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes what happened to the Charging Pump (Charging Pump lineup)?

A~ Gas binding of the pump has occurred.

B. LCV-115A did not divert flow to the RHT.

I C. The suction to the pump has swapped to the RWST.

~ne phase of electrical power to the pump motor was lost due to overheating.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 52 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 21.022 AA2.02 002 Given the following sequence of events:

100% power The following annunciators actuate:

VCT LVL HI/LO VCT LCV-115A TO HU-TK LVL HI LI-112A, VCT LEVEL %, reads 0%

LI-115, VCT LEVEL %, reads 100%

PZR level starts to decrease.

The NROATC notes the following conditions:

Charging flow decreases to 0 gpm.

Charging Pump amps are at minimum and fluctuating.

Charging Pump discharge pressure is 15 psig and fluctuating.

The ABAO reports charging pump suction pressure at 15 psig.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes what happened to the Charging Pump (Charging Pump lineup)?

A~ Gas binding of the pump has occurred.

B. LCV-115A did not divert flow to the RHT.

I C. The suction to the pump has swapped to the RWST.

~ne phase of electrical power to the pump motor was lost due to overheating.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 52

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. According to AB3 (p28-31, Rev 13), if VCT level transmitter LT-115 fails high, a complete diversion of letdown flow occurs since this transmitter provides a backup signal to Letdown Divert Valve LCV-115A to divert to the Recycle Holdup Tank on high level in the VCT (80%). This channel also controls the start and stop signal for auto makeup which is lost now that level is failed high. In this situation, the VCT is no longer receiving letdown flow, but the Charging Pump is still removing water causing VCT level to decrease. When VCT level drops to 5%, RWST supply valves to the Charging Pump should open, and the VCT outlet valves should close, however, this automatic protection function requires signals from both the VCT level transmitters (LT-112 and L T-115), and L T-115 is failed high. With no operator action, the Charging Pump will drain the VCT and become gas bound, losing NPSH.

B.

Plausible because if LCV-115A failed to divert, LI-115 could read 100%.

Incorrect because all indications support that LCV-115A has actually diverted based on the failure of L T-115.

C.

Plausible because LI-112 at 0% makes up 1/2 of the coincidence needed to swap suction to the RWST.

Incorrect since only one of two channels has reached the low-low setpoint (5%) for swapover.

D.

Plausible because, if one phase were to lose voltage, the indications would be similar to those described here for the Charging Pump, except that amps/flow would be low, although not at minimum/zero. Incorrect because LI-115 would not be at 100%, but would be cycling between 70-80% as LCV-115A modulates.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 53 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. According to AB3 (p28-31, Rev 13), if VCT level transmitter LT-115 fails high, a complete diversion of letdown flow occurs since this transmitter provides a backup signal to Letdown Divert Valve LCV-115A to divert to the Recycle Holdup Tank on high level in the VCT (80%). This channel also controls the start and stop signal for auto makeup which is lost now that level is failed high. In this situation, the VCT is no longer receiving letdown flow, but the Charging Pump is still removing water causing VCT level to decrease. When VCT level drops to 5%, RWST supply valves to the Charging Pump should open, and the VCT outlet valves should close, however, this automatic protection function requires signals from both the VCT level transmitters (LT-112 and L T-115), and L T-115 is failed high. With no operator action, the Charging Pump will drain the VCT and become gas bound, losing NPSH.

B.

Plausible because if LCV-115A failed to divert, LI-115 could read 100%.

Incorrect because all indications support that LCV-115A has actually diverted based on the failure of L T-115.

C.

Plausible because LI-112 at 0% makes up 1/2 of the coincidence needed to swap suction to the RWST.

Incorrect since only one of two channels has reached the low-low setpoint (5%) for swapover.

D.

Plausible because, if one phase were to lose voltage, the indications would be similar to those described here for the Charging Pump, except that amps/flow would be low, although not at minimum/zero. Incorrect because LI-115 would not be at 100%, but would be cycling between 70-80% as LCV-115A modulates.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 53

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 022 AA2.02:

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: Charging pump problems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.2 AS-3, p28-31, Rev 12 AOP-102.2, Rev 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AS-3-24 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to determine and interpret indications of Charging Pump problems that result in a loss of Charging.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 54 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 022 AA2.02:

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: Charging pump problems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.2 AS-3, p28-31, Rev 12 AOP-102.2, Rev 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AS-3-24 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to determine and interpret indications of Charging Pump problems that result in a loss of Charging.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 54

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

22. 022 Kl.02 003

-::---~-::--

On an Safety Injection, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the status lights on XCP-61 03, SAFETY INJECTION, and XCP-61 04, SAFETY INJECTION PHASE A ISOL, for the Train 'B' RBCUs when the ESFLS sequence is complete?

A.

B~

C.

D.

(XCP-S103)

SW TO RB IN B ISOL 310SB CLSD DIM DIM BRIGHT BRIGHT (XCP-S104)

RB OUTB ISOL 3111B CLSD DIM BRIGHT DIM BRIGHT A.

Plausible because 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because 2nd part would be correct if power were lost to bus 1 DB or if Output 2 of the ESFLS failed to actuate.

Incorrect because lights on XCP-6104 should be bright for given conditions.

B.

CORRECT. On an SI, 3111 B, industrial cooling outlet, should close and 3106B, SWBP discharge valve, should open. So, the "closed light" for 3111 B should be lit because it is closed and the "closed light" for 3106B should be dim because it is open.

C.

Plausible because plausible because both would be correct if power were lost to bus 1 DB or if Output 2 of the ESFLS failed to actuate. Also plausible because 1 st part would be correct if the SWBP failed to start.

Incorrect because lights on XCP-6104 should be bright and lights on 6103 should be dim for given conditions.

D.

Plausible because 2nd part is correct.

Incorrect because lights on XCP-6103 should be dim for given conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 55 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

22. 022 Kl.02 003

.-=--=--~~

On an Safety Injection, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the status lights on XCP-61 03, SAFETY INJECTION, and XCP-61 04, SAFETY INJECTION PHASE A ISOL, for the Train 'B' RBCUs when the ESFLS sequence is complete?

A.

B~

C.

D.

(XCP-S103)

SW TO RB IN B ISOL 310SB CLSD DIM DIM BRIGHT BRIGHT (XCP-S104)

RB OUTB ISOL 3111B CLSD DIM BRIGHT DIM BRIGHT A.

Plausible because 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because 2nd part would be correct if power were lost to bus 1 DB or if Output 2 of the ESFLS failed to actuate.

Incorrect because lights on XCP-6104 should be bright for given conditions.

B.

CORRECT. On an SI, 3111 B, industrial cooling outlet, should close and 3106B, SWBP discharge valve, should open. So, the "closed light" for 3111 B should be lit because it is closed and the "closed light" for 3106B should be dim because it is open.

C.

Plausible because plausible because both would be correct if power were lost to bus 1 DB or if Output 2 of the ESFLS failed to actuate. Also plausible because 1 st part would be correct if the SWBP failed to start.

Incorrect because lights on XCP-6104 should be bright and lights on 6103 should be dim for given conditions.

D.

Plausible because 2nd part is correct.

Incorrect because lights on XCP-6103 should be dim for given conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 55

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 022 K1.02:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Containment Cooling and the following: SEC/remote monitoring systems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.7

• GS-2, Figure GS-2.6

• AB-19, pp 7&8 of 28

• IB-1, pp24-26 of 46 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IB-1-13 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by testing status of remote monitoring lights with respect to cooling water for the Reactor Building Cooling Unit.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 56 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 022 K1.02:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Containment Cooling and the following: SEC/remote monitoring systems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.7

• GS-2, Figure GS-2.6

• AB-19, pp 7&8 of 28

• IB-1, pp24-26 of 46 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IB-1-13 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b) (7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by testing status of remote monitoring lights with respect to cooling water for the Reactor Building Cooling Unit.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 56

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN 23.024 AK2.01 001

~~~~~~~~~~~~~---~~~~~~~~~~~~--~~-,

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the actions, per AOP-106.1, Emergency Baratian, that must be taken to align the Charging Pump suction to the next PREFERRED boration source if the Boric Acid Filter will not pass flow?

A. Open BOTH Boric Acid Tank to Charging Pump Suction Header Isolation Valves (XVD-8329 and XVD-8331);

Isolate Makeup Water to the Blender B~ Open BOTH Boric Acid Tank to Charging Pump Suction Header Isolation Valves (XVD-8329 and XVD-8331);

Isolate the VCT C. Open BOTH RWST to Charging Pump Suction Valves (LCV-115B and LCV-115D);

Isolate Makeup Water to the Blender D. Open BOTH RWST to Charging Pump Suction Valves (LCV-115B and LCV-115D);

Isolate the VCT A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. 2nd part is plausible because Step 3.c. of AOP-106.1 requires this action.

Incorrect since AOP-1 06.1, Step 4.c., Action/Expected Response, is worded as follows:

"3) Close LCV-115C(E), VCT OUTLET ISOL" - the VCT is isolated when gravity draining, not the blender.

B.

CORRECT. According to AOP-1 06.01 (Step 4, Rev 1), boration from the gravity drain line of the Boric Acid Tank is preferred over boration from the RWST (Cold Leg Injection), which is the Step 4 Alternative Action. Step 4.c., Action/Expected Response, is worded as follows: "3) Close LCV-115C(E), VCT OUTLET ISOL."

C.

1 st part is plausible because this is one of the boration methods in AOP-1 06.1. 2nd part is plausible because Step 3.c. of AOP-106.1 requires this action.

Incorrect because Emergency Boration from the BAT is preferred over the RWST (Cold Leg Injection). Also incorrect since AOP-106.1, Step 4.c., Action/Expected Response, is worded as follows: "3) Close LCV-115C(E), VCT OUTLET ISOL" - the VCT is isolated when gravity draining, not the blender.

D.

1 st part is plausible because this is one of the boration methods in AOP-1 06.1. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

Incorrect because Emergency Boration from the BAT is preferred over the RWST (Cold Leg Injection).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 57 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN 23.024 AK2.01 001 Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the actions, per AOP-106.1, Emergency Baratian, that must be taken to align the Charging Pump suction to the next PREFERRED boration source if the Boric Acid Filter will not pass flow?

A. Open BOTH Boric Acid Tank to Charging Pump Suction Header Isolation Valves (XVD-8329 and XVD-8331);

Isolate Makeup Water to the Blender B~ Open BOTH Boric Acid Tank to Charging Pump Suction Header Isolation Valves (XVD-8329 and XVD-8331);

Isolate the VCT C. Open BOTH RWST to Charging Pump Suction Valves (LCV-115B and LCV-115D);

Isolate Makeup Water to the Blender D. Open BOTH RWST to Charging Pump Suction Valves (LCV-115B and LCV-115D);

Isolate the VCT A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. 2nd part is plausible because Step 3.c. of AOP-106.1 requires this action.

Incorrect since AOP-1 06.1, Step 4.c., Action/Expected Response, is worded as follows:

"3) Close LCV-115C(E), VCT OUTLET ISOL" - the VCT is isolated when gravity draining, not the blender.

B.

CORRECT. According to AOP-1 06.01 (Step 4, Rev 1), boration from the gravity drain line of the Boric Acid Tank is preferred over boration from the RWST (Cold Leg Injection), which is the Step 4 Alternative Action. Step 4.c., Action/Expected Response, is worded as follows: "3) Close LCV-115C(E), VCT OUTLET ISOL."

C.

1 st part is plausible because this is one of the boration methods in AOP-1 06.1. 2nd part is plausible because Step 3.c. of AOP-106.1 requires this action.

Incorrect because Emergency Boration from the BAT is preferred over the RWST (Cold Leg Injection). Also incorrect since AOP-106.1, Step 4.c., Action/Expected Response, is worded as follows: "3) Close LCV-115C(E), VCT OUTLET ISOL" - the VCT is isolated when gravity draining, not the blender.

D.

1 st part is plausible because this is one of the boration methods in AOP-1 06.1. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

Incorrect because Emergency Boration from the BAT is preferred over the RWST (Cold Leg Injection).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 57

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 024 AK2.01:

(Emergency Soration) Knowledge of interrelationships between Emergency Soration and the following: Valves.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

AOP-1 06.1, Rev 1 1

2 R02.7 AS-5, p21-22, 32-33, Rev 12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AS-5 2.9,3.5,3.7,6.8 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the interrelations between Emergency Soration procedure and the valves used to perform Emergency Soration (valve positions and order of preference).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 58 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 024 AK2.01:

(Emergency Soration) Knowledge of interrelationships between Emergency Soration and the following: Valves.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

AOP-1 06.1, Rev 1 1

2 R02.7 AS-5, p21-22, 32-33, Rev 12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AS-5 2.9,3.5,3.7,6.8 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the interrelations between Emergency Soration procedure and the valves used to perform Emergency Soration (valve positions and order of preference).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 58

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 24.025 AKl.OI 001 Which ONE (1) of the following places the plant in the action statement with the SHORTEST time in accordance with its associated Technical Specification?

A. The unit is in Mode 1 at 100% power. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips during a surveillance test.

B. The unit is in Mode 4 with RCP 'A' and both RHR loops in operation. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips.

C. The unit is in Mode 5 with the RCS loops filled. S/G Narrow Range levels are:

'A' - 27%; 'B' - 14%; 'c' -26%. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips. RHR Pump 'B' is started.

D't' The unit is in Mode 6 with water level maintained at 4 feet above the reactor vessel flange. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips. RHR Pump 'B' is started.

A.

Plausible because the RHR pumps are required to be OPERABLE in Mode 1.

Incorrect since this is a 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> action.

B.

Plausible because, lAW T.S. 3.4.1.3, a combination of RHR loops and RC loops must be OPERABLE and or in operation.

Incorrect because, even with the RHR Pump 'A' trip, the minimum conditions of any combination of two loops is still met.

C.

Plausible because lAW LCO 3.4.1.4.1 (applicable in Mode 5 with the RCS Loops filled),

at least one RHR loops (Loop A or Loop B), be OPERABLE and in operation; AND that either the one additional loop be OPERABLE, or the Secondary side water level of at least two steam generators shall be greater than 25% of Narrow Range indication (per TSR 1032).

Incorrect because, even if RHR Pump 'A' is NOT OPERABLE, at least two steam generators are greater than 10% of Wide Range indication and RHR loop 'B' is OPERABLE and in operation - the LCO is met.

D.

CORRECT. LCO 3.9.7.2 is applicable in Mode 6 when water level above the top of the reactor pressure vessel flange is less than 23 feet. It requires that two independent RHR loops (Both Loop A and Loop B), be OPERABLE, and at least one in operation. If the A RHR Train Pump is NOT OPERABLE, then the LCO is NOT satisfied, and the ACTION is required. Action a states that immediate corrective action must be taken to return the A RHR Pump to OPERABLE status, OR to establish> 23 feet of water above the reactor pressure vessel flange, as soon as possible.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 59 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 24.025 AKl.OI 001 Which ONE (1) of the following places the plant in the action statement with the SHORTEST time in accordance with its associated Technical Specification?

A. The unit is in Mode 1 at 100% power. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips during a surveillance test.

B. The unit is in Mode 4 with RCP 'A' and both RHR loops in operation. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips.

C. The unit is in Mode 5 with the RCS loops filled. S/G Narrow Range levels are:

'A' - 27%; 'B' - 14%; 'c' -26%. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips. RHR Pump 'B' is started.

D't' The unit is in Mode 6 with water level maintained at 4 feet above the reactor vessel flange. RHR Pump 'A' breaker trips. RHR Pump 'B' is started.

A.

Plausible because the RHR pumps are required to be OPERABLE in Mode 1.

Incorrect since this is a 72 hour8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> action.

B.

Plausible because, lAW T.S. 3.4.1.3, a combination of RHR loops and RC loops must be OPERABLE and or in operation.

Incorrect because, even with the RHR Pump 'A' trip, the minimum conditions of any combination of two loops is still met.

C.

Plausible because lAW LCO 3.4.1.4.1 (applicable in Mode 5 with the RCS Loops filled),

at least one RHR loops (Loop A or Loop B), be OPERABLE and in operation; AND that either the one additional loop be OPERABLE, or the Secondary side water level of at least two steam generators shall be greater than 25% of Narrow Range indication (per TSR 1032).

Incorrect because, even if RHR Pump 'A' is NOT OPERABLE, at least two steam generators are greater than 10% of Wide Range indication and RHR loop 'B' is OPERABLE and in operation - the LCO is met.

D.

CORRECT. LCO 3.9.7.2 is applicable in Mode 6 when water level above the top of the reactor pressure vessel flange is less than 23 feet. It requires that two independent RHR loops (Both Loop A and Loop B), be OPERABLE, and at least one in operation. If the A RHR Train Pump is NOT OPERABLE, then the LCO is NOT satisfied, and the ACTION is required. Action a states that immediate corrective action must be taken to return the A RHR Pump to OPERABLE status, OR to establish> 23 feet of water above the reactor pressure vessel flange, as soon as possible.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 59

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC _RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 025 AK1.01:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Loss of RHR System and the following: Loss of RHRS during all modes of operation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

TS LeO 3.5.2 TS Leo 3.4.1.3 TS Leo 3.4.1.4.1 TS Leo 3.9.7.2 TSR 1032 1

1 R03.9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-7-17 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the operational implications (LeOs) of a loss of RHRS (Train A Pump inoperable) during all Modes of operation (The operator must consider the event for a Mode 3, 4, 5 and 6 scenario; and since the Mode 3 TS is the same as the Modes 1 and 2 Tech Spec, the operator is considering all modes of operation).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 60 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC _RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 025 AK1.01:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Loss of RHR System and the following: Loss of RHRS during all modes of operation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

TS LeO 3.5.2 TS Leo 3.4.1.3 TS Leo 3.4.1.4.1 TS Leo 3.9.7.2 TSR 1032 1

1 R03.9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-7-17 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the operational implications (LeOs) of a loss of RHRS (Train A Pump inoperable) during all Modes of operation (The operator must consider the event for a Mode 3, 4, 5 and 6 scenario; and since the Mode 3 TS is the same as the Modes 1 and 2 Tech Spec, the operator is considering all modes of operation).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 60

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 25.026 A4.05 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Due to a LOCA, RB pressure peaked at 18 psig and is now 2.5 psig.

During the implementation of the EOPs, the crew completed actions in EOP-14.0, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling.

The crew is now performing actions in EOP-1.2, Safety Injection Termination.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The RB spray pumps must be run for a MINIMUM of hours, and BOTH

____ push buttons must be depressed to secure the RB spray pumps and place in standby.

A. 8; RESET TRAIN A(B) RB SPRAY RESET B~ 2; RESET TRAIN A(B) RB SPRAY RESET C.8; PHASE B-TRAIN A(B) CNTMT ISOL 0.2; PHASE B - TRAIN A(B) CNTMT ISOL Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 61 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 25.026 A4.05 002 Given the following plant conditions:

Due to a LOCA, RB pressure peaked at 18 psig and is now 2.5 psig.

During the implementation of the EOPs, the crew completed actions in EOP-14.0, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling.

The crew is now performing actions in EOP-1.2, Safety Injection Termination.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The RB spray pumps must be run for a MINIMUM of hours, and BOTH

____ push buttons must be depressed to secure the RB spray pumps and place in standby.

A. 8; RESET TRAIN A(B) RB SPRAY RESET B~ 2; RESET TRAIN A(B) RB SPRAY RESET C.8; PHASE B-TRAIN A(B) CNTMT ISOL 0.2; PHASE B - TRAIN A(B) CNTMT ISOL Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 61

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. See EOP-2.0, NOTE - Step 11.d. Also plausible because 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> is another time frame addressed in EOP-2.0 (see NOTE -

Step 27). It is the time, within which, hot leg recirc must be established after event initiation.

Incorrect since the pumps only have to be run for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

B.

CORRECT. lAW EOP-2.0, NOTE - Step 11.d, pumps must be run for a minimum of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> prior to placing them in standby. Step 11.c requires both RESET TRAIN A(B} RB SPRAY pushbuttons to be depressed.

C.

Plausible because 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> is another time frame addressed in EOP-2.0 (see NOTE -

Step 27). It is the time, within which, hot leg recirc must be established after event initiation. Also plausible because these push buttons are associated with a Containment Spray Actuation Signal.

Incorrect since the pumps only have to be run for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because these pushbuttons are associated with a Containment Spray Actuation Signal.

Incorrect because depressing the PHASE B - TRAIN A(B) CNTMT ISOL push buttons will not allow the spray pumps to be secured.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 62 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. See EOP-2.0, NOTE - Step 11.d. Also plausible because 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> is another time frame addressed in EOP-2.0 (see NOTE -

Step 27). It is the time, within which, hot leg recirc must be established after event initiation.

Incorrect since the pumps only have to be run for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

B.

CORRECT. lAW EOP-2.0, NOTE - Step 11.d, pumps must be run for a minimum of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> prior to placing them in standby. Step 11.c requires both RESET TRAIN A(B} RB SPRAY pushbuttons to be depressed.

C.

Plausible because 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> is another time frame addressed in EOP-2.0 (see NOTE -

Step 27). It is the time, within which, hot leg recirc must be established after event initiation. Also plausible because these push buttons are associated with a Containment Spray Actuation Signal.

Incorrect since the pumps only have to be run for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because these pushbuttons are associated with a Containment Spray Actuation Signal.

Incorrect because depressing the PHASE B - TRAIN A(B) CNTMT ISOL push buttons will not allow the spray pumps to be secured.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 62

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 026 A4.05:

(Containment Spray) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Containment Spray reset switches Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.5 EOP-2.0 Step 11.c (Page 7 of 15), NOTE - Step 11.d, and NOTE - Step 27 AS-8, Page 24 of 35 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AS-8-12 Question History:

MODIFIED from LORTClosedRefQuestions bank CO NT SPRAY SYSTEM 045. This question was used on the 2004 NRC exam (RO-03-01).

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Matches KIA in that it tests the ability to reset RS Spray with the proper pushbuttons and allowing for the required time frame.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 63 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 026 A4.05:

(Containment Spray) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Containment Spray reset switches Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R03.5 EOP-2.0 Step 11.c (Page 7 of 15), NOTE - Step 11.d, and NOTE - Step 27 AS-8, Page 24 of 35 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AS-8-12 Question History:

MODIFIED from LORTClosedRefQuestions bank CO NT SPRAY SYSTEM 045. This question was used on the 2004 NRC exam (RO-03-01).

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Matches KIA in that it tests the ability to reset RS Spray with the proper pushbuttons and allowing for the required time frame.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 63

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

26. 026 G2.1.20 002 Given the following plant conditions; 75% power A TOTAL loss of Component Cooling Water occurs.

Local temperature monitoring is in progress on Charging Pump 'A' with all temperatures within allowable limits.

In accordance with AOP-118.1, Total Loss of Component Cooling Water, which ONE (1) of the following describes the preferred action that must be taken in regard to subsequent operation of Charging Pump 'A'?

A. Trip Charging Pump 'A' if CCW is not restored within 10 minutes.

B. Trip Charging Pump 'A' if CCW is not restored within 20 minutes.

C. Establish alternate cooling using the Demin Water System.

D~ Establish alternate cooling using the Chilled Water System.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 64 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

26. 026 G2.1.20 002 Given the following plant conditions; 75% power A TOTAL loss of Component Cooling Water occurs.

Local temperature monitoring is in progress on Charging Pump 'A' with all temperatures within allowable limits.

In accordance with AOP-118.1, Total Loss of Component Cooling Water, which ONE (1) of the following describes the preferred action that must be taken in regard to subsequent operation of Charging Pump 'A'?

A. Trip Charging Pump 'A' if CCW is not restored within 10 minutes.

B. Trip Charging Pump 'A' if CCW is not restored within 20 minutes.

C. Establish alternate cooling using the Demin Water System.

D~ Establish alternate cooling using the Chilled Water System.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 64

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because 10 minutes is the amount of time Reps can be run without CCW.

Incorrect because as long as local monitoring is in place, and the limits in Att. 1 are not exceeded, the pump does not have to be tripped. Also incorrect since, according to AOP-118.1 (Rev 2), CAUTION (& CAUTION - Step 3) 1, a charging pump can continue to run on a loss of CCW to its oil coolers for 20 minutes following the event initiation, or as long as local temperature monitoring is established and no limits identified on Page 4 of 4, on Attachment 1 are exceeded. The same Caution appears prior to Step 3.

B.

Plausible because 20 minutes is the limit for running charging pumps with no CCW flow and NO local monitoring, as described in AOP-118.1, CAUTION - Step 3.

Incorrect because as long as local monitoring is in place, and the limits in Att. 1 are not exceeded, the pump does not have to be tripped..

C.

Plausible because this is the second preferred method of alternate cooling allowed in AOP-118.1, Step 4, Alternative Action.

Incorrect because, according to Alternative Action Step 4c, Demin Water is used ONLY if Chilled Water is NOT available.

D.

CORRECT. According to AOP-118.1 (Rev 2), CAUTION (& CAUTION - Step 3) 1, a charging pump can continue to run on a loss of CCW to its oil coolers for 20 minutes following the event initiation, or as long as local temperature monitoring is established and no limits identified on Page 4 of 4, on Attachment 1 are exceeded. The same Caution appears prior to Step 3. The limits established by Attachment 1 are 145°F for the Gearbox Lube Oil Temperature, 150°F for the Oil Cooler Outlet Temperature, and 180°F for the Thrust Bearing Temperature. None of these limits are presently exceeded and the earliest time that a limit is expected to be exceeded is 15 minutes (Oil Cooler Outlet Temperature at 150°F). With this in mind the crew will arrive at Step 3 of AOP-118.1 and move to the Alternative Action, initiate monitoring of Charging Pump temperatures, verify that Charging Pump 'A' can continue to run without CCW and proceed to Step 4. At Step 4 they will also implement the Alternative Action when it is determined that CCW cannot be restored. This will require the operator to place Charging Pumps 'B' and 'c' in PTL, isolate letdown, and initiate alternate cooling. All actions that are required by the procedure up to the initiation of alternate cooling have been completed as identified in the conditions of the question. The question is: "does alternate cooling need to be established, and if so, hoW?" While it is true that the plant will be off-line within 10 minutes at the GOP-4C unloading rate of 5%/minute, before the Charging Pump limits are exceeded, this has no bearing on whether or not alternate cooling should be established because the Charging Pump will be needed to continue running even after the plant is shutdown in order to supply RCP Sealwater. With this in mind, Alternative Cooling must be established for Charging Pump 'A'. The Step 4c Alternative Action identifies a hierarchy of systems to be used to provide this alternate cooling. The preferred method to use is the Chilled Water System. If this system is NOT available, then the Demin Water System should be used. If this system is NOT available, then the Fire Water System should be used.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 65 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because 10 minutes is the amount of time Reps can be run without CCW.

Incorrect because as long as local monitoring is in place, and the limits in Att. 1 are not exceeded, the pump does not have to be tripped. Also incorrect since, according to AOP-118.1 (Rev 2), CAUTION (& CAUTION - Step 3) 1, a charging pump can continue to run on a loss of CCW to its oil coolers for 20 minutes following the event initiation, or as long as local temperature monitoring is established and no limits identified on Page 4 of 4, on Attachment 1 are exceeded. The same Caution appears prior to Step 3.

B.

Plausible because 20 minutes is the limit for running charging pumps with no CCW flow and NO local monitoring, as described in AOP-118.1, CAUTION - Step 3.

Incorrect because as long as local monitoring is in place, and the limits in Att. 1 are not exceeded, the pump does not have to be tripped..

C.

Plausible because this is the second preferred method of alternate cooling allowed in AOP-118.1, Step 4, Alternative Action.

Incorrect because, according to Alternative Action Step 4c, Demin Water is used ONLY if Chilled Water is NOT available.

D.

CORRECT. According to AOP-118.1 (Rev 2), CAUTION (& CAUTION - Step 3) 1, a charging pump can continue to run on a loss of CCW to its oil coolers for 20 minutes following the event initiation, or as long as local temperature monitoring is established and no limits identified on Page 4 of 4, on Attachment 1 are exceeded. The same Caution appears prior to Step 3. The limits established by Attachment 1 are 145°F for the Gearbox Lube Oil Temperature, 150°F for the Oil Cooler Outlet Temperature, and 180°F for the Thrust Bearing Temperature. None of these limits are presently exceeded and the earliest time that a limit is expected to be exceeded is 15 minutes (Oil Cooler Outlet Temperature at 150°F). With this in mind the crew will arrive at Step 3 of AOP-118.1 and move to the Alternative Action, initiate monitoring of Charging Pump temperatures, verify that Charging Pump 'A' can continue to run without CCW and proceed to Step 4. At Step 4 they will also implement the Alternative Action when it is determined that CCW cannot be restored. This will require the operator to place Charging Pumps 'B' and 'c' in PTL, isolate letdown, and initiate alternate cooling. All actions that are required by the procedure up to the initiation of alternate cooling have been completed as identified in the conditions of the question. The question is: "does alternate cooling need to be established, and if so, hoW?" While it is true that the plant will be off-line within 10 minutes at the GOP-4C unloading rate of 5%/minute, before the Charging Pump limits are exceeded, this has no bearing on whether or not alternate cooling should be established because the Charging Pump will be needed to continue running even after the plant is shutdown in order to supply RCP Sealwater. With this in mind, Alternative Cooling must be established for Charging Pump 'A'. The Step 4c Alternative Action identifies a hierarchy of systems to be used to provide this alternate cooling. The preferred method to use is the Chilled Water System. If this system is NOT available, then the Demin Water System should be used. If this system is NOT available, then the Fire Water System should be used.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 65

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 026 G2.1.20:

Loss of Component Cooling Water: ability to execute procedure steps.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 1

R04.6 AOP-118.1, Rev 2, steps 3 & 4, and Attachment 1.

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-118.1-03 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 19,155, & 321 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know major actions contained within the loss of CCW procedure (Le. Charging Pump can continue to run without CCW until limits are exceeded and then Alternate Cooling must be established), and demonstrate the ability to choose an alternate cooling method from three options.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 66 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 026 G2.1.20:

Loss of Component Cooling Water: ability to execute procedure steps.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 1

R04.6 AOP-118.1, Rev 2, steps 3 & 4, and Attachment 1.

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-118.1-03 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 19,155, & 321 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know major actions contained within the loss of CCW procedure (Le. Charging Pump can continue to run without CCW until limits are exceeded and then Alternate Cooling must be established), and demonstrate the ability to choose an alternate cooling method from three options.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 66

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

27. 027 AK2.03 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power PZR pressure control is in AUTO at 2235 psig.

Group 1 Backup Heaters are ON.

Group 2 Backup Heaters are OFF.

PT-444, PZR Pressure Transmitter, starts to slowly drift HIGH.

The operator places the Master Pressure Controller in MANUAL when PT -444 reads 2275 psig, but does NOT adjust the output of the controller.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

When placed in MANUAL, the output on the Master Pressure Controller is than its original output, AND the PZR Spray Valves will be approximately open.

A. HIGHER; 80%

B:' HIGHER; 30%

C. the SAME as; 80%

O. the SAME as; 30%

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 67 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

27. 027 AK2.03 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power PZR pressure control is in AUTO at 2235 psig.

Group 1 Backup Heaters are ON.

Group 2 Backup Heaters are OFF.

PT-444, PZR Pressure Transmitter, starts to slowly drift HIGH.

The operator places the Master Pressure Controller in MANUAL when PT -444 reads 2275 psig, but does NOT adjust the output of the controller.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

When placed in MANUAL, the output on the Master Pressure Controller is than its original output, AND the PZR Spray Valves will be approximately open.

A. HIGHER; 80%

B:' HIGHER; 30%

C. the SAME as; 80%

O. the SAME as; 30%

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 67

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because 1 st part is correct. Incorrect because the 2nd part is wrong - This would be the position of the valve if the operator did not apply 25 psi bias, or it did not exist [100%/50 psi error x (40psi) = 80%].

B.

CORRECT. According to IC-3 (p21, Rev 9), whether the Master Controller is in AUTO or MANUAL, both signals track each other, in order to ensure a bumpless transfer between controller operating modes. Because of this, when the operator places the Master Controller in MANUAL, the output will be retained from that point forward.

According to IC-3 (p20-21), the Master Pressure Controller receives an input from PT-444 and compares actual PZR pressure to an established reference pressure of 2235 psig. The Proportional w/lntegral Controller develops an output signal that is used to control the variable output PZR Heaters, the two spray valves and one of three PZR PORVs. According to IC-3 (p22), the two spray valves are controlled with individual proportional controllers whose output increases as the output of the Master Pressure Controller increases. In other words, as pressure rises above its reference setpoint, the output of the Master Pressure Controller rises, causing the two Spray Valve Controller outputs to also rise. However, the Spray Valve Controllers are biased so they do NOT start to increase their output until a 25 psig error exists. Furthermore, the Spray Valves start to open as its controller rises above 0% output (+25 psi error) and are fully open when its controller rises to 100% output (+75 psi error). As PT-444 fails high with the Master Pressure Controller in AUTO, a positive error occurs causing the Master Pressure Controller Output to Increase. As this output increases, the variable input heaters go to minimum power, and when the error increases to 25 psi, the Spray Valve Controller outputs start to increase, opening the spray valves. When the operator takes the Master Pressure Controller to MANUAL, and 2275 psig, the Manual setpoint has tracked along with the Auto setpoint and generates a bumpless transfer. If no adjustments in the output are made (as stated in the conditions), the Master Pressure Controller Output will control PZR pressure as if the PZR pressure were 2275 psig.

With PZR pressure this high, the spray valves will open consistent with the existing error (40 psi). Since the PZR spray valves start to open at an error of 25 psi, and are fully open at a 75 psi error, and the Spray Valve Controller output varies proportionally, the spray valves should be open about 30% [100%/50 psi error x (40psi - 25 psi) = 30%].

C.

Plausible because this would be true if the controller's auto & manual signal did not track each other. Incorrect because the controller tracks the auto and manual signals allows for a bumpless transfer. 2nd part is also wrong. Plausible because this has been one method in which PZR heaters have been operated in the past. The spray valves have been open a small amount because one group of BU heaters are energized.

D.

Plausible because this would be true if the controller's auto & manual signal did not track each other. Incorrect because the controller tracks the auto and manual signals -

allows for a bumpless transfer. 2nd part is also wrong.

Plausible because this would be true in the absence of the bumpless transfer - the Master Controller Setpoint goes back to original and the spray valves were originally closed.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 68 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because 1 st part is correct. Incorrect because the 2nd part is wrong - This would be the position of the valve if the operator did not apply 25 psi bias, or it did not exist [100%/50 psi error x (40psi) = 80%].

B.

CORRECT. According to IC-3 (p21, Rev 9), whether the Master Controller is in AUTO or MANUAL, both signals track each other, in order to ensure a bumpless transfer between controller operating modes. Because of this, when the operator places the Master Controller in MANUAL, the output will be retained from that point forward.

According to IC-3 (p20-21), the Master Pressure Controller receives an input from PT-444 and compares actual PZR pressure to an established reference pressure of 2235 psig. The Proportional w/lntegral Controller develops an output signal that is used to control the variable output PZR Heaters, the two spray valves and one of three PZR PORVs. According to IC-3 (p22), the two spray valves are controlled with individual proportional controllers whose output increases as the output of the Master Pressure Controller increases. In other words, as pressure rises above its reference setpoint, the output of the Master Pressure Controller rises, causing the two Spray Valve Controller outputs to also rise. However, the Spray Valve Controllers are biased so they do NOT start to increase their output until a 25 psig error exists. Furthermore, the Spray Valves start to open as its controller rises above 0% output (+25 psi error) and are fully open when its controller rises to 100% output (+75 psi error). As PT-444 fails high with the Master Pressure Controller in AUTO, a positive error occurs causing the Master Pressure Controller Output to Increase. As this output increases, the variable input heaters go to minimum power, and when the error increases to 25 psi, the Spray Valve Controller outputs start to increase, opening the spray valves. When the operator takes the Master Pressure Controller to MANUAL, and 2275 psig, the Manual setpoint has tracked along with the Auto setpoint and generates a bumpless transfer. If no adjustments in the output are made (as stated in the conditions), the Master Pressure Controller Output will control PZR pressure as if the PZR pressure were 2275 psig.

With PZR pressure this high, the spray valves will open consistent with the existing error (40 psi). Since the PZR spray valves start to open at an error of 25 psi, and are fully open at a 75 psi error, and the Spray Valve Controller output varies proportionally, the spray valves should be open about 30% [100%/50 psi error x (40psi - 25 psi) = 30%].

C.

Plausible because this would be true if the controller's auto & manual signal did not track each other. Incorrect because the controller tracks the auto and manual signals allows for a bumpless transfer. 2nd part is also wrong. Plausible because this has been one method in which PZR heaters have been operated in the past. The spray valves have been open a small amount because one group of BU heaters are energized.

D.

Plausible because this would be true if the controller's auto & manual signal did not track each other. Incorrect because the controller tracks the auto and manual signals -

allows for a bumpless transfer. 2nd part is also wrong.

Plausible because this would be true in the absence of the bumpless transfer - the Master Controller Setpoint goes back to original and the spray valves were originally closed.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 68

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 027 AK2.03:

(Pressurizer Pressure Control System Malfunction) Knowledge of the interrelationships between Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions and the following: Controllers and positioners.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 1

R02.6 IC-3, p12, 19-22, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-401.6-7 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of interrelations between the failure of a controlling channel of Pressurizer Pressure and the output of the Master Pressure Controller, and Spray Valve positioners.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 69 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 027 AK2.03:

(Pressurizer Pressure Control System Malfunction) Knowledge of the interrelationships between Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions and the following: Controllers and positioners.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 1

R02.6 IC-3, p12, 19-22, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-401.6-7 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of interrelations between the failure of a controlling channel of Pressurizer Pressure and the output of the Master Pressure Controller, and Spray Valve positioners.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 69

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 28.02702.4.31001 Given the following plant conditions:

Annunciator RB SPR NAOH STOR TK LVL HI/LO (XCP-608, 1-1) alarms on the MCB.

LI-7356, NAOH TK LEVEL %, indicates 97%.

The ABAO reports that the NaOH gauge glass reads approximately 450' 11".

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the TOTAL volume in the tank per Curve Book Figure VI-27 AND the status of the Spray Additive System per Technical Specification 3.6.2.2 Spray Additive System?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 3085 gallons; OPERABLE.

B. 3085 gallons; INOPERABLE.

C~ 3165 gallons; OPERABLE.

D. 3165 gallons; INOPERABLE.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 70 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 28.02702.4.31001 Given the following plant conditions:

Annunciator RB SPR NAOH STOR TK LVL HI/LO (XCP-608, 1-1) alarms on the MCB.

LI-7356, NAOH TK LEVEL %, indicates 97%.

The ABAO reports that the NaOH gauge glass reads approximately 450' 11".

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the TOTAL volume in the tank per Curve Book Figure VI-27 AND the status of the Spray Additive System per Technical Specification 3.6.2.2 Spray Additive System?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 3085 gallons; OPERABLE.

B. 3085 gallons; INOPERABLE.

C~ 3165 gallons; OPERABLE.

D. 3165 gallons; INOPERABLE.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 70

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this is the correct tank volume if the unusable portion below the pump suction centerline is not considered. Incorrect because the unusable portion is considered in the T.S. minimum value. Also plausible 2nd part is correct; however not for the given value of 3085.45 gals.

B.

Plausible because this is the correct tank volume if the unusable portion below the pump suction centerline is not considered. Incorrect because the unusable portion is considered in the T.S. minimum value. 2nd part is plausible because it would be correct for the given value of 3085.45 gals. 2nd part is incorrect because actual volume considered in T.S. includes the unusable volume below the pump suction centerline.

C.

CORRECT. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.6.2.2, the NaOH Tank must have between 3140 and 3230 gallons to be OPERABLE. To obtain the actual volume of the tank the operator must use Figure VI-27 from the VCS Curve Book. A NOTE on Figure VI-27 indicates that the figure only includes volume above the pump suction centerline, and that the Technical Specification includes the total volume of the tank.

The figure identifies that the volume below the pump suction centerline is 79.61 gallons.

With the level at 97%, the operator must use the figure to arrive at the precise tank total volume. The curve demonstrates that the level, which reads in percent, changes linearly with volume (not including the volume below the pump suction centerline). A table to the right of the curve shows precise level measurements at 5% intervals. A check of this tables shows that the change in volume throughout the curve is 31.81 gallons/% level indication. At 97% the volume above the pump suction centerline can be determined by adding the volume at 95% (3021.83 by the table) and the volume associated with 2% more or 63.62 gallons. With this in mind the volume of the tank that is above the pump suction centerline is 3085.45. To obtain the total tank volume, which is what the Technical Specification uses, 79.61 gallons must be added to this volume.

When this is accomplished the total tank volume is found to be 3165.06 gallons, which satisfies the criteria of LCO 3.6.2.2.

D.

Plausible because this is the correct volume. Incorrect since the given volume meets the minimum LCO value.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 71 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this is the correct tank volume if the unusable portion below the pump suction centerline is not considered. Incorrect because the unusable portion is considered in the T.S. minimum value. Also plausible 2nd part is correct; however not for the given value of 3085.45 gals.

B.

Plausible because this is the correct tank volume if the unusable portion below the pump suction centerline is not considered. Incorrect because the unusable portion is considered in the T.S. minimum value. 2nd part is plausible because it would be correct for the given value of 3085.45 gals. 2nd part is incorrect because actual volume considered in T.S. includes the unusable volume below the pump suction centerline.

C.

CORRECT. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.6.2.2, the NaOH Tank must have between 3140 and 3230 gallons to be OPERABLE. To obtain the actual volume of the tank the operator must use Figure VI-27 from the VCS Curve Book. A NOTE on Figure VI-27 indicates that the figure only includes volume above the pump suction centerline, and that the Technical Specification includes the total volume of the tank.

The figure identifies that the volume below the pump suction centerline is 79.61 gallons.

With the level at 97%, the operator must use the figure to arrive at the precise tank total volume. The curve demonstrates that the level, which reads in percent, changes linearly with volume (not including the volume below the pump suction centerline). A table to the right of the curve shows precise level measurements at 5% intervals. A check of this tables shows that the change in volume throughout the curve is 31.81 gallons/% level indication. At 97% the volume above the pump suction centerline can be determined by adding the volume at 95% (3021.83 by the table) and the volume associated with 2% more or 63.62 gallons. With this in mind the volume of the tank that is above the pump suction centerline is 3085.45. To obtain the total tank volume, which is what the Technical Specification uses, 79.61 gallons must be added to this volume.

When this is accomplished the total tank volume is found to be 3165.06 gallons, which satisfies the criteria of LCO 3.6.2.2.

D.

Plausible because this is the correct volume. Incorrect since the given volume meets the minimum LCO value.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 71

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 027 G2.4.31 :

(Containment Iodine Removal) Knowledge of annunciators alarms, indications or response procedures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

TS 3.6.2.2 2

2 R04.2 VC Summer Station Curve Book, Figure VI-27 ARP-001, Rev 8; XCP-609, ANN 1-1 AB-8, p14-16, Rev 11 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

VC Summer Station Curve Book, Figure VI-27 Learning Objective:

AB-8-09, 22.3 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the annunciator alarms, indications and response procedures (i.e. Technical Specifications), associated with the Spray Additive System, which is used to remove gaseous iodine in a post-accident environment.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 72 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 027 G2.4.31 :

(Containment Iodine Removal) Knowledge of annunciators alarms, indications or response procedures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

TS 3.6.2.2 2

2 R04.2 VC Summer Station Curve Book, Figure VI-27 ARP-001, Rev 8; XCP-609, ANN 1-1 AB-8, p14-16, Rev 11 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

VC Summer Station Curve Book, Figure VI-27 Learning Objective:

AB-8-09, 22.3 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the annunciator alarms, indications and response procedures (i.e. Technical Specifications), associated with the Spray Additive System, which is used to remove gaseous iodine in a post-accident environment.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 72

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 29.029 EKl.02 003 Which ONE (1) of the following is the LOWEST Intermediate Range Startup Rate that will generate an ORANGE Path transition TO EOP-13.0, Response to Abnormal Nuclear Power Generation.

No CSF Red Path conditions exist.

A'! + 0.2 DPM B.

O.ODPM C. - 0.2DPM D. - 0.33DPM A.

CORRECT. According to EOP-12.0, Attachment I, an Orange Path to EOP-13.0 exists when PR is <5.0% and IR SUR is not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

B.

Plausible because EOP-12.0, Rev 12, Attachment 1 uses not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

SUR to determine that the Subcriticality Critical Safety Function is a Orange Path and a Yellow Path.

Incorrect since the Orange Path is based on IR SUR not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

C.

Plausible because EOP-12.0, Rev 12, Attachment 1 uses not. -0.2 DPM SUR to detrmine if the CSF is Satisfied or a Yellow Path.

Incorrect since the Orange Path is based on IR SUR not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

D.

Plausible because, on a Reactor Trip, this is the normal SUR observed.

Incorrect since the Orange Path is based on IR SUR not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 73 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 29.029 EKl.02 003 Which ONE (1) of the following is the LOWEST Intermediate Range Startup Rate that will generate an ORANGE Path transition TO EOP-13.0, Response to Abnormal Nuclear Power Generation.

No CSF Red Path conditions exist.

A'! + 0.2 DPM B.

O.ODPM C. - 0.2DPM D. - 0.33DPM A.

CORRECT. According to EOP-12.0, Attachment I, an Orange Path to EOP-13.0 exists when PR is <5.0% and IR SUR is not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

B.

Plausible because EOP-12.0, Rev 12, Attachment 1 uses not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

SUR to determine that the Subcriticality Critical Safety Function is a Orange Path and a Yellow Path.

Incorrect since the Orange Path is based on IR SUR not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

C.

Plausible because EOP-12.0, Rev 12, Attachment 1 uses not. -0.2 DPM SUR to detrmine if the CSF is Satisfied or a Yellow Path.

Incorrect since the Orange Path is based on IR SUR not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

D.

Plausible because, on a Reactor Trip, this is the normal SUR observed.

Incorrect since the Orange Path is based on IR SUR not ZERO or NEGATIVE.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 73

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 029 EK1.02:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between A TWS and the following: Definition of reactivity.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-13.0, Rev 16 EOP-12.0, Rev 12 1

1 R02.6 WOG FR-S.1 Background Document (HFRS1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30/05, p86 and 103) le-8, p57, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-13-2042 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

Comments:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the operational implications (Le. SUR will be negative and that any negative magnitude is sufficient) of the reactor following an A TWS in which sufficient negative reactivity has been added to bring the reactor safely to subcriticality.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 74 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 029 EK1.02:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between A TWS and the following: Definition of reactivity.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-13.0, Rev 16 EOP-12.0, Rev 12 1

1 R02.6 WOG FR-S.1 Background Document (HFRS1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30/05, p86 and 103) le-8, p57, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-13-2042 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

Comments:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the operational implications (Le. SUR will be negative and that any negative magnitude is sufficient) of the reactor following an A TWS in which sufficient negative reactivity has been added to bring the reactor safely to subcriticality.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 74

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 30.029 K3.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 5 Reactor Building Integrity is established.

A Reactor Building Purge (36") is in progress with BOTH trains of RB Purge in service.

ONE (1) RB Purge exhaust fan trips.

Annunciator CONTAIN. DP HI (XCP-6210-LCB2, 4-9) actuates.

RB pressure is 1.1 psig.

The 36" Purge has been secured and the crew is monitoring for leakage.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the impact these conditions have on Reactor Building pressure limits, and the NEXT action required to restore RB pressure to the normal band?

A. RB pressure is above the upper limit for normal operations.

Shift the cooling water supply to the RBCUs to Service Water per SOP-117.

B)I' RB pressure is above the upper limit for normal operations.

Start the alternate purge exhaust fan per SOP-114.

C. RB pressure is below the lower limit for for normal operations.

Start the alternate purge exhaust fan per SOP-114.

D. RB pressure is below the lower limit for for normal operations.

Shift the cooling water supply to the RBCUs to Service Water per SOP-117.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 75 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 30.029 K3.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 5 Reactor Building Integrity is established.

A Reactor Building Purge (36") is in progress with BOTH trains of RB Purge in service.

ONE (1) RB Purge exhaust fan trips.

Annunciator CONTAIN. DP HI (XCP-6210-LCB2, 4-9) actuates.

RB pressure is 1.1 psig.

The 36" Purge has been secured and the crew is monitoring for leakage.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the impact these conditions have on Reactor Building pressure limits, and the NEXT action required to restore RB pressure to the normal band?

A. RB pressure is above the upper limit for normal operations.

Shift the cooling water supply to the RBCUs to Service Water per SOP-117.

B)I' RB pressure is above the upper limit for normal operations.

Start the alternate purge exhaust fan per SOP-114.

C. RB pressure is below the lower limit for for normal operations.

Start the alternate purge exhaust fan per SOP-114.

D. RB pressure is below the lower limit for for normal operations.

Shift the cooling water supply to the RBCUs to Service Water per SOP-117.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 75

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN SUBSITUTE KA FOR 028 K3.01 DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS:

A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Also plausible because the 2nd part would be true if the operator were not able to restore RB pressure to within normal limits per SOP-114 (as directed by the ARP (XCP-6210-LCB2, 4-9).

Incorrect since the required action is to restore pressure to within limits per SOP-114, not immediately start an RBCU.

B.

CORRECT. The alarm actuates at 1.0 psid and the the normal upper limit is 1.0 psig.

Supplemental Action 1 of LCB-6210-LCB2, 4-9, requires the operator to reduce RB pressure to within limits per SOP-114.

C.

Plausible because a similar alarm occurs for low pressure. Also plausible because the 1 st part could be true if a supply fan, versus an exhaust fan, tripped.

Incorrect since the alarm comes in at 1.0 psid, increasing, and the lower limit is 0.2 psig, decreasing.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part could be true if a supply fan, versus an exhaust fan, tripped. Also plausible because the 2nd part is the action taken in the ARP if normal ops per the SOP are unsuccessful in restoring pressure to within normal limits.

Incorrect since the alarm comes in at 1.0 psid, increasing, and the lower limit is 0.2 psig, decreasing.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 76 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN SUBSITUTE KA FOR 028 K3.01 DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS:

A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Also plausible because the 2nd part would be true if the operator were not able to restore RB pressure to within normal limits per SOP-114 (as directed by the ARP (XCP-6210-LCB2, 4-9).

Incorrect since the required action is to restore pressure to within limits per SOP-114, not immediately start an RBCU.

B.

CORRECT. The alarm actuates at 1.0 psid and the the normal upper limit is 1.0 psig.

Supplemental Action 1 of LCB-6210-LCB2, 4-9, requires the operator to reduce RB pressure to within limits per SOP-114.

C.

Plausible because a similar alarm occurs for low pressure. Also plausible because the 1 st part could be true if a supply fan, versus an exhaust fan, tripped.

Incorrect since the alarm comes in at 1.0 psid, increasing, and the lower limit is 0.2 psig, decreasing.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part could be true if a supply fan, versus an exhaust fan, tripped. Also plausible because the 2nd part is the action taken in the ARP if normal ops per the SOP are unsuccessful in restoring pressure to within normal limits.

Incorrect since the alarm comes in at 1.0 psid, increasing, and the lower limit is 0.2 psig, decreasing.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 76

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 029 K3.01 (SUBSITUTE KA FOR 028 K3.01):

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Containment Purge System will have on the following: Containment parameters Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R02.9 ARP XCP-621 0, LCS2, 4-9 SOP-114, pp 35 & 37 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-13-19 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

K/ A is matched because this question postulates a malfunction of the RS Purge System (exhaust fan trips) and the resulting effect on Containment parameters (RS pressure).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 77 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 029 K3.01 (SUBSITUTE KA FOR 028 K3.01):

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Containment Purge System will have on the following: Containment parameters Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R02.9 ARP XCP-621 0, LCS2, 4-9 SOP-114, pp 35 & 37 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-13-19 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

K/ A is matched because this question postulates a malfunction of the RS Purge System (exhaust fan trips) and the resulting effect on Containment parameters (RS pressure).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 77

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _N RC_RO _EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN 31.033 G2.4.11 001 Given the following plant conditions:

7% power Power is being raised slowly in preparation for rolling the Main Turbine.

Intermediate Range Detector N-35 has failed LOW.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the required action and the MAXIMUM allowed power level increase in accordance with Technical Specification 3.3.1 Reactor Trip Instrumentation?

A'I Place the N-35 LEVEL TRIP Switch in BYPASS.

Maintain power less than 10% until the channel is returned to service.

B. Place the N-35 LEVEL TRIP Switch in BYPASS.

Maintain power less than 15% while the channel is repaired.

C. Direct I&C to trip the N-35 associated bistables.

Maintain power less than 10% until the channel is returned to service.

D. Direct I&C to trip the N-35 associated bistables.

Maintain power less than 15% while the channel is repaired.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 78 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _N RC_RO _EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN 31.033 G2.4.11 001 Given the following plant conditions:

7% power Power is being raised slowly in preparation for rolling the Main Turbine.

Intermediate Range Detector N-35 has failed LOW.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the required action and the MAXIMUM allowed power level increase in accordance with Technical Specification 3.3.1 Reactor Trip Instrumentation?

A'I Place the N-35 LEVEL TRIP Switch in BYPASS.

Maintain power less than 10% until the channel is returned to service.

B. Place the N-35 LEVEL TRIP Switch in BYPASS.

Maintain power less than 15% while the channel is repaired.

C. Direct I&C to trip the N-35 associated bistables.

Maintain power less than 10% until the channel is returned to service.

D. Direct I&C to trip the N-35 associated bistables.

Maintain power less than 15% while the channel is repaired.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 78

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. The IR is bypassed (AOP-401.8, Step 2), rather than tripped, because protection logic is 1 of 2. Power is held less than 10% (below the I R trip block) in accordance with T.S. Table 3.3-1, Functional Unit 5 (Action 3). and per AOP-401.8, Step 3, Alternative Action.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because power may be raised to the POAH if the failure occured between P-6 and 5%. Also plausible because power could be raised to just short of 10%. 12-15% is plausible because this is the next incremental power ascension in GOP-4A and would be the correct action if the failure had occured just above 10%.

Incorrect because both AOP-401.8 and T.S. Table 3.3-1 prohibit power ascension abover 10% with a failed I R channel.

C.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because bistables are tripped for Power Range channels and other failed protection instruments.

Incorrect because the IR is bypassed (AOP-401.8, Step 2), rather than tripped, because protection logic is 1 of 2.

D.

Plausible because bistables are tripped for Power Range channels and other failed protection instruments. Also plausible because power may be raised to the POAH if the failure occured between P-6 and 5%. Also plausible because power could be raised to just short of 10%. 12-15% is plausible because this is the next incremental power ascension in GOP-4A and would be the correct action if the failure had occured just above 10%.

Incorrect because the IR is bypassed (AOP-401.8, Step 2), rather than tripped, because protection logic is 1 of 2. Also incorrect because both AOP-401.8 and T.S. Table 3.3-1 prohibit power ascension abover 10% with a failed I R channel.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 79 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. The IR is bypassed (AOP-401.8, Step 2), rather than tripped, because protection logic is 1 of 2. Power is held less than 10% (below the I R trip block) in accordance with T.S. Table 3.3-1, Functional Unit 5 (Action 3). and per AOP-401.8, Step 3, Alternative Action.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because power may be raised to the POAH if the failure occured between P-6 and 5%. Also plausible because power could be raised to just short of 10%. 12-15% is plausible because this is the next incremental power ascension in GOP-4A and would be the correct action if the failure had occured just above 10%.

Incorrect because both AOP-401.8 and T.S. Table 3.3-1 prohibit power ascension abover 10% with a failed I R channel.

C.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because bistables are tripped for Power Range channels and other failed protection instruments.

Incorrect because the IR is bypassed (AOP-401.8, Step 2), rather than tripped, because protection logic is 1 of 2.

D.

Plausible because bistables are tripped for Power Range channels and other failed protection instruments. Also plausible because power may be raised to the POAH if the failure occured between P-6 and 5%. Also plausible because power could be raised to just short of 10%. 12-15% is plausible because this is the next incremental power ascension in GOP-4A and would be the correct action if the failure had occured just above 10%.

Incorrect because the IR is bypassed (AOP-401.8, Step 2), rather than tripped, because protection logic is 1 of 2. Also incorrect because both AOP-401.8 and T.S. Table 3.3-1 prohibit power ascension abover 10% with a failed I R channel.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 79

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 033 G2.4.11:

(Loss of Intermediate Range NI) Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 2

R04.0 IC-8, Figure IC8.5, Rev 9 IC-9, p73, Table IC9.2, Rev 13 Technical Specification LCO 3.3.1, Table 3.3-1, Functional Unit 5 AOP-401.8, Step 5, Rev 3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IC-8-44 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions NUC INST SYSTEM 6,21, & 50 and TECH SPECS 52 to be classified as MODIFIED. Also similar to 2007 NRC exam - question RO-36 [015 A2.02])

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of AOP-401.8 as it relates to a failed Intermediate Range NI Channel.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 80 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 033 G2.4.11:

(Loss of Intermediate Range NI) Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 2

R04.0 IC-8, Figure IC8.5, Rev 9 IC-9, p73, Table IC9.2, Rev 13 Technical Specification LCO 3.3.1, Table 3.3-1, Functional Unit 5 AOP-401.8, Step 5, Rev 3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IC-8-44 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions NUC INST SYSTEM 6,21, & 50 and TECH SPECS 52 to be classified as MODIFIED. Also similar to 2007 NRC exam - question RO-36 [015 A2.02])

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of AOP-401.8 as it relates to a failed Intermediate Range NI Channel.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 80

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

32. 035 Al.OI 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power All Steam Generators are at programmed level.

Steam Generator 'B' level is being controlled manually.

Subsequently, a Stator Cooling Turbine Runback occurs for 20 seconds and then stops.

Assuming NO operator action, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of Steam Generator 'B' level?

At! Initially decreases; SG High-High water level will occur.

B. Initially decreases; SG Low-Low water level will occur.

C. Initially increases; SG High-High water level will occur.

D. Initially increases; SG Low-Low water level will occur.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 81 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

32. 035 Al.OI 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power All Steam Generators are at programmed level.

Steam Generator 'B' level is being controlled manually.

Subsequently, a Stator Cooling Turbine Runback occurs for 20 seconds and then stops.

Assuming NO operator action, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of Steam Generator 'B' level?

At! Initially decreases; SG High-High water level will occur.

B. Initially decreases; SG Low-Low water level will occur.

C. Initially increases; SG High-High water level will occur.

D. Initially increases; SG Low-Low water level will occur.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 81

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

According to T85 (p34, Rev 8), the Stator Cooling Runback will run the Turbine back at 25%/minute. Therefore, a 20 second run back will result in a power reduction of 8-9%.

When a downpower occurs, the SG level instrumentation, which monitors level within the downcomer region, will indicate an apparent loss of inventory, or "Shrink" within the SG, when in actuality the mass inventory is increasing (feed flow is greater than steam flow). According to IC-2 (p14), the effects of Shrink are most limiting at high power and maintaining the SG level within its normal band (as it was in the initial conditions) ensures that a sudden load rejection will NOT shrink level sufficiently to cause a reactor trip on the SG Low-Low level condition. With the feed flow adjusted to provide the 8 SG with 100% feed flow, a downpower will result in a net inventory increase within the 8 SG. Although the initial level indication will decrease, the inventory will actually increase and result in an increasing level to the pOint in which P-14 actuates. With no operator action, the Turbine will trip, the reactor will trip, all three MFPs will trip and a FWIS will occur.

8.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because a Low-Low level should occur in SGs 'A' & 'C' after the Turbine Trip. Incorrect because SG '8' will decrease, but NOT reach a Low-Low level following the Turbine Trip since it was at a higher than normal level when the trip occured.

C.

Plausible because because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because level will increase because FRV '8' is in manual and will continue to feed SG '8' at the original flow rate when the Shrink effect is over. Incorrect because level does not initially increase due to Shrink.

D.

Plausible because level will increase because FRV '8' is in manual and will continue to feed SG '8' at the original flow rate when the Shrink effect is over. Incorrect because level does not initially increase due to Shrink. Also plausible because a Low-Low level should occur in SGs 'A' & 'C' after the Turbine Trip. Incorrect because SG '8' will decrease, but NOT reach a Low-Low level following the Turbine Trip since it was at a higher than normal level when the trip occured.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 82 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

According to T85 (p34, Rev 8), the Stator Cooling Runback will run the Turbine back at 25%/minute. Therefore, a 20 second run back will result in a power reduction of 8-9%.

When a downpower occurs, the SG level instrumentation, which monitors level within the downcomer region, will indicate an apparent loss of inventory, or "Shrink" within the SG, when in actuality the mass inventory is increasing (feed flow is greater than steam flow). According to IC-2 (p14), the effects of Shrink are most limiting at high power and maintaining the SG level within its normal band (as it was in the initial conditions) ensures that a sudden load rejection will NOT shrink level sufficiently to cause a reactor trip on the SG Low-Low level condition. With the feed flow adjusted to provide the 8 SG with 100% feed flow, a downpower will result in a net inventory increase within the 8 SG. Although the initial level indication will decrease, the inventory will actually increase and result in an increasing level to the pOint in which P-14 actuates. With no operator action, the Turbine will trip, the reactor will trip, all three MFPs will trip and a FWIS will occur.

8.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because a Low-Low level should occur in SGs 'A' & 'C' after the Turbine Trip. Incorrect because SG '8' will decrease, but NOT reach a Low-Low level following the Turbine Trip since it was at a higher than normal level when the trip occured.

C.

Plausible because because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because level will increase because FRV '8' is in manual and will continue to feed SG '8' at the original flow rate when the Shrink effect is over. Incorrect because level does not initially increase due to Shrink.

D.

Plausible because level will increase because FRV '8' is in manual and will continue to feed SG '8' at the original flow rate when the Shrink effect is over. Incorrect because level does not initially increase due to Shrink. Also plausible because a Low-Low level should occur in SGs 'A' & 'C' after the Turbine Trip. Incorrect because SG '8' will decrease, but NOT reach a Low-Low level following the Turbine Trip since it was at a higher than normal level when the trip occured.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 82

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 035 A1.01:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Steam Generator controls including: S/G wide and narrow range level during startup, shutdown and normal operations.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 2

R03.6 IC-2, p13-15, p21-23, Figure IC2.2, Rev 9 TS-5, p33-35, Rev 8 IC-9, p45, 47, Rev 13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IC-2-17 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must predict responses of SG Narrow Range level during normal operations associated with operating the SG controls (Steam Flow).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 83 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 035 A1.01:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Steam Generator controls including: S/G wide and narrow range level during startup, shutdown and normal operations.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 2

R03.6 IC-2, p13-15, p21-23, Figure IC2.2, Rev 9 TS-5, p33-35, Rev 8 IC-9, p45, 47, Rev 13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IC-2-17 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must predict responses of SG Narrow Range level during normal operations associated with operating the SG controls (Steam Flow).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 83

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATA8ASE_-_AS_GIVEN

33. 038 EKI.Ol 002 Given the following plant conditions:

The crew is responding to a tube rupture on SG '8' lAW EOP-4.0, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.

RCS pressure is 1365 psig.

RCS temperature is 552°F (Core Exit Thermocouples)

Steam pressures are as follows:

1005 psig on SG 'A' 1085 psig on SG '8' 1045 psig on SG 'C'.

Which ONE (1) of the following values of core exit thermocouples is the target temperature for RCS cooldown, with an allowance of 50°F for subcooling?

STEAM TABLES PROVIDED A. 49JOF B. 501°F A.

Plausible because this is the Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the pressure of SG 'A'.

1005 pisg = 1020 psia = 54rF Tsat - 50° = 49rF.

Incorrect because the target temp is based on the ruptured SG pressure.

B.

Plausible because this is the Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the pressure of SG 'C'.

1045 pisg = 1060 psi a = 551°F Tsat - 50° = 501°F.

Incorrect because the target temp is based on the ruptured SG pressure.

C.

CORRECT. lAW Step 6 of EOP-4.0, the lowest ruptured SG pressure and core exit TICs are used to determine the target temperature for the C/D Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the pressure of SG 'B'. 1085 pisg = 1100 psia =

556°F Tsat - 50° = 506°F.

D.

Plausible because this is the Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the existing RCS pressure. 1365 pisg = 1380 pisa = 585°F Tsat - 50° = 535°F.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 84 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATA8ASE_-_AS_GIVEN

33. 038 EKI.Ol 002 Given the following plant conditions:

The crew is responding to a tube rupture on SG '8' lAW EOP-4.0, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.

RCS pressure is 1365 psig.

RCS temperature is 552°F (Core Exit Thermocouples)

Steam pressures are as follows:

1005 psig on SG 'A' 1085 psig on SG '8' 1045 psig on SG 'C'.

Which ONE (1) of the following values of core exit thermocouples is the target temperature for RCS cooldown, with an allowance of 50°F for subcooling?

STEAM TABLES PROVIDED A. 49JOF B. 501°F A.

Plausible because this is the Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the pressure of SG 'A'.

1005 pisg = 1020 psia = 54rF Tsat - 50° = 49rF.

Incorrect because the target temp is based on the ruptured SG pressure.

B.

Plausible because this is the Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the pressure of SG 'C'.

1045 pisg = 1060 psi a = 551°F Tsat - 50° = 501°F.

Incorrect because the target temp is based on the ruptured SG pressure.

C.

CORRECT. lAW Step 6 of EOP-4.0, the lowest ruptured SG pressure and core exit TICs are used to determine the target temperature for the C/D Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the pressure of SG 'B'. 1085 pisg = 1100 psia =

556°F Tsat - 50° = 506°F.

D.

Plausible because this is the Tsat (minus 50°F subcooling) for the existing RCS pressure. 1365 pisg = 1380 pisa = 585°F Tsat - 50° = 535°F.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 84

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 038 EK1.01:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Steam Generator Tube Rupture and the following: Use of steam tables.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

Steam Tables EOP-4.0, Rev 18 1

1 R03.1 WOG E-3 Background Document (HE3BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30/05)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Steam Tables Learning Objective:

EOP-4.0-05.h Question History:

MODIFIED - LORTClosedRefQuestions EOPS 471 (which was used on the 2006 VCSNS Retake NRC Exam) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10), (14)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator is placed in a situation where the RCS Subcooling must be verified manually.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 85 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 038 EK1.01:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Steam Generator Tube Rupture and the following: Use of steam tables.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

Steam Tables EOP-4.0, Rev 18 1

1 R03.1 WOG E-3 Background Document (HE3BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30/05)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Steam Tables Learning Objective:

EOP-4.0-05.h Question History:

MODIFIED - LORTClosedRefQuestions EOPS 471 (which was used on the 2006 VCSNS Retake NRC Exam) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10), (14)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator is placed in a situation where the RCS Subcooling must be verified manually.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 85

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

34. 039 A2.04 00 I

---

~----------~-------------~

Given the following plant conditions:

The unit was at 100% power when the turbine tripped.

All controllers were in the normal, full power alignment.

The crew is performing EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery.

Tavg is 55]oF and rising.

Condenser pressure is 6.0" Hg abs.

The required operator action is to use the ___ to lower Tavg.

If this action is NOT taken, steam pressure will rise to ___ _

A'I Steamline Power Reliefs; 1133 psig B. Condenser Dumps; 1133 psig C. Steamline Power Reliefs; 1176 pSig D. Condenser Dumps; 1176 psig Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 86 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

34. 039 A2.04 00 I

---

~----------~-----------~

Given the following plant conditions:

The unit was at 100% power when the turbine tripped.

All controllers were in the normal, full power alignment.

The crew is performing EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery.

Tavg is 55]oF and rising.

Condenser pressure is 6.0" Hg abs.

The required operator action is to use the ___ to lower Tavg.

If this action is NOT taken, steam pressure will rise to ___ _

A'I Steamline Power Reliefs; 1133 psig B. Condenser Dumps; 1133 psig C. Steamline Power Reliefs; 1176 pSig D. Condenser Dumps; 1176 psig Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 86

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. At 1133 psig steam header pressure, the Steamline Power Reliefs shift from the Steam Dump Group 4 mode and open. With Tavg 557°F and rising, Alternative Action of Step 3 of EOP-1.1 would apply. c) 1) & 2) require operation of the power reliefs if the Condenser is unavailable. Pressure would rise until the power reliefs swapped to the overpressure mode at 1133 psig, at which time the Tavg transient would be stopped.

B.

Plausible because the main steam pressure is correct. Also plausible because operation of the Condenser dumps is actually the preferred/first method addressed in the Alternative Action of Step 3 to control Tavg.

Incorrect since the Steamline Power Reliefs would have to be used without the Condenser Avaliable (C-9).

C.

Plausible because the pressure is the value that main steam pressure would rise to if the power reliefs did not actuate at 1133 psig. This is the lift value of the lowest steam line safety valve. Also plausible because these are the correct valves.

Incorrect because pressure would only rise to 1133 psig.

D.

Plausible because the pressure is the value that main steam pressure would rise to if the power reliefs did not actuate at 1133 psig. This is the lift value of the lowest steam line safety valve. Also plausible because operation of the Condenser dumps is actually the preferred/first method addressed in the Alternative Action of Step 3 to control Tavg.

Incorrect because pressure would only rise to 1133 pSig.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 87 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. At 1133 psig steam header pressure, the Steamline Power Reliefs shift from the Steam Dump Group 4 mode and open. With Tavg 557°F and rising, Alternative Action of Step 3 of EOP-1.1 would apply. c) 1) & 2) require operation of the power reliefs if the Condenser is unavailable. Pressure would rise until the power reliefs swapped to the overpressure mode at 1133 psig, at which time the Tavg transient would be stopped.

B.

Plausible because the main steam pressure is correct. Also plausible because operation of the Condenser dumps is actually the preferred/first method addressed in the Alternative Action of Step 3 to control Tavg.

Incorrect since the Steamline Power Reliefs would have to be used without the Condenser Avaliable (C-9).

C.

Plausible because the pressure is the value that main steam pressure would rise to if the power reliefs did not actuate at 1133 psig. This is the lift value of the lowest steam line safety valve. Also plausible because these are the correct valves.

Incorrect because pressure would only rise to 1133 psig.

D.

Plausible because the pressure is the value that main steam pressure would rise to if the power reliefs did not actuate at 1133 psig. This is the lift value of the lowest steam line safety valve. Also plausible because operation of the Condenser dumps is actually the preferred/first method addressed in the Alternative Action of Step 3 to control Tavg.

Incorrect because pressure would only rise to 1133 pSig.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 87

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 039 A2.04:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the (Main and Reheat Steam) and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Malfunctioning steam dump.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

RO 3.4 TS-2, Page 24 of 62 IC-1, Page 20 of 51 EOP-1.1, Pages 3 and 4 of 16 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1.1-07 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)( 5)

KIA Match:

Matches KIA in that it requires the examinee to predict the impact (use of Steamline Power Reliefs) in EOP-1.1 of a malfunction of a Steam Dump component/input (C-9).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 88 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 039 A2.04:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the (Main and Reheat Steam) and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Malfunctioning steam dump.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

RO 3.4 TS-2, Page 24 of 62 IC-1, Page 20 of 51 EOP-1.1, Pages 3 and 4 of 16 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1.1-07 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)( 5)

KIA Match:

Matches KIA in that it requires the examinee to predict the impact (use of Steamline Power Reliefs) in EOP-1.1 of a malfunction of a Steam Dump component/input (C-9).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 88

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN 35.039 K5.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:

A cooldown is in progress in accordance with GOP-6, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the RCS temperature where the MOST restrictive cooldown limit is in effect and the reason in accordance with Technical Specification 3.4.9 RCS PressurelTemperature Limits?

A. RCS temperature GREATER THAN 200°F to prevent a non-ductile component failure.

B. RCS temperature GREATER THAN 200°F to prevent bubble formation in the reactor vessel head.

C!' RCS temperature LESS THAN 200°F to prevent a non-ductile component failure.

D. RCS temperature LESS THAN 200°F to prevent bubble formation in the reactor vessel head.

A.

Plausible because the T8 dictated limit is applied until 200°F and the basis is correct.

However, at < 200°F the facility procedure further restricts the cooldown limit to 50°F.

B.

Plausible because the T8 dictated limit is applied until 200°F and this is the basis for limiting a Natural Circulation cooldown rate to 50°F.

C.

CORRECT lAW GOP-6 Reference Page, and T.8. 3/4.4.9 bases (page B 3/4 4-6&7).

D.

Incorrect and plausible since this is the basis for limiting a Natural Circulation cooldown rate to 50°F.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 89 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN 35.039 K5.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:

A cooldown is in progress in accordance with GOP-6, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the RCS temperature where the MOST restrictive cooldown limit is in effect and the reason in accordance with Technical Specification 3.4.9 RCS PressurelTemperature Limits?

A. RCS temperature GREATER THAN 200°F to prevent a non-ductile component failure.

B. RCS temperature GREATER THAN 200°F to prevent bubble formation in the reactor vessel head.

C!' RCS temperature LESS THAN 200°F to prevent a non-ductile component failure.

D. RCS temperature LESS THAN 200°F to prevent bubble formation in the reactor vessel head.

A.

Plausible because the T8 dictated limit is applied until 200°F and the basis is correct.

However, at < 200°F the facility procedure further restricts the cooldown limit to 50°F.

B.

Plausible because the T8 dictated limit is applied until 200°F and this is the basis for limiting a Natural Circulation cooldown rate to 50°F.

C.

CORRECT lAW GOP-6 Reference Page, and T.8. 3/4.4.9 bases (page B 3/4 4-6&7).

D.

Incorrect and plausible since this is the basis for limiting a Natural Circulation cooldown rate to 50°F.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 89

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 039 K5.05:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Main and Reheat Steam: Bases for RCS cooldown limits.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.7 GOP-6, REFERENCE PAGE (Page 26 of 126)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-2-26 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions EOPS 474 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by identification of a changing limit and requiring knowledge of the reason.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 90 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 039 K5.05:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Main and Reheat Steam: Bases for RCS cooldown limits.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.7 GOP-6, REFERENCE PAGE (Page 26 of 126)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-2-26 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions EOPS 474 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by identification of a changing limit and requiring knowledge of the reason.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 90

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 36.051 AAl.04 002

---

~

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A leak develops in the Main Condenser causing vacuum to decrease.

The crew enters AOP-206.1, Decreasing Main Condenser Vacuum.

Main Condenser pressure INCREASES at 1" Hg Absolute every five minutes.

The crew initiates a downpower in accordance with GOP-4C, Rapid Downpower, at 5%/minute.

All control systems are in AUTO.

Which ONE (1) of the following conditions will REQUIRE the operator to trip the Reactor?

A. Pressurizer pressure approaches 1985 psig.

B. Main Condenser pressure rises above 5" Hg Absolute.

C. Tavg is 8°F greater than Tref and Control Rods are NOT moving in AUTO.

D~ Tavg is 12°F greater than Tref and Control Rods are moving inward at 72 steps/minute.

A.

Plausible because GOP-4C Reference Page contains Reactor Trip criteria related to PZR pressure. Also credible because 1985 psig is the P-11 setpoint, is well below normal operating pressure, and is within the range of pressures where LOR crews discuss initiating a manual trip.

Incorrect because the "setpoint" for initiating a Reactor Trip is 1870 psig, not 1985 psig.

B.

Plausible because AOP-206.1 has a Turbine Trip requirement at 5" with load <300MW (Caution 4) and another Turbine Trip requirement at 7.5".

Incorrect because a ReactorTrip is NOT required for this condition.

C.

Plausible because these are indications of a stuck rod/failure to move. The probability of this failure is greater under conditions stipulated in the stem.

Incorrect since AOP-403.4, Failure of Control Rods to Move, only requires MAN on rods, stabilize turbine load, stop any boration in progress, and the adjust rods manually to restore Tavg to Tref.

D.

CORRECT. According to the GOP-4C Reference Page (Rev 0), the operator must trip the Reactor if the TavgfTref mismatch exceeds 10°F.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 91 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 36.051 AAl.04 002

---

~

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A leak develops in the Main Condenser causing vacuum to decrease.

The crew enters AOP-206.1, Decreasing Main Condenser Vacuum.

Main Condenser pressure INCREASES at 1" Hg Absolute every five minutes.

The crew initiates a downpower in accordance with GOP-4C, Rapid Downpower, at 5%/minute.

All control systems are in AUTO.

Which ONE (1) of the following conditions will REQUIRE the operator to trip the Reactor?

A. Pressurizer pressure approaches 1985 psig.

B. Main Condenser pressure rises above 5" Hg Absolute.

C. Tavg is 8°F greater than Tref and Control Rods are NOT moving in AUTO.

D~ Tavg is 12°F greater than Tref and Control Rods are moving inward at 72 steps/minute.

A.

Plausible because GOP-4C Reference Page contains Reactor Trip criteria related to PZR pressure. Also credible because 1985 psig is the P-11 setpoint, is well below normal operating pressure, and is within the range of pressures where LOR crews discuss initiating a manual trip.

Incorrect because the "setpoint" for initiating a Reactor Trip is 1870 psig, not 1985 psig.

B.

Plausible because AOP-206.1 has a Turbine Trip requirement at 5" with load <300MW (Caution 4) and another Turbine Trip requirement at 7.5".

Incorrect because a ReactorTrip is NOT required for this condition.

C.

Plausible because these are indications of a stuck rod/failure to move. The probability of this failure is greater under conditions stipulated in the stem.

Incorrect since AOP-403.4, Failure of Control Rods to Move, only requires MAN on rods, stabilize turbine load, stop any boration in progress, and the adjust rods manually to restore Tavg to Tref.

D.

CORRECT. According to the GOP-4C Reference Page (Rev 0), the operator must trip the Reactor if the TavgfTref mismatch exceeds 10°F.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 91

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 051 AA1.04:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Loss of Condenser Vacuum controls including: Rod position.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

GOP-4C, Rev 0 AOP-206.1, Rev 3 1

2 R02.5 ARP-001-XCP-621, Rev 5 AOP-403.4, Rev 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GOP-A-02 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to monitor the Rod Control System for proper operation during a Loss of Main Condenser Vacuum.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 92 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 051 AA1.04:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Loss of Condenser Vacuum controls including: Rod position.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

GOP-4C, Rev 0 AOP-206.1, Rev 3 1

2 R02.5 ARP-001-XCP-621, Rev 5 AOP-403.4, Rev 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GOP-A-02 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to monitor the Rod Control System for proper operation during a Loss of Main Condenser Vacuum.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 92

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 37.054 AK3.03 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Power was being maintained at 12-15% while preparing to synchronize the Main Generator to the grid.

Main Feed Pump (MFP) 'A' was running.

MFPs 'B' and 'C' were tripped.

Main Feed Pump 'A' tripped for an unknown reason.

The Reactor tripped on S/G Low-Low level and the operating crew is now implementing EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the MDEFP Flow Control Valves (FCVs) and the MINIMUM actions necessary to throttle the FCVs?

A. The FCVs receive an open signal due to the trip of MFP 'A';

Take the MD EFP RESET Switch to RESET, take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

B. The FCVs receive an open signal due to the trip of MFP 'A';

Take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

C~ The FCVs receive an open signal due to the S/G Low-Low level; Take the MD EFP RESET Switch to RESET, take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

D. The FCVs receive an open signal due to the S/G Low-Low level; Take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 93 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 37.054 AK3.03 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Power was being maintained at 12-15% while preparing to synchronize the Main Generator to the grid.

Main Feed Pump (MFP) 'A' was running.

MFPs 'B' and 'C' were tripped.

Main Feed Pump 'A' tripped for an unknown reason.

The Reactor tripped on S/G Low-Low level and the operating crew is now implementing EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Recovery.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the MDEFP Flow Control Valves (FCVs) and the MINIMUM actions necessary to throttle the FCVs?

A. The FCVs receive an open signal due to the trip of MFP 'A';

Take the MD EFP RESET Switch to RESET, take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

B. The FCVs receive an open signal due to the trip of MFP 'A';

Take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

C~ The FCVs receive an open signal due to the S/G Low-Low level; Take the MD EFP RESET Switch to RESET, take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

D. The FCVs receive an open signal due to the S/G Low-Low level; Take the individual FCV control switch to MAN, adjust the Hagan controller.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 93

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct - with an auto-open signal present, the MD EFP RESET Switch must be reset (even though it is labeled EFP, not FCV), then the individual MCB control switches must be taken to MAN, and the Hagan controller must be adjusted to throttle the FCVs. Also plausible, because the FCVs receive an open signal from the same signals that start the associated EFP, except the MDEFP FCVs do not open when all 3 MFPs trip.

Incorrect because the MDEFP FCVs only open on loss of 1 DAl1 DB, Low-Low S/G level, and SI, NOT trip of 3/3 MFPs.

B.

Plausible because the 2nd half is true for normal plant conditions - in the absence of an auto-start condition of the MDEFPs, all that is required to throttle the FCVs is to take the control switch to MAN and adjust the Hagan controller. Also plausible, because the FCVs receive an open signal from the same signals that start the associated EFP, except the MDEFP FCVs do not open when all 3 MFPs trip.

Incorrect because the MDEFP FCVs only open on loss of 1 DAl1 DB, Low-Low S/G level, and SI, NOT trip of 3/3 MFPs.

C.

CORRECT. The MDEFP FCVs open on the same Signals that start the MDEFPs (loss of 1 DAl1 DB, Low-Low S/G level, and SI [NOT trip of 3/3 MFPs]). With an auto-start signal present fro the MDEFPs, the operator must take the MD EFP RESET Switch to RESET, the individual MCB control switches must be taken to MAN, and the Hagan controller must be adjusted to throttle the FCVs (see IB-3, pages 31-34, and Figure IB3.4).

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because the 2nd half is true for normal plant conditions - in the absence of an auto-start condition of the MDEFPs, all that is required to throttle the FCVs is to take the control switch to MAN and adjust the Hagan controller.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 94 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct - with an auto-open signal present, the MD EFP RESET Switch must be reset (even though it is labeled EFP, not FCV), then the individual MCB control switches must be taken to MAN, and the Hagan controller must be adjusted to throttle the FCVs. Also plausible, because the FCVs receive an open signal from the same signals that start the associated EFP, except the MDEFP FCVs do not open when all 3 MFPs trip.

Incorrect because the MDEFP FCVs only open on loss of 1 DAl1 DB, Low-Low S/G level, and SI, NOT trip of 3/3 MFPs.

B.

Plausible because the 2nd half is true for normal plant conditions - in the absence of an auto-start condition of the MDEFPs, all that is required to throttle the FCVs is to take the control switch to MAN and adjust the Hagan controller. Also plausible, because the FCVs receive an open signal from the same signals that start the associated EFP, except the MDEFP FCVs do not open when all 3 MFPs trip.

Incorrect because the MDEFP FCVs only open on loss of 1 DAl1 DB, Low-Low S/G level, and SI, NOT trip of 3/3 MFPs.

C.

CORRECT. The MDEFP FCVs open on the same Signals that start the MDEFPs (loss of 1 DAl1 DB, Low-Low S/G level, and SI [NOT trip of 3/3 MFPs]). With an auto-start signal present fro the MDEFPs, the operator must take the MD EFP RESET Switch to RESET, the individual MCB control switches must be taken to MAN, and the Hagan controller must be adjusted to throttle the FCVs (see IB-3, pages 31-34, and Figure IB3.4).

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because the 2nd half is true for normal plant conditions - in the absence of an auto-start condition of the MDEFPs, all that is required to throttle the FCVs is to take the control switch to MAN and adjust the Hagan controller.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 94

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 054 AK3.03:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Loss of Main Feedwater will have on the following: Manual control of AFW flow control valves.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.8 IB-3, p31-34; Figure IB3.4

• 1 MS-41-011, Sheet 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

EOP-1.1-07 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must identify how manual control of the EFW System flow control valves is established during a Loss of Main Feed water event.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 95 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 054 AK3.03:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Loss of Main Feedwater will have on the following: Manual control of AFW flow control valves.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.8 IB-3, p31-34; Figure IB3.4

• 1 MS-41-011, Sheet 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

EOP-1.1-07 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must identify how manual control of the EFW System flow control valves is established during a Loss of Main Feed water event.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 95

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA TABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN

38. 055 EAl.OI 001 Which ONE (1) of the following describes a condition that will require the crew fo--------,

transition out of EOP-6.0, Loss of All ESF AC Power prior to restoring power to at least one AC ESF Bus?

A. The Tcolds for all three RCS loops decrease to less than 280°F.

B. Both Intermediate and Source Range startup rates are positive.

C. Wide range levels in ALL 3 S/Gs drop below 30%.

D~ Core Exit TICs indicate greater than 1200°F and rising.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 96 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA TABASE_ -_AS_ GIVEN

38. 055 EAl.OI 001 Which ONE (1) of the following describes a condition that will require the crew fo--------,

transition out of EOP-6.0, Loss of All ESF AC Power prior to restoring power to at least one AC ESF Bus?

A. The Tcolds for all three RCS loops decrease to less than 280°F.

B. Both Intermediate and Source Range startup rates are positive.

C. Wide range levels in ALL 3 S/Gs drop below 30%.

D~ Core Exit TICs indicate greater than 1200°F and rising.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 96

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because temperature may drop below the limit during this event, and would present a challenge to the Integrity Critical Safety Function that will require action by the operator within the body of EOP-6.0.

Incorrect because this situation is an anticipated condition within EOP-6.0 during the SG depressurization. According to Step 19.c of EOP-6.0, the operator must verify the RCS Tcolds are greater than 280°F during the SG depressurization. If so, the crew is directed to stop the depressurization.

B.

Plausible because a challenge to Subcriticality Critical Safety Function may occur during this event and, is so, will require action by the operator within the body of EOP-6.0. Incorrect. According to Step 20 of EOP-6.0, the operator is to monitor both the Intermediate and Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation channel startup rates during the SG depressurization and ensure that they are zero or negative. According to EOP-12.0 (Rev 12), this situation will result in an Orange Path on Subcriticality, the highest Critical Safety Function.

Incorrect since the operator should NOT transition out of EOP-6.0 based on this indication. If SURs are positive, the depressurization should be stopped and the RCS allowed to heat up to add negative reactivity.

C.

Plausible because this may occure during the depressurization and is part of the criteria that would require immediate transition to EOP-15.0 from other procedures.

Incorrect because, lAW Step 19 of EOP-6.0, the operator is to simply verify SG levels

>30%. If not, the Alternative Action directs maintaining max EFW flow until at least 1 SG is >30%, not transitioning out of EOP-6.0.

D.

CORRECT. According to Note 3 prior to Step 1 of EOP-6.0 (Rev 21), the Critical Safety Function Status Trees should be monitored for information only during the performance of the EOP. It specifically states that procedures referenced from the status trees should NOT be referenced. According to Step 25 of EOP-6.0, the operator is directed to evaluate CETs and if > 1200°F transition to SACRG-1. According to the WOG ECA-O.O Background Document (HECAOOBG.doc, HP-Rev.2, 4/30105, p133), this condition indicates that all attempts to restore core cooling have failed and core damage cannot be avoided. Transition to Severe Accident Control Room Guideline Initial Response - Step 1 is required. This is the ONLY time that the operator is directed to transition from EOP-6.0 with power established to at least one AC ESF Bus.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 97 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because temperature may drop below the limit during this event, and would present a challenge to the Integrity Critical Safety Function that will require action by the operator within the body of EOP-6.0.

Incorrect because this situation is an anticipated condition within EOP-6.0 during the SG depressurization. According to Step 19.c of EOP-6.0, the operator must verify the RCS Tcolds are greater than 280°F during the SG depressurization. If so, the crew is directed to stop the depressurization.

B.

Plausible because a challenge to Subcriticality Critical Safety Function may occur during this event and, is so, will require action by the operator within the body of EOP-6.0. Incorrect. According to Step 20 of EOP-6.0, the operator is to monitor both the Intermediate and Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation channel startup rates during the SG depressurization and ensure that they are zero or negative. According to EOP-12.0 (Rev 12), this situation will result in an Orange Path on Subcriticality, the highest Critical Safety Function.

Incorrect since the operator should NOT transition out of EOP-6.0 based on this indication. If SURs are positive, the depressurization should be stopped and the RCS allowed to heat up to add negative reactivity.

C.

Plausible because this may occure during the depressurization and is part of the criteria that would require immediate transition to EOP-15.0 from other procedures.

Incorrect because, lAW Step 19 of EOP-6.0, the operator is to simply verify SG levels

>30%. If not, the Alternative Action directs maintaining max EFW flow until at least 1 SG is >30%, not transitioning out of EOP-6.0.

D.

CORRECT. According to Note 3 prior to Step 1 of EOP-6.0 (Rev 21), the Critical Safety Function Status Trees should be monitored for information only during the performance of the EOP. It specifically states that procedures referenced from the status trees should NOT be referenced. According to Step 25 of EOP-6.0, the operator is directed to evaluate CETs and if > 1200°F transition to SACRG-1. According to the WOG ECA-O.O Background Document (HECAOOBG.doc, HP-Rev.2, 4/30105, p133), this condition indicates that all attempts to restore core cooling have failed and core damage cannot be avoided. Transition to Severe Accident Control Room Guideline Initial Response - Step 1 is required. This is the ONLY time that the operator is directed to transition from EOP-6.0 with power established to at least one AC ESF Bus.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 97

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 055 EA1.01:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Station Blackout controls including: In-core thermocouple temperatures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.?

EOP-6.0, Rev 21, Steps 19.c, 20 and 25, and the Notes prior to Step 1.

WOG ECA-O.O Background Document (HECAOOBG.doc, HP-Rev.2, 4/30/05, p133)

EOP-12.0, Rev 12, Attachments 1,2 and 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-6.0-08 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)10 KIA Match:

The KA is matched because it requires the operator to monitor and operate (Le. transition procedures) based on the Core Exit Thermocouples during a Station Blackout.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 98 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 055 EA1.01:

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the Station Blackout controls including: In-core thermocouple temperatures.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.?

EOP-6.0, Rev 21, Steps 19.c, 20 and 25, and the Notes prior to Step 1.

WOG ECA-O.O Background Document (HECAOOBG.doc, HP-Rev.2, 4/30/05, p133)

EOP-12.0, Rev 12, Attachments 1,2 and 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-6.0-08 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)10 KIA Match:

The KA is matched because it requires the operator to monitor and operate (Le. transition procedures) based on the Core Exit Thermocouples during a Station Blackout.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 98

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 39.056 AA2.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Charging Pump 'A' is removed from service with its breaker racked down.

Charging Pump 'B' is in standby.

Charging Pump 'C' breaker is racked up onto Bus 1DA and running.

ALL Offsite Power (BOP & ESF) is lost.

Both DG 'A' and 'B' start and restore power to their respective bus.

ESFLS status lights on the MCB are as follows:

TRAIN A:

TRN BLACKOUT SEQ INIT -lit STEP 1 through 5 START - lit STEP 6 through 8 START - off TRAIN B:

TRN BLACKOUT SEQ INIT - lit STEP 1 through 8 START - off TRN BLACKOUT SEQ COMPLETE - lit Which ONE (1) of the following describes which Charging Pump(s), if any, will be running?

A. NO Charging Pumps B. ONLY Charging Pump 'B' C~ ONLY Charging Pump 'C' D. BOTH Charging Pumps 'B' & 'C' A.

Plausible because Charging Pump 'B' does not receive a start signal on a blackout signal alone. Additionally, Charging Pump 'C' receives a trip signal (on output #5 from the ESFLS - which occurs at T = 0 on the blackout event) on a blackout if it is running with its same train Charging Pump breaker racked up. NO pumps would be running if Charging Pump 'A' breaker were racked up.

Incorrect because Charging Pump 'C's' breaker is closed and is NOT tripped (since 'A' breaker is racked down) at the start of the event. When power is restored to the Bus 1DA, Charging Pump 'C' will restart.

B.

This is plausible because ONLY the Train 'B' ESFLS has correctly completed its sequence (Given info in the stem indicates that Train 'A' ESFLS sequence is not complete). It is a common misconception that the Charging Pump starts on the ESFLS sequence, not as soon as power is restored (via Load Block #1).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 99 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 39.056 AA2.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Charging Pump 'A' is removed from service with its breaker racked down.

Charging Pump 'B' is in standby.

Charging Pump 'C' breaker is racked up onto Bus 1DA and running.

ALL Offsite Power (BOP & ESF) is lost.

Both DG 'A' and 'B' start and restore power to their respective bus.

ESFLS status lights on the MCB are as follows:

TRAIN A:

TRN BLACKOUT SEQ INIT -lit STEP 1 through 5 START - lit STEP 6 through 8 START - off TRAIN B:

TRN BLACKOUT SEQ INIT - lit STEP 1 through 8 START - off TRN BLACKOUT SEQ COMPLETE - lit Which ONE (1) of the following describes which Charging Pump(s), if any, will be running?

A. NO Charging Pumps B. ONLY Charging Pump 'B' C~ ONLY Charging Pump 'C' D. BOTH Charging Pumps 'B' & 'C' A.

Plausible because Charging Pump 'B' does not receive a start signal on a blackout signal alone. Additionally, Charging Pump 'C' receives a trip signal (on output #5 from the ESFLS - which occurs at T = 0 on the blackout event) on a blackout if it is running with its same train Charging Pump breaker racked up. NO pumps would be running if Charging Pump 'A' breaker were racked up.

Incorrect because Charging Pump 'C's' breaker is closed and is NOT tripped (since 'A' breaker is racked down) at the start of the event. When power is restored to the Bus 1DA, Charging Pump 'C' will restart.

B.

This is plausible because ONLY the Train 'B' ESFLS has correctly completed its sequence (Given info in the stem indicates that Train 'A' ESFLS sequence is not complete). It is a common misconception that the Charging Pump starts on the ESFLS sequence, not as soon as power is restored (via Load Block #1).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 99

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN Incorrect because the Charging Pump 'B' breaker is open at the start of the event, and a blackout signal alone will NOT start a Charging Pump. Also incorrect since, when power is restored to Bus 1DA, Charging Pump 'C' will restart.

C.

CORRECT. According to GS2 (p48-52, Rev 15), the ESFLS will respond to one of four events: (1) an undervoltage on the ESF Bus, (2) an SI actuation, (3) an SI actuation followed by an undervoltage on the ESF Bus, and (4) an undervoltage on the ESF Bus followed by an SI actuation. When the ESFLS is actuated it will trip loads, block others from tripping, realign equipment, and load components onto the ESF Bus in a series of 8 steps, dependent upon the initiating signal. The undervoltage on the ESF Bus, known as a blackout, is the event established in the conditions above. According to GS-2 (p51-52), 12 status lights per train are provided on the MCB to alert the operator to the status of the ESFLS. Each Train has a similar set of status lights. With the conditions established above, it is apparent that the B ESFLS has initiated its blackout load sequence, carried out all eight loading steps, and completed its sequencing. On the other hand, train 'A' has initiated its blackout load sequence, carried out the first five of the loading steps and failed to complete any further action. According to GS-2 (p58),

the blackout signal alone does NOT start the Charging Pumps, but only trip and lockout Charging Pump 'C' under certain conditions (Charging Pump Breaker on the same train racked up). Since Charging Pump 'C' is racked up on Bus 1DA, and the Charging Pump 'A' breaker is racked down, the Charging Pump 'C' breaker will NOT trip. The Charging Pump 'C' breaker will be closed at the start of the event, and remain closed throughout the event. When the DG 'A' breaker closes in on ESF Bus 1 DA, Charging Pump 'C' will re-energize. On the other hand, since Charging Pump 'B' is NOT running, even though the Train 'B' sequencer completes is sequencing correctly, its breaker will NOT be closed on a blackout Signal alone.

D.

Plausible because 'B' would have started if it were running prior to the LOOP. Alos plausible because Charging Pump 'C' is correct. This is also plausible because only the B Train ESFLS has correctly completed its sequence. It is a common misconception that the Charging Pump starts on the ESFLS sequence, not as soon as power is restored (via Load Block #1).

Incorrect because Charging Pump 'B' breaker is open at the start of the event, and a blackout signal alone will NOT start a Charging Pump.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 100 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN Incorrect because the Charging Pump 'B' breaker is open at the start of the event, and a blackout signal alone will NOT start a Charging Pump. Also incorrect since, when power is restored to Bus 1DA, Charging Pump 'C' will restart.

C.

CORRECT. According to GS2 (p48-52, Rev 15), the ESFLS will respond to one of four events: (1) an undervoltage on the ESF Bus, (2) an SI actuation, (3) an SI actuation followed by an undervoltage on the ESF Bus, and (4) an undervoltage on the ESF Bus followed by an SI actuation. When the ESFLS is actuated it will trip loads, block others from tripping, realign equipment, and load components onto the ESF Bus in a series of 8 steps, dependent upon the initiating signal. The undervoltage on the ESF Bus, known as a blackout, is the event established in the conditions above. According to GS-2 (p51-52), 12 status lights per train are provided on the MCB to alert the operator to the status of the ESFLS. Each Train has a similar set of status lights. With the conditions established above, it is apparent that the B ESFLS has initiated its blackout load sequence, carried out all eight loading steps, and completed its sequencing. On the other hand, train 'A' has initiated its blackout load sequence, carried out the first five of the loading steps and failed to complete any further action. According to GS-2 (p58),

the blackout signal alone does NOT start the Charging Pumps, but only trip and lockout Charging Pump 'C' under certain conditions (Charging Pump Breaker on the same train racked up). Since Charging Pump 'C' is racked up on Bus 1DA, and the Charging Pump 'A' breaker is racked down, the Charging Pump 'C' breaker will NOT trip. The Charging Pump 'C' breaker will be closed at the start of the event, and remain closed throughout the event. When the DG 'A' breaker closes in on ESF Bus 1 DA, Charging Pump 'C' will re-energize. On the other hand, since Charging Pump 'B' is NOT running, even though the Train 'B' sequencer completes is sequencing correctly, its breaker will NOT be closed on a blackout Signal alone.

D.

Plausible because 'B' would have started if it were running prior to the LOOP. Alos plausible because Charging Pump 'C' is correct. This is also plausible because only the B Train ESFLS has correctly completed its sequence. It is a common misconception that the Charging Pump starts on the ESFLS sequence, not as soon as power is restored (via Load Block #1).

Incorrect because Charging Pump 'B' breaker is open at the start of the event, and a blackout signal alone will NOT start a Charging Pump.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 100

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 056 AA2.02:

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power: ESF load sequencer status lights.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 1

R03.5 GS-2, p48-52, 56-58, 60, Rev 15 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-10-11 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions CVCS 19, 115, 117, & 159 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must consider the condition of the Train A and B ESFLS Status lights, and determine the condition of the Charging Pumps, given an initial set of conditions, and a loss of offsite power event.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 101 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA- 056 AA2.02:

Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power: ESF load sequencer status lights.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

1 1

R03.5 GS-2, p48-52, 56-58, 60, Rev 15 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-10-11 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions CVCS 19, 115, 117, & 159 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must consider the condition of the Train A and B ESFLS Status lights, and determine the condition of the Charging Pumps, given an initial set of conditions, and a loss of offsite power event.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:24 AM 101

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

40. 057 G2.4.8 003 Given the following plant conditions:

2% power Nuclear Instrument Channel N44 is in TEST.

Power is lost to APN-5903 when the associated inverter normal AC input breaker opens and the inverter fails to swap to alternate power.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

The operator will use ______ to initially respond to the plant conditions.

Concurrently, will direct Electrical Maintenance to investigate and repair the breaker malfunction AND provide direction to restore power to the APN.

A'I an Emergency Operating Procedure; an Annunciator Response Procedure B. an Emergency Operating Procedure; a System Operating Procedure C. an Abnormal Operating Procedure; an Annunciator Response Procedure D. an Abnormal Operating Procedure; a System Operating Procedure Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 102 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

40. 057 G2.4.8 003 Given the following plant conditions:

2% power Nuclear Instrument Channel N44 is in TEST.

Power is lost to APN-5903 when the associated inverter normal AC input breaker opens and the inverter fails to swap to alternate power.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

The operator will use ______ to initially respond to the plant conditions.

Concurrently, will direct Electrical Maintenance to investigate and repair the breaker malfunction AND provide direction to restore power to the APN.

A'I an Emergency Operating Procedure; an Annunciator Response Procedure B. an Emergency Operating Procedure; a System Operating Procedure C. an Abnormal Operating Procedure; an Annunciator Response Procedure D. an Abnormal Operating Procedure; a System Operating Procedure Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 102

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

According to GS-2 (p44-45, Rev 15) operators are alerted to problems with inverters/instrument panels primarily through the receipt of annunciators on the MCB.

Operators would respond to the event according to the directions of the Annunciator Response Procedure and dependent upon the symptoms of response of plant components to the failure. According to IC-8 (p50, Rev 9), APN-5903 provides indication and control power to Power Range Channel NI-43. If Control Power is lost the Reactor Protection System will generate a trip signal on Power Range High Flux in this instrument. According to IC-9 (p36, Rev 13), when 2 of 4 Power Range instruments generate a trip signal and an automatic reactor trip is generated. The crew will enter EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation. For the given conditions, annunciator INV 1/2 TROUBLE (XCP-636, 1-5) will alarm. Supplemental Actions in the ARP direct an MWR be initiated to repair the breaker.

B.

Plausible becasue the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because SOP-310 would be used to restore power to the APN.

Incorrect since SOP-310 will not correct the problem with the failed breaker.

C.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because, if the plant did NOT trip, one of several AOPs could be addressed such as AOP-401.2, Protection Channel RCS Loop RTD Failure; AOP-401.4, Pressurizer Pressure Protection Channel Failure, and/or AOP-401.8, 9, or 10 Intermediate, Source or Power Range Channel Failure ).

Incorrect because the plant will trip and EOP-1.0/1.1 would apply.

D.

Plausible because, if the plant did NOT trip, one of several AOPs could be addressed such as AOP-401.2, Protection Channel RCS Loop RTD Failure; AOP-401.4, Pressurizer Pressure Protection Channel Failure, and/or AOP-401.8, 9, or 10 Intermediate, Source or Power Range Channel Failure). Also plausible because SOP-310 would be used to restore power to the APN.

Incorrect because the plant will trip and EOP-1.0/1.1 would apply. Also incorrect since SOP-310 will not direct fixing the problem with the failed breaker.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 103 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

According to GS-2 (p44-45, Rev 15) operators are alerted to problems with inverters/instrument panels primarily through the receipt of annunciators on the MCB.

Operators would respond to the event according to the directions of the Annunciator Response Procedure and dependent upon the symptoms of response of plant components to the failure. According to IC-8 (p50, Rev 9), APN-5903 provides indication and control power to Power Range Channel NI-43. If Control Power is lost the Reactor Protection System will generate a trip signal on Power Range High Flux in this instrument. According to IC-9 (p36, Rev 13), when 2 of 4 Power Range instruments generate a trip signal and an automatic reactor trip is generated. The crew will enter EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation. For the given conditions, annunciator INV 1/2 TROUBLE (XCP-636, 1-5) will alarm. Supplemental Actions in the ARP direct an MWR be initiated to repair the breaker.

B.

Plausible becasue the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because SOP-310 would be used to restore power to the APN.

Incorrect since SOP-310 will not correct the problem with the failed breaker.

C.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because, if the plant did NOT trip, one of several AOPs could be addressed such as AOP-401.2, Protection Channel RCS Loop RTD Failure; AOP-401.4, Pressurizer Pressure Protection Channel Failure, and/or AOP-401.8, 9, or 10 Intermediate, Source or Power Range Channel Failure ).

Incorrect because the plant will trip and EOP-1.0/1.1 would apply.

D.

Plausible because, if the plant did NOT trip, one of several AOPs could be addressed such as AOP-401.2, Protection Channel RCS Loop RTD Failure; AOP-401.4, Pressurizer Pressure Protection Channel Failure, and/or AOP-401.8, 9, or 10 Intermediate, Source or Power Range Channel Failure). Also plausible because SOP-310 would be used to restore power to the APN.

Incorrect because the plant will trip and EOP-1.0/1.1 would apply. Also incorrect since SOP-310 will not direct fixing the problem with the failed breaker.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 103

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 057 G2.4.8:

(Loss of Vital AC Inst. Bus) Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

GS-2 (p44-4S)

IC-8 (pS1)

IC-9 (p36) 1 1

R03.8 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-2-20 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(7), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs during a Loss of 120 VAC Instrument Bus.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 104 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 057 G2.4.8:

(Loss of Vital AC Inst. Bus) Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

GS-2 (p44-4S)

IC-8 (pS1)

IC-9 (p36) 1 1

R03.8 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-2-20 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(7), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs during a Loss of 120 VAC Instrument Bus.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 104

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 41.05802.1.7001 Given the following plant conditions:

10-3% power The Train 'B' Class IE 125 VDC battery breaker is open for urgent battery maintenance.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

If the normal supply breaker to Bus 1 DB subsequently trips open, the Reactor __ _

automatically trip and DIG 'B' automatically start.

A. will will B~ will will NOT C. will NOT will D. will NOT will NOT Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 105 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 41.05802.1.7001 Given the following plant conditions:

10-3% power The Train 'B' Class IE 125 VDC battery breaker is open for urgent battery maintenance.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

If the normal supply breaker to Bus 1 DB subsequently trips open, the Reactor __ _

automatically trip and DIG 'B' automatically start.

A. will will B~ will will NOT C. will NOT will D. will NOT will NOT L--___

---

'-~

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:24 AM 105

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN SUBSTITUTE FOR 040 AG2.2.25 DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS:

A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Plausibility is further established by providing a low power level in the given conditions.

Incorrect since a loss of 1 HB will prevent the DIG air start solenoids from opening.

B.

CORRECT. Loss of power to Train 'B' 7300 process cabinets will initiate a Reactor Trip. Since the Train 'B' battery breaker is open, a loss of 1 DB will result in a total loss of inverters XIT-5903 XIT-5094 output (normal pis to the inverters are from 1DB2Y. Power to the battery charger is from 1DB2X. The Alternate power supply to both inverters (APN-1 FB) is also lost. This means that power to APN-5903 and 5904 is lost, so all bistables powered from 'B' train are deenergized, resulting in a Reactor Trip. Loss of 1 HB will prevent the DIG air start solenoids from opening.

C.

Plausible because this would be true if the battery breaker were not open. The battery would supply backup power to the inverters; therefore, power to APN-5903 and 5904 would not be lost.

Incorrect because the Loss of power to Train 'B' 7300 process cabinets will initiate a Reactor Trip. Also incorrect because a loss of 1 HB will prevent the DIG air start solenoids from opening.

D.

Plausible because the 2nd part is true. Also plausible because this would be true if the battery breaker were not open. The battery would supply backup power to the inverters; therefore, power to APN-5903 and 5904 would not be lost.

Incorrect because the Loss of power to Train 'B' 7300 process cabinets will initiate a Reactor Trip.

DG B LOSS OF DC (XCP-637, ???)

AUTOMATIC ACTIONS:

1. Disables the automatic starting capability of Diesel Generator B.

2. If DPN1 HB1 13, 1 B DIESEL GEN CONT PNL XCX5202, has tripped:

a. Disables both automatic and manual Diesel Generator start capability.

b. Annunciator DG B ANNUN GND/PWR FAIL (XCP-637 3-6) alarms.

KlA- 058 G2.1.7:

(Loss of DC Power) Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

Tier:

1 Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 106 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN SUBSTITUTE FOR 040 AG2.2.25 DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS:

A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Plausibility is further established by providing a low power level in the given conditions.

Incorrect since a loss of 1 HB will prevent the DIG air start solenoids from opening.

B.

CORRECT. Loss of power to Train 'B' 7300 process cabinets will initiate a Reactor Trip. Since the Train 'B' battery breaker is open, a loss of 1 DB will result in a total loss of inverters XIT-5903 XIT-5094 output (normal pis to the inverters are from 1DB2Y. Power to the battery charger is from 1DB2X. The Alternate power supply to both inverters (APN-1 FB) is also lost. This means that power to APN-5903 and 5904 is lost, so all bistables powered from 'B' train are deenergized, resulting in a Reactor Trip. Loss of 1 HB will prevent the DIG air start solenoids from opening.

C.

Plausible because this would be true if the battery breaker were not open. The battery would supply backup power to the inverters; therefore, power to APN-5903 and 5904 would not be lost.

Incorrect because the Loss of power to Train 'B' 7300 process cabinets will initiate a Reactor Trip. Also incorrect because a loss of 1 HB will prevent the DIG air start solenoids from opening.

D.

Plausible because the 2nd part is true. Also plausible because this would be true if the battery breaker were not open. The battery would supply backup power to the inverters; therefore, power to APN-5903 and 5904 would not be lost.

Incorrect because the Loss of power to Train 'B' 7300 process cabinets will initiate a Reactor Trip.

DG B LOSS OF DC (XCP-637, ???)

AUTOMATIC ACTIONS:

1. Disables the automatic starting capability of Diesel Generator B.

2. If DPN1 HB1 13, 1 B DIESEL GEN CONT PNL XCX5202, has tripped:

a. Disables both automatic and manual Diesel Generator start capability.

b. Annunciator DG B ANNUN GND/PWR FAIL (XCP-637 3-6) alarms.

KlA- 058 G2.1.7:

(Loss of DC Power) Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.

Tier:

1 Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 106

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN Group:

1 Importance Rating:

R03.?

Technical

References:

Figures IBS.2 and IBS.3 Figure GS2.S IC-1S(pp18,19,32)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

18-5-28, IC-15-1?, GS-3-2o-4 Question History:

BANK VCSNS LORTClosedRefQuestions Bank - EMERGENCY DIESEL GEN OSO.

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(?), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must evaluate plant performance (loss 1 DB with the Train 'B' battery breaker open) and determine the impact on Reactor behavior (Reactor will TRIP).

GS-3-20-4 EXPLAIN the effect of the following failures of the DC power system:

4. Mispositioned DC power system breakers and switches.

Learning Objective IC-15-17:

EXPLAIN the effect of the following failures of the 7300 Process Instrumentation and Solid State Protection System interface:

1. Failure of power supply to solid state protection system and/or 7300 process racks

2. Loss of power to input relays (bistables) to 7300 process racks

3. Failure to block logics in solid state protection system Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 107 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN Group:

1 Importance Rating:

R03.?

Technical

References:

Figures IBS.2 and IBS.3 Figure GS2.S IC-1S(pp18,19,32)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

18-5-28, IC-15-1?, GS-3-2o-4 Question History:

BANK VCSNS LORTClosedRefQuestions Bank - EMERGENCY DIESEL GEN OSO.

10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(?), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must evaluate plant performance (loss 1 DB with the Train 'B' battery breaker open) and determine the impact on Reactor behavior (Reactor will TRIP).

GS-3-20-4 EXPLAIN the effect of the following failures of the DC power system:

4. Mispositioned DC power system breakers and switches.

Learning Objective IC-15-17:

EXPLAIN the effect of the following failures of the 7300 Process Instrumentation and Solid State Protection System interface:

1. Failure of power supply to solid state protection system and/or 7300 process racks

2. Loss of power to input relays (bistables) to 7300 process racks

3. Failure to block logics in solid state protection system Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 107

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 42.059 K4.13 001 Given the following plant conditions:

14% power A main turbine warmup is in progress.

Main Feedwater (MFW) Pump 'B' is in service.

The normal feeder breaker for service bus XSW-1A tripped OPEN.

The alternate feeder breaker to XSW-1A failed to CLOSE.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The 'A' S/G FRV will be operated in ______ to prevent a ____ _

A'I MANUAL; High-High S/G level B. AUTOMATIC; High-High S/G level C. MANUAL; Low-Low S/G level D. AUTOMATIC; Low-Low S/G level A.

CORRECT. lAW SOP-101,Section IV.A, Step 2.7, the FRV must be placed in MAN.

B.

Incorrect since SOP-101 requires manual control. Plausible because AUTO is used when the loop is steaming properly with an RCP running.

C.

Incorrect since S/G level will increase in the idle loop. Plausible since MAN is correct.

D.

Incorrect since S/G level in the idle loop will increase, even after the FRV is placed in MAN-CLOSED. Also incorrect since SOP-101 requires manual control Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 108 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 42.059 K4.13 001 Given the following plant conditions:

14% power A main turbine warmup is in progress.

Main Feedwater (MFW) Pump 'B' is in service.

The normal feeder breaker for service bus XSW-1A tripped OPEN.

The alternate feeder breaker to XSW-1A failed to CLOSE.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The 'A' S/G FRV will be operated in ______ to prevent a ____ _

A'I MANUAL; High-High S/G level B. AUTOMATIC; High-High S/G level C. MANUAL; Low-Low S/G level D. AUTOMATIC; Low-Low S/G level A.

CORRECT. lAW SOP-101,Section IV.A, Step 2.7, the FRV must be placed in MAN.

B.

Incorrect since SOP-101 requires manual control. Plausible because AUTO is used when the loop is steaming properly with an RCP running.

C.

Incorrect since S/G level will increase in the idle loop. Plausible since MAN is correct.

D.

Incorrect since S/G level in the idle loop will increase, even after the FRV is placed in MAN-CLOSED. Also incorrect since SOP-101 requires manual control Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 108

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 059 K4.13:

Knowledge of Main Feedwater design feature(s) and or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Feedwater fill for S/G upon loss of RCPs.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.9

• SOP-1 01,Section IV.A, Step 2.7 XCP-617,1-1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

LOR-IDLE-LOOP-05; TS-12-20 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

KIA appears to have been written for a plant with a specific interlock. No such interlock at VCS. Attempted to meet KIA by requiring knowledge of MFW Pump response to a trip caused by loss of an RCP.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 109 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 059 K4.13:

Knowledge of Main Feedwater design feature(s) and or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Feedwater fill for S/G upon loss of RCPs.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R02.9

• SOP-1 01,Section IV.A, Step 2.7 XCP-617,1-1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

LOR-IDLE-LOOP-05; TS-12-20 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

KIA appears to have been written for a plant with a specific interlock. No such interlock at VCS. Attempted to meet KIA by requiring knowledge of MFW Pump response to a trip caused by loss of an RCP.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 109

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 43.061 AK3.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 1 A LOCA occurs.

RM-G7, RB High Range Monitor, is in alarm and the alarm is determined to be valid.

RM-G17A & B, MANIP eRN, high radiation alarms have actuated.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes why the Annunciator Response Procedure for RM-G7 directs the operator refer to EOP-17.2, Response to High Reactor Building Radiation Levels?

EOP-17.2 will REQUIRE the operating crew to ___ _

A. Ensure Containment Ventilation Isolation; AND Verify that the RB Spray system is in service.

B:-' Ensure Containment Ventilation Isolation; AND Place both RBCU HEPA Filter trains in service.

C. Place both RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service; AND Verify that the RB Spray system is in service.

D. Place both RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service; AND I

.. Place both RBCU HEPA Filter trains in seNice.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 110 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 43.061 AK3.02 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 1 A LOCA occurs.

RM-G7, RB High Range Monitor, is in alarm and the alarm is determined to be valid.

RM-G17A & B, MANIP eRN, high radiation alarms have actuated.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes why the Annunciator Response Procedure for RM-G7 directs the operator refer to EOP-17.2, Response to High Reactor Building Radiation Levels?

EOP-17.2 will REQUIRE the operating crew to ___ _

A. Ensure Containment Ventilation Isolation; AND Verify that the RB Spray system is in service.

B:-' Ensure Containment Ventilation Isolation; AND Place both RBCU HEPA Filter trains in service.

C. Place both RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service; AND Verify that the RB Spray system is in service.

D. Place both RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service; AND I

.. Place both RBCU HEPA Filter trains in seNice.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 110

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because in EOP-2.0, the RB Spray System must be operated for a minimum of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> condition to ensure radiation doses at the site boundary are within the assumptions of Accident Analysis (see PSEG-08, Appendix S) and because the RB Spray system may be operated in EOP-17.0. Incorrect since RB Spray is NOT operated in EOP-17.2.

B.

According to the WOG FR-Z.3 Background Document (HFRZ3BD.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105), there are three major action items associated with this Functional Response Guideline; (1) Verify Containment Ventilation Isolation, (2) Place the Containment Atmosphere Filtration System in service, and Notify Plant Engineering Staff of Containment Radiation levels. Each of these Major Action Items have been retained in the VCS EOP-17.2 (Steps 1-3, Rev 4). Step 1 of this procedure directs the operator to verify Containment Ventilation Isolation Valves closed, and step 2 directs the operator to start both RBCU HEPA Filter trains.

C.

Plausible because after evaluation by the TSC, the RB Charcoal Cleanup units may be placed in service; although they are NOT required. Also plausible because in EOP-2.0, the RB Spray System must be operated for a minimum of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> condition to ensure radiation doses at the site boundary are within the assumptions of Accident Analysis (see PSEG-08, Appendix S) and because the RB Spray system may be operated in EOP-17.0. Incorrect since RB Spray is NOT operated in EOP-17.2. Also incorrect since PSEG-08, Appendix Q, requires a normal RB temperature and pressure prior to placing the RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service (reason for given info of "RB pressure 2.5 psig and steady").

D.

Plausible because after evaluation by the TSC, the RB Charcoal Cleanup units may be placed in service. Incorrect because they are NOT required. Also incorrect since PSEG-08, Appendix Q, requires a normal RB temperature and pressure prior to placing the RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service (reason for given info of "RB pressure 2.5 psig and steady"). Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 111 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because in EOP-2.0, the RB Spray System must be operated for a minimum of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> condition to ensure radiation doses at the site boundary are within the assumptions of Accident Analysis (see PSEG-08, Appendix S) and because the RB Spray system may be operated in EOP-17.0. Incorrect since RB Spray is NOT operated in EOP-17.2.

B.

According to the WOG FR-Z.3 Background Document (HFRZ3BD.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105), there are three major action items associated with this Functional Response Guideline; (1) Verify Containment Ventilation Isolation, (2) Place the Containment Atmosphere Filtration System in service, and Notify Plant Engineering Staff of Containment Radiation levels. Each of these Major Action Items have been retained in the VCS EOP-17.2 (Steps 1-3, Rev 4). Step 1 of this procedure directs the operator to verify Containment Ventilation Isolation Valves closed, and step 2 directs the operator to start both RBCU HEPA Filter trains.

C.

Plausible because after evaluation by the TSC, the RB Charcoal Cleanup units may be placed in service; although they are NOT required. Also plausible because in EOP-2.0, the RB Spray System must be operated for a minimum of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> condition to ensure radiation doses at the site boundary are within the assumptions of Accident Analysis (see PSEG-08, Appendix S) and because the RB Spray system may be operated in EOP-17.0. Incorrect since RB Spray is NOT operated in EOP-17.2. Also incorrect since PSEG-08, Appendix Q, requires a normal RB temperature and pressure prior to placing the RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service (reason for given info of "RB pressure 2.5 psig and steady").

D.

Plausible because after evaluation by the TSC, the RB Charcoal Cleanup units may be placed in service. Incorrect because they are NOT required. Also incorrect since PSEG-08, Appendix Q, requires a normal RB temperature and pressure prior to placing the RB Charcoal Cleanup Units in service (reason for given info of "RB pressure 2.5 psig and steady"). Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 111

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 061 AK3.20:

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) System Alarms: Guidance contained in alarm response for ARM system.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 2

RO 3.4 ARP-019, Rev 2, Panel XCP-645, AP 4-5 HFRZ3BD.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105 EOP-17.2 (Steps 1-3, Rev 4)

AB-17, p20, Rev 9 PSEG-08, Appendix S Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-17.2-2193 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the reason for the guidance contained in the ARP for Area Monitor RM-G7 (Le. Refer to EOP-17.2).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 112 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 061 AK3.20:

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) System Alarms: Guidance contained in alarm response for ARM system.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 2

RO 3.4 ARP-019, Rev 2, Panel XCP-645, AP 4-5 HFRZ3BD.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105 EOP-17.2 (Steps 1-3, Rev 4)

AB-17, p20, Rev 9 PSEG-08, Appendix S Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-17.2-2193 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the reason for the guidance contained in the ARP for Area Monitor RM-G7 (Le. Refer to EOP-17.2).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 112

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 44.061 K3.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

At 0900, the Reactor tripped when a loss of ALL off-site power (ESF & BOP) occurred.

The crew has entered EOP-15.0, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Condenser pressure is 5.1" Hg absolute.

During the event, WIDE RANGE Steam Generator levels were noted as follows:

SG 'A' WR - 85%

SG 'B' WR - 74%

SG 'C' WR - 77%

SG 'A' WR - 65%

SG 'B' WR - 56%

SG 'C' WR - 58%

SG 'A' WR - 50%

SG 'B' WR - 40%

SG 'C' WR - 37%

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of RCS temperature and pressure from 0905 to 0920?

A. RCS temperature is maintained by condenser steam dumps.

RCS pressure stabilizes below the PZR PORV setpoint.

B~ RCS temperature is maintained by SG power reliefs.

RCS pressure stabilizes below the PZR PORV setpoint.

C. RCS temperature rises steadily as SG level lowers.

RCS pressure rises to the PZR spray 100% full open setpoint.

D. RCS temperature rises steadily as SG level lowers.

RCS pressure rises to the PZR PORV setpoint and cycles around this value.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 113 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 44.061 K3.01 001 Given the following plant conditions:

At 0900, the Reactor tripped when a loss of ALL off-site power (ESF & BOP) occurred.

The crew has entered EOP-15.0, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Condenser pressure is 5.1" Hg absolute.

During the event, WIDE RANGE Steam Generator levels were noted as follows:

SG 'A' WR - 85%

SG 'B' WR - 74%

SG 'C' WR - 77%

SG 'A' WR - 65%

SG 'B' WR - 56%

SG 'C' WR - 58%

SG 'A' WR - 50%

SG 'B' WR - 40%

SG 'C' WR - 37%

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of RCS temperature and pressure from 0905 to 0920?

A. RCS temperature is maintained by condenser steam dumps.

RCS pressure stabilizes below the PZR PORV setpoint.

B~ RCS temperature is maintained by SG power reliefs.

RCS pressure stabilizes below the PZR PORV setpoint.

C. RCS temperature rises steadily as SG level lowers.

RCS pressure rises to the PZR spray 100% full open setpoint.

D. RCS temperature rises steadily as SG level lowers.

RCS pressure rises to the PZR PORV setpoint and cycles around this value.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 113

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible since this would be the response if off-site power was available. Incorrect since offsite power is not available, Circ Water is lost; therefore, C-9 will be lost due to low vacuum. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

B.

CORRECT. With no off-site power the condenser is unavailable. RCS temperature will be maintained by the SG power reliefs. PZR pressure will track RCS temperature, and will stabilize below the PZR PORV setpoint. See Figures 1 (page 6) and 7 (page 39) from the ERG background doc FR-H.1.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part would be the response as heat sink is being lost.

Incorrect because, although pressure will eventually rise to the PZR spray setpoint, pressure will continue to rise to the PZR PORV's setpoint. See Figures 1 (page 6) and 7 (page 39) from the ERG background doc FR-H.1. Also see discussion of Period 4 on page 8.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part would be the response as heat sink is being lost.

Plausible because pressure will eventually rise to the PZR PORV's setpoint, and cycle around that value. See Figures 1 (page 6) and 7 (page 39) from the ERG background doc FR-H.1. Also see discussion of Period 4 on page 8.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 114 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible since this would be the response if off-site power was available. Incorrect since offsite power is not available, Circ Water is lost; therefore, C-9 will be lost due to low vacuum. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

B.

CORRECT. With no off-site power the condenser is unavailable. RCS temperature will be maintained by the SG power reliefs. PZR pressure will track RCS temperature, and will stabilize below the PZR PORV setpoint. See Figures 1 (page 6) and 7 (page 39) from the ERG background doc FR-H.1.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part would be the response as heat sink is being lost.

Incorrect because, although pressure will eventually rise to the PZR spray setpoint, pressure will continue to rise to the PZR PORV's setpoint. See Figures 1 (page 6) and 7 (page 39) from the ERG background doc FR-H.1. Also see discussion of Period 4 on page 8.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part would be the response as heat sink is being lost.

Plausible because pressure will eventually rise to the PZR PORV's setpoint, and cycle around that value. See Figures 1 (page 6) and 7 (page 39) from the ERG background doc FR-H.1. Also see discussion of Period 4 on page 8.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 114

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 061 K3.01:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater will have on the following: RCS.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R04.4 HFR1 BG, Pages 3-9; and Figure 1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1S.0-2098 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(S)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of effect of EFW/FW failure on major RCS parameters.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 115 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 061 K3.01:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater will have on the following: RCS.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R04.4 HFR1 BG, Pages 3-9; and Figure 1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1S.0-2098 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(S)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of effect of EFW/FW failure on major RCS parameters.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 115

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 45.061 KS.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:

An AUTO SI actuated when a Pressurizer Safety Valve failed OPEN.

All Steam Generator (SG) Narrow Range levels are at 15%.

Tavg is 550°F, lowering.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the required action with respect to Emergency Feedwater flow in accordance with EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation?

A. Maintain maximum available EFW flow until at least one SG narrow range level is greater than 26% [40%].

B. Reduce total EFW flow to no less than 380 GPM to stop the cooldown.

C~ Reduce total EFW flow to no less than 450 GPM to stop the cooldown.

D. Reduce EFW flow to each SG to no less than 50 GPM to stabilize Tavg at the no load value.

A.

Plausible because EFW flow adjustments are contingent on SG level and operator may elect this option if cooldown is not in progress.

Incorrect since cooldown is occurring, the operator should throttle to 450 GPM.

B.

Plausible because the "reduce" part is correct. Also plausible because "380 gpm" is part of the design bases of the EFW system.

Incorrect since EOP-1.0, Step 9, Alternative Action, states that if at least 1 SG is NOT greater than 26%[40%], then the operator should throttle as necessary to stop the cooldown, but must maintain >450 gpm C.

CORRECT. Per EOP-1.0, Step 9 Alternative Action, if at least 1 SG is NOT greater than 26%[40%], then the operator should throttle as necessary to stop the cooldown, but must maintain >450 gpm.

D.

Plausible because it is a minimum flow value for other conditions in EOP-3.1 (multiple faulted SG's).

Incorrect since EOP-1.0, Step 9 Alternative Action, states that if at least 1 SG is NOT greater than 26%[40%], then the operator should throttle as necessary to stop the cooldown, but must maintain >450 gpm Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 116 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 45.061 KS.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:

An AUTO SI actuated when a Pressurizer Safety Valve failed OPEN.

All Steam Generator (SG) Narrow Range levels are at 15%.

Tavg is 550°F, lowering.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the required action with respect to Emergency Feedwater flow in accordance with EOP-1.0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection Actuation?

A. Maintain maximum available EFW flow until at least one SG narrow range level is greater than 26% [40%].

B. Reduce total EFW flow to no less than 380 GPM to stop the cooldown.

C~ Reduce total EFW flow to no less than 450 GPM to stop the cooldown.

D. Reduce EFW flow to each SG to no less than 50 GPM to stabilize Tavg at the no load value.

A.

Plausible because EFW flow adjustments are contingent on SG level and operator may elect this option if cooldown is not in progress.

Incorrect since cooldown is occurring, the operator should throttle to 450 GPM.

B.

Plausible because the "reduce" part is correct. Also plausible because "380 gpm" is part of the design bases of the EFW system.

Incorrect since EOP-1.0, Step 9, Alternative Action, states that if at least 1 SG is NOT greater than 26%[40%], then the operator should throttle as necessary to stop the cooldown, but must maintain >450 gpm C.

CORRECT. Per EOP-1.0, Step 9 Alternative Action, if at least 1 SG is NOT greater than 26%[40%], then the operator should throttle as necessary to stop the cooldown, but must maintain >450 gpm.

D.

Plausible because it is a minimum flow value for other conditions in EOP-3.1 (multiple faulted SG's).

Incorrect since EOP-1.0, Step 9 Alternative Action, states that if at least 1 SG is NOT greater than 26%[40%], then the operator should throttle as necessary to stop the cooldown, but must maintain >450 gpm Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 116

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 061 K5.05:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater: Feed Line Voiding and Water Hammer.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.6 EOP-1.0, Step 9 (Continuous Action), Page 7 of 36 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1.0-08 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Not an exact KIA match because, due to a program error in the KIA random generator, the question was actually written to 061 KS.01, Relationship between AFW flow and RCS heat transfer. Based on a discussion with the NRC Chief Examiner, the question was left as-written to 061 KS.01. Question matches this KIA in that it tests knowledge of throttling EFW if an RCS cooldown is in progress.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 117 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 061 K5.05:

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater: Feed Line Voiding and Water Hammer.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.6 EOP-1.0, Step 9 (Continuous Action), Page 7 of 36 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1.0-08 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Not an exact KIA match because, due to a program error in the KIA random generator, the question was actually written to 061 KS.01, Relationship between AFW flow and RCS heat transfer. Based on a discussion with the NRC Chief Examiner, the question was left as-written to 061 KS.01. Question matches this KIA in that it tests knowledge of throttling EFW if an RCS cooldown is in progress.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 117

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

46. 062 G2.4.46 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power The following annunciators actuate simultaneously:

EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 TRBL (XCP-633,1-4)

XFMR XTF31 LCKOUT 86T31 (XCP-639, 4-2)

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the condition than can cause the simultaneous actuation of these alarms, and describes the expected status of Bus 1 DB ONE (1) minute later?

A. SUDDEN PRESSURE at 5.5 psi/sec; Bus 1 DB deenergized B:' SUDDEN PRESSURE at 5.5 psi/sec; Bus 1 DB powered from EDG 'B' C. WINDING OVERLOAD at 110°C; Bus 1 DB deenergized D. WINDING OVERLOAD at 110°C; Bus 1 DB powered from EDG 'B' A.

Plausible because SUDDEN PRESSURE causes 86T31 relay operation, which isolates the transformer from the bus by locking out the normal feeder breaker. Incorrect since, the 86T31 relay does NOT prevent the DG breaker from closing to restore power. Also plausible because a dead bus would be true for a 51 BX lockout.

B.

CORRECT. 86T31 locks out the normal and alternate (emergency) feed breakers and opens the OCB. Since the 86T31 does not lockout the DG breaker, the EDG will restore power to the bus.

C.

Plausible because WINDING OVERLOAD is a valid input to the EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 TRBL annunciator. Incorrect since it does NOT actuate the 86T31 Relay.

D.

Plausible because WINDING OVERLOAD is a valid input to the EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 TRBL annunciator. Incorrect since it does NOT actuate the 86T31 Relay. 2nd part is incorrect since the EDG 'B' will energize the bus. 2nd part is plausible because a dead bus would be true for a 51 BX lockout.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 118 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

46. 062 G2.4.46 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power The following annunciators actuate simultaneously:

EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 TRBL (XCP-633,1-4)

XFMR XTF31 LCKOUT 86T31 (XCP-639, 4-2)

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the condition than can cause the simultaneous actuation of these alarms, and describes the expected status of Bus 1 DB ONE (1) minute later?

A. SUDDEN PRESSURE at 5.5 psi/sec; Bus 1 DB deenergized B:' SUDDEN PRESSURE at 5.5 psi/sec; Bus 1 DB powered from EDG 'B' C. WINDING OVERLOAD at 110°C; Bus 1 DB deenergized D. WINDING OVERLOAD at 110°C; Bus 1 DB powered from EDG 'B' A.

Plausible because SUDDEN PRESSURE causes 86T31 relay operation, which isolates the transformer from the bus by locking out the normal feeder breaker. Incorrect since, the 86T31 relay does NOT prevent the DG breaker from closing to restore power. Also plausible because a dead bus would be true for a 51 BX lockout.

B.

CORRECT. 86T31 locks out the normal and alternate (emergency) feed breakers and opens the OCB. Since the 86T31 does not lockout the DG breaker, the EDG will restore power to the bus.

C.

Plausible because WINDING OVERLOAD is a valid input to the EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 TRBL annunciator. Incorrect since it does NOT actuate the 86T31 Relay.

D.

Plausible because WINDING OVERLOAD is a valid input to the EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 TRBL annunciator. Incorrect since it does NOT actuate the 86T31 Relay. 2nd part is incorrect since the EDG 'B' will energize the bus. 2nd part is plausible because a dead bus would be true for a 51 BX lockout.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 118

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 062 G2.4.46:

(AC Electrical Distribution) Ability to verify that the alarms are consistent with the plant conditions.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R04.2 ARP-001-XCP-633, 1-4 (Page 6 of 58)

ARP-001-XCP-639, 4-2 (23 of 39)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-2-06 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41.10 KIA Match:

Meets KIA by demonstrating knowledge of expected ESF AC Bus status with two alarms actuated.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 119 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 062 G2.4.46:

(AC Electrical Distribution) Ability to verify that the alarms are consistent with the plant conditions.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R04.2 ARP-001-XCP-633, 1-4 (Page 6 of 58)

ARP-001-XCP-639, 4-2 (23 of 39)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-2-06 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41.10 KIA Match:

Meets KIA by demonstrating knowledge of expected ESF AC Bus status with two alarms actuated.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 119

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

47. 062 02.4.9 002 Which ONE (1) of the following describes the MINIMUM AC power sources required by GOP-9, Mid-Loop Operation, for mid-loop operations?

A. TWO independent sources of off-site power to the ESF buses.

B. ONE source of off-site power to the ESF buses and ONE Emergency Diesel Generator operable.

C. ONE source of off-site power to the ESF buses and BOTH Emergency Diesel Generators operable.

D~ TWO independent sources of off-site power to the ESF buses and ONE Emergency Diesel Generator operable.

A.

Plausible because it is the 1 st part of the actual requirement in GOp-g.

Incorrect because it does not meet the minimum requirements of GOp-g.

B.

Plausible because T.S. 3.8.1.2 requires one circuit between the off-site transmission network and one EDG for Modes 5 and 6.

Incorrect because it does not meet the minimum requirements of GOp-g.

C.

Plausible because this is the reverse of the actual requirement. It contains two of one source (DGs) and one of the other sources (off site) and this is a possible electrical configuration during an outage. Although the intent is to normally schedule bus outages around mid-loop operations, emerging issues may dictate this alignment.

Incorrect because it does not meet the minimum requirements of GOp-g.

D.

CORRECT. lAW GOp-g, Step 3.6 (page 6 of 19).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 120 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

47. 062 02.4.9 002 Which ONE (1) of the following describes the MINIMUM AC power sources required by GOP-9, Mid-Loop Operation, for mid-loop operations?

A. TWO independent sources of off-site power to the ESF buses.

B. ONE source of off-site power to the ESF buses and ONE Emergency Diesel Generator operable.

C. ONE source of off-site power to the ESF buses and BOTH Emergency Diesel Generators operable.

D~ TWO independent sources of off-site power to the ESF buses and ONE Emergency Diesel Generator operable.

A.

Plausible because it is the 1 st part of the actual requirement in GOp-g.

Incorrect because it does not meet the minimum requirements of GOp-g.

B.

Plausible because T.S. 3.8.1.2 requires one circuit between the off-site transmission network and one EDG for Modes 5 and 6.

Incorrect because it does not meet the minimum requirements of GOp-g.

C.

Plausible because this is the reverse of the actual requirement. It contains two of one source (DGs) and one of the other sources (off site) and this is a possible electrical configuration during an outage. Although the intent is to normally schedule bus outages around mid-loop operations, emerging issues may dictate this alignment.

Incorrect because it does not meet the minimum requirements of GOp-g.

D.

CORRECT. lAW GOp-g, Step 3.6 (page 6 of 19).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 120

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 062 G2.4.9:

(AC electrical Distribution) Knowledge of low power / shutdown implications in accident (e.g.

LOCA or loss of RHR) mitigation strategies.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.8 GOP-9, Step 3.6 (Page 6 of 19)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

GOP-9-5102 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

Comments:

This question addresses KIA by requiring knowledge of AC power source mitigating strategy/availability prior to entering a specific low power condition. The bases for the N+ 1 approach is to protect against a loss of RHR while at mid-loop.

NRC Form ES-401-9 Comments (2009 NRC Exam):

REVIEWS & VALIDATION RESULTS:

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 121 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 062 G2.4.9:

(AC electrical Distribution) Knowledge of low power / shutdown implications in accident (e.g.

LOCA or loss of RHR) mitigation strategies.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.8 GOP-9, Step 3.6 (Page 6 of 19)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

GOP-9-5102 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

Comments:

This question addresses KIA by requiring knowledge of AC power source mitigating strategy/availability prior to entering a specific low power condition. The bases for the N+ 1 approach is to protect against a loss of RHR while at mid-loop.

NRC Form ES-401-9 Comments (2009 NRC Exam):

REVIEWS & VALIDATION RESULTS:

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 121

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 48.063 A4.01 003 I

Given the following plant conditions:

I 100% power The electric plant is in a normal, at-power lineup.

Annunciator 7.2 KV BOP BUSSES LOSS OF DC (XCP-635, 6-1) has actuated.

Electricians report that the supply breaker from DPN-1 HX3 to XSW -1 A has tripped open.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the opening capability for the XSW-1 A feeder breaker?

A"I Can be opened manually using the trip pushbutton at the breaker ONLY.

B. Can be opened manually using the open contactor with a screwdriver at the breaker OR using the trip pushbutton at the breaker.

C. Can be opened manually using the trip pushbutton at the breaker OR automatically by protective relay actuation.

D. Can be opened manually using the open contactor with a screwdriver at the breaker OR automatically by protective relay actuation.

A.

CORRECT. With no control power available, the breaker can only be operated locally.

B.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because the 2nd part is a method for operating MOVs from their MCC.

Incorrect since breaker operation can not be performed with a screwdriver in the open contactor.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - with no control power available, the breaker can only be operated locally.

2nd part is incorrect because automatic tripping also requires DC power.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is a method for operating MOVs from their MCC.

2nd part is incorrect because automatic tripping requires DC power. Also incorrect since breaker operation can not be performed with a screwdriver in the open contactor.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 122 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 48.063 A4.01 003 I

Given the following plant conditions:

I 100% power The electric plant is in a normal, at-power lineup.

Annunciator 7.2 KV BOP BUSSES LOSS OF DC (XCP-635, 6-1) has actuated.

Electricians report that the supply breaker from DPN-1 HX3 to XSW -1 A has tripped open.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the opening capability for the XSW-1 A feeder breaker?

A"I Can be opened manually using the trip pushbutton at the breaker ONLY.

B. Can be opened manually using the open contactor with a screwdriver at the breaker OR using the trip pushbutton at the breaker.

C. Can be opened manually using the trip pushbutton at the breaker OR automatically by protective relay actuation.

D. Can be opened manually using the open contactor with a screwdriver at the breaker OR automatically by protective relay actuation.

A.

CORRECT. With no control power available, the breaker can only be operated locally.

B.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because the 2nd part is a method for operating MOVs from their MCC.

Incorrect since breaker operation can not be performed with a screwdriver in the open contactor.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - with no control power available, the breaker can only be operated locally.

2nd part is incorrect because automatic tripping also requires DC power.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is a method for operating MOVs from their MCC.

2nd part is incorrect because automatic tripping requires DC power. Also incorrect since breaker operation can not be performed with a screwdriver in the open contactor.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 122

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 063 A4.01:

(DC Electrical Distribution) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Major breakers and control power fuses.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R02.8 GS-1, Pages 17/18 ARP-001-XCP-635,6-1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-1-12 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions TECH SPEC 64 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of breaker indication and operating circuit with no DC control power available and the capability to operate the breaker in that status.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 123 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 063 A4.01:

(DC Electrical Distribution) Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Major breakers and control power fuses.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R02.8 GS-1, Pages 17/18 ARP-001-XCP-635,6-1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-1-12 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions TECH SPEC 64 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of breaker indication and operating circuit with no DC control power available and the capability to operate the breaker in that status.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 123

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

49. 064 A3.0S 001

~--------------------~------~~------------~----~~~~------

When restoring the vital buses to off-site power in accordance with SOP-306, Emergency Diesel Generator, the respective diesel generator speed and voltage droop circuits are placed in service when __ _

A. depressing the local TEST START pushbutton B~ momentarily placing the MCB TEST Switch to START C. depressing the local EMERG START RESET pushbutton D. depressing the MCB EMERG START OVRRIDE pushbutton A.

Plausible because this action would be true if the REMOTEILOCAUMAINT Switch on the local DG control panel were in LOCAL.

Incorrect since the TEST START pushbutton is not in the circuit with the mode switch normally in the REMOTE position.

B.

CORRECT. The droop circuits are reinstated after the MCB TEST switch is momentarily placed in START (see IB-5, page 61 of 85 and drawing C-203-005).

C.

Plausible because this action is part of the sequence of steps for locally restoring off-site power to the vital buses/shutting down the EDG and preparing it for AUTO start.

Incorrect because it is the operation of the local TEST START pushbutton that restores the droop circuits prior to synchronizing.

D.

Plausible because this action is part of the sequence of MCB steps for restoring off-site power to the vital buses/shutting down the EDG by clearing the AUTO start signal.

Incorrect because it is the operation of the TEST Switch that restores the droop circuits prior to synchronizing.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 124 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

49. 064 A3.0S 001

~--------------------~------~~------------~----~~~~------

When restoring the vital buses to off-site power in accordance with SOP-306, Emergency Diesel Generator, the respective diesel generator speed and voltage droop circuits are placed in service when __ _

A. depressing the local TEST START pushbutton B~ momentarily placing the MCB TEST Switch to START C. depressing the local EMERG START RESET pushbutton D. depressing the MCB EMERG START OVRRIDE pushbutton A.

Plausible because this action would be true if the REMOTEILOCAUMAINT Switch on the local DG control panel were in LOCAL.

Incorrect since the TEST START pushbutton is not in the circuit with the mode switch normally in the REMOTE position.

B.

CORRECT. The droop circuits are reinstated after the MCB TEST switch is momentarily placed in START (see IB-5, page 61 of 85 and drawing C-203-005).

C.

Plausible because this action is part of the sequence of steps for locally restoring off-site power to the vital buses/shutting down the EDG and preparing it for AUTO start.

Incorrect because it is the operation of the local TEST START pushbutton that restores the droop circuits prior to synchronizing.

D.

Plausible because this action is part of the sequence of MCB steps for restoring off-site power to the vital buses/shutting down the EDG by clearing the AUTO start signal.

Incorrect because it is the operation of the TEST Switch that restores the droop circuits prior to synchronizing.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 124

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_G IVEN KIA - 064 A3.05:

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor automatic operations of the emergency diesel Generator including: Operation of the governor control of frequency and voltage control in parallel operation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

18-5, Page 61 2

1 R02.8 SOP-306, Step 2.11 (Page 93 of 109)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

18-5-07 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference question EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR 147 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by demonstrating understanding of when speed and voltage droop (real and reactive loading share) circuits become active following an emergency start.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 125 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_G IVEN KIA - 064 A3.05:

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor automatic operations of the emergency diesel Generator including: Operation of the governor control of frequency and voltage control in parallel operation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

18-5, Page 61 2

1 R02.8 SOP-306, Step 2.11 (Page 93 of 109)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

18-5-07 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference question EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR 147 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by demonstrating understanding of when speed and voltage droop (real and reactive loading share) circuits become active following an emergency start.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 125

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 50.064 K4.1O 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Normal full power alignment Which ONE (1) of the following Bus 1DA conditions will cause the Emergency Safeguards Loading Sequencer (ESFLS) to actuate in the BLACKOUT mode?

With respect to bus 1DA:

A'! A lightning strike causes a reduction in voltage to 5600V for 3 (THREE) seconds.

B. A transformer windings problem causes a voltage reduction to 6680V for 10 (TEN) seconds.

C. A degraded voltage sensor fails to ZERO while another degraded voltage sensor is being tested.

D. A CCW Pump 'A' motor failure causes voltage on two phases to drop to 6500V for 5 seconds before the pump breaker trips.

A.

B.

CORRECT. All three phases are <5760V for more than.25 seconds.

Plausible because it is a sustained problem of >3 seconds on all three phases. Also plausible because 6680 is close to 6580. The ESFLS will not actuate for an additional 2.0 seconds after the UV is sensed (0.25 + 2.0 = 2.25 seconds. See page 50 of 98 of GS-2.

Incorrect because it is above the degraded voltage setpoint (6580V).

C.

Plausible because the voltage is below the undervoltage setpoint on one channel and the other may be tripped while testing is in progress.

Incorrect because the logic is 3/3 phases below the setpoint (see DG DBD, page 3.9-13

& drawings B-208-037-ES66A/ES66B, & drawings B-208-024-DG22).

D.

Plausible because it is below the degraded voltage setpoint for >5 seconds.

Incorrect because it is only 213 sensors.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 126 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 50.064 K4.1O 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Normal full power alignment Which ONE (1) of the following Bus 1DA conditions will cause the Emergency Safeguards Loading Sequencer (ESFLS) to actuate in the BLACKOUT mode?

With respect to bus 1DA:

A'! A lightning strike causes a reduction in voltage to 5600V for 3 (THREE) seconds.

B. A transformer windings problem causes a voltage reduction to 6680V for 10 (TEN) seconds.

C. A degraded voltage sensor fails to ZERO while another degraded voltage sensor is being tested.

D. A CCW Pump 'A' motor failure causes voltage on two phases to drop to 6500V for 5 seconds before the pump breaker trips.

A.

B.

CORRECT. All three phases are <5760V for more than.25 seconds.

Plausible because it is a sustained problem of >3 seconds on all three phases. Also plausible because 6680 is close to 6580. The ESFLS will not actuate for an additional 2.0 seconds after the UV is sensed (0.25 + 2.0 = 2.25 seconds. See page 50 of 98 of GS-2.

Incorrect because it is above the degraded voltage setpoint (6580V).

C.

Plausible because the voltage is below the undervoltage setpoint on one channel and the other may be tripped while testing is in progress.

Incorrect because the logic is 3/3 phases below the setpoint (see DG DBD, page 3.9-13

& drawings B-208-037-ES66A/ES66B, & drawings B-208-024-DG22).

D.

Plausible because it is below the degraded voltage setpoint for >5 seconds.

Incorrect because it is only 213 sensors.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 126

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 064 K4.10:

Knowledge of Emergency Diesel Generator design feature(s) and or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Automatic load sequencer: blackout.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.5 GS-2, Page 67 of 95 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IB-5-19 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring applicant to know setpoint and logic for ESFLS Blackout loading.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 127 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 064 K4.10:

Knowledge of Emergency Diesel Generator design feature(s) and or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Automatic load sequencer: blackout.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.5 GS-2, Page 67 of 95 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

IB-5-19 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring applicant to know setpoint and logic for ESFLS Blackout loading.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 127

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 51.065 AK3.08 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A pipe rupture in the Instrument Air System results in a sustained loss of system pressure.

The operating crew implements the appropriate procedures.

Remote control of the EFW Flow Control Valves has been lost.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes what is required, in accordance with AOP-220.1, Loss of Instrument Air, to prevent exceeding MDEFP operating limitations?

A'! Expand the SG Narrow Range level control range.

Alternate starting the two MD EFW Pumps.

B. Expand the SG Narrow Range level control range.

Isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

C. Alternate steaming one Steam Generator at a time to control RCS temperature.

Alternate starting the two MD EFW Pumps.

D. Alternate steaming one Steam Generator at a time to control RCS temperature.

Isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 128 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 51.065 AK3.08 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A pipe rupture in the Instrument Air System results in a sustained loss of system pressure.

The operating crew implements the appropriate procedures.

Remote control of the EFW Flow Control Valves has been lost.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes what is required, in accordance with AOP-220.1, Loss of Instrument Air, to prevent exceeding MDEFP operating limitations?

A'! Expand the SG Narrow Range level control range.

Alternate starting the two MD EFW Pumps.

B. Expand the SG Narrow Range level control range.

Isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

C. Alternate steaming one Steam Generator at a time to control RCS temperature.

Alternate starting the two MD EFW Pumps.

D. Alternate steaming one Steam Generator at a time to control RCS temperature.

Isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 128

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. According to AOP-220.1 (Rev 2), Step 9b, the operator will be required to control EFW Flow Control Valves manually to maintain Steam Generator Narrow Range levels between 55-65% in a post-reactor trip situation (Note that this step of the AOP can only be implemented if a reactor trip has occurred at step 4). The second NOTE before Step 9 states that if EFW Pumps must be stopped to control SG level, as is the case stated in the condition of the question, level should be allowed to decrease to 30%

(Le. expand the SG Narrow Range level control range), and the pumps should be alternated, to avoid exceeding the starting duty.

B.

Plausible because EOP-1.0, Attachment 3, Step 4 directs isolation of blowdown and sampling, which will result in longer times between the need to refill the SGs. Also plausible because the 1 st part is correct.

Incorrect because there are NO action steps within AOP-220.1 to isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

C.

Plausible because the SG PORVs must be manually controlled at Step 10 of the AOP.

Manually opening only one PORV at a time will retain overall SG inventory for a longer period of time. Also plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

Incorrect because Step 10 of the AOP directs that all three SG power reliefs be manually opened to control RCS temperature at 55rF. Also, the Caution prior to this step warns the operator about establishing a temperature differential between the RCS loops of greater than 25°F. CAUTION - Step 10 further warns against an unbalanced steam load, which could cause a Steamline DEL TA-P SI.

D.

Plausible because the SG PORVs must be manually controlled at Step 10 of the AOP.

Manually opening only one PORV at a time will retain overall SG inventory for a longer period of time. Also plausible because EOP-1.0, Attachment 3, Step 4 directs isolation of blowdown and sampling, which will result in longer times between the need to refill the SGs.

Incorrect because Step 10 of the AOP directs that all three SG power reliefs to be manually opened to control RCS temperature at 55rF.

Also incorrect because there are NO action steps within AOP-220.1 to isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 129 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

CORRECT. According to AOP-220.1 (Rev 2), Step 9b, the operator will be required to control EFW Flow Control Valves manually to maintain Steam Generator Narrow Range levels between 55-65% in a post-reactor trip situation (Note that this step of the AOP can only be implemented if a reactor trip has occurred at step 4). The second NOTE before Step 9 states that if EFW Pumps must be stopped to control SG level, as is the case stated in the condition of the question, level should be allowed to decrease to 30%

(Le. expand the SG Narrow Range level control range), and the pumps should be alternated, to avoid exceeding the starting duty.

B.

Plausible because EOP-1.0, Attachment 3, Step 4 directs isolation of blowdown and sampling, which will result in longer times between the need to refill the SGs. Also plausible because the 1 st part is correct.

Incorrect because there are NO action steps within AOP-220.1 to isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

C.

Plausible because the SG PORVs must be manually controlled at Step 10 of the AOP.

Manually opening only one PORV at a time will retain overall SG inventory for a longer period of time. Also plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

Incorrect because Step 10 of the AOP directs that all three SG power reliefs be manually opened to control RCS temperature at 55rF. Also, the Caution prior to this step warns the operator about establishing a temperature differential between the RCS loops of greater than 25°F. CAUTION - Step 10 further warns against an unbalanced steam load, which could cause a Steamline DEL TA-P SI.

D.

Plausible because the SG PORVs must be manually controlled at Step 10 of the AOP.

Manually opening only one PORV at a time will retain overall SG inventory for a longer period of time. Also plausible because EOP-1.0, Attachment 3, Step 4 directs isolation of blowdown and sampling, which will result in longer times between the need to refill the SGs.

Incorrect because Step 10 of the AOP directs that all three SG power reliefs to be manually opened to control RCS temperature at 55rF.

Also incorrect because there are NO action steps within AOP-220.1 to isolate blowdown and sampling from the Steam Generators.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 129

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 065 AK3.0B:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Loss of Instrument Air will have on the following: Actions contained in EOP for loss of instrument air.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

AOP-220.1, Rev 2 1

1 R03.?

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AOP-220.1-5 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Open Reference question AOPS 129 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10), (14)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the reasons for the actions contained in EOP for the loss of Instrument Air (AOP-220.1), even though the question is asked in reverse (Given why, what actions are necessary, rather than why is this action necessary).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 130 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 065 AK3.0B:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Loss of Instrument Air will have on the following: Actions contained in EOP for loss of instrument air.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

AOP-220.1, Rev 2 1

1 R03.?

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AOP-220.1-5 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Open Reference question AOPS 129 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10), (14)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the reasons for the actions contained in EOP for the loss of Instrument Air (AOP-220.1), even though the question is asked in reverse (Given why, what actions are necessary, rather than why is this action necessary).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 130

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

52. 068 AA2.02 003 Given the following plant conditions:

Following a Control Room Evacuation, the plant is being controlled in accordance with GOP-8, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown with the Control Room Inaccessible Mode 3 to Mode 5.

The CRS directs the RO to perform calculations for Mode 5, Short Term Cold Shutdown conditions (bubble in the PZR) to raise boron concentration !2Y. 300 ppm.

Present RCS boron concentration is 100 ppm.

MVT-8104, Emergency BA Flow Control Valve, has been opened.

Boric Acid Transfer Pump 'B' has been started.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the CREP indication that will be used to monitor the amount of boron injected into the Reactor Coolant System AND the MINIMUM specific criteria which will be used to terminate the boration in accordance with GOP-8?

REFERENCES PROVIDED A. FI-122B, CHARGING FLOW GPM; 30 gpm for 127 minutes.

B. FI-122B, CHARGING FLOW GPM; 85 gpm for 34 minutes.

C. FI-110A, EMERGENCY BA FLOW GPM; 30 gpm for 127 minutes.

D~ FI-11 OA, EMERGENCY BA FLOW GPM; 85 gpm for 34 minutes.

A.

Plausible because FI-122B is also on the CREP and would be used if emergency borating by gravity drain. This is plausible because other procedures, such as AOP-106.1 and EOP-1.1, require the operator to verify flow on FI-11 OA to be > 30 gpm to verify that Emergency Boration is occurring. The 127 minutes is based on a common error in reading Figure 111-2 of the VCSNS Curve Book. The common error is that the column is incorrectly determined by adding the amount of change to the initial concentration (in this case, 300 + 100 = 400) instead of simply subtracting the final -

initial. Based on this error, the amount of acid to be added = 2964 X CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease (down to 200°F) = 3793.92 gallons. At 30 gpm, this would take approximately 126.5 minutes (Time = 3793.92 gallons/30 gpm=126.46 minutes).

Incorrect because this would result in MORE than the minimum boration. Also incorrect Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 131 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

52. 068 AA2.02 003 Given the following plant conditions:

Following a Control Room Evacuation, the plant is being controlled in accordance with GOP-8, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown with the Control Room Inaccessible Mode 3 to Mode 5.

The CRS directs the RO to perform calculations for Mode 5, Short Term Cold Shutdown conditions (bubble in the PZR) to raise boron concentration !2Y. 300 ppm.

Present RCS boron concentration is 100 ppm.

MVT-8104, Emergency BA Flow Control Valve, has been opened.

Boric Acid Transfer Pump 'B' has been started.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the CREP indication that will be used to monitor the amount of boron injected into the Reactor Coolant System AND the MINIMUM specific criteria which will be used to terminate the boration in accordance with GOP-8?

REFERENCES PROVIDED A. FI-122B, CHARGING FLOW GPM; 30 gpm for 127 minutes.

B. FI-122B, CHARGING FLOW GPM; 85 gpm for 34 minutes.

C. FI-110A, EMERGENCY BA FLOW GPM; 30 gpm for 127 minutes.

D~ FI-11 OA, EMERGENCY BA FLOW GPM; 85 gpm for 34 minutes.

A.

Plausible because FI-122B is also on the CREP and would be used if emergency borating by gravity drain. This is plausible because other procedures, such as AOP-106.1 and EOP-1.1, require the operator to verify flow on FI-11 OA to be > 30 gpm to verify that Emergency Boration is occurring. The 127 minutes is based on a common error in reading Figure 111-2 of the VCSNS Curve Book. The common error is that the column is incorrectly determined by adding the amount of change to the initial concentration (in this case, 300 + 100 = 400) instead of simply subtracting the final -

initial. Based on this error, the amount of acid to be added = 2964 X CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease (down to 200°F) = 3793.92 gallons. At 30 gpm, this would take approximately 126.5 minutes (Time = 3793.92 gallons/30 gpm=126.46 minutes).

Incorrect because this would result in MORE than the minimum boration. Also incorrect Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 131

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA TABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN because FI-122 is not the Flow indicator utilized in GOP-8.0 Attachment XX - FI-11 OA would be used for emergency borating through MVG-81 04.

B.

Plausible because FI-122B is also on the CREP and would be used if emergency borating by gravity drain. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. According to IC-10 (p11, Rev 6), the Emergency BA Flow (FI-110A) is provided on the B CREP.

According to GOP-8, Attachment XX, the operator is required to verify flow on FI-11 OA, and then close MVT-8104 after the required amount of Boron has been injected.

According to Figure 111-2, RCS Boration, Gallons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (Rev 11/11/94) in the V.C. Summer Unit Number One Station Curve Book an increase of 300 ppm from the present RCS Boron Concentration of 100 ppm (1 00 ppm on the X Axis

{Vertical} and 300 ppm on the Y Axis {Horizontal}) will require an addition of 2207 gallons. Applying the CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease results in 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid required (2207 X 1.28 = 2824.96). The addition of 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid, which is being added at 85 gallons per minute, will require approximately 34 minutes (Time = 2824.96 gallons/8S gpm = 33.23 minutes).

Incorrect because FI-122 is not the flow indicator utilized in GOP-8.0, Attachment XX.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because other procedures, such as AOP-1 06.1 and EOP-1.1, require the operator to verify flow on FI-11 OA to be >

30 gpm to verify that Emergency Boration is occurring. The 127 minutes is based on a common error in reading Figure 111-2 of the VCSNS Curve Book. The common error is that the column is incorrectly determined by adding the amount of change to the initial concentration (in this case, 300 + 100 = 400) instead of simply subtracting the final -

initial. Based on this error and applying the CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease, the amount of acid to be added = 3793.92 gallons. (2964 X 1.28 = 3793.92). At 30 gpm, this would take approximately 127 minutes (Time = 3793.92 gallons/30 gpm

=126.46 minutes).

Incorrect because this would result in MORE than the minimum boration.

D.

CORRECT.

According to IC-10 (p11, Rev 6), the Emergency BA Flow (FI-110A) is provided on the 'B' CREP. According to GOP-8, Attachment XX, the operator is required to verify flow on FI-11 OA, and then close MVT -8104 after the required amount of Boron has been injected. According to Figure 111-2, RCS Boration, Gallons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (Rev 11/11/94) in the V.C. Summer Unit Number One Station Curve Book an increase of 300 ppm from the present RCS Boron Concentration of 100 ppm (100 ppm on the X Axis {Vertical} and 300 ppm on the Y Axis {Horizontal}) will require an addition of 2207 gallons. Applying the CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease (down to 200°F) results in 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid required (2207 X 1.28 = 2824.96). The addition of 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid, which is being added at 85 gallons per minute, will require approximately 34 minutes (Time = 2824.96 gallons/8S gpm = 33.23 minutes)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 132 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA TABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN because FI-122 is not the Flow indicator utilized in GOP-8.0 Attachment XX - FI-11 OA would be used for emergency borating through MVG-81 04.

B.

Plausible because FI-122B is also on the CREP and would be used if emergency borating by gravity drain. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. According to IC-10 (p11, Rev 6), the Emergency BA Flow (FI-110A) is provided on the B CREP.

According to GOP-8, Attachment XX, the operator is required to verify flow on FI-11 OA, and then close MVT-8104 after the required amount of Boron has been injected.

According to Figure 111-2, RCS Boration, Gallons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (Rev 11/11/94) in the V.C. Summer Unit Number One Station Curve Book an increase of 300 ppm from the present RCS Boron Concentration of 100 ppm (1 00 ppm on the X Axis

{Vertical} and 300 ppm on the Y Axis {Horizontal}) will require an addition of 2207 gallons. Applying the CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease results in 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid required (2207 X 1.28 = 2824.96). The addition of 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid, which is being added at 85 gallons per minute, will require approximately 34 minutes (Time = 2824.96 gallons/8S gpm = 33.23 minutes).

Incorrect because FI-122 is not the flow indicator utilized in GOP-8.0, Attachment XX.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because other procedures, such as AOP-1 06.1 and EOP-1.1, require the operator to verify flow on FI-11 OA to be >

30 gpm to verify that Emergency Boration is occurring. The 127 minutes is based on a common error in reading Figure 111-2 of the VCSNS Curve Book. The common error is that the column is incorrectly determined by adding the amount of change to the initial concentration (in this case, 300 + 100 = 400) instead of simply subtracting the final -

initial. Based on this error and applying the CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease, the amount of acid to be added = 3793.92 gallons. (2964 X 1.28 = 3793.92). At 30 gpm, this would take approximately 127 minutes (Time = 3793.92 gallons/30 gpm

=126.46 minutes).

Incorrect because this would result in MORE than the minimum boration.

D.

CORRECT.

According to IC-10 (p11, Rev 6), the Emergency BA Flow (FI-110A) is provided on the 'B' CREP. According to GOP-8, Attachment XX, the operator is required to verify flow on FI-11 OA, and then close MVT -8104 after the required amount of Boron has been injected. According to Figure 111-2, RCS Boration, Gallons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (Rev 11/11/94) in the V.C. Summer Unit Number One Station Curve Book an increase of 300 ppm from the present RCS Boron Concentration of 100 ppm (100 ppm on the X Axis {Vertical} and 300 ppm on the Y Axis {Horizontal}) will require an addition of 2207 gallons. Applying the CF of 1.28 for the temperature decrease (down to 200°F) results in 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid required (2207 X 1.28 = 2824.96). The addition of 2824.96 gallons of Boric Acid, which is being added at 85 gallons per minute, will require approximately 34 minutes (Time = 2824.96 gallons/8S gpm = 33.23 minutes)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 132

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 068 AA2.02:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Control Room Evacuation and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Local boric acid flow.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

IC-10, p11, Rev 6 1

2 R03.?

GOP-8, Rev 6, Attachment XX V.C. Summer Station Curve Book, Figure "1-2, RCS Boration, Ga"ons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (Rev 11/11/94)

V.C. Summer Station Curve Book, Figure "1-6, Boron Change Correction Factors, (Rev 11/11/94)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

V.C. Summer Unit Number One Station Curve Book:

Figure "1-2, RCS Boration, Ga"ons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (A" 3 Pages)

Figure "-6, Boron Change Correction Factors (1 Page)

Learning Objective:

GOP-8-5 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know the indications available at the CREP (i.e.

determine) and demonstrate the ability to interpret the local BA flow indication with respect to completing a required boration for Shutdown Margin.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 133 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 068 AA2.02:

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the Control Room Evacuation and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal operation: Local boric acid flow.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

IC-10, p11, Rev 6 1

2 R03.?

GOP-8, Rev 6, Attachment XX V.C. Summer Station Curve Book, Figure "1-2, RCS Boration, Ga"ons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (Rev 11/11/94)

V.C. Summer Station Curve Book, Figure "1-6, Boron Change Correction Factors, (Rev 11/11/94)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

V.C. Summer Unit Number One Station Curve Book:

Figure "1-2, RCS Boration, Ga"ons (VB) of Boric Acid Required (A" 3 Pages)

Figure "-6, Boron Change Correction Factors (1 Page)

Learning Objective:

GOP-8-5 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must know the indications available at the CREP (i.e.

determine) and demonstrate the ability to interpret the local BA flow indication with respect to completing a required boration for Shutdown Margin.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 133

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

53. 072 Kl.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A sudden double-ended shear of a tube (450 gpm) occurs in Steam Generator 'A'.

Which ONE (1) of the following radiation monitors will provide the FIRST indication of this event AND how will this monitor trend following the Reactor Trip and SI?

A. RM-G19A, Main Steam Line Monitor; Increase.

B:' RM-G 19A, Main Steam Line Monitor; Decrease.

C. RM-A9, Condenser Exhaust Monitor; Increase.

D. RM-A9, Condenser Exhaust Monitor; Decrease.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 134 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

53. 072 Kl.05 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A sudden double-ended shear of a tube (450 gpm) occurs in Steam Generator 'A'.

Which ONE (1) of the following radiation monitors will provide the FIRST indication of this event AND how will this monitor trend following the Reactor Trip and SI?

A. RM-G19A, Main Steam Line Monitor; Increase.

B:' RM-G 19A, Main Steam Line Monitor; Decrease.

C. RM-A9, Condenser Exhaust Monitor; Increase.

D. RM-A9, Condenser Exhaust Monitor; Decrease.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 134

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _N RC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - according to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), the RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

Incorrect because, according to GS-9 (p45), the operator should expect the readings on the Steam Line Monitors to drop immediately after trip since the production of the short-lived N-16 gamma has ceased.

B.

CORRECT. According to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), the RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak. Also according to GS-9 (p45), the operator should expect the readings on the Steam Line Monitors to drop immediately after trip since the production of the short-lived N16 gamma has ceased.

C.

Plausible because RM-A9 will actuate on a SGTR.

Incorrect because, according to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

D.

Plausible because RM-A9 will actuate on a SGTR. Also plausible because the 2nd half is correct. Also according to GS-9 (p45), the operator should expect the readings on the Steam Line Monitors to drop immediately after trip since the production of the short-lived N-16 gamma has ceased.

Incorrect because, according to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 135 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _N RC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct - according to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), the RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

Incorrect because, according to GS-9 (p45), the operator should expect the readings on the Steam Line Monitors to drop immediately after trip since the production of the short-lived N-16 gamma has ceased.

B.

CORRECT. According to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), the RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak. Also according to GS-9 (p45), the operator should expect the readings on the Steam Line Monitors to drop immediately after trip since the production of the short-lived N16 gamma has ceased.

C.

Plausible because RM-A9 will actuate on a SGTR.

Incorrect because, according to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

D.

Plausible because RM-A9 will actuate on a SGTR. Also plausible because the 2nd half is correct. Also according to GS-9 (p45), the operator should expect the readings on the Steam Line Monitors to drop immediately after trip since the production of the short-lived N-16 gamma has ceased.

Incorrect because, according to GS-9 (p43, Rev 10), RM-G19A will show the SGTR first, while RM-A9 is the most sensitive instrument, and will be the first indicator of a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 135

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 072 K1.05:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Area Radiation Monitoring and the following: MRSS.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 2

R02.8 GS-9, p43-44, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-9-3.1, 3.3, 4.3, 5, 11, 17.1, 17.3, 22 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 198, 349, to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(2), (9)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the physical connections between the Main Steam Line Monitors and the Main Steam System, as compared to the Condenser Exhaust Monitor and the Main Steam System; and have knowledge of the sensitivity/operation of each instrument.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 136 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 072 K1.05:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Area Radiation Monitoring and the following: MRSS.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 2

R02.8 GS-9, p43-44, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-9-3.1, 3.3, 4.3, 5, 11, 17.1, 17.3, 22 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 198, 349, to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(2), (9)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of the physical connections between the Main Steam Line Monitors and the Main Steam System, as compared to the Condenser Exhaust Monitor and the Main Steam System; and have knowledge of the sensitivity/operation of each instrument.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 136

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 54.073 K3.01 002 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A liquid waste discharge is in progress.

Annunciator MON TK DISCH RM-L5 TRBL (XCP-646, 2-6) has actuated.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the MINIMUM condition and/or action required to terminate the discharge?

A~ Loss of power to the monitor ONLY.

B. Loss of power to the monitor AND the RML5 INTERLOCK Switch is THEN placed in ON.

C. Loss of power to the monitor AND the RML5 INTERLOCK Switch is THEN placed in OFF.

D. Radiation level increases to the WARNING setpoint.

A.

CORRECT. Loss of power is interlocked to closing RCV-00018.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Also plausible because the 2nd part is a valid cause for the alarm for the alarm and it is a switch that interfaces with RCV-00018.

Incorrect because the only cause of this alarm that will terminate the release by closing RCV-00018 is loss of power.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Also plausible because this could be construed as a valid cause for the alarm.

Incorrect because the only cause of this alarm that will terminate the release by closing RCV-00018 is loss of power.

D.

Plausible because it is a valid cause for the alarm.

Incorrect because the only cause of this alarm that will terminate the release by closing RCV-00018 is loss of power.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 137 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 54.073 K3.01 002 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A liquid waste discharge is in progress.

Annunciator MON TK DISCH RM-L5 TRBL (XCP-646, 2-6) has actuated.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the MINIMUM condition and/or action required to terminate the discharge?

A~ Loss of power to the monitor ONLY.

B. Loss of power to the monitor AND the RML5 INTERLOCK Switch is THEN placed in ON.

C. Loss of power to the monitor AND the RML5 INTERLOCK Switch is THEN placed in OFF.

D. Radiation level increases to the WARNING setpoint.

A.

CORRECT. Loss of power is interlocked to closing RCV-00018.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Also plausible because the 2nd part is a valid cause for the alarm for the alarm and it is a switch that interfaces with RCV-00018.

Incorrect because the only cause of this alarm that will terminate the release by closing RCV-00018 is loss of power.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is true. Also plausible because this could be construed as a valid cause for the alarm.

Incorrect because the only cause of this alarm that will terminate the release by closing RCV-00018 is loss of power.

D.

Plausible because it is a valid cause for the alarm.

Incorrect because the only cause of this alarm that will terminate the release by closing RCV-00018 is loss of power.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 137

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 073 K3.01:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Process Radiation Monitoring will have on the following: Radioactive effluent releases.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.6 ARP-019-XCP-646-2-6 (Page 13 of 29)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-9-21 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)( 11 )

KIA Match:

Matches the KIA in that it tests knowledge of a malfunction (loss of power) of the RMS (RM-LS) and its effect on a release (closes RCV-00018).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 138 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 073 K3.01:

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the Process Radiation Monitoring will have on the following: Radioactive effluent releases.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.6 ARP-019-XCP-646-2-6 (Page 13 of 29)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GS-9-21 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)( 11 )

KIA Match:

Matches the KIA in that it tests knowledge of a malfunction (loss of power) of the RMS (RM-LS) and its effect on a release (closes RCV-00018).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 138

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

55. 074 EK3.03 002 With the plant operating at 35% power, which ONE (1) of the following conditions would require the plant to be placed in Hot Standby within ONE (1) hour per the associated Technical Specification.

A. A plant transient causes Tavg to rise to 590°F.

B:' An electrical malfunction causes RCP 'C' flow to drop to 30%.

C. A plant transient causes L11 to exceed 5% from the target value.

D. A instrument malfunction associated with the Master Pressure Controller causes Pressurizer pressure to drop to 2200 psig.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 139 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

55. 074 EK3.03 002 With the plant operating at 35% power, which ONE (1) of the following conditions would require the plant to be placed in Hot Standby within ONE (1) hour per the associated Technical Specification.

A. A plant transient causes Tavg to rise to 590°F.

B:' An electrical malfunction causes RCP 'C' flow to drop to 30%.

C. A plant transient causes L11 to exceed 5% from the target value.

D. A instrument malfunction associated with the Master Pressure Controller causes Pressurizer pressure to drop to 2200 psig.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 139

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this is associated with a DNBR-related Tech Spec. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.2.5, DNB Parameters, RCS Tavg shall be < 589.2°F when in Mode 1. If not, the operator must restore the parameter to within specification within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> or reduce power to < 5% (Mode 2) within the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />. According to the Technical Specification Basis for LCO 3.2.5, this action is necessary because the parameters are no longer within the range assumed in the Safety Analysis.

Incorrect because the plant is NOT required to be placed in Hot Standby for this situation.

B.

CORRECT. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.4.1, Reactor Coolant Loops and Coolant Circulation, all three Reactor Coolant Loops shall be in operation (Le.

circulating Reactor Coolant) when in Modes 1 and 2. If not, the plant must be placed in Hot Standby within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. According to the Technical Specification Basis for LCO 3.4.1, this action is necessary because in Modes 1 and 2 the plant is designed to operate with three loops in operation to ensure that DNBR remains at or above its design limits for all normal and anticipated transients. With RCP 'C' flow at 30%, the loop will be declared INOP, and T.S. 3.4.1 will be applied.

C.

Plausible because Lli outside of limits in the COLR would penalize the aT Ll T stepoint, which is based on DNBR.

Incorrect because the plant is NOT required to be placed in Hot Standby due to DNBR considerations or Lli outside of limits. Also incorrect since Lli is not applicable when

<50%. If > 50% and Lli was outside of limits, then it must be restored to within limits within 15 minutes, which is within the 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> stipulated in the stem..

D.

Plausible because this is associated with a DNBR-related Tech Spec. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.2.5, DNB Parameters, Pressurizer pressure shall be >

2206 psig when in Mode 1. If not, the operator must restore the parameter to within specification within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> or reduce power to < 5% (Mode 2) within the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

According to the Technical Specification Basis for LCO 3.2.5, this action is necessary because the parameters are no longer within the range assumed in the Safety Analysis.

Incorrect because the plant is NOT required to be placed in Hot Standby for this situation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 140 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC _RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this is associated with a DNBR-related Tech Spec. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.2.5, DNB Parameters, RCS Tavg shall be < 589.2°F when in Mode 1. If not, the operator must restore the parameter to within specification within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> or reduce power to < 5% (Mode 2) within the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />. According to the Technical Specification Basis for LCO 3.2.5, this action is necessary because the parameters are no longer within the range assumed in the Safety Analysis.

Incorrect because the plant is NOT required to be placed in Hot Standby for this situation.

B.

CORRECT. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.4.1, Reactor Coolant Loops and Coolant Circulation, all three Reactor Coolant Loops shall be in operation (Le.

circulating Reactor Coolant) when in Modes 1 and 2. If not, the plant must be placed in Hot Standby within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. According to the Technical Specification Basis for LCO 3.4.1, this action is necessary because in Modes 1 and 2 the plant is designed to operate with three loops in operation to ensure that DNBR remains at or above its design limits for all normal and anticipated transients. With RCP 'C' flow at 30%, the loop will be declared INOP, and T.S. 3.4.1 will be applied.

C.

Plausible because Lli outside of limits in the COLR would penalize the aT Ll T stepoint, which is based on DNBR.

Incorrect because the plant is NOT required to be placed in Hot Standby due to DNBR considerations or Lli outside of limits. Also incorrect since Lli is not applicable when

<50%. If > 50% and Lli was outside of limits, then it must be restored to within limits within 15 minutes, which is within the 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> stipulated in the stem..

D.

Plausible because this is associated with a DNBR-related Tech Spec. According to Technical Specification LCO 3.2.5, DNB Parameters, Pressurizer pressure shall be >

2206 psig when in Mode 1. If not, the operator must restore the parameter to within specification within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> or reduce power to < 5% (Mode 2) within the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

According to the Technical Specification Basis for LCO 3.2.5, this action is necessary because the parameters are no longer within the range assumed in the Safety Analysis.

Incorrect because the plant is NOT required to be placed in Hot Standby for this situation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 140

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 074 EK3.03:

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Inad. Core Cooling:

Placing the plant in hot standby status.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

LCO 3.1.1.4 LCO 3.2.5 LCO 3.4.1 1

2 RO 3.4 Technical Specification Basis Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TS-12-20, SB-4-09 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the reason for placing the plant in Hot Standby Status during a situation that creates an Inadequate Core Cooling (Le. loss of DNBR) condition.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 141 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 074 EK3.03:

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Inad. Core Cooling:

Placing the plant in hot standby status.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

LCO 3.1.1.4 LCO 3.2.5 LCO 3.4.1 1

2 RO 3.4 Technical Specification Basis Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TS-12-20, SB-4-09 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the reason for placing the plant in Hot Standby Status during a situation that creates an Inadequate Core Cooling (Le. loss of DNBR) condition.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 141

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 56.075 K4.01 004 Which ONE (1) of the following annunciators, when lit, indicates a condition which WITfl prevent a Circulating Water Pump (CWP) from starting?

I A. CW JOCKEY PP TRIP (XCP-628, 4-1)

B. CNDSR A VACUUM LO (XCP-628, 2-1)

C. CW INTAKE TRBL (XCP-628, 4-2)

D~ CNDSR B CW OUT AlB LVL LO (XCP-628, 2-4)

A.

Plausible because the Jockey Pump is associated with maintaining pressure and flow in the Circ Water System when the Circ Water Pumps are shutdown. The Jocky Pump has starting interlocks similar to the Circ Water Pumps, such as discharge valve 5% open and minimum lube water flow.

Incorrect because the Jocky Pump status does not input into Circ Water Pump starting interlocks.

B.

Plausible because condenser vacuum is affected by Circ Water Pump operations and because there are vacuum limitations based on the number of water boxes in service, which could be misconstrued to Circ Water Pumps in service.

Incorrect because condenser vacuum does not input into Circ Water Pump starting interlocks.

C.

Plausible because all of the inputs to this annunciator are related to the CWPs screen wash system.

Incorrect because the screen wash system does not provide any starting interlocks to the CWPs.

D.

CORRECT. 4/4 main condenser waterboxes must be full before the CWP can be started (see TB-8, pg 16 of 33). Given information of "CNDSR A CW IN AlB LVL LO (4-3) is LIT" indicates that at least 1 of the level switches has not made up, thus preventing the pump from starting.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 142 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN 56.075 K4.01 004 Which ONE (1) of the following annunciators, when lit, indicates a condition which WITfl prevent a Circulating Water Pump (CWP) from starting?

I A. CW JOCKEY PP TRIP (XCP-628, 4-1)

B. CNDSR A VACUUM LO (XCP-628, 2-1)

C. CW INTAKE TRBL (XCP-628, 4-2)

D~ CNDSR B CW OUT AlB LVL LO (XCP-628, 2-4)

A.

Plausible because the Jockey Pump is associated with maintaining pressure and flow in the Circ Water System when the Circ Water Pumps are shutdown. The Jocky Pump has starting interlocks similar to the Circ Water Pumps, such as discharge valve 5% open and minimum lube water flow.

Incorrect because the Jocky Pump status does not input into Circ Water Pump starting interlocks.

B.

Plausible because condenser vacuum is affected by Circ Water Pump operations and because there are vacuum limitations based on the number of water boxes in service, which could be misconstrued to Circ Water Pumps in service.

Incorrect because condenser vacuum does not input into Circ Water Pump starting interlocks.

C.

Plausible because all of the inputs to this annunciator are related to the CWPs screen wash system.

Incorrect because the screen wash system does not provide any starting interlocks to the CWPs.

D.

CORRECT. 4/4 main condenser waterboxes must be full before the CWP can be started (see TB-8, pg 16 of 33). Given information of "CNDSR A CW IN AlB LVL LO (4-3) is LIT" indicates that at least 1 of the level switches has not made up, thus preventing the pump from starting.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 142

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 075 K4.01:

Knowledge of Circulating Water design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Heat sink.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 2

R02.5 TS-8, p15-17, Rev 11 SOP-207,Section IV.G Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TS-8-11.1, 14.1 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(4), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of a circulating water system interlock (4/4 waterbox level switches) which allows CWP start, thus providing adequate steam plant heat sink.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 143 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 075 K4.01:

Knowledge of Circulating Water design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Heat sink.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 2

R02.5 TS-8, p15-17, Rev 11 SOP-207,Section IV.G Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TS-8-11.1, 14.1 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(4), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must have knowledge of a circulating water system interlock (4/4 waterbox level switches) which allows CWP start, thus providing adequate steam plant heat sink.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 143

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

57. 076 K1.l6 002 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Service Water (SW) Pump 'A' was isolated due to a leak and placed in PULL-TO-LOCK.

The SW Pump 'A' breaker is still racked up.

SW Pump 'e' has been racked up on Bus 1 EA but has not yet been started.

A grid disturbance caused a loss of 115 Kv and 230 Kv offsite power (BOP &

ESF).

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

If an automatic Safety Injection actuates TWO (2) minutes following the loss of offsite power, SW Pump 'B' __ _

A. will trip, then restart, and SW Pump 'c' will start B. will trip, then restart, and will be the only running SW Pump C. will continue to run and SW Pump 'e' will start D!" will continue to run and will be the only running SW Pump Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 144 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

57. 076 K1.l6 002 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Service Water (SW) Pump 'A' was isolated due to a leak and placed in PULL-TO-LOCK.

The SW Pump 'A' breaker is still racked up.

SW Pump 'e' has been racked up on Bus 1 EA but has not yet been started.

A grid disturbance caused a loss of 115 Kv and 230 Kv offsite power (BOP &

ESF).

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

If an automatic Safety Injection actuates TWO (2) minutes following the loss of offsite power, SW Pump 'B' __ _

A. will trip, then restart, and SW Pump 'c' will start B. will trip, then restart, and will be the only running SW Pump C. will continue to run and SW Pump 'e' will start D!" will continue to run and will be the only running SW Pump Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 144

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this would be correct if a coincidental loss of off-site power occurred and SW Pump "c" was in NORMAL-AFTER-START (see Fig. IB1.6).

Incorrect since conditions do not stipulate a loss of power and both pumps are racked up and NOT running. Also incorrect because a running pump will not trip on an SI, as it would on a loss of power.

B.

Plausible because, on the loss of the ESF busses, the ESFLS will trip the normal and alternate feeder breakers to 1 DB (Output 7) and load shed the vital busses. The SWP will be tripped by Output 1 and restarted on Step 3. Since both the 'A' and 'c' SWP breakers are racked in, the 'A' ESFLS will not start either pump since it doesn't know which one was running (see Figure IB1.6).

Incorrect since the SI will not strip the ESF busses.

C.

Plausible because this would be correct if SW Pump "A" was racked down (see Fig.

IB1.6).

Incorrect - with neither "A" Loop pump in NORMAL-AFTER-START and racked up, NO "A" Loop pump will start.

D.

CORRECT. On the Loss of ESF bus, SWP 'B' would trip, then restart on the ESFLS within the two minutes stipulated in the WOOTF. Running SW Pumps continue running if off-site power is maintained on an SI actuation. With neither "A" Loop pump in NORMAL-AFTER-START and racked up, NO "A" Loop pump will start.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 145 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this would be correct if a coincidental loss of off-site power occurred and SW Pump "c" was in NORMAL-AFTER-START (see Fig. IB1.6).

Incorrect since conditions do not stipulate a loss of power and both pumps are racked up and NOT running. Also incorrect because a running pump will not trip on an SI, as it would on a loss of power.

B.

Plausible because, on the loss of the ESF busses, the ESFLS will trip the normal and alternate feeder breakers to 1 DB (Output 7) and load shed the vital busses. The SWP will be tripped by Output 1 and restarted on Step 3. Since both the 'A' and 'c' SWP breakers are racked in, the 'A' ESFLS will not start either pump since it doesn't know which one was running (see Figure IB1.6).

Incorrect since the SI will not strip the ESF busses.

C.

Plausible because this would be correct if SW Pump "A" was racked down (see Fig.

IB1.6).

Incorrect - with neither "A" Loop pump in NORMAL-AFTER-START and racked up, NO "A" Loop pump will start.

D.

CORRECT. On the Loss of ESF bus, SWP 'B' would trip, then restart on the ESFLS within the two minutes stipulated in the WOOTF. Running SW Pumps continue running if off-site power is maintained on an SI actuation. With neither "A" Loop pump in NORMAL-AFTER-START and racked up, NO "A" Loop pump will start.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 145

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 076 K1.6:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Service Water and the following: ESF.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.6 18-1, Pages 16, 31, 32, & 39/46, Figure 181.5, Figure 181.6 GS-2, Page 52/98 SOP-117, Enclosure A Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

18-1-13 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference question SERVICE WATER SYSTEM 20 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by considering the impact of an SI (ESFLS actuation) on running SW Pumps in an interim alignment.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 146 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 076 K1.6:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Service Water and the following: ESF.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.6 18-1, Pages 16, 31, 32, & 39/46, Figure 181.5, Figure 181.6 GS-2, Page 52/98 SOP-117, Enclosure A Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

18-1-13 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference question SERVICE WATER SYSTEM 20 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by considering the impact of an SI (ESFLS actuation) on running SW Pumps in an interim alignment.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 146

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 58.077 AK2.02 002 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Electrical grid disturbances on 230 KV Bus #1 have resulted in the operator making manual adjustments with the GEN FIELD VOLT ADJ (AUTO) Control Switch.

The EX2000 Voltage Regulator Core 1 fails electrically.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes how the operator's adjustments for the electrical grid disturbances affected the Main Generator AND how the Main Generator will respond to the Core 1 failure?

A'I Main Generator reactive load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will remain CLOSED B. Main Generator reactive load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN C. Main Generator real load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will remain CLOSED D. Main Generator real load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 147 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 58.077 AK2.02 002 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Electrical grid disturbances on 230 KV Bus #1 have resulted in the operator making manual adjustments with the GEN FIELD VOLT ADJ (AUTO) Control Switch.

The EX2000 Voltage Regulator Core 1 fails electrically.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes how the operator's adjustments for the electrical grid disturbances affected the Main Generator AND how the Main Generator will respond to the Core 1 failure?

A'I Main Generator reactive load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will remain CLOSED B. Main Generator reactive load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN C. Main Generator real load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will remain CLOSED D. Main Generator real load will vary The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 147

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Step 5 of AOP-301.1, Response to Electrical Grid Issues, (Rev. 0), directs the operator to ensure that the Main Generator loading is within the limits of the capability curve, and if NOT, make adjustments to the main Generator Voltage to ensure that the Main Generator MVARs remain within limits. According to TB-3 (p49-50, Rev 6), after synchronizing the Main generator to the grid, with the Voltage Regulator in AUTO, the GEN FIELD VOLTS ADJ is used to change a reference voltage signal, allowing the automatic regulator to adjust Exciter output and control reactive load on the Main Generator. According to TB-3 (p19-20), the Main Generator EX2000 Voltage Regulator employs three regulators, or cores; Core 1, Core 2 and Core 3. Where all three Cores are identical, Cores 1 and 2 are generating control signals, while Core 3 generates a supervisory & protection signal. When operating, either Core 1 or Core 2 is controlling the excitation of the Main Generator. While one Core is providing the control signal to the Exciter, the backup Core is generating the same signal but providing it to a dummy load resistor. In essence, this creates a "hot" backup that can be signaled to take control of the process immediately by a supervisory circuit. Core 3 is the supervisory circuit. According to TB-3 (p20), when Core 1 or Core 2 fails, Core 3 senses this and takes appropriate action. If the failed Core is the controlling Core, Core 3 generates a "bumpless transfer" to the standby Core. If the failed Core is the standby Core, Core 3 senses this and generates an alarm. Only if a bumpless transfer failed to occur would Core 3 function to trip both the Main Generator and the Generator Field Breaker.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because, according to TB-3 (p23), if a bumpless transfer failed to occur, Core 3 will function to trip both the Main Generator and the Generator Field Breaker.

Incorrect because a protection action is NOT needed in the conditions established in the stem. The bumpless transfer action will occur before the protective action. The protective action will occur if both Core 1 and Core 2 have failed.

C.

Plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

Incorrect because, according to TB-3 (p49-50, Rev 6), after synchronizing the Main generator to the grid, with the Voltage Regulator in AUTO, the GEN FIELD VOLTS ADJ is used to change a reference voltage signal, allowing the automatic regulator to adjust Exciter output and control reactive load on the Main Generator.

D.

Plausible because, according to TB-3 (p23), if a bumpless transfer failed to occur, Core 3 will function to trip both the Main Generator and the Generator Field Breaker.

Incorrect because a protection action is NOT needed in the conditions established in the stem. The bumpless transfer action will occur before the protective action. The protective action will only occur if both Core 1 and Core 2 have failed.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 148 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Step 5 of AOP-301.1, Response to Electrical Grid Issues, (Rev. 0), directs the operator to ensure that the Main Generator loading is within the limits of the capability curve, and if NOT, make adjustments to the main Generator Voltage to ensure that the Main Generator MVARs remain within limits. According to TB-3 (p49-50, Rev 6), after synchronizing the Main generator to the grid, with the Voltage Regulator in AUTO, the GEN FIELD VOLTS ADJ is used to change a reference voltage signal, allowing the automatic regulator to adjust Exciter output and control reactive load on the Main Generator. According to TB-3 (p19-20), the Main Generator EX2000 Voltage Regulator employs three regulators, or cores; Core 1, Core 2 and Core 3. Where all three Cores are identical, Cores 1 and 2 are generating control signals, while Core 3 generates a supervisory & protection signal. When operating, either Core 1 or Core 2 is controlling the excitation of the Main Generator. While one Core is providing the control signal to the Exciter, the backup Core is generating the same signal but providing it to a dummy load resistor. In essence, this creates a "hot" backup that can be signaled to take control of the process immediately by a supervisory circuit. Core 3 is the supervisory circuit. According to TB-3 (p20), when Core 1 or Core 2 fails, Core 3 senses this and takes appropriate action. If the failed Core is the controlling Core, Core 3 generates a "bumpless transfer" to the standby Core. If the failed Core is the standby Core, Core 3 senses this and generates an alarm. Only if a bumpless transfer failed to occur would Core 3 function to trip both the Main Generator and the Generator Field Breaker.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because, according to TB-3 (p23), if a bumpless transfer failed to occur, Core 3 will function to trip both the Main Generator and the Generator Field Breaker.

Incorrect because a protection action is NOT needed in the conditions established in the stem. The bumpless transfer action will occur before the protective action. The protective action will occur if both Core 1 and Core 2 have failed.

C.

Plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

Incorrect because, according to TB-3 (p49-50, Rev 6), after synchronizing the Main generator to the grid, with the Voltage Regulator in AUTO, the GEN FIELD VOLTS ADJ is used to change a reference voltage signal, allowing the automatic regulator to adjust Exciter output and control reactive load on the Main Generator.

D.

Plausible because, according to TB-3 (p23), if a bumpless transfer failed to occur, Core 3 will function to trip both the Main Generator and the Generator Field Breaker.

Incorrect because a protection action is NOT needed in the conditions established in the stem. The bumpless transfer action will occur before the protective action. The protective action will only occur if both Core 1 and Core 2 have failed.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 148

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 077 AK2.02:

(Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances) Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Breakers, relays.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.1

• TB-3, p19-20, 23, 49-50 Rev 6

• AOP-301.1, Rev 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TB-3-12 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(4), (5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the theory of AC Electrical Generator operation in parallel with other AC Sources, and the EX2000 Voltage Regulator transfer scheme (Le. relays) and protective actions (Le. breakers) as it pertains to the interrelations between Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 149 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA- 077 AK2.02:

(Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances) Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Breakers, relays.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R03.1

• TB-3, p19-20, 23, 49-50 Rev 6

• AOP-301.1, Rev 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TB-3-12 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(4), (5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the theory of AC Electrical Generator operation in parallel with other AC Sources, and the EX2000 Voltage Regulator transfer scheme (Le. relays) and protective actions (Le. breakers) as it pertains to the interrelations between Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 149

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 59.078 K2.01 001

!Given the following plant conditions:

I XSW-1 DA2 is OOS while maintenance is working on the feeder breaker from the transformer.

A loss of ALL (ESF & BOP) offsite power occurred, resulting in a loss of BOP and ESF buses.

Both Emergency Diesel Generators started and restored power to their respective ESF buses.

ALL BOP buses remain de-energized.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the motor-driven air compressors with an available power supply?

A. XAC-3A, INSTR AIR CMPR A, ONLY B. XAC-3B, INSTR AIR CMPR B, ONLY C~ XAC-3A and Supplemental Air Compressor D. XAC-3B and Supplemental Air Compressor A.

Plausible if DIG 'B' did not start and restore power. 3A is powered from 1 DA 1 and the Supplemental is powered from 1 DB1. Since both power supplies are available, 3A would NOT be the only lAC available.

B.

Incorrect since 3B is powered from non-vital Bus 1 A 1 and off-site power is not available.

Plausible if DIG 'B' did not start and restore power, non-vital power was available, and 1 DA 1 (vs. 1 DA2) were OOS.

C.

CORRECT.

3A is powered from 1 DA 1 and the Supplemental is powered from 1 DB1, both of which are available.

D.

Plausible if non-vital power was available and 1 DA 1 (vs. 1 DA2) were OOS. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Incorrect because non-vital power is lost and the 3B lAC is powered from 1 A 1.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 150 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN 59.078 K2.01 001

!Given the following plant conditions:

I XSW-1 DA2 is OOS while maintenance is working on the feeder breaker from the transformer.

A loss of ALL (ESF & BOP) offsite power occurred, resulting in a loss of BOP and ESF buses.

Both Emergency Diesel Generators started and restored power to their respective ESF buses.

ALL BOP buses remain de-energized.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the motor-driven air compressors with an available power supply?

A. XAC-3A, INSTR AIR CMPR A, ONLY B. XAC-3B, INSTR AIR CMPR B, ONLY C~ XAC-3A and Supplemental Air Compressor D. XAC-3B and Supplemental Air Compressor A.

Plausible if DIG 'B' did not start and restore power. 3A is powered from 1 DA 1 and the Supplemental is powered from 1 DB1. Since both power supplies are available, 3A would NOT be the only lAC available.

B.

Incorrect since 3B is powered from non-vital Bus 1 A 1 and off-site power is not available.

Plausible if DIG 'B' did not start and restore power, non-vital power was available, and 1 DA 1 (vs. 1 DA2) were OOS.

C.

CORRECT.

3A is powered from 1 DA 1 and the Supplemental is powered from 1 DB1, both of which are available.

D.

Plausible if non-vital power was available and 1 DA 1 (vs. 1 DA2) were OOS. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Incorrect because non-vital power is lost and the 3B lAC is powered from 1 A 1.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 150

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 078 K2.01:

Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Instrument air compressor Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R02.7 GS-2, Table GS2.4 (Page 83/95)

TB-12, Page 9/39 SOP-220, Attachment II Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TB-12-05 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions INSTRUMENT AIR SYS 21,37,38,39,48, & 49 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of which motor-driven compressors have a power supply available during a loss of off-site power.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 151 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - 078 K2.01:

Knowledge of electrical power supplies to the following: Instrument air compressor Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 1

R02.7 GS-2, Table GS2.4 (Page 83/95)

TB-12, Page 9/39 SOP-220, Attachment II Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

TB-12-05 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions INSTRUMENT AIR SYS 21,37,38,39,48, & 49 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of which motor-driven compressors have a power supply available during a loss of off-site power.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 151

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

60. 086 A3.0! 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A fire occurs in the transformer to Bus XSW-1C2, causing the bus to de-energize.

The Fire Brigade responds 3 minutes after the event - routing, pressurizing, and using fire hoses to fight the fire.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the FIRST response of the fire pumps to this event?

A. The Electric Fire Pump started within one minute of the fire.

B~ The Diesel Fire Pump started within one minute of the fire.

C. The Electric Fire Pump started when the fire hoses were pressurized.

D. The Diesel Fire Pump started when the fire hoses were pressurized.

A.

Plausible because the electric fire pump would auto start on lowering fire header pressure as fire hoses were pressurized and used to fight the fire. Incorrect because the electric fire pump is powered from XSW-1C2. Therefore, the Electric Fire Pump will NOT start because the bus is de-energized. Also incorrect because fire hoses are not pressurized until 3 minutes into the event as stated in the conditions.

B.

CORRECT: According to GS-11 (p14), the Diesel Fire Pump receives electrical power for the Diesel Controller from APN-1 C2; a power panel powered from XSW -1 C2 (Table GS1.6). When AC power is lost to the diesel controller, the electronic controller initiates an 18 second time delay, after which the alarm circuit and the engine is automatically started (p16). Therefore the Diesel Fire Pump will start within one minute of the fire event.

C.

Plausible because the electric fire pump would auto start on lowering fire header pressure as fire hoses were pressurized and used to fight the fire. Incorrect because the electric fire pump is powered from XSW-1C2. Therefore, the Electric Fire Pump will NOT start because the bus is de-energized. Also incorrect because fire hoses are not pressurized until 3 minutes into the event as stated in the conditions.

D.

Plausible because the diesel fire pump would auto start on lowering fire header pressure as fire hoses when pressurized and used to fight 3 minutes into the event.

Incorrect because the diesel fire pump controller receives electrical power for the diesel controller from APN-1C2; a power panel powered from XSW-1C2 (Table GS1.6). When AC power is lost to the diesel controller, the electronic controller initiates an 18 second time delay, after which the alarm circuit and the engine is automatically started (p16).

Therefore the Diesel Fire Pump will start within one minute of the fire event.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 152 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

60. 086 A3.0! 001 Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A fire occurs in the transformer to Bus XSW-1C2, causing the bus to de-energize.

The Fire Brigade responds 3 minutes after the event - routing, pressurizing, and using fire hoses to fight the fire.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the FIRST response of the fire pumps to this event?

A. The Electric Fire Pump started within one minute of the fire.

B~ The Diesel Fire Pump started within one minute of the fire.

C. The Electric Fire Pump started when the fire hoses were pressurized.

D. The Diesel Fire Pump started when the fire hoses were pressurized.

A.

Plausible because the electric fire pump would auto start on lowering fire header pressure as fire hoses were pressurized and used to fight the fire. Incorrect because the electric fire pump is powered from XSW-1C2. Therefore, the Electric Fire Pump will NOT start because the bus is de-energized. Also incorrect because fire hoses are not pressurized until 3 minutes into the event as stated in the conditions.

B.

CORRECT: According to GS-11 (p14), the Diesel Fire Pump receives electrical power for the Diesel Controller from APN-1 C2; a power panel powered from XSW -1 C2 (Table GS1.6). When AC power is lost to the diesel controller, the electronic controller initiates an 18 second time delay, after which the alarm circuit and the engine is automatically started (p16). Therefore the Diesel Fire Pump will start within one minute of the fire event.

C.

Plausible because the electric fire pump would auto start on lowering fire header pressure as fire hoses were pressurized and used to fight the fire. Incorrect because the electric fire pump is powered from XSW-1C2. Therefore, the Electric Fire Pump will NOT start because the bus is de-energized. Also incorrect because fire hoses are not pressurized until 3 minutes into the event as stated in the conditions.

D.

Plausible because the diesel fire pump would auto start on lowering fire header pressure as fire hoses when pressurized and used to fight 3 minutes into the event.

Incorrect because the diesel fire pump controller receives electrical power for the diesel controller from APN-1C2; a power panel powered from XSW-1C2 (Table GS1.6). When AC power is lost to the diesel controller, the electronic controller initiates an 18 second time delay, after which the alarm circuit and the engine is automatically started (p16).

Therefore the Diesel Fire Pump will start within one minute of the fire event.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 152

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 086 A3.01:

Ability to monitor automatic operations of the Fire Protection including: Starting mechanisms of the fire water pumps.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 2

R02.9 GS-11, p13-18, Rev 11 GS-1, p25, 27, 73, and 78, Rev 15 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

GS-11-10.4, 12.1, 12.3, 15.2, 15.3, 18.3 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is met because the operator must know the automatic starting mechanisms of the fire water pumps under normal and abnormal conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 153 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - 086 A3.01:

Ability to monitor automatic operations of the Fire Protection including: Starting mechanisms of the fire water pumps.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

2 2

R02.9 GS-11, p13-18, Rev 11 GS-1, p25, 27, 73, and 78, Rev 15 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

GS-11-10.4, 12.1, 12.3, 15.2, 15.3, 18.3 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is met because the operator must know the automatic starting mechanisms of the fire water pumps under normal and abnormal conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 153

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

61. 103 A3.01 001 A small break LOCA has caused an SI actuation.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the expected status of the specified indicating lights when performing EOP-1.0, Attachment 4 - Containment Isolation Valve MCa Status Light Locations?

XCP-6104 Status Light XCP-6106 Status Light "CROM CLG WTR ISOL II ACCUM N2 SPL Y ISOL 7502 CLSO" 88800PEN" A.

DIM DIM B.

DIM BRIGHT C.

BRIGHT BRIGHT D~

BRIGHT DIM A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because some of the MCB status lights should be dim after an SI. Also plausible because it is one of four possible combinations. Lastly, it is plausible because 1 validator chose A.

Incorrect because "CRDM CLG WTR ISOL 7502 CLSD" should be bright.

B.

Plausible because some MCB status lights should be bright and some should be dim after an SI. Also plausible because it is one of four possible combinations and the exact opposite of correct.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible as one of four possible combinations.

D.

CORRECT. CRDM Cooling Water Isolations are normally open and close on Phase "A", going BRIGHT. Accumulator N2 Supply is normally in CLOSE/AUTO and will remain closed; staying DIM.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 154 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

61. 103 A3.01 001 A small break LOCA has caused an SI actuation.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the expected status of the specified indicating lights when performing EOP-1.0, Attachment 4 - Containment Isolation Valve MCa Status Light Locations?

XCP-6104 Status Light XCP-6106 Status Light "CROM CLG WTR ISOL II ACCUM N2 SPL Y ISOL 7502 CLSO" 88800PEN" A.

DIM DIM B.

DIM BRIGHT C.

BRIGHT BRIGHT D~

BRIGHT DIM A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because some of the MCB status lights should be dim after an SI. Also plausible because it is one of four possible combinations. Lastly, it is plausible because 1 validator chose A.

Incorrect because "CRDM CLG WTR ISOL 7502 CLSD" should be bright.

B.

Plausible because some MCB status lights should be bright and some should be dim after an SI. Also plausible because it is one of four possible combinations and the exact opposite of correct.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible as one of four possible combinations.

D.

CORRECT. CRDM Cooling Water Isolations are normally open and close on Phase "A", going BRIGHT. Accumulator N2 Supply is normally in CLOSE/AUTO and will remain closed; staying DIM.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 154

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA -103 A3.01:

Ability to monitor automatic operations of the Containment including: Containment isolation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.9 EOP-1.0, Attachment 4 (Pages 25 and 26 of 36)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

EOP-1.0-08 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(9)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by predicting the expected status of Containment Phase "A" Isolation valves following an automatic actuation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 155 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA -103 A3.01:

Ability to monitor automatic operations of the Containment including: Containment isolation.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

2 1

R03.9 EOP-1.0, Attachment 4 (Pages 25 and 26 of 36)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

EOP-1.0-08 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(9)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by predicting the expected status of Containment Phase "A" Isolation valves following an automatic actuation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 155

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

62. E01 EK1.2 001

==~~~~~~~~-

Which ONE (1) of the following meets ALL entry conditions for entering EOP-1.5, Rediagnosis?

A. The crew has just entered EOP-15.0, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, following a Reactor Trip with NO SI and the CRS is NOT sure this is the appropriate procedure.

B. The crew has entered GOP-6, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Gold Shutdown (Mode 3 to Mode 5) from EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Response, and the CRS wants to verify that this is the correct procedure.

C~ The crew is implementing EOP-4.0, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, and the CRS is NOT sure that this procedure is appropriate.

D. Due to a LOCA with NO SI in Mode 4, the crew has entered AOP-112.1, Shutdown LOGA, and the CRS is NOT sure this is the appropriate procedure.

A.

Plausible because EOP-1S.0 would not have been entered in the first place if EOP-1.0 had not already been imlemented/completed (this is an Entry Condition to EOP-1.S).

Incorrect because the given condition in Choice A is a likely situation that the EOP is designed to deal with effectively, so EOP-1.S would be unnecessary. The use of EOP-1.S in this situation would be inappropriate.

B.

Plausible because EOP-1.1 would not have been entered in the first place if EOP-1.0 had not already been imlemented/completed (this is an Entry Condition to EOP-1.S).

Incorrect because, if the crew has transitioned to the GOP from EOP-1.1, SI is NOT in service, nor is it required, and the Entry Conditions for EOP-1.S are NOT met.

C.

CORRECT. According to the EOP-1.S (Rev 2) Entry Conditions, the procedure can be entered based on operator judgment, but ONLY after completing EOP-1.0. According to Note 1 a of EOP-1.S, the procedure should be used ONLY if SI is in service or required. According to the Purpose statement of EOP-1.S, the procedure is used to determine or verify which procedure is most appropriate for restoring stable plant conditions. If the crew is operating in EOP-4.0, then EOP-1.0 has been completed and SI is in service. According to the Purpose statement, the CRS can confirm that EOP-4.0 is the appropriate procedure by using EOP-1.S.

D.

Plausible because OAP-103.4, Enclosure C states that EOP-1.S is applicable in Modes 1-4.

Incorrect because the Entry Conditions are NOT satisfied to use EOP-1.S (EOP-1.0 has NOT been completed). The crew must remain in AOP-112.1.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 156 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC _RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

62. E01 EK1.2 001

==~~~~~~~~-

Which ONE (1) of the following meets ALL entry conditions for entering EOP-1.5, Rediagnosis?

A. The crew has just entered EOP-15.0, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, following a Reactor Trip with NO SI and the CRS is NOT sure this is the appropriate procedure.

B. The crew has entered GOP-6, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Gold Shutdown (Mode 3 to Mode 5) from EOP-1.1, Reactor Trip Response, and the CRS wants to verify that this is the correct procedure.

C~ The crew is implementing EOP-4.0, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, and the CRS is NOT sure that this procedure is appropriate.

D. Due to a LOCA with NO SI in Mode 4, the crew has entered AOP-112.1, Shutdown LOGA, and the CRS is NOT sure this is the appropriate procedure.

A.

Plausible because EOP-1S.0 would not have been entered in the first place if EOP-1.0 had not already been imlemented/completed (this is an Entry Condition to EOP-1.S).

Incorrect because the given condition in Choice A is a likely situation that the EOP is designed to deal with effectively, so EOP-1.S would be unnecessary. The use of EOP-1.S in this situation would be inappropriate.

B.

Plausible because EOP-1.1 would not have been entered in the first place if EOP-1.0 had not already been imlemented/completed (this is an Entry Condition to EOP-1.S).

Incorrect because, if the crew has transitioned to the GOP from EOP-1.1, SI is NOT in service, nor is it required, and the Entry Conditions for EOP-1.S are NOT met.

C.

CORRECT. According to the EOP-1.S (Rev 2) Entry Conditions, the procedure can be entered based on operator judgment, but ONLY after completing EOP-1.0. According to Note 1 a of EOP-1.S, the procedure should be used ONLY if SI is in service or required. According to the Purpose statement of EOP-1.S, the procedure is used to determine or verify which procedure is most appropriate for restoring stable plant conditions. If the crew is operating in EOP-4.0, then EOP-1.0 has been completed and SI is in service. According to the Purpose statement, the CRS can confirm that EOP-4.0 is the appropriate procedure by using EOP-1.S.

D.

Plausible because OAP-103.4, Enclosure C states that EOP-1.S is applicable in Modes 1-4.

Incorrect because the Entry Conditions are NOT satisfied to use EOP-1.S (EOP-1.0 has NOT been completed). The crew must remain in AOP-112.1.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 156

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - E01 EK1.2:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Rediagnosis and the following: Normal, abnormal and emergency operating procedures associated with (Reactor Trip or Safety Injection/Rediagnosis).

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

AOP-112.1, Rev 3 EOP-1.0, Rev 22 EOP-1.5, Rev 2 OAP-103.4, Rev 0 1

2 R03.4 HESOOBD.doc, HP-Rev 2,4/30/05, p1, 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1.5-1817 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the situations in which EOP-1.5 may be implemented when uncertainty exists within Normal (GOP-6), Abnormal (AOP-112.1) and Emergency Operating Procedures (EOP-4.0 and 16.0).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 157 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - E01 EK1.2:

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between Rediagnosis and the following: Normal, abnormal and emergency operating procedures associated with (Reactor Trip or Safety Injection/Rediagnosis).

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

AOP-112.1, Rev 3 EOP-1.0, Rev 22 EOP-1.5, Rev 2 OAP-103.4, Rev 0 1

2 R03.4 HESOOBD.doc, HP-Rev 2,4/30/05, p1, 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-1.5-1817 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate knowledge of the situations in which EOP-1.5 may be implemented when uncertainty exists within Normal (GOP-6), Abnormal (AOP-112.1) and Emergency Operating Procedures (EOP-4.0 and 16.0).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 157

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

63. E03 G2.4.21 00 1 Given the following plant conditions:

After a LOCA, the crew has transitioned to EOP-2.1, Post-LOGA Goo/down and Depressurization, and is presently assessing the status of the Critical Safety Functions (CSFs).

Maximum total EFW Flow is 400 gpm.

The IPCS is unavailable.

Which ONE (1) of the following sets of conditions will result in an RED path to the Heat Sink CSF?

ASG BSG CSG Present RB Peak RB NR Level NR Level NR Level Pressure Rad Levels A.

12%

22%

32%

3 psig 105 mr/hr B.

31%

32%

12%

3 psig 104 mr/hr C~

28%

38%

48%

4 psig 105 mr/hr D.

28%

28%

51%

4 psig 104 mr/hr Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 158 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

63. E03 G2.4.21 00 1 Given the following plant conditions:

After a LOCA, the crew has transitioned to EOP-2.1, Post-LOGA Goo/down and Depressurization, and is presently assessing the status of the Critical Safety Functions (CSFs).

Maximum total EFW Flow is 400 gpm.

The IPCS is unavailable.

Which ONE (1) of the following sets of conditions will result in an RED path to the Heat Sink CSF?

ASG BSG CSG Present RB Peak RB NR Level NR Level NR Level Pressure Rad Levels A.

12%

22%

32%

3 psig 105 mr/hr B.

31%

32%

12%

3 psig 104 mr/hr C~

28%

38%

48%

4 psig 105 mr/hr D.

28%

28%

51%

4 psig 104 mr/hr Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 158

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because it is a set or parameters that could exist after a LOCA and because 2 S/Gs are below the criteria for EXTREME challenge with NO adverse containment conditions. Given value of RB radiation levels is the correct number for integrated dose, but the wrong units.

Incorrect because the CSF does NOT have an Extreme Challenge because there is at least one SG NR Level> 30% with a normal RB atmosphere.

B.

Plausible because it is a set or parameters that could exist after a LOCA and because 1 S/G is below the criteria for EXTREME challenge with NO adverse containment conditions. Given value of RB radiation levels is above the correct number for dose rate, but the wrong units.

Incorrect because the CSF does NOT have an Extreme Challenge because there is at least one SG NR Level> 30% with a normal RB atmosphere.

C.

CORRECT. According to Attachment 3 of EOP-12.0 (Rev 12), Heat Sink, an EXTREME challenge (Red Path) on Heat Sink will exist if Total EFW is < 450 gpm (which is the case in all sets of conditions) and there is NOT at least one SG NR Level>

30% with a normal RB atmosphere, or there is NOT at least one SG NR Level> 50%

with an adverse RB atmosphere. According to OAP-103.4 (Step 6.8, Rev 0), an adverse RB environment is an environment where RB Pressure is presently> 3.6 psig OR an environment in which RB Radiation levels have exceeded an integrated dose of 105 R (OR 1000 Rlhr if the IPCS is unvailable) at anytime during the event. Given value of RB radiation levels is the correct number for integrated dose, but the wrong units.

The CSF has an Extreme Challenge because there is NOT at least one SG NR Level>

50% with an adverse RB atmosphere.

D.

Plausible because it is a set or parameters that could exist after a LOCA and because 2 S/Gs are below the criteria for EXTREME challenge with adverse containment conditions.

Incorrect because the CSF does NOT have an Extreme Challenge because there is at least one SG NR Level> 50% with an adverse RB atmosphere. Given value of RB radiation levels is above the correct number for dose rate, but the wrong units.

NOTE: The reason that RB Rad Levels are provided is to lend some credibility between Choices A & B and between Choices C & D. Without these values, Choices A & Bare practically the same. Units are provided in mr/hr to be able to provide numbers which meet the intgrated dose value OR exceed the instantaneous dose rate values for adverse conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 159 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because it is a set or parameters that could exist after a LOCA and because 2 S/Gs are below the criteria for EXTREME challenge with NO adverse containment conditions. Given value of RB radiation levels is the correct number for integrated dose, but the wrong units.

Incorrect because the CSF does NOT have an Extreme Challenge because there is at least one SG NR Level> 30% with a normal RB atmosphere.

B.

Plausible because it is a set or parameters that could exist after a LOCA and because 1 S/G is below the criteria for EXTREME challenge with NO adverse containment conditions. Given value of RB radiation levels is above the correct number for dose rate, but the wrong units.

Incorrect because the CSF does NOT have an Extreme Challenge because there is at least one SG NR Level> 30% with a normal RB atmosphere.

C.

CORRECT. According to Attachment 3 of EOP-12.0 (Rev 12), Heat Sink, an EXTREME challenge (Red Path) on Heat Sink will exist if Total EFW is < 450 gpm (which is the case in all sets of conditions) and there is NOT at least one SG NR Level>

30% with a normal RB atmosphere, or there is NOT at least one SG NR Level> 50%

with an adverse RB atmosphere. According to OAP-103.4 (Step 6.8, Rev 0), an adverse RB environment is an environment where RB Pressure is presently> 3.6 psig OR an environment in which RB Radiation levels have exceeded an integrated dose of 105 R (OR 1000 Rlhr if the IPCS is unvailable) at anytime during the event. Given value of RB radiation levels is the correct number for integrated dose, but the wrong units.

The CSF has an Extreme Challenge because there is NOT at least one SG NR Level>

50% with an adverse RB atmosphere.

D.

Plausible because it is a set or parameters that could exist after a LOCA and because 2 S/Gs are below the criteria for EXTREME challenge with adverse containment conditions.

Incorrect because the CSF does NOT have an Extreme Challenge because there is at least one SG NR Level> 50% with an adverse RB atmosphere. Given value of RB radiation levels is above the correct number for dose rate, but the wrong units.

NOTE: The reason that RB Rad Levels are provided is to lend some credibility between Choices A & B and between Choices C & D. Without these values, Choices A & Bare practically the same. Units are provided in mr/hr to be able to provide numbers which meet the intgrated dose value OR exceed the instantaneous dose rate values for adverse conditions.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 159

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - E03 G2.4.21 :

(LOCA Cooldown - Depress.) Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-12.0, Rev 12 OAP-103.4, Rev 0 1

2 R04.0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-12.0-2031 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because it requires the operator to have knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of Safety Functions, such as Heat Sink.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 160 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - E03 G2.4.21 :

(LOCA Cooldown - Depress.) Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

EOP-12.0, Rev 12 OAP-103.4, Rev 0 1

2 R04.0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-12.0-2031 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because it requires the operator to have knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of Safety Functions, such as Heat Sink.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 160

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

64. E04 EAl.l 001 -------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A LOCA has occurred in the Auxiliary Building.

A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection are manually actuated.

The crew has entered EOP-2.5, LOCA Outside Containment.

SI has NOT been reset.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the MINIMUM action(s) required to CLOSE MVG-8888A, RHR LP A TO COLD LEGS?

A. Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE ONLY.

B. RESET Train A of Safety Injection; AND Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE.

C~ Take the Train A Power Lockout Switch to ON; AND Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE.

D. RESET both trains of Safety Injection; AND Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 161 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

64. E04 EAl.l 001

.~-----------------

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A LOCA has occurred in the Auxiliary Building.

A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection are manually actuated.

The crew has entered EOP-2.5, LOCA Outside Containment.

SI has NOT been reset.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the MINIMUM action(s) required to CLOSE MVG-8888A, RHR LP A TO COLD LEGS?

A. Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE ONLY.

B. RESET Train A of Safety Injection; AND Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE.

C~ Take the Train A Power Lockout Switch to ON; AND Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE.

D. RESET both trains of Safety Injection; AND Take the MVG-8888A Control Switch on the MCB to CLOSE.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 161

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this would be correct for other valves in the RHR system that do NOT have a power lockout, such as MVG-888?A, RHR Hot Leg Cross-Connect Valves.

Incorrect because 8888A does have a power lockout. The switch must be taken to ON in order to power the valve.

B.

Plausible because other valves in the RHR System, such as MVG-8809A, receive a signal to open on an SI. Also plausible because SI Reset normally occurs prior to operation of 8888A.

Incorrect since MVG-8888A does NOT receive a signal to position on an SIS; therefore reseting SI does not affect the ability to operate this valve.

C.

According to AB-? (p32-33, Rev 19), both the RHR to Cold Leg Injection Isolation Valves, MVG-8888A and B, are maintained OPEN during normal power operation, and to prevent inadvertent closure power lockout switches are used to interrupt power to their motors. These switches are normally maintained in the OFF position. According to AB-1 0 (p44, Rev 13), white status lights for each valve having a Power Lockout are located on the MCB to show the actual valve position. These lights are powered from the opposite train (Le. Train 'B' provides power for the status light indicating the position of the Train 'A'valves). In accordance with Table AB??, the operator must perform a two-switch operation to operate the valve; (1) the power lockout must be overridden by the MCB switch and then the valve must be manipulated using its respective MCB Switch.

D.

Plausible because operating both SI Reset switches is the normal method of resetting SI and this action is performed before manipulating RHR valves in the EOPs. Also plausible because other valves in the RHR System, such as MVG-8809A & B, receive a signal to open on an SI - both SI Reset push buttons must be reset to operate these valves.

Incorrect because MVG-8888A does NOT receive a signal to position on an SIS; therefore, resetting SI does not affect the ability to operate this valve.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 162 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this would be correct for other valves in the RHR system that do NOT have a power lockout, such as MVG-888?A, RHR Hot Leg Cross-Connect Valves.

Incorrect because 8888A does have a power lockout. The switch must be taken to ON in order to power the valve.

B.

Plausible because other valves in the RHR System, such as MVG-8809A, receive a signal to open on an SI. Also plausible because SI Reset normally occurs prior to operation of 8888A.

Incorrect since MVG-8888A does NOT receive a signal to position on an SIS; therefore reseting SI does not affect the ability to operate this valve.

C.

According to AB-? (p32-33, Rev 19), both the RHR to Cold Leg Injection Isolation Valves, MVG-8888A and B, are maintained OPEN during normal power operation, and to prevent inadvertent closure power lockout switches are used to interrupt power to their motors. These switches are normally maintained in the OFF position. According to AB-1 0 (p44, Rev 13), white status lights for each valve having a Power Lockout are located on the MCB to show the actual valve position. These lights are powered from the opposite train (Le. Train 'B' provides power for the status light indicating the position of the Train 'A'valves). In accordance with Table AB??, the operator must perform a two-switch operation to operate the valve; (1) the power lockout must be overridden by the MCB switch and then the valve must be manipulated using its respective MCB Switch.

D.

Plausible because operating both SI Reset switches is the normal method of resetting SI and this action is performed before manipulating RHR valves in the EOPs. Also plausible because other valves in the RHR System, such as MVG-8809A & B, receive a signal to open on an SI - both SI Reset push buttons must be reset to operate these valves.

Incorrect because MVG-8888A does NOT receive a signal to position on an SIS; therefore, resetting SI does not affect the ability to operate this valve.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 162

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-E04 EA1.1:

Ability to predict to and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the LOCA Outside Containment controls including: Components and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes and automatic and manual features.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R04.0 AS-7, p32-33, Rev 20 TS LCO 3.5.2 AS-10 p45, Rev 13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AS-7-11; AS-10-08; EOP-2.5-1889 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to manually operate an ECCS valve (MVG-8888A) as it applies to LOCA Outside Containment (Le. EOP-2.5 will require that the operator close the valve) including automatic (i.e. No SIS) and manual (Le. Power Lockout switch) features.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 163 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-E04 EA1.1:

Ability to predict to and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the LOCA Outside Containment controls including: Components and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes and automatic and manual features.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

R04.0 AS-7, p32-33, Rev 20 TS LCO 3.5.2 AS-10 p45, Rev 13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AS-7-11; AS-10-08; EOP-2.5-1889 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b )(7)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must demonstrate the ability to manually operate an ECCS valve (MVG-8888A) as it applies to LOCA Outside Containment (Le. EOP-2.5 will require that the operator close the valve) including automatic (i.e. No SIS) and manual (Le. Power Lockout switch) features.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:25 AM 163

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

65. E05 EA2.1 001 Given the following plant conditions:

MODE 3, following a plant trip.

A Red Path exists on Heat Sink and the crew has entered EOP-15.0, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, PZR Pressure is 2300 psig and increasing slowly.

Steam Generator Levels are as follows:

Steam Generator 'A' WIDE Range 6%

Steam Generator 'B' WIDE Range 12%

Steam Generator 'C' WIDE Range 32%

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the action(s) in accordance with EOP-15.0 that is/are required NEXT?

A. Restore flow from the Main Feedwater System.

B. Restore flow from the Condensate System.

C. Trip RCPs, manually initiate Safety Injection, and allow the PZR PORVs to automatically open.

D~ Trip RCPs, manually initiate Safety Injection, and manually open the PZR PORVs.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 164 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

65. E05 EA2.1 001 Given the following plant conditions:

MODE 3, following a plant trip.

A Red Path exists on Heat Sink and the crew has entered EOP-15.0, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, PZR Pressure is 2300 psig and increasing slowly.

Steam Generator Levels are as follows:

Steam Generator 'A' WIDE Range 6%

Steam Generator 'B' WIDE Range 12%

Steam Generator 'C' WIDE Range 32%

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the action(s) in accordance with EOP-15.0 that is/are required NEXT?

A. Restore flow from the Main Feedwater System.

B. Restore flow from the Condensate System.

C. Trip RCPs, manually initiate Safety Injection, and allow the PZR PORVs to automatically open.

D~ Trip RCPs, manually initiate Safety Injection, and manually open the PZR PORVs.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 164

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Pausible because this is one of the actions in EOP-15.0 and, since the MFPs are available, the crew may still be making efforts to restore feed flow using MFW while implementing Bleed and Feed.

Incorrect since both the 'A' and 'B' SG Wide Range Levels are < 15%, Bleed and Feed is required NEXT.

B.

Pausible because this is one of the actions in EOP-15.0 and, since two MFBPs and a Condensate pump are running, the crew may still be making efforts to restore feed flow using condensate flow while implementing Bleed and Feed.

Incorrect since both the 'A' and 'B' SG Wide Range Levels are < 15%, Bleed and Feed is required NEXT.

C.

Plausible because, according to the FR-H.1 Background Document (HFRH1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105, p50), Feed and Bleed is the process of manually initiating high pressure safety injection and permitting the automatic cycling of the PZR PORVs at their set pressure to vent RCS inventory and provide decay heat removal and core cooling.

Incorrect since VCSNS uses the Bleed and Feed methodology, not the Feed and Bleed.

D.

According to the WOG F-0.3 Background Document (HF03BG.doc, HP-Rev. 2, 4/30105) and OAP-1 03.2 (Rev 0), a Secondary Heat Sink has been defined as a total EFW flow of> 450 gpm, or at least one SG Narrow Range Level> 30% [50%]. The conditions have established that neither exist by identifying the existence of a Red Path on Heat Sink, the fact that attempts to restore EFW have been unsuccessful, and all three Wide Range levels are consistent with Narrow Range Levels that are off-scale low.

According to EOP-15.0 (Rev 13), the strategy for restoring a Secondary Heat Sink involves two phases, the first in which the operator attempts to restore a Secondary Heat Sink by restoring EFW, MFW and Condensate in that order of preference; and the second which abandons the attempt to restore a Secondary Heat Sink, and initiates a Bleed and Feed cooling posture. The criteria for differentiating between the two phases, is identified in Caution - Steps 4 through 16, and states as follows: If Wide Range level in any two SGs is < 15% [25%] OR PZR pressure is greater than 2335 psig due to loss of Secondary Heat Sink, steps 17 through 24 should be immediately initiated for bleed and feed cooling. In this case, although the PZR pressure criteria is not met for Bleed and Feed, the SG Wide Range Level criteria is, and bleed and feed must be initiated. According to the FR-H.1 Background Document (HFRH1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105, p50), Bleed and Feed is the process of manually initiating high pressure safety injection and manually opening the PZR PORVs to allow the injection of sufficient water to provide for decay heat removal and core cooling; and Feed and Bleed is the process of manually initiating high pressure safety injection and permitting the automatic cycling of the PZR PORVs at their set pressure to vent RCS inventory and provide decay heat removal and core cooling.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 165 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Pausible because this is one of the actions in EOP-15.0 and, since the MFPs are available, the crew may still be making efforts to restore feed flow using MFW while implementing Bleed and Feed.

Incorrect since both the 'A' and 'B' SG Wide Range Levels are < 15%, Bleed and Feed is required NEXT.

B.

Pausible because this is one of the actions in EOP-15.0 and, since two MFBPs and a Condensate pump are running, the crew may still be making efforts to restore feed flow using condensate flow while implementing Bleed and Feed.

Incorrect since both the 'A' and 'B' SG Wide Range Levels are < 15%, Bleed and Feed is required NEXT.

C.

Plausible because, according to the FR-H.1 Background Document (HFRH1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105, p50), Feed and Bleed is the process of manually initiating high pressure safety injection and permitting the automatic cycling of the PZR PORVs at their set pressure to vent RCS inventory and provide decay heat removal and core cooling.

Incorrect since VCSNS uses the Bleed and Feed methodology, not the Feed and Bleed.

D.

According to the WOG F-0.3 Background Document (HF03BG.doc, HP-Rev. 2, 4/30105) and OAP-1 03.2 (Rev 0), a Secondary Heat Sink has been defined as a total EFW flow of> 450 gpm, or at least one SG Narrow Range Level> 30% [50%]. The conditions have established that neither exist by identifying the existence of a Red Path on Heat Sink, the fact that attempts to restore EFW have been unsuccessful, and all three Wide Range levels are consistent with Narrow Range Levels that are off-scale low.

According to EOP-15.0 (Rev 13), the strategy for restoring a Secondary Heat Sink involves two phases, the first in which the operator attempts to restore a Secondary Heat Sink by restoring EFW, MFW and Condensate in that order of preference; and the second which abandons the attempt to restore a Secondary Heat Sink, and initiates a Bleed and Feed cooling posture. The criteria for differentiating between the two phases, is identified in Caution - Steps 4 through 16, and states as follows: If Wide Range level in any two SGs is < 15% [25%] OR PZR pressure is greater than 2335 psig due to loss of Secondary Heat Sink, steps 17 through 24 should be immediately initiated for bleed and feed cooling. In this case, although the PZR pressure criteria is not met for Bleed and Feed, the SG Wide Range Level criteria is, and bleed and feed must be initiated. According to the FR-H.1 Background Document (HFRH1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105, p50), Bleed and Feed is the process of manually initiating high pressure safety injection and manually opening the PZR PORVs to allow the injection of sufficient water to provide for decay heat removal and core cooling; and Feed and Bleed is the process of manually initiating high pressure safety injection and permitting the automatic cycling of the PZR PORVs at their set pressure to vent RCS inventory and provide decay heat removal and core cooling.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - E05 EA2.1:

Ability to determine and interpret the following a s they apply to the (Loss of Secondary Heat Sink): Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

RO 3.4 WOG F-0.3 Background Document (HF03BG.doc, HP-Rev. 2, 4/30105)

OAP-103.2 (Rev 0)

EOP-15.0 (Rev 13)

FR-H.1 Background Document (HFRH1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105, p50)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-15.0-2096 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions EOPS 262,259,221,201, 146, & 21 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must interpret the facility conditions (i.e. the criteria for Bleed and Feed initiation have been met), and determine the appropriate strategy (i.e.

manually initiate Safety Injection and manually open the Pzr PORVs) during a loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 166 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - E05 EA2.1:

Ability to determine and interpret the following a s they apply to the (Loss of Secondary Heat Sink): Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

1 1

RO 3.4 WOG F-0.3 Background Document (HF03BG.doc, HP-Rev. 2, 4/30105)

OAP-103.2 (Rev 0)

EOP-15.0 (Rev 13)

FR-H.1 Background Document (HFRH1 BG.doc, HP-Rev 2, 4/30105, p50)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

EOP-15.0-2096 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions EOPS 262,259,221,201, 146, & 21 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(5), (10)

KIA Match:

The KA is matched because the operator must interpret the facility conditions (i.e. the criteria for Bleed and Feed initiation have been met), and determine the appropriate strategy (i.e.

manually initiate Safety Injection and manually open the Pzr PORVs) during a loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:25 AM 166

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

66. G2.1.17 002 Which ONE (1) of the following spoken statements meets the MINIMUM acceptable station requirements for proper communication in accordance with OAP-100A, Communications?

A. "Control rods are stepping IN."

B. "Tom, RCS Tavg is 557°F."

C~ "Tom, Pressurizer pressure is 2205 psig, trending towards 2235 psig."

D. "Turbine Building Operator, Perform SOP-214, Steps 2.14 and Steps 2.15."

(procedure NOT available to the TBAO)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 167 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

66. G2.1.17 002 Which ONE (1) of the following spoken statements meets the MINIMUM acceptable station requirements for proper communication in accordance with OAP-100A, Communications?

A. "Control rods are stepping IN."

B. "Tom, RCS Tavg is 557°F."

C~ "Tom, Pressurizer pressure is 2205 psig, trending towards 2235 psig."

D. "Turbine Building Operator, Perform SOP-214, Steps 2.14 and Steps 2.15."

(procedure NOT available to the TBAO)

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 167

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this is a common communication error during simulator training and evaluation.

Incorrect because OAP-100.4, Section 8.9.b, specifies that the communication should also include whether or not the movement is expected for current plant conditions.

B.

Plausible because this is a common communication error during simulator training and evaluation.

Incorrect because OAP-1 00.4, Section 6.4, specifies that "current numeric values and its trend direction" be communicated.

C.

CORRECT. Includes first name first (per Section 6.8, 8.2, 10.3, 10.5), a value, and trend in accordance with OAP-1 00.4, Section 6.4.

D.

Plausible because this is a common communication error during simulator training and evaluation.

Incorrect because OAP-100.4, Step 8.14.a, requires providing the page number AND, if the local operator does NOT have a procedure, no more than one step should be directed at a time.

Key OAP-100.4 Excerpts:

8.2 Control Room Staff, especially the CRS/SS, should begin verbal communications with the individual's name or watchstation title of those being addressed.

10.3 Commands should be prefaced with the individual's name or watchstation title.

10.5 When action requires coordination between both board operators, the CRS should ensure they both understand what is desired and how it affects their side of the board. Address both individuals by name.

6.8 Directions to perform plant manipulations should be prefaced by the sender with the individual's name or watchstation title.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 168 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because this is a common communication error during simulator training and evaluation.

Incorrect because OAP-100.4, Section 8.9.b, specifies that the communication should also include whether or not the movement is expected for current plant conditions.

B.

Plausible because this is a common communication error during simulator training and evaluation.

Incorrect because OAP-1 00.4, Section 6.4, specifies that "current numeric values and its trend direction" be communicated.

C.

CORRECT. Includes first name first (per Section 6.8, 8.2, 10.3, 10.5), a value, and trend in accordance with OAP-1 00.4, Section 6.4.

D.

Plausible because this is a common communication error during simulator training and evaluation.

Incorrect because OAP-100.4, Step 8.14.a, requires providing the page number AND, if the local operator does NOT have a procedure, no more than one step should be directed at a time.

Key OAP-100.4 Excerpts:

8.2 Control Room Staff, especially the CRS/SS, should begin verbal communications with the individual's name or watchstation title of those being addressed.

10.3 Commands should be prefaced with the individual's name or watchstation title.

10.5 When action requires coordination between both board operators, the CRS should ensure they both understand what is desired and how it affects their side of the board. Address both individuals by name.

6.8 Directions to perform plant manipulations should be prefaced by the sender with the individual's name or watchstation title.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 168

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.1.17:

(Conduct of Operations) Ability to make accurate, clear and concise verbal reports.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 1

R03.9 OAP-100.04, Step 6.4 (Page 4 of 27)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

SAP-124-6417,OAP-100.4-3 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring identification of a proper verbal communication in accordance with the operations communication standard: OAP-1 00.04, Communications.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 169 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.1.17:

(Conduct of Operations) Ability to make accurate, clear and concise verbal reports.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 1

R03.9 OAP-100.04, Step 6.4 (Page 4 of 27)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

SAP-124-6417,OAP-100.4-3 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring identification of a proper verbal communication in accordance with the operations communication standard: OAP-1 00.04, Communications.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 169

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN

67. G2.1.18002 Given the following plant conditions:

The unit is at 100% power.

MCB logs are in progress.

AUTO TOUR is not available.

ECCS Accumulator 'A' MCB indicator is reading 60%, which is out-of-limiVspec.

ECCS Accumulator 'A' indication on the computer is 75%.

In accordance with OAP-1 06.1, Operating Logs, which ONE (1) of the following are the MINIMUM required actions with respect to logging ECCS Accumulator 'A' level?

A. Record the reading as 60%, red circle, inform the CRS, explain actions taken in the Comments section.

B. Record the reading as 75%, red circle, inform the CRS, assign a number in the right margin, and explain actions taken in the Comments section.

C. Record the reading as 75%, red circle, inform the CRS, explain actions taken in the Comments section.

01 Record the reading as 60%, red Circle, inform the CRS, assign a number in the right.

margin, and explain actions taken in the Comments section.

A.

Plausible because 60% is the correct reading, and a red circle is required by OAP-106.1, Step 6.8.

Incorrect since it is clearly below the T.S. lower limit and the operator must also assign a number in the right margin.

B.

Plausible because this appears to be the only accurate reading. Also plausible because all of the actions are correct.

Incorrect since the reading should be taken from the MCB indicator; not the computer.

C.

Plausible because this appears to be the only accurate reading.

Incorrect since the reading should be taken from the MCB indicator; not the computer.

Also incorrect because OAP-1 06.1 requires a number in the right margin.

D.

CORRECT. OAP-1 06.1, Section 6.8.b. requires a red circle, a number in the right margin, the number referenced in the Comments sections, and an explanation of actions taken to restore the reading to within the required limit. The log, Attachment I, Page 13 of 68, requires the operator to inform the CRS if the reading is <66%.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 170 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO_EXAM_DATABAS E_ -_AS_GIVEN

67. G2.1.18002 Given the following plant conditions:

The unit is at 100% power.

MCB logs are in progress.

AUTO TOUR is not available.

ECCS Accumulator 'A' MCB indicator is reading 60%, which is out-of-limiVspec.

ECCS Accumulator 'A' indication on the computer is 75%.

In accordance with OAP-1 06.1, Operating Logs, which ONE (1) of the following are the MINIMUM required actions with respect to logging ECCS Accumulator 'A' level?

A. Record the reading as 60%, red circle, inform the CRS, explain actions taken in the Comments section.

B. Record the reading as 75%, red circle, inform the CRS, assign a number in the right margin, and explain actions taken in the Comments section.

C. Record the reading as 75%, red circle, inform the CRS, explain actions taken in the Comments section.

D~ Record the reading as 60%, red Circle, inform the CRS, assign a number in the right.

margin, and explain actions taken in the Comments section.

A.

Plausible because 60% is the correct reading, and a red circle is required by OAP-106.1, Step 6.8.

Incorrect since it is clearly below the T.S. lower limit and the operator must also assign a number in the right margin.

B.

Plausible because this appears to be the only accurate reading. Also plausible because all of the actions are correct.

Incorrect since the reading should be taken from the MCB indicator; not the computer.

C.

Plausible because this appears to be the only accurate reading.

Incorrect since the reading should be taken from the MCB indicator; not the computer.

Also incorrect because OAP-1 06.1 requires a number in the right margin.

D.

CORRECT. OAP-1 06.1, Section 6.8.b. requires a red circle, a number in the right margin, the number referenced in the Comments sections, and an explanation of actions taken to restore the reading to within the required limit. The log, Attachment I, Page 13 of 68, requires the operator to inform the CRS if the reading is <66%.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 170

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.1.18:

(Conduct of Operations) Ability to make accurate, clear and concise logs, records, status boards and reports.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 1

R03.6 OAP-1 06.1, 6.B.c (Page 6 of 10)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

SAP-204-9; OAP-106.1-6407 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring application of department logkeeping requirements.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 171 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.1.18:

(Conduct of Operations) Ability to make accurate, clear and concise logs, records, status boards and reports.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 1

R03.6 OAP-1 06.1, 6.B.c (Page 6 of 10)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

SAP-204-9; OAP-106.1-6407 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring application of department logkeeping requirements.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 171

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

68. G2.1.43 002 Which ONE (1) of the following are the MINIMUM required actions per GOP Appendix A, Generic Operating Precautions, if it appears that criticality will be achieved below the LO-LO Rod Insertion Limit?

A. Suspend positive reactivity additions. Recalculate the Estimated Critical Condition (ECC). Dilute to criticality per REP-1 07.001, Controlling Procedure for Refueling Startup and Power Ascension Testing.

B~ Borate (normal method) as necessary to achieve the required Shutdown Margin; shutdown the Reactor per GOP-S and recalculate the ECC.

C. Emergency Borate through MVT-8104, EMERG BORATE, to achieve the required Shutdown Margin and shutdown the Reactor per GOP-S.

D. Recalculate the ECC, adjust the RCS boron concentration. Continue the startup A.

Plausible because the dilution would be the methodology for a refueling startup if criticality were not acheived by the Control Rod Bank D reaches the maximum rod withdrawal limit (see GOP-A, Step 2.8.j.1).

Incorrect since the crew must borate and shut down the Reactor.

B.

CORRECT. GOP-APPENDIX A differentiates between actual criticality and predicted criticality below the insertion limit. For predicted criticality, boration rather than emergency boration is specified.

C.

Plausible because it would be correct if criticality had been achieved below the insertion limit (GOP-APPENDIX A, 2.8.g).

Incorrect since a normal boration through the blender should be conducted.

D.

Plausible because it is similar to action for criticality above the rod insertion limit but outside the ECC boundaries (GOP-APPENDIX A, 2.8.i).

Incorrect since, according to Step 2.8.h.2), the Reactor must be shut down.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 172 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DA T ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

68. G2.1.43 002 Which ONE (1) of the following are the MINIMUM required actions per GOP Appendix A, Generic Operating Precautions, if it appears that criticality will be achieved below the LO-LO Rod Insertion Limit?

A. Suspend positive reactivity additions. Recalculate the Estimated Critical Condition (ECC). Dilute to criticality per REP-1 07.001, Controlling Procedure for Refueling Startup and Power Ascension Testing.

B~ Borate (normal method) as necessary to achieve the required Shutdown Margin; shutdown the Reactor per GOP-S and recalculate the ECC.

C. Emergency Borate through MVT-8104, EMERG BORATE, to achieve the required Shutdown Margin and shutdown the Reactor per GOP-S.

D. Recalculate the ECC, adjust the RCS boron concentration. Continue the startup A.

Plausible because the dilution would be the methodology for a refueling startup if criticality were not acheived by the Control Rod Bank D reaches the maximum rod withdrawal limit (see GOP-A, Step 2.8.j.1).

Incorrect since the crew must borate and shut down the Reactor.

B.

CORRECT. GOP-APPENDIX A differentiates between actual criticality and predicted criticality below the insertion limit. For predicted criticality, boration rather than emergency boration is specified.

C.

Plausible because it would be correct if criticality had been achieved below the insertion limit (GOP-APPENDIX A, 2.8.g).

Incorrect since a normal boration through the blender should be conducted.

D.

Plausible because it is similar to action for criticality above the rod insertion limit but outside the ECC boundaries (GOP-APPENDIX A, 2.8.i).

Incorrect since, according to Step 2.8.h.2), the Reactor must be shut down.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 172

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.1.43:

(Conduct of Operations) Ability to use procedures to determine the effects on reactivity of plant changes.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 1

R04.1 GOP-APPENDIX A, Step 2.8 Pages 6-8/12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GOP-A-02 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 41, 42, 214, 215; NORMAL OPS 31; ROD CONTROL 43; AND Open Reference questions NORMAL OPS 60 and 61 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41.5 KIA Match:

Meets KIA by having examinee apply the requirements of a procedure (GOP-APPENDIX A) to changing conditions during a reactor startup; based on reactivity monitoring.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 173 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.1.43:

(Conduct of Operations) Ability to use procedures to determine the effects on reactivity of plant changes.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 1

R04.1 GOP-APPENDIX A, Step 2.8 Pages 6-8/12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GOP-A-02 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions AOPS 41, 42, 214, 215; NORMAL OPS 31; ROD CONTROL 43; AND Open Reference questions NORMAL OPS 60 and 61 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41.5 KIA Match:

Meets KIA by having examinee apply the requirements of a procedure (GOP-APPENDIX A) to changing conditions during a reactor startup; based on reactivity monitoring.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 173

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

69. G2.2.14 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 6 As part of scheduled outage work, IFV-3531-0-EF, OPER-SG A MTR DR EF PUMP FLOW CONT VLV, has been isolated to replace the actuator.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

Per SAP-205, Status Control and Removal and Restoration, an ____ _

Removal and Restoration will be used to track the status of IFV-3531-0-EF.

Per OAP-1 06.3, Locked Valve Program, a _____ chain will be installed when the valve is restored to the normal configuration.

A. ACTION; RED B. ACTION; SILVER C. OUTAGE; RED D~ OUTAGE; SILVER Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:26 AM 174 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

69. G2.2.14 001 Given the following plant conditions:

Mode 6 As part of scheduled outage work, IFV-3531-0-EF, OPER-SG A MTR DR EF PUMP FLOW CONT VLV, has been isolated to replace the actuator.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

Per SAP-205, Status Control and Removal and Restoration, an ____ _

Removal and Restoration will be used to track the status of IFV-3531-0-EF.

Per OAP-1 06.3, Locked Valve Program, a _____ chain will be installed when the valve is restored to the normal configuration.

A. ACTION; RED B. ACTION; SILVER C. OUTAGE; RED D~ OUTAGE; SILVER Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:26 AM 174

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_G IVEN A.

Plausible because an Action R&R would be required for other Modes. RED is plausible because this chain color would be used for open valves.

Incorrect because Section 4.3.1 of SAP-205 states that if the R&R is generated for a system or component that has an LCO which is N/A in Modes 5 or 6, it should be an Outage R & R. Also incorrect because lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4), a silver chain should be used for valve handwheels locked in the NEUTRAL position.

B.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct -lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4). Also plausible because an Action R&R would be required for other Modes.

I ncorrect because Section 4.3.1 of OAP-1 06.3 states that if the R&R is generated for a system or component that has an LCO which is N/A in Modes 5 or 6, it should be an Outage R & R.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also, RED is plausible because this chain color would be used for open valves.

Incorrect because lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4), a silver chain should be used for valve handwheels locked in the NEUTRAL position.

D.

CORRECT. Section 4.3.1 of OAP-106.3 states that if the R&R is generated for a system or component that has an LCO which is N/A in Modes 5 or 6, it should be an Outage R & R. lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4), a silver chain should be used for valve handwheels locked in the NEUTRAL position.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 175 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009 _NRC _RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_G IVEN A.

Plausible because an Action R&R would be required for other Modes. RED is plausible because this chain color would be used for open valves.

Incorrect because Section 4.3.1 of SAP-205 states that if the R&R is generated for a system or component that has an LCO which is N/A in Modes 5 or 6, it should be an Outage R & R. Also incorrect because lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4), a silver chain should be used for valve handwheels locked in the NEUTRAL position.

B.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct -lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4). Also plausible because an Action R&R would be required for other Modes.

I ncorrect because Section 4.3.1 of OAP-1 06.3 states that if the R&R is generated for a system or component that has an LCO which is N/A in Modes 5 or 6, it should be an Outage R & R.

C.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also, RED is plausible because this chain color would be used for open valves.

Incorrect because lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4), a silver chain should be used for valve handwheels locked in the NEUTRAL position.

D.

CORRECT. Section 4.3.1 of OAP-106.3 states that if the R&R is generated for a system or component that has an LCO which is N/A in Modes 5 or 6, it should be an Outage R & R. lAW OAP-106.3, Section 6.1.a.4), a silver chain should be used for valve handwheels locked in the NEUTRAL position.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 175

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.2.14:

(Equipment Control) Knowledge of the process for controlling equipment configuration or status.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 2

R03.9 SAP-205, Step 4.3 (Page 5 of 13)

OAP-1 06.1, Step 6.1.a (Page 3 of 12) and Att. 11 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

SAP-205-1 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of the process for controlling equipment (IFV-3531-0-EF) configuration or status during Modes 5 & 6.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 176 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.2.14:

(Equipment Control) Knowledge of the process for controlling equipment configuration or status.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 2

R03.9 SAP-205, Step 4.3 (Page 5 of 13)

OAP-1 06.1, Step 6.1.a (Page 3 of 12) and Att. 11 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

SAP-205-1 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of the process for controlling equipment (IFV-3531-0-EF) configuration or status during Modes 5 & 6.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 176

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

70. G2.2.37 00_2 _____________________________ -----.

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Charging/SI Pump 'B' is running The crew will be shifting to Charging/SI Pump 'C' running on Train 'B' in accordance with SOP-1 02, Chemical and Volume Control System.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes ECCS Subsystem/Train operability status while the procedure is performed?

A. INITIAL entry into the LCO for Train 'B' is required at the time when both Charging/SI Pumps 'B' and 'C' breakers are racked up AND closed.

B~ INITIAL entry into the LCO for Train 'B' is required at the time when both Charging/SI Pumps 'B' and 'C' breakers are racked up ONLY.

C. BOTH trains remain OPERABLE because at least ONE pump is running throughout the procedure.

D. BOTH trains remain OPERABLE because the swing pump is available as the standby pump throughout the procedure.

A.

Plausible because this would be correct when both pumps are running.

Incorrect because the Train would be INOPERABLE before both pumps are started -

when both pumps breakers are racked up.

B.

CORRECT. SOP-102, Precaution 1I.2.d, specifies that the train to which the swing pump will be aligned becomes INOPERABLE when both breakers are racked in on the same bus.

C.

Plausible because both trains are OPERABLE up to the point where both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time. Also plausible because Train 'A' is unaffected by the swap. Also plausible because at least ONE pump will be running throughout the procedure.

Incorrect since Train 'B' will become INOPERABLE when both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time.

D.

Plausible because both trains are OPERABLE up to the point where both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time.

Incorrect since Train 'B' will become INOPERABLE when both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time. 2nd part is plausible because the swing pump may be used as the standby pump if it is the only pump racked in on the train NOT in service. Also incorrect because the swing pump is not available as a standby pump during the swap.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 177 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

70. G2.2.37 00_2 _____________________________ -----.

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power Charging/SI Pump 'B' is running The crew will be shifting to Charging/SI Pump 'C' running on Train 'B' in accordance with SOP-1 02, Chemical and Volume Control System.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes ECCS Subsystem/Train operability status while the procedure is performed?

A. INITIAL entry into the LCO for Train 'B' is required at the time when both Charging/SI Pumps 'B' and 'C' breakers are racked up AND closed.

B~ INITIAL entry into the LCO for Train 'B' is required at the time when both Charging/SI Pumps 'B' and 'C' breakers are racked up ONLY.

C. BOTH trains remain OPERABLE because at least ONE pump is running throughout the procedure.

D. BOTH trains remain OPERABLE because the swing pump is available as the standby pump throughout the procedure.

A.

Plausible because this would be correct when both pumps are running.

Incorrect because the Train would be INOPERABLE before both pumps are started -

when both pumps breakers are racked up.

B.

CORRECT. SOP-102, Precaution 1I.2.d, specifies that the train to which the swing pump will be aligned becomes INOPERABLE when both breakers are racked in on the same bus.

C.

Plausible because both trains are OPERABLE up to the point where both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time. Also plausible because Train 'A' is unaffected by the swap. Also plausible because at least ONE pump will be running throughout the procedure.

Incorrect since Train 'B' will become INOPERABLE when both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time.

D.

Plausible because both trains are OPERABLE up to the point where both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time.

Incorrect since Train 'B' will become INOPERABLE when both breakers are racked in on the same bus at a time. 2nd part is plausible because the swing pump may be used as the standby pump if it is the only pump racked in on the train NOT in service. Also incorrect because the swing pump is not available as a standby pump during the swap.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 177

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.2.37:

(Equipment Control) Ability to determine operability and/or availability of safety related equipment.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 2

R03.6 SOP-102, Precaution 11.2.d (Page 4 of 102)

SOP-102, III.F. CAUTION 2.0 (Page 27 of 102)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-10-23 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions CVCS 115 & 159 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of system operability in an interim alignment. Attempted to keep within the realm of RO responsibility by posing the question around a precaution in a procedure that they would perform.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:26 AM 178 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.2.37:

(Equipment Control) Ability to determine operability and/or availability of safety related equipment.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 2

R03.6 SOP-102, Precaution 11.2.d (Page 4 of 102)

SOP-102, III.F. CAUTION 2.0 (Page 27 of 102)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AB-10-23 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference questions CVCS 115 & 159 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41(b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by requiring knowledge of system operability in an interim alignment. Attempted to keep within the realm of RO responsibility by posing the question around a precaution in a procedure that they would perform.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:26 AM 178

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

71. G2.3.11 001 A cool down is in progress, in accordance with AOP-112.2, Steam Generator Tube Leak Not Requiring SI, for tube leakage in Steam Generator 'B'.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the status of PVT-201 0, PWR RELIEF B, and MVG-2802A, MS LOOP B TO TO EFP?

PVT-2010 MVG-2802A A.

MAN/CLOSED CLOSED/ENERGIZED B.

MAN/CLOSED CLOSED/DE-ENERGIZED C.

AUTO/1150 PSIG CLOSED/ENERGIZED D~

AUTO/1150 PSIG CLOSED/DE-ENERGIZED A.

Plausible because PWR Relief B passes through this status in the steps to raise the setpoint and place it in AUTO. Also plausible since MVG-2802 A is closed. Incorrect since MVG-2802A de-energized.

B.

Plausible because PWR Relief B passes through this status in the steps to raise the setpoint and place it in AUTO. Also plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

C.

Plausible because the status of PWR Relief B is correct. Also plausible since MVG-2802 A is closed. Incorrect since MVG-2802A is also de-energized.

D.

CORRECT. PWR Relief B is placed in MAN and CLOSED then the setpoint is raised to 1150 PSIG and it is placed in AUTO in order to provide relief capacity in the event of an over-pressurization. MVG-2802A is closed and locally de-energized to avoid an inadvertent release if the TDEFW Pump auto starts.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:26 AM 179 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

71. G2.3.11 001 A cool down is in progress, in accordance with AOP-112.2, Steam Generator Tube Leak Not Requiring SI, for tube leakage in Steam Generator 'B'.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the status of PVT-201 0, PWR RELIEF B, and MVG-2802A, MS LOOP B TO TO EFP?

PVT-2010 MVG-2802A A.

MAN/CLOSED CLOSED/ENERGIZED B.

MAN/CLOSED CLOSED/DE-ENERGIZED C.

AUTO/1150 PSIG CLOSED/ENERGIZED D~

AUTO/1150 PSIG CLOSED/DE-ENERGIZED A.

Plausible because PWR Relief B passes through this status in the steps to raise the setpoint and place it in AUTO. Also plausible since MVG-2802 A is closed. Incorrect since MVG-2802A de-energized.

B.

Plausible because PWR Relief B passes through this status in the steps to raise the setpoint and place it in AUTO. Also plausible because the 2nd half is correct.

C.

Plausible because the status of PWR Relief B is correct. Also plausible since MVG-2802 A is closed. Incorrect since MVG-2802A is also de-energized.

D.

CORRECT. PWR Relief B is placed in MAN and CLOSED then the setpoint is raised to 1150 PSIG and it is placed in AUTO in order to provide relief capacity in the event of an over-pressurization. MVG-2802A is closed and locally de-energized to avoid an inadvertent release if the TDEFW Pump auto starts.

Thursday, July 16, 20096:39:26 AM 179

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.3.11:

(Radiation Control) Ability to control radiation releases.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 3

R03.8 AOP-112.2, Step 17 (Page 12 of 51)

AOP-112.2, Step 19 (Page 15 of 51)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-112.2-05 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Matches KIA in that it tests the ability to verify that release pathways (via MVG-2802A and PVT -2010) are isolated during a SGTL.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 180 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.3.11:

(Radiation Control) Ability to control radiation releases.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 3

R03.8 AOP-112.2, Step 17 (Page 12 of 51)

AOP-112.2, Step 19 (Page 15 of 51)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

AOP-112.2-05 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Matches KIA in that it tests the ability to verify that release pathways (via MVG-2802A and PVT -2010) are isolated during a SGTL.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 180

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

72. G2.3.5 002 During preparation for a Waste Monitor Tank release, which ONE (1) of the following identifies how the HI RAD setpoint for RM-L5, LIQUID WASTE EFFLUENT MONITOR, is adjusted and where is the release setpoint found?

A. Set at 2X background; SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet - Control Room B. Set at 2X background; HPP-904, Use of the Radiation Monitoring System C'!'" Based on tank sample; SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet - Control Room D. Based on tank sample; HPP-904, Use of the Radiation Monitoring System A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because the setpoint for normal operations is 2X background.

Incorrect because the setpoint is based on tank sample analysis.

B.

Plausible because the setpoint for normal operations is 2X background, and, normally the setpoint would be found in HPP-904.

Incorrect because the setpoint is found on the LWRP; and transposed to SOP-108, Att.

VA, for a release and because the setpoint is based on tank sample analysis.

C.

CORRECT. The setpoint is based on tank sample analysis. SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet, specifies that the setpoint is on the LWRP and it is transposed to SOP-108, Att. VA. During normal operation, the setpoint is in HPP-904.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct.

Incorrect because SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet, specifies that the setpoint is on the LWRP and it is transposed to SOP-108, Att. VA. During normal operation, the setpoint is in HPP-904.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 181 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

72. G2.3.5 002 During preparation for a Waste Monitor Tank release, which ONE (1) of the following identifies how the HI RAD setpoint for RM-L5, LIQUID WASTE EFFLUENT MONITOR, is adjusted and where is the release setpoint found?

A. Set at 2X background; SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet - Control Room B. Set at 2X background; HPP-904, Use of the Radiation Monitoring System C'!'" Based on tank sample; SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet - Control Room D. Based on tank sample; HPP-904, Use of the Radiation Monitoring System A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because the setpoint for normal operations is 2X background.

Incorrect because the setpoint is based on tank sample analysis.

B.

Plausible because the setpoint for normal operations is 2X background, and, normally the setpoint would be found in HPP-904.

Incorrect because the setpoint is found on the LWRP; and transposed to SOP-108, Att.

VA, for a release and because the setpoint is based on tank sample analysis.

C.

CORRECT. The setpoint is based on tank sample analysis. SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet, specifies that the setpoint is on the LWRP and it is transposed to SOP-108, Att. VA. During normal operation, the setpoint is in HPP-904.

D.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct.

Incorrect because SOP-108, Liquid Waste Processing System, Attachment VA, Liquid Waste Release Worksheet, specifies that the setpoint is on the LWRP and it is transposed to SOP-108, Att. VA. During normal operation, the setpoint is in HPP-904.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 181

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.3.5:

(Radiation Control) Ability to use radiation monitoring systems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 3

R02.9 SOP-108, Attachment VA, Step 2.e (Page 112 of 194)

HPP-710, Attachment 1,Section II (Page 41 of 48)

HPP-904, 6.1.1 (Page 5 of 11)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AB-16-17; HPP-71 0-03 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(11)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by determining which RMS alarm must be adjusted and how to determine the setpoint for that alarm in an off-normal situation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 182 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_N RC_RO _EXAM_DAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.3.5:

(Radiation Control) Ability to use radiation monitoring systems.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 3

R02.9 SOP-108, Attachment VA, Step 2.e (Page 112 of 194)

HPP-710, Attachment 1,Section II (Page 41 of 48)

HPP-904, 6.1.1 (Page 5 of 11)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

AB-16-17; HPP-71 0-03 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(11)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by determining which RMS alarm must be adjusted and how to determine the setpoint for that alarm in an off-normal situation.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 182

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

73. G2.3.7 004 Which ONE (1) of the following describes how an active (in use) RWP is REQUIRED to be posted by HPP-151, Use of the Radiation Work Permit and Standing Radiation Work Permir?

On the computers at the entrance to the RCA ____ _

A~ ONLY.

B. and a hardcopy at the job site.

C. and a hardcopy in the dress out area of the AB 436'.

D. and a hardcopy outside of the east wall of the dressing room on the CB 412'.

A.

CORRECT. see excerpt from HPP-151 below:

RE: HPP-151, 5.2.3:

5.2.3 RWP originals shall be maintained in the Health Physics Lab under normal conditions. One copy of active (in use) RWPs will be posted or viewed using the RWP Viewer on the designated computers at the entrance to the RCA or area concerned.

B.

Plausible because other work-related documents, such as Confined Entry Permits and FME logs, may be posted at the job site.

Incorrect because an RWP does not have to be posted in this area.

C.

Plausible because dress out requirements are on an RWP and it could be possible to post dress out requirements in a dress out area.

Incorrect because an RWP does not have to be posted in this area.

D.

Plausible because this recenty was true for an SRWP.

Incorrect because an RWP does not have to be posted in this area.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 183 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO _EXAM_OAT ABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN

73. G2.3.7 004 Which ONE (1) of the following describes how an active (in use) RWP is REQUIRED to be posted by HPP-151, Use of the Radiation Work Permit and Standing Radiation Work Permir?

On the computers at the entrance to the RCA ____ _

A~ ONLY.

B. and a hardcopy at the job site.

C. and a hardcopy in the dress out area of the AB 436'.

D. and a hardcopy outside of the east wall of the dressing room on the CB 412'.

A.

CORRECT. see excerpt from HPP-151 below:

RE: HPP-151, 5.2.3:

5.2.3 RWP originals shall be maintained in the Health Physics Lab under normal conditions. One copy of active (in use) RWPs will be posted or viewed using the RWP Viewer on the designated computers at the entrance to the RCA or area concerned.

B.

Plausible because other work-related documents, such as Confined Entry Permits and FME logs, may be posted at the job site.

Incorrect because an RWP does not have to be posted in this area.

C.

Plausible because dress out requirements are on an RWP and it could be possible to post dress out requirements in a dress out area.

Incorrect because an RWP does not have to be posted in this area.

D.

Plausible because this recenty was true for an SRWP.

Incorrect because an RWP does not have to be posted in this area.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 183

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.3.7:

(Radiation Control) Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 3

R03.5 HPP-401, Step 4.1.4.G.5 (Page 7 of 20)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

SOT-3-1 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(12)

KIA Match:

Meets the KIA by demonstrating knowledge of the RWP posting requirements.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 184 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KlA-G2.3.7:

(Radiation Control) Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

3 3

R03.5 HPP-401, Step 4.1.4.G.5 (Page 7 of 20)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective:

SOT-3-1 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(12)

KIA Match:

Meets the KIA by demonstrating knowledge of the RWP posting requirements.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 184

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

74. G2.4.30 001 Which ONE (1) of the following identifies an event where the subsequent power change, as listed in AOP-21 0.3, Feedwater Pump Malfunction, requires notification of the Chemistry Department and identifies the sample required to be analyzed?

A'I ONE of TWO running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 65% power; Iodine isotopic analysis B. ONE of TWO running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 65% power; 1 OO/E-bar determination C. ONE of THREE running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 100% power; Iodine isotopic analysis D. ONE of THREE running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 100% power; 1 OO/E-bar determination A.

CORRECT. AOP-21 0.3 specifies the maximum power level for one MFW Pump at 48%; a 17% reduction. AOP-210.3 requires the load reduction to be conducted lAW GOP-4B. The Reference Page for GOP-4B requires Att. III.H of GTP-702 be conducted for a thermal power change of >15%. Att. III.H requires STP-604.001 Isotopic Analysis for DE 1-131. This exceeds the 15% in one hour T.S. requirement for an Iodine Isotopic Analysis.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because 100/E-bar (Gross Activity) is another sampling component listed in T.S. Table 4.4-4.

Incorrect since the basis for the notification to sample is Iodine.

C.

Plausible because it requires a power change from 100 to 91% (per AOP-210.3). Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

Incorrect because the power change is less than 15% in one hour.

D.

Plausible because it requires a power change from 100 to 91% (per AOP-210.3). Also plausible because 100/E-bar (Gross Activity) is another sampling component listed in T.S. Table 4.4-4.

Incorrect since the basis for the notification to sample is Iodine. Also incorrect because the power change is less than 15% in one hour.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 185 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

74. G2.4.30 001 Which ONE (1) of the following identifies an event where the subsequent power change, as listed in AOP-21 0.3, Feedwater Pump Malfunction, requires notification of the Chemistry Department and identifies the sample required to be analyzed?

A'I ONE of TWO running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 65% power; Iodine isotopic analysis B. ONE of TWO running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 65% power; 1 OO/E-bar determination C. ONE of THREE running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 100% power; Iodine isotopic analysis D. ONE of THREE running Main Feedwater Pumps trips at 100% power; 1 OO/E-bar determination A.

CORRECT. AOP-21 0.3 specifies the maximum power level for one MFW Pump at 48%; a 17% reduction. AOP-210.3 requires the load reduction to be conducted lAW GOP-4B. The Reference Page for GOP-4B requires Att. III.H of GTP-702 be conducted for a thermal power change of >15%. Att. III.H requires STP-604.001 Isotopic Analysis for DE 1-131. This exceeds the 15% in one hour T.S. requirement for an Iodine Isotopic Analysis.

B.

Plausible because the 1 st part is correct. Also plausible because 100/E-bar (Gross Activity) is another sampling component listed in T.S. Table 4.4-4.

Incorrect since the basis for the notification to sample is Iodine.

C.

Plausible because it requires a power change from 100 to 91% (per AOP-210.3). Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

Incorrect because the power change is less than 15% in one hour.

D.

Plausible because it requires a power change from 100 to 91% (per AOP-210.3). Also plausible because 100/E-bar (Gross Activity) is another sampling component listed in T.S. Table 4.4-4.

Incorrect since the basis for the notification to sample is Iodine. Also incorrect because the power change is less than 15% in one hour.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 185

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.4.30:

(Emergency Procedures/Plans) Knowledge of events related to system operations/status that must be reported to internal organizations or outside agencies.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 4

R02.7 AOP-210.3, Step 4 (Page 4 of 7)

TS Table 4.4-4 (Page 261 of 588)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GOPDOWN-7596; S8-4-18 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference question NORMAL OPERATIONS 16 AND Open Reference question NORMAL OPERATIONS 39 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by identification of an operational event requiring notification of an internal organization (Chemistry) and the specific reason for so doing.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 186 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.4.30:

(Emergency Procedures/Plans) Knowledge of events related to system operations/status that must be reported to internal organizations or outside agencies.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

References:

3 4

R02.7 AOP-210.3, Step 4 (Page 4 of 7)

TS Table 4.4-4 (Page 261 of 588)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

None Learning Objective:

GOPDOWN-7596; S8-4-18 Question History:

MODIFIED (Although written "from scratch", this question is similar enough to Closed Reference question NORMAL OPERATIONS 16 AND Open Reference question NORMAL OPERATIONS 39 to be classified as MODIFIED) 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

KIA Match:

Meets KIA by identification of an operational event requiring notification of an internal organization (Chemistry) and the specific reason for so doing.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 186

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

75. G2.4.32 003

---

~-------------------------------

Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A severe lightning storm has resulted in problems with many Main Control Board annunciator panels and individual annunciators.

One of the affected panels is XCP-615, which includes annunciator RCS LEAK DET > 1 GPM (point 3-6) and several others.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

The crew will enter _____ in response to the loss of annunciators.

The crew will compensate for the loss of the RCS LEAK DET >1 GPM alarm using an attachment in

?

A. OAP-100.5, Guidelines for Configuration Control and Operation of Plant Equipment OAP-1 06.1, Operating Logs B~ AOP-100.5, Loss of Main Control Board Annunciators OAP-1 06.1, Operating Logs C. OAP-100.5, Guidelines for Configuration Control and Operation of Plant Equipment GTP-702, Swveillance Activity Tracking and Triggering D. AOP-100.5, Loss of Main Control Board Annunciators J

GTP-702, Surveillance Activity Tracking and Triggering

~~~-~-~-~

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 187 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN

75. G2.4.32 003

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Given the following plant conditions:

100% power A severe lightning storm has resulted in problems with many Main Control Board annunciator panels and individual annunciators.

One of the affected panels is XCP-615, which includes annunciator RCS LEAK DET > 1 GPM (point 3-6) and several others.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

The crew will enter _____ in response to the loss of annunciators.

The crew will compensate for the loss of the RCS LEAK DET >1 GPM alarm using an attachment in

?

A. OAP-100.5, Guidelines for Configuration Control and Operation of Plant Equipment OAP-1 06.1, Operating Logs B~ AOP-100.5, Loss of Main Control Board Annunciators OAP-1 06.1, Operating Logs C. OAP-100.5, Guidelines for Configuration Control and Operation of Plant Equipment GTP-702, Swveillance Activity Tracking and Triggering D. AOP-100.5, Loss of Main Control Board Annunciators J

GTP-702, Surveillance Activity Tracking and Triggering

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Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 187

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct - AOP-1 00.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment (Att XIX) from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level, Also plausible because OAP-100.5 is the correct procedure for a single annunciator.

Incorrect because states that OAP-100.5 is only to be used for a loss of a single annunciator.

S.

CORRECT. lAW Step 1 of AOP-100.5. NOTE - Step 1 of AOP-100.5 states that this procedure is to be used for loss of multiple MCS annunciators. AOP-100.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment (Att XIX) from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level. A TT XIX specifies recording sump level every 15 minutes.

C.

Plausible because OAP-1 00.5 is the correct procedure for a single annunciator.. Also plausible because the correct procedure (AOP-100.5) specifically refers to OAP-1 00.5.

Also plausible because GTP Attachments are used to compensate for the loss of many annunciators in AOP-100.5. Two GTP-702 Attachments (VI.V-1 and VI.V-3) are contingencies taken for inoperable RCS leak detection methods and require monitoring every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Incorrect because states that OAP-1 00.5 is only to be used for a loss of a single annunciator. Also incorrect because AOP-1 00.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level.

D.

Plausible because the 1st part is correct. Also plausible because OAP-100.5 is the correct procedure for a single annunciator. Also plausible because the correct procedure (AOP-100.5) specifically refers to OAP-100.5. Also plausible because GTP Attachments are used to compensate for the loss of many annunciators in AOP-100.5.

Two GTP-702 Attachments (VI.V-1 and VI.V-3) are contingencies taken for inoperable RCS leak detection methods and require monitoring every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Incorrect because AOP-100.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 188 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_ -_AS_GIVEN A.

Plausible because the 2nd part is correct - AOP-1 00.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment (Att XIX) from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level, Also plausible because OAP-100.5 is the correct procedure for a single annunciator.

Incorrect because states that OAP-100.5 is only to be used for a loss of a single annunciator.

S.

CORRECT. lAW Step 1 of AOP-100.5. NOTE - Step 1 of AOP-100.5 states that this procedure is to be used for loss of multiple MCS annunciators. AOP-100.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment (Att XIX) from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level. A TT XIX specifies recording sump level every 15 minutes.

C.

Plausible because OAP-1 00.5 is the correct procedure for a single annunciator.. Also plausible because the correct procedure (AOP-100.5) specifically refers to OAP-1 00.5.

Also plausible because GTP Attachments are used to compensate for the loss of many annunciators in AOP-100.5. Two GTP-702 Attachments (VI.V-1 and VI.V-3) are contingencies taken for inoperable RCS leak detection methods and require monitoring every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Incorrect because states that OAP-1 00.5 is only to be used for a loss of a single annunciator. Also incorrect because AOP-1 00.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level.

D.

Plausible because the 1st part is correct. Also plausible because OAP-100.5 is the correct procedure for a single annunciator. Also plausible because the correct procedure (AOP-100.5) specifically refers to OAP-100.5. Also plausible because GTP Attachments are used to compensate for the loss of many annunciators in AOP-100.5.

Two GTP-702 Attachments (VI.V-1 and VI.V-3) are contingencies taken for inoperable RCS leak detection methods and require monitoring every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

Incorrect because AOP-100.5, Attachment 3 specifies using the attachment from OAP-106.1 to monitor RS Sump level.

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 188

QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.4.32:

(Emergency Procedures/Plans) Knowledge of operator response to loss of all annunciators.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

AOP-100.5 3

4 R03.6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

NONE Learning Objective:

AOP-100.5-6 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

Comments:

Matches the KIA in that it tests actions required in the procedure for loss of multiple MCB annunciators (AOP-100.5).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 189 QUESTIONS REPORT for VCS_2009_NRC_RO_EXAM_DATABASE_-_AS_GIVEN KIA - G2.4.32:

(Emergency Procedures/Plans) Knowledge of operator response to loss of all annunciators.

Tier:

Group:

Importance Rating:

Technical

Reference:

AOP-100.5 3

4 R03.6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

NONE Learning Objective:

AOP-100.5-6 Question History:

NEW 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

41 (b)(10)

Comments:

Matches the KIA in that it tests actions required in the procedure for loss of multiple MCB annunciators (AOP-100.5).

Thursday, July 16, 2009 6:39:26 AM 189