ML072910367

NRC Initial License Exam, Written Question Data Sheet

ML072910367
Person / Time
Site:	Palisades
Issue date:	10/22/2007
From:	Hironori Peterson NRC/RGN-III/DRS/OLB
To:	Schwarz C Entergy Nuclear Operations
References
50-255/07-301 50-255/07-301
Download: ML072910367 (75)

Text

RO Question 1 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 1 of 75 Question Number: 1 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000007 (BW/E02&E10; CE/E02) Reactor Trip - Stabilization - Recovery / 1 CE/E02 Reactor Trip Recovery EA1.3 Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (Reactor Trip Recovery): Desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.

Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.3 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAB_E01.04

References:

EOP-1.0 Basis; EOP-2.0 Basis Question:

EOP-1.0, Standard Post-Trip Actions, and EOP-2.0, "Reactor Trip Recovery," contain guidance regarding operation of the feedwater system. What is the guidance given, and why is it important?

a. Raise feedwater flow using Main Feed Pump speed controllers to compensate for the rapid lowering of S/G levels (shrink effect) after the trip. This aids in maintaining TAVE at less than 540° F.

b. Manually lower feedwater flow using Main Feed Pump speed controllers to prevent over-feeding the S/Gs. This action avoids unnecessary cycling of ESS equipment.

c. Trip both Main Feed Pumps to compensate for the rapid rise in S/G levels (swell effect) after the trip. Manually start one Auxiliary Feedwater Pump to provide finer control and aid in maintaining TAVE greater than 525° F.

d. Manually lower feedwater flow using Main Feed Pump speed controllers to prevent over-feeding the S/Gs. This action helps prevent feedwater isolation due to feed regulating valve high level override.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student incorrectly believes that feed rate needs to be raised to compensate for the shrink effect of the trip.

b.

CORRECT - Per EOP-1.0 immediate action #3

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses shrink and swell effects from up powers and down powers.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that S/G levels rise due to no steam flow and sustained feedwater flow.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 2 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 2 of 75 Question Number: 2 Source of Question:

BANK Wolf Creek 2006 K/A:

000008 Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident / 3 AK3.02 Knowledge of the reason for the following responses as they apply to the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident: Why PORV or code safety exit temperature is below RCS or PZR temperature.

Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.14 Palisades Learning Objective: GFAC lesson plan objective #8

References:

GFES lesson plan - Steam Question:

A Pressurizer code safety valve has indications of leakage. The following indications are noted:

Pressurizer pressure is 2060 psia and stable.

Pressurizer Vapor Space is 640°F and stable.

Safety Valve tailpipe temperature indicates approximately 230°F and rising slowly.

Quench Tank pressure is 6 psig and rising 1 psi every 10 minutes.

Which one of the following is the reason for the lower temperature indication seen downstream of the safety valve?

a. The leak is too small to overcome ambient heat loss to the containment.

b. The fluid temperature downstream of the safety valve lowers because a large amount of energy is lost in the throttling process.

c. The fluid temperature corresponds to the Quench Tank saturation pressure because minimal energy is lost in a throttling process.

d. The volume of water in the Quench Tank quenches the superheated vapor downstream of the leaking safety valve.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student incorrectly believes that the heat is transferred to the containment due to the sizing of the pipe and the transport time

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that a significant amount of energy is lost across the safety valve seat.

c.

CORRECT - A constant enthalpy process means same BTU/LBM of fluid. Using mollier diagram, go to the new pressure (Quench Tank) directly to the right on a constant enthalpy line. Follow the pressure line up to the saturation curve to determine the temperature of the fluid.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the steam downstream of the safety valve becomes super-heated and is condensed by the relatively cool water in the quench tank.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 3 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 3 of 75 Question Number: 3 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000009 Small Break LOCA / 3 EK2.03 Knowledge of the interrelationships between the small break LOCA and the following:

S/Gs Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.0 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAG_E05.01

References:

EOP-4.0 Basis section 1.0 Question:

For a Small Break LOCA event with all equipment operating as designed, which one of the following ensures adequate heat removal from the core?

a. PCS flow out of the break with all PCPs running.

b. Steam Generators.

c. PCS flow out of the break with 2 PCPs running.

d. Safety Injection flow.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Related to a common misconception regarding the reason for trip two, leave two strategy. Here the candidate misapplies it, and mistakenly believes that forced circulation forces more coolant out of the break and therefore provides more cooling. PCPs actually add heat to the PCS when running.

b.

CORRECT

c.

Candidate again misapplies the trip two/leave two strategy. Here the candidate believes that core heat is being removed via forced circulation but the heat input from the PCPs is not as high as with all 4 PCPs in service.

d.

Safety Injection flow does provide some cooling, but the definition of a small break LOCA inherently implies minimal SI flow, due to the slow pressure reduction of the PCS, and therefore minimal cooling from SI flow.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3

RO Question 4 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 4 of 75 Question Number: 4 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000011 Large Break LOCA / 3 EK1.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Large Break LOCA: Natural circulation and cooling, including reflux boiling Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 4.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: TBCORE_CK05.0, TBAG_T05.00

References:

EOP-4.0 Basis, page 4 Question:

During a Large Break LOCA with two phase natural circulation occurring, which one of the following sets of indications must be monitored to determine that heat removal and inventory functions are being satisfied?

a. PCS loop Delta T and Core Exit Thermocouples.

b. Tcolds and Thots.

c. PCS loop Delta T, and Tcolds.

d. Core Exit Thermocouples and Thots.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - CETs is correct, however PCS loop Delta T is not. Plausible because loop delta T could be an accurate indication of PCS heat removal for single phase natural circulation, however, for a large break LOCA, two phase natural circulation cooling is complex enough that loop delta T is not meaningful.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible for the same reason as loop delta T

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the two phase natural circulation process for a Large Break LOCA utilizes flow past the S/G U tubes and back to the core via the cold legs. This could be a process during a large break LOCA, but there may also be two phase reflux natural circulation cooling occurring which would render cold leg temperature not meaningful.

d.

CORRECT - per EOP-4.0 Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3

RO Question 5 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 5 of 75 Question Number: 5 Source of Question:

BANK Palisades K/A:

000015/17 RCP Malfunctions / 4 AK2.07 Knowledge of the interrelations between the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the following: RCP seals Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: PCP_E03.01

References:

EOP-6.0, step 45 Basis; EOP Supplement 3 Basis Question:

From full power a Loss of All Offsite Power occurs. All other equipment functions as designed.

Several minutes later the NCO-Turbine notes that Lower Seal Temperature indications (on Panel C-11) for all four Primary Coolant Pumps (PCPs) starts trending upward. This rising temperature is expected because...

a.

the Seal Impeller is no longer providing forced flow through the seal cartridge area.

b.

the Piggyback impeller is no longer providing forced flow through the seal cartridge area.

c.

Component Cooling Water is no longer circulating through the seal heat exchanger.

d.

Controlled Bleedoff flow from PCP seals is now at a lower flow rate.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT - PCS coolant flowing into the seal cavity is forced by the Seal impeller (also called Recirculation or auxiliary impeller) through the integral heat exchanger where it is cooled to approximately 130°F.

b.

Candidate misunderstands the function of the Piggyback impeller, which actually is mounted on top of the main pump impeller and provides forced circulation for the hydrostatic bearing.

c.

Candidate incorrectly believes that CCW is isolated when the pump loses power. When the loss of all offsite power occurs, there is initially a load shed of the busses which power the CCW pumps. But as the EDGs start and load, two CCW pumps will be sequenced on and continue to provide CCW flow through the seal heat exchanger.

d.

Candidate incorrectly believes CBO flow is affected by the loss of all offsite power, to such an extent as to cause a rise in seal temperature indications.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 6 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 6 of 75 Question Number: 6 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000022 Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup / 2 AK3.05 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Pump Makeup: Need to avoid plant transients Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.2 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: CVCS_CK11.0, CVCS_E11.01

References:

DBD-1.04, p. 78, SOP-2A, 7.3.1.b, CAUTION prior to step, DBD-2.04, p. 61 Question:

With the plant at 60% power, a loss of all charging flow occurs. Why is it important to maintain the secondary plant (main steam flow) as stable as possible until the problem has been corrected?

a. With the Pressurizer level now reducing at 44 gpm, a load rejection transient would accelerate the level reduction.

b. VCT level will lower to the point where explosive hydrogen is released if main steam flow rises.

c. Letdown temperature will damage the purification demineralizer resins if a load rejection occurs.

d. With the Pressurizer level now reducing at 4 gpm, a rise in main steam flow will accelerate the level reduction.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Incorrect, since letdown will automatically isolate (via TICA-0201) as a result of high letdown temperature, which will result from the loss of charging flow through the Regenerative Heat Exchanger. Also, a reduction in steam flow results in expansion of the primary coolant and a rise in PZR level.

b.

Incorrect, VCT level will actually RISE at ~ 4gpm (PCP seal controlled bleedoff flow); letdown has isolated on high temperature since there is no charging flow (cooling) through the Regenerative Heat Exchanger. Candidate correctly diagnoses that a rise in main steam flow would result in a lower PZR level (shrinkage), but misapplies it in relation to the VCT level.

c.

Incorrect, since the letdown temperature sensing point (TICA-0201) which causes isolation of letdown is UPstream of the CCW - cooled letdown heat exchanger. The protection for the demineralizer resins is from a sensing point DOWNstream of this heat exchanger.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 7 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 7 of 75 Question Number: 7 Source of Question:

BANK Palisades K/A:

000025 Loss of RHR System / 4 AA1.03 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Residual Heat Removal System: LPI pumps Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.4 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: IOTF_CP02.0-11

References:

ONP-17, 4.15.1 Question:

The following conditions exist:

The plant is in Mode 5.

P-67A, LPSI pump, is in service.

While performing a PCS drain, the PCS level is inadvertently lowered to 618'0".

Level is then stabilized with the drain secured.

The following then occurs:

PCS temperatures begin to rise.

SDC flow begins fluctuating between 1000 to 1500 gpm.

EK-1162, "LPSI PP LOW DISCH PRESSURE" alarm is received.

Which of the following describes the required action?

a. Stop P-67A, and then start P-67B.

b. Start P-67B, and then stop P-67A.

c. Adjust CV-3025, SDC HX outlet valve, to stabilize PCS temperature.

d. Adjust LPSI injection MOVs to reduce SDC flow.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - plausible if the student incorrectly believes that starting a different LPSI pump will restore SDC flow to above the limit.

b.

INCORRECT - plausible if the student incorrectly believes that starting a different LPSI pump will restore SDC flow to above the limit and an interruption in SDC flow is not desired.

c.

INCORRECT - plausible because throttling CV-3025 closed will help to minimize cavitation and flow fluctuation, however, this is not a desirable action because CV-3006 (SDC HX Bypass) works with CV-3025 (SDC HX Outlet) to control SDC temperature.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 8 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 8 of 75 Question Number: 8 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000026 Loss of Component Cooling Water / 8 AA2.03 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling Water:

The valve lineups necessary to restart the CCWS while bypassing the portion of the system causing the abnormal condition.

Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.4 Palisades Learning Objective: ISDC_CK05.0, IOTF_CK08.0

References:

SOP-16; ONP-6.2; DBD 1.01; ARP-7, window 72, M-209, sh. 3 Question:

During power operations, the following equipment is operating:

P-52C, Component Cooling Water (CCW) pump.

C-54, Waste Gas Compressor.

A Component Cooling Water leak occurs on the valve body of MV-CC117, SFP HXS E-53A/B CCW INLET, on the 10" header to the Spent Fuel Pool Heat Exchangers. The following valid alarms are annunciating:

EK-1172, COMPONENT CLG SURGE TANK T-3, HI-LO LEVEL EK-1368, RADWASTE PANEL C40 OFF NORMAL EK-1167, COMPONENT CLG PUMPS P-52A, P-52B, P-52C TRIP CCW Surge Tank level continues to lower.

Which procedural action(s) will enable restoration of the Component Cooling Water system, including restart of a Component Cooling Water Pump?

a. Align T-2, Condensate Storage Tank, to supply T-81, Primary System Makeup Tank, loads to supply more makeup water to the CCW surge tank.

b. Close CV-0944, CCW TO RW Evaps and C-54, and close MV-CC184, SFP HX's, RW EVAPs,

& C-54 CCW Return.

c. Close CV-0944, CCW TO RW Evaps and C-54, and close CV-0977B, CCW RETURN FROM RW EVAPS & C-54.

d. Close CV-0944A, CCW to Spent Fuel Pool & Radwaste Evaps, and close MV-CC184, SFP HX's, RW EVAPs, & C-54 CCW Return.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the CCW surge tank is not receiving enough makeup water from T-81, PMU Tank. However, T-2 recirc pump cannot develop the head to force flow to the CCW surge tank which is on the 649 level. This will not help restore surge tank level to enable restart of the pump.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible because CV-0944 will isolate RW Evaps and C-54 but will not isolate the SFP HXs. This will not isolate the leak

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because CV-0944 will isolate RW Evaps and C-54 and CV-0977B is the return for RW Evaps and C-54 cooling water. This will not isolate the leak.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 9 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 9 of 75 Question Number: 9 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000027 Pressurizer Pressure Control System Malfunction / 3 G2.4.46 Ability to verify that the alarms are consistent with plant conditions.

Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.5 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: PPCS_CK14.0

References:

ARP-4, window 59 Question:

During a plant cooldown with PCS temperature at 460°F, the following alarm annunciates:

EK-0759, NO PCS PROTECTION CHANNEL A Which one of the following indications will determine the validity of this alarm?

a. Subcooled Margin Monitor, SMM-0114, indicates > 25°F subcooling.

b. HS-0105A, PCS Overpressure Protection Channel A, is in DEFEAT.

c. MO-1042A, PRV-1042A PORV Block Valve, is open.

d. RED "TRIPPED" light on LTOP Channel A panel is lit.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible because LTOP helps to prevent a PTS condition and SMM will indicate how subcooled the PCS is for the pressure.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because a PORV block valve being closed will cause this alarm, candidate misapplies this.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that this light is actuated when the PCS is not protected. This light is actuated when a PORV receives a signal to open.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 10 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 10 of 75 Question Number: 10 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000029 ATWS / 1 EA2.10 Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a ATWS: Positive displacement charging pumps Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: PLCS_CK08.0

References:

Operator Aid OA-116 Question:

For which type of Anticipated Transient Without Scram event will P-55A, Charging Pump, speed controller (SIC-0216) output signal be expected to move in the MAXIMUM output direction, prior to any operator action?

a. Loss of Load.

b. Containment High Pressure.

c. Steam Generator Low Pressure.

d. Pressurizer Low Pressure (TM/LP).

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT - If the reactor should have tripped on a Loss of Load, but did not, PCS heat removal is not occurring.

PCS inventory will expand as indicated on a rising Pressurizer level. The Pressurizer Level Control Program will attempt to maintain Pressurizer level by reducing the speed of P-55A variable speed charging pump (controller output moves toward maximum).

b.

Whether the containment high pressure condition has resulted from a Main Steam Line Break, or from a LOCA, the effect is the same on the PCS - a large amount of heat and/or inventory is being removed. Pressurizer level will lower rapidly. The PLCS program will attempt to maintain pressurizer level by raising the speed of P-55A (controller output goes to minimum).

c.

Steam Generator Low Pressure results in a rapid removal of heat from the PCS. The effect will be shrinkage of PCS inventory, lowering Pressurizer level, and a rising speed of P-55A (controller output moves toward minimum.)

d.

A Pressurizer low pressure condition results from an overcooling of the PCS. This overcooling will cause shrinkage of PCS inventory, with resulting PLCS control signals to P-55A variable speed charging pump to add inventory. P-55A speed controller will reduce output to accomplish this (i.e., controller output will move toward the minimum direction).

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 11 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 11 of 75 Question Number: 11 Source of Question:

BANK Palisades K/A:

000040 (BW/E05; CE/E05; W/E12) Steam Line Rupture - Excessive Heat Transfer / 4 CE/E05 Excess Steam Demand EA1.1 Ability to operate and/or monitor the following as they apply to the (Excess Steam Demand)

Components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAD_E03.02, MSS_CK09.0

References:

DBD-1.09, pages 42-43 Question:

Which one of the following describes the design of the Main Steam Isolation Valves automatic closure logic for a Main Steam Line Break inside containment?

a. EITHER Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia AND Containment pressure rises to 4 psig.

b. BOTH Steam Generator pressures lower to 500 psia AND Containment pressure rises to 4 psig.

c. BOTH Steam Generator pressures lower to 500 psia OR Containment pressure rises to 4 psig.

d. EITHER Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia OR Containment pressure rises to 4 psig.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that both S/G pressure and containment pressure must rise above the setpoint to cause MSIV closure.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible for the same reason as a. Additionally, the student may believe that each MSIV is closed by its respective pressure channels reaching 500 psia on 2/4.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that each MSIV is closed by its respective pressure channels reaching 500 psia on 2/4.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 12 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 12 of 75 Question Number: 12 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000054 (CE/E06) Loss of Main Feedwater / 4 CE/E06 Loss of Feedwater EK3.3 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (Loss of Feedwater):

Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal, and emergency situations.

Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAE_T03.00

References:

EOP Supp 41, EOP Supplement 41 Basis 11; EOP 7.0, page 7 NOTE: EOP Supplement 41 is supplied to the candidates for the exam.

Question:

Given the following conditions:

EOP-7.0, Loss of All Feedwater, actions are in progress.

"A" Steam Generator level is minus 90%.

"B" Steam Generator level is minus 60%.

The crew is preparing to use the Condensate Pumps for feeding the Steam Generators.

Each Feed Regulating Bypass Valve (CV-0734, CV-0735) has been positioned to 20%

open as read on valve position indicators on panel C-01.

Both Feed Regulating Valves are closed Feed pump discharge pressure = 500 psia.

S/G pressure = 420 psia.

Which of the following describes whether the resulting amount of feed flow will be acceptable, and why or why not?

a. Feed flow to EACH S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew may feed S/Gs at this rate until levels are restored to between 60% - 70%.

b. Feed flow to NEITHER S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew must RAISE feed flow to both S/Gs to avoid the potential for significant S/G tube bundle damage.

c. Feed flow to "B" S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew must RAISE feed flow to "A" S/G to raise level above -84% to avoid the need to initiate once-through-cooling.

d. Feed flow to "B" S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew must REDUCE feed flow to "A" S/G to avoid the potential for significant S/G tube bundle damage.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the level for limiting feed flow with the level at which a S/G is considered dry (-140%)

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that feed flow is not sufficient to either S/G.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because feed flow to B S/G is acceptable but with A S/G less than -84% it is not desirable to raise feed flow because the limit for this condition is 300 gpm

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4

RO Question 13 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 13 of 75 Question Number: 13 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000055 Station Blackout EK1.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Station Blackout: Natural circulation cooling Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 4.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAR_TBCORE_CK01.0

References:

EOP-3.0 Basis, p. 17, 18, 19, EOP-3.0, Note prior to Step 8.

Question:

During a Station Blackout event, what is the optimal method of controlling PCS temperature during natural circulation cooling?

a. Turbine Bypass Valve with PIC-0511 in AUTO.

b. Atmospheric Dump Valves with HIC-0780A in MANUAL.

c. Atmospheric Dump Valves with HIC-0780A in AUTO.

d. Turbine Bypass Valve with PIC-0511 in MANUAL.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Incorrect - With a loss of power, there are no Cooling Tower Pps. or Condensate Pumps, and the resulting loss of Main Condenser vacuum will not allow use of the TBV.

b.

CORRECT

c.

Incorrect - The ADV controllers are not tuned for automatic mode during natural circ operations.

d.

Incorrect - See explanation for 'a'.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 14 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 14 of 75 Question Number: 14 Source of Question:

BANK Oconee 2005 NRC K/A:

000056 Loss of Offsite Power AK1.04 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power: Definition of saturation conditions, implication for the systems Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAC_E02.04

References:

EOP 8.0, step 19 Question:

A loss of offsite power has caused a reactor trip. A decision has been made to cooldown the plant by Natural Circulation. The highest available temperature indication for the PCS is 455° F.

Which one of the following is the MINIMUM PCS pressure allowed in accordance with EOP-8.0, Loss of Offsite Power/Forced Circulation Recovery?

a. 620 psia

b. 580 psia

c. 570 psia

d. 450 psia DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly applies subcooling requirements with minimum pressure for PCP operation because this is the min. pressure for PCP at 455F.

b.

Incorrect - unnecessary conversion to psia (i.e., 566.15 + 14.7 = 580)

c.

CORRECT EOP-8.0 requires at least 25° subcooling. Saturation pressure for 455°F = 444.33 psia. To obtain the minimum required subcooling (25°) add 25° + 455° = 480°. This equates to a saturation pressure of 566.15 psia per Steam Tables.

d.

An incorrect value which is slightly above saturation for given PCS temperature.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4

RO Question 15 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 15 of 75 Question Number: 15 Source of Question:

BANK Palisades 2003 NRC K/A:

000057 Loss of Vital AC Elec. Inst. Bus AK3.01 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus: Actions contained in EOP for loss of vital ac electrical instrument bus Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 4.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: IOTF_CK15.0

References:

ONP-24.5 steps 2.0 and note prior to 4.4 Question:

Given the following conditions:

The plant is in MODE 2.

Charging Pump P-55A is operating.

Charging Pumps P-55B and P-55C are in AUTO and OFF.

All control systems are aligned normally and functioning properly.

A loss of Instrument AC Bus Y-01 occurs.

Which of the following describes why ONP-24.5, "Loss of Instrument AC Bus Y01" directs the operators to isolate PCP bleedoff from the Volume Control Tank (VCT) and realign it to the Primary System Drain Tank?

a.

Minimizes the likelihood of gas intrusion in to the PCP seals.

b.

Minimizes the amount of pressure reduction in the VCT.

c.

Prevents a complete draining of the VCT.

d.

Prevents overfilling of the VCT.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Candidate misinterprets the DIRECTION of inventory/energy exchange between VCT and PCP bleedoff.

b.

Candidate misinterprets the DIRECTION of inventory/energy exchange between VCT and PCP bleedoff.

c.

Candidate misinterprets interface between VCT and PCP seal bleedoff.

d.

CORRECT - Since VCT outlet valve fails closed on loss of Y-01, there is no path out of the VCT. Continuing to flow PCP bleedoff to the VCT will overfill it.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 16 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 16 of 75 Question Number: 16 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000058 Loss of DC Power AK3.01 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of DC Power: Use of dc control power by D/Gs Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.4 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: EDG_CK07.0

References:

DBD-5.06 page 12, E-8 sheet 2 Question:

D/G 1-1 is in service fully loaded for a monthly surveillance test when breaker 72-302 (D/G 1-1 Field Flashing) on D-11A trips. Which one of the following describes the effect, if any, on D/G 1-1 and why?

a. No effect. Field current is provided by the generator voltage regulator automatically after engine startup.

b. Diesel output breaker, 152-107, trips on undervoltage to protect the generator from overcurrent due to the loss of voltage.

c. Diesel trips on overspeed. The loss of field current power causes a loss of generator load which will result in an overspeed.

d. No effect. Field current is not required after the generator builds up sufficient voltage on startup.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the generator cannot self-excite.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes the load will be dropped causing the diesel to trip on overspeed.

d.

INCORRECT - the affect is correct but the reason is incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that field current to the rotor is not required after the generator builds up voltage. Field current is always required, however, the generator output will supply the field current after startup and not the field flashing circuit.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3

RO Question 17 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 17 of 75 Question Number: 17 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000062 Loss of Nuclear Service Water AA1.06 Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water (SWS): Control of flow rates to components cooled by the SWS Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CAIR_CK13.0

References:

ARP-8, window 47 (EC-13)

Question:

The plant is at 80% during a power ascension when the following alarm annunciates:

EK-1347, "CONTAINMENT AIR COOLERS SERV WATER LEAK" The operator then takes all required Operator Actions of the alarm response procedure to attempt to isolate the leak. After these actions are complete, it is noted that the alarm had NOT cleared.

Based on the above actions, which one of the following describes the location and minimum flow rate of the leak?

a. The leak is NOT on a Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 700 gpm.

b. The leak is on ONE Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 300 gpm.

c. The leak is on ONE Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 700 gpm.

d. The leak is NOT on a Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 300 gpm.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - The fact that the leak in NOT on a CAC is correct, however, the alarm initiates at 300 gpm for a service water leak. This is plausible if the student does not know the setpoint for the CAC service water leak alarm, i.e., the student should know that 10% of total containment service water flow from a leak should not be the setpoint.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student does not know that each CAC inlet is cycled one at a time to see if the alarm clears.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student does not understand that each CAC inlet is cycled to check to see if the alarm clears and if the student does not know the setpoint for the CAC service water leak alarm, i.e., the student should know that 10% of total containment service water flow from a leak should not be the setpoint.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 18 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 18 of 75 Question Number: 18 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000065 Loss of Instrument Air AA2.01 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Instrument Air:

Cause and effect of low-pressure instrument air alarm Tier:

1 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CAS_CK16.0

References:

SOP-19; ARP-7, windows 1, 2, and 3; P&ID M-212, sh. 1, 4 Question:

With the plant at full power, Instrument Air Compressor C-2A is RUNNING, C-2B and C-2C are in AUTO and NOT running.

The following valid alarms annunciate:

EK-1101, CONTAINMENT INSTR AIR LO PRESS EK-1102, INSTRUMENT AIR LO PRESS Several seconds later, EK-1103, SERVICE AIR LO PRESS annunciates.

Additional conditions:

Instrument Air header pressure (as indicated on PIA-1210) has stabilized at 82 psig.

ONLY C-2A is running. C-2B and C-2C are NOT running.

Local pressure indication for all three Instrument Air Receiver Tanks has stabilized at approximately 105 psig.

No manual operator action has been taken.

What is occurring, and what is the effect on plant equipment?

a. An air leak on the Service Air system DOWNstream of Service Air header isolation CV-1212; the Cooling Tower Pumps trip on low makeup basin level signal.

b. High differential pressure on the in-service Instrument Air post-filter (F-5A/B); Track Alley/VRS sprinkler systems actuate.

c. A leak on the Instrument Air system UPstream of the Instrument Air Dryer; Main Transformer deluge system actuates.

d. Instrument Air Dryer temperature at 300°F; various air operated control valves throughout the plant will begin spuriously changing position.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - If the leak is on service air system, containment and instrument air low pressure alarms would not come in and the standby air compressors would start. This is plausible if the student believes that the leak is large enough to affect the containment and instrument air systems.

b.

CORRECT - this is the only possible choice that would cause service air isolation and the standby instrument air compressors to not start.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses that the setpoint for standby compressor start (88#) with the setpoint for low service air pressure (80#)

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that a high temperature on the air dryer desiccant has caused it to malfunction.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 19 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 19 of 75 Question Number: 19 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000001 Continuous Rod Withdrawal G2.1.12 Ability to apply technical specifications for a system Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.2 Palisades Learning Objective: CRD_CK13.0

References:

ARP-5, windows 11 and 12, Tech. Spec. 3.1.4 Question:

While balancing rods during power ascension, the NCO releases the RAISE-LOWER switch and a regulating rod continues withdrawing. EM OFF is then selected and rod motion stops. As a result, the regulating rod is now 7 inches further withdrawn than any other rod in that group.

Which one of the following describes any expected rod deviation alarms, and any required Limiting Condition of Operation (LCO) entry for control rod alignment per Technical Specifications?

a. TWO rod deviation alarms are annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is required.

b. ONE rod deviation alarm is annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is required.

c. ONE rod deviation alarm is annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is NOT required.

d. NO rod deviation alarms are annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is NOT required.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Candidate correctly recalls there are actually two rod position deviation alarms; (one for 4" deviation, and one for 8" deviation). However, in this case, candidate incorrectly recalls rod position associated with the alarms, and fails to recognize that a 7" deviation does not require LCO entry.

b.

Candidate correctly recognizes that only the 4" deviation alarm is annunciating, but incorrectly applies Tech.

Specs. for the condition.

c.

CORRECT - Candidate recognizes that a 7" deviation means only one rod deviation alarm is annunciating, and correctly applies the Tech. Spec. for this condition.

d.

Candidate misapplies the condition to conclude that it requires an 8" deviation to generate an alarm, and further misapplies Tech. Specs.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 20 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 20 of 75 Question Number: 20 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000033 Loss of Intermediate Range NI AA2.07 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Intermediate Range Nuclear Instrumentation: Confirmation of reactor trip Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 3.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: IOTF2_E04.01

References:

ARP-21, window A2, DBD-2.05, section 3.2.1.2, page 22; Tech Spec Bases 3.3.1 page 4 Question:

With the plant at 10% power, Wide Range Nuclear Instrument NI-3A fails high. Which one of the following will occur and how is this confirmed?

a. The reactor will trip. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate auxiliary trip units for RPS channels 'A' and 'C'.

b. The reactor will remain at power with EK-0602A HIGH POWER RATE CHANNEL TRIP annunciating. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate auxiliary trip unit for RPS channel 'A'.

c. The reactor will trip. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate auxiliary trip units for RPS channels 'B' and 'D'.

d. The reactor will remain at power with EK-0602A HIGH POWER RATE CHANNEL TRIP annunciating. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate auxiliary trip unit for RPS channel 'C'.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student does not understand that one WR NI will cause 2 out of 4 RPS channels to trip.

c.

INCORRECT - The plant would trip but the student fails to understand that NI-3A feeds RPS channels A and C.

d.

INCORRECT - - Plausible if the student does not understand that one WR NI will cause 2 out of 4 RPS channels to trip.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4

RO Question 21 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 21 of 75 Question Number: 21 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000037 Steam Generator Tube Leak AA1.10 Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Steam Generator Tube Leak:

CVCS makeup tank level indicator Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CVCS_CK11.0

References:

E-4 sheet 1 Question:

Given the following plant conditions:

The plant is in MODE 3.

PCS Temperature is 532°F.

PCS Pressure is 2060 psia.

Triple charging and letdown are in service for PCS cleanup.

A tube leak from B Steam Generator of 5 gpm has occurred.

LCC-11 is then lost due to an overcurrent condition. Which one of the following describes the response of Volume Control Tank level indication (1) before the loss of LCC-11 and (2) after the loss of LCC-11? Assume no operator action occurs.

(1)

(2)

a. decreases decreases

b. no change increases

c. decreases increases

d. increases no change DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - VCT level before the loss of LCC-11 will lower but will increase after. Plausible if the student does not understand the power supplies to the charging pumps and they believe that level will still lower because the S/G tube leak still exists.

b.

INCORRECT - VCT level will lower prior to loss of LCC-11. Plausible if the student believes that since PZR level will remain constant, VCT level will remain constant.

c.

CORRECT - Prior to the loss of LCC-11, VCT level indication is lowering because a S/G tube leak is occurring and charging pump P-55A has increased its speed to make up for the leak. VCT level after the loss of LCC-11 will rise because a charging pump has tripped but the orifice stop valves are still open.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate believes that triple letdown flow in addition to 4 gpm of PCP bleedoff flow is greater than triple charging flow.

Level of Knowledge: HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 22 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 22 of 75 Question Number: 22 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000061 ARM System Alarms AK3.02 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) System Alarms: Guidance contained in alarm response for ARM system Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 3.4 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.11 Palisades Learning Objective: RMS_CK08.0

References:

ARP-8, Attachment 2, page 4 Question:

Why does the Alarm Response Procedure (ARP-8) for RIA-1810, East Eng Safeguard Radwaste Isolation Vent Radiation Monitor, contain guidance that disallows the operators from selecting the setpoint range to the 1.0E+6 scale?

a. Because the limit setting of Technical Specification 3.3.10, Engineered Safeguards Room Ventilation (ESRV) Instrumentation, would be exceeded.

b. This action would isolate air flow to and from East Engineered Safeguards, which will result in the room overheating if the plant is in Mode 1.

c. This action would start P-1810, East Engineered Safeguards Sample Pump, which will initiate a diagnostic check of the sample flow path through RIA-1810.

d. During a Design Basis Accident, RIA-1810 is not capable of providing an alarm function on this scale.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT per reference

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible because when this radiation monitor alarms, it closes ESG ventilation dampers to and from Auxiliary Building ventilation, however SG is cooled by VHX-27A/B.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because this switch starts the sample pump when taken out of the off position.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the radiation monitor is not sensitive enough to detect abnormal radiation levels on this scale.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

4

RO Question 23 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 23 of 75 Question Number: 23 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000067 Plant Fire On-site AK1.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Plant Fire on Site: Fire fighting Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 3.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: ISDB_E05.02

References:

EK-X04 (ARP-19, window 10); DBD-1.10, p. 33, 49 Question:

Given the following conditions:

The plant is at 100% power.

NO equipment is out of service.

Bus 1C, 1D and 1E are being powered from Safeguards Bus.

A fire then occurs on the Startup Transformer 1-2. One of the alarms that has annunciated is:

EK-0527, S/U XFMR NO. 1-2 SUDDEN PRESSURE How will this fire be controlled and how is the plant affected?

a. Deluge actuation does not occur; the Fire Brigade must be used to fight this fire. The plant will trip due to the Sudden Pressure relay actuation on S/U Transformer 1-2.

b. Deluge actuation will provide extinguishing water for this fire. The plant will trip due to the Sudden Pressure relay actuation on S/U Transformer 1-2.

c. Deluge actuation will provide extinguishing water for this fire. The plant will NOT trip, but Rear Bus de-energizes due to Sudden Pressure relay actuation.

d. Deluge actuation does not occur; the Fire Brigade must be used to fight this fire. The plant will NOT trip, and Rear Bus remains energized.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student does not comprehend that the sudden pressure relay actuates transformer deluge.

b.

INCORRECT - Deluge actuation will occur but the plant will not trip. Plausible if the student believes that a loss of R bus will affect the 2400V buses.

c.

CORRECT - Deluge actuation and loss of R bus will occur as a result of the sudden pressure relay logic. The plant will not trip because the 2400 Volt buses are being powered from safeguards bus.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student does not comprehend that the sudden pressure relay actuates transformer deluge.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 24 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 24 of 75 Question Number: 24 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades K/A:

000068 (BW/A06) Control Room Evac.

AK2.03 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Control Room Evacuation: Controllers and positioners Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: AFW_CK16.0-2

References:

E-17, sh. 21A Question:

Given the following conditions:

P-8B, Turbine Driven Aux. Feedwater Pump, is the only available operating AFW Pump.

The Control Room has been evacuated due to a fire.

Auxiliary Shutdown Panel C-150 is being placed in service. What will be the effect on the Auxiliary Feedwater components?

a. Any valid low suction pressure trip of P-8B must be reset at C-150.

b. P-8B will operate but the low suction pressure trip will not be available.

c. AFW Control Valves, CV-0727 and CV-0749, must be locally controlled.

d. CV-0522B, Steam Supply to P-8B, must be manually controlled locally.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the low suction pressure trip will be available since it can normally be reset in the control room with the handswitch.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that control of CV-0727 and 0749 is not available at C-150.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that P-8B cannot be controlled from C-150 Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 25 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 25 of 75 Question Number: 25 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

000074 (W/E06&E07) Inad. Core Cooling EK2.03 Knowledge of the interrelations between the AFW pump and the following: Inadequate Core Cooling.

Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 4.0 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: AFW_CK09.0(k)

References:

EOP-7.0 basis step 18, DBD-1.03, section 3.3.1 page 23 and table 3.1.1-1, Tech Spec 3.7.5 Basis Question:

During a normal plant shutdown:

Both Main Feed Pumps have tripped.

The plant is currently in MODE 3.

All 4 Primary Coolant Pumps are in service.

S/G Pressures are 1000 psia.

For the above conditions, which one of the following describes the minimum actions necessary for ensuring the Auxiliary Feedwater System will provide the required flow for adequate core cooling?

a. If using P-8A or P-8B, the required flow will be met. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G pressure to 900 psia or secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.

b. If using P-8A or P-8B, reduce S/G pressure to 900 psia. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G pressure to 900 psia or secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.

c. If using P-8A or P-8B, the required flow will be met. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G Pressure to 900 psia and secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.

d. If using P-8A or P-8B, reduce S/G pressure to 900 psia. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G pressure to 900 psia and secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - P-8A and P-8B are the original AFW pumps and can provide the required flow up to the first safety valve setting (1000 psia).

c.

INCORRECT - If S/G pressure is greater than 900 psia and all PCPs are secured, P-8C can deliver the required flow to remove core heat.

d.

INCORRECT - same reasons as b and c combined Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 26 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 26 of 75 Question Number: 26 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

CE/A16 Excess RCS Leakage AK3.4 Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (Excess RCS Leakage) RO or SRO function within the control room team as appropriate to the assigned position, in such a way that procedures are adhered to and the limitations in the facility's license and amendments are not violated.

Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: IOTF2_E11.01

References:

ONP-23.1 Question:

The crew is performing actions of ONP-23.1, Primary Coolant Leak in MODE 1 with the following indications:

PZR Level is 57% and lowering slowly.

TAVE is 560°F and constant.

Charging Pump P-55A is in service.

The Control Room Supervisor directs you to perform a PCS Leak Rate Calculation over a 15 minute time period. Which one of the following describes an appropriate method to perform this leak rate calculation and the reason?

a. Estimate containment sump fill rate using 15 minute sump fill rate on PPC (L_RATE_15MIN_SUMP). This is acceptable since any fluid entering the containment sump is assumed to be the source of the leak.

b. Determine the VCT and PZR Level rate of change and convert to gallons/minute. This is acceptable for a 15 minute period.

c. Subtract the sum of Letdown flow and Controlled Bleedoff flow from Charging flow. This is acceptable due to only one charging pump in service.

d. Subtract the sum of Charging flow and Controlled Bleedoff flow from Letdown flow. This is acceptable due to only one charging pump in service.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - The containment sump fill rate on the PPC is not used because fluid other than PCS water could enter sump or the leak could be outside containment and there is a time delay before the PCS reaches the sump.

b.

CORRECT - because Tave is constant.

c.

INCORRECT - PZR level is lowering slowly, ONP-23.1 does not allow this method.

d.

INCORRECT -PZR level is lowering slowly, ONP-23.1 does not allow this method and CBO flow is on the wrong side of the equation.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 27 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 27 of 75 Question Number: 27 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

CE/E09 Functional Recovery EA1.3 Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (Functional Recovery)

Desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.

Tier:

1 Group:

2 RO Imp: 3.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAH_E05.01

References:

EOP-9.0, attachment 1, page 2, RC-2 Question:

During implementation of EOP-9.0, Functional Recovery Procedure, which one of the following is the lowest charging flow rate which will satisfy the reactivity control safety function?

a.

53 gpm

b.

44 gpm

c.

35 gpm

d.

25 gpm DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible because this is the maximum capacity of P-55A, variable speed charging pump.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible because this is the normal charging flow rate with single charging and letdown. 40 gpm (letdown flow) + 4 gpm (PCP Bleedoff flow) = 44 gpm

c.

CORRECT - EOP-9.0 attachment 1, page 2, RC-2

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the SFSC criteria with the minimum charging pump speed.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 28 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 28 of 75 Question Number: 28 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

003 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS A3.03 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RCPS, including: Seal D/P Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.2 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: PCP_E03.01

References:

ARP-5, Attachment 1, page 4 Question:

Note the following recorder indication from PR-0130A, PCP P-50A Seal Pressure. Controlled Bleedoff Flow is indicating 0 gpm. Which one of the following can be diagnosed regarding the condition of the seals for P-50A, Primary Coolant Pump?

a. Only the 1st and 2nd stage seals have failed.

b. Only the 3rd and 4th stage seals have failed.

c. Only the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd stage seals have failed.

d. Only the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th stage seals have failed.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that when 1st and 2nd stages fail, they equalize with 3rd stage pressure

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the 4th stage is closest to the PCS and the 3rd and 4th stage equalize with the 2nd stage pressure.

c.

CORRECT - Per ARP-5

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the 4th stage seal is closest to the PCS Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 29 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 29 of 75 Question Number: 29 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades K/A:

004 Chemical and Volume Control System A4.05 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Letdown pressure and temperature control valves.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CVCS_CK09.0-1

References:

ARP-4, window 3; M-202, sh. 1 Question:

The plant is in Mode 2 when Component Cooling Water is lost to the Letdown Heat Exchanger.

Which one of the following describes the automatic action that is expected to occur within the Chemical and Volume Control System?

a. Letdown Containment Isolation Valve, CV-2009, closes.

b. Letdown Orifice Stop Valves, CV-2003, 2004, and 2005 close.

c. VCT Select, CV-2056, swaps to the 'TO CLEAN WASTE RCVR TANKS' position.

d. Ion Exchangers Bypass Valve CV-2023 swaps to the 'BYPASS' position.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes there is design built in to the CVCS to protect the demineralizers when CCW is lost by closure of the cont. isolation valve.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible because if the student believes that there is design built in to the CVCS to protect the demineralizers when CCW is lost by closing Letdown orifice isolation valves.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because letdown isolation valve, CV-2001, isolates letdown, but at a temperature of 460° F.

d.

CORRECT -

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 30 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 30 of 75 Question Number: 30 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades K/A:

005 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

K4.03 Knowledge of RHRS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:

RHR heat exchanger bypass flow control.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: SDC_CK24.0

References:

FSAR 6.1 page 6.1-5; DBD-2.01 page 20 Question:

The plant is on Shutdown Cooling with CV-3006, SDC HX Bypass Valve, throttled as needed. If the air line to CV-3006 is damaged such that NO operating air is supplied, what would be the resulting valve position and the reason for this design? CV-3006 would fail

a. OPEN, to prevent overcooling the PCS.

b. CLOSED, to prevent runout of the operating LPSI pump.

c. OPEN, since that is the fail safe position for an SIAS.

d. CLOSED, since that is the fail safe position for a RAS.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - CV-3006 will fail open but not to prevent dead heading the LPSI pump. This is a plausible situation because the SDC HX inlet or outlet valves may be closed, however each LPSI pump has a path for recirculation back to the SIRWT to prevent dead-heading the pump.

b.

INCORRECT - CV-3006 fails open on loss of air. Plausible because when the plant is on SDC, CV-3006 and CV-3025 (SDC HX outlet) are throttled for temperature control.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - CV-3006 fails open on loss of operating air. This is plausible because during a RAS, maximum cooling is desired via the SDC heat exchangers to cool the containment.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 31 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 31 of 75 Question Number: 31 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

005 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

G2.2.22 Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.4 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: SDC_CK20.0

References:

TS 3.9.5 Condition A Question:

The following plant conditions exist:

Plant is in MODE 6 with a PCS Temperature of 110°F.

Reactor Cavity water level is 638.

Shutdown cooling is being provided by LPSI Pump, P-67A, with LPSI Pump, P-67B, secured.

While transferring LPSI Pumps for Shutdown Cooling, P-67B breaker 152-111, failed to close after several attempts.

Which one of the following is the minimum action that is required to be taken immediately?

Restore P-67B breaker to operable status:

a. AND establish reactor cavity water level 647.

b. AND close all containment penetrations providing direct access from containment to outside atmosphere.

c. OR establish reactor cavity water level 647.

d. OR close all containment penetrations providing direct access from containment to outside atmosphere.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - If cavity is > 647 you only need one train operable and in service. If cavity is < 647, BOTH trains must be operable, and one train must be in service. Plausible if candidate misapplies tech spec.

b.

INCORRECT - This action is taken if NO SDC train is operable. Plausible if candidate misapplies tech spec.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - This action is taken if NO SDC train is operable. Plausible if candidate misapplies tech spec.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 32 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 32 of 75 Question Number: 32 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

006 Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

A4.03 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Transfer from boron storage tank to boron injection tank Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.5 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: ISFB_CK10.0

References:

SOP-2A, 7.7.5, NOTE prior to step a., SOP-2A, 7.7.5, NOTE prior to step n.4, ARP-4, window 15 and 23 Question:

Given the following conditions:

Boric Acid Storage Tank, T-53A, level is 94%.

An Auxiliary Operator has been designated as the Boric Acid batcher, and has a mixed batch of Boric Acid (T-77, Boric Acid Batch Tank, is full) ready to release to T-53A.

Which one of the following describes how the shift must control and monitor this evolution?

a. The AO should release all the contents of T-77 to T-53A in order to ensure T-53A level is above the low alarm setpoint. The AO notifies the Control Room when the transfer is complete so that Chemistry sampling can be requested.

b. To prevent overflowing T-53A, the NCO and AO should discuss in advance on how much of T-77 should be released. The AO monitors T-53A level from the batching room and terminates the batch when T-53A level indicates 100%.

c. No transfer of T-77 to T-53A may occur since T-53A level is already at its high level alarm setpoint.

d. Since there is no level indication for T-53A in the batching room, the AO must maintain close communication with the NCO. Only part of T-77 may be released to T-53A, in order to avoid a nuisance high level alarm for T-53A.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible because the first low level alarm setpoint is 94.5%

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes the AO has indication of level in the boric acid batching room.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the first low level alarm setpoint of 94.5% with the high level alarm setpoint of 98%.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 33 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 33 of 75 Question Number: 33 Source of Question:

BANK - Wolf Creek 2006 K/A:

007 Pressurizer Relief Tank/Quench Tank System (PRTS)

A2.03 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the P S; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Overpressurization of the PZR Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: PCS_CK16.0

References:

ARP-4, window 32; SOP-1A, Primary Coolant System, 7.4.3 Question:

Given the following conditions:

The plant is at 100% power.

Quench Tank pressure is 8 psig and rising slowly.

Quench Tank level is 64% and stable.

The Quench Tank rupture disc will discharge to containment when pressure rises to (1) ______.

The operator needs to (2) ______.

a. (1) 25 psig (2) Vent the Quench Tank to the Containment Vent Header using ARP-4, Primary System Volume Level Pressure.

b. (1) 100 psig (2) Vent the Quench Tank to the Waste Gas Surge Tank, using SOP-1A, Primary Coolant System.

c. (1) 25 psig (2) Drain the Quench Tank to the Equipment Drain Tank to reduce level and pressure, using SOP-17A, Clean Radioactive Waste System.

d. (1) 100 psig (2) Drain the Quench Tank to the Primary System Drain Tank to reduce level and pressure, using SOP-1A, Primary Coolant System.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the rupture disk setpoint with the top scale of Quench Tank pressure indicator, PIA-0116

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the rupture disk setpoint with the top scale of Quench Tank pressure indicator, PIA-0116

d.

INCORRECT - The setpoint is correct, however with level stable if water is drained from the tank to the radwaste system, level may be low out of spec. Plausible if the student believes that this level is too high (normal is 70%).

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 34 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 34 of 75 Question Number: 34 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

004 Chemical and Volume Control System K5.49 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the CVCS: Purpose and method of hydrogen removal from RCS before opening system; explosion hazard, nitrogen purge.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: CVCS_E05.04

References:

SOP-2A, 7.8.1, and 7.8.3 f. 1 Question:

Which one of the following describes operational aspects of PCS hydrogen removal using mechanical degasification during a cooldown in preparation for a Refueling Outage?

a. PCS subcooling is maintained LOW to enhance hydrogen removal, and is terminated when PCS hydrogen is < 5 cc/kg if chemical degasification is not to be performed.

b. Used only when the plant is in MODE 3, and requires a minimum of four VCT nitrogen purges to prevent a flammable gas mixture.

c. Requires single charging and letdown in order to avoid excessive hydrogen in the VCT, and is terminated when VCT hydrogen is < 5% if chemical degasification is not to be performed.

d. Used only when PZR bubble is collapsed and requires Containment Vent Header Isolation Valves CV-1101 and CV-1102 be open to prevent hydrogen buildup in containment.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT - Low PCS subcooling (low pressure) brings more hydrogen out of solution, and is therefore more effective (SOP-2A, 7.8.3.f). A PCS hydrogen concentration of < 5 cc/kg is considered as a successful degas (COP-1, Attachment 1, section 6.0).

b.

Candidate misapplies mode restrictions for mechanical degas. This method of degas can be performed in MODE

1. There are numerous places throughout Palisades' procedures which specify number of purges required for the VCT. Candidate recalls the requirement for a plant startup from a Chemistry procedure (COP-1, Attachment 9, 1.2) and misapplies it here.

c.

Per SOP-2A, 7.8.3.g, maximum letdown enhances the process. Single charging and letdown is NOT required, nor desired. Candidate fails to recognize the parameter used for recognition of a successful degas (i.e., PCS hydrogen, not VCT hydrogen).

d.

One aspect of Chemical Degas is adding hydrogen peroxide. A prerequisite to this is ensuring PZR bubble has collapsed (COP-1, Attachment 13, 3.3). Candidate recalls this fact correctly; however, Containment Vent Header Isolation valves cannot be open during this evolution (SOP-2A, 7.4.1.g).

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

4

RO Question 35 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 35 of 75 Question Number: 35 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

008 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

A2.01 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CCWS, and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of CCW pump Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.3 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: CCW_CK10.0

References:

DBD-1.01, ARP-4 window 68 Question:

The Plant is in Mode 1 with all equipment in the normal configuration when the following occurs:

A loss of off-site power coincident with a Safety Injection Actuation.

Both D/Gs start and sequence loads per design.

Two minutes later, CCW Pump, P-52B, trips with a resultant CCW header pressure of 68 psig.

Which one of the following describes the effect on CCW Pump, P-52C, and the appropriate action to take?

a. Will auto start. Verify P-52C discharge pressure >115 psig.

b. Will auto start. Check for excessive loading on D/G 1-1.

c. Will NOT auto start. Manually start P-52C and ensure acceptable loading on D/G 1-1.

d. Will NOT auto start. Reduce CCW loads to avoid a runout condition on P-52A.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - P-52C will not auto start. Plausible if the student believes that the DBA sequencer start signal and the low pressure signal do not need to be present at the same time. 115 psig is the discharge pressure limit for 2 pump operation per SOP-16.

b.

INCORRECT - P-52C will not auto start.. Plausible if the student believes that the DBA sequencer start signal and the low pressure signal do not need to be present at the same time. Two CCW pumps running on one EDG could make loading on the EDG high.

c.

CORRECT - The DBA sequencer will start P-52C only if pressure at the time of sequence (40 seconds) is <

80#.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that starting P-52C is not the right action due to EDG loading concerns.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 36 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 36 of 75 Question Number: 36 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

010 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)

A1.01 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent) exceeding design limits) associated with operating the PZR PCS controls including: PZR and RCS boron concentration.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.8 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: PCS_CK16.0

References:

DBD-2.11, p.13, 33, SOP-1A Question:

Which one of the following describes the importance of having Spray Bypass Needle Valves (MV-PC1056 and MV-PC1058) throttled open 2 turns, as required by procedure?

a. Provides faster response for Pressurizer pressure control by raising the differential pressure across the main spray valves.

b. Maintains equal boron concentration between the Pressurizer and the PCS in case of main spray valve closure.

c. Ensures the Pressurizer hydrogen concentration is equal to that of the PCS, by continually mixing PCS and Pressurizer inventory, in case of main spray valve closure.

d. Ensures Auxiliary Spray function is maintained ready for emergency use if needed, by continual flow through the Auxiliary Spray header.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible because the reason stated is why the plant operates with full heaters to allow the main spray valves to be throttled.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because the student will believe that H2 concentration will be continuously changing due to dilutions.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible because charging temperature is much lower than PCS temperature Student may believe that the reason for the spray bypass flow is to minimize thermal shock.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 37 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 37 of 75 Question Number: 37 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

010 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)

K6.01 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the PZR PCS:

Pressure detection systems Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: GFCG lesson plan objective 4b

References:

GFES Components Lesson Plan, GFCG, Sensors and Detectors Question:

The following plant conditions exist:

The plant is at full power.

'B' Channel Pressurizer pressure controller, PIC-0101B, is controlling in AUTO.

'A' Channel PZR Pressure Transmitter, PT-0101A, bellows ruptures.

Primary Coolant System pressure indication on PIC-0101A will:

a. Lower.

b. Not change because PIC-0101A is not selected as the in service controller.

c. Rise.

d. Not change because PIC-0101A will swap and receive pressure signal from PT-0101B.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the indication signal is blocked with the controller switch.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses indication with actual pressure, i.e., lowering pressure will energize all heaters and close spray valves.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the controller will swap to the other PT upon failure of the inservice PT.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 38 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 38 of 75 Question Number: 38 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades K/A:

012 Reactor Protection System (RPS)

K6.01 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the RPS:

Bistables and bistable test equipment Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.8 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: RPS_E05.01

References:

SOP-36, section 5.6 Question:

The Reactor Protection System (RPS) Trip Unit Red Matrix lamps may only be replaced as part of a planned work activity in order to prevent:

a. a shorted bulb causing a reactor trip from a loss of two Matrix Logic Ladder power supplies.

b. grounding an RPS trip unit causing a potential for an Anticipated Transient Without Scram.

c. an unplanned Action Statement entry due to rendering a trip unit inoperable.

d. personnel injury from the electrical shock hazard associated with a shorted component.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible because the RPS is designed to operate as an ungrounded system. The matrix lights also serve as ground detection circuits.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that removing a matrix lamp causes the trip unit to be inoperable.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible because many components of the RPS operate at voltages >50V.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

4

RO Question 39 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 39 of 75 Question Number: 39 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

012 Reactor Protection System (RPS)

A4.06 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Reactor trip breakers Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 4.3 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: RPS_CK08.0

References:

EK-0972, Reactor Trip, Vendor Drawing M1Q 114, Question:

From power operations, a transient occurs that requires the operators to manually trip the reactor.

The manual pushbutton methods of tripping the reactor (on Panels C-02 and C-06) have NOT been successful and the operators have determined that the following action is required:

OPEN CRD Clutch Power Feeder Breakers 42-1RPS and 42-2RPS.

When 42-1RPS and 42-2RPS are opened, which one of the following indications do the control operators expect to see in the Control Room, including indicating lamps on individual Clutch Power Supply panels (Panel C-06), and the RED tile annunciator for EK-0972, Reactor Trip, on panel C-12?

PANEL C-06 C-12 AC ON DC ON TRIP EK-0972 (WHITE)

(WHITE)

(RED)

(RED tile)

a.

OFF OFF OFF ON

b.

ON OFF ON OFF

c.

OFF OFF ON ON

d.

ON OFF OFF OFF DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the red trip light is powered from downstream of RPS breakers 42-1 and 42-2.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the AC and red trip lights are powered from upstream of RPS breakers 42-1 and 42-2.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the AC and K3 are powered from upstream of RPS breakers 42-1 and 42-2.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3 Facts:

1.

K3 relay actuates the RED tile alarm for Reactor Trip.

2.

The RED "Trip" light at bottom of C-06 (for each of the four Clutch Power Supplies) comes ON when 42-1 and 42-2 are opened.

3.

The A-C ON and D-C ON WHITE lights go OFF when 42-1 and 42-2 opened.

4.

When K3 is de-energized (due to opening 42-1 AND 42-2, the RED tile alarm for Reactor Trip annunciates.

Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 40 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 40 of 75 Question Number: 40 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

013 Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS)

K5.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts: Safety system logic and reliability Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: SIS_CK09.0

References:

DBD-2.01 page 61, TS Basis 3.3.4, and E-17 sheet 5 Question:

The plant has experienced a loss of Preferred AC Bus Y-10. Which one of the following describes the minimum logic necessary to automatically initiate Recirculation Actuation (RAS) on low SIRWT Level?

a. BOTH level switches powered from the left channel reach a low level setpoint.

b. BOTH level switches powered from the right channel reach a low level setpoint.

c. ANY level switch powered from the right channel reaches a low level setpoint.

d. ANY level switch powered from the left channel reaches a low level setpoint.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that a single train of preferred AC can cause a RAS

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that a single train of preferred AC can cause a RAS and that Y-10 being de-energized has not already satisfied one left train switch criteria.

c.

CORRECT - Because Y-10 is de-energized, LSX-0327 is now in a tripped state. If LSX-0328 or LSX-0330 reach a low level setpoint, the logic is met for a RAS to occur.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that just the left train switches can cause a RAS Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 41 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 41 of 75 Question Number: 41 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

022 Containment Cooling (CCS)

A4.01 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: CCS fans Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: ISGC_CK09.0

References:

E-17, sh. 4, DBD-2.08 page 10 Question:

With the plant initially at full power, a Design Basis Accident occurs. Both Emergency Diesel Generators start. The right channel DBA sequencer actuates, but the left channel DBA sequencer fails to actuate. Which one of the following lists the expected indications for Containment Air Cooler fans?

a. ALL 'A' fans OFF; ALL 'B' fans OFF.

b. ALL 'A' fans ON; ALL 'B' fans OFF.

c. V-1A, V-2A, V-3A ON, V-4A and all B fans OFF.

d. V-4A ON, V-1A, V-2A, V-3A and all B fans OFF.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the left train DBA sequencer starts all four CAC A fans.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the right train DBA sequencer starts all four CAC A fans.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student misapplies the DBA sequencer function and believes that only the A fan associated with CAC V-4 is sequenced ON.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 42 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 42 of 75 Question Number: 42 Source of Question:

MODIFIED BANK - Palisades K/A:

026 Containment Spray System (CSS)

K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CSS will have on the following: CCS Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAG_E01.02-3

References:

EOP Supplement 42, EOP Supplement 42 Basis Question:

Given the following conditions:

A LOCA is in progress.

RAS has occurred due to a low SIRW tank level.

CHP has automatically initiated.

Containment pressure is 3.5 psig and lowering.

Equipment is functioning per design with the exception of:

o Containment Spray Pump, P-54B, is out of service for maintenance.

o Containment Spray Pump, P-54C, tripped and will not restart.

What are the required actions for the above conditions, and what will be the effect on containment cooling?

a. Trip BOTH HPSI Pumps and close ONE containment spray valve. Containment cooling capability will be reduced by 50%.

b. Trip ONE HPSI Pump and close ONE containment spray valve. Containment cooling will remain adequate for plant conditions.

c. Trip ONE HPSI Pump and close ONE containment sump isolation valve. Containment cooling will be reduced by approximately 25%.

d. Operate BOTH HPSI Pumps. Close ONE containment spray valve. Containment cooling capability will remain adequate for plant conditions.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the remaining spray pump can only supply containment cooling and not both containment cooling and a HPSI pump.

b.

CORRECT - The required operator action is to secure one HPSI pump and close one Containment Spray valve.

Per EOP Supplement 42, step 2.0.1.i, if only one Containment Spray Pump is operating, we need to secure one HPSI pump and one Containment Spray valve.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that B and C spray pumps suction path needs to be isolated to satisfy single failure criteria.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student does not understand that the spray pumps supply subcooling to the HPSI pumps during RAS.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 43 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 43 of 75 Question Number: 43 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

026 Containment Spray System (CSS)

A1.06 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the CSS controls including: Containment spray pump cooling Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: CSS_CK11.0a

References:

DBD-2.03, page 38 Question:

Consider a Large Break LOCA with a concurrent loss of CCW to Engineered Safeguards. Which one of the following describes the effect, if any, on operation of the Containment Spray Pumps based on cooling of the pump seals? (Assume Service Water Backup cooling is NOT available.)

a. Can be operated as needed throughout the event with minimal effect on pump seals.

b. Approximately 10 minutes after Safety Injection Signal occurs pump seal failure is expected to occur.

c. Approximately 10 minutes after Recirculation Actuation Signal occurs pump seal failure is expected to occur.

d. Cannot be operated since Service Water backup cooling is not available.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Candidate fails to recognize that once RAS occurs, the CSS pumps will be taking suction on the containment sump, with water temperatures exceeding 325° F. There is a common misconception that these pumps can operated indefinitely without cooling water, when the vendor has specified a limiting time at maximum temperature.

b.

Candidate misapplies knowledge of the effects of SIAS, and believes that reduced cooling occurs.

c.

CORRECT - Once RAS occurs (and it will, for a Large Break LOCA), the CSS pumps suction source is now in excess of 325° F. Per the seal manufacturer, life of the seals at this temperature is reduced to only 10 minutes.

d.

Candidate misapplies knowledge of the sequence of a Large Break LOCA (i.e., it will be some period of time before RAS occurs). Until then, the CSS pumps are taking suction from the relatively cool water in the SIRW tank.

During this time seals are not affected.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

4

RO Question 44 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 44 of 75 Question Number: 44 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades K/A:

039 Main and Reheat Steam System (MRSS)

K1.09 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the MRSS and the following systems: RMS Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: RMS_CK06.0

References:

EOP-5.0 Basis, step 21 Question:

Given the following conditions:

An uncomplicated reactor trip occurred from 100% power 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> ago.

EOP-1.0, Standard Post Trip Actions, and EOP-2.0, Reactor Trip Recovery, have been completed.

PCS Temperature is being maintained with the Turbine Bypass Valve in AUTO.

A Steam Generator tube leak occurs on the B S/G. All of the following radiation monitors will aid in diagnosing that a Steam Generator Tube Leak event is occurring EXCEPT:

a. RIA 2325/2326, Radioactive Gaseous Effluent Monitor.

b. RIA-0631, Condenser Off-Gas Monitor.

c. RIA-0707, Steam Generator Blowdown Monitor.

d. RIA-2323, B S/G Main Steam Line Monitor.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that there is no path to the stack. There is a path to the stack via air ejector off-gas flow since condenser vacuum is being maintained.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible for same reason as distractor a

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that S/G blowdown flow is not in service since the plant is in MODE 3.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 45 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 45 of 75 Question Number: 45 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

039 Main and Reheat Steam System (MRSS)

G2.2.11 Knowledge of the process for controlling temporary changes.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.5 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: APES_E01.07

References:

M-205, sh. 1A; Admin 4.02, 5.1.8.d, and 5.1.9 Question:

Refer to the below P&ID. Valve packing has been adjusted for MV-MS577A, MSR E-9A MS Drain. It is desired by the work group to OPEN MV-MS577, MSR E-9A MS Drain Isolation, overnight to monitor the effectiveness of the valve packing adjustment. MV-MS577 position is NOT controlled by the work order. Which one of the following is one of the actions the off-going NCO is required to perform?

a. Prepare an Operating Permit tag to hang on MV-MS577.

b. Ensure MV-MS577 position is added to the Secondary AO turnover sheet.

c. Ensure a Temporary Modification tag is provided to the oncoming NCO for hanging on MV-MS577.

d. Make appropriate entry into the Equipment and System Operational Guidance/Recommendation Book.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student misapplies the use of an operating permit. Operating permits are used for control of equipment that is removed from service for worker protection but the work group needs to operate the equipment.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that since the valve is out of position for greater than one shift, it requires a temporary modification tag.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that guidance can be added to the ESO/GR concerning operation of MV-MS577.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3

RO Question 46 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 46 of 75 Question Number: 46 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2003 NRC K/A:

059 Main Feedwater (MFW) System K1.04 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the MFW and the following systems: S/GS water level control system.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.4 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: SGWL_CK13.0

References:

ARP-5, window 61 Question:

The plant is operating at 60% power with the Steam Generator Level Control System in automatic, when Annunciator EK-0961, STEAM GEN E-50A HI LEVEL alarms.

Which one of the following sets of indications would be expected immediately for the above plant conditions?

CV-0701, FRV, Position Indicator, POI-0701 A Steam Generator Level

a.

Lowering 55%

b.

Rising 85%

c.

Rising 55%

d.

Lowering 85%

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Correct response, but incorrect setpoint. Plausible if the student believes that the high alarm setpoint for A S/G level is 55%

b.

INCORRECT - Incorrect response, but correct setpoint. Plausible if the student does not understand that the high level override occurs as an automatic action of high level in S/G at 85%.

c.

INCORRECT - Incorrect response and incorrect setpoint. Plausible if the student believes that the cause of the alarm is a failed open feed reg valve and they believe the high level alarm occurs at 55%

d.

CORRECT - Valve controller output lowers due to a signal from Hi Level Override circuit.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 47 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 47 of 75 Question Number: 47 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

061 Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System K2.02 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: AFW electric drive pumps.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: ISIE_CK07.0

References:

E-1 sheet 1 Question:

From full power, a Loss of All Offsite Power occurs. D/G 1-1 did not start automatically, and will not start manually. Which Auxiliary Feedwater Pump(s) will be operating 1 minute after an Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal occurs? (Assume all equipment functions as designed)

a. ONLY AFW Pump P-8A.

b. ONLY AFW Pump P-8B.

c. AFW Pumps P-8B and P-8C.

d. ONLY AFW Pump P-8C.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that P-8A is powered from DG 1-2.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that P-8B will start second in the sequence of AFAS

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes P-8B will start second and P-8C starts in addition to P-8B

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 48 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 48 of 75 Question Number: 48 Source of Question:

MODIFIED BANK - Palisades K/A:

061 Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System A3.01 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the AFW, including: AFW startup and flows.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 4.2 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: AFW_CK16.0

References:

E-17, sh. 21A Question:

Given the following conditions:

A reactor trip from full power occurred 50 minutes ago.

AFAS automatically actuated.

Auxiliary Feedwater Pump P-8A is running and delivering 165 gpm to each S/G.

P-8C is in AUTO, and not running.

Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal (AFAS) has NOT been reset.

'A' S/G level is 68%, 'B' S/G level is 60%.

Then, flow to 'A' S/G (via FIC-0749) is manually reduced to 90 gpm and flow to 'B' S/G (via FIC-0727) is manually reduced to 110 gpm.

Which one of the following describes the expected response of AFW Pump P-8C, AND the reason for that response?

a. Not start automatically, since P-8A is running and S/G levels are both greater than the minimum required.

b. Not start automatically, since P-8A is running and AFW flow satisfies the minimum required.

c. Start automatically, since one S/G level is outside of the normal band.

d. Start automatically, since AFW flow is less than the minimum required.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Response is correct but reason incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that AFW pump start criteria are based on S/G levels.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Response and reason are incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that AFW pump start criteria are based on S/G levels and one is outside of the band.

d.

INCORRECT - Incorrect response but correct reason. Plausible if the student believes that flow to one S/G needs to be < 100gpm to meet criteria for AFW pump start.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 49 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 49 of 75 Question Number: 49 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

062 AC Electrical Distribution System K3.02 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the ac distribution system will have on the following: ED/G.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 4.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: EDG_CK16.0.g, EDG_CK08.0

References:

E-4, sheet 1; E-5, sheet 3 Question:

With the plant operating at normal full power conditions, Bus 13 (LCC-13) develops an overcurrent condition and trips. Which one of the following describes the effect on Emergency Diesel Generator 1-1? EDG 1-1 will experience a loss of....

a. power to room heater, VUH-27.

b. alternate power to supply fans, V-24A/B.

c. alternate power to starting air compressor, C-3A.

d. power to pre-lube pump, P-905A.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the room heater is powered from LCC-13.

b.

CORRECT -

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because there is an alternate method of obtaining starting air if the normal power supply to the air compressor, C-3A, is lost. This method, however, is to use a gasoline engine.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the pre-lube pump is powered from LCC-13.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 50 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 50 of 75 Question Number: 50 Source of Question:

MODIFIED BANK - Palisades K/A:

063 D.C. Electrical Distribution K4.02 Knowledge of DC electrical system design feature(s) and/or interlocks(s) which provide for the following: Breaker interlocks, permissives, bypasses and cross-ties.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: EPS_CK05.0

References:

ONP-2.3, Att. 1 Question:

The plant is at 100% power operations with Station Battery Chargers #1 and #2 in service. The #1 DC Bus Tie Breaker 72-10 fails open.

Which one of the following describes the condition of the DC Bus loads?

a. Only Preferred AC Bus Y-10 will be de-energized.

b. All Preferred AC Buses will remain energized.

c. Only DC Bus D-10L loads will remain energized.

d. All DC Bus D-10L loads will be de-energized.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that Inverter #1 is powered from D-10L.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that both left channel inverters are powered from D-10R.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the battery ties in to D-10L instead of D-10R.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 51 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 51 of 75 Question Number: 51 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

064 Emergency Diesel Generators (ED/G)

K2.02 Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Fuel oil pumps.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.8 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: EDG_CK07.0

References:

DBD 5.06, page 21, ARP-3 window 54 Question:

Given the following plant conditions:

The plant is at full power.

Fuel Oil Transfer Pump P-18B is tagged out for maintenance.

Due to Chemistry sampling, D/G 1-2 Fuel Oil Day Tank T-25B level has lowered.

Fuel Oil Transfer Pump P-18A has automatically started and is pumping fuel oil to T-25B.

While this fuel oil transfer is in progress the following occurs:

A Loss of All Offsite Power occurs.

D/G 1-1 FAILS to automatically start and will NOT start manually.

D/G 1-2 starts and loads per design.

When D/G 1-2 loading sequence is complete, fuel oil transfer to T-25B will resume

a. as a result of D/G 1-2 loading as designed.

b. ONLY if MCC-8 is reenergized by manual action.

c. ONLY if MCC-2 is reenergized by manual action.

d. as a result of gravity feed from T-10A, Fuel Oil Tank.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that MCC-8 will be sequenced as a result of D/G 1-2 loading.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that P-18A is powered from MCC-2.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that T-10A can gravity feed to T-25B. This could be a common misconception because flow from T-25B to D/G 1-2 belly tank occurs as a result of gravity feed.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 52 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 52 of 75 Question Number: 52 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

073 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System G2.1.30 Ability to locate and operate components, including local controls.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: ISEE_CK08.0

References:

ARP-8, window 64, ARP-8, Attachment 2, page 2; SOP-18A, 7.5.u Question:

An authorized Waste Gas Batch Release of Waste Gas Decay Tank T-101A, has just been initiated, and then automatically stopped. EK-1364, GASEOUS WASTE MONITORING HI RADIATION, has annunciated due to actuation of RIA-1113, Waste Gas Discharge Process Monitor. It is desired to restart the batch release.

How is the batch release restarted, and where are the controls located?

a. RAISE the alarm setpoint for RIA-1113 on Main Control Room Panel C-11 (rear) AND restart the in service Main Exhaust Fan.

b. RAISE the alarm setpoint for RIA-1113 on Radwaste Panel C-40 AND push CV-1123 High Radiation Reset on Main Control Room Panel C-11 (rear).

c. PUSH CV-1123 High Radiation Reset on Radwaste Panel C-40, AND restart the in service Main Exhaust Fan.

d. RAISE the alarm setpoint for RIA-1113 on Main Control Room Panel C-11 (rear) AND push CV-1123 High Radiation Reset on Radwaste Panel C-40.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the Main Exhaust fan is automatically tripped when RIA-1113 alarms. This could be a common misconception because if a Main Exhaust fan trips, operators are directed to immediately secure a waste gas batch.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the locations for RIA-1113 and the High Rad Reset pushbutton for CV-1123.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible for same reason as distractor a.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 53 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 53 of 75 Question Number: 53 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2005 NRC K/A:

076 Service Water System (SWS)

A1.02 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the SWS controls including: Reactor and turbine building closed cooling water temperatures.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 2.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: IOTF_CK05.0

References:

ONP-6.1 Immediate Actions Question:

If the Turbine Bldg. were to experience a loss of Non-Critical Service water due to a piping system malfunction, which annunciators would alert the control room operators that a reactor trip was required?

a. EK-0260 H2 Cooler Hi Temp, and EK-1165 Non-Critical Serv Water Lo Press.

b. EK-0259 Exciter Cooler Hi Temp, and EK-1165 Non-Critical Serv Water Lo Press.

c. EK-0156/62 Condensate Pump Hi Temp, and EK-0259 Exciter Cooler Hi Temp.

d. EK-0259 Exciter Cooler Hi Temp, and EK-0260 H2 Cooler Hi Temp.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - EK-1165 is correct but EK-0260 is incorrect. Plausible because EK-1165 is associated with the Main Generator instead of the exciter.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - EK-0259 is correct but EK-0156/0162 is incorrect. Plausible because if the condensate pumps are under distress, MFPs could trip leading to a reactor trip.

d.

INCORRECT - EK-0259 is correct but EK-0260 is incorrect. Plausible for same reason as distractor a.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 54 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 54 of 75 Question Number: 54 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2005 NRC K/A:

078 Instrument Air System (IAS)

A3.01 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the IAS, including: Air pressure Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CAS_CK08.0

References:

M-212, sheet 1; SOP-19, section 7.1.1 and 7.2.3 note Question:

Instrument Air Compressor, C-2A, is in operation with Instrument Air Compressor, C-2C, in AUTO. Instrument Air Compressor, C-2B, is tagged out for maintenance. An air leak caused air header pressure to lower to 85 psig. The air leak was subsequently isolated, at which time header pressure returned to 110 psig. How would C-2C respond to this instrument air pressure transient? C-2C will...

a. not auto-start during this instrument air transient.

b. auto-start and continue to run unloaded until placed in OFF and returned to AUTO.

c. auto-start, but will stop after running unloaded for a period of time.

d. auto-start and run fully loaded until placed in OFF and returned to AUTO.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the setpoint for standby start for the air compressors is < 85#

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the air compressor does not have an auto shutdown feature when running unloaded for 10 minutes.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that a compressor running in standby does not have an automatic unloading feature.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 55 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 55 of 75 Question Number: 55 Source of Question:

MODIFIED - Palisades 2005 NRC K/A:

103 Containment System A3.01 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the containment system, including: Containment isolation.

Tier:

2 Group:

1 RO Imp: 3.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CTMT_CK09.0

References:

EOP Supplement 6, Checksheet for Cnmt Isolation & CCW Restoration E-17 sheet 7 Question:

Following a Loss of Coolant Accident inside Containment, Containment Pressure peaked at 3.5 psig and containment radiation peaked at 12R/Hr. Which of the following valves would you expect to have automatically CLOSED?

a. MSIVs, Containment Purge Exhaust Valves, and S/G Blowdown Isolation Valves.

b. Nitrogen to Containment Isolation Valve, Primary System Drain Tank Outlet Valves, and Component Cooling Water to Containment Isolation Valves.

c. S/G Blowdown Isolation Valves, Containment Sump Drain Isolation Valves, and Primary Sampling Isolation Valves.

d. Hydrogen Monitor Isolation Valves, Feed Regulating Bypass Valves, and Shield Cooling Surge Tank Fill Valve.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that a Containment High pressure actuation occurred.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes a CHP actuation occurred or that a CHR will close CCW isolation valves

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that either a CHP actuation occurred or that the FRV bypass valves are closed by a CHR.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 56 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 56 of 75 Question Number: 56 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

011 Pressurizer Level Control System (PZR LCS)

A1.01 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the PZR LCS controls including: PZR level and pressure.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 3.5 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: PLCS_CK11.0d

References:

ARP-4, windows 61, 63, 64, Tech. Spec. 3.4.9 Question:

During a plant shutdown for a refueling outage, the reactor is at 28% power, and TAVE is at 540° F.

Due to a failure, LIC-0101B, PZR Level Controller, output signal is at MAXIMUM output (see below picture of LIC-0101B). The operator must take corrective action to address which one of the following concerns?

a. Pressurizer LOW level with potential de-energization of ALL Pressurizer heaters.

b. Pressurizer HIGH level with the potential to exceed Technical Specifications for level.

c. Pressurizer HIGH level with potential to exceed alarm setpoint for high pressure.

d. Pressurizer LOW level with the potential to exceed Technical Specifications for level.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the failure of the controller will result in an actual high PZR level. Actual level is lowering due to the response of the PLCS.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible for the same reason as distractor b

d.

INCORRECT - Response is correct but reason is incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that there is a tech spec limit for PZR low level.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 57 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 57 of 75 Question Number: 57 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

014 Rod Position Indication System (RPIS)

A2.06 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RPIS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Loss of LVDT.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: CRD_CK13.0

References:

ARP-5 window 71, LCO 3.1.4, DBD-2.06 sections 3.3.4-1 and 3.3.4-2 Question:

With the plant at 10% power during power ascension, EK-0971, SPI TROUBLE annunciates in the control room and has been verified valid. Which one of the following describes the impact on the Rod Position Indication System and the required action?

a. Loss of control rod sequencing. Manually sequence rods per SOP-6, Reactor Control System, and verify the position of each control rod to be within 8 inches of all other control rods in its group per LCO 3.1.4, Control Rod Alignment

b. Loss of PPC control rod position indication processing from control rod reed switches. Verify the position of each control rod to be within 8 inches of all other control rods in its group per LCO 3.1.4, Control Rod Alignment.

c. Loss of Shutdown Rod upper electrical limit (UEL) status on Rod Matrix display (C-12). Use Primary Position Indication (PIP) Node for monitoring Control Rod positions and limits per ARP-5 Primary Coolant Pump Steam Generator and Rod Drives.

d. Loss of Power and Pre-Power Dependent Insertion Limit (PDIL, PPDIL) Processing. Verify each regulating rod group is within its withdrawal sequence, overlap and insertion limits per LCO 3.1.6 Regulating Rod Group Position Limits.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Control rod sequencing is not lost due to the fact that the PIP will perform this function per LCO bases 3.1.4 page 2. Plausible because the SPI node normally uses synchro output developed by the PIP to process control rod sequencing.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - It is true that the upper most reed switch assembly closes to provide this light; the light is not processed by the SPI. Plausible because the reed switch which is associated with the SPI is used to provide the indication that shutdown rods have reached their UEL.

d.

INCORRECT - PDIL and PPDIL processing is not lost due to the fact that the PIP will perform this function per LCO bases 3.1.6 page 5. Plausible because the SPI node normally uses synchro output developed by the PIP to process PDIL and PPDIL limits.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty: 4

RO Question 58 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 58 of 75 Question Number: 58 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2003 NRC K/A:

016 Non-Nuclear Instrumentation System (NNIS)

K5.01 Knowledge of the operational implication of the following concepts as they apply to the NNIS:

Separation of control and protection circuits.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: SGWL_CK13.0

References:

ARP-5, window 61; FSAR 7.2, page 7.2-2, 7.2-9 Question:

Refer to the below graphic of A Steam Generator level instrumentation.

The plant is at 100% power. RPS Channel B for A Steam Generator Low Level is BYPASSED due to a failure of LI-0751B.

Which one of the following additional instrument failures will result in a Reactor trip? (Assume no operator action.)

a. LI-0751A fails LOW.

b. LI-0751A fails HIGH.

c. LIA-0702 fails LOW.

d. LIA-0702 fails HIGH.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible because there are now 2 channels that feed the RPS that exceed a setpoint, however, a trip will not be processed because RPS channel B is bypassed.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible because there are now 2 channels that feed the RPS that exceed a setpoint, however, RPS channel B is bypassed and there is no RPS trip for high S/G level.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because there are now 2 channels that feed the RPS that exceed a setpoint, however, RPS channel B is bypassed and LIA-0702 does not provide an input to RPS.

d.

CORRECT - If LIA-0702 fails high, the feed regulating valve associated with A S/G would close which would cause an actual low level condition. An RPS trip would be generated from the remaining 3 channels that are not bypassed.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 59 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 59 of 75 Question Number: 59 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

033 Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System (SFPCS)

K4.02 Knowledge of design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:

Maintenance of spent fuel cleanliness.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.5 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: ISHB_CK16.0

References:

ARP-9, window 44 Question:

P-82, Spent Fuel Pool Booster Pump is operating and circulating Spent Fuel Pool water through T-50, SFP Demineralizer. A high differential pressure across T-50 occurs. Which of the following describes the consequences of this condition?

a. An alarm annunciates in the Control Room and T-50 is automatically bypassed.

b. The Spent Fuel Pool begins heating up since recirculation flow is now restricted.

c. An alarm annunciates at Radwaste Panel C-40, and the resins need to be changed out.

d. P-82, Spent Fuel Pool Booster Pump trips on low suction pressure due to the restriction.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate believes there is an interlock for auto bypassing of the demineralizer.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate has an inaccurate recall of system design by believing all the recirculating cooling flow from the SFP goes through the demineralizer. In fact, only a small portion (~100 gpm) flows through the demin.

c.

CORRECT - Per the reference.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate believes there is an interlock for auto tripping of the booster pump.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 60 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 60 of 75 Question Number: 60 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

034 Fuel Handling Equipment System (FHES)

K6.02 Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the Fuel Handling System:

Radiation monitoring systems Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CTMT_CK09.0

References:

E-17, sheet 7, Tech Spec 3.3.6 Basis Question:

During fuel moves inside the containment, RIA-2316, Fuel Handling Area Monitor #1 fails and reads upscale high. Which one of the following describes the effect, if any, on the refueling machine?

a. A containment isolation occurs which causes the refueling machine grapple assembly to lose instrument air.

b. A containment isolation occurs which causes the refueling machine mast to lose lubricating water (PMU).

c. The refueling machine will continue to operate normally.

d. Fuel Handling Area Monitor alarm will cause the refueling machine computer to disable the mast assembly.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that instrument air is isolated to the containment for a CHR actuation.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that primary makeup water is isolated to the containment for a CHR actuation.

c.

CORRECT - Candidate must be able to recognize the importance of maintaining the capability to place fuel in a safe position even with a Containment High Radiation signal.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that there is an interlock between the fuel handling containment radiation monitors and the refueling machine computer.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 61 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 61 of 75 Question Number: 61 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

041 Steam Dump System (SDS) and Turbine Bypass Control K3.01 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SDS will have on the following: S/G.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 3.2 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: MSS_CK16.0

References:

TS 3.7.1; DBD 1.09, page 44 Question:

From full power plant conditions, the following occurs:

Main Turbine vibration rises rapidly due to several turbine blades puncturing the turbine casing.

A rapid complete loss of Main Condenser vacuum occurs.

The Turbine NCO verifies the Main Turbine has tripped.

The Reactor FAILS to trip automatically or manually.

The crew takes appropriate actions for reactivity control, and reactor power is lowering.

The Atmospheric Dump Valves FAIL to actuate.

What is the effect of the above conditions on the plant secondary system?

a. Main Steam Safety Valves operate to maintain secondary system pressure at less than 110%

of design pressure.

b. Turbine Bypass Valve operates to maintain secondary system pressure at less than design pressure.

c. Main Steam Isolation Valves close to prevent excessive depressurization of the Steam Generators.

d. Steam Generator Hi-Level Override actuates to prevent water damage to Main Steam lines.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate fails to apply knowledge that a complete loss of vacuum disables the TBV.

c.

INCORRECT - MSIVs would not receive a close signal for these conditions. Plausible, since there was a turbine trip. Candidate misapplies relationship between MSIVs close signal and turbine trip signal.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate misapplies the response of "shrink" and "swell"; incorrectly thinking that a sudden stopping of steam flow results in a "swell" effect on indicated S/G level. Also, it is a common misconception that the purpose of S/G Hi-Level Override is to protect the Main Steam Lines from structural failure due to the weight of being filled with water; when in reality, the purpose is to prevent damage to the Main Turbine due to water carryover.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3 Formatted: Bullets and Numbering

RO Question 62 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 62 of 75 Question Number: 62 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2003 NRC K/A:

056 Condensate System K1.03 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the Condensate System and the following systems: MFW.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.5 Palisades Learning Objective: CDFW_CK13.0

References:

ARP-1, window 55 and 60, ONP-3, section 1.0, 2.0 Question:

The plant is operating at 100% power when Condensate Pump P-2A trips.

What is the resulting effect on the Main Feedwater (MFW) Pumps?

a. They trip due to a reduction in MFW pump suction pressure.

b. They trip due to over-speeding of the MFW pump turbines.

c. They will experience excessive vibration due to cavitation at the pump suction.

d. The pump turbines ramp down to minimum speed to prevent overfeeding Steam Generators.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT - At full power, even one condensate pump tripping would cause such a severe reduction in MFW Pump suction pressure that BOTH MFW pps would trip on low suction pressure.

b.

INCORRECT - Correctly believes feed pumps trip, but for wrong reason.

c.

INCORRECT - The protective low suction pressure trip actuates long before any cavitation would develop.

d.

INCORRECT - There is a certain plant condition that causes MFW pumps to ramp down in speed, but it is incorrectly applied here.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 63 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 63 of 75 Question Number: 63 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

071 Waste Gas Disposal System (WGDS)

G2.3.11 Ability to control radiation releases.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: RMS_E03.02

References:

SOP-18A, 7.5.f; ARP-7, window 27 Question:

During a Waste Gas Decay Tank (T-101B) batch release, Main Exhaust Fan, V-6A, trips. Which one of the following describes the appropriate operator action?

a. Ensure RGEM has swapped to HIGH range.

b. Immediately secure the Waste Gas Decay Tank release.

c. If Main Exhaust Fan, V-6B, cannot be started within one minute, secure Auxiliary Building ventilation.

d. Depress Main Exhaust Fan Damper CLOSE pushbutton to close discharge damper on Main Exhaust Fan, V-6B.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that there is an interlock between RGEM and the Main Exhaust Fans which cause them to trip when the RGEM has alarmed.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible because the student could misapply the requirement to secure all Auxiliary Building ventilation if NO main exhaust fan can be started. In this case, the release would be terminated before securing Aux Building ventilation.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student misapplies the interlock between exhaust plenum pressure and automatic opening of main exhaust fan discharge dampers. The student would believe that closing the exhaust fan discharge damper would secure the release.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 64 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 64 of 75 Question Number: 64 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

079 Station Air System (SAS)

A4.01 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Cross-tie valves with IAS.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: CAS_CK09.0

References:

ONP-2.3, Attachment 4, page 7; M-212, sh. 1 Question:

From full power, a Safety Injection occurs, concurrent with a loss of Instrument Air. Instrument Air pressure indicates 10 psig, and is lowering. Several minutes later, it is noted that Station and FW Tie-In Control Valve, CV-1221 indicating RED light is ON. The GREEN light is OFF. The handswitch remains selected to CLOSE. The NCO confirms that NO operator action was taken to operate this control valve handswitch.

Which one of the following accounts for the status of CV-1221?

a. CV-1221 has opened automatically due to the Safety Injection Signal.

b. CV-1221 received an open signal when Instrument Air header pressure dropped to 85 psig.

c. Due to the loss of operating air to CV-1221 operator, the valve failed OPEN.

d. The SIAS caused a shedding of Bus 1E, and a loss of control power to CV-1221, failing it OPEN.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate incorrectly believes SIS causes CV-1221 to open.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate believes there is an interlock to automatically open CV-1221 on lowering instrument air pressure.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that CV-1221 receives control power from bus 1E.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 65 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 65 of 75 Question Number: 65 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

086 Fire Protection System (FPS)

A3.01 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Fire Protection System including:

Starting mechanisms of fire water pumps.

Tier:

2 Group:

2 RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: FPS_CK13.0.a

References:

SOP-21, 7.1.1.b and 7.2.1 note Question:

A fire system rupture has occurred which caused Fire Water System pressure to lower to 63#.

The rupture was then isolated. Which one of the following lists the Fire Water Pumps that are expected to be in service? Assume no operator action occurs.

a.

P-9A and P-9B only.

b.

P-9A, P-9B, P-41, and P-13.

c.

P-9A, P-9B, and P-13 only.

d.

P-9A, P-9B, and P-41 only.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - P-41 starts at 68# header pressure. Plausible if the student believes that P-41 starts <63#.

b.

INCORRECT - P-13, jockey pump, automatically stops when P-9A starts. Plausible if the student does not understand this.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible for same reason as distractor a and b combined.

d.

CORRECT - Per SOP-21, step 7.1.1.b, P-13 automatically stops per step 7.2.1 note Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3

RO Question 66 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 66 of 75 Question Number: 66 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades K/A:

G2.1.12 Ability to apply technical specifications for a system.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: NI_CK20.0

References:

Tech. Spec. 3.9.2 Question:

Source Range Channel 1A becomes inoperable during MODE 6 with refueling in progress. Which one of the following describes the immediate action required by Technical Specifications?

a. Initiate action to restore channel operability.

b. Suspend all core alterations and positive reactivity additions.

c. Perform an operabilty check of Source Range Channel 2A.

d. Suspend all core alterations and perform a Shutdown Margin Verification.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible because this action would be accomplished, however, it is not required by TS to be performed immediately.

b.

CORRECT

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that only one channel is required to be operable during refueling

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the actions required for one SRNI channel inoperable with two SRNI channels inoperable.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3

RO Question 67 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 67 of 75 Question Number: 67 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

G2.1.27 Knowledge of system purpose and or function.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 2.8 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: SFP_CK02.0

References:

DBD-2.07, 3.2.1; SOP-27, NOTE prior to 4.1.a Question:

The Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System has two design temperature limits, an upper and a lower limit. What is the lower design temperature limit (with instrument inaccuracies not included) and its purpose?

a. 75°F to preclude criticality.

b. 68°F to prevent boric acid precipitation.

c. 68°F to preclude criticality.

d. 75°F to prevent boric acid precipitation.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Incorrect temperature but correct reason. Plausible because 75°F is indication that is used to ensure actual temperature does not fall below 68°F

b.

INCORRECT - Correct temperature but incorrect reason. Plausible because the SFP contains high boron concentration that could come out of solution.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Incorrect temperature and incorrect reason. Plausible for the same reasons as distractor a and

b.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3

RO Question 68 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 68 of 75 Question Number: 68 Source of Question:

MODIFIED BANK - ANO-1 2004 K/A:

G2.2.1 Ability to perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 3.7 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: RTA_T02.00

References:

GOP-3, Section 4.3 Question:

Which one of the following would preclude conducting a shift turnover during a critical approach?

a. TAVE is 531°F and stable.

b. Startup rate is 0.15 dpm.

c. A dilution was completed 20 minutes ago.

d. Rod motion was completed 15 minutes ago.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Per GOP-3, Tave must be between 530° F and 535° F.

b.

CORRECT - Per GOP-3, startup rate must be less than 0.1 dpm.

c.

INCORRECT - Per GOP-3, no dilution can be in progress.

d.

INCORRECT - Per GOP-3, no rod motion can be in progress.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

4

RO Question 69 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 69 of 75 Question Number: 69 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

G2.2.13 Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 3.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: FL-WMN-SHE-002L.014

References:

FG-OP-TAG-01, Fleet Tagging Practices, page 15 Question:

A Clearance Request has been generated and you have been assigned to develop the clearance order for P-98A, S/G Blowdown Pump. The scope of the work is to align the pump/motor coupling and perform motor resistance checks. Which one of the following tagging sequences is satisfactory for this clearance?

a. Open Pump Supply Breaker,52-353 Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177 Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795 Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812

b. Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795 Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177 Open Pump Supply Breaker,52-353 Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812

c. Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177 Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795 Open Pump Supply Breaker,52-353 Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812

d. Open Pump Supply Breaker,52-353 Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795 Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177 Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812 DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the candidate believes that the suction valve should be tagged before the discharge valve. This is a common misconception and can be dangerous. If the discharge check valve leaks by, the suction piping may be exposed the full system pressure and may rupture.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that components are tagged mechanically then electrically.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible for same reasons as distractor a and b

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 70 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 70 of 75 Question Number: 70 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2006 NRC K/A:

G2.2.23 Ability to track limiting conditions for operations.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 2.6 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: APTS_E01.08

References:

Tech Spec 1.3 page 1.3-3 Question:

A Technical Specification Action has the following requirements for completion time:

CONDITION REQUIRED ACTION COMPLETION TIME B.1 Be in MODE 3 AND B.2 Be in MODE 5 B. Required Action and associated Completion Time not met.

6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> 36 hours This Action is entered at 0735 on Tuesday, and the plant enters MODE 3 at 1115 the same day.

Which ONE of the following is the latest time by which the plant must be in MODE 5?

a. 1715 Wednesday

b. 1935 Wednesday

c. 2315 Wednesday

d. 0135 Thursday DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

Incorrect, candidate has allowed only 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br /> from time of entry into mode 3.

b.

CORRECT -

c.

Incorrect, candidate has allowed for 36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br /> from the time of entry into mode 3.

d.

Incorrect, candidate has allowed 42 hours4.861111e-4 days <br />0.0117 hours <br />6.944444e-5 weeks <br />1.5981e-5 months <br /> from the time of entry into condition.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

2

RO Question 71 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 71 of 75 Question Number: 71 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

G2.3.9 Knowledge of the process for performing a containment purge.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 2.5 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.7 Palisades Learning Objective: PVT_E03.01

References:

SOP-24, section 7.2.2 Question:

The Control Room Supervisor has directed you to perform a Containment Purge per SOP-24.

Which one of the following would indicate that opening of the Containment Purge Exhaust Valves, CV-1805, 1806, 1807 and 1808, is not allowed?

a. Refueling is in progress.

b. PCS pressure is 250 psia

c. PCS temperature is 210°F

d. Equipment Hatch is open.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Student incorrectly believes that it is not allowed to open these valves with refueling in progress..

b.

INCORRECT - Student incorrectly believes that it is not acceptable open these valves with the PCS pressurized.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Student incorrectly believes that it not allowed to open these valves with the equipment hatch open.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 72 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 72 of 75 Question Number: 72 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2006 NRC K/A:

G2.3.10 Ability to perform procedures to reduce excessive levels of radiation and guard against personnel exposure.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 2.9 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.12 Palisades Learning Objective: IOTF2_E13.01

References:

ONP-23.2, step 13, 17, 19 Question:

All of the following are actions from ONP-23.2 to help limit the spread of contamination following the discovery of a Steam Generator Tube Leak EXCEPT for:

a. Starting a plant heating boiler.

b. Routing after condenser drains to the condenser.

c. Isolating Steam Generator Blowdowns.

d. Isolating the Main Steam Reheaters.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - A plant heating boiler is started so that all extraction steam can be isolated. Plausible if the student fails to link the plant heating boiler to the extraction steam system.

b.

INCORRECT - The procedure ensures after condenser drains are captured. Plausible if the student fails to realize that after condenser drains can be routed to the floor.

c.

INCORRECT - Blowdowns are isolated to keep contamination levels in the turbine building down. Plausible if the student believes that the blowdown system is vital during a S/G tube leak incident.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 73 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 73 of 75 Question Number: 73 Source of Question:

NEW K/A:

G2.4.17 Knowledge of EOP terms and definitions.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 3.1 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAB_T04.00

References:

EOP Supp 1, page 5; EOP-4.0, CAUTION prior to step 4.0.1 EOP Supplement 1 Basis, page 4, EOP-4.0 Basis, page 9 Question:

In various places throughout the Emergency Operating Procedures, the term "degraded containment" is used. What is the definition of this term, and its significance to the operating crew?

a. Containment integrity has been lost. The operating crew must now consider this safety function as jeopardized, and initiate immediate actions to restore containment integrity.

b. Containment radiation monitors are indicating > 10R/hour. The operating crew must ensure CHR has initiated.

c. Containment pressure has exceeded 3.0 psig AND temperature has exceeded 175° F. The operating crew may resume use of the non-degraded containment operating curves once BOTH containment parameters have returned to normal.

d. Containment pressure has exceeded 3.0 psig OR temperature has exceeded 175° F. Use of degraded containment operating curves must continue throughout the remainder of the EOP, even if containment parameters have returned to normal.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that degraded containment refers to containment safety function as being jeopardized.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that degraded containment refers to radiation levels above CHR setpoint.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that normal curves can be used when degraded containment conditions no longer are present.

d.

CORRECT Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

2

RO Question 74 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 74 of 75 Question Number: 74 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades 2001 NRC K/A:

G2.4.35 Knowledge of local auxiliary operator tasks during emergency operations including system geography and system implications.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 3.3 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.9 Palisades Learning Objective: TBAD_E04.03

References:

EOP-6.0 Basis, page 40 Question:

A Main Steam Line Break outside of containment and upstream of the MSIV for A S/G has occurred and the A S/G has blown dry. An Auxiliary Operator has been directed to perform the actions outside the Control Room necessary for isolation of A S/G.

What effect, if any, will isolating the "B" S/G (vice the "A" S/G) have on the Control Rooms ability to mitigate this event?

a. No effect due to the cross-tie line between A and B main steam lines.

b. No effect since the Control Room can use the Turbine Bypass Valve for PCS Heat Removal.

c. The Control Room has lost the ability to control PCS temperature using the ADVs.

d. The Control Room can no longer control PCS pressure.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student has a faulty mental picture of the Main Steam diagram and where the MSIVs are located in reference to the cross-tie line.

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student once again has a faulty mental picture of the Main Steam diagram and believes the TBV can be used without cross-tying S/Gs and blowing them both dry.

c.

CORRECT

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the PCS is in a solid condition or that auxiliary spray from the charging pumps is not available or are unaware of this feature.

Level of Knowledge:

HIGH Difficulty:

3

RO Question 75 Palisades 2007 NRC Initial License Exam WRITTEN QUESTION DATA SHEET 75 of 75 Question Number: 75 Source of Question:

BANK - Palisades K/A:

G2.4.43 Knowledge of emergency communications systems and techniques.

Tier:

3 Group:

RO Imp: 2.8 Applicable 10CFR55 Section: 41.10 Palisades Learning Objective: FPS_E01.01

References:

ARP-7 window 48 (EK-1148)

Question:

Control Room alarm FIRE SYSTEM PANEL C-47, C-47A/B OFF NORMAL (EK-1148) has annunciated. The cause of the alarm is CORRIDOR 106 on EL. 590-0 (Auxiliary Building Main Corridors on panel C-47B). Which one of the following describes the required action for this alarm?

a. Immediately sound the fire alarm and call out Palisades Fire Brigade.

b. Immediately sound the fire alarm and call Covert Township Fire Department.

c. Dispatch an Auxiliary Operator to inspect the area. If a fire is discovered, then sound Fire Alarm and call out Palisades Fire Brigade.

d. Immediately sound fire alarm. Dispatch an Auxiliary Operator to inspect the area. If fire is present, call out Palisades Fire Brigade.

DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS

a.

CORRECT

b.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that calling Covert fire department is a conservative action.

c.

INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes this is the correct action for this alarm. This is the correct action for any other alarm not listed for EK-1148.

d.

INCORRECT - Plausible for the same reason as c but student correctly identifies that the fire alarm needs to be sounded.

Level of Knowledge:

LOW Difficulty:

3