ML031250641
| ML031250641 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Catawba  |
| Issue date: | 05/15/2003 |
| From: | Ernstes M Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch |
| To: | Gordon Peterson Duke Energy Corp |
| References | |
| 50-413/03-301, 50-414/03-301 50-413/03-301, 50-414/03-301 | |
| Download: ML031250641 (135) | |
See also: IR 05000413/2003301
Text
Final Submittal
CATAWBA EXAM 2003-301
50-413 & 50-414
March 31 - April 4 &
April 10, 2003
1. Reactor operator Written Examination
NRC Official Use Only
Nuclear Regulatory Commission
Reactor Operator Licensing
Examination
Catawba Nuclear Station
Answer Key
This document is removed from
Official Use Only category on
Date of examination
NRC Official Use Only
Question #1 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 016.2 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is performing a plant startup when a problem occurs in the main
feedwater system.
The following events and conditions occur:
- 2A main feedwater pump is running
- 2B main feedwater pump turbine is not reset
- Reactor power is 25%
- The 2A main feedwater pump trips
- The operator manually trips the plant
- All steam generator levels decrease to 20%
Assuming systems operate as designed, when did the turbine driven CA
pump receive an auto-start signal (if at all)?
A. When the 2A main feedwater pump tripped.
B. When narrow range level decreased below 36%.
C. When the reactor trip occurred.
D. The turbine driven CA pump did not receive an auto start signal.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: AMSAC is not in service
Plausible: The AMSAC signal to start CA on loss of both MFPs is
not in service and only starts the motor driven pumps.
B. Correct: 36.8% is the unit 2 setpoint
C. Incorrect: The TDCA pump started when SGWL reached 36.8%
Plausible: the S/G lo-lo level setpoint is 10.7% for unit I
D. Incorrect: The TDCA pump starts at <36.8% SGWL.
Plausible: this would be true for unit 1.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 059 K1.02 (3.4/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: CF Obj: 4
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: analysis
Ques_016.2 For Official Use Only Page 1
Question #1 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1.OP-CN-CF-CA page 10, 11
2. OP-CN-ADM-UD pages 12, 13
Ques_016.2 For Official Use Only Page 2
Question #2 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 037 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I was conducting a reactor startup following a refueling outage. Given
the following conditions:
- N41 - N44 indicate 0%
- N-31 indicates 2.1x10 4 cps
- N-32 indicates 2.Oxio4 cps
- N-35 indicates 8.5x10" amps
- N-36 indicates l.5x10 9 amps
- Rods are in manual with no rod motion
- SR and IR NIs are slowly increasing
- Tave is holding steady
Which one of the following best explains the indications?
A. N-35 compensating voltage is set too high
B. N-35 compensating voltage is set too low
C. N-36 compensating voltage is set too high
D. N-36 compensating voltage is set too low
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: N-35 reads an equivalent power level to SR A and B
Plausible: If the candidate does not know that P6 = lxlO-" IR is
about 2x10 4 CPS SR.
B. Incorrect: N-35 reads an equivalent power level to SR A and B
Plausible: If the candidate does not know that P6 = lx10' 0 IR is
about 2x10 4 CPS SR.
C. Incorrect: N-36 reading too high - not too low
Plausible: If candidate reverses the effect of compensation in IR
detector
D. Correct answer N-36 is too high for existing SR level - therefore
must be under compensated.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 033 AA2.01 (3.0/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: ENB Obj: 3, 7
Ques_037 For Official Use Only Page 3
Question #2 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-CN-IC-ENB pages 11, 40
Ques-037 For Official Use Only Page 4
Question #3 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 039.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I containment pressure is 4.0 psig. All equipment is operating as designed.
Safety injection has been RESET.
Which one of the following action(s) is necessary for the operator to reopen
IKC-425A (Reactor Building Non-Essential Supply Header Isolation)?
A. Press the OPEN pushbutton on MC-11.
B. Reset phase B and then press the OPEN pushbutton on MC-1.
C. Wait until containment pressure is less than 3 psig and then press the
OPEN pushbutton on MC-11.
D. Wait until containment pressure is less than 0.3 psig and then press
the OPEN pushbutton on MC-11.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: must first reset phase B.
Plausible: may not realize valve has closed due to phase B.
B. Correct: valve has closed due to phase B. KC-425 is a train A valve.
Phase B can be reset at any time, therefore, to open KC-425, reset phase
B train A, then open the valve.
C. Incorrect: Phase B must be reset.
Plausible: candidate believes phase B cannot be reset until below the
phase B actuation setpoint.
D. Incorrect: Phase B must be reset
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that the CPCS interlock must be
actuated to clear the phase B signal.
KA: SYS 103 K4.06 (3.1/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-CNT SEQ 17
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-ECC-ISE pages 18-19
2. OP-CN-CNT-CNT pages 19-20
Ques-039. 1 For Official Use Only Page 5
Question #4 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 060.1 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when an electrical fire started inside the
auxiliary building cable room corridor. What type of fire suppression system
is installed in this area and what are the hazards to personnel if they enter this
room?
A. A manual deluge (Mulsifyre) System is installed. An electrical
shock hazard exists due to the use of water to combat an
electrical fire.
B. An automatic sprinkler system is installed. An electrical shock
hazard exists due to the use of water to combat an electrical fire.
C. An automatic Halon system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard
exists due to the presence of Halon gas.
D. A manual Cardox system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard
exists due to the presence of carbon dioxide gas.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: An automatic sprinkler system is installed
Plausible: an electrical shock hazard exists
B. Correct Answer:
C. Incorrect: An automatic sprinkler system is installed
Plausible: Halon gas is generally used in areas in which electrical
fires are the predominant risk because it does not create a shock
hazard
D. Incorrect: An automatic sprinkler system is installed
Plausible: CARDOX is a common fire suppressant in the industry
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 086K5.04 (2.9/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: SS-RFY Obj: 18
Source: Mod; Ques 060, McGuire NRC 99
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-SS-RFY page 15
2. SLC 16-9.2
Ques_060.1 For Official Use Only Page 6
Question #5 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 260.2 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a loss of main feedwater event from 100% power.
Given the following events and conditions:
- The reactor has tripped
The 2A and 2B motor-driven CA pumps started in auto
The turbine-driven CA pump (CAPT) started in auto
- Train "A" CA has been reset
- Train "B" CA has failed to reset
- The CA pumps are aligned to the CACST
Which one of the following automatic system responses will occur as storage
tank and CA pump suction pressures decrease?
A. 2A CA pump trips.
CAPT #2 pump trips.
2B CA pump shifts to the RN system.
B. 2A CA pump suction shifts to the RN system.
CAPT #2 suction shifts to the RN system.
2B CA pump trips.
C. 2A CA pump suction shifts to the RN system.
CAPT #2 pump trips.
2B CA pump trips.
D. 2A CA pump trips.
CAPT #2 suction shifts to the RN system.
2B CA pump suction shifts to the RN system.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: because the CAPT pump swap to RN
Plausible: candidate believes A train controls CAPT pump
B. Incorrect: 2A CA pump trips and 2B CA pump shifts suction to RN
Plausible: if the candidate believes reset allows shift
C. Incorrect: Reverse of what actually happens
Plausible: if the candidate reverses the logic
D. Correct: because train B did not reset, it will shift when pressure
decreases below 6 psig.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 061 K6.02 (2.6/2.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: CA Obj: 12
Ques_260.2 For Official Use Only Page 7
Question #5 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Mod McGuire NRC 2002
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-CF-CA page 13, 14
Ques_260.2 For Official Use Only Page 8
Question #6 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 263 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I is shutdown in mode 6 with fuel movement in progress. Given the
following events and conditions:
- The new fuel elevator fails to operate in the up direction
Which one of the following statements describes the cause of this problem?
A. 1EMF-1S (SPENTFUEL BLDG REFUEL BRIDGE) has failed
high.
B. 1EMF-20 (NEWFUEL STOR IA) has failed high.
C. The load in the new fuel elevator weighs 1100 lbs.
D. The spent fuel bridge crane is NOT indexed over the new fuel
elevator.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer
B. Incorrect: does not have an interlock with the new fuel elevator
Plausible: new fuel vault monitor sounds like it "fits" with new fuel
monitor if candidate does not know answer
C. Incorrect: If load exceeds 1200 lbs., will prevent movement
Plausible: this is a valid interlock but the weight is insufficient to
actuate it
D. Incorrect: there is no interlock to prevent moving the new fuel
elevator
Plausible: there is an interlock to prevent moving the spent fuel pool
crane
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 034K6.02 (2.6/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: FH-FHS SEQ 8
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-FH-FHS page 18
Ques-263 For Official Use Only Page 9
Question #7 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 282.2 Answer:C
I Pt(s) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the sequence and
position of VI system valves in response to a loss of VI header pressure?
A. VI-500 (VI supply to VS) opens
VS-78 (VS supply to VI) opens
B. VI-500 (VI supply to VS) opens
VS-78 (VS supply to VI) closes
C. VI-500 (VI supply to VS) closes
VS-78 (VS supply to VI) opens
D. VI-500 (VI supply to VS) closes
VS-78 (VS supply to VI) closes
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: VI-500 closes - not opens
Plausible: partially correct - VS-78 opens
B. Incorrect: valve operations are reversed
Plausible: psychometric balance
C. Correct: This is the correct sequence
D. Incorrect: VS-78 opens - does not close
Plausible: partially correct - VI-500 closes.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 079 A4.01 (2.7/2.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: VI Obj: 5, 8, 28, 30
Source: Mod
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-SS-VI page 19
Ques_282.2 For Official Use Only Page 10
Question #8 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 300.2 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I was responding to a steamline break inside containment on the I C S/G
per E-2 (FaultedSteam GeneratorIsolation). All equipment has operated as
designed.
Which one of the following action statements correctly describes the
expected method for isolating steam to the CAPT from the faulted S/G?
A. Manually close the CAPT #1 trip and throttle valve (ISA-145).
B. Manually close the IC MSIV and MSIV bypass valve.
C. Manually close the maintenance isolation valve (1SA-4).
D. Select "OFF" on the CAPT #1 control switch.
Distracter Analysis:
The key to this question is for the candidate to realize that the manual
isolation valve would be preferred to the stop check valve.
A. Incorrect: Will isolate steam from IB and IC S/G
Plausible: partially correct - will isolate wrong S/G
B. Incorrect:
Plausible: if candidate doesn't realize the tap for the CAPT is
upstream of the MSIV
C. Correct: the manual isolation is the preferred choice in E-2
Plausible:
D. Incorrect:
Plausible: the stop check is closed if the isolation valve cannot be
closed.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 040 AK2.01 (2.6/2.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: CA Obj: 11
Source: Mod
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.EP-E2 page 12
2. E-2 Background Document page 7
Ques_300.2 For Official Use Only Page 11
Question #9 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 324 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a design basis LOCA into
containment occurred. Given the following conditions:
- 2EMF-53A1B (Containment TRNA/B (HIRange)) are both inoperable
Which one of the following indications would most accurately determine the
dose rates inside containment for the offsite dose assessment calculations?
A. 2EMF-38, 39,40 (Containment PAR/GAS/JOD) indications
B. 2EMF-5 (LIQ R'WV CONTAREA) indications
C. 2EMF-54(HH) (Unit Vent Gamma (HI-HI Range)) indications
D. Portable instruments readings taken on the containment wall
and appropriately scaled for shielding factors
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: 2EMF-38, 39, 40 are isolated by a phase A signal
Plausible: They accurately measure radiation levels under normal
circumstances
B. Incorrect: This would only measure activity inside the NC system
piping
Plausible: This monitor is used to measure NC system activity
during normal operations
C. Incorrect: the unit vent path would be isolated during an accident
Plausible: If not isolated, this could be a good measurement of the
activity in containment
D. Correct: In the event both Containment High Range Radiation
Monitors become inoperable during an accident, alternate
measurement of containment radiation may be performed per
HP/0/B/1009/006 (Alternative Method for Determining Dose Rate
Within the Reactor Building).
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 073 A1.01 (3.2/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT Obj: 9
Source: Bank
Ques_324 For Official Use Only Page 12
Question #9 Catawba Nuclear Station RD Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-CNT-CNT page 13
Ques 324 For Official Use Only Page 13
Question #10 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 331.1 Answer: B
I Pt(s) A technician is performing a calibration procedure, which requires a series of
approximately 10 sequential steps to be conducted while standing in a
contaminated area. The communicator holds the procedure and reads each
step sequentially by radio and the technician performs the step out of sight of
the communicator.
If the performer does not have the procedure in hand as he/she performs the
steps, what are the requirements of NSD 704 (Technical ProcedureUse and
Adherence) regarding the sign off for each step?
A. Only the performer can sign off the steps upon completion of the
task after leaving the contaminated area.
B. The communicator signs off each step as the step is completed
using his/her own initials and the initials of the performer.
C. The communicator signs off each step as the step is completed
using his/her own initials along with the time.
D. The communicator signs off each step as the step is completed
using the performer's initials along with the time.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
D. Incorrect: Both initials must be entered on each step.
Plausible: this is a logical albeit incorrect choice.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: ADM G 2.1.20(4.3 / 4.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM-OP SEQ 13
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-ADM-OP page 8
2. NSD 704 pages 4, 7
Ques_331.1 For Official Use Only Page 14
Question #11 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 353.3 Answer. A
I Pt(s) A radiation worker is repairing a valve in a contaminated area, which has the
following radiological characteristics:
- The worker's present exposure is 1943 mrem for the year
- General area dose rate = 30 mrem/hr
- Airborne contamination concentration = 10.0 DAC
The job will take 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> if the worker wears a full-face respirator. It will
only take I hour if the worker does NOT wear the respirator.
If the RP Manager grants all applicable dose extensions, which one of the
following choices for completing this job would maintain the worker's
exposure within the station administrative requirements?
A. The worker should NOT wear the respirator because the
calculated TEDE dose received will be less than if he wears one.
B. The worker should NOT wear the respirator because the dose
received without wearing a respirator will exceed site annual
personnel dose limits.
C. The worker should wear the respirator because the calculated
TEDE dose received will be less than if he does not wear one.
D. The worker should wear the respirator otherwise he could exceed
DAC limits.
Distracter Analysis:
Radiation exposure comparison:
Without respirator
DDE= 30 mrem/hr x 1 hr = 30 mrem
From airborne contamination:
CEDE = 10 DAC 1 hr x 2.5 mrem/DAC-hr = 25 mrem
TEDE = 30 + 25 = 55 mrem from job
Total exposure for year = 1943 + 55 = 1998 mrem
With respirator
DDE = 30 mrem/hr x 2 hr = 60 mrem
CEDE = 0
TEDE = 60 mrem
Total exposure for year = 1943 + 60 = 2003 mrem
Ques_353.3 For Official Use Only Page 15
Question #11 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
(With respirator) (Without respirator)
TEDE = 60 mrem > 55 mrem = do not use a respirator
A. Correct answer
B. Incorrect: the dose will exceed the 2000 mrem limit based on
calculation.
Plausible: If the candidate miscalculates the dose.
C. Incorrect: The calculated exposure will be greater if you wear the
respirator.
Plausible: If the candidate incorrectly computes the exposure - this
was the correct answer on a previous exam
D. Incorrect: DAC limits are not direct ALARA controls.
Plausible: If the candidate does not understand the concept of
derived airborne concentrations.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G 2.3.2 (2.5 / 2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: HP Obj: 2, 4
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-CN-RAD-HP pages 14-15
Ques-353.3 For Official Use Only Page 16
Question #12 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 363.2 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is in mode 6 and refueling operations are currently in progress. Given
the following events and conditions:
- The Fuel Handling Manipulator Crane Operator (FHMCO) has indexed the
mast over the location where fuel assembly H-8 will be inserted.
- All conditions/indications on the fuel handling manipulator crane are
satisfied for inserting the fuel assembly located at H-8, in accordance with
procedure.
Which one of the following statements describes the responsibility of the
"Operator at the Controls", associated with inserting the fuel assembly?
A. Receives notification of assembly insertion from the Fuel Handling
SRO, and tracks core response to reactivity changes.
B. Specifies the acceptable storage locations per Tech Specs and
informs the Fuel Handling SRO.
C. Grants permission to the FHMCO for inserting the fuel assembly
from the control room via the engineer communicating with the
refueling crew.
D. Verifies proper l/m plot results and gives permission to the
FHMCO to unlatch the assembly.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: Reactor Engineering specifies the correct storage locations -
not the OATC.
Plausible: The RO can be used to relay this information to the Fuel
Handling SRO.
C. Incorrect: the FHSRO authorizes inserting the assembly.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks the refueling is controlled from the CR
D. Incorrect: the FHSRO authorizes inserting the assembly - monitor 1/m
process periodically.
Plausible: this would be the logical practice if the OATC was in charge.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G 2.2.27 (2.6 / 3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: FHS SEQ 11
Ques_363.2 For Official Use Only Page 17
Question #12 Catawba Nuclear Station RD Exam
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-FH-FHS pages 17
2. NSD 304 page 13
3. NSD 414 pages 1-5
Ques_363 .2 For Official Use Only Page 18
Question #13 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 399 Answer A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% with the pressurizer level controller in the 1-2
position. Given the following initial response:
- Charging flow reduces to minimum
- Backup heaters immediately energize
- Actual level begins to decrease
Which one of the following failures has occurred to cause this plant
response?
A. PZR level channel 1 detector reference leg has ruptured
B. PZR level channel 1 detector variable leg has ruptured
C. PZR level channel 2 detector reference leg has ruptured
D. PZR level channel 2 detector variable leg has ruptured
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer - a leak in the reference leg causes the pressurizer
channel to sense a high level condition - which causes the system
response as indicated. Actual pressurizer level decreases initially due
to charging flow decreasing while letdown remains in service.
B. Incorrect: - variable leg rupture causes channel I to sense a low
PZR level - actual level will increase not decrease initially
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that this will cause a high level
C. Incorrect: - will cause channel 2 to sense a high level - will not get
heaters deenergizing - only get a high level alarm
Plausible: - if the candidate confuses the plant response for channel
2 - thinks that channel 2 controls
D. Incorrect: - pressurizer level would increase not decrease
Plausible: - if the candidate confuses the direction of the pressurizer
level failure or doesn't recognize plant response - this is very similar
to a channel I high failure only the actual level increase instead of
decreases
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 028 K1.01 (2.8*/3.1*)
Lesson Plan Objective: ILE Obj: 6
Source: Bank
Ques_399 For Official Use Only Page 19
Question #13 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-CN-IC-ILE page 15, 16
Ques_399 For Official Use Only Page 20
Question #14 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 436.1 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 1 is responding to a station blackout. Given the following events and
conditions:
- A fault occurred on the IEMXE load center that supplied power to the
IA D/G battery charger. Repairs to this load center have not been
made.
- RN was manually lined up to supply the DG KD system
- After two hours, the operators are ready to start the IA diesel to restore
power on IETA.
What effect will the loss of power on I EMXE have on diesel generator
IA?
A. The diesel will start and run normally due to backup control
power from VADA.
B. The diesel will not start due to loss of control power.
C. The diesel will start but the output breaker will not close due to
loss of breaker control power.
D. The diesel will start and the output breaker will close.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - the diesel will run until the DG battery is exhausted
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that 120 VAC control power
can be restored thru VADA.
B. Incorrect: - DG control power is not lost until 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> of DG
runtime.
Plausible: - if the candidate thinks that control power is lost due
to 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> idle drain on the battery or loss of EMXE.
C. Incorrect: - 125 VDC control power provides the needed
electrical power to start and load the DG
Plausible: - if the candidate believes that DG output breaker
control power is lost either by 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> idle drain on the battery or
loss of EMXE.
D. Correct: - D/G battery is sized for -2 hours runtime per Tech Spec Bases 3.8.4. The output breaker will close. However, after the
battery is exhausted, the diesel engine will continue to run. The
diesel generator will not receive field excitation but it may self
excite from residual magnetism.
Ques-436.1 For Official Use Only Page 21
Question #14 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 055 AL.05 (3.3/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: DG-DGI Obj: 1, 14, 15, 18
Source: Bank
Level of Knowledge: Comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-DG-DGI, page 13, 14, 26
2. Tech Spec Basis B3.8.4, page 2
Ques-436.1 For Official Use Only Page 22
Question # 15 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 453.3 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when a loss of condenser vacuum
occurred. Given the following events and conditions:
- The operators initiated AP/09 (Rapid Downpower)
- Reactor power dropped to 80%
- Turbine load dropped to 82% based on turbine impulse pressure
- The operator reports that condenser vacuum is 23.8 inches vacuum
and is continuing to decrease slowly.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
action?
A. Manually trip the turbine then trip the reactor and enter E-0
(Reactor Trip or Safety Injection) immediately.
B. Manually trip the reactor then trip the turbine and enter AP/2
(Turbine GeneratorTrip) immediately.
C. If vacuum reaches 21.8 inches, manually trip the reactor and
enter E-0.
D. If vacuum reaches 21.8 inches, manually trip the turbine and
enter AP/2.
Distracter Analysis: The operators should use AP/23 for a loss of
vacuum. The following turbine trip criteria are extracted from
AP/23 enclosure (1).
1. Turbine Trip Criteria:
IF condenser vacuum decreases to less than 21.8 in. Hg, THEN:
a. IF reactor power is greater than or equal to 69%, THEN
manually trip reactor.
b. Ensure turbine - TRIPPED.
c. IF reactor is tripped, THEN GO TO EP/i/A/5000/E-0 (Reactor
Trip Or Safety Injection).
d. REFER TO AP/1/A/5500/02 (Turbine Generator Trip).
IF turbine exhaust hood temperature is greater than 2250 F AND turbine
load is less than 60% (based on impulse pressure equal to 370 PSIG),
THEN:
a. Ensure turbine - TRIPPED.
b. REFER TO AP/1/A/5500/02 (Turbine Generator Trip).
A. Incorrect The turbine has not reached the trip setpoint.
Ques_453.3 For Official Use Only Page 23
Question #15 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: If the candidate does not know the turbine trip setpoint
or confuses condenser vacuum with condenser pressure (absolute)
B. Incorrect: The turbine has not reached the trip setpoint.
Plausible: If the candidate does not know the turbine trip setpoint
or confuses condenser vacuum with condenser pressure (absolute).
Note that the turbine would be tripped instead of the reactor if
power were < 69% per AP/23.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: The reactor should be tripped first, not the turbine
Plausible: the turbine would be tripped instead of the reactor if
power were < 69% per AP/23.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.4.2
Lesson Plan Objective:
Source: Mod; Ques_453a, Catawba NRC 2001
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.AP/23 Encl (1) page 5
2. OP-CN-MT-ZM page 9
3. OMP 1-8 page 4
Ques-z453.3 For Official Use Only Page 24
Question #16 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 460.2 Answer. D
I Pt(s) If a large fire was reported in a vital area inside the RCA, which one of the
following responses is correct by station procedures?
A. The Fire Brigade must suppress this fire without assistance
because the Bethel Volunteer Fire Department is not allowed to
access vital areas under the NRC's post-9/11 anti-terrorist
orders.
B. The Fire Brigade must suppress this fire because Bethel
Volunteer Fire Department is not qualified to fight fire in a
radiologically controlled area.
C. The Fire Brigade is initially responsible for fire suppression
activities at the scene. Upon arrival, the Bethel Volunteer Fire
Department will take over control of the scene.
D. The Fire Brigade is primarily responsible for fire suppression
activities at the scene. The Bethel Volunteer Fire Department
will respond promptly to the scene and will function under the
Site Incident Commander.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - Offsite Fire Departments are allowed escorted access to
vital areas of the plant. Provisions are in place to allow the offsite
Fire Department to arrive at the scene promptly.
Plausible: - they have restrictions regarding leaving the site. The
NRC's post-9/l1 anti-terrorist orders place additional restrictions on
vital area access by non-permanent employees.
B. Incorrect: -Offsite Fire Departments are trained to fight fires in
radiologically controlled areas of the plant. Provisions are in place to
allow the offsite Fire Department to arrive at the scene promptly
Plausible: - If the candidate does not understand that offsite Fire
Departments are trained in radiological fires.
C. Incorrect: The Site Incident Commander retains responsibility for
the scene of the fire.
Plausible: The offsite Fire Departments are full-time professionals
and the candidate may think that the Fire Brigade Leader should turn
over the responsibilities to the offsite professionals.
D. Correct Incorrect: - The Fire Brigade is primarily responsible to
fight fire inside the protected area.
Level: RO&SRO
Ques 460.2
-
For Official Use Only Page 25
Question #16 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: G 2.4.27 (3.0/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: SS-RFY SEQ 38
Source: Mod Ques_460.1 McGuire NRC 2002
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. NSD 112 page I
Ques 460.2 For Official Use Only Page 26
Question #17 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 482.1 Answer: D
I Pt(s) During an outage, air-operated valves 2NV- 122B & 123B (Loop C To Excess
Ltdn HXIsol) are being used to isolate valve 2NV 124B (Excess Ltdn Press Cont)
for maintenance.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the requirements for
using 2NV-122/123 as an isolation boundary?
A. Tag shut the air supply to the valves and tag open the air regulator
petcocks. Tags should also be firmly fixed around the remote
operating switch on the main control board.
B. Tag shut the air supply to the valves and tag closed the air
regulator petcocks. Tags should also be firmly fixed around the
remote operating switch on the main control board.
C. Tag shut the air supply to the valves and tag closed the air
regulator petcocks. A switch label should also be firmly fixed
around the remote operating switch on the main control board.
D. Tag shut the air supply to the valves and tag open the air regulator
petcocks. A switch labels should also be firmly fixed around the
remote operating switch on the main control board.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: - switch labels are used on main control boards for tagging
remote switches - not red tags.
Plausible: -the position of the components is correct -
B. Incorrect: - the air regulator petcocks must be tagged open not closed
Plausible: - if the candidate does not know the proper position for
tagging the regulator petcock
C. Incorrect: - the air regulator petcock must be tagged open not closed -
tags are not hung on main control board switches
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the proper tagging for the air
operated valves
D. Correct answer - per NSD-500
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G 2.2.13 (3.6 / 3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: NS02 Obj: 5
Ques_482.1 For Official Use Only Page 27
Question #17 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-ADM-NS02 page 9
2. NSD-500 page 5, 11
3. OMP 2-33 page 14
N-
Ques 4.82.1 For Official Use Only Page 28
Question #18 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 489.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% power following a refueling shutdown. Unit 2
was shutdown in mode 6. It was discovered that a spent fuel element from
the unit I refueling had been incorrectly stored in a filler location in the spent
fuel pool. The element had exceeded the burnup (GWD/MTU) requirements
to qualify for storage in a filler location.
Which one of the following statements describes the correct action(s)
required by Tech Specs to preserve spent fuel pool shutdown margin?
A. Immediately initiate action to move the non-complying fuel
assembly to an unrestricted storage location.
B. Immediately initiate actions to move the non-complying fuel
assembly to a restricted storage location and to shutdown Unit I
within I hour.
C. Initiate action to move the non-complying fuel assembly to a
restricted storage location within I hour.
D. Initiate actions to move the non-complying fuel assembly to an
unrestricted storage location and to shutdown Unit 1 within I
hour.
Distracter Analysis: Restricted locations in the spent fuel pool will store
spent fuel elements that have lower burnout. Elements that have
higher burnout must be stored in unrestricted areas.
A. Correct answer:
B. Incorrect: - moving the spent fuel element to a restricted location
would violate Tech Spec 3.7.16. Tech Spec 3.0.3 does not apply - no
need to shutdown unit 1.
Plausible: - If the candidate does not know the difference between
restricted and unrestricted locations and thinks that Tech Spec 3.0.3
applies to this condition.
C. Incorrect: - must initiate action immediately - not qualified for
storage in a restricted location.
Plausible: - I hour LCOs for important Tech Specs are common - a
"restricted" area may imply more reactive elements should be stored
there.
D. Incorrect: - must initiate action immediately - Tech Spec 3.0.3 does
not apply.
Ques_489.1 For Official Use Only Page 29
Question #18 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: - I hour LCOs for important Tech Specs are common
Tech Spec 3.0.3 requires initiating action to shutdown the unit within
I hour.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 033 A2.01 (3.0/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: KF Obj: 19, 22
Source: Mod McGuire NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-FH-KF page 13
Ques_489. 1 For Official Use Only Page 30
Question #19 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 493.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was holding at 72% power during a load increase to 100% power
when one group of control rods in bank D failed to move with the rest of the
bank during a Xenon burnout transient. Given the following events and
conditions:
- Rod control was in automatic
- Rod control urgent failure alarm had NOT actuated
- Bank D group counter is at 112 steps
- 2 rods in bank D are at 120 steps
- 3 rods in bank D are at 108 steps
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the operator
actions prior to attempting rod realignment?
A. Place control rods in manual and do not move control rods. Hold
rods at present position until realignment.
B. Place control rods in manual and insert the 2 rods in bank D to
108 steps within one hour.
C. Place control rods in manual and withdraw the 3 rods in bank D
to 120 steps within one hour.
D. Trip the reactor and enter E-0.
Distracter Analysis: Tech Spec 3.1.4 LCO B requires rod position to be
restored within alignment limits (+ or - 12 steps) within one hour or
power reduced < 75%. A Xenon burnout causes positive reactivity to
be added and the rods will move IN to compensate. The candidate
must determine which rods are stuck if he/she cannot recall that the
rods can remain where they are if power is < 75%.
A. Correct: The rods do not exceed the >12-step alignment spec from
group counter - immediate action from API 5.
B. Incorrect: Reactor power is < 75% - not required to restore rod
position within one hour
Plausible: If power was > 75%, this would be correct
C. Incorrect: Reactor power is < 75% - not required to restore rod
position within one hour. Also, a Xenon burnout transient causes
rods to move IN not OUT in auto rod control. Thus the rods that are
stuck are at 120 steps not 108 steps. Attempting to insert the stuck
rods will not be successfil.
Ques-u493. 1 For Official Use Only Page 31
Question #19 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: Tech spec 3.1.4 requires rod alignment to be restored in
one hour or reduce power below 75%.
D. Incorrect: Rods are not > 12 steps misaligned
Plausible: If more than one rod is misaligned by > 12 steps, then the
immediate action would be to trip the reactor
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 005 EK1.03 (3.2/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: IRE Obj 18 EDA Obj: 6
Source: Mod Ques_493 Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
I .COLR Figure 2
3. 1AD-2, B3 Comparator P/R Channel Deviation
4. OP-CN-IC-IRE page 22, 23
5. AP14 page 2
6. OP-CN-IC-EDA page 6
Ques_493 .1 For Official Use Only Page 32
Question #20 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 501.1 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a terrorist attack in the control
room caused the operators to rapidly evacuate to the Auxiliary Shutdown
Panel. The operators were not able to perform AP/17 (Loss of Control
Room) actions prior to evacuation at 0200.
The terrorists tripped the turbine but did not operate any other controls.
There are no other local operator actions taken. Given the following steam
generator narrow range levels:
0200 0202 0204 0206 0208
2A S/G NR 65% 37% 22% 15% 25%
2B S/G NR 64% 38% 23% 18% 26%
2C S/G NR 63% 39% 25% 16% 24%
2D S/G NR 65% 38% 26% 20% 27%
Which one of the following statements describes the complete list of
running feedwater pumps that can be monitored from the Auxiliary
Shutdown Complex when the operators first arrive at the panels at 0210 to
take local control of the plant?
A. Both motor driven CA pumps
B. Both motor driven CA pumps and the turbine driven CA
pump
C. Both motor driven CA pumps and both CF pumps (at
minimum speed)
D. Both motor driven CA pumps, the turbine driven CA pump
and both CF pumps (at minimum speed)
Distracter Analysis: The lo-lo setpoint for SGWL is 17% on Unit 2.
This causes:
- Reactor trip - on 1 of 4 S/Gs in 2 of 4 channels
- MD CA pumps auto-start - on I of 4 S/Gs in 2 of 4 channels
- TD CA pump auto-start - on 2 of 4 S/Gs in 2 of 4 channels
Only the CA pumps can be monitored from the Auxiliary Shutdown
Complex. The MD CA pumps are on the ASPs. The CAPT is
monitored from the Turbine Drive CA pump panel that is next to the
ASPs. These panels are all part of the Auxiliary Shutdown Complex.
Ques_501.1 For Official Use Only Page 33
Question #20 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
A. Incorrect: CF pumps will not trip - this is done by a local operator
action in AP- 17, TD CA pump auto-starts.
Plausible: MD CA pumps will start when S/G levels < 17% on
1/4 S/Gs
B. Correct: The MD and TD CA pumps auto start. The CF pumps
will continue to run until tripped by local operator action in AP-17
but cannot be monitored from the Auxiliary Shutdown Complex.
C. Incorrect: The TD CA pump will auto start.
Plausible: The MD CA pumps auto start and the CF pumps remain
running
D. Incorrect: The CF pumps will continue to run at minimum speed
but cannot be monitored from the Auxiliary Shutdown Complex.
Plausible: If the candidates do not know that CF pumps do not
have a run indication on the Auxiliary Shutdown Complex.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 068 AAl.12 (4.4/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: CP-RSS Obj: 4
Source: Mod
Level of Knowledge: Analysis
References:
1. OP-CN-CP-RSS page 9, 16-21
2. OP-CN-IC-IFE page 23
3. OP-CN-CF-CA page 9
Ques_501.1t For Official Use Only Page 34
Question #21 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 507 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a LOCA into the Auxiliary Building in ECA-1.2
(LOCA Outside of Containment). Upon completion of ECA- 1.2, NC system
pressure continues to decrease.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the correct major
action to assure proper method of removing decay heat under these
conditions?
A. Transition back to E-1 (Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant).
B. Transition to ECA-1.1 (Loss of Emergency CoolantRecirculation).
C. Transition to ES-1.2 (Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization).
D. Transition to ES-1.3 (Transition to Cold Leg Recirc).
Distracter Analysis: This question does not require the candidate to
memonze procedure transitions. Instead, the candidate is expected to
logically assess conditions (LOCA into the AUX BLD that cannot be
isolated - pressure continues to decrease after completion of ECA-
1.2) and deduce that the containment sump inventory is still being
lost. The only correct procedure would be ECA- 1.I to address this
problem. All other procedure transitions do not work.
A. Incorrect: Not the correct procedural transition if the NC system
pressure continues to decrease (ie leak path not isolated).
Plausible: This IS the correct procedure if the NC system pressure
was stable or increasing.
B. Correct: continuing loss of inventory means that there may be
insufficient water in containment for recirculation cooling
C. Incorrect: Transition to ES-1.2 not allowed, as the leak is not
isolated.
Plausible: The name of the procedure is appropriate for the situation.
D. Incorrect: Transition to ES-1.3 not in accordance with the major
action steps.
Plausible: Although many actions are the same, it is not the correct
procedure.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE4 EA2.1 (3.4/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP2 Obj: 6, 13
Ques_507 For Official Use Only Page 35
Question #21 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-EP2 page 12
2. ECA-1.2 page 6
Ques_507 For Official Use Only Page 36
Question #22 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 508.1 Answer. D
I Pts Unit 2 is responding to a main steam line break inside containment. Given
the following events and conditions:
Containment pressure is 0.1 psig
- The pressurizer is solid
- ES- 1.I (Safety Injection Termination) has been implemented
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the status of the
ECCS systems upon successful completion of ES- 1. I?
A. One NS pump running to provide containment pressure control
B. One ND pump running to provide adequate heat removal
C. One NI pump running to provide adequate inventory control
D. One NV pump running to provide a normal charging lineup
Distracter Analysis:
\ A. Incorrect: NS pumps are secured in ES-1.1, step 14
Plausible: If candidate does not know major actions of ES- 1. I
B. Incorrect: ND pumps are secured in ES- 1.1, step I
Plausible: If candidate does not know major actions of ES- 1. I
C. Incorrect: NI pumps are secured in ES- 1.1, step 11
Plausible: If candidate does not know major actions of ES- .I
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
K/A: APE WEOI EK3.3 (3.8/4.0))
Lesson Plan Objective: EP2 Obj: 2, 9
Source: Mod NRC Catawba 1999
Level of Knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-EP2 page 9
2. ES-1.lpages 10-12
Ques_508.1 For Official Use Only Page 37
Question #23 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 511.1 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a LOCA outside containment. The operators have
reached step 22 of E- 1 when the STA reports the following critical safety
functions (CSFs) status indications on the OAC:
CSF Status
1.NC INVENTORY Yellow
2. CORE COOLING Red
3. CONTAINMENT Green
4. NC INTEGRITY Green
5. HEAT SINK Red
6. SUBCRITICALITY Yellow
What is the correct order in which these CSFs shall be prioritized for
response?
A. 5,2,6,4,3,1
B. 2,5,6,1,4,3
C. 5,2,6,1,4,3
D. 2,5,6,4,3,1
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Core cooling has a higher priority than heat sink for red
paths, and INVENTORY yellow takes precedence over greens.
Plausible: if the candidate reverses the relative priority of the red
paths, and thinks that the priority is the order of relative importance
of the CSFs for yellow/green.
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: Core cooling has a higher priority than heat sink for red
paths.
Plausible: If candidate reverses the relative priority of the red paths.
D. Incorrect: Core cooling and heat sink have higher priority than sub
criticality with a yellow path.
Plausible: If candidate does not recall the priority rules; this is the
correct order of priority without regard to COLORs.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G 2.4.21 (3.7/4.3)
Ques_511.1 For Official Use Only Page 38
Question #23 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-CSF Obj: 2
Source: Mod; Ques 511, Catawba NRC 1999
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-CSF pages 6-7
2. OMP 1-7 page 11
Ques_511.1 For Official Use Only Page 39
Question #24 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 51&81 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Why do some of the phase A containment isolation valves located in lower
containment for the KC system have a separate manual reset on IMC7?
A. The valves use air operators, which are not subject to spurious
repositioning should they be submerged during containment
flooding therefore they may be reset and repositioned if required
by procedure.
B. The valves are all above the containment flooding level and are
not subject to spurious repositioning during containment
flooding therefore they may be reset and repositioned if required
by procedure.
C. A separate reset is required because a containment phase A
signal removes power from these valves causing them to fail
closed to prevent them from spuriously repositioning due to
containment flooding.
D. A separate reset is required because a containment phase A
signal disables the open circuits for these valves to prevent them
from spuriously repositioning due to containment flooding.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Valves have MOVs not AOVs
Plausible: Some plants have mainly AOVs in containment for this
reason
B. Incorrect: Valves are located below flooding plane
Plausible: This is one way of preventing the problem
C. Incorrect: Valves do not have closing power removed or this would
prevent actuation in response to a valid ESF signal
Plausible: This would prevent the valves from spuriously opening.
Some ECCS valves are protected this way.
D. Correct:
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE15 EA1.3 (2.8/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT Obj: 16
Source: Bank
Ques_518.1 For Official Use Only Page 40
Question #24 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-CNT-CNT page 20
2. OP-CN-EP-FRZ pages 6, 7
Ques_518. 1 For Official Use Only Page 41
Question #25 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 521 Answer. C
1 Pt(s) Step 9.e of ECA-1 .1 (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation) requires
operators to initiate NC system cooldown to cold shutdown:
"9.e Dump steam to condenser while maintainingcooldown rate
based on NC T-colds as close as possible without exceeding 100 F
in an hour."
Which one of the following statements is in accordance with this step?
A. Attention should be paid to maintaining the cooldown rate at
100 0 F/hr as an ideal value but not to be overly concerned if the
exact value is not achieved. Any previous cooldown that had
been conducted within the last hour needs to be considered.
B. Attention should be paid to maintaining the cooldown rate at
100 0 F/hr as an ideal value but not to be overly concerned if the
exact value is not achieved. Any previous cooldown that had
been conducted within the last hour does NOT need to be
considered.
C. Considerable attention must be devoted to achieving and
maintaining this cooldown rate - OMP 1-4 guidance on setpoints
does not apply to this step. Any previous cooldown that had been
conducted within the last hour needs to be considered.
D. Considerable attention must be devoted to achieving and
maintaining this cooldown rate - OMP 1-4 guidance on setpoints
does not apply to this step. Any previous cooldown that had been
conducted within the last hour does NOT need to be considered.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Not in accordance with the background document
knowledge/ability for this step.
Plausible: This is the standard OMP guidance for cooldowns.
B. Incorrect: Not in accordance with the background document
knowledge/ability for this step. Previous cooldowns need to be
considered.
Plausible: This isthe standard OMP guidance for managing
cooldown rates in most EOPs.
C. Correct answer - per the Background document
D. Incorrect: Must consider previous cooldowns
Ques_521 For Official Use Only Page 42
Question #25 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: Cooling down is very important under these
circumstances.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WEI I EK3.2 (3.5/4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP2 Obj: 28
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-EP2 page 13
2. 1ECA-1 . I Background document step 9e page 10
3. OMP 1.4 page 6
Ques_521 For Official Use Only Page 43
Question #26 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 531.1 Answer. B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 75% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
. 2CM-83 is in AUTO
- A load rejection occurs
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the response of
2CM-83, (Generator Load Rejection Bypass valve) during the load rejection?
A. 2CM-83 opens to provide condensate flow around the hotwell pumps
to assure minimum flow requirements.
B. 2CM-83 opens to provide additional condensate pressure to the
condensate booster pumps and bypass portions of the low pressure
CM system.
C. 2CM-83 closes to prevent a loss of water from the "C" heater drain
tank to the condensate booster pump suction.
D. 2CM-83 closes to prevent condensate water from being recirculated
to the suction of the condensate booster pumps.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: 2CM-83 does not provide a flow path around the hotwell
pumps to meet minimum flow requirements
Plausible: 2CM-83 does open but CM-407 performs this function
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: 2CM-83 opens - does not close
Plausible: 2CM-83 opens to route water from the hotwell pumps to
the condensate booster pumps.
D. Incorrect: 2CM-83 opens - does not close. Does not prevent water
from being recirculated around the hotwell pumps.
Plausible: 2CM-407 opens to assure minimum flow around the
hotwell pumps to prevent water hammer on the CM system during
startup.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 056 K1.03 (2.6/2.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: CM Obj: 6
Ques_531.1 For Official Use Only Page 44
Question #26 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-CF-CM page 12, 13
Ques-531.1 For Official Use Only Page 45
Question #27 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 540.1 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a LOCA.
Given the following sequence of events and conditions:
- A reactor trip and safety injection occurred
- All NV, NI and ND pumps sequenced on properly
- ECCS was reset
- The 2ETA bus momentarily lost power but was reenergized by the 2A D/G
Which one of the following statements describes the correct restoration
process for the train A NV, NI and ND pumps?
A. 2A NV pump must be restarted by operator action
2A NI pump will automatically restart
2A ND pump will automatically restart
B. 2A NV pump will automatically restart
2A NI pump will automatically restart
2A ND pump will automatically restart
C. 2A NV pump will automatically restart
2A NI pump must be restarted by operator action
2A ND pump must be restarted by operator action
D. 2A NV pump must be restarted by operator action
2A NI pump automatically restart
2A ND pump must be restarted by operator action
Distracter Analysis:
NV pumps are controlled by both the ECCS and blackout sequencers. NI
and ND pumps are controlled by the ECCS sequencer only
A. Incorrect: NI and ND pumps do not automatically restart, NV pump
will auto restart.
Plausible: Directed for psychometric balance by NRC (?)
B. Incorrect: NI pump does not auto restart
Plausible: NV pump will auto restart and ND pump must be
manually restarted
C. Correct answer
D. Incorrect: NV pump will auto restart, the NI pump will NOT auto
restart.
Plausible: ND pumps require manual restart.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 005 K2.01 (3.0/3.2)
Ques-540.1 For Official Use Only Page 46
Question #27 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: EQB Obj: 13
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-EQB page 25
Ques_540.1 For Official Use Only Page 47
Question #28 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 571.1 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a small break LOCA in ES- 1.2, (Post LOCA
Cooldown and Depressurization). Step 16 of ES- 1.2 requires the operators
to depressurize the NC system.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the priority and
reasons for using the prescribed methods of depressurizing the NC system?
A.
1. Pressurizer spray - preferred method to be used if NC pump
is running
2. Auxiliary Spray - alternate method - better control over
depressurization rate
3. PORV - method of last resort - lack of control of
depressurization rate - results in rupturing the PRT
B.
1. Pressurizer spray - preferred method to be used if NC pump
is running
2. PORV - alternate method - better than auxiliary spray
3. Auxiliary Spray - method of last resort - too slow and may
thermal shock the spray nozzles and degrade regenerative
heat exchanger
C.
1. PORV - preferred method - rapid depressurization rate
2. Pressurizer spray - alternative method - next most rapid
depressurization rate
3. Auxiliary spray - method of last resort - too slow and may
thermal shock the spray nozzles
D.
1. Auxiliary spray - preferred method - does not degrade
containment
2. Pressurizer spray - alternative method - will not work if NC
pump is not running
3. PORV - method of last resort - will rupture PRT and degrade
containment environment
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: PORV is the alternative method - aux spray is the last
resort
Plausible: Pressurizer spray is the priority
Ques_571.1 For Official Use Only Page 48
Question #28 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
B. Correct answer
C. Incorrect: Pressurizer spray preferred over PORV
Plausible: Aux spray is last resort
D. Plausible: Aux spray is the last resort
Plausible: Pressurizer spray preferred over PORV
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE03 EK2.2 (3.7 /4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP2 Obj: 24
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-EP2 pages 10-11
2. ERG Background Document ES-1.2 step 14 page 17
Ques-571.1 For Official Use Only Page 49
Question #29 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 592.1 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) Unit I is in mode 3. NC pressure is 1940 psig. CA auto start defeat
"Defeated" lights are lit
The following sequence of events occur on unit I while in mode 3:
1. CF isolation and the running CFPT trips on S/G Hi-Hi level
2. The S/G Hi-Hi level clears
3. CF isolation is reset
4. T-ave increases and NC pressure increases to 1960 psig
Which of the following correctly explains when (if at all) any CA pump(s)
should have automatically started?
A. Following the CF isolation reset.
B. When the S/G Hi-Hi level cleared.
C. When pressure increased above P-li.
D. The CA pumps have remained off for these events.
Distracter Analysis:
Tests the candidates' knowledge of the low suction pressure protection
circuitry when the CA has been reset.
A. Incorrect: defeated by CA auto start defeat
Plausible: could result in a CA pump start
B. Incorrect: defeated by CA auto start defeat
Plausible: normally true
C. Correct answer The auto start defeat will Auto RESET when above
P-lI and can be manually RESET at any time.
D. Incorrect: auto resets
Plausible: candidate does not recall the signal auto resets above P- Il
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 061 A2.05 (3.1*/3.4*)
Lesson Plan Objective: CA Obj: 9
Source: Mod Ques_592 McGuire NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: analysis
Ques_592.1 For Official Use Only Page 50
Question #29 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Examr
References:
1. OP-CN-CF-CA pages 10 and II
Ques-592.1 For Official Use Only Page 51
Question #30 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 600 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I is at 4% power, conducting a plant startup. Given the following
events and conditions:
- A control bank "A" rod drops
- NCS temperature decreases to 550 0 F
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the required
actions (if any)?
A. No technical specification action is required, however, the plant
must be shutdown to mode 3 to recover the rod.
B. Within 30 minutes, adjust power range N/Is to increase reactor
power so that reactor power and thermal power best estimate are
equal.
C. Within 30 minutes be in mode 2 with K,, less than 1.0.
D. Immediately trip the reactor and enter E-0 (Reactor Trip or
Safety Injection).
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Tech Spec 3.4.2 is applicable in mode 2 when critical.
Plausible: The change from mode 2 to mode I occurs when power
exceeds 5%. If the candidate thinks that ITS 3.4.2 only applies in
mode 1,this would be a plausible mistake.
B. Incorrect: Thermal power would indicate lower, not higher than
reactor power due to increased thermalization of the neutrons. While
NI adjustment is a problem, this action does not comply with tech
spec 3.4.2.
Plausible: This was a recent event (July 1, 1998) at McGuire - but
the temperature remained under 551 0 F for only 4 minutes. The
concern expressed in the lessons learned report was for the NI power
to thermal power mismatch.
C. Correct answer
D. Incorrect: An immediate reactor trip is NOT required. AP/14
requires a controlled shutdown to mode 3 - but with temp only I 0 F
below minimum required for criticality, the best choice is C.
Shutting down to mode 3 is not a distracter.
Plausible: Seems like an appropriate response to finding yourself
below the minimum temperature for criticality - an overly
conservative response.
Ques 600 For Official Use Only Page 52
Question #30 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G 2.1.11 (3.0/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: NC SEQ 10
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-CN-PS-NC page 33
2. Tech Spec 3.4.2 page 1
Ques_600 For Official Use Only Page 53
Question #31 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 602.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is responding to a LOCA. The crew has entered ES-1.2, Post LOCA
Cooldown and Depressurization.
Given the following events and conditions:
- NCPs tripped
- Pressurizer level is steady
- Only one train of ECCS is injecting
- Loop A temperatures are representative of all 4 loops
- MSIVs and steam dumps are open
Which one of the following sets of plant parameters is indicative of fully
established natural circulation as outlined in Enclosure 3, Natural Circulation
Monitoring Parameters?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Steam Tables
Time 0200 0205 0210 0215
A. Steam Header Pressure (psig) 742 715 676 645
NC System Pressure (psig) 968 964 960 958
Loop A T-hot (0 F) 544 536 535 527
Loop A T-cold (IF) 512 510 502 497
B. Steam Header Pressure (psig) 742 709 676 645
NC System Pressure (psig) 968 972 975 981
Loop A T-hot (OF) 547 552 555 563
Loop A T-cold (0 F) 548 544 540 536
C. Steam Header Pressure (psig) 742 747 750 762
NC System Pressure (psig) 968 964 960 958
Loop A T-hot (pF) 544 536 535 527
Loop A T-cold (iF) 512 514 515 517
D. Steam Header Pressure (psig) 742 737 740 732
NC System Pressure (psig) 938 942 945 941
Loop A T-hot (0 F) 539 542 545 545
Loop A T-cold (0 F) 513 510 510 506
Distracter Analysis: The following conditions support natural circulation:
- S/G pressure stable of decreasing
- T-hot stable or decreasing
- T-cold stable or decreasing
- NC subcooling > 0 - NC pressure may trend up or down.
Ques-602.1 For Official Use Only Page 54
Question #31 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
A. Correct: This shows indication of natural circulation flow occurring
- decreasing S/G pressure, T-cold at S/G saturation conditions and
decreasing, T-hot decreasing.
B. Incorrect: T-hot is increasing while steam pressure is decreasing
Plausible: Steam pressure and T-cold are both decreasing
C. Incorrect: Steam pressure is increasing and T-cold is tracking along
with this trend. Temperature difference is decreasing indicating that
heat removal rate is decreasing. This is a classic case of gas binding
Plausible: T-hot is decreasing.
D. Incorrect: No subcooling.
Plausible: T-cold is decreasing
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 011 EA2.09 (4.3/4.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: HT Obj: 15
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: analysis
1. EP/l/A/5000/ES-1.2 enclosure 3
2. steam tables
3. OP-CN-THF-HT page 8-10
Ques-602.1 For Official Use Only Page 55
Question #32 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 605.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I trips from 100% power due to an electrical fault.
- 5 minutes later, IEMF-33 (Condenser Air Ejector Exhaust) alarms in trip 2.
Which one of the following indications will provide the best indication (most
sensitive and timely) to confirm that a S/G tube leak has just occurred?
A. Observing IEMF-26, 27, 28 and 29 (Steamline IA - ID)
B. Comparing S/G feed flow to steam flow mismatch
C. Observing 1EMF-34(L) (S/G sample (lo range))
D. Observing IEMF-71, 72, 73, 74 (SGCA-D leakage)
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct answer: normally, EMF-71-74 are the most sensitive
monitors. But these monitors detect N16 7 radiation that has a high
energy (7 MeV) y that only is generated when the reactor is operating
at power (requires a neutron flux).
B. Incorrect: Not a sensitive method of comparison - requires large
gpm leak rates before this is noticeable.
Plausible: This method will show gross SGTRs
C. Incorrect: S/G sample line will isolate at EMF-33 trip 2 - the sample
line can only be lined up to I S/G at a time. If the leak is not in that
S/G, there will be no indication of anything after isolation. Prior to
isolation, it may show an increasing trend due to a general build up of
activity in the feedwater.
Plausible: This would be a good answer if the automatic isolation
did not occur
D. Incorrect: most sensitive method as it detects N"6 y radiation
Plausible: This was the correct answer for the 1997 NRC exam -
when the premise of the question had the reactor was operating at
100% power. In this question, the reactor has tripped and neutron
flux has decreased - causing the N' 6 y to decay off (TV2 is 7 seconds)
so that by the time that the steam line monitors see the contents of the
S/G, the N16 y has decayed away.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 039 A2.03 (3.4/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: SM Obj: 28
Source: Bank
Ques-605.1 For Official Use Only Page 56
Question #32 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-STM-SM page 12, 13
Ques_605. 1 For Official Use Only Page 57
Question #33 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 731 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Federal Regulations require the emergency core cooling system to be
designed to maintain peak cladding temperature below 2200 'F.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the basis for this
design criterion?
A. To prevent acceleration of the zircalloy-water reaction.
B. To prevent exceeding the zircailoy clad melting point.
C. To prevent exceeding the fuel melting point.
D. To prevent the onset of full film boiling and DNB.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: The zirconium-water reaction is described by the following
chemical equation: Zr + 2H20 --> ZrO2 + 2H2 + HEAT. The rate of
this reaction is highly dependent upon clad temperature, such that
above approximately 18000F the reaction becomes significant. It
becomes accelerated at 2200 F and auto-catalytic (self-sustaining) at
48000 F.
B. Incorrect: Zircalloy will melt at approximately 3316 F.
Plausible: its approximately 900 degrees below the melting point.
C. Incorrect: fuel melt is a much higher temperature, 5 100F.
Plausible: a logical answer if the candidate doesn't know the answer
D. Incorrect: these are event specific mechanisms rather analysis
criteria.
Plausible: If the candidate confuses heat transfer mechanisms with
ECCS criteria.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 006 K3.02 (4.3/4.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: TA-AM SEQ 10
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-IC-ISE page 5
Ques_731 For Official Use Only Page 58
Question #33 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
2. OP-CN-TA-AM pages 7-9
3. IOCFR50.46
Ques_731 For Official Use Only Page 59
Question #34 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 736.1 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is in the process of conducting a plant startup.
Power range channels indicate the following:
PR N41 = 8%
- PR N42 = 8%
- PRN43= 10%
- PR N44 = 8%
Assuming no operator action, which of the following conditions would result
in an automatic reactor trip?
A. All four RCPs trip.
B. One turbine impulse pressure channel fails high.
C. NCS controlling pressurizer level channel fails low.
D. NCS controlling pressurizer pressure channel fails high.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: all loop flow trips are automatically blocked below P-7
Plausible: if the candidate does not recall that the NCP trip is
blocked by P-7. The operators would manually trip the reactor in
AP/08 for this condition.
B. Incorrect: P-7 would be enabled, but this does not cause a trip
Plausible: if the candidate is confused over the effect of turbine
impulse on main generator trip
C. Incorrect: Pressurizer High Level, Pressurizer Low Pressure,
blocked by P-7
Plausible: an old horse is that if Pzr level fails low, eventually the
reactor will trip on high Pzr level.
D. Correct: As pressure decreases to 1845 psig, SI is actuated. The SI
signal generates a Reactor Trip Signal. The failure of the NCS
controlling pressure channel will cause spray actuation to reduce
pressure to the S/I setpoint.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 010 K3.03 (4.0/4.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: ISE Obj: 4
Source: Mod Catawba NRC 2000
Ques_736.1 For Official Use Only Page 60
Question #34 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-CN-ECCS-ISE page 14
.. >
Ques_736.1 For Official Use Only Page 61
Question #35 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 757 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Units I and 2 are operating at 100% power with a normal service water line-up
and RN pump 2A running. Given the following conditions and indications:
- RN pumps lA, lB and 2B start.
- 1 and 2 RN-48B (RNSUPPLYX-OVER ISOL) close
- 1 and 2 RN-47A (RNSUPPLYX-OVER ISOL) remain open
- RN suction and discharge valves swap to the SNSWP.
Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the cause of this
condition?
A. The Lake Wylie dam failed.
B. RN pump intake pit "A" screens are clogged.
C. RN pump intake pit "A" level indicator (RNINTAKEPITLVL "A")
failed low.
D. There was a spurious containment phase "B" actuation on Unit 1.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: low lake level would cause a low level in both RN pump pits A
and B, which would close valves l/2RN-47A
Plausible: Partially correct - all other actuations would occur
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: requires 2 of 3 level instruments to fail to get the actions.
Plausible: if the candidate does not know the coincidence logic.
D. Incorrect: would not cause RN suction valves to swap to the SNSWP -
would cause IRN-47A to close and would not cause 2RN-48B to close
Plausible: partially correct - would cause all other conditions
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 062 AAl.02 (3.2/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: PSS-RN Obj: 12
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
Ques-757 For Official Use Only Page 62
Question #35 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
1. OP-CN-PSS-RN pages 14, 15,32-33
2. AP-29 Enc 14 page 110
Ques_757 For Official Use Only Page 63
Question #36 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 769.1 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I is recovering from a loss of secondary coolant accident. Safety
injection initiated properly. A total loss of feedwater has caused the
operators to implement FR-H. 1, (Loss of Secondary HeatSink). Given the
following plant conditions:
NCS Pressure 2335psig
NCS Temperature 5650F
S/G IA, IB, ICPressure 1180psig
S/G ID Pressure 1OOpsig
S/G ID Level (WR) 35%
VI system pressure 1Opsig
Containment pressure 3.4psig
Which one of the following actions is initially required to assure the
maintenance of adequate core cooling?
A. Depressurize S/G IA, 1B, and IC to allow feeding the S/G using
the condensate system.
B. Reset the CAPT and align it to feed S/G's 1A, 1B and IC.
C. Open 1NC-32B (PZR PORT and INC-34A (PZR PORT) using
nitrogen pressure.
D. Reset safety injection and containment phase "A" isolation
signals to re-establish instrument air pressure to open 1NC-32B
and 1NC-34A.
Distracter Analysis: The FR-H. I values for dry S/G level is < 12% (ACC <
21%). Because containment pressure is 3.4 psig, ACC values are in
effect.
A. Incorrect: Can't feed dry S/G's
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize dry S/G criteria met,
this is one FR-Z. 1 recovery method.
B. Incorrect: Can't feed dry S/G's
Plausible: if the candidate does not recognize dry S/G criteria met,
this is one FR-Z. 1 recovery method.
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: Must reset Sp to reopen VI valves.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that VI is a phase "A" isolated
system.
Ques_769.1 For Official Use Only Page 64
Question #36 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE05 G2.1.32 (3.4/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: FRH Obj: 2
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1.OP-CN-EP-FRH page 6
2. FR-H. I background document step 17, page 18
Ques_769.1 For Official Use Only Page 65
Question #37 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 793.2 Answer. D
1Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with all rods out.
An operator notices that one core exit thermocouple (T/C) for quadrant 11
on the plasma display was 6200 F but suddenly spiked to 6700 F.
- Other nearby T/Cs indicate a steady 6200 F with no change in indicated
temperature.
- The reference junction effective temperature is designed to be controlled
at 1650F for all T/Cs.
The following instrument diagram represents the T/C measuring circuit.
TR.4 Tmot
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the reason for this
thermocouple to read much higher than the other thermocouples?
A. The thermocouple measuring junction has been shorted.
B. The thermocouple measuring junction has an open circuit.
C. The thermocouple reference junction effective temperature has
increased by 50F.
D. The thermocouple reference junction effective temperature has
decreased by S0WF.
Distracter Analysis: The voltage across any thermocouple junction
increases as the temperature of that junction increases. The temperature
measuring instrument measures the difference between the reference junction
emf (at Tref) and the T/C (at Thot). If the effective temperature of the
reference junction decreases, the EMF of the reference junction decreases
and the apparent measured temperature increases.
A. Incorrect: a short across the Thot thermocouple causes the removal
of the difference in EMF; the T/C will read low as the EMF is
shorted.
Plausible: If the candidate thinks that the Tref emf nominal value is
greater than then Thot emf value.
Ques_793.2 For Official Use Only Page 66
Question #37 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
B. Incorrect: an open measuring junction causes a removal of the
measured emf and the temperature indication will indicate the value
of Tref
Plausible: if candidate believes that, like an RTD and open, causes a
high reading
C. Incorrect: the temperature measured is based on the difference on
voltage between the reference junction (at a lower temperature) and
the T/C. If the reference junction is heated above the nominal Tref
value, then the voltage difference will decrease and the temperature
signal will decrease.
Plausible: if the candidate reverses the effects
D. Correct: the temperature measured is based on the difference on
voltage between the reference junction at a lower temperature (Tref)
and the T/C at Thot. If the reference junction is cooled below the
nominal Tref value, then the voltage difference will increase and the
temperature signal will increase.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 017 K6.01 (2.7/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: IG Obj: 2
Source: Mod Catawba NRC 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-CN-SS-IG page 10
2. OP-CN-PS-CCM page 15
Ques_793.2 For Official Use Only Page 67
Question #38 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 796 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
I AD-6 F/R , (PRTHITEMP) in alarm
- I AD-6 F/I I (PRTHI PRESS) in alarm
- Lower containment temperature = 124 0F
The NC system is at normal operating temperature
- Letdown is in service
Which one of the following statements correctly describes a condition that
could cause these alarms?
A. The PRT has heated up due to ambient containment
temperature.
B. I ND-3 or 1ND-38, (ND SUCTION RELIEF VAL VEs) have lifted.
C. 1 NV-15B (LETDN CONTISOL) has spuriously closed.
D. The reactor vessel inner O-ring has leaked.
Distracter Analysis: The symptoms should cause the operators to enter
AP/ 10 for NC system leakage.
A. Incorrect: Containment temperature is less than PRT temperature.
Plausible: Heat up from containment ambient conditions can cause
this to occur if containment temperature is high enough.
B. Incorrect: the ND system is too low in temperature and isolated from
the NC system, to cause this to occur even if the ND suction relief
were to lift.
Plausible: the ND suction relief line goes to the PRT.
C. Correct: if INV-15B closes, the letdown relief valve 1NV-14 will
lift and relieve to the PRT.
D. Incorrect: the reactor vessel inner O-ring leaks to the NCDT.
Plausible: if the candidate thinks that this leaks to the PRT
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 007 G2.4.4 (4.0/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: NC Obj: 3
Source: Bank
Ques-796 For Official Use Only Page 68
Question #38 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-PS-NC pages 12, 21-22, 25-26, 31
2. OP-CN-PS-NV pages 11-13
3. OP/I/B/6100/OOG F/10, F/lI
Ques_796 For Official Use Only Page 69
Question #39 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 828 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit Iwas operating at 7% power when an electrical problem causes the loss
of ITIB. Given the following events and conditions in chronological
sequence:
- Voltage on short buses ITB and LTD drops to 75%
- Frequency on short buses ITB and ITD decreases to 55 hertz.
- The ITB-to- ITD fast bus transfer fails to occur
- All equipment operates as designed.
- No operator action
What is the current status of the unit?
A. The reactor does not trip, B and D NCPs trip.
B. The reactor does not trip, all NCPs trip.
C. The reactor trips, B and D NCPs trip.
D. The reactor trips, all NCPs trip.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: all NCPs are tripped
Plausible: partially correct - power is below P-7, candidate may not
know UF will trip all NCPs.
B. Correct: UF (56 hertz) will trip all NCP breakers, because power is
less than P-7, the reactor will not trip.
C. Incorrect: the reactor does not trip if below P7 - all NCPs are
tripped
Plausible: partially correct - B& D NCPs do trip - candidate may
think UF trips only B and D NCPs and because it is always in effect,
may trip the reactor.
D. Incorrect: the reactor does not trip if below P7
Plausible: candidate may think UF trips all NCPs and because it is
always in effect, may trip the reactor.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 062 K4.03 (2.8/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: NCP Obj: 8 EP Obj: 12
Source: Bank
Ques_828 For Official Use Only Page 70
Question #39 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-PS-NCP page 20,21, 22, 23
2. OP-CN-EL-EP page 29, 30
Ques-828 For Official Use Only Page 71
Question #40 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 829 Answer.A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when the crew detects indications of a
loss of NC inventory. Given the following events and conditions:
- All systems are in automatic
- Indicated letdown flow is 62 gpm
- INV- I3A (LTDN ORIF IA OTLT CONTISOL) is open
- Letdown pressure is 350 psig
- Seal return - 3.5 gpm per NCP
- Indicated charging flow - 90 gpm
- Indicated seal injection flow - 35 gpm
- VCT level is decreasing
- Pressurizer pressure and level are constant
- Containment humidity is increasing
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the location of the
leak?
A. Letdown line, between the letdown orifice and the containment
isolation valve.
B. Charging line between 1NV-309 (Seal Water Injection Flow) and
INV-294 (NVPumps A&B Disch Flow CTRL).
C. Charging line inside containment.
D. One of the RCS loops.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: if the leak is on the letdown line, VCT level will drop,
charging and letdown will be matched and pressurizer level will
remain constant.
B. Incorrect:
Plausible: operator misses that these valves are outside containment.
C. Incorrect: charging leak would be indicated by increased charging.
Plausible: candidate misinterprets indications.
D. Incorrect: Charging flow would have to increase.
Plausible: candidate assumes it's a small leak and misinterprets the
indications.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 004 Al. II (3.0/3.0)
Ques_829 For Official Use Only Page 72
Question #40 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: none
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-CN-PS-NV page 20-25
2. K/A EPE 009 EA2.02 (3.5/3.8)
Ques-829 For Official Use Only Page 73
Question #41 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 834 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit 1 was operating at 100% when a design basis LOCA occurred.
Radiation monitoring teams at the site boundary report that projected Iodine
131 dose is 25 rem.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the cause of this
problem on the VE filter trains?
A. The HEPA filters are saturated
B. The charcoal filters are saturated
C. The prefilter/demisters are saturated
D. The VE filter unit preheaters are energized
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: HEPA filters do not remove radioactive Iodine
Plausible: HEPA filter remove small particulates
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Prefilter/demister do not remove Iodine.
Plausible: If the candidate does not know the prefilter function.
D. Incorrect: Heaters are supposed to be energized.
Plausible: If the candidate does not know the heater function.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 027 K5.01 (3.1/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: CNT-VE Obj: 2, 3
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-CNT-VE pages 5-6
Ques_834 For Official Use Only Page 74
Question #42 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 843.1 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 75% power and Unit 2 is at 100% power. Given the
following events and conditions:
- Switchyard breakers PCB 20 and 21 open.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the effect on units
I and 2?
A. Unit I will remain at 75% power and unit 2 will runback to
approximately 56%.
B. Unit 1 will runback to approximately 30% and unit 2 will remain
at 100%/
C. Unit I will runback to approximately 56% and unit 2 will remain
at 100%.
D. Both units I and 2 will runback to approximately 56%.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Unit 2 is affected, unit I is not.
B. Incorrect: Unit I will not runback
Plausible: answer transposed - if candidate believes unit I affected
and will runback for 3 minutes at 15%/minute.
C. Incorrect: Unit I will not runback
Plausible: previous correct answer on earlier test.
D. Incorrect: Unit I will not runback
Plausible: partially correct - if candidate believes both units
affected.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 062 A4.01 (3.3/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP Obj: 39
Source: Mod Catawba Audit Exam 2000
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-EP pages 11 and 12
Ques_843.1 For Official Use Only Page 75
Question #43 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 857.2 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. Pressurizer level is on program, and
normal charging is in service and letdown flow is through a 75 gpm orifice.
Given the following events and conditions:
- 2NV-314B (CHARGING LINE CONT OUTSIDE ISOL) spuriously closes
due a relay failure
- Flashing in the letdown line reduces letdown flow to 5 gpm
Without operator action, approximately how long before a pressurizer level
deviation alarm actuates?
Assume 135 gallons = 1% pressurizer level
A. A low-level deviation alarm will occur in less than one hour.
B. A low-level deviation alarm will occur in greater than one hour.
C. A high-level deviation alarm will occur in less than one hour.
D. A high-level deviation alarm will occur in greater than one hour.
Distracter Analysis:
Charging flow is reduced to the minimum value - goes to 32 gpm to the NCP
seals. 12 gpm seal flow goes to the VCT.
PZR level starts on program (55%) and must change by 5% to actuate a
deviation alarm. 5% x 135 gallons is 665 gallons.
The reduction in charging flow into the NCS causes charging flow to reduce
to minimum (32 gpm) as the PZR fills up. NCP Seal flow continues (12
gpm). Letdown flow drops to 5 gpm because of high regen HX outlet
temperature (flashing at the orifices). Net charging flow drops to +15 gpm
(32 - 12 - 5)
665 gallons/15 gpm = 44.3 minutes.
A. Incorrect: level will increase not decrease
Plausible: If candidate miscalculates and believes level will decrease
because NC is supplying seal injection.
B. Incorrect: level will increase not decrease
Plausible: If the candidate believes only the 5 gpm letdown is causing
level to decrease.
C. Correct: Alarm should occur in 44 - 45 minutes
D. Incorrect: Alarm should occur in 44 - 45 minutes
Plausible: If the candidate miscalculates or does not know the
deviation is 5%, or neglects the 12 gpm loss due to the seal leakoff.
Ques 857.2 For Official Use Only Page 76
Question #43 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Examr
Level: RO&SRO
KA:APE 022 AA2.04 (2.9/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: NV Obj: 2,3,4
Source: Mod Ques_857.1 McGuire NRC 2002
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-CN-PS-NV pages 12
2. OP-CN-PS-ILE page 19
Ques_857.2 For Official Use Only Page 77
Question #44 Catawba Nuclear Station RO E-xam
Bank Question: 865.2 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is at full power when the following events occur:
- Reactor power is approximately 98%
- NCS TaV is increasing
- Main turbine load is 1150 MWe
- Feedwater flow continues to operate as designed
- The RO is manually inserting rods
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the EOP basis in
FR-S. I (Response to Nuclear Power Generation/A TWS) for immediately
tripping the turbine?
A. Prevent an uncontrolled cooldown and positive reactivity
addition.
B. Maintain or extend steam generator inventory.
C. Prevent turbine overspeed when the main generator trips.
D. Minimize the peak pressure transient for the event.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: The basis in the EOPs is to prevent an uncontrolled
cooldown and causing a positive reactivity addition
B. Incorrect: if the main feedwater pumps continue to operate, the S/G
inventory will not be a problem
Plausible: This is the EOP basis for an ATWS with a loss of
C. Incorrect: The basis in the EOPs is to prevent an uncontrolled
cooldown and causing a positive reactivity addition
Plausible: concern for the operation of the turbine
D. Incorrect: The basis in the EOPs is to prevent an uncontrolled
cooldown and causing a positive reactivity addition. The peak
pressure will actually be greater if the turbine is tripped early in the
Plausible: minimizing the peak pressure is always a good thing for
an accident.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 029 EK1.02 (2.6/2.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: FRS Obj: 5
Source: Mod McGuire NRC 2002
Ques_865.2 For Official Use Only Page 78
Question #44 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-FRS pages 5-7
2. FR-S. I page 2
3. FR-S. I Background Step 2 page 2
Ques_865.2 For Official Use Only Page 79
Question #45 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 870 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power. Given the following trends on the
IA NCP:
Time 0200 0205 0210 0215
Motorbearingtemp(OF) 180 184 186 195
Lower pump bearing temp (OF) 221 225 228 231
- 1 seal outlet temp (F) 205 227 235 251
Motorwindingtemp(OF) 312 314 316 323
What is the earliest time at which the IA NCP must be secured?
A. 0200
B. 0205
C. 0210
D. 0215
Distracter Analysis:
NCP Trip criteria:
Any motor bearing temperature > 1950 F
Seal Outlet temperature > 2350 F
Motor winding temperature > 311 OF
(Any bearing water exit temperature > 225WF)
A. Correct: NCP must be stopped if motor winding temperature reaches
311 degrees at 0200
B. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reaches the temperature for securing NCP on lower
bearing.
C. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reach the limit for securing NCP on seal outlet temp at
0210
D. Incorrect: NCP must be stopped at 0200
Plausible: reach the temperature for stopping NCP on motor bearing
at 0215
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 015 AK2.10 (2.8*/2.8)
Ques_870 For Official Use Only Page 80
Question #45 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Lesson Plan Objective: NCP Obj: 12
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-PS-NCP pages 7, 10, 14, 15
Ques_870 For Official Use Only Page 81
Question #46 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 906.1 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) A station emergency battery is supplying DC bus loads without a battery
charger on line.
If the equipment load on the DC bus does not change, which one of the
following battery discharge curves describes the battery capacity as a
function of the battery discharge rate?
bJW ar C dPJCIC bawd cPJck
I
I
Al - ........19 B-- 1 9Cb.race
I I
C~
OISCh1IQ rJ'. cIschjrge:av
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: As battery voltage drops, discharge current will increase to
maintain power to the same load
B. Incorrect: Battery capacity decreases as discharge rate increases
Plausible: If the candidate does not apply E=IR and P=IE correctly
C. Incorrect: Battery voltage decreases slowly initiatally
Plausible: If the candidate does not apply E=IR and P=IE correctly
D. Incorrect: Battery capacity decreases as discharge rate increases
Plausible: If the candidate does not apply E=IR and P=IE correctly
Level: RO&SRO
KA:SYS 063 Al.01 (2.5/3.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: EPL Obj: 4, 21
Ques_906.1 For Official Use Only Page 82
Question #46 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: Mod Ques_906 McGuire NRC 2002
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-EP-EPL page 7,8
Ques-906.1 For Official Use Only Page 83
Question #47 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 907.1 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I is responding to a S/G tube rupture in E-3 (Steam GeneratorTube
Rupture). Given the following events and conditions:
- The target temperature has been determined.
- P-lI has been reached and the operators have blocked main steam
isolation signal.
- Operators are preparing to open the steam dumps to cooldown to the
target temperature at step 19f of E-3.
What is the applicable limit for the operator opening the steam dumps?
A. The steam dumps should be opened as far as possible to dump
steam at a maximum rate while attempting to avoid a main
steam isolation.
B. Steam dumps should be opened to limit the cooldown rate to less
than 100 degrees/hour to prevent exceeding Tech Spec limits.
C. Steam dumps should be opened to limit the cooldown rate to less
than 25 degrees/hour to prevent pressurized thermal shock
concerns.
D. All steam dumps should be fully opened to depressurize the S/Gs
as quickly as possible.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: E-3 requires depressurizing at the maximum rate while
avoiding a main steam isolation signal at 100 psig/sec (setpoint is rate
dependent) when below P-lI 1. The steam pressure rate is swapped
for low steam pressure main steam isolation when below P-l 1.
B. Incorrect: E-3 requires depressurizing at the maximum rate while
avoiding a main steam isolation signal at 100 psig/sec
Plausible: While TS limits apply, the dumps will be isolated long
before that limit is approached. This is the TS cooldown limit.
C. Incorrect: E-3 requires depressurizing at the maximum rate while
avoiding a main steam isolation signal at 100 psig/sec
Plausible: PTS and limiting cooldown are reasonable concerns for
other events.
D. Incorrect: E-3 requires depressurizing at the maximum rate while
avoiding a main steam isolation signal at 100 psig/sec - The steam
pressure rate is swapped for low steam pressure main steam isolation
when below P-l1.
Ques_907.1 For Official Use Only Page 84
Question #47 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: if the operator does not recognize that blocking P- 1
swaps the main steam isolation signal from low steam pressure to
steam pressure rate of 100 psig/sec.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 038 AI.05 (4.1/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP4 Obj: 19
Source: Mod McGuire NRC 2002
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-EP-EP4 page 8
2. E-3 page 20
3. E-3 Background Document step 19 pages 23-28
Ques_907.1 For Official Use Only Page 85
Question #48 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 911.1 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when a loss of offsite power caused a
reactor trip. The crew has verified natural circulation in ES-0. 1 (Reactor
Trip Response). Ten minutes later, the operator notes that the thermocouple
input to both plasma displays is malfunctioning.
Which one of the following correctly describes a valid indication that natural
circulation is continuing?
A. S/G saturation temperatures are decreasing and REACTOR VESSEL
UR LEVEL indication is greater than 100 %.
B. S/G pressures are decreasing and Tc0,, is at S/G saturation
temperature.
C. S/G pressures are decreasing and REACTOR VESSEL DIPindication
is greater than 100%.
D. S/G pressure is at saturation pressure for TCOId and REACTOR
VESSEL DIP indication is greater than 100 %.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: There is no indication of coupling between primary and
secondary.
Plausible: These are important indications during natural circulation.
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: RVLIS is unavailable during natural circulation.
Plausible: S/G pressure decreases during natural circulation and
RVLIS is one of the other plasma display indications.
D. Incorrect: RVLIS is unavailable during natural circulation.
Plausible: S/G pressure will remain close to saturation for Tcold
during natural circulation and RVLIS is one of the other plasma
display indications.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 056 AK1.01 (3.7/4.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: HT Obj: 15
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_911.1 For Official Use Only Page 86
Question #48 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. ES-O.1 page 12
2. ES-O. 1 Enclosure 2 page 21
Ques_911.1 For Official Use Only Page 87
Question #49 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 957.1 Answer. D
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at full power. Given the following containment
ventilation lineup:
- 3 Lower Containment Ventilation Units (LCVUs)
- 1 Pipe Tunnel Booster Fan (PTBF)
- 3 Control Rod Drive Mechanism (CRDM) Vent Fans
- 1 Incore Instrument Room Air Handling Units (IIRAHUs)
- 3 Upper Containment Ventilation Units (UCVUs)
- Both Containment Auxiliary Charcoal Filter Units (CACFUs) are
shutdown
A loss of offsite power occurs on Unit 1. Both diesel generators start and
energize ETA and ETB. Sequencing is complete. No operator action has
been taken regarding the electric plant.
What is the expected Containment Ventilation lineup?
A. LCVUs, UCVUs and CRDM fans will be running; all other
equipment will be shutdown.
B. LCVUs, UCVUs, CACFUs and CRDM fans will be running; all
other equipment will be shutdown.
C. LCVUs, UCVUs, CACFUs, PTBFs and CRDM fans will be
running; all other equipment will be shutdown.
D. LCVUs, UCVUs, PTBFs, LIRAHUs and CRDM fans will be
running; all other equipment will be shutdown.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Each train starts their respective fans, even those not
running previously, except for the CACFUs.
Plausible: Partially correct - LCVUS, UCVUs and CRDM fans will
start - if candidate believes that just the ventilation fans inside
containment except CACFUs start.
B. Incorrect: Each train starts their respective fans, even those not
running previously, except for the CACFUs.
Plausible: partially correct - true except for the CACFUs do not start
and the PTBF and IIRAHU start. If the candidate believe that ALL
ventilation fans inside containment will start.
C. Incorrect: Each train starts their respective fans, even those not
running previously, except for the CACFUs.
Plausible: partially correct - UCVUs start and CACFUs do not start.
Ques_957.1 For Official Use Only Page 88
Question #49 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
D. Correct: Each train starts their respective fans, even those not
running previously, except for the CACFUs.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 022 A3.01 (4.1/4.3)
Lesson Plan Objective: VV Obj: 12
Source: Bank
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-VV pages 12 and 13
Ques_957.1 For Official Use Only Page 89
Question #50 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 963 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Which one of the following statements correctly describes how a severe axial
flux imbalance that is outside of the normal limits (as defined in the ROD
Book section 3.9 (OAC Manual Input Data)) could affect automatic and
manual rod withdrawal at 100% power?
A. AFD inputs to OTDT cause the OTDT setpoint to increase,
which could actuate a C3 rod stop to prevent automatic rod
withdrawal. Operator would manually insert rods to restore
AFD within the target band and clear the rod stop.
B. AFD inputs to OPDT cause the OPDT setpoint to decrease,
which could actuate a C3 rod stop to prevent automatic or
manual rod withdrawal. Operator would manually insert rods to
restore AFD within the target band and clear the rod stop.
C. AFD inputs to OPDT and OTDT cause both setpoints to
decrease, which could actuate a C3 or C4 rod stop to prevent
automatic or manual rod withdrawal. A turbine runback would
automatically reduce NC temperature below the OPDT or
OTDT setpoints to clear the rod stop.
D. AFD inputs to OPDT and OTDT cause both setpoints to
increase, which would actuate a C3 or C4 rod stop to prevent
automatic rod withdrawal. Manual rod withdrawal would still
operate and a turbine runback would not occur. Operators
would manually insert or withdraw rods to restore AFD within
the target band and clear the rod stop.
Distracter Analysis: AFD being outside the penalty box causes OTDT and
OPDT setpoints to decrease which will cause the C3 and C4 rod
stops to actuate at 100% power
A. Incorrect: An automatic turbine runback will reduce delta-t below
C3 setpoint.
Plausible: answer is partially correct - auto rod withdrawal will be
inhibited
B. Incorrect: OPDT causes a C4 rod stop - not C3. An automatic
turbine runback will reduce delta-t below C4 setpoint.
Plausible: confuses with OTDT - answer is partially correct
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: Manual rod withdrawal is inhibited and an automatic
turbine runback will reduce delta-t below C3 or C4 setpoint.
Plausible: answer is partially correct - moving rods to restore AFD
directly counters the AFD problem.
Level: RO&SRO
Ques_963 For Official Use Only Page 90
Question #50 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: SYS 001 A3.03 (3.6/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: IPX SEQ 9
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-IC-IPX page 14, 15
2. Tech Spec 3.3.1 pages 18-20
Ques_963 For Official Use Only Page 91
Question #51 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 964 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- Train "A" equipment is in service.
- 1ETA is deenergized due to a bus fault and power cannot be restored.
- All plant safety equipment operates automatically as designed.
- No operator action has been taken.
What would be the immediate impact (if any) of the loss of lETA on the
NCPs?
A. All NCPs would continue to be cooled.
B. Only A and D NCPs would lose cooling.
C. Only B and C NCPs would lose cooling.
D. All NCPs would lose cooling.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: all NCPs are affected - the bus fault precludes
reenergizing lETA and prevents restarting "A" train KC pumps from
the D/G.
Plausible: candidate believes the B train KC pumps would auto-
start.
B. Incorrect: all NCPs are affected - the bus fault precludes
reenergizing IETA and prevents restarting "A" train KC pumps from
the D/G.
Plausible: One header supplies A and D NCPs
C. Incorrect: all NCPs are affected - the bus fault precludes
reenergizing IETA and prevents restarting "A" train KC pumps from
the D/G.
Plausible: one header supplies B and C NCPs
D. Correct: all NCPs are affected.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 003 K2.02 (2.5*/2.6*)
Lesson Plan Objective: KC Obj: 4
Source: New
Ques_964 For Official Use Only Page 92
Question #5: Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-PSS-KC page 7
Ques-964 For Official Use Only Page 93
Question #52 Catawba Nuclear Station 0R0 Exam
Bank Question: 965 Answer: B
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% when a large-break LOCA occurred inside
containment at 0200. Given the following events and conditions:
0201 - containment pressure = 1.0 psig
0205 - containment pressure = 3.0 psig
0210 - containment pressure = 0.5 psig
- 0215 - containment pressure = 0. I psig
What should be the status of the Containment Air Return dampers and fans at
time 0210?
A. Dampers open; fans running.
B. Dampers open; the fans never started.
C. Dampers opened but have closed; fans started but have stopped.
D. Dampers opened but have closed; the fans never started.
Distracter Analysis: from the VX lesson plan:
Dampers are automatically opened if the following conditions are met: (Obj.
- 4, 5)
- 10 seconds have elapsed from receipt of Sp signal.
- Greater than or equal to 0.4 psig signal from Containment Pressure
Control System (CPCS).
- Less than or equal to 0.5 psid across the damper.
- Load Group #I from D/G sequencer has permission to start
Air return fans (ARF) automatically start if the following conditions are met:
(Obj. #4,5)
- 9 minutes have elapsed from receipt of Sp (phase B) signal.
- Greater than or equal to 0.4 psig signal from CPCS.
- Load Group #11 from D/G sequencer has permission to start.
A. Incorrect: fans are not running until 0210 - because 9 minutes have
not elapsed since reaching Sp setpoint (3.0 psig).
Plausible: Candidate believes the ARF starts 9 minutes after phase
"A" (St) signal
B. Correct: dampers open 10 seconds after the Sp signal. Fans start
nine minutes later if CPCS present. CPCS is not present until 0215.
C. Incorrect: dampers remain open; fans start nine minutes after the Sp
signal and would shutdown, however, they never started.
Plausible: candidate does not know time delay - fans stop on CPCS
interlock at 0.3 psig.
D. Incorrect: dampers remain open
Ques_965 For Official Use Only Page 94
Question #52 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Plausible: candidate believes the dampers close - partially correct.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 025 A4.02 (2.7*/2.5*)
Lesson Plan Objective: VX Obj: 4, 5
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-CN-CNT-VX pages 7 and 8
Ques_965 For Official Use Only Page 95
Question #53 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 966 Answer: A
1 Pt(s) During a reactor start-up, the following conditions are noted:
- The reactor is at normal operating pressure and temperature.
- Four NCPs are running.
- NCS temperature is being controlled using the steam dumps.
- The reactor power is 5%.
Which of the following describes the change in actual(ncH II plant parameters
if the controlling steam header pressure transmitter fails high?
A. Steam dump demand increases. Steam header pressure
decreases, and NCS temperature decreases.
B. Steam dump demand decreases. Steam header pressure
increases, and NCS temperature increases.
C. Steam dump demand increases, Steam header pressure
increases, and NCS temperature decreases.
D. Steam dump demand decreases. Steam header pressure
decreases, and NCS temperature decreases.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: Steam dump demand increases.
Plausible: Parameter changes are consistent with error in steam
dump change.
C. Incorrect: Steam pressure change is not consistent with increased
demand.
Plausible: reflects indicated rather than actual pressure.
D. Incorrect: Steam dump demand does not go down.
Plausible: psychometrically balanced.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 041K3.02 (3.8/3.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: STM-IDE SEQ 9
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
Ques_966 For Official Use Only Page 96
Question #53 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
1.OP-CN-STM-IDE page 13
Ques-966 For Official Use Only Page 97
Question #54 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 968.3 Answer: C
I Pt(s) A unit I containment purge is in progress using OP/1/A6450/015. Given the
following events and conditions:
IEMF-39(L) (ContainmentGas (Lo Range)) spiked to a trip 2 condition
then cleared
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the action
required?
A. The VP release may not be reinitiated until RP draws a new
containment air activity sample.
B. The VP release may be reinitiated after the spike clears. If IEMF-39
spikes a second time, the release cannot be reinitiated without RP
sampling containment air for activity.
C. The VP release may be reinitiated after the spike clears. If 1EMF-39
spikes a second time, the release may also be reinitiated.
D. The VP release may be reinitiated if grab samples are taken of Unit
vent activity during subsequent reinitiation.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: the OP allows the VP release to be reset twice if due to EMF
spike.
Plausible: This is a conservative answer.
B. Incorrect: the OP allows the VP release to be reset twice if due to EMF
spike.
Plausible: a new sample may be required if the EMF actuates prior to
initiating the release.
C. Correct: the OP allows the VP release to be reset twice if due to EMF
spike.
D. Incorrect: the OP allows the VP release to be reset twice if due to EMF
spike.
Plausible: grab samples are required if EMF-39 is inoperable when the
release occurs.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: G2.3.9 (2.5/3.4)
Lesson Plan Objective: VP Obj: 8, 9
Ques_968.3 For Official Use Only Page 98
Question #54 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP/1/A/6450/015, limits and precautions page 2
2. OP-CN-CNT-VP page 15
'
Ques_968.3 For Official Use Only Page 99
Question #55 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 970 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit I is at 75% power when a plant trip occurs due to P- 14 actuation. Given
the following events and conditions:
- The plant is currently stable.
- The steam dumps have just closed at no-load Tave.
- Steam generator levels are 35% in unaffected steam generators and 80%
in the affected steam generator.
What action must the operator take to reset CF isolation?
A. Cycle the reactor trip breakers only.
B. Cycle the reactor trip breakers and depress the CF isolation reset
pushbuttons.
C. Lower the affected steam generator level and cycle the reactor trip
breakers.
D. Lower the affected steam generator level, cycle the reactor trip
breakers and depress the CF isolation reset pushbuttons.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: must also depress FWI pushbuttons
Plausible: would be true if P-4/Low Tave FWI had not occurred.
B. Correct: to clear the P-14, the trip breakers must be cycled. To clear
the low tave/p-4 FWI, it must be reset.
C. Incorrect: not need to reduce S/G level on Unit I - must reset FWI
Plausible: partially correct - would be true on Unit 2 and Low
Tave/P-4 FWI had not occurred.
D. Incorrect: no need to reduce S/G level
Plausible: would be true on unit 2.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 059 K4.17 (2.5*/2.8*)
Lesson Plan Objective: ISE Obj: 5
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP-CN-ECCS-ISE page 21, 22,23
Ques_970 For Official Use Only Page 100
Question #56 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 971 Answer. A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when a small break LOCA occurred.
Given the following events and conditions:
IEMF-53A/B (Containment TRNA/B (Hi Range)) = 36 R/hr
- Containment pressure = 0.5 psig
The operators enter FR-Z.3 (Response to Containment High Radiation
Level)
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the proper (major
action) response in FR-Z.3 to reduce airborne radiation levels inside
containment?
A. Place containment auxiliary charcoal filter units (CACFUs) in
service.
B. Place containment purge (VP) system in service.
C. Place the containment spray (NS) system in operation.
D. Place the containment air return fans (ARFs) in service.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: This is a major action category for this event in FR-Z.3
B. Incorrect: VP is not used for accident response
Plausible: VP is used to reduce the airborne activity prior to entering
containment for maintenance, inspections and testing - VP is the
"normal" path for reducing airborne contamination
C. Incorrect: Containment spray is only used when there is a high
pressure in containment
Plausible: Containment spray is used to reduce the airborne fission
products during accident conditions
D. Incorrect: ARFs will not operate until CPCS actuates at 0.3 psig.
Plausible: ARFs force containment air through the ice condenser
during accident conditions, which will reduce airborne radiation
levels
Level: RO&SRO
KA: WE 16 EK1.1 (2.7/3.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EP-FRZ Obj: 3
Ques-971 For Official Use Only Page 101
Question #56 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-EP-FRZ page 7
2. OP-CN-CNT-VP page 5
3. Background document FR-Z.3 page 3
Ques 971 For Official Use Only Page 102
Question #57 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 974 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power when a loss of vital power occurs.
Given the following events and conditions:
lAD-
I I I, H/2 "125 VDCESS PWR CHANNEL B TROUBLE" Alarm -
is lit
- The operators dispatch an NLO to investigate the cause of the alarm
- The control room supervisor implements AP-29 (Loss of Vital or Aux
ControlPower).
Which one of the following actions shall be performed immediately?
A. Close the breaker to 1EBB
B. Open the tie breaker to 1EDB
C. Verify ND - ALIGNED IN RHR MODE
D. Verify TURB IMP PRESS CH 1- NORMAL
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: This is not an immediate action for AP-29
Plausible: This is a supplementary action for the annunciator IAD-
11 H/2 and this could clear the condition if the cause of the
annunciator was the breaker to IEBB had tripped open
B. Incorrect: This is not an immediate action for AP-29
Plausible: This action would clear the alarm if the tie breaker had
closed for some reason. This is a supplementary action for the
annunciator response.
C. Incorrect: This is not an immediate action for AP-29
Plausible: This is the first supplementary action in AP-29
D. Correct: This is the only immediate action in AP-29.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 058 G4.49 (4.0/4.0)
Lesson Plan Objective: EPL Obj: 8
Source: New
Ques-974 For Official Use Only Page 103
Question #57 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-EP-EPL page 15
2. AP-29 page 3
4. OP/1/B/6100/LOL IAD-i1 R'2
Ques_974 For Official Use Only Page 104
Question #58 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 977 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power.
Which one of the following conditions requires a reactor trip and turbine
trip?
A. Exhaust hood temperature channel = 226 IF
B. Turbine bearing oil pressure = 13 psig
C. Condenser vacuum = 21.5 inches Hg Vacuum
D. Generator frequency = 65 Hz
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Exhaust hood high temperature trip is blocked / not
required above 60% power
Plausible: This would be correct is below 60% power
B. Incorrect: Turbine bearing oil pressure must be < 12 psig in I of 3
channels to cause / require a reactor/turbine trip
Plausible: If the candidate does not know the setpoint
C. Correct: low vacuum < 21.8 inches of Hg vacuum in 2 of 3 channels
will cause / require a turbine and reactor trip
D. Incorrect: Generator frequency > 66 Hz will cause or require a
Plausible: 65 Hz is an extremely abnormal condition.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 051 A2.02 (3.9/4.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: MT3 Obj: 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-MT-MT3 page 11
Ques_977 For Official Use Only Page 105
Question #59 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 978 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit I is preparing to conduct a vacuum fill of the NC system at the end of a
refueling outage. The NC system is in a mid loop condition.
Which one of the following reactor vessel level instruments will provide the
greatest accuracy for this condition?
A. NC level loop indication
B. Sight glass loop indication
C. Ultrasonic level indication
D. RVLIS lower range indication
Distracter Analysis: During vacuum fill operations, the NC system is
evacuated to a condition of negative pressure. This affects any level
indicator that relies on pressure differences such as the loop level
indications or sight glasses. RVLIS indication will also not flunction
during this process. Ultrasonic sensors are not affected by vacuum
conditions because they do not measure pressure differentials.
A. Incorrect: The ultrasonic level indicators should be used during
vacuum fill to provide the greatest accuracy
Plausible: this is one source of Rx vessel level indication during
reduced inventory operations
B. Incorrect: The ultrasonic level indicators should be used during
vacuum fill to provide the greatest accuracy
Plausible: this is one source of Rx vessel level indication during
reduced inventory operations
C. Correct: The ultrasonic level indicators should be used during
vacuum fill to provide the greatest accuracy
D. Incorrect: The ultrasonic level indicators should be used during
vacuum fill to provide the greatest accuracy
Plausible: this is one source of Rx vessel level indication during
reduced inventory operations
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 002 K6.03 (3.1/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: NC Obj: 9
Source: New
Ques_978 For Official Use Only Page 106
Question #59 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-PC-NC page 28-30
Ques_978 For Official Use Only Page 107
Question #60 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 980 Answer: C
1 Pt(s) Unit I was shutdown in mode 6, in mid loop operations when a loss of ND
cooling occurred. Given the following events and conditions:
- The operators implemented CASE IV of AP- 19 (Loss ofResidual Heat
Removal System) and have reached step 23.
- The ND system has been refilled and properly vented
- Step 23 requires restart of one ND pump to restore cooling.
- A caution warns the operator that restarting an ND pump can cause NC
system level to decrease rapidly.
What is reason for this caution?
A. NC system level will drop due to the contraction of the water
from the cooldown.
B. NC system level will drop due to the suction of water from the
NC system into the ND pump.
C. NC system level will drop due to the collapse of system voids.
D. NC system level will drop due to increased system pressure.
- - - -_-___-----_ _ _ _ _ _ ___-_
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Cooldown is insufficient to cause a level drop at
representative temperatures
Plausible: sufficient cooldown will cause volumetric contraction and
level drop
B. Incorrect: The suction surge is accompanied by discharge back into
the system so the mass balance remains the same.
Plausible: initially the suction will withdraw water from the NC
system
C. Correct: system voids can occur if the loss of ND is severe
D. Incorrect: system pressure will not increase - mid loop operations
require an open vent path to atmosphere
Plausible: if the vent path were not open, pressure could increase and
cause level to drop if there were gas pockets
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 025 G2.1.32 (3.4/3.8)
Lesson Plan Objective: none
Ques_980 For Official Use Only Page 108
Question #60 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.AP- 19 Case IV step 23 page 42
Ques_980 For Official Use Only Page 109
Question #61 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 981 Answer D
I Pt(s) What sub-group of pressurizer heaters can be powered from SLXG?
A. Backup heater Group A
B. Backup heater Group B
C. Control Group C
D. Backup heater Group D
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Backup heater group D is powered from SLXG
Plausible: may feel the A group is logical for control
B. Incorrect: Backup heater group D is powered from SLXG
Plausible: may feel B is logical for control
C. Incorrect: Backup heater group D is powered from SLXG
Plausible: may feel the control group makes sense to be used for
control
D. Correct: Group D can be powered from SLXG for pressurizer
pressure control during plant control from the Safe Shutdown Facility
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 011 K2.02 (3.1/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: IPE Obj: 6
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-PS-IPE page 19,20
2. OP-CN-CP-AD page 12
Ques_981 For Official Use Only Page 110
Question #62 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 982 Answer. C
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is at 100% power following a refueling. Given the following events
and conditions:
- Reviews of surveillances reveals that all 3 channels on the flow
instruments for NC loops IC and ID were not calibrated properly and are
out of specification.
- Repairs cannot be made for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> due to parts availability.
What is the maximum power level allowed by Tech Specs at the time of
repair?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Tech Spec 3.3.1
A. Reduce power to less than 69%
B. Reduce power to less than 48%
C. Reduce power to less than 10%
D. Reduce power to mode 3
Distracter Analysis:
With 3 of 3 NC flow channels OOC in two loops, Tech Spec 3.3.1
Table 3.3.1-1 function 10.a requires action statement L when power
is > P-10 (10%). Action statement L requires placing the channel in
trip within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> (unable to do this due to failure) or reducing
power below PI0 in 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />.
A. Incorrect: Must get below PIO in 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />
Plausible: If candidate cannot locate the proper section of Table
3.3.1-1.
B. Incorrect: Must get below P10 in 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />
Plausible: If candidate reads action for loss of t loop flow
instruments
C. Correct: Tech Spec 3.3.1 Action L applies
D. Incorrect: Must get below P 10 in 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />
Plausible: If the candidate miss-reads note g in Table 3.3.1-1 .
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 012 A2.01 (3.1/3.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: IPX Obj: 12
Source: New
Ques_982 For Official Use Only Page Ill
Question #62 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.Tech Spec 3.3.1, table 3.3.1-1 - PROVIDED
Ques-982 For Official Use Only Page 112
Question #63 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 985 Answer: D
1 Pt(s) Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the operation of
the NS/VX reset during the LOCA and what is the reason for this operation?
A. NS/VX is reset to allow the operator to take manual control of NS
pumps.
B. NS/VX is reset to terminate spray flow after pressure is reduced to
prevent a vacuum in containment.
C. NSNVX is NOT reset to prevent excessive cycling of NS spray pumps
and VX fans.
D. NSIVX is NOT reset to allow NS components to continue to operate
when transferring to recirculation.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: NS/VX is not reset
Plausible: this is a reason for resetting sequencers.
B. Incorrect: NS/VX is not reset
Plausible: this is why CPCS turns off spray when pressure is less
than 0.3
C. Incorrect: Resetting NSNVX does not prevent excessive cycling of
NS pumps and VX fans - these pumps and fans will continue to
cycle and must be manually secured later in the accident.
Plausible: partially correct - NSNVX is reset - but the reason is
incorrect. This is the correct reason for manually securing NS pumps
later in the procedure.
D. Correct: NS/VX Reset is not reset in order for NS components to
continue operating after transferring to the recirculation mode
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 026 A4.05 (3.5/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: NS Obj: 10
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1.OP-CN-CNT-NS page 10
Ques_985 For Official Use Only Page 113
Question #64 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 986 Answer. B
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- The plant operator reports the following annunciator is received on D/G
panel 2A: "LOW VG AIR TANK PRESS"
- VG receivers starting air pressure is 149 psig.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the 2A D/G?
A. The D/G cannot be manually or automatically started until the
VG receiver is repressurized.
B. The D/G can be manually started and is capable of one or two
starts.
C. The D/G can be automatically started and is capable of one or
two starts.
D. The D/G can be automatically started and is capable of five
starts.
Distracter Analysis:
If VG Pressure decreases to less than 150 psig, all automatic start
signals are blocked. This conserves enough air for one or two
manual start attempts after the cause of the start failure is corrected.
A. Incorrect: Can be started manually started
Plausible: psychometric balance
B. Correct: Can be started manually one or two times
C. Incorrect: With starting air receiver pressure < 150 psig, auto starts
are blocked.
Plausible: partially correct - capable of one or two manual starts.
D. Incorrect: Auto starts are blocked below 150 psig - can't make 5
starts at 150 psig.
Plausible: This is the FSAR requirement for the number of starts on
a D/G
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 064 A3.04 (3.1/3.5)
Lesson Plan Objective: DGI Obj: 10
Source: New
Ques 986 For Official Use Only Page 114
Question #64 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-CN-DG-DGI page 11, 12
2. Tech Spec Bases 3.8.3 El
Ques_986 For Official Use Only Page 115
Question #65 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 987 Answer. D
1 Pt(s) Which one of the following statements correctly explains the reason for
E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, step 8 "Verify all Feedwater
Isolation status lights (ISI-5) - LIT."?
A. Prevent unnecessary depletion of condensate inventory due to
excessive CF pump discharge flow.
B. Prevent dead-heading the CA pumps due to excessive CF
pump discharge pressure.
C. Prevent water from entering the steam lines due to
uncontrolled CA flow.
D. Prevent excessive NC system cooldown due to
uncontrolled CF flow.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: This is not the correct EOP basis for this step.
Plausible: excessive CF flow would deplete the condensate
inventory.
B. Incorrect: CA pump discharge pressure is higher than CF pump
discharge pressure - CA pumps would not be deadheaded.
Plausible: If the candidate does not recognize that CA pump
discharge pressure is higher than CF pump discharge pressure.
C. Incorrect: CA flow is not affected by feedwater isolation.
Plausible: Partially correct - the EOP basis for this step is to
prevent S/G overfill (and to prevent excessive NC system
cooldown) due to uncontrolled CF flow.
D. Correct: This is the correct EOP basis for this step
Level: RO&SRO
KA: EPE 007 EK301 (4.0/4.6)
Lesson Plan Objective: EPi Obj: 18
Source: New
Level of Knowledge: Memory
References:
1. Background Document for E-0, page 10
Ques_987 For Official Use Only Page 116
Question #66 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 990 Answer B
I Pt(s) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the analog and
digital portions of the Engineered Safety Features Actuation System?
A. There are 2 analog input channels.
There are 3 to 4 digital output logic trains.
B. There are 3 to 4 analog input channels.
There are 2 digital output logic trains.
C. There are 3 to 4 analog input channels.
There are 4 digital output logic trains.
D. There are 4 analog input channels.
There are 4 digital output logic trains.
Distracter Analysis:
B. The system circuitry consists of an analog portion and a digital
portion.
I. The analog portion consists of three to four redundant channels per
parameter to monitor such variables as the reactor coolant system and
steam system pressures, temperatures, flows, and containment
pressure.
2. The digital portion consists of two redundant logic trains, which
receive inputs from the analog protection channels and perform the
needed logic to actuate the engineered safety features.
A. Incorrect: There are 3 or 4 analogue channels
Plausible: reverse of actual
B. Correct:
C. Incorrect: Only 2 digital logic trains, not 4.
Plausible: partially correct - relates 4 digital channels to the 4 ESF
channels.
D. Incorrect: There are 2 digital logic trains
Plausible: partially correct - believes there is a I to 1 correlation
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 013 K5.01 (2.8/3.2)
Lesson Plan Objective: ISE Obj: 4
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
Ques_990 For Official Use Only Page 117
Question #66 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1.OP-CN-ICCS-ISE page 6
Ques_990 For Official Use Only Page 118
Question #67 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 991 Answer: B
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 50% power. Instrument air pressure is reading 80
psig in the control room.
Which one of the following actions should have just occurred?
A. Quick start of the standby air compressor
B. VI-670 'VI Dryer Auto Bypass' opened
C. CF control valves failed closed
D. VS-78 'VS supply to VI' opened
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: wrong setpoint
Plausible: starts at 94 psig
B. Correct: VI-670 opens
C. Incorrect: wrong setpoint
Plausible: occurs around 50 psig.
D. Incorrect: wrong setpoint
Plausible: occurs at 76 psig.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 078 A4.01 (3.1/3.1)
Lesson Plan Objective: VI SEQ 5, 11
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-SS-VI page 20
Ques_991 For Official Use Only Page 119
Question #68 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 992 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit I was operating at 100% power. Given the following events and
conditions:
- 3 control rod drive mechanism (CRDM) vent fans are running.
- CRDM vent fan ID is out of service.
- Lower containment temperature is 105 F and steady.
- Lower containment ventilation units (LCVUs) IB,1 C and I D are
running in LOW speed and NORM cooling.
- C I A 1081 (Reactor Vessel Head Area Temp) is 110 F
- C IA 1087 (Reactor Vessel Head Area Temp) is 110 F
- C IA1 093 (Digital Rod Pos Ind Cabinet Area Temp) is 97 F.
If one of the running CRDM fans trips on over-current, what is the first
action (if any) that needs to be taken by the crew?
REFERENCES PRO VIDED: OP/I/A/6450/001
A. Start a second PTBF.
B. Place all LCVUs to MAX cooling and shift LCVUs to high speed.
C. Place LCVU ID and lB only in MAX cooling and secure LCVU
IC.
D. Generate a work request to determine CRDM shroud leaving air
temperature.
Distracter Analysis:
See attachment 4.16 of the procedure (Abnormal Operation With
Two Control Rod Drive Ventilation Fans Available). When the
CRDM fan trips, the containment temperature (which has been 105lO
and steady) will increase.
A. Correct: this is correct since air temperature is greater than 100 'F
and DRPI area temperature is above 95F.
B. Incorrect: Not required by procedure - must start a second PTBF
Plausible: this distracter is a subset of distracter C and would provide
more cooling. Directed by NRC during exam review.
C. Incorrect: Containment temperature is not below 100 OF
Plausible: correct if containment temperature is below 100 'F
D. Incorrect: DRPI air temp > 95 'F
Plausible: correct if DRPI air temperature is below 95F
Ques_992 For Official Use Only Page 120
Question #68 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 022 A2.01 (2.5/2.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: none
Source: New
Level of knowledge: comprehension
References:
1. OP/1/A/6450/00 1/ Encl 4.16 pages 1-4
Ques_992 For Official Use Only Page 121
Question #69 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 993 Answer A
1 Pt(s) When does the CPCS shutdown signal actuate and what is the purpose of this
automatic protection?
A. CPCS actuates at 0.3 psig to prevent drawing a negative pressure
in containment.
B. CPCS actuates at 0.3 psig to prevent NS pump runout caused by
decreasing backpressure.
C. CPCS actuates at 0.5 psig to conserve FWST inventory.
D. CPCS actuates at 0.5 psig to reduce RN heat load.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct: Trips at 0.4 psig and resets at 0.3 psig to stop the NS
pumps. The shutdown signal prevents negative pressure from an
inadvertent spray down in containment.
B. Incorrect: Does not prevent NS pump runout
Plausible: lower containment pressure leads to increased S pump
flow.
C. Incorrect: CPCS actuates at 0.3 psig
Plausible: NS draws from the FWST before recirculation but this is
not the purpose of the system
D. Incorrect: CPCS actuates at 0.3 psig
Plausible: RN cools the NS heat exchangers so securing the NS
pumps would reduce the heat load on RN.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 026 G2.1.27 (2.8/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: NS Obj: 2
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. OP-CN-ECCS-NS page 7
Ques 993 For Official Use Only Page 122
Question #70 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 994 Answer: D
I Pt(s) Unit I is operating at 100% power when a main steam line break occurs on
the I B steam generator. Given the following plant events and conditions:
- The operators have entered EP/l/A/5000/E-0 (Reactor Trip or Safety
Injection)
- Maximum containment pressure was 1.5 psig
- IA and 2A RN pumps are RUNNING
- IRN36A (RN PUMP INJ FILT INLT X-OVER) OPEN
- IRN37B (RN PUMP INJ FILT OTLT X-OVER) OPEN
- I RN292B (D/G lB HX INLET ISOL) OPEN
- IRN47A (RN SUPPLY X-OVER ISOL) CLOSED
- 1RN48B (RN SUPPLY X-OVER ISOL) CLOSED
- All other ECCS systems operate properly
Which one of the following actions is required to place the RN system in the
correct configuration for the given conditions?
A. Close 1RN36A and open lRN47A, 1B and 2B RN pumps are not
operating.
B. Close 1RN37B and OPEN 1RN48B, 1B and 2B RN pumps are
not operating.
C. Start 1B and 2B RN pumps, open 1RN47A & 1RN48B and close
1RN232A & 1RN292B.
D. Start 1B and 2B RN pumps, close 1RN36A & 1RN37B and open
1RN47A & 1RN48B.
Distracter Analysis: All 4 RN pumps start on a safety injection signal.
IRN36A & IRN37B close on a safety injection signal. IRN232A &
IRN292B open when the diesel engine starts. IRN47A & IRN48B
close on a Phase B signal.
A. Incorrect: The lB and 2B RN pumps should start on a safety
injection signal
Plausible: 1RN36A closes s on a safety injection signal and
1RN47A closes on a Phase B signal
B. Incorrect: The 1B and 2B RN pumps should start on a safety
injection signal
Plausible: IRN37B closes on a safety injection signal
Ques_994 For Official Use Only Page 123
Question #70 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
C. Incorrect: IRN292B must be open when D/G lB is operating
Plausible: The IB and 2B RN pumps should start on a safety
injection signal
D. Correct answer
Level: RO&SRO
KA: SYS 076 A4.01 (2.9/2.9)
Lesson Plan Objective: RN Obj: 12
Source: New
Level of knowledge: analysis
References:
1. OP-CN-PSS-RN pages 10, 11, 18-20, 33
Ques 994 For Official Use Only Page 124
Question #71 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 995 Answer: C
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. Given the following events and conditions:
Normal letdown alignment exists
Controlling pressurizer pressure channel fails low.
- Operator immediately transfers control to an alternate operable channel.
Assuming no additional operator action, which one of the following statements
correctly describes how letdown flow responds?
A. Letdown will isolate.
B. Letdown flow will indicate approximately 45 gpm.
C. Letdown flow will indicate approximately 75 gpm.
D. Letdown flow will indicate approximately 120 gpm
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Letdown remains in service
Plausible: Operator incorrectly determines that letdown will isolate on
low pressurizer pressure and/or reactor trip will occur when the spray
valves and PORV NC-34A open
B. Incorrect: Normal letdown alignment has 75 gpm orifice in service
Plausible: Operator incorrectly determines that 45 gpm orifice is in
service for normal letdown alignment
C. Correct:
D. Incorrect: Normal letdown alignment has only the 75 gpm orifice in
service
Plausible: Both the 45 gpm and 75 gpm orifice are in service if
pressurizer level is being reduced.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 027 AA2.08 (3.2/3.2)
Level of knowledge: comprehension
Lesson Plan Objective: IPE Obj: 14
Source: New
Ques 995 For Official Use Only Page 125
Question #71 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
References:
1. OP-CN-PS-IPE page 14
2. OP-CN-PS-NV page 12
Ques_995 For Official Use Only Page 126
Question #72 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 997 Answer D
I Pt(s) AP-21 (Loss Of Component Cooling) Foldout Page directs the operators to align
alternate cooling to the IA NV pump. Enclosure 4, Step 7 directs the operators to
reduce motor cooler and oil cooler flow.
Why is YD flow to the IA NV pump motor cooler and oil cooler flow reduced?
A. To preserve the YD storage tank inventory and to minimize chloride
contamination of the KC system.
B. To maintain motor bearing temperature less than 160'F and stator
temperature less than 240WF.
C. To minimize chloride contamination of the KC system only.
D. To reduce drainage to ND/NS sump, which minimizes radwaste.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: YD flow is reduced to minimize radwaste
Plausible: this would minimize tank inventory loss but the tank can be
easily refilled from city water.
B. Incorrect: YD flow is reduced to minimize radwaste
Plausible: 160 0 F and 240'F are valid maximum allowed temperature
limits.
C. Incorrect: YD flow is reduced to minimize radwaste.
Plausible: YD water is purged to the ND/NS sump to minimize Chloride
contamination of the KC system.
D. Correct: Per note prior to step 7, enclosure 4.
Level: RO&SRO
KA: APE 026 AK303 (4.0/4.2)
Level of Knowledge: comprehension
Lesson Plan Objective: KC SEQ 10 & 14
Source: new
References:
1. AP/l/A15500/21 Enclosure 4, page 2, 4
Ques_997 For Official Use Only Page 127
Question #73 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 998 Answer: D
I Pts Unit I was operating at 100% power.
Which one of the following malfunctions could occur and still have KC train
"A" remain operable?
REFERENCES PROVIDED: Tech Spec 3.7.7 and Bases
A. 1A2 KC pump has failed
B. IA KC surge tank has been drained
C. 1A KC heat exchanger is being cleaned
D. 1A ND heat exchanger KC side has a flow blockage
- _ _ _ _----
- - - ----------
Distracter Analysis: Tech Spec 3.7.7 bases states:
A CCW train is considered OPERABLE when:
a. Both pumps and associated surge tank are OPERABLE; and
b. The associated piping, valves, heat exchanger, and instrumentation
and controls required to perform the safety related function are OPERABLE.
The isolation of CCW from other components or systems not required for
safety may render those components or systems inoperable but does not
affect the OPERABILITY of the CCW System
A. Incorrect: Required to have BOTH KC pumps operable - each
pump has 50% capacity
Plausible: the lB KC pump remains operable
B. Incorrect: Required to have the associated surge tank operable
Plausible: The pumps have sufficient NPSHA with the surge tank
empty provided the piping up to the tank is filled (per Tech Spec Bases 3.7.7
C. Incorrect: when cleaning the Hx, the FX is drained
Plausible: KC flow is routed through the IB Hx to maintain KC
system flow while cleaning
D. Correct: Although the IA ND RX would be inoperable, the IA KC
train remains operable.
Level: RO&SRO
K/A: SYS 008 G2.2.25 (2.5/3.7)
Lesson Plan Objective: KC Obj: 13
Source: New
Ques_998 For Official Use Only Page 128
Question #73 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Level of Knowledge: comprehension
References:
1.OP-CN-PSS-KC pages 13, 19
2. Tech Spec 3.7.7 bases
Ques_998 For Official Use Only Page 129
Question #74 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 999 Answer: A
I Pt(s) Unit 2 is operating at 23% power. Given the following events and conditions:
- 1 20VAC panel 2ERPA fails
Which of the following statements is correct?
REFERENCESPROVIDED: AP-29 Encl 14 Only
A. D/G 2A cannot be run in manual and it will run in auto due to an
emergency start signal.
B. D/G 2A cannot be run in manual and it will not run in auto due to an
emergency start signal.
C. D/G 2A can be run in manual and it will not run in auto due to an
emergency start signal.
D. D/G 2A can be run in manual and it will run in auto due to an
emergency start signal.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Correct:
B. Incorrect: D/G 2A will run in auto due to an emergency start signal
Plausible: D/G 2A cannot be run in manual
C. Incorrect: D/G 2A cannot be run in manual and will run in auto due to
an emergency start signal
Plausible: D/G2A cannot be run in manual and will run in auto due to an
emergency start signal
D. Incorrect: D/G 2A cannot be run in manual
Plausible: D/G 2A will run in auto due to an emergency start signal
Level: SRO&RO
KA: APE 057 AA106 (3.5/3.5)
Level of Knowledge: comprehension
Lesson Plan Objective: EPL Obj: 15
Source: new
Ques_999 For Official Use Only Page 130
Question #74 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Resources:
1. AP-29 Page 108-111 -PROVIDED
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Question #75 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
Bank Question: 1024 Answer: C
I Pt(s) IAE technicians are performing IP/0/B/3260/001 (Maintenanceand
TroubleshootingProcedurefor Making changes to 1.47 Bypass System) at
the local panel in the cable spreading room. They need the BOP to verify
plant process information in the control room.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes how these
communications should be conducted from the control room?
A. Communication should be over hand-held radios. Three-way
communication procedures are required.
B. Communication should be over hand-held radios. Three-way
communication procedures are NOT required.
C. Communication should be over plant telephones. Three-way
communication procedures are required.
D. Communication should be over plant telephones. Three-way
communication procedures are NOT required.
Distracter Analysis:
A. Incorrect: Radios should not be used from the cable spreading room.
Plausible: Partially correct - three-way communications are required
when taking action effecting vital equipment.
B. Incorrect: Radios should not be used from the cable spreading room.
Three-way communications are required when taking an action affecting
installed plant equipment.
Plausible: Radios are generally used by maintenance for many routine
communications. Some candidates might think that three-way
communications are not required for routine maintenance actions (as
opposed to plant operations.
C. Correct: Plant phones are used because radios may cause inadvertent
actuation of plant equipment.
D. Incorrect: Three way communication must be used for any action
affecting plant equipment.
Plausible: Partially correct - Some candidates might think that three-way
communications are not required for routine maintenance actions (as
opposed to plant operations.
Level: RO&SRO
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Question #75 Catawba Nuclear Station RO Exam
KA: G2. 1.17 (3.5/3.6) Ability to make accurate, clear and concise verbal
reports. (CFR: 45.12 / 45.13)
Lesson Plan Objective: ADM NS-01 Obj: 14
Source: New
Level of knowledge: memory
References:
1. NSD 509 pages 2, 7
2. OMP 2-22 page 3
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