ML113202870

V. C. Summer Initial Exam 2011-301 Final SRO Written Exam

ML113202870
Person / Time
Site:	Summer
Issue date:	11/15/2011
From:	NRC/RGN-II
To:	South Carolina Electric & Gas Co
References
50-305/11-301, ES-401, ES-401-8
Download: ML113202870 (105)

Text

ES-401 Site-Specific SRO Written Examination Form ES-401-8 Cover Sheet US. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Site-Specific SRO Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Date: 20 October 2011 Facility/Unit: V.C. Summer Region: I II Ill L IV j Reactor Type: W CE BW EGE D Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items if given in conjunction with the RO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require a final grade of 80.00 percent to pass. You have 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> to complete the combined examination, and 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> if you are only taking the SRO portion.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results RO/SRO-OnIy/Total Examination Values I / Points Applicants Scores / / Points Applicants Grade / / Percent ES-401, Page 31 of 33

201 NRC SRO EXAM -

1. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Volume Control Tank (VCT) level transmitter LT-1 15 has failed high.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the response to actual VCT level and1he effects on the design functions associated with the Chemical and Volume Control System?

A. Actual VCT Level will lower and automatic emergency makeup from the RWST is disabled.

B. Actual VCT Level will remain stable and automatic emergency makeup from the RWST is disabled.

C. Actual VCT Level will remain stable and normal automatic makeup capability to the VCT is disabled.

D. Actual VCT Level will lower and normal automatic makeup to the VCT will start at the appropriate setpoint.

1

• 2011- NRC SRQEXAM

2. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Flow in the RCS loop A drops to 75%.

T Which ONE (1) of the following permissive bistables, if in the wrong condition for current plant status, would prevent an automatic reactor trip?

A. P-7 B. P-8 C. P-9 D. P-12 2

2011 FIReSRO EXAM- - -

3. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Pressurizer Level Control Channel Selector switch is in the 459+460 position.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies both of the following:

1) The level channel that will eventually cause a reactor trip with j operator action if it fails high low.

2) Whether LT-459 and LT-460 serve as Reactor Trip protection channels.

A. 1) LT-459

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve as Reactor Trip protection channels.

B. 1)LT-459

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve only as pressurizer level control channels.

C. 1)LT-460

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve as Reactor Trip protection channels.

D. 1)LT-460

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve only as pressurizer level control channels.

3

2011 NRC SRC EXAM

4. Given the following plant conditions:

0800:

A Loop temperature indications:

Tavg - 587.2° F, stable.

AT- 99.9%.

0810:

A Loop temperature indications:

Tavg 624°F.

AT- 0%.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the loop Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD) failure that would cause these indications and whether entry into AOP-403.3, CONTINUOUS CONTROL ROD MOTION to place rods in MANUAL is required?

A. One Loop A Thot failed high; YES.

B. Loop A Tcold failed high; YES.

C. One Loop A Thot failed high; NO.

D. Loop A Tcold failed high; NO.

4

2011 IRCSRQXAM -

5. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• A feed line rupture occurs just downstream of PVT-488, SG B FWF.

• A Reactor Trip occurs.

Which ONE (1) of the following will be received simultaneously with a feedwater isolation signal actuation?

A. XCP 615, 1-2, RCS TAVG LO B. XCP 615, 1-3, RCS TAVG LO-LO C. Permissive Indicator Channel II LP B P-12 D. STM/FW MISMATCH indicator CHAN IV SG B FB-488A 5

2011 N-RC SRQ- EXAM-

6. Given the following plant conditions:

• 8% power.

• Intermediate Range N-36 failed high.

Which ONE (1) of the following indicates the expected indications for Reactor Trip Breakers nd of first out window XCP-626, pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI, ten (10) minutes after the failure?

A. Trip breakers will indicate shut.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI will be dim.

B. Trip breakers will indicate shut.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI will be flashing intermittently at a faster rate than the other alarms.

C. Trip breakers will indicate open.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI will be flashing at the same rate as other alarms.

D. Trip breakers will indicate open.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI will be flashing intermiffently at a faster rate than the other alarms.

6

-. 2011 NRC SRQ EXAM -

7. Given the following plant conditions:

• The reactor tripped 30 minutes ago.

• The crew is monitoring the Critical Safety functions.

Which ONE (1) of the following power supply failures would deenergize the Nuclear Instruments needed to evaluate the status of the SubriticaIitv Safety function per EOP-12.O, MONITORING OF CRITICAL SAFETY FUNCTIONS?

Loss of 120 VOLT Vital AC Distribution Panels:

A. APN 5901 and APN 5902 B. APN 5901 and APN 5903 C. APN 5902 and APN 5903 D. APN 5902 and APN 5904 7

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- 21 1 NRC- S-RO XAM -

8. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• STP 345.037, SOLID STATE PROTECTION SYSTEM ACTUATION LOGIC AND MASTER RELAY TRAIN A, is in progress.

• Reactor trip breaker RTA is in the TEST position.

• Bypass breaker BYA is in the CONNECT position and closed.

• During the testing both trains of SSPS generate valid reactor trip signals.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the smallest set of coincident failures that would prevent an automatic reactor trip in the conditions described?

(RT Reactor Trip Breaker, BY = Bypass Breaker)

A. Inoperable Shunt trip coils on RTA, RTB, and BYA.

B. Inoperable Undervoltage trip coils on RTB and BYA.

C. Inoperable Undervoltage trip coils on both RTA and RTB and an inoperable shunt trip coil on BYA.

D. Inoperable Undervoltage trip coils on both RTB and BYA and an inoperable shunt trip coil on RTB.

8

- 2011 NRCSROEXAM

9. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant is at 100% power, steady state conditions.

• RCS pressure at 2235 psig.

• All systems are in automatic.

• Group 2 backup heaters are in NORMAL AFTER STOP.

If the NROATC raises the pressurizer pressure master controller setpoint (adjusts the potentiometer) by 40 psig, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the pressure control system components after ONE (1) minute?

(Assume a step change in the controller setpoint.)

B/U Heaters (Group 2) Spray Valves A. ON CLOSED B. OFF CLOSED C. OFF OPEN D. ON OPEN 9

201 I NRC SRO EXAM

10. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• The A Diesel Generator is running in the Test mode per STP-125.002A, DIESEL GENERATOR A OPERABILITY TEST.

• EDG output breaker, BUS I DA DG FEED, is open.

• All A train DC power is lost due to grounds on bus I HA.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes:

1) The status of the A EDG following the loss of DC power.

2) The status of the 51 overcurrent protection for bus 1 DA.

A. 1) A EDG will trip.

2) 1 DA is protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

B. 1) A EDG will trip.

2) 1 DA is not protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

C. 1) A EDG will remain running.

2) 1 DA is protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

D. 1) A EDG will remain running.

2) 1 DA is not protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

10

-

2q11 NRCSROXAM- -

11. Following a loss of all offsfte power (115 KV and 230 Ky), which ONE (1) of the following decribes the operation of valves XVB-3107A, RBCU 64A165A RTN TO SW PND, and MVG-3106A, SWBP A DISCH?

A. XVB-3107A must be fully open before MVG-3106A actually starts to open.

B. XVB-3107A must begin opening before MVG-3106A actually starts to open.

C. MVG-3106A must be fully open before XVB-3107A actually starts to open.

D. MVG-3106A must begin opening before XVB-3107A actually starts to open.

11

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

12. Given the following plant conditions:

• A plant trip occurred due to a loss of all off-site power (115 KV and 230 Ky).

• The A EDG failed to start automatically and cannot be started from the Control Room.

• An operator has manually depressed XVM1O996A-DG DIESEL GEN A MAIN AIR START VALVE A in accordance with AOP-304.1, LOSS OF BUS I DA(1 DB) WITH THE DIESEL NOT AVAILABLE

• A EDG has NOT started.

Which ONE (1) of the following would prevent the A D/G from reaching rated speed when the Air Start Valve A is manually depressed?

A. The Fuel Oil Accumulator Tank DRY light is lit.

B. The LOCAL/REMOTE/MAINT switch is in REMOTE.

C. The LOCAL/REMOTE/MAINT switch is in MAINTENANCE.

D. A large rupture occurred on XTKOO9A, DIESEL GENERATOR A AIR RECEIVER TANK A.

12

• - .--

2011. NRRQ EM

13. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• ALL Offsite Power (115 KV and 230 KV) is lost.

• Both DG A and B start and restore power to their respective ESF Bus.

• The crew is performing SOP-306,Section V. A and B. OPERATION OF DIESEL GENERATOR A and B AFTER AN AUTOMATIC START AND LOAD.

• The plant is initiating a natural circulation cooldown in accordance with site procedures.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes which pressurizer heaters operators will use to maintain subcooled conditions in the RCS and the minimum required action(s) to make those heaters available?

A. Only the BU Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS only.

B. Only the BU Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS and AUTO-START BLOCKS.

C. Only the Control Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS only.

D. Only the Control Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS and AUTO-START BLOCKS.

13

.2Q11NRC-SROXAM.

14. Given the following plant conditions:

• The Pressurizer Level Control Channel Selector switch is in the 460+461 position.

• An electrical failure causes the loss of a 120 VAC vital instrument bus.

• With no operator actions, the following affects are observed:

- XCP-616 point 1-1, PZR LVL HI, alarms.

- XCP-616 point 1-3, BLCK HTRS ISOL LTDN PZR LCS LO, alarms.

- XCP-616 point 3-1, PZR HTR CNTRL OR BU GRP 1/2 TRIP, alarms.

- All letdown orifice valves close.

- Letdown isolation LCV-460 closes.

- All pressurizer heaters are tripped off.

- Charging flow slowly reduces to minimum.

Which ONE (1) of the following electrical failures has occurred?

A. APN-5901, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 1, has been deenergized.

B. APN-5902, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 2, has been deenergized.

C. APN-5903, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 3, has been deenergized.

D. APN-5904, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 4, has been deenergized.

14

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ZQ11-NRCSRQEXAM

15. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Large Break LOCA occurs.

• A lockout of EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 occurs upon reactor trip.

• The BOP Operator is monitoring indications for the Emergency Diesel Generators on the Main Control Boards.

Which ONE (1) the following describes, for the B Emergency Diesel Generator,

1) The maximum design time in which the Emergency Diesel generator is required to achieve rated speed during an emergency start.

2) The expected frequency response that will be observed by the BOP operator as the sequencer sequences.

A. 1) 7 seconds.

2) DG B frequency remains stable.

B. 1) 10 seconds.

2) DO B frequency remains stable.

C. 1) 7 seconds.

2) DO B frequency fluctuates.

D. 1) 10 seconds.

2) DO B frequency fluctuates.

15

- 2011 NRC SR EXAM - -

16. Given the following plant conditions:

• All offsite power has been lost (115 KV and 230 Ky).

• Operators are taking action in accordance with EOP-6.0, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER.

Which ONE (1) of the choices indicates the battery voltage that must be maintained as directed by EOP-6.0 and the Main Control Board indication available to monitor battery discharge?

A. 1 08V Amp meter only.

B. 126 V Amp meter only.

C. 108V Voltage meter only.

D. 126 V Voltage meter only.

16

- 2011 NRC SRQ EXAM -

17. Given the following plant conditions:

• 14% power.

• The Generator Breaker and MAIN XFMR FEED OCB 8902 simultaneously open.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the status of the reactorand RCPs after this event?

A. Rx tripped. No RCPs are running.

B. Rx tripped. All RCPs are running.

C. Rx critical. No RCPs are running.

D. Rx critical. All RCPs are running.

17

-

- 2C11- NRC SRO EXAM -

18. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• At time 0000 XCP-633, point 2-1, REGULATOR CORE I ALARM, is received due to a over excitation limit (OEL) alarm on CORE 1.

• At time 0004 the BOP operator goes to LOWER on the GEN FIELD VOLT ADJ Control Switch per the ARP.

• At time 0005 XCP-633, point 2-1, REGULATOR CORE 1 ALARM, reflashes due to a bridge overtemperature trip on CORE 1.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes how the BOP operators action affects the Main Generator load and, based on the bridge overtemperature condition, how the Main Generator Voltage Regulator will respond?

A. Reactive load will decrease; and A bumpless transfer to Core 2 will occur.

B. Reactive load will decrease; and The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN.

C. Real load will decrease; and A bumpless transfer to Core 2 will occur.

D. Real load will decrease; and The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN.

18

ZQ11-NRCSRO-XAM.

19. Given the following pant conditions:

• A large break loss of coolant accident has occu red.

• Annunciator XCP-639 point 6-4, BUS 1 DX LCKOUT 86B, was received two minutes ago.

• No operator action has been taken.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the bus that contains the breaker for the A Reactor Building Spray Pump and where that bus is getting power from in this condition?

A. 480V Bus I DAI from offsite power B. 480V Bus 1 DA1 from the A Emergency Diesel Generator C. 7.2KV Bus I DA from offsite power D. 7.2KV Bus I DA from the A Emergency Diesel Generator 19

.2O1INReSROXAM

20. Given the following plant conditions:

100% power.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the power supplies for the Rod Drive MG sets and the status of the reactor if a lockout occurs on XTF-31?

A. IBI,ICI 100% power and stable B. 1B3, 102 100% power and stable C. IBI,ICI Reactor tripped D. 1B3, 102 Reactor tripped 20

- 21 I NRC- SRQEXAM

21. Given the following plant conditions:

• MODE 6.

• 1DB is deenergized for maintenance in the switchyard.

• The Bus I DA normal incoming breaker tripped open.

• The A Emergency Diesel trips on overspeed and cannot be restarted.

Which ONE (1) of the following relay(s), if actuated, would prevent closing the normal incoming breaker to 1 DA?

1. BUS IDXLCKOUT86B

2. XFMR XTF31 LCKOUT 86T31

3. BUS lEA 0/C 51BX-1EA A. 1 ONLY B. 2 ONLY C. IAND3 D. 2AND3 21

- 2011 NRCR XAM

22. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• All offsite power is lost (115 KV and 230 Ky).

• Both EDGs fail to start.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

EOP-6.0, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER, directs that the service water pumps be in order to A. placed in NORMAL AFTER STOP immediately provide DG cooling when power is restored.

B. placed in NORMAL AFTER STOP prevent immediately overloading the ESF bus when power is restored.

C. left in NORMAL AFTER START immediately provide DG cooling when power is restored.

D. left in NORMAL AFTER START prevent immediately overloading the ESF bus when power is restored.

22

- 2014 NRCSRO EXAM -

23. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Waste Gas Decay Tank release is in progress per SOP-I 19, WASTE GAS PROCESSING.

• The following is the current meteorology data.

- 61m-lOmATis-1.40°F.

- 40m-IOm zT is -0.7 °F.

- Wind direction is from the East-Southeast.

- Wind speed is 3 mph.

Which ONE (I) of the choices below describes if the release can be continued and, if it must be stopped, the reason for doing so?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. The release may continue.

B. The release may not continue because it could be drawn into the Control Building.

C. The release may not continue because it could be drawn into the Auxiliary Building.

D. The release may not continue because wind speed is not high enough for the stability class.

23

- -

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

24. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant was initially at 100% power.

• A reactor trip occured at 0000.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following based on the conditions provided:

1) Of those listed below, what is the first time the RCS cooldown limit is exceeded?

2) A design feature that operates to prevent exceeding that limit?

A. 1) At 0045 Tavg was 500°F.

2) XVG281 1 -MS, MSR EXTR STEAM BLOCK VLV automatically closes.

B. 1) At 0100 Tavg was 450°F.

2) XVG28I 1-MS, MSR EXTR STEAM BLOCK VLV automatically closes.

C. 1) At 0045 Tavg was 500°F.

2) lPV-2231, MS/PEGGING STM TO DEAERATOR automatically closes.

D. 1) At 0100 Tavg was 450°F.

2) IPV-2231, MS/PEGGING STM TO DEAERATOR automatically closes.

24

2011 F4RSROEXAM

25. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Main Steamline Break has occurred on the B SG.

• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occu red.

• The Motor Driven and Turbine Driven Emergency Feedwater pumps have started.

- Flow to the B SG is rapidly increasing.

• FCV-3541 MD EFP TO SG B and FCV-3546 TD EFP TO SG B are fully open.

Which ONE (1) of following completes this statement?

The MD EFW pump will be protected from runout damage by a control signal from closing A. FE 3571 on the combined EFW line both FCVs 3541 and 3546 at 515 gpm B. FE 3571 on the combined EFW line both FCVs 3541 and 3546 at 730 gpm C. FE 3541 on the MD EFW line FCV3541 at5l5gpm D. FE 3541 on the MD EFW line FCV 3541 at 730 gpm 25

• -

- 2011.NRC-SROEXAM -*

26. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• B RB Instrument Air compressor is tagged out.

• A RB Instrument Air compressor just tripped on high discharge pressure.

Assuming no operator action, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the RB Instrument Air System?

A. RB air header pressure decreases until the plant must be manually tripped at 50 psig.

B. RB air header pressure decreases until the A RB Instrument Air compressor restarts at 93 psig.

C. RB air header pressure decreases until IPV-2659, INSTR TO RB AIR HDR VLV opens at 90 psig.

D. RB air header pressure decreases until the XAC-12, SUPP INST AIR COMPRESSOR, starts at 90 psig.

26

- 2011 N[RC SRQ EXAM - - - -

27. Which ONE (1) of the following identifies why CCW to the RB is automatically isolated and which signal causes the isolation?

A. Minimize release paths from the Reactor Building.

Phase A B. Minimize release paths from the Reactor Building.

Phase B C. Prevent steam formation in the CCW system if RCP seals have failed.

Phase A D. Prevent steam formation in the COW system if RCP seals have failed.

Phase B 27

- - -

- 2O1INRCSRQXAM -

28. Given the following plant conditions:

• Mode 5.

• A RB 36 purge is in progress.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The purge exhaust will be isolated if power is lost to by the closing of on the 36 purge exhaust from the reactor building.

A. RM-A4 RB Purge ONLY PVB-2A, CNTMT EXH ISOL B. RM-A4 RB Purge BOTH PVB-2A and PVB-2B, CNTMT EXH ISOL C. RM-A14 RB Purge Exhaust High Range ONLY PVB-2A, CNTMT EXH ISOL D. RM-A14 RB Purge Exhaust High Range BOTH PVB-2A and PVB-2B, CNTMT EXH ISOL 28

- 2G1 I NRC SRO EXAM

29. Given the following plant conditions:

• The contents of Waste Gas Decay Tank NA were transferred to the Shutdown Tank G on 10/5 at 0300.

• A Waste Gas release from Shutdown Tank G was planned for 10/6 at 1500 in accordance with SOP-i 19, WASTE GAS PROCESSING.

• Shutdown Tank G was sampled on 10/5 at 233O

• The Release Permit was approved on 10/6 at 1730.

• Nothing else has been added to Shutdown Tank G.

• Weather conditions have delayed the release.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the latest that the release may be initiated without requiring an additional sample?

A. 0300 on 10/6.

B. 2330oni0/6.

C. lSOOoniO/7.

D. 1730on10/7.

29

2O-I1NRCSR0EXAM

30. Which ONE (1) of the following identifies when the Reactor Building Access airlock would cause a SIMPLEX alarm in the Main Control Room?

A. Either airlock door is open.

B. Either airlock has a vent valve open.

C. Only if both vent valves on an airlock are open at the same time.

D. Only if both airlock doors are open at the same time.

30

211 NRSREXAM

31. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• RBCU TRAIN A EM ERG switch is selected to XFN-64A.

• A Safety Injection occurs.

• The BOP is performing Attachment 3 of EOP-1 .0, SI EQUIPMENT VERIFICATION.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements describes the minimum flow that the attachment will verify in each train of RBCUs and if RBCU-65A will have service water flow through its cooling coils?

A. 2000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will have service water flow.

B. 2000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will not have service water flow.

C. 4000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will have service water flow.

D. 4000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will not have service water flow.

31

- ZOIWRCSRQEXA.M

32. Given the following plant conditions:

SOP-i 18, COMPONENT COOLING WATER, section llI.B, ACTIVE LOOP SWITCHOVER is being performed to make A train the active loop.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

MVB-9503A, CC TO RHR HX A is taken to CLOSED and when flow indicated on Fl-7034, HX A FLOW GPM, is between the non-essentials are swapped.

MVB-9503B, CC TO RHR HX B, is taken to OPEN A. 5000 gpm and 4000 gpm, While non-essentials valves are stroking.

B. 5000gpmand4000gpm, I

/nm After non-essentials valves have stroked. -

f A

C. 2880 gpm and 1920 gpm, While non-essentials valves are stroking.

D. 288ogpmandl92Ogpm, 4..

After non-essentials valves have stroked.

A 32

- 2011 NRC SRQEXAM

33. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• The controlling PZR level transmitter fails as is.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the effect when the plant load is reduced to 20% and stabilized?

Assume no Operator Action A. Charging flow increases and actual PZR level increases. A reactor trip occurs.

B. Charging flow decreases and actual PZR level decreases. Letdown will isolate and the PZR heaters will cut off.

C. Charging flow increases and actual PZR level increases. The backup heaters will energize.

D. Charging flow remains constant and actual PZR level decreases. Letdown will isolate and the PZR heaters will cut off.

33

2011 1\LRC SRO EXAM

34. Given the following plant conditions:

• The reactor has been at 100% power for 30 days.

• Annunciator XCP-642, point 4-3, RC LTDN LO RNG RM-L1 HI RAD, is in alarm.

• Chemistry reports an increase in Iodine activity.

Which ONE (1) of the following actions is required with regard to letdown flow?

Increase flowthough the to A. Cation bed demineralizer 120 gpm B. Cation bed demineralizer 165 gpm C. Mixed bed demineralizers 120 gpm D. Mixed bed demineralizers 165 gpm 34

- 2011 NR S-RQ EXAM

35. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Loss of Coolant Accident and Safety Injection have occu red.

• The crew is implementing EOP-1 .0 REACTOR TRIP/SAFETY INJECTION ACTUATION.

• Step 24 directs the crew to check PRT conditions are normal.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the basis for this check?

A. To verify Makeup Water to the PRT is isolated.

B. Diagnose a failed RCP No.2 seal.

C. Diagnose a leaking PZR PORV.

D. To determine if the PRT rupture disks have failed.

35

2011 NRC SRO EXAM - - - - - -

36. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred.

• RCS pressure is 345 psig and dropping slowly.

• NO action has been taken by the crew.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements desribes the current status of the Safety Injection System?

SI Accumulator Level RHR Injection Flow A. Stable and on-scale Zero B. Dropping or off-scale low Zero C. Dropping or off-scale low Rising D. Stable and on-scale Rising 36

- 2011 NRCSREXA

37. Which ONE (I) of the following incidents has the potential for the greatest release of radioactivity within twenty four hours after occurrence?

A. A spent fuel assembly is dropped in the Spent Fuel Pool during core off-load for refueling.

B. Just prior to the beginning of core off-load, a complete loss of Spent Fuel Pool Cooling occurs.

C. Just after core re-load, with the reactor vessel head off and the cavity full, electrical problems cause a loss of RHR.

D. With the core off-loaded, a misalignment causes Spent Fuel Pool to start to transfer to the Refueling Water Storage Tank.

37

2O1 F\1RC.SROXAM

38. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• PCV-444D, PZR SPRAY, sticks open.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes:

1) The Reactor Protection System Trip that protects against Departure from Nucleate Boiling?

2) How the above failure will affect the associated setpoint within the first TEN (10) seconds after the failure?

Assume no Operator Action A. 1) Overpower Delta T (OPAT),

2) Setpoint will increase.

B. 1) Overpower Delta T (OPAT),

2) Setpoint will decrease.

C. 1) Overtemperature Delta T (OTz\T),

2) Setpoint will increase.

D. 1) Overtemperature Delta T (OTAT),

2) Setpoint will decrease.

38

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- 2Q11 NRC SR EXAM

39. Given the following plant conditions:

• Pressurizer pressure is 1385 psig.

• Pressurizer relief tank (PRT) pressure is 5 psig.

Assume:

• Ambient heat losses are negligible.

• Steam quality in the pressurizer bubble is 100%.

If the Pressurizer Code Safety is leaking, which ONE (1) of the following is the approximate temperature as read on Tl-465 SAFETY TEMP °F?

A 220°F B 228°F C 267°F D. 285°F 39

2011 NRC SROEXAM

40. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant is in Mode 4.

• RHR Train A is in service.

• The Instrument Air supply line to HCV-603A, RHR HEAT EXCHANGER A OUTLET VALVE falls off (is completely detached).

Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies the following:

1) The failure position of HCV-603A

2) The temperature trend of RHR injection flow (temp recorder RHR LOOP A TEMP TR-604A (T-606A)) ten minutes after the failure?

A. 1) OPEN

2) Temperature rises.

B. 1) OPEN

2) Temperature drops.

C. 1) CLOSED

2) Temperature rises.

D. 1) CLOSED

2) Temperature drops.

40

2011 F1RC SRO EXAM -

41. Given the following plant conditions:

• 13% power.

• Tavg is 562°F.

• Steam dumps are controlling in automatic in the STEAM PRESSURE mode.

• The Main Generator is ready to be paralleled to the grid.

• The synchroscope is rotating fast in the FAST direction.

Which ONE (1) of the following actions would potentially cause an initial swell in S/G water level?

A. Shifting the STM DUMP MODE SELECT to TAVG MODE.

B. Inserting control rods 5 steps in MANUAL.

C. Lowering the setpoint on the STM DUMP CNTRL potentiometer (clock).

D. Adjusting turbine controls to reduce the speed of rotation of the synchroscope.

41

2c1NRCSROEXAM - - -

42. Given the following plant conditions:

• A main steam line break has occurred upstream of the main turbine stop valves.

• An AUTO SI has initiated.

• The crew is performing EOP-1 .0, REACTOR TRIP/SAFETY INJECTION ACTUATION.

• All narrow range steam generator levels indicate zero.

• RCS temperature is 485° F and lowering.

• None of the MSIVs can be closed.

• All Emergency Feedwater (EFW) Pumps are running.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the required action with respect to EFW flow?

A. Maintain a minimum of 450 GPM of total EFW flow.

B. Lower EFW flow to a minimum of 50 GPM to each steam generator.

C. Isolate EFW flow to each steam generator.

D. Maximize EFW flow to one SG and isolate EFW flow to the other two.

42

2OI1 NRC SRO EXAM

43. Given the following plant conditions:

• 25% power.

• The A RCP was removed from service.

Which ONE (1) of the following choices identifies the change in B and C steam generator steam flows and pressures 10 minutes after stopping the A RCP as compared to the values before the pump was stopped?

Assume no Operator Action B and C Steam Flows B and C Steam Generator Pressures A. Higher Same as before B. Higher Lower C. Same as before Same as before D. Same as before Higher 43

--2011 NRCSRQ EXAM

44. Given the following plant conditions:

• Plant is in an outage in Mode 6.

• A system restoration valve lineup is required in a room that is posted Locked High Radiation Area.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies the following:

1) The radiation level at which this posting is required.

2) A requirement for the operator to conduct the lineup.

A. 100 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by an HP representative with a radiation monitor.

B. 100 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by another operator who performs the radiation protection function with a radiation monitor.

C. 1000 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by an HP representative with a radiation monitor.

D. 1000 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by another operator who performs the radiation protection function with a radiation monitor.

44

- -

201-1 NRCSRO EXAM

45. Given the following plant conditions:

• All offsite power has been lost (115 KV and 230 KV).

• The A EDG is supplying the I DA bus.

• A recovery of the normal offsite power source is in progress.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes actions that must be completed to parallel the offsite source to the I DA bus in accordance with SOP-306, EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR?

The DG A SYNC SEL Switch is placed in and use the SPEED Switch to cause the SYNCH ROSCOPE to rotate_______________________

A. NORM, slowly in the fast direction.

B. NORM, slowly in the slow direction.

C. DSL, slowly in the fast direction.

D. DSL, slowly in the slow direction.

45

• 2011 NRC SRO EXAM -

46. Given the following plant conditions:

The NROATC and the CRS are the only operators present in the Control Room.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below correctly completes the following statement regarding a requirement of SAP-200, CONDUCT OF OPERATIONS?

The NROATC may enter the Area of Secondary Attention in:

A. MODE 6 ONLY to acknowledge alarms OR to record routine data.

B. MODE 6 ONLY to acknowledge alarms but may NOT do so to record routine data.

C. MODE 5 OR 6 to acknowledge alarms OR to record routine data.

D. MODE 5 6 to acknowledge alarms but may NOT do so to record routine data.

46

-

- 2011- N-R-C SRO EXAM- -

47. Which ONE (1) of the following is the minimum required tagging to ensure a motor operated valve (MOV) used as a boundary for system work is correctly isolated for personnel safety per OAP-1 00.5, GUIDELINES FOR CONFIGURATION CONTROL AND OPERATION OF PLANT EQUIPMENT?

A. A red Danger Tag on the valve breaker and a red Hold Tag on the remote operating switch.

B. A red Danger Tag on the valve breaker and a red Danger Tag on the local valve position handwheel.

C. A red Danger Tag on the local valve position handwheel only.

D. A red Danger Tag on the valve breaker only.

47

- 2011 NRC SRO EXAM

48. Given the following plant conditions:

• A fire requires the evacuation of the control room.

• The CRS has directed the BOP and RO to perform the actions of FEP-4.0, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION DUE TO FIRE.

Which ONE (1) of the following correctly identifies an/the immediate action(s) performed by the BOP in accordance with Enclosure C, DUTIES OF THE BALANCE OF PLANT OPERATOR arid how the RO will operate Reactor Coolant Pumps in accordance with, Enclosure B, DUTIES OF THE REACTOR OPERATOR?

A. Trip the reactor; Trips all but one Reactor Coolant Pump.

B. Operate disconnect switches to include those for PCV-445A, B, and PCV-444B, PWR RELIEFs; Trips all but one Reactor Coolant Pump.

C. Trip the reactor; Trips all Reactor Coolant Pumps.

D. Operate disconnect switches to include those for PCV-445A, B, and PCV-444B, PWR RELIEFs; Trips all Reactor Coolant Pumps.

48

• 2041 NRC SRO EXAM-

49. Given the following plant conditions:

• The reactor has been tripped.

• The control room has been evacuated due to a fire in the Main Control Board.

• The Control Room Evacuation Panel (CREP) has been manned.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies how the crew will operate PZR Backup Heaters in accordance with FEP-4.0, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION DUE TO FIRE?

A. Group I Pressurizer backup heaters are cycled locally at XSW I DA to control RCS pressure.

B. Group 2 Pressurizer backup heaters are cycled locally at XSW I DB to control RCS pressure.

C. Group 1 Pressurizer backup heaters are energized locally at XSW 1 DA to equalize Pressurizer and RCS boron concentrations.

D. Group 2 Pressurizer backup heaters are energized locally at XSW I DB to equalize Pressurizer and RCS boron concentrations.

49

-

- 2011 NRC-SRO EXAM - V -

50. Given the following plant conditions:

• A fire has occurred in Cable Spreading Rooms Zone CB-1 5.

• A failure of the preaction sprinkler system has resulted in extensive damage.

• Several pieces of equipment have operated inadvertently due to hot shorts.

• The crew entered FEP-4.0, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION DUE TO FIRE.

• 45 minutes have elapsed since the crew evacuated the control room.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The Emergency Feedwater pump will be feeding SGs, and ESF electrical equipment will be powered from A. Turbine Driven the EDG B. Turbine Driven offsite power C. A motor driven the EDG D. A motor driven offsite power 50

2011 NRCSRO-EXAM

51. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• A main steam line break occurs.

• XCP-612 pt4-2, PHASE B ISOL, alarms.

• All Phase B automatic actions have occurred.

Based on the current conditions, which ONE (1) of the following states how RCPs should be operated in accordance with ARP-001-XCP-612 pt 4-2, PHASE B ISOL and what is the status of RCP seal injection?

A. Ensure the Reactor is tripped, then stop all RCPs.

Seal injection still exists.

B. Ensure the Reactor is tripped, then stop all RCPs.

All seal injection has been lost.

C. RCP operation may continue as long as parameters remain within limits as displayed on IPCS screen ZZRCPBRG.

Seal injection still exists.

D. RCP operation may continue as long as parameters remain within limits as displayed on IPCS screen ZZRCPBRG.

All seal injection has been lost.

51

- 2Qi1NRCSRO-XW

52. Given the following plant conditions:

• Plant was at 100% power.

• The crew is responding to a Faulted Steam Generator (S/G).

• The S/G has blown dry.

• The crew has transitioned to EOP-1 .2, SI TERMINATION.

• RCS pressure is increasing.

• RWST level is decreasing.

• A Charging Pump is running.

• The crew has just secured B Charging Pump.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the actions that will be taken next per EOP-1 .2, SI TERMINATION, and why a reduction in SI flow should be done expeditiously?

A. Normal charging should be established.

To preserve RWST inventory.

B. Normal charging should be established.

To prevent the pressurizer from going solid.

C. Stop low head safety injection pumps.

To preserve RWST inventory.

D. Stop low head safety injection pumps.

To prevent the pressurizer from going solid.

52

2011 NRC SRO EXAM -

53. Given the following plant conditions:

• Steam Generator Tube Rupture occurred.

• Reactor Trip and Safety Injection occurred.

• All offsite power (115KV and 230KV) was lost after reactor trip.

• Both diesels have started and loaded.

• The operators are at the step to depressurize the RCS to reduce break flow in EOP-4.2, SGTR WITH LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT: SUBCOOLED RECOVERY DESIRED.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the flrt method of depressurization that will be attempted and an effect that the loss of power will have on the RCS system response during the depressurization?

A. Auxiliary Spray.

Steam Generator Tubes may void causing an interruption in natural circulation.

B. Auxiliary Spray.

Reactor Vessel Head Upper Plenum may void causing a rapid rise in Pressurizer level.

C. Pressurizer PORV.

Steam Generator Tubes may void causing an interruption in natural circulation.

D. Pressurizer PORV.

Reactor Vessel Head Upper Plenum may void causing a rapid rise in Pressurizer level.

53

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

54. Given the following plant conditions:

• Originally at 100% power.

• B lowdown is aligned to the condenser.

• Annunciator MN STM LINE RM-G1 9 HI RAD (XCP-646, 2-1) has actuated.

• An automatic Reactor Trip and Safety Injection occurred.

• The following response is seen on RM-GI9A:

Before trip After 10 minutes Reading : 39.7 mREM/hr 0.1 mREM/hr Which ONE (1) of the following describes the reason for the RM-G1 9A response another radiation monitor that will be used to diagnose a transition to EOP-4.0, STEAM GENERATOR TUBE RUPTURE?

A. Primary to secondary leak flow has decreased RM-L3, Steam Generator Blowdown Liquid Monitor B. N-16 gamma radiation detected has decreased RM-L3, Steam Generator Blowdown Liquid Monitor C. Primary to secondary leak flow has decreased RM-A9, Cndsr Exhaust Gas Atmos Monitor D. N-16 gamma radiation detected has decreased RM-A9, Cndsr Exhaust Gas Atmos Monitor 54

2O111RcSRO EXAM

55. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Loss of Coolant Accident outside containment has occurred.

• The crew is performing the actions in EOP-2.5, LOCA OUTSIDE CONTAINMENT.

Which ONE (1) of the following indications is used to determine if the leak has been isolated in accordance with EOP-2.5?

A. RCS pressure B. Pressurizer level C. RCS Subcooling D. RVLIS indication 55

2O11NRSRQEXAM -

56. Given the following plant conditions:

• A small break loss of coolant accident has occurred.

• All Reactor Coolant Pumps have been stopped.

• All SIG narrow range levels are approximately 50% and stable.

• Operators are responding using EOP-2.1, POST-LOCA COO LDOWN AND D E PR E SSU R IZATI ON.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

While natural circulation is occurring will be at saturation temperature for the associated steam generator pressure.

After RCS level decreases to the point that steam voiding has just begun to occur in the RCS hot leg, the steam generators will A. Thot stop removing heat due interruption of natural circulation B. TcQId stop removing heat due interruption of natural circulation C. Thot continue removing heat by reflux boiling D. TcoId continue removing heat by reflux boiling 56

-

- ZI1 NRC SRQ EXAM

57. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• A Pressurizer safety failed open.

• The crew has just entered EOP-2.1, POST-LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESS U R IZATI ON.

• RWST level is 80% and decreasing.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the operator action that was taken with respect to the RHR pumps in accordance with EOP.2.0, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLANT, and the reason for that action?

A. Both RHR pumps were kept running to provide injection flow.

B. ONE (1) RHR pump was stopped to align to charging pump suction.

C. ONE (1) RHR pump was stopped to conserve RWST inventory.

D. Both RHR pumps were stopped to prevent damage from miniflow operation.

57

-

- 2011 NRCSROXAM - -

58. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant was operating at 100% power.

• A large break loss of coolant accident occurred.

• Operators are in the process of establishing Cold Leg Recirculation in accordance with EOP-2.2, TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRCULATION.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the system(s) that must have their suctions manually transferred from the RWST in accordance with EOP-2.2 AND what signal(s) must be reset in order to make the transfer(s)?

A. Charging ONLY Safety Injection ONLY B. Charging AND Spray Safety Injection ONLY C. Charging ONLY Safety Injection AND Phase A D. Charging AND Spray Safety Injection AND Phase A 58

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

59. Given the following plant conditions:

• An uncontrolled rapid depressurization of all steam generators is occurring.

• Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occurred.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the time in core life that would more likely result in a return to criticality after the trip and lowest Intermediate Range SUR indication given below that will result in a ORANGE path on the Subcriticality Critical Safety function, in accordance with EOP-12.0, MONITORING OF CRITICAL SAFETY FUNCTIONS?

A. End of Life

+0.1 DPM and stable B. End of Life

+0.2 DPM and stable C. Beginning of Life

+0.1 DPM and stable D. Beginning of Life

+0.2 DPM and stable 59

- 2011 NRCSROEXAM

60. Given the following:

• A reactor trip has occurred.

• The crew has entered EOP-1 5.1, RESPONSE TO STEAM GENERATOR OVERPRESSURE.

The following conditions exist: -

o SG A pressure indicates 1250 psig.

• SG B and C pressures indicate 1110 psig.

• SG A NR level is 65%.

• Instrument air header pressure is at 40 psig and lowering.

Which ONE (1) of the following actions is required to mitigate the SG overpressure condition in accordance with EOP-15.1?

A. Place A SG Power Relief controller in PWR RELIEF mode and adjust the controller setpoint to reduce affected SG pressure.

B. Place Steam Dump Controller in MANUAL in the STEAM PRESSURE mode, adjust the controller to reduce affected SG pressure.

C. Locally operate steam dump valves in each condenser to reduce affected SG pressure.

D. Locally operate the A SG PORV to reduce SG pressure.

60

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

61. Which ONE (1) of the following is thejt MajorAction Category in EOP-17.1, REACTOR BUILDING FLOODING, and reason for this in accordance with the background document?

A. Identify and isolate unexpected sources of water in the RB to mitigate flooding that could damage plant equipment.

B. Evaluate ECCS system status to determine strategy to transition to cold and hot leg injection.

C. Notify TSC personnel of sump level, chemistry, and activity level to determine a strategy to transfer excess water out of containment.

D. Have chemistry evaluate sump chemistry, and activity level to determine changes in the planned transition to cold and hot leg injection.

61

2cLI1 NR RQ EXAM

62. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• The A charging pump is in service.

• The following alarms are received on the Main Control Board:

- REGEN HX LTDN OUT TEMP HI

- RCP A (B) (C) #1 SL INJ FLO LO

- CHG LINE FLO HI/LO

• No other alarms are in at this time.

Which ONE (1) of the following malfunctions on the A charging pump could be the cause of the abnormal conditions and what will AOP-1 02.2, LOSS OF CHARGING, require first after ensuring the A charging pump is secured?

A. A sheared shaft Start another charging pump.

B. Asheared shaft Close all letdown isolation valves.

C. A ground on motor causes the 50G relay to actuate Start another charging pump.

D. A ground on motor causes the 50G relay to actuate Close all letdown isolation valves.

62

2011-NRC SRQXAM

63. Given the following plant conditions:

At 0000:

• The reactor was in Mode 4 on A Train RHR cooling.

• A loss of RHR cooling occurred due to an operator inadvertantly closing MVG-8701A, RCS LP A TO PUMP A.

• The crew has entered AOP-1 15.3, LOSS OF RHR WITH THE RCS INTACT.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the latest time listed below that MVG-8701A can be reopened from the Main Control Board?

Time Temperature Pressure A. 0100 300°F; 375 psig B. 0130 325°F; 400 psig C. 0200 345°F; 420 psig D. 0230 345°F; 435 psig 63

• 2f11 I FIRC SR& EXAM -

64. Given the following plant conditions:

• The RCS is at 225°F shutting down for a refueling.

• ONE (1)train of RHR is in service.

• An earthquake has caused the loss of Lake Monticello and Service Water Pond levels.

• All Service Water Pumps have been stopped.

• The crew is performing AOPs 117.1, LOSS OF SERVICE WATER, and 118.1, TOTAL LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING WATER.

• RCS temperatures are stable.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the initial overall strategy for RCS temperature control in accordance with AOP-1 17.1?

A. Establish cold leg injection.

B. Establish MDEFW flow to one steam generator and dump steam using that S/Gs PORV.

C. Operate both Component Cooling Water and Residual Heat Removal loops.

D. Alternate operation of Component Cooling Water and Residual Heat Removal loops.

64

2011NRC.SRGEXM

65. Given the following plant conditions:

• Initially 100% power.

• A break occurred in the Instrument Air System.

• The crew entered AOP-220i, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR, due to lowering Instrument Air Pressure.

• Operators manually tripped the reactor.

• Instrument Air pressure was lost for 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

• The cause of the loss of Instrument air has been corrected.

• Operators have begun restoration of systems to normal.

Which ONE (1) of the following contains both:

1) A component that must be realigned in the field to allow operation from the main control board.

2) A valve that must be ungagged.

A. 1) Excess Letdown Flow Control Valve (HCV-137, XS LTDN HX)

2) PVG-3105A FS TO DG A B. 1) Excess Letdown Flow Control Valve (HCV-137, XS LTDN HX)

2) XVG09627A SW SYS OUTLET HDR CC LOOP A XCONN VALVE C. 1) Motor Driven Emergency Feed Pump Flow Control Valve FCV-3531

2) PVG-3105AFSTO DGA D. 1) Motor Driven Emergency Feed Pump Flow Control Valve FCV-3531

2) XVG09627A SW SYS OUTLET HDR CC LOOP A XCONN VALVE 65

2011 NRCSRQ EXAM

66. Given the following plant conditions:

• XAC-3A, INSTR AIR CMPR A, is running.

• A forklift has struck a tool manifold, causing a loss of Service Air pressure.

• Operators are monitoring Instrument Air header pressure in the Control Room.

Instrument air header pressure will be maintained by XAC-3B, INSTR AIR CMPR B, starting at and by IPV-8324, STATION AIR SUPPLY HDR PRESS CONT VALVE fully closing at XAC-3B start IPV-8324 fully closes A. 105 psig 60 psig B. 90 psig 80 psig C. 105 psig 80 psig D. 90 psig 60 psig 66

- 201 tNRC SRO EXW

67. Initial Plant conditions:

• Power ascension is in progress per GOP-4A, POWER OPERATION (MODE 1 -ASCENDING).

• Reactor Power is 55%.

• Turbine load !s constant.

• A and B feedwater pumps are running.

• A, B, and C feedwater booster pumps are running.

Current Plant conditions:

• All SG levels have just begun to decrease at the same rate.

• Operators have verified no feedwater pumps are tripped.

• A, B, and C feedwater booster pumps are running.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the next operator action required by AOP-21 0.3, FEEDWATER PUMP MALFUNCTION?

A. Start the idle feedwater booster pump.

B. Start the idle feedwater pump.

C. Select the operable feedwater flow channels for the affected SGs.

D. Manually control feedwater pump speed.

67

-

2011 FLRC SRO EXAM

68. Given the following plant conditions:

• A grid disturbance has been reported by the System Controller.

• 230 KV system voltage is 230.9 KV and rising.

• Main Generator Frequency is 60.5 Hertz and rising.

• The crew is implementing AOP-301.1, RESPONSE TO ELECTRICAL GRID ISSUES.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the immediate concern associated with this given rising system frequency as identified in AOP-301.1?

A. turbine overspeed B. system over-voltage C. generator volts/hertz D. positive reactivity addition 68

2Q11 NRC SRQ EXAM

69. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Steam Generator tube leak has occu red.

• Secondary water was rejected to the CST.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the limit for activity contained in the tank in accordance with Technical Specification 3.11 .1 Liquid Effluents! Liquid Holdup Tanks that would be released if a CST rupture occurred?

A. I microcuries per gram DOSE EQUIVALENT 1-131 B. 10 microcuries per gram DOSE EQUIVALENT 1-131 C. 10 Curies excluding tritium and dissolved or entrained noble gases D. 100 Curies excluding tritium and dissolved or entrained noble gases 69

2ü1 .1 NRC SRQ EXAM

70. Given the following plant conditions:

• RCS temperature is 250° F.

• Maintenance is required on XBC I B, DC DISTRI Bus 1 B BATTERY CHARGER, that will require taking the charger out of service for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

• XBC IA-i B, BACKUP BATTERY CHRG, is not available.

• XBC IA, DC DISTRI BUS IA BATTERY CHARGER, is available.

Which ONE (1) of the following choices below answers the following:

1) The highest MODE that this maintenance can be performed in without entering a Technical Specification action statement?

2) The action required by Technical Specifications if the maintenance must be done in the current MODE?

A. 1) MODE 4

2) Declare I B battery inoperable immediately B. I) MODES

2) Declare I B battery inoperable immediately C. 1) MODE 4

2) Demonstrate operability of I B battery within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> D. 1) MODE 5

2) Demonstrate operability of I B battery within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> 70

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

71. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant is in MODE 4.

• A steam bubble exists in the Pressurizer.

• A RHR train is in service.

• B RHR train is operable.

• RCS Wide Range pressure is 310 psig.

• FCV-122, CHG FLOW, is in MANUAL.

• Dilution in progress.

• All RCPs are stopped.

Which ONE(1) of the following describes an expected parameter trend if the running RHR pump trips and the required action as stated in Technical Specifications?

Assume no Operator Action A. Pressurizer level rises.

Immediately stop the dilution.

B. Pressurizer level rises.

Stop the dilution within one (1) hour.

C. RCS pressure lowers.

Immediately stop the dilution.

D. RCS pressure lowers.

Stop the dilution within one (1) hour.

71

2O11NRCSRGEXAM

72. In accordance with SOP-lOl, REACTOR COOLANT SYSTEM, which ONE (1) of the following correctly identifies:

1) The lowest seal water outlet temperature at which a RCP must be stopped.

2) The highest MODE in which a RCP can be restarted after the cause of the high seal water outlet temperature is corrected?

A. 1) 195°F.

2) MODE 3.

B. 1) 195°F.

2) MODE 4.

C. 1) 235°F.

2) MODE 3.

D. 1) 235°F.

2) MODE 4.

72

2011 t1RC SRQ EXAM

73. Given the following plant conditions:

• 90% power.

• Plant is operating in Relaxed Axial Offset Control (RAOC).

• All rods were full out.

• Control Rod P-8 partially dropped to 96 steps.

• No operator actions have been taken.

• Delta flux indications are as follows:

Before the Drop After the Drop N41 -4.4% -2.0%

N42 -4.4% -2.0%

N43 -4.4% -12.0%

N44 -4.4% -12.0%

Which ONE (1) of the following choices completes the statements below?

AFD is currently the Technical Specification 3.2.1, AXIAL FLUX DIFFERENCE (AFD), limits.

The BOP is required to maintain Tavg within a maximum of of Tref, in accordance with AOP-403.5, STUCK OR MISALIGNED CONTROL ROD.

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. within +/-1.5°F B. outside of +1- 1.5°F C. within +1-5°F D. outside of +1-5°F 73

2011 NRCSRQ XAM -

74. Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the highest Keff and highest Tavg that can exist when the Rx Vessel head bolt is detensioned in accordance with Technical Specifications?

A. 0.95 and 140°F.

B. 0.95 and 200° F.

C. 0.9Oandl4O°F.

D. 0.90 and 200°F.

74

.2QttNRCSRQEX4Jv1

75. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Makeup to the A SI Accumulator was just completed.

• A SI Accumulator parameters are as follows:

- Boron Concentration: 2207 ppm

- Pressure: 672 psig Which ONE (1) of the following describes whether the boron concentration and pressure are within the Technical Specification limits to establish OPERABILITY in accordance with TS 3.5.1, ACCUMULATORS?

Boron Concentration Pressure A. Within limit Within limit B. Outside limit Within limit C. Within limit Outside limit D. Outside limit Outside limit 75

2Q11 NRC S RQ EXAM

76. Given the following plant conditions:

0000 hrs

• Release of Waste Monitor Tank A is in progress.

• RM-L5, LIQUID WASTE EFFLUENT LIQUID RADIATION MONITOR is inoperable.

• RM-L9 setpoint is set at 4000 c/rn per the Liquid Waste Release Perrnit.

0100 hrs

• Operator notes that RM-L9 indication is 1 .0 x 106 c/rn and steady.

• XCP-644 pt 2-5, LIQ WST DISCH RM-L9 HI RAD, failed to alarm.

• PVD-6910, LIQUID EFFLUENTS TO FAIRFIELD PENSTOCKS, is open.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answer both of the following:

1) What is the highest Emergency Action Level classification (EAL) that is required to be declared?

2) The latest time at which the EAL can be declared in accordance with EPP-001, ACTIVATION AND IMPLEMENTATION OF EMERGENCY PLANT?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. NUEatOII5 B. NUEatO2I5 C. ALERTatOII5 D. ALERTatO13O 76

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

77. Given the following plant conditions:

• A large break LOCA has occurred.

• RM-G7, CONTAINMENT HIGH RGE AREA RAD MONITOR, is reading 1.9 x iO R/hr.

• RM-G18, CONTAINMENT HIGH RGE AREA RAD MONITOR, is reading 2.1 x 1O R/hr.

• An AO reports that steam is visible coming from a Reactor Building penetration on the AB-412.

• RM-A3, MAIN PLANT VENT EXHAUST AIR MONITOR, is less than the alarm setpoint, rising slowly.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the highest emergency classification that will be declared and information that must be communicated in the initial notification to State authorities in accordance with EPP-002, COMMUNICATION AND NOTIFICATION?

Do not consider Emergency Director Judgement as a basis for your emergency classification.

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. A Site Area Emergency, Either degrading, stable or improving will be indicated.

B. A Site Area Emergency, Either elevated, mixed or ground release will be indicated.

C. A General Emergency, Either degrading, stable or improving will be indicated.

D. A General Emergency, Either elevated, mixed or ground release will be indicated.

77

• - - --

- 2ll NRC SRO EXAM

78. Given the following plant conditions:

• Model.

• The surveillance requirement to determine CONTROLLED LEAKAGE has just been completed.

Which ONE (1) of the following correctly identifies the limit contained in Technical Specifications for CONTROLLED LEAKAGE and the basis?

A. Less than 33 gpm total to ensure that the charging pumps do not reach runout during a safety injection.

B. Less than 33 gpm total to ensure that the analyzed Safety injection flow occurs via the cold leg injection lines.

C. Less than 13 gpm per pump to ensure that the charging pumps do not reach runout during a safety injection.

D. Less than 13 gpm per pump to ensure that the analyzed Safety injection flow occurs via the cold leg injection lines.

78

- 2O-fl-NRCSROEXM

79. Given the following plant conditions:

Time 0100:

• 100% power.

• C Service Water Pump is tagged out.

• A seismic event is felt in the Control Room.

• A break occurs in the line just downstream of XVB-31 I 6B-SW, SER WTR PUMP B DISCHG VLV.

• A complete loss of offsite power (115KV and 230KV) occurs.

Time 0115:

• A EDG is off and cannot be started.

• XVB-3116B-SW is shut.

• PVG-3105B, ES TO DG B, is closed.

• B EDG is running and supplying power to 1 DB.

• Operators are aligning cooling to B EDG.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the procedure that will provide direction to open PVG-31 05B and the correct operability status of B EDG when this action is complete?

A. AOP-1 17.1, TOTAL LOSS OE SERVICE WATER, B EDG will be operable.

B. AOP-1 17.1, TOTAL LOSS OE SERVICE WATER, B EDG will NOT be operable.

C. SOP-306, EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR, B EDG will be operable.

D. SOP-306, EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR, B EDG will NOT be operable.

79

- Z01INRCSRQXAM

80. Given the following plant conditions:

Time 0400:

• Mode 4.

• RHR Train A is aligned for injection mode.

• RHR Train B is aligned for cooldown mode.

• Pressurizer level is 60%.

• RCS subcooling is 150°F.

Time 0405:

• A leak occurred on the discharge of B RHR pump.

Time 0415:

• The leak has not been isolated.

• Pressurizer level is 30% and decreasing.

• RCS subcooling is 40°F and lowering.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies how the CRS will direct the use of the A RHR pump and the procedure that will provide steps to isolate the leak?

A. A RHR Pump will be started in injection mode; AOP-112.1, SHUTDOWN LOCA.

B. A RHR Train will be transferred to shutdown cooling mode; AOP-112.1, SHUTDOWN LOCA.

C. T A RHR Pump will be started in injection mode;

AOP-101 .1, LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT NOT REQUIRING SAFETY INJECTION.

D. A RHR train will be transferred to shutdown cooling mode; AOP-101.1 LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT NOT REQUIRING SAFETY INJECTION.

80

Z01 NRC SRC) EXAM -

81. Given the following plant conditions:

• Tube Rupture occurred on B Steam Generator.

• Operators are taking actions in accordance with EOP-4.0, STEAM GENERATOR TUBE RUPTURE.

• B Steam Generator has been isolated.

• RCS Cooldown is in progress.

• A Motor-driven EFW Pump is racked down due to an INOPERABLE breaker.

• B Motor-driven EFW Pump is feeding with flow control valves to A and C Steam Generators full open.

• The Turbine-driven EFW pump is INOPERABLE.

• Plant Parameters are as follows:

A NR SG Level, 17%, decreasing slowly.

B NR SG Level, 72%, increasing slowly.

C NR SG Level, 15%, decreasing slowly.

A SG EFW flow is 100 gpm.

B SG EFW flow is 0 gpm.

C SG EFW flow is 95 gpm.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the actions that the CRS will take for the stated conditions?

A. Transition to EOP-15.0, RESPONSE TO A LOSS OF SECONDARY HEAT SINK and attempt to establish Main Feedwater or Condensate flow.

B. Transition to EOP-15.0, wait until steam generator levels begin to increase with flow from the B Motor-driven EFW pump, then return to EOP-4.0.

C. Continue in EOP-4.0, and request the Shift Supervisor to refer to EOP-1 5.0 and perform actions to reduce A and C Steam Generator pressures to increase EFW flow.

D. Continue in EOP-4.0, and request the Shift Supervisor to refer to EOP-1 5.0 and perform actions necessary to establish Main Feedwater or Condensate flow.

81

2011 -NRC S.RQ EXAM

82. Given the following plant conditions:

Time 1315

• The Main Control Room was evacuated due to toxic gas.

• The reactor was tripped by the NROATC prior to exiting the Control Room.

Time 1325

• All offsite Power has been lost (230KV and 115KV).

• The CRS has determined that an emergency boration is required.

• Operators cannot open MVT-8104, EMERG BORATE, electrically from the CREP due to loss of power caused by a failure of one Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) to start.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the action that will be directed by the CRS that will restore power to MVT-81 04?

Direct an operator to start:

A. A EDG using SOP-306, EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR.

B. A EDG using AOP-600.1, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION.

C. B EDG using SOP-306, EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR.

D. B EDG using AOP-600.1, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION.

82

20-11 NRC SRO EXAM

83. Given the following plant conditions:

Initial Conditions:

• A charge of A Battery, XBAIA, is in progress.

• XFN-38A and XFN.-39A SPLY & EXH FANS are in service.

Final Conditions:

• XFN-38A XFN-39A were found tripped.

• I&C has determined that a faulty control circuit input has caused the problem.

• Technicians advise that lifting an electrical lead will allow operation of XFN-38AIXFN-39A SPLY & EXH FANS.

• The lead will be lifted using the provisions of SAP-148, TEMPORARY BYPASS, JUMPER, AND LIFTED LEAD CONTROL.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following:

1) What is the ventilation alignment that will allow the charge of XBAIA to continue?

2) If the lead is lifted on the XFN-38AIXFN-39A control circuit, what is the longest that it can remain in that condition without GMNPO approval?

A. The charge may continue by placing XFN-38B/XFN-39B, SPLY & EXH FANS in service; The lead must be restored to normal within 14 days.

B. The charge may continue only if the control circuit lead is lifted and XFN-38A1 XFN-39A are restarted; The lead must be restored to normal within 14 days.

C. The charge may continue by placing XFN-38B/XFN-39B, SPLY & EXH FANS in service; The lead must be restored to normal within 90 days.

D. The charge may continue only if the control circuit lead is lifted and XFN-38A1 XFN39A are restarted; The lead must be restored to normal within 90 days.

83

2011 NRC SRO EXAM

84. Given the following plant conditions:

Time 0115, 12/1/11:

• 100% power.

• Power Range Channel N-41 upper detector fails low.

Time 0215, 12/1/11:

• OTAT Channel II trip bistable fails to a tripped condition due to a faulty relay.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements describes the first action that is required in accordance with Technical Specifications and the latest time that HOT STANDBY must be reached, if required?

A. Initiate action to shutdown the unit by 0315, 12/1/11; Be in HOT STANDBY by 0815, 12/1/11 B. Initiate action to shutdown the unit by 0315, 12/1/11; Be in HOT STANDBY by 0915, 12/1/11.

C. Trip bistables associated with N-41 by 0115, 12/4/11; Repair and return N-41 or OTzT Channel II to service by 0215, 12/4/11 or place the unit in HOT STANDBY by 0815, 12/4/11.

D. Trip bistables associated with N-41 by 0115, 12/4/11; Repair and return N-41 or OTz\T Channel II to service by 0215, 12/4/11 or place the unit in HOT STANDBY by 0915, 12/4/11.

84

-

--. 2011NRSROXAM

85. Given the following plant conditions:

February 24

• Unit entered Mode 3.

• All EFW Pumps are operable.

February 25, 1430

• Main Steam supply valves XVG-2802A and XVG-2802B to the Turbine Driven Emergency Feedwater pump are inoperable due to a common-mode failure.

• A and B Motor-Driven EFW pumps are operable.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the latest time by which the Unit must be placed in Mode 4 in accordance with Technical Specifications?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 2030, February 25 B. 1430, February28 C. 2030, February 28 D. 0230, February 29 85

2011 NRCSRO EXAM - -

86. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• A Main Feedwater Pump (MFP) trips.

• The PZR Master Pressure Controller output fails as-is simultaneously with the MFP trip.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following:

1) What is the plant response that limits the magnitude of the initial pressure transient on the Reactor Coolant System (RCS)?

2) What is the procedure that will be entered and an action that will be directed to address the stated conditions?

A. 1) The insurge will lower the temperature of the Pressurizer liquid space and act to lower RCS pressure.

2) Enter AOP-210.3, FEEDWATER PUMP MALFUNCTION and stablize power less than 91%.

B. 1) The insurge will lower the temperature of the Pressurizer liquid space and act to lower RCS pressure.

2) Enter AOP-401 .5, PRESSURIZER PRESSURE CONTROL CHANNEL FAILURE and operate heaters and spray in manual.

C. 1) The insurge will compress the Pressurizer steam bubble causing condensation that will reduce the magnitude of pressure increase.

2) Enter AOP-210.3, FEEDWATER PUMP MALFUNCTION and stablize power less than 91%.

D. 1) The insurge will compress the Pressurizer steam bubble causing condensation that will reduce the magnitude of pressure increase.

2) Enter AOP-401 .5, PRESSURIZER PRESSURE CONTROL CHANNEL FAILURE and operate heaters and spray in manual.

86

2GtINRCSROEXM.

87. Given the following plant conditions:

• All offsite power (115 KV and 230 KV) was lost.

• Neither EDG started.

• The crew is implementing EOP-6.0, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER.

• Power was restored after ONE (1) hour.

• The crew is at Step 33 to select the appropriate recovery procedure.

Based on the provided Integrated Plant Computer System screen, the first transition will be to At the end of that procedure, the second expected transition will be to (ASSUME NO FURTHER PLANT I SYSTEMS DEGRADATION)

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. EOP-6.1, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER RECOVERY WITHOUT SI REQUIRED EOP-1 .1, REACTOR TRIP RECOVERY B. EOP-6.1, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER RECOVERY WITHOUT SI REQUIRED, EOP-1 .3, NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN C. EOP-6.2, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER RECOVERY WITH SI REQUIRED, EOP-2.1, POST-LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION D. EOP-6.2, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER RECOVERY WITH SI REQUIRED, EOP-2.0, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLANT 87

2011 NRCSRO EXAM

88. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• CCW Loop A is the Active Loop.

• A Service Water (SW) Pump tripped on overcurrent.

- Control switch is in pull to lock.

- Breaker is racked up.

• C Service Water Pump is being aligned to the A train.

- Control switch is in normal after stop.

- Breaker is racked up.

Which ONE (1) of the following choices below completes the following:

In the current condition, the A SW Train is and the A Motor-Driven Emergency Feedwater Pump is A. OPERABLE OPERABLE B. OPERABLE INOPERABLE C. INOPERABLE OPERABLE D. INOPERABLE INOPERABLE 88

2011 NRSRc1EXM -

89. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred.

• Neither RHR pump is available.

• The crew is implementing EOP-2.4 LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION.

• RWST level is 30% and lowering.

• Both spray pumps are taking suction from the RWST.

• RB pressure is 32 psig and rising.

• No RBCUs are running.

• Operators are performing a step to determine Reactor Building Spray Pump requirements.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following:

1) Will any Reactor Building Spray pump be stopped in accordance with EOP-2.4?

2) Why does the procedure require closing MVG-3003A(B), SPRAY HDR ISOL LOOP A(B), if a RB Spray Pump is secured?

A. 1) No, fl Reactor Building Spray pumps should remain running.

2) Ensure containment isolation.

B. 1) Yes, ONE (1) RB spray pump should be secured.

2) Ensure containment isolation.

C. 1) No, all Reactor Building Spray pumps should remain running.

2) Prevent backward flow through the stopped RB Spray Pump from the running pump.

D. 1) Yes, ONE (1) RB spray pump should be secured.

2) Prevent backward flow through the stopped RB Spray Pump from the running pump.

89

- 2011- NReSRExAM.

90. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident occurred one hour ago.

• Power range is off scale low.

• Intermediate range is off scale low.

• Source range count rate is oscillating around 50,000 cps.

• Average source range startup rate is zero.

• RHR flow is 5600 gpm.

• RHR sump level is 417 feet.

• RCS wide range pressure is 10 psig.

• RCS cold leg temperatures are between 255° F and 265° F.

• Containment radiation is 3 RIhr.

• Pressurizer level is 0%.

Which ONE (1) of the following procedures provides actions that will be effective in mitigating the stated conditions?

A. EOP-13.1, RESPONSE TO LOSS OF CORE SHUTDOWN B. EOP-16.1, RESPONSE TO ANTICIPATED PRESSURIZED THERMAL SHOCK C. EOP-17.2, RESPONSE TO HIGH REACTOR BUILDING RADIATION LEVEL D. EOP-18.1, RESPONSE TO LOW PRESSURIZER LEVEL 90

• 2011 NRC SR-Q EXAM -

91. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power for the last six months.

• An audit of records determines that a required surveillance test has not been conducted in the last 36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br />.

• The test is required to be performed at least once per 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

• It is 2100, October 19, 2011.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements describes the correct application of Technical Specification 4.0.3?

Latest Time the Surveillance Risk Evaluation Required Must be Completed A. Yes 0900 October20, 2011 B. Yes 2100 October20, 2011 C. No 0900 October20, 2011 D. No 2l000ctober2O,2011 91

2011 1[RC SRQ EXAM

92. Given the following conditions:

Core Off-load is in progress.

Which of the choices below answers both of the following:

1) What condition(s) will be indicated by the red OVERLOAD BYPASS light on the Reactor Cavity Manipulator Crane control panel being LIT?

2) What position or positions are required to authorize or concur with the bypass of a Fuel Handling machine interlock?

A. 1) The 150/200 pound OVERLOAD interlock is bypassed, but the Master Overload Interlock remains in service;

2) The Reactor Engineer with Refueling SRO concurrence.

B. 1) Both the 150/200 pound OVERLOAD interlock and the Master Overload Interlock are bypassed;

2) The Reactor Engineer with Refueling SRO concurrence.

C. 1) The 150/200 pound OVERLOAD interlock is bypassed, but the Master Overload Interlock remains in service;

2) The Refueling SRO with Control Room Supervisor concurrence.

D. 1) Both the 150/200 pound OVERLOAD interlock and the Master Overload Interlock are bypassed;

2) The Refueling SRO with Control Room Supervisor concurrence.

92

- 2011 NRC SRQ EXAM - -

93. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Large-break Loss of Coolant Accident occurred 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> ago.

• Both RHR pumps fail to start.

• Both Charging pumps fail to start.

• Operators transitioned to EOP-14.0, RESPONSE TO INADEQUATE CORE COOLING.

• RB hydrogen concentration is 2% and slowly rising.

• Core Exit Thermocouple (CET) Temperatures are at 1205°F and rising.

• Operator actions are not yet effective in reducing CET temperatures.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following:

1) Is starting a Hydrogen Recombiner required at this hydrogen concentration in accordance with EOP-14.O?

2) What is the next expected procedure transfer if CET temperatures cannot be reduced?

A. 1) Yes.

2) SACRG-1 SEVERE ACCIDENT CONTROL ROOM GUIDELINE INITIAL RESPONSE.

B. 1) Yes.

2) SACRG-2, SEVERE ACCIDENT CONTROL ROOM GUIDELINE FOR TRANSIENTS AFTER THE TSC IS FUNCTIONAL.

C. 1) No.

2) SACRG-1, SEVERE ACCIDENT CONTROL ROOM GUIDELINE INITIAL RESPONSE.

D. 1) No.

2) SACRG-2, SEVERE ACCIDENT CONTROL ROOM GUIDELINE FOR TRANSIENTS AFTER THE TSC IS FUNCTIONAL.

93

2OIt1IRCSROEXAM

94. Given the following plant conditions:

• The Reactor is tripped.

• All MSIVs are closed.

• Operators have entered EOP-15.1, STEAM GENERATOR OVERPRESSURE.

• Secondary radiation is normal.

• Steam Generator Narrow Range Levels:

A- 95% and increasing.

B- 60% and stable.

C- 63% and stable.

• Steam Generator Pressures:

A- 1235 psig and increasing.

B- 1130 psig and stable.

C- 1130 psig and stable.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the procedure and the action that the CRS will use to mitigate the above conditions?

The CRS will:

A. Remain in EOP-15.1, STEAM GENERATOR OVERPRESSURE, and dump steam from A Steam Generator steamline PORV.

B. Remain in EOP-15.1, STEAM GENERATOR OVERPRESSURE, and initiate blowdown from the A Steam Generator.

C. Transition to EOP-15.2, STEAM GENERATOR HIGH LEVEL, and dump steam from A Steam Generator steamline PORV.

D. Transition to EOP-15.2, STEAM GENERATOR HIGH LEVEL, and initiate blowdown from the A Steam Generator.

94

2011 NRC SRQ EXAM -

95. A Main Steamline Break occurred in the Reactor Building.

• All MSIVs have failed to close.

• The crew is implementing EOP-3.1, UNCONTROLLED DEPRESSURIZATION OF ALL STEAM GENERATORS.

• Operators have reduced Emergency Feedwater flows as directed.

• It has been 30 minutes after the steam line break.

The following plant parameters are noted:

• SG NR levels are: A 27% B 21%, C 22%.

• RCS Tcolds are: A 225°F B 231°F, C 223°F.

• RCS Wide Range PT-402 and PT-403 read 50 psig.

• RHR flows are: A train 0 gpm, B train 3000 gpm.

• RB pressure is 40 psig.

• RB sprays are: A train 0 gpm, B train 900 gpm.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following:

1) What is the basis for reducing Emergency Feedwater flow in EOP3.1?

2) What procedure will the CRS select that will effectively mitigate the stated conditions?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 1) Emergency Feedwater flows were throttled to minimize cooldown and prevent Steam Generator dryout;

2) EOP-16.0, RESPONSE TO IMMINENT PRESSURIZED THERMAL SHOCK B. 1) Emergency Feedwater flows were throttled to minimize cooldown and prevent Steam Generator dryout;

2) EOP-17.0, RESPONSE TO HIGH REACTOR BUILDING PRESSURE C. 1) Emergency Feedwater flows were throttled to the minimum required to remove decay heat after trip;

2) EOP-16.0, RESPONSE TO IMMINENT PRESSURIZED THERMAL SHOCK D. 1) Emergency Feedwater flows were throttled to the minimum required to remove decay heat after trip;

2) EOP-17.0, RESPONSE TO HIGH REACTOR BUILDING PRESSURE 95

2a11 RCSRQEXAM.

96. Given the following plant conditions:

• The core has been reloaded at the end of a refueling outage.

• Operators are draining the Reactor Coolant System to Mid-Loop.

• RCS level is exactly at the Reactor Vessel Level Flange and stable.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the requirement for level indications and an additional requirement that must be met as the Reactor Coolant System is drained down an additional 12 inches?

A. Mansell Level must read within 6 inches of the Tygon Hose.

The reactor vessel head must be in place.

B. Mansell Level must read within 6 inches of the Tygon Hose.

One closure device in each airlock or penetration must be closed.

C. Mansell Level must read within 12 inches of the Tygon Hose.

The reactor vessel head must be in place.

D. Mansell Level must read within 12 inches of the Tygon Hose.

One closure device in each airlock or penetration must be closed.

96

2011 NRSRQEXAM

97. Given the following plant conditions:

• 20% power.

• Operators are performing actions directed in OAP-1 08.1, CONTROL OF REACTOR BUILDING ENTRY.

• HP has sampled the Reactor Building atmosphere and reports that Particulate, Gas and Iodine is 0.2 DAC.

Which ONE (1) of the following is a requirement fora Reactor Building entry?

A. The Escape Airlock must be operable.

B. The lncore detectors must be tagged out.

C. A Reactor Building Charcoal Cleanup unit must be energized.

D. Four (4) Reactor Building Cooling Units must be placed in slow speed.

97

2O1RCSRQEXM

98. Given the following conditions:

• A Step-up SRO held an ACTIVE Senior Reactor Operator license on December 31, 2010.

• The individual only stood the following watches in the first three months of 2011.

1/4/11 - 12 hour1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> shift as NROATC.

1/9/11 -12 hour shift as CRS.

1/16/11 -12 hour shift as BOP.

2/4/11 - 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> as CRS.

2/21/11 -12 hour shift as CRS.

3/4/11 - 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> as CRS.

3/15/11 -12 hour shift as CRS.

• The individual is scheduled to relieve the CRS on 4/1/11.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the watch positions that can be stood by this operator on 4/1/11 and the requirements for standing watch under-instruction, if any?

A. The operator can stand watch in any RO or SRO licensed position. There are no requirements for standing watch under-instruction.

B. The operator CANNOT stand any licensed position. The operator must stand 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> under-instruction in an SRO-licensed position in the second quarter.

C. The operator CANNOT stand any licensed position. The operator must stand 60 hours6.944444e-4 days <br />0.0167 hours <br />9.920635e-5 weeks <br />2.283e-5 months <br /> under-instruction in an SRO-licensed position in the second quarter.

D. The operator can stand NROATC or BOP, but CANNOT stand CRS or SS. The operator must stand 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> under instruction in an SRO-licensed position in the second quarter.

98

2011 tLRC SRO EXAM

99. Given the following plant conditions:

Unit is in Mode 1.

Which ONE (1) of the following contains two items that are required to be reviewed by the Shift Supervisor and initialed for on the Shift Supervisor turnover checklist?

A. BISI and SPDS displays.

Removal and Restoration Log.

B. Status of Security Keys.

Removal and Restoration Log.

C. BISI and SPDS displays.

VCS Switchgear Mailbox for Switching Orders.

D. Status of Security Keys.

VCS Switchgear Mailbox for Switching Orders.

99

2fl11 NRC SRO EXAM 100. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Large-break LOCA occurred 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> ago.

• An action to physically cross-connect 1 DA and I DB is being proposed by engineering support personnel to protect the health and safety of the general public.

• The Emergency Director has determined that it is necessary to perform this action.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following:

1) What is the position of the person who relieved the Shift Supervisor from his initial ERO duties after this event began?

2) Is the Shift Supervisors concurrence now required to cross-connect 1 DA and 1DB?

A. The Shift Supervisor was relieved by the Emergency Director and is required to concur with the decision to cross-connect 1 DA and I DB.

B. The Shift Supervisor was relieved by the Emergency Director and is not required to concur with the decision to cross-connect 1 DA and 1 DB.

C. The Shift Supervisor was relieved by the Offsite Emergency Coordinator and is required to concur with the decision to cross-connect 1 DA and 1 DB.

D. The Shift Supervisor was relieved by the Offsite Emergency Coordinator and is not required to concur with the decision to cross-connect I DA and 1 DB.

100

TABLE OF CONTENTS 2011 NRC SRO EXAM

1. Steam Tables w/ Mollier diagram

2. SOP-119 Attachment VA Page 5 of 5 Revision 17 TABLE A, ACCEPTABLE METEOROLOGY FOR PLANNED WGDT RELEASES

3. STATION CURVE BOOK, Figure 1-1, Revision dated 5/16/2011 ALLOWABLE INDICATED AXIAL FLUX DIFFERENCE

4. EPP-001, Attachment I, Page 1 of 2, Revision 30, EAL CLASSIFICATION MATRIX

5. TECHNICAL SPECIFICATION, 3.7.1.2, PLANT SYSTEMS: EMERGENCY FEEDWATER SYSTEM, Page 3/4 7-4, Amendment No. 173

6. Integrated Plant Computer System Screen (for Question 87)

7. EOP-12.0, Attachment 4, Page 2 of 2,Revision 13, INTEGRITY

$gQ )<y M*7 AÜSWfS

1. ID Points Type 0 1 004K4.07 3 1.00 MCS A 2 012K6.03 3 1.00 MCS B 3 011K4.03 3 1.00 MCS A 4 016A2.01 4 1.00 MCS D 5 000054G2.1.31 3 1.00 MCS A 6 000007EK2.03 4 1.00 MCS D 7 000032AA2.06 2 1.00 MCS A 8 000029EK2.06 6 1.00 MCS D 9 010A4.01 1 1.00 MCS A 10 063K4.046 1.00 MCS D 11 022K1.01 5 1.00 MCS D 12 064K1.05 5 1.00 MCS D 13 WIE1OEK3.4 4 1.00 MCS A 14 000057AA2.12 3 1.00 MCS B 15 064A3.03 7 1.00 MCS D 16 063A3.01 3 1.00 MCS C 17 062K2.01 3 1.00 MCS D 18 045G2.4.31 6 1.00 MCS A 19 026K2.01 2 1.00 MCS D 20 001K2.01 4 1.00 MCS A 21 000055EA2.066 1.00 MCS A 22 000056AK3.02 4 1.00 MCS C 23 071A1.06 2 1.00 MCS C 24 039A1.05 4 1.00 MCS B 25 061K6.02 2 1.00 MCS C 26 078K1.03 1 1.00 MCS C 27 000026AK3.02 2 1.00 MCS B 28 073K3.01 1 1.00 MCS A 29 2.3.11 2 1.00 MCS B 30 103K4.043 1.00 MCS A 31 022A4.02 5 1.00 MCS B 32 008A1.01 3 1.00 MCS A 33 000028AK2.03 5 1.00 MCS B 34 004A2.09 2 1.00 MCS C 35 007G2.4.18 3 1.00 MCS C 36 006A3.01 2 1.00 MCS B 37 000036AA2.03 3 1.00 MCS A 38 012K5.01 3 1.00 MCS D 39 007A4.103 1.00 MCS C 40 005K6.03 2 1.00 MCS B 41 041K1.02 3 1.00 MCS C 42 035K6.01 2 1.00 MCS B 43 003K5.04 4 1.00 MCS B 44 2.3.13 3 1.00 MCS C 45 2.1.3 1 3 1.00 MCS B 46 2.1.2 4 1.00 MCS D 47 2.1.294 1.00 MCS B 48 2.4.25 5 1.00 MCS D

Answers

1. ID Points Type 0 49 2.4.34 4 1.00 MCS B 50 086K3.01 2 1.00 MCS A 51 24.314 1.00 MCS A 52 W/E02G2.2.44 3 1.00 MCS B 53 002K5.144 1.00 MCS D 54 00003 8EA2.04 2 1.00 MCS D 55 W/EO4EK1.33 1.00 MCS A 56 000009EK1.01 3 1.00 MCS D 57 000008AA1.05 2 1.00 MCS D 58 013A2.01 4 1.00 MCS A 59 00004OEA1.2 5 1.00 MCS A 60 W/E13EK3.4 1 1.00 MCS D 61 W/E15EA1.3 3 1.00 MCS A 62 00002202.4.11 2 1.00 MCS B 63 000025AK1.01 5 1.00 MCS C 64 076K3.05 2 1.00 MCS D 65 000065AA1.03 4 1.00 MCS D 66 079A4.01 3 1.00 MCS D 67 05902.4.11 2 1.00 MCS D 68 000077AK3.02 6 1.00 MCS D 69 000059AK1.01 3 1.00 MCS C 70 00005802.2.36 3 1.00 MCS D 71 005K3.014 1.00 MCS A 72 000017AX2.105 1.00 MCS C 73 000003AK1.21 4 1.00 MCS D 74 2.2.35 3 1.00 MCS A 75 2.2.37 3 1.00 MCS C

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1. ID Points Type 0

--7, 000059AA1.01 7 1.00 MCS C

--77 W!E16G2.4.307 1.00 MCS C

.78 2.2.25 4 1.00 MCS B 4.7 000062AA2.03 6 1.00 MCS B

&O 000025AA2.04 9 1.00 MCS A 02A2.04 7 1.00 MCS D ISZ 000007EG2.4.346 1.00 MCS D

£- 063A2.02 6 1.00 MCS C 8( 012A2.01 9 1.00 MCS B

+& 039G2.4.11 5 1.00 MCS C 44% 000027AA2.01 8 1.00 MCS C 1-7 000056EA2.06 6 1.00 MCS D 4%83 076A2.01 9 1.00 MCS D 4481 103G2.4.184 1.00 MCS A

+/-5 70 000011G2.4.21 3 1.00 MCS c 2.2.3 8 5 1.00 MCS D 1-? ?L 034K4.02 8 1.00 MCS A i-8?3 028G2.1.277 1.00 MCS A t911 W/EI3EA2.2 5 1.00 MCS D W/E08G2.4.21 5 1.00 MCS B 2.3.14 7 1.00 MCS A

-7 2.3.12 4 1.00 MCS B 18 2.1.4 8 1.00 MCS A 24?? 2.1.3 7 1.00 MCS B 2./KZ 2.4.37 9 1.00 MCS A