ML12340A483

Examination Report No. 50-297-OL-13-01, North Carolina State University

ML12340A483
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Site:	North Carolina State University
Issue date:	12/10/2012
From:	Gregory Bowman Division of Policy and Rulemaking
To:	Hawari A North Carolina State University
Young P
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Text

December 10, 2012

Dr. Ayman I. Hawari, Director

Nuclear Reactor Program Department of Nuclear Engineering North Carolina State University Campus Box 7909 2500 Stinson Drive

Raleigh, NC 27695-7909

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-297/OL-13-01, NORTH CAROLINA STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Hawari:

During the week of November 12, 2012, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations at your North Carolina State University Pulstar reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. Phillip T. Y oung at (301) 415-4094 or via internet e-mail phillip.young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Greg Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation

Docket No. 50-297

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-297/OL-13-01

2. Written examination with facility comments

cc w/o enclosures: See next page Dr. Ayman I. Hawari, Director December 10, 2012 Nuclear Reactor Program Department of Nuclear Engineering North Carolina State University Campus Box 7909 2500 Stinson Drive

Raleigh, NC 27695-7909

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-297/OL-13-01, NORTH CAROLINA STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Hawari:

During the week of November 12, 2012, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations at your North Carolina State University Pulstar reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. Phillip T. Y oung at (301) 415-4094 or via internet e-mail phillip.young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Greg Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation

Docket No. 50-297

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-297/OL-13-01

2. Written examination with facility comments cc w/o enclosures: See next page DISTRIBUTION w/ encls.: PUBLIC PRTB r/f RidsNRRDPRPRTA RidsNRRDPRPRTB Facility File (CRevelle) O-7 F-08 ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML12340A483 TEMPLATE #:NRR-074 OFFICE PRTB:CE IOLB:LA E PROB: NAME PYoung/CRR CRevelle GBowman DATE 12/05 /2012 12/05/2012 12/10/2012 North Carolina State University Docket No. 50-297

cc: Office of Intergovernmental Relations 116 West Jones Street

Raleigh, NC 27603

Dr. Yousry Azmy, Head Nuclear Engineering Department North Carolina State University P.O. Box 7909

Raleigh, NC 27695-7909

Beverly Hall, Section Chief Department of Environment and Natural Resources Division of Environmental Health Radiation Protection Section 3825 Barrett Drive

Raleigh, NC 27609-7221 Dr. Louis Martin-Vega Dean of Engineering

North Carolina State University 113 Page Hall Box 7901 - NCSU Raleigh, NC 27695-7901

Test, Research, and Training

Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center Gainesville, FL 32611

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT

REPORT NO.: 50-297/OL-13-01

FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-297

FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-120

FACILITY: North Carolina State University Pulstar Reactor

EXAMINATION DATES: November 13, 2012

SUBMITTED BY: ______

/RA/___G. Bowman For_____ __12/10/2012

__ Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of November 12, 2012 the NRC administered licensing examinations to three Reactor Operator (RO) applicants. The applicants passed all portions of the examination.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiners: Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner, NRC

2. Results:

RO PASS/FAILSRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 3/00/03/0 Operating Tests 3

/00/03/0 Overall 3/00/03/0 3. Exit Meeting:

Phillip T. Young Scott Lassel, NCSU. Manager of Nuclear Services, Nuclear Reactor Program Greg Gibson, NCSU, Senior Reactor Operator The examiner thanked the facility for their assistance ensuring the exam administration went smoothly and their feedback on the written exam ination. The examiner discussed several weak points during the Operating Test including: 1) applicants did not know about control rod encoders, 2) applicants did not understand continuous venting of Beam Ports to the BP & TC Exhaust Fan, 3) applicants did not understand that the confinement charcoal filters are there to remove I-131, 4) the applicants did not understand the source of the bubbles raising from the Rotating Exposure Ports when the reactor is operating at power.

ENCLOSURE 1

Facility Comments With NRC Resolution.

Question B.001 Comment: The correct answer per the Emergency Plan is c., the question answer is listed as d.

NRC Resolution: Comment accepted. Correct answer for B.001 is changed from (d.) to (c.).

Question B.007

Comment: The correct Technical Specification Table with the correct answers to question B.007 states the following:

Control Room < 2 mR/hr <

5 mR/hr Over the Pool < 5 mR/hr <

100 mR/hr West Wall < 5 mR/hr <

100 mR/hr NRC Resolution: Comment accepted. The answer as shown in the comment will be accepted as correct..

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR INITIAL LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: NORTH CAROLINA STATE UNIVERSITY

REACTOR TYPE: PULSTAR

DATE ADMINISTERED: 11/13/2012 CANDIDATE: ___________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach the answer sheets to the examination. Points for each question are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% overall is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

CATEGORY VALUE % OF TOTAL CANDIDATE'S SCORE % OF CATEGORY VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 _______ _______

A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS, AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTISTICS 20.00 33.3 _______ _______

B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS

20.00 33.3 _______ _______

C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00 ___________ FINAL GRADE TOTALS ALL THE WORK DONE ON THIS EXAMINATION IS MY OWN. I HAVE NEITHER GIVEN NOR RECEIVED AID.

__________________________

CANDIDATE'S SIGNATURE

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS

During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet.

6. Fill in the date on the cover sheet of the examination (if necessary).

7. Print your name in the upper right-hand corner of the first page of each section of your answer sheets.

8. The point value for each question is indicated in parentheses after the question.

9. Partial credit will NOT be given.

10. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

11. When you are done and have turned in your examination, leave the examination area as defined by the examiner.

EQUATION SHEET

DR - Rem/hr, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet

1 Curie = 3.7 x 10 10 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 10 3 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 10 6 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf °F = 9/5 °C + 32

1 gal (H 2 O) 8 lbm °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) c P = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F c p = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C 1 sec 1.0=eff=t e P P 0 eff K S S SCR=1sec 10 1 4*x=+=eff SUR 06.26 ()()2 1 1 1 2 1 eff eff K CR K CR=()()2 2 1 1=CR CR 2 1 1 1 eff eff K K M=1 2 1 1 CR CR K M eff==)(0 10 t SUR P P=()0 1 P P=eff eff K K SDM=1=*++= eff*2 1 1 2 eff eff eff eff K K K K=693.0 2 1=T eff eff K K 1=t e DR DR=0 ()2 6 R n E Ci DR=2 2 2 2 1 1 d DR d DR=()()1 2 1 2 2 2 Peak Peak=T UA H m T c m Q P=== 1 inch=2.54 cm

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.1 [1.0 point]

The delayed neutron fraction () for U-235 is 0.0065. However, you note that while performing various calculations at the reactor, the value for the effective delayed neutron fraction ( has a value of 0.007. Which of the following is most likely the reason for why is larger than ? a. Delayed Neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons resulting in a greater worth for the neutrons.

b. Delayed Neutrons are born at lower energies than prompt neutrons resulting in less leakage during slowdown to thermal energies.

c. The fuel also contains U-238 which has a relatively cross section of absorption during fast fission. d. U-238 in the core becomes Pu-239 (by neutron absorption), which has a higher beta for fission.

A.1 Answer: b

Reference:

Reactor Theory (Neutron Characteristics) DOE-HDBK-1019/1-93 PROMPT AND DELAYED NEUTRONS

QUESTION A.2 [1.0 point] The following shows part of a decay chain for the radioactive element Radon (Rn). This decay chain is a good example of ___ decay. a. Alpha b. Beta

c. Gamma d. Neutron A.2 Answer: c

. a. answer change per NRC review of exam.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

3.8 d Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.3 [1.0 point] You are poolside at the PULSTAR reactor conducting a tour when someone from the group asks what the "blue glow" around the reactor is within the pool. Which of the following would be the most correct response?

a. It is binding energy released directly through chain reactions of the fission process

b. It is an effect where high energy, charged particles (e.g., electrons) lose and emit their energy while slowing down through the pool

c. It is an effect when high energy, charged particles (e.g., electrons) pass through the pool at a speed which is greater than the speed of light

d. It is the energy release from the interaction between a neutrino and antineutrino which is known as pair annihilation.

A.3 Answer:c

Reference:

PSBR Training Manual, Chapter 1.8 "Bremstrahlung and Cerenkov Effect"

QUESTION A.4 [1.0 point] A nuclear reactor startup is being performed by adding equal amounts of positive reactivity and waiting for neutron population to stabilize. As the reactor approaches criticality, the numerical change in stable neutron population after each reactivity addition __________, and the time required for the neutron population to stabilize after each reactivity addition ___________.

a. increases; remains the same b. increases; increases c. remains the same; remains the same d. remains the same; increases

A.4 Answer: b

Reference:

Question ID #P1766, NRC Generic Fundamentals Examination Question Bank-PWR2010

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.5 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following statements is the most correct regarding a characteristic of subcritical multiplication?

a. The number of neutrons gained per generation doubles for each succeeding generation.

b. A constant neutron population is achieved when the total number of neutrons produced in one generation is equal to the number of source neutrons in the next generation.

c. For equal reactivity additions, it takes less time for the equilibrium subcritical neutron population level to be reached as K eff approaches one.

d. Doubling the indicated power will reduce the margin to criticality by approximately one-half.

A.5 Answer: d 1 2 2 1 1 1 k k CR CR= If CR 2 is twice CR 1 , then to be equal, (1-Keff

2) must be half of (1-Keff 1). Reference. DOE Handbook, Vol 2, Section 2.0

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.6 [1.0 point] Given the following diagram, which of the following most correctly describe the condition of the reactor?

a. The prompt jump occurs because the production rate of delayed neutrons abruptly changes as reactivity is added.

b. At T=15s, the reactor is considered prompt critical.

c. After the prompt jump, the rate of change of power cannot increase any more rapidly than the built-in time delay the neutron precursor half-lives allow.

d. Shortly after T=0s, the reactor power is immediately turned due to the rise in moderator temperature.

A.6 Answer: c

Reference:

PSBR Training Manual, Chapter 2.22

QUESTION A.7 [1.0 point]

Given a critical nuclear reactor operating below the point of adding heat (POAH), what reactivity effects are associated with reaching the POAH?

a. There are no reactivity effects because the reactor is critical. b. The increase in fuel temperature will begin to create a positive reactivity effect. c. The decrease in fuel temperature will begin to create a negative reactivity effect. d. The increase in fuel temperature will begin to create a negative reactivity effect.

A.7 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2 Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.8 [1.0 point] Which one of the following most correctly completes the following as the reason for having an installed neutron source within the core?

A startup without an installed neutron source...

a. could result in a very short period due to the reactor going critical before neutron population built up high enough to be read on nuclear instrumentation.

b. is impossible as there would be no neutrons available to start up the reactor.

c. would be very slow due to the long time to build up neutron population from so low a level.

d. can be compensated for by adjusting the compensating voltage on the source range detector.

A.8 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

QUESTION A.9 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following conditions will INCREASE the core excess of a nuclear reactor?

a. Higher moderator temperature (assume negative temperature coefficient) b. Insertion of a negative reactivity worth experiment

c. Burnout of a burnable poison d. Fuel depletion

A.9 Answer: c

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2 QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point] Convert 1000 pcm to %k/k. a. 0.1% b. 1.0%

c. 10.0%

d. 100% A.10 Answer: b 1.2.16 pcm: A unit of reactivity that is the abbreviation for "percent millirho" and is equal to 10-5 k/k reactivity. For example, 1000 pcm is equal to 1.0% k/k.

Reference:

Pulstar Training Manual

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point] Given the associated graph, which of the following answers best describe the neutron behavior within Region II?

a. The neutron cross section is inversely proportional to the neutron

velocity (1/V)

b. The neutron cross section decreases steadily with increasing

neutron energy (1/E).

c. Neutrons of specific energy levels (e.g., 50 ev, 100 kev) have a greater potential for leakage from the reactor

core

d. Neutrons of specific energy levels (e.g., 50 ev, 100 kev) are more likely to be readily absorbed than neutrons at

other energy levels.

A.11 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point] Given an actual critical postion of 19.0 inches with average temperature at 70 F and Xenon free, calculate the ECP with average pool temperature = 100.0 F AND with Xenon contributing 260 pcm of reactivity. Use the Gang Integral Rod Worth curve provided below. The source is in for both, and no changes in experiments.

Given: T= -4.0pcm/

F a. 19.0 inches

b. 19.5 inches

c. 20.5 inches

d. 20.1 inches

A.12 Answer: c

+35F x -4.0pcm/

F = -140pcm + (-260pcm) = -400 pcm. At 19.0 inches there is -7500 pcm. Adding On graph adding -400 would change rod position from 19.0 inches to 20.5 inches.

Reference:

Pulstar Reactor Trainee Notebook, Chapter 2 § 2.11.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point] The effective neutron multiplication factor, K eff, for a critical reactor is:

a. Equal to . b. Equal to 1. c. Equal to the effective delayed neutron fraction. d. Any value < 1.

A.13 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point]

________________ releases the most amount of energy during an average fission event. a. Fission product recoil b. Fission product decay

c. Fast neutrons d. Prompt gammas

A.14 Answer: a

Reference:

PSBR Training Manual, Chapter 2 "Principles of Reactor Operation", p.2

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point] Using the associated graph which of the following best describes what happens to the concentration of Xenon (Xe)-135 from point A to B?

a. The concentration of Iodine-135 was at a higher equilibrium level at 100% power and is therefore producing Xe-135 at a higher rate until it reaches a maximum value 7-8 hours later.

b. The concentration of Xe-135 reaches a maximum value 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> after the down power transient and will decrease to a new, higher equilibrium value until it reaches a maximum value equilibrium

c. The insertion of control rods displaces the axial reactor flux causing an increased production rate of xenon gas until it reaches a maximum value 7-8 hours after the down power transient.

d. The decay rate of fission product, Cesium-135 increases due to the down power transient which increases the concentration of Xe-135 to a maximum value 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> later.

A.15 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point] You are the reactor operator performing two pulsing operations. The first pulse had a reactivity worth of

$1.50 which resulted in a peak power of 250 MW. If the second pulse had a reactivity worth of $2.00 , what was the corresponding peak power?

Given: =0.0070 a. 375 MW b. 750 MW

c. 1000 MW d. 1200 MW

A.16 Answer: c $prompt = - where = $1.00 of reactivity P 1=250 MW 1=$0.50 P 2=X 2=$1.00 (250 MW)/(0.5) 2=(x)(1)2= 1000MW

Reference:

Reactor Physics of Pulsing: Fuchs-Hansen Adiabatic Model http://www.rcp.ijs.si/ric/pulse_operation-s.html

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point]

A reactor with K eff = 0.8 contributes 1000 neutrons in the first generation. When progressing from the FIRST generation to the SECOND generation, how many TOTAL neutrons are there after the SECOND generation?

a. 1250 b. 1600

c. 1800 d. 2000 A.17 Answer: c

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 5.3, p. 5.6 2nd generation=n + K*n=1000+800=1800 neutrons

QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point]

Refer to the associated figure which includes drawings for three 1/M plots labeled A, B, and C Plot B shows an ideal approach to criticality. Therefore, the least conservative approach to criticality is represented by plot _____ and could possibly be the result of recording count rates at ________ time intervals after incremental fuel loading steps compared to the situations represented by the other plots.

a. A; shorter

b. A; longer c. C; shorter d. C; longer A.18 Answer: c.

Reference:

PSU Training Manual, Section 2.7 "Critical Mass Experiment"

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point] A reactor pool contains 106, 000 gallons of water at 90 degrees F, and it heats up to 93 degrees F in two hours. Assuming no ambient losses, the calculated reactor power level is ______.

a. 93 kW. b. 259 kW. c. 389 kW. d. 777 kW.

A.19 Answer:c Power = mcT/t , where: m=106,000 gallons x 8.34 lbs/gal = 884,040 lb; c=1 Btu/

F-lb; T/t = 1.5 degrees/hour. Power = 1,326,060 Btu/hour; 3413 Btu/hour = 1 kW. Power = 1,326,060/3413 = 389 kW

Reference:

Adapted question taken from NC State's Pulstar Reactor Trainee Notebook, Section 3.7

QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

The associated diagram depicts the profile of reactor power vs. time for a down power evolution. Which of the following answers best describes reactor power as it transitions from point A to B? See diagram on next page.

a. The moderator temperature coefficient adds positive reactivity in order to slow the rate of the down power.

b. The rate of power change is slowed and approaches the rate determined by the longest lived neutron precursor.

c. The rate of power decrease is slowed as the decay rate of iodine-135 is faster than the decay rate of xenon-135.

d. Doppler broadening effects from U-238 in the fuel increases the probability of absorption which reduces the rate of power decrease, A.20 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.1 [1.0 point] Answer changed per Facility comment.

Which of the following correctly lists the Emergency Classifications for an event at the NC State PULSTAR in order of least to most severe?

a. Alert, Site Area Emergency, Notice of Unusual Event (NOUE), General Emergency b. General Emergency, NOUE, Alert, Site Area Emergency c. NOUE, Alert, Site Area Emergency, General Emergency d. NOUE, Site Area Emergency, Alert, General Emergency B.1 Answer: d.

c.

Reference:

EP-4, "Emergency Classification", Rev. 6

QUESTION B.2 [1.0 point total/0.25 each] Identify each of the following surveillances as a channel check (CHECK), a channel test (TEST), or a channel calibration (CAL). Use your pencil/pen to write in the correct answer on your answer sheet next to space given for each example listed below.

a. During performance of the Daily Checklist, you press a SCRAM button to verify a scram on the safety system channel.

b. During performance of the Daily Checklist, you compare the readings of Radiation Area Monitor 1 and Radiation Area Monitor 2.

c. You expose a 2 mCi check source to the continuous air monitor (CAM) detector to verify that its output is operable.

d. Adjustment of the wide range linear channel in accordance with recent data collected during a reactor power calibration.

B.2 Answer: a = TEST; b = CHECK; c = TEST; d = CAL

Reference:

PULSTAR Technical specifications, Amendment 15 § 1, Definitions

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.3 [1.0 point] Complete the following sentence. According to PULSTAR technical specifications, the drop time of each control rod is not greater than___ second(s).

a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 2 B.3 Answer: c

Reference:

PULSTAR Technical specifications, Amendment 15 § 3.2.c

QUESTION B.4 [1.0 point] According to PULSTAR Technical Specifications (TS), the Reactor Operator Assistant (ROA) must be on call and within _____ of the facility.

a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 30 minutes B.4 Answer: a

Reference:

PULSTAR Technical specifications, Amendment 15 § 6.1.2

QUESTION B.5 [1.0 point] Which of the following represents a unit of contamination?

a. Ci b. Sieverts c Rad d. Roentgen B.5 Answer: a

Reference:

10 CFR 20

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.6 [1.0 point] What is the limit of radiation exposure for a member of the public (e.g., Boy/Girl Scout on a reactor

tour)? a. 5 Rem b. 2 Rem c. 100 mrem d. 500 mrem

B.6 Answer: c.

Reference:

10 CFR 20

QUESTION B.7 [1.0 point/0.167 each] Given the following fixed area monitors operating in the PULSTAR's reactor building, fill in the setpoints (i.e., ALERT and ALARM) as appropriate on the provided answer sheet.

B.7 Answer: per facility comment

Control Room < 2 mR/hr <

5 mR/hr Over the Pool < 5 mR/hr <

100 mR/hr West Wall < 5 mR/hr <

100 mR/hr or grade as appropriate, using any supplemental/revised information supplied by the licensee.

Reference:

PULSTAR Technical specifications, Amendment 15 § 3.5

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.8 [1.0 point]

If you ARE NOT currently an active watchstander by the Requalification Plan, how many hours of licensed RO or SRO activity must you perform to become current?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 B.8 Answer: c

Reference:

10CFR55.53(e)

QUESTION B.9 [1.0 point] Maintenance workers need to replace a filter in an area where the dose rate is 100 mrem per hour. The Health Physics personnel are restricting individuals involved with the maintenance from exceeding a dose of 300 mrem per week. At least 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> will be required to complete the filter change out. Given the restrictions by Health Physics, how many TOTAL people will be required to complete the job on time? Assume the workers had no previous exposure and only one individual is working at a single time.. a. 1 worker b. 2 workers

c. 3 workers

d. 4 workers B.9 Answer: c Time = Dose/Dose Rate Time = 300mrem 100mrem per/hour Time = 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> Each individual assigned to the job could remain in the area for 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> without exceeding the administrative limit. If 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> are required to complete the job, we need: 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />s/3hours per individual = 2 and 2/3rds people or three people to complete the job. This assumes that only one individual will be in the area at any one time. If it takes two individuals working together, the total number of individuals required to complete the job doubles.

Reference:

Bevelacqua, J. Basic Health Physics.

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.10 [1.0 point] According to 10 CFR 20, the NRC requires that workers exceeding what percentage of the annual dose limit be monitored (i.e., issued dosimetry) for radiation exposure?

a. 5% b. 10%

c. 20%

d. 50% B.10 Answer: b

Reference:

10 CFR 20; Bevelacqua, J. Basic Health Physics. QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point] Which of the following is the term is a parameter or criteria used as a basis for emergency classification?

a. Emergency Action Level (EAL) b. Protection Action Guideline (PAG)

c. Alert Limit (AL) d. Reportable Occurrence

B.11 Answer: a

Reference:

PULSTAR Emergency Plan, Rev. 8, Section 2.7

QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

Which of the following is NOT a CORRECT limitation on experiments?

a. Explosive material of any kind shall not be allowed in the reactor.

b. No experiment greater than $1.00 shall be inserted into the reactor as it could cause shadowing of the nuclear instrumentation or other perturbations which could preclude safe operation of the

reactor. c. Cooling shall be provided to prevent the surface temperature of an experiment to be irradiated from exceeding the saturation temperature of the reactor pool water.

d. All materials to be irradiated shall be either corrosion resistant or encapsulated within a corrosion resistant container to prevent interaction with reactor components or pool water.

B.12 Answer: b

Reference:

PULSTAR Technical specifications, Amendment 15 § 3.7

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.13 [1.0 point] If the LOG N OPER is energized and any control rod drive is less than 11.3" withdrawn, then which of the following is an expected system response?

a. A Low Shutdown Margin audible alarm will sound in the Control Room. b. A Source Range Inhibit alarm will sound and prevent outward rod motion. c. The Auto Channel Disengaged annunciator light will illuminate. d. An overpower scram will occur, dropping all control rods into the core B.13 Answer: a

Reference:

PULSTAR Operations Manual Section NRP-OP-101 "Reactor Startup and Shutdown" Rev. 3 Section 5

QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point] Which of the following is NOT a correct statement regarding a Fast Recovery Startup?

a. Contrary to the behavior of a normal startup, the reactor power or count rate may continue to decrease as the control rods are withdrawn.

b. If the reactor is less than 10 watts before commencing a startup or drops to less than 10 watts during a turn-around startup, then the Log N compensation voltage must be set using the startup checklist procedure.

c. If necessary, the fission chamber may be withdrawn in order to perform an approach to the requested power level.

d. An estimated critical position (ECP) must be performed after reaching the critical position to verify the acceptability of the mental reactivity balance estimate made before startup.

B.14 Answer: d

Reference:

PULSTAR Operations Manual Section NRP-OP-101 "Reactor Startup and Shutdown" Rev. 3 Section 5

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point]

Complete the following statement: If the Actual Critical Position (ACP) is NOT within +/-200 pcm limits of the ECP ___________and notify the Designed Senior Reactor Operator.

a. recalculate the ECP b. drive rods to sub criticality

c. shutdown the reactor d. hold power at its current level

B.15 Answer: c

Reference:

PULSTAR Operations Manual Section NRP-OP-101 "Reactor Startup and Shutdown" Rev. 3 Section 2.17

QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point]

What is the dose rate after shielding a Cs-137 source that emits 1 MeV photons if the unshielded dose rate is 100 mrem/hr and the source is shielded by 1/2 inch lead? Given:

Density: 11.35 g/cm 3 Mass Attenuation Coefficient: 0.0708 cm 2/g a. 13.3 mrem/hr b. 36.2 mrem/hr

c. 50.0 mrem/hr

d. 91.4 mrem/hr B.16 Answer: b

Reference:

and µ Solving for µ= x = (0.0708 cm 2/g from table) x (11.35 g/cm

3) = 0.8 cm

-1 x = 0.5 inches x 2.54 cm/in = 1.27 cm = 36.2 mrem/hr

Reference:

10 CFR 20

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point] Complete the following sentence. According to the NC State PULSTAR license, the facility is authorized to operate at steady-state power levels not in excess of _________ (thermal).

a. 1000 kW b. 1100 kW

c. 1400 kW

d. 2200 kW B.17 Answer: a

Reference:

PULSTAR Training Manual, Facility License Rev. 17

QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point]

In the event of a suspected fuel leak from a fuel element, which of the following nuclides would most likely be found in an Air Particulate Sample? a. Cs-138 b. Rn-226

c. Xe-133 d. Co-60 B.18 Answer: a

Reference:

PULSTAR SAR and Training Manual

QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

The PULSTAR reactor has been operating at full power for 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> when the facility pool wall becomes breached and there is significant leakage, resulting in the lowering of pool level at a rate of 1 cm/minute. Which of the following is the greatest issue/concern as a result of this event?

a. Overheating a fuel pin or more, resulting in clad failure and fission product release

b. Overheating a fuel pin or more, resulting in Zirconium-Hydride reaction which releases explosive hydrogen gas

c. Groundwater contamination to the surrounding water table

d. Increased personnel exposure to higher amounts of radiation B.19 Answer: d

Reference:

PULSTAR SAR, Section 13.2.1.3

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point]

Complete the following statement.

The ___________ is responsible for assessment and response actions involving licensed radioactive materials and PULSTAR reactor operations throughout the emergency and recovery which affect areas inside the PULSTAR Operations Boundary

a. PULSTAR Emergency Organization (PEO) b. Radiation Safety Officer (RSO) c. Incident Command System (ICS) d. NCSU Campus Police B.20 Answer: a

Reference:

PULSTAR E-Plan, Rev. 8 Section 3.0

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question: C.001 1.0 point (1.0) Which one of the following is the Startup Neutron Source utilized at the NC State Pulstar reactor?

a. Plutonium - beryllium

b. Antimony - beryllium c. Polonium - beryllium

d. Americium - beryllium

Answer: C.001 a.

Reference:

NCS Pulstar Operations Manual, Section 1, "General Information", Page 1-9

Question: C.002 1.0 point (2.0) Which ONE of the following rods has the highest worth? a. Safety #1 b. Safety #2

c. Regulating

d. Pulse

Answer: C.002 c.

Reference:

NCSU Training Manual page 3-3

Question: C.003 1.0 point (3.0) Which of the following statements best characterizes Natural Circulation?

a. It needs a pump to get started. b. The elevation of the heat source must be above that of the heat sink. c. The driving force is a difference in density. d. Heat transfer is more efficient if steam is mixed with water.

Answer: C.003 c.

Reference:

General Physics, HT&FF, pp. 355 - 358

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.004 1.0 point (4.0) Which ONE of the following radiation monitors, when in an ALARM condition, causes an evacuation?

a. VAMP. b. Filter GM. c. Auxiliary GM. d. CAM. Answer: C.004 c.

Reference:

Pulstar Emergency Procedures, Emergency Procedure 1, Attachment 5.

Question: C.005 1.0 point (5.0) When the Confinement Mode is initiated, the order for the flow path for the discharged air is through the:

a. HEPA filter, charcoal absorber, confinement fan and stack. b. confinement fan, HEPA filter, charcoal absorber and stack.

c. pre-filter, main filter, confinement fan, and stack. d. HEPA filter, confinement fan, charcoal absorber and stack.

Answer: C.005 a.

Reference:

Pulstar Safety Analysis Report, section 5.3.2.

Question: C.006 1.0 point (6.0) The operation of the cooling tower fans is controlled by: a. the temperature of secondary water in the pump suction header.

b. the temperature of primary water entering the heat exchanger. c. the temperature of secondary water leaving the heat exchanger. d. the outside air temperature.

Answer: C.006 a.

Reference:

Pulstar Operations Manual, section 4.2.2

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question: C.007 1.0 point (7.0) Which ONE of the following is NOT an automatic primary coolant system SCRAM while operating in the Forced Convection mode?

a. Low primary flow, less than 475 gpm when power is greater than 200 kW. b. Flapper open, power greater than 250 kW. c. Low water level, 36 inches below normal. d. High pool temperature, 114 o F. Answer: C.007 d.

Reference:

Pulstar Operations Manual, section 5.1.4.7.

Question: C.008 1.0 point (8.0) Which ONE of the following conditions will prevent the successful initiation of the Automatic Control system?

a. MODE switch in "Steady State". b. No motion of GANG DRIVE switch.

c. The FC ABS DEV (Trip 4) is not lit. d. Regulating rod at 18.0 inches.

Answer: C.008 c.

Reference:

Pulstar Operations Manual, section 3.2.1.4.

Question: C.009 1.0 point, 1/4 each (9.0) Match the nuclear instrumentation actions listed in Column A with the detector types listed in Column B.

Column B answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A Column B

a. Supplies input to Automatic Channel. 1. Fission Chamber.

b. Low count rate rod withdrawal inhibit. 2. Uncompensated Ion Chamber.

c. Supplies signal for Reverse drive. 3. GM tube. d. Supplies input to safety power meter. 4. Compensated Ion Chamber.

Answer: C.009 a. = 4; b =1; c. = 4 d. = 2.

Reference:

Pulstar Safety Analysis Report, Figure 7-1.

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.010 1.0 point (10.0) On a loss of the Reactor Air compressor a. an auxiliary compressor may be used to supply air. b. loss of reactor air will have no impact on reactor operations.

c. a high pressure nitrogen tank and regulator can be connected to the air supply line. d. operations may continue for approximately 11/2 hours due to the reserve capacity in the system.

Answer: C.010 c.

Reference:

Pulstar Nuclear Reactor Training Manual 7.3.8

Question: C.011 1.0 point (11.0) Which ONE of the following conditions (events) will NOT cause a Reverse Drive? a. Ganged Insert" switch in the IN position

b. Loss of magnet power with the Reactor Keyswitch "ON" c. Linear Power channel at 80% d. Startup channel at greater than 5 x 10 3 cps Answer: C.011 c.

Reference:

SAR § 7.4.4

Question: C.012 1.0 point (12.0) After losing commercial power, you attempt to start the Auxiliary Generator but the cranking limiter contact opens up. To restart the generator you must -

a. place the Start switch to stop than to start b. reset the cranking limiter at the Auxiliary Generator control panel

c. place the Auxiliary Distribution Panel switch in the open position

d. place the Run-Stop-Remote switch in the Run position Answer: C.12: b REF: Pulstar Nuclear Reactor Training Manual 8.3.3

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question: C.013 1.0 point (13.0) The flow rate of the primary system is varied by which of the following methods? a. Adjusting the speed of the primary pump.

b. Adjusting the orifice downstream of the flow straightening tubes.

c. Adjusting the control signal from the flow transmitter.

d. Adjusting the position of the primary pump discharge valve.

Answer: C.013 d.

Reference:

Pulstar Nuclear Reactor Training Manual 4.2.1

Question: C.014 1.0 point (14.0) The Stack Particulate radiation monitor uses a(n) - a. Ion Chamber detector. b. Proportional Counter detector. c. Geiger Müller detector. d. Scintillation detector.

Answer: C.014 d.

Reference:

NCSU, Ops Manual, Table 7-1 (4/24/1986)

Question: C.015 [1.0 point, 1/4 each] (15.0)

Identify whether the Reactor Air System supplies air to the listed process instrumentation (YES) or not (NO). a. Pool Level Measuring Channel

b. Flow Measuring Channel

c. Flow Monitoring Channel

d. Temperature Measuring Channel

Answer: C.015 a. = YES; b. = YES; c. = NO; d. = NO

Reference:

SAR § 7.3.8, pp. 7-7 & 7-8.

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.016 1.0 point (16.0) An Area Radiation Monitor has the RANGE light indicating solid red and the display reads EEEEE. This indicates that -

a. the alarm circuitry self-test has detected an anomaly. b. the reading is off-scale HIGH.

c. the reading is off-scale LOW.

d. the detector circuitry self-test has detected an anomaly.

Answer: C.016 b.

Reference:

PULSTAR Operating Manual §7.2.2.1.d

Question: C.017 1.0 points, 1/4 each (17.0) Match the Instrumentation channel in column A with its associated detector type in Column B. (Note: detectors in Column B may be used more than once or not at all.)

Column A Column B

a. Linear 1. Gamma Sensitive Ionization Chamber

b. Log N 2. Boron lined Uncompensated Ionization Chamber

c. Safety 3. Boron lined Compensated Ionization Chamber

d. N 16 4. Fission Chamber Answer: C.017 a. = 3; b. = 3; c. = 2; d. = 1

Reference:

SAR § 7.1, NRC examination administered July, 1992.

Question: C.018 1.0 points, 1/4 each (18.0) Match the purification system symptoms listed in column A with the causes listed in Column B. (No changes have been made to any equipment, i.e. no valves have been manipulated. Each item in column B with match up with only one item in column A.)

Column A Column B

a. High Radiation level in demineralizer tank 1. Resin separation (channeling)

b. High radiation level at demineralizer outlet 2. Fission product release

c. High flow through demineralizer tanks 3. High water temperature

d. High pressure on demineralizer inlet 4. Clogging Answer: C.018 a. = 2; b. = 3; c. = 1; d. = 4

Reference:

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question: C.019 1.0 points, 1/4 each (19.0) Identify the characteristics for each of the radiation monitors listed. a. Waste Tank #1 1. Warn = "High Radiation" annunciation, Alarm = Evacuation Signal

b. Continuous Air Monitor 2. Warn = "High Radiation" annunciation, Alarm Evacuation Signal

c. Demineralizer 3. Local audible and Visual

d. Stack Gas 4. No Console annunciation

Answer: C.019 a. = 4; b. = 3; c. = 2; d. = 1

Reference:

POM, Table 7.1

Question: C.020 1.0 point (20.0) Question deleted from examination.

The confinement fan damper

-verification lights on the Radiation

-Monitoring Panel indicate which one of the following conditions?

a. power is available to the controlled dampers

b. negative air pressure in the Reactor Building is achieved

c. the damper for the confinement fan is fully open

d. the damper for the confinement fan is partially open Answer: C.020 c.

Reference:

PULSTAR Ops. Manual, Sect. 8 pg. 8

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