ML13157A096: Difference between revisions

From kanterella
Jump to navigation Jump to search
(Created page by program invented by StriderTol)
(Created page by program invented by StriderTol)
Line 40: Line 40:


==Enclosures:==
==Enclosures:==
: 1. Examination Report No. 50-27/OL-13-02  
: 1. Examination Report No. 50-27/OL-13-02
: 2. Facility Comments with NRC Resolution 3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc:  Corey Hines, Reactor Supervisor, Washington State University cc:  w/o enclosures:  See next page   
: 2. Facility Comments with NRC Resolution 3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc:  Corey Hines, Reactor Supervisor, Washington State University cc:  w/o enclosures:  See next page   


Line 81: Line 81:


REPORT DETAILS
REPORT DETAILS
: 1. Examiners: John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC  
: 1. Examiners: John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC
: 2. Results:
: 2. Results:
RO PASS/FAILSRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAILWritten 6/00/06/0 Operating Tests 6/00/06/0 Overall 6/00/06/0  
RO PASS/FAILSRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAILWritten 6/00/06/0 Operating Tests 6/00/06/0 Overall 6/00/06/0
: 3. Exit Meeting:
: 3. Exit Meeting:
John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC Paulette Torres, Reactor Engineer, NRC Corey Hines, Reactor Supervisor, Washington State University  
John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC Paulette Torres, Reactor Engineer, NRC Corey Hines, Reactor Supervisor, Washington State University  


At the conclusion of the site visit, the examiner met with representative of the facility staff to discuss the results of the examinations. The facility licensee had no comments on the written examination except recommendation of changing the answer key on question B.1 (see Enclosure 2).
At the conclusion of the site visit, the examiner met with representative of the facility staff to discuss the results of the examinations. The facility licensee had no comments on the written examination except recommendation of changing the answer key on question B.1 (see Enclosure 2).
ENCLOSURE 2 FACILITY COMMENTS ON THE WRITTEN EXAM WITH NRC RESOLUTION QUESTION    B.1  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following situations would illustrate a time when the reactor is both shutdown AND secured?  
ENCLOSURE 2 FACILITY COMMENTS ON THE WRITTEN EXAM WITH NRC RESOLUTION QUESTION    B.1  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following situations would illustrate a time when the reactor is both shutdown AND secured?
: a. An experiment having a reactivity of 40¢ is being installed in the central thimble with all control rods fully inserted and the key removed.  
: a. An experiment having a reactivity of 40¢ is being installed in the central thimble with all control rods fully inserted and the key removed.
: b. All control rods are fully inserted; the console key is in the 'off' position and removed, while fuel is being rearranged in the fuel storage racks.  
: b. All control rods are fully inserted; the console key is in the 'off' position and removed, while fuel is being rearranged in the fuel storage racks.
: c. The shim rods are withdrawn to a subcritical position, the core is subcritical by $1.20.  
: c. The shim rods are withdrawn to a subcritical position, the core is subcritical by $1.20.
: d. One of the control rods is removed for inspection; all other rods are fully inserted and the console key is in the 'off' position and removed.
: d. One of the control rods is removed for inspection; all other rods are fully inserted and the console key is in the 'off' position and removed.
Answer:    b   
Answer:    b   
Line 101: Line 101:
TS Section 1, definition of reactor secured:  
TS Section 1, definition of reactor secured:  


(2) The following conditions exist:  
(2) The following conditions exist:  


(a) The reactor is shutdown;  
(a) The reactor is shutdown;  
Line 107: Line 107:
(b) All of the control elements are fully inserted;  
(b) All of the control elements are fully inserted;  


(c) The console key switch is in the "off" position and the key is removed from the console lock;  
(c) The console key switch is in the "off" position and the key is removed from the console lock;  


(d) No work is in progress involving core fuel, core structure, installed control rods, or control rod  
(d) No work is in progress involving core fuel, core structure, installed control rods, or control rod  
Line 174: Line 174:
A20  a  b  c  d  ___  
A20  a  b  c  d  ___  


(***** END OF CATEGORY  A *****)
(***** END OF CATEGORY  A *****)
B. NORMAL/EMERG PROCEDURES & RAD CON A N S W E R  S H E E T Multiple Choice  (Circle or X your choice)  
B. NORMAL/EMERG PROCEDURES & RAD CON A N S W E R  S H E E T Multiple Choice  (Circle or X your choice)  


Line 214: Line 214:
B20  a ___  b ___  c ___  d  ___ (0.25 each)  
B20  a ___  b ___  c ___  d  ___ (0.25 each)  


(***** END OF CATEGORY  B *****)
(***** END OF CATEGORY  B *****)
C. PLANT AND RAD MONITORING SYSTEMS A N S W E R  S H E E T Multiple Choice  (Circle or X your choice)  
C. PLANT AND RAD MONITORING SYSTEMS A N S W E R  S H E E T Multiple Choice  (Circle or X your choice)  


Line 255: Line 255:
C20  a ___  b ___  c ___  d  ___ (0.25 each)  
C20  a ___  b ___  c ___  d  ___ (0.25 each)  


(***** END OF CATEGORY  C *****) (********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)
(***** END OF CATEGORY  C *****) (********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:  
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
: 1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.  
: 1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
: 2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.  
: 2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
: 3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.  
: 3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
: 4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.  
: 4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
: 5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.  
: 5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.
: 6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.  
: 6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
: 7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.  
: 7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
: 8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.  
: 8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
: 9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.  
: 9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
: 10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.  
: 10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
: 11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.  
: 11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
: 12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
: 12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
EQUATION SHEET
EQUATION SHEET
Line 276: Line 276:


1 gal (H 2 O)  8 lbm    °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) c P = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F    c p = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C
1 gal (H 2 O)  8 lbm    °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) c P = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F    c p = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C
    ()()2 2 max=P 1 sec 1.0=eff=t e P P 0 eff K S S SCR=1sec 10 1 4*x=+=eff SUR 06.26 ()()2 1 1 1 2 1 eff eff K CR K CR=()()2 2 1 1=CR CR 2 1 1 1 eff eff K K M=1 2 1 1 CR CR K M eff==)(0 10 t SUR P P=()0 1 P P=eff eff K K SDM=1=*++= eff*2 1 1 2 eff eff eff eff K K K K=693.0 2 1=T eff eff K K 1=t e DR DR=0 ()2 6 R n E Ci DR=2 2 2 2 1 1 d DR d DR=()()1 2 1 2 2 2 Peak Peak=T UA H m T c m Q P===
()()2 2 max=P 1 sec 1.0=eff=t e P P 0 eff K S S SCR=1sec 10 1 4*x=+=eff SUR 06.26 ()()2 1 1 1 2 1 eff eff K CR K CR=()()2 2 1 1=CR CR 2 1 1 1 eff eff K K M=1 2 1 1 CR CR K M eff==)(0 10 t SUR P P=()0 1 P P=eff eff K K SDM=1=*++= eff*2 1 1 2 eff eff eff eff K K K K=693.0 2 1=T eff eff K K 1=t e DR DR=0 ()2 6 R n E Ci DR=2 2 2 2 1 1 d DR d DR=()()1 2 1 2 2 2 Peak Peak=T UA H m T c m Q P===
ENCLOSURE 2 WASHINGTON STATE UNIVERSITY TRIGA REACTOR Operator Licensing Examination Week of May 20, 2013  
ENCLOSURE 2 WASHINGTON STATE UNIVERSITY TRIGA REACTOR Operator Licensing Examination Week of May 20, 2013  


Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 1    QUESTION A.1  [1.0 point]
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 1    QUESTION A.1  [1.0 point]
The reactor is at 100 kW power in manual mode. Which ONE of the following conditions will require a control rod INSERTION to maintain the same power level?
The reactor is at 100 kW power in manual mode. Which ONE of the following conditions will require a control rod INSERTION to maintain the same power level?
: a. Insertion of a negative reactivity worth experiment  
: a. Insertion of a negative reactivity worth experiment
: b. U 235 concentration decrease (Fuel Burnup)  
: b. U 235 concentration decrease (Fuel Burnup)
: c. Primary coolant temperature decreases  
: c. Primary coolant temperature decreases
: d. Xenon buildup  
: d. Xenon buildup  


QUESTION    A.2  [1.0 point] During a Subcritical Multiplication "1/M" plot, data is required to be taken. What does the 1/M represent?  
QUESTION    A.2  [1.0 point] During a Subcritical Multiplication "1/M" plot, data is required to be taken. What does the 1/M represent?
: a. The inverse of fuel elements presented in the core  
: a. The inverse of fuel elements presented in the core
: b. The inverse of the moderator coefficient of reactivity  
: b. The inverse of the moderator coefficient of reactivity
: c. The inverse migration length of neutrons of varying energies
: c. The inverse migration length of neutrons of varying energies
: d. The inverse multiplication of the count rate between generations  
: d. The inverse multiplication of the count rate between generations  


QUESTION    A.3  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following is the reason that Xenon peaks after a shutdown?  
QUESTION    A.3  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following is the reason that Xenon peaks after a shutdown?
: a. Iodine decays faster than Xenon decays  
: a. Iodine decays faster than Xenon decays
: b. Samarium decays faster than Xenon decays  
: b. Samarium decays faster than Xenon decays
: c. Xenon decays faster than Iodine decays  
: c. Xenon decays faster than Iodine decays
: d. Xenon decays faster than Promethium  
: d. Xenon decays faster than Promethium  


Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 2    QUESTION    A.4  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following will be the resulting stable reactor period when a $0.20 reactivity insertion is made into an exactly critical reactor core?  Given  
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 2    QUESTION    A.4  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following will be the resulting stable reactor period when a $0.20 reactivity insertion is made into an exactly critical reactor core?  Given  
  =0.0070 and =0.1  a. 25 seconds  
  =0.0070 and =0.1  a. 25 seconds
: b. 32 seconds  
: b. 32 seconds
: c. 40 seconds  
: c. 40 seconds
: d. 80 seconds  
: d. 80 seconds  


QUESTION    A.5  [1.0 point] Which one of the following is the definition of the FAST FISSION FACTOR
QUESTION    A.5  [1.0 point] Which one of the following is the definition of the FAST FISSION FACTOR
?  a. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast fission to the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission.  
?  a. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast fission to the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission.
: b. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission to the number of neutrons produced by fast fission.  
: b. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission to the number of neutrons produced by fast fission.
: c. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast and thermal fission to the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission.  
: c. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast and thermal fission to the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission.
: d. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast fission to the number of neutrons produced by fast and thermal fission.  
: d. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast fission to the number of neutrons produced by fast and thermal fission.  


Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 3    QUESTION A.6  [1.0 point]
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 3    QUESTION A.6  [1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following describes the MAJOR contributor to the negative temperature coefficient of reactivity in the WSU TRIGA reactor?  
Which ONE of the following describes the MAJOR contributor to the negative temperature coefficient of reactivity in the WSU TRIGA reactor?
: a. Decreasing of fuel density
: a. Decreasing of fuel density
: b. Zr-H Moderator Effects  
: b. Zr-H Moderator Effects
: c. Decreasing of water pool density  
: c. Decreasing of water pool density
: d. Increasing the resonance absorption in the fuel   
: d. Increasing the resonance absorption in the fuel   


QUESTION  A.7  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following explains the response of a SUBCRITICAL reactor to equal insertions of positive reactivity as the reactor approaches criticality?  Each insertion causes a -  
QUESTION  A.7  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following explains the response of a SUBCRITICAL reactor to equal insertions of positive reactivity as the reactor approaches criticality?  Each insertion causes a -
: a. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize.  
: a. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize.
: b. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize.  
: b. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize.
: c. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.  
: c. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.
: d. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.  
: d. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.  


QUESTION  A.8  [1.0 point] Reactor A increases power from 10% to 20% with a period of 25 seconds. Reactor B increases power from 80% to 100% with a period of also 25 seconds. Compared to Reactor A, the time required for the power increase of Reactor B is:  
QUESTION  A.8  [1.0 point] Reactor A increases power from 10% to 20% with a period of 25 seconds. Reactor B increases power from 80% to 100% with a period of also 25 seconds. Compared to Reactor A, the time required for the power increase of Reactor B is:
: a. Longer than A
: a. Longer than A
: b. Shorter than A  
: b. Shorter than A
: c. Twice that of A
: c. Twice that of A
: d. Exactly the same as A  
: d. Exactly the same as A  


Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 4    QUESTION A.9  [1.0 point]
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 4    QUESTION A.9  [1.0 point]
Which one of the following correctly describes the relationship between differential rod worth (DRW) and integral rod worth (IRW)?
Which one of the following correctly describes the relationship between differential rod worth (DRW) and integral rod worth (IRW)?
: a. DRW is the slope of the IRW curve at a given location.
: a. DRW is the slope of the IRW curve at a given location.
: b. DRW is the area under the IRW curve at a given location.
: b. DRW is the area under the IRW curve at a given location.
: c. DRW is the square root of the IRW curve at a given location.
: c. DRW is the square root of the IRW curve at a given location.
: d. There is no relationship between DRW and IRW.   
: d. There is no relationship between DRW and IRW.   


QUESTION    A.10 [1.0 point] Why is the stable negative period following a scram always the same value,- 80 second, regardless of initial power level?  The rate of power change is dependent on the:  
QUESTION    A.10 [1.0 point] Why is the stable negative period following a scram always the same value,- 80 second, regardless of initial power level?  The rate of power change is dependent on the:
: a. Constant decay rate of prompt neutrons.
: a. Constant decay rate of prompt neutrons.
: b. Constant decay rate of prompt gamma emitters.  
: b. Constant decay rate of prompt gamma emitters.
: c. Mean lifetime of the longest lived delayed precursor.  
: c. Mean lifetime of the longest lived delayed precursor.
: d. Mean lifetime of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursor.  
: d. Mean lifetime of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursor.  


QUESTION  A.11  [1.0 point] Reactor is at a power level of 50 watts. The operator IMMEDIATELY inserts an experiment with a reactivity worth of $1.00 into the core. This insertion will cause:
QUESTION  A.11  [1.0 point] Reactor is at a power level of 50 watts. The operator IMMEDIATELY inserts an experiment with a reactivity worth of $1.00 into the core. This insertion will cause:
Given:
Given:
T: reactor period, *: Prompt neutron lifetime; : reactivity insertion; : beta fraction  
T: reactor period, *: Prompt neutron lifetime; : reactivity insertion; : beta fraction
: a. A delayed reactor period to be equal to NEGATIVE (-) 80 seconds  
: a. A delayed reactor period to be equal to NEGATIVE (-) 80 seconds
: b. A number of prompt neutrons equals to a number of delayed neutrons
: b. A number of prompt neutrons equals to a number of delayed neutrons
: c. The immediate reactor period to be a function of the prompt neutron lifetime (T=*/)
: c. The immediate reactor period to be a function of the prompt neutron lifetime (T=*/)
: d. A sudden change of power that equals to the initial power multiplied by (1- )/ ( -)
: d. A sudden change of power that equals to the initial power multiplied by (1- )/ ( -)
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 5    QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]    Reactor power doubles in 30 seconds. Based on the period associated with this transient, how long will it take for reactor power to increase by a factor of 10?  
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 5    QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]    Reactor power doubles in 30 seconds. Based on the period associated with this transient, how long will it take for reactor power to increase by a factor of 10?
: a. 80 seconds  
: a. 80 seconds
: b. 100 seconds  
: b. 100 seconds
: c. 120 seconds  
: c. 120 seconds
: d. 140 seconds  
: d. 140 seconds  


QUESTION    A.13 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following is the correct reason for an installed neutron source within the core?
QUESTION    A.13 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following is the correct reason for an installed neutron source within the core?
A startup without an installed neutron source:
A startup without an installed neutron source:
: a. Is impossible because there would be no neutrons available to start up the reactor.  
: a. Is impossible because there would be no neutrons available to start up the reactor.
: b. Would be very slow because it would take a long time to build up neutron population from so low a level.  
: b. Would be very slow because it would take a long time to build up neutron population from so low a level.
: c. Can be compensated for by adjusting the compensating voltage on the source range detector.  
: c. Can be compensated for by adjusting the compensating voltage on the source range detector.
: d. Could result in a very short period due to the reactor going critical before neutron population built up high enough to be read on nuclear instrumentation.  
: d. Could result in a very short period due to the reactor going critical before neutron population built up high enough to be read on nuclear instrumentation.  


QUESTION    A.14 [1.0 point] Initially Nuclear Instrumentation is reading 60 counts per second (CPS) and the reactor has a K eff of 0.95. You add an experiment which causes the nuclear instrumentation reading to increase to 120 CPS. Which ONE of the following is the new K eff?
QUESTION    A.14 [1.0 point] Initially Nuclear Instrumentation is reading 60 counts per second (CPS) and the reactor has a K eff of 0.95. You add an experiment which causes the nuclear instrumentation reading to increase to 120 CPS. Which ONE of the following is the new K eff?
: a. 0.925  b. 0.955  
: a. 0.925  b. 0.955
: c. 0.965  
: c. 0.965
: d. 0.975   
: d. 0.975   


Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 6    QUESTION    A.15 [1.0 point] The reactor is operating in the automatic mode at 100 KW with the regulating rod at 8 inches. A malfunction of equipment in the secondary cooling system causes primary temperature to increase by 10
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 6    QUESTION    A.15 [1.0 point] The reactor is operating in the automatic mode at 100 KW with the regulating rod at 8 inches. A malfunction of equipment in the secondary cooling system causes primary temperature to increase by 10
  °F. Disregarding any other automated system design features, the new position of the regulating rod is between:  
  °F. Disregarding any other automated system design features, the new position of the regulating rod is between:
: a. 7.00 - 7.25 inches  
: a. 7.00 - 7.25 inches
: b. 8.00 - 8.50 inches  
: b. 8.00 - 8.50 inches
: c. 9.25 - 9.50 inches  
: c. 9.25 - 9.50 inches
: d. 10.75 - 11.00 inches   
: d. 10.75 - 11.00 inches   


Line 379: Line 379:
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 7    QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]
Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 7    QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]
What is the HALF LIFE of the isotope contained in a sample which produces the following count rates? Time (Minutes) Counts per Minute (cpm)
What is the HALF LIFE of the isotope contained in a sample which produces the following count rates? Time (Minutes) Counts per Minute (cpm)
Initial 950 60 702 120 518 180 383 240 283  a. 124  b. 137  
Initial 950 60 702 120 518 180 383 240 283  a. 124  b. 137
: c. 198  
: c. 198
: d. 423   
: d. 423   


QUESTION    A.17 [1.0 point] Reactor power is tripled in every minute. The reactor period is:  
QUESTION    A.17 [1.0 point] Reactor power is tripled in every minute. The reactor period is:
: a. 65 seconds  
: a. 65 seconds
: b. 55 seconds  
: b. 55 seconds
: c. 26 seconds  
: c. 26 seconds
: d. 13 seconds   
: d. 13 seconds   


QUESTION  A.18 [1.0 point] What is the kinetic energy range of a thermal neutron?  
QUESTION  A.18 [1.0 point] What is the kinetic energy range of a thermal neutron?
: a. > 1 MeV  
: a. > 1 MeV
: b. 100 KeV - 1 MeV  
: b. 100 KeV - 1 MeV
: c. 1 eV - 100 KeV  
: c. 1 eV - 100 KeV
: d. < 1 eV Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 8    QUESTION  A.19  [1.0 point]  Which ONE of the following reasons causes the reactor power to rapidly decrease in Zr-H-U mixture used in the TRIGA fuel due to a rapid power excursion (rapid reactivity change)?  
: d. < 1 eV Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics  Page 8    QUESTION  A.19  [1.0 point]  Which ONE of the following reasons causes the reactor power to rapidly decrease in Zr-H-U mixture used in the TRIGA fuel due to a rapid power excursion (rapid reactivity change)?
: a. By increasing of the reproduction factor. b. By increasing of Doppler broadening of Zr.
: a. By increasing of the reproduction factor. b. By increasing of Doppler broadening of Zr.
: c. By decreasing of the thermal utilization factor. d. By increasing of Doppler broadening of U-235.
: c. By decreasing of the thermal utilization factor. d. By increasing of Doppler broadening of U-235.
QUESTION  A.20  [1.0 point]  Which ONE of the following correctly describes the SIX- FACTOR FORMULA?
QUESTION  A.20  [1.0 point]  Which ONE of the following correctly describes the SIX- FACTOR FORMULA?
: a. K = K eff
: a. K = K eff
* the resonance escape probability (p)  
* the resonance escape probability (p)
: b. K = K eff
: b. K = K eff
* the total non-leakage probability ( f  th)  c. K eff = K
* the total non-leakage probability ( f  th)  c. K eff = K
* the total non-leakage probability ( f  th)  d. K eff = K * (the resonance escape probability (p)* the reproduction factor ())    *****************    End of Section A  *****************  
* the total non-leakage probability ( f  th)  d. K eff = K * (the resonance escape probability (p)* the reproduction factor ())    *****************    End of Section A  *****************  


Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 9  QUESTION    B.1  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following situations would illustrate a time when the reactor is both shutdown AND secured?  
Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 9  QUESTION    B.1  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following situations would illustrate a time when the reactor is both shutdown AND secured?
: a. An experiment having a reactivity of 40&#xa2; is being installed in the central thimble with all control rods fully inserted and the key removed.  
: a. An experiment having a reactivity of 40&#xa2; is being installed in the central thimble with all control rods fully inserted and the key removed.
: b. All control rods are fully inserted; the console key is in the 'off' position and removed, while fuel is being rearranged in the fuel storage racks.  
: b. All control rods are fully inserted; the console key is in the 'off' position and removed, while fuel is being rearranged in the fuel storage racks.
: c. The shim rods are withdrawn to a subcritical position, the core is subcritical by $1.20.  
: c. The shim rods are withdrawn to a subcritical position, the core is subcritical by $1.20.
: d. One of the control rods is removed for inspection; all other rods are fully inserted and the console key is in the 'off' position and removed.  
: d. One of the control rods is removed for inspection; all other rods are fully inserted and the console key is in the 'off' position and removed.  


QUESTION    B.2  [1.0 point] Annual limit on intake (ALI) means the derived limit for the amount of radioactive material taken into the body of an adult worker by inhalation or ingestion in a year. What is the regulatory limit on the total effective dose equivalent for an individual in one year?  
QUESTION    B.2  [1.0 point] Annual limit on intake (ALI) means the derived limit for the amount of radioactive material taken into the body of an adult worker by inhalation or ingestion in a year. What is the regulatory limit on the total effective dose equivalent for an individual in one year?
: a. 0.05 Rem  
: a. 0.05 Rem
: b. 0.50 Rem  
: b. 0.50 Rem
: c. 5 Rem  
: c. 5 Rem
: d. 50 Rem  
: d. 50 Rem  


QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point] An accessible area within the facility has general radiation levels of 225 mrem/hour. What would be the EXPECTED posting for this area?  
QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point] An accessible area within the facility has general radiation levels of 225 mrem/hour. What would be the EXPECTED posting for this area?
: a. "Caution, Airborne Radioactivity Area"  
: a. "Caution, Airborne Radioactivity Area"
: b. "Caution, Radiation Area"  
: b. "Caution, Radiation Area"
: c. "Danger, High Radiation Area"  d. "Grave Danger, Very High Radiation Area"  
: c. "Danger, High Radiation Area"  d. "Grave Danger, Very High Radiation Area"  


Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 10  QUESTION    B.4  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the listed emergency classifications is NOT applicable at Washington State University?  
Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 10  QUESTION    B.4  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the listed emergency classifications is NOT applicable at Washington State University?
: a. Notification of Unusual Event  
: a. Notification of Unusual Event
: b. Site Area Emergency  
: b. Site Area Emergency
: c. Safety Event - (Non-Reactor Related)  
: c. Safety Event - (Non-Reactor Related)
: d. Alert  
: d. Alert  


QUESTION B.5  [1.0 point]
QUESTION B.5  [1.0 point]
A small radioactive source is to be stored in the reactor building. The source reads 1 R/hr at 30 cm. Assuming no shielding is to be used, a Radiation Area barrier would have to be erected from the source at least a distance of approximately:  
A small radioactive source is to be stored in the reactor building. The source reads 1 R/hr at 30 cm. Assuming no shielding is to be used, a Radiation Area barrier would have to be erected from the source at least a distance of approximately:
: a. 600 cm  
: a. 600 cm
: b. 425 cm  
: b. 425 cm
: c. 225 cm  
: c. 225 cm
: d. 120 cm  
: d. 120 cm  


QUESTION B.6  [1.0 point]
QUESTION B.6  [1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following events requires the written report to the U.S. NRC within 30 days?
Which ONE of the following events requires the written report to the U.S. NRC within 30 days?
: a. Revise the Administrative Procedure # 9, Special Nuclear Material Accountability Plan.  
: a. Revise the Administrative Procedure # 9, Special Nuclear Material Accountability Plan.
: b. Revise the written examination for the licensed operators.  
: b. Revise the written examination for the licensed operators.
: c. Estimated total liquid waste released.  
: c. Estimated total liquid waste released.
: d. The current Director of the Nuclear Radiation Center is retired and replaced by new Director.  
: d. The current Director of the Nuclear Radiation Center is retired and replaced by new Director.  


Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 11  QUESTION    B.7  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following actions is an example of a CHANNEL CHECK?  
Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 11  QUESTION    B.7  [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following actions is an example of a CHANNEL CHECK?
: a. Placing a source next to a radiation detector and observing meter movement.  
: a. Placing a source next to a radiation detector and observing meter movement.
: b. Observing the overlap between two different neutron detectors as power increases.  
: b. Observing the overlap between two different neutron detectors as power increases.
: c. Immersing a thermometer in an ice bath, then in boiling water and noting the output.  
: c. Immersing a thermometer in an ice bath, then in boiling water and noting the output.
: d. Performing a determination of reactor power with a heat balance, then adjusting a power meter to correspond to the heat balance.  
: d. Performing a determination of reactor power with a heat balance, then adjusting a power meter to correspond to the heat balance.  


QUESTION    B.8  [1.0 point] Which One of the following conditions is a violation of a Limiting Condition for Operation?  
QUESTION    B.8  [1.0 point] Which One of the following conditions is a violation of a Limiting Condition for Operation?
: a. The length of the fuel element exceeds the original length by 0.10 inch during fuel measurement.  
: a. The length of the fuel element exceeds the original length by 0.10 inch during fuel measurement.
: b. During a normal operation, the bulk primary coolant temperature exceeds 45 &deg;C.  
: b. During a normal operation, the bulk primary coolant temperature exceeds 45 &deg;C.
: c. During a pulse, a fuel element temperature reached 700&deg;C.  
: c. During a pulse, a fuel element temperature reached 700&deg;C.
: d. Pool conductivity is 6 x 10
: d. Pool conductivity is 6 x 10
-5 mhos/cm.  
-5 mhos/cm.  
Line 456: Line 456:
Based on 10 CFR Part 55, what are the MINIMUM operation requirements to maintain an  
Based on 10 CFR Part 55, what are the MINIMUM operation requirements to maintain an  


"active" operator's license?  
"active" operator's license?
: a. 4 hours per quarter  
: a. 4 hours per quarter
: b. 8 hours per quarter  
: b. 8 hours per quarter
: c. 8 hours per month  
: c. 8 hours per month
: d. 40 hours per year  
: d. 40 hours per year  


Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 12  QUESTION    B.10 [1 point, 0.25 point each] Match the items listed in Column A with the proper definition in Column B. Each item may be used only once.
Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 12  QUESTION    B.10 [1 point, 0.25 point each] Match the items listed in Column A with the proper definition in Column B. Each item may be used only once.
Column A          Column B  
Column A          Column B
: a. Emergency Procedure  1. Area for which offsite emergency planning is performed.
: a. Emergency Procedure  1. Area for which offsite emergency planning is performed.
: b. Emergency Planning Zone  2. Instructions that detail the implementation actions and methods required to achieve the objectives of the emergency plan.  
: b. Emergency Planning Zone  2. Instructions that detail the implementation actions and methods required to achieve the objectives of the emergency plan.
: c. Emergency Classes 3. Provides the basis for actions to cope with an emergency.  
: c. Emergency Classes 3. Provides the basis for actions to cope with an emergency.
: d. Emergency Plan 4. Grouped by severity level for which predetermined emergency measures should be taken or considered.   
: d. Emergency Plan 4. Grouped by severity level for which predetermined emergency measures should be taken or considered.   


QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]
QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]
The reactor is in operation with one SRO and one unlicensed RO trainee in the control room, and one SRO on-call. The SRO in the control room becomes sick and unconscious, what restrictions are placed on reactor operation?  
The reactor is in operation with one SRO and one unlicensed RO trainee in the control room, and one SRO on-call. The SRO in the control room becomes sick and unconscious, what restrictions are placed on reactor operation?
: a. The trainee may operate the reactor as long as he informs the SRO on-call the emergency condition.
: a. The trainee may operate the reactor as long as he informs the SRO on-call the emergency condition.
: b. The trainee may operate the reactor as long as the SRO remains in the control room.  
: b. The trainee may operate the reactor as long as the SRO remains in the control room.
: c. The reactor may continue to operate with the SRO on-call presence on the control room and the trainee may be "on call".  
: c. The reactor may continue to operate with the SRO on-call presence on the control room and the trainee may be "on call".
: d. The reactor must be shutdown, until a second licensed individual comes to the facility.  
: d. The reactor must be shutdown, until a second licensed individual comes to the facility.  


Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 13  QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]
Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 13  QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]
After completing the reactor startup, you plan to increase the power level to 500 watts for an experiment. Which ONE of the following instrumentations does not require its operation at 500 watts?  
After completing the reactor startup, you plan to increase the power level to 500 watts for an experiment. Which ONE of the following instrumentations does not require its operation at 500 watts?
: a. CAM  
: a. CAM
: b. ARM at Reactor Bridge  
: b. ARM at Reactor Bridge
: c. NLW-1000  
: c. NLW-1000
: d. Diffuser pump
: d. Diffuser pump


QUESTION    B.13 [1.0 point, 0.25 each] The WSU Technical Specifications states "Standard control rods shall have scram capability and contain borated graphite, B4Cpowder, boron or boron compounds in solid form within aluminum or stainless steel cladding."  This is an example of a:  
QUESTION    B.13 [1.0 point, 0.25 each] The WSU Technical Specifications states "Standard control rods shall have scram capability and contain borated graphite, B4Cpowder, boron or boron compounds in solid form within aluminum or stainless steel cladding."  This is an example of a:
: a. Safety Limit  
: a. Safety Limit
: b. Limiting Safety System Setting  
: b. Limiting Safety System Setting
: c. Design Feature  
: c. Design Feature
: d. Surveillance Requirement  
: d. Surveillance Requirement  


QUESTION    B.14 [1.0 point]
QUESTION    B.14 [1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following dosimeters measures ONLY gamma dose and gives real-time dose information, but not dose rate?
Which ONE of the following dosimeters measures ONLY gamma dose and gives real-time dose information, but not dose rate?
: a. Thermoluminescent Dosimeter (TLD)  
: a. Thermoluminescent Dosimeter (TLD)
: b. Film badge  
: b. Film badge
: c. Pocket ionization chamber
: c. Pocket ionization chamber
: d. Optical Stimulated Luminescence (OSL)  
: d. Optical Stimulated Luminescence (OSL)  


Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 14  QUESTION    B.15 [1.0 point] The WSU shall notify the NRC within 30 days when finding that the licensed operator commits a conviction for a felony. This requirement can be found in:  
Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 14  QUESTION    B.15 [1.0 point] The WSU shall notify the NRC within 30 days when finding that the licensed operator commits a conviction for a felony. This requirement can be found in:
: a. 10 CFR Part 26
: a. 10 CFR Part 26
: b. 10 CFR Part 50.59
: b. 10 CFR Part 50.59
: c. 10 CFR Part 55
: c. 10 CFR Part 55
: d. 10 CFR Part 73   
: d. 10 CFR Part 73   


QUESTION    B.16 [1.0 point] During an emergency with expected airborne radio nuclides in the pool room, which ONE of the following correctly describes the procedure to identify airborne radio nuclides? (Identify exact nuclides presented in the pool room).
QUESTION    B.16 [1.0 point] During an emergency with expected airborne radio nuclides in the pool room, which ONE of the following correctly describes the procedure to identify airborne radio nuclides? (Identify exact nuclides presented in the pool room).
: a. The reactor bridge radiation monitor will identify the exact nuclides in the pool room.  
: a. The reactor bridge radiation monitor will identify the exact nuclides in the pool room.
: b. You enter the pool room and use portable meter for identification of the nuclides.  
: b. You enter the pool room and use portable meter for identification of the nuclides.
: c. Use a high volume air sampler to collect particulates on a filter paper, and then count it on a multichannel analyzer.  
: c. Use a high volume air sampler to collect particulates on a filter paper, and then count it on a multichannel analyzer.
: d. Read peak energy on exhaust gas monitor, and then compare it with the maximum allowable concentration as specified in Appendix B, Table II of 10 CFR 20 for identification.
: d. Read peak energy on exhaust gas monitor, and then compare it with the maximum allowable concentration as specified in Appendix B, Table II of 10 CFR 20 for identification.
QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point] Which of the following accurately represents the surveillance requirements for a channel calibration of the POWER LEVEL MONITORING channels as specified in the WSU Technical Specification?  
QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point] Which of the following accurately represents the surveillance requirements for a channel calibration of the POWER LEVEL MONITORING channels as specified in the WSU Technical Specification?
: a. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels ANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CALORIMETRIC METHOD.  
: a. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels ANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CALORIMETRIC METHOD.
: b. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels SEMIANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CALORIMETRIC METHOD.  
: b. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels SEMIANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CALORIMETRIC METHOD.
: c. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels ANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CONTROL ROD DROP METHOD.  
: c. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels ANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CONTROL ROD DROP METHOD.
: d. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels SEMIANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the HIGH VOLTAGE ADJUSTMENT.  
: d. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels SEMIANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the HIGH VOLTAGE ADJUSTMENT.  


Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 15  QUESTION    B.18 [1.0 point] Per SOP#4, the reactor operator needs to establish a power level of approximately _________ before firing a pulse.  
Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 15  QUESTION    B.18 [1.0 point] Per SOP#4, the reactor operator needs to establish a power level of approximately _________ before firing a pulse.
: a. 5 watts
: a. 5 watts
: b. 10 watts  
: b. 10 watts
: c. 100 watts  
: c. 100 watts
: d. 1000 watts  
: d. 1000 watts  


QUESTION    B.19 [1.0 point]
QUESTION    B.19 [1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the Safety Limit (SL) and the Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS)?  
Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the Safety Limit (SL) and the Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS)?
: a. The LSSS is a limit on important process variables that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The SL initiates protective action to preclude reaching the LSSS.  
: a. The LSSS is a limit on important process variables that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The SL initiates protective action to preclude reaching the LSSS.
: b. The SL is a limit on important process variables that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The LSSS initiates protective actions to preclude reaching the SL.  
: b. The SL is a limit on important process variables that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The LSSS initiates protective actions to preclude reaching the SL.
: c. The SL is a maximum operationally limiting value that prevents exceeding the LSSS during normal operations.  
: c. The SL is a maximum operationally limiting value that prevents exceeding the LSSS during normal operations.
: d. The SL is a maximum setpoint for instrumentation response. The LSSS is the minimum number of channels required to be operable.
: d. The SL is a maximum setpoint for instrumentation response. The LSSS is the minimum number of channels required to be operable.
QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]
QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the annual dose limit values to the type of exposure.
Match the annual dose limit values to the type of exposure.
Type of Exposure            Annual Dose Limit Value
Type of Exposure            Annual Dose Limit Value
: a. Extremities            1. 0.1 rem.  
: a. Extremities            1. 0.1 rem.
: b. Lens of the Eye            2. 5.0 rem.  
: b. Lens of the Eye            2. 5.0 rem.
: c. Occupational Total Effective Dose Equivalent (TEDE)  3. 15.0 rem.  
: c. Occupational Total Effective Dose Equivalent (TEDE)  3. 15.0 rem.
: d. TEDE to a member of the public        4. 50.0 rem.  
: d. TEDE to a member of the public        4. 50.0 rem.  


  ****************************** End of Section B ********************************  
  ****************************** End of Section B ********************************  


Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 16    QUESTION    C.01 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following alarms produces a console indication alarm ONLY, but not on Scram Chain?  
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 16    QUESTION    C.01 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following alarms produces a console indication alarm ONLY, but not on Scram Chain?
: a. Building evacuation alarm  
: a. Building evacuation alarm
: b. Fire alarm  
: b. Fire alarm
: c. High radiation level alarm
: c. High radiation level alarm
: d. Continuous air monitor alarm  
: d. Continuous air monitor alarm  


QUESTION    C.02 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following reactor control system channels will automatically scram the reactor in the event of a voltage supply failure?  
QUESTION    C.02 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following reactor control system channels will automatically scram the reactor in the event of a voltage supply failure?
: a. Pool water meter  
: a. Pool water meter
: b. Linear power monitoring channel  
: b. Linear power monitoring channel
: c. Pulse air supply  
: c. Pulse air supply
: d. Exhaust gas monitor  
: d. Exhaust gas monitor  


QUESTION    C.03 [1.0 point] What is ONE of the purposes of the Log Power Level interlock on the Log Power Channel?  
QUESTION    C.03 [1.0 point] What is ONE of the purposes of the Log Power Level interlock on the Log Power Channel?
: a. To prevent startup of the reactor with less than 2 cps.
: a. To prevent startup of the reactor with less than 2 cps.
: b. To prevent the reactor from being pulsed while on a positive period.  
: b. To prevent the reactor from being pulsed while on a positive period.
: c. To prevent pulsing the reactor exceeding a peak power of 1,000 MW  
: c. To prevent pulsing the reactor exceeding a peak power of 1,000 MW
: d. To prevent the initiation of a pulse in the reactor below 1 kW.  
: d. To prevent the initiation of a pulse in the reactor below 1 kW.  


Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 17    QUESTION    C.04 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following design limits is used at WSU to insure that the reactor remains sub-critical during core changes with one control element withdrawn?  
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 17    QUESTION    C.04 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following design limits is used at WSU to insure that the reactor remains sub-critical during core changes with one control element withdrawn?
: a. Reactivity addition rate limit  
: a. Reactivity addition rate limit
: b. Fuel operating temperature limit  
: b. Fuel operating temperature limit
: c. Operating power limit
: c. Operating power limit
: d. Shutdown margin limit  
: d. Shutdown margin limit  


QUESTION    C.05 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following correctly describes the flow rates at the WSU heat exchanger?  
QUESTION    C.05 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following correctly describes the flow rates at the WSU heat exchanger?
: a. The Primary Flow Rate is higher than the Secondary Flow Rate so any water leakage would be from Secondary to Primary.  
: a. The Primary Flow Rate is higher than the Secondary Flow Rate so any water leakage would be from Secondary to Primary.
: b. The Primary Flow Rate is lower than the Secondary Flow Rate so any water leakage would be from Secondary to Primary.  
: b. The Primary Flow Rate is lower than the Secondary Flow Rate so any water leakage would be from Secondary to Primary.
: c. The Primary Flow Rate is same as the Secondary Flow Rate so no water leakage would happen due to flow balance.  
: c. The Primary Flow Rate is same as the Secondary Flow Rate so no water leakage would happen due to flow balance.
: d. The Primary Flow Rate is doubled the Secondary Flow Rate so the heat exchanger can remove heat doubled.
: d. The Primary Flow Rate is doubled the Secondary Flow Rate so the heat exchanger can remove heat doubled.
QUESTION    C.06 [1.0 point] What type of detector is used by the area monitoring system?  
QUESTION    C.06 [1.0 point] What type of detector is used by the area monitoring system?
: a. NAI(Te)  
: a. NAI(Te)
: b. Gamma sensitive  
: b. Gamma sensitive
: c. Beta-gamma sensitive  
: c. Beta-gamma sensitive
: d. Ge(Li)  
: d. Ge(Li)  


Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 18    QUESTION    C.07 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following systems is used at WSU to reduce the N-16 radiation exposure  
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 18    QUESTION    C.07 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following systems is used at WSU to reduce the N-16 radiation exposure  


level on the bridge?  
level on the bridge?
: a. A diffuser system  
: a. A diffuser system
: b. A pool cooling system  
: b. A pool cooling system
: c. A siphon break
: c. A siphon break
: d. A continuous air monitoring system  
: d. A continuous air monitoring system  


QUESTION    C.08 [1.0 point]
QUESTION    C.08 [1.0 point]
The ventilation system shall be sw itched to the isolate mode:  
The ventilation system shall be sw itched to the isolate mode:
: a. Upon a high activity alarm from the Continuous Air Monitor.  
: a. Upon a high activity alarm from the Continuous Air Monitor.
: b. Upon initiation of any kind of reactor scram.  
: b. Upon initiation of any kind of reactor scram.
: c. So the reactor pool room air can be maintained at a negative pressure.  
: c. So the reactor pool room air can be maintained at a negative pressure.
: d. Whenever the exhaust air from the reactor pool room passes through a filter before being discharged from the facility.  
: d. Whenever the exhaust air from the reactor pool room passes through a filter before being discharged from the facility.  


QUESTION    C.09 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following generates the signal used for the reactor Startup-Channel?  
QUESTION    C.09 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following generates the signal used for the reactor Startup-Channel?
: a. Fission chamber detector
: a. Fission chamber detector
: b. Compensated ion chamber detector
: b. Compensated ion chamber detector
: c. Uncompensated ion chamber detector
: c. Uncompensated ion chamber detector
: d. Period meter  
: d. Period meter  


Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 19    QUESTION    C.10 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following conditions generates a scram during a pulse mode?
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 19    QUESTION    C.10 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following conditions generates a scram during a pulse mode?
: a. Start up count rate is less than 2 cps  
: a. Start up count rate is less than 2 cps
: b. The Log-N power exceeds 125% of 1 MW  
: b. The Log-N power exceeds 125% of 1 MW
: c. The fuel temperature channel fails  
: c. The fuel temperature channel fails
: d. The NMP 1000 linear exceeds 125% of 1 MW QUESTION    C.11 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following Radiation Monitoring Systems uses a beta-gamma detector?  
: d. The NMP 1000 linear exceeds 125% of 1 MW QUESTION    C.11 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following Radiation Monitoring Systems uses a beta-gamma detector?
: a. The Argon-41 stack monitor  
: a. The Argon-41 stack monitor
: b. The continuous air monitor  
: b. The continuous air monitor
: c. The bridge area monitor  
: c. The bridge area monitor
: d. The beam room area monitor   
: d. The beam room area monitor   


QUESTION    C.12 [1.0 point] The bridge monitor is set up to scram the reactor and activate the building evacuation system if the bridge radiation level exceeds a preset high radiation level of ____________.  
QUESTION    C.12 [1.0 point] The bridge monitor is set up to scram the reactor and activate the building evacuation system if the bridge radiation level exceeds a preset high radiation level of ____________.
: a. 2.0 mR/hr  
: a. 2.0 mR/hr
: b. 23.0 mR/hr  
: b. 23.0 mR/hr
: c. 200 mR/hr  
: c. 200 mR/hr
: d. 230 mR/hr  
: d. 230 mR/hr  


Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 20    QUESTION    C.13 [1.0 point] An experiment with a reactivity worth of greater than $1.00:
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 20    QUESTION    C.13 [1.0 point] An experiment with a reactivity worth of greater than $1.00:
: a. Shall have the actual reactivity measured and recorded at the time of initial insertion.  
: a. Shall have the actual reactivity measured and recorded at the time of initial insertion.
: b. Shall be securely located or fastened to prevent movement during reactor operations.  
: b. Shall be securely located or fastened to prevent movement during reactor operations.
: c. Shall be performed under the direct supervision of the Reactor Supervisor.
: c. Shall be performed under the direct supervision of the Reactor Supervisor.
: d. Is the minimum value of the reactor shutdown margin.   
: d. Is the minimum value of the reactor shutdown margin.   


QUESTION    C.14 [1.0 point] An example of a Non-Operational Experiment is:
QUESTION    C.14 [1.0 point] An example of a Non-Operational Experiment is:
: a. Prompt neutron lifetime measurement by pulse method.  
: a. Prompt neutron lifetime measurement by pulse method.
: b. Argon-41 effluent measurement.  
: b. Argon-41 effluent measurement.
: c. Approach to critical characteristics.
: c. Approach to critical characteristics.
: d. In-core residence time of greater than 15 days.  
: d. In-core residence time of greater than 15 days.  


QUESTION    C.15 [1.0 point] The Control Element Drop Times shall be measured ____________.  
QUESTION    C.15 [1.0 point] The Control Element Drop Times shall be measured ____________.
: a. Quarterly  
: a. Quarterly
: b. Semi annually  
: b. Semi annually
: c. Annually  
: c. Annually
: d. Biannually  
: d. Biannually  


Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 21    QUESTION    C.16 [1.0 point] Prior to fuel addition to an existing operational core, a core calculation must be performed for the proposed core to estimate whether __________ is/are within License and Technical Specification limits.  
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 21    QUESTION    C.16 [1.0 point] Prior to fuel addition to an existing operational core, a core calculation must be performed for the proposed core to estimate whether __________ is/are within License and Technical Specification limits.
: a. The fuel rod temperatures and worths  
: a. The fuel rod temperatures and worths
: b. The xenon build up  
: b. The xenon build up
: c. The neutron source
: c. The neutron source
: d. The fuel element clusters  
: d. The fuel element clusters  


QUESTION    C.17 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following transient rod drive components determines the amount of reactivity inserted for a pulse?
QUESTION    C.17 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following transient rod drive components determines the amount of reactivity inserted for a pulse?
: a. The electric motor placement  
: a. The electric motor placement
: b. The ball-nut drive assembly location  
: b. The ball-nut drive assembly location
: c. The air cylinder height  
: c. The air cylinder height
: d. The three-way solenoid valve position  
: d. The three-way solenoid valve position  


QUESTION    C.18 [1.0 point]
QUESTION    C.18 [1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following rods shall be exclusively made of stainless steel only?  
Which ONE of the following rods shall be exclusively made of stainless steel only?
: a. Standard control rods  
: a. Standard control rods
: b. Instrumented fuel rod  
: b. Instrumented fuel rod
: c. Regulating control rod  
: c. Regulating control rod
: d. Transient control rod  
: d. Transient control rod  


Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 22    QUESTION    C.19 [1.0 point] Indication that the Purification System pre-filter needs changing will be provided by _________.  
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 22    QUESTION    C.19 [1.0 point] Indication that the Purification System pre-filter needs changing will be provided by _________.
: a. A decrease flow rate of less than 5 gpm
: a. A decrease flow rate of less than 5 gpm
: b. A water conductivity of 0.5 micromhos/cm or less  
: b. A water conductivity of 0.5 micromhos/cm or less
: c. Floating dust in the reactor water  
: c. Floating dust in the reactor water
: d. A pH between 5.5 and 7.5  
: d. A pH between 5.5 and 7.5  


QUESTION    C.20 [1 point, 0.25 points each] Match the unirradiated fuel rods characteristics in Column A with the reactor fuel in Column B. (Answers can be used more than once).  
QUESTION    C.20 [1 point, 0.25 points each] Match the unirradiated fuel rods characteristics in Column A with the reactor fuel in Column B. (Answers can be used more than once).  


Column A  Column B a. Uses erbium as a burnable poison. 1. Standard fuel rods  
Column A  Column B a. Uses erbium as a burnable poison. 1. Standard fuel rods
: b. The cladding shall be 304 stainless steel with a nominal thickness of 0.020 inches.  
: b. The cladding shall be 304 stainless steel with a nominal thickness of 0.020 inches.
: 2. 30/20 fuel rods  
: 2. 30/20 fuel rods
: c. The uranium content shall be a maximum of 9.0% by weight enriched to less than 20% U 235. 3. Both  d. The maximum temperature shall not exceed 1000&deg;C under any condition of operation.  
: c. The uranium content shall be a maximum of 9.0% by weight enriched to less than 20% U 235. 3. Both  d. The maximum temperature shall not exceed 1000&deg;C under any condition of operation.  



Revision as of 19:37, 28 April 2019

Examination Report No. 50-027/OL-13-02, Washington State University
ML13157A096
Person / Time
Site: Washington State University
Issue date: 06/07/2013
From: Bowman G T
Research and Test Reactors Branch B
To: Wall D
Washington State Univ
Torres, P
Shared Package
ML13092A370 List:
References
50-027/OL-13-02
Download: ML13157A096 (40)


Text

June 7, 2013

Dr. Donald Wall, Director Nuclear Radiation Center

Roundtop Drive Washington State University Pullman, WA 99164-1300

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-27/OL-13-02, WASHINGTON STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Wall:

During the week of May 20, 2013, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examinations at your Washington State University TRIGA Reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed at the conclusion of the examination with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report.

In accordance with Section 2.390 of Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Av ailable Records component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html (the Public Electronic Reading Room). The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. If you have any questions co ncerning this examination, please contact Mr.

John T. Nguyen at (301) 415-4007 or via email John.Nguyen@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Gregory T. Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation

Docket No. 50-27

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-27/OL-13-02
2. Facility Comments with NRC Resolution 3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc: Corey Hines, Reactor Supervisor, Washington State University cc: w/o enclosures: See next page

ML13157A096 OFFICE PROB:CE IOLB:LA E PROB:BC NAME JNguyen CRevelle GBowman DATE 06/04/2013 06/06 /2013 06/07/2013 Washington State University Docket No. 50-27 cc:

Director Division of Radiation Protection Department of Health

7171 Cleanwater Lane, Bldg #5 P.O. Box 47827 Olympia, WA 98504-7827

Mr. David Clark Director, Radiation Safety Office Washington State University P.O. Box 641302

Pullman, WA 99164-1302

Dr. Ken Nash Chair, Reactor Safeguards Committee Nuclear Radiation Center Washington State University P.O. Box 641300

Pullman, WA 99164-1300

Test, Research, and Training Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center

Gainesville, FL 32611

ENCLOSURE 1 U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT

REPORT NO.: 50-27/OL-13-02

FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-27

FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-76

FACILITY: Washington State University TRIGA Reactor

EXAMINATION DATES: May 20 - May 23, 2013

SUBMITTED BY: __________________________ _________

John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of May 20, 2013, the NRC administered operator licensing examination to six Reactor Operator (RO) license candidates. The entire license candidates passed all applicable portions of the examinations.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiners: John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC
2. Results:

RO PASS/FAILSRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAILWritten 6/00/06/0 Operating Tests 6/00/06/0 Overall 6/00/06/0

3. Exit Meeting:

John T. Nguyen, Chief Examiner, NRC Paulette Torres, Reactor Engineer, NRC Corey Hines, Reactor Supervisor, Washington State University

At the conclusion of the site visit, the examiner met with representative of the facility staff to discuss the results of the examinations. The facility licensee had no comments on the written examination except recommendation of changing the answer key on question B.1 (see Enclosure 2).

ENCLOSURE 2 FACILITY COMMENTS ON THE WRITTEN EXAM WITH NRC RESOLUTION QUESTION B.1 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following situations would illustrate a time when the reactor is both shutdown AND secured?

a. An experiment having a reactivity of 40¢ is being installed in the central thimble with all control rods fully inserted and the key removed.
b. All control rods are fully inserted; the console key is in the 'off' position and removed, while fuel is being rearranged in the fuel storage racks.
c. The shim rods are withdrawn to a subcritical position, the core is subcritical by $1.20.
d. One of the control rods is removed for inspection; all other rods are fully inserted and the console key is in the 'off' position and removed.

Answer: b

Reference:

Technical Specifications § 1 Definitions Facility Comment: The facility stated that both answers A and B are correct. The answer key says B, however, in answer A, an experiment of less than $1.00 (section 2 (e) of the Technical Specifications) can be placed into the core and the reactor remain secured.

Reference:

TS Section 1, definition of reactor secured:

(2) The following conditions exist:

(a) The reactor is shutdown;

(b) All of the control elements are fully inserted;

(c) The console key switch is in the "off" position and the key is removed from the console lock;

(d) No work is in progress involving core fuel, core structure, installed control rods, or control rod

drives unless they are physically decoupled from the control rods; (e) No experiments are being moved or serviced that have a reactivity worth equal to or greater than $1.00.

NRC Resolution: The NRC agree with the facility comment and accepts both A and B as correct answers.

ENCLOSURE 3 U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: Washington State University REACTOR TYPE: TRIGA DATE ADMINISTERED: 05/21/2013 CANDIDATE: _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY  % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY

VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY

20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS

20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS

20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00  % TOTALS FINAL GRADE

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

______________________________________

Candidate's Signature

A. RX THEORY, THERMO & FAC OP CHARS A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a b c d ___

A07 a b c d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a b c d ___

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

B. NORMAL/EMERG PROCEDURES & RAD CON A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a b c d ___

B07 a b c d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a b c d ___

B10 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

C. PLANT AND RAD MONITORING SYSTEMS A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a b c d ___

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a b c d ___

C10 a b c d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

C20 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___ (0.25 each)

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****) (********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.
6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet

1 Curie = 3.7 x 10 10 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 10 3 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 10 6 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf °F = 9/5 °C + 32

1 gal (H 2 O) 8 lbm °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) c P = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F c p = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C

()()2 2 max=P 1 sec 1.0=eff=t e P P 0 eff K S S SCR=1sec 10 1 4*x=+=eff SUR 06.26 ()()2 1 1 1 2 1 eff eff K CR K CR=()()2 2 1 1=CR CR 2 1 1 1 eff eff K K M=1 2 1 1 CR CR K M eff==)(0 10 t SUR P P=()0 1 P P=eff eff K K SDM=1=*++= eff*2 1 1 2 eff eff eff eff K K K K=693.0 2 1=T eff eff K K 1=t e DR DR=0 ()2 6 R n E Ci DR=2 2 2 2 1 1 d DR d DR=()()1 2 1 2 2 2 Peak Peak=T UA H m T c m Q P===

ENCLOSURE 2 WASHINGTON STATE UNIVERSITY TRIGA REACTOR Operator Licensing Examination Week of May 20, 2013

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 1 QUESTION A.1 [1.0 point]

The reactor is at 100 kW power in manual mode. Which ONE of the following conditions will require a control rod INSERTION to maintain the same power level?

a. Insertion of a negative reactivity worth experiment
b. U 235 concentration decrease (Fuel Burnup)
c. Primary coolant temperature decreases
d. Xenon buildup

QUESTION A.2 [1.0 point] During a Subcritical Multiplication "1/M" plot, data is required to be taken. What does the 1/M represent?

a. The inverse of fuel elements presented in the core
b. The inverse of the moderator coefficient of reactivity
c. The inverse migration length of neutrons of varying energies
d. The inverse multiplication of the count rate between generations

QUESTION A.3 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following is the reason that Xenon peaks after a shutdown?

a. Iodine decays faster than Xenon decays
b. Samarium decays faster than Xenon decays
c. Xenon decays faster than Iodine decays
d. Xenon decays faster than Promethium

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 2 QUESTION A.4 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following will be the resulting stable reactor period when a $0.20 reactivity insertion is made into an exactly critical reactor core? Given

=0.0070 and =0.1 a. 25 seconds

b. 32 seconds
c. 40 seconds
d. 80 seconds

QUESTION A.5 [1.0 point] Which one of the following is the definition of the FAST FISSION FACTOR

? a. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast fission to the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission.

b. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission to the number of neutrons produced by fast fission.
c. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast and thermal fission to the number of neutrons produced by thermal fission.
d. The ratio of the number of neutrons produced by fast fission to the number of neutrons produced by fast and thermal fission.

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 3 QUESTION A.6 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following describes the MAJOR contributor to the negative temperature coefficient of reactivity in the WSU TRIGA reactor?

a. Decreasing of fuel density
b. Zr-H Moderator Effects
c. Decreasing of water pool density
d. Increasing the resonance absorption in the fuel

QUESTION A.7 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following explains the response of a SUBCRITICAL reactor to equal insertions of positive reactivity as the reactor approaches criticality? Each insertion causes a -

a. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize.
b. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize.
c. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.
d. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.

QUESTION A.8 [1.0 point] Reactor A increases power from 10% to 20% with a period of 25 seconds. Reactor B increases power from 80% to 100% with a period of also 25 seconds. Compared to Reactor A, the time required for the power increase of Reactor B is:

a. Longer than A
b. Shorter than A
c. Twice that of A
d. Exactly the same as A

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 4 QUESTION A.9 [1.0 point]

Which one of the following correctly describes the relationship between differential rod worth (DRW) and integral rod worth (IRW)?

a. DRW is the slope of the IRW curve at a given location.
b. DRW is the area under the IRW curve at a given location.
c. DRW is the square root of the IRW curve at a given location.
d. There is no relationship between DRW and IRW.

QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point] Why is the stable negative period following a scram always the same value,- 80 second, regardless of initial power level? The rate of power change is dependent on the:

a. Constant decay rate of prompt neutrons.
b. Constant decay rate of prompt gamma emitters.
c. Mean lifetime of the longest lived delayed precursor.
d. Mean lifetime of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursor.

QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point] Reactor is at a power level of 50 watts. The operator IMMEDIATELY inserts an experiment with a reactivity worth of $1.00 into the core. This insertion will cause:

Given:

T: reactor period, *: Prompt neutron lifetime; : reactivity insertion; : beta fraction

a. A delayed reactor period to be equal to NEGATIVE (-) 80 seconds
b. A number of prompt neutrons equals to a number of delayed neutrons
c. The immediate reactor period to be a function of the prompt neutron lifetime (T=*/)
d. A sudden change of power that equals to the initial power multiplied by (1- )/ ( -)

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 5 QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point] Reactor power doubles in 30 seconds. Based on the period associated with this transient, how long will it take for reactor power to increase by a factor of 10?

a. 80 seconds
b. 100 seconds
c. 120 seconds
d. 140 seconds

QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following is the correct reason for an installed neutron source within the core?

A startup without an installed neutron source:

a. Is impossible because there would be no neutrons available to start up the reactor.
b. Would be very slow because it would take a long time to build up neutron population from so low a level.
c. Can be compensated for by adjusting the compensating voltage on the source range detector.
d. Could result in a very short period due to the reactor going critical before neutron population built up high enough to be read on nuclear instrumentation.

QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point] Initially Nuclear Instrumentation is reading 60 counts per second (CPS) and the reactor has a K eff of 0.95. You add an experiment which causes the nuclear instrumentation reading to increase to 120 CPS. Which ONE of the following is the new K eff?

a. 0.925 b. 0.955
c. 0.965
d. 0.975

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 6 QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point] The reactor is operating in the automatic mode at 100 KW with the regulating rod at 8 inches. A malfunction of equipment in the secondary cooling system causes primary temperature to increase by 10

°F. Disregarding any other automated system design features, the new position of the regulating rod is between:

a. 7.00 - 7.25 inches
b. 8.00 - 8.50 inches
c. 9.25 - 9.50 inches
d. 10.75 - 11.00 inches

Given the curve and the temperature coefficient as follows:

Temperature Coefficient= -4.0 cents/ °F

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 7 QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]

What is the HALF LIFE of the isotope contained in a sample which produces the following count rates? Time (Minutes) Counts per Minute (cpm)

Initial 950 60 702 120 518 180 383 240 283 a. 124 b. 137

c. 198
d. 423

QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point] Reactor power is tripled in every minute. The reactor period is:

a. 65 seconds
b. 55 seconds
c. 26 seconds
d. 13 seconds

QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point] What is the kinetic energy range of a thermal neutron?

a. > 1 MeV
b. 100 KeV - 1 MeV
c. 1 eV - 100 KeV
d. < 1 eV Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 8 QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following reasons causes the reactor power to rapidly decrease in Zr-H-U mixture used in the TRIGA fuel due to a rapid power excursion (rapid reactivity change)?
a. By increasing of the reproduction factor. b. By increasing of Doppler broadening of Zr.
c. By decreasing of the thermal utilization factor. d. By increasing of Doppler broadening of U-235.

QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following correctly describes the SIX- FACTOR FORMULA?

a. K = K eff
  • the resonance escape probability (p)
b. K = K eff
  • the total non-leakage probability ( f th) c. K eff = K
  • the total non-leakage probability ( f th) d. K eff = K * (the resonance escape probability (p)* the reproduction factor ()) ***************** End of Section A *****************

Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 9 QUESTION B.1 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following situations would illustrate a time when the reactor is both shutdown AND secured?

a. An experiment having a reactivity of 40¢ is being installed in the central thimble with all control rods fully inserted and the key removed.
b. All control rods are fully inserted; the console key is in the 'off' position and removed, while fuel is being rearranged in the fuel storage racks.
c. The shim rods are withdrawn to a subcritical position, the core is subcritical by $1.20.
d. One of the control rods is removed for inspection; all other rods are fully inserted and the console key is in the 'off' position and removed.

QUESTION B.2 [1.0 point] Annual limit on intake (ALI) means the derived limit for the amount of radioactive material taken into the body of an adult worker by inhalation or ingestion in a year. What is the regulatory limit on the total effective dose equivalent for an individual in one year?

a. 0.05 Rem
b. 0.50 Rem
c. 5 Rem
d. 50 Rem

QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point] An accessible area within the facility has general radiation levels of 225 mrem/hour. What would be the EXPECTED posting for this area?

a. "Caution, Airborne Radioactivity Area"
b. "Caution, Radiation Area"
c. "Danger, High Radiation Area" d. "Grave Danger, Very High Radiation Area"

Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 10 QUESTION B.4 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the listed emergency classifications is NOT applicable at Washington State University?

a. Notification of Unusual Event
b. Site Area Emergency
c. Safety Event - (Non-Reactor Related)
d. Alert

QUESTION B.5 [1.0 point]

A small radioactive source is to be stored in the reactor building. The source reads 1 R/hr at 30 cm. Assuming no shielding is to be used, a Radiation Area barrier would have to be erected from the source at least a distance of approximately:

a. 600 cm
b. 425 cm
c. 225 cm
d. 120 cm

QUESTION B.6 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following events requires the written report to the U.S. NRC within 30 days?

a. Revise the Administrative Procedure # 9, Special Nuclear Material Accountability Plan.
b. Revise the written examination for the licensed operators.
c. Estimated total liquid waste released.
d. The current Director of the Nuclear Radiation Center is retired and replaced by new Director.

Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 11 QUESTION B.7 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following actions is an example of a CHANNEL CHECK?

a. Placing a source next to a radiation detector and observing meter movement.
b. Observing the overlap between two different neutron detectors as power increases.
c. Immersing a thermometer in an ice bath, then in boiling water and noting the output.
d. Performing a determination of reactor power with a heat balance, then adjusting a power meter to correspond to the heat balance.

QUESTION B.8 [1.0 point] Which One of the following conditions is a violation of a Limiting Condition for Operation?

a. The length of the fuel element exceeds the original length by 0.10 inch during fuel measurement.
b. During a normal operation, the bulk primary coolant temperature exceeds 45 °C.
c. During a pulse, a fuel element temperature reached 700°C.
d. Pool conductivity is 6 x 10

-5 mhos/cm.

QUESTION B.9 [1.0 point]

Based on 10 CFR Part 55, what are the MINIMUM operation requirements to maintain an

"active" operator's license?

a. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> per quarter
b. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> per quarter
c. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> per month
d. 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> per year

Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 12 QUESTION B.10 [1 point, 0.25 point each] Match the items listed in Column A with the proper definition in Column B. Each item may be used only once.

Column A Column B

a. Emergency Procedure 1. Area for which offsite emergency planning is performed.
b. Emergency Planning Zone 2. Instructions that detail the implementation actions and methods required to achieve the objectives of the emergency plan.
c. Emergency Classes 3. Provides the basis for actions to cope with an emergency.
d. Emergency Plan 4. Grouped by severity level for which predetermined emergency measures should be taken or considered.

QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]

The reactor is in operation with one SRO and one unlicensed RO trainee in the control room, and one SRO on-call. The SRO in the control room becomes sick and unconscious, what restrictions are placed on reactor operation?

a. The trainee may operate the reactor as long as he informs the SRO on-call the emergency condition.
b. The trainee may operate the reactor as long as the SRO remains in the control room.
c. The reactor may continue to operate with the SRO on-call presence on the control room and the trainee may be "on call".
d. The reactor must be shutdown, until a second licensed individual comes to the facility.

Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 13 QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

After completing the reactor startup, you plan to increase the power level to 500 watts for an experiment. Which ONE of the following instrumentations does not require its operation at 500 watts?

a. CAM
b. ARM at Reactor Bridge
c. NLW-1000
d. Diffuser pump

QUESTION B.13 [1.0 point, 0.25 each] The WSU Technical Specifications states "Standard control rods shall have scram capability and contain borated graphite, B4Cpowder, boron or boron compounds in solid form within aluminum or stainless steel cladding." This is an example of a:

a. Safety Limit
b. Limiting Safety System Setting
c. Design Feature
d. Surveillance Requirement

QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following dosimeters measures ONLY gamma dose and gives real-time dose information, but not dose rate?

a. Thermoluminescent Dosimeter (TLD)
b. Film badge
c. Pocket ionization chamber
d. Optical Stimulated Luminescence (OSL)

Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 14 QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point] The WSU shall notify the NRC within 30 days when finding that the licensed operator commits a conviction for a felony. This requirement can be found in:

a. 10 CFR Part 26
b. 10 CFR Part 50.59
c. 10 CFR Part 55
d. 10 CFR Part 73

QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point] During an emergency with expected airborne radio nuclides in the pool room, which ONE of the following correctly describes the procedure to identify airborne radio nuclides? (Identify exact nuclides presented in the pool room).

a. The reactor bridge radiation monitor will identify the exact nuclides in the pool room.
b. You enter the pool room and use portable meter for identification of the nuclides.
c. Use a high volume air sampler to collect particulates on a filter paper, and then count it on a multichannel analyzer.
d. Read peak energy on exhaust gas monitor, and then compare it with the maximum allowable concentration as specified in Appendix B, Table II of 10 CFR 20 for identification.

QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point] Which of the following accurately represents the surveillance requirements for a channel calibration of the POWER LEVEL MONITORING channels as specified in the WSU Technical Specification?

a. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels ANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CALORIMETRIC METHOD.
b. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels SEMIANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CALORIMETRIC METHOD.
c. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels ANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the CONTROL ROD DROP METHOD.
d. A channel calibration shall be made of the power level monitoring channels SEMIANNUALLY or after a core configuration change, by the HIGH VOLTAGE ADJUSTMENT.

Section B - Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 15 QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point] Per SOP#4, the reactor operator needs to establish a power level of approximately _________ before firing a pulse.

a. 5 watts
b. 10 watts
c. 100 watts
d. 1000 watts

QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the Safety Limit (SL) and the Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS)?

a. The LSSS is a limit on important process variables that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The SL initiates protective action to preclude reaching the LSSS.
b. The SL is a limit on important process variables that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The LSSS initiates protective actions to preclude reaching the SL.
c. The SL is a maximum operationally limiting value that prevents exceeding the LSSS during normal operations.
d. The SL is a maximum setpoint for instrumentation response. The LSSS is the minimum number of channels required to be operable.

QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the annual dose limit values to the type of exposure.

Type of Exposure Annual Dose Limit Value

a. Extremities 1. 0.1 rem.
b. Lens of the Eye 2. 5.0 rem.
c. Occupational Total Effective Dose Equivalent (TEDE) 3. 15.0 rem.
d. TEDE to a member of the public 4. 50.0 rem.
                                                            • End of Section B ********************************

Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 16 QUESTION C.01 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following alarms produces a console indication alarm ONLY, but not on Scram Chain?

a. Building evacuation alarm
b. Fire alarm
c. High radiation level alarm
d. Continuous air monitor alarm

QUESTION C.02 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following reactor control system channels will automatically scram the reactor in the event of a voltage supply failure?

a. Pool water meter
b. Linear power monitoring channel
c. Pulse air supply
d. Exhaust gas monitor

QUESTION C.03 [1.0 point] What is ONE of the purposes of the Log Power Level interlock on the Log Power Channel?

a. To prevent startup of the reactor with less than 2 cps.
b. To prevent the reactor from being pulsed while on a positive period.
c. To prevent pulsing the reactor exceeding a peak power of 1,000 MW
d. To prevent the initiation of a pulse in the reactor below 1 kW.

Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 17 QUESTION C.04 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following design limits is used at WSU to insure that the reactor remains sub-critical during core changes with one control element withdrawn?

a. Reactivity addition rate limit
b. Fuel operating temperature limit
c. Operating power limit
d. Shutdown margin limit

QUESTION C.05 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following correctly describes the flow rates at the WSU heat exchanger?

a. The Primary Flow Rate is higher than the Secondary Flow Rate so any water leakage would be from Secondary to Primary.
b. The Primary Flow Rate is lower than the Secondary Flow Rate so any water leakage would be from Secondary to Primary.
c. The Primary Flow Rate is same as the Secondary Flow Rate so no water leakage would happen due to flow balance.
d. The Primary Flow Rate is doubled the Secondary Flow Rate so the heat exchanger can remove heat doubled.

QUESTION C.06 [1.0 point] What type of detector is used by the area monitoring system?

a. NAI(Te)
b. Gamma sensitive
c. Beta-gamma sensitive
d. Ge(Li)

Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 18 QUESTION C.07 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following systems is used at WSU to reduce the N-16 radiation exposure

level on the bridge?

a. A diffuser system
b. A pool cooling system
c. A siphon break
d. A continuous air monitoring system

QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point]

The ventilation system shall be sw itched to the isolate mode:

a. Upon a high activity alarm from the Continuous Air Monitor.
b. Upon initiation of any kind of reactor scram.
c. So the reactor pool room air can be maintained at a negative pressure.
d. Whenever the exhaust air from the reactor pool room passes through a filter before being discharged from the facility.

QUESTION C.09 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following generates the signal used for the reactor Startup-Channel?

a. Fission chamber detector
b. Compensated ion chamber detector
c. Uncompensated ion chamber detector
d. Period meter

Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 19 QUESTION C.10 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following conditions generates a scram during a pulse mode?

a. Start up count rate is less than 2 cps
b. The Log-N power exceeds 125% of 1 MW
c. The fuel temperature channel fails
d. The NMP 1000 linear exceeds 125% of 1 MW QUESTION C.11 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following Radiation Monitoring Systems uses a beta-gamma detector?
a. The Argon-41 stack monitor
b. The continuous air monitor
c. The bridge area monitor
d. The beam room area monitor

QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point] The bridge monitor is set up to scram the reactor and activate the building evacuation system if the bridge radiation level exceeds a preset high radiation level of ____________.

a. 2.0 mR/hr
b. 23.0 mR/hr
c. 200 mR/hr
d. 230 mR/hr

Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 20 QUESTION C.13 [1.0 point] An experiment with a reactivity worth of greater than $1.00:

a. Shall have the actual reactivity measured and recorded at the time of initial insertion.
b. Shall be securely located or fastened to prevent movement during reactor operations.
c. Shall be performed under the direct supervision of the Reactor Supervisor.
d. Is the minimum value of the reactor shutdown margin.

QUESTION C.14 [1.0 point] An example of a Non-Operational Experiment is:

a. Prompt neutron lifetime measurement by pulse method.
b. Argon-41 effluent measurement.
c. Approach to critical characteristics.
d. In-core residence time of greater than 15 days.

QUESTION C.15 [1.0 point] The Control Element Drop Times shall be measured ____________.

a. Quarterly
b. Semi annually
c. Annually
d. Biannually

Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 21 QUESTION C.16 [1.0 point] Prior to fuel addition to an existing operational core, a core calculation must be performed for the proposed core to estimate whether __________ is/are within License and Technical Specification limits.

a. The fuel rod temperatures and worths
b. The xenon build up
c. The neutron source
d. The fuel element clusters

QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point] Which ONE of the following transient rod drive components determines the amount of reactivity inserted for a pulse?

a. The electric motor placement
b. The ball-nut drive assembly location
c. The air cylinder height
d. The three-way solenoid valve position

QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following rods shall be exclusively made of stainless steel only?

a. Standard control rods
b. Instrumented fuel rod
c. Regulating control rod
d. Transient control rod

Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 22 QUESTION C.19 [1.0 point] Indication that the Purification System pre-filter needs changing will be provided by _________.

a. A decrease flow rate of less than 5 gpm
b. A water conductivity of 0.5 micromhos/cm or less
c. Floating dust in the reactor water
d. A pH between 5.5 and 7.5

QUESTION C.20 [1 point, 0.25 points each] Match the unirradiated fuel rods characteristics in Column A with the reactor fuel in Column B. (Answers can be used more than once).

Column A Column B a. Uses erbium as a burnable poison. 1. Standard fuel rods

b. The cladding shall be 304 stainless steel with a nominal thickness of 0.020 inches.
2. 30/20 fuel rods
c. The uranium content shall be a maximum of 9.0% by weight enriched to less than 20% U 235. 3. Both d. The maximum temperature shall not exceed 1000°C under any condition of operation.
                                      • End of Section C **************************** ******************* End of the Exam ***************************

Section A L Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 23 A.1 Answer c

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module X A.2 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Volume X, Module Y, Enabling Objective Z.Z A.3 Answer: a

Reference:

Reed Training Manual, Chapter 10.4

A.4 Answer: c

Reference:

=$* =$0.20*0.007 =0.0014 k T = (-)/ T = (0.0070 - 0.0014)/0.1 x 0.0014 = 40 seconds

A.5 Answer c

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 2, Module 3, Neutron Life Cycle , p. A.6 Answer: b

Reference:

Reed Training Manual A.7 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 2, Module 4, Subcritical Multiplication , A.8 Answer: b

Reference:

The power of reactor A increases by a factor of 2, while the power of reactor B increases by a factor of 1.25. Since the periods are the same (rate of change is the same), power increase B takes a shorter time.

A.9 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Volume X, Module Y, Enabling Objective Z.Z

A.10 Answer: c

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Volume X, Module Y, Enabling Objective Z.Z

Section A L Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 24 A.11 Answer c

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 4.6, page 4-17 A.12 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory. P = P 0 e t/ 1 st find . = time/(ln(2)) = 30/0.693 = 43.3 sec. Time = x ln(10) = 43.3 x 2.3 =99.7 sec A.13 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory.

A.14 Answer: d

Reference:

CR 2/CR 1 = (1 - K eff1)/(1 - K eff2) 120/60 = (1 - 0.950)/(1 - K eff2) K eff2 = 0.975 A.15 Answer: c

Reference:

The temperature increase has added -40 cents of reactivity which must be accounted for by the regulating rod to maintain 100 kW. Therefore, the Reg rod must be withdrawn 40 cent worth. Using the integral rod worth curve, with the Reg rod initially at 8 in (130 cents), the new rod height at 170 cent is 9.25 in. A.16 Answer: b

Reference:

, , , = 0.00505

, A.17 Answer: b

Reference:

P=P o e t/ = 60 sec/ln(3) = 54.6 sec A.18 Answer d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 1, Module 2, Neutron Moderation, p. 23.

A.19 Answer: c

Reference:

no Doppler broadening applied to Zr or U-235 (just for U-238 only).

A.20 Answer: c

Reference:

DOE Handbook Vol 2, L Theory (Nuclear Parameters), E.O. 1.1 a&b, pg.

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 25 B.1 Answer: Both a and b (Per facility comment)

Reference:

Technical Specifications § 1 Definitions B.2 Answer: c

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1003

B.3 Answer: c

Reference:

10 CFR 20 B.4 Answer: b

Reference:

Emergency Plan, § 4.0 Emergency Classification System B.5 Answer: b

Reference:

cm X cm X X DR DR X X DR X DR 424 180000 30 5 1000 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 1==x=== B.6 Answer: d

Reference:

TS 6.10.2 B.7 Answer: b

Reference:

TS 1.0

B.8 Answer: d

Reference:

TS 3.3

B.9 Answer: a

Reference:

10 CFR 55 B.10 Answer: a, 2 b,1 c,4 d,3

Reference:

EP Section 2.0, pg. 7

B.11 Answer: d

Reference:

SOP-4

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 26 B.12 Answer: d

Reference:

SOP#4 B.13 Answer: c

Reference:

TS Section 5.4

B.14 Answer: c

Reference:

Basic knowledge of radiation detector. TLDs, film badges, and OSLs all provide information on accumulated dose. These have to be processed. They do not tell you the dose rate. Pocket ionization chambers (often called PCs, or PICs) provide immediate visual information on your accumulated dose, but not dose

rates. B.15 Answer: c

Reference:

10 CFR 55.53

B.16 Answer: c

Reference:

EP 7.2.1 B.17 Answer: a

Reference:

TS Section 4.2.3 B.18 Answer: c

Reference:

SOP#4

B.19 Answer: b

Reference:

TS 2.1 and 2.2 B.20 Answer: a, 4; b, 3; c, 2; d, 1

Reference:

WSU Radiation Protection Program

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 27 C.01 Answer: d

Reference:

SOP #18, Section C.2.d, pg. 5 C.02 Answer: b

Reference:

SAR, Section 7.3.3, pg. 7-9 C.03 Answer: a

Reference:

SAR, Section 7.3.5, pg. 7-13 (Answer for b is the Pulse-mode switch, Answer for d is the Wide range)

C.04 Answer: d

Reference:

SAR Section 4.5.3.3, pg. 4-48 to 4-49 C.05 Answer: b

Reference:

SAR Section 5.3, pg. 5-2 to 5-11 C.06 Answer: b

Reference:

SAR Section 7.7, pg. 7-19 C.07 Answer: a

Reference:

SAR Section 5.6, pg. 5-13 C.08 Answer: b

Reference:

TS 3.4 (4), pg. 22 and Basis pg. 23 (Answers for a, c and d apply to the dilute mode, TS 3.4.3 and TS 5.7)

C.09 Answer: a

Reference:

SAR Section 7.3.1, pg. 7-6 C.10 Answer: c

Reference:

SAR Section 7.3.5, pg. 7-9 and figure 7-8 C.11 Answer: b

Reference:

SAR Section 7.7, pg. 7-19

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 28 C.12 Answer: c

Reference:

2 mR/hr is the normal operating conditions at full power (SAR Table 4.5-1, pg. 4-

33) 200 mR/hr is the setpoint (Reactor Startup Checkout Section V.A.3, pg. 2) 230 mR/hr is the calibration check (SOP #16 Section B.2.b, pg.3)

C.13 Answer: b

Reference:

SOP #1, pg. 13 C.14 Answer: d

Reference:

SOP #3, pg. 1-2

C.15 Answer: c

Reference:

SOP #5, pg. 3 C.16 Answer: a

Reference:

SOP #7, Section D.6, pg.3 C.17 Answer: c

Reference:

SAR 4.2.2, pg. 4-29 C.18 Answer: c

Reference:

TS 5.4, pg. 55 C.19 Answer: a

Reference:

SOP #24, pg. 1 and SAR 5.4, pg. 11-13 C.20 Answer: a, 2 b,3 c,1 d,1

Reference:

TS 2.1, pg.12 and TS 5.2, pg.53