Text

Initial Exam 2010-302 Final RO Written Exam
	ML103210273
Person / Time
Site:	Oconee
Issue date:	11/15/2010
From:	; NRC/RGN-II
To:	; Duke Energy Carolinas
References
	50-269/10-302, 50-270/10-302, 50-287/10-302
	Download: ML103210273 (118)
	v • d • e

N 1

/- ç 2009BONS SRO NRC Examination - QI Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

RCS pressure = 2078 psig decreasing

Pzr level = 350 inches increasing

1 SA-i 8/A-i (Pressurizer Relief Valve Flow) actuated

ALL I RC-66 flow monitor red lights are illuminated Immediate Manual Actions of AP/44 (Abnormal Pressurizer Pressure Control) directs the operator to (1) AND the actual setpoint (psig) for the Low RCS Pressure RPS trip is (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the above statement?

A. 1. Close I RC-4

2. 1800 B. 1. Close 1RC-4

2. 1810 C. 1. Manually trip the reactor

2. 1800 D. 1. Manually trip the reactor

2. 1810

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q2 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Time = 03:00

Reactor power = 100%

IA and IC RBCUs operating in HIGH speed

1 B RBCU is operable and OFF

Large Break LOCA occurs Which ONE of the following describes RBCU status at 03:04?

A. 1Aand IC RBCU5 operating in HIGH speed and lB RBCU is OFF B. 1A and IC RBCUs operating in LOW speed and lB RBCU is OFF C. ALL RBCUs operating in LOW speed D. ALL RBCUs will be OFF

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q3 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

IBI RCP 1B2 RCP UPPER Cavity Pressure 1426 psig stable 714 psig stable LOWER Cavity Pressure 2140 psig stable 1412 psig stable Motor Stand Velocity Vibration 0.8 mu stable 3.2 mils stable Spool Piece Displacement 6.5 mils stable 14.5 mils stable Which ONE of the following describes the required actions in accordance with AP/16 (Abnormal Reactor Coolant Pump Operation)?

A. Immediately trip the reactor and then trip the 1 Bi RCP B. Immediately trip the reactor and then trip the I B2 RCP C. Reduce reactor power to < 70% and then trip 1 BI RCP D. Reduce reactor power to < 70% and then trip 1 B2 RCP

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q4 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power 100%

Current conditions:

1HP-120 (RC VOLUME CONTROL) air line is severed Pzr level will INITIALLY (1) AND (2) will be used FIRST to control Pzr level in accordance with plant procedures.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. increase

2. 1HP-26 B. 1. increase

2. 1 HP-i 22 (RC Volume Control Bypass)

C. 1. decrease

2. 1HP-26 D. 1. decrease

2. IHP-122 (RC Volume Control Bypass)

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q5 Given the following two sets of plant conditions:

1. Reactor trips from 100% power. Pressurizer level decreases off scale low during the initial cooldown then returns on scale. Lowest Subcooling margin indication during the transient = 18° F. Pressurizer level is returned to 100 inches, RCS pressure = 2100 psig and Pressurizer temperature = 635° F.

2. From an initial Reactor power of 100%, ICS MAX Runback is used to decrease power to 80% to stop the I D2 HDP. Pressurizer level remains approximately 220 inches during the runback and when the runback is stopped, RCS pressure

= 2100 psig and Pressurizer temperature = 643° F.

Which ONE of the following describes the response of the two scenarios if attempting to increase RCS pressure to 2200 psig with ALL Pressurizer heaters energized and Pressurizer level maintained constant AND the reason for the response?

A. Scenario # I will reach 2200 psig first because Pressurizer level is lower and therefore less heat is required to raise the temperature of the water.

B. Scenario # 2 will reach 2200 psig first because the Pressurizer in Scenario #1 is subcooled.

C. Both scenarios would reach 2200 psig at approximately the same time because starting pressure is equal in both scenarios.

D. Neither scenario would reach 2200 psig because the spray valve will overcome the RCS pressure increase even with ALL Pressurizer heaters energized.

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q6 Given the following Unit I conditions:

ReactorinMODE3

RCS temperature = 555 °F slowly decreasing

SGTR tab in progress due to SGTR in IA SG Which ONE of the following;

1) is the range (minimum maximum) of RCS temperature (degrees F) where the EOP directs isolating the 1A SG?

2) would require steaming the IA SG after isolation in accordance with the EOP?

A. 1. 535-552

2. When the 1A SG approaches overfill conditions B. 1. 535-552

2. When the IA SG tube-to-shell delta T = (-)76 degrees F C. 1. 525-532

2. When the IA SG approaches overfill conditions D. 1. 525-532

2. When the 1A SG tube-to-shell delta T (-)76 degrees F

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q7 Given the following conditions:

Initial conditions:

All three units Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

All Units 4160v Main Feeder Busses are de-energized

Unit 1,2, and 3 EOP Blackout tabs in progress Which ONE of the following describes the required status of Unit I Essential Inverters in accordance with the EOP Enclosure 5.38 (Restoration of Power) AND the reason for the status?

A. remain energized to provide power to ES channels B. remain energized to provide control power to 41 60v switchgear C. de-energized to prevent inverter damage D. de-energized to extend available battery life

20098 ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q8 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Loss of offsite power occurs Current conditions:

Main Feeder Buses remain de-energized

1) The position of IMS-112 (SSRH Control) is (1)

2) 1 MS-77 (MS to MSRH) (2) be operated from the control room switch.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. open

2. can B. 1. closed

2. can C. 1. open

2. can NOT D. 1. closed

2. can NOT

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q9 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Main Steam Line Break occurred 20 seconds ago

. Plant response as indicated above

1) The EOP will direct the operator to (1)

2) The (2) MDEFWP(s) will automatically start.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. Secure LPI pumps

2. 1AONLY B. 1. Throttle HPI

2. 1AONLY C. 1. Secure LPI pumps

2. lAandlB D. 1. Throttle HPI

2. lAandlB

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 10 Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Reactor trip Current conditions:

ALL TBVs are in AUTO and closed

Main Steam pressure cycling between 1050 psig and 1070 psig

1) The current conditions are a result of (I)

2) The (2) will be used to restore control of MS pressure in accordance with the EOP.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Condenser vacuum = 6 hg

2. TBVs in MANUAL B. 1. Condenservacuum=6hg

2. Atmospheric Dump Valves C. 1. Selected Turbine Header Pressure failed low

2. TBVs in MANUAL D. 1. Selected Turbine Header Pressure failed low

2. Atmospheric Dump Valves

2009BONSSRO NRC Examination - Qil Given the following Unit I conditions:

SBLOCA has occurred

ALL SCMs 0°F stable

RCS pressure = 745 psig slowly decreasing

LOCA Cooldown Tab in progress Which ONE of the following describes:

I) the HIGHEST Rx vessel head level (inches) that would indicate voiding in the Rx vessel head?

2) conditions that would make the RV head level NOT valid?

A. 1.523

2. Starting IA LPI pump B. 1. 523

2. Open Reactor vessel head high point vents C. 1. 161

2. Starting IA LPI pump D. 1. 161

2. Open Reactor vessel head high point vents

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 12 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor in MODE 5

Reactor vessel level = 84 inches stable

Normal LPI decay heat removal in service

IC LPI pump operating Current conditions:

Reactor vessel level = 84 inches stable

IC LPI pump amps are cycling 5 55 amps

I C LPI pump discharge pressure is fluctuating Which ONE of the following describes:

I) the Immediate Manual Action(s) required by AP/26 (Loss of Decay heat Removal)?

2) how RCS temperature will be controlled once normal decay heat removal has been restored?

A. 1. Secure the 1 C LPI pump ONLY

2. Adjusting LPSW to LPI coolers B. 1. Secure the IC LPI pump ONLY

2. Adjusting LPI flow through LPI coolers C. 1. Secure the IC LPI pump and start the 1A LPI pump

2. Adjusting LPSW to LPI coolers D. 1. Secure the IC LPI pump and startthe lB LPI pump

2. Adjusting LPI flow through LPI coolers

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q13 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power= 100%

Feedwater and Reactor in MANUAL Current conditions:

BOTH Main Feedwater pumps trip

Reactor power = 35% decreasing

RCS pressure = 2378 psig increasing

Rule 1 (ATWS/Unanticipated Nuclear Power Production) in progress (I) will be the FIRST to add negative reactivity to the reactor AND the position of the PORV is (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. Moderator temperature coefficient

2. open B. 1. Moderator temperature coefficient

2. closed C. I. Control Rods

2. open D. 1. Control Rods

2. closed

2009BONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 14 Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Both Main FDW pumps trip

2A and 2B MDEFDW pumps did NOT start

TDEFWP did NOT start Current conditions:

Tave = 566°F stable

Recovery from CBP feed with the TDEFDW pump is in progress

TDEFWP is running and flow has been verified

1) Tave will INITIALLY be controlled by throttling (1)

2) INITIALLY a SG level (2) be established.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. EFDW flow

2. will NOT B. 1. theTBVs

2. will NOT C. 1. EFDW flow

2. will D. 1. theTBVs

2. will

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 15 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

OAC Computer Out of Service

I KVIC deenergized Which ONE of the following describes the instrumentation used to determine axial imbalance in accordance with OP/i /A/1105/014 (Control Room Instrumentation Operation And Information)?

A. lncore Detectors B. Backup Incore Detectors C. Imbalance readout indications in RPS cabinets D. Control Room Power Range Dixon gauge indications

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 16 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

SA-141 (SA to IA Controller) failed closed Which ONE of the following would result in the Auxiliary Instrument Air system being required to maintain I HP-5 OPEN assuming NO operator actions are taken?

A. Unit 1 blackout occurs B. Mechanical failure of the Primary IA compressor C. 2 inch IA header rupture in Unit 1 East Penetration room D. 230KV Red Bus lockout occurs in the 230KV switchyard

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 17 Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

A voltage disturbance is occurring

AP/34 (Degraded Grid) initiated

Power Factor is leading

Generator Mwe = 900

Generator Hydrogen pressure = 60 psig

Generator output voltage = 18.3 kV Which ONE of the following is the limit on MVARs in accordance with the Generator Capacity Curve?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. 250 B. 290 C. 350 D. 475

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 18 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Both Main Feedwater pumps tripped

EFDW NOT available

lTD de-energized

RCS pressure = 2217 psig slowly increasing

1) The (1) will be aligned FIRST to provide decay heat removal in accordance with the EOP.

2) AP/lI (Recovery from Loss of Power) (2) be used to restore power to lTD.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. HPI Pumps

2. will B. 1. HPI Pumps

2. will NOT C. 1. Condensate Booster Pumps

2. will D. 1. Condensate Booster Pumps

2. will NOT

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 19 Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

. Reactor power = 100%

Which ONE of the following would result in an AUTOMATIC injection of HPI AND would require performing EOP End. 5.1 (ES Actuation)?

Areactortrip A. followed by an inadvertent ES channel I actuation B. due to a Steam Line break on piping between 3B2 MSR outlet and inlet to C LP Turbine C. with main and startup feedwater control valves in HAND D. concurrent with a failure of the TBV 125 psi bias to be applied following the trip

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 20 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 68% stable

lB2RCPsecured

Control Rod Group 7 position = 65% withdrawn Current conditions

Control Rod Group 7 Rod 1 drops to 40% withdrawn

1) The CRD system LI) generate a runback fault.

2) The MAXIMUM final power level (Core Thermal Power) directed by AP/I (Unit Runback) is (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. will

2. <60%

B. I. will

2. <45%

C. 1. will NOT

2. <60%

D. I. will NOT

2. <45%

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 21 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Mode6

Fuel assemblies are being loaded into the core

All four SR NIs in service

SR 1 NI-I and SR 1 Nl-3 are the designated NIs for Fuel Handling Current conditions:

Power supply to SR I NI-I fails (0 vdc)

Which ONE of the following describes the impact on fuel movement in accordance with OPI1/A11502/007 (Operations Defueling/Refueling Responsibilities)?

A. Allowed to continue because two other SR NIs remain in service B. Allowed to continue because SR NI-3 is still in service C. Required to be stopped until another SR NI is designated because other NIs are procedurally allowed to be designated D. Required to be stopped and cannot be resumed until SR I NI-i is returned to service because other NIs are NOT procedurally allowed to be designated

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 22 Given the following graph:

REACTOR POWER vs. TIME 0

U 0

L)

(,J 1000 1002 1004 1006 1008 1010 1012 1014 1016 1018 1020 Time Which ONE of the following states the LATEST time that I RIA-59 and I RIA-60 (Main Steam Line N16 Detectors) will be used to provide a valid indication of Steam Generator tube leakage in accordance with the EOP?

A. 1004 B. 1012 C. 1014 D. 1020

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 23 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Reactor in MODE 3

Unit shutdown in progress

Containment declared NOT OPERABLE The MAXIMUM Completion Time allowed by Tech Spec 3.6.1 (Containment) to restore Containment to OPERABLE is (1) AND the HIGHER RCS temperature (degrees F) that would result in being in MODE 4 is (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. One hour

2. 245 B. 1. Immediately

2. 245 C. 1. One hour

2. 255 D. 1. Immediately

2. 255

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 24 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time=1200

Reactor power = 100%

IA steam generator tube leak = 2.1 gpd stable

RCS activity = 0.25 pCi/mi DEl increasing Current conditions:

Timel400

NO change in IA SG tube leak rate

RCS activity = 0.65 pCi/mi DEl increasing Which ONE of the following describes the response of the radiation monitors between 1200 and 1400?

A. I RIA-59 (N-I 6 monitor) and I RIA-40 (CSAE Off-gas) increased.

B. I RIA-I 6 (Main Steam Line Monitor) and I RIA-40 increased.

C. 1 RIA-59 increased whilel RIA-40 remained constant.

D. 1 RIA-l 6 increased while I RIA-40 remained constant.

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 25 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Turbine Building Flood occurs Current conditions:

AP/lO (Turbine Building Flood) in progress

1) CCW pumps are tripped (1) in accordance with AP/lO.

2) Core decay heat is removed using (2) in accordance with the EOP.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. to establish gravity flow through CCW-8

2. SSF-ASW B. 1. to establish gravity flow through CCW-8

2. HPI Forced Cooling C. 1. as part of isolating the most probable source of the flooding

2. SSF-ASW D. 1. as part of isolating the most probable source of the flooding

2. HPI Forced Cooling

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 26 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor tripped from 100% power due to SBLOCA

Subcooling Margin = 0°F stable Which ONE of the following is the reason the EOP directs increasing SG levels to the Loss of Subcooling Margin Setpoint level?

A. Establish a large secondary side inventory in support of a rapid RCS cooldown.

B. Establish a large secondary side inventory to ensure that a loss of coupling will NOT occur if a momentary loss of EFDW occurs.

C. Ensure a secondary water level higher than the primary water level inside the SG tubes to establish boiler condenser mode heat transfer D. Ensure a secondary side inventory sufficient to minimize the consequences of a total loss of feedwater during boiler condenser mode heat transfer

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 27 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time=1200

Reactor power = 100%

ITA and ITB lockout occurs Current condition:

Time=1300

Plant cooldown in progress

1) The source of feedwater to the steam generators is (1)

2) Steam generator levels are (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Main Feedwater

2. 25 inches SUR B. 1. Main Feedwater

2. 50% OR C. 1. Emergency Feedwater

2. 3OinchesXSUR D. 1. Emergency Feedwater

2. 240 inchesXSUR

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 28 Given the following Unit I conditions:

EOP in progress

RCP starting interlock jumpers installed on IA1 RCP Which ONE of the following will PREVENT the start of the lAl RCP?

A. CC-7 and CC-8 are closed B. Total Seal Injection flow = 20 gpm C. RCP Motor Oil Lift system pressure = 575 psig D. RCP start switch NOT being placed in the BYPASS position

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 29 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

1 HP-31 (RCP Seal Flow Control) is closed

1) The cooling medium for the RCP MOTORS is (1)

2) ALL cooling for the RCP SEALS (2) been lost.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. LPSW

2. has B. 1. LPSW

2. has NOT C. 1.CC

2. has D. 1.CC

2. has NOT

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 30 Given the following chart:

.j) 4)

DI t *,.I I ,II,.I I 2 Iø 100 90 80 U) 70 60 zzE 0

cj o

-J 50 40 30

z z::z 20 -- ---

10 .

Hvf r- -

LIWfl4M 0

0 10 20

>1 30 40 50 60 70 LDST nthcated Level (inches)

R Which ONE of the following sets of LDST parameters would require declaring BOTH HPI trains inoperable when in MODE 1?

Level (inches) / Pressure (psig)

A. 95 I 10 B. 90 I 35 C. 60 I 10 D. 50 I 30

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 31 Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

Reactor in MODE 3

RCS Cooldown in progress

2A LPI cooler isolated due to cooler leak Which ONE of the following states the LPI Decay Heat Removal mode that will be used for the INITIAL transition to LPI cooling in accordance with 0P12/A11104/004 (Low Pressure Injection System)?

A. Series B. Normal C. Switchover D. High Pressure

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 32 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Emergency Feedwater NOT available

IC LPI pump NOT available

I HP-27 is failed closed Current conditions:

Reactor Trips on loss of Main Feedwater

1 HP-409 will NOT open

1) A _(1 )_ would be a precursor to fuel temperatures exceeding design limits.

2) _(2) would indicate fuel uncovery has occurred or is imminent.

Which ONE of the following completes the above statements?

A. 1. SBLOCA

2. Core SCM = (-)2°F stable B. 1. LBLOCA

2. Core SCM = (-)2°F stable C. 1. SBLOCA

2. Reactor Vessel head level = 12 inches stable D. 1. LBLOCA

2. Reactor Vessel head level 12 inches stable

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 33 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Loss of ALL feedwater occurs

1) The MINIMUM RCS pressure (psig) at which Quench Tank level would begin to INCREASE is (1)

2) The MINIMUM Quench Tank Pressure (psig) at which Containment pressure would begin to INCREASE is (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. 2450

2. 49 B. 1. 2450

2. 55 C. 1. 2500

2. 49 D. 1. 2500

2. 55

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 34

1) _(1 )_ would result in an increase in CC Cooler outlet temperature.

2) CC Cooler Outlet temperature can be monitored from the Unit 1 Control Room using the _(2)_.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Throttling open 1 HP-7 (Letdown Control)

2. OAC indication ONLY B. 1. Throttling open I HP-7 (Letdown Control)

2. OAC AND temperature gage in Control Room C. 1. Placing IHP-14 (LDST Bypass) in BLEED

2. QAC indication ONLY D. 1. Placing 1HP-14 (LDST Bypass) in BLEED

2. OAC AND temperature gage in Control Room

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 35

1) A (1) will result in the CC surge tank level DECREASING.

2) The level that is maintained on the CC Surge Tank Level gage on 1AB3 in accordance with AP/20 (Loss of Component Cooling) is (2) inches.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Letdown cooler leak

2. 12-18 B. 1. Letdown cooler leak

2. 18-30 C. 1. CRD Cooling Coil leak

2. 12-18 D. 1. CRD Cooling Coil leak

2. 18-30

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 36 Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

2A MSLB occurs inside containment Current conditions:

RB Pressure peaked at 2.6 psig and is slowly decreasing

Pressurizer Level decreased to 32 and is now 82 increasing

RCS pressure decreased to 1540 psig and is now 1920 psig slowly increasing

1) Pressurizer heater banks 2 thru 4 are (1)

2) ES digital channels (2) have actuated.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1.0ff

2. 1 and 2 ONLY B. 1.On

2. 1 and 2 ONLY C. 1.0ff

2. 1 thru 6 D. 1.On

2. 1 thru 6

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 37 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

I Bi Reactor coolant pump trips Which ONE of the following describes the RPS trip that will prevent exceeding the DNBR safety limit?

A. High flux B. Flux/Pump C. Flux/Flow/Imbalance D. High RCS Temperature

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 38 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

IA CC pump operating Which ONE of the following contains conditions, either of which will result in a trip of the 1CC pump independently of the other?

A. 1. CC Surge Tank level = 10 inches decreasing

2. ES I thru 6 actuation B. 1. CC Surge Tank level 10 inches decreasing

2. 1XN de-energized C. 1. Primary IA compressor trips

2. Closure of 1CC-7 D. 1. ES I thru 6 actuation

2. ClosureoflCC-7

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 39 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Main Steam Line Break occurs from 100% power

Plant responds as indicated above:

Which ONE of the following states the MINIMUM Pressurizer level (inches) that is reciuired by Rule 5 (Main Steam Line Break) once Pressurizer level returns on scale?

A. >80 B. >100 C. >180 D. >220

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 40 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

. Reactor power 100%

Current conditions:

Large Break LOCA occurs

IA RBS pump did NOT start

1) The RB Spray system (1) perform its safety function.

2) EOP Enclosure 5.1 (ES Actuation) directs the RO to (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. can

2. immediately start the IA RBS pump B. I. can

2. notify the SRO to evaluate starting the 1A RBS pump C. 1. can NOT

2. immediately start the IA RBS pump D. 1. can NOT

2. notify the SRO to evaluate starting the 1A RBS pump

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 41 Given the following Unit I conditions:

NP RP RP INP CHANNEL A TRIP CHANNEL A LOW PRESS TRIP CHANNEL A flUXICC.IGITLOW TRIP CHANNEL A HIGH TEMP TRIP NP CHANNEL A PRESSITEMP NP CHANNEL A HIGH PRESS NP CHANNEL A NCP I FLUX HP CHARNEL A HIGH FLUX NP CHANNEL A RB. HIGH PRESS ES CHANNEL C TRIP ES CHANNEL B L

TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP NP NP RP NP NP HP NP NP NP CHANNEL B CHANNEL B CHANNEL B CHANNELS ES LOW PRESS CHANNEL B CHANNELS CHANNELS CHANNEL B CHANNEL B ES TRIP FLUX,TMBIFLOW HIGH TEMP CHANNEL)

TRIP PRESS(TEIIP HIGH PRESS RCP I FLUE HIGH FLUX RB. HIGH PRESS CHANNEL I TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP NP NP NP RF CHANNEL C NP NP NP NP HP CHANNEL C CHANNEL C CHANNELS ES ES LOW PRESS CHANNEL C CHANNEL C CHANNEL C CHANNEL C CHANNEL C TRIP FLUXITAREFLOW HIGH TEMP CHANNEL) CHANNEL 7 MACTO IGkrO TRIP PRESSITEMP HIGH PRESS RCF I FLUX HIGH FLUX RB. HIGH PRESS TRIP TRW TRW TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP IMP CHANNELS NP CHANNEL C)

LOW PRESS NP CHANNELS FLUXITREIFLOW NP CHANNELS NP CHANNELS HP CHANNELS NP CHANNELS HP CHANNEL C)

NP CHANNELS ES ES TRIP HIGH TAMP PHESSIT!I.IP CHANNEL 4 CHANNEL B IMACTGIP TRW TRIP HIGH PRESS RCP I FLUU HIGH FLUE RB. HIGH PRESS TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP TRIP CRC) CR0 CRC) CRC) CBS NC NC NC NC CRC) CR0 SEQUENCE TRIP BEN A TRIP BKR B TRIP BKRC TRIP BHN C) ELECTRONIC PUMP CAl PUMP IA) PUMP IBI PUMP TB)

TRIP ELECTRONIC FAULT TRW TRIP TRIP TRIPE GIL TANK OIL TANK OIL TANK OIL TANK TRIP F LEVEL HIGH LEVEL HIGH LEVEL HIGH LEVEL HIGH Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 45% stable Current conditions:

Reactor power = <1% WR decreasing

Core SCM = 0°F stable

RCS pressure 140 psig decreasing

Reactor Building pressure = 16.4 psig increasing

I SA-1 alarms as indicated above Which ONE of the following describes actions required by the EOP?

A. Secure running LPI pumps ONLY (End. 5.1 ES Actuation)

B. Manually actuate ES Digital Channels 7 & 8 ONLY (End. 5.1 ES Actuation)

C. Secure running LPI pumps Feed to LOSCM setpoint with Emergency Feedwater (End. 5.1 ES Actuation and Rule 2 Loss of SCM)

D. Manually actuate ES Digital Channels 7 & 8 Feed to LOSCM setpoint with Emergency Feedwater (End. 5.1 ES Actuation and Rule 2 Loss of SCM)

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 42 Which ONE of the following describes the reason that the allowed RCS cooldown rate is more restrictive when performing a natural circulation cooldown?

A. Minimize the possibility of flashing in the RCS Hot Legs B. Minimize the possibility of drawing a steam bubble in the reactor vessel head area C. Ensure thermal stresses on reactor vessel inner wall remain within design limits D. Ensure thermal stresses on the Auxiliary Pressurizer spray line remain within design limits

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 43 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Two AFIS pressure transmitters on 1A SG fail high Current Conditions:

1 A Main Steam Line break occurs

IA SG pressure = 480 psig rapidly DECREASING

1) The status of AFIS is (1)

2) Rule 5 (Main Steam Line Break) will give direction to (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. actuated

2. open 1AS-40 while closing 1MS-47 B. 1. actuated

2. select OFF for IA MD EFDW Pump C. 1. NOT actuated

2. open IAS-40 while closing IMS-47 D. 1. NOT actuated

2. select OFF for 1A MD EFDW Pump

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 44

1) The power supply to the 3B MDEFWP is (1)

2) The 3B MDEFWP motor is cooled by (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. 3TD

2. LPSW B. 1. 3TD

2. Air C. 1. 3TE

2. LPSW D. 1. 3TE

2. Air

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 45 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

450 EFPD

Reactor trip from 45%

HPI Forced Cooling in progress Current conditions:

TDEFWP available

Enclosure 5.40 (Recovery From HPI Forced Cooling) in progress Which ONE of the following would result in a DECREASE in the amount of feedwater flow indicated by Enclosure 5.13 (Total Feedwater Flow Reciuired to Match NSSS Heat) when determining the INITIAL feed rate required to remove decay heat?

A. Recovery delayed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months due to proximity to 3 psig RB pressure B. Event occurred at 25 EFPD instead of 450 EFPD C. Initial trip was from 25% power instead of 45%

D. Three RCPs operating prior to initiating HPI FC

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 46 Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

2TD de-energizes Which ONE of the following remains available?

A. C LPSW Pump B. 2C HPI Pump C. 2B LPI Pump D. 2CRBCU

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 47 Which ONE of the following are loads that are BOTH powered by the Power Batteries?

A. Mulsifyer systems and TDEFWP Auxiliary Oil Pump B. PCB-9 Control Power and CCW-8 (CCW Emergency Discharge to the tailrace)

C. Main FWPT Auxiliary Oil Pump PCB-9 Control Power D. TDEFWP Auxiliary Oil Pump g CCW-8

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examinaon - Q 48 Given the following conditions:

ACB-3 closed

Switchyard isolation has occurred

1) A (1) will PREVENT KHU-1 from Emergency starting.

2) The LOWER KHU-2 output voltage that will allow ACB-2 to close is (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. STARTUP INHIBIT

2. 12.6KV B. 1. NORMAL LOCKOUT

2. 12.6KV C. 1 STARTUP INHIBIT

2. 12.3KV D. 1. NORMAL LOCKOUT

2. 12.3KV

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 49 Given the following conditions:

All three Oconee units are in Mode 1 a Keowee Hydro Unit 2 is generating to the grid

ALL KHU 2 Forebay level sensors are NOT operable Which ONE of the following describes the action(s) required in accordance with SLCs?

A. Manually input Forebay level into the digital governor AND suspend commercial operation of the KHUs B. Manually input Forebay level into the digital governor ONLY C. Suspend commercial operation of the KHUs ONLY D. Declare BOTH KHUs NOT Operable

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 50 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

IA GWD tank release in progress

1 RIA-38 OOS Current conditions:

Loss of power to RM-80 skid of I RIA-37

ISA8/B9 RM PROCESS MONITOR RADIATION HIGH in alarm

ISA8/B10 RM PROCESS MONITOR FAULT in alarm

1) IGWD-4(AGWDTANKDISCHARGE)wilI (1)

2) The GWD tank release may (2) in accordance with OPII-2/A11104/018 (GWD System).

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. remain open

2. continue as long as I RIA-37 is re-energized within one hour B. 1. automatically close

2. be re-initiated as long as I RIA-37 is re-energized within one hour C. 1. remain open

2. continue as long as two independent samples agree prior to restarting the release D. 1. automatically close

2. be re-initiated as long as two independent samples agree prior to restarting the release

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 51 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

A and B LPSW pumps operating Current conditions:

LPSW line break in Turbine Building Basement

LPSW Pressure = 65 psig decreasing The LPSW header pressure setpoint at which LPSW to the RBCUs will automatically isolate is (1) psig AND Unit I &2 LPSW system AND Unit 3 LPSW system will be cross-tied (2) in accordance with AP124 (Loss of LPSW).

Which ONE of the following completes the statement above?

A. 1. 18

2. ANYTIME normal system pressure can NOT be restored B. 1. 18

2. ONLY if NO Unit 1 and 2 LPSW pumps are available C. 1.25

2. ANYTIME normal system pressure can NOT be restored D. 1.25

2. ONLY if NO Unit I and 2 LPSW pumps are available

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 52 Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

2FDW-35 and 44 (Startup FDW Control Valves) are 100% open

2FDW-32 and 41 (Main FDW Control Valves) are 60% open Current conditions:

IA pressure = 60 psig slowly decreasing

1) 2FDW-35 and 2FDW-44 have failed (1)

2) 2FDW-32 and 2FDW-41 (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. closed

2. are controlling Main FDW flow.

B. 1. closed

2. have failed closed C. 1. open

2. have failed open D. 1. as is

2. have failed as is

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 53 Given the following conditions:

IA Pressure vs. Time 1

uJ D

U)

LU U

1200 1210 1220 1230 TIME Which ONE of the following describes the EARLIEST time at which SA-141 (SA to IA Controller) will automatically open?

A. 1215 B. 1212 C. 1210 D. 1207

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 54 Which ONE of the following will receive a signal to close if ES Digital Channel 2 was inadvertently actuated on Unit 1?

A. ILPSW-21 B. 1LPSW-6 C. 1GWD-12 D. ILWD-2

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 55 Given the following Unit 3 conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Personnel Hatch Interlock Mechanism NOT OPERABLE Which ONE of the following describes the MINIMUM actions required in accordance with Tech Spec 3.6.2 (Containment Air Locks)?

A. Declare Containment NOT Operable immediately B. Declare BOTH doors in the air lock NOT Operable immediately C. Verify ALL OPERABLE doors in the air lock are closed within one hour D. Verify at least ONE OPERABLE door in the air lock is closed within one hour

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 56 Which ONE of the following conditions would result in a Control Rod Out Inhibit?

A. Reactor power = 52% Group 6 Rod 5 becomes misaligned by> 9 inches B. Reactor power = 52% Control Rod Group 1 loses its Group Out Limit C. Count rate = 675 cps increasing ALL Safety rods NOT withdrawn to their Group Out Limit Safety Rods Out Bypass NOT enabled D. Count rate = 675 cps increasing and Wide Range NI-i startup rate = 2.1 dpm

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 57 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power= 100%

ALL Absolute Position Indications (API) for Group 6 Rod 3 fail to 0

1) A CRD Asymmetric Fault (1) be generated.

2) The action that would be required in accordance with Tech Specs if all API and RPI indications for Group 6 Rod 3 become unavailable is to (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. will

2. immediately declare Group 6 Rod 3 NOT operable B. 1. will

2. begin RCS boration within 15 minutes C. 1. will NOT

2. immediately declare Group 6 Rod 3 NOT operable D. 1. will NOT

2. begin RCS boration within 15 minutes

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 58

1) The power supply to 1 NI-6 Power Range detector is (1)

2) The RPS channel will (2) if that power supply is deenergized.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. IKVIB

2. trip B. 1. 1KVIB

2. NOT trip C. 1. IKVIC

2. trip D. 1. 1KVIC

2. NOT trip

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 59 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

SBLOCA occurs

lMAs & Symptom check complete Which ONE of the following states the Core Exit Thermocouples (CETC5) that are being used by the Core Subcooling Monitors in ICCM?

A. ALL 47 CETCs B. ONLY 24 qualified CETCs C. ONLY 12 highest qualified CETCs for that train D. ONLY 5 highest qualified CETCs for that train

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 60 Which ONE of the following will result in automatic closure of RB Purge isolation valves 3PR-1 ,2,3,4,5,AND 6?

A. 3RIA-45 HIGH alarm B. 3RIA-46 ALERT alarm C. Manual actuation of ES channels 5 and 6 D. Low RCS pressure actuation of ES channels I and 2

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 61 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial Conditions:

Reactor in MODE 6

Fuel Transfer Canal is full

LPI in Normal Decay Heat Removal

lB Spent Fuel Cooling Pump operating and aligned to Refueling Cooling Mode in accordance with OP/i/All 102/015 (Filling and Draining FTC)

Current conditions:

1 SF-i and 1 SF-2 are inadvertently closed Which ONE of the following describes the:

1) response of the Fuel Transfer Canal level?

2) position of 1SF-I and 1SF-2 once the unit returns to MODE 1?

A. 1. Remain constant

2. Open B. 1. Remain constant

2. Remain closed C. l.Decrease

2. Open D. I. Decrease

2. Remain closed

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 62 Given the following Unit 2 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor in MODE 6

Fuel Transfer Canal slightly above 21.34 mark on canal wall

RB Hatch closed

RB Purge is operating

2SF-i AND 2SF-2 are open Current conditions:

RB Purge fan trips Which ONE of the following predicts the response of actual Fuel Transfer Canal level over the next ten (10) minutes?

A. Initially increases then returns to previous level B. Increases then remains constant C. Initially decreases then returns to previous level D. Decreases then remains constant

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 63 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Reactor trip

Trip Confirm signal NOT generated by the Diamond

1) The status of the Turbine Load Status Flag is (1)

2) The TBVs will control at (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. TRUE

2. setpoint B. 1. TRUE

2. setpoint + 125 psig C. 1. FALSE

2. setpoint D. 1. FALSE

2. setpoint + 125 psig

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 64 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power 100%

1) The Hotwell Pump suction valve breakers are (1)

2) The suction valve control switches are located in the (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. open

2. Turbine Building Basement adjacent to Hotwell Pump sump B. 1. open

2. Control Room on IVB3 C. 1. closed

2. Turbine Building Basement adjacent to Hotwell Pump sump D. 1. closed

2. Control Room on IVB3

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 65

[PSW Header Pressure vs Time 1 0(

U, U,

G) 5 a

5 G)

-C

i:

Co U-

-J 1200 1201 1202 1203 1204 1205 1206 Time

3A LPSW pump operating

3B LPSW pump in AUTO

Unit 3 LPSW system transient occurs as described in graph above Which ONE of the following states the earliest time that LPSW header pressure will START the timer for the Standby LPSW pump auto start circuit?

A. 1201 B. 1203 C. 1204 D. 1205

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 66 Which ONE of the following lists of items will always require a plant page (except for unanticipated automatic starts and emergency situations) in accordance with OMP 1-02 (Rules of Practice)?

A. ALL 4911 calls Closing PCB-18 B. ALL AP entries Starting and stopping 1BI RCP C. Starting a 4160V Motor Closing PCB-18 D. Starting and stopping IBI RCP Starting a 4160V Motor

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 67 Which ONE of the following describes what should be used in the case of a large Hydrogen leak in accordance with 0P111A111061017 (Hydrogen System) to maintain Hydrogen concentration below the lower flammability limit?

A. 002 B. Water C. Halon D. Foam fire retardant

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 68 Given the following conditions:

Initial conditions:

Time=1200

Unit I reactor power = 100%

Unit 3 reactor power = 100%

Site Area Emergency declared on Unit 2 Current conditions:

Time = 1400

TSC/OSC remain activated

Unit 3 requires an NEC to place Unit 3 BWST in recirc Which ONE of the following describes who will communicate with the NEC in accordance with OMP 1-07 (Operations Emergency Response Organization) to have them place the Unit 3 BWST in recirc?

A. OSM liaison B. OSC Ops liaison C. Unit3CRSRC D. Unit3RO

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 69 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Reactor power= 100%

Group 8 movement is required for imbalance control Which ONE of the following:

1) describes the MINIMUM actions required prior to using the joystick to move Group 8 rods?

2) states if Group 7 rods will respond to neutron error while group 8 is selected?

A. 1. Place Diamond panel Group Select switch to Group 8 ONLY

2. Yes B. 1. Place Diamond panel Group Select switch to Group 8 ONLY 2.No C. 1. Select SEQUENCE OVERRIDE and Place Diamond panel Group Select switch to Group 8

2. Yes D. 1. Select SEQUENCE OVERRIDE Place Diamond panel Group Select switch to Group 8 2.No

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 70 Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

Initial conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Current conditions:

Keowee Emergency Start channels I and 2 inoperable

1) The MAXIMUM Completion Time allowed by Tech Specs to declare both KHUs NOT OPERABLE is (1)

2) The resulting Tech Spec Required Action(s) is/are to (2)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements above?

A. 1. Immediately

2. energize at least ONE Standby Bus from a Lee Combustion Turbine via an isolated path within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months B. 1. One hour

2. energize at least ONE Standby Bus from a Lee Combustion Turbine via an isolated path within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months C. 1. Immediately

2. energize BOTH Standby Buses from a Lee Combustion Turbine via an isolated path within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months D. 1. One hour

2. energize BOTH Standby Buses from a Lee Combustion Turbine via an isolated path within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 71 Given the following Unit I conditions:

Reactor power = 100%

Which ONE of the following describes a condition that would reciuire entry into a Tech Spec ACTIONS table?

A. USTlevel =7.6feet B. BWST level = 45.3 feet C. 1 C RPS NR Th fails high D. 230KV Dacus Black and White lines isolated

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 72 Which ONE of the following describes the actions taken and why, in accordance with the SGTR tab, to limit the activity released to the atmosphere?

A. The Condensate Steam Air Ejectors are lined up to the Main Steam system to prevent cross contamination.

B. The TD EFDW pump is placed in Pull To Lock to prevent feeding the affected SG with contaminated water.

C. The Auxiliary Steam systems for all three units are split to prevent cross contamination.

D. Core SCM is minimized to reduce the primary to secondary leak rate.

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 73 Which ONE of the following describes:

1) a condition where Emergency Dose Limits (EDL5) would be in effect?

2) the MAXIMUM whole body EDL (Rem) if performing EOP actions that are NOT to save a life or protect valuable property?

A. 1. 50 gpm Primary to Secondary leak

2. 5 B. 1. 50 gpm Primary to Secondary leak

2. 10 C. 1. 50 gpm RCS hot leg weld leak

2. 5 D. 1. 50 gpm RCS hot leg weld leak

2. 10

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 74 Which ONE of the following describes:

1) an acceptable reason for the Procedure Director to interrupt an operator who is performing Rule 2?

2) the bases behind limiting the interruptions of operators who are performing Rules?

A. 1. Performa Crew Brief

2. Minimize Operator errors B. 1. Inform the operator that ACC Conditions exist

2. Minimize Operator errors C. 1. PerformaCrewBrief

2. Ensures completion of Time Critical Actions D. 1. Inform the operator that ACC Conditions exist

2. Ensures completion of Time Critical Actions

2009B ONS SRO NRC Examination - Q 75 The following are Log entries from the Emergency Coordinator (EC/OSM) Log following an event at Oconee Unit 2.

1112 EC/OSM declared a General Emergency based on 2RIA-57 readings.

1117 - EC/OSM provided the following offsite protective recommendations to the Offsite Communicator:

Evacuation of Pickens AU, Al, BI, Cl, and Oconee AU, Dl, El, Fl

Shelter of Pickens A2, B2, C2, and Oconee D2, E2, F2.

1120 - EC/OSM signed message form to provide offsite recommendations.

1122 Station Manager in the control room began turnover to TSC.

1125- Present time of day.

Which ONE of the following describes the MAXIMUM number of minutes the Offsite Communicator has to initiate the notifications to State and Counties from the jresent time?

A. 2 B. 7 C. 10 D. 15

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Duke Energy Procedure No.

Oconee Nuclear Station Ap/3/AJl700/o34 DEGRADED GRID Revision No.

007 Electronic Reference No.

0P009654 PERFORMANCE

. UNCONTROLLED FOR PRINT * * * * * * * * * *

(ISSUED) PDF Format

THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 1 of 25

1. Entry Conditions {1}{2}

1. 1 Grid Voltage or Frequency alarms 1.2 Notification from the SOCITCC ofpy of the following:

Actual or predicted low MW reserve

Actual or suspected grid voltage or frequency alarms

NERC Alert 2 or 3 declaration

RICA indicates problem

RTCA NOT working

2. Automatic Systems Actions N one

3. Immediate Manual Actions N one

AP/3/A/ 1700/034 Page 2 of 25 THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

AP/3/A/1 700/034

- Pag3of25

4. Subsequent Actions ACTiON/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.1 Verify y of the following: GO TO Step 4.42.

Voltage or frequency alarm RTCA (Real Time Contingency Analysis) indicates switchyard voltage would be inadequate for an Oconee Rx Lip..

4.2 Record time of first alarm or notification from TCC:

Time:

4.3 Verify Unit 1 and Unit 2 SROs are Notify the following of grid alarms or aware of grid alarms or notification notification from TCC:

from TCC.

UI SRO U2 SRO 4.4 Verify Unit I is performing AP/1/34 Notify the following:

(Degraded Grid).

OSM to reference OMP 1-14 (Notifications)

STA 4.5 Verify Unit 3 generator on line. GO TO Step 4.33.

NOTE A large grid disturbance at 100 % FP operation may cause NIs to approach the Hi flux trip.

4.6 IAAT Rx power is 100 % FP, THEN decrease the CTPD Set Window as needed to prevent Hi Flux trip.

4.7 Verify Unit 1 is performing AP/1/34 Notify TCC that the RTCA (Real Time (Degraded Grid). Contingency Analysis) needs to be performed.

4.8 Notify TCC of the status of U3 generator VOLTAGE REGULATOR MODE (Auto / Manual).

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 4 of 25 IF AT ANY TIME:

(4.6) Rx power is 100 % FP ... (decrease the CTPD Set Window as needed to prevent Hi flux trip)

AP/3/A/1700/034 PageS of 25 ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.9 Vcrifi Unit 2 is performing Noti Keowee Operator of the following:

AP/2/34 (Degraded Grid).

Monitor Keowee Generator \Joltage when gy Keowee unit is generating to the grid.

Trip j3 Keowee unit generating to the grid with Keowee Generator Voltage 13.2kV.

4. 10 Verify generator output within limits 1. Adjust MVARs to maintain generator of the appropriate capability curve output within limits of the appropriate based on generator voltage: capability curve.

Generator 2. IF generator output CANNOT be Enclosure maintained within limits by adjusting Voltage MVARs

>18.05kV 5.1 THEN reduce MWs as required.

18.O5kV 5.2

AP/3/A/ 1700/034 Page 6 of 25 IF AT ANY TIME:

(4.6) Rx power is 100 % FP ... (decrease the CTPD Set Window as needed to prevent Hi flux trip)

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 7 of 25 r ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.1 1 IAAT generator output CANNOT be GO TO Step 4.15.

maintained within appropriate capability curve, THEN perform Steps 4.12 4.14.

4.12 Verify reactor> 50% power. GO TO Step 4.14.

4.13 Perform the following:

A. Manually trip reactor.

B. GO TO Unit 3 EOP.

4.14 Perform the following: {2}

A. Open the following:

PCB 58 PCB 59 B. GO TO AP/1 (Load Rejection).

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 8 of 25 IF AT ANY TIME:

(46) Rx power is 100 % FP (decrease the CTPD Set Window as needed to prevent Hi flux trip)

(4.11) generator output CANNOT be maintained within appropriate capability curve (take generator off line)

AP/3/A/1 700/03 4 Page 9 of 25 ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.15 Monitor frequency using UNDERFREQUENCY MONITOR screen on the EHC HMI Panel and compare to Maximum Allowable Time:

Frequency Maximum Limit Allowable Time 59.5 Hz Unlimited

< 59.5 Hz 48 mm

< 58.6 Hz 8 mm

<58.1 Hz 48sec

< 57.6 Hz 0 sec 4.16 IAAT the Maximum Allowable Time GO TO Step 4.20.

for a given frequency band is reached, ANI) the turbine is still on line, THEN perform Steps 4.17- 4.19.

4.17 Verify reactor is> 50% power. GO TO Step 4.19.

4. 1 8 Perform the following:

A. Manually trip reactor.

B. GO TO Unit 3 EOP.

4.19 Perform the following: {2}

A. Open the following:

PCB 58 ICB 59 B. GO TO AP/1 (Load Rejection).

AP/3/A/1 700/03 4 Page 10 of25 IF AT ANY TIME:

(4.6) Rx power is 100 % FP ... (decrease the CTPD Set Window as needed to prevent 1-li flux trip)

(4.11) generator output CANNOT be maintained within appropriate capability curve ... (take generator off line)

(4. 1 6) the Maximum Allowable Time for a given frequency is reached AND turbine is still on line ... (take generator off line) .,

AP/3/A/1 700/03 4 Page 11 of25 ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.20 Verify generator MVARs oscillating GO TO Step 4.24.

> +/- 100 MVARs from steady state.

4.21 Place VOLTAGE REGULATOR MODE in manual.

4.22 Verify generator output within limits 1. Adjust MVARs using VOLTAGE of the appropriate capability curve ADJUST to maintain generator output based on generator voltage: within limits of the appropriate capability curve.

Generator Enclosure 2. IF generator output CANNOT be Voltage maintained within limits by adjusting

> 18.05kV 5.1 MVARs, 1 8.05 kV 5.2 THEN reduce MWs as required.

4.23 Notify TCC that VOLTAGE REGULATOR MODE is in manual.

4.24 IAAT TCC/SOC directs unit separation from the grid, TFIE N perform the following:

A. PERFORM a rapid power decrease to 50 % using AP/29 (Rapid Unit Shutdown).

B. Open the following:

PCB58 PCB59 C. GO TO AP/1 (Load Rejection).

API3IAI1700/034 Page 12of25 IF AT ANY TIME:

(4.6) Rxpoweris 100 %FP ... (decreasethe CTPD Set Window asneededtopreventHi flux trip)

(4.11) generator output CANNOT be maintained within appropriate capability curve ... (take generator off line)

(4.16) the Maximum Allowable Time for a given frequency is reached AND turbine is still on line (take generator off line)

(424) TCC/SOC directs unit separation from the grid ... (decrease power to 50 % and perform a load rejection)

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 13 of25 ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED NOTE OP/0/A/1 107/016 (Removal And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Voltage Response) will give guidance for sliding links. Once links are slid, all Units will no longer be in TS 3.0.3, due to being in unanalyzed condition due to effect of post-trip voltage on ECCS systems.

4.25 IAAT notified by TCC that Real Time GO TO Step 4.27.

Contingency Analysis indicates that switchyard voltage would be inadequate for an Oconee Rx trip, THEN perform Step 4.26.

4.26 Verify Unit 1 is performing Initiate OP/0/A/l 107/0 16 (Removal And OP/0/A/l 107/0 16 (Removal And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Voltage Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Response). 4}

Voltage Response) per AP/1/34 (Degraded Grid). {4}

4.27 Verify Unit 1 is performing AP/1/34 Notify WCC SRO to enter risk code (Degraded Grid). SSA GRID into the Plant Risk Evaluation Program evaluate the results. {5}

4.28 WFIEN the grid is stable, as determined by the TCC, THEN continue.

4.29 Verify Unit 2 is performing AP/2/34 Notify Keowee Operator that Keowee (Degraded Grid). Generator Voltage monitoring is no longer required. f3}

AP/3/A/1700/034 Page 14 of25 IF AT ANY TIME:

(4.6) Rx power is 1 00 % FP . (decrease the CTPD Set Window as needed to prevent Hi flux trip)

(4. 11) generator output CANNOT be maintained within appropriate capability curve ... (take generator off line)

(4.16) the Maximum Allowable Time for a given frequency is reached AND turbine is still on line ... (take generator off line)

(4.24) TCC/SOC directs unit separation from the grid ... (decrease power to 50 % and perfonn a load rejection)

(4.25) notified by f(( that Real Time Contingency Analysis indicates that switchyard voltage would be inadequate (enure OP/0/A/1 107/0 16 Enclosure performed)

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 15 of25 ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.30 Verify OP/0/A/1107/016 (Removal GO TO Step 4.32.

And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Voltage Response) in progress or complete.

4.31 Verif Unit 1 is performing Initiate OP/0/A/i 107/0 16 (Removal And OP/U/A/i 107/0 16 (Removal And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Recovery From Equipment) Enclosure (Recovery Grid Low Voltage). {4}

From Grid Low Voltage). {4}

4.32 WHEN CR SRO directs, THEN EXIT this procedure.

. END . 0 0

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 16 of25 THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

AP/3/A/l 700/034 Page 17 of 25 ACTiON/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.33 Verify Unit I is performing AP/l/34 Notify TCC that the RTCA (Real Time (Degraded Grid). Contingency Analysis) needs to be performed.

4.34 Verify Unit 2 is performing Notify Keowee Operator. of the following:

AP/2/34 (Degraded Grid).

Monitor Keowee Generator Voltage when jy Keowee unit is generating to the grid.

Trip gy Keowee unit generating to the grid with Keowee Generator Voltage 13.2kV, {3}

NOTE OP/U/A! 1107/016 (Removal And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Voltage Response) will give guidance for sliding links. Once links are slid, all Units will no longer be in TS 3.0.3, due to being in unanalyzed condition due to effect of post-trip voltage on ECCS systems.

4.35 IAAT notified by TCC that Real Time GO TO Step 4.37.

Contingency Analysis indicates that switchyard voltage would be inadequate for an Oconee Rx trip, THEN perform Step 4.36.

4.36 Verify Unit I is performing Initiate OP/U/A/i 107/016 (Removal And OP/U/A/I 107/016 (Removal And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Voltage Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Response). {4}

Voltage Response) per AP/l!34 (Degraded Grid). {4}.

4.37 WHENthegridisstable,as determined by the TCC, Ti-lEN continue.

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 18 of25 THiS PAGE iNTENTIONALLY BLANK

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Pagel9of25

[ ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.38 Verify Unit 2 is perfonuing AP/2/34 Notify Keowe Operator that Keowee (Degraded Grid). Generator Voltage monitoring is no longer required. {3}

4.39 Verify OP/0/A/1 107/0 16 (Removal GO TO Step 4.41.

And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Grid Low Voltage Response) in progress or compi etc.

4.40 Verify Unit 1 is performing Initiate OP/0/A/1 107/0 16 (Removal And OP/0/A/1 107/0 16 (Removal And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) Enclosure (Recovery From Equipment) Enclosure (Recovery Grid Low Voltage). {4}

From Grid Low Voltage). {4}

4.41 WHEN CR SRO directs, TI-lEN EXIT this procedure.

. . . END.. .

AP/3/A/1 700/03 4 Page 20 of 25 THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

AP/3/A/1 700/03 4 Page 21 of25 ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.42 Verify gpy of the following: GO TO Step 4.48.

Actual or predicted Megawatt reserves < 500 MWe.

NERC (National Electric Reliability Commission) Alert 2 or 3 declaration.

RTCA (Real Time Contingency Analysis) indicates that 230 kV switchyard voltage would be inadequate if further grid degradation occurs. {6}

4.43 Verify that RTCA indicates that GO TO Step 4.45.

230 kV switchyard voltage would be inadequate if further grid degradation occurs. {6}

NOTE

TS 3.8.1 J should be entered if one more failure would cause 230 kV voltage to be degraded.

OP/0/A/l 107/0 16 (Removal And Restoration of Switchyard Electrical Equipment) is performed per steps 4.25 or 4.35 if an Oconee Rx trip could cause the 230 kV switchyard degradation.

OP/U/A/I 107/016 will direct the TS 3.8.1. J entry for theses cases.

4.44 Enter TS 3.8.1 Required Action J. {6}

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 22 of25 THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

AP/3/A/l 700/034 Page 23 of 25 ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.45 Verify the following equipment is Initiate action to restore out of service available: {6} equipment.

w KHU underground and overhead power paths

Lee Combustion Turbines and associated power path

Control and Power Batteries

SSF

TDEFWP 4.46 Notify WCC that the following equipment should remain in service until this AP is exited: 6}

KHU underground and overhead power paths e Lee Combustion Turbines and associated power path

Control and Power Batteries

SSF

TDEFWP

AP/3/A/1 700/03 4 Page 24 of 25 L TIIS PAGE TENT10NALLY BLANK

AP/3/A/1 700/034 Page 25 of 25 L ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED 4.47 Notify WCC SRO to enter risk code SSA GRID into the Plant Risk Evaluation Program and evaluate the results. {6}

4.48 Verify TCC reports RTCA program GO TO Step 4.50.

out of service. {6 4.49 Monitor switchyard voltage and frequency on OAC. {6}

4.50 IAAT switchyard voltage or frequency alarms are received, ANI) RTCA is out of service, TI-TEN contact System Engineering to perform an Operability evaluation on off site power sources. {6}

4.5 1 WHEN conditions permit, THEN EXIT.

END.

THIS PAGE TENTIONALLY BLANK Enclosure 5.1 AP/3/A/1 700/034 Generator Capability Page 1 of3 Curve 900 800 700 600 500 400 300 200 c.,, 100 a:

.1 100 200 J

300 400 500 600 700 CURVE AB LIMITED BY FIELD HEATING CURVE BC LIMITED BY ARMATURE HEATING CURVE CD LIMITED BY ARMATURE CORE END HEATING

Enclosure 5.1 AP/3/A/1700/034 Generator Capability Page 2 of 3 Curve THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

Enclosure 5.1 AP/3/A/l700/o34 Generator Capability Page 3 of 3 Curve Instructions for use of End 5.1 (Generator Capability Curve) are as fpllows:

A. Locate Unit Megawatts on the horizontal axis. (1000 kilowatts = 1 megawatt)

13. Depending on whether power factor is leading or lagging. Move perpendicular away from the 1000 KILOWATTS axis unril intersecting actual generator hydrogen pressure. If between two pressures curves, visually interpolate generator hydrogen pressure.

C. From this point of intersection with generator pressure, move horizontally to the left to intersect the 1 000 KILO VARS axis. This point determines the generator MVAR limit. (1000 KILO VARS 1 MVAR)

THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK Enclosure 5.2 AP/3/A/1 700/034 Generator Reduced Capability Curve Page 1 of5 Figure 5.2A Cneritor (pibfflty t Reduced Voltage with Hydroaren Presue 55 psig 600 500 MVARS Hoo 200 100 I0o 200 300 -100 500 600 700 800 900 i000H 1100l1100

[Mw

Enclosure 5.2 AP/3/A/l700/o34 Generator Reduced Capability Curve Page 2 of 5 THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

Enclosure 5.2 AP/3/A/1 700/03 4 Generator Reduced Capability Curve Page 3 of 5 Figure 5.2B Gezieiator Capabiliiy at Reduced Voltage with Hydroe1L Pressiue 3055 pSig I 600 5(10 MVARS

-100 2.00 Loo

()

1001 12(H)I 13001 14001 15001 L600I 7001 18001 19001110001111001112001

Enclosure 5.2 Ap/3/A/l700/o34 Generator Reduced Capability Curve Page 4 of 5 THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

Enclosure 5.2 Ap/3/A/l700/o34 Generator Reduced Capability Curve Page 5 of 5 Instructions for use of End 5.2 (Generator Reduced Capability Curve) are as follows:

A. Select appropriate Figure based on Generator Hydrogen pressure. If Generator Hydrogen pressure> 55 psig, use Figure 5.2A. If Generator Hydrogen pressure is 30 55 psig, use Figure 5.2B.

B. Locate Unit Megawatts on the horizontal axis on appropriate Figure.

C. Move perpendicular up from Megawatts until intersecting actual generator voltage. If between two voltage curves, drop to the next lowest voltage curve.

D. From this point of intersection with generator voltage curve move horizontally to the left to intersect the MVARs vertical axis. This point determines the generator MVAR limit. Acceptable MVA is below and to the left of the generator voltage curve.

THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK Appendix AP/3/A/l700/o34 Page 1 of 1 I. SOER 99-01/PiP 0-00-00354 ColTective Action #15 - Created a procedure to mitigate degraded grid conditions.

2. PIP-0-01-01864 Corrective Action #1 states louse switchyard PCBs instead of generator output breakers. These are actually one in the same and no change is required.

3. PIP-O-00-00354 Corrective Action #27-Added guidance to noti Keowee Operator to monitor Keowee Generator Voltage on Keowee units generating to the grid and trip them if Keowee Generator Voltage is 13.2 kV.

4. PIP-0-03-4351 OP/0/A/l 107/0 16 provides guidance to allow ONS to exit TS conditions associated with Degraded Grid and is not required to mitigate a Degraded Grid event. Thus, it is not considered an AP Support Procedure.

5. PIP-0-04-6469 Risk codes added to AP/6 and AP/34 to evaluate work and OOS equipment.

6. PIP-G-07-76 1. Guidance added per request from NGD Duty Engineering Group. Guidance tells ONS proper actions to take based on various grid problems.

THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK Degraded Grid AP/3/A/l700/o34 Carryover Steps Page 1 of I IF AT ANY TIME:

(4.6) Rx power is 100 % FP ... (decrease the CTPD Set Window as needed to prevent Hi flux trip)

(4.11) generator output CANNOT be maintained within appropriate capability curve ... (take generator off line)

(4.16) the Maximum Allowable Time for a given frequency is reached AND turbine is still on line ... (take generator off line)

(4.24) TCC/SOC directs unit separation from the grid ... (decrease power to 50 % and perform a load rejection)

(4.25) notified by TCC that Real Time Contingency Analysis indicates that switchyard voltage would be inadequate (ensure OP/0/A/1107/016 Enclosure performed)

(4.35) notified by TCC that Real Time Contingency Analysis indicates that switchyard voltage would be inadequate (ensure OP/0/A/1 107/0 16 Enclosure performed)

(4.50) switchyard voltage or frequency alarms are received, AND RTCA is out of service (contact System Engineering)

L THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY BLANK

ML103210273

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