ML081770368

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May Examination 05000369 and 05000370/ 2008-301 Combined RO & SRO Written Answer Key (Part 1 of 3)
ML081770368
Person / Time
Site: Mcguire, McGuire  Duke Energy icon.png
Issue date: 06/25/2008
From:
NRC/RGN-II
To:
Duke Energy Carolinas
References
50-369/08-301, 50-370/08-301
Download: ML081770368 (90)


Text

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401 -5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier# ' 2 Group # 1 KJA# 003 K1.08 Importance Rating 2.7 (Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationsh ips between the RCPs and the following systems :

Conta inment isolat ion)

Proposed Question: Common 1 With Unit 1 at 100% power, the following occurs:

  • A leak in the Letdown Line develops outside Containment.
  • NC Pressure drops to 1825 psig and stabilizes.

All systems operate as designed.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the systems, if any, that have been isolated from the Reactor Coolant Pump (NCP)?

A. RN, KC and Seal Water Return .

B. Seal Water Return ONLY.

C. RN and KC flow ONLY.

D. No systems have been isolated.

Proposed Answer: 8 Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. Correct if Phase A and Phase B have actuated .

B. Correct. The RN and KC supply and return , as well as the Seal Water return lines have Containment Isolation Valves that will close , isolating NCP support systems under certain conditions. The Seal Water return line is isolated under a Phase A Containment Isolation condition , while the RN and KC supply and return lines are isolated under a Phase B Containment Isolation condition. Plant conditions indicate that a Safety Injection signal has occurred due to low Pzr pressure (1845 psig). Phase A Containment Isolation occurs on any Safety Injection signal or by manual actuation.

Phase B Containment Isolation occurs on a Hi-Hi Containment Pressure Page 1 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Signal, or by manual action. The actuation of the Safety Injection signal causes a Containment Isolation Phase A. However, Containment Isolation Phase B will not occur because the LOCA is outside Containment.

Therefore, only the Sealwater return line will isolate, while the RN/KC lines will remain unisolated. B is correct.

C. Incorrect. Correct only if Containment Phase B is manually or spuriously actuated, without Containment Phase A.

D. Incorrect. Correct only if Phase A fails to actuate.

Technical OP-MC-ECC-ISE (p15, Reference(s) 21,29, &51). Rev.30 OP-MC-PS-NV (p41, 123)

Rev. 55 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: ECC-ISE(#4 ,5,6), PS-NCP (As available)

(#7), CNT-CNT (#4)

Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New - X - --

Question History: Last NRC Exam

-NA- - -- - - - -- - -- - -

Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 3,8 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because SI has occurred, which actuates Containment Isolation Phase A. Phase A isolates certain NCP components RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 2 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 004 K5.46 Importance Rating 2.5 (Knowledge of the operational implicat ions of the following concepts as they apply to the CVCS : Reason for going solid in PZR (collapsing steam bubble): make sure no steam is in PRT when PORV is opened to drain RCS)

Proposed Question: Common 2 Unit 2 is collapsing the Pzr steam bubble and placing the Pzr in a water solid condition in accordance with OP/2/A/6100/S0-8, Water Solid Operations.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the reason for placing the pzr in a water-solid condition?

A. Facilitate placing LTOP in service.

B. Ensure a complete crud burst cleanup.

C. Maintain NC System cooldown rate within limits.

O. Facilitate degasification of the NC System .

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional) :

A. Incorrect. LTOP will be in service while Pzr is solid , but this is not the reason for placing the plant in a solid condition B. Incorrect. Water solid ops is not required for crud burst cleanup, but this is the way we have always done it until the most recent Unit 2 shutdown .

C. Incorrect. Whether solid or on a bubble cooldown rate must be maintained.

D. Correct. Phase 2 degas is performed after Pzr is water solid Technical OP/1/A/6100/S0-8 Rev 21 (Attach if not previously Reference(s) provided)

SNO-P05, Rev 19 (Including version or

_ __ _ __ _ _ _ _ _ revision #)

Page 3 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: P05 #18, 21, 26, 29 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New - X- - -

Question History: Last NRC Exam -.::.....:.:.......:.-_-

NA - - -- - - - - - - -

Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 10, Content: 14 55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item evaluates knowledge of the reason for going solid in the PZR. Item after information in parenthesis for KA does not apply to facility.

RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 4 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 005 K2.03 Importance Rating 2.7 (Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following : RCS pressure boundary motor-operated valves)

Proposed Question: Common 3 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

  • Plant shutdown and cooldown to 1000F is in progress.
  • NC System temperature 1800F .
  • Both trains of ND are in service in accordance with station procedures.

The power supplies to 1ND-1Band 1ND-2AC are 600V 1 Load Centers and the status of their motor breakers are 2- - -

A. (1) Unit (2) OPEN B. (1) Unit (2) CLOSED C. (1) Essential (2) OPEN D. (1) Essential (2) CLOSED Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. Wrong power supply.

B. Incorrect. Wrong power supply, wrong breaker position.

C. Correct. Page 21 of OP-MC-PS-ND (ND System Lesson Plan) indicates that these valves are capable of being closed during a Station Blackout or Loss of Offsite Power. This means that they must be powered by the Essential Power distribution busses. Page 23 states "The normal configuration is to remove power from 1ND-1Band 1ND-2AC after the Unit has reached Mode 5 during shutdown. OP/1/A/6100/SD-12 identifies the Page 5 of27l Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet breakers as 1EMXO-80 and 1EMXAl4-3C which are MCCs powered from the 600V Essential Load Centers, and tags the breakers open when the plant is in Mode during a cooldown to 100°F.

D. Incorrect. Correct power supply , wrong breaker position for given plant configuration.

Technical OP/1/A/6100/S0-12, Rev Reference(s) 33 OP-MC-PS-NO p19-23, Rev 37 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination :

Learning Objective: OP-MC-PS-NO 5 Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New -

X- --

Last NRC Exam Question History:

- NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7, 10 Content:

55.43 Comments :

KA is matched because item directly evaluates power source for MOVs, and further discriminates by asking breaker position RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 6 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 006 A4.01 Importance Rating 4.1 (Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room : Pumps )

Proposed Question: Common 4 While Unit 1 is at power, a Reactor Trip/Safety Injection occurs and all systems operate as designed . The following trend is observed over the next 15 minutes for NC System pressure:

Time after Trip/SI NC Pressure 1 minute 1800 psig 4 minutes 1600 psig 8 minutes 1400 psig 10 minutes 1200 psig Which ONE (1) of the following is an NI Pump first observable response in the Control Room?

A. Discharge pressure starts to DECREASE and motor amps start to INCREASE between 4-7 minutes.

B. Discharge flow starts to INCREASE and motor amps start to DECREASE between 4-7 minutes.

C. Discharge pressure starts to DECREASE and motor amps start to INCREASE between 8-10 minutes.

D. Discharge flow starts to INCREASE and motor amps start to DECREASE between 8-10 minutes.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

OP-MC-ECC-NI (NI System Lesson Plan) indicates that "Each pump has a shutoff head of 1520 psig and a design capacity of 400 gpm at 2600 feet of head (1125 psid). With Page 7 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet this in mind:

A. Correct. Discharge pressure will start to decrease at approximately 5 minutes when NC System pressure drops below the shutoff head of the NI Pumps (1520 psig). Motor amps are indicative of pump work (Wp=Mv6P a IE). As pump flow increases (M), pump amps (I) will increase . As NC system pressure drops below the pump shutoff head, pump flow will increase with a correspond ing increase in motor amps.

B. Incorrect. Motor Amps will increase , NOT decrease , as pump flow increases (See A).

C. Incorrect. NI Pump shutoff head is 1520 psig and pump characteristics will change when NC System pressure drops below this value. This occurs at the 5 minute point. Between 7-10 minutes the pump will continue to show signs of decreasing NC System pressure , however, the change in pump characteristics started between 4-7 minutes .

D. Incorrect. Changes in pump characteristics occur earlier (See C), Motor Amps will NOT decrease as pump flow increases.

Technical OP-MC-ECC-NI p13-17 Reference( s) (Rev.24)

OP-BNT-CP04, p 28, 30,43,52 Rev 11 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination :

Learning Objective: ECC-NI4, BNT-CP04-3C (As available)

Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7,8, Content: 14 55.43 Comments :

Page 8 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet KA is matched because item tests operation and behavior characteristics of ECCS Pumps under changing plant conditions.

RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 9 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# 007 A3.01 Importance Rating 2.7 (Ability to monitor automat ic operation of the PRTS, includ ing: Components which discha rge to the PRn Proposed Question: Common 5 While Unit 1 is at 100% power the Seal Water Return Filter becomes completely clogged.

Which ONE (1) of the following parameters is indicative of this failure?

A. Seal Water supply flow on all four NC Pumps increase.

B. Seal Water return flows on all four NC Pumps decrease to 0 gpm.

C. NC Pump number 2 seal leakoff flows decrease.

D. PRT level increase.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. The Seal Water supply flow to the NC Pumps is controlled by 1NV-238/1 NV-241 which is not impacted by this event.

B. Incorrect. While flow is blocked in the Seal Water Return Line, flow from the common discharge header will continue when the Relief Valve lifts, and flow, although fluctuating, will be indicated on the Seal Water Return flow indicators for all NC Pumps.

C. Incorrect. Another effect this will have is that the leak off from #2 seal is a function of the DIP across the #2 seal. The # 2 seal inlet pressure is either VCT press or in this case higher due to the clogged filter. The outlet pressure is NCDT press which will not change. The net result will be increased leak off from #2 seal and an increased input to the NCDT D. Correct. With a flow obstruction in the Seal Water Return Line, system pressure will rise to 150 psig and lift the Seal Water Return Relief Valve, which lifts to the PRT. According to Section 2.9 of OP-MC-PS-NC (NC System Lesson Plan) the PRT is equipped with temperature, pressure and level indication. With the Relief Valve lifting PRT will rise.

Page 10 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical OP-MC-PS-NC p39, 41 Reference(s) Rev 30 OP-MC-PS-NV, P19,27, 39,41 ,53,123,125,137 Rev 55 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination :

Learning Objective: PS-NV 3 Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New - X- - -

Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item evaluates a component discharging to PRT through a relief valve under abnormal plant conditions RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 11 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# 008 K2.02 Importance Rating 3.0 (Knowledge of bus powe r supplies to the following : CCW pump , including emergency backup)

Proposed Question: Common 6 With Unit 2 at 100% power, the following conditions exist:

  • B Train equipment in operation .
  • The 2B 1 KC Pump trips on overcurrent and is NOT available.
  • The operator implements the appropriate response procedures and restores the KC System to normal operation.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the electrical power source(s) supplying the operating Component Cooling (KC) Pump(s)?

A. 2ELXA and 2ELXB.

B. 2ETA and 2ETB.

C. 2ELXA ONLY.

D. 2ETA ONLY.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation (Optional) :

The operator will enter AP21 , Loss of KC or KC System Leakage and place the A Train in service using Enclosure 4. During the performance of this Enclosure both the 2A1 and 2A2 KC Pumps will be started and the 2B2 KC Pump will be stopped.

A. Incorrect. ELXA and ELXB are 600V Essential Load Center, not 4160 V Busses, and this suggests that train A and 2B2 pumps will be running upon completion of AP21.

B. Incorrect. While the KC Pumps are powered from 2ETA (2A1 and 1A2) and 2ETB (2B1 and 2B2),this suggests that train A and 2B2 pumps will be running upon completion of AP21.

Page 12 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

c. Incorrect. While the completion of AP21 will start the A Train Pumps and stop the remaining B Train Pump, ELXA is 600V Essential Load Centers ,

not 4160 V Busses.

D. Correct. Section 2.1 of OP-MC-PSS-KC (KC System Lesson Plan) states that the KC Pumps are powered from the 4160 volt vital busses (ETA, ETB). Section 9.2.4.2 of the McGuire UFSAR states that the systems function as "two independent subsystems," indicating that the power supplies are train specific. AP21 will direct the operator to start the A Train Pumps and stop the remaining B Train Pump.

Technical OP-MC-PSS-KC p15 Reference(s) Rev.23 UFSAR Section 9.2.4.2 (11/06)

AP21 , Step 9c and Enclosure 4, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: PSS-KC 6, AP-AP21 #2 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank 3877 (Note changes or attach

  1. _ _ _ _ parent)

New Question History : Last NRC Exam

-NA- - - -- - - - - - - -- -

Question Cogn itive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7, 10 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because the item evaluates knowledge of KC (CCW) pump power supplies in an abnormal plant condition involving swapping of trains RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 13 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Bank Question 3877 PSSKC025 PSSKC025 1 Pt Which ONE (1) of the following is the normal source of power to Component Cooling Water pump 1B21 A. 1ELXA.

B. 1ELXB.

C. 1 ETA.

D. 1ETB.

Page 14 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# 008 K4.01 Importance Rating 3.1 (Knowledge of CCWS des ign feature(s) and/or interlock (s) which provide for the follow ing: Automatic start of the standby pump .

Proposed Question: Common 7 Unit 1 is operating at 30% power with the following conditions:

  • Train B KC is in operation with both the 1B1 and 1B2 KC Pumps operating .
  • Train A KC is in standby with both the 1A 1 and 1A2 KC Pumps off.

Which ONE (1) of the following events will automatically start the 1A1 KC Pump?

A. The 1B2 Pump trips on overcurrent OR an event causing containment pressure to increase to 1.5 psig .

B. An event causing containment pressure to increase to 1.5 psig ONLY.

C. The normal supply breaker to 1ETB opens OR a leak on the shell side of the 1B KC heat exchanger occurs.

D. The normal supply breaker to 1ETB opens ONLY.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. A pump that is not running but available will only start on an Ss or BO signal. Containment pressure will cause SI, but trip of 1B2 pump will not cause auto start of the 1A 1 pump. This is plausible because the operator must know that the standby pumps will NOT start on a low system flow condition or abnormal pump breaker alignment that will be caused by a 1B2 pump trip .

B. Correct. Section 2.1 of OP -MC-PSS-KC states that the pumps automatically start on a Safety Injection (Ss) or Blackout (BO) signal.

Section 3.1 of OP-MC-ECC-ISE states that an Ss will occur on Hi-Containment Pressure of > 1.0 psig . This will automatically start both the 1A1 and the 1A2 KC Pumps.

Page 15 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

c. Incorrect. While a pump that is not running but available will start on aBO, the function is train specific. The BO on Train B will auto start the 1B1 and 1B2 KC pumps, but not the 1A 1 or 1A2 pumps. Also, the standby pumps will NOT start on a low system flow condition or abnormal pump breaker alignment that will be caused by a 1B2 pump trip.

D. Incorrect. While a pump that is not running but available will start on aBO, the function is train specific. The BO on Train B will auto start the 1B1 and 1B2 KC pumps, but not the 1A1 or 1A2 pumps.

Technical OP-MC-PSS-KC p13 Reference(s) Rev. 23 OP-MC-ECC-ISE p21 Rev. 30 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective: PSS-KC #4 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam _

Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item directly evaluates auto start feature of a KC pump in standby RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 16 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 010K1.07 Importance Rating 2.9 (Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationsh ips between the PZR PCS and the follow ing systems: Conta inment )

Proposed Question: Common 8 Unit 2 is operating at 100% with the Pzr Pressure Control Selector Switch in the 1-4 position .

Which ONE (1) of the following Pzr Pressure Channel failure events would result in 2EMF 38, Containment Particulate Radiation Monitor, going into alarm?

(assume no operator action is taken)

A. Channel 1 failing low OR Channel 3 failing high.

B. Channel 1 failing low ONLY.

C. Channel 1 OR Channel 4 failing low.

D. Channel 4 failing low ONLY.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

Section 2.9 of OP-MC-PS-NC indicates that the PORVs discharge to the PRT which is "not designed for continuous discharge, therefore, it has two rupture discs designed to prevent it from exceeding its design pressure of 100 psig ." The rupture discs open to the Containment atmosphere. If left unabated in this event, the PRT rupture discs will rupture and open the contents of the PRT to the Containment atmosphere. This can be identified by a number of parameters such as an increase in Containment Pressure, temperature and radiation levels.

Section 2.2 of OP-MC-PS-IPE states that in the 1-4 position CH 1 inputs the pressure master controller (heaters, sprays, Low/Hi Press Dev. Annuns, &

PORV-34) and CH 4 is used to actuate PORVs 32 & 36 at 2335 psig and feed a "PZR HI PRESS" annunciator at 2310 psig. With Channel 1 failed low the input to the Master Pressure Controller will call for maximum heater output, and the Page 17 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet spray valves will not automatically open. Pzr pressure will increase to the PORV setpoint on Channels 2, 3 and 4. When Channel 4 reaches 2385 psig PORVs 1NC-32B and 1NC-36B will open and discharge to the PRT, lowering Pzr pressure until Channel 3 closes both PORVs at 2185 psig. This action will cause actual Pzr Pressure in Channels 2, 3 and 4 to increase to 2385 psig where the process will repeat itself. With no operator action, the PRT rupture disc will fail at 100 psig in the PRT and discharge its contents to the Containment causing 2EMF 38 indication to increase.

A. Incorrect. Channel 1 failing low is correct, but Channel 3 failing high will have no effect. Plausible if the applicant thinks that Channel 3 will open NC-32B and NC-36B instead of blocking them.

B. Correct. (See Above)

C. Incorrect. Channel 1 failing low is correct. However, channel 4 failing low will fail the low pressure interlock on PORV 1NC-34A, such that the interlock will always prevent this valve from opening. Additionally, PORVs 1NC32B and 1NC-36B receive an open signal from this channel at 2385 which will NOT be attained with the channel failed low.

D. Incorrect. See "C" explanation .

Technical OP-MC-PS-IPE p17, 51, Reference(s) and 55 (Rev. 27)

OP-MC-PS-NC p39 (Rev.

30)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: PS-NC #19 (As available)

PS-IPE #12 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New - X -- -

Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X Page 18 of271 Re v Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because the item evaluates knowledge of a PZR PCS failure that will result in changing containment conditions if no action is taken RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 19 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 012 A3.03 Importance Rating 3.4 (Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RPS, includ ing: Power supply)

Proposed Question: Common 9 Unit 2 is at 100% power.

  • All SSPS Channel I bistable status lights simultaneously illuminate.
  • Power Range NI Channel N-41 indication is lost.
  • Intermediate Range Channel N-35 indication is lost.
  • Power Range Channels N-42, N-43, and N-44 indicate 100%.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the failure that has occurred, AND the response of the Reactor Protection System?

A. Loss of DC Bus DCA; Train A SSPS General Warning Alarm is received .

B. Loss of DC Bus DCA; The PCS Power Supply Failure Protection Cabinet 1 & 2 alarms are received.

C. Loss of 120 VAC Bus EKVA; The SSPS Train A General Warning Alarm is received.

D. Loss of 120 VAC Bus EKVA; The PCS Power Supply Failure Protection Cabinet 1 & 2 alarms are received.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. Indications are that more than just a loss of DC bus has occurred. Indications given are that 1 channel of 120 VAC has been lost.

(AP-15, step 11) Effect is correct, as the GW alarm will be received.

Plausible because a loss of 48 VDC or 15 VDC power supply WILL cause SSPS General Warning (IC-IPE, pg 39). But this power supply has not Page 20 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet been lost.

B. Incorrect. Indications are that more than just a loss of DC bus has occurred .

Indications given are that 1 channel of 120 VAC has been lost. Effect is incorrect, as the GW alarm will be received, but only 1 PCS power failure alarm will be received . (ARP for 2AO-2, C7 and 07)

C. Correct. The General Warning will occur on Train A due to the loss of 2EKVA. With channel 1 SSPS illuminated, a loss of channel A power supply is indicated .

D. Incorrect. The failure is correct but a loss of 1 channel will not result in PCS loss of power on both train A channels. Plausible because EITHER Train A 120 VAC bus will cause a general warning alarm. It is reasonable to misunderstand which failure affects both channels of Train A power and which failure does not.

Technical OP-MC-IC-IPE p33 , 37, 39 Reference( s) Rev 28 AP/2/A/5500/15 p2 Rev 15 OP12/A/61 00101 OC/C-7 OP/2/A/61001010C/O-7 OP/2/A/61 00101 OC/E-7 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: IC-IPE #4/5 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. - - - - parent)

New X Question History : Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 6/7 Content:

55.43 Page 21 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

KA is matched because item directly evaluates effect on RPS on loss of power supply. Item also discriminates at a higher level because effect on system is tested RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 22 of2?1 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# 012 K6.03 Importance Rating 3.3 (Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunct ion of the follow ing will have on the RPS: Trip Logic Circu its)

Proposed Question: Common 10 Unit 1 is at 100% power.

Pzr Pressure Protection Channel III (1NC-PT-5170) fails and is properly removed from service.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the Reactor Trip and Safety Injection actuation logic required (from the remaining in-service channels) on Low Pzr Pressure?

Reactor Trip Safety Injection A. 1/2 1/2 B. 1/3 1/3 C 1/3 2/3 D. 2/3 2/3 Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. Plausible because P-11 and PZR level trips employ normal 2 of 3 logic.

B. Correct. See IC-IPE, p83 C. Incorrect. Plausible because applicant may not understand that RPS and ESF functions are placed in trip condition , and also P-11 being 2 of 3 and only affecting ESF function.

D. Incorrect. If channels were placed in bypass instead of trip, this would be correct.

Page 23 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical OP-MC-IC-IPE, p83 Rev Reference(s) 28 OP-MC-ECC-ISE P 21 Rev 30 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination :

Learning Objective: IC-IPE #10, ECC-ISE #6 (As available)

Question Source: Bank # -X- --

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Wolf Creek 2007 Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 6,7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA matched because item evaluates knowledge of logic operation with 1 channel out of service RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 24 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 012 K4.08 Importance Rating 3.1 (Knowledge of ESFAS des ign feature (s) and/or interlock (s) wh ich provide for the following : Redundancy)

Proposed Question: Common 11 Which ONE (1) of the following automatic actuations requires an energized bistable and a Containment Pressure Control System signal for it to occur?

A. Startup of the Containment Spray System.

B. Startup of the Annulus Ventilation System .

C. Startup of the Hydrogen Skimmer Fans.

D. Startup of the Containment Air Return Fans .

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

A. Correct. Section 3.1 of OP-MC-ECC-ISE (p27) states that the automatic actuation of Containment Spray is one of the on Iv functions that requires the bistable to energize to perform its required action . It is not desirable to have a loss of power actuate containment spray, since the consequences of an inadvertent actuation of containment spray could be serious.

B. Incorrect. Does not require CPCS signal. Actuates on Hi-Hi Containment Pressure, however, bistable is de-energize to function . (OP-MC -ECC-ISE p29)

C. Incorrect. Requires CPCS signal. Actuates on Hi-Hi Containment Pressure, however, bistable is de-energize to function. (OP-MC-ECC-ISE p29)

D. Incorrect. Requires CPCS signal. Actuates on Hi-Hi Containment Pressure, however, bistable is de-energize to function. (OP-MC-ECC-ISE p29)

Technical OP-MC-ECC-ISE p27,29 (Attach if not previously Reference(s) _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ provided)

Page 25 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet (Including version or revision #)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination :

Learning Objective: ECC-ISE #5 Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. - - - - parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments :

KA is matched because channel redundancy is related to both the function provided by the channel and the method of actuation. Containment Spray is the ONLY ESF actuation that requires redundant channels to energize in order for actuation to occur RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 26 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# 022 A2 .05 Importance Rating 3.1 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CCS ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, contro l, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operat ions: Major leak in CCS Proposed Question: Common 12 With Unit 1 in Mode 1 the following sequence of events occur:

0750 200 gpm RV System leak occurs inside Containment.

0751 MC8 Annunciator 1AD-13/C-5, Containment Floor and Equipment Sump A High Level, - In Alarm.

MC8 Annunciator 1AD-13/E-5, Containment Floor and Equipment Sump 8 High Level, - In Alarm .

0755 Operators manually close all RV Containment Isolation Valves in order to stop the leak.

0825 Operators have observed 1°F increase in both upper and lower Containment temperature since the RV System was isolated.

  • Upper level of Containment was initially at 88°F.
  • Lower level of Containment was initially at 104°F.
  • Assume that the RV System remains isolated and Containment heat-up rate remains constant.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the approximate time before a Technical Specification Containment Temperature limit will be exceeded, AND the procedure that must be used to restore Containment sump level?

A. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> ;

OP/11A165001001, Liquid Waste System.

8. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />; AP/11A15500/44, Plant Flooding.

C. 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />; OP/11A165001001, Liquid Waste System.

D. 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />; AP/11A15500/44, Plant Flooding.

Page 27 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> would result in an increase in Containment Upper and Lower levels of 8°F. This would place the Containment Upper Level at 96°F (4°F < TS Limit of 100°F) and the Containment Lower Level at 112°F (8°F <

TS Limit) .

B. Incorrect. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> would result in an increase in Containment Upper and Lower levels of 8°F. This would place the Containment Upper Level at 96°F (4°F < TS Limit of 100°F) and the Containment Lower Level at 112°F (8°F <

TS Limit) . Additionally, AP44 is written to handle flooding in the Turbine, Auxiliary and Service Buildings, NOT Containment.

C. Correct. 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> would result in an increase in Containment Upper and Lower levels of 12°F. This would place the Containment Upper Level at 100°F (The TS Limit) and the Containment Lower Level at 116°F (4°F < TS Limit). Additionally, with the stated MCB Annunciators in alarm the operator will be.directed to monitor the removal of the sump water to the FDT via the CFE Sump Pumps in accordance with the Liquid Waste Normal Operating procedure (OP/1/A165001001).

D. Incorrect. AP44 is written to handle flooding in the Turbine, Auxiliary and Service Buildings, NOT Containment.

Technical TS 3.6.5 Amendment Reference(s) 184/166 AP/1/A15500/44 Rev 7 Purpose Statement ARP 1AD-13/C-5 Rev 71 OP/1/A165001001 Rev 70 OP-MC-WE-WE, p25 Rev 22 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: WE-WL#5 Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. ---- parent)

New - X- - -

Page 28 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 5,10 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because the impact tested is time to exceed a TS limit, and using procedures is evaluated by which procedure will be applicable for the condition RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 29 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 025 K6 .01 Importance Rating 3.4 (Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the ice condenser system: Upper and lower doors of the ice condenser)

Proposed Question: Common 13 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

  • The plant is starting up following a Refueling Outage.
  • An instantaneous double-ended shear of NC Loop C (Large Break LOCA) occurs.
  • Several Ice Condenser Upper and Lower doors fail to open.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies a consequence of the failed doors?

A. The Hydrogen Skimmer and Containment Air Return (VX) System automatic actuation is delayed.

B. Water that accumulates in the Containment Sump will have a substantially lower Boron concentration.

C. Less water will accumulate in the Containment Sump within the first 15 minutes of the event.

D. FWST inventory will decrease at a faster rate.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. According to Section 3.1 of OP-MC-ECC-ISE, VX automatic actuation will occur when Containment pressure reaches 3 psig (instantaneously) and after a 10 minute time delay. In actuality, the failed doors will not have an affect on this action. However, the failed doors will require a longer time for the Containment Upper Level pressure to equalize with Lower Containment Pressure. If the operator mistakenly believes that the VX System starts on Containment Upper Level Pressure, which will be lower for a longer period of time, the distractor is plausible.

Page 30 0[271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B. Incorrect. The water that is accumulating in the Containment sump is from the NC System and the FWST. Both of these sources use borated water, and the NCS Boron concentration is at the highest that it will ever be (BOL) during the operat ing cycle. Had the Ice Condenser operated as designed ,

water with 2000 ppm would have been added to the Containment Sump.

However, the water from the NC System in the sump is close to that concentration, and the water from the RWST is probably higher (TS 3.5.4) .

C. Correct. With the doors failing to operate as designed , less ice will melt resulting in less accumulating water in the Containment Sump. Section 3.2 of OP-MC-CNT-NF states that the ice melt provides water for the containment sump inventory available for recirculation through the core. If the system does NOT work as designed there will be less accumulated water in the sump .

D. Incorrect. Containment Pressure will rise higher than predicted due to the failure of the Ice Condenser to operate as designed (Section 3.2 of OP-MC-CNT-NF) . With the Containment Pressure higher, inventory from the ECCS pumps flowing into the Containment via the NC System , and the NS pumps directly will occur at a slower rate due to increased liP. If anything, FWST inventory depletion will take longer.

Technical OP-MC-ECC-ISE p29, Reference(s) Rev 30 OP-MC-CNT-NF P67 Rev 29 Unit 1 COLR, p26 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective : CNT-NF #19,20 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank 1009 (Note changes or attach

  1. - - -- parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam

-NA - - - - - -- - - -- - - -

Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x Page 31 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 6,7, Content: 8 55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because the effect evaluated is directly related to failure of Ice Condenser doors RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Question 1009 CNTNF046 CNTNF046 1 Pt Which of the following is the major effect of a failure of the ice condenser doors to open on a LOCA?

A. Design basis containment pressure wou ld be exceeded .

B. Increased corrosion of components in containment due to lower pH.

C. Would not be able to remove iodine from the containment atmosphere.

D. Insufficient inventory to maintain the core covered during a LOCA.

Answer 1009 A

CNT-NF, section 3 Page 32 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 025 K5.01 Importance Rating 3.0 (Knowledge of operational implicat ions of the follow ing concepts as they apply to the ice condenser system : Relationsh ips between pressure and temperature)

Proposed Question: Common 14 With Unit 1 at power the following Ice Condenser equipment status exists:

  • All NF Air Handling Units - On
  • 1A and 1B NF Glycol Pumps - On
  • 1A, 1B, 1C and 1G NF Chillers - On
  • Ice Machinesllce Loading Equipment - Off Ice Condenser Aggregate Temperature is being maintained at 15°F.

Subsequently, one Chiller and one Glycol Pump are removed from service, and Ice Condenser Aggregate Temperature stabilizes at 25°F .

Which ONE (1) of the following describes a consequence of this event?

A. Sublimation of the ice will occur at a higher rate.

B. Containment Temperature will approach a Technical Specification limit.

C. Aggravation of the NF System FreezefThaw Cycle will be minimized .

D. The Technical Specification limit for Ice bed temperature will be exceeded.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional) :

A. Correct. Securing a glycol pump and a Chiller will cause Ice Condenser Temperature to elevate. OP-MC-CNT-NF (p63, section 3.1.2) states that operating with elevated ice condenser temperatures during normal operation increases sublimation of the ice.

Page 33 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B. Incorrect. This action will adjust the Temperature of the Ice Condenser, not the Containment. The Ice Condenser is designed to function as a Thermal Barrier between itself and the Containment Atmosphere (Section 2.1.3 (p25, 27) of OP-MC-CNT-NF).

C. Incorrect. According to OP-MC-CNT-NF (Section 3.1.2, p65) operating the Ice Condenser at elevated temperatures will actually have the opposite affect and aggravate the NF System FreezefThaw Cycle.

D. Incorrect. The Technical Specification Limit is ~ 27°F, and is still being maintained.

Technical OP-MC-CNT-NF p21-28, Reference(s) 67 Rev 29 TS 3.6.12 Basis Rev 53 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination :

Learning Objective: CNT-NF #16 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank 1003 (Note changes or attach

  1. - -- - parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7, 14 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KiA Match: Ice Sublimation has a direct tie to atmospheric conditions (i.e.

pressure and temperature). For any given pressure , changes in temperature will result in sublimation rate changes.

RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 34 of 271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question 1003 CNTNF040 CNTNF040 1 Pt Increased sublimation is one of the problems which can be caused by operating with elevated Ice Condenser temperatures.

Which of the following best describes process of sublimation?

A. Ice melt due to compression caused by the weight of the column of ice.

B. The freeze/thaw cycles which cause buckling of the Ice Condenser wear slab.

C. Process of ice turning directly into a vapor without passing through the liquid phase.

D. Moisture in the air condenses and freezes on the Ice Condenser AHU coils causing blockage of the coils.

Answer 1003 C Page 35 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # (026) G2.2.22 Importance Rating 4.0 (Containment Spray I Equipment Control: Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.)

Proposed Question: Common 15 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

  • A plant cooldown and depressurization is in progress.

oF.

  • NC System Temperature is 320
  • NC System Pressure is 325 psig.
  • All plant components are aligned normally for the present plant conditions.

Subsequently, a fire in the breaker cubicle for the 1B NS Pump occurs.

Which ON E (1) of the following describes the impact on Technical Specification LCO 3.6.6 , Containment Spray System?

A. LCO 3.6.6 MUST be entered with operability restored within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

B. LCO 3.6.6 MUST be entered with operability restored within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> .

C. LCO 3.6.6 will NOT be entered because the A Train of NS is operable.

D. LCO 3.6.6 will NOT be entered because it is NOT applicable in the present plant Mode of Operation .

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

TS 3.6.6 requires 2 trains of NS to be operable in Modes 1, 2, 3, and 4. The time to restore operability is 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> . ROs are expected to know from memory the LCO, applicable modes, and 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less actions. If the applicant knows the TS that have 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> actions, the applicant should also recognize a TS that does NOT have a 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less action.

A. Incorrect. While it is true that LCO 3.6.6 requires that two trains of Containment Spray (NS) be Operable in Modes 1-4, and that the plant is in Mode 4, the LCO has no action requirements within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

Page 36 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B. Correct. LCO 3.6.6 requires that two trains of Containment Spray (NS) be Operable in Modes 1-4. The plant is in Mode 4, and therefore Trains A and B of NS are required. Action is required (Restore Operability) within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

C. Incorrect. In Mode 4 both trains of NS are required to be Operable. To say that the LCO is satisfied by only the A Train of NS being Operable is an error.

D. Incorrect. Technical Specification Table 1.1-1 defines the Modes of Operation. Mode four is defined as NC Temperature < 350°F> 200°F.

This would be correct if the NC System Temperature were < 200°F.

Technical Tech Specs 3.6.6 Reference(s) A#184/166 Tech Specs Table 1.1-1, A#194/175 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination :

Learning Objective: ECC-NS #13 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New - X---

Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 5 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because operability of NS (Containment Spray) system is evaluated for lower mode conditions RFA Concurs 4/25/08 Page 37 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 026 K3.02 Importance Rating 4.2 (Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CSS will have on the follow ing: Recirculation spray system )

Proposed Question: Common 16 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

  • Large Break LOCA in progress.
  • Train B NO aligned for CLR.
  • 1N1-185A (RB Sump to Train A NO and NS) cannot be opened and 1A NO I Pump has been stopped.
  • FWST level is 30 inches.
  • Both 1A and 1B NS Pumps are stopped.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies an action that must occur to avoid exceeding peak Containment pressure?

A. The 1A NS Pump must be restarted taking suction from the FWST until the 1B NS pump can be aligned for recirculation.

B. The 1A NO Pump must be restarted taking suction from the FWST until the 1B NS pump can be aligned for recirculation.

C. The 1B NS Pump must be restarted in the recirculation alignment and RN flow established to the 1B NS Heat Exchanger within 3 minutes.

O. The 1B NO Pump must be manually aligned to provide NS within 30 minutes.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. Restarting any pump on the FWST with the Lo-Lo Level alarm in will cause vortexing in the FWST and loss of NPSH to the Pump.

Page 38 of271 Rev Final

.., '. ~ ~:: .' -  :~ . ',:. . '~"'.':' -. - ..:-: ..... -: .-: '. ..:. :,:_,~." .. . . .,~~ .' : .

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet According to the E-1 Background document (p159, Rev 17), the NS Pumps must be stopped within 45 seconds to protect the pumps from this phenomena . This is Plausible since ECA-1.1 allows continuing ECCS Pump operation on FWST until 20" is reached (FWST Lo-Lo Level alarm is 33"), after which the FWST is considered empty, and all pumps must be stopped (See ECA-1.1, Steps 9 and 34).

B. Incorrect. Cannot start any pump on FWST (See A).

C. Correct. The E-1 Background document (p159, Rev 17) states that at least one NS Pump must be restarted in the recirculation alignment and cooling water established to the NS Heat Exchanger within 3 minutes of Stopping the NS Pumps in order to limit Peak Containment pressure .

D. Incorrect. According to Step 9 of ES-1.3 this action occurs at > 50 Minutes from the time of the event. FSAR section 6.3.3.9 indicates that this action occurs at approximately 50 minutes to ensure that the Core Decay Heat Removal requirements are being met by operating NV and NI pumps .

Technical ES-1.3 steps 8/9, Rev 23 (Attach if not previously Reference(s) provided)

E-1 Background (Including version or Document p159, Rev 17 revision #)

ECC-NS P 35, 37 Rev 29 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: ECC-NS #11, EP-E1 #7 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New - X---

Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7,10 Content:

55.43 Page 39 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

KA is matched because the item evaluates failure of Containment Spray and resulting effects on operation in Recirc mode RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 40 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Out line Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier# 2 Group # 1 KJA# 039 A4 .04 Importance Rating 3.8 (Ability to manua lly operate and/or mon itor in the contro l room : Emergency feedwater pump turbines)

Proposed Question: Common 17 With Unit 2 at 100% power the following occurs:

  • B Train equipment is in service.
  • The normal supply breaker to 2ETA opens.

Which ONE (1) of the following would be indicative of an expected response of the Unit 2 CA System?

A. The Unit 2 Turbine Driven CA Pump RPM is at 3600.

B. The 2SA-48ABC position status light is RED and the 2SA-49AB position status light is GREEN.

C. No Steam Pressure is indicated on 2SA-PT5000 (Steam to FWPT Pressure).

D. 2AD-5/F-3 , CA Pump Turbine Stop Valve NOT Open, is ILLUMINATED.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

The TO CAP will auto start on the blackout (CF-CA, p 15, Rev 39)

A. Correct. According to OP-MC-CF-CA (Section 2.6 , p29, Rev 39) the Unit 2 CA TO operates at 3600 RPM.

B. Incorrect. According to OP-MC-CF-CA (Section 2.4, p23, Rev 39) the two Steam admission valves will open independent of the other only on a loss of power to a valves solenoid . In this case , an actual start signal exists which will open BOTH valves.

C. Incorrect. Figure 7.7 of OP-MC-CF-CA (p73 Rev 39) shows that 2SA-PT5000 monitors Steam Pressure downstream of 2SA-48/49 and upstream of the 2CA TO Stop Valve. With both 2SA-48/49 open steam pressure to the Turbine will be indicated.

Page 41 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. Incorrect. This annunciator will alarm when the 2CA TO receives a start signal and the Stop Valve is NOT Open indicating an overspeed condition.

If operating normally as expected the annunciator will be DARK.

Technical OP-MC -CF-CA p23, 29, Reference(s) 73 Rev 39 ARP for 2AD-5/F-3 Rev 30 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during NA examination:

Learning Objective: CF-CA #4 and 7 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. _ _ _ _ parent)

New x Question History : Last NRC Exam

-NA- -- - - -- - - -- - - -

Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item evaluates AFW Pump turbine status during an electrical failure RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 420[271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 039 K4.07 Importance Rating 3.4 (Knowledge of MRSS design feature (s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the follow ing: Reactor building isolation)

Proposed Question: Common 18 Unit 1 is in Mode 3 conducting a plant depressurization and cooldown in accordance with OP/1/A16100/SD-2, Cooldown to 400 oF.

The following conditions exist:

  • NC System pressure 1900 psig
  • NC System temperature 557°F
  • Low Pressure SI and Low Pressure Steamline Isolation have been blocked.

oF/hour

  • The operator has just begun an 80 cooldown .

Which ONE (1) of the following conditions would automatically close all four Main Steam Isolation Valves?

A. NC Pressure increases to 2000 psig.

B. Containment Pressure increases to 1 psig.

C. 1A Steam Generator Pressure drops to 900 psig in 2 seconds.

D. 1B Steam Generator Pressure drops to 700 psig consistent with NC Cooldown.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional) :

Per ECC-ISE, pg 31, a Main Steam Isolation signal closes the MSIVs. It is actuated by one of the following: Hi Hi Containment Press (3 psig), Low Steam Pressure << 775 psig) . When below P-11 (NC press < 1955 psig) , the Low Steam Pressure MSI signal is blocked and the High Steamline Pressure negative rate is enabled. The setpo int is nom inally -100 psig/second.

Page 43 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet After the Low Steam pressure << 775 psig) MSI signal is blocked, if NC pressure increased above P-11, the Low Steam pressure MSI is enabled. IF steam pressure were below 775 psig, a MSI would occur.

A. Incorrect. If NC Pressure increases to > P-11 (1955 psig), then the Low Steam Pressure SLI will be automatically enabled. However, SG pressures are> 775 psig so MSI will not occur.

B. Incorrect. MSI actuation occurs on 3 psig in Containment, NOT 1 psig. An increase of Containment pressure to 1 psig will actuate Phase A Containment Isolation.

C. Correct. NC pressure is below P-11 so the Low Press SLI is blocked and the High Steam Line Pressure Negative Rate trip (-100 psi/sec) is activated in its place.

D. Incorrect. Although the B SG has dropped to 700 psig as the NC System has been cooled, and this Steam Pressure is below the Low Steam Pressure SLI setpoint of 775 psig, the procedure has directed the operator block this protection, anticipating that SG Pressure would drop as the NC System is cooled.

Technical OP/1/A/6100/SD-2 Rev 35 Reference(s)

OP-MC-ECC-ISE p31 rev 30 OP-MC-IC-IPE p49 Rev 28 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: ECC-ISE #5 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. ---- parent)

New - X---

Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X Page 44 of 271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because automatic Main Steam Isolation is tested under abnormal conditions of operation (Lower Mode). MSLI is RB Isolation.

(Containment Isolation for Main Steam Lines)

RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 45 of271 Rev Final

      • *
  • _ . * . _ *
  • 0 ***

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# 059 A1 .03 Importance Rating 2.7 (Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceed ing design limits) assoc iated with operating the MFW controls including: Power level restrictions for operation of MFW pumps and valves .)

Proposed Question: Common 19 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

  • The plant is at 41 % power.
  • AMSAC UNBLOCK Light - LIT
  • Power increase in progress.
  • A CF Pump running.
  • CF Main Control valves at 24% open.

Which ONE (1) of the following will result in an AMSAC actuation?

A. The C SG controlling Steam Flow channel fails low.

B. Power level is raised to 55% prior to starting B CF Pump.

C. The CF Control Valve bypasses are throttled in the closed direction.

D. Closure of D SG CF Containment Isolation valve.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

AMSAC will actuate under two conditions , Both CF Pumps trip or the loss of CF flow path logic circuit is actuated . The loss of CF flow log ic circuit requires indications of loss of flow in 3 of 4 SG. A CF Main Control must be at least 25%

open if its associated bypass valve is not fully open for AMSAC to consider the flow path viable (CF-CF, pg 43) . In the condition described above, the bypass valves must be fully open to prevent AMSAC from actuatinq. The AMSAC protection for Loss of Flow will be automatically blocked when turbine impulse pressure decreases below or equal to 260 psig (35 -36% power). Loss of Flow is automatically unblocked above 290 psig turbine impulse pressure (39-40%

power). The CF Pump trip actuation functions at all times.

Page 46 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet A. Incorrect. If a controlling channel fails low, then feed flow will also lower, but only 1 SG will exhibit a low level. AMSAC requires 3 of 4.

B. Incorrect. While this action would violate procedure and strain the ability of the CF System to feed the SGs, it will NOT actuate AMSAC.

c. Correct. The throttling of the Bypass valves to less than full open will cause AMSAC to actuate because the Control Valves are < 25% open with power

>40%.

D. Incorrect. The closing of the 0 CF CIV will interrupt flow to only one SG, and AMSAC actuation requires flow to be impacted in 3 of 4.

Technical OP-MC-CF-CF p33, 41, Reference(s) and 43 Rev 32 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: CF-CF #14, 16 Question Source : Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. - - -- parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam

- NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 4,7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item evaluates knowledge of operation of FRV bypass valves at power levels above 40%, as well as operation of AMSAC at power levels above 40%. IF FRV Bypass valves are throttled closed, SG levels will drop and AMSAC will actuate RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 47 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier# 2 Group # 1 KJA# 061 K3.01 Importance Rating 4.4 (Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the AFW will have on the follow ing: ReS)

Proposed Question: Common 20 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

After an automatic start of the 1TD CA Pump, a malfunction has occurred which has limited its flow to 300 gpm.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the event in which this malfunction will result in a loss of core cooling?

(Assume No operator action)

A. Total Loss of All AC Power.

B. Large Break LOCA.

C. Both CF Pumps simultaneously trip with a simultaneous ATWS .

D. Design Basis SGTR.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional) :

A. Correct. According to EP-ECA (P29 Rev 12) if CA Flow of at least 450 gpm cannot be maintained , a Secondary Heat Sink cannot be maintained (resulting in NC System heat up). In this event there is no possibility of any additional CA flow because the other pumps have no power.

B. Incorrect. According to EP-FRH (p27 Rev 10) the S/Gs are not needed as a heat sink after a LB LOCA C. Incorrect. According to Section 2.1 of OP-MC-CF-CA (p13 Rev 39) both MD CA Pumps will start when the two CF Pumps trip. Heat Sink will be maintained. According to OP-MC-EP-FRS, Step 11, ATWS analyses have shown that CA flow of 700 gpm is acceptable to adequately remove the heat generated from power operation prior to reactor shutdown . A total of Page 480[271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 700 gpm will be delivered by both MO CA pumps coupled with the 300 gpm delivered by the TO CA Pump.

D. Incorrect. According to Section 2.1 of OP-MC-CF-CA (p13 Rev 39) both MO CA Pumps will start when SG level drops to 17%. This will occur on the Rx Trip associated with a low Pzr pressure which would be the result of the DBA SGTR. The Design Basis SGTR includes an LOP , however, both essential busses will be repowered by their respective Emergency DG, and both MD CA Pumps will rema in available. Heat Sink will be maintained.

Technical Reference(s)

EP-FRH p27 Rev 10 OP-MC-EP-FRS, p29 ,

Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: EP-ECA#4 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New - X - --

Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 4,7, Content: 10 55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item evaluates conditions in which AFW system is not meeting des ign requirements. The candidate must determine which condition will potentially cause core uncovery RFA Concurs 4/17/08 Page 49 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 062 A3.05 Importance Rating 3.5 (Ability to monitor automat ic operat ion of the AC distribution system , including: Safety-related indicators and cont rols)

Proposed Question: Common 21 The B Train of essential equipment is in operation on Unit 1.

While performing OP/1/A163501002 (Diesel Generator) with the 1A Diesel running in parallel to the grid, the following sequence of events occurs :

  • Load is reduced on the diesel to 200KW in anticipation of opening the Emergency Breaker .
  • The RO accidentally OPENS the Normal Feeder Breaker from 1ATC.

Which ONE (1) of the following completes the statement below?

The Blackout Sequencer Actuated Train A status light on SI-14 .....

A. lights and the Emergency Breaker trips open, then re-closes 8.5 seconds later.

B. remains dark and the Emergency Breaker trips open, then re-c1oses 8.5 seconds later.

C. lights and the 1A DG Load increases.

D. remains dark and the 1A DG Load increases.

Proposed Answer: 0 Explanation (Optional) :

A. Incorrect. Section 3.3 of OP-MC-DG-EQB states that If 2/3 LOV Relays sense a loss of voltage on their associated 4160V bus, the blackout relay will pick up and actuate a DIG start. If the UV condition still exists after 8.5 seconds, the blackout logic is sealed in. However, with the Emergency Breaker closed, there is NO loss of voltage on 1ETA.

Page 50 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B. Incorrect. While it is true that the BO signal will not exist, the Diesel Breaker will NOT trip open (Section 2.7 of OP-MC-DG-DG) on overcurrent with the Essential Bus disconnected from another power source.

C. Incorrect. No BO Relay will operate (see A)

D. Correct. The Emergency Breaker is closed and the Diesel will pick up the remaining load on 1ETA.

Technical OP-MC -DG-EQB pages Reference(s) 17,23,3 OP-MC-DG-DG page 35, Rev 25 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: DG-EQB#5 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank McGuire (Note changes or attach

  1. NRC parent)

Bank#

'187 New Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because Sequencer indication (status light) is evaluated for a condition where AC Power is interrupted RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 51 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet The B Train of essential equipment is in operation on Unit 1.

While performing OP/1/A/63501002 (Diesel Generator) with the 1A Diesel running in parallel to the grid, the following sequence of events occurs:

Load is reduced on the diesel to 200KW in anticipation of opening the EMERGENCY breaker.

The RO accidentally OPENS the normal feeder breaker from 1ATC.

Train 1B is the protected train.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the system response and the proper procedural response to deal with this situation?

A. Degraded voltage is sensed on 1ETA and the BLACKOUT sequencer actuates, the crew will use AP/1/5500107(Loss of Electrical Power).

B. The Diesel Generator Sequencer does not actuate, and the diesel generator assumes the load of the bus. The operator uses OP/1/A/63501002 to return to normal alignment.

C. Undervoltage is sensed on 1ETA and the BLACKOUT sequencer actuates, the crew will use AP/1/5500107.

D. The Diesel Generator BLACKOUT sequencer recloses the breaker from 1ATC. Crew reloads the bus using AP/1/A/5500107, Enclosure 1 (Manual Loading of Emergency Bus).

Page 52 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 063 A1.01 Importance Rating 2.5 (Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters associated with operating the DC electrical system controls including: Battery capacity as it is affected by discharge rate)

Proposed Question: Common 22 McGuire Station has experienced a Loss of Off-site power.

The following timeline shows CXAlCXB voltage over the course of the event:

Time after LOOP CXA CXB 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> 128v 123v 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> 124v 116v 3 hour3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> 118v 114v 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> 115v 113v 5 hour5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> 113v 112v 6 hour6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> 111v 111v Assuming the current trends continue, Battery CXA will be lost in _U.L- hours.

Battery CXB will be lost in _(2)_ hours.

(1) (2)

A. 2 4 B. 2 6 C. 3 4 D. 3 6 Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

Page 53 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet A. Correct. According to the AP15 Background Document each Battery breaker will open at 107 volts (105 for vital) . Also according to AP15 Background document comp measures will be taken at 115 v on both batteries so that life is extended, and that after 115 v the battery voltage will decrease linearly.

The timeline for CXA shows that the battery voltage is decreasing a 2v/hr for CXA after 115v, and 1v/hr for CXB after 115v. Therefore, the CXA will decrease to 107 v in 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />, and the CXB will decrease to 107 v in 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

B. Incorrect. The predicted life of CXB is 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> which would be true if it were a vital DC Battery.

C. Incorrect. The predicted life of CXA is 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> which would be true if it were a vital DC Battery.

D. Incorrect. True if both batteries were vital DC Batteries.

Technical AP15 Background Reference(s) Document p48 , Rev 19 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: EL-EPK #12,13 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 4 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because change in parameters will occur when the battery is depleted. Discharge rate and battery depletion are the key elements of this item.

Page 54 0[271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 55 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 064 K6.08 Importance Rating 3.2 (Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the follow ing will have on the ED/G system : Fuel oil storage tanks)

Proposed Question: Common 23 With Unit 1 at 100% power the following conditions exist:

  • The 1A DG is in standby.
  • A fuel oil leak in 1A DG Fuel Oil Storage Tank is occurring.
  • Fuel Oil Storage Tank volume was 43,600 gallons at the start of the leak.
  • When the leak is contained, the Fuel Oil Storage Tank level was stabilized with a volume of 30,000 gallons.
  • The trend of the tank volume is as follows:

1030 39,900 gallons 1100 38,600 gallons 1130 31,200 gallons 1200 30,000 gallons Of the following choices, which ONE (1) of the following is the EARLIEST time that 1A DG parameters require entry into a Technical Specification action statement?

A. 1030 B. 1100 C. 1130 D. 1200 Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

Page 56 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet A. Incorrect. EDG fuel oil will still be meeting TS LCO limits because >39,500 gallons is available. Plausible because number is below 40,000.

B. Correct. Below 39,500 gallons, the crew has 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> to restore level.

C. Incorrect. Already in an action statement, but plausible because this value is below the value where the EDG will be declared inoperable.

D. Incorrect. This value is below both operability limits, and is plausible because it is a value below the limits. Just not the first value that is below the limits.

Technical TS 3.8.3 Rev 184/166 (Attach if not previously Reference(s) _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ provided)

(Including version or revision #)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: DG-DG #11 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. ---- parent)

New - X---

Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7,10 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because malfunction of the Fuel Oil Storage Tank (leak) will result in TS action statement entry, and eventually, unavailability of the EDG RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 57 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# 073 A2.01 Importance Rating 2.5 (Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the PRM system ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Erratic or failed power supply )

Proposed Question: Common 24 With Unit 2 at 100% power, the following conditions exist:

  • Train A equipment is in operation.
  • The power supply to 2EMF46A, Train A Component Cooling , has failed .

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the impact of this event, AND what procedure will be used to address the situation?

A. KC-122, Component Cooling Water Surge Tank Vent, will auto close; Address Annunciator Response for 2RAD-1/A-4 2EMF 46A Train A KC Hi Rad.

B. KC-122 , Component Cooling Water Surge Tank Vent, will auto close ;

Address AP/2/Al5500/21, Loss of KC or KC System Leakage.

C. ONLY a Main Control Board alarm will occur; Address Annunciator Response for 2RAD-1/A-4 2EMF 46A Train A KC Hi Rad .

D. ONLY a Main Control Board alarm will occur; Address OP/2/Al6400/005, Component Cooling Water System , to swap KC Trains.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

A. Correct. Pg 59 of OP-MC-WE-EMF states that the RP-86A modules are fail-safe and actuate Trip 1 and Trip 2 during a loss of power. The High Rad alarm will sound and lock in until reset (once power comes back). If power is lost to 2EMF-46A, Trip 2 will occur. P33 states that Should a Trip Page 58 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 2 high radiation alarm be received on either 1EMF-46A or 1EMF-46B, the component cooling water surge tank vent 1KC122 is automatically closed to prevent release of volatile fission products. The Annunciator Response is the appropriate procedure to address due to the alarm condition. AP21 does not include High Radiation as an entry condition. The ARP has the operator check for increasing Surge Tank level and if so, directs the Operator to the AP.

B. Incorrect. The impact on the system is correct, however, the AP does not include hi radiation as a symptom. The ARP will direct the operator to the AP if surge tank level increases.

C. Incorrect. Trip 2 will cause the KC Surge Tank Vent to close (More than an alarm).

D. Incorrect. Trip 2 will cause the KC Surge Tank Vent to close (More than an alarm), the ARP will be addressed prior to consideration being given to swapping to the opposite train, if consideration is given at all.

Technical OP-MC-WE-EMF p33, 59 Reference(s) Rev 28 ARP1 RAD-1/A-4 Rev 38 AP21 Rev 7 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: WE-EMF #3, AP-AP21 #3 (As available)

Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 11 Content:

55.43 Page 59 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

KA is matched because impact is evaluated by asking what will occur, and action is addressed by determination of response for the selected impact RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 60 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # GKA 2.4 .11 (076)

Importance Rating 4 .0 (Emergency Procedures I Plan; Knowledge of Abnormal Condition Procedures.)

Proposed Question: Common 25 Unit 1 is at 100% power with Train B equipment in service when the following occurs:

  • The 1B RN pump trips .
  • AP-20, Loss of RN, is implemented.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes why the operator places the manual loader for 1RN-89A (RN to KC HX Control) to 10% open prior to starting the 1A RN Pump?

A. To ensure a minimum flow is maintained from the 1A RN Pump.

B. To prevent runout of 1A RN Pump .

C. To prevent high temperatures on the KC System.

D. To prevent water hammer in the KC Heat Exchanger.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. The manual loader for 1RN-89A (RN to KC HX Control) has a design characteristic that will cause the valve to open independent of the Manual Loader position if the associated pump flow drops to less than 2700 gpm.

B. Correct. The AP20 Background document states that placing the Manual Loader for the train that is being started to 10% should alleviate pump run-out concerns associated with supplying both essential headers.

C. Incorrect. This action is NOT necessary to ensure that KC temperatures remain within limits. For the stated conditions, the AP will start the 1A RN Pump. After this , the B trains' KC HX should have pre-event RN flow re-established from the 1A RN Pump, until such time as the KC Trains can be swapped.

D. Incorrect. Water hammer could occur on pump start with temperatures Page 61 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet elevated above 200 degrees, but that would be on primary side (RCP) to KC, not RN side to KC. Temperatures would not reach the level where water hammer would occur.

Technical AP20 Background Reference(s) Document p4, Rev 2 OP-MC-PSS-RN Section 2.2, p25, Rev 38 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: AP-AP20 #2, PSS-RN #7 (As available)

Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam --=-..:::.....:..-_------------

NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 10 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item requires knowing basis for actions taken within Abnormal Operating Procedure for RN System.

RFA Concurs 5/1/08 Page 62 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KIA # 076 K3.07 Importance Rating 3.7 (Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SWS will have on the following: ESF loads)

Proposed Question: Common 26 Following a reactor trip from 100% power the following conditions exist on Unit 2:

  • NC Pressure is 1400 psig.
  • Containment Pressure has risen slowly to 2.4 psig.
  • The 2A RN Pump failed to start.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the impact of the 2A RN Pump failure?

A. ONLY the 2A NV Pump gear oil will overheat.

B. The 2A NS Pump Motor AND the 2A NV Pump gear oil will overheat.

C. The 2A 1 and 2A2 DG VG Air Compressors AND the 2A NV Pump gear oil will overheat.

D. The 2A NS Pump Motor AND the 2A NV Pump gear oil will overheat.

Additionally, all Makeup capability is lost to the 2A DG KD Surge Tank.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

The 2A NV Pump starts on an SI signal which is present under the stated conditions. Section 2.4 of OP-MC-PSS-RN identifies the Centrifugal Charging Pump Gear Oil Cooler as a load supplied by the RN System off of the essential header that will be needed during an SI. (OP-MC-PSS-RN (p31))

A. Correct. The 2A NV Pump starts on an SI signal which is present under the stated conditions.

B. Incorrect. While the 2A NV will start on a safety injection, the 2A NS is NOT running under the present conditions (OP-MC-PSS-RN p31).

Page 63 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Containment Spray Actuation occurs at 3 psig in Containment (OP-MC-IC-ISE p27). Plausible because the NS pump is an RN load.

C. Incorrect. While the 2A NV pump will start on the safety injection, the VG Air Compressors are NOT safety related and will receive a shunt trip signal on an Ss. (OP-MC-DG-DGA (pg25)

D. Incorrect. See distracter "C". Makeup capability to the 2A DG KD system can be supplied by the RN or the YM System. (OP-MC-DG-DGA (pg47))

Technical OP-MC-PSS-RN p31 Rev Reference(s) 38 OP-MC-DG-DGA p25, 47 Rev 29 OP-MC-IC-ISE p27 Rev 30e Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: PSS-RN#10 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank 3970 (Note changes or attach

  1. _ _ _ _ parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments: KA is directly matched because item evaluates failure of RN effect on ESF loads (NV Pump, high head SI)

RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 64 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question 3970 PSSRN021 PSSRN021 1 Pt Which of the following is a Nuclear Service Water System essential header load?

A. Steam generator blowdown heat exchanger.

B. Auxiliary feedwater pump motor cooler.

c. Reactor coolant pump motor winding cooler.

D. Positive displacement pump bearing oil cooler.

Answer 3970 B

PSS-RN, section 2.4 Objective 10 Page 65 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 1 KJA# (078) G2.4.35 Importance Rating 3.8 (Instrument Air System / Emergency Procedures / Plan: Knowledge of local auxiliary operator tasks during emergency and the resultant operational effects.)

Proposed Question: Common 27 Given the following:

  • Unit 1 is at 100% power.
  • The VI system is in a normal lineup.
  • The VS system is in a normal lineup.
  • VI system pressure is 80 psig and lowering.
  • The crew is performing actions of AP/22, Loss of VI.
  • The CRSRO dispatches an operator to perform Enclosure 2, Startup of 0, E and F VI Compressors.

Which ON E (1) of the following identifies the actions required to be performed to prepare 0, E, and F VI Compressors for starting?

A. RL Pumps must be verified running with adequate discharge pressure prior to startup of 0, E, and F VI compressors. Performance of Enclosure 6,0, E and F VI Compressor Operation with Low Control Air, is NOT required.

B. RL Pumps must be verified running with adequate discharge pressure prior to startup of 0, E, and F VI compressors. Enclosure 6, 0, E and F VI Compressor Operation with Low Control Air, must also be performed to provide VB control air supply to VI compressors.

C. KR Pumps must be verified running with adequate discharge pressure prior to startup of 0, E, and F VI compressors. Performance of Enclosure 6,0, E and F VI Compressor Operation with Low Control Air, is NOT required.

D. KR Pumps must be verified running with adequate discharge pressure prior to startup of 0, E, and F VI compressors. Enclosure 6, 0, E and F VI Compressor Operation with Low Control Air, must also be performed to Page 66 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet provide VB control air supply to VI compressors.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. RL Pumps are required for startup of A, B, C air compressors.

0, E, and F require KR to be running. Second half of choice is correct.

B. Incorrect. RL Pumps are required for startup of A, B, C air compressors.

0, E, and F require KR to be running. Second half of choice is incorrect, because air pressure is not low enough for Enclosure 6 to be required. (70 psig).

C. Correct. AP/22 requires performance of Enclosure 2, which ensures KR Pumps running prior to starting 0, E, F air compressors D. Incorrect. Plausible because first half is correct, but wrong because second half of choice is incorrect Technical AP/1/A/5500/22, Rev 27 (Attach if not previously Reference(s) __________ provided)

AP 22 Background (Including version or Document p4,5,6, Rev 12 revision #)

SS-VI, P 27, 51 Rev 32 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: AP-AP22 #2,3 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 4,10 Page 67 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item evaluates AD responsibility during a loss of Instrument Air, and also evaluates status of components for proper operation of system RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 68 of 27 1 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-40 1-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier# 2 Group # 1 KIA # 103 A4.01 Importance Rating 3.2 (Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Flow control, pressure control , and temperature control valves ,

including pneumatic valve controller)

Proposed Question: Common 28 Which ONE (1) of the following describes how the following valves can be operated from the Control Room?

  • 1VQ-3 (Containment Air Addition Inlet from Auxiliary Building Isolation Valve)
  • 1VQ-4 (Containment Air Release to Unit Vent) 1VQ-3 1VQ-4 A. Operates automatically when Press open/close pushbuttons.

other system valves are opened manually.

B. Press open/close push buttons. Manually adjust the output of a pneumatic controller.

C. Press open/close pushbuttons. Operates automatically when other system valves are opened manually.

D. Operates automatically when Manually adjust the output of a other system valves are opened pneumatic controller.

manually.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

VQ-3, Containment Air Addition Inlet from Auxiliary Building Isolation Valve -

Pressure Control Valve. It will open when VQ-6A and VQ5B are manually opened on a -0.20 psig Containment pressure signal to allow air to be drawn in from the Auxiliary Building.

VQ-4, Containment Air Release to Unit Vent - Flow Control Valve. It will open Page 69 of 271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet and close by operation of a manually operated loader.

A. Incorrect. (See Above)

B. Correct. (See Above)

C. Incorrect. Includes Press open/close pushbuttons which none of the valves have in the Control Room.

D. Incorrect. Includes Press open/close pushbuttons which none of the valves have in the Control Room.

Technical OP-MC-CNT-VQ p13,33 Reference(s) Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: CNT-VQ #3,5 Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam

- NA- - - -- - - -- - - -- -

Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Ana lysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item directly evaluates operation of containment pressure control valves by operation of their controls RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 70 of 271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 2 KIA # 014 K4.03 Importance Rating 3.2 (Knowledge of RPIS design feature(s) and/or interlock (s) which provide for the following : Rod Bottom Lights )

Proposed Question: Common 29 Unit 1 Reactor Startup is in progress:

  • Control Bank A is being withdrawn in MANUAL.
  • Control Bank A rods are currently at 180 steps.
  • Assume proper rod withdrawal sequencing and bank overlap .

Subsequently, Control Bank B, rod F-2 drops fully into the core.

Which ONE (1) of the following completes the statement below?

Rod F-2 is displayed as a.....

A. Green bar with an Orange background, with a Green DRPI Rod Bottom (RB) light.

B. Green bar with an Orange background, with a Red DRPI Rod Bottom (RB) light.

C. Red bar with a Black background, with a Green DRPI Rod Bottom (RB) light.

D. Red bar with a Black background, with a Red DRPI Rod Bottom (RB) light.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional) :

A. Correct. There is no indication of Data A or B failure so Rod position Bar is Green. There is > 12 Step deviation between Rod F-2 and other Control Rods in Bank B, so Orange Background. There is no indication of Data A or B failure so RB light is Green B. Incorrect. First part is correct but rod bottom indication is green .

Page 71 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C. Incorrect. Correct if Bank A is at 124 steps << 8 Step deviation of F-2 from others in Bank B).

D. Incorrect. Red Bar and RB would be displayed if Data Failure on A and B, but RB light is green, not red.

Technical OP-MC-IC-EDA p37, Rev Reference(s) 13 OP-MC-IC-IRE p49, Rev 19 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective: IC-EDA#7 (As available)

Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank McGuire (Note changes or attach

  1. Bank parent)
  1. 2970 New Question History: Last NRC Exam

-NA--------------

Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 6 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because indication for rob bottom is directly evaluated. Item further discriminates by evaluating additional indications for dropped rod RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 72 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question 2970 ICEDA023 ICEDA023 1 Pt Given the following plant conditions:

Unit 1 Reactor Startup in progress, withdrawing Control Bank A in "MANUAL".

Control Bank A rod positions are currently at 180 steps .

Assume proper rod withdrawal sequencing and bank overlap.

Control Bank B, rod F-2 drops into the core.

Which ONE (1) of the following provides the expected indications associated with this dropped rod?

A. RPI at Bottom Rod Drop Annunciator Alarm with a green DRPI Rod Bottom (RB) light for rod F-2.

B.RPI Non-Urgent Failure Annunciator Alarm with a red DRPI Rod Bottom (RB) light for rod F-2.

C. RPI at Bottom >1 Rod Dropped Annunciator Alarm with a green DRPI Rod Bottom LED for rod F-2.

D. RPI at Bottom >1 Rod Dropped Annunciator Alarm with a red DRPI Rod Bottom (RB) light for rod F-2.

Answer 2970 A Page 73 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier# 2 Group # 2 KIA # 017 K6.01 Importance Rating 2.7 (Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunct ion of the follow ing ITM system components: Sensors and detectors)

Proposed Question: Common 30 Concerning the Train A ICCM Subcooling Marg in Monitor: Which ONE (1) of the following malfunctions will cause indicated subcooling margin to be greater than actual subcooling margin?

A. 1 of 3 Loop C NR Thot instruments fails low.

B. Loop D Wide Range Tcold fails low.

C. Loop D Wide Range Pressure fails high.

D. The controlling Pzr Pressure instrument fails high .

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

Subcooled Margin is calculated by Tsat NC - Tactual NC OF NC System =

Subcooled A. Incorrect. The SCM Monitor uses an average of the five highest CETs when comparing actual Core Exit temperature to Tsat. When the highest reading CET fails low, it will be removed from the five highest CET readings and have no impact on the SCM Monitor.

B. Incorrect. The SCM Monitor monitors NC temperature using the five highest CETs (average) and WR Thot to calculate NC Subcooled Margin . This failure has no effect on the SCM Monitor readings.

C. Correct. Loop D WR Pressure is used to determine Tsat for the NC System . If it fails high Tsat will appear higher than normal, and the variance between it and the Actual NC System Temperature will increase.

D. Incorrect. The Pzr Pressure instrument does not input directly into the SCM calculation. However, a failure of this type would cause the Spray valves to open and NC System pressure (as measured by both Pzr and WR Loop pressure) to decrease. As WR Loop pressure decreases, Tsat will decrease. As Tsat decreases, the variance between it and the Actual NC Page 74 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet System Temperature will decrease.

Technical OP-MC-IC-ICM p33, Rev Reference(s) 16 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective : OP-MC-IC-ICM #8, 9 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank McGuire (Note changes or attach

  1. General parent)

Bank

  1. 3174 New Question History: Last NRC Exam None Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis x 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because it evaluates a condition related to ICCM that will change indication on ICCM RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 75 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question 3174 ICICMR06 ICICMR06 1 Pt With Unit 1 at 100% power, 1NCLP5120 (NC loop "0" WR Pressure) fails high. Which one of the following describes the effect this will have on the ICCM (Inadequate Core Cooling Monitor)?

A. One Train of the DIP RVLlS indication is inoperable because the Normal DIP indication will fail high.

B. One Train of Incore Thermocouples is inoperable because WR Pressure is used for compensation of the temperature output.

C. One Train of the Subcooling Margin Monitor is inoperable because WR Pressure is used to calculate T-sat.

D. One Train of the Lower Range RVLlS is inoperable because it shares a common tap with the WR Pressure Loop.

Answer 3174 C Page 76 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 2 KIA # 015 K2.01 Importance Rating 3.3 (Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: NIS channels, components, and interconnections)

Proposed Question: Common 31 The following conditions exist on Unit 1:

  • A Reactor Startup is in progress.
  • Power level is 1 x 10-8 amps.

Subsequently, 120 Vital AC Bus EKVB is lost.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the plant response?

A reactor trip will occur due to the loss of _(1 )_. And _(2)_.

A. (1) IR NI-35 (2) SR NI-32 will energize B. (1) IR NI-35 (2) SR NI-32 will NOT energize C. (1) IR NI-36 (2) SR NI-31 will energize D. (1) IR NI-36 (2) SR NI-31 will NOT energize Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

A. Incorrect. Loss of EKVB will result in a loss of Channel II, which will de-energize SR N-32 and IR N-36.

B. Incorrect. N-35 still has power. N-36 bistable causes reactor trip when it de-energizes. Second half is a true statement for conditions presented C. Correct. Loss of EKVB will result in a loss of Channel II, which will de-Page 77 of 271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet energize SR N-32 and IR N-36. N-36 bistable causes reactor trip when it de-energizes. SR N-31 will still have power and re-energize.

D. Incorrect. First part is correct but second part is incorrect because SR N-31 will still have power. Also possible to confuse P-6 and whether or not EITHER SR instruments will automatically energize post-trip.

Technical OP-MC-IC-ENB p19, 21, (Attach if not previously Reference(s) 23, 25, 51, 79, 81. Rev. provided) 25 (Including version or revision #)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: IC-ENB #4, 10, 12 Question Source: Bank # X Modified Bank (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched at a higher cog level because item evaluates effect of loss of power on NI system, and resulting operation of NI detectors RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 78 of271 .

Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 2 KIA # 028 K1.01 Importance Rating 2.5 (Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the HRPS and the following systems:

Containment annulus ventilation system (including pressure limits))

Proposed Question: Common 32 A Large Break LOCA has occurred on Unit 2, and the Technical Support Center has recommended the startup of the H2 Purge System.

The crew places the system in service in accordance with OP/1/A/64501010, Operation of the Hydrogen Skimmer, Containment Air Return and Hydrogen Purge System.

Based on this action, which ONE (1) of the following describes the initial effect on annulus pressure, and the annulus pressure range that must be maintained?

A. Increase; Maintained at -1.2" to -4.2" H20.

B. Increase; Maintained at -5.5" to -7.0" H20.

C. Decrease; Maintained at -1.2" to -4.2" H20.

D. Decrease; Maintained at -5.5" to -7.0" H20.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation (Optional):

A. Correct. According to Section 1.2 of OP-MC-CNT-VE, the Hydrogen Purge System assists in the reduction of H2 buildup in containment following a LOCA by diluting the containment atmosphere with outside air and venting it back to the annulus. The H2 Blower takes a suction on the outside atmosphere and discharges the air into containment. A separate return line Page 79 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet vents the air from containment into the annulus area. With this arrangement, air will enter the Annulus from the Containment when the system is placed in service increasing the Annulus pressure.

According to Section 3.2 of OP-MC-CNT-VE, upon actuation of a containment isolation Phase B signal (Sp), each train of the VE System will discharge to the Unit Vent until Annulus pressure reaches a negative pressure of 4.2 inches WG (takes about 48 seconds). When pressure reaches -4.2 inches WG, the VE system will shift to the recirculation mode at which time pressure will began to increase. When pressure increases to

-1.2 inches WG the system will shift back to the discharge mode. Cycling between the exhaust and recirculation mode will continue until the system is secured. Enclosure 4.2 of OP/1/A/6450/01 0, "Operation of the Hydrogen Skimmer, Containment Air Return and Hydrogen Purge System," identifies the VE system maintaining -1.2 to -4.2 "H20 as an initial condition to placing the H2 Purge System in service. The procedure also lists the final step of placing the system in service as "slowly throttling open 1VE-9 (Cont H2 to Annulus) ensuring Annulus pressure stays in normal range."

B. Incorrect. Pressure in correct direction, wrong system pressure range.

According to Section 3.2 of OP-MC-CNT-VE, Pressure transmitters monitor annulus pressure and provide inputs to the OAC. A low pressure alarm is generated at -5.5" inches WG. At -7.0 inches WG a low-low pressure alarm is generated and the respective VE Fan trips if in the exhaust mode.

C. Incorrect. Pressure in wrong direction, correct system pressure range.

Pressure direction is Plausible if operator believed that fan takes suction on Annulus, rather than the outside atmosphere, and discharges into Containment. If this were true when the fan is initially placed in service, the Annulus pressure would decrease, rather than increase.

D. Incorrect. Pressure in wrong direction (See C), and incorrect system pressure range (See B).

Technical Reference(s)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: CNT-VE #3-7 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach parent)

Page 80 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet New x Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 5,7, Content: 14 55.43 Comments:

KA directly matched because annulus pressure limits are evaluated for operation of the HRPS RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 81 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Out line Cross- Level RO SRO reference :

Tier # 2 Group # 2 KIA # 029 A4.04 Importance Rating 3.5 (Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the contro l room: Containment Evacuation Signa l)

Proposed Question : Common 33 Unit 1 is in Mode 6 conducting Refueling Operations.

  • Communications have been established between the Refueling SRO and the OATC in the Control Room .
  • AUTOMATIC actuation of the Containment Evacuation alarm has failed.

Due to the AUTOMATIC actuation failure , which ONE (1) of the following will require manual actuation of the Containment Evacuation Alarm?

A. Trip 2 on 1EMF-38 (Containment Particulate Monitor)

Trip 2 on 1EMF-16 (Containment Refueling Bridge) .

B. Trip 2 on 1EMF-16 (Containment Refueling Bridge)

Excore SR monitors Hi Flux at Shutdown alarm.

C. Gammametrics Shutdown Monitor A HI CPS Alarm Trip 2 on 1EMF-16 (Containment Refueling Bridge).

D. Containment Fire Zone alarms on EDA Computer Excore SR mon itors Hi Flux at Shutdown alarm.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):.

A. Incorrect. OP-MC-WE-EMF p25 , rev 28 identifies that 1EMF-39 (Gaseous Monitor), not 1EMF-38 (Particulate Monitor) automatically sounds the CEA.

B. Correct. OP-MC-WE-EMF p43, Rev 28 identifies that 1EMF-16 sounds the CEA when at Trip 2. OP-MC-IC-ENB p41/43 Rev 26 states that the Source Range Monitors sound the CEA.

C. Incorrect. OP-MC-IC-ENB p41/43 Rev 26 states that the Source Range Page 82 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Monitors sound the CEA (Unless the Hi CPS Trips are Blocked), however the SDM do NOT.

D. Incorrect. The Zone Detectors do not automatically actuate the CEA.

OP/O/A/64001002C states that if the EDA Alarms are in the Containment then the CEA should be manually actuated.

Technical OP-MC-IC-ENB p43-45 Reference(s) Rev 26 OP-MC-WE-EMF p25, 43 Rev 28 OP/O/A/64001002C, Rev 42 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: IC-ENB #16, SS-EFA #4, (As available)

WE-EMF #3 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam NA Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 4,11 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because conditions requiring actuation of the containment evacuation signal are being tested RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 83 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 2 KIA # 033 K3.01 Importance Rating 2.6 (Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunct ion of the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System will have on the following : Area ventilation systems )

Proposed Question: Common 34 Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with the following conditions:

  • Spent Fuel Pool fuel handling operations was secured 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> ago.
  • 1ETB and related equipment has been just removed from service.
  • VF System is operating normally in accordance with OP/1/A/6450/004, Fuel Pool Ventilation System.

Subsequently:

  • The 1A KF Pump trips .
  • SPENT FUEL POOL TEMP HI OAC alarm occurs.
  • EMF-42, Fuel Building Ventilation Radiation Monitor, is in Trip 2.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the AUTOMATIC response of the Fuel Handling Building Ventilation System (VF)?

A. The Outside Air Damper (0-1) will close.

B. The Exhaust Filter Bypass Damper (0-5) will close.

C. The Filter Isolation Dampers (0-3 & 0-4) will close .

D. The Supply Fan will stop.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional) :

OP-MC-FH-KF (p23) states that each Spent Fuel Pool Cooling Pump receives power from its respective Essential Bus , 1(2)ETA (4160V) or 1(2)ETB (4160V)

(the same busses that can be powered by the Emergency Diesel Generators).

This means that all KF has been lost and AP/1/A/5500/41, Case I, entry Page 84 of271 Rev Fina l

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet conditions are met.

OP-MC-FH-VF (p19) states that "Normal system operation will bypass the Filter Train Unit and direct exhaust flow , via both Fuel Pool Exhaust Fans, to the Unit Vent."

A. Incorrect. OP-MC-FH-VF (p19, Rev 18) states that the Damper will operate automatically with Supply Fan status . When the fan is running the Damper opens and when it stops the Damper will close .

B. Correct. OP-MC-FH-VF (p17) states that a Trip 2 condition on EMF-42, Fuel Building Ventilation Radiation Monitor, will result in automatic termination of BYPASS MODE operation and automatic alignment to the FILTRATION MODE of operation ." In this condition the Filter Train Bypass Damper (0-5) will close, the Filter Train Inlet Damper (0-3) and the Filter Train Outlet Damper (0-4) will open.

c. Incorrect. OP-MC-FH-VF (p17) states that a Trip 2 condition on EMF-42, Fuel Building Ventilation Radiation Monitor, will result in automatic termination of BYPASS MODE operation and automatic alignment to the FILTRATION MODE of operation." In this condition the Filter Train Bypass Damper (0-5) will close , the Filter Train Inlet Damper (0-3) and the Filter Train Outlet Damper (0-4) will open .

D. Incorrect. The Supply Fan has automatic trips associated with system temperature which will not be affected by these events. Additionally , the Supply fan will automatically operate with the Exhaust Fan. The stated conditions will not affect Exhaust fan operation and therefore the status of the Supply Fan will NOT change . OP-MC-FH-VF (p13)

Technical AP/1/A/5500/41, Rev 6 Reference(s)

OP-MC-FH-KF p22, Rev 29 OP-MC-FH-VF p17 , 19,23 Rev 18 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination :

Learning Objective: FH-KF #6, FH-VF #8/9 Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New -X---

Question History: Last NRC Exam Page 85 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Level:

Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7,10 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because pump failure and resulting high radiation level will eventually result in effect on system as described.

RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 86 of 271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 2 KIA # 035 A2 .05 Importance Rating 3.2 (Abil ity to (a) pred ict the impacts of the following mal-functions or operat ions on the GS ; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedu res to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Unbalanced flows to the S/Gs)

Proposed Question: Common 35 Unit 1 is operating at 100% power and aligned normally when the following event occurs:

  • 1SMLP5080 (1A SG Steam Pressure Channel 1) fails high.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the actual impact on the 1A Steam Generator and the procedure that would be used to respond to the event?

A. Steam flow increases, AP/1/A155001001 (Steam Leak)

B. Steam flow decreases, AP/1/A155001001 (Steam Leak)

C. Feed flow increases, AP/1/A155001006 (SG Feedwater Malfunction)

D. Feed flow decreases, AP/1/A155001006 (SG Feedwater Malfunction)

Proposed Answer: C Explanation (Optional):

OP-MC-CF-IFE (p17) states that SG Steam flow is indicated on the control board for both channels of each steam generator, 1A(B,C,D) STEAM GENERATOR ISM FLOW' for channels 1&2 with a range of 0-120%. The channel to be used for level control is selected using the switch '1A S/G STM FLOW SELECT', for example. (located on the main control board next to the feedwater control valve controllers). There is one switch per loop (S/G) , with CH 1 & CH2 positions, and normally channel 1 is selected for control. Drawing 7.2 of OP-MC-CF-IFE shows that channel 1 Steam Pressure provides density compensation for Channel 1 Steam flow , and these channels are normally selected.

A. Incorrect. Channel 1 Steam Pressure does not input into the SG PORV control circuit. The PORV has its own pressure sensor (Shown on Drawing Page 87 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 7.1 of OP-MC-STM-SM). The PORV will not open. However, this is plausible in that if the Steam Pressure transmitter controlling the PORV did fail high, the PORV would open and increase Steam Flow. Additionally, if this occurred the Operator would mitigate the consequences by completing AP1 (Steam Leak).

B. Incorrect. The pressure channel failing high is failing in the wrong direction for Steam Line isolation which would, with other failures, actuate and result in Steam Flow decreasing.

C. Correct. According to OP-MC-CF-IFE (p17) the Steam Flow measurement in the Steam Generator Water Level Control System must be density compensated in order to adequately compare Steam and Feed flows for a given Steam Generator. Steam Pressure is directly proportional to Steam Flow. If Steam Pressure fails high, steam flow will also be high, although in error. OP-MC-CF-IFE (p33) describes the effect of a Steam Flow Transmitter Failure as follows: Steam Flow transmitter fails high: Due to SM flow indicating greater than CF flow, the Flow Error causes the CF Control Valves to open. S/G level will increase toward the (P14) setpoint where a Turbine/Reactor trip occurs. The same reference describes the failure of a Steam Pressure transmitter failure as follows: Steam Pressure transmitter fails high: the effect will be the same as a Steam Flow transmitter failing high. Steam Generator level going up or down in an uncontrolled manner is an identified symptom of AP6, "SG Feedwater Malfunction."

D. Incorrect. Correct procedure, however, Feed flow will NOT decrease. Feed flow would decrease if the Steam Pressure Channel failed low because the density compensation would again be lost to the controlling Steam Flow channel. With density compensation lost, the Steam Flow transmitter would read correspondingly lower, and a flow error in which the CF Control Valve would tend to close decreasing flow.

Technical OP-MC-CF-IFE (p17, 45,)

Reference(s) Rev 21 OP-MC-STM-SM (p69)

Rev 25 AP6 Symptoms AP 1 Symptoms Proposed references to be provided to applicants during None examination:

Learning Objective: STM-SM #9, CF-IFE #6, (As available) 10 and 11 Page 88 of271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Bank#

Modified Bank (Note changes or attach

  1. parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Level:

Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 55.41 7, 14 Content:

55.43 Comments:

KA is matched because item evaluates a condition that will result in a change in flow to only 1 SG. Impact and procedure are required to answer this item RFA Concurs 4/18/08 Page 89 of 271 Rev Final

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross- Level RO SRO reference:

Tier # 2 Group # 2 KIA # 041 A3.03 Importance Rating 2.7 (Ability to monitor automat ic operat ion of the SOS, including: Steam flow)

Proposed Question: Common 36 With Unit 2 at 100% power the following conditions exist:

  • A Loss of Off-site Power occurs.
  • Tavg is 564°F and decreasing.

Which ONE (1) of the following completes the statement below?

Steam Dump valves will indicate _1_, and _2_.

A. closed NO steam flow is indicated on ANY SG B. closed steam flow is indicated on ALL SGs C. open steam flow is indicated on ALL SGs D. open and closed steam flow is indicated on ALL SGs Proposed Answer: B Explanation (Optional):

Drawing 7.1 of OP-MC-STM-IDE shows that the Steam Dump system by itself does NOT include a Steam flow indication separate than that of the Main Steam System. Drawing 7.1 of OP-MC-STM-SM indicates that each of the four steam generators have steam flow transmitters that will provide indication of Steam Dump operation . If the Steam Dump valves open, a corresponding increase in steam flow will occur on the steam flow from each unisolated Steam Generator.

Additionally, if the SG PORVs, Main Steam Safety Valves or the Steam Supply to Page 90 0[271 Rev Final