ML032020283
| ML032020283 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Farley  |
| Issue date: | 07/03/2003 |
| From: | Ernstes M Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch |
| To: | Beasley J Southern Nuclear Operating Co |
| References | |
| 50-348/03-301, 50-364/03-301 50-348/03-301, 50-364/03-301 | |
| Download: ML032020283 (78) | |
See also: IR 05000348/2003301
Text
Draft Submittal
(Pink Paper)
FARLEY EXAM
50-348 & 50-364/2003-301
-
MAY 19 26,2003
1. KeaCtOr Operator Operator Written Exam
1.
The plant is operating at 95% steady-state power. The crew has been requested to
perform an RCS leakage test per STP-9.0, RCS Leakage Test, due to a suspected
leak.
The following events occur:
Time 0800 - The OATC verifies reactor power, RCS temperature, pressurizer
pressure and level stable.
Time 0840 - The OACT verifies the reactor makeup control system is in automatic.
- Chemistry department is notified of the performance of STP-9.0.
Time 0845: - The Shift Chemist secures from taking a primary sample.
- The OATC verifies VCT level is at 40%.
Time 0900 - Operators commence taking data for STP-9.0.
Time 0930 - Shift Chemist performs a DF on the in service CVCS demineralizer.
Time 0940 - The OATC completes a 15 gal boration through the boric acid blender.
Time 0945 - The operators secure from taking STP-9.0 data.
After completion of the test, the shift supervisor states that the surveillance is
inaccurate.
Which ONE of the following caused STP-9.0 to be inaccurate?
A. A primary sample was taken 15 minutes prior to the start of the surveillance.
B. Shift Chemist performance of the DF on the in service CVCS demineralizer.
C. A boration was performed during the surveillance.
D. Data was only taken for 45 minutes.
A - Incorrect; Primary samples taken prior to the performance of the STP will not affect
the test. It must be verified that Reactor power and Reactor coolant temperature are
constant 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> prior to the test.
B - Correct; No sampling of the RCS or CVCS shall be performed.
-
C Incorrect; A boration of less than 10 gals will invalidate this test due to inaccuracies.
This boration was in excess of 10 gals and flow was through the boric acid blender
only five minutes before data taking was securred. Five minutes is of short enough
duration that the subsequent powerkemperature change will not invalidate the data.
D - Incorrect; It is preferred that data is taken for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> but in any case at least 30
minutes.
2.
Given the following trends on the 1A RCP:
Parameter TIME 0230 -_0330
Motor winding temp (OF) 312 315 320 324
Pump shaft vibration (mils): 12 13 14 15
Pump frame vibration (mils): 3 4 5 5
- I seal DP (psid): 212 196 223 235
- I seal outlet temp (OF) 201 226 236 240
Lower seal water BRG temp (OF) 195 200 205 210
Motor lower radial BRG temp(OF) 167 188 195 198
Motor upper radial BRG temp(OF) 167 188 195 198
What is the earliest time that the operators are required to trip RCP-IA?
A. 0200
B. 0230
C. 0300
D. 0330
Source: Modified from Farley Bank Questions #RCP-40301DO8 007 and
- RCP-40301DI 1 016
A - Incorrect; Temps do not exceed setpoints ( 225°F for # I seal outlet temp) and Vibs
are still low enough to remain operating.
B - Inorrect; Vibs are still low enough to remain operating.
C - Correct; Vibs per above will call for a reactor trip and turn off the pump.
Annunciator HH4
7.1 IF FRAME VIBRATION HAS REACHED 5 MILS AND THE RATE OF
INCREASE EXCEEDS 0.2 MIL PER HOUR, THEN PERFORM THE
FOLLOWING:
7.1 .ITRIP THE REACTOR
7.1.2 STOP THE AFFECTED RCP
D - Incorrect; This is not the earliest time but is the time to trip due to shaft vibration.
3.
The reactor is at 85% power with all systems operating normally. Control bank D is at
225 steps. Control rod H6 rod bottom light energizes, and annunciator FE3, ROD AT
BOTTOM, alarms; the reactor does not trip. Reactor power is currently at 78%.
Which ONE of the following describes the required actions that should be taken in
response to this event?
A. Reduce turbine load as necessary to match Tavg with Tref.
B. Attempt to match Tavg with Tref using manual rod control.
C. Enter AOP-19, Malfunction of Rod Control System, and trip the reactor.
D. Increase boron concentration to match Tavg with Tref.
Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-19.0-52520SO2 002
Ref: AOP-19.0
A - Correct; IAW AOP-19.0 Steps 1-5
B - Incorrect; Manual rod control is not recognized as an option for returning Tavg to
Tref.
C - Incorrect; This is the answer before the change to AOP-19. This is still the answer
for multiple dropped rods.
D - Incorrect; Increasing boron concentration would increase the deviation between
Tavg and Tref. The RCS should be diluted.
4.
Unit 1 is operating at power, '1A BAT is "on-service and '1B' BAT is on "RECIRC".
VCT level has lowered over time as expected due to RCS inventory losses and has
reached the auto makeup setpoint. An auto makeup to the VCT has started.
Which ONE of the following correctly lists the pump(s) which will be started in response
to the auto makeup signal?
A. 1B reactor makeup water pump and 1A boric acid pump will start
B. 1B reactor makeup water pump only, 1B boric acid pump is already running
C. 1A reactor makeup pump and 1A boric acid pump will start
D. 1A reactor makeup water pump only, 1B boric acid pump is already running
Source: Farley Question Bank Question #RXM/U-40301GO7
A - Correct; Per OPS-52101G the 1B makeup water pump starts on auto makeup
signal and the 1A 'on-service' BAT pump will start.
B - Incorrect; 1A BAT pump start circuitry is independent of the other BAT pump run
circuitry.
C - Incorrect, The 1A makeup water pump does not start on auto makeup to the VCT, it
starts on the manual, dilute and alt dilute.
D - Incorrect; The 1A makeup water pump does not start on auto makeup to the VCT, it
starts on the manual, dilute and alt dilute. 1A BAT pump start circuitry is independent of
the other BAT pump run circuitry.
5.
Which ONE of the following explains the bases for controlling the volume control tank
(VCT) pressure with hydrogen when the plant is at power?
A. To provide adequate suction pressure during multiple charging pump starts.
B. To provide adequate charging pump recirculation backpressure during normal
operations.
C. To ensure proper coolant flow across RCP seal #2.
D. Ensures hydrogen concentration in the RCS is controlled for oxygen scavenging.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #CVCS-40301F02 021
A - Incorrect; The minimum volume in the VCT provides adequate suction pressure for
the charging pumps the pressure requirement is for seal flow and Oxygen control.
B - Incorrect; The charging pump miniflow recirculation lines which return to the VCT
contain orifices to provide back pressure.
C - Incorrect; This is the reason that the VCT is controlled at a minimum of 18 psig but
not the reason for using Hydrogen.
D - Correct; During plant startup from a cold shutdown condition, hydrazine is added as
an oxygen scavenging agent. Hydrazine is not used at any time other than startup
from the cold shutdown condition. The hydrazine solution enters the RCS in the
same manner as LiOH. In order to control and scavenge oxygen produced by
radiolysis of water in the core region, hydrogen from the waste processing system is
added to the VCT to maintain a hydrogen concentration of 25 to 50 cc/kg of reactor
coolant. A pressure regulating valve maintains a minimum pressure of 18 to 20 psig
in the vapor space of the VCT and can be adjusted to provide the correct hydrogen
concentration.
6.
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Unit 2 has experienced a loss of site power (LOSP) while in Mode 5.
Which ONE of the following describes the power that the 2A and 28 residual heat
removal (RHR) pumps will be supplied from?
(Assume all systems and components operate properly.)
A. RHR pump 2A: 1-2 A Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bus.
RHR pump 2B: 2B Diesel Generator through the 2G 41 60 Volt bus.
B. RHR pump 2A: 1-2 A Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bus.
RHR pump 2B: 2B Diesel Generator through the 2F 41 60 Volt bus.
C. RHR pump 2A: 2B Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bus.
RHR pump 2B: 1-2 A Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bus.
D. RHR pump 2A: 2B Diesel Generator through the 2F 4160 Volt bus.
RHR pump 28: 1-2 A Diesel Generator through the 2G 4160 Volt bus.
Bus Normal Alternate Emergency
4160V Bus F S/U Xfmr 1(2)A S/U Xfmr 1(2)B 1/2A Diesel Gen
4160V Bus G S/U Xfmr 1(2)B S/U Xfmr 1(2)A 1(2)B Diesel Gen
A. Correct - The 1-2A DG will start and align to the 2F 4160V bus and 28 DG will start
and align to the 2G 4160V bus.
B. Incorrect - The 1-2A DG will start but does not align to the 2G 4160V bus and 2 8 DG
will start but does not align to the 2F 4160V bus. (Correct DG, Wrong bus)
C. Incorrect - The 1-2A DG will start but does not align to the 2G 4160V bus and RHR
pump 2A is not powered from the 2G 416OVbus; and 2B DG will start but does not align
to the 2G 4160V bus and RHR pump 2B is not powered from the 2F 4160V bus.
(Wrong DG, Wrong bus)
D. Incorrect - The 1-2A DG will start but does not align to the 2G 4160V bus altough,
RHR pump 2B is powered from the 2G 416OVbus; and 2B DG will start but does not
align to the 2F 4160V bus although, RHR pump 2A is powered from the 2F 4160V bus.
(Wrong DG, Correct bus)
7.
Unit 1 has just completed a shutdown to Mode 5 with both trains of RHR in service.
The operators are in the process of placing the 'B' train RHR in standby.
- 'A train RHR flow has been increased from 1500 gpm to 2300 gpm on the
discharge of ' A train RHR pump.
- 'B' train RHR flow has been decreased from 1500 gpm to 900 gpm on the
discharge of 'B' train RHR pump.
- The RHR miniflow valve controls are in the 'AUTO' position.
Which ONE of the following describes the position of the RHR miniflow control valves?
FCV-602A FCV-602B
A. CLOSED CLOSED
B. OPEN CLOSED
C. CLOSED OPEN
D. OPEN OPEN
A - Correct; For Unit 1 the RHR miniflow valves do not go OPEN until RHR pump
discharge flow decreases below 750 gpm and are CLOSED when RHR pump
discharge flow is above 1399 gpm. With both pumps initially being above 1399 gpm
and not yet less than 750 gpm, both FCV-602A & B will be CLOSED.
B - Incorrect; For Unit 1 the RHR miniflow valves do not go OPEN until RHR pump
discharge flow decreases below 750 gpm.
C - Incorrect; Correct for Unit 2, the RHR miniflow valves go OPEN when RHR pump
discharge flow decreases below 1334 gpm and are CLOSED when RHR pump
discharge flow is above 2199 gpm.
D- Incorrect; Correct if thought that valves were controlled off of total RHR flow.
8.
Unit 1 has experienced a large break LOCA inside containment. All the recirculation
valve disconnects are closed per EEP-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant,
except for the 1B accumulator discharge isolationn valve, which can not be closed.
The disconnect for it is damaged and cannot be closed.
Which ONE of the following actions should the operator take with respect to the
accumulators and why?
A. When accumulator isolation is directed by procedure, isolate 1A and I C
accumulators and vent the 1B accumulator to prevent adding more cold water to
the reactor vessel and increasing the possibility of thermal stress.
B. When accumulator isolation is directed by procedure, isolate 1A and I C
accumulators and vent the 1B accumulator to limit the amount of nitrogen injected
into the loops that could accumulate at system high points, potentially resulting in a
"hard" bubble in the pressurizer.
C. Immediately vent the 1B accumulator to limit the amount of nitrogen injected into
the loops that could accumulate at system high points, potentially resulting in a
"hard" bubble in the pressurizer.
D. When accumulator isolation is directed by procedure immediately vent the 1B
accumulator to prevent the possibility of gas binding of Reactor Coolant Pumps
when subsequently started.
Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question #EEp-I -52530B07 and
- ESP-I .2-52531F03
A - Incorrect; Correct action for the wrong reason, the reason given is why not to inject
accumulators during a PTS condition.
B - Correct; Per OPS-5253OC Page 23
C - Incorrect; The accumulator would not be vented until directed by procedure
ESP-I .2, Step 27.4 RNO.
D - Incorrect; Incorrect reason for venting the accumulator.
9.
Given the following:
- ECP-0.0, "Loss of All AC Power", has the operator verify the RCS is isolated by
verifying HV-8149A, HV-8149B, and HV-8149C, letdown isolation valves, are
closed.
- The RNO is to check HV-8175A and HV-8175B, letdown line penetration room
isolation valves.
Which ONE of the following is the reason HV-8149A, B, and C are checked
preferentially to HV-8175A and HV-8175B?
A. Keeps the loss of coolant accident inside containment.
B. Prevents flashing in the regenerative heat exchanger.
C. Prevents RCS flow to the PRT via the letdown relief line.
D. To prevent inadvertant closure of LCV-459 and 460.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EC-O.O/.1.2-52532A08 008
Reference: ECP-0.0
A - Incorrect; a loss of coolant due to a loss of all AC power would be from the RCP
seals and letdown isolation does not impact the seal failure.
B - Incorrect; both the 8149 or 8175 valves would stop flashing in the heat exchanger.
C - Correct; the reason for isolating letdown is to conserve inventory in the RCS.
D - Incorrect; closing either set of valves would not close LCV-459 and 460.
10.
A leak has developed in the 'ARCP thermal barrier heat exchanger. CCW train 'Ais
the in service train.
Which ONE of the following describes the series of events that would occur with no
operator involvement?
A. AA4, CCW SRG TK LVL A TRN HI-LO; DD2, RCP THRM BARR CCW FLOW HI ,
RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valves, HV-3045 and HV-3184 go
closed.
B. AA4, CCW SRG TK LVL A TRN HI-LO; HV-3184, RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW
Isolation Valve, goes closed; DD2, RCP THRM BARR CCW FLOW HI; HV-3045,
RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed.
C. AA4, CCW SRG TK LVL A TRN HI-LO, DD2, RCP THRM BARR CCW FLOW HI;
HV-3045, RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed; HV-3184,
RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed; DD3, CCW FLOW
D. HV-3184, RCP THRM BARR HX HI FLOW Isolation Valve, goes closed; AA4, CCW
SRG TK LVL A TRN HI-LO
A - Correct; The CCW leak from the higher pressure RCS source into the CCW system
causes CCW tank level to increase (AA4); high flow in the CCW line from the RCS fluid
causes DD2 to alarm and HV-3045 to shut stopping flow; Pressure increases in CCW
pipping and shuts HV-3185 in order to prevent overpressurization of the CCW system.
Pressure and flow are sensed on the thermal barrier CCW discharge line. The
pressure sensors (PI-3184A, B, and C) signal HV-3184 to shut when pressure
increases to 75 psig. Flow element FE-3045 shuts HV-3045 if the flow increases to
160 gpm.
B - Incorrect; Once HV-3184 is closed flow will no longer be going past FE-3045
therefore, DD2 will not alarm if if had not done prior to the closing of HV-3184 and
HV-3045 will not get a close signal.
C - Incorrect; The closing of the HV-3045 and HV-3184 does not affect the flow path
through the RCP oil cooler.
D - Incorrect; Once HV-3184 goes closed no more fluid is added to the CCW surge
tank therefore, if this alarm did not alarm prior to the closing of HV-3184 if will not alarm
afterward (unless check valves in the CCW to thermal barrier leak and this would not
be a reasonable argument). The thermal barrier check valves shall isolate the CCWS
piping upstream of the RCPs from the RCS in the event of a rupture of the reactor
coolant pump thermal barrier. On a thermal barrier failure, the check valves shall
prevent a pressure transient from propagating to the low pressure piping.
11.
Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit 1 RCS has a stuck open pressurizer safety valve.
- Appropriate Operator response actions have been taken.
- Pressurizer pressure is stable at 1350 psig.
- Containment temperature is 155OF.
- Actual pressurizer level is 50%.
Select the combination below that fills in the following blanks concerning the effects of
these conditions on the pressurizer level indicated on level channel 1 (459) indicator.
While the pressurizer pressure is 1350 psig, the indicated pressurizer level will read 3
- actual level; the containment temperature at 155F tends to make the indicated
pressurizer level read y than actual.
A. (X) Below; (Y) Higher
B. (X) Below; (Y) Lower
C. (X) Above; (Y) Higher
D. (X) Above; (Y) Lower
REF: Farley Exam Bank #I286, E-01ESP-0.0-52530A06 011
I L.
Unit 2 is in MODE 3 at 547 OF and 2235 psig when a fault condition results in the loss
of the 4160V 2A bus. In order to stabilize RCS pressure, the RO manually energizes
the available backup heaters and attempts to control RCS pressure by manually
operating the pressurizer spray valves.
Which ONE of the following statements best describes the required control board
actions necessary to stabilize pressure?
A. Loop A spray valve, PK-444C, should be manually closed and loop B spray valve,
PK-444D must be used to control pressure.
B. Loop B spray valve, PK-444C, should be manually closed and loop C spray valve,
PK-444D, must be used to control pressure.
C. Loop C spray valve, PK-444C, should be manually closed and loop B spray valve,
PK-444D, must be used to control pressure.
D. Loop B spray valve, PK-444D, should be manually closed and loop A spray valve,
PK-444C, must be used to control pressure.
Source: Farley Test Bank Question #PZR PRSILVL-52201H I 1 009
Ref: AOP-4.0
A. Correct
B. Incorrect, Wrong loops referenced for both PK-444C and 444D.
C. Incorrect, Wrong loop referenced for PK-444C.
D. Incorrect, PK-444D used to control pressure. PK-444C is isolated due to loss of 2A
RCP.
13.
Which ONE of the following describes why the pressurizer spray valves have a
continuous flow design feature?
Provides adequate flow to:
A. maintain pressurzer boron concentration consitant with RCS boron concentration.
B. maintain the surge line warm to prevent severe thermal shock associated with a
pressurizer insurge.
C. prevent PRZWRCS differential temperature limits from being exceeded.
D. prevent spray nozzle from experiencing severe thermal shock upon initiation of
spray flow.
Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #PZR PRSILVL-52201H02 003
A - Incorrect; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve does not provide
adequate flow, procedures have been modified to ensure adequate spray flow is
provided for this by the energizing of Pzr heaters.
B - Incorrect; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve does not provide
adequate flow, procedures have been modified to ensure adequate spray flow is
provided for this by maintaining the spray valve 20% open.
C -Incorrect; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve does not provide
adequate flow, procedures have been modified to ensure adequate spray flow is
provided for this by the energizing of Pzr heaters and by maintaining the spray valve
20% open.
D - Correct; the continuous spray flow of 0.5 gpm per spray valve will provide adequate
flow to keep the spray valves warm.
14.
Unit 1 has experienced a large break LOCA resulting in an automatic reactor trip.
- SI actuation did not occur and the operators are unable to start any HHSl
pumps.
- Operators have been directed to monitor critical safety function status trees.
- RCPs are running.
- A loss of containment integrity caused containment pressure to peak at 10 psig.
- The STA reports that RCS subcooling has decreased to 0 OF.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator response to this situation?
A. Trip all running RCPs and remain in EEP-0.
8. Do not trip the running RCPs and remain in EEP-0.
C. Transition to FRP-C.1, "Response to Inadequate Core Cooling".
D. Transition to FRP-C.2, "Response to Degraded Core Cooling".
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #E-O/ESP-0.0-52530AO6002
Ref: EEP-0
A - Incorrect; EEP-0 fold out page RCP trip criteria has not been met due to failure of
the HHSl pumps
8 - Correct; RCP's are not tripped by fold out page criteria. Transition criteria to other
procedures have not been met.
C - Incorrect; Transition to FRP-C.l is made if CETC's are > 1200 OF, this can not be
the case if subcooling has just decreased to 0 OF with a LOCA in progress.
D - Incorrect; Transition to FRP-C.2 is made if CETC's are > 700 OF, this can not be the
case if subcooling has just decreased to 0 OF with a LOCA in progress.
15.
Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
- Reactor Power at 100%.
- Pressurizer level control system in automatic.
- The median Tavg signal to the level control system fails to 500 O F
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the pressurizer level control
system?
A. Charging will reduce to a minimum, HA2, "PRZR LVL DEV HI B/U HTRS ON"
annunciator will actuate, pressurizer level will fall to 21.4% and stabilize.
B. Charging will reduce to minimum, HB2, "PRZR LVL DEV LO" annunciator will
actuate, pressurizer level will fall to 21.4% and stabilize.
C. Charging will increase to 120 gpm, "HA2, "PRZR LVL DEV HI B/U HTRS ON"
annunciator will actuate, pressurizer level will rise, eventually the reactor will trip on
high pressurizer level at 92%.
D. Charging will increase to 120 gpm, HB2, "PRZR LVL DEV L O annunciator will
actuate, pressurizer level will rise to 54.9% and stabilize.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #PZR PRSILVL-52201H I 2 005
A - Correct; Charging will reduce to a minimum and the alarm will come in. It actuates
at +5% above normal program value and normal value is now 21.4%.
B - Incorrect; Charging will reduce to 547 value of 21.4 % and the Pzr dev lo annun. will
not actuate at -5% below program value b/c level will be above program level.
C & D - Incorrect; Charging will not increase because actual level is now seen as
greater than program level, charging flow will decrease.
16.
Which ONE of the following contains ONLY protective trips that are intended to protect
the reactor from a DNB concern?
A. OTAT, Low pressurizer pressure, and OPAT.
6. Lo-Lo SGWL, Low pressurizer pressure, and OPAT
C. OTAT, Low pressurizer pressure, and Reactor coolant low flow trips.
D. Reactor coolant low flow trips, Lo-Lo SGWL, and High pressurizer Level.
Source: Farley 2000 NRC Exam
A - Incorrect; OPAT (overpower concern) is not a DNB concern.
B - Incorrect; Lo-Lo SGWL (preserves heat sink) and OPAT are not DNB concerns.
C - Correct
D - Incorrect; Lo-Lo SGWL and high pressurizer level (Hi Pressurizer pressure concern)
are are not DNB concerns.
17.
A large-break LOCA occurs combined with a malfunction of the ESF sequencers which
results in delaying the energizing of ESF components. Which ONE of the following is
correct concerning the effects on the fuel during this situation?
A. Cladding failure can occur as the core experiences an uncontrolled cooling due to
vaporization of reactor coolant.
B. Structural integrity can be lost as delayed cooling can lead to fuel temperatures in
excess of ECCS acceptance criteria, resulting in excessive clad oxidation and
weakening.
C. Minimal effects will be seen as reflux cooling is sufficient to cool the core for up to
ten minutes after the onset of a large break LOCA.
D. A natural circulation cooldown of the fuel can be adversely impacted due to
excessive reactor coolant blowdown.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #DG SEQ-40102D02 011
6 - Correct; Failure to provide ESF flow to the core will result in increasing fuel
temperatures resulting in structural integrity loss.
18.
With Unit 1 is operating at 45% power the following annunciators come into alarm:
- Annunciator DC2, RCP #I SEAL LKOF FLOW HI.
- Annunciator DC3, RCP #I SEAL LO AP.
The RO referred to the appropriate ARPs, then determined that #I seal leakoff flow
was off-scale high and the #I seal AP was indicating off-scale low.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions required for the above situation?
A. Close the #I seal return valve, ramp down power to less than 30% and remove the
affected RCP from service within 30 minutes.
B. Close the #I seal return valve, trip the reactor, then stop affected RCP.
C. Ramp down power to less than 30%, then stop affected RCP, then close the #I
seal return valve after RCP coastdown.
D. Trip the reactor, stop affected RCP, then close the #I seal return valve after RCP
coastdown.
Source: Farley Test Bank Question #E-O/ESP-O.0-52530A02022
A - Incorrect; Actions of ARP DC3 if #I Seal Leakoff valve is not open
B - Incorrect; incorrect order of actions, the #I Seal Leakoff valve should not be shut
until after the reactor is tripped and the RCP securred.
C - Incorrect; These actions will get the affected RCP off line but a reactor trip is
required per the applicable ARP.
D - Correct; These are the actions required by ARP DC2 (Step 4 RNO) for Seal Leakoff
greater than 8 gpm.
19.
Given the following Unit 1 initial plant conditions:
- Steam generator level on program.
- Turbine load at 50%.
Which ONE of the following plant conditions demonstrates the earliest time when
AMSAC will actuate?
2/3 Steam Generator Steady State Turbine Load
NR Level PT-2446 PT-2447
A. Time0700 15% 45% 46%
B. Time0705 11% 42% 43%
C. Time0710 9% 40% 41%
D. Time 0715 5% 38% 39%
Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #SG PROT-52201KO7 008
-
A Incorrect; AMSAC will not be actuated because S/G levels are too high with turbine
power above 40%.
-
B Incorrect; AMSAC will not be actuate because SG levels are too high with turbine
power above 40%.
C - Correct; AMSAC will actuated because SG levels are below 10% with turbine power
above 40%.
D - Incorrect; AMSAC will not actuate even with SG levels below 10% since turbine
power is below 40%.
20.
Given the following:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
All controls are in the normal power operation lineup.
Pressurizer level is falling.
VCT level is rising.
RCP SEAL INJ FLOW LO alarm is lit.
REGEN HX LTDN FLOW DlSCH TEMP HI alarm is lit.
CHG HDR FLOW HI-LO alarm is lit.
Which ONE of the following describes the event that has occurred?
A. Loss of charging.
B. Letdown isolation.
C. Small break LOCA.
D. Pressurizer PORV failed open.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #CVCS-40301F07 032
REFERENCE
1. 1-ARP EA2, DDI, DEI
A - Correct; all conditions given would be a result of loss of all charging flow.
B - Incorrect; During a loss of letdown, PRZR level would be rising and VCT level would
be lowering.
C & D - Incorrect; If a SBLOCA or PORV OPEN had occurred, PRZR level could be
falling (depending on break size) but VCT level would also be falling due to increased
charging flow and constant LTDN flow. REGEN HX LTDN FLOW DlSCH TEMP HI
alarm would also not be in because there is max. cooling occuring due to the high CHG
flow. CHG HDR FLOW HI-LO alarm and RCP SEAL INJ FLOW LO alarm could both
be in alarm.
21.
Plant conditions are as follows:
- Unit 1 was at 100% reactor power.
- Unit 2 was in Mode 5.
- A dual-unit Loss of Offsite Power has occurred.
- All EDGs have started and tied onto the vital buses.
- Vital load sequencing has been completed.
- FNP-1-EEP-0, "REACTOR TRIP OR SAFETY INJECTION" has been entered on
Unit 1.
- While the immediate actions are being completed, a Safety Injection (SI) signal is
received on Unit 1.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Unit 1 Containment Fan Coolers
from the time the SI signal is received?
A. All fan coolers load shed on the SI signal and sequence back onto the vital buses in slow
speed.
B. All fan coolers load shed on the SI signal, and selected fan coolers sequence back onto the
vital buses in slow speed.
C. Selected fan coolers do NOT load shed on the SI signal, and the non-selected fan coolers
remain de-energized.
D. Selected fan coolers do NOT load shed on the SI signal, and the non-selected fan coolers
sequence back onto the vital buses in slow speed.
Source: Farley NRC Exam 2001
Original Source: Farley NRC Exam 1999
A - Incorrect, The selected fan coolers do not load shed for the given conditions.
B - Incorrect, The selected fan coolers do not load shed for the given conditions.
C- Correct
D - Incorrect, The nonselected fans do not start on an SI with LOSP.
22.
Unit 1 is in Mode 4 with 'A' Train RHR in service and the following conditions:
16 RHR Pump is out of service for maintenance
The "B" Train of SFP cooling is in service
CCW SURGE TK LVL TRAIN A HVLO annunciator AA4 is received and it is
confirmed that surge tank level is increasing.
RE-0176, 'A'Train CCW radiation monitor, indicates increasing radiation levels
in the CCW system.
Which ONE of the following most correctly describes the cause and operator response
for the plant conditions above?
A. The 1A RHR pump seal cooler has developed a leak. CCW can be isolated to the
seal cooler so long as RHR temperature does not exceed 150°F.
B. The 1A RHR heat exchanger has developed a tube leak. 'A' Train RHR must be
shut down and AOP-12, " Residual Heat Removal System Malfunction," should be
entered.
C. The 1A RHR heat exchanger has developed a tube leak. 'A'Train CCW must be
shut down; however, operation of 'A'Train RHR may continue.
D. The 1A CCW heat exchanger has developed a tube leak. Operation of 'A' Train
CCW may continue.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-12.0-5252OL02
A - Incorrect; Seals are cooled by RCS fluid circulated through an external heat
exchanger cooled by CCW.
B - Correct; An RHR heat exchanger leak will result in inleakage to the CCW system
that will show up as increased surge tank level and increased radiation levels.
C - Incorrect; AOP-12 should be entered to establish an alternate means of DHR.
D - Incorrect; AOP-12 should be entered to establish an alternate means of DHR.
23.
Given the following conditions:
- Unit 1 has experienced a significant LOCA.
- The plant has tripped;
- SI has actuated and has not been reset:
- All components and systems have operated as designed.
- Per EEP-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, CCW flow has been
established to both trains of RHR when Annunciator AA4, CCW SRG TK LVL A
TRN HI-LO, alarm came in followed shortly by Annuciator AA5, CCW SRG TK LVL
A TRN LO-LO, alarm (A train surge tank level was 18" and slowly falling).
- Train A CCW pump tripped when Annuciator AAI, 1A CCW PUMP OVERLOAD
TRIP. alarmed.
- The OATC reported that the B CCW pump did not start and it is aligned to A train.
Which ONE of the following best describes this situation?
A. The B CCW pump should not have started. Attempts to refill the surge tank should
be made and the B CCW pump should be immediately started.
B. The B CCW pump should have started. AOP-9.0, Loss of Component Cooling
Water. should be entered.
C. The B CCW pump should not have started. AOP-9.0, Loss of Component Cooling
Water, should be entered.
D. The B CCW pump should have started. However, the B CCW pump should
started, and all train A CCW loads should be secured.
Ref: AOP-9.0
A - Correct; With the swing pump (B CCW) aligned to the A train (C CCW pump) the
tripping of the A CCW pump on overcurrent would not cause the swing pump to start
even with an SI signal. Attempts should be made to fill the surge tank and the swing
pump started.
B - Incorrect; The swing pump will not automatically start unless aligned to that train.
C - Incorrect; If the swing pump failed to automatically start or manually start then
AOP-9.0 would be entered.
D - Incorrect; The swing pump will not automatically start unless aligned to that train.
24.
What prevents clogging of the containment spray nozzles following a design loss of
coolant accident while on recirculation?
A. Anti-vortex blades create a centrifugal force to keep large particles and debris from
entering the sump suctions.
B. Duplex filters on the discharge of the pumps remove particles large enough to clog
the spray nozzles.
C. The screens in the recirculation sump will block any particles big enough to clog the
nozzles.
D. Accident analysis assumes that there will be no particles or debris loose in
containment that will be larger than the spray nozzle openings.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #CS&COOL-40302D02 006
The spray nozzles, which are of the hollow cone design, are not subject to clogging by
particles less than 1/4 inch in size and produce a small drop size that will maximize the
total cooling and iodine removal surface area when operating at the design pressure
differential of 40 psi. The stainless steel spray nozzles have a 3/8 inch diameter orifice,
which is larger than the 0.120 inch (118 inch) screen grating covering the containment
sumps. Therefore, all particles large enough to clog the nozzles will be screened out
before entering the recirculation piping.
A - Incorrect; anti-vortex blades are present in the sump suction to improve flow
conditions to the pumps, thus minimizing the potential for cavitation.
B - Incorrect; there are no filters on the discharge of the pumps.
C - Correct; screens on the recirc sumps have openings sized such that particles and
debris large enough to clog the spray nozzles can not get past the screens.
D - Incorrect; accident analysis assumes that particles and debris will be blocked from
entering the spray pump suctions by the sump screens.
25.
Unit 2 is at 100% power when the following occurs:
- Annunciator HCI, PRZR PRESS HI-LO, comes into alarm.
It has been determined that a failure of the controlling pressurizer pressure channel
has occurred and actual pressure is 2315 psig. The Pressurizer Pressure Master
Controller M/A station PK-444A has been taken to MANUAL.
Which ONE of the following describes the action required to return actual pressure to
its normal value?
A. Increase the M/A station output (% demand)
B. Decrease the M/A station output (% demand).
C. Raise the pressure setpoint adjustment.
D. Lower the pressure setpoint adjustment.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #PZR PRWLVL-52201H08 052
A - Incorrect; This will cause pressure to increase further by the energizing of heaters.
B - Correct; This will cause the spray valve(s) to open resulting in a decrease in
pressure returning pressure to the normal value of 2235 psig.
C - Incorrect; This is the wrong direction to adjust the setpoint and with the controller in
manual this will be ineffective.
D - Incorrect; With the controller in manual this will be ineffective.
26.
Plant conditions are as follows:
Unit 1 has just completed a refueling outage and is in Mode 5.
During the outage the trisodium phosphate (TSP) crystals were removed from
2 of the 3 baskets.
Due to an oversight the 2 baskets were not refilled with TSP.
Which ONE of the following states the consequences these conditions would have if a
design-basis LOCA were to occur after the plant is started up and operated at full
power for several days?
A. The ability of the emergency core cooling system to maintain the core cool would
be affected and could result in significant core damage
B. Iodine levels in the containment atmosphere for the long term would NOT be
affected since it would be removed by the containment spray system
C. The ability of the sump water to maintain iodine in solution would be limited due to
the reduced amount of TSP available in the containment sump.
D. There would be no effect since 1 TSP basket containing the minimum volume of
crystals is adequate to perform ECCS recirculation fluid pH control
Source: Farley exam bank Question #CS&COOL-40302DI1
A. Incorrect - TSP provides pH range for keeping radioiodine in solution and mitigating
the impact to stainless steel components due to the low pH of the RWST solution; has
no impact on the ability to cool the core
B. Incorrect - Containment spray removes radioiodine and TSP required to maintain
radioiodine in solution in the ECCS sump
C. Correct - A reduce volume of TSP would result in a reduced ability to maintain
radioiodine in solution in the ECCS sump
D. Incorrect - Technical specifications requires 3 TSP baskets; each at minimum
volume to mitigate the consequences related to fuel damage and fission product
release, in particular - radioiodine, as a result of a design basis LOCA.
27.
Given the following plant conditions:
- A large break LOCA has occurred on Unit 2 thirty minutes ago.
- Hydrogen concentration inside containment is 4.5%.
Which ONE of the following actions should be taken to reduce hydrogen
concentration?
A. Place only one electric hydrogen recombiner in service within the next 30 minutes
by first verifying the PWR ADJ potentiometer is set to zero (0) prior to turning on the
PWR OUT switch and then set at a power setting of 100 kilowatts.
B. Place the post accident containment venting system in service within the next 30
minutes and reset the vent flow integrator (FQI-3533) to zero prior to commencing
the venting flow by depressing the reset push button located on the BOP.
C. Place the post accident containment venting system in service within the next 30
minutes and reset the vent flow integrator (FQI-3533) to zero prior to commencing
the venting flow by de-energizing the flow intergator using the ON-OFF switch on
the Hydrogen Recombiner Control Panel.
D. Place both electric hydrogen recombiners in service within the next 30 minutes
by first verifying the PWR ADJ potentiometer is set to zero (0) prior to turning on the
PWR OUT switches and then set each at a power setting of 50 kilowatts.
Source: Modified from Farley Bank Questions #POST LOCA-40302E09 & #POST
LOCA-40302E11
A - Incorrect; Hydrogen recombiners are not used when hydrogen concentration is
above 4%.
B - Correct; The post accident venting system is placed into service within one hour of
the LOCA and is operated from the BOP
C - Incorrect; This is not how the flow integrator is set to zero.
D - Incorrect; Hydrogen recombiners are not used when hydrogen concentration is
above 4%.
28.
Due to an anticipated transient without a trip, the response to nuclear power
generation/ATWT procedure is entered. While performing FRP-S.1, "RESPONSE TO
NUCLEAR POWER GENERATION/ATWT", the CRDM MG set supply breakers are
opened.
Reactor trip breakers A & B indicating lights are RED.
All four (4) turbine throttle valves are closed, and all available AFW pumps are running.
All power range channels indicate power is 3% and falling.
Intermediate range SUR is -.3 dpm on both channels.
Which ONE of the following should the team perform?
A. Perform the first 15 steps of EEP-0 while continuing with FRP-S.1.
B. Transition to EEP-0, perform the first 15 steps of EEP-0, then return to FRP-S.1.
C. Immediately return to procedure and step in effect, Le., EEP-0.
D. Continue with procedure and step in effect, Le., FRP-S.1.
Source: Modified from Farley Bank Questions #FRP-S-52533A08 007 &
- FRP-S-52533A08 004
A - Incorrect; Once subcriticality is verified by PR<5% and IR SUR neg then transition
to procedure step in effect, EEP-0.
B - Incorrect; Returning to FRP-S.1 is not warranted since subcriticality is confirmed.
C - Correct; Subcriticality is confirmed from PR and IR indications regaurdless of
Reactor Trip breaker indicating lights. RT bkr lights are not used to transition to to
FRP-S.l
D - Incorrect; Would not continue with FRP-S.1 once subcriticallity is confirmed.
29.
Given the following plant conditions:
A loss of all AC power has occurred on Unit 2.
The actions required by ECP-0.0, LOSS OF ALL AC POWER, are in
progress.
SG atmospheric relief valves are being controlled locally to reduce SG pressure
to less than 200 psig.
A low steam line pressure SI signal has been received.
Steam line pressure is 350 psig and RCS cold leg temperatures are at 325OF.
You notice both channels of Source Range startup rate go positive then fail low.
The STA monitoring the CSF status trees informs the shift supervisor that there is a
yellow path on subcriticality.
Intermediate range startup rate is reading a sustained +0.2 dpm.
Which ONE of the following actions should be taken?
A. Begin an emergency boration.
B. Stop dumping steam and allow the plant heat up to add negative reactivity
C. Continue to lower SG pressure to c 200 psig.
D. Proceed immediately to FRP-S.2.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EC-O.O/.1.2-52532A06 002
Ref: ECP-0.0
JUSTIFICATION:
a. Emergency boration would be an action to mitigate the positive SUR, but cannot be
done without AC power.
b. If SUR is above zero the ECP-0.0 RNO requires securing dumping steam to heat up
the RCS and establish subcriticality. SR must be assumed to have reflected actual
conditions in the core before it was lost since IR indications are not consistant with a
subcritical core (IR SUR <-.3DPM)
c. If SUR is above zero the ECP-0.0 RNO requires local control of atmospheric relief
valves to raise SG pressure.
d. While in ECP-0.0, CSFs are monitored for information only.
30.
EEPS, "Steam Generator Tube Rupture", is in progress, and an RCS cooldown is
desired. The ruptured SG pressure is 920 psig. Desired subcooling is 35-37 OF. The
RCPs are running, and the plant computer is inoperable. Normal at power CTMT
parameters exist.
What temperature indicator should be used and at what temperature should the RCS
cooldown be stopped? (include subcooling)
A. Core exit T/C monitor indicating 485OF.
B. Core exit T/C monitor indicating 499OF.
C. WR hot leg temperatures indicating 485OF.
D. WR hot leg temperatures indicating 499OF.
Source Farley Bank Question #EEP-3-52530D07
Ref: EEP-3
31.
The plant is operating at 100% power with all controls in automatic. Without warning,
PRZR level and RCS pressure begin decreasing. Charging flow automatically
increases, and the PRZR heaters energize. Normal letdown flow isolates, and PRZR
heaters de-energize on low PRZR level. Simultaneously with low PRZR level
indications, high radiation indications from the air ejector radiation monitor and
blowdown line radiation monitors are received in the control room. The reactor trips,
and safety injection occurs on low pressurizer pressure.
Which ONE of the following is the explains the cause of the plant response and the
current indications?
A. Main steam line break
B. Main feed line break
C. SGTR
D. RCS cold leg break
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EEP-3-52530D02 002
Reference: EEP-3
A - Incorrect; This does not explain the presence of the high radiation.
B - Incorrect; this does not explain the presence of the high radiation alarms
C - Correct: These are indications of a SGTR.
D - Incorrect; Does not explain the high radiation at the locations given.
32.
Unit 1 is at 32% power and ramping up. All systems are in automatic and controlling
properly. Control bank "D" is at 72 steps and controlling RCS temperature.
A DEH control system malfunction results in a turbine trip. The control rods drive into
the core 12 steps prior to being taken to MANUAL. The control rods and the steam
dumps are used to restore reactor power to 32%. Bank "D" control rods were raised to
65 steps. The generator trips 30 seconds after the turbine trip. The 4160V buses I A ,
1B and I C transfer to the startup transformers.
Which ONE of the following describes the action(s) should be taken in accordance with
AOP-3.0, Turbine Trip Below P-9 Setpoint?
A. Reduce reactor power to between 8% and 15%, slowly open the atmospheric relief
valves to close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam
pressure mode of operation.
B. Initiate an emergency boration in order to bring the control rods above the lo40
insertion limit.
C. Reduce reactor power to less than 8%, slowly open the atmospheric relief valves to
close the steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure
mode of operation.
D. Maintain reactor power and slowly open the atmospheric relief valves to close the
steam dump valves, then swap the steam dumps to the steam pressure mode of
operation.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-3.0-52520CO4 002
A - Incorrect; Power level is incorrect, power level is for steam dumps already being in
steam pressure mode.
B - Incorrect; This is performed if it is desirable to leave the rods in auto.
C - Correct; Per step 9 of AOP-3.0 and SOP-I 8.0, Steam Dump System
D - Incorrect; Power level is incorrect, power level is for steam dumps already being in
steam pressure mode.
33.
Given the following:
In EEP-2, "Faulted Steam Generator Isolation", the operator is cautioned that
any faulted steam generator should remain isolated during subsequent recovery
actions unless needed as a heat sink for RCS cooldown.
Which ONE of the following is the reason for the caution?
A. AFW pumps could reach run-out flow and cavitate, causing damage to the pumps
and possibly rendering them inoperable.
B. Additional steaming from the SG will increase the likelihood of damaging other
equipment, power supplies, or instrumentation in the vicinity of the break.
C. Un-isolating a faulted steam generator could cause an RCS cooldown and risk an
inadvertent return to criticality.
D. Reestablishing feed flow to the faulted steam generator would cause SI to reactuate
on high steam flow and interfere with the RCS cooldown to Mode 5.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #EEP-2-52530C03 001
Reference: EEP-2
C - Correct
34.
The plant is in UOP-3.1, "POWER OPERATION," at 33% power and ramping up.
All systems are in automatic and controlling properly.
Steam dumps are in the Tavg mode and the control rods are at 72 steps on control bank 73'.
- A malfunction of the DEH control system results in a turbine trip.
- The rod control system is placed in manual and used with the steam dumps to stabilize
reactor power at 33%.
- Steam dump control is then inadvertantly transferred from the Tavg mode to the steam
pressure mode.
Which one of the following describes, for the conditions given, assuming NO further operator
action, what will be the response of the plant?
A. RCS temperature will decrease and pressurizer level will decrease.
B. RCS temperature will increase and pressurizer level will increase.
C. Steam dumps will modulate to bring steam header pressure to the steam dump controller
setpoint.
D. No effect in steam pressure mode. The steam dumps will continue to control RCS
temperature.
Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam
Original Source: Farley exam bank: Question # 052520C06003
A - Incorrect, this is the action if the steam dumps were to fly open.
B - Correct, the steam dumps immediately close when the switch is taken from Tavg mode to
Steam pressure mode.
C - Incorrect, steam pressure control output shifts to steam pressure mode in manual with an
output of zero.
D - Incorrect, this is the action if the steam dumps continued to operate in the Tavg mode.
35.
Unit 1 is at 60% power and slowly ramping up.
Which ONE of the following conditions will first result in the loss of condenser steam
dumps?
A. One of the two running Circulating water pumps breaker trips open on overcurrent.
B. One of the Condenser vacuum switches indicates less than 8 inches of mercury.
C. Both of the Condenser vacuum switches indicate less than 8 inches of mercury.
D. Both of the Condenser vacuum switches indicate less than 10.8 inches of mercury.
Source: Modified from Surry 2002 NRC Exam
A - Incorrect; Must have both circ water pump breakers open.
B - Incorrect; Must have both of the Condenser vacuum switches indicate less than 8
inches of mercury.
C - Correct; Does not satisfy the C-9 permissive.
D - Incorrect; This is not the vacuum setpoint in inches of mercury, this is the setpoint in
psia.
36.
While holding reactor power at 33% for chemistry, a loss of main feedwater occurred
when the ONLY running SGFP tripped.
Which ONE of the following statements is correct concerning Rx trip?
A. The reactor should be manually tripped to conserve S/G inventory for adequate
secondary heat sink and decay heat removal.
B. The main turbine EMER TRIP switch should be placed in TRIP for at least 5
seconds.
C. Reactor power must be rapidly reduced to less than 2%, then manually trip the
D. The main turbine should be tripped manually followed by a manual reactor trip.
Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question #AOP-13.0-52520M06 002
Ref: AOP-13.0
A - Incorrect; A reactor trip is not warrented at power level below 35%.
B - Correct; With power level below 35% this is an immediate action step of AOP-13.
C - Incorrect; This is done after the main turbine is tripped.
D - Incorrect; A reactor trip is not warrented at power level below 35%, the main turbine
is tripped followed by a power reduction to less than 2%.
37.
Which ONE of the following describes the plant components that are used to provide
remote capability to feed the steam generators with the turbine-driven AFW pump
during a station blackout?
A. 120 vac instrument inverter, 48 vdc battery, air accumulator.
B. AC and DC uninterruptible power supply, 48 vdc battery, air accumulator.
C. AC and DC uninterruptible power supply, auxiliary building 125 vdc battery,
emergency air compressor.
D. 120 vac instrument inverter, auxiliary building 125 vdc battery, emergency air
compressor.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AFW-40201DO6 003
A - Incorrect; 120 vac instrument inverter does not provide a BIU to the TDAFW pump
B - Correct; Power is supplied from the 48V DC battery to an inverter which then
supplies the HSDP which in turn supplies the TDAFW Speed Control and FCV's
position controller. The inverter also directly supplies a DC rectifier that supplies power
to open TDAFW Valves, FCV soleniods and TDAFW Control Panel.
C & D - Incorrect; AB 125 v dc battery does not provide a B/U to the TDAFW pump.
38.
Considering the ESS Load Sequencer operation during an accident with an LOSP.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason(s) behind the ESS Load Sequencer
order and time to initiation of power to the various loads?
A. The considerations deal ONLY with maintaining the diesel generator frequency and
voltage within tolerance.
B. The considerations deal ONLY with ensuring the starting of the various engineered
safety features are within the required safety analysis response time values..
C. In order to ensure that the diesel generators speed will not decrease below 95% of
nominal value, the largest loads are started first when the diesel generator can best
handle the starting currents.
D. The required response time values of the various emergency safety features are
based on the accident analysis of the plant for the design based accident and the
diesel generator capability.
A - Incorrect; This is only one of the reasons.
B - Incorrect; This is only one of the reasons.
C - Incorrect; Diesel generators speed must be maintained and starting currents must
be allowed to decay between subsequent equipment starts making this a potential
reason.
D - Correct; This is both distractors A and C combined and is the reason for the
sequencer loading. OPS-52103F-40102D
39.
Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit 2 is at 80% power ramping to 100%.
- Both SGFPs are operating.
- All systems are aligned for automatic operation.
- Annunciator KB4, SGFP SUCT PRESS LO, has just come into alarm.
- The Recorder PR-4039 indicates SGFP pressure is 295 psig and slowly
decreasing.
Which ONE of the following is the action required by the operator?
A. Ensure the standby condensate pump starts 10 seconds after pressure has
decreased to 275 psig.
B. Start the standby condensate pump prior to pressure decreasing to 275 psig.
C. Begin a rapid load reduction to 60% in order to remove one SGFP from service.
D. If pressure continues to decrease, manually trip the reactor and enter EEP-0,
Reactor Trip or Safety injection.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-13.0-5252OM04 009
Reference: ARP-1. I O , KB4
A - Incorrect; The operator is instructed by the ARP to start the Cond pump prior to 275
psig.
B - Correct; The standby condensate pump will auto start at 275 psig but the ARP
requires it to be manually started prior to reaching 275 psig.
C - Incorrect; A rapid load reduction is required if the standby condensate pump is not
available. There is no requirement to trip one of the SGFPs because there is an
automatic trip on low suction pressure.
D - Incorrect; This action would be appropriate if suction pressure decreases below 275
psig for 30 seconds and the starting of the standby condensate pump has not corrected
the pressure drop.
40.
Given the following plant conditions:
- Unit 1 is holding at 85% power due to problems with the I C condensate pump.
- Rod control is in AUTO, with Bank D rods at 218 steps.
- VCT level transmitter, LT-112, failed low 30 minutes ago.
- I&C is troubleshooting Power Range Nuclear Instrument N-41 because of a
blown fuse.
Which ONE of the following conditions will occur if power is lost to the 1A 120V AC
Vital Bus?
A. A reactor trip will occur.
B. A boration of the RCS will begin since LCV-I15D, RWST to CHG PUMP, will open
and LCV-I15E, VCT Outlet ISO, will close.
C. Control rods will begin stepping in.
D. A boration of the RCS will begin since LCV-I15B, RWST to CHG PUMP, will open
and LCV-I15C, VCT Outlet ISO, will close.
Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question # I 20 VAC-40204F07
A - Incorrect; A reactor trip would occur if another PRNl channel, other than N-41, had
already been placed in a tripped condition.
B - Incorrect; Valves LCVs 115D and E are powered from Aux Safeguards Cabinet B.
C - Incorrect; Rods will step out as a result of the boration.
D - Correct; A boration of the RCS will occur since power was lost to 1A 120V AC Vital
Bus causing LCV-I15B, RWST to CHG PUMP, to open and LCV-I15C, VCT Outlet
ISO, to close. (Aux Safeguards Cabinet A)
41.
A loss of Aux. Building DC power has occurred due to a Station Blackout event that
has lasted for 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />. Offsite power has finally been restored and the lineups
complete for restoring the battery charging lineup.
Which ONE of the following describes the operational implications of the Aux. Building
125 volt DC System?
A. The battery chargers will be unable to carry steady state normal or emergency
loads until its associated battery is charged for at least 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> and will not be fully
charged for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.
B. The battery chargers will be unable to carry steady state normal or emergency
loads until its associated battery has been fully charged and will not be fully
charged for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.
C. The battery chargers will be immediately able to carry steady state normal or
emergency loads while its associated battery is being charged and will not be fully
charged for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.
D. The battery chargers will be immediately able to carry steady state normal loads but
unable to carry emergency loads until its associated battery has been fully charged
and will not be fully charged for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.
A - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore
its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after the battery has been fully
discharged, while carwing steady state normal or emergency loads.
B - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore
its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after the battery has been fully
discharged, carrying steady state normal or emergency loads
C - Correct
D - Incorrect; Each battery charger is designed to provide adequate capacity to restore
its associated battery to full charge in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after the battery has been fully
discharged, while carrying steady state normal emergency loads
42.
Unit 1 is at 70% power when the following indications are received:
Annunciator KC3,lA OR 1B SGFP TRIPPED
RPM indicator for 1A SGFP rapidly falling
Which ONE of the following describes the required operator actions the operator
should take?
A. Place MAIN TURB EMER TRIP switch to TRIP for at least 5 seconds.
B. Check reactor tripped due to the SGFP trip and go to EEP-0, Reactor Trip and
Safety Injection.
C. Reduce turbine load to less than 540 MW and reduce reactor power to match
turbine power.
D. Check that the AFW pumps auto started.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-13.0-52520M02
References: AOP-13.0
A - Incorrect; This will result in a main turbine trip which is not required since a total loss
of feed has not occurred.
B - Incorrect; A reactor trip will not occur on a loss of a SGFP, unless that loss results in
low SG levels.
C - Correct; Reducing turbine load and reducing reactor power maintains the RCS and
secondary side parameters within the limits for continued plant operation with one
SGFP still operating.
D - Incorrect; AFW pumps will start on a total loss of feed.
43.
A rapid load reduction on Unit 1 I decre se 3 minimum load from 100% power is in
progress per AOP-17.0, RAPID LOAD REDUCTION. A loss of control oil causes the
1A SGFP to coast down. The operators stopped the load reduction in progress and
have entered AOP-13.0, Loss of Main Feedwater. S/G water levels decreased to
approximately 35% and are now recovering with feed control in AUTO. The Unit is
currently at 50% power and Turbine load is at about 450 MW.
Which ONE of the following describes the REQUIRED operator actions?
A. Maintain SG levels greater than 35% and verify SG narrow range levels are
maintained less than 75%
B. Maintain S/G level control in auto verify proper operation of the feed regulating
valves and verify S/G narrow range levels trending to 65%.
C. When S/G narrow range levels reach approximately 55%, take manual control of
the feed regulating valves and reduce demand to 75% and return to auto, verify
levels trending to 65%.
D. Trip the reactor and go to EEP-0, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection," while
continuing in AOP-13, "Loss of Main Feedwater".
A - Incorrect; These are the S/G level valus for the fast load reduction, AOP-17 step 7
B - Incorrect; This is not the required actions of AOP-13.0.
C- Correct; AOP-13.0 immediated action Step 1 RNO Step 1.5. S/G level recovery
actions when both SGFPs do not trip.
-
D Incorrect; This is the action required if the S/G levels do not adequately recover.
44.
Due to a complete loss of instrument air, the control room operator tripped the reactor
from 100% power. The turbine-driven auxiliary feedwater (TDAFW) pump auto started.
The motor driven auxiliary feedwater (MDAFW) pumps failed to auto start.
Which ONE of the following discribes the action@),if any, that must be taken and why?
A. Use the handjack to close HV-3235A and HV-3235B in the main steam valve room
(MSVR), to avoid causing an uncontrolled cooldown.
B. Start the emergency air compressors and align to supply the TDAFW pump steam
admission valves to ensure the TDAFW pump will continue to run past 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> to
provide an adequate heat sink.
C. No action is required since all valves associated with the TDAFW pump fail open.
D. Use the handjack to open HV-3235A and HV-32358 in the main steam valve room
(MSVR) to ensure the TDAFW pump will continue to run past 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> to provide an
adequate heat sink.
A - Incorrect, With only one AFW pump available over cooling should not be a concern.
B - Correct, Per AOP-6.0 Step 9
C - Incorrect, HV-3235A and HV-3235B, steam admission valves to the TDAFW pump
in the main steam valve room (MSVR) do not fail open.
D - Incorrect, HV-3235A and HV-3235B in the main steam valve room (MSVR), can
not be jacked open, only jacked closed.
45.
Unit 1 is operating at 100% steady-state reactor power all systems are in automatic and
functioning properly.
- A reactor trip and SI has just occurred.
- A problem in the high voltage switchyard deenergizes the 1B SIU transformer
- D/G 1B cannot be started.
- SIG narrow range levels are A26%, B45% and C45%.
Which Unit 1 AFW pump(s) are running?
A. AMDAFW and TDAFW.
B. Aand BMDAFW.
C. BMDAFW only.
D. AMDAFW only.
Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam
A - Correct, The TDAFW pump will start on a blackout signal and the A MDAFW pump will
start on SI sequencer. B MDAFW pump does not have power
B & C - Incorrect, The B MDAFW pump does not have a power source.
D - Incorrect, TDAFWP will also start.
46.
Unit 1 is at 100% power with 'B' Train on service.
DG02, 1G 4160V bus tie to 1L 4160V bus trips.
AOP1O.O "Loss of Service Water" has been entered.
' A Train SW pressure is 90 psig, and stable.
'B' Train SW pressure is 50 psig, and stable.
An attempt to start I C CCW pump was made, and it tripped on overload.
RCP motor bearing temperatures are reading 163OF and slowly rising.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions to be taken in accordance with
AOP-10.0, Loss of Service Water?
A. Trip the reactor and enter EEP-0.0 "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection".
B. Start the 1A charging pump; then stop the I C charging pump.
C. Align 1 B CCW pump to ' A train.
D. Shift the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling trains
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-10.0-5252OJ06 001
Reference: AOP-10.0
A - Incorrect; This is done when RCP motor bearing temps reach 195OF, reference
note describing adequate support in AOP-9.0
B - Incorrect; Same as D. Also, I C Chg pump has CCW flow even though the CW isn't
being cooled. 1A Chg pump will have no CCW cooling at all
C - Correct; This is done to provide colling water to the Misc header.
D - Incorrect; Since the A train CCW pump tripped on overload, there is no cooling flow
in that train of CCW, the operator cannot perform this step.
47.
Which ONE of the following describes the NORMAL, EMERGENCY, and ALTERNATE
power supplies to Emergency 4160V AC Bus 1H?
NORMAL EMERGENCY ALTERNATE
A. S/U 1A 1-2A DG SRJ 1B
B. SRJ 1A 1C DG SIU 1B
C. SIU 1A 1B DG SIU 1B
D. SRJ 1B 1B DG S/U 1A
Source: Modified from Farley 2001 NRC Exam.
A - Incorrect, Correct for BUS 1F.
B - Correct
C - Incorrect, The Normal and Alternate are correct, but the Emergency is incorrect.
D - Incorrect, This is correct if it was thought that 1H was B Train.
48.
Plant conditions are as follows:
- Unit 1 is at 95% power.
- The Unit 1 " B train battery supply breaker to 18 125 VDC auxiliary building bus
is open to jumper out a cell.
- The supply breaker to 4160 VAC bus 1G trips on fault.
Which ONE of the following describes the expected response to this event?
A. 1B Diesel Generator will start, but the output breaker will not close.
B. 1B Diesel Generator will start and reenergize the 1G 4160 VAC bus.
C. Only a Unit 1 reactor trip will occur.
D. Unit 1 reactor trip and safety injection will occur.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #DC DIST-52103C02 004
Ref: SOP-37.0
A -Incorrect; There is no DC power to allow starting of the 1B DG
B - Incorrect; There is no DC power to allow starting of the 1B DG
C - Incorrect; A reactor trip will occur due to loss of the Vital AC I C and 1D busses
giving a 2 of 3 trip signal on low S/G pressure.
D -Correct; A reactor trip will occur due to loss of the Vital AC I C and 1D busses giving
a 2 of 3 trip signal on low S/G pressure which also gives an SI.
49.
Which ONE of the following is a reason why battery charger 'C', the swing battery
charger, for the auxiliary building 125V DC distribution system is key-interlocked?
A. Ensures voltages are matched before closing DC output breakers.
B. Prevent Battery Charger 'C' from carrying DC buses A and B at the same time.
C. Ensure battery charger 'C'output breaker is closed on a dead bus.
D. Provides administrative control when using ' A train power to supply the 'B' train DC
bus.
Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #DC DIST-40204E02 007
A - Incorrect; No voltage interlock associated with this key-interlock
6 - Correct; per OPS-52103C
C - Incorrect; No sychronizing circuitry associated with this key-interlock
D -Incorrect; This is the result of using the 'C' battery charger.
50.
Which ONE of the following describes the action@)required in accordance with
SOP-38.0, Diesel Generators, if the I C or 2C DG oil temperature decreases to less
than 100 OF AND the keep warm lube oil system is in service (Le., the circulating oil
pump is running)?
A. The DG is declared inoperable until the oil temperature increases above 100 OF so
the engine can be started.
B. The cylinders shall be blown down and the engine barred over prior to starting the
engine.
C. The jacket water cooling system shall be secured to raise lube oil temperature
above 100 OF.
D. The keep warm lube oil system shall be secured to raise lube oil temperature
above 100 OF.
Source: Farley Bank Question #DG-52102104
-
A Incorrect; temperature should be raised above 100 OF, but this is not the correct
answer per SOP-38.0.
-
B Correct; SOP-38.0 precaution 3.13 and caution prior to Step 4.3.8 and OPS-521021
page 34
-
C Incorrect; this is not addressed by procedures
D - Incorrect; this is not addressed by procedures
51.
The reactor is at 30% power. For an unknown reason, instrument air pressure is
falling. All available air compressors have been started and pressure continues to fall.
The main feed regulating valve operation has started to become erratic. Feed flow is
decreasing to the Steam Generators, levels are at 60% and slowly decreasing.
Which ONE of the following describes the action@)the operator should take?
A. Trip the reactor and go to EEP-0.
B. Trip the turbine and ramp the reactor to less than 2% power and establish AFW
flow.
C. Ramp the turbine and reactor to below 5% and establish AFW flow.
D. Dispatch operators to manually jack open the main feed regulating valves to control
SG level.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-6.0-52520FO8
A - Correct; AOP-6.0 Step 1, WHEN reactor critical AND control of critical AOVs erratic,
THEN trip the reactor and go to EEP-0 REACTOR TRIP OR SAFETY INJECTION.
FRV's are "critical valves.
B - Incorrect; turbine trip is not a priority in AOP-6 these are the actions of AOP-13.0,
loss of feedwater.
C - Incorrect; ramping down is not an option.
D - Incorrect; not proceduralized, non-conservative, defeats FW Isolation signal.
52.
The control room has just been evacuated due to a fire in the cable spreading room.
Which ONE of the following conditions will require the use of reactor head vents to assist in
plant recovery when operating from the Hot Shutdown Panels?
(Assume no Safety Injection signal present)
A. Loss of Reactor Coolant Pumps.
B. Pressurizer level decreasing below 15% level.
C. Steam Generator levels decreasing below 25% level
D. High Head Safety Injection flow of 225 gpm with RCS pressure at 2235 psig.
Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam
Original Source: Farley NRC Exam 1998
LO: 052521C04
A - Incorrect, Natural circulation can be used following a loss of RCPs.
B - Correct, Pressurizer level decreasing below 15% will result in letdown isolation with the
inability to reopen LCV-459 and LCV-460, requiring the use of the head vents for removing
mass from the RCS.
C - Incorrect, Control of S/G levels is available at the HSPs therefore, control of RCS cooldown
is unavailable.
D - Incorrect, PORV available at this time if desired to lower pressure.
53.
Concernina the Gas DUS Waste Proce sing System, which ONE of the following is
correct if unit 1 is in Mode 2, with the monitors required in TR 12.13.1 inoperable?
Reference Provided
A. With oxygen concentration equal to 4% and hydrogen concentration equal to 5% in
a waste gas decay tank, oxygen concentration must be reduced to less than or
equal to 1% prior to Mode 1 entry.
B. With oxygen concentration equal to 3% and hydrogen concentration equal to 5%,
oxygen concentration must be reduced to less than or equal to 1% within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.
However, Mode 1 entry is permitted.
C. With oxygen concentration equal to 5% and hydrogen concentration equal to 2%,
oxygen concentration must be reduced to less than 1% prior to Mode 1 entry.
D. With oxygen and hydrogen concentrations equal to 5%, actions must be taken
within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to place Unit 1 in a Mode in which the Tech Spec does not apply.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #WAST GAS-52106B01 005
References: TRM 13.12.3
A - Incorrect; Does not preclude mode change.
B - Correct; Per TRM 13.12.3
C -Incorrect; Does not preclude mode change.
D - Incorrect; Applicable to all modes
54.
Which one of the following occurs after receiving a HIGH radiation signal from the
control room ventilation monitor, R-35A?
A. Utility exhaust fan suction dampers (HV-3628 and HV-3629) close.
B. Exhaust fan inlet dampers (HV-3649A, B, C) close.
C. Filtration exhaust and recirculation fans start.
D. Pressurization system supply fans start
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #RMS-40305A07
A - Correct; Per OPS-52107C
B - Incorrect; Happens on a T - signal.
C - Incorrect; Happens on a T - signal.
D - Incorrect; Happens on a T - signal.
55.
A gaseous waste release is in progress to the vent stack in accordance with a gas
waste permit and SOP-51.I, "WASTE GAS SYSTEM GAS DECAY TANK RELEASE."
During the planned waste gas release, the power supply to R-14 (Plant Vent Gas
Monitor) fails.
Which ONE of the following describes the immediate operator actions?
A. Immediately close RCV-14, Waste Gas Relief Valve, to stop the unmonitored
release and inform the Shiff Supervisor.
B. Check that RCV-14, Waste Gas Relief Valve, closed automatically to prevent any
unmonitored release, notify Chemistry and Health Physics to implement sampling in
accordance with the Offsite Dose Calculation Manual and inform the Shift
Supervisor.
C. Check that RCV-14, Waste Gas Relief Valve, closed automatically to prevent any
unmonitored release, secure from the release using SOP-51.Iand notify
Instrument Service personnel to investigate the failure.
D. Verify RCV-14, Waste Gas Relief Valve, is open, verify the last reading on R-14
was below the setpoint, notify Health Physics to implement sampling procedures
and inform the Shift Supervisor.
The radiation monitors fail to a "High Radiation" conditions on loss of instrument andlor
control power that will result in actuation of associated automatic functions.
A - Incorrect; The discharge in progress is automatically securred the auto shutting of
RCV-14.
B - Correct; The discharge in progress is automatically securred the auto shutting of
RCV-14. Immediate actions of Annunciator FH2, RME CH FAILURE, is to check
indications and notify Chemistry and HP. Immediate actions of Annunciator FH1, RMS
HI-RAD, are to verify that RCV-14 closed. Action from precaution in SOP-51.Iis to
secure the discharge and notify Shift Supervisor.
C - Incorrect; Notifying Instrument Service personnel should occur but is not the
immediate concern.
D - Incorrect; The discharge in progress is automatically securred the auto shutting of
RCV-14.
56. Unit 1 is in the process of starting up and is currently at 25% power.
Unit 1 Circulating water pit level has dropped to 150 feet.
Which ONE of the following describes the process by which water is made up to the
Circulating Water Canal?
A. Service Water is automatically made up to the system via Circulating Water Makeup
Valve (560).
6. Service Water must be manually made up to the system via Circulating Water
Makeup Valve (560).
C. River Water is automatically made up to the system via Circulating Water Makeup
Valve (560).
D. River Water must be manually made up to the system via Circulating Water Makeup
Valve (560).
A - Incorrect; At this low power level the Circulating Water Makeup Valve (560) will be
controlled in "Remote Manual" not automatic.
6 - Correct; Per OPS-52104D
C & D - Incorrect; Service water is the makeup supply to the Circ water canal, river
water is the makeup to the service water system.
57.
Given the following on Unit 1:
- DG15 (1B Startup Transformer to 1G 4160 V bus) tripped open due to an
electrical fault.
- 1B Diesel Generator has started and tied on the bus.
- DG02 ( I G 4160 V bus tie to 1L 4160 V bus) has subsequently tripped open.
- Service Water cannot be restored and the 1B DIG is required.
Which ONE of the following describes when the affect DIG is required to be stopped
IAW AOP-10.0, and what engineered safeguards feature (ESF) loads will be lost?
A. As soon as it is determined that SW cannot be restored to protect the DIG from
damage due to overheating and 1A component cooling water (CCW) pump will be
lost.
B. As soon as it is determined that SW cannot be restored to protect the DIG from
damage due to overheating and 1A charging pump will be lost.
C. If the local Lube Oil temperature alarm cannot be maintained clear to protect the
DIG from damage due to overheating and 1A charging pump will be lost.
D. If the local Lube Oil temperature alarm cannot be maintained clear to protect the
DIG from damage due to overheating and 1A component cooling water (CCW)
pump will be lost.
Source: Modified from Farley Bank Question #AOP-10.0-5252OJ06 002
Ref: AOP-10.0
A - Incorrect; AOP-10 has the operator isolate SW to the TB and other components as
well as line-up SW flow from the other unit first. This is the correct ESF
load that would be lost.
B - Incorrect; AOP-10 has the operator isolate SW to the TB and other components as
well as line-up SW flow from the other unit first. This is also the incorrect
ESF load that would be lost, 1A charging pump is powered from 4160V
1F bus.
C - Incorrect; Step 4.2.6 says that if the LO temp alarm cannot be cleared then Stop the
DIG however, this is also the incorrect ESF load that would be lost, 1A
charging pump is powered from 4160V 1F bus.
D - Correct; Step 4.2.6 says that if the LO temp alarm cannot be cleared then Stop the
DIG. This is the correct ESF load that would be lost since the 1A CCW
pump is powered from 4160V 1G bus.
58.
Unit 1 is experiencing a loss of instrument air. The crew has entered AOP-6, Loss of
Instrument Air.
Which ONE of the following describes the pressure at which V-901, Service air header
isolation valve, closes and when V-903, Instrument air to turbine building isolation
valve, closes as instrument air pressure continues to decrease?
v-901 v-903
A. 80 psig 45 psig
B. 70 psig 45 psig
C. 80 psig 55 psig
D. 45 psig 80 psig
Source: Modified ..3m Farley Bank Questions #COMP AIR-402 ID07 002 and COMP
AIR-40204D07 003
A - Correct; Per OPS-52108A, V-901 is the first to automatically close at 80 psig and
V-903 is the last to automatically close at 45 psig.
B - Incorrect; V-902, Instrument Air Dryer Bypass Valve, opens at 70 psig.
C - Incorrect; V-904, Instrument Air to Service Building, shuts at 55 psig.
D - Incorrect; V-901 and V-903 values are reversed.
59.
Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when an electrical fire started inside the Cable
Spreading Room.
Which ONE of the following describes what type of fire suppression system is installed
inside the Cable Spreading Room and what are the hazards to personnel if they enter
this room?
A. A deluge manual sprinkler system is installed. An electrical shock hazard exists
due to the use of water to combat an electrical fire.
B. An automatic sprinkler system is installed. An electrical shock hazard exists due to
the use of water to combat an electrical fire.
C. An automatic Halon system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard exists due to the
presence of Halon gas.
D. A C02 system is installed. An asphyxiation hazard exists due to the presence of
C02 gas.
Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #FIRE PROT-40103DO2
A - Incorrect; Not a manual deluge system
B - Incorrect; Water system not in room
C - Incorrect; No Halon in room
D - Correct; The Cable Spreading Room has a C02 system.
60.
During Surveillance Testing, the ' A Train Solid-state Protection System (SSPS) was
found to be inoperable. Troubleshooting is in progress and I&C has tagged the Output
Relay Mode Selector Switch in the 'TEST' position.
Which ONE of the following is describes the effect the above system condition will
have on Containment lntergrity if the unit had a reactor trip and safety injection at this
time?
A. Both Trains of Phase ' A components would actuate, no other action are required.
B. Only 'B' Train Phase ' A components would actuate, the operator would have to
initiate ' A Train components with the Phase ' A handswitch.
C. Neither Train Phase ' A components would actuate, the operator would have to
initiate both Train components with the Phase ' A handswitch.
D. Only 'B' Train Phase ' A components would actuate, the operator would have to
align ' A Train components manually.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #E-O/ESP-O.0-52530A04 003
A - Incorrect: B Train will actuate.
B - Incorrect: The handswitch will not work.
C - Incorrect; B Train will actuate and the handswitch will not work.
D - Correct; B train will actuate, the handswitch will not work and the operator will have
to manually align components.
61.
After a plant trip, the Unit 1 turbine-driven auxiliary feedwater (TDAFW) pump tripped
on overspeed.
The control room operator has isolated steam supplies from the steam lines and placed
the speed demand controller to 0%.
TDAFWP TRIP & THRTL VLV QIN12MOV3406 must now be closed.
Which ONE of the following describes how this is accomplished?
A. Locally using local handswitch at hot shutdown panel .
B. Locally using the motor control pushbutton on the control panel.
C. Remotely from the BOP using the valve control pushbutton.
D. Locally using the manual handwheel on the valve.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AFW-40201DO9 006
Reference: SOP-22.0
4.10.1 Close the following valves:
TDAFWP STM SUPP From 1B SG QIN12HV3235N26
TDAFWP STM SUPP From 1C SG Q1N12HV3235B
4.10.2 Set TDAFWP SPEED CONT SIC 3405 TO 0% DEMAND.
4.1 0.3 Close TDAFWP TRIP & THRTL VLV QIN12MOV3406 locally using
manual handwheel on valve.
4.10.4 Reset the overspeed linkage on the TDAFWP.
4.10.5 Open TDAFWP TRIP & THRTL VLV QIN12MOV3406 locally or from
BOP.
4.10.6 Verify TDAFWP TRIP AND TV CLOSED annunciator JG4 is cleared.
A, B, & C - Incorrect; Per the above exerpt from SOP-22, Version 49.0
D - Correct; See above
62.
In accordance with AOP-28.2 "Fire in the Control Room", communication with Unit 1
HSD panel A & B during the worst case fire, should be achieved by:
A. Gai-tronics Line 1
B. Paxphones
C. Sound powered phones on Unit 1
D. Gai-tronics Line 5
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-28.1/.2-52521C03 003
Ref: AOP-28.2 Attachment 1, Communications.
A - Incorrect; Gaitronics not available at HSD panels on Unit 1
B - Correct; All PAX available at HSD panels on Unit 1
C - Incorrect; AOP-28.2 provides the guidance for making a plant wide announcement,
but does not establish sound powered communications.
D - Incorrect; Gaitronics not available at HSD panels on Unit 1. Gaitronics line 5 is
dedicated line for emergencies.
63.
Which ONE of the following Mode changes requires at least two (2) mode
determination parameters to change?
(Mode determination parameters are Reactivity Condition (Keff), Rated Thermal
Power, Average Coolant Temperature).
A. Going from Mode 1 to Mode 2.
B. Going from Mode 5 to Mode 4.
C. Going from Mode 3 to Mode 2.
D. Going from Mode 5 to Mode 6.
Reference Technical Specification Definitions Table 1.I-1.
Distractor Analysis:
A: Incorrect, Difference between Mode 1 and Mode 2 requires only % Rated Thermal Power to
change.
6 : Incorrect, Difference between Mode 5 and Mode 4 requires only Average Coolant
Temperature to change change..
C: Incorrect, Difference between Mode 3 and Mode 2 requires only Reactivity Condition (Keff),
to change.
D: Correct, Difference between Mode 5 and Mode 6 requires both Reactivity Condition (Keff),
and Average Coolant Temperature to change.
64.
Which one of the following is considered a Temporary Plant Alteration that supports
Maintenance per AP-13, "Control of Temporary Alterations?"
A. Placement of a plant labeling deficiency tag IAW AP-25, "Equipment Identification."
B. Lifting leads to defeat a MCB annunciator in preparation for repairs by the
oncoming team.
C. Installation of tygon tubing on a pump drain line IAW AP-14, "Safety Tagging."
D. Gagging of a relief valve in preparation for a hydrostatic test of that system.
Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam
A -Incorrect, per AP-13, not a listed item
B - Correct, When lifting leads for corrective/preventive maintenance or troubleshooting
purposes, the leads shall be identified as shown on the electrical drawing. If the leads are to
remain lifted while not attended by the journeyman or if the job is to be turned over to another
crew, then a temporary identification tag shall be placed on each lead lifted. (AP-13)
C - Incorrect, per AP-13, not a listed item
D - Incorrect, This was a correct answer prior to the June 8 version 4 change.
65.
An individual has requested a Restricted Removal (RR) tag order to allow performance of a
maintenance task that he has been assigned.
Which ONE of the following positions, at a minimum, must the individual hold in order to mark
the RR block on the Tag Order Acceptance section of the cover sheet for a maintenance task?
A. A designated operator.
B. A tagging official.
C. An apprentice.
D. Ajourneyman.
Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam
Original Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #052303602003
D - Correct, See FNP-0-AP-14, section 4.2
66.
Plant conditions are as follows:
Unit 1 is in Mode 1.
The 1B charging pump is aligned to 'A' Train and the I C charging pump is
operating.
The 1A Charging Pump has been declared INOPERABLE and taken out of
service for oil replacement.
All other portions of the CVCS and related subsystems are OPERABLE.
Which one of the following statements describes the action of the Shift Foreman in
regard to the LCO Status Sheet for the 1A Charging Pump condition?
A. NO LCO Status Sheet is required to track the 1A charging pump condition.
B. An ADMINISTRATIVE LCO status sheet should be initiated to track the 1A charging
pump condition.
C. A VOLUNTARY LCO status sheet should be initiated to track the 1A charging pump
condition.
D. A MANDATORY LCO status sheet should be initiated to track the 1A charging
pump condition.
Source: Farley Bank Question #INTRO TS-52302A08 002
B - Correct; OPS-52302A states that equipment removed from service that is not
required in the present plant mode but is required in a higher plant mode or if it reduces
the redundancy of the equipment, but not less than T.S. requirements, then an
Administrative LCO may be written. The inoperability of one charging pump reduces
the redundancy of the equipment, but not less than T.S. requirements therefore, an
Administrative LCO should be written to track the 1A charging pump condition.
67.
During operation of the mini-purge exhaust fan to control containment-to-atmosphere
AP, the fan is started when the AP is -and stopped when the AP is -.
A. +0.2 psid; -0.5 psid
B. +0.5psid; -0.2 psid
C. +2 psid; - 0.25 psid
D. +I .75 psid; - 0.4 psid
Source: Farley Bank Question #CMNT VENT-40304A09
Ref: SOP-12.2, Appendix 1:
CAUTION: CTMT to atmosphere DP must be maintained -0.5 - +0.2 psid. Notify the
Shift Supervisor if DP exceeds +0.2 psid with the MINI PURGE EXH
FAN in operation.
2.2 WHEN CTMT to atmosphere DP approaches +0.2 psid, THEN start the
MINI PURGE EXH FAN.
therefore, A is correct.
68.
Which ONE of the following describes the general practice prescribed by the Health
Physics Manual, FNP-0-M-001, that should be used to minimize the intake of
radioactive material by personnel entering Airborne Radioactivity Areas?
A. Reduction in working times.
B. Increased radiological surveillances.
C. Use of respiratory protective equipment.
D. Reduce airborne levels using engineering controls.
Source: Farley 2000 NRC Exam
A, B, C - Incorrect; When impractical to apply process or other engineering controls,
other precautionary measures may be used, e.g. increased radiological suveillances,
reduction in working times, or use of respiratory protective equipment.
D - Correct; As a general practice, the plant staff will use process or other engineering
controls to limit the concentrations of radioactive materials in the air below the limits
defined in 1OCFR20.
69.
Which ONE of the following is required to be operable by Post Accident Monitoring
Instrumentation Technical Specification in Mode 3?
A. Containment Temperature.
B. AFW flow rate.
C. Accumulator level.
D. Spent Fuel Pool Level.
Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #POST LOCA-52102D01 002
Reference: Tech Spec 3.3.3
B - Correct; per TS Table 3.3.3-1
70.
Plant conditions are as follows:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Containment air particulate radiation monitor R-I 1 is out of service for repairs;
expected return to service is 4 days.
Grab samples are being taken per the Technical Specification action
statement.
Containment Radioactive gas monitor R-12 has just started indicating an
increasing trend in containment atmosphere gaseous radioactivity levels.
Which ONE of the following actions is required and the reason for taking the action?
A. Within an hour, initiate action to place the plant in Hot Standby within 6 additional
hours, to meet Technical Specifications.
6. Enter AOP-1.O, RCS Leakage, to identify and isolate the source of leakage.
C. Immediately trip the reactor and enter EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, to
mitigate the condition.
D. Immediately initiate a non-emergency notification per 1OCFR50.72, One Hour
Report, to inform the NRC.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #AOP-I .0-52520A02 010
A - Incorrect; The indications given do not support a Tech Spec shutdown.
6 - Correct; R-12 is an early indication of a primary leak and should be investigated per
C - Incorrect; A reactor trip is not warrented at this point from the indications given.
-
D Incorrect; Indications given do not indicate that any deviation from the plant's
Technical Specifications exist.
71.
A failed open spray valve that could not be shut resulted in a safety injection.
The reactor coolant pump in the affected loop was tripped and, with pressurizer
pressure now under control, safety injection termination was permitted.
With only one charging pump running, pressurizer pressure remained stable.
At the procedural step when normal charging was established, PRZR level started
trending down from 15% level and could not be controlled.
Which ONE of the following describes the actions the operator should take at this
point?
A. Manually SI and recommend transitioning to EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety
Injection.
B. Realign HHSl flow; start additional charging pumps, and recommend transitioning
to EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.
C. Realign HHSl flow, start additional charging pumps, and recommend transitioning
to EEP-I, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.
D. Realign HHSl flow; start additional charging pumps, and recommend transitioning
to ESP-I .2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #ESP-I .I-52531 E06 005
References: ESP-I .I
-
A Incorrect; If PZR level can not be maintained, the flow path must be reestablished
and a transition to ESP-I .2 is warrented. There is no need to manually SI and
transition to EEP-0.
B - Incorrect; The transition to EEP-0 is incorrect.
-
C Incorrect; The transition to EEP-1 is incorrect.
D - Correct; From ESP-I .I, SI Termination, if PZR level can not be maintained, the flow
path must be reestablished and a transition to ESP-I .2 is warrented.
72.
A Main Steam line Break has occured inside containment on Unit 1. Containment
pressure is at 5.5 psig. The Crew has entered FRP-P.1, Response to Pressurized
Thermal Shock Conditions.
An RCS pressure reduction is in progress.
The RO observes RCS Subcooling at 40 OF.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct action to be taken by the crew?
A. Start an additional charging pump to raise RCS subcooling.
B. Close the PORV to stop RCS depressurization until subcooling is recovered.
C. Continue with the depressurization of the RCS.
D. Dump steam from an intact SIG to raise subcooling.
Source: Modified from Farley Exam Bank Question #2305. Modified to have the steam
leak inside containment, and adverse numbers applicable.
A - Incorrect; starting an additional charging pump will raise RCS pressure, and
increase subcooling, however a pressure increase is not desired.
B - Correct; with adverse containment numbers, and this value of subcooling, the
procedure directs closing the PORV and allowing subcooling to rise.
C - Incorrect; with adverse containment numbers and subcooling 45 OF, the
procedure directs closing of the PORV.
D - Incorrect; a large cooldown has already occurred, and no further cooldown is
allowed until after a soak has taken place.
73.
During a small break Loss Of Coolant Accident (LOCA) on a cold leg, when there is not a large
amount of injection flow from the ECCS through the core and out the break, a phase is reached
where the vessel level continues to decrease below the hot leg penetrations and boiling in the
core is the means of transporting the core heat to the bubble. A fixed differential pressure exists
between the core and the break and is maintained by the loop seal.
Which ONE of the following describes the primary mechanism for heat removal during this
phase?
A. Condensation of vapor from the bubble at the hot leg side of the S/G U-tubes, which is
cooled by S/G water, and then drains back down to the core via the hot legs.
B. Condensation of vapor in the head, which is cooled by fans in containment, and then drains
back down to the core.
C. Slug flow via the cold legs through the loop seal and flashing across the cold leg break.
D. Condensation of vapor from the bubble at the cold leg side of the S/G U-tubes, which is
cooled by S/G water, and then drains back down to the core via the cold legs.
Source: Farley 2001 NRC Exam
Original Source: Byron 2000-301
A - Correct, This describes REFLUX cooling which is almost as efficient as two phase natural
circulation.
B - Incorrect, The cooling provided hear is basically losses to ambient and is not very effective.
C - Incorrect, Not likely to occur on a small break LOCA.
D - Incorrect, Natural circulation can not occur when level in the core has decreased below the
hot leg penetrations.
74.
Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when a LOCA occurred. Given the following
events and conditions:
The operators performed EEP-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, and then
transitioned to EEP-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, and subsequently
to ECP-1.I, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.
RWST level is 12.4 feet and 2 fan coolers are running
Phase B has just automatically actuated.
FRP-2.1, Response to High Containment Pressure, requires both CS pumps to be in
operation. However, ECP-1.Ilimits the operators to only one CS pump for conditions
noted.
Which ONE of the following describes the procedure that takes priority and what is the
basis for this requirement?
A. ECP-1.Itakes priority since it conserves RWST water level as long as possible for
injection and spray flow.
B. FRP-2.1 takes priority since it is needed in response to a RED path and FRPs
always have priority over ECP procedures.
C. ECP-1.Itakes priority since ECP procedures always have priority over FRPs.
D. FRP-Z.l takes priority since the ORANGE path for containment has not been
completed.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question #ECP-1.1-52532D08 004
Reference ECP-1.I, FRP-Z.l and SOP-0.8.
A - Correct; ECP-1.IPURPOSE "This procedure provides actions to restore
emergency coolant recirculation capability, to delay depletion of the RWST by adding
makeup and reducing outflow, and to depressurize the RCS to minimize break flow. "
B - Incorrect; With two fan coolers running and RWST level at 12.4 ft. conservation of
RWST inventory takes precedence over containment pressure. The following is found
in FRP-2.1 ; CAUTION: IF FNP-1-ECP-1.1, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT
RECIRCULATION, is in effect, THEN containment spray should be operated as
directed in FNP-1-ECP-1.I.
C - Incorrect; The FRP's have priority unless procedurally directed otherwise.
D - Incorrect; With two fan coolers running and RWST level at 12.4 ft. conservation of
RWST inventory takes precedence over containment pressure. The following is found
in FRP-Z.l ; CAUTION: IF FNP-1-ECP-1.I, LOSS OF EMERGENCY COOLANT
RECIRCULATION, is in effect, THEN containment spray should be operated as
directed in FNP-1-ECP-1.1.
75.
A LOCA has occurred on Unit 1. EEP-1.O "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant", is
in progress.
The following annunciator alarms:
-EE2 CTMT PRESS HI-2 ALERT
-Containment Pressure is 17 psig.
-Containment High Range Radiation Level Monitors indicate: R27A is 4 WHR; and
R27B is 5 WHR.
Which ONE of the following FRPs is now applicable?
A. FRP-Z.1, "Response to High Containment Pressure" due to an RED path based on
containment pressure.
B. FRP-Z.3, Response to High Containment Radiation Level, due to an ORANGE path
based on containment pressure.
C. FRP-Z.l, Response to High Containment Pressure, due to an ORANGE path based
on containment pressure.
D. FRP-Z.3, Response to High Containment Radiation Level, due to a YELLOW path
based on high containment radiation.
Source: Farley Exam Bank Question 52530B08 016 Modified.
A - Incorrect; a red path occurs at 54 psig.
B - Incorrect; an orange path does not exist for containment radiation.
C - Incorrect; an orange path for containment pressure is 27 psig.
D - Correct; FRP-Z.3 would be entered on a yellow path based on containment
radiation.