ML12276A183: Difference between revisions

From kanterella
Jump to navigation Jump to search
(Created page by program invented by StriderTol)
(Created page by program invented by StriderTol)
Line 39: Line 39:


==Enclosures:==
==Enclosures:==
: 1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-12-03  
: 1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-12-03
: 2. Written examination with facility comments incorporated  
: 2. Written examination with facility comments incorporated  


Line 57: Line 57:


==Enclosures:==
==Enclosures:==
: 1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-12-03  
: 1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-12-03
: 2. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc w/o enclosures:    See next page DISTRIBUTION w/ encls.: PUBLIC    PRTB r/f    RidsNRRDPRPRTA RidsNRRDPRPRTB  Facility File (CRevelle) O-7 F-08 ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML12276A183 TEMPLATE #:NRR-074 OFFICE  PRTB:CE    IOLB:LA E  PRTB:BC  NAME  PYoung  CRevelle  GBowman DATE  10/04 /2012  10/02 /2012  10/04/2012  OFFICIAL RECORD COPY
: 2. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc w/o enclosures:    See next page DISTRIBUTION w/ encls.: PUBLIC    PRTB r/f    RidsNRRDPRPRTA RidsNRRDPRPRTB  Facility File (CRevelle) O-7 F-08 ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML12276A183 TEMPLATE #:NRR-074 OFFICE  PRTB:CE    IOLB:LA E  PRTB:BC  NAME  PYoung  CRevelle  GBowman DATE  10/04 /2012  10/02 /2012  10/04/2012  OFFICIAL RECORD COPY


Line 102: Line 102:


REPORT DETAILS
REPORT DETAILS
: 1. Examiners: Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner, NRC  
: 1. Examiners: Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner, NRC
: 2. Results:
: 2. Results:
RO PASS/FAILSRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAILWritten 3/00
RO PASS/FAILSRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAILWritten 3/00
Line 141: Line 141:
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS  
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS  


During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:  
During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
: 1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.  
: 1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
: 2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.  
: 2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
: 3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.  
: 3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
: 4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.  
: 4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
: 5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each answer sheet.  
: 5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each answer sheet.
: 6. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.  
: 6. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
: 7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.  
: 7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
: 8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.  
: 8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
: 9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap  
: 9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap  


paper. 10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your answer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.  
paper. 10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your answer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
: 11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.  
: 11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
: 12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.  
: 12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
: 13. When you have completed and turned in you ex amination, leave the examination area. If you are observed in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked.   
: 13. When you have completed and turned in you ex amination, leave the examination area. If you are observed in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked.   


Line 172: Line 172:
C   
C   


Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.001  (1.0 point)  [1.0] Why is the stable negative period following a scram always the same value, regardless of initial power level?  The rate of power change is dependent on the:  
Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.001  (1.0 point)  [1.0] Why is the stable negative period following a scram always the same value, regardless of initial power level?  The rate of power change is dependent on the:
: a. constant decay rate of prompt neutrons. b. constant decay rate of prompt gamma emitters.  
: a. constant decay rate of prompt neutrons. b. constant decay rate of prompt gamma emitters.
: c. mean lifetime of the longest lived delayed precursor. d. mean lifetime of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursor.  
: c. mean lifetime of the longest lived delayed precursor. d. mean lifetime of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursor.  


Line 181: Line 181:
MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Kinetics Section(e)  
MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Kinetics Section(e)  


Question  A.002  (1.0 point)  [2.0] The term "prompt jump" refers to:  a. the instantaneous change in power due to raising a control rod.
Question  A.002  (1.0 point)  [2.0] The term "prompt jump" refers to:  a. the instantaneous change in power due to raising a control rod.
: b. a reactor which has attained criticality on prompt neutrons alone.
: b. a reactor which has attained criticality on prompt neutrons alone.
: c. a reactor which is critical using both prompt and delayed neutrons.
: c. a reactor which is critical using both prompt and delayed neutrons.
: d. a negative reactivity insertion which is less than Beta-effective.
: d. a negative reactivity insertion which is less than Beta-effective.
Answer:  A.002  a.   
Answer:  A.002  a.   
Line 194: Line 194:
Reactor operating at 5 MW, scram setpoint at 6 MW, scram delay time of 1 second,  reactor period of 12.5 seconds.  
Reactor operating at 5 MW, scram setpoint at 6 MW, scram delay time of 1 second,  reactor period of 12.5 seconds.  


What will be the approximate reactor power at the time of the scram due to this reactivity excursion?  
What will be the approximate reactor power at the time of the scram due to this reactivity excursion?
: a. 6.1 MW  b. 6.5 MW  
: a. 6.1 MW  b. 6.5 MW
: c. 7.2 MW  d. 12.5 MW  
: c. 7.2 MW  d. 12.5 MW  


Line 201: Line 201:


==Reference:==
==Reference:==
MIT Exam Bank Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question  A.004  (1.0 point)  [4.0] The fuel temperature coefficient of reactivity is -1.25E-4 delta k/k/deg.F. When a control rod with an average rod worth of 0.1% delta k/k/inch is withdrawn 10 inches, reactor power increases and becomes stable at a higher level. At this point, (ignoring any other temperature effects) the fuel temperature has:  
MIT Exam Bank Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question  A.004  (1.0 point)  [4.0] The fuel temperature coefficient of reactivity is -1.25E-4 delta k/k/deg.F. When a control rod with an average rod worth of 0.1% delta k/k/inch is withdrawn 10 inches, reactor power increases and becomes stable at a higher level. At this point, (ignoring any other temperature effects) the fuel temperature has:
: a. increased by 80 deg.F. b. decreased by 80 deg.F. c. increased by 8 deg.F. d. decreased by 8 deg.F.
: a. increased by 80 deg.F. b. decreased by 80 deg.F. c. increased by 8 deg.F. d. decreased by 8 deg.F.
Answer:  A.004  a.  
Answer:  A.004  a.  


==Reference:==
==Reference:==
Glasstone, Section 5.96  Reactivity added by control rod = +(0.001 k/k/inch)((10 inches) = 0.01 delta k/k Fuel temperature change = - reactivity of rod/fuel temp. coeff. =
Glasstone, Section 5.96  Reactivity added by control rod = +(0.001 k/k/inch)((10 inches) = 0.01 delta k/k Fuel temperature change = - reactivity of rod/fuel temp. coeff. =
(- 0.01 delta k/k)/(- 1.25E-4 delta k/k/deg. F) = 80 deg. F   
(- 0.01 delta k/k)/(- 1.25E-4 delta k/k/deg. F) = 80 deg. F   


Question  A.005  (1.0 point)  [5.0] Suppose the temperature coefficient of a core is -2.5 E10
Question  A.005  (1.0 point)  [5.0] Suppose the temperature coefficient of a core is -2.5 E10
-4 K/K/°C and the average control rod worth of the regulating control rod is 5.895 E10
-4 K/K/°C and the average control rod worth of the regulating control rod is 5.895 E10
-3 K/K/inch. If the temperature INCREASES by 50°C what will the automatic control command the regulating rod to do?  Select the answer that is closest to the calculated value.  
-3 K/K/inch. If the temperature INCREASES by 50°C what will the automatic control command the regulating rod to do?  Select the answer that is closest to the calculated value.
: a. 5.6 inches in  b. 2.1 inches out  
: a. 5.6 inches in  b. 2.1 inches out
: c. 0.5 inches in  
: c. 0.5 inches in
: d. 4.3 inches out Answer: A.005 b.  
: d. 4.3 inches out Answer: A.005 b.  


Line 223: Line 223:
-3 K/K/inch) = 2.12 inches  
-3 K/K/inch) = 2.12 inches  


Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.006  (1.0 point)  [6.0] During a reactor startup, criticality occurred at a lower rod height than the last startup. Which ONE of the following reasons could be the cause?  
Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.006  (1.0 point)  [6.0] During a reactor startup, criticality occurred at a lower rod height than the last startup. Which ONE of the following reasons could be the cause?
: a. Xe 135 peaked. b. Moderator temperature increased.  
: a. Xe 135 peaked. b. Moderator temperature increased.
: c. Adding an experiment with positive reactivity. d. Maintenance on the control rods resulted in a slightly faster rod speed.  
: c. Adding an experiment with positive reactivity. d. Maintenance on the control rods resulted in a slightly faster rod speed.  


Line 232: Line 232:


Question  A.007  (1.0 point)  [7.0] In a reactor at full power, the thermal neutron flux () is 2.5 x 10 12 neutrons/cm 2/sec. and the macroscopic fission cross-section f is 0.1 cm
Question  A.007  (1.0 point)  [7.0] In a reactor at full power, the thermal neutron flux () is 2.5 x 10 12 neutrons/cm 2/sec. and the macroscopic fission cross-section f is 0.1 cm
-1. The fission reaction rate is:  
-1. The fission reaction rate is:
: a. 2.5 x 10 11 fissions/sec. b. 2.5 x 10 13 fissions/sec. c. 2.5 x 10 11 fissions/cm 3/sec. d. 2.5 x 10 13 fissions/cm 3/sec. Answer: A.007 c.  
: a. 2.5 x 10 11 fissions/sec. b. 2.5 x 10 13 fissions/sec. c. 2.5 x 10 11 fissions/cm 3/sec. d. 2.5 x 10 13 fissions/cm 3/sec. Answer: A.007 c.  


==Reference:==
==Reference:==


Question  A.008  (1.0 point)  [8.0] Which ONE of the following explains the response of a SUBCRITICAL reactor to equal insertions of positive reactivity as the reactor approaches criticality?  Each insertion causes a
Question  A.008  (1.0 point)  [8.0] Which ONE of the following explains the response of a SUBCRITICAL reactor to equal insertions of positive reactivity as the reactor approaches criticality?  Each insertion causes a
: a. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize. b. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize. c. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize. d. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.  
: a. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize. b. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize. c. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize. d. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.  


Line 244: Line 244:
==Reference:==
==Reference:==


Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question  A.009  (1.0 point)  [9.0] A thin foil target of 10% copper and 90% aluminum is in a thermal neutron beam. Given a Cu = 3.79 barns,  a Al = 0.23 barns,  s Cu = 7.90 barns, and  s Al =1.49 barns, which ONE of the following reactions has the highest probability of occurring?  A neutron
Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question  A.009  (1.0 point)  [9.0] A thin foil target of 10% copper and 90% aluminum is in a thermal neutron beam. Given a Cu = 3.79 barns,  a Al = 0.23 barns,  s Cu = 7.90 barns, and  s Al =1.49 barns, which ONE of the following reactions has the highest probability of occurring?  A neutron
: a. scattering reaction with aluminum  b. scattering reaction with copper  c. absorption in aluminum  d. absorption in copper  
: a. scattering reaction with aluminum  b. scattering reaction with copper  c. absorption in aluminum  d. absorption in copper  


Line 252: Line 252:


Question  A.010  (1.0 point)  [10.0] A 1/M curve is being generated as fuel is loaded into a core. After some fuel elements have been loaded, the count rate existing at that time is taken to be the new initial count rate, CR
Question  A.010  (1.0 point)  [10.0] A 1/M curve is being generated as fuel is loaded into a core. After some fuel elements have been loaded, the count rate existing at that time is taken to be the new initial count rate, CR
: 0. Additional elements are then loaded and the inverse count rate ratio continues to decrease. As a result of changing the initial count rate:  
: 0. Additional elements are then loaded and the inverse count rate ratio continues to decrease. As a result of changing the initial count rate:
: a. criticality will occur with the same number of elements loaded. b. criticality will occur earlier (i.e. with fewer elements loaded.)  c. criticality will occur later (i.e. with more elements loaded.)  d. criticality will be completely unpredictable.
: a. criticality will occur with the same number of elements loaded. b. criticality will occur earlier (i.e. with fewer elements loaded.)  c. criticality will occur later (i.e. with more elements loaded.)  d. criticality will be completely unpredictable.
Answer: A.010 a.  
Answer: A.010 a.  
Line 259: Line 259:
MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Startup and Reactor Subcritical Multiplication  
MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Startup and Reactor Subcritical Multiplication  


Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.011  (1.0 point)  [11.0] Which ONE of the following is the reason that Xenon peaks after a shutdown?  a. Xenon decays faster than Iodine decays  
Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.011  (1.0 point)  [11.0] Which ONE of the following is the reason that Xenon peaks after a shutdown?  a. Xenon decays faster than Iodine decays
: b. Xenon decays faster than Tellurium  c. Iodine decays faster than Xenon decays  d. Tellurium decays faster than Xenon decays Answer: A.011 c.  
: b. Xenon decays faster than Tellurium  c. Iodine decays faster than Xenon decays  d. Tellurium decays faster than Xenon decays Answer: A.011 c.  


Line 265: Line 265:
MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Feedback Section(e)
MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Feedback Section(e)
Question  A.012  (1.0 point)  [12.0] Several processes within the core increase or decrease the number of neutrons in a generation.
Question  A.012  (1.0 point)  [12.0] Several processes within the core increase or decrease the number of neutrons in a generation.
Which ONE of the following six-factor terms describes a process which results in an INCREASE in the number of neutrons during the cycle?  
Which ONE of the following six-factor terms describes a process which results in an INCREASE in the number of neutrons during the cycle?
: a. Thermal Utilization Factor (f)  b. Resonance Escape Probability (p)  c. Thermal Non-Leakage Probability ( TH)  d. Reproduction Factor ()
: a. Thermal Utilization Factor (f)  b. Resonance Escape Probability (p)  c. Thermal Non-Leakage Probability ( TH)  d. Reproduction Factor ()
Answer: A.012 d.  
Answer: A.012 d.  
Line 276: Line 276:
Doubling the Count Rate results in halving the shutdown margin.
Doubling the Count Rate results in halving the shutdown margin.
CR 2/CR 1) = (1 - K eff1)/(1 - K eff2)  60/30 = (1 - 0.900)/(1 - K eff2) 1- K eff2 = 2  0.1 = 0.05  K eff2 = 1 - 0.05 = 0.95 Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question  A.014  (1.0 point)  [14.0]
CR 2/CR 1) = (1 - K eff1)/(1 - K eff2)  60/30 = (1 - 0.900)/(1 - K eff2) 1- K eff2 = 2  0.1 = 0.05  K eff2 = 1 - 0.05 = 0.95 Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question  A.014  (1.0 point)  [14.0]
The delayed neutron precursor  for U 235 is 0.0065. However, when calculating reactor parameters you use the effective delayed neutron precursor eff with a value of ~0.0070. Which ONE of the following is the correct reason that eff is larger than ?  a. Delayed neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons resulting in a greater worth for the neutrons.  
The delayed neutron precursor  for U 235 is 0.0065. However, when calculating reactor parameters you use the effective delayed neutron precursor eff with a value of ~0.0070. Which ONE of the following is the correct reason that eff is larger than ?  a. Delayed neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons resulting in a greater worth for the neutrons.
: b. Delayed neutrons are born at lower energies than prompt neutrons resulting in less leakage during slowdown to thermal energies.  
: b. Delayed neutrons are born at lower energies than prompt neutrons resulting in less leakage during slowdown to thermal energies.
: c. U 238 in the core becomes Pu 239 (by neutron absorption), which has a higher  for fission.  
: c. U 238 in the core becomes Pu 239 (by neutron absorption), which has a higher  for fission.
: d. The fuel also contains U 238 which has a relatively large  for fast fission.
: d. The fuel also contains U 238 which has a relatively large  for fast fission.
Answer: A.014 b.  
Answer: A.014 b.  
Line 284: Line 284:
==Reference:==
==Reference:==


Question  A.015  (1.0 point)  [15.0] You enter the control room and note that all nuclear instrumentation show a steady neutron level, and no rods are in motion. Which ONE of the following conditions CANNOT be true?  
Question  A.015  (1.0 point)  [15.0] You enter the control room and note that all nuclear instrumentation show a steady neutron level, and no rods are in motion. Which ONE of the following conditions CANNOT be true?
: a. The reactor is critical. b. The reactor is subcritical.  
: a. The reactor is critical. b. The reactor is subcritical.
: c. The reactor is supercritical.  
: c. The reactor is supercritical.
: d. The neutron source has been removed from the core.
: d. The neutron source has been removed from the core.
Answer: A.015 c.  
Answer: A.015 c.  
Line 299: Line 299:
Reactor Training Manual -Core Excess and Shutdown Margin.   
Reactor Training Manual -Core Excess and Shutdown Margin.   


Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.017  (1.0 point)  [17.0] Which ONE of the following is the definition of the term "Cross-Section?"  a. The probability that a neutron will be captured by a nucleus.
Section A  Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question  A.017  (1.0 point)  [17.0] Which ONE of the following is the definition of the term "Cross-Section?"  a. The probability that a neutron will be captured by a nucleus.
: b. The most likely energy at which a charge particle will be captured. c. The length a charged particle travels past the nucleus before being captured. d. The area of the nucleus including the electron cloud.
: b. The most likely energy at which a charge particle will be captured. c. The length a charged particle travels past the nucleus before being captured. d. The area of the nucleus including the electron cloud.
Answer: A.017 a.  
Answer: A.017 a.  
Line 306: Line 306:
Reactor Training Manual -Cross Section.   
Reactor Training Manual -Cross Section.   


Question  A.018  (1.0 point)  [18.0] The method for determining Calculated Thermal Power is described by:  a. Primary power plus reflector power plus shield power. b. Primary power plus reflector power minus shield power.
Question  A.018  (1.0 point)  [18.0] The method for determining Calculated Thermal Power is described by:  a. Primary power plus reflector power plus shield power. b. Primary power plus reflector power minus shield power.
: c. Primary power plus shield power minus reflector power. d. Primary power minus reflector power minus shield power.   
: c. Primary power plus shield power minus reflector power. d. Primary power minus reflector power minus shield power.   


Line 314: Line 314:
PM 2.4, pg. 5   
PM 2.4, pg. 5   


Question  A.019  (1.0 point)  [19.0] The peak differential reactivity worth of the shim blades occur at the midpoints of their calibration curves, but the peak differential reactivity worth of the regulating rod occurs at the  bottom of its calibration curve because:
Question  A.019  (1.0 point)  [19.0] The peak differential reactivity worth of the shim blades occur at the midpoints of their calibration curves, but the peak differential reactivity worth of the regulating rod occurs at the  bottom of its calibration curve because:
: a. the regulating rod is made of cadmium and the shim blades of boron-impregnated stainless steel.
: a. the regulating rod is made of cadmium and the shim blades of boron-impregnated stainless steel.
: b. the regulating rod is shadowed by the shim bank when it is above the bank height.
: b. the regulating rod is shadowed by the shim bank when it is above the bank height.
: c. the regulating rod is a cylinder, while the blades are paddle-shaped.
: c. the regulating rod is a cylinder, while the blades are paddle-shaped.
: d. the 'full-in' position of the regulating rod is six inches above that of the shim blades.
: d. the 'full-in' position of the regulating rod is six inches above that of the shim blades.
Answer: A.019 d.  
Answer: A.019 d.  
Line 331: Line 331:
Reactor Physics Notes, Reactivity Feedback   
Reactor Physics Notes, Reactivity Feedback   


Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.001  (1.0 point)  [1.0]  During a reactor startup you reach 0.5 inches above the Estimate Critical Position for the Shim Bank and the reactor is still subcritical. Which one of the following action is INCORRECT?  a. Recheck sample reactivates. b. If no discrepancy found notify the Superintendent.  
Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.001  (1.0 point)  [1.0]  During a reactor startup you reach 0.5 inches above the Estimate Critical Position for the Shim Bank and the reactor is still subcritical. Which one of the following action is INCORRECT?  a. Recheck sample reactivates. b. If no discrepancy found notify the Superintendent.
: c. Immediately drive bank in to 1.0" or more below ECP. d. Drive each blade out and check neutron level to ensure blade coupled.  
: c. Immediately drive bank in to 1.0" or more below ECP. d. Drive each blade out and check neutron level to ensure blade coupled.  


Line 341: Line 341:
Question  B.002  (1.0 point)  [2.0]  Which ONE of the following will indicate that a shim blade has become stuck/inoperable during normal  
Question  B.002  (1.0 point)  [2.0]  Which ONE of the following will indicate that a shim blade has become stuck/inoperable during normal  


operations?
operations?
: a. Reactor stability will be difficult to control when increasing power. b. Automatic control will detect a problem and give a "Control on Manual" alarm. c. Reactor period will not change when blade insertion switch is pressed. d. Blade drive will start binding and "Shim Servo Error" alarm will appear.
: a. Reactor stability will be difficult to control when increasing power. b. Automatic control will detect a problem and give a "Control on Manual" alarm. c. Reactor period will not change when blade insertion switch is pressed. d. Blade drive will start binding and "Shim Servo Error" alarm will appear.
Answer: B.002 c.  
Answer: B.002 c.  
Line 349: Line 349:


Question  B.003  (1.0 point)  [3.0]  Suppose you remove a sample from the core, which contains 5 Ci of Au-190. This source has a half-life of 43 minutes and emits 295 keV gamma rays 100% of the time. What will be the approximate dose rate at 5 feet from the source if the sample decays for 10 minutes after being removed from the core?
Question  B.003  (1.0 point)  [3.0]  Suppose you remove a sample from the core, which contains 5 Ci of Au-190. This source has a half-life of 43 minutes and emits 295 keV gamma rays 100% of the time. What will be the approximate dose rate at 5 feet from the source if the sample decays for 10 minutes after being removed from the core?
Do NOT take any of the intermediate or subsequent radionuclides into consideration.  
Do NOT take any of the intermediate or subsequent radionuclides into consideration.
: a. 100 mrem/hr b. 200 mrem/hr c. 300 mrem/hr d. 400 mrem/hr Answer: B.003 c.  
: a. 100 mrem/hr b. 200 mrem/hr c. 300 mrem/hr d. 400 mrem/hr Answer: B.003 c.  


Line 355: Line 355:
Standard NRC Question  
Standard NRC Question  


Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.004  (1.0 point)  [4.0]  Nitrogen-16 is produced by neutron absorption of Oxygen-16. A majority of the Nitrogen-16 decays by:  
Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.004  (1.0 point)  [4.0]  Nitrogen-16 is produced by neutron absorption of Oxygen-16. A majority of the Nitrogen-16 decays by:
: a. a 6.1 MeV gamma with a half-life of 7 seconds. b. a 1.3 MeV beta with a half-life of 7 seconds.
: a. a 6.1 MeV gamma with a half-life of 7 seconds. b. a 1.3 MeV beta with a half-life of 7 seconds.
: c. neutron emission with a half-life of 1.8 hours. d. a 1.3 MeV gamma with a half-life of 1.8 hours.
: c. neutron emission with a half-life of 1.8 hours. d. a 1.3 MeV gamma with a half-life of 1.8 hours.
Answer: B.004 a.  
Answer: B.004 a.  
Line 363: Line 363:
Chart of The Nuclides: http://www2.bnl.gov/ton
Chart of The Nuclides: http://www2.bnl.gov/ton


Question  B.005  (1.0 point)  [5.0]  What action should always be taken to maximize effectiveness of the emergency plan for radiological emergencies?  
Question  B.005  (1.0 point)  [5.0]  What action should always be taken to maximize effectiveness of the emergency plan for radiological emergencies?
: a. Minor scram . b. Shut down the reactor; Isolate containment. c. Shut down the reactor;  Leave ventilation on. b. Lower shim blades to subcritical; Isolate containment.
: a. Minor scram . b. Shut down the reactor; Isolate containment. c. Shut down the reactor;  Leave ventilation on. b. Lower shim blades to subcritical; Isolate containment.
Answer:  B.005  b.  
Answer:  B.005  b.  
Line 370: Line 370:
E-Plan Sect. 4.3.1.2.1  
E-Plan Sect. 4.3.1.2.1  


Question  B.006  (1.0 point)  [6.0]  What must be done in order to continue operation if a single plenum radiation monitor becomes inoperative due to a plugged flow line and the containment isolates?  
Question  B.006  (1.0 point)  [6.0]  What must be done in order to continue operation if a single plenum radiation monitor becomes inoperative due to a plugged flow line and the containment isolates?
: a. Bypass by selecting a different plenum channel and restart ventilation. b. Bypass affected channel using key switch and restart ventilation.  
: a. Bypass by selecting a different plenum channel and restart ventilation. b. Bypass affected channel using key switch and restart ventilation.
: c. Replace plugged flow line and restart ventilation. d. Operation is not allowed.   
: c. Replace plugged flow line and restart ventilation. d. Operation is not allowed.   


Line 379: Line 379:
AOP 5.6.3  
AOP 5.6.3  


Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.007  (1.0 point)  [7.0]  A reactor containment evacuation is required. T he Reactor Operator performs the Immediate Actions necessary to evacuate personnel from Containment. If the radiation level in the control room is 150 mrem/hr, what is the Reactor Operator's MAXIMUM stay time?  
Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.007  (1.0 point)  [7.0]  A reactor containment evacuation is required. T he Reactor Operator performs the Immediate Actions necessary to evacuate personnel from Containment. If the radiation level in the control room is 150 mrem/hr, what is the Reactor Operator's MAXIMUM stay time?
: a. 40 minutes  b. 3.2 hours  c. 6.7 hours  d. 13.3 hours  
: a. 40 minutes  b. 3.2 hours  c. 6.7 hours  d. 13.3 hours  


Line 387: Line 387:
PM 4.4.4.12, p. 2  1000mr/150mr/hr = 6.7 hrs  
PM 4.4.4.12, p. 2  1000mr/150mr/hr = 6.7 hrs  


Question  B.008  (1.0 point)  [8.0]  Which one of the following statements is NOT a violation of Technical Specifications?  
Question  B.008  (1.0 point)  [8.0]  Which one of the following statements is NOT a violation of Technical Specifications?
: a. Operating with one inoperable shim blade fully inserted. b. Reactor power is 100 kW and emergency power is not available. c. Reactor power is 150 kW with the emergency cooling system inoperable. d. Reactor power is 2 MW, one primary pump in se rvice, and the total coolant flow rate is 1000 gpm. Answer:  B.008  d.  
: a. Operating with one inoperable shim blade fully inserted. b. Reactor power is 100 kW and emergency power is not available. c. Reactor power is 150 kW with the emergency cooling system inoperable. d. Reactor power is 2 MW, one primary pump in se rvice, and the total coolant flow rate is 1000 gpm. Answer:  B.008  d.  


Line 393: Line 393:
T.S. p. 2-2  (LSSS)  
T.S. p. 2-2  (LSSS)  


Question  B.009  (1.0 point)  [9.0]  Which one of the following statements is a requirement when performing maintenance on a system that could jeopardize personnel safety?  
Question  B.009  (1.0 point)  [9.0]  Which one of the following statements is a requirement when performing maintenance on a system that could jeopardize personnel safety?
: a. Circuit breakers should be padlocked open and the person who will be performing the work shall retain the key to the padlock on his person until completion of the work.  
: a. Circuit breakers should be padlocked open and the person who will be performing the work shall retain the key to the padlock on his person until completion of the work.
: b. Tags may be removed by any member of the NRL/RPO staff. If there is doubt as to whether the tag should be cleared, the Operator-in-Charge should be consulted.  
: b. Tags may be removed by any member of the NRL/RPO staff. If there is doubt as to whether the tag should be cleared, the Operator-in-Charge should be consulted.
: c. The on-duty console operator or a licensed operator shall observe the performance of the system lock out and verify that the system is in a safe condition.  
: c. The on-duty console operator or a licensed operator shall observe the performance of the system lock out and verify that the system is in a safe condition.
: d. Any member of the NRL/RPO staff including electronics and maintenance may remove lockouts when under the direction of a licensed senior operator.
: d. Any member of the NRL/RPO staff including electronics and maintenance may remove lockouts when under the direction of a licensed senior operator.
Answer:  B.009  a.  
Answer:  B.009  a.  
Line 403: Line 403:
PM 1.14.3 pg 1 of 9 {dated 9/08/2011}
PM 1.14.3 pg 1 of 9 {dated 9/08/2011}
Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.010  (1.0 point)  [10.0]
Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.010  (1.0 point)  [10.0]
A declared " non-routine" reactor startup is performed to insure that  
A declared " non-routine" reactor startup is performed to insure that
:  a. a thermal power calibration is completed at 1 KW. b. power level scrams are properly set prior to attaining full power. c. the actual critical position is within the limits of the extrapolated ECP. d. axial power distribution shifts are plotted on an experiment free core.  
:  a. a thermal power calibration is completed at 1 KW. b. power level scrams are properly set prior to attaining full power. c. the actual critical position is within the limits of the extrapolated ECP. d. axial power distribution shifts are plotted on an experiment free core.  


Line 411: Line 411:
PM 2.3.2 {dated 11/07/2011}  
PM 2.3.2 {dated 11/07/2011}  


Question  B.011  (1.0 point)  [11.0]  If the Technical Specification limit for Tritium in the secondary coolant system is exceeded, all of the following actions must be performed EXCEPT:  
Question  B.011  (1.0 point)  [11.0]  If the Technical Specification limit for Tritium in the secondary coolant system is exceeded, all of the following actions must be performed EXCEPT:
: a. Secure the secondary system water discharge flow. b. Stop the reactor building ventilation system.  
: a. Secure the secondary system water discharge flow. b. Stop the reactor building ventilation system.
: c. Isolate the reflector heat exchanger.  
: c. Isolate the reflector heat exchanger.
: d. Shut down the cooling tower spray.
: d. Shut down the cooling tower spray.
Answer:  B.011 b.  
Answer:  B.011 b.  
Line 420: Line 420:
TS 3.7.2  
TS 3.7.2  


Question  B.012  (1.0 point)  [12.0]  Which ONE of the following is the reason for the irradiation time limit associated with the use of rabbits?  
Question  B.012  (1.0 point)  [12.0]  Which ONE of the following is the reason for the irradiation time limit associated with the use of rabbits?
: a. prevent swelling of containers. b. maintain internal container size.  
: a. prevent swelling of containers. b. maintain internal container size.
: c. prevent embrittlement of the polyethelyene containers. d. limit radioactive gas release in the event of a container failure.  
: c. prevent embrittlement of the polyethelyene containers. d. limit radioactive gas release in the event of a container failure.  


Line 429: Line 429:
PM 1.10.8.1.1, Step 9, p 10.  
PM 1.10.8.1.1, Step 9, p 10.  


Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.013  (1.0 point)  [13.0]  You note that 1 cm of a material (used as a shield) reduces the radiation level from a given source by a factor of 2. If you add another nine cm of the material (for a total of 10 cm), you would expect the radiation level to be reduced by a factor of approximately ____ over no shielding.  (Note: Ignore dose decrease due to distance, and decay.)  
Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.013  (1.0 point)  [13.0]  You note that 1 cm of a material (used as a shield) reduces the radiation level from a given source by a factor of 2. If you add another nine cm of the material (for a total of 10 cm), you would expect the radiation level to be reduced by a factor of approximately ____ over no shielding.  (Note: Ignore dose decrease due to distance, and decay.)
: a. 20  b. 100  c. 200  d. 1,000 Answer: B.013 d.  
: a. 20  b. 100  c. 200  d. 1,000 Answer: B.013 d.  


Line 448: Line 448:
Standard Health Physics Definition.  
Standard Health Physics Definition.  


Question  B.017  (1.0 point)  [17.0]  Safety Limits are -
Question  B.017  (1.0 point)  [17.0]  Safety Limits are -
: a. limits on variables associated with core thermal and hydraulic performance which are established to protect the integrity of the fuel clad.
: a. limits on variables associated with core thermal and hydraulic performance which are established to protect the integrity of the fuel clad.
: b. settings for automatic protective devices related to those variables having significant safety functions.
: b. settings for automatic protective devices related to those variables having significant safety functions.
: c. settings for ANSI 15.8 suggested reactor scrams and/or alarms which form the protective system for the reactor or provide information which requires manual protective action to be initiated.
: c. settings for ANSI 15.8 suggested reactor scrams and/or alarms which form the protective system for the reactor or provide information which requires manual protective action to be initiated.
: d. the lowest functional capability or performance levels of equipment required for safe operation of the reactor.   
: d. the lowest functional capability or performance levels of equipment required for safe operation of the reactor.   


Line 459: Line 459:
TS 2.1     
TS 2.1     


Question  B.018  (1.0 point)  [18.0]  Containment integrity is required whenever:
Question  B.018  (1.0 point)  [18.0]  Containment integrity is required whenever:
: a. the H2 concentration in the air space above the core exceeds 1.0 volume percent.
: a. the H2 concentration in the air space above the core exceeds 1.0 volume percent.
: b. maintenance is being performed on the rod control system.
: b. maintenance is being performed on the rod control system.
: c. the reactor is not secured.
: c. the reactor is not secured.
: d. the emergency cooling system is not operable.   
: d. the emergency cooling system is not operable.   


Line 470: Line 470:
TS 3.5.1   
TS 3.5.1   


Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.019  (1.0 point)  [19.0]  According to the Emergency Plan, the Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ) is
Section B  Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question  B.019  (1.0 point)  [19.0]  According to the Emergency Plan, the Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ) is
: a. the area within the containment building including the airlocks.  
: a. the area within the containment building including the airlocks.
: b. the area included within the containment building, buildings NW-12 and NW-13 and the chain link fence surrounding the areas outside.  
: b. the area included within the containment building, buildings NW-12 and NW-13 and the chain link fence surrounding the areas outside.
: c. the area within a 100 foot radius of the reactor.  
: c. the area within a 100 foot radius of the reactor.
: d. the area within a 100 meter radius of the containment building.   
: d. the area within a 100 meter radius of the containment building.   


Line 480: Line 480:
==Reference:==
==Reference:==


Question  B.020  (1.0 point)  [20.0]  If the reactor core tank level cannot be maintained at or above the low level scram (-4"), what class of emergency would be declared?  
Question  B.020  (1.0 point)  [20.0]  If the reactor core tank level cannot be maintained at or above the low level scram (-4"), what class of emergency would be declared?
: a. Unusual Event  b. Alert  c. Site Area  d. General Answer: B.020 a.   
: a. Unusual Event  b. Alert  c. Site Area  d. General Answer: B.020 a.   


Line 493: Line 493:
MIT Reactor Systems Manual, Section 2.5 and 8.6  
MIT Reactor Systems Manual, Section 2.5 and 8.6  


Question:  C.002  (1.0 point)  [2.0] Which ONE of the following describes the expected response in the event both door gaskets are deflated simultaneously on the Main Personnel Basement Air Lock?
Question:  C.002  (1.0 point)  [2.0] Which ONE of the following describes the expected response in the event both door gaskets are deflated simultaneously on the Main Personnel Basement Air Lock?
: a. The reactor will automatically scram.        b. Campus Patrol receives an "INTRUSION" alarm.
: a. The reactor will automatically scram.        b. Campus Patrol receives an "INTRUSION" alarm.
: c. The Backup bottle of compressed air automatically supplies the door gaskets.
: c. The Backup bottle of compressed air automatically supplies the door gaskets.
: d. A "LOW PRESSURE AIR" alarm is received in the control room and reception area.
: d. A "LOW PRESSURE AIR" alarm is received in the control room and reception area.
Answer:  C.002  a.  
Answer:  C.002  a.  
Line 509: Line 509:
SAR Section 5.4.1.2  
SAR Section 5.4.1.2  


Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.004  (1.0 point)  [4.0] A gas purge is maintained on the vertical sample thimbles while the reactor is operating. Which one of the following gases is used for this purge and why?  
Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.004  (1.0 point)  [4.0] A gas purge is maintained on the vertical sample thimbles while the reactor is operating. Which one of the following gases is used for this purge and why?
: a. He, to reduce the production of Ar 41 and N 16. b. N 2 , to  reduce the production of Ar 41 and N 16. c. CO 2, to reduce the production of Ar 41 and Nitrous Oxide. d. Ar 40 , to aid in the production of Ar 41 for gamma production.  
: a. He, to reduce the production of Ar 41 and N 16. b. N 2 , to  reduce the production of Ar 41 and N 16. c. CO 2, to reduce the production of Ar 41 and Nitrous Oxide. d. Ar 40 , to aid in the production of Ar 41 for gamma production.  


Line 517: Line 517:
SAR Section 10.2.6  
SAR Section 10.2.6  


Question:  C.005  (1.0 point)  [5.0] The surveillance system is activated. An alarm on the center scam panel will cause an audible alarm at all of the below listed areas except Y  a. the Reactor floor. b. the Utility room.  
Question:  C.005  (1.0 point)  [5.0] The surveillance system is activated. An alarm on the center scam panel will cause an audible alarm at all of the below listed areas except Y  a. the Reactor floor. b. the Utility room.
: c. the Reception desk. d. the Operations Office.  
: c. the Reception desk. d. the Operations Office.  


Line 525: Line 525:
MITR-II Reactor Systems Manual, ' 9.5, p. 17  
MITR-II Reactor Systems Manual, ' 9.5, p. 17  


Question:  C.006  (1.0 point)  [6.0] Which one of the following is the correct type of detector used for Nuclear Instrumentation Channel 9 (used as input to the regulating rod automatic control circuit)?  
Question:  C.006  (1.0 point)  [6.0] Which one of the following is the correct type of detector used for Nuclear Instrumentation Channel 9 (used as input to the regulating rod automatic control circuit)?
: a. Fission Chamber  b. Boron Lined Compensated Ion Chamber  
: a. Fission Chamber  b. Boron Lined Compensated Ion Chamber
: c. Boron Lined Uncompensated Ion Chamber  
: c. Boron Lined Uncompensated Ion Chamber
: d. Unlined Ion Chamber Answer: C.006 d.
: d. Unlined Ion Chamber Answer: C.006 d.
changed to a. due to typographical error.
changed to a. due to typographical error.
Line 534: Line 534:
MITR-II Reactor Systems Manual  
MITR-II Reactor Systems Manual  
' 5.6.3, p. 5.9.
' 5.6.3, p. 5.9.
Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.007  (1.0 point)  [7.0] Which ONE of the following alarm conditions will result in an automatic scram?  a. High Pressure Reactor Inlet. b. High Level Emergency Power Channel.
Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.007  (1.0 point)  [7.0] Which ONE of the following alarm conditions will result in an automatic scram?  a. High Pressure Reactor Inlet. b. High Level Emergency Power Channel.
: c. Low Level Dump Tank.
: c. Low Level Dump Tank.
: d. Low Flow Shield Coolant.   
: d. Low Flow Shield Coolant.   


Line 543: Line 543:
RSM, Pages 9.3 to 9.5   
RSM, Pages 9.3 to 9.5   


Question:  C.008  (1.0 point)  [8.0] What action should always be taken to maximize effectiveness of the emergency plan for airborne releases?
Question:  C.008  (1.0 point)  [8.0] What action should always be taken to maximize effectiveness of the emergency plan for airborne releases?
: a. Shut down the reactor; Isolate containment. b. Shut down the reactor; Leave ventilation on.
: a. Shut down the reactor; Isolate containment. b. Shut down the reactor; Leave ventilation on.
: c. Lower shim blades to subcritical; Isolate containment.
: c. Lower shim blades to subcritical; Isolate containment.
: d. Minor scram.
: d. Minor scram.
Answer: C.008 a.  
Answer: C.008 a.  
Line 552: Line 552:
Emergency Plan Section 4.3.1.2.1.   
Emergency Plan Section 4.3.1.2.1.   


Question:  C.009  (1.0 point)  [9.0] Which ONE of the following indications is not indicative of a fission product release from a fuel element?
Question:  C.009  (1.0 point)  [9.0] Which ONE of the following indications is not indicative of a fission product release from a fuel element?
: a. Increasing readings on core purge monitor. b. Increasing readings on plenum air monitor.
: a. Increasing readings on core purge monitor. b. Increasing readings on plenum air monitor.
: c. Increasing readings on N-16 monitor. d. Increasing readings on NW12 gamma monitor.   
: c. Increasing readings on N-16 monitor. d. Increasing readings on NW12 gamma monitor.   


Line 561: Line 561:
AOP PM 5.8.2   
AOP PM 5.8.2   


Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.010  (1.0 point)  [10.0] The operator in the control room would be required to notify personnel on the reactor top, if during refueling:
Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.010  (1.0 point)  [10.0] The operator in the control room would be required to notify personnel on the reactor top, if during refueling:
: a. a positive steady-state period is observed when no fuel or dummies are being moved.
: a. a positive steady-state period is observed when no fuel or dummies are being moved.
: b. a negative steady-state period is observed while fuel or dummies are being moved.
: b. a negative steady-state period is observed while fuel or dummies are being moved.
: c. subcritical multiplication levels decrease by a factor of 2 or more.  
: c. subcritical multiplication levels decrease by a factor of 2 or more.
: d. radiation levels decrease by a factor of 2 or more.   
: d. radiation levels decrease by a factor of 2 or more.   


Line 572: Line 572:
PM 3.3.1, p 3 .   
PM 3.3.1, p 3 .   


Question:  C.011  (1.0 point)  [11.0] Which ONE of the following actions should the console operator perform immediately, if during a NW13 rabbit irradiation, the rabbit station radiation monitor alarms?
Question:  C.011  (1.0 point)  [11.0] Which ONE of the following actions should the console operator perform immediately, if during a NW13 rabbit irradiation, the rabbit station radiation monitor alarms?
: a. Eject the sample into the hot cell using the "Abort Auto Transfer" pushbutton.
: a. Eject the sample into the hot cell using the "Abort Auto Transfer" pushbutton.
: b. Shutdown the reactor and when radiation levels are less than the permissible limit, use the 1PH1 "Eject" pushbutton to remove the sample.
: b. Shutdown the reactor and when radiation levels are less than the permissible limit, use the 1PH1 "Eject" pushbutton to remove the sample.
: c. Commence a normal reactor shutdown and dump the reflector.
: c. Commence a normal reactor shutdown and dump the reflector.
: d. Depress and hold the radiation alarm reset pushbutton to allow for the automatic transfer of the sample.
: d. Depress and hold the radiation alarm reset pushbutton to allow for the automatic transfer of the sample.
Answer: C.011 a.   
Answer: C.011 a.   
Line 582: Line 582:
PM 1.10.8.2   
PM 1.10.8.2   


Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.012  (1.0 point)  [12.0] The primary concern associated with the pressure relief system charcoal filters becoming submersed during a large leak of primary coolant is:
Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.012  (1.0 point)  [12.0] The primary concern associated with the pressure relief system charcoal filters becoming submersed during a large leak of primary coolant is:
: a. loss of efficiency in removing particulates. b. possible spontaneous combustion during dryout.
: a. loss of efficiency in removing particulates. b. possible spontaneous combustion during dryout.
: c. reduction in relief flow capability to relieve pressure. d. possible spread of contamination from leaks in the filter housing.   
: c. reduction in relief flow capability to relieve pressure. d. possible spread of contamination from leaks in the filter housing.   


Line 591: Line 591:
PM 5.2.14   
PM 5.2.14   


Question:  C.013  (1.0 point)  [13.0] To prevent a catastrophic loss of pressure, all Differential Pressure system containment penetrations -  
Question:  C.013  (1.0 point)  [13.0] To prevent a catastrophic loss of pressure, all Differential Pressure system containment penetrations -
: a. contain a 1/32 inch diameter orifice  b. have a quick shutting solenoid valve  c. are submerged in a "water seal trap"  d. have check valves preventing air from leaking into the containment.   
: a. contain a 1/32 inch diameter orifice  b. have a quick shutting solenoid valve  c. are submerged in a "water seal trap"  d. have check valves preventing air from leaking into the containment.   


Line 599: Line 599:
SAR Section 9.4  
SAR Section 9.4  


Question:  C.014  (1.0 point)  [14.0] What is the purpose of the long hold up chamber, or plenum, in the exhaust air system?  
Question:  C.014  (1.0 point)  [14.0] What is the purpose of the long hold up chamber, or plenum, in the exhaust air system?
: a. To allow for the thorough measurement of the radiation levels in the exhaust air.  
: a. To allow for the thorough measurement of the radiation levels in the exhaust air.
: b. To enable the shorter lived activation products to decay before they are exhausted.  
: b. To enable the shorter lived activation products to decay before they are exhausted.
: c. To filter out the particulates that would result in an airborne radiation release to the environment.  
: c. To filter out the particulates that would result in an airborne radiation release to the environment.
: d. To delay the exhaust long enough for the butterfly dampers to close if the plenum monitor alarms.
: d. To delay the exhaust long enough for the butterfly dampers to close if the plenum monitor alarms.
Answer: C.014 d.  
Answer: C.014 d.  
Line 610: Line 610:


Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.015  (1.0 point)  [15.0]
Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.015  (1.0 point)  [15.0]
What is indicated when an alarm on the annunciator alarm (SCAM) panel is silent, but is continuously brightly lit?  
What is indicated when an alarm on the annunciator alarm (SCAM) panel is silent, but is continuously brightly lit?
: a. The alarm condition has been corrected but not acknowledged. b. The alarm condition has been acknowledged but not corrected.  
: a. The alarm condition has been corrected but not acknowledged. b. The alarm condition has been acknowledged but not corrected.
: c. The alarm condition has neither been acknowledged nor corrected. d. The alarm condition has been acknowledged and corrected and only serves as a reminder to the operator.   
: c. The alarm condition has neither been acknowledged nor corrected. d. The alarm condition has been acknowledged and corrected and only serves as a reminder to the operator.   


Line 619: Line 619:
SAR Section 7.6.4  
SAR Section 7.6.4  


Question:  C.016  (1.0 point)  [16.0] The neutron absorbing sections of the shim control rods contain boron impregnated -  a. graphite  
Question:  C.016  (1.0 point)  [16.0] The neutron absorbing sections of the shim control rods contain boron impregnated -  a. graphite
: b. aluminum  
: b. aluminum
: c. cadmium  
: c. cadmium
: d. stainless steel Answer: C.016 d.  
: d. stainless steel Answer: C.016 d.  


Line 627: Line 627:
SAR Section 4.2  
SAR Section 4.2  


Question:  C.017  (1.0 point)  [17.0] During an accident the Containment Building approaches its design pressure. Which one of the following is the design feature which provides over-pressure protection for the containment?  
Question:  C.017  (1.0 point)  [17.0] During an accident the Containment Building approaches its design pressure. Which one of the following is the design feature which provides over-pressure protection for the containment?
: a. A pressure relief blower automatically initiates at 2.0 psig. b. A containment relief valve will automatically open at 1.75 psig.  
: a. A pressure relief blower automatically initiates at 2.0 psig. b. A containment relief valve will automatically open at 1.75 psig.
: c. A manually operated relief valve may be opened to protect containment. d. The main damper will cycle open and closed to maintain containment pressure less than 1.75 psig.
: c. A manually operated relief valve may be opened to protect containment. d. The main damper will cycle open and closed to maintain containment pressure less than 1.75 psig.
Answer: C.017 c.  
Answer: C.017 c.  


==Reference:==
==Reference:==
SAR Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.018  (1.0 point)  [18.0] If the normal heat removal path is NOT available for the Shutdown Cooling System, alternative cooling can be obtained from the:
SAR Section C  Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question:  C.018  (1.0 point)  [18.0] If the normal heat removal path is NOT available for the Shutdown Cooling System, alternative cooling can be obtained from the:
: a. fire protection system. b. secondary cooling system.
: a. fire protection system. b. secondary cooling system.
: c. city water supply to HE-2. d. H 2O medical shutter cooling system.   
: c. city water supply to HE-2. d. H 2O medical shutter cooling system.   


Line 640: Line 640:


==Reference:==
==Reference:==
SAR Question:  C.019  (1.0 point)  [19.0] In addition to Nuclear Instrumentation channels 1 through 9, reactor power may also be estimated using which ONE of the listed radiation monitors?  
SAR Question:  C.019  (1.0 point)  [19.0] In addition to Nuclear Instrumentation channels 1 through 9, reactor power may also be estimated using which ONE of the listed radiation monitors?
: a. Argon-41  b. Reactor Top  c. Medical Room  d. Linear N-16   
: a. Argon-41  b. Reactor Top  c. Medical Room  d. Linear N-16   


Line 649: Line 649:


Question:  C.020  (1.0 point)  [20.0]
Question:  C.020  (1.0 point)  [20.0]
Which ONE of the following is NOT a function associated with the reactor upper grid?  a. Trip primary pump if grid is unlatched. b. Limit refueling to one element position at a time.  
Which ONE of the following is NOT a function associated with the reactor upper grid?  a. Trip primary pump if grid is unlatched. b. Limit refueling to one element position at a time.
: c. Ensure blades are fully inserted before a refueling is initiated. d. Provide a position for source installation if counts are below minimum for a startup.   
: c. Ensure blades are fully inserted before a refueling is initiated. d. Provide a position for source installation if counts are below minimum for a startup.   



Revision as of 05:33, 29 April 2019

Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-12-03, Massachusetts Intstitute of Technology
ML12276A183
Person / Time
Site: MIT Nuclear Research Reactor
Issue date: 10/04/2012
From: Bowman G T
Division of Policy and Rulemaking
To: Moncton D E
Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
Young P T
Shared Package
ML12150A033 List:
References
50-20/OL-12-03
Download: ML12276A183 (31)


Text

October 4, 2012

Dr. David E. Moncton, Director of the Nuclear Reactor Laboratory Massachusetts Institute of Technology

138 Albany Street Mail Stop NW 12-208 Cambridge, MA 02139

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT No. 50-020/OL-12-03, MASSACHUSETTS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

Dear Dr. Moncton:

During the week of September 3, 2012, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations at your MIT reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. Phillip T. Young at (301) 415-4094 or via internet e-mail phillip.young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/ Greg Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation

Docket No.50-020

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-12-03
2. Written examination with facility comments incorporated

cc w/o enclosures: See next page Dr. David E. Moncton, Director October 4, 2012 of the Nuclear Reactor Laboratory Massachusetts Institute of Technology 138 Albany Street Mail Stop NW 12-208 Cambridge, MA 02139

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT No. 50-020/OL-12-03, MASSACHUSETTS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

Dear Dr. Moncton:

During the week of September 3, 2012, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations at your MIT reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. Phillip T. Young at (301) 415-4094 or via internet e-mail phillip.young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/ Greg Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No.50-020

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-020/OL-12-03
2. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc w/o enclosures: See next page DISTRIBUTION w/ encls.: PUBLIC PRTB r/f RidsNRRDPRPRTA RidsNRRDPRPRTB Facility File (CRevelle) O-7 F-08 ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML12276A183 TEMPLATE #:NRR-074 OFFICE PRTB:CE IOLB:LA E PRTB:BC NAME PYoung CRevelle GBowman DATE 10/04 /2012 10/02 /2012 10/04/2012 OFFICIAL RECORD COPY

Massachusetts Institute of Technology Docket No. 50-20

cc:

City Manager

City Hall Cambridge, MA 02139

Department of Environmental Protection

One Winter Street Boston, MA 02108

Mr. Robert Gallagher, Acting Director Radiation Control Program Department of Public Health

Schrafft Center, Suite 1M2A 529 Main Street Charlestown, MA 02129

Nuclear Preparedness Manager Massachusetts Emergency Management Agency 400 Worcester Road Framingham, MA 01702-5399

Test, Research, and Training Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center

Gainesville, FL 32611

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT

REPORT NO.: 50-20/OL-12-03

FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-20

FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-37

FACILITY: MITR-II

EXAMINATION DATES: September 3 - 6, 2012

SUBMITTED BY: __________________________ _________

Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of September 3, 2012 the NRC adm inistered licensing examinations to three Reactor Operator (RO) applicants and three Senior Reactor Operator-Upgrade (SROU) applicants. One SROU applicant failed the operating test. All other applicants passed all portions of their these examinations.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiners: Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner, NRC
2. Results:

RO PASS/FAILSRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAILWritten 3/00

/03/0 Operating Tests 3/02

/15/1 Overall 3/02

/15/1 3. Exit Meeting:

Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner, NRC Dr. John A. Bernard, Jr., MIT Mr. Ed Lau, MIT, Mr. John Foster, MIT Mr. Frank Warmsley, MIT

At the conclusion of the examinations the chief examiner thanked the facility for their support during the examinations. The examiner discussed some generic weaknesses observed.

ENCLOSURE 1

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER INITIAL REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION

FACILITY: Massachusetts Institute of Technology

REACTOR TYPE: MITR II Research HW

DATE ADMINISTERED: 01/31/2011

CANDIDATE: _____________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach the answer sheets to the examination. Points for each question are indicated in brackets for each question. A 70% in each section is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% of Category % of Candidates Category

Value Total Score Value Category 20.00 33.3 A. Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics and Facility Operating Characteristics

20.00 33.3 B. Normal and Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls 20.00 33.3 C. Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

60.00  % TOTALS FINAL GRADE

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

______________________________________ Candidate's Signature

ENCLOSURE 2

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS

During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each answer sheet.
6. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap

paper. 10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your answer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
13. When you have completed and turned in you ex amination, leave the examination area. If you are observed in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked.

EQUATION SHEET's

úQúmc pTúmHUAT Pmax()2 2(k) 1 x 104seconds eff0.1seconds1 SCRSS 1Keff CR 1 (1Keff 1)CR 2 (1K eff 2)CR 1 (1)CR 2 (2) SUR26.06eff M1K eff 0 1K eff 1 M1 1K effCR 1 CR 2 PP 0 10SUR (t) PP 0 e t P(1)P 0 SDM(1K eff)K eff Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic

EQUATION SHEET's

- -eff K eff 2K eff 1 k eff 1xKeff 2 T1/20.693 (K eff1)Keff DRDR 0 et DR6CiE (n)R 2 DR 1 d 1 2DR 2 d 2 2 (2)2Peak 2(1)2Peak 1

EQUATION SHEET's

DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet

1 Curie = 3.7 x 10 10 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 10 3 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 10 6 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf F = 9/5 C + 32 1 gal (H 2 O) 8 lbm C = 5/9 (

F - 32) c P = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/

F c p = 1 cal/sec/gm/

C

Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question A.001 (1.0 point) [1.0] Why is the stable negative period following a scram always the same value, regardless of initial power level? The rate of power change is dependent on the:

a. constant decay rate of prompt neutrons. b. constant decay rate of prompt gamma emitters.
c. mean lifetime of the longest lived delayed precursor. d. mean lifetime of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursor.

Answer: A.001 c.

Reference:

MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Kinetics Section(e)

Question A.002 (1.0 point) [2.0] The term "prompt jump" refers to: a. the instantaneous change in power due to raising a control rod.

b. a reactor which has attained criticality on prompt neutrons alone.
c. a reactor which is critical using both prompt and delayed neutrons.
d. a negative reactivity insertion which is less than Beta-effective.

Answer: A.002 a.

Reference:

MIT Reactor Physics Notes, Reactivity Feedback

Question A.003 (1.0 point) [3.0] Given the following:

Reactor operating at 5 MW, scram setpoint at 6 MW, scram delay time of 1 second, reactor period of 12.5 seconds.

What will be the approximate reactor power at the time of the scram due to this reactivity excursion?

a. 6.1 MW b. 6.5 MW
c. 7.2 MW d. 12.5 MW

Answer: A.003 b.

Reference:

MIT Exam Bank Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question A.004 (1.0 point) [4.0] The fuel temperature coefficient of reactivity is -1.25E-4 delta k/k/deg.F. When a control rod with an average rod worth of 0.1% delta k/k/inch is withdrawn 10 inches, reactor power increases and becomes stable at a higher level. At this point, (ignoring any other temperature effects) the fuel temperature has:

a. increased by 80 deg.F. b. decreased by 80 deg.F. c. increased by 8 deg.F. d. decreased by 8 deg.F.

Answer: A.004 a.

Reference:

Glasstone, Section 5.96 Reactivity added by control rod = +(0.001 k/k/inch)((10 inches) = 0.01 delta k/k Fuel temperature change = - reactivity of rod/fuel temp. coeff. =

(- 0.01 delta k/k)/(- 1.25E-4 delta k/k/deg. F) = 80 deg. F

Question A.005 (1.0 point) [5.0] Suppose the temperature coefficient of a core is -2.5 E10

-4 K/K/°C and the average control rod worth of the regulating control rod is 5.895 E10

-3 K/K/inch. If the temperature INCREASES by 50°C what will the automatic control command the regulating rod to do? Select the answer that is closest to the calculated value.

a. 5.6 inches in b. 2.1 inches out
c. 0.5 inches in
d. 4.3 inches out Answer: A.005 b.

Reference:

The temperature increase will result in a change in reactivity of: -2.5E10

-4 K/K/°C 50°C = -1.25E10

-2 K/K. Since the temperature rise results in a negative reactivity insertion, the control rod will need to drive out to add positive reactivity. D = (1.25E10

-2 K/K) (5.895E10

-3 K/K/inch) = 2.12 inches

Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question A.006 (1.0 point) [6.0] During a reactor startup, criticality occurred at a lower rod height than the last startup. Which ONE of the following reasons could be the cause?

a. Xe 135 peaked. b. Moderator temperature increased.
c. Adding an experiment with positive reactivity. d. Maintenance on the control rods resulted in a slightly faster rod speed.

Answer: A.006 c.

Reference:

Question A.007 (1.0 point) [7.0] In a reactor at full power, the thermal neutron flux () is 2.5 x 10 12 neutrons/cm 2/sec. and the macroscopic fission cross-section f is 0.1 cm

-1. The fission reaction rate is:

a. 2.5 x 10 11 fissions/sec. b. 2.5 x 10 13 fissions/sec. c. 2.5 x 10 11 fissions/cm 3/sec. d. 2.5 x 10 13 fissions/cm 3/sec. Answer: A.007 c.

Reference:

Question A.008 (1.0 point) [8.0] Which ONE of the following explains the response of a SUBCRITICAL reactor to equal insertions of positive reactivity as the reactor approaches criticality? Each insertion causes a

a. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize. b. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a LONGER time to stabilize. c. SMALLER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize. d. LARGER increase in the neutron flux resulting in a SHORTER time to stabilize.

Answer: A.008 b.

Reference:

Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question A.009 (1.0 point) [9.0] A thin foil target of 10% copper and 90% aluminum is in a thermal neutron beam. Given a Cu = 3.79 barns, a Al = 0.23 barns, s Cu = 7.90 barns, and s Al =1.49 barns, which ONE of the following reactions has the highest probability of occurring? A neutron

a. scattering reaction with aluminum b. scattering reaction with copper c. absorption in aluminum d. absorption in copper

Answer: A.009 a. 0.1 x 3.79 = 0.379 0.9 x 0.23 = 0.207 0.1 x 7.9 = 0.79 0.9 x 1.49 = 1.34

Reference:

Question A.010 (1.0 point) [10.0] A 1/M curve is being generated as fuel is loaded into a core. After some fuel elements have been loaded, the count rate existing at that time is taken to be the new initial count rate, CR

0. Additional elements are then loaded and the inverse count rate ratio continues to decrease. As a result of changing the initial count rate:
a. criticality will occur with the same number of elements loaded. b. criticality will occur earlier (i.e. with fewer elements loaded.) c. criticality will occur later (i.e. with more elements loaded.) d. criticality will be completely unpredictable.

Answer: A.010 a.

Reference:

MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Startup and Reactor Subcritical Multiplication

Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question A.011 (1.0 point) [11.0] Which ONE of the following is the reason that Xenon peaks after a shutdown? a. Xenon decays faster than Iodine decays

b. Xenon decays faster than Tellurium c. Iodine decays faster than Xenon decays d. Tellurium decays faster than Xenon decays Answer: A.011 c.

Reference:

MITR II Reactor Physics Notes - Reactor Feedback Section(e)

Question A.012 (1.0 point) [12.0] Several processes within the core increase or decrease the number of neutrons in a generation.

Which ONE of the following six-factor terms describes a process which results in an INCREASE in the number of neutrons during the cycle?

a. Thermal Utilization Factor (f) b. Resonance Escape Probability (p) c. Thermal Non-Leakage Probability ( TH) d. Reproduction Factor ()

Answer: A.012 d.

Reference:

Question A.013 (1.0 point) [13.0] Initially Nuclear Instrumentation is reading 30 CPS and the reactor has a K eff of 0.90. You add an experiment which causes the Nuclear Instrumentation reading to increase to 60 CPS. Which ONE of the following is the new K eff? a. 0.91 b. 0.925 c. 0.95 d. 0.975 Answer: A.013 c.

Reference:

Doubling the Count Rate results in halving the shutdown margin.

CR 2/CR 1) = (1 - K eff1)/(1 - K eff2) 60/30 = (1 - 0.900)/(1 - K eff2) 1- K eff2 = 2 0.1 = 0.05 K eff2 = 1 - 0.05 = 0.95 Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question A.014 (1.0 point) [14.0]

The delayed neutron precursor for U 235 is 0.0065. However, when calculating reactor parameters you use the effective delayed neutron precursor eff with a value of ~0.0070. Which ONE of the following is the correct reason that eff is larger than ? a. Delayed neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons resulting in a greater worth for the neutrons.

b. Delayed neutrons are born at lower energies than prompt neutrons resulting in less leakage during slowdown to thermal energies.
c. U 238 in the core becomes Pu 239 (by neutron absorption), which has a higher for fission.
d. The fuel also contains U 238 which has a relatively large for fast fission.

Answer: A.014 b.

Reference:

Question A.015 (1.0 point) [15.0] You enter the control room and note that all nuclear instrumentation show a steady neutron level, and no rods are in motion. Which ONE of the following conditions CANNOT be true?

a. The reactor is critical. b. The reactor is subcritical.
c. The reactor is supercritical.
d. The neutron source has been removed from the core.

Answer: A.015 c.

Reference:

Question A.016 (1.0 point) [16.0] Core excess reactivity changes with - a. fuel element burnup b. control rod height c. neutron energy level d. reactor power level

Answer: A.016 a.

Reference:

Reactor Training Manual -Core Excess and Shutdown Margin.

Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristic Question A.017 (1.0 point) [17.0] Which ONE of the following is the definition of the term "Cross-Section?" a. The probability that a neutron will be captured by a nucleus.

b. The most likely energy at which a charge particle will be captured. c. The length a charged particle travels past the nucleus before being captured. d. The area of the nucleus including the electron cloud.

Answer: A.017 a.

Reference:

Reactor Training Manual -Cross Section.

Question A.018 (1.0 point) [18.0] The method for determining Calculated Thermal Power is described by: a. Primary power plus reflector power plus shield power. b. Primary power plus reflector power minus shield power.

c. Primary power plus shield power minus reflector power. d. Primary power minus reflector power minus shield power.

Answer: A.018 a.

Reference:

PM 2.4, pg. 5

Question A.019 (1.0 point) [19.0] The peak differential reactivity worth of the shim blades occur at the midpoints of their calibration curves, but the peak differential reactivity worth of the regulating rod occurs at the bottom of its calibration curve because:

a. the regulating rod is made of cadmium and the shim blades of boron-impregnated stainless steel.
b. the regulating rod is shadowed by the shim bank when it is above the bank height.
c. the regulating rod is a cylinder, while the blades are paddle-shaped.
d. the 'full-in' position of the regulating rod is six inches above that of the shim blades.

Answer: A.019 d.

Reference:

RSM 1.6.2

Section A Reactor Theory, Thermo, and Facility Characteristics Question A.020 (1.0 point) [20.0] The Doppler effect is described by the: a. blue glow seen around the fuel elements. b. broadening of resonance peaks as fuel temperature increases. c. slower response time in comparison to moderator temperature feedback. d. spectral shift of Uranium-235 as moderator temperature increases.

Answer: A.020 b.

Reference:

Reactor Physics Notes, Reactivity Feedback

Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.001 (1.0 point) [1.0] During a reactor startup you reach 0.5 inches above the Estimate Critical Position for the Shim Bank and the reactor is still subcritical. Which one of the following action is INCORRECT? a. Recheck sample reactivates. b. If no discrepancy found notify the Superintendent.

c. Immediately drive bank in to 1.0" or more below ECP. d. Drive each blade out and check neutron level to ensure blade coupled.

Answer: B.001 d.

Reference:

MITR PM 2.3 Step (11) on page 2 of 7. {dated 11/07/11}

Question B.002 (1.0 point) [2.0] Which ONE of the following will indicate that a shim blade has become stuck/inoperable during normal

operations?

a. Reactor stability will be difficult to control when increasing power. b. Automatic control will detect a problem and give a "Control on Manual" alarm. c. Reactor period will not change when blade insertion switch is pressed. d. Blade drive will start binding and "Shim Servo Error" alarm will appear.

Answer: B.002 c.

Reference:

PM 5.8.9 {dated 12/08/11}

Question B.003 (1.0 point) [3.0] Suppose you remove a sample from the core, which contains 5 Ci of Au-190. This source has a half-life of 43 minutes and emits 295 keV gamma rays 100% of the time. What will be the approximate dose rate at 5 feet from the source if the sample decays for 10 minutes after being removed from the core?

Do NOT take any of the intermediate or subsequent radionuclides into consideration.

a. 100 mrem/hr b. 200 mrem/hr c. 300 mrem/hr d. 400 mrem/hr Answer: B.003 c.

Reference:

Standard NRC Question

Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.004 (1.0 point) [4.0] Nitrogen-16 is produced by neutron absorption of Oxygen-16. A majority of the Nitrogen-16 decays by:

a. a 6.1 MeV gamma with a half-life of 7 seconds. b. a 1.3 MeV beta with a half-life of 7 seconds.
c. neutron emission with a half-life of 1.8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />. d. a 1.3 MeV gamma with a half-life of 1.8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />.

Answer: B.004 a.

Reference:

Chart of The Nuclides: http://www2.bnl.gov/ton

Question B.005 (1.0 point) [5.0] What action should always be taken to maximize effectiveness of the emergency plan for radiological emergencies?

a. Minor scram . b. Shut down the reactor; Isolate containment. c. Shut down the reactor; Leave ventilation on. b. Lower shim blades to subcritical; Isolate containment.

Answer: B.005 b.

Reference:

E-Plan Sect. 4.3.1.2.1

Question B.006 (1.0 point) [6.0] What must be done in order to continue operation if a single plenum radiation monitor becomes inoperative due to a plugged flow line and the containment isolates?

a. Bypass by selecting a different plenum channel and restart ventilation. b. Bypass affected channel using key switch and restart ventilation.
c. Replace plugged flow line and restart ventilation. d. Operation is not allowed.

Answer: B.006 b.

Reference:

AOP 5.6.3

Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.007 (1.0 point) [7.0] A reactor containment evacuation is required. T he Reactor Operator performs the Immediate Actions necessary to evacuate personnel from Containment. If the radiation level in the control room is 150 mrem/hr, what is the Reactor Operator's MAXIMUM stay time?

a. 40 minutes b. 3.2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> c. 6.7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br /> d. 13.3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />

Answer: B.007 c.

Reference:

PM 4.4.4.12, p. 2 1000mr/150mr/hr = 6.7 hrs

Question B.008 (1.0 point) [8.0] Which one of the following statements is NOT a violation of Technical Specifications?

a. Operating with one inoperable shim blade fully inserted. b. Reactor power is 100 kW and emergency power is not available. c. Reactor power is 150 kW with the emergency cooling system inoperable. d. Reactor power is 2 MW, one primary pump in se rvice, and the total coolant flow rate is 1000 gpm. Answer: B.008 d.

Reference:

T.S. p. 2-2 (LSSS)

Question B.009 (1.0 point) [9.0] Which one of the following statements is a requirement when performing maintenance on a system that could jeopardize personnel safety?

a. Circuit breakers should be padlocked open and the person who will be performing the work shall retain the key to the padlock on his person until completion of the work.
b. Tags may be removed by any member of the NRL/RPO staff. If there is doubt as to whether the tag should be cleared, the Operator-in-Charge should be consulted.
c. The on-duty console operator or a licensed operator shall observe the performance of the system lock out and verify that the system is in a safe condition.
d. Any member of the NRL/RPO staff including electronics and maintenance may remove lockouts when under the direction of a licensed senior operator.

Answer: B.009 a.

Reference:

PM 1.14.3 pg 1 of 9 {dated 9/08/2011}

Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.010 (1.0 point) [10.0]

A declared " non-routine" reactor startup is performed to insure that

a. a thermal power calibration is completed at 1 KW. b. power level scrams are properly set prior to attaining full power. c. the actual critical position is within the limits of the extrapolated ECP. d. axial power distribution shifts are plotted on an experiment free core.

Answer: B.010 b.

Reference:

PM 2.3.2 {dated 11/07/2011}

Question B.011 (1.0 point) [11.0] If the Technical Specification limit for Tritium in the secondary coolant system is exceeded, all of the following actions must be performed EXCEPT:

a. Secure the secondary system water discharge flow. b. Stop the reactor building ventilation system.
c. Isolate the reflector heat exchanger.
d. Shut down the cooling tower spray.

Answer: B.011 b.

Reference:

TS 3.7.2

Question B.012 (1.0 point) [12.0] Which ONE of the following is the reason for the irradiation time limit associated with the use of rabbits?

a. prevent swelling of containers. b. maintain internal container size.
c. prevent embrittlement of the polyethelyene containers. d. limit radioactive gas release in the event of a container failure.

Answer: B.012 c.

Reference:

PM 1.10.8.1.1, Step 9, p 10.

Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.013 (1.0 point) [13.0] You note that 1 cm of a material (used as a shield) reduces the radiation level from a given source by a factor of 2. If you add another nine cm of the material (for a total of 10 cm), you would expect the radiation level to be reduced by a factor of approximately ____ over no shielding. (Note: Ignore dose decrease due to distance, and decay.)

a. 20 b. 100 c. 200 d. 1,000 Answer: B.013 d.

Reference:

2 10 = 1,024 1,000 Question B.014 (1.0 point, 0.2 each) [14.0] Match the experiment type listed in column A with the corresponding Technical Specification limit listed in column B. (Notes: Only one answer for each item in column A. Items in column B, may be used more than once, or not at all.)

Column A Column B

a. Single movable 1. 0.2% K/K b. Total movable 2. 0.5% K/K c. Single Non-secured 3. 1.0% K/K d. Total Non-secured 4. 1.5% K/K e. Secured 5. 1.8% K/K Answer: B.014 a. = 1; b. = 2; c. = 2; d. = 3; e. = 5 REF: MITR-II Tech. Spec.

' 6.1 Question B.015 (1.0 point, 0.25 each) [15.0] Identify the source for the listed radioisotopes. Irradiation of air , water , s tructural material or f ission product. a. N 16 b. Na 24 c. Ar 41 d. Xe 188 Answer: B.015 a. = Water; b. = SM; c. = Air; d. = FP

Reference:

Standard Radiation Source Question Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.016 (1.0 point) [16.0] The CURIE content of a radioactive source is a measure of a. the number of radioactive atoms in the source. b. the amount of energy emitted per unit time by the source c. the amount of damage to soft body tissue per unit time. d. the number of nuclear disintegrations per unit time.

Answer: B.016 d.

Reference:

Standard Health Physics Definition.

Question B.017 (1.0 point) [17.0] Safety Limits are -

a. limits on variables associated with core thermal and hydraulic performance which are established to protect the integrity of the fuel clad.
b. settings for automatic protective devices related to those variables having significant safety functions.
c. settings for ANSI 15.8 suggested reactor scrams and/or alarms which form the protective system for the reactor or provide information which requires manual protective action to be initiated.
d. the lowest functional capability or performance levels of equipment required for safe operation of the reactor.

Answer: B.017 a.

Reference:

TS 2.1

Question B.018 (1.0 point) [18.0] Containment integrity is required whenever:

a. the H2 concentration in the air space above the core exceeds 1.0 volume percent.
b. maintenance is being performed on the rod control system.
c. the reactor is not secured.
d. the emergency cooling system is not operable.

Answer: B.018 c.

Reference:

TS 3.5.1

Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.019 (1.0 point) [19.0] According to the Emergency Plan, the Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ) is

a. the area within the containment building including the airlocks.
b. the area included within the containment building, buildings NW-12 and NW-13 and the chain link fence surrounding the areas outside.
c. the area within a 100 foot radius of the reactor.
d. the area within a 100 meter radius of the containment building.

Answer: B.019 d.

Reference:

Question B.020 (1.0 point) [20.0] If the reactor core tank level cannot be maintained at or above the low level scram (-4"), what class of emergency would be declared?

a. Unusual Event b. Alert c. Site Area d. General Answer: B.020 a.

Reference:

PM 4.4.4.15

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.001 (1.0 point) [1.0] Which ONE of the following is NOT a concern on loss of compressed air? a. Operability of the pneumatic tube sample ejection system. b. Capability to monitor dump tank level remotely. c. Position of the dump valve. d. Containment integrity.

Answer: C.001 a.

Reference:

MIT Reactor Systems Manual, Section 2.5 and 8.6

Question: C.002 (1.0 point) [2.0] Which ONE of the following describes the expected response in the event both door gaskets are deflated simultaneously on the Main Personnel Basement Air Lock?

a. The reactor will automatically scram. b. Campus Patrol receives an "INTRUSION" alarm.
c. The Backup bottle of compressed air automatically supplies the door gaskets.
d. A "LOW PRESSURE AIR" alarm is received in the control room and reception area.

Answer: C.002 a.

Reference:

SAR, Section 6.5.3.4

Question: C.003 (1.0 point) [3.0] Which ONE of the following is NOT a purpose of the shield coolant system? a. Remove heat deposited by gamma rays from the shield. b. Cool spectrometer magnets if spectrometers are operational. c. Remove heat from the H 2O shutter tank. d. Cool 3GV facility samples.

Answer: C.003 c.

Reference:

SAR Section 5.4.1.2

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.004 (1.0 point) [4.0] A gas purge is maintained on the vertical sample thimbles while the reactor is operating. Which one of the following gases is used for this purge and why?

a. He, to reduce the production of Ar 41 and N 16. b. N 2 , to reduce the production of Ar 41 and N 16. c. CO 2, to reduce the production of Ar 41 and Nitrous Oxide. d. Ar 40 , to aid in the production of Ar 41 for gamma production.

Answer: C.004 c.

Reference:

SAR Section 10.2.6

Question: C.005 (1.0 point) [5.0] The surveillance system is activated. An alarm on the center scam panel will cause an audible alarm at all of the below listed areas except Y a. the Reactor floor. b. the Utility room.

c. the Reception desk. d. the Operations Office.

Answer: C.005 d.

Reference:

MITR-II Reactor Systems Manual, ' 9.5, p. 17

Question: C.006 (1.0 point) [6.0] Which one of the following is the correct type of detector used for Nuclear Instrumentation Channel 9 (used as input to the regulating rod automatic control circuit)?

a. Fission Chamber b. Boron Lined Compensated Ion Chamber
c. Boron Lined Uncompensated Ion Chamber
d. Unlined Ion Chamber Answer: C.006 d.

changed to a. due to typographical error.

Reference:

MITR-II Reactor Systems Manual

' 5.6.3, p. 5.9.

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.007 (1.0 point) [7.0] Which ONE of the following alarm conditions will result in an automatic scram? a. High Pressure Reactor Inlet. b. High Level Emergency Power Channel.

c. Low Level Dump Tank.
d. Low Flow Shield Coolant.

Answer: C.007 d.

Reference:

RSM, Pages 9.3 to 9.5

Question: C.008 (1.0 point) [8.0] What action should always be taken to maximize effectiveness of the emergency plan for airborne releases?

a. Shut down the reactor; Isolate containment. b. Shut down the reactor; Leave ventilation on.
c. Lower shim blades to subcritical; Isolate containment.
d. Minor scram.

Answer: C.008 a.

Reference:

Emergency Plan Section 4.3.1.2.1.

Question: C.009 (1.0 point) [9.0] Which ONE of the following indications is not indicative of a fission product release from a fuel element?

a. Increasing readings on core purge monitor. b. Increasing readings on plenum air monitor.
c. Increasing readings on N-16 monitor. d. Increasing readings on NW12 gamma monitor.

Answer: C.009 d.

Reference:

AOP PM 5.8.2

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.010 (1.0 point) [10.0] The operator in the control room would be required to notify personnel on the reactor top, if during refueling:

a. a positive steady-state period is observed when no fuel or dummies are being moved.
b. a negative steady-state period is observed while fuel or dummies are being moved.
c. subcritical multiplication levels decrease by a factor of 2 or more.
d. radiation levels decrease by a factor of 2 or more.

Answer: C.010 a.

Reference:

PM 3.3.1, p 3 .

Question: C.011 (1.0 point) [11.0] Which ONE of the following actions should the console operator perform immediately, if during a NW13 rabbit irradiation, the rabbit station radiation monitor alarms?

a. Eject the sample into the hot cell using the "Abort Auto Transfer" pushbutton.
b. Shutdown the reactor and when radiation levels are less than the permissible limit, use the 1PH1 "Eject" pushbutton to remove the sample.
c. Commence a normal reactor shutdown and dump the reflector.
d. Depress and hold the radiation alarm reset pushbutton to allow for the automatic transfer of the sample.

Answer: C.011 a.

Reference:

PM 1.10.8.2

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.012 (1.0 point) [12.0] The primary concern associated with the pressure relief system charcoal filters becoming submersed during a large leak of primary coolant is:

a. loss of efficiency in removing particulates. b. possible spontaneous combustion during dryout.
c. reduction in relief flow capability to relieve pressure. d. possible spread of contamination from leaks in the filter housing.

Answer: C.012 b.

Reference:

PM 5.2.14

Question: C.013 (1.0 point) [13.0] To prevent a catastrophic loss of pressure, all Differential Pressure system containment penetrations -

a. contain a 1/32 inch diameter orifice b. have a quick shutting solenoid valve c. are submerged in a "water seal trap" d. have check valves preventing air from leaking into the containment.

Answer: C.013 a.

Reference:

SAR Section 9.4

Question: C.014 (1.0 point) [14.0] What is the purpose of the long hold up chamber, or plenum, in the exhaust air system?

a. To allow for the thorough measurement of the radiation levels in the exhaust air.
b. To enable the shorter lived activation products to decay before they are exhausted.
c. To filter out the particulates that would result in an airborne radiation release to the environment.
d. To delay the exhaust long enough for the butterfly dampers to close if the plenum monitor alarms.

Answer: C.014 d.

Reference:

SAR Section 9.1.2.6

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.015 (1.0 point) [15.0]

What is indicated when an alarm on the annunciator alarm (SCAM) panel is silent, but is continuously brightly lit?

a. The alarm condition has been corrected but not acknowledged. b. The alarm condition has been acknowledged but not corrected.
c. The alarm condition has neither been acknowledged nor corrected. d. The alarm condition has been acknowledged and corrected and only serves as a reminder to the operator.

Answer: C.015 b.

Reference:

SAR Section 7.6.4

Question: C.016 (1.0 point) [16.0] The neutron absorbing sections of the shim control rods contain boron impregnated - a. graphite

b. aluminum
c. cadmium
d. stainless steel Answer: C.016 d.

Reference:

SAR Section 4.2

Question: C.017 (1.0 point) [17.0] During an accident the Containment Building approaches its design pressure. Which one of the following is the design feature which provides over-pressure protection for the containment?

a. A pressure relief blower automatically initiates at 2.0 psig. b. A containment relief valve will automatically open at 1.75 psig.
c. A manually operated relief valve may be opened to protect containment. d. The main damper will cycle open and closed to maintain containment pressure less than 1.75 psig.

Answer: C.017 c.

Reference:

SAR Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question: C.018 (1.0 point) [18.0] If the normal heat removal path is NOT available for the Shutdown Cooling System, alternative cooling can be obtained from the:

a. fire protection system. b. secondary cooling system.
c. city water supply to HE-2. d. H 2O medical shutter cooling system.

Answer: C.018 c.

Reference:

SAR Question: C.019 (1.0 point) [19.0] In addition to Nuclear Instrumentation channels 1 through 9, reactor power may also be estimated using which ONE of the listed radiation monitors?

a. Argon-41 b. Reactor Top c. Medical Room d. Linear N-16

Answer: C.019 d.

Reference:

Reactor Systems Manual § 5.1

Question: C.020 (1.0 point) [20.0]

Which ONE of the following is NOT a function associated with the reactor upper grid? a. Trip primary pump if grid is unlatched. b. Limit refueling to one element position at a time.

c. Ensure blades are fully inserted before a refueling is initiated. d. Provide a position for source installation if counts are below minimum for a startup.

Answer: C.020 d.

Reference:

Reactor Systems Manual § 1.4