Text

Forwards Exam Rept W/As Given Written Exam for Test Administered on 971117-21
	ML20203L788
Person / Time
Site:	Calvert Cliffs
Issue date:	03/03/1998
From:	Curley V; NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION I)
To:	; NRC OFFICE OF INFORMATION RESOURCES MANAGEMENT (IRM)
References
	NUDOCS 9803060225
	Download: ML20203L788 (1)
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fiarch 3, 1998 '

NOTE TO:

NRC Document Control Desk

-Mail Stop 0-5 D-24

- FROM:- EdI bonleu . Lic nsing Assistant i

Opera';ing Licensip3 ranch, R

SUBJECT:

OPERATOR LICENSING EXAMINATION ADHLNISTE8ED ON Wevende t 114/1991, AT onfu nT Qb un .

DOCKET F 150-Jt]'snJ fo-atf I!-

On 1/enden/2- Operator Licensing Examinations were administered at the referenced ity. - Attached, you will find the following

-information for. processing through NUDOCS and-distribution to the NRC staff. -including the NRC PDR:

Item #1 - a) Facility submitted outline and-initial exam submitt.1, designated for distribution under RIDS Code A070.

b) As given opera'.ing examination. designated for distribution under RIDS _ Code A070.

Item #2'- Examination Report with-the as given written examination attached, designated _for distribution'under RIDS Code IE42.

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%, ,e,a KING oF PRUsslA. PENNSYLVANIA 19406 1415 January 8, 1998 Mr. Charles H. Cruse Vice President - Nuclear Energy (

Baltimore Gas and Electric Company (tlG&E)

Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant 1650 Calvert Cliffs Parkwey Lusby, MD 20657 4702 .

1

SUBJECT:

CALVERT CLIFFS UNIT 1 AND UNIT 2 REACTOR AND SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT NOs. 50-317/9710(OL) AND 50 318/9710(OL)

Dear Mr. Cruse:

\'

This report transmits the findings of the reactor operator (RO) and senior reactor operator (SRO) licensing operations e:<aminations conducted by NRC examiners during the week of November 17 21,1997, and the written examination administered by your staff on November 12,1997, at the Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant (CCNPP) Unit 1 and Unit 2 f acility. Based on the results of the examinations,011 three RO applicants and two of four SRO applicants passed all portions of the examinations. The remaining SRO applicants did L not pass the written portion of the examination. At the conclusion of the examination,

, Mr. L. Briggs discussed the preliminary observations with Messrs. Navin and Millis and other members of your staff.

These examinations addressed areas important to public health and safety and were developed and administered under Interim Revision 8 to the Examiner Standards (NUREG.

1021). All segments of the examination were developed by Calvert Cliffs and contractor personnel, while the NRC provided oversight v nel approval prior to the administration of the examistations. Calvert Cliffs training i o anel subsequently administered the NRC approved written examinations, while the opmating examinations were administered by the NRC.

However, we are concerned that the written examination did not appear to receive an acceptable level of review prior to the initial submittal to the NRC. This resulted in an initial submittal that did not meet the guidelines of Interim Revision 8 of NUREG 1021 and necessitated a needlessly high priority effort to resolve the problem. Specifically, there was an excessive number of questions directed at certain systems and an insufficient number of questions on the SRO written examination that were at th; SRO level.

In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the NRC's " Rules of Practice," a copy of this letter I and its enclosure! Will be placed in the NRC Public Document Room.

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Mr. Charles H. Cruse 2 No reply to this letter is required, but should you have any questions regarding this examination, please contact me at 610-339 5211,or by E mail at GWM@NRC. GOV.

Sincerely, Glenn W. Meyer, Chief Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety Docket Nos. 50 317;50 318 ,

Enclosure:

Initial Examir:ation Report No. 50 317/9710(OL) AND 50 318/97-10(OL) w/ Attachments 1 through 3 cc w/ encl w/o Attachments 1-3: ,

T. Pritchett, Director, Nuclear Regulatory Matters (CCNPP)

R. McLean, Administrator, Nuclear Evaluations

- J. Walter, Engineering Division, Public Service Commission of Maryland K. Burger, Esauire, Maryland People's Counsel '

R. Ochs, Maryland Safe Energy Coalition State of Maryland (2) cc w/ encl and Attacnments 1-3:

Charles Zapp, Assistant General Supervisor, Operations Training ,

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- _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ - - - - _ _ _ _ - - - - - _ -J

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>- Mr. Charles H. Cruse 3 Distribution w/enel and Attachments 1-3:

DRS Master Exam File PUBLIC Nuclear Safety Information Center (NSIC)

V.' Curley, DRS Distribution w/encI: w/o Attachments 1-3:

Region i Docket Room (with concurrences)

J. Wiggins, DRS L. Briggs, Chief Examiner, DRS L. Doerflein, DRP W. Axelson, DRA R. Junod, DRP NRC Resident inspector DRS OL Facility File DRS File cc w/ encl; w/o Attachments 13 (VIA E MAIL):

M. Leach, RI EDO Coordinator S. Stewart Calvert Cliffs S. Bajwa, NRR A. Dromerick, NRR M. Campion, RI '

inspection Program Branch, NRR (IPAS)

DOCDESK '

M. Campion, RI-i e

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.. . ______2._ - .

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION ,

REGION 1 Docket Nos.: 50 317 and 50 318 Report Nos.: 9710 (OL) and 9710 (OL)

License No.: DPR 53 and DPR-69 Licensee: Baltimore Gas and Electric Facility: Calvert Cliffs Units 1 and 2 Location: Lusby, Maryland Dates: November 12-21,1997 Chief Examiner: L. Briggf., Senior Operations Engineer / Examiner Examiners: J. Williams, Senior Operations Engineer / Examiner J. D' Antonio, Operations Engineer / Examiner-Approved By: Glenn W. Meyer, Chief, Operator Licensing and Human Performance Branch Division of Reactor Safety

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, EXECUTIVE

SUMMARY

Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant, Units 1 and 2 Inspection Report Nos. 50-317/9710(OL) and 50-318/9710(OL)

Ooerations Three reactor operator (RO) and four senior reactor operator (SRO) candidates (two instant ar.d two upgrades) were administered initiallicensing exams. Two SRO candidates did not pass the written portion of the exam. All other candidates successfully passed the exam.

Overall, candidate performance during the operating tests was determined to be good.

There were no significant generic weaknesses identified; however, several candidates experienced difficu'ty locating manual valves during performance of in plant JPMs.

The original written exam submitted did not adequately meet the guidance of Interim Revision 8 of NUREG 1021. Although the initially submitted outline appeared acceptable, there were an excessive number of questions associated with certain systems on the initially submitted written exam. The SRO written exam also did not contain a sufficient

~ mber of questions at the SRO level. Those discrepancies were identified by the uxaminers and correc'ed by the licensee and their contractor following the exam preparation week.

BG&E provided 13 written exam comments following the exam, and NRC deleted questions or revised answers on 8 questions based on the comments. This represents another indication of the low quality effort by BG&E, given that the exam was generated and reviewed by BG&E and their contractor.

The examiners observed very good self and peer checking prior to non emergency activities and good peer post checking of emergency activities during the simulator - 3 rating exam, ii

_________J

Etport Details ,

l. Operations 05 Operator Training and Qualifications b).1 Reactor Ooerator and Senior Reactor Ooerator Initial Exams

a. Sggg.g The initial exams were prepared by BG&E and contractor personnel using the guidelines in interim Revision 8 of NUREG 1021," Operator Licensing Exam Standards for Power Reactors." The NRC examiners administered the operating paruon of the exam to all candidates. The written exams were arministerod by BG&E's training organization.

b. Observations and Findinas The results of the exams are summarized below:

SRO Pass / Fail RO Pass /F " Total Pass / Fail Written 2/2 , 5/2 Operating 4/O J/O 7/O Overall 2/2 3/O 5/2 The written exams, job performance measures (JPMs) and simulator scenarios were developed by BG&E and their contractor representatives using the guidance of l

Interim Revision 8 of NUREG 1021. The exam development team was comprised of BG&E training, operations, and contractor representatives. All individuals signed onto a security agreement once the development of the exam commenced. The NRC subsequently reviewed and validated all portions of the proposed exams.

Various changes and/or additions to the poposed exams were requested by the NRC during the on-site review. BG&E and their contractor subsequently incorporated the NRC's comments and finalized the exams, in particular, the NRC examiners noted that there was an excessive number of questions concerning certain systems and not enough question:. on the SRO test that were at the SRO level. The originally submitted written exam had not adequately met the guidance of Interim Revision 8 of NUREG 1021, ES 401 Para D.2.d. and D.1.c.

The written exams were administered on November 12,1997. The initial written exam consisted of 100 multiple choice questions. Subsequent to the written exam BG&E provided a total of thirteen (13) comments on the RO/SRO written exam.

The NRC reviewed the comments and requested additionalinformation concerning their justification for the proposed changes to several of the questions. On the SRO written exam the comments resulted in three question deletions, two questions with two correct answers, and one question had its answer changed. On the RO written exam there were two question deletions, and three questions that had two coirect answers. BG&E comments and NRC resolutions are detailed in Attachment 3 of this report.

l l

O 2

The BG&E treining department performed an analysis of questionr missed on the written exam for generic and individual weaknesses and was in the process of developing an action plan to correct any identified problem areas. NRC review of BG&E's analysis determined that it was acceptable.

During the performance of the simulator scenarios the examiners noted that candidates frequently performed self and peer checks of each other's operations.

During non-emergency activities the peer checks were performed prior to the activity. During emergency operations the peer checks were conducted as soon after the activity as possible.

During performance of in-plant JPMs several candidates experienced difficulty locating some small, manually operated valves. This did not pmvent completion of 1 the JPMs but did delay completion. Some cases required the candidate to go to the system operatir'g procedure to determnie the valve location,

c. Conclusions The candidates performed well on the operating portions of the exam. Two SRO candidates did not pass the written portion of the exam and were not issued licenses. Candidates, in general, demonstrated good self and peer checking practices.

E8 Review of UFSAR commitments A recent discovery of a BG&E operating their f acility in a manner contrary to the

, updated final safety analysis report (UFSAR) description highlighted the need for a I

special focused review that compares plant practices, procedures and /or parameters to the UFSAR descriptions. While performing the preexam activities discussed in this report, the inspectors reviewed applicable portions of the UFSAR that related to the selected exam questions or topic areas. No discrepancies were identified as a resdt of this review.

V. Manaaement Meetinqs X1 Exit Meeting Summary On November 21,1997, the examiners discussed their observations fro'n the exams with Calvert Cliffs' operations and training management represe1tatives.

The examiners discussed generic candidate performance detail 0i above. Concerning general candidate performance and written exam comments and how they would subsequently be reviewed and resolved by the NRC. The examiners also expressed their appreciation for the cooperation and assistance that was provided during both the preparation and exam week by licensed operator training personnel and operations personnel. Calvert Cliffs' personnel present at the exit meeting included the following partial listing in alphabetical order:

Since there were no observed discrepancies between the simulator and the plant, I

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3 e PARTIAL LIST OF PERSONS CON TACTED i CALVERT CLIFFS l Edward Chrzanowski, Sr. Operatior.s Instructor (simulator) l James Lemons, Manager, Nuclear Support Services Department 1

Norman Millis, General Supervisor, Nuclear Training Michael Navin, General Supervisor, Nuclear Plant Operations Robert Niedzielsu . Supervisor Initial Training Robert Scott, Sr. Operations Instructor i

Craig Sly, Nuclear Regulatory Matters Charics Zapp, Assistant General Supervisor, Operations Training NBC Larry Briggs, Senior Operations Engineer, Chief Examiner Joseph D' Antonio, Operations Engineer Scott Stewart, Senior Resident inspector, Calvert Cliffs Julian Williams, Senior Operations Engineer Attachments:

1. Calvert Cliffs SRO Written Exam w/ Answer Key

2. Calvert Cliffs RO Written Exam w/ Answer Key

3. NRC Resolution of Calvert Cliffs SRO and RO Written Exam Comments l

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Attachment 1 CALVERT CLIFFS SRO WRITTEN EXAM W/ ANSWER KEY l

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S:nior Rocctor Opsrator Excmination 1

Due to a design change to the main turbine lube oil cooler, it has been determined the periodicity of recording the temperature reading is to be increased from once every four hours to once every two hours during the first week of service.

Which one of the following is the minimum approval for this change in recording requirements per NO-12047

a. POSRC -

b. Plant General Manager

c. Shift Supervisor

d. Control Room Supervisor 2 . During the performance of a routine valve line up while the unit is in MODE 5, a valve listed as OPEN is discovered to be CLOSED.

Which one of the foilowing describes the correct action to be taken for this valve line up condition?

a. Since the unit is not in MODE 1 or 2, an entry in the CRO log is required.

b. The valve position is noted in the " discrepancy section" of the coversheet, and evaluated by the Senior Licensed Operator,

c. With concurrence of the Control Room Operator, the valve is immediately returned to the recommended pcsition.

d. An abnormal valve position tag is attached to the valve and the step is signed off as completed.

3 Unit 1 is operating at 83% power. The RO (operator at the plant & reactivity controls) is needed in ,

the Shift Supervisor's office to discuss a surveillance the RO performed previously.

~

The CRO is to relieve the RO for this meeting.

Which of the following describes the minimum action the RO is REQUIRED to perform per NO 1-200?

a. Verbclly brief the CRO.

b. Walkdown the panels with the CRO.

c. Inform the CRS of the meeting subject, duration, and his/her location for the short meeting.

d. Complete all turn over requirements listed in the NO-1-207, " Nuclear Operations Shift Turnover".

Page 1 of 33

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S:ni r R: actor Operat:r Examinati:n -

4 You are the Day Shift CRS and it has been brought to your attention that a non-emergency call-in is needed for the CRO next shift. At 1620 you reach an operator who is willing to come to work .

and was the last one on the call-in list. The individual states they are fit for duty but, just completed drinking one glass of wine during a late lunch at about 1330 hours0.0154 days 0.369 hours 0.0022 weeks 5.06065e-4 months .

Which of the below describes your actions required for filling the call-in need?

a. Direct the employee to come to work and report to the Nuclear Security Shift Supervisor.

b. Inform the employee they can not come to work since the five hour abstinence period requirement would be violated.

c. Inform the employee that the Shift Supervisor will waive the abstinence period since greater tb :: one half of the five hours will have passed by the time the shift starts and they s'iould come to work.

d. Revise the watcn bill such that they could stand a Non-licensed watch and another licensed operator could stand the CRO watch.

5 . During your Control Room Supervisor shift turnover panel walkdown, you observe the handswitch for the 11 HPSI pump to be in the pull-to-lock position. The unit is in MODE 1 at about 88% power and the time is 0535 hours0.00619 days 0.149 hours 8.845899e-4 weeks 2.035675e-4 months .

Which one of the following is the required administrative action?

a. Inform the RO and continue with the board walkdown.

b. Direct the RO to return the switch to automatic and continue with the board walkdown.

c. Inform the Nuclear Engineering Department and assure a review of the situation and governing design bases is completed by 0935 hours0.0108 days 0.26 hours 0.00155 weeks 3.557675e-4 months ,

d. Assure the redundant counterpart is verified operable within two hours and an entry in the CRO's log shall be made.

6 .Which one of the following is the lowest level of authority that can authorize deviation from the Technical Specifications in the interest of providing immediate protection to the public?

a. Superintendent- Nuclear Operations

b. Shift Supervisor

c. Control Room Supervisor

d. Reacto' Operator Page 2 of 33 e - - - - . - - . _ _ _ - - _ _ _ -_

S;nisr R cctor Operctor Excminction 7 .The unit is in a " reduced inventory" condition with the 13 Service Water Pump out of service.

Emergent or priority repair is needed on the 11 Service Water Pump breaker.

What is the lowest authority to approve this work in the reduced inventory condition?

a. Superintendent - Nuclear Operations

b. General Superviror - Nuclear Plant Opemtions 3 c. Shift Supervisor

d. Control Room Supervisor plus an independent Senior Reactor Operator 8 . A valve on the independent position check list is listed as "six turns OPEN" and has no local or remote position indication.

Which one of the following describes the method used to perform the independent verification?

a. The valve is not checked by a second checker. The space for the second checker on the Locked Valve Deviation Sheet for the valve in question is marked "N/A" by the CRS.

b. The second check is performed simultaneously with the initial positioning of the valve.

c. Remove the locking device and operate the hand wheel in BOTH the open and closed position, noting number of tums, and returning the valve to the as found position. Then re-install the locking device.

d. The valve is listed on the Valve Lineup Coversheet as a discrepancy until the use of system parameters can be employed to verify the valve position.

9 . Select the condition when compensatory actions are NOT required when removing a nuisance annunciator alarm from service?

a. The system / plant conditions are out of their " normal" operating range.

b. Annunciator window already has a " magenta" dot. -

c. The annunciator has multiple inputs with one or more OUT OF SERVICE.

d. The alarm is not providing useful information and has been " intermittent" for greater than thirty minutes.

Page 3 of 33 9

S:nicr R:cct:r Operatsr Examinati:n 10 .Whsn reviewing for approval an IMMEDIATE CHANGE TEMPORARY APPROVAL FORM for Category 1 equipment, which one of the following is criteria that would allow you as the Control Room Supervisor (CRS) to approve this change?

c. A section is being added to include the valve line up for non-safety equipment associated with the surveillance,

b. The valve lineup for safety equipment intended not to be operated will be changed such that the normally open discharge valve will be closed during performance of the procedure.

c. The periodicity will be increased from daily to, "once every 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months ."

d. The materiallist is being changed. (supported by an appro' led engineering evaluation)

11. Surveillance is in progress on a 4 KV breaker which causes you to question the operability of a safety related component.

The correct response for this condition is:

a. inform the Manager - Nuclear Engineering Department to venfy the engineering configuration is within the governing bases.

b. an appropriate entry in the CRO's Shift Turnover Information Sheet.

c. inform the Shift Supervisor to determine operability,

d. Inform the Maintenance Superintendent to have work order prerequisites reviewed.

12 . A new electric motor oas been installed on an existing pump. The work order requires the motor to be checked for proper rotation.

Which one of the following actions are required to remove the red tag from the motor power supply? The suction and discharge valves are to remain tagged.

a. Process a supplementary clearance.

b. Process a modification to the tagout. -

c. Authorize the clearance for all tags in the series and invoke the use of human danger tags for equipment that is not ready to be returned to operation.

d. Verbally authorize the " lifting" of the tag for the power supply and re-install the same tag after the rotation check.

Page 4 of 33

Seni:r Reactor Operator Examin:ti:n 13 . During refueling operations, which one of the following indicates the periodicity for demonstrating direct communications between the Cc:'rol Room personnel and the personnel at the refueling statiuns?

a. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

b. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months

c. 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months

d. 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months 14 . Fuel handling has been suspended at 0135 hours0.00156 days 0.0375 hours 2.232143e-4 weeks 5.13675e-5 months due to machine problems. As these difficulties continue onto the day shift, which one of the following indicates the periodicity for monitoring 1/M?

a. 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months

b. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

c. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months

d. 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months 15 .The unit is in MODE 6. fuel handling is in progress and 35% of the fue: has been removed from the I core.

The FHS informed you at 17'10 hours1.157407e-4 days 0.00278 hours 1.653439e-5 weeks 3.805e-6 months that a fuel bundle that was on the refueling machine had become disengaged and was dropped into the vessel.

The control room received a valid " Fuel Handling Area Vent" (RI-5420) alarm at 1720 hours0.0199 days 0.478 hours 0.00284 weeks 6.5446e-4 months .

At 1745 hours0.0202 days 0.485 hours 0.00289 weeks 6.639725e-4 months the site experiences a power outage and the diesels fail to automatically start.

l Two diesels were subsequently started at 1835 hours0.0212 days 0.51 hours 0.00303 weeks 6.982175e-4 months .

Using ERPIP 3.0, which of the below is the classification for this event (s)?

a. Unusual Event _

b. Site Emergency

c. Unusual Event

d. Alert Page 5 of 33

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4 Seni r R:actnr Operator Examin:ti:n -

16 "Any area at CCNPP accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving an Effective Dose Equivalent (EDE) in excess of 10 rems in one hour at 30 cm -

(12 inches) from the radiation source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates."

To which one of the following does this definition refer?

a. a very high radiation area.

b. ar exclusion high radiation area,

c. & diation area,

d. a .,cked high radiation area.

17 . The Safety Function Hierarchy is divided into six priorities.

What is the third priority safety function?

a. Cora & RCS Heat Removal -

b. RCS Pressure & Inventory

c. Radiation Level External To Containment

d. Containment Environment 18 . On Unit 2, if a Control Element Assembly (CEA) lift coil fails on a fully withdrawn CEA.

Which one of the following indicates the response of that CEA?

The CEA will;

a. fall into the core and is considered non-trippable,

b. not fall into the core but will respond to motion commands only in the inward direction and is '

considered non-trippable,

c. not fall into the core and will not respond to any motion commands and is considered trippable.

d. fall into the core when CEA motion is attempted and is considered trippable.

Page 6 of 33

S:ni;r React r Operat:r Ex min:ti:n 19 .Given the following:

- A Unit i reactor startup is in progress.

- The Reactor Operator is withdrawing Regulating Group 1 CEAs in the MANUAL GROUP mode.

- Regulating group 1 is at 120 inches.

- No CEA deviations exist.

WHICH ONE (1) of the following will be the FIRST to automatically stop CEA movement?

a. Highest CEA reaches the Upper Group Stop (UCS).

b. Lowest CEA reaches the Upper Group Stop (UCS).

c, Highest CEA reaches the Upper Electrical Limit (UEL). <

d. Lowest CEA reaches the Upper Electrical Limit (UEL).

20 . An engineering test is scheduled on your shift. Test prerequisites specify the RdS temperature be at 180 F. The time is 0830 and present RCS temperature is 210 F.

Which one of the following is the earliest time that temperature can be at 180 'F?

a. 0848

b. 1000

c. 1012

d. 1130

21. lf the Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring System (RVLMS) indicates sensors 1 through 5 are lit, which one of the following is correct?

a. The entire core is voided.

b. - RCS level is at or below the Fuel Alignment Plate. -

c. Sufficient inventory exists to supr rt Shutdown Cooling flow.

d. The upper head region above the core is full.

Page 7 of 33

Senirr Rocct r Operstar Excminatisn 22 Charging pumps are running on Unit 1 and an SIAS is present. (Assume no operator action) ,

When the BASTS are emptied, the charging pumps will;

a. trip on low oil pressure.

b. trip on low suction pressure.

c, automatically align to the RWT,

d. continte to run and become gas bound.

23 .Which one of the following describes the expected positioning of tilves in the CVCS system on SIAS that will allow boration flow?

The flow path for boration is created by flow from the Boric Acid Storage Tanks (BAST Tanks),:

a. through the gravity feed valves, through the Boric Acid pumps, through the Boric Acid Strainer, through manual boration valve CVC-174, directly to the Charging Pump suction.

b. bypassing the gravity feed valves, through the Boric Acid Pumps, through the Boric Acid Strainer, through CV-210Y, directly to the Charging Pump suction.

c. through the Boric Acid pumps, through Emergency Borate Valve (CVC-514), directly to the Charging Pump suction.

d. through the gravity feed valves, through the Boric Acid Pumps, Emergency Borate Valve (CVC-514), directly to the Charging Pump suction.

24 . Low Pressure Safety injection pumps recirculation valves SI-659 and SI-660 are manually closed on RAS actuation.

Which one of the following is the reason these valves are closed?

a. Recirculation flow is not required for pump protection since the LPSI pumps are tripped on RAS.

b. Prevent release to the environment of activated airborne particles from the containment sump water via the RWT vent.

c. Ensure NPSH for LPSI pumps following RAS.

d. Ensure maximum flow of water to the RCS.

Page 8 of 33

4 Seni r Reactor _ Operator Ex minati:n 25 . Unit 1 is on SDC when RCS pressure inadvertently drifts up to 325 pala. Which one of the following will protect the SDC system from over pressurizing?

a. LTOP will actuate to reduce RCS pressure,

b. Operator action is required to reduce RCS pressure and protect SDC system.

- c. LPSI pumps will trip and their discharge check valves will shut.

d. SDC retum iso ation valves Sl451-MOV & Sl452-MOV shut and SDC suction line relief will lift to protect the returr) header.

26 .Given the following Unit 1 contre! room and chemistry reports:

RCS pressure is 1600 psia.

RCS temperature is 360

F.

Safety injection Tank 11A boron concent, tion = 2250 ppm.

Safety injection Tank 11 A level = 194" ;

Safety injection Tank 11 A pressure = 225 psig

All rods are inserted.

Which one of the following identifies the operability status of 11 A Safety injection Tank?

a. The Safety injection Tank is not required to be operable.

b. Safety injection Tank level is above the allowable level. -

c. Safety injection Tank pressure is above allowable pressure,

d. Boron concentration is below allowable concentration.

27 . Unit 1 is on SDC when RCS pressure as read on PT-103 and 103-1 inadvertently drifts up to 350 psia. What automatic functions will protect the SDC system from overpressure? --

a. RV-468, SDC suction line relief downstream of SI-651, willlift to protect the return header, b, Since MPT is enabled, two PORVs will open when RCS pressure exceeds 340Psla.

c. LPSI pumps willl trip and their discharge valves will shut.

d. SI-651-MOV and SI-652-MOV shut and relief valve RV 469, SDC suction line relief between SI-651 and SI-652 willlift to protect the return header.

Page 9 of 33

-J

Seni r Reactor Operat:r Examin:ti:n -

28 .On a loss of the "11" 4 KV bus, which ONE of the following occurs preventing either train of Shutdown Cooling (SDC) from being placed in service on Unit 17 .

a. One SDC Hot Leg Suction Valve is de-energized.

b. The SDC Temperature Control Valve (CV457) is de-energized.

c. One Low Pressure Safety injection Header isolation Valve in each train is de-energized,

d. The SDC Heat Exchanger Bypass Valve (FCV-306) fails closed due to a loss of Instrument Alt.

29 . Following a LOCA, RCS pressure is at 1300 psia.

Which one of the following statements describes the status of Si flow?

a. Constant HPSI flow exists with no LPSI flow.

b. No HPSI or LPSI flow exists,

c. Increasing HPSI flow exists, no LPSI flow.

d. Constant HPSI and LPSI flow exists.

30 .The following plant conditions exist:

-Steady state operation at 100% power.

-The PZR pressure Selected Controller setpoint is inadvertently changed to 2360 psia (step change). -

-Pressurizer pressure control is in automatic.

Which one of the following will be the IMMEDIATE response of the system?

a. Power operated relief valve RC-402 opens and proportional heaters go to minimum,

b. Power operated relief valves RC-402 and RC-404 open and spray valves open if previously closed. -

c. Spray valves open if previously closed and proportional heaters go to minimum,

d. Spray valves close if previously open and proportional heaters go to maximum.

Page 10 of 33

S:ni:r Recet:r Operat*r Excminati::n 31 Which one of the following describes the response of a Pressurizer Level channel failing low?

Assume the failed channel is the selected channel and no operator action is taken,

s. All heaters will deenergize, letdown goes to minimum, standby charging pump starts, actual pressurizer level and pressure increase, the reactor trips on High Pressurizer pressure.

b. All heaters will deanergize, pressurizer pressure decreases, the reactor trips on TM/LP.

c. All heaters remain energized, letdown goes to maximum, only one charging pump remains ON, Actual pressurizer pressure and level decrease, the reactor trips on TMILP.

d. All heaters remain energized, letdown goes to minimum, actual pressurizer level and pressure increase, the reactor trips on High Pressurizer Pressure.

32 .You are the dedicated SRO during a normal power ascension. The RO has just reset the Variable Over Power Trip (VOPT). At what power level would you expect the RO to respcod to the next VOPT reset demand alarm?

Given the following information:

Delta T power indicates 43%

Nuclear power indicates 41.8%

l

a. 47.6%

b. 48.8%

c. 50.2%

d. 51.4%

33 .Which one of the foliowing describes the plant response to a loss of 120 VAC Bus 117

a. A loss of power will occur to 1/2 of the CEDMs.

b. ESFAS Sensor channel ZE components trip. -

c. 4 Trip Circuit Breakers will open with unit trip.

d.10 RFS Channel A trip units are tripped.

Page 11 of 33

(

w -

a

Seni:r R3:ctor Operat:r Ex:minati2n -

34 .Rtmoving cn ISOLATION module from one of the Engineered Safety Features cabinets places the LOGIC modules logic in: .

a 2 out of 4 '

b.1 out of 3

c. 2 out of 3 d.1 out of 4 35 .While in Hot Standby, the " ACTUATION SYS STAS TRIPPED" alarm has annunciated at 1C08.

Which of the following conditions indicates actuation of a " VALID" SlAS?

a. Containment Pressure at 1C10 indicates 2.0 psig and slowly increasing, and PZR pressure displays at 1C06 indicates 1760 psia and decreasing slowly.

b. Containment Pressure at 1C10 indicates 1.6 psig and slowly increasing, and the TM/LP pre-trip and trip unit lights are illuminated on at least three RPS channels.

c. Containment Pressure at 1C10 indicates 4.0 psig and slowly increasing, and the Containment Pressure pre-trip and trip unit lights are illuminated on all RPS channels.

d. PZR Pressure displays at 1C06 indicate 1760 psia and slowly decreasing, and all TM/LP pre trip and trip unit lights illuminated on all RPS channels.

36 .The Diversa Scram System (DSS) accomplishes a reactor trip signal independent and diverse of the Reactor Protection System (RPS) by;

a. Tripping Engine red Safety Featt:res Actuation System (ESFAS) input parameters which are independent / diverse of RPS.

b. Tripping the reactor by tising non-safety related control channels for inputs to the RPS.

c. Tripoing the reactor by opening the CEA MG set input breaker through the ESFAS.

d. Tripping the reactor by opening line contactors upstream of the Reactor Trip breakers which RPS opens.

Page 12 of 33 l

. Seni:r React:r Operat:r Examinaticn 37 .During r; ctor startup, power is rcised to the Point-of Adding H:st. All Wide Range Channels are

, Indicating approx.1%. The Operator At the-Controls observes power range indication at 4%

What action is required by OP 2 " Plant Startup from Hot Standby to Minimum Load"?

a. Continue the reactor startup per OP 2, Indications of proper overlap have been verified.

b. Continue the reactor startup per OP 2 and declare MODE 1 at 5%.

c. Stop the reactor startup. Observe linear power indication on 1C15 to determine proper NI response,

d. Stop the reactor startup. Observe Wide Range indication on 1C05 to determine proper NI response.

38 .Which one of the following is the reason that CEUM fans are operated when RCS temperatures are less than 300 F during accident conditions?

a. Minimize the build up of condensation on the CEDM wirdings,

b. Aid in the collapse of volds that may have formed in the RCS during the event.

c. Aid in the cooling of the containment atmosphere during the event.

d. Minimize the buildup of condensation on components, other than CEDMs, attached to the vessel head.

1 39 . Unit 1 #eactor power is 82% Reactor Cavity Cooling fan 11 is in service when it trips due to !

electrical fault.

Which one of the following describes the response, if any, of the remaining cooling fan?

a. Automatically starts after 10 seconds,

b. Must be started manually,

c. Must be started manually within 10 seconds. -

d. Automatically starts immediately.

Page 13 of 33

Seni r R:act:r Operat:r Examinati:n 40 Prior to an RAS, containment pressure is 50 psig. Following RAS containment pressure is reduced below the CSAS setpoint. Which one of the following describes the response of the containment spray system?

CS flow will;

a. not change as contalnment pressure has negligible effect on spray flow.

b, decrease during the injection phase of containment spray actuation.

c. increase during the recirculation phase of containment spray actuation,

d. decrease during the recirculation phase of containment c7tay actuation.

41. As the CRS, you receive a report that a spurious CSAS has been received. What system response, if any, would you expect to confirm the report?

a. One Containment Spray pump starts and SI 4150/4151 open,

b. One Containment lodine Removal unit starts,

c. Only SI-4150/4151 open.

d. The system lineup does not change.

42 .The Trisodium Phosphate Dooecahydrate (TSP) stored in the Unit 2 containment basement will maintain the pH of the water in the basement following a LOCA:

e. less than 7.0 to ensure radioactivt. lodine is scrubbed from Containment Spray Water.

b. greater than 7.0 to ensure radioactive lodine is scrubbed from Containment Spray Water,

c. less than 7.0 to prevent corrosion cracking of metals inside containment.

d, greater than 7.0 to prevent corrosion cracking of metals inside containment.

43 .Which one of the following describes the Containment lodine Removal System flow path?

a. Moisture Separator, HEPA Filter, Charcoal Filter, Circulating Fan,

b. Charcoal Filter, Molsture Separator, HEPA Filter, Circulating Fan,

c. Moisture Separator, Charcoal Filter, HEPA Filter, Circulating Fan.

d. Circulating Fan, Moisture Separator, HEPA Filter, Charcoal Filter.

Page 14 of 33

Senior React::r Operator Ex:minati:n .

l 44 .Given the following plant conditions: i Unit 2 tripped from 80% power due to a loss of vacuum All systems responded as expected Tavg is 533 degrees F ,

l pugg valves are closed If Tavg begins to increase above 535 degrees-F the steam dumps will:

I

a. immediately begin to modulate open until T-avg reaches 540 degrees F, at which time they will quick-open.

b immediately begin to modulate open until T-avg reaches 548 degrees F, "Ich time they will be fully open.

c. remain closed until T-avg reaches 540 degrees F, at which time they will begin to modulate open.

d. remain closed until T-avg .eaches 540 degrees F, at which time they will. quick-open.

45 . As CRS, prior to parallelitig the unit, you receive a report that a high level alarm on 11 S/G has been actuated and that 11 Feed Water Regulating Valve Dypass Valve does not respond to manual controller operation. Assuming the remaining systems respond as expected, what manual actions are required per AOP-3G to mitigate thir, condition.

a. Shut both S/G Feedwater Isolation Valves.

b. Depress the feed regulating and bypass valve reset pushbutton.

c. Trip one P'in Feed Pump.

d. Shut th :s .ded S/G Feedwater Isolation Valve.

46 .Which one of the following will result in the initiation of an AUTOMATIC trip of the "11" Main Feedwater pump when Unit 1 is at 100% power? _

a. Pump discharge pressure increases to 1500 psig

b. Suction pressure decreases to 250 psig.

c. Pump discharge pressure decreases to 1100 psig.

~ d. Tr!p of the "11" condensate pump.

Page 15 of 33

,- . , _ . . ~ __ _

Seni:r React:r Operat r Examinati:n -

47 .Which one of the following describes the operation of the Steam Supply Valves for the Turbine Driven AFW Pump? .

c. When opening, CV-4070 and CV-4070s open simultaneous;y.

b. When closing, CV-4070s closes first followed by CV 4070.

c. Wnen opening, CV 4070a opens first followed by CV 4070,

d. When opening, CV 4070 opens first followed by CV-4070a.

48 . Select the function of the keyswitches loca,ted in the Auxiliary Feed Water (AFW) Pump room for the Turbine Driven AFW Pump Trip / Throttle (T/T) valve.

c. Enable the T/T valve trip function from the AFW Pump Room,

b. Trip the T/T valve locally.

c. Disable the T/T valvt trip function from the AFW Pump Room,

d. Disable the T/T valve uip function from the control room handswitches.

l 49 . Unit 1 is operating at full power when 4 Reactor Trip Breakers open. The reactor does NOT trip and NO other TCB's open.

Which one of the following equipment failures is the cause of this event?

a. 208/120 VAC Instrument Bus b.125 VDC Reserve Battery Bus c.125 VDC Bus

d. CEA MG set 50 .Which one of the following indicates tne pressurizer heaters that would be available following a Loss of Off site Power (LOOP)? Assume the DGs start and carry the emergency loads,

a. Proportional Heater Bank-1 and Backup Heater Bank-3.

b. Proportional Heater Bank-1.

c. Backup Heater Bank-1 & 3.

d. Backup Heater Bank 1 and Propotional Heater Bank-1.

Page 16 of 33

51.The 125VDC Batt:ry Charger 11 h:s failed due to an electrical fault.

Which ONE of the following identifies the remaining sources of power to 120VAC vital Bus 117 a.125VDC Battery Charger No.12, 125VDC Battery 11, 120VAC Inverter Backup Bus 21 b.125VDC Battery Charger No. 23, 125VDC Battery 11, 120VAC Inverter Backup Bus 11.

c. 125VDC Battery Charger No. 23, 125VDC Battery 11, 120VAC Inverter Backup Bus 21 d.125VDC Battery Charger No.12, 12CVDC Battery 11, 120VAC Inverier Backup Bus 11 .

52 .Which one of the following is the source of control power for breakers on the 4KV Unit Bus 117 a.120 V Vital AC

b. 125 VDC

c. 250 VDC

d. 208/120 VAC 53 .Which one of the following statements best describes the relationship of the 120 VAC and 125 VDC power to the plant computer?

a. The static invertcr feeding the computer has both a 120 VAC and a 125 VDC power supply and it automatically switches on a loss of the 125 VDC. _

b. The static inverter feeding the computer has both a 120 VAC and 125 VDC oower supply which has to be manually switched to the 120 VAC when the 125 VDC is lost.

c. The stat!a inverter is a backup to the normal 120 VAC power source. When 120 VAC is lost, power is automatically switched to the 125 VDC F,0wered inverter.

d. The 125 VDC powered static inverter supplies the #11 120 VAC inverter bus which in turn supplies power to the plant computer.

Page 17 of 33

8:nicr R:act r Operat:r Examinaticn 54 The annunciator "125 VDC Power Supply Failure" has energized on the 1 A Diesel Generator control panel.

When a diesel generate: start signal is received, the diesel generator will:

a. start because only 1 of the 4 air start distributor solenoid valves are affected by the loss of DC volts, b start because backup power supplies will allow power to to supplied to the air start distributor solenoids.

c. not start since DC power will only be supplied to 2 of the 4 air start distributor solenoid valves.

d. not start because DC power is unavailable to any of the air start distributor solenold valves.

55 .Which ONE of the following 1 A Diesel Generator trips will also actuate the Emergency Shutdown l Signal alarm on the Annunciator panel?

a. Generator Differential Protection

b. Generator Overvoltage

c. Generator bearing HiHitemperature

d. Push Button 2A (Emergency Stop pushbutton on local control panel) depressed 56 .The 1 A Diesel Generator (DG) is running under load during periodic testing. The DG is paralled to the ESF 4KV bus 11.

What is the diesel generator respense to a Loss of Offsite Power?

The diesel generator output breaker will:

a. remain closed, will pick up all required loads, and continue to supply power to the emergency loads on bus 17. -

b. remain closed, will try to pick up the required loads but will trip on overcurrent.

c. immediately trip open and remain'open until manually closed.

d. will trip open and reclose to bus 17 if no faults exist and normal and alternate feeder breakers are open.

Page 18 of 33

Seni r React:r Operat:r Examinatisn 57 .WHICH ONE of the following is the expected response of the Instrument Air System to a major Turbine Building Instrument Air header rupture on Unit 17

a. Instrument air pressure will decrease on Unit i until the air compressors trip on high current.

b. Instrument air cross tie valve to Unit 2 will open, then reclose if the Unit 2 Instrument Air System pressure drops below setpoint.

c. The normally open instrument air cross tie valve to Unit 2 will close when Unit 1 instrument Air System pressure drops below setpoint.

d. The Plant Air System cross tie valve will open to supply the Unit 1 instrument Air System when pressure drops below setpoint.

l l

58 . AOP-1B, "CEA Malfunction", requires reactor power to be maintained constant during the !

recovery of a single dropped CEA.

Which one of the following is used to meintain Reactor power?

a. Turbine Load

b. Bor tlon

c. Group C CEAs

d. Dilution 59 . The following plant conditions exist:

1. Two CEAs have dropped into the core.

2. Pressurizer level decreases to <95".

3. Reactor power decreases from 100% to 85%.

4. Pressurizer pressure decreases to 2225 psia.

~

WHICH ONE of the following is the minimum action required?

a. T::p the reactor and perform Standard Post Trip Actions.

b. Reduce Turbine load to match Reactor power,

c. Commence a reactor shutdown to suberitical,

d. Reduce power to less than 70%.

9 Page 19 of 33

Seni r R:act:r Operat:r Examinati:n 60 . Unit 2 has been operating at 100% power when a load decrease to 50% is initiated. During the load decrease ONE CEA remains at its fully withdrawn position while the other CEAs in the Group are being inserted.

Which one of the following annunciator alarms would provide indication that the CEA failed to move?

a. "CEA WITHDRAWAL PROHIBIT.

b. "CEA MOTION INHIBIT".

c. " SECONDARY CEA GROUP SEQUENCE".

d. " SECONDARY POWER DEPEN INSERTION".

61 During performance of Unit 1 EOP 0, which one of the following radiation monitors in an alarm status would require Altemate Actions to be performed?

a. Containment

b. Wide Range Noble Gas

c. Main Vent Gaseous

d. Main Steamline 62 .Given the following conditions:

A RCS heatup is in progress.

RCS pressure is.2250"pT 2200 The acoustic monitor for a PORV indicates valve leakage.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected tall pipe temperature and how tail pipe temperature will respond as RCS pressure decreases to 500 psla?

(Assume pressure downstream of the PORV remains constant.) -

a. Tail pipe temperature will be higher than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure.

As pressure decreases tall pipe temperature will increase,

b. Tail pipe temperature will be higher than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure.

As pressure decreases tail pipe temperature will decrease,

c. Tail pipe temperature will be lower than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure. As pressure decreases tail pipe temperature will increase,

d. Tail pipe temperature will be lower than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure. As pressure decreases tail pipe temperature will decrease.

Page 20 of 33

Seni:r Reactor Operat:r Examinati:n 63 Which ONE of the following parameters will discriminate between a Jmall Break LOCA and an equivalent Steam Line Break, both occurring inside containment?

a. Pressurizer Level

b. Pressurizer Pressure

c. Containment Pressure

d. Cold Leg Temperature 64 Which ONE of the following is an approved alternate method of establishing nnt leg injection during a LOCA event on Unit 17

a. LPSI pump discharging to the pressurizer auxiliary spray line,

b. LPSI pump discharging to the hot legs via the shutdown cooling suction line,

c. HPSI pumps discharging to the normal pressurizer spray line,

d. Containment Spray Pumps discharging to the hot legs via the normal pressurizer spray line.

l 65 .Which one of the following mechanisms is utii! zed to satisfy the Core and RCS Heat Removal Safety function during a Large Break LOCA event?

a. Steam Generator Heat Pemoval.

b. Charging pump operation

c. Reactor Coolant Pump operation

d. ESFAS pump inJ'.ction.

66 .With power at 94%, which ONE of the following lists ALL RCP temperatures that can exceed 195

F and allow the RCP to continue to operate?

a. Upper or lower guide bearing temperatures and controlled bleedoff temperatures.

b. Upper or downward thrust bearing temperatures,

c. Upper or lower guide bearing and upper or downward thrust bearing temperatures,

d. Controlled bleed off temperatures.

Page 21 of 33 m_____-_______ . _ _ _

Seni r React:r Operat:r Examinaticn 67 . A loss of MCC-104R has occurred. ,

Which one of the following describes a boration flow path that remains available?

a. RWT, CVC 508, CVC-504, charging pump suction,

b. BAST, CVC 210Y, CVC 512, VCT, charging pump suction

c. RWT, CVC 508, charging pump suction

d. BAST, CVC 514, charging pump suction 68 . At what point in shutdown operations do administrative restrictions relating to REDUCED INVENTORY take effect? l

a. the middle of the hot leg

b. the bottom of the Hot Leg

c. 3 feet below the reactor vessel flange

d. 7 feet below the reactor vessel flange 69 .The reactor is shutdown with shutdown cooling (SDC) in progress when the operating LPSI pump becomes air bound and trips due to low RCS water level. After RCS water level is restored, neither LPSI pump can provide significant flow.

What other pumps can be aligned to the SDC system to provide SDC flow?

a. hFSi pumps

b. Containment spray pumps

c. Charging pumps

d. Spent fuel pool cooling pumps Page 22 of 33

9 8:nl r Rocct:r Operat::r Examinati:n 70 .The air supply to the Component Cooling Water return line containment isolation valve (CC 3833) has been broken while scaffolding was being erected. ,

Which ONE of the following describes the effect, if any, this will have on Reactor Coolant Pump operation?

a. RCPs will have to be tripped immediately,

b. RCP temperatures on two of the four pumps willincrease.

. c. RCPs will be able to operate for 10 minutes,

d. RCP cooling will be unaffected.

71. According to the Abnormal Operating Procedure for Loss of Component Cooling bier (CCW),

which one of the following CCW malfunctions would require the Reactor to be TRIPPED? .

a. Low level alarm in the CCW Head Tank. .

b. Cavitation of running CCW pumps.

c. A trip of the 11 CCW Pump while running.

d. Low RCP CCW flow alarm.

72 .The following plant cond!! ions exist:

1. Unit 2 is at 100% power,

2. All control systems are in AUTOMATIC.

3. Pressurizer spray valve is stuck OPEN.

4. NO operator action is taken.

WHICH ONE of the following describss the effect of RCS pressure DECREASING to 2210 psia?

a. Pressurizer "PZR CH 100 PRESS" alarm is enere! zed,

b. Proportional heaters are fully energized,

c. Proportional heaters are partially energized.

'd. All backup heaters energized.

l 4

Page 23 of 33

Senlar R::ct:r Operat:r Examinati:n -

73 .Which one of the following would be the primary hazard if fuel were damaged within the pressure vessel during refueling operations?

a. Inadvertent criticality,

b. lodine 131 exposure to personnel.

c. Chronic Gamma radiation exposure to refueling machine operator.

d. Neutron radiation exposure to refueling machine operator.

74 . Unit 1 is being shutdown to hot standby due to a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

Which ONE of the following indicates the tube leak has become a tube rupture?

a. With one charging pump running, letdown isolated, and pressurizer level can no longer be controlled at setpoint.

b. With one charging pump running, and letdown flow at minimum and pressurizer level can no longer be controlled at setpoint..

c, When letdown flow combined with the tube rupture flow exceeds 45 GPM.

d. When charging flow reaches 88 GPM.

75 .With AOP 2A being implemented, select the valve that is required to be CLOSED for isolation of a tube leak on steam generator 21, and is normally maintained open?

a. Steam Generator 21 Steam Supply valve (MS-4070-CV)

b. Steam Generator 21 Steam Supply Bypass Valve (MS-4070A-CV) l

c. Steam Generator 21 Flow Control Valve (AFW-4511-CV)

d. AFW Pump 21 Trip Throttle Valve (MS-3986) i i

l Page 24 of 33

1

~ Seni:r React:r Operator Examinati n 76 . Glw the following conditions: <

1. A Steam Generator Tube Rupture has occurred.

2. All systems responded as expected.

2. The performance of EOP 6 is in progress.

3. One Steam Generator has been isolated, l

4. All RCPs have been stopped. l S. RCS cooldown using natural circulation is in progress. l l

Which one of the following describes the reason that the isolated SG pressure is of concern before the RCS can be placed on SDC?

a. The isolated SG pressure would be too low due to excessive coold7wn causing RCS water to anter the SG and reducing RCS inventory,

b. SG pressure is being maintained slightly less than RCS pressure to prevent secondary water entering the RCS.

c. Since the RCS cooldown rate was maintained less than 35 F/hr, the affected loop has not been cooled sufficieMiy to atow SG depressurization.

d. The affected SG pressure is h! Oh due to thermal stratification of the secondary water.

77 .The following plant conditions exist:

1. A steam line break exists upstream of 21 MSIV on Unit 2.

2. SGIS has automatically initiated.

Which one of the following conditions could result if a steaming flowpath from the unaffected steam generator is not established immediately following dryout of the affected steam generator?

a. Rapid repressurization of the RCS and subsequent Pressurized Thermal Shock (PTS) conditions, -

b. Inability to open 22 S/G MSIV due to pressure difference created when affected steam generator reaches dryout conditions.

.c. A rapid decrease in T-cold of the unaffected loop resulting in an interruption of natural ,

circulation.

d. A decrease in the core exit temperatures resulting in an interruption of natural circulation.

Page 25 of 33

~. . - -. - -- -. - .. --. .- - - .

Seni:r R:act::r Operat:r Examinati:n -

78 .Given the following:

During an Excess Steam Dernand event, BOTH steam generators are suspected of being affected.

Which one of the following identifies the steam generator (s) that should be isolated?

a. Both stecm generators, since a potential exiats to over-cool the RCS.

b. Only the steam generator with the highest Tc.

c. Either steam generator, since it will aid in Wentification of the affected S/G.

d. Only the steam generatoc with the lowest pressure.

79 . A loss of condenser vacuum occurred on Unit 1 with reactor power at 60%. The operators are reducing power and are able to maintain condenser vacuum at 24 inches Hg.

Wh!ch ONE of the fcilowing indicates the power level at which the turbine will have to be tripped if vacuum can NOT be increased to greater than 25 inches Hg?

a. 88 MWE.

b. 176 MWE.

c. 270 MV 5.

d. 440 MWE.

80 .Which one of the following is used to check that Two Phase Natural Circulation is sufficient to maintain core heat removal in EOP-7 " Station Blackout"?

a. Sub-cooled Margin between 30 F and 50 F.

b.1 hot Tcold delta T is less than 50 F.

c. Core Exit Thermocouples indicate less than superheat.

d. Steaming the S/G with the TBVs.

~

Page 26 of 33

81.Which one of the Safety Functions is of primary importance in the mitigation of a Station Blackout, prior to power availability?

o. Reactivity Control

b. RCS Pressure Control

c. Core 6nd RCS Heat Removal

d. RCS Inventory Control 82 .During the performance of EOP-7 " Station Blackout" On Unit 1, which one of the following describen the actions performed in aligning the electrical system for power restoration?

Ensure the:

a. 13KV Feeder breakers are CLOSED.

b. 4KV Bus LOCl/SD sequencer is OFF.

l c. DG output breakers are CLOSED.

d.14 4KV Bus Alternate Feeder Breaker is OPEN.

83 .Which one of the following describes the method used to operate AFW flow control valves during the performance of EOP 7," Station Blackout"?

e. Local manual control by an operator,

b. Control room operation after aligning N2 to the ACW amplitier air system.

c. Placing the controller in Auto Full open and controlling speed of the Steam Driven AFW pump.

d. Local manual control after aligning N2 to the AFW amplifier air system.

84 .Following a Loss of Offsite Power, natural circulation flow can not be accurately verified for approx.

15 minutes. -

Which one of the following is the cause of this time delay?

.a. Reactor Coolant Pump Coastdown.

b. Steam Generator inverted Delta T.

c. Low Steam Generator. Levels.

d. Increased loc.p cycle time.

Page 27 of 33 ,

-. - - _ _ ~ _- . - _ - - . = - . _ - .. .- - .

S7ni::r R:sst:r Operator Examinati:n 85 . Following a loss of 12120 VAC bus, the performance of steps in AOP 7J requires the ESFAS SENSOR cabinets be reenergized prior to the LOGIC cabinets. -

Which ONE of the following is the basis for the order of the steps?

a. Prevent inadvertent actuation since the Logic modules are eenergized to actuate and the sensor modules are energized to actuate.

b. Prevent inadvertent actuation since the Logic modules are energized to actuate an'd tne sensor modules are deenergized to actuate,

c. Properly align the Under Voltage Logic relays,

d. Properly align the Under Voltage Sensor Relays.

86 . A loss of which one of the following power supplies for 15 minutes will re' Wire entry into the Emergency Plan?

a. 11 120 VAC

b. 21125 VDC

c. 13 250 VDC

d. 21208/120VAC Inst. Bus 87 .During the performance of a waste gas release from the 11 Waste Gas Decay Tank, WGS 2191 CV is found to be closed.

Which valve must be closed as soon as possible to prevent a possible waste gas decay tank discharge to the waste gas surge tank?

a. Waste gas discharge flow control (WGS 2191 PCV)

b. Waste gas decay tank outlet (WGS-623)

c. Waste gas discharge to Unit 1 plant vent (WGS-683)

~

d. Waste gas discharge final filter bypass (WGS-630) l

[

j 88 .Which one of the following is correct concerning a loss of instrument Air Pressure?

a. Condensate Demineralizer Bypass Valve fails open,

b. Pressurizer Spray Valves fail open.

c. Pressurizer Auxiliary Spray Valve fails closed.

d. Containment Spray Control Valves fall closed.

Page 28 of 33 .

1 l

8:ni:r R: actor Operat:r Excmin.lsn 89 . During a loss of instrument air in MODE 1 operation, when would the reactor and turbine be tripped and EOP-0 implemented?

a. If instrument air pressure decreases to less than 40 psig and Feed Regulating Valve co;,trolis lost.

b. If Instrument air pressure decreases to 40 psig or in the opinion of the SS or CRS continued plant operation may cause equipment damage,

c. If component cooling containment isolation valves, CC 3832 CV or CC 3833-CV, begin to go shut and low flow alarms received on the RCPs.

d. If component cooling containment isolation valves, CC-3832 CV or CC 3833 CV, begin to go shut or in the opinion of the SS or CRS continued plant operation may cause damage to the RCPs.

90 .Given the following:

A fire has been detected in a ps *l in the control room

+ Supervision has determined thr.t the control room is to be evacuated

+ Prior to fire discovery, both nits were operating in Mode 1

Prior to control room evacuation the required actions of AOP 9A " CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION..." have been performed Which one of the following describes the initial response of RCS temperature upon abandoning tha control room?

Temperature will be controlled:

a. at 515 F - 535 F by TBVs.

b. at 515 F 535 F by ADVs.

c. by the Main Steam Safety Valves cycling,

d. by Auxiliary Feedwater flow and ADVs operating in automatic control. _ ,

Page 29 of 33 I

S:nirr R :ct:r Operat:r Examinati:n '

91.Which one of the following describt s the timing of actions that are accomplished during the performance of AOP-98," Safe Shutdown due to a Severo Cable Spreading Room Fire"?

a. Establish charging flow within 60 minutes and AFW flow within 30 minutes.

b. Establish AFW flow within 60 minutes and charging flow within 30 minutes.

c. Stop Steam Generator Feed Pumps within 60 minutes and clart 1 A Diesel Generator within 30 minutes,

d. Start 1 A Diesel Generator within 60 minutes and stop Steam Generator Feed Pumps within 30 minutes.

92 .Given the following information:

Reactor Power is 100%

Dose Equivalent lodine 131 = 156 Micro Cl/gm.

E Bar = 0.65 What activ.M are required?

a. Maximize CVCS purification flow and continue current operation.

l b. Reduce power to <56% or be in at least Hot Standby with Tave <500 F within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

c. Be in at least Hot Standby with Tave <500 F within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days 0.00167 hours 9.920635e-6 weeks 2.283e-6 months .

d. Maximize CVCS purification flow and increase RCS sampling frequency to once every two hours.

93 .One of the first actions the operator is instructed to take IAW AOP-6A " Abnormal Reactor Coolant Chemistry / Activity" on increased RCS activity is to adjust letdown flow.

Which one of the following statements is corred as to the adjustment and the reason?

a. increase letdown to maximum so that more RCS water can t,e diverted and processed by the waste management system,

b. Decrease letdown to minimum to minimize the amount of radioactive letdown that is flowing throughout the auxiliary building.

c. Isolate letdown until the cause of the activity increase can be determined.

d. Increase letdown flow to obtain the maximum purification flow. l l

Page 30 of 33

Seni:r R:act:r Operat:r Examinaticn 94 .Given the following parameters:

0830 0845 Thot 482 482 CET Temp. 587 585 -

Tcold 467 466 Which ONE of the following describes the conclusion that can be made about natural circulation?

Adequate natural circulation has: ,

a. not been established because Thot is remaining constant. ,

b. been established because the delta between Thot and Tcold is decreasing.

c. been established because Tcold is decreasing,

d. not been established because the CET temp. is decreasing.

95 . A natural circulation cooldown is in progress. While cooling down with ADVs, which ONE of the following will cause the most restrictive limitation on cooldown rate?

a. Isolating one steam generator.

b. Complying with Technical Specifications cooldown restrictions.

c. Cooling down without main feedwater available,

d. Complying with Pressurizer cooldown restrictions.

96 .Given the following Unit 1 conditions:

11 Steam Generator has a .03 gpm tube leak.

RCS Identified leakage is 9.2 gpm.

l- Which ONE of the following is the maximum allowable leakage from 12 Steam Generator?

l l a. 03 gpm b 06 gpm

c. 08 gpm

d. 97 gpm Page 31 of 33

)

Seni r React r Operat:r Examinati:n '

97 Which one of the following is a basis for the Technical Specification limit (s) for steam generator leakage?

The Technical Specification limit:

a. assures that the leakage rate used in the analysis for a steam line break accident is not exceeded,

b. assures that the exposure to plant personnel that could occur following a Steam Generator Tube Rupture is limited.

c. assures that at the minimum rate, a leak can be reliably detected,

d. assures that the expo'.,ure to plant personnel that could occur if an atmospheric dump were to open is limited.

98 .While operating Unit 1 @ 100% power, one Steam Generator Feed Pump (SGFP) tripped due to a mechanical fault Reactor power was reduced to 60% while troubleshooting the failed pump.

Operation may CONTINUE at this power level as long as which one of the following parameters is 4

maintained.

a. SGFP suct.on flow rate is 19500 gpm.

b. SGFP suction pressure is 265 psig.

c. SGFP speed is 5375 RPM.

d. SGFP discharge pressure is 1350 psig.

99 . A Main Feedwater Regulating valve (FRV) is being operated manually at the FRV when a reactor trip occurs.

, Which ONE of the following describes the required action?

2

a. Locally close the FRV.

4

b. Close the Main Feedwater Isow o Valve.

c. Position the FRV 6 5% open.

d. Vent air from the FRV.

Page 32 of 33

Senist Reactor Operat r Excmin:tien 100 .Which one of the following describes the length of time from a valid low steam generator level condition ( 170") to open the main steam supply valves (MS 4070&4071) to the turbine driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps?

a. 10 sec.

b. 20 sec.

c. 45 sec.

d. 65 sec.

l Page 33 of 33

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React:r Operat:r Examin: tion

1. During the performance of a routine valve line up while the unit is in MODE 5, a valve listed as OPEN is discovered to be CLOSED.

Which one of the following describes the correct action to be taken for this valve line up condition?

a. Since the unit is not in MODE 1 or 2, an entry in the CR0 log is required.

b. The valve position is noted in the " discrepancy section" of the coversheet, and evaluated by the Senior Licensed Operator,

c. With concurrence of the Control Room Operator, the valve is immediately returned to the recommended position,

d. An abnormal valve position tag is attached to the valve and the step is signed off as completed.

2 Unit 1 is operating at 83% power. The RO (operator at the plant & ieactivity controls) is needed in the Shift Supervisors office to discuss a surveillance the RO performed previously.

The CRO is to relieve the RO for this meeting.

Which of the following describes the minimum action the RO is REQUIRED to perform per NO-1200?

a. Verbally brief the CRO.

b. Walkdown the panels with the CRO.

c. Inform the CRS of the meeting subject, duration, and his/her location for the short meeting.

d. Complete all tum nyer requirements listed in the NO-1207, " Nuclear Operations Shift Turnover'.

l

3 .Which one of the following is the lowest level of authority that can buthorize deviation from the Technical Specifications in the interest of providing immediate protection to the public?

a. Superintendent- Nuclear Operations

b. Shift Supervisor

c. Control Room Supervisor

d. Reactor Operator l

Pap 1 of 33 l

React:r Operator Examinail n 4 A valve on the independent position check list is listed as "six turns OPEN" and has no local or r: mote position indication.

Which one of the following describes the method used to perform the independent verification?

a. The valve is not checked by a second checker. The space for the second checker on the Locked Valve Deviation Sheet for the valve in question is marked "N/A" by the CRS.

b. The second check is performed simultaneously with the initial positioning of the valve.

c. Remove the locking device and operate the hand wheel in BOTH the open and closed

position, noting number of turns, and returning the valve to the as found position. Then re-install l the locking device.

d. The valve is listed on the Valve Lineup Coversheet as a discrepancy until the use of system parameters can be employed to verify the valve position.

5 .You are performing a " Continuous Use" technical procedure to conduct an 114KV bus disconnect operation. You are in the 27' switch gear room and the procedure states, " To open disconnect 189-1111 in the 45'switchgear room",

( Which of the below describes the action required?

a. Draw a line through the error, change the "45" to "27" and initial the change,

b. Draw a line through the error, change the "45" to *27" and inform the CRO.

c. Continue the procedure and note the nomenclature error and process an " Issue Report" as described in OL-2-100.

d. Receive concurrence from the Shift Supervisor that this is a clerical error and proceed with the task.

6 . Select the condition when compensatory actions are NOT required when removing a nuisance annunciator alarm from service?

a. The system / plant conditions are out of their " normal" operating range,

b. Annunciator window already has a " magenta" dot.

c. The annunciator has multiple inputs with one or more OUT OF SERVICE.

d. The alarm is not providing useful information and has been " intermittent" for greater than thirty minutes.

Page 2 of 33 a

Reactor Operator Ex minatirn 7 . Surveillance is in progress on a 4 KV breaker which causes you to question the operability of a ,

safety related component.

The correct response for this condition is:

a. Inform the Manager - Nuclear Englaeering Department to verify the engineering configuration is within the goveming bases, b an appropriate entry in the CRO's Shift Tumover Information Sheet,

c. lnform the Shift Superv!sor to determine operability,

d. Inform the Maintenance Superintendent to have work order prerequisites reviewed.

8 . Equipment requiring a post maintenance test or evaluation is identified by:

a. the safety tag which initially took the equipment out of service,

b. the Technical Specification LCO tracking system,

c. a blue tag attached to the equipment controls,

d. yellow dots on the component annunciator (s) in the control room.

9 . During refueling operations, which one of the following indicates the periodicity for demonstrating direct communications between the Control Room personnel and the personnel at the refueling stations?

a. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

b. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months

c. 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months

d. 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months 10 . Fuel handling has been suspended at 0135 hours0.00156 days 0.0375 hours 2.232143e-4 weeks 5.13675e-5 months due to machine problems. As these difficulties continue onto the day shift, which one of the following indicates the periodicity for monitoring 1/M7

a. 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months

b. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

c. 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months d.12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months l

l Page 3 of 33

1 Res;t:r Operator Examinati:n 11.Which one of the following describes the cause of the 1/2 C06 panel annunciator " Unit 1/2 SPDS"?

A critical safety function box on the SPDS has changed color from:

a. red to magenta

b. green to yellow

c. red to green

d. green to red 12 "Any area at CCNPP accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving an Effective Dose Equivalent (EDE) in excess of 10 rems in one hour at 30 cm (12 inches) from the rad' rtion source or from any svilace that the radiation penetrates."

To which one of the following does this definition refer?

a a very high radiation area.

b. an exclusion high radiation area.

c. a radiation area,

d. a locked high radiation area.

13 .The Safety Function Hierarchy is divided into six priorities.

What is the third priority safety function?

a. Core & RCS Heat Removal

b. RCS Pressure & Inventory

c. Radiation Level ExternalTo Containment

d. Containment Environment 14 .With one MG set running and the CEDM bus x tie (TCB-9) closed, what is the minimum number of TCBs which must open for a FULL reactor trip to occur?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 8 Page 4 of 33

Reactor Cperator Excminati n 15 .Given the following:

A Unit i reactor startup is in progress.

The Reactor Operator is withdrawing Regulating Group 1 CEAs in the MANUAL GROUP mode.

Regulating group 1 is at 120 inches.

No CEA deviations exist.

WHICH ONE (1) of the following will be the FIRST to automatically stop CEA movement?

a. Highest CEA reaches the Upper Group Stop (UCS).

b. Lowest CEA reaches the Upper Group Stop (UCS). j

c. Highest CEA teaches the Upper Electrical Limit (UEL).

d. Lowest CEA reaches the Upper Electrical Limit (UEL).

16 .Which one of the following pre trips / conditions will generate a CEA Motion Inhibit? Assume logic has been met.

a.UCS

b. High SUR

c. PDIL

d. Tavg/ Tref Deviation 17 . lf the Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring System (RVLMS) indicatea sensors 1 through 5 are lit, which one of the following is correct?

a. The entire core is volded,

b. RCS levelis at or below the Fuel Alignment Plate,

c. Sufficient inventory exists to support Shutdown Cooling flow.

d. The u 3r head region above the core is full.

Page 5 of 33

Resctor Operatsr Examin;tien 18 .Which one of the following describes how continuous spray flow is maintained?

a. PZR main spray valves, RC-219 and 220, are throttled open to maintain spray line temperatures between 500 F and 505 F.

b.~ .

PZR pressure controller maintained in automatic with a setpoint of 220 psig.

c. PZR main spiny valves have a small ortfice drilled through their seats to allow a continous bypass flow,

d. PZR main spray valves, RC 219 and 220, are throttled open to maintain spray line temperatures between 550 F and 560 F.

, 19 . During normal full power operations, one RCP experiences increased bearing friction causing RCS flow to decrease by 0.5%

Which one of the following describes the RCS parameter response?

a. T-hot increases, Delta T increases, and Reactor power remains the same. ,

b. T-r.ot increases, Delta T decreeses, and Reactor power increases.

c. T-hot decreaar '. Delta T increases, and Reactor power remains the same,

d. T-hot decreases, Delta T decrecses, and Reactor power decreases.

20.Given the following conditions:

- RCS Pressure - 2250 psia

- Middle seal cavity - 2200 psia

- Upper seal cavity - 2050 psia

- Bleedoff cavity - 130 psia

- Sealleakoff flow- 1.7 gpm Which one of the following indicates the seal (s) that have or are failing? .

a. Lower seal

b. Lower and Middie seal

c. Middle seal

d. Middle and Upper seal Page 6 of 33

Rrctsr Operattr Excmin: tion '

21.Which one of the following is indication of a leak in the Reactor Coo' ant Pump (RCP) shaft seal (integral) heat exchanger? .

a. High RCP Component Cooling Water (CCW) outlet temperature.

b. Low levelin the GCW Head tank.

c. High RCP bleedoff flow.

d. High RCP CCWoutlet flow.

22 The following plant conditions exist:

1. Unit 2 is in MODE 1.

2. VCT makeup is in AUTOMATIC.

3. CVC-500 controller (Automatic Divert) is in the " AUTO" position.

4. VCT level transmitter LT-226 channel falls LOW.

6. No operator action is taken.

WHICH ONE of the following describes the system response?

a. VCT Inlet / Divert valve CVC-500 opens and diverts flow to the radwaste system,

b. VCT makeup valve CVC-512 opens.

c. Receipt of VCT low level annunciator,

d. Charging pump suction shifts to the RWT.

23 . Charging pumps are running on Unit 1 and an SIAS is present. (Assume no operator action) r When the BASTS are emptied, the charging pumps will:

a. trip on low oil pressure.

b. trip on low suction pressure.

c. automatically align to the RWT.

d. continue to run and become gas bound.

I-of 33

e R:act:r Operat:r Excmin:ti:n 24 .Which one of the following describes the expected positioning of valves in the CVCS system on

SIAS that will allow boration flow?

The flow path for boration is created by flow irom the Boric Acid Storage Tanks (BAST Tanks),:

a. through the gravity feed valves, through the Boric Acid pumps, through the Boric Acid Strainer, through manual boration valve CVC-174, directly to the Charging Pump suction,

b. bypassing the gravity feed valves, through the Boric Acid Dumps, through the Beric Acid Stralner, through CV-210Y, directly to the Charging Pump suction,

c. through the Boric Acid pumps, through Emergency Borate Valve (CVC-514), directly to the Charging Pump suction.

d. through the gravity feed valves, through the Boric Acid Pumps, Emergency Borate Valve (CVC-514), directly to the Charging Pump suction.

25 .Which one of the following describes the method of controlling RCS cooldown while on shutdown cooling on Unit 17

a. Manually adjust the SDC Flow Controller (FIC-306) and manually adjust the SDC heat l exchanger temperature controller (HIC 3657, to attain the desired cooldown rate.

! b. Manut.liy adjust the SDC Flow Controller (FIC-306) and allow automatic control of the SDC heat exchanger temperature controller (HIC-3657) to attain the desired cooldown rate.

c. Allow automatic control of the SDC Flow Controller ( FIC-306) and manually adjust the SDC heat e < changer temperature controller (hic-3657) to attain the desired cooldown rate.

d Allow automatic control of the SDC Flow Controller (FIC-306) and automatic control of the t

SDC heat exchanger temperature controller (HIC-3657) to attain the desired cooldown rate.

/

Page 8 of 33 1

Rocct:r Operat:r Examin:tisn 26 Low Pressure Safety injection pumps recirculation valves SI-659 and SI-660 are manually closed on RAS actuation. -

Which one of the following is the reason these valves are closed?

a. Recirculation flow is not required for pump protection since the LPSI pumps are tripped on RAF.

b. Prevent release to the environment of activated airbome particles from the containment sump water via the RWT vent.

c. Ensure NPSH for LPSI pumps following RAS.

d. Ensure maximum flow of water to the RCS.

27 . Unit 1 is on SDC when RCS pressure inadvertently drifts up to 325 psia. Which one of the followit.s will protect the SDC system from over pressui. zing?

a. LTOP will actuate to reduce RCS pressure.

b. Operator action is required to reduce RCS pressure and protect SDC system.

c. LPSI pumps will trip and their discharge check valves will shut.

d. SDC return isolation valves SI-651-MOV & SI-652-MOV shut and SDC suction line relief willlift to protect the retum header.

1 28 . Unit 1 is on SDC when RCS pressure as read on PT-103 and 103-1 inadvertently drifts up to 350 psia. What automatic functions will protect the SDC system from overpressure?

a. RV-468, SDC suction line relief downstream of SI-651, will lift to protect the return header.

j b. Since MPT is enabled, two PORVs will open when RCS pressure exceeds 340 psia.

c. LPSI pumos willi trip and their discharge valves will shut,

d. Si-651-MOV and SI-652-MOV shut and reilef valve RV-469, SDC suction line relief between SI-651 and SI-652 will lift to protect the retum header.

Page 9 of 33

R: actor Operat:r Excmin:ti::n 29 .On a loss of the "11" 4 KV bus, which ONE of the following occurs preventing either train of Shutdown Cooliag (SDC) from being placed in service o,1 Unit 17

c. One SDC Hot Leg Suction Valve is de-energized,

b. The SDC ';mperature Control Valve (CV-C57) is de-energized,

c. One Low Pressure Safety injection Header Isolation Valve in each train is de-energized,

d. The SDC Heat Exchanger Bypass Valve (FCV-306) falls closed due to a loss of Instrument Air.

30 . Following a LOCA, RCS pressure is at 1300 psia.

Which one of the following statements describes the status of Si flow?

a. Constant HPSI flow exists with no LPSI flow,

b. No HPSI or LPSI flow exists,

c. Increasing HPSI flow exists, no LPSI flow.

d. Constant HPSI and LPSI flow exists.

31. Select the Normal and Alternate sources of makeup water to the Component Cooling Water Head Tank?

a, Normal- Condensate System Attemate - Firewater System

b. Normal- Demineralized Water Alternate - Reactor Makeup Water

c. Normal-Condensate System Alternate - Demineralized Water System

d. Normal- Demineralized Water System Altemate - Condensate System Page 10 of 33 sw

R :ct r Operatar Ex min:ti n '

32 . During full power operations, the annunciator alarm "CCW PPS SIAS Blocked Auto Start" on C13 has sounded. -

Which one of the following describes the cause of the annunciator?

o. CC pump 13 Breaker is open and its disconnect is closed.

b. SIAS signal to CC pump 13 and the pump breaker fal:s to close,

c. CC pump 13 handswitch is in PuNTo-Lock.

d. CC pump 11 Breaker is open and its disconnect is closed.

33 .The following plant conditions exist:

-Steady state operation at 100% power.

-The PZR pressure Selected Controller setpoint :s inadvertently changed to 2360 psia (step change),

-Pressurizer pressure control is in automatic.

Which one of the following will be the IMMEDIATE response of the system?

a. Power operated relief valve RC-402 opens and proportional heaters go to miniraum.

b. Power operated relief valves RC-402 and RC-404 open and spray valves open if previously

! closed.

c. Spray valves open if previously closed and proportional heaters go to minimum,

d. Spray valves close if previously open and proportional heaters go to maximum.

34 .Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

- operating at 100 % power

- pressurizer level and pressure controls in automatic, selected to channel Y

- channel X pressurizer level and pressure at setpoint You observe the backup charging pump starts and all pressurizer heaters have de-energized.

Which one of the following is the cause of this event?

a. The controlling pressurizer pressure transmitter failed low.

b. The controlling pressurizer pressure transmitter failed high.

c. The controlling pressurizer level transmitter failed low.

d. The controlling pressurizer level transmitter failed high.

Page 11 of 33 l

React:r Operat:r Ermin:ti:n 35 .Which one of the following describes the response of a Pressurizer Level channel failing low?

Assume the failed channelis the selected channel and no operator action is taken.

a. All heaters will deenergize, letdown goes to minimum, standby charging pump starts, actual pressurizer level and pressure increase, the reactor trips on High Pressurizer pressure.

b. All heaters will deenergize, pressurizer pressure decreases, the reactor trips on TM/LP.

c. All heaters remain energized, letdown goes to maximum, only one charging pump remains ON, Actual pressurizer pressure and level decrease, the reactor trips on TM/LP.

d. All heaters remain energized, letdown goes to minimum, actual pressurizer level and pressure increase, the reactor trips on High Pressurizer Pressure.

36 Which one of the following describes the plant response to a loss of 120 VAC Bus 117

a. A losc of power will occur to 1/2 of the CEDMs.

b.- ESFAS Sensor channel ZE components trip,

c. 4 Trip Circuit Breakers will open with unit trip,

d. 10 RPS Channel A trip units are tripped.

37 .When the High Pressurizer Pressure Trip Inhibit key is installed in the bistable trip unit in the Reactor Protection System (RPS) panel, it closes contacts inhibiting which portion of the High Pressurizer Pressure trip?

a. Blocks the Diverse Scram System (DSS) input from that channel of RPS.

b. Disables PORV motor operated isolation valve.

c. Prevents Power Operated Relief Valve (PORV) operation by use of the key on CO3.

d. Bypasses the PORV actuation from that channel of RPS.

38 Under which condition will the low S/G pressure trip be bypassed?

a. Automatically bypassed when the auctioneered high S/G pressure is <767 psia

b. Manually bypassed with a key when the auctioneered high S/G pressure is < 767 psia.

c. Automatically bypassed once the main twbine trips.

d. Manually bypassed with a key once the main turbine trips.

Page 12 af 33 s

R :ct r Operator Examin:ticn -

39 . Upon Recirculation Actuat!on Signal, valves are repositioned after verifying HPSI pump flow.

Which one of the following describes the valve repositioning that occurs on an RAS?

RWT outlet valves are CLOSED:

a. automatically and containment sump discharge valves open automatically,

b. manually after the containment sump discharge valves are opened manually.

c. manually and containment sump discharge valves are opened automatically,

d. automatically and the containment sump discharga valves are opened manually.

40 . Removing an ISOLATION module from one of the Engineered Safety Features cabinets places the LOGIC modules logic in:

a. 2 out of 4 b.1 out of 3

c. 2 out of 3 d.1 out of 4 41.While in Hot Standby, the " ACTUATION SYS SIAS TRIPPED" alarm has annunciated at 1C08.

Which of the following conditions indicates actuation of a " VALID" SIAS?

a. Containment Prect are at 1C10 indicates 2.0 psig and slowly increasing, and PZR possure displays at 1C00 indicates 1760 psia and decreasing slowly,

b. Containment Pressure at 1C10 indicates 1.6 psig and slowly increasing, and the TM/LP pre-trip and trip unit lights are illuminated on at least three RPS channels.

c. Containment Pressure at 1C10 indicates 4.0 psig and slowly increasing, and the Containment Pressure pre-trip and trip unit lights are illuminsted on all RPS channels.

d. PZR Pressure displays at 1C06 indicate 1760 psia and slowly decreasing, and all TM/LP pre-trip and trip unit lights illuminated on all RPS channels.

1 Page 13 of 33

R:act r Operatar Excminati:n 42 .The Diverse Scram System (DSS) accomplishes a reactor trip signal independent and diverse of the Reactor Protection System (RPS) by:

a. Tripping Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS) input parameters which are independent / diverse of RPS.

b. Tripping the reactor by using non-safety related control channels for inputs to the RPS.

c. Tripping the reactor by opening the CEA MG set input breaker through the ESFAS.

d. Tripping the reactor by opening line contactors upstream of the Reactor Trip breakers which RPS opens.

43 . During a normal reactor startup, which one of the following is used to monitor count rate doubling?

a. WR Count Rate Channel,

b. Audio amplifier circuits,

c. Linear Power Channel.

d. Shutdown Monitor.

l 44 .During reactor startup, power is raised to the Point-of-Adding-Heat. All Wide Range Channels are indicating approx.1%. The Operator-At-the-Controls observes power range indication at 4%.

What action is required by OP-2 " Plant Startup from Hot-Standby to Minimum Load"?

a. Continue the reactor startup per OP-2, indications of proper overlap have been verified.

b. Continue the reactor startup per OP-2 and declare MODE 1 at 5%.

c. Stop the reactor startup. Observe linear power indication on 1C15 to determine proper NI response,

d. Stop the reactor startup. Observe Wide Range indication on 1C05 to determine proper NI response.

Page 14 of 33

{

1

~

Roast::r Operat::r Examinati::n 45 .Which one of the following describes the result of de-energizing the Gamma Metrics LRNI level 2 .

bistable?

a. Enables APD trip,

b. Initiates power trip test interlock circuit (PTTl),

c. Energizes channelin test LED.

d. Enables loss of load trip.

46 .Which one of the following is tne reason that CEDM fans are operated when RCS temperatures tre less than 300 F during accident conditions?

e. Minimize the build up of condensation on the CEDM windings,

b. Aid in the coilapse of voids that may have formed in the RCS during the event.

c. Aid in the cooling of the containment atmosphere during the event,

d. Minimize the buildup of condensation on components, other than CEDMs, attached to the vet.sel head.

47 . Unit 1 reactor power is 82%. Reactor Cavity Cooling fan 11 is in service when it trips due to l electrical fault.

t Which one of the following describes the response, if any, of the remaining cooling fan?

i n. Automatically starts after 10 seconds.

b. Must be started manually.

c. Must be started manually within 10 seconds,

d. Automatically starts immediately.

48 . Prior to an RAS, containment pressure is 50 psig. Following RAS containment pressure is reduced below the CSAS setpoint. Which one of the following describes the response of the containment spray system?

CS flow will:

a. not change as containment pressure has negligible effect on spray flow.

b. decrease during the injection phase of containment spray actuation.

c. increase during the recirculation phase of containment spray actuation.

d. decrease during the recirculation phase of containment Spray actuation.

Page 15 of 33

React:r Operat:r Examinati:n 49 .Which one of the following describes the Containment lodine Removal System flow path?

a. Moisture Separator, HEPA Filter, Charcoal Filter, Circulating Fan.

b. Charcoal Fitter, Moisture Separator, HEPA Filter, Circulating Fan.

c. Moisture Separator, Charcoal Filter, HEPA Filter, Circulating Fan,

d. Circulating Fan, Moisture Separator, HEPA Filter, Charcoal Filter.

50 .Given the following plant conditions:

Un!t 2 tripped from 80% power due to a loss of vacuum All systems responded as expected Tavg is 533 degrees-F Siccm Dump valves are closed

$> VSP)fff)C If Tavg begins to increase above 535 degrees-F the steam dumps will:

a. immediately begin to modulate open until T-avg reaches 540 degrees-F, at which time they will quick-open.

b. immediately begin to modulate open until T-avg reaches 548 degrees-F, at which time they will be fully open. .

c. remain closed until T-avg reaches 540 degrees-F, at which time they will begin to modulate open.

d. remain closed until T-avg reaches 540 degrees-F, at which time they will quick-open.

51.The Feedwater Control System is in manual with the plant holding at 80% power. The feedwater regulating bypass valve for Steam Generator 12 drifts fully open.

Assuming no operator action,12 Steam Generator level will:

a. increase to the Hi Level set point, the feedwater regulating valve and Bypass valve closa, with Steam Flow > Feed Flow, a reactor trip from Lo Steam Generator Level will occur,

b. will remain constant as the feedwater regulating valve closes to compensate for the increasing level.

c. will remain constant as feed pump speed decreases to maintain feedwater regulating valve delta P.

d. increese to the Hi level trip setpoint closing the feedwater regulating valve and the bypass valve and causing a turbine trip and reactor trip.

Page 16 of 33

R:cct:r Operat:r Excmincti::n -

l 52 .Which one of the following will result in the initiation of an AUTOMATIC trip of the "11" Main l Feedwater pump when Unit 1 is at 100% power? ;

a. Pump discharge pressure increases to 1500 psig

b. Suction pressure decreases to 250 psig.

c. Pump discharge pressure decreases to 1100 prig,

d. Trip of the "11" condensate pump.

53 .The plant was operating at 20% power when it tripped on low Steam Generator level. The Main Feed Water Regulating Valves closed and their bypass valves ramped to 5% feed flow.

Which one of the following conditions caused this valve response?

a. Auxiliary contacts on the Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers,

b. Auxiliary contacts in the Steam Dump Permissive Circuit.

c. Undervoltage on the Control Element Drive Mechanism buses,

d. Steam Generator water level less than -170 inches.

4 54 .Which one of the following describes the operation of the Steam Supply Valves for the Turbine

, Driven AFW Pump?

a. When opening, CV-4070 and CV-4070a open simultaneously,

b. When closing, CV-4070a closes first followed by CV-4070.

c. When opening, CV-4070a opens first followed by CV-4070.

d. When opening, CV-4070 opens first followed by CV-4070a.

i 55 . Select the function of the keyswitches located in the Auxiliary Feed Water (AFW) Pump room for the Turbine Driven AFW Pump Trip / Throttle (T/T) valve,

a. Enable the T/T valve trip function from the AFW Pump Room.

i b. Trip the TIT valve locally.

c. Disable the T/T valve trip function from the AFW Pump Room.

d. Disable the T/T valve trip function from the control room handswitches.

Page 17 of 33

Roaster Operstar Extmin ti:n -

56 . Unit 1 is operating at full power when 4 Reactor Trip Breakers open. The reactor does NOT trip -

cnd NO other TCB's c4 n.

Which one of the following r . hment failures is the cause of this event?

a. 208/120 VAC Instrument bus b.125 VDC Reserve Battery Bus

c. 125 VDC Bus

d. CEA MG set 57 .Which one of the following indicMas the pressurizer heaters that would be available following a L'ss of Off-site Power (LOOP)? Assume the DGs start and carry the emergency loads.

I

a. Proportional Heater Bank-1 and Backup Heater Bank-3.

b. Proportional Hester Bank-1.

ci Backup Hea*er Bank-1 & 3.

d. Backup Heater Bank-1 and Propotional Heater Bank-1.

58 .The 125VDC Battery Charger 11 has failed due to an electrical fault.

Which ONE of the following identifies the remaining sources of power to 120VAC vital Bus 11?

a. 125VDC Battery Charger No.12, 125VDC Battery 11, 120VAC Inverter Backup Bus 21 b.- 125VDC Battery Charger No. 23,-

125VDC Battery 11, 120VAC Inverter Backup Bus 11.

c. 125VDC Battery Charger No. 23, ,

125VDC Battery 11, 120VAC in forter Backup Bus 21 d.125VDC Battery Charger No.12, 125VDC Battery 11, 120VAC Inverter Backup Bus 11 Page 18 of 33 l

y ,, .. .

R :ct:r Operat:r Ex:minatien *'

59 .Which one of the followim iehe source of control power for breakers on the 4KV Unit Bus 117 a.120 V Vital AC

b. 125 VDC

c. 250 VDC

d. 208/120 VAC 60 .Which one of the following statements best describes the relationship of the 120 VAC and 1'.5 VDC power to the plant computer?

a. The static inverter feeding the computer has both a 120 VAC and a 125 VDC power supply and it automatically switches on a loss of the 125 VDC.

b. The static inverter feeding the computer has both a 120 VAC and 125 VDC power supply which has to be manually switched to the 120 VAC when the 125 VDC is lost,

c. The static inverter is a backup to the normal 120 VAC power source. When 120 VAC is lost, power is automatically switched to the 125 VDC powered inverter.

d. The 125 VDC powered static inverter supplies the #11 120 VAC inverter bus which in tum supplies power to the plant computer.

61.When stopping Diesel Generator 1 A following a periodic test, load is first reduced to approximately 450 KW before the output breaker is opened.

Why is load reduced to this power level?

a. Allows for cooldown of the engine,

b. The engine may overspeed if power is higher.

c. The breaker has a manualinterlock above 450 KW.

d. The reverse power trip circuit is energized below 400 KW.

Page 19 of 33

ROcct:r Operat:r Excmin: tion 62 .The annunciator "125 VDC Power Supply Failure" has energized on the 1 A Diesel Generator -

control panel.

When a diesel generator start signal is received, the diesel generator will:

a start because only 1 of the 4 air start distributor solenoid valves are affected by the loss of DC volts.

b. start because backup power supplies will allow power to be supplied to the air start distributor solenoids.

c. not start since DC power will only be supplied to 2 of tne 4 air start distributor solenoid valves.

d. not start because DC power is unavailable to any of the air start distributor solenoid valves.

63 .Which ONE of the following 1 A Diesel Generator trips will also actuate the Emergency Shutdown Signal alarm on the Annunciator panel?

e. Generator Differential Protection

b. Generator Overvoltage

c. Generator bearing HiHi temperature i d. Push Button 2A (Emergenc/ Stop pushbutton on local control panel) depressed I

= 64 .WHICH ONE of the following is the expected response of the Instrument Air System to a major Turbine Building Instrument Air header rupture on Unit 17

- e. Instrument air pressure will decrease on Unit i until the air compressors trip on high current.

4

b. Instrument air cross-tie valve to Unit 2 will open, then reclose if the Unit 2 Instrument Air System pressure drops below setpoint.

c. ' The normally open instrument air cross-tie valve to Unit 2 will close when Unit 1 Instrument Air System pressure drops below setpoint.

d. The Plant Air System cross-tie valve will open to supply the Unit 1 Instrument Air System when -

pressure drops below setpoint.

Page 20 of 33

p R0actar Operat r Extminatian p 65 AOP-1B,"CEA Malfunction", requires reactor power to be maintained constant during the ,

recovery of a single dropped CEA.

Which one of the following is used to maintain Reactor power?

a. Turbine Load

b. Boration

c. Group C CEAs

d. Dilution 66 .The following plant conditions exist:

1. Two CEAs have dropped into the core.

2. Pressurizer level decreases to <95".

3. Reactor power decreases from 100% to 85%.

4. Pressurizer pressure decreases to 2225 psia.

WHICH ONE of the following is the minimum action required?

a. Trip the reactor and perform Standard Post Trip Actions,

b. Reduce Turbine load to match Reactor power.

c. Commence a reactor shutdown to su6 critical,

d. Reduce power to less than 70%.-

67. . Unit 2 has been operating at 100% power when a load decrease to 50% is initiated. During the load decrease ONE CEA remains at its fully withdrawn position while the other CEAs in the Group

. are being inserted.

Which one of the following annunciutor alarms would provide indication that the CEA failed to move?

a. "CEA WITHDRAWAL PROHIBIT'.

b. "CEA MOTION INHIBIT".

c. " SECONDARY CEA GROUP SEQUENCE".

d. " SECONDARY POWER DEPEN INSERTION".

Page 21 of 33

R: actor Opesator Excmination 68 .The basis for the RCP Trip Strategy in EOP-0 and any of the succeeding EOPs will:

a. Ensure that during a cold leg break LOCA, RCPs remain running as long as possible, and during non-LOCA conditions, pressurizer spray is maintained,

b. Ensure that during a hot leg break LOCA, RCPs are secured early enough to prevent a deep uncovery of the core, and during non-LOCA conditions pressurizer spray is maintained.

c. Ensure that during LOCAs, sufficient flow is maintained to aid heat removal from the reactor vessel head, and during non LOCA events pressurizer spray heat losses are minimized.

d. Ensure that during all events (LOCA and non LOCA) the core is kept from too deep of an uncovery and that the use of aux. Spray is minimized.

69 .Given the following conditions:

A RCS heatup is in progress.

RCS pressure ICsla. 2200 The acoustic monitor for a PORV indicates va!ve leakage.

Which ONE of the following describes the expected tail pipe temperature and how tail pipe temperature will respond as RCS pressure decreases to 500 psla?

(Assume pressure downstream of the PORV remains constant.)

a. Tail pipe temperature will be higher than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure.

As pressure decreases tail pipe temperature will increase.

b. Tail pipe temperature will be higher than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure.

As pressure decreases tail pipe temperature will decrease,

c. Tail pipe temperature will be lower than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure. As pressure decreases tail pipe temperature will increase,

d. Tail pipe temperature will be lower than if the PORV opened at normal operating pressure. As pressure decreases tail pipe temperature will decrease.

Page 22 cf 33

R :ct:rOperat:r Ex min ti n -

70 .Which ONE of the following is an approved attemate method of establishing hot leg injection

. during a LOCA event on Unit 17 .,

s. LPSI pump discharging to the pressurizer auxiliary spray line.

b. LPSI pump discharging to the hot legs via the shutdown cooling suction line,

c. HPSI pumps discharging to the normal pressurizer spray line.

d. Containment Spray Pumps discharging to the hot legs via the normal pressurizer spray line.

71.With power at 94%, which ONE of the following lists ALL RCP temperatures that can exceed 195

F and allow Qe RCP to continue to operate?

a. Upper or lower guide bearing temperatures and controlled bleedoff temperatures.

b. Upper os downward thrust bearing temperitures.

c. Upper or lower guide bearing and upper or downward thrust bearing temperatures.

d. Controlled bleed off temperatures.

72 . A loss of MCC-104R has occurred.

Which one of the following describes a boration flow path that remains available?

a. RWT, CVC-508, CVC-504, charging pump suction.

b. BAST, CVC-210Y, CVC-512, VCT, charging pump suction

c. RWT, CVC-508, charging pump suction

d. BAST, CVC-514, charging pump suction :

73 .The reactor is shutdown with shutdown cooling (SDC) in progress when the operating LPSI pump

. becomes air bound and trips due to low RCS water level. After RCS water level is restored, neither LPSI pump can provide significant flow.

What other pumps _can be aligned to the SDC system to provide SDC flow?

a. HPSI pumps

b. Containment spray pumps

c. Charging pumps .

d. Spent fuel pool cooling pumps l

4 Page 23 of 33 l l

1 l

l' R cet:r Operator Examinttien 74 .The air supply to the Component Cooling Water return line containment isolation valve (CC-3833) has been broken while scaffolding was being erected.

Which ONE of the following describeu the effect, if any, this will have on Reactor Coolant Pump operation?

a. RCPs will have to be tripped immediately, l3

b. RCP temperatures on two of the four pumps willincrease,

c. RCPs will be able to operate for 10 minutes.

d. RCP cooling will be unaffected.

75 . According to the Abnormal Operating Procedure for Lcss of Componcnt Cooling Water (CCW),

which one of the following CCW malfunctions would require the Reactor to be TRIPPED?

a. Low level alarm in the CCW Head Tank.

b. Cavitation of running CCW pumps.

c. A trip of the 11 CCW Pump while running.

d. Low RCP CCW flow alarm.

76 .Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at normal operating temperature and presst

All systems are in automatic, Pressurizer Pressure Channel X is selected for control.

Pressurizer Pressure Controller PIC-100X is placed in MANUAL.

PIC 100X output is reduced to 10%.

With no further action, which one of the following descri'ves the plant response?

a. Proportional heater output increases causing pressure to increase until spray valves open.

b. Procortional heater output decreases causing pressure to decrease until backup heaters energize.

c. Proportional heater output increasas causing pressure to increase until a reactor trip occurs.

d. Proportional heaters will cycle at a lower setpoint.

Page 24 of 33 1

React:r Operat:r Ex min:ti:n 77 .The following plant conditions exist:

1. Unit 2 is at 100% power.

2. All control systems are in AUTOMATIC.

3. Pressurizer spray valve is stuck OPEN.

4. NO operator action is taken.

WHICH ONE of the following describes the effect of RCS pressure DECREASING to 2210 psla?

a. Pressurizer "PZR CH 100 PRESS" alarm is energized.

b. Proportional heaters are fully energized.

c. Proportional heaters are partially energized,

d. All backup heaters energized.

78 . Unit 1 is being sh9toown to hot standby due to a Steam Generator Tube Leak.

Which ONE of the following indicates the tube leak has become a tube rupture?

c. With one charging pump running, letdown isolated, and pressurizer level can no longer be controlled at setpoint.

b. With one charging pump running, and letdown flow at minimum and pressurizer level can no longer be controlled at setpoint..

, c. When letdown flow combined with the tube rupture flow exceeds 45 GPM.

d. When charging flow reaches 88 GPM.

79 .With AOP-2A being implemented, select the valve that is required to be CLOSED for isolation of a tube leak on steam generator 21, and is normally maintained open?

l

a. Steam Generator 21 Steam Supply valve (MS-4070-CV)

b. Steam Generator 21 Steam Supply Bypass Valve (MS-4070A-CV)

c. Steam Generator 21 Flow Control Valve (AFW-4511-CV)

d. AFW Pump 21 Trip Throttle Valve (MS-3986)

Page 25 of 33 .

l,

~

R;;ct::r Operat:::r Ex; min:ti;n 80.Given the following conditions:

1. A Steam Generator Tube Rupture has occurred.

2. - All systerns responded as expected.

2. The performance of EOP-6 is in progress.

3. One Steam Generator has been isolated.

4. All RCPs have been stopped. -

5. RCS cooldown using natural circulation is in progress.

Which one of the following describes the reason that the isolated SG pressure is of concern before the RCS can be placed on SDC?

a. The isolated SG pressure would be too low due to excessive cooldown causing RCS water to enter the SG and reducing RCS inventory.

b. SG pressure is being maintained slightly less than RCS pressure to prevent secondary water entering the RCS.

c. Since the RCS cooldown rate was maintained less than 35 F/hr, the affected loop has not been cooled sufficiently to allow SG depressurization.

d. The affected SG pressure is high due to thermalstratification of the secondary water.

l l

! 81. A S/G tube rupture has occurred on Unit i and the RCS h being depressurized to restore pressurizer level. The following plant conditions exist:

SIAS has been blocked RCS pressure is 1200 psia Tcold is 508 F and Thot is 530 F CET subcooling is 37 F All RCPs are tripped Pressurizer level is 40 inches and rising Which one of the following actions should be taken in order to reduce the primary to secondary leak rate?

a. Thrciltle HPSI flow.

. b. Lower RCS subcooling,

c. Raise the RCS cooldown rate.

d. Open the SIG blowdown control valves.

Page 26 of 33

Re:ctor Operstor Excminction .

82 .Given the following:

-During an Excess Steam D2 mand event, BOTH steam generators are suspected of being affected.

Which one of the following identifies the steam generator (s) that should be isolated?

E a. Both steam generators, since a potential exists to over-cool the RCS.

b. Only the steam generator with the highest Tc.

c. Either steam generator, since it will aid in identification of the affected S/G.

d. Only the steam generator with the Ic. vest pressure.

83 . A loss of condenser vacuum occurred on Unit 1 with reactor power at 60%. The operators are reducing power and are able to maintain condenser vacuum at 24 inches Hg.

Which ONE of the following indicates the power level at which the turbine will have to be tripped if }

vacuum can NOT be increased to greater than 25 inehes Hg?

a. 88 MWE.

b. 176 MWE.

c. 270 MWE.

d. 440 MWE.

84 . During the perfomiance of EOP-7 " Station Blackout" On Unit 1, which one of the following describes the actions performed in aligning the electrical system for power restoration?

Ensure tho:

a. 13KV Faeder breakers are CLOSED.

b. 4KV Bus LOCl/SD sequenceris OFF.

c. DG output breakers are CLOSED.

d. 14 4KV Bus Altemate Feeder Breaker is OPEN.

Page 27 of 33

=*

R:act:r Operat:r Ex min ti:n 85 .Which one of the following describes the method used to operate AFW flow control valves during

"- the performance of EOPi/," Station Blackout"?

c. Local manual control by an operator,

b. Control room operation after aligning N2 to the AFW amplifier air system,

c. Placing the controller in Auto-Full open and controlling speed of the Steam Driven AFW pump.

d. Local manual control after aligning N2 to the AFW amplifier air system. >

i 86 . Following a loss of 12120 VAC bus, the performance of steps in AOP-7J requires the ESFAS SENSOR cabinets be reenergized prior to the LOGIC cabinets.

Which ONE of the following is the basis for the order of the steps?

c. Prevent inadvertent actuation since the Logic modules are deenergized to actuate and the sensor modules are energized to actuate.

b. Prevent inadvertent actuation sinca the Logic modules are energized to actuate and the sensor modules are deenergized to actuate,

c. Properly align the Under Voltage Logic relays.

d. Properly align the Under Voitage Sensor Relays.

87 , During the performance of a waste gas release from the 11 Waste Gas Decay Tank, WGS-2191-CV is found to be closed.

Which valve must be closed as soon as possible to prevent a possible waste gas decay tank discharge to the wau;e gas surge tank?.

a. Waste gas discharge flow control (WGS-2191-PCV)

b. Waste gas decay tank outlet (WGS-623)

c. Waste gas discharge to Unit 1 plant vent (WGS-683)

d. Waste gas discharge final filter bypass (WGS-630) 1 Page 28 of 33

R;;ct::r Operat::r Examination l

88 .Which one of the following is correct concoming a loss of instruinent Air Pressure?

a. Condensate Demineralizer Bypass Valve falls open.

b. Pressurizer Spray Valves fail open.

c. Pressurizer Auxiliary Spray Valve fails closed.

d. Containment Spray Control Valves fail cbsed.

l- 89 . During a loss of instrument air la MODE 1 operation, when would the reactor and turbine be tripped and EOP-0 implemented?

a. If instrument air pressure decreases to less than 40 psig and Feed Regulating Valve control is lost.

b. If instrument air pressure decreases to 40 psig or in the opinion of the SS or CRS continued plant operation may cause equipment damage.

c. If component cooling containment isolation valves, CC-3832-CV or CC-3833-CV, begin to go

. shut and low flow alarms received on the RCPs.

d. If component cooling containment isolation valves, CC-3832-CV or CC-3833-CV, begin to go shut or in the opinion of the SS or CRS continued plant operation may cause damage to the RCPs.

- 90 .Why must the handswitch for the Containment Instrument Air Isolation, IA-2085-CV, NOT be held in the OPEN position when restoring instrument air to containment?

a. Valve "OPEN" relay may be damaged.

b. Valve will not open until released to " AUTO" position,

c. Protective feature will deenergize the "OPEN" circuit after 5 seconds.

- d. ' Valve time delay dropout relay will be defeated.

3 l

l b

Page 29 of 33

Recctor Operctor Excmin: tion 91.Given the following:

A fire has been detected in a panelin the control room

. Supervision has determined that the control room is to be evacuated Prior to fire discovery, both units were operating in Mode 1

. Prior to control room evacuation the required actions of AOP-9A " CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION..." have been performed Which one of the following describes the initial response of RCS temperature upon abandoning the control room?

Temperature will be controlled:

a. at 515 F - 535 F by TBVs.

b. at 515 F - 535 F by ADVs.

c. by the Main Steam Safety Valves cycling,

d. by Auxiliary Feedwater flow and ADVs operating in automatic control.

92 .Which one of the following describes the timing of actions that are accomplished during the performance of AOP-9B," Safe Shutdown due to a Severe Cable Spreading Room Fire"?

a. Establish charging flow within 60 minutes and AFW flow within 30 minutes.

b. Establish AFW flow within 60 minutes and charging flow within 30 minutes,

c. Stop Steam Generator Feed Pum'ps within 60 minutes and start 1 A Diesel Generator within 30 minutes.

d. Start 1 A Diesel Generator within 60 minutes and stop Steam Generator Feed Pumps within 30 minutes.

Page 30 of 33 1

MS _ _ _ _ . _ _ _

Rocct3r Operat:r Extmintti n -

93 .Given the following parameters:

i 0830 0845 Thot 482 482 CET Ternp. 587 585 Tcold 467 466 Which ONE of the following describes the conclusion that can be made about natural circulation?

Adequate natural circulation has:

a. not been established because Thot is remaining constant,

b. been established because the delta between Thot and Tcold is decreasing,

c. been established because Tcold is decreasing.

d. not been established because the CET temp.-is decreasing.

94 . A natural circulation cooldown is in progress. While cooling down with ADVs, which ONE of the following will cause the most restrictive limitation on cooldown rate?

a. Isolating one steam generator, i

b. Complying with Technical Specifications cooldown restrictions.

c. Cooling down without main feedwater available.

. d. Complying with Pressurizer cooldown restrictions.

95 .During EOP-0, plant conditions warrant a safety injection actuation. Inaddition to the "SIAS ACTUATED" annunciator alarm, select the condition which ensures that SIAS has occurred,

a. HPSI and LPSI pumps running and proper flow exists for existing RCS pressure.

b. HPSI pumps running and discharge pressure greater than or equal to RCS pressure. 1

c. HPSI pumps running and the auxiliary and main HPSI header isolation valves are open.

d. HPSI, LPSI, and Containment Spray pumps running with HPSI and LPSI discharge valves open.

Page 31 of 33

R0cct:r Operat:r Examinatinn 96 ,While operating Unit 1 @ 100% power, one Steam Generator Feed Pump (SGFP) tripped duo to a mechanical fault. Reactor power was reduced to 60% while troubleshooting the failed pump.

Operation may CONTINUE at this power level as long as which one of the following parameters is

, maintained.

i

a. SGFP suction flow rate is 19500 gpm.

)

b. SGFP suction pressure is 265 psig.

c. SGFP speed is 5375 RPM.

d. SGFP discharge pressure is 1350 psig, i

l 97 A Main Feedwater Regulating valve (FRV)is being operated manually at the FRV when a reactor 4 trip occurs.

i.

Which ONE of the following describes the required action?

a. Locally close the FRV.

?

b. Close the Main Feedwater Isolation Valve,

c. Position the FRV to 5% open.

d. Vent air from the FRV.

I 98 .Which one of the following describes the length of time from a valid low steam generator level i

condition (-170") to open the main steam supply valves (MS-4070&4071) to the turbine driven

Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps?

I a. 10 sec.

l b. 20 sec.

c. 45 sec,

d. 65 sec.

99 Which one of the following would require the tripping of only cne RCP in each loop?

l a. A Steam Generator tube rupture has occurred, RCS pressure is 1825 psia.

b. A Containment isolation Signal has been received, RCS pressure is 1800 psia.

c. A Small Break LOCA has occurred, RCS pressure is 1725 psia.

i

d. A Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred, RCS pressure is 900 psia.

Page 32 of 33 i

R :ct:r Operat:r Examinatisn -

100 .Which one of the following states a condition requiring EOP-8 entry?

a. If two or more Safety Functions are not met in EOP-1 with parameters returning to expected values.

b. If a Reactor Trip occurs due to an unexplained generator protection fault.

c. If any single event has been diagnosed with parameters not retuming to expected values.

d. If a condition exists post-trip for which an optimal EOP has not been identifed.

l Page 33 of 33

. ATTACHMENT 3 Rf SOLUTION OF BG&E COMMENTS ON THE WRITTEN Exam .

SRO Exam Question 10 BG&E's comment: " Delete question. The role of CRS is not clear from the question, change of intent evaluator, safety screener, plant management staff or SRO. If he is to sign for SRO,it only requires that the change does not affect current plant operation and all answers are correct. Additionally, procedures do not contain a "materiallist," so the correct answer may be eliminated as a distractor."

NRC response: Agree with BG&E comment, delete the question. The question cc ocerns authorization to approve an immediate change temporary approval form. Yhe correct answer addres:,es a change to a materiallist.

Materiallists are not addressed in Attachment 11,immrflate Change Temporary Approva! corm, of PR1 101, Preparation an Control of Calvert

, Clifis Technical Procedures.

, Question 15 BG&E's comment: " Change answer key from b to d. The Station Blackout l criterion is only Moden 14."

l NRC response: Agree with BG&E's comment. The question posed was for classification of a fuel handling event Mode 6; the answe' was applicable only in Modes 1 through 4. The answer was changed from "b.," " Site Area Emergency" to "d.," " Alert."

Question 23 BG&E's comment: " Accept answers c anti d, poor wording. Asks two questions, what provides boration, how do valves position on SlAS."

NRC response: Disagree, the question asks what the expected positioning of valves would be to allow boration flow on SIAS. The question also stipulates flow from the BAST. A review of the question determined that the enswer stated to the qut.stion (c.) is conect. SRO and RO candidates should be able to assimilate conditions and develop a correct response. This question is within the expected abilities of SRO and RO candidates.

The above elso applies to RO question number 24.

Question 36 BG&E's comment: " Accept answer a and d, poor wcrding. Correct answer d infers that DSS is not independent of RPS. Eliminating this ant.wer makes answer a the most correct choice + e DSS is actuated bs; ESF AS."

NRC response: Disagree with BG&E comment, no change to the question.

Answer "d." is correct, answer "a." would not be correct. The "a." answer:

" Tripping Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS) input parameters which are ir dependent / diverse of RPS,"is not correct because input parameters are not tripped, outputs devices are trippad based on ,

inputs. SRO and RO candidates are expected to know functions and i

._..J

1 Attachment 3 3 connections of safety related systems, in addition, th.s question was reviewed by BG&E prior to exam administration and they stated that this was expected candidate knowledge. ,

, The 6bove also applies to RO question number 42, i

Question 40 BG&E's comment: " Accept answers c and b. Flow decreases during I injection phase as RWT level decreases and containment s.ressure increases. l Flow increases aftur RAS dt.e to lower total head, containment prossure does not need to be overcome."

NRC response: Disagree with BG&E's comment, no change to question.

The question quite clearly states that the flow rate in question is subsequent to the RAS signal and in f act gives further information that containment pressure had decreased. The "b." answer solicited in the BG&E's comment is a distractor that is correct during the initial injection phase but is not applicable during the recirculation phase, i.e., a good distractor. This question is a basic knowledge question and expected SRO and RO knowledge. BG&E's comment also states that flow increases after a RAS due to lower total head. I i

The above also applies ta RO question number 48.

Question 50 BG&E's comment: " Delete question. No incorrect answer all are available."

NRC response: Agree with BG&E's comment, question deleted. The question asked which pressurizer heaters would be available following a loss of offsite power assuming the diesel generators started and carried the 4160 vac buses. BG&E provided information that all heaters in question would be available with manual action required for each answer given.

The above at:e applies to RO question number 57.

Question SS 60&E's comment: " Accept answer a and d.1 HS 1711 causes the alarm as well as the lockout. No pushbuttons are labeled 2A in the plant, it is a reasonable assumptior, that HS 1711 is the 2A push button "

NRC response: Agree, accept answer "a." or "d." as correct. 1 A DG Local Control Panel Alarm Manual,1C188 ALM, states that 1 HS 1711 (engine bay) will cause an emergency shutdown of the diesel generator. The alarm manual also states that depressing both local emergency stop push buttons will cause an emergency shutdown of the diesel ganerator.

Ths esovo also applies to RO question number 63.

a Attachment 3 4 Ouostion 67 BG&E's comment: " Delete question. No correct answer "a" includes 608, not part of the flowpath from RWT. "b" does not include the boric acid pump anriis not a credited flowpath, "c" contains 508 which is a BAST gravity feed valve. "d" equipment is not available due to power loss."

NRC response: Disagree with BG&E's comment, question not changed.

Additionalinformation supplied (P&lD) clearly shows that answer "b." is correct. BG&E's own comment states that a., c., and d. are not correct.

The b. answer is correct and the flow path was verified by P&lD and

, discussions with BG&E. BG&E's statement that the boric acid pump was not stated makes the flow path not credible; however, the transfer pump is not l necessary for gravity feed. Other components such as check veh<es and filters were also not stated in the various answers.

The above also applies to RO question number 72.

Question 74 BG&E's comment: " Accept answers a and b. Foually, there 1. no definition of a S/G tube rupture vs tube leak at CCNPP. Going through the steps of AOP 2A would lead to either a shttdown or a trip. If a trip is warranted, EOP 6 may be entered. This may be a convoluted way of defining a tube rupture, but references were not available."

NRC response: Disagree with BG&E's comment, no change to question.

Although there may not be a formal definition, it is y,:nerally understood that a tube rupture exixts when the leak is above the capacity of one charging pump. If this were not understood the barrier tables could not be used to classify an event because they refer to tube rupture for determination of a barrier f ailure. Also AOP 2A distinguishes between a RCS leak within the capacity (shutdown) of one charging pump and requires a reactor trip when leakage exceeds the capacity of one charging pump. In addition, dWng discussions with candidates during walkthroughs, this criterion was understood by most candidates.

The above also applies to RO question number 78.__ .

Question 90 BG&E's comment: " Accept answers b and c. Poorly worded. " Initial response" is unclear. Immediately, temperature would be controlled by ADV quick open. Safeties would open as natural circulation is developed.

Temperature is not maintained until ADVs are shifted to 1C43."

.NRC *esponse: Disagree with BG&E's comment to accept both "h." and "c.-

Based on the review of BG&E's justifications the question was deleted because there was no correct answer. Subsequent information requested by the chief examiner to better understand the comment justification indicated that temperature is controlled by a comoination of ADVs and safeties, vnich was not one of the answer selections.

The above also applies to RO question number 91.

d

Attachment 3 5 i Question 90 BG&E's comment: " Answers a and b are ( trect. Answer key assumes an overfeed condition occurs but does not give the complets operator response required per EOP-0. EOP 0 also assumes the FRVs to be in a normal control room mode of operation."

NRC response: Agree with BG&E's comment, accer . er "a." Locally close the FRV, or "b." Close the me!n fecdwater isolatioi. 31ve. Subsequent information requested by the chief examiner provided addnional justification for BG&E's comment. There are two procedures that discuss operation of the feed regulating valve (FRV) in local manual. Under Ol 12 A the unit must be in Mode 2 and the FRV isolation valves woulrl be closed so no action would be required but the FRVs would be locall/ closed. The other procedure AOP 3G, Malfunction of Main Feedwater System, d rects the operator to go to EOP 0, Post Trip Immediate Actions which requires closure of the FRV isolation valves if an overfeed condition exists.

The above also applies to RO question number 97.

RO Exam Question 22 BG&E's comment: " Accept answe's b and c. See O22 attached."

NRC response: Agree with BG&E's comment. The question asked for VCT system response to LT 226 f ailing low. The P&lD shows that LT 226 provides an input to makeup valve CVC 512 (answer b.) and gives a low level alarm (answer c.).

Question 76 BG&E's comment: " Change eswer key from c to b. See O 76,(validated on simulator)."

NRL response: Agree with BG&E's comment, changed correct answer to "b." The question asked what the plant resporise would be if pressurizer pressure controller was placed in manual and output reduced to 10 percent (desired pressure setpoint). The correct answer "b." states th61 the proportional heater output would decrease and pressure would decrease until backup heaters energized to control plant pressure, l

i l

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