ML092881134
| ML092881134 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Sequoyah  |
| Issue date: | 10/15/2009 |
| From: | NRC Region 1 |
| To: | |
| References | |
| 50-327/09-302, 50-328/09-302 | |
| Download: ML092881134 (193) | |
Text
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 007 EK2.03 001 Given the following:
Unit 1 is at 55% power.
Solid State Protection System (SSPS) Train 'B' Actuation Logic testing is being performed.
Train 'B' SSPS Mode Selector switch is in the 'TEST' position.
Train 'B' SSPS Input Error Inhibit switch is in the 'INHIBIT' position.
Which ONE of the following identifies the status of the reactor if a loss of one of the two 48v DC power supplies were to occur on Train 'A' SSPS?
A. Reactor at 55% power with a General Warning for Train 'A' SSPS only.
B. Reactor at 55% power with a General Warning for Train 'B' SSPS only.
C~ Reactor Trip with a General Warning for both Train 'A' and Train 'B' SSPS and 1-XA-55-4D "Reactor First Out" annunciator panel window(s) LIT.
D. Reactor Trip with a General Warning for both Train 'A' and Train 'B' SSPS and 1-XA-55-4D "Reactor First Out" annunciator panel windows DARK.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 007 EK2.03 001 Given the following:
Unit 1 is at 55% power.
Solid State Protection System (SSPS) Train 'B' Actuation Logic testing is being performed.
Train 'B' SSPS Mode Selector switch is in the 'TEST' position.
Train 'B' SSPS Input Error Inhibit switch is in the 'INHIBIT' position.
Which ONE of the following identifies the status of the reactor if a loss of one of the two 48v DC power supplies were to occur on Train 'A' SSPS?
A. Reactor at 55% power with a General Warning for Train 'A' SSPS only.
B. Reactor at 55% power with a General Warning for Train 'B' SSPS only.
C!' Reactor Trip with a General Warning for both Train 'A' and Train 'B' SSPS and 1-XA-55-4D "Reactor First Out" annunciator panel window(s) LIT.
D. Reactor Trip with a General Warning for both Train 'A' and Train 'B' SSPS and 1-XA-55-4D "Reactor First Out" annunciator panel windows DARK.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The reactor will trip due to a General warning on both trains.
Plausible since a General Warning is generated for a loss of either 48v DC power supply. If this were the only General Warning the unit would remain at power, but performing testing on the other train generates a General Warning for both trains and the unit trips.
B. Incorrect, The reactor will trip due to a General warning on both trains.
Plausible since a General Warning is generated while performing testing on SSPS. If this were the only General Warning the unit would remain at power, but a loss of either 48v DC power supply on the other train generates a General Warning for both trains and the unit trips.
C. CORRECT, Testing on one train of SSPS generates a General Warning. A loss of any of the four DC power supplies in the other train of SSPS also generates a General Warning. General Warnings in both trains of SSPS causes the Reactor Trip Breakers to open. Since the power level is above 50%, the turbine trip signal will cause a reactor trip signal to be generated which results in an First Out annunciator and the Negative Rate trips generated from the Nuclear Instruments (Nls) could also be LIT.
D. Incorrect, The reactor will trip but a Reactor First Out annunciator window will be generated. Plausible because there is no First Out annunciator LIT directly due to a general warning trip and if the power level had been lower there would not be a turbine trip signal generated to cause a reactor trip (The First Out annunciator would not alarm if power were less than 50% (P-9)) and with lower power the negative rate trip annunciators may also not be generated.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The reactor will trip due to a General warning on both trains.
Plausible since a General Warning is generated for a loss of either 48v DC power supply. If this were the only General Warning the unit would remain at power, but performing testing on the other train generates a General Warning for both trains and the unit trips.
B. Incorrect, The reactor will trip due to a General warning on both trains.
Plausible since a General Warning is generated while performing testing on SSPS. If this were the only General Warning the unit would remain at power, but a loss of either 48v DC power supply on the other train generates a General Warning for both trains and the unit trips.
C. CORRECT, Testing on one train of SSPS generates a General Warning. A loss of any of the four DC power supplies in the other train of SSPS also generates a General Warning. General Warnings in both trains of SSPS causes the Reactor Trip Breakers to open. Since the power level is above 50%, the turbine trip signal will cause a reactor trip signal to be generated which results in an First Out annunciator and the Negative Rate trips generated from the Nuclear Instruments (Nls) could also be LIT.
D. Incorrect, The reactor will trip but a Reactor First Out annunciator window will be generated. Plausible because there is no First Out annunciator LIT directly due to a general warning trip and if the power level had been lower there would not be a turbine trip signal generated to cause a reactor trip (The First Out annunciator would not alarm if power were less than 50% (P-9)) and with lower power the negative rate trip annunciators may also not be generated.
Question No. 1 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 007 EK2.03 Reactor Trip QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Knowledge of the interrelations between a reactor trip and the following:
Reactor trip status panel Importance Rating:
3.5/3.6 Technical
Reference:
1-AR-M4-D, Reactor First Out 1-XA-55-4D, Rev. 1 0 1-AR-M6-A, Reactor Protection and Safeguards, 1-XA-55-6A, Rev.15 TI-28 AU.9, Unit 1 & 2 Cycle Data Sheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.4.m & 5.c Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each component in the Reactor Protection and Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- m. Location of controls and indications in the control room and auxiliary control room.
Describe the operation of the Reactor Protection and Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- c. Alarms and alarm response.
Bank #
X __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
Question History:
New ---
Question modified from Comanche Peak bank question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments:
Question No. 1 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 007 EK2.03 Reactor Trip QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Knowledge of the interrelations between a reactor trip and the following:
Reactor trip status panel Importance Rating:
3.5/3.6 Technical
Reference:
1-AR-M4-D, Reactor First Out 1-XA-55-4D, Rev.10 1-AR-M6-A, Reactor Protection and Safeguards, 1-XA-55-6A, Rev.15 TI-28 Att.9, Unit 1 & 2 Cycle Data Sheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.4.m & 5.c Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each component in the Reactor Protection and Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- m. Location of controls and indications in the control room and auxiliary control room.
Describe the operation of the Reactor Protection and Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- c. Alarms and alarm response.
Bank#_X __ _
Modified Bank #
Question History:
New ---
Question modified from Comanche Peak bank question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 / 45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 009 EK1.02 002 Given the following:
In response to a small break LOCA, the crew is performing ES-1.2, "Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization."
The next step is to depressurize the RCS to refill the pressurizer.
Core Exit Temperature is 546 of and lowering.
RCS Tavg is 531°F and lowering.
RCS wide range pressure is 1520 psig RCPs have been removed from service.
Which ONE of the following identifies the current RCS subcooling margin and the operational impact if subcooling is lost (subcooling margin equals OOF) during the depressurization?
A. 53°F; The RCS cooldown will stop.
B!'" 53°F; Cause rapid increase in Pressurizer level.
C. 68°F; The RCS cooldown will stop.
D. 68°F; Cause rapid increase in Pressurizer level.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 009 EKl.02 002 Given the following:
In response to a small break LOCA, the crew is performing ES-1.2, "Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization."
The next step is to depressurize the RCS to refill the pressurizer.
Core Exit Temperature is 546 of and lowering.
RCS Tavg is 531°F and lowering.
RCS wide range pressure is 1520 psig RCPs have been removed from service.
Which ONE of the following identifies the current RCS subcooling margin and the operational impact if subcooling is lost (subcooling margin equals OaF) during the depressurization?
A. 53°F; The RCS cooldown will stop.
B~ 53°F; Cause rapid increase in Pressurizer level.
C. 6SoF; The RCS cooldown will stop.
D. 6SoF; Cause rapid increase in Pressurizer level.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, RCS subcooling is 53°F is correct, but the loss would not prevent the initiated RCS cooldown from the previous step. Plausible because 53°F subcooling is correct and because natural circulation could be affected by steam voids and the presence of head voiding would affect natural circulation cooling but not stop it. In addition, with the sudden pressure drop (RCS pressure - 1000 psig) that caused subcooling to go to zero, ECCS flow is going to increase to the point that it will cool the RCS rapidly.
B. CORRECT, with core exit temperature 546°F and saturation for 1520 psig (1535 psia) being 599°F, the RCS subcooling is 53°F. The loss of subcooling could result in upper head voiding causing a rapid increase in pressurizer level as stated in the caution preceding the procedure step.
C. Incorrect, RCS sub cooling is not 68°F (it is 53°F) and the loss would not prevent the initiated RCS cooldown from the previous step.
Plausible because 68°F could be calculated if the Tavg were used instead of Core Exit Thermocouple temperature. 599°F - 531°F = 68°F and because the rapid increase in pressurizer level is correct.
D. Incorrect, RCS subcooling is not 68°F (it is 53°F) Plausible because 68°F could be calculated if the Tavg were used instead of Core Exit Thermocouple temperature. 599°F - 531°F = 68°F and because natural circulation could be affected by steam voids and the presence of head voiding would affect natural circulation cooling but not stop it. In addition, with the sudden pressure drop (RCS pressure - 1000 psig) that caused sub cooling to go to zero, ECCS flow is going to increase to the point that it will cool the RCS rapidly.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA C TOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, RCS sub cooling is 53°F is correct, but the loss would not prevent the initiated RCS cooldown from the previous step. Plausible because 53°F sub cooling is correct and because natural circulation could be affected by steam voids and the presence of head voiding would affect natural circulation cooling but not stop it. In addition, with the sudden pressure drop (RCS pressure - 1000 psig) that caused subcooling to go to zero, ECCS flow is going to increase to the point that it will cool the RCS rapidly.
B. CORRECT, with core exit temperature 546°F and saturation for 1520 psig (1535 psia) being 599°F, the RCS sub cooling is 53°F. The loss of sub cooling could result in upper head voiding causing a rapid increase in pressurizer level as stated in the caution preceding the procedure step.
C. Incorrect, RCS sub cooling is not 68°F (it is 53°F) and the loss would not prevent the initiated RCS cooldown from the previous step.
Plausible because 68°F could be calculated if the Tavg were used instead of Core Exit Thermocouple temperature. 599°F - 531°F = 68°F and because the rapid increase in pressurizer level is correct.
D. Incorrect, RCS sub cooling is not 68°F (it is 53°F) Plausible because 68°F could be calculated if the Tavg were used instead of Core Exit Thermocouple temperature. 599°F - 531°F = 68°F and because natural circulation could be affected by steam voids and the presence of head voiding would affect natural circulation cooling but not stop it. In addition, with the sudden pressure drop (RCS pressure - 1000 psig) that caused sub cooling to go to zero, ECCS flow is going to increase to the point that it wi" cool the RCS rapidly.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 2 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 009 EK1.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the small break LOCA:
Use of steam tables Importance Rating:
3.5/4.2 Technical
Reference:
Steam Tables, ALSTOM Power Services ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
Steam Tables Learning Objective:
OPL271 ES-1.2 BA &.7 Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions, and step ofES-1.2 Apply GFE and system response concepts to the performance of ES-1.2 conditions.
Bank# ___
Modified Bank # _X __ _
New ---
Question History:
SQN Bank Question ES-1.2-B.0 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN Bank Question ES-1.2-B.0 002 modified by adding second part to question, asking for subcooling instead of when subcooling is lost, changing distracters and relocating correct answer.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 2 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 009 EK1.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the small break LOCA:
Use of steam tables Importance Rating:
3.5/4.2 Technical
Reference:
Steam Tables, ALSTOM Power Services ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
Steam Tables Learning Objective:
OPL271 ES-1.2 BA &.7 Question Source:
Describe the bases for a" limits, notes, cautions, and step ofES-1.2 Apply GFE and system response concepts to the performance of ES-1.2 conditions.
Bank # ----
Modified Bank #
X ---
New ---
Question History:
SQN Bank Question ES-1.2-B.0 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.8/ 41.10 /45.3 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN Bank Question ES-1.2-B.0 002 modified by adding second part to question, asking for subcooling instead of when subcooling is lost, changing distracters and relocating correct answer.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 011 EK2.02 003 Given the following:
SI actuated due to a Large Break LOCA.
BOTH SI Pumps are TRIPPED.
RCS pressure is 10 psig.
RCS Subcooling is OaF.
Containment pressure is 3.4 psig.
All other equipment is running per design.
The crew is performing actions of E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
Which ONE of the following describes the required action and reason for the action with respect to the Reactor Coolant Pumps?
A. Stop all RCPs to minimize fluid mass loss out of the break.
B~ Stop all RCPs to prevent mechanical damage to the pump and motor.
C. Leave all RCPs running to provide reflux cooling of the RCS.
D. Leave all RCPs running to prevent phase separation of RCS liquid.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, RCS mass loss is the concern for a small break, not a large break LOCA. Plausible because the mass loss out the break is the concern during a SBLOCA event.
B. Correct, RCPs would be tripped for this reason because Component Cooling Water is isolated and Phase B and Spray is flowing at 3 psig Containment pressure.
C. Incorrect, RCP support systems for cooling have been lost due to Phase B isolation, therefore the RCPs would not be left running. Plausible because RCPs would be left running during other accidents.
D. Incorrect, RCPs would not be left running during this accident. If they were running during a small break LOCA, phase separation could occur if the RepS were to trip during the event, leading to core uncovery. Plausible because the possible exist to have core uncovery if the RCPs were not removed early and did trip during a small break LOCA.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 011 EK2.02 003 Given the following:
SI actuated due to a Large Break LOCA.
BOTH SI Pumps are TRIPPED.
RCS pressure is 10 psig.
RCS Subcooling is O°F.
Containment pressure is 3.4 psig.
All other equipment is running per design.
The crew is performing actions of E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
Which ONE of the following describes the required action and reason for the action with respect to the Reactor Coolant Pumps?
A. Stop all RCPs to minimize fluid mass loss out of the break.
B~ Stop all RCPs to prevent mechanical damage to the pump and motor.
C. Leave all RCPs running to provide reflux cooling of the RCS.
D. Leave all RCPs running to prevent phase separation of RCS liquid.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, RCS mass loss is the concern for a small break, not a large break LOCA. Plausible because the mass loss out the break is the concern during a SBLOCA event.
B. Correct, RCPs would be tripped for this reason because Component Cooling Water is isolated and Phase B and Spray is flowing at 3 psig Containment pressure.
C. Incorrect, RCP support systems for cooling have been lost due to Phase B isolation, therefore the RCPs would not be left running. Plausible because RCPs would be left running during other accidents.
D. Incorrect, RCPs would not be left running during this accident. If they were running during a small break LOCA, phase separation could occur if the RCPS were to trip during the event, leading to core uncovery. Plausible because the possible exist to have core uncovery if the RCPs were not removed early and did trip during a small break LOCA.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 3 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 011 EK2.02 Large Break LOCA Knowledge of the interrelations between the and the following Large Break LOCA:
Pumps Importance Rating:
2.6* / 2.7*
Technical
Reference:
E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Rev 30 Basis Document for E-O Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Rev 13.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
None Learning Objective:
OPL271 E-1 B.6.a Question Source:
Given a set of initial plant conditions use E-1 to correctly:
- a. Identify required actions.
Bank#_X. __ _
Modified Bank #
Question History:
New __ _
SQN bank question 011 Ek2.02 001 used on 07 audit exam.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X. __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 I 45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: Originally WTSI Bank question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 3 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 011 EK2.02 Large Break LOCA Knowledge of the interrelations between the and the following Large Break LOCA:
Pumps Importance Rating:
2.6* /2.7*
Technical
Reference:
E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Rev 30 Basis Document for E-O Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Rev 13.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
None Learning Objective:
OPL271 E-1 8.6.a Question Source:
Given a set of initial plant conditions use E-1 to correctly:
- a. Identify required actions.
Bank#_X __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
Question History:
New __ _
SQN bank question 011 Ek2.02001 used on 07 audit exam.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X. __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 / 45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: Originally WTSI Bank question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 015 AK2.1O 004 Given the following plant conditions:
Unit 1 operating at 100% power.
A failure of the Loop 4 RCP #2 seal results in high flow across the #2 seal.
Which ONE of the following identifies how the Loop 4 RCP #2 seal failure would affect the Loop 4 RCP #1 seal leakoff flow indication and the RCP standpipe level alarm?
A.
B.
C.
- 1 Seal Leakoff Flow Indication Increases Increases Decreases Rep Standpipe Level Alarm Alarm due to LOW level Alarm due to HIGH level Alarm due to LOW level D~
Decreases Alarm due to HIGH level DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, #1 sealleakoff flow indication would decrease (not increase.)
and the alarm of the standpipe is due to high level (not low level.)
Plausible because the #1 sealleakoff flow indication would increase if the
- 1 seal had failed and the standpipe level being low would be correct if the
- 3 seal had failed instead of the #2 seal.
B. Incorrect, #1 sealleakoff flow indication would decrease (not increase.)
and the standpipe alarm being due to high level is correct. Plausible because the #1 sealleakoff flow indication would increase if the #1 seal had failed and the standpipe level being high is correct.
C. Incorrect, #1 sealleakoff flow indication decreasing is correct but the alarm of the standpipe is due to high level, not low level. Plausible because the
- 1 sealleakoff flow indication decreasing is correct and the standpipe level being low would be correct if the #3 seal had failed instead of the #2 seal.
D. CORRECT, as identified in the 1-AR-M5-B annunciator response window A-2, Note 2: "A High RCP standpipe level in conjunction with reduced No. 1 Seal Leakoff flow and increasing flow to the RCDT is indicative of a failed No.2 seal. "
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 015 AK2.1O 004 Given the following plant conditions:
Unit 1 operating at 100% power.
A failure of the Loop 4 RCP #2 seal results in high flow across the #2 seal.
Which ONE of the following identifies how the Loop 4 RCP #2 seal failure would affect the Loop 4 RCP #1 seal leakoff flow indication and the RCP standpipe level alarm?
A.
B.
C.
- 1 Seal Leakoff Flow Indication Increases Increases Decreases Rep Standpipe Level Alarm Alarm due to LOW level Alarm due to HIGH level Alarm due to LOW level D!'
Decreases Alarm due to HIGH level DIS TRA C TOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, #1 sealleakoff flow indication would decrease (not increase.)
and the alarm of the standpipe is due to high level (not low leve!.)
Plausible because the #1 sealleakoff flow indication would increase if the
- 1 seal had failed and the standpipe level being low would be correct if the
- 3 seal had failed instead of the #2 seal.
B. Incorrect, #1 sealleakoff flow indication would decrease (not increase.)
and the standpipe alarm being due to high level is correct. Plausible because the #1 sealleakoff flow indication would increase if the #1 seal had failed and the standpipe level being high is correct.
C. Incorrect, #1 sealleakoff flow indication decreasing is correct but the alarm of the standpipe is due to high level, not low level. Plausible because the
- 1 sealleakoff flow indication decreasing is correct and the standpipe level being low would be correct if the #3 seal had failed instead of the #2 seal.
D. CORRECT, as identified in the 1-AR-M5-B annunciator response window A-2, Note 2: 'j!\\ High RCP standpipe level in conjunction with reduced No. 1 Seal Leakoff flow and increasing flow to the RCDT is indicative of a failed No.2 seal."
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 4 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 015 AK2.10 Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) Malfunctions Knowledge of the interrelations between the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the following:
RCP indicators and controls Importance Rating:
2.8* / 2.8 Technical
Reference:
1-AR-M5-B, CVCS Seal Water and RCP 1-XA-55-5B, Rev 36 AOP-R.04 Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions, Rev 24 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RCP B.5.d Question Source:
Describe the operation of the RCP system as it relates to the following:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 4 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 015 AK2.10 Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) Malfunctions Knowledge of the interrelations between the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the following:
RCP indicators and controls Importance Rating:
2.8* 1 2.8 Technical
Reference:
1-AR-M5-B, CVCS Seal Water and RCP 1-XA-55-5B, Rev 36 AOP-R.04 Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions, Rev 24 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RCP B.5.d Question Source:
Describe the operation of the RCP system as it relates to the following:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # ____ _
New X
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 022 AG 2.1.31005 Given the following:
Unit 2 at 100% RTP.
CCP 2A-A trips due to an electrical relay operation.
Pressurizer level 59% and trending down.
When the OATC is determining status of the plant following the CCP trip, which ONE of the following identifies the expected position of the listed CVCS letdown valves?
2-LCV-69 and -70 Letdown Isolation Valves 2-LVC-62-72, -73 and -74 Letdown Orifice Isolation Valves A'!
OPEN CLOSED B.
C.
D.
OPEN OPEN CLOSED CLOSED CLOSED OPEN DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will remain open but if the only running charging pump trips, the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and -74) will automatically close.
B. Incorrect, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will remain open but the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and -74) will be closed. Plausible because letdown is isolated by the trip of the charging pump and there are interlocks between the letdown isolation valves and the letdown orifice isolation valves.
C. Incorrect, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will not close but the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and -74) will close. Plausible because letdown is isolated by the trip of the charging pump and there are interlocks between the letdown isolation valves and the letdown orifice isolation valves.
D. Incorrect, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will not close nor will the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and
-74) remain open. Plausible because letdown is isolated by the trip of the charging pump and there are interlocks between the letdown isolation valves and the letdown orifice isolation valves.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 022 AG 2.1.31 005 Given the following:
Unit 2 at 100% RTP.
CCP 2A-A trips due to an electrical relay operation.
Pressurizer level 59% and trending down.
When the OATC is determining status of the plant following the CCP trip, which ONE of the following identifies the expected position of the listed CVCS letdown valves?
2-LCV-69 and -70 Letdown Isolation Valves 2-LVC-62-72, -73 and -74 Letdown Orifice Isolation Valves A'!
OPEN CLOSED B.
C.
D.
OPEN OPEN CLOSED CLOSED CLOSED OPEN DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will remain open but if the only running charging pump trips, the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and -74) will automatically close.
B. Incorrect, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will remain open but the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and -74) will be closed. Plausible because letdown is isolated by the trip of the charging pump and there are interlocks between the letdown isolation valves and the letdown orifice isolation valves.
C. Incorrect, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will not close but the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and -74) will close. Plausible because letdown is isolated by the trip of the charging pump and there are interlocks between the letdown isolation valves and the letdown orifice isolation valves.
D. Incorrect, The letdown isolation valves (2-FVC-62-69 and -70) will not close nor will the letdown orifice isolation valves (2-FCV-62-72, -73, and
-74) remain open. Plausible because letdown is isolated by the trip of the charging pump and there are interlocks between the letdown isolation valves and the letdown orifice isolation valves.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 5 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 022 AG 2.1.31 Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup.
Importance Rating:
4.6/4.3 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.09, Loss of Charging, Rev 1 2-47W611-62-1 R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200T.CVCS B.5.d Describe the operation of the CVCS system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question CVCS 011 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 / 45.12 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question CVCS 011 modified
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 5 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 022 AG 2.1.31 Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup.
Importance Rating:
4.6/4.3 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.09, Loss of Charging, Rev 1 2-47W611-62-1 R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200T.CVCS B.5.d Describe the operation of the CVCS system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation Question Source:
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank #
X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question CVCS 011 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 / 45.12 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question CVCS 011 modified
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 026 AA2.02 006 Given the following:
Both Units in service at 100% RTP with all equipment in a normal alignment.
Which ONE of the following would result in a loss of Component Cooling Water (CCS) to.aFf-ESF component on Unit 1?
A. Loss of Train A Essential air.
B. Loss of Train B Essential air.
C. Loss of 6.9kV Shutdown Board 1 B-B.
D~ Loss of 6.9kV Shutdown Board 2B-B.
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Loss of Train A Essential header would not cause a loss of CCS flow to any ESF equipment. Plausible because there are valves in the CCS system that fail closed on loss of air. One is the excess letdown heat exchanger that could be mistaken as ESF equipment. Also, because the RHR Heat Exchangers (ESF components) do have air operated valves on the RHR side outlet that would fail open on loss of air and their failure could be mistaken for the CCS side outlet valve.
B. Incorrect, Loss of Train B Essential header would not cause a loss of CCS flow to any ESF equipment. Plausible because there are valves in the CCS system that fail closed on loss of air. One is the excess letdown heat exchanger that could be mistaken as ESF equipment. Also, because the RHR Heat Exchangers (ESF components) do have air operated valves on the RHR side outlet that would fail open on loss of air and their failure could be mistaken for the CCS side outlet valve.
C. Incorrect, Loss of the Unit 1 Train B 6.9kv Unit Board would not cause a loss of CCS flow to any ESF equipment. Plausible because the 1 B-B CCS pump would lose power. This pump is normally aligned to the Train A headers and is not running or if running CCS pump 1A-A would be in A-P auto to start as the pressure on pump 1 B-B dropped to 40 pSig. Plausible because the 1 B-B pump would lose power.
D. CORRECT, the loss of the Unit 2 Train B 6.9kv Unit Board would result in the loss of the C-S CCS pump which is the pump normally aligned to supply the Unit 1 Train B ESF equipment header and there is no pump aligned for backup.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 026 AA2.02 006 Given the following:
Both Units in service at 100% RTP with all equipment in a normal alignment.
Which ONE of the following would result in a loss of Component Cooling Water (CCS) to;ur-ESF component on Unit 1?
A. Loss of Train A Essential air.
B. Loss of Train B Essential air.
C. Loss of 6.9kV Shutdown Board 1 B-B.
D!' Loss of 6.9kV Shutdown Board 2B-B.
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Loss of Train A Essential header would not cause a loss of CCS flow to any ESF equipment. Plausible because there are valves in the CCS system that fail closed on loss of air. One is the excess letdown heat exchanger that could be mistaken as ESF equipment. Also, because the RHR Heat Exchangers (ESF components) do have air operated valves on the RHR side outlet that would fail open on loss of air and their failure could be mistaken for the CCS side outlet valve.
B. Incorrect, Loss of Train B Essential header would not cause a loss of CCS flow to any ESF equipment. Plausible because there are valves in the CCS system that fail closed on loss of air. One is the excess letdown heat exchanger that could be mistaken as ESF equipment. Also, because the RHR Heat Exchangers (ESF components) do have air operated valves on the RHR side outlet that would fail open on loss of air and their failure could be mistaken for the CCS side outlet valve.
C. Incorrect, Loss of the Unit 1 Train B 6.9kv Unit Board would not cause a loss of CCS flow to any ESF equipment. Plausible because the 1 B-B CCS pump would lose power. This pump is normally aligned to the Train A headers and is not running or if running CCS pump 1A-A would be in A-P auto to start as the pressure on pump 1 B-B dropped to 40 psig. Plausible because the 1 B-B pump would lose power.
D. CORRECT, the loss of the Unit 2 Train B 6.9kv Unit Board would result in the loss of the C-S CCS pump which is the pump normally aligned to supply the Unit 1 Train B ESF equipment header and there is no pump aligned for backup.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 6 Tier' 1 Group 1 KIA 026 AA2.02 Loss of Component Cooling Water (CCW)
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling Water:
The cause of possible CCW loss Importance Rating:
2.9 1 3.6 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.03, Loss of Component Cooling Water, Rev 12 AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev 14 0-SO-70-1, Component Cooling Water System Train B, Attachment 1, Dated 05/02/06 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CCS B.5.d Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Component Cooling Water system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 43.5 1 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 6 Tier* 1 Group 1 KIA 026 AA2.02 Loss of Component Cooling Water (CCW)
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Component Cooling Water:
The cause of possible CCW loss Importance Rating:
2.9/3.6 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.03, Loss of Component Cooling Water, Rev 12 AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev 14 0-SO-70-1, Component Cooling Water System Train B, Attachment 1, Dated 05/02/06 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CCS B.5.d Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Component Cooling Water system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # ____ _
New X
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(43.5/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 029 EG2.2.22 007 To ensure safety limits will not be exceeded during an ATWS event, which ONE of the following identifies the time requirements (in seconds) for tripping the turbine and starting AFW flow?
Turbine tripped within...
AFW flow within...
A.
30 30 B:'
30 60
- c.
D.
60 30 60 60 DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Per the FR-S.1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case A TWS event (loss of all normal feedwater A TWS). The first distracter is plausible as it is the correct number. The second part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the turbine trip time requirement.
B. CORRECT, Per the FR-S.1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case A TWS event (loss of all normal feedwater A TWS).
C. Incorrect, Per the FR-S.1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case A TWS event (loss of all normal feedwater A TWS). The first part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the AFW flow establishment time requirement. The second part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the turbine trip time requirement.
D. Incorrect, Per the FR-S. 1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case A TWS event (loss of all normal feedwater A TWS). The first part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the AFW flow establishment time requirement. The second part of the distracter is plausible as it is the correct value for the AFW flow establishment.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 029 EG2.2.22 007 To ensure safety limits will not be exceeded during an ATWS event, which ONE of the following identifies the time requirements (in seconds) for tripping the turbine and starting AFW flow?
Turbine tripped within...
AFW flow within...
A.
30 30 s,..
30 60
- c.
D.
60 30 60 60 DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Per the FR-S.1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case A TWS event (/oss of all normal feedwater A TWS). The first distracter is plausible as it is the correct number. The second part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the turbine trip time requirement.
B. CORRECT, Per the FR-S.1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case A TWS event (loss of all normal feedwater A TWS).
C. Incorrect, Per the FR-S.1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case A TWS event (loss of all normal feedwater A TWS). The first part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the AFW flow establishment time requirement. The second part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the turbine trip time requirement.
D. Incorrect, Per the FR-S.1 and WOG ERG Rev. 2 documents, the main turbine must be tripped within 30 seconds and AFW flow must be established within 60 seconds to prevent exceeding safety limits during the worst case ATWS event (loss of all normal feedwater A TWS). The first part of the distracter is plausible as it is the value of the AFW flow establishment time requirement. The second part of the distracter is plausible as it is the correct value for the AFW flow establishment.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 7 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 029 EG2.2.22 Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)
Equipment Control Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits Importance Rating:
4.0 / 4.7 Technical
Reference:
EPM - FR-S.1, Basis document for FR-S.1, Nuclear Power Generation ATWS, Rev. 9 WOG ERG Rev.2 FR-S.1 Background Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-S.1 B.4 Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions and steps of FR-S.1 Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New X,--_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X, __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/43.2/45.2 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 7 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 029 EG2.2.22 Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)
Equipment Control Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits Importance Rating:
4.0/4.7 Technical
Reference:
EPM - FR-S.1, Basis document for FR-S.1, Nuclear Power Generation ATWS, Rev. 9 WOG ERG Rev.2 FR-S.1 Background Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-S.1 B.4 Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions and steps of FR-S.1 Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/43.2/45.2 )
( nla )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 038 EA1.13 008 Given the following:
A Steam Generator Tube Rupture occurs on Unit 1 in #2 Steam Generator (S/G).
Operating crew is ready to perform the rapid cool down in E-3, "Steam Generator Tube Rupture."
Tavg is currently 544°F.
Target Incore temperature is determined to be 480°F.
The MSIVs are closed.
All 4 SG pressures are 975 - 980 psig.
After the cooldown is started, which ONE of the following identifies the Loop(s) that would indicate steam flow?
A. Loop #2 only B~ Loops #1, #3, & #4 only C. None of loops D. All 4 Loops DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Only the intact loops would be used for cooldown, the ruptured steam generator would be isolated. The cooldown would be conducted via the SG Atmospheric Relief valves on only Loop #1, #2, and #3. Plausible if the applicant determines the cooldown to be needed via SG#2 or if the question stem had identified the ruptured SG pressure was greater than the ARV set point.
B. CORRECT, only the intact loops would be used for cooldown, the ruptured steam generator would be isolated. The cooldown would be conducted via the SG Atmospheric Relief valves on only Loop #1, #2, and #3; Thus only these 3 would indicate steam flow after the cooldown was started.
C. Incorrect, Steam flow would be indicqted on Loop #1, #2, and #3 after the cooldown was started. Plausible if the applicant determines that since the MSIVs were closed that flow through the ADV would not be indicated.
D. Incorrect, All 4 loops would not indicate steam flow; only Loop #1, #2, and
- 3 would indicate steam flow after the cooldown was started. Plausible that all 4 would if the stem had identified the ruptured SG pressure was greater than the ARV set point or if the applicant does not understand that the ruptured SG is not steamed to maintain level for thermal stratification.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 038 EAl.13 008 Given the following:
A Steam Generator Tube Rupture occurs on Unit 1 in #2 Steam Generator (S/G).
Operating crew is ready to perform the rapid cool down in E-3, "Steam Generator Tube Rupture."
Tavg is currently 544°F.
Target Incore temperature is determined to be 480°F.
The MSIVs are closed.
All 4 SG pressures are 975 - 980 psig.
After the cooldown is started, which ONE of the following identifies the Loop(s) that would indicate steam flow?
A. Loop #2 only B:I Loops #1, #3, & #4 only C. None of loops D. All 4 Loops DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Only the intact loops would be used for cooldown, the ruptured steam generator would be isolated. The cooldown would be conducted via the SG Atmospheric Relief valves on only Loop #1, #2, and #3. Plausible if the applicant determines the cooldown to be needed via SG#2 or if the question stem had identified the ruptured SG pressure was greater than the ARV setpoint.
B. CORRECT, only the intact loops would be used for cooldown, the ruptured steam generator would be isolated. The cooldown would be conducted via the SG Atmospheric Relief valves on only Loop #1, #2, and #3; Thus only these 3 would indicate steam flow after the cooldown was started.
C. Incorrect, Steam flow would be indicqted on Loop #1, #2, and #3 after the cooldown was started. Plausible if the applicant determines that since the MSIVs were closed that flow through the ADV would not be indicated.
D. Incorrect, All 4 loops would not indicate steam flow; only Loop #1, #2, and
- 3 would indicate steam flow after the cooldown was started. Plausible that all 4 would if the stem had identified the ruptured SG pressure was greater than the ARV setpoint or if the applicant does not understand that the ruptured SG is not steamed to maintain level for thermal stratification.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 8 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 038 EA1.13 Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)
Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a SGTR:
Steam flow indicators Importance Rating:
3.7* 13.6 Technical
Reference:
E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 E-3 B.3 Question Source:
Summarize the mitigating strategy for the failure that initiated entry into E-3.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # __ ---
New X, __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5/45.6 )
( nla )
Comments: New question
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 8 Tier 1 Group 1 K/ A 038 EA 1.13 Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)
Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a SGTR:
Steam flow indicators Importance Rating:
3.7* / 3.6 Technical
Reference:
E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 E-3 8.3 Question Source:
Summarize the mitigating strategy for the failure that initiated entry into E-3.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New X. __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5/45.6 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 040 AAI.09 009 Given the following:
Unit 1 was operating at 100% RTP when an inadvertent automatic signal caused all 4 MSIV's to close.
The highest Steam Generator outlet steam pressure increased to 1051 psig when a safety valve opened.
After opening, the safety valve stuck open.
The operator tripped the reactor and initiated a safety injection.
The OAC determined Tavg is 537°F and dropping.
All SG levels are between 2% and 7% on Narrow Range.
Which ONE of the following describes...
(1) the opening of the safety valve and (2) the requirements for AFW flow during performance of E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection" with the current conditions.
A. (1) The safety valve opened below its nominal lift setpoint.
(2) AFW flow CANNOT be reduced.
B~ (1) The safety valve opened below its nominal lift setpoint.
(2) AFW flow will be reduced to between 440 - 600 gpm.
C. (1) The steam pressure exceeded the safety valve nominal lift setpoint.
(2) AFW flow CANNOT be reduced.
D. (1) The steam pressure exceeded the safety valve nominal lift setpoint.
(2) AFW flow will be reduced to between 440 - 600 gpm.
(
\\
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 040 AAl.09 009 Given the following:
Unit 1 was operating at 100% RTP when an inadvertent automatic signal caused all 4 MSIV's to close.
The highest Steam Generator outlet steam pressure increased to 1051 psig when a safety valve opened.
After opening, the safety valve stuck open.
The operator tripped the reactor and initiated a safety injection.
The OAC determined Tavg is 537°F and dropping.
All SG levels are between 2% and 7% on Narrow Range.
Which ONE of the following describes...
(1) the opening of the safety valve and (2) the requirements for AFW flow during performance of E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection" with the current conditions.
A. (1) The safety valve opened below its nominal lift setpoint.
(2) AFW flow CANNOT be reduced.
B~ (1) The safety valve opened below its nominal lift setpoint.
(
(2) AFW flow will be reduced to between 440 - 600 gpm.
C. (1) The steam pressure exceeded the safety valve nominal lift setpoint.
(2) AFW flow CANNOT be reduced.
D. (1) The steam pressure exceeded the safety valve nominal lift setpoint.
(2) AFW flow will be reduced to between 440 - 600 gpm.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The safety valve opened below its minimum lift setpoint and the AFW is directed to be reduced as long as the flow remains above the 440 gpm minimum required for heat sink. Plausible because the safety valve lifting below its nominal set point is correct and the applicant may not recall the E-O step that reduces the AFW flow even with the SG levels less than the minimum for required heat sink and conclude that AFW flow cannot be reduced while in E-O.
B. CORRECT, The safety valves has opened below its nominal setpoint. The safety valve with the lowest setting is has a nominal set point of 1064 psig, so if the valve lifted at 1051 psig it opened early. With the cooldown ongoing, E-O provides action to reduce AFW flow to less than 600 gpm but within steam generator levels less than 10% (min. heat sink) the AFW flow cannot be reduced to less than 440 gpm (min. heat sink)
C. Incorrect, Steam pressure did not exceed the safety valve nominal lift setpoint. (Lowest at 1064 psig) and the AFW is directed to be reduced as long as the flow remains above the 440 gpm minimum required for heat sink. Plausible because the pressure is high and the safety valve minimum lift setpoint can be confused with the Atmospheric Relief valve trip open setpoint of 1040 psig and the applicant may not recall the E-O step that reduces the AFW flow even with the SG levels less than the minimum for required heat sink and conclude that AFW flow cannot be reduced while in E-O.
D. Incorrect, Steam pressure did not exceed the safety valve nominal lift setpoint. (Lowest at 1064 psig) and E-O directs the AFW flow to less than 600 gpm but within steam generator levels less than 10% (min. heat sink) the AFW flow cannot be reduced to less than 440 gpm (min. heat sink).
Plausible because the pressure is high and the safety valve minimum lift setpoint can be confused with the Atmospheric Relief valve trip open setpoint of 1040 psig and the AFW flow reduction is correct.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The safety valve opened below its minimum lift setpoint and the AFW is directed to be reduced as long as the flow remains above the 440 gpm minimum required for heat sink. Plausible because the safety valve lifting below its nominal setpoint is correct and the applicant may not recall the E-O step that reduces the AFW flow even with the SG levels less than the minimum for required heat sink and conclude that AFW flow cannot be reduced while in E-O.
B. CORRECT, The safety valves has opened below its nominal setpoint. The safety valve with the lowest setting is has a nominal setpoint of 1064 psig, so if the valve lifted at 1051 psig it opened early. With the cooldown ongoing, E-O provides action to reduce AFW flow to less than 600 gpm but within steam generator levels less than 10% (min. heat sink) the AFW flow cannot be reduced to less than 440 gpm (min. heat sink)
C. Incorrect, Steam pressure did not exceed the safety valve nominal lift setpoint. (Lowest at 1064 psig) and the AFW is directed to be reduced as long as the flow remains above the 440 gpm minimum required for heat sink. Plausible because the pressure is high and the safety valve minimum lift setpoint can be confused with the Atmospheric Relief valve trip open setpoint of 1040 psig and the applicant may not recall the E-O step that reduces the AFW flow even with the SG levels less than the minimum for required heat sink and conclude that AFW flow cannot be reduced while in E-O.
D. Incorrect, Steam pressure did not exceed the safety valve nominal lift setpoint. (Lowest at 1064 psig) and E-O directs the AFW flow to less than 600 gpm but within steam generator levels less than 10% (min. heat sink) the AFW flow cannot be reduced to less than 440 gpm (min. heat sink).
Plausible because the pressure is high and the safety valve minimum lift setpoint can be confused with the Atmospheric Relief valve trip open setpoint of 1040 psig and the AFW flow reduction is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 054 AKl.02 010 The following conditions exist on a Unit 1 :
A reactor trip has occurred due to a loss of MFW.
FR-H.1, "Loss of Secondary Heat Sink" is in progress.
The RCS is in a feed-and-bleed condition with RCS temperature stable at 570°F.
The-operators restore a feedwater source and prepare to feed the SIGs which are dry.
The US directs the operator to establish feed water flow to only one S/G.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason for feeding only one SIG under these conditions?
A'! To ensure that if a SIG failure occurs due to excessive stresses, the failure is isolated to one S/G.
B. To limit the rate of positive reactivity addition to the core due to the cooling of the reactor coolant system.
C. To prevent a rapid cooldown of the RCS that could lead to a pressurized thermal shock condition on the reactor vessel.
D. To establish the minimum SIG level to meet Heat Sink requirements as rapidly as possible to allow termination of bleed and feed.
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, With a dry SG, the tubes will be subjected to excessive thermal stresses. Hence, tube failure is more likely than if the SG was not dry. Therefore, if a failure does occur, it is limited to the one SG.
B. Incorrect, the addition of feedwater would result in cooling the RCS and positive reactivity being inserted to the core but this is not the reason.
Plausible because the addition of positive reactivity does occur due to the feedwater addition and feeding only one S/G would reduce the rate of the reactivity addition.
C. Incorrect, the addition of feedwater would result in the cooling the RCS which could cause PTS conditions but this is not the reason for feeding only one S/G. Plausible because the addition of feedwater could result in a PTS condition.
D. Incorrect, Establishing minimum required heat sink conditions as quickly as possible so that feed and bleed can be terminated is a proper goal but that is not the reason feedwater is established to only one S/G when the S/G are hot and dry.
f QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 054 AKl.02 010 The following conditions exist on a Unit 1:
A reactor trip has occurred due to a loss of MFW.
FR-H.1, "Loss of Secondary Heat Sink" is in progress.
The RCS is in a feed-and-bleed condition with RCS temperature stable at 570°F.
The operators restore a feedwater source and prepare to feed the S/Gs which are dry.
The US directs the operator to establish feed water flow to only one S/G.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason for feeding only one S/G under these conditions?
A'I To ensure that if a S/G failure occurs due to excessive stresses, the failure is isolated to one S/G.
B. To limit the rate of positive reactivity addition to the core due to the cooling of the reactor coolant system.
C. To prevent a rapid cooldown of the RCS that could lead to a pressurized thermal shock condition on the reactor vessel.
D. To establish the minimum S/G level to meet Heat Sink requirements as rapidly as possible to allow termination of bleed and feed.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, With a dry SG, the tubes will be subjected to excessive thermal stresses. Hence, tube failure is more likely than if the SG was not dry. Therefore, if a failure does occur, it is limited to the one SG.
B. Incorrect, the addition of feedwater would result in cooling the RCS and positive reactivity being inserted to the core but this is not the reason.
Plausible because the addition of positive reactivity does occur due to the feedwater addition and feeding only one S/G would reduce the rate of the reactivity addition.
C. Incorrect, the addition of feedwater would result in the cooling the RCS which could cause PTS conditions but this is not the reason for feeding only one S/G. Plausible because the addition of feedwater could result in a PTS condition.
D. Incorrect, Establishing minimum required heat sink conditions as quickly as possible so that feed and bleed can be terminated is a proper goal but that is not the reason feedwater is established to only one S/G when the S/G are hot and dry.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 10 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 054AK1.02 Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW)
Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW):
Effects of feedwater introduction on dry S/G Importance Rating:
3.6 / 4.2 Technical
Reference:
EPM-3-FR-H.1, Basis Document for FR-H.1 Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, Rev 8 FR-H.1, Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-H.1 B.4 Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of FR-H.1.
Bank_X __
Modified Bank # ___ _
Question History:
New __ _
SQN bank question FR-H.1-B-8 001 with changes described below in comments Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.8/41.10/45.3 )
( n/a )
Comments: SON bank question FR-H.1-B-8 001with:
Correct answer relocated, distracter locations rotated, one distracter replaced,
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 10 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 054 AK1.02 Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW)
Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW):
Effects of feedwater introduction on dry S/G Importance Rating:
3.6/4.2 Technical
Reference:
EPM-3-FR-H.1, Basis Document for FR-H.1 Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, Rev 8 FR-H.1, Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-H.1 BA Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of FR-H.1.
Bank X __
Modified Bank # ___ _
Question History:
New __ _
SQN bank question FR-H.1-B-8 001 with changes described below in comments Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.8 / 41. 1 0 / 45.3 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question FR-H.1-B-8 001with:
Correct answer relocated, distracter locations rotated, one distracter replaced,
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 055 EK3.02 011 Which ONE of the following identifies the basis for depressurizing the Intact Steam Generators to less than 160 psig in accordance with ECA-O.O, "Loss of AU AC Power?"
A'!' To reduce inventory loss through RCP seals.
B. To minimize reactor vessel upper head voiding.
C. To initiate injection of the Cold Leg Accumulator.
D. To promote natural circulation in the RCS loops.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, as stated in EPM-3, "Basis document of ECA-O.O Loss of All AC Power" the operator is directed to dump steam at a maximum rate to reduce RCS temperature and pressure which in turn will reduce the rate of RCS inventory loss through the RCP seals.
B. Incorrect, depressurizing the intact SGs by dumping steam is not to prevent upper head voiding in the vessel. Upper head voiding is an acceptable consequence of the depressurization. Plausible because the upper head voiding issue is discussed in a note prior to the step initiating the depressurization.
C. Incorrect, depressurizing the intact SG by dumping steam will reduce RCS pressure and allow CLA to inject into the RCS but while their injection is advantageous; it is not the basis for the action. Plausible because the CLA injection would provide additional inventory to the RCS.
D. Incorrect, Dumping steam will promote natural circulation but it is not the reason for depressurizing the SGs to less than 160 psig. Plausible because the dumping steam would promote natural circulation in the RCS.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 055 EK3.02 011 Which ONE of the following identifies the basis for depressurizing the Intact Steam Generators to less than 160 psig in accordance with ECA-O.O, "Loss of All AC Power?"
A'! To reduce inventory loss through RCP seals.
B. To minimize reactor vessel upper head voiding.
C. To initiate injection of the Cold Leg Accumulator.
D. To promote natural circulation in the RCS loops.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, as stated in EPM-3, "Basis document of ECA-O.O Loss of All AC Power" the operator is directed to dump steam at a maximum rate to reduce RCS temperature and pressure which in turn will reduce the rate of RCS inventory loss through the RCP seals.
B. Incorrect, depressurizing the intact SGs by dumping steam is not to prevent upper head voiding in the vessel. Upper head voiding is an acceptable consequence of the depressurization. Plausible because the upper head voiding issue is discussed in a note prior to the step initiating the depressurization.
C. Incorrect, depressurizing the intact SG by dumping steam will reduce RCS pressure and allow CLA to inject into the RCS but while their injection is advantageous; it is not the basis for the action. Plausible because the CLA injection would provide additional inventory to the RCS.
D. Incorrect, Dumping steam will promote natural circulation but it is not the reason for depressurizing the SGs to less than 160 psig. Plausible because the dumping steam would promote natural circulation in the RCS.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 11 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 055 EK3.02 Loss of Offsite and Onsite Power (Station Blackout)
Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the Station Blackout:
Actions contained in EOP for loss of offsite and onsite power Importance Rating:
4.3 / 4.6 Technical
Reference:
ECA-O.O, Loss of All AC Power, Rev 22 EPM-3-ECA-0.0, Background Document for ECA-O.O Loss of All AC Power, Rev 11 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 ECA-O.O B.4 Question Source:
Describe the basis for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of ECAO-O Bank#_X __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
Question History:
New __ _
SQN bank questions ECS-O.O-B.3.b 003 and 007 with changes Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments:
Reworded steam of question and added current values.
Used distracters from each of the 2 questions Relocated correct answer.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 11 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 055 EK3.02 Loss of Offsite and Onsite Power (Station Blackout)
Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the Station Blackout:
Actions contained in EOP for loss of offsite and onsite power Importance Rating:
4.3/4.6 Technical
Reference:
ECA-O.O, Loss of All AC Power, Rev 22 EPM-3-ECA-0.0, Background Document for ECA-O.O Loss of All AC Power, Rev 11 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 ECA-O.O BA Question Source:
Describe the basis for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of ECAO-O Bank#
X __ _
Modified Bank #
Question History:
New __ _
SQN bank questions ECS-O.O-B.3.b 003 and 007 with changes Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/41.10/45.6/45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments:
Reworded steam of question and added current values.
Used distracters from each of the 2 questions Relocated correct answer.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 056 AA1.11 012 Given the following:
A LOCA occurred on Unit 1.
RCS pressure has stabilized at 1320 psig.
The crew responded in accordance with the emergency procedures and has now entered ES-1.2, "Post LOCA Cooldown."
The RHR pumps have been stopped in accordance with ES-1.2.
NO other ECCS equipment has been removed from service.
If a Loss of Offsite power were to occur, which ONE of the following identifies the status of the ECCS pumps after the shutdown board load sequencing was complete?
Centrifugal Charging Pumps Safety Injection Pumps A.
Running Running B:'
Running OFF C.
OFF Running D.
OFF OFF
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 056 AA1.11 012 Given the following:
A LOCA occurred on Unit 1.
RCS pressure has stabilized at 1320 psig.
The crew responded in accordance with the emergency procedures and has now entered ES-1.2, "Post LOCA Cooldown."
The RHR pumps have been stopped in accordance with ES-1.2.
NO other ECCS equipment has been removed from service.
If a Loss of Offsite power were to occur, which ONE of the following identifies the status of the ECCS pumps after the shutdown board load sequencing was complete?
Centrifugal Charging Pumps Safety Injection Pumps A.
Running Running B!'"
Running OFF C.
OFF Running D.
OFF OFF
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would sequence back on but the Safety Injection pumps would not sequence back on. Plausible because the Centrifugal Charging Pumps would be running and the Safety Injection pumps would have started back if the safety injection signal had not been reset.
B. CORRECT, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would sequence back on and the Safety Injection pumps would be off. Since the SI is reset (as evidenced by the RHR pumps being off and in A-Auto), the Safety Injection pumps would not sequence back on.
C. Incorrect, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would not be off, they would sequence back on and the Safety Injection pumps would not be running. Plausible because the Safety Injection pumps would have started back if the safety injection Signal had not been reset and the charging pump could be determined to be not running due the required action to place them in pull-to-Iock if offsite power were loss after sump swapover occurred.
D. Incorrect, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would not be off, they would sequence back on but the Safety Injection pumps would be off. Plausible because the Safety Injection pumps being off is correct and the charging pump could be determined to be not running due the required action to place them in pull-to-Iock if offsite power were loss after sump swapover occurred.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would sequence back on but the Safety Injection pumps would not sequence back on. Plausible because the Centrifugal Charging Pumps would be running and the Safety Injection pumps would have started back if the safety injection signal had not been reset.
B. CORRECT, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would sequence back on and the Safety Injection pumps would be off. Since the SI is reset (as evidenced by the RHR pumps being off and in A-Auto), the Safety Injection pumps would not sequence back on.
C. Incorrect, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would not be off, they would sequence back on and the Safety Injection pumps would not be running. Plausible because the Safety Injection pumps would have started back if the safety injection signal had not been reset and the charging pump could be determined to be not running due the required action to place them in pull-to-Iock if offsite power were loss after sump swapover occurred.
D. Incorrect, the centrifugal charging pump (HPI) would not be off, they would sequence back on but the Safety Injection pumps would be off. Plausible because the Safety Injection pumps being off is correct and the charging pump could be determined to be not running due the required action to place them in pull-to-Iock if offsite power were loss after sump swapover occurred.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 12 Tier 1 Group 1 KJ A 056 AA 1.11 Ability to operate and 1 or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power:
HPI system.
Importance Rating:
3.7* 13.7 Technical
Reference:
ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown, Rev 17 AOP-P.01, Loss of Offsite Power, Rev 24 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-P.01 B.3 Question Source:
Describe the initial operator response to stabilize the plant upon entry into AOP-P.01.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 1 45.5 1 45.6 )
( n/a )
Comments: new question
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 12 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 056 AA 1.11 Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power:
HPI system.
Importance Rating:
3.7* / 3.7 Technical
Reference:
ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown, Rev 17 AOP-P.01, Loss of Offsite Power, Rev 24 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-P.01 B.3 Question Source:
Describe the initial operator response to stabilize the plant upon entry into AOP-P.01.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New X
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5/45.6 )
( n/a )
Comments: new question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 057 AK3.01 013 Given the following:
,{
~. Units are operating at 93% power.
All control systems are aligned normally.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the 120V AC Vital Instrument Power Board that can be lost without requiring an immediate manual reactor trip, and (2) a valid reason for manually tripping the reactor if the stated plant condition occurred following the board loss?
Board A'I 1-IV B.
1-IV C.
2-11 D.
Reason for manual reactor trip
~
Pressurizer pressure approaches!PORV lift setpoint due to loss of PORV automatic control.
Volume Control Tank (VCT) level at 20% and dropping witty-makeup in progress to prevent CCP suction swapover to RWST.
Pressurizer pressure approaches PORV lift setpoint due to loss of PORV automatic control.
Volume Control Tank (VCT) level at 20% and dropping with makeup in progress to prevent CCP suction swapover to RWST.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 057 AK3.01 013 Given the following:
f}oth Units are operating at 93% power.
All control systems are aligned normally.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the 120V AC Vital Instrument Power Board that can be lost without requiring an immediate manual reactor trip, and (2) a valid reason for manually tripping the reactor if the stated plant condition occurred following the board loss?
Board Reason for manual reactor trip A'!
1-IV Pressurizer pressure approaches PORV lift setpoint due to loss of PORV automatic I'
control.
B.
1-IV Volume Control Tank (VCT) level at 20% and dropping witttmakeup in progress to prevent CCP suction swapover to RWST.
C.
2-/1 Pressurizer pressure approaches PORV lift setpoint due to loss of PORV automatic control.
D.
2-/1 Volume Control Tank (VCT) level at 20% and dropping with makeup in progress to prevent CCP suction swapover to RWST.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, In accordance with AOP-P.03 and AOP-P.04, only Unit 1 Vital Instrument Power Board IV can be lost and the first step in the procedure not require a Reactor Trip. The loss of any of the other 3 boards on Unit 1 or any of the 4 boards on Unit 2 require that the reactor to be tripped.
AOP-P.03, section 2.4, Loss of board 1-IV does direct a reactor trip in the RNO of Step 1 if pressurizer pressure approaches the PORV setpoint due to the loss of automatic control for one PORVand the potential loss of control of the other PORV depending on pressurizer pressure selector switch position.
B. Incorrect, Board 1-IV is the correct board, but VCT level dropping to 20%
with makeup in progress would not result in a condition requiring a reactor trip. If level dropped to 7% an automatic switchover to the RWST would occur and if the charging pump suction could not be restored to the VCT, a reactor trip would be required. Plausible because the correct board is identified and if the VCT level was less than 20% with makeup in progress, then the level will not be able to be maintained, eventually resulting in a swapover to the RWST which is identified in the procedure as requiring the reactor to be tripped but because of the injection of borated water into the RCS with the unit at power.
C. Incorrect, Lost of the 2-1/ board would require a reactor trip in accordance with AOP-P.04. Tripping the reactor if the pressurizer pressure approached the PORV lift set point is plausible because a loss of the 2-1/
board would result in the loss of automatic of both PORVs and because the pressurizer pressure approaching PORV lift setpoint is an action is AOP-P.03 for the loss of the 1-IV board.
D. Incorrect, Lost of the 2-1/ board would require a reactor trip in accordance with AOP-P.04. Plausible because a loss of the 2-11 board would result in the loss of automatic control of both PORVs and because maintaining the VCT level between 13%-60% is addressed in the AOP with the RNO addressing the tripping of the reactor if swapover to the RWST occurs if level drops to 7%. If the level is less than 20% and dropping with makeup in service than the level is unable to be maintained and the set pOint could eventually be reached requiring the reactor to be tripped because of the injection of borated water into the RCS with the unit at power.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. CORRECT, In accordance with AOP-P.03 and AOP-P.04, only Unit 1 Vital Instrument Power Board IV can be lost and the first step in the procedure not require a Reactor Trip. The loss of any of the other 3 boards on Unit 1 or any of the 4 boards on Unit 2 require that the reactor to be tripped.
A OP-P. 03, section 2.4, Loss of board 1-IV does direct a reactor trip in the RNO of Step 1 if pressurizer pressure approaches the PORV setpoint due to the loss of automatic control for one PORV and the potential loss of control of the other PORV depending on pressurizer pressure selector switch position.
B. Incorrect, Board 1-IV is the correct board, but VCT level dropping to 20%
with makeup in progress would not result in a condition requiring a reactor trip. If level dropped to 7% an automatic switchover to the RWST would occur and if the charging pump suction could not be restored to the VCT, a reactor trip would be required. Plausible because the correct board is identified and if the VCT level was less than 20% with makeup in progress, then the level will not be able to be maintained, eventually resulting in a swapover to the RWST which is identified in the procedure as requiring the reactor to be tripped but because of the injection of borated water into the RCS with the unit at power.
C. Incorrect, Lost of the 2-1/ board would require a reactor trip in accordance with AOP-P.04. Tripping the reactor if the pressurizer pressure approached the PORV lift set point is plausible because a loss of the 2-1/
board would result in the loss of automatic of both PORVs and because the pressurizer pressure approaching PORV lift setpoint is an action is A OP-P. 03 for the loss of the 1-IV board.
D. Incorrect, Lost of the 2-1/ board would require a reactor trip in accordance with AOP-P.04. Plausible because a loss of the 2-11 board would result in the loss of automatic control of both PORVs and because maintaining the VCT level between 13%-60% is addressed in the AOP with the RNO addressing the tripping of the reactor if swapover to the RWST occurs if level drops to 7%. If the level is less than 20% and dropping with makeup in service than the level is unable to be maintained and the setpoint could eventually be reached requiring the reactor to be tripped because of the injection of borated water into the RCS with the unit at power.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 13 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 057 AK3.01 Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus:
Actions contained in EOP for loss of vital ac electrical instrument bus Importance Rating:
4.1 1 4.4 Technical
Reference:
AOP-P.03, Loss of Unit 1 Vital Instrument Power Board, Rev 21 AOP-P.04, Loss of Unit 2 Vital Instrument Power Board, Rev 26 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-P.03&.04 B.8 Question Source:
Given a set of initial plant conditions use AOP-P.03 &
-P.04 to correctly:
- b. Identify required actions Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X"---__
New ---
Question History:
SQN bank question AOP-P.03-B.3 002 modified.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5,41.10/45.6/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question AOP-P.03-B.3 002 modified.
Correct answer relocated, changed distracter listed boards from III to II, added second part of question to identify conditions requiring a reactor trip, and made minor wording changes in the stem.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 13 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 057 AK3.01 Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus:
Actions contained in EOP for loss of vital ac electrical instrument bus Importance Rating:
4.1 /4.4 Technical
Reference:
AOP-P.03, Loss of Unit 1 Vital Instrument Power Board, Rev 21 AOP-P.04, Loss of Unit 2 Vital Instrument Power Board, Rev 26 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-P.03&.04 B.8 Question Source:
Given a set of initial plant conditions use AOP-P.03 &
-P.04 to correctly:
- b. Identify required actions Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank #
X __ _
New ---
Question History:
SQN bank question AOP-P.03-B.3 002 modified.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5, 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question AOP-P.03-B.3 002 modified.
Correct answer relocated, changed distracter listed boards from III to II, added second part of question to identify conditions requiring a reactor trip, and made minor wording changes in the stem.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 058 AKl.Ol 014 Given the following:
Both Units at 100% power.
The following alarm is received in the control room:
125 V DC VITAL CHARG III FAIL NITAL BAT'" DISCHARGE Local inspection determines...
125V Vital Battery Charger III DC Output breaker has tripped and CANNOT be reset.
125V Vital DC Battery Board III voltage is 128 volts and dropping.
Which ONE of the following identifies the status of 125V Vital DC Battery Channel III and in accordance with 0-SO-250-1, "125 Volt DC Vital Power System," the battery charger that will be placed in service to the board?
125v DC Channel III status A. Currently INOPERABLE B~ Currently INOPERABLE C. OPERABLE until voltage drops to less than 120v.
D. OPERABLE until voltage drops to less than 120v.
Charger to be placed in service 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 058 AKl.01 014 Given the following:
Both Units at 100% power.
The following alarm is received in the control room:
125 V DC VITAL CHARG III FAIL NITAL BAT III DISCHARGE Local inspection determines...
125V Vital Battery Charger III DC Output breaker has tripped and CANNOT be reset.
125V Vital DC Battery Board III voltage is 128 volts and dropping.
Which ONE of the following identifies the status of 125V Vital DC Battery Channel III and in accordance with 0-SO-250-1, "125 Volt DC Vital Power System," the battery charger that will be placed in service to the board?
125v DC Channel III status A. Currently INOPERABLE B:' Currently INOPERABLE C. OPERABLE until voltage drops to less than 120v.
D. OPERABLE until voltage drops to less than 120v.
Charger to be placed in service 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the channel is INOPERABLE but the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger will not be the one aligned to the board. Plausible because the channel being INOPERABLE is correct and the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger would be aligned if the charger for 125v Vital Battery Board I or /I were lost.
B. CORRECT, Tech Spec requires that each channel have a full capacity charger. The channel is INOPERABLE because the charger is not connected. 0-SO-250-1 will align the 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger to the board.
C. Incorrect, the channel is not OPERABLE without a full capacity charger connected and the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger will not be the one aligned to the board. Plausible because the board voltage is above the minimum value (125v) required for operability(and if the channel were operable, it would eventually become inoperable when the voltage dropped) and the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger would be aligned if the charger for 125v Vital Battery Board I or /I were lost.
D. Incorrect, the 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger is the one that will be aligned to the board but the channel is not OPERABLE without a full capacity charger connected. Plausible because the board voltage is above the minimum value (125v) required for operability (and if the channel were operable, it would eventually become inoperable when the voltage dropped) and the 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger being aligned is correct.
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the channel is INOPERABLE but the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger will not be the one aligned to the board. Plausible because the channel being INOPERABLE is correct and the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger would be aligned if the charger for 125v Vital Battery Board I or /I were lost.
B. CORRECT, Tech Spec requires that each channel have a full capacity charger. The channel is INOPERABLE because the charger is not connected. 0-SO-250-1 will align the 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger to the board.
C. Incorrect, the channel is not OPERABLE without a full capacity charger connected and the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger will not be the one aligned to the board. Plausible because the board voltage is above the minimum value (125v) required for operability(and if the channel were operable, it would eventually become inoperable when the voltage dropped) and the 1-S Spare Vital Battery Charger would be aligned if the charger for 125v Vital Battery Board lor /I were lost.
D. Incorrect, the 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger is the one that will be aligned to the board but the channel is not OPERABLE without a full capacity charger connected. Plausible because the board voltage is above the minimum value (125v) required for operability (and if the channel were operable, it would eventually become inoperable when the voltage dropped) and the 2-S Spare Vital Battery Charger being aligned is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 14 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 058 AK1.01 Loss of DC Power Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of DC Power:
Battery charger equipment and instrumentation Importance Rating:
2.8 I 3.1
- Technical
Reference:
1-AR-M1-C, ACIDC Control Power 1-XA-55-1C, Rev 41 1-S0-250-1, 125V DC Vital Power System, Rev 0043 Unit 1 Technical Specifications 3.8.2.3, Amendment 37 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective: OPT200.DC B.4.c & B.6.a Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the DC Electrical Systems:
- c. Support equipment and systems Describe the administrative controls and limits for the DC Electrical Systems:
- a. State Tech specslTRM LCOs that govern the system Bank# ___ --
Modified Bank #
X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
North Anna Exam Bank question 058 K1.01 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.8/41.10/45.3 )
( nla )
Comments: Modified from question on North Anna Exam 2008
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 14 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 058 AK1.01 Loss of DC Power Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of DC Power:
Battery charger equipment and instrumentation Importance Rating:
2.8 I 3.1*
Technical
Reference:
1-AR-M1-C, ACIDC Control Power 1-XA-55-1C, Rev 41 1-S0-250-1, 125V DC Vital Power System, Rev 0043 Unit 1 Technical Specifications 3.8.2.3, Amendment 37 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective: OPT200.DC B.4.c &B.6.a Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the DC Electrical Systems:
- c. Support equipment and systems Describe the administrative controls and limits for the DC Electrical Systems:
- a. State Tech specs/TRM LCOs that govern the system Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank #
X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
North Anna Exam Bank question 058 K1.01 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.8 I 41.10 145.3) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments: Modified from question on North Anna Exam 2008
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 062 AK3.01 015 Which ONE of the following identifies the containment isolation signal that would cause a loss of the ERCW supply to the Containment Lower Compartment Coolers and the reason for the isolation?
Isolation Signal A. Phase A Isolation B. Phase A Isolation C. Phase B Isolation O!' Phase B Isolation DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
Reason for isolating To ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure.
To ensure potential containment release paths are isolated.
To ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure.
To ensure potential containment release paths are isolated.
A. Incorrect, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal not a Phase A signal and the reason is not to ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure. It is to ensure potential release paths from
. containment are isolated. Plausible because a Phase A isolation signal does isolate other containment cooling penetrations (i.e. Incore Instrument room cooling) and the addition of ERCW into containment would increase the mass inside containment.
B. Incorrect, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal not a Phase A signal and the reason is ensure potential release paths from containment are isolated. Plausible because a Phase A isolation signal does isolate other containment cooling penetrations (i.e. Incore Instrument room cooling) and to ensure potential containment release paths are isolated is correct.
C. Incorrect, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal and the reason is not to ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure. It is to ensure potential release paths from containment are isolated.
Plausible because the isolation signal is correct and the addition of ERCW into containment would increase the mass inside containment.
D. CORRECT, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal and the reason is to ensure potential containment release paths are isolated.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 062 AK3.01 015 Which ONE of the following identifies the containment isolation signal that would cause a loss of the ERCW supply to the Containment Lower Compartment Coolers and the reason for the isolation?
Isolation Signal A. Phase A Isolation B. Phase A Isolation C. Phase B Isolation D~ Phase B Isolation DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
Reason for isolating To ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure.
To ensure potential containment release paths are isolated.
To ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure.
To ensure potential containment release paths are isolated.
A. Incorrect, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal not a Phase A signal and the reason is not to ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure. It is to ensure potential release paths from containment are isolated. Plausible because a Phase A isolation signal does isolate other containment cooling penetrations (i.e. Incore Instrument room cooling) and the addition of ERCW into containment would increase the mass inside containment.
B. Incorrect, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal not a Phase A signal and the reason is ensure potential release paths from containment are isolated. Plausible because a Phase A isolation signal does isolate other containment cooling penetrations (i.e. Incore Instrument room cooling) and to ensure potential containment release paths are isolated is correct.
C. Incorrect, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal and the reason is not to ensure the ERCW is not contributing to the rise in containment pressure. It is to ensure potential release paths from containment are isolated.
Plausible because the isolation signal is correct and the addition of ERCW into containment would increase the mass inside containment.
D. CORRECT, The Containment Lower Compartment Coolers ERCW flow is isolated by a Phase B containment isolation signal and the reason is to ensure potential containment release paths are isolated.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 15 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 062 AK3.01 Loss of Nuclear Service Water Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water:
The conditions that will initiate the automatic opening and closing of the SWS isolation valves to the nuclear service water coolers Importance Rating:
3.2* /3.5*
Technical
Reference:
2-47W611-67-3 R 0 FSAR, 9.0 Auxiliary Systems, 9.2.2, ERCW Amendment 20 EPM-3, Basis Document for ES-0.5 Equipment Verifications, Rev 1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CONTCOOLING B.3 & 4.e &.i Question Source:
Explain the purpose/function of each major component in the flow path of the containment cooling system Describe the following items of each major component in the containment cooling system.
- e. Component operation
- i. Protective Features Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # -----
New_X_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( CFR 41.4,41.8/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
{
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 15 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 062 AK3.01 Loss of Nuclear Service Water Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water:
The conditions that will initiate the automatic opening and closing of the SWS isolation valves to the nuclear service water coolers Importance Rating:
3.2* / 3.5*
Technical
Reference:
2-47W611-67-3 R 0 FSAR, 9.0 Auxiliary Systems, 9.2.2, ERCW Amendment 20 EPM-3, Basis Document for ES-0.5 Equipment Verifications, Rev 1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPT200.CONTCOOLING B.3 & 4.e &.i Explain the purpose/function of each major component in the flow path of the containment cooling system Describe the following items of each major component in the containment cooling system.
- e. Component operation
- i. Protective Features Bank# -----
Modified Bank # ____ _
New _X_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( CFR 41.4,41.8/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 065 AA2.05 016 Given the following:
Unit 1 is at 69% power when control air pressure starts dropping.
The crew implements AOP-M.02, "Loss of Control Air."
The Control Air system pressure is stabilized when a leak is identified and isolated.
The isolation resulted in depressurizing the header supplying air to Unit 1 CVCS valves.
In accordance with AOP-M.02, "Loss of Control Air," when the pressurizer level reached which ONE of the following values would the crew be directed to evaluate the need to initiate a unit shutdown using 0-GO-5, "Normal Power Operations?"
A. drops to less than 17%
B. drops to less than 44%
C. rises to greater than 54%
D~ rises to greater than 70%
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 065 AA2.05 016 Given the following:
Unit 1 is at 69% power when control air pressure starts dropping.
The crew implements AOP-M.02, "Loss of Control Air."
The Control Air system pressure is stabilized when a leak is identified and isolated.
The isolation resulted in depressurizing the header supplying air to Unit 1 CVCS valves.
In accordance with AOP-M.02, "Loss of Control Air," when the pressurizer level reached which ONE of the following values would the crew be directed to evaluate the need to initiate a unit shutdown using 0-GO-5, "Normal Power Operations?"
A. drops to less than 17%
B. drops to less than 44%
C. rises to greater than 54%
D~ rises to greater than 70%
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The pressurizer level will be increasing not decreasing and AOP-M02 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown when the level exceeds 70% (not dropping to 17%). Plausible because the applicant must determine which way the level is going by determining the failure positions of the valves and 17% is the satpoint where letdown isolates, heaters turn off and an annunciator actuates.
B. Incorrect, The pressurizer level will be increasing not decreasing and AOP-M02 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown when the level exceeds 70% (not dropping to 44%). Plausible because the applicant must determine which way the level is going by determining the failure positions of the valves and 44% is the set point where an annunciator actuates due to the level being 5% below the programmed level setpoint at 69% power.
C. Incorrect, The pressurizer level will be increasing but exceeding 70% (not 54%) is the value where AOP-M03 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown. Plausible because the applicant must determine which way the level is going by determining the failure positions of the valves and 54% is the setpoint where an annunciator actuates and backup heaters energize due to the level being 5% above the programmed level set point at 69% power.
D. CORRECT, With a loss of air the charging valves fail open and the letdown valves fail closed resulting in an increasing pressurizer level.
AOP-M.02 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown if the pressurizer level exceeds 70%.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The pressurizer level will be increasing not decreasing and AOP-M02 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown when the level exceeds 70% (not dropping to 17%). Plausible because the applicant must determine which way the level is going by determining the failure positions of the valves and 17% is the setpoint where letdown isolates, heaters turn off and an annunciator actuates.
B. Incorrect, The pressurizer level will be increasing not decreasing and AOP-M02 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown when the level exceeds 70% (not dropping to 44%). Plausible because the applicant must determine which way the level is going by determining the failure positions of the valves and 44% is the setpoint where an annunciator actuates due to the level being 5% below the programmed level setpoint at 69% power.
C. Incorrect, The pressurizer level will be increasing but exceeding 70% (not 54%) is the value where AOP-M03 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown. Plausible because the applicant must determine which way the level is going by determining the failure positions of the valves and 54% is the setpoint where an annunciator actuates and backup heaters energize due to the level being 5% above the programmed level setpoint at 69% power.
D. CORRECT, With a loss of air the charging valves fail open and the letdown valves fail closed resulting in an increasing pressurizer level.
AOP-M02 directs the crew to evaluate the need to initiate a plant shutdown if the pressurizer level exceeds 70%.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 16 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 065 AA2.05 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Instrument Air:
When to commence plant shutdown if instrument air pressure is decreasing Importance Rating:
3.4/4.1 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev 14 1,2-47WB4B-6 R17 1,2-47WB4B-7 R25 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271.AOP.M-03 B.7 Question Source:
Describe the conditions and reason for transitions within this procedure and the transitions to other procedures.
Bank # ____ --
Modified Bank # _X'--__
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank question 065 AA2.05 OBO modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 43.5 1 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: Changed stem and distracters, relocated correct answer.
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 16 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 065 AA2.05 Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Instrument Air:
When to commence plant shutdown if instrument air pressure is decreasing Importance Rating:
3.4 / 4.1 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev 14 1,2-47WB4B-6 R17 1,2-47WB4B-7 R25 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271.AOP.M-03 B.7 Question Source:
Describe the conditions and reason for transitions within this procedure and the transitions to other procedures.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank #
X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank question 065 AA2.05 OBO modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 43.5 / 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: Changed stem and distracters, relocated correct answer.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 077 G 2.2.39017 Given the following:
Both units operating at 100% with the switchyard and electrical board feeds in a normal configuration.
0-SI-OPS-OB2-007.W, "AC Electrical Power Source Operability Verification," completed on the previous shift.
At 0901, a disturbance in the switchyard results in the following:
6.9kV Shutdown Boards 1 A-A and 2A-A voltage dropped to 5300v.
6.9kV Shutdown Boards 1 B-B and 2B-B voltage dropped to 5700v.
All sections of 161 kv Bus 2 are de-energized due to a differential relay operation.
At 0902, operators note the following:
All shutdown boards at normal voltage.
All switchyard breakers in the normal position except for all 161 kV Bus 2 breakers which have tripped.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the Diesel Generators that would be running and (2) the requirement relative to the performance of 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007.W?
A. (1) Only the Train A DGs would be running; (2) Within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> perform 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007.W to verify one offsite power supply is operable B. (1) Only the Train A DGs would be running; (2) Performance of SI-OPS-OB2-007.W is NOT required since it was performed on the previous shift.
Cor' (1) All four DGs would be running; (2) Within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> perform 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007.W to verify one offsite power supply is operable.
D. (1) All four DGs would be running; (2) Performance of SI-OPS-OB2-007.W is NOT required since it was performed on the previous shift.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 077 G 2.2.39017 Given the following:
Both units operating at 100% with the switchyard and electrical board feeds in a normal configuration.
0-SI-OPS-082-007.W, "AC Electrical Power Source Operability Verification," completed on the previous shift.
At 0901, a disturbance in the switchyard results in the following:
6.9kV Shutdown Boards 1 A-A and 2A-A voltage dropped to 5300v.
6.9kV Shutdown Boards 1 B-B and 2B-B voltage dropped to 5700v.
All sections of 161 kv Bus 2 are de-energized due to a differential relay operation.
At 0902, operators note the following:
All shutdown boards at normal voltage.
All switchyard breakers in the normal position except for all 161 kV Bus 2 breakers which have tripped.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the Diesel Generators that would be running and (2) the requirement relative to the performance of 0-SI-OPS-082-007.W?
A. (1) Only the Train A DGs would be running; (2) Within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> perform 0-SI-OPS-082-007.W to verify one offsite power supply is operable B. (1) Only the Train A DGs would be running; (2) Performance of SI-OPS-082-007.W is NOT required since it was performed on the previous shift.
C~ (1) All four DGs would be running; (2) Within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> perform 0-SI-OPS-082-007.W to verify one offsite power supply is operable.
D. (1) All four DGs would be running; (2) Performance of SI-OPS-082-007.W is NOT required since it was performed on the previous shift.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, All 4 diesel generators would start (not just the Train A DGs) and 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W is required to be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to comply with TIS 3. B. 1. 1. Plausible because only Train A (2 DGs) shutdown board voltages dropped to the voltage required to cause load shed and DG start.
Also, because the SI being required to be performed is correct.
B. Incorrect, All 4 diesel generators would start (not just the Train A DGs) and 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W would not remain on its normal frequency. (It is required to be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to comply with TIS 3.8.1.1).
Plausible because only Train A (2 DGs) shutdown board voltages dropped to the voltage required to cause load shed and DG start and the weekly SI was run on previous shift, all four shutdown boards have normal voltage and the SI is in its normal frequency.
C. CORRECT, Voltage less than BO% (5520v) on any 6.9kv Shutdown Board any will cause all 4 diesel generators to start via the common emergency start relay and TIS 3.B. 1. 1 is required to be entered due to the loss of a complete 161kv Bus with the Units in Mode 1 through 4. TIS 3.B.1.1 Action A requires the remaining off site power supply to be demonstrated to be operable within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W is used to demonstrate the operability.
D. Incorrect, All 4 diesel generators start via the common emergency start relay and 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W is required to be performed to comply with TIS 3.B.1.1. Plausible because all 4 DGs starting is correct and the weekly SI was run on previous shift, all four shutdown boards have normal voltage and the SI is in its normal frequency.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, All 4 diesel generators would start (not just the Train A DGs) and 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W is required to be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to comply with TIS 3.B.1.1. Plausible because only Train A (2 DGs) shutdown board voltages dropped to the voltage required to cause load shed and DG start.
Also, because the SI being required to be performed is correct.
B. Incorrect, All 4 diesel generators would start (not just the Train A DGs) and 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W would not remain on its normal frequency. (It is required to be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to comply with TIS 3.B. 1. 1).
Plausible because only Train A (2 DGs) shutdown board voltages dropped to the voltage required to cause load shed and DG start and the weekly SI was run on previous shift, all four shutdown boards have normal voltage and the SI is in its normal frequency.
C. CORRECT, Voltage less than BO% (5520v) on any 6.9kv Shutdown Board any will cause all 4 diesel generators to start via the common emergency start relay and TIS 3.B.1.1 is required to be entered due to the loss of a complete 161kv Bus with the Units in Mode 1 through 4. TIS 3.B.1.1 Action A requires the remaining offsite power supply to be demonstrated to be operable within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W is used to demonstrate the operability.
D. Incorrect, All 4 diesel generators start via the common emergency start relay and 0-SI-OPS-OB2-007. W is required to be performed to comply with TIS 3.B.1.1. Plausible because all 4 DGs starting is correct and the weekly SI was run on previous shift, all four shutdown boards have normal voltage and the SI is in its normal frequency.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 17 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 077 G 2.2.39 Generator Voltage and Electrical Grid Disturbances Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour Technical Specification action statements for systems.
Importance Rating:
3.9/4.5 Technical
Reference:
Unit 1 Technical Specifications 3.8.1.1, Amendment 241 GOI-6, Apparatus Operations, Rev 130 TI-28 Att. 9, Unit 1 & 2 Cycle Data Sheet 6/28/07 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.SWYD B.5.d &.6.a Question Source:
Describe the operation of the switch yard system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
Describe the administrative controls and limits for the system as explained in this lesson.
- a. State the ~ 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> action limit TS LCOs.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X. __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.71 41.10 143.2 1 45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: New question QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 17 Tier 1 Group 1 KIA 077 G 2.2.39 Generator Voltage and Electrical Grid Disturbances Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour Technical Specification action statements for systems.
Importance Rating:
3.9/4.5 Technical
Reference:
Unit 1 Technical Specifications 3.8.1.1, Amendment 241 GOI-6, Apparatus Operations, Rev 130 TI-28 Att. 9, Unit 1 & 2 Cycle Data Sheet 6/28/07 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.SWYD B.5.d &.6.a Question Source:
Describe the operation of the switchyard system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
Describe the administrative controls and limits for the system as explained in this lesson.
- a. State the ~ 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> action limit TS LCOs.
Bank# ----
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 1 41.10 1 43.2 1 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions W/Ell EA2.1 018 Given the following:
A LOCA has occurred on Unit 1.
During performance ES-1.3, "Transfer to RHR Containment Sump", the following conditions develop:
RHR pump 1 B-B trips and cannot be restarted.
Train "A" Containment Sump Valve (63-72) cannot be opened.
Core Cooling Status Tree indicates an Orange path.
RWST level has dropped to 23%.
Containment pressure is 5.3 psig.
A transition is made to ECA-1.1, "Loss of Containment Recirculation."
Due to the containment pressure, FR-Z.1 "High Containment Pressure" is being performed concurrently with ECA-1.1.
Which ONE of the following identifies the...
(1) the ECCS pumps that would be stopped prior to the transition to ECA-1.1, and (2) which procedure controls the operation of the containment spray pumps?
ECCS Pumps stopped Spray Pump operation controlled by...
A. RHR pumps only FR-Z.1.
B:' RHR pumps only ECA-1.1.
C. All ECCS pumps FR-Z.1.
D. All ECCS pumps ECA-1.1.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions WIEll EA2.1 018 Given the following:
A LOCA has occurred on Unit 1.
During performance ES-1.3, "Transfer to RHR Containment Sump", the following conditions develop:
RHR pump 1 B-B trips and cannot be restarted.
Train "A" Containment Sump Valve (63-72) cannot be opened.
Core Cooling Status Tree indicates an Orange path.
RWST level has dropped to 23%.
Containment pressure is 5.3 psig.
A transition is made to ECA-1.1, "Loss of Containment Recirculation."
Due to the containment pressure, FR-Z.1 "High Containment Pressure" is being performed concurrently with ECA-1.1.
Which ONE of the following identifies the...
(1) the ECCS pumps that would be stopped prior to the transition to ECA-1.1, and (2) which procedure controls the operation of the containment spray pumps?
ECCS Pumps stopped Spray Pump operation controlled by...
A. RHR pumps only FR-Z.1.
B~ RHR pumps only ECA-1.1.
C. All ECCS pumps FR-Z.1.
D. All ECCS pumps ECA-1.1.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the RHR pumps will be stopped when the transfer to the containment sump cannot be completed in accordance with ES-1.3 and a transition is to be made to ECA-1.1 but the containment Spray pump operation will not be controlled by FR-Z. 1. Plausible because the RHR pumps being stopped is correct and when FR-Z. 1 is entered it normally would be the procedure controlling the Containment Spray Pump operation.
B. CORRECT, ES-1.3 will direct stopping the RHR pumps when the transfer to the containment sump cannot be completed in accordance with ES-1.3 and a transition is to be made to ECA-1.1. After the transition to ECA-1.1 and the concurrent performance of FR-Z. 1, the Spray pump operation will be controlled by ECA-1.1.
C. Incorrect, All ECCS pumps will not be stopped when the sump swapover cannot be completed, only the RHR pumps will be stopped and the Containment Spray pump operation will not be controlled by FR-Z. 1.
Plausible because all ECCS pumps would be stopped during performance of ES-1.3 if the RWST level dropped to 8% and when FR-Z.1 is entered it normally would be the procedure controlling the Containment Spray Pump operation.
D. Incorrect, All ECCS pumps will not be stopped when the sump swapover cannot be completed, only the RHR pumps will be stopped and the Containment Spray pump operation will be controlled by ECA-1.1 when FR-Z. 1 is entered in parallel with the ECA. Plausible because all ECCS pumps would be stopped during performance of ES-1.3 if the RWST level dropped to 8% and the Containment Spray pump operation being controlled by ECA-1.1 is correct.
{
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the RHR pumps will be stopped when the transfer to the containment sump cannot be completed in accordance with ES-1.3 and a transition is to be made to ECA-1.1 but the containment Spray pump operation will not be controlled by FR-Z1. Plausible because the RHR pumps being stopped is correct and when FR-Z 1 is entered it normally would be the procedure controlling the Containment Spray Pump operation.
B. CORRECT, ES-1.3 will direct stopping the RHR pumps when the transfer to the containment sump cannot be completed in accordance with ES-1.3 and a transition is to be made to ECA-1.1. After the transition to ECA-1.1 and the concurrent performance of FR-Z1, the Spray pump operation will be controlled by ECA-1.1.
C. Incorrect, All ECCS pumps will not be stopped when the sump swapover cannot be completed, only the RHR pumps will be stopped and the Containment Spray pump operation will not be controlled by FR-Z1.
Plausible because all ECCS pumps would be stopped during performance of ES-1.3 if the RWST level dropped to 8% and when FR-Z1 is entered it normally would be the procedure controlling the Containment Spray Pump operation.
D. Incorrect, All ECCS pumps will not be stopped when the sump swapover cannot be completed, only the RHR pumps will be stopped and the Containment Spray pump operation will be controlled by ECA-1.1 when FR-Z 1 is entered in parallel with the ECA. Plausible because all ECCS pumps would be stopped during performance of ES-1.3 if the RWST level dropped to 8% and the Containment Spray pump operation being controlled by ECA-1.1 is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. ~
Tier 1. Group _1 KIA W/E11 EA2.1 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation)
Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.
Importance Rating:
3.4 I 4.2 Technical
Reference:
ES-1.3, Transfer to RHR Containment Sump, Rev. 16 ECA-1.1, Loss of Containment Sump Recirculation, Rev 11 FR-Z.1, High Containment Pressure, Rev 18 EPM-3-FR-Z.1, Bases Document for FR-Z.1 High Containment Pressure, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 ECA 1.1 B.2.b Question Source:
Discuss the ECA-1.1 entry conditions
- b. Describe the requirements associated with ECA-1.1 entry conditions.
OPL271 ES 1.3 B.6.a &.b Given a set of initial plant conditions use ES-1.3 to correctly:
- a. Identify required actions
- b. Respond to contingencies Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New X
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X, __
1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
(43.5 I 45.13) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. ~
Tier 1.. Group _1 KIA W/E11 EA2.1 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation)
Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.
Importance Rating:
3.4 14.2 Technical
Reference:
ES-1.3, Transfer to RHR Containment Sump, Rev. 16 ECA-1.1, Loss of Containment Sump Recirculation, Rev 11 FR-Z.1, High Containment Pressure, Rev 18 EPM-3-FR-Z.1, Bases Document for FR-Z.1 High Containment Pressure, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPL271 ECA 1.1 B.2.b Discuss the ECA-1.1 entry conditions
- b. Describe the requirements associated with ECA-1.1 entry conditions.
OPL271 ES 1.3 B.6.a &.b Given a set of initial plant conditions use ES-1.3 to correctly:
- a. Identify required actions
- b. Respond to contingencies Bank# ___
Modified Bank # ----
New X
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X, __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 43.5 I 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 003 AK3.06 019 The following plant conditions exist Unit 1 Reactor is at 70% RTP.
The OATC notices that control bank 0 group 2 rod H-8 has dropped into the core.
The operating crew enters AOP-C.01, "Rod Control System Malfunctions" Section 2.2, "Dropped Rod(s)- Reactor Initially in Mode 1 or 2."
Prior to withdrawing H-8, the OATC is directed to adjust the group step counter for Control Bank 0 Group 2 to ZERO steps.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason the group step counter is adjusted to ZERO?
A. Ensures that rod URGENT FAILURE alarm will not annunciate during rod retrieval.
B. Restores low insertion limit alarm function associated with M-4B Window A-7 ROD CONTROL BANKS LIMIT LOW.
C. Restores rod to rod misalignment alarm function associated with M-4B Window 0-4 COMPUTER ALARM ROD DEV AND SEQ NIS PWR RANGE TILTS.
D~ Allows the operator to determine that rod control system is attempting to withdraw the dropped rod and enables the operator to match individual rod position to bank position.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 003 AK3.06 019 The following plant conditions exist:
Unit 1 Reactor is at 70% RTP.
The OATC notices that control bank D group 2 rod H-8 has dropped into the core.
The operating crew enters AOP-C.01, "Rod Control System Malfunctions" Section 2.2, "Dropped Rod(s)- Reactor Initially in Mode 1 or 2."
Prior to withdrawing H-8, the OATC is directed to adjust the group step counter for Control Bank D Group 2 to ZERO steps.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason the group step counter is adjusted to ZERO?
A. Ensures that rod URGENT FAILURE alarm will not annunciate during rod retrieval.
B. Restores low insertion limit alarm function associated with M-4B Window A-7 ROD CONTROL BANKS LIMIT LOW.
C. Restores rod to rod misalignment alarm function associated with M-4B Window D-4 COMPUTER ALARM ROD DEV AND SEQ NIS PWR RANGE TILTS.
D~ Allows the operator to determine that rod control system is attempting to withdraw the dropped rod and enables the operator to match individual rod position to bank position.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect. Resetting group step counter to ZERO on Control Bank D will NOT prevent URGENT FAILURE alarm during subsequent rod withdrawal.
Plausible because an Urgent Failure is an alarm associated with the rod control system and will alarm is a group receives a demand for movement but no movement is sensed.
B. Incorrect, This alarm will clear when dropped rod is restored to position above RIL Plausible because the alarm would be in prior to withdrawal and then clear as rod is withdrawn.
C. Incorrect, Rod-to-rod misalignment function is independent of group demand position. Plausible because there is a rod-to-rod alignment check but it is not from the step counter.
D. CORRECT, The step counter will count up as the rod is withdrawn and the RPI will indicate the rod is being withdrawn. The rod can be withdrawn until the step counter matches the other step counters.
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect. Resetting group step counter to ZERO on Control Bank 0 will NOT prevent URGENT FAILURE alarm during subsequent rod withdrawal.
Plausible because an Urgent Failure is an alarm associated with the rod control system and will alarm is a group receives a demand for movement but no movement is sensed.
B. Incorrect, This alarm will clear when dropped rod is restored to position above RIL. Plausible because the alarm would be in prior to withdrawal and then clear as rod is withdrawn.
C. Incorrect, Rod-to-rod misalignment function is independent of group demand position. Plausible because there is a rod-to-rod alignment check but it is not from the step counter.
D. CORRECT, The step counter will count up as the rod is withdrawn and the RPI will indicate the rod is being withdrawn. The rod can be withdrawn until the step counter matches the other step counters.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 19 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 003 AK3.06 Dropped Control Rod Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Dropped Control Rod:
Reset of demand position counter to zero.
Importance Rating:
2.7* 13.0*
Technical
Reference:
AOP-C.01, Rod Control System Malfunctions, Rev 20.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-C.01 8.6 Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of AOP-C.01.
Bank#_X'--__
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank Question AOP-C.01-B.4 041 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5,41.10/45.6/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: Minor wording changes in stem, reordered distracters.
Relocated correct answer.
Used on 2004 RO exam.
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 19 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 003 AK3.06 Dropped Control Rod Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Dropped Control Rod:
Reset of demand position counter to zero.
Importance Rating:
2.7* /3.0*
Technical
Reference:
AOP-C.01, Rod Control System Malfunctions, Rev 20.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-C.01 B.6 Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of AOP-C.01.
Bank #
X'--__
Modified Bank # -----
New ---
Question History:
SQN Bank Question AOP-C.01-BA 041 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5,41.10/45.6/45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: Minor wording changes in stem, reordered distracters.
Relocated correct answer.
Used on 2004 RO exam.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 032 AK1.01 020 Which ONE of the following choices correctly completes the statement below?
The SRM detectors operate in the -
region and if the detector high voltage power supply slowly fails the output counts will ________ _
A. ionization; decrease linearly as voltage drops B!'" ionization; remain relatively constant, then decrease C. geiger-mueller; decrease linearly as voltage drops D. geiger-mueller; remain relatively constant, then decrease DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the detector operating in the ionization region is correct, but in this region, the output is not affected when the voltage begins to drop and is relatively constant until the recombination region and then decreases on an exponential curve verses a linear. Plausible because the ionization region is the correct region on the curve and the output does decrease eventually in the recombination region.
B. CORRECT, The detectors for the SRM and IRM are fission chambers that operate in the ionization region of the "Number of ions collected versus applied voltage" curve and if the voltage slowly drops to zero as the power supply fails, it will remain relatively constant in the ionization region and then decrease to zero in the recombination region.
C. Incorrect, The detector operates in the ionization region not the Geiger Mueller region, and the output is not affected when the voltage begins to drop and is relatively constant until the recombination region and then decreases on a exponential curve verses a linear. Plausible because the Geiger Mueller region is an identified region on the curve and the output does decrease eventually in the recombination region.
D. Incorrect, The detector operates in the ionization region not the Geiger Mueller region, and the output is not affected when the voltage begins to drop and is relatively constant until the recombination region and then decreases. Plausible because the Geiger Mueller region is an identified region on the curve and the output remaining constant, then decreasing is correct.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 032 AKl.Ol 020 Which ONE of the following choices correctly completes the statement below?
The SRM detectors operate in the region and if the detector high voltage power supply slowly fails the output counts will ________ _
A. ionization; decrease linearly as voltage drops B~ ionization; remain relatively constant, then decrease
- c. geiger-mueller; decrease linearly as voltage drops D. geiger-mueller; remain relatively constant, then decrease DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the detector operating in the ionization region is correct, but in this region, the output is not affected when the voltage begins to drop and is relatively constant until the recombination region and then decreases on an exponential curve verses a linear. Plausible because the ionization region is the correct region on the curve and the output does decrease eventually in the recombination region.
B. CORRECT, The detectors for the SRM and IRM are fission chambers that operate in the ionization region of the "Number of ions collected versus applied voltage" curve and if the voltage slowly drops to zero as the power supply fails, it will remain relatively constant in the ionization region and then decrease to zero in the recombination region.
C. Incorrect, The detector operates in the ionization region not the Geiger Mueller region, and the output is not affected when the voltage begins to drop and is relatively constant until the recombination region and then decreases on a exponential curve verses a linear. Plausible because the Geiger Mueller region is an identified region on the curve and the output does decrease eventually in the recombination region.
D. Incorrect, The detector operates in the ionization region not the Geiger Mueller region, and the output is not affected when the voltage begins to drop and is relatively constant until the recombination region and then decreases. Plausible because the Geiger Mueller region is an identified region on the curve and the output remaining constant, then decreasing is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 20 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 032 AK1.01 Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation:
Effects of voltage changes on performance Importance Rating:
2.5 1 3.1 Technical
Reference:
OPT200.NIS, Excore Nuclear Instrumentation System (NIS) Rev. 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.NIS B.4.e &.j & B.5.d Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the NIS system:
- e. Component operation
- j. Failure modes Describe the operation of the NIS system:
d.. How a component failure will affect NIS operation.
- i. Protective Features
- j. Failure modes Bank#
X __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SON Bank question NIS-BA 005 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.8/41.10/45.3 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN Bank question NIS-BA 005 Relocated correct answer
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 20 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 032 AK1.01 Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation:
Effects of voltage changes on performance Importance Rating:
2.5/3.1 Technical
Reference:
OPT200.NIS, Excore Nuclear Instrumentation System (NIS) Rev. 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.NIS B.4.e &.j & B.5.d Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the NIS system:
- e. Component operation
- j. Failure modes Describe the operation of the NIS system:
d.. How a component failure will affect NIS operation.
- i. Protective Features
- j. Failure modes Bank#
X __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank question NIS-BA 005 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.8/41.10/45.3 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN Bank question NIS-BA 005 Relocated correct answer
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 059 AK2.01 021 Given the following:
A Steam Generator Tube Leak has resulted in contamination of Condensate Demin Resin.
A High Crud Tank release is to be made and Chemistry has determined a Batch Release is required because the activity is too high to allow a Continuous Release.
Without operator actions, which ONE of the following identifies the radiation monitor that would detect the radiation level of the release and a condition that could result in accidentally releasing excessive radiation if High Crud Tank activity was higher than expected?
A. 0-RM-90-212, Turbine Building Sump Rad Monitor, reaches high rad alarm setpoint.
B. 0-RM-90-225, Condensate Demineralizer Rad Monitor, reaches high rad alarm setpoint.
C. 0-RM-90-212, Turbine Building Sump Rad Monitor, alarms due to instrument down-scale failure.
D'!" 0-RM-90-225, Condensate Demineralizer Rad Monitor, alarms due to instrument down-scale failure.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 059 AK2.01 021 Given the following:
A Steam Generator Tube Leak has resulted in contamination of Condensate Demin Resin.
A High Crud Tank release is to be made and Chemistry has determined a Batch Release is required because the activity is too high to allow a Continuous Release.
Without operator actions, which ONE of the following identifies the radiation monitor that would detect the radiation level of the release and a condition that could result in accidentally releasing excessive radiation if High Crud Tank activity was higher than expected?
A. O-RM-90-212, Turbine Building Sump Rad Monitor, reaches high rad alarm setpoint.
B. 0-RM-90-225, Condensate Demineralizer Rad Monitor, reaches high-rad alarm setpoint.
C. 0-RM-90-212, Turbine Building Sump Rad Monitor, alarms due to instrument down-scale failure.
D~ 0-RM-90-225, Condensate Demineralizer Rad Monitor, alarms due to instrument down-scale failure.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, A Batch Release of a High Crud Tank would not be made through the Turbine Building sump. Plausible because normal releases are made through the Turbine Building sump and if the release was a continuous release via the sump and O-RM-90-212 would alarm but not cause the termination of the release.
B. Incorrect, The High radiation condition would cause the termination of the release by closing 1-FCV-14-288. Plausible because some Hi Rad signals do not cause the isolation of the flow. (example - Turbine Building Sump Radiation Monitor.)
C. Incorrect, A Batch Release of a High Crud Tank would not be made through the Turbine Building sump. Plausible because normal releases are made through the Turbine Building sump and if the release was a continuous release via the sump and O-RM-90-212 failed downscale it would cause an instrument malfunction alarm, but not cause the termination of the release, even though some instrument malfunction alarms do cause an isolation.
D. CORRECT, A downscale failure of O-RM-90-225 would cause an instrument malfunction alarm but would not stop the flow path of the release. Thus, the contents of the tank would continue to the cooling tower blowdown and then to the waters of the US.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, A Batch Release of a High Crud Tank would not be made through the Turbine Building sump. Plausible because normal releases are made through the Turbine Building sump and if the release was a continuous release via the sump and O-RM-90-212 would alarm but not cause the termination of the release.
B. Incorrect, The High radiation condition would cause the termination of the release by closing 1-FCV-14-288. Plausible because some Hi Rad signals do not cause the isolation of the flow. (example - Turbine Building Sump Radiation Monitor.)
C. Incorrect, A Batch Release of a High Crud Tank would not be made through the Turbine Building sump. Plausible because normal releases are made through the Turbine Building sump and if the release was a continuous release via the sump and O-RM-90-212 failed downscale it would cause an instrument malfunction alarm, but not cause the termination of the release, even though some instrument malfunction alarms do cause an isolation.
D. CORRECT, A downscale failure of O-RM-90-22S would cause an instrument malfunction alarm but would not stop the flow path of the release. Thus, the contents of the tank would continue to the cooling tower blowdown and then to the waters of the US.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 21 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 059 AK2.01 Accidental Liquid Radwaste Release Knowledge of the interrelations between the Accidental Liquid Radwaste Release and the following:
Radioactive-liquid monitors Importance Rating:
2.7 1 2.8 Technical
Reference:
0-AR-M12-A, Unit 1 and Common Radiation Monitors, Rev. 52 0-SO-14-8, Condensate Demineralizer High Crud Tank Operation, Rev 0036 Dwg. 1, 2-47W611-14-19 R4 Dwg. 1, 2-47W611-14-21 R2 Dwg. 1, 2-47W611-14-22 R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RM B 5.c.
Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Radiation Monitoring System:
- c. Alarms and alarm response Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7 )
1 OCFR55.43.b*
(n/a)
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 21 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 059 AK2.01 Accidental Liq uid Radwaste Release Knowledge of the interrelations between the Accidental Liquid Radwaste Release and the following:
Radioactive-liquid monitors Importance Rating:
2.7/2.8 Technical
Reference:
0-AR-M12-A, Unit 1 and Common Radiation Monitors, Rev. 52 0-SO-14-8, Condensate Demineralizer High Crud Tank Operation, Rev 0036 Dwg. 1, 2-47W611-14-19 R4 Dwg. 1, 2-47W611-14-21 R2 Dwg. 1, 2-47W611-14-22 R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPT200.RM B 5.c.
Describe the operation of the Radiation Monitoring System:
- c. Alarms and alarm response Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 / 45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
068 AG 2.1.27 022 Given the following; QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions The Unit 1 Operating crew implemented AOP-C.04, "Shutdown From Auxiliary Control Room," and established control from the Auxiliary Control Room.
Which ONE of the following identifies the use of Emergency Operating Procedures (EOPs) when evacuating the Main Control Room and the procedural requirements when it is determined that control can be re-established in Main Control Room (MCR)?
Emergency Operating Procedures...
A. remain applicable when evacuating the MCR and AOP-C.04 does contain the actions required to return to the MCR.
B. remain applicable when evacuating the MCR and when returning to the MCR a procedure would have to be written because AOP-C.04 does NOT contain the required actions.
C!' are NOT applicable when evacuating the MCR and AOP-C.04 does contain the actions required to return to the MCR.
D. are NOT applicable when evacuating the MCR and when returning to the MCR a procedure would have to be written because AOP-C.04 does NOT contain the required actions.
068 AG 2.1.27 022 Given the following; QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions The Unit 1 Operating crew implemented AOP-C.04, "Shutdown From Auxiliary Control Room," and established control from the Auxiliary Control Room.
Which ONE of the following identifies the use of Emergency Operating Procedures (EOPs) when evacuating the Main Control Room and the procedural requirements when it is determined that control can be re-established in Main Control Room (MCR)?
Emergency Operating Procedures...
A. remain applicable when evacuating the MCR and AOP-C.04 does contain the actions required to return to the MCR.
B. remain applicable when evacuating the MCR and when returning to the MCR a procedure would have to be written because AOP-C.04 does NOT contain the required actions.
C~ are NOT applicable when evacuating the MCR and AOP-C.04 does contain
(
the actions required to return to the MCR.
D. are NOT applicable when evacuating the MCR and when returning to the MCR a procedure would have to be written because AOP-C.04 does NOT contain the required actions.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, EOPs do not remain applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room but AOP-C.04 does contain the required steps to return to the Main Control Room. Plausible because the EOPs normally take precedent over AOPs and AOP-C.04 having a section for returning to the Main Control Room is correct.
B. Incorrect, EOPs do not remain applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room but AOP-C.04 does contain the required steps to return to the Main Control Room. Plausible because the EOPs normally take precedent over AOPs and for some major events, recovery procedures must be written by the Technical Support Center to restore the plant to normal conditions and/or configurations.
C. CORRECT, A note is AOP-C.04 states that the EOPs are not applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room and the AOP does have a section for returning to the Main control Room when determination is made for the return.
D. Incorrect, EOPs are not applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room but AOP-C.04 does contain the required steps to return to the Main Control Room. Plausible because the EOPs not being applicable is correct and for some major events, recovery procedures must be written by the Technical Support Center to restore the plant to normal conditions and/or configurations.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, EOPs do not remain applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room but AOP-C.04 does contain the required steps to return to the Main Control Room. Plausible because the EOPs normally take precedent over AOPs and AOP-C.04 having a section for returning to the Main Control Room is correct.
B. Incorrect, EOPs do not remain applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room but AOP-C.04 does contain the required steps to return to the Main Control Room. Plausible because the EOPs normally take precedent over AOPs and for some major events, recovery procedures must be written by the Technical Support Center to restore the plant to normal conditions and/or configurations.
C. CORRECT, A note is AOP-G.04 states that the EOPs are not applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room and the AOP does have a section for returning to the Main control Room when determination is made for the return.
D. Incorrect, EOPs are not applicable when evacuating the Main Control Room but AOP-C.04 does contain the required steps to return to the Main Control Room. Plausible because the EOPs not being applicable is correct and for some major events, recovery procedures must be written by the Technical Support Center to restore the plant to normal conditions and/or configurations.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 22 Tier 1 Group 2 KJA 068 AG 2.1.27 Control Room Evacuation Knowledge of system purpose and/or function.
Importance Rating:
3.9 / 4.0 Technical
Reference:
AOP-C.04, Shutdown From Auxiliary Control Room, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-C.04 B.1 State the purpose/goal of this AOP-C.04.
Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X'--__
New ---
Question History:
SQN question 068 AG2.4.7 082 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
( n/a )
Comments:
SQN question 068 AG2.4.7 082 modified which was written for the 2009 exam but not used and has not been put into any bank outside exam room.
Question modified to the point of being new, but 068 AG2.4.7 082 was the starting point for writing the question.
(
\\
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 22 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 068 AG 2.1.27 Control Room Evacuation Knowledge of system purpose and/or function.
Importance Rating:
3.9/4.0 Technical
Reference:
AOP-C.04, Shutdown From Auxiliary Control Room, Rev 17 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-C.04 B.1 State the purpose/goal of this AOP-C.04.
Question Source:
Bank # -----
Modified Bank #
X '-----
New ---
Question History:
SON question 068 AG2.4.7 082 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments:
SQN question 068 AG2.4.7 082 modified which was written for the 2009 exam but not used and has not been put into any bank outside exam room.
Question modified to the point of being new, but 068 AG2.4.7 082 was the starting point for writing the question.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 076 AAl.04 023 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% power with a 48 gpd steady state S/G #2 tube leak for the past 9 hours1.041667e-4 days <br />0.0025 hours <br />1.488095e-5 weeks <br />3.4245e-6 months <br />.
1-RM-90-119, "Condenser Vacuum Exhaust" and 1-RM-90-106, "Lower Containment" radiation monitor count rates begin to rise concurrently.
In accordance with AOP-R.01, "Steam Generator Tube Leak," which ONE of the following could cause the concurrent increase in the radiation monitors?
A'I The development of a sudden fuel defect.
B. An RCS leak develops inside containment.
C. A rapid temperature rise inside containment.
D. Oscillating primary to secondary leakage (Spiking).
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, AOP-R01,Section 2.2 has note prior to Step 2 identifying a lower containment rad monitor count rate rising concurrently with secondary rad monitors may indicate a sudden fuel defect which could give a false indication of S/G tube leakage. AOP-R06, High RCS activity also has a caution "Simultaneous increases in Condenser Vacuum Exhaust and Lower Containment radiation monitor count rates could indicate a new fuel defect instead of an increase in primary-to-secondary leak rate.
B. Incorrect, An RCS leak developing inside containment would cause the containment rad monitor count rate rising but not the condenser vacuum exhaust secondary rad monitor to rise. Plausible because an RCS leak inside containment would cause the lower containment rad monitor to increase.
C. Incorrect, AOP-R01 does not discuss a rapid temperature increase inside containment causing the monitors to rise concurrently. Plausible because the effect of a rapid temperature rise inside containment affecting the containment post accident rad monitor readings is discussed in the annunciator response for the containment post accident rad monitors.
D. Incorrect, the oscillating primary-to-secondary leakage "spiking" phenomenon would not cause the monitors to rise concurrently. Plausible because the phenomenon is discussed in AOP-R02 relative to repetitive rises and drops in the S/G tube leakage rates.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 076 AA1.04 023 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% power with a 48 gpd steady state S/G #2 tube leak for the past 9 hours1.041667e-4 days <br />0.0025 hours <br />1.488095e-5 weeks <br />3.4245e-6 months <br />.
1-RM-90-119, "Condenser Vacuum Exhaust" and 1-RM-90-106, "Lower Containment" radiation monitor count rates begin to rise concurrently.
In accordance with AOP-R.01, "Steam Generator Tube Leak," which ONE of the following could cause the concurrent increase in the radiation monitors?
A'I The development of a sudden fuel defect.
B. An RCS leak develops inside containment.
C. A rapid temperature rise inside containment.
D. Oscillating primary to secondary leakage (Spiking).
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, AOP-R. 01, Section 2.2 has note prior to Step 2 identifying a lower containment rad monitor count rate rising concurrently with secondary rad monitors may indicate a sudden fuel defect which could give a false indication of S/G tube leakage. AOP-R. 06, High RCS activity also has a caution "Simultaneous increases in Condenser Vacuum Exhaust and Lower Containment radiation monitor count rates could indicate a new fuel defect instead of an increase in primary-to-secondary leak rate.
B. Incorrect, An RCS leak developing inside containment would cause the containment rad monitor count rate rising but not the condenser vacuum exhaust secondary rad monitor to rise. Plausible because an RCS leak inside containment would cause the lower containment rad monitor to increase.
C. Incorrect, AOP-R.01 does not discuss a rapid temperature increase inside containment causing the monitors to rise concurrently. Plausible because the effect of a rapid temperature rise inside containment affecting the containment post accident rad monitor readings is discussed in the annunciator response for the containment post accident rad monitors.
D. Incorrect, the oscillating primary-to-secondary leakage "spiking" phenomenon would not cause the monitors to rise concurrently. Plausible because the phenomenon is discussed in AOP-R.02 relative to repetitive rises and drops in the S/G tube leakage rates.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 23 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 076AA1.04 High Reactor Coolant Activity Ability to operate and 1 or monitor the following as they apply to the High Reactor Coolant Activity:
Failed fuel-monitoring equipment Importance Rating:
3.2 1 3.4 KIA match: The question requires the applicant to recognize a condition that could exist as a result of failed fuel from information provided during monitoring radiation monitors affected by the fuel failure..
Technical
Reference:
AOP-R01, Steam Generator Tube Leakage, Rev 25 AOP-R06, High RCS Activity, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-R01 B.6 Question Source:
Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of AOP-R01 Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question AOP-R06-B.3 006 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5/45.6 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question AOP-R06-B.3 006 modified Question stem and choices rewritten to ask what would happen to cause concurrent rise in rad monitors versus what a new fuel defect would cause.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 23 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA 076AA1.04 High Reactor Coolant Activity Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the High Reactor Coolant Activity:
Failed fuel-monitoring equipment Importance Rating:
3.2/3.4 KIA match: The question requires the applicant to recognize a condition that could exist as a result of failed fuel from information provided during monitoring radiation monitors affected by the fuel failure..
Technical
Reference:
AOP-R01, Steam Generator Tube Leakage, Rev 25 AOP-R06, High RCS Activity, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-R01 B.6 Describe the bases for all limits, notes, cautions, and
(
steps of AOP-R01 Question Source:
Bank# ----
Modified Bank #
X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question AOP-R06-B.3 006 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 / 45.5 /45.6 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question AOP-R06-B.3 006 modified Question stem and choices rewritten to ask what would happen to cause concurrent rise in rad monitors versus what a new fuel defect would cause.
W/E03 EK3.4 024 Given the following:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions In responding to a LOCA on Unit 1, the crew has transitioned to ES-1.2, "Post LOCA Cooldown."
The crew has terminated ECCS flow andestabljs}led normal charging Currently the RCS Thot is at 41SoF and 112S psig.
The crew is preparing to isolate the Cold-tag Accumulators (CLAs).
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) a condition required to be met prior to isolating the CLAs and (2) if one of the CLA isolation valves cannot be closed, where will the nitrogen be routed to be released as the CLA is being vented?
A. (1) RCS subcooling must be reduced to less SOoF; (2) inside containment.
B. (1) RCS subcooling must be reduced to less SO°F; (2) to be Waste Gas System.
C~ (1) RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig; (2) inside containment.
D. (1) RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig; (2) to the Waste Gas System.
W/E03 EK3.4 024 Given the following:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions In responding to a LOCA on Unit 1, the crew has transitioned to ES-1.2, "Post LOCA Cooldown."
The crew has terminated ECCS flow and establi$~ed normal charging Currently the RCS Thot is at 415°F and 1125 psig.
The crew is preparing to isolate the Coldteg Accumulators (CLAs).
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) a condition required to be met prior to isolating the CLAs and (2) if one of the CLA isolation valves cannot be closed, where will the nitrogen be routed to be released as the CLA is being vented?
A. (1) RCS subcooling must be reduced to less 50°F; (2) inside containment.
B. (1) RCS subcooling must be reduced to less 50°F; (2) to be Waste Gas System.
C~ (1) RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig; (2) inside containment.
D. (1) RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig; (2) to the Waste Gas System.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the RCS subcooling is not required to be reduced before the accumulators are isolated (the sub cooling reduction will occur in the step following the CLS isolation) and if one of the CLA must be vented, but the nitrogen will be released inside containment. Plausible because the subcooling reduction to less than 50°F will occur in the step following the CLS isolation and the nitrogen being release inside containment is correct.
B. Incorrect, the RCS subcooling is not required to be reduced before the accumulators are isolated (the subcooling reduction will occur in the step following the CLS isolation) and if one of the CLA must be vented, the nitrogen will be released inside containment (not to the Waste Gas Systemr Plausible because the subcooling reduction to less than 50°F will occur in the step following the CLS isolation and the Waste Gas System is the place nitrogen pressure in other tanks is routed when the tanks are vented.
C. CORRECT, the RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig prior to isolating the accumulators. TIS requires CLAs to be operable in Mode 3 with the RCS pressure greater than 1000 psig. If a CLA is required to be vented, the nitrogen is released inside containment D. Incorrect, the RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig before the accumulators are isolated and if one of the CLA must be vented, the nitrogen will be released inside containment (not to the Waste Gas System). Plausible because reducing RCS pressure to less than 1000 psig is correct and the Waste Gas System is the place nitrogen pressure in other tanks is routed when the tanks are vented.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the RCS sub cooling is not required to be reduced before the accumulators are isolated (the subcooling reduction will occur in the step following the CLS isolation) and if one of the CLA must be vented, but the nitrogen will be released inside containment. Plausible because the subcooling reduction to less than 50°F will occur in the step following the CLS isolation and the nitrogen being release inside containment is correct.
B. Incorrect, the RCS subcooling is not required to be reduced before the accumulators are isolated (the sub cooling reduction will occur in the step following the CLS isolation) and if one of the CLA must be vented, the nitrogen will be released inside containment (not to the Waste Gas System). Plausible because the sub cooling reduction to less than 50°F will occur in the step following the CLS isolation and the Waste Gas System is the place nitrogen pressure in other tanks is routed when the tanks are vented.
C. CORRECT, the RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig prior to isolating the accumulators. TIS requires CLAs to be operable in Mode 3 with the RCS pressure greater than 1000 psig. If a CLA is required to be vented, the nitrogen is released inside containment D. Incorrect, the RCS pressure must be reduced to less than 1000 psig before the accumulators are isolated and if one of the CLA must be vented, the nitrogen will be released inside containment (not to the Waste Gas System). Plausible because reducing RCS pressure to less than 1000 psig is correct and the Waste Gas System is the place nitrogen pressure in other tanks is routed when the tanks are vented.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 24 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E03 EK3.4 LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization)
RO or SRO function within the control room team as appropriate to the assigned position, in such a way that procedures are adhered to and the limitations in the facilities license and amendments are not violated.
Importance Rating:
3.5 I 3.9 Technical
Reference:
Technical specifications 3.5.1, Amendment 322 ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, Rev. 17 EA-63-1, Venting Unisolated Cold Leg Accumulators, Rev. 0 1, 2-47W830-6 R51 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271.ES-1.2 B.4 Question Source:
Describe the base for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of ES-1.2 Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X'---__
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question ES-1.2 005 modified.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5 141.10,45.6 145.13) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question ES-1.2 005 modified.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 24 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E03 EK3A LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization)
RO or SRO function within the control room team as appropriate to the assigned position, in such a way that procedures are adhered to and the limitations in the facilities license and amendments are not violated.
Importance Rating:
3.5 I 3.9 Technical
Reference:
Technical specifications 3.5.1, Amendment 322 ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, Rev. 17 EA-63-1, Venting Unisolated Cold Leg Accumulators, Rev. 0 1, 2-47W830-6 R51 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPL271.ES-1.2 BA Describe the base for all limits, notes, cautions, and steps of ES-1.2 Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X __ _
New ---
Question History:
SQN bank question ES-1.2 005 modified.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5 I 41.10,45.6 I 45.13) 10CFR55A3.b
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question ES-1.2 005 modified.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions W IE07 EA2.1 025 Given the following:
A LOCA is in progress on Unit 2.
Crew currently performing E-1, "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant."
Due to power and equipment failures the only ECCS pumps running are the RHR pumps.
Containment Pressur~ in 4.6 psig.
ReS Pressure is 805 psig.
Core Exit TC's are 521°F.
RCS subcooling is O°F.
RVLlS indicates 43%.
Which ONE of the following identifies which range of RVLlS is used for the current conditions and the procedure directed by the Core Cooling Critical Safety Function Status Tree?
RVLlS Range being used A. Lower Range 8:1 Lower Range C. Dynamic Range D. Dynamic Range Reference Provided Procedure direction provided by Core Cooling Status Tree Go To FR-C.2 Go To FR-C.3 Go To FR-9.i' Go To FR-C.3
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions W/E07 EA2.1 025 Given the following:
A LOCA is in progress on Unit 2.
Crew currently performing E-1, "Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant."
Due to power and equipment failures the only ECCS pumps running are the RHR pumps.
Containment Pressure in 4.6 psig.
RCS Pressure is 805 psig.
Core Exit TC's are 521°F.
RCS subcooling is O°F.
RVLlS indicates 43%.
Which ONE of the following identifies which range of RVLlS is used for the current conditions and the procedure directed by the Core Cooling Critical Safety Function Status Tree?
Reference Provided RVLlS Range Procedure direction provided being used by Core Cooling Status Tree A. Lower Range Go To FR-C.2 B~ Lower Range Go To FR-C.3 C. Dynamic Range Go To FR-C.2 D. Dynamic Range Go To FR-C.3
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The RVLlS Lower Range being used is correct but the status tree does not indicate an orange path to FR-C.2. Plausible because the Lower Range is correct and because the RVLlS value is less than the minimum of 44% if the Table 2 values were used as the minimum, then the status tree would indicate an orange path to FR-C.2 B. CORRECT, With containment pressure above Phase B set point (2.81 psig), the RCPs trip criteria would be met resulting in the Lower Range of RVLlS being used and with the RVLlS indication greater than 42%, the Status tree indicates a yellow path to FR-C.3.
C. Incorrect, The RVLlS Dynamic Range being used is not correct because the RCPs would not be running and the status tree does not indicate an orange path to* FR-C. 2. Plausible because with no CCP or SI pumps running the RCPs would not have been stopped due to RCS pressure being below 1250 psig and if the candidates does not recognize the Phase B RCP trip criteria and determines the RCPS are running, the Dynamic Range would be used. With RCPs running, the RVLlS value is less than the Table 2 minimum value of 44%, then the status tree would indicate an orange path to FR-C.2 D. Incorrect, The RVLlS Dynamic Range being used is not correct because the RCPs would not be running but the status tree does indicate an orange path to FR-C.3. Plausible because with no CCP or SI pumps running the RCPs would not have been stopped due to RCS pressure being below 1250 psig and if the candidates does not recognize the Phase B RCP trip criteria and determines the RCPS are running, the Dynamic Range would be used. If any value in Table 2 other than ALL RCPs RUNNING" is used then, the status tree would indicate an yellow path to FR-C.3
{
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The RVLlS Lower Range being used is correct but the status tree does not indicate an orange path to FR-C.2. Plausible because the Lower Range is correct and because the RVLlS value is less than the minimum of 44% if the Table 2 values were used as the minimum, then the status tree would indicate an orange path to FR-C.2 B. CORRECT, With containment pressure above Phase B setpoint (2.81 psig), the RCPs trip criteria would be met resulting in the Lower Range of RVLlS being used and with the RVLlS indication greater than 42%, the Status tree indicates a yellow path to FR-C.3.
C. Incorrect, The RVLlS Dynamic Range being used is not correct because the RCPs would not be running and the status tree does not indicate an orange path to FR-C.2. Plausible because with no CCP or SI pumps running the RCPs would not have been stopped due to RCS pressure being below 1250 psig and if the candidates does not recognize the Phase B RCP trip criteria and determines the RCPS are running, the Dynamic Range would be used. With RCPs running, the RVLlS value is less than the Table 2 minimum value of 44%, then the status tree would indicate an orange path to FR-G.2 D. Incorrect, The RVLlS Dynamic Range being used is not correct because the RCPs would not be running but the status tree does indicate an orange path to FR-C.3. Plausible because with no CCP or SI pumps running the RCPs would not have been stopped due to RCS pressure being below 1250 psig and if the candidates does not recognize the Phase B RCP trip criteria and determines the RCPS are running, the Dynamic Range would be used. If any value in Table 2 other than ALL RCPs RUNNING" is used then, the status tree would indicate an yellow path to FR-C.3
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 25 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E07 EA2.1 Saturated Core Cooling:
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Saturated Core Cooling):
Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.
Importance Rating:
3.2/4.0 Technical
Reference:
2-FR-0, Unit 2 Status Trees, Rev 1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
2-FR-0, Unit 2 Status Trees, Core Cooling F-0.2, pages 4 and 5 Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-O B.6.a Question Source:
Given a set of initial plant conditions, use FR-O to correctly identify the:
- a. Identify required actions Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # _X'--__
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank FR-C.3-B.S.A 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _ X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(43.5/45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: Modified stem and all choices, changed question being asked, and made open reference,
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 25 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E07 EA2.1 Saturated Core Cooling:
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the (Saturated Core Cooling):
Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations.
Importance Rating:
3.2/4.0 Technical
Reference:
2-FR-0, Unit 2 Status Trees, Rev 1 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
2-FR-0, Unit 2 Status Trees, Core Cooling F-0.2, pages 4 and 5 Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-O B.6.a Question Source:
Given a set of initial plant conditions, use FR-O to correctly identify the:
- a. Identify required actions Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank #
X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank FR-C.3-B.S.A 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _ X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 43.5/45.13) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments: Modified stem and all choices, changed question being asked, and made open reference,
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions WIEIO EK2.1 026 Given the following:
Unit 1 tripped due to a loss of off-site power.
While performing a natural circulation cooldown, the crew determines the need for a more rapid cooldown and transitions to ES-9-,3, '.'Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Voids in Vessel (with RVLlS}."
When establishing conditions to continue the RCS natural circulation cooldown and de-pressurization, which ONE of the following identifies the range that is established for pressurizer level and why?
Pressurizer level will be established...
A. greater than 90% to enable the restart of a RCP when off-site power is restored.
B. greater than 90% to accommodate the rapid decrease in pressurizer level when the voids in the head collapse.
C~ between 20% and 30% to accommodate any growth of the void in the vessel head.
D. between 20% and 30% to enable pressurizer liquid -to be maintained-at saturated conditions using pressurizer heaters.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Establishing level at greater than 90% is not correct. Plausible because if the RVLlS value is below 104%, then the pressurizer level is raised to 90% prior to starting the RCP as described in the step prior to establish pressurizer level between 20% and 30%.
B. Incorrect, Establishing level at greater than 90% is not correct. Plausible because the level would be raised to greater than 90% to accommodate the collapse of the voids following the start of a RCP.
C. CORRECT, As described in ES-0.3 step 4, the pressurizer level will be established between 20% and 30% to accommodate any void growth.
D. Incorrect, establishing between 20% and 30% is correct but it is not so that the heaters can maintain the pressurizer liquid at saturated conditions. Plausible because maintaining the pressurizer liquid at saturated condition is important to prevent rapid large pressure drops when the pressurizer level is reduced.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions W/EIO EK2.1 026 Given the following:
Unit 1 tripped due to a loss of off-site power.
While performing a natural circulation cooldown, the crew determines the need for a more rapid cooldown and transitions to ES-S.3, "Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Voids in Vessel (with RVLlS)."
When establishing conditions to continue the RCS natural circulation cooldown and de-pressurization, which ONE of the following identifies the range that is established for pressurizer level and why?
Pressurizer level will be established...
A. greater than 90% to enable the restart of a RCP when off-site power is restored.
B. greater than 90% to accommodate the rapid decrease in pressurizer level when the voids in the head collapse.
C~ between 20% and 30% to accommodate any growth of the void in the vessel head.
D. between 20% and 30% to enable pressurizer liquid-to be maintained-at saturated conditions using pressurizer heaters.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Establishing level at greater than 90% is not correct. Plausible because if the RVL/S value is below 104%, then the pressurizer level is raised to 90% prior to starting the RCP as described in the step prior to establish pressurizer level between 20% and 30%.
B. Incorrect, Establishing level at greater than 90% is not correct. Plausible because the level would be raised to greater than 90% to accommodate the collapse of the voids following the start of a RCP.
C. CORRECT, As described in ES-0.3 step 4, the pressurizer level will be established between 20% and 30% to accommodate any void growth.
D. Incorrect, establishing between 20% and 30% is correct but it is not so that the heaters can maintain the pressurizer liquid at saturated conditions. Plausible because maintaining the pressurizer liquid at saturated condition is important to prevent rapid large pressure drops when the pressurizer level is reduced.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 26 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E10 EK2.1 Natural Circulation with Steam Void in Vessel with/without RVLlS Knowledge of the interrelations between the (Natural Circulation with Steam Void in Vessel with/without RVLlS) and the following:
Components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.
Importance Rating:
3.3 / 3.5 Technical
Reference:
ES-O.3, Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Void In Vessel, Rev. 13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 ES-O.3 B.2.a Question Source:
Discuss ES-O.3 entry conditions.
- a. Describe the setpoints, interlocks, and automatic actions associated with ES-O.3 entry conditions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X~_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
(
\\
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 26 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E10 EK2.1 Natural Circulation with Steam Void in Vessel with/without RVLlS Knowledge of the interrelations between the (Natural Circulation with Steam Void in Vessel with/without RVLlS) and the following:
Components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.
Importance Rating:
3.3/3.5 Technical
Reference:
ES-O.3, Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Void In Vessel, Rev. 13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 ES-O.3 B.2.a Question Source:
Discuss ES-O.3 entry conditions.
- a. Describe the setpoints, interlocks, and automatic actions associated with ES-O.3 entry conditions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank# ___ _
New X --
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 / 45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions W!E16 EA1.3 027 Given the following:
A LOCA is in progress on Unit 2.
The crew transitions to FR-Z.3, "High Containment Radiation."
The CRO is directed to verify the Emergency Gas Treatment System (EGTS) operation.
Which ONE of the following identifies operating conditions on the EGTS that would indicate the system is operating within normal operating limits?
Annulus AP EGTS Filter Bank APs A~ -0.5" to -0.6" water AP 3.5" to 5.0" water AP B.
-0.5" to -0.6" water AP 9.5" to 10.5" water AP C.
-5.4" to -5.5" water AP 3.5" to 5.0" water AP D.
-5.4" to -5.5" water AP 9.5" to 10.5" water AP DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, during an accident the annulus vacuum fans are stopped and the EGTS clean up fans are running. The clean up fans are checked to be controlling annulus delta P at more negative than -0.5" water pressure (and the system SO identifies the normal orating limits are 0.2 to 1.2 inches of water pressure) and the clean up fan filter bank delta P is checked to be in its normal operating range-of between l' and 7" of water B. Incorrect, the Annulus delta P is within the normal operating limit but the clean up fan filter bank delta P is outside the normal operating band.
Plausible because the annulus delta P is within the operating band and while the filter bank delta P is outside the operating band, it is only slightly above the band and still on the scale of the instrument being read.
C. Incorrect, the Annulus delta P is outside the normal operating limits but the clean up fan filter bank delta P is within the normal operating band.
Plausible because the filter bank delta P is within the operating band and the annulus delta P would be within the normal band if the annulus vacuum fans were in service and controlling pressure.
D. Incorrect, the Annulus delta P and the clean up fan filter bank delta Ps are outside the normal operating limit and band. Plausible because the annulus delta P would be normal if the annulus vacuum fans were in service and controlling pressure and while the filter bank delta P is outside the operating band, it is only slightly above the band and still on the scale of the instrument being read.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions W/E16 EA1.3 027 Given the following:
A LOCA is in progress on Unit 2.
The crew transitions to FR-Z.3, "High Containment Radiation."
The CRO is directed to verify the Emergency Gas Treatment System (EGTS) operation.
Which ONE of the following identifies operating conditions on the EGTS that would indicate the system is operating within normal operating limits?
Annulus ~p EGTS Filter Bank ~Ps A'I -0.5" to -0.6" water ~p 3.5" to 5.0" water ~p B.
-0.5" to -0.6" water ~p 9.5" to 10.5" water ~p C.
-5.4" to -5.5" water ~p 3.5" to 5.0" water ~p D.
-5.4" to -5.5" water ~p 9.5" to 10.5" water ~p DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, during an accident the annulus vacuum fans are stopped and the EGTS clean up fans are running. The clean up fans are checked to be controlling annulus delta P at more negative than -0.5" water pressure (and the system SO identifies the normal orating limits are 0.2 to 1.2 inches of water pressure) and the clean up fan filter bank delta P is checked to be in its normal operating range of between l' and 7" of water B. Incorrect, the Annulus delta P is within the normal operating limit but the clean up fan filter bank delta P is outside the normal operating band.
Plausible because the annulus delta P is within the operating band and while the filter bank delta P is outside the operating band, it is only slightly above the band and still on the scale of the instrument being read.
C. Incorrect, the Annulus delta P is outside the normal operating limits but the clean up fan filter bank delta P is within the normal operating band.
Plausible because the filter bank delta P is within the operating band and the annulus delta P would be within the normal band if the annulus vacuum fans were in service and controlling pressure.
D. Incorrect, the Annulus delta P and the clean up fan filter bank delta Ps are outside the normal operating limit and band. Plausible because the annulus delta P would be normal if the annulus vacuum fans were in service and controlling pressure and while the filter bank delta P is outside the operating band, it is only slightly above the band and still on the scale of the instrument being read.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 27 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E16 EA1.3 High Containment Radiation Ability to operate and I or monitor the following as they apply to the (High Containment Radiation)
Desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.
Importance Rating:
2.9 I 3.3 Technical
Reference:
FR-Z.3, High Containment Radiation, Rev. 7 EA-65-1, EGTS Operation, Rev.1 0-SO-65-1, Emergency Gas Treatment System Air Cleanup and Annulus Vacuum, Rev 18 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-Z.3 B.2.b Question Source:
Discuss the FR-Z.3 entry requirements
- b. Describe the requirements associated with FR-Z.3 entry conditions.
OPT200.EGTS B.4.d Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the EGTS system:
- d. Normal operating parameters Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New X, __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 I 45.5 I 45.6) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments:
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 27 Tier 1 Group 2 KIA W/E16 EA1.3 High Containment Radiation Ability to operate and I or monitor the following as they apply to the (High Containment Radiation)
Desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.
Importance Rating:
2.9 I 3.3 Technical
Reference:
FR-Z.3, High Containment Radiation, Rev. 7 EA-65-1, EGTS Operation, Rev.1 0-SO-65-1, Emergency Gas Treatment System Air Cleanup and Annulus Vacuum, Rev 18 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 FR-Z.3 B.2.b Question Source:
Discuss the FR-Z.3 entry requirements
- b. Describe the requirements associated with FR-Z.3 entry conditions.
OPT200.EGTS B.4.d Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the EGTS system:
- d. Normal operating parameters Bank# ----
Modified Bank # ----
New X, __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 I 45.5 I 45.6 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 003 A3.03 028 Given the following:
Unit 1 is Mode 4 with heatup in progress.
All Reactor Coolant Pumps (RCPs) are in service.
Pressurizer pressure is 435 psig.
Which ONE of the following identifies the Rep #1 Seal ~P minimum limit with the RCPs in service and how the ~P indication will change as pressurizer pressure is raised to 900 psig?
A'!' 220 psid; Indication will rise and go off scale high.
B. 220 psid; Indication will rise and stabilize at approximately 400 psid.
C. 325 psid; Indication will rise and go off scale high.
D. 325 psid; Indication will rise and stabilize at approximately 400 psid.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 003 A3.03 028 Given the following:
Unit 1 is Mode 4 with heatup in progress.
All Reactor Coolant Pumps (RCPs) are in service.
Pressurizer pressure is 435 psig.
Which ONE of the following identifies the RCP #1 Seal ~P minimum limit with the RCPs in service and how the ~P indication will change as pressurizer pressure is raised to 900 psig?
A':I 220 psid; Indication will rise and go off scale high.
B. 220 psid; Indication will rise and stabilize at approximately 400 psid.
C. 325 psid; Indication will rise and go off scale high.
D. 325 psid; Indication will rise and stabilize at approximately 400 psid.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, The~'
imum RCP #1 Seal delta P limit is 220 psid and the indication wiJI rise as go off scale high as pressurizer pressure is raised.
The top of the ins ment scale is 500 psid. With pressurizer pressure 900 psig and VCT pressure 17 to 50 psig, the indication is off scale high.
B. Incorrect, 220 psid is the RCP #1 Seal delta P limit but the indication will not stabilize at 400 psid as the pressurizer pressure is increased. Plausible because 220 psid is correct. The indication rising and stabilizing at 400 psig as the pressure is raised is plausible because 400 psig is the pressure identified in the annunciator response instruction as the RCS pressure being too low (less than approx 400 psi) being a probable cause for the low delta P alarm.
C. Incorrect, 325 psid is not the RCP #1 Seal delta P limit but the indication wiJI go off scale high as the pressurizer pressure is increased. Plausible because 325 psig is the pressure identified in 0-GO-1 Precaution 'J' as the approximate pressure the RCS wiJI be pressurized to facilitate RCP operation and the indication going off scale high as the pressure is raised is correct.
D. Incorrect, 325 psid is not the RCP #1 Seal delta P limit and the indication wiJI not stabilize at 400 psid as the pressurizer pressure is increased.
Plausible because 325 psig is the pressure identified in 0-GO-1 Precaution
'J' as the approximate pressure the RCS wiJI be pressurized to facilitate RCP operation and identified is 0-SO-68-2 as the pressure required will support the #1 seal minimum delta P requirements of 220 psid. The indication rising and stabilizing at 400 psig as the pressure is raised is plausible because 400 psig is the pressure identified in the annunciator response instruction as the RCS pressure being too low (less than approx 400 psi) being a probable cause for the low delta P alarm.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, The~'
imum RCP #1 Seal delta P limit is 220 psid and the indication wi/! rise(as go off scale high as pressurizer pressure is raised.
The top of the ins ment scale is 500 psid. With pressurizer pressure 900 psig and VCT pressure 17 to 50 psig, the indication is off scale high.
B. Incorrect, 220 psid is the RCP #1 Seal delta P limit but the indication will not stabilize at 400 psid as the pressurizer pressure is increased. Plausible because 220 psid is correct. The indication rising and stabilizing at 400 psig as the pressure is raised is plausible because 400 psig is the pressure identified in the annunciator response instruction as the RCS pressure being too low (less than approx 400 psi) being a probable cause for the low delta P alarm.
C. Incorrect, 325 psid is not the RCP #1 Seal delta P limit but the indication wi/! go off scale high as the pressurizer pressure is increased. Plausible because 325 psig is the pressure identified in 0-GO-1 Precaution 'J' as the approximate pressure the RCS wi/! be pressurized to facilitate RCP operation and the indication going off scale high as the pressure is raised is correct.
D. Incorrect, 325 psid is not the RCP #1 Seal delta P limit and the indication wi/! not stabilize at 400 psid as the pressurizer pressure is increased.
Plausible because 325 psig is the pressure identified in 0-GO-1 Precaution
'J' as the approximate pressure the RCS wi/! be pressurized to facilitate RCP operation and identified is 0-SO-68-2 as the pressure required will support the #1 seal minimum delta P requirements of 220 psid. The indication rising and stabilizing at 400 psig as the pressure is raised is plausible because 400 psig is the pressure identified in the annunciator response instruction as the RCS pressure being too low (less than approx 400 psi) being a probable cause for the low delta P alarm.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 28 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 003 A3.03 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)
Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RCPS, including:
Seal DIP Importance Rating:
3.2 I 3.1 Technical
Reference:
0-GO-1, Unit startup From Cold Shutdown to Hot Standby, Rev. 0054 1-S0-68-2, Reactor Coolant Pumps, Rev. 30 1-AR-M5-B, CVCS Seal Water and RCP 1-XA-55-5B, rev 36 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RCP B.4.h &.5.a Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the Reactor Coolant pump system as described in this lesson plan:
- h. instrumentation and indications Describe the operation of the RCP system as it relates to the following:
- a. Precautions and limitations Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X, __ _
New ---
Question History:
SQN question RCP-BA 004 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 I 45.5) 10CFR55A3.b
( n/a )
Comments: SQN question RCP-BA 004 modified by changing stem, distracter and adding second part to question, and relocating correct answer.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 28 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 003 A3.03 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)
Ability to monitor automatic operation of the RCPS, including:
Seal DIP Importance Rating:
3.2 I 3.1 Technical
Reference:
0-GO-1, Unit startup From Cold Shutdown to Hot Standby, Rev. 0054 1-S0-68-2, Reactor Coolant Pumps, Rev. 30 1-AR-M5-B, CVCS Seal Water and RCP 1-XA-55-5B, rev 36 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPT200.RCP B.4.h &.5.a Describe the following items for each major component in the Reactor Coolant pump system as described in this lesson plan:
- h. instrumentation and indications Describe the operation of the RCP system as it relates to the following:
- a. Precautions and limitations Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank #
X "---
New ---
Question History:
SQN question RCP-BA 004 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 I 45.5 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN question RCP-BA 004 modified by changing stem, distracter and adding second part to question, and relocating correct answer.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 004 A1.12 029
(
Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% power at EOl conditions.
CVCS Mix Bed A being used for deborating.
Which ONE of the following identifies the changes in letdown Flow &
Temperature that would increase the rate of boron removal from the RCS?
letdown Flow letdown Temperature A. Raised from 45-75 gpm Raised B~ Raised from 45-75 gpm lowered C. lowered from 75-45 gpm Raised D. lowered from 75-45 gpm lowered
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 004 A1.12 029 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% power at EOl conditions.
CVCS Mix Bed A being used for deborating.
Which ONE of the following identifies the changes in letdown Flow &
Temperature that would increase the rate of boron removal from the RCS?
letdown Flow letdown Temperature A. Raised from 45-75 gpm Raised B!'" Raised from 45-75 gpm lowered C. lowered from 75-45 gpm Raised D. lowered from 75-45 gpm lowered
\\
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Increasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow more ion exchange to take place and also more of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via higher charging flow but raising the letdown temperature would cause the demineralizer to release boron back into the system. Plausible because raising the flow rate through the demineralizer is correct and the effect on the change in letdown temperature could be inappropriately reversed.
B. CORRECT, Increasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow more ion exchange to take place and also more of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via higher charging flow. Dropping the letdown temperature will cause the demineralizer to have a greater affinity for removing boron.
C. Incorrect, Decreasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow less ion exchange to take place and also less of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via lower charging flow and raising the letdown temperature would cause the demineralizer to release boron back into the system. Plausible because if the flow rate through the demineralizer was raised above the capacity of the mix bed, the bed may not remove as much boron and the effect on the change in letdown temperature could be inappropriately reversed.
D. Incorrect, Decreasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow less ion exchange to take place and also less of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via lower charging flow but dropping the letdown temperature will cause the demineralizer to have a greater affinity for removing boron. Plausible because if the flow rate through the demineralizer was raised above the capacity of the mix bed, the bed may not remove as much boron and the effect on the change in letdown temperature is correct.
(
\\
\\
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Increasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow more ion exchange to take place and also more of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via higher charging flow but raising the letdown temperature would cause the demineralizer to release boron back into the system. Plausible because raising the flow rate through the demineralizer is correct and the effect on the change in letdown temperature could be inappropriately reversed.
B. CORRECT, Increasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow more ion exchange to take place and also more of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via higher charging flow. Dropping the letdown temperature will cause the demineralizer to have a greater affinity for removing boron.
C. Incorrect, Decreasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow less ion exchange to take place and also less of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via lower charging flow and raising the letdown temperature would cause the de mineralizer to release boron back into the system. Plausible because if the flow rate through the demineralizer was raised above the capacity of the mix bed, the bed may not remove as much boron and the effect on the change in letdown temperature could be inappropriately reversed.
D. Incorrect, Decreasing the flow rate through the demineralizer will allow less ion exchange to take place and also less of a change out of the boron concentration in the RCS via lower charging flow but dropping the letdown temperature will cause the demineralizer to have a greater affinity for removing boron. Plausible because if the flow rate through the demineralizer was raised above the capacity of the mix bed, the bed may not remove as much boron and the effect on the change in letdown temperature is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 29 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 004A1.12 Chemical and Volume Control System Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the CVCS controls including:
Rate of boron concentration reduction in RCS as a function of letdown flow while deborating demineralizer is in service Importance Rating:
2.8 1 3.2 Technical
Reference:
1-S0-62-9, CVCS Purification System, Rev 37 AOP-C.02, Uncontrolled Boron Concentration Changes, Rev.6 Components - Demineralizers and Ion Exchangers, Rev 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-C.02 B.2.d Question Source:
Describe the AOP-C.02 entry conditions.
Components - Demineralizers and Ion Exchangers
- 9 Describe the demineralizer characteristics that can cause a change in boron concentration.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ____ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/45.5 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 29 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 004 A 1.12 Chemical and Volume Control System Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the CVCS controls including:
Rate of boron concentration reduction in RCS as a function of letdown flow while deborating demineralizer is in service Importance Rating:
2.8/3.2 Technical
Reference:
1-S0-62-9, CVCS Purification System, Rev 37 AOP-C.02, Uncontrolled Boron Concentration Changes, Rev.6 Components - Demineralizers and Ion Exchangers, Rev 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPL271AOP-C.02 B.2.d Describe the AOP-C.02 entry conditions.
Components - Demineralizers and Ion Exchangers
- 9 Describe the demineralizer characteristics that can cause a change in boron concentration.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5 / 45.5 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 004 A2.25 030 Given the following:
-Unit 1 is operating at 30% power for an extended chemistry hold with normal letdown in service.
-Control rods are in automatic.
Which ONE of the following identifies which CCS Heat Exchanger leak will cause inadvertent control rod motion and which section of AOP-C.02, "Uncontrolled RCS Boron Concentration Changes" will apply?
CCS Heat Exchanger AOP-C.02 Section A. Letdown Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned boration in Mode 1 or 2 B. Letdown Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned dilution in Mode 1 or 2 C. Seal Water Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned boration in Mode 1 or 2 D't' Seal Water Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned dilution in Mode 1 or 2
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 004 A2.25 030 Given the following:
-Unit 1 is operating at 30% power for an extended chemistry hold with normal letdown in service.
-Control rods are in automatic.
Which ONE of the following identifies which CCS Heat Exchanger leak will cause inadvertent control rod motion and which section of AOP-C.02, "Uncontrolled RCS Boron Concentration Changes" will apply?
CCS Heat Exchanger AOP-C.02 Section A. Letdown Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned boration in Mode 1 or 2 B. Letdown Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned dilution in Mode 1 or 2 C. Seal Water Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned boration in Mode 1 or 2 D~ Seal Water Heat Exchanger Uncontrolled or unplanned dilution in Mode 1 or 2
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions OISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the Letdown HX RCS side is at higher pressure than the CCS system therefore RCS will leak into the CCS system. No dilution event occurs. Plausible in that the LO HX is one of the return paths to the CVCS system and if CCS did get into the system this way a change in boron concentration would occur.
B. Incorrect, the Letdown HX RCS side is at higher pressure than the CCS system therefore ReS will leak into the CCS system. No dilution event occurs. Plausible in that the LO HX is one of the return paths to the CVCS system and if CCS did get into the system this way a change in boron concentration would occur.
C. Incorrect, the second part of this distracter is incorrect as a dilution would occur verses a boration. It is plausible based on the student being given the fact that rods move in the stem and having to understand the concept of reactivity effects on RCS chemistry and rod control response to the resultant temperature change.
O. Correct, the Seal Water HX RCS side is at a lower pressure than the CCS system therefore unborated water will leak into the CVCS system.
This will cause rods to move inward in automatic and is considered an uncontrolled dilution.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions OISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the Letdown HX RCS side is at higher pressure than the CCS system therefore RCS will leak into the CCS system. No dilution event occurs. Plausible in that the LO HX is one of the return paths to the CVCS system and if CCS did get into the system this way a change in boron concentration would occur.
B. Incorrect, the Letdown HX RCS side is at higher pressure than the CCS system therefore ReS will leak into the CCS system. No dilution event occurs. Plausible in that the LO HX is one of the return paths to the CVCS system and if CCS did get into the system this way a change in boron concentration would occur.
C. Incorrect, the second part of this distracter is incorrect as a dilution would occur verses a boration. It is plausible based on the student being given the fact that rods move in the stem and having to understand the concept of reactivity effects on RCS chemistry and rod control response to the resultant temperature change.
O. Correct, the Seal Water HX RCS side is at a lower pressure than the CCS system therefore unborated water will leak into the CVCS system.
This will cause rods to move inward in automatic and is considered an uncontrolled dilution.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 30 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 004 A2.25 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CVCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
Uncontrolled boration or dilution Importance Rating:
3.8 I 4.3 Technical
Reference:
AOP-C.02, "Uncontrolled RCS Boron Concentration Changes", Rev 6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-C.02 B.2.d & B.4 Describe AOP-C.02 entry conditions Question Source:
- d. Describe plant parameters that may indicate an uncontrolled RCS boron concentration change Upon entry into AOP-C~02, diagnose the applicable condition and transition to the appropriate procedural section for response.
Bank # -----
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
PBNP 2006 LOR Exam bank Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 95 Content:
( 41.51 43/5 I 45/3 I 45/5 )
( nla )
Comments: Modified stem to include procedure application, modified distracters to use only two CCS supplied heat exchangers and include correct procedure section.
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 30 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 004 A2.25 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CVCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
Uncontrolled boration or dilution Importance Rating:
3.8/4.3 Technical
Reference:
AOP-C.02, "Uncontrolled RCS Boron Concentration Changes", Rev 6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPL271AOP-C.02 B.2.d & BA Describe AOP-C.02 entry conditions
- d. Describe plant parameters that may indicate an uncontrolled RCS boron concentration change Upon entry into AOP-C.02, diagnose the applicable condition and transition to the appropriate procedural section for response.
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank #
X ---
New __ _
Question History:
PBNP 2006 LOR Exam bank Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part ~5 Content:
( 41.5/ 43/5 / 45/3 / 45/5 )
( n/a )
Comments: Modified stem to include procedure application, modified distracters to use only two CCS supplied heat exchangers and include correct procedure section.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 005 K1.13 031 With Unit 1 operating at 100% power, which ONE of the following identifies why the Residual Heat Exchanger Cross-tie Isolation valves 1-FCV-74-33 and 1-FCV-74-35 are required to be maintained in the open position?
A. Ensures capability to inject into RCS hot legs in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
B. Ensures both trains of RHR spray would remain available the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
C~ Ensures capability to inject into all four RCS cold legs in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
D. Ensures Low Pressure Injection will be provided through both RHR heat exchangers in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the reason is not to ensure capability to inject into RCS hot legs in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA. Plausible because the hot leg injection line physically connects to the RHR system between the FCVs and the valves are operated during Hot leg Injection alignment.
1 B. Incorrect, the reason is not to ensure both trains of RHR spray would remain available the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
Plausible because each RHR spray line is physically connected to one train of RHR piping that would prevent train interaction when either FCV was closed and the valves are operated during Hot leg Injection alignment.
C. CORRECT, The valves must be maintained open so either Train of RHR low pressure injection would inject into all four cold legs. if either valve was closed, neither pump could inject into all 4 legs. Precaution in 0-SO-74-1 identifies the "Failure to maintain FCV-74-33 and FCV-74-35 (RHR Crosstie Valves)... OPEN... while applicable unit is in modes 1, 2, or 3 will result in entering LCO 3.0.3.
D. Incorrect, the reason is not to ensure Low Pressure Injection will be provided through both RHR heat exchangers in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA. Plausible because the valves are identified as RHR heat exchanger crosstie valves but they are on the outlet of the heat exchanger and not on the inlet.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 005 K1.13 031 With Unit 1 operating at 100% power, which ONE of the following identifies why the Residual Heat Exchanger Cross-tie Isolation valves 1-FCV-74-33 and 1-FCV-74-35 are required to be maintained in the open position?
A. Ensures capability to inject into RCS hot legs in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
B. Ensures both trains of RHR spray would remain available the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
C!' Ensures capability to inject into all four RCS cold legs in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
D. Ensures Low Pressure Injection will be provided through both RHR heat exchangers in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the reason is not to ensure capability to inject into RCS hot legs in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA. Plausible because the hot leg injection line physically connects to the RHR system between the FCVs and the valves are operated during Hot leg Injection alignment.
B. Incorrect, the reason is not to ensure both trains of RHR spray would remain available the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA.
Plausible because each RHR spray line is physically connected to one train of RHR piping that would prevent train interaction when either FCV was closed and the valves are operated during Hot leg Injection alignment.
C. CORRECT, The valves must be maintained open so either Train of RHR low pressure injection would inject into all four cold legs. if either valve was closed, neither pump could inject into all 4 legs. Precaution in 0-SO-74-1 identifies the "Failure to maintain FCV-74-33 and FCV-74-35 (RHR Cross tie Valves)... OPEN... while applicable unit is in modes 1, 2, or 3 will result in entering LCO 3.0.3.
D. Incorrect, the reason is not to ensure Low Pressure Injection will be provided through both RHR heat exchangers in the event an RHR pump fails during response to a LOCA. Plausible because the valves are identified as RHR heat exchanger cross tie valves but they are on the outlet of the heat exchanger and not on the inlet.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 31 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 005 K1.13 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)
Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the RHRS and the following systems:
SIS Importance Rating:
3.3/3.5 Technical
Reference:
0-SO-74-1, Residual Heat Removal System, Rev 68 1,2-47W81 0-1, R53 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200 RHR B.5.a Question Source:
Describe the operation of the RHR:
- a. Precautions and limitations Bank # __
X, __
Modified Bank # ___ _
Question History:
New __ _
SQN bank question RHR-B-4 001 with wording changes in the stem (but not a substantial change) and 2 distracters changed and the correct answer relocated.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments:
SQN bank question RHR-B-4 001 with wording changes in the stem and 2 distracters changed and the correct answer relocated.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 31 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 005 K1.13 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)
Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the RHRS and the following systems:
SIS Importance Rating:
3.3/3.5 Technical
Reference:
0-SO-74-1, Residual Heat Removal System, Rev 68 1,2-47W81 0-1, R53 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200 RHR B.5.a Question Source:
Describe the operation of the RHR:
- a. Precautions and limitations Bank#
X. __
Modified Bank # ____ _
Question History:
New __ _
SON bank question RHR-B-4 001 with wording changes in the stem (but not a substantial change) and 2 distracters changed and the correct answer relocated.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.2 to 41.9 /45.7 to 45.8 )
( n/a )
Comments:
SQN bank question RHR-B-4 001 with wording changes in the stem and 2 distracters changed and the correct answer relocated.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 006 K5.06 032 The unit is experiencing a large break LOCA. Which ONE of the following describes the order of ECCS component injection as the RCS pressure drops?
A. CCPs, SI Pumps, RHR Pumps, Cold Leg Accumulators.
B. SI Pumps, CCPs, Cold Leg Accumulators, RHR Pumps.
C!' (~, SI Pumps, Cold Leg Accumulators, RHR Pumps.
D. SI Pumps, CCPs, RHR Pumps, Cold Leg Accumulators.
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, plausible if student does not know that accumulator injection pressure into the RCS is greater than the discharge head of the RHR pumps.
B. Incorrect, plausible if student does not know that SI pump developed head is less than CCP developed head.
C. CORRECT, CCPs inject immediately, SI pumps inject - 1500 psig, CLA's around 700 psig and RHR pumps inject at - 180 psig.
D. Incorrect, plausible if student does not know that accumulator injection pressure into the RCS is greater than the discharge head of the RHR pumps or that SI pump developed head is less than CCP developed head.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 006 K5.06 032 The unit is experiencing a large break LOCA. Which ONE of the following describes the order of ECCS component injection as the RCS pressure drops?
A. CCPs, SI Pumps, RHR Pumps, Cold Leg Accumulators.
B. SI Pumps, CCPs, Cold Leg Accumulators, RHR Pumps.
C!'CC~, SI Pumps, Cold Leg Accumulators, RHR Pumps.
~
D. SI Pumps, CCPs, RHR Pumps, Cold Leg Accumulators.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, plausible if student does not know that accumulator injection pressure into the RCS is greater than the discharge head of the RHR pumps.
B. Incorrect, plausible if student does not know that SI pump developed head is less than CCP developed head.
C. CORRECT, CCPs inject immediately, SI pumps inject - 1500 psig, CLA's around 700 psig and RHR pumps inject at - 180 psig.
D. Incorrect, plausible if student does not know that accumulator injection pressure into the RCS is greater than the discharge head of the RHR pumps or that SI pump developed head is less than CCP developed head.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 32 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 006 K5.06 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to ECCS:
Relationship between ECCS flow and RCS pressure Importance Rating:
3.5 1 3.9 Technical
Reference:
FSAR Amendment 20 OPT200.ECCS, ECCS Lesson Plan, Rev. 3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.ECCS B.4.d &.e Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the ECCS:
- d. Normal operating parameters
- e. Component operation Bank # _X. __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank Question ECCS-8.3 Question Cognitive Level: Lower 1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 4.1/4.5 )
( nla )
Comments: Minor change to stem and reordered distracters
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 32 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 006 K5.06 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to ECCS:
Relationship between ECCS flow and RCS pressure Importance Rating:
3.5/3.9 Technical
Reference:
FSAR Amendment 20 OPT200.ECCS, ECCS Lesson Plan, Rev. 3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.ECCS B.4.d &.e Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the ECCS:
- d. Normal operating parameters
- e. Component operation Bank#
X, __ _
Modified Bank # ___
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Bank Question ECCS-8.3 Question Cognitive Level: Lower 10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(4.1/4.5 )
( nla )
Comments: Minor change to stem and reordered distracters
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 007 A2.01 033 Given the following:
Unit 2 has experienced a reactor trip.
ES-0.1, "Reactor Trip Response" is in progress.
The following conditions exist:
T-avg is 545°F and rising slowly.
RCS pressure is 2220 psig and rising slowly.
Subsequently, PZR PORV PCV-68-334, sticks open and the associated block valve will NOT close.
The maximum temperature in PZR Relief Tank (PRT) will be _____ _
and the correct crew actions are to ______________ _
A'I less than 360°F manually actuate SI and return to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
B. less than 360°F remain in ES-0.1, unless an auto SI occurs, then transition to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
C. greater than 360°F manually actuate SI and return to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
D. greater than 360°F remain in ES-0.1, unless an auto SI occurs, then transition to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 007 A2.01 033 Given the following:
Unit 2 has experienced a reactor trip.
ES-0.1, "Reactor Trip Response" is in progress.
The following conditions exist:
T-avg is 545°F and rising slowly.
RCS pressure is 2220 psig and rising slowly.
Subsequently, PZR PORV PCV-68-334, sticks open and the associated block valve will NOT close.
The maximum temperature in PZR Relief Tank (PRT) will be ______ _
and the correct crew actions are to _______________ _
A~ less than 360°F manually actuate SI and return to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
B. less than 360°F remain in ES-0.1, unless an auto SI occurs, then transition to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
C. greater than 360°F manually actuate SI and return to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
D. greater than 360°F remain in ES-0.1, unless an auto SI occurs, then transition to E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection."
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85 psig) is slightly less than 360 of. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
B. Incorrect, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85psig) is slightly less than 360 OF. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is correct. The second part of the distracter is plausible because the ES-O. 1 FOP manual SI requirements are explicitly stated for RCS subcooling and pressurizer level (verses low pressurizer pressure) and one option would be to remain in ES-O. 1 until an auto SI occurred. However, this would not meet operations expectations.
C. Incorrect, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85psig) is slightly less than 360 OF. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is slightly above the maximum temperature possible. The second part of the distracter is plausible because it is correct.
D. Incorrect, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85 psig) is slightly less than 360 of. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is slightly above the maximum temperature possible. The second part of the distracter is plausible because the ES-O. 1 FOP manual SI requirements are explicitly stated for RCS subcooling and pressurizer level (verses low pressurizer pressure) and one option would be to remain in ES-0.1 until an auto SI occurred. However, this would not meet operations expectations.
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85 psig) is slightly less than 360 of. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
B. Incorrect, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85 psig) is slightly less than 360 of. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is correct. The second part of the distracter is plausible because the ES-O. 1 FOP manual SI requirements are explicitly stated for RCS subcooling and pressurizer level (verses low pressurizer pressure) and one option would be to remain in ES-O. 1 until an auto SI occurred. However, this would not meet operations expectations.
C. Incorrect, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85 psig) is slightly less than 360 OF. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is slightly above the maximum temperature possible. The second part of the distracter is plausible because it is correct.
D. Incorrect, the highest possible temperature that the PRT could be prior to the rupture disk blowing out (@85 psig) is slightly less than 360 oF. The expected prudent operator action is to manually SI prior to getting the low pressurizer pressure auto SI.
This would then require a transition to E-O.
The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is slightly above the maximum temperature possible. The second part of the distracter is plausible because the ES-O. 1 FOP manual SI requirements are explicitly stated for RCS subcooling and pressurizer level (verses low pressurizer pressure) and one option would be to remain in ES-0.1 until an auto SI occurred. However, this would not meet operations expectations.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 33 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 007 A2.01 PZR Relief Tank/Quench Tank System (PRTS)
Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following or operations on the PRT; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct. control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations Importance Rating:
3.9/4.2 Technical
Reference:
E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection", R30.
ES-0.1, "Reactor Trip Response", R32.
EDM-4, "Emergency Procedure Users Guide" Steam tables, R20.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
Mollier Diagram Learning Objective:
OPT200.PZRPCS B.4.e, Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the PZR pressure control system and PZR relief tank as described in this lesson:
- e. Component operation OPL271 ES-0.1 B.5 Describe the conditions and reasons for transitions within this procedure and transitions to other procedures.
OPL271 EPM-4, Identify general operating crew responsibilities during emergency operations including appropriate implementation of prudent operator actions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X,-__
New ---
Question History:
Point Beach question modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/43.5/45.3/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments:
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 33 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 007 A2.01 PZR Relief Tank/Quench Tank System (PRTS)
Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following or operations on the PRT; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct. control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations Importance Rating:
3.9/4.2 Technical
Reference:
E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection", R30.
ES-0.1, "Reactor Trip Response", R32.
EDM-4, "Emergency Procedure Users Guide" Steam tables, R20.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
Mollier Diagram Learning Objective:
OPT200.PZRPCS BA.e, Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the PZR pressure control system and PZR relief tank as described in this lesson:
- e. Component operation OPL271 ES-0.1 8.5 Describe the conditions and reasons for transitions within this procedure and transitions to other procedures.
OPL271 EPM-4, Identify general operating crew responsibilities during emergency operations including appropriate implementation of prudent operator actions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank #
X ---
New ---
Question History:
Point Beach question modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/43.5/45.3/45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 007 A4.09 034 Given the following:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% RTP BOL, with all systems in a normal alignment.
Annunciator "TS-62-75 LOW PRESSURE LETDOWN RELIEF TEMP HIGH" on 1-M-6 is in alarm.
If the low pressure letdown line relief valve is leaking through, which ONE of the following describes the effects on both PZR level and PRT level?
PZR Level PRT Level A.
lowering rising B.
lowering stable C¥'
stable rising D.
stable stable OISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering. Plausible as the RCS will be losing inventory via the relief leaking through and VCT level will be dropping. Inventory will be made up by auto makeup to the VCT and charging. PRT level will be rising as the LO relief discharges to it.
B. Incorrect, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering. Plausible as the RCS will be losing inventory via the relief leaking through and VCT level will be dropping. Inventory will be made up by auto makeup to the VCT and charging. PRT level will be rising (vs. stable) as the LO relief discharges to it. This is plausible as other CTMT relief's discharge to other places (CTMT Floor for example) and the student will need to know that the LO line relief discharges to the PRT.
C. CORRECT, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering and the PRT level will be rising as the LD line relief discharges to it.
O. Incorrect, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering. Plausible as the RCS will be losing inventory via the relief leaking through and VCT level will be dropping. Inventory will be made up by auto makeup to the VCT and charging. PRT level will be rising (vs. stable) as the LO relief discharges to it. This is plausible as other CTMT relief's discharge to other places (CTMT Floor for example) and the student will need to know that the LO line relief discharges to the PRT.
/ (
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 007 A4.09 034 Given the following:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% RTP BOL, with all systems in a normal alignment.
Annunciator "TS-62-75 LOW PRESSURE LETDOWN RELIEF TEMP HIGH" on 1-M-6 is in alarm.
If the low pressure letdown line relief valve is leaking through, which ONE of the following describes the effects on both PZR level and PRT level?
PZR Level PRT Level A.
lowering rising B.
lowering stable C~
stable rising D.
stable stable DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering. Plausible as the RCS will be losing inventory via the relief leaking through and VCT level will be dropping. Inventory will be made up by auto makeup to the VCT and charging. PRT level will be rising as the LD relief discharges to it.
B. Incorrect, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering. Plausible as the RCS will be losing inventory via the relief leaking through and VCT level will be dropping. Inventory will be made up by auto makeup to the VCT and charging. PRT level will be rising (vs. stable) as the LD relief discharges to it. This is plausible as other CTMT relief's discharge to other places (CTMT Floor for example) and the student will need to know that the LD line relief discharges to the PRT.
C. CORRECT, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering and the PRT level will be rising as the LD line relief discharges to it.
D. Incorrect, PZR level will be stable vs. lowering. Plausible as the RCS will be losing inventory via the relief leaking through and VCT level will be dropping. Inventory will be made up by auto makeup to the VCT and charging. PRT level will be rising (vs. stable) as the LD relief discharges to it. This is plausible as other CTMT relief's discharge to other places (CTMT Floor for example) and the student will need to know that the LD line relief discharges to the PRT.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 34 Tier 2 Group 1
~
KIA 007 A4.09 (i"
Ability to manually operate and/or monitor@Jhe control room:
Relationships between PZR level and changing levels of the PRT and bleed holdup tank Importance Rating:
2.5 / 2.7 Technical
Reference:
1-47WB09-1 Flow Diagram CVCS, R74 1-47WB13-1 Flow Diagram RCS, R53 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL200.CVCS B 4.e & j Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the CVCS system:
- e. Component operation
- j. Failure mode Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
NEW Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X, __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 / 45.5 to 45.B) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments:
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 34 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 007 A4.09 (i"
Ability to manually operate and/or monito@e control room:
Relationships between PZR level and changing levels of the PRT and bleed holdup tank Importance Rating:
2.5/2.7 Technical
Reference:
1-47W809-1 Flow Diagram CVCS, R74 1-47W813-1 Flow Diagram RCS, R53 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL200.CVCS B 4.e & j Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the CVCS system:
- e. Component operation
- j. Failure mode Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
NEW Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X. __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 to 45.8) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 00810.01 035 Which ONE of the following identifies how a #3 RCP-Thermal Barrier Heat Exchanger leak large enough to cause an automatic isolation would be detected and the effect the isolation would have on the CCS flow through the #4 RCP Thermal Barrier Heat Exchanger?
Detected by Thermal Effect on #4 RCP Thermal Barrier CCS...
Barrier CCS flow A. Inlet flow> Outlet flow Increase B. Inlet flow> Outlet flow Be isolated C. Outlet flow> I nlet flow Increase D~ Outlet flow> I nlet flow Be isolated DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Inlet flow is not greater than outlet flow (The inlet flow is reduced and the outlet flow increases) and the flow on #4 RCP does not increase.
Plausible because the inlet flow would be higher than the outlet flow if the CCS leaked into the thermal and the flow on #4 RCP thermal barrier would increase if only the #3 RCP thermal barrier was isolated.
B. Incorrect, Inlet flow is not greater than outlet flow. The inlet flow is reduced and the outlet flow increases. The #4 RCP thermal barrier is isolated.
Plausible because the inlet flow would be higher than the outlet flow if the CCS leaked into the thermal and the effect on #4 RCP thermal barrier is correct.
C. Incorrect, Outlet flow being greater than inlet flow is correct but the delta flow is sensed on the common header, thus a leak in one will result in isolation to all 4 RCP thermal barriers. Plausible because the inlet flow is higher than the outlet flow and the flow on #4 RCP thermal barrier would increase if only the #3 RCP thermal barrier was isolated.
D. CORRECT, A leak in the thermal barrier would cause RCS leakage into the CCS this would reduce the inlet flow and increase the CCS return flow causing differential flow to isolate the thermal barriers. This delta flow is sensed on the common header, thus a leak in one will result in isolation of all 4 RCP thermal barriers.
')
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 008 K3.01 035 Which ONE of the following identifies how a #3 RCP Thermal Barrier Heat Exchanger leak large enough to cause an automatic isolation would be detected and the effect the isolation would have on the CCS flow through the #4 RCP Thermal Barrier Heat Exchanger?
Detected by Thermal Barrier CCS...
A. Inlet flow> Outlet flow B. Inlet flow> Outlet flow C. Outlet flow> Inlet flow D~ Outlet flow> Inlet flow DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
Effect on #4 RCP Thermal Barrier CCS flow Increase Be isolated Increase Be isolated A. Incorrect, Inlet flow is not greater than outlet flow (The inlet flow is reduced and the outlet flow increases) and the flow on #4 RCP does not increase.
Plausible because the inlet flow would be higher than the outlet flow if the CCS leaked into the thermal and the flow on #4 RCP thermal barrier would increase if only the #3 RCP thermal barrier was isolated.
B. Incorrect, Inlet flow is not greater than outlet flow. The inlet flow is reduced and the outlet flow increases. The #4 RCP thermal barrier is isolated.
Plausible because the inlet flow would be higher than the outlet flow if the CCS leaked into the thermal and the effect on #4 RCP thermal barrier is correct.
C. Incorrect, Outlet flow being greater than inlet flow is correct but the delta flow is sensed on the common header, thus a leak in one will result in isolation to all 4 RCP thermal barriers. Plausible because the inlet flow is higher than the outlet flow and the flow on #4 RCP thermal barrier would increase if only the #3 RCP thermal barrier was isolated.
D. CORRECT, A leak in the thermal barrier would cause RCS leakage into the CCS this would reduce the inlet flow and increase the CCS return flow causing differential flow to isolate the thermal barriers. This delta flow is sensed on the common header, thus a leak in one will result in isolation of all 4 RCP thermal barriers.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 35 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 008 K3.01 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)
Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CCWS will have on the following:
Loads cooled by CCWS Importance Rating:
3.41 3.5 Technical
Reference:
1,2-47W611-70-3, R14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CCS B.4.e &.h Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Component Cooling Water System.
- e. Component operation
- h. Instrumentation and Indications Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question CCS-B.4 G 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.6 )* (notlisted in NuReg 1122) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question CCS-B.4 G 001 modified
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 35 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 008 K3.01 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)
Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CCWS will have on the following:
Loads cooled by CCWS Importance Rating:
3.4 / 3.5 Technical
Reference:
1,2-47W611-70-3, R14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CCS B.4.e &.h Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Component Cooling Water System.
- e. Component operation
- h. Instrumentation and Indications Bank# ___
Modified Bank #
X __
New __
Question History:
SQN bank question CCS-B.4 G 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.6 )* (not listed in NuReg 1122) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments: SQN bank question CCS-B.4 G 001 modified
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 010 G2.4.30 036 Given the following:
Unit 1 is in Mode 3.
The block valve for pressurizer PORV 334 is closed due to leakage through the PORV.
1-XS-68-3400, "Press Control Channel Selector," is in the 340/334 position.
1-PIC-68-340A, "PZR Pressure Control," is in MANUAL with output at 28%.
Subsequently, an RCS over pressure transient occurred and the crew was able to reduce RCS pressure below the safety limit in less than 1 minute.
Which ONE of the following identifies whether PORV 340 would have automatically opened during this event and if NRC notification is required?
PORV 340 would have...
A. opened B. opened C. remained closed D'!" remained closed NRC notification required...
No, because pressure was reduced---,
below the safety limit within 5 minutes.
Yes, because the safety limit was exceeded.
No, because pressure was reduced below the safety limitwithin 5 minutes.
Yes, because the safety limit was exceeded.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 010 G2.4.30 036 Given the following:
Unit 1 is in Mode 3.
The block valve for pressurizer PORV 334 is closed due to leakage through the PORV.
1-XS-68-340D, "Press Control Channel Selector," is in the 340/334 position.
1-PIC-68-340A, "PZR Pressure Control," is in MANUAL with output at 28%.
Subsequently, an RCS over pressure transient occurred and the crew was able to reduce RCS pressure below the safety limit in less than 1 minute.
Which ONE of the following identifies whether PORV 340 would have automatically opened during this event and if NRC notification is required?
PORV 340 would have...
A. opened B. opened C. remained closed D~ remained closed NRC notification required...
No, because pressure was reduced",
below the safety limit within 5 minutes.
Yes, because the safety limit was exceeded.
No, because pressure was reduced below the safety limit within 5 minutes.
Yes, because the safety limit was exceeded.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, PORV 340 would not have opened and the NRC must be notified that the RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated. Plausible because the PORV would have remained closed even though its setpoint was exceeded and the PORV would have opened if the master controller had been in automatic (The other PORV would have opened even with the master controller in manual.) and the safety limit does contain a 5 minute requirement. But it is that the RCS pressure is required to be reduced below the safety limit within 5 minutes if the plant is in Mode 5 not to the required NRC notification.
B. Incorrect, PORV 340 would not have opened and the NRC must be notified that the RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated. Plausible because the PORV would have remained closed even though its set point was exceeded and the PORV would have opened if the master controller had been in automatic (The other PORV would have opened even with the master controller in manual.) and the NRC being required to be notified if the safety limit is exceeded is correct.
C. Incorrect, The PORV 340 would have remained close but the NRC must be notified that the RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated.
Plausible because the PORV would have remained closed even though its set point was exceeded and the PORV would have opened if the master controller had been in automatic (The other PORV would have opened even with the master controller in manual.) and the safety limit does contain a 5 minute requirement. But it is that the RCS pressure is required to be reduced below the safety limit within 5 minutes if the plant is in Mode 5 not to the required NRC notification.
D. CORRECT, With the master pressure controller in manual and its output at 28%, PORV 340 cannot open because the output of the master pressure controller has to be at an output that equates to 2335 psig (89%) to make one half of the logic for opening the valve. the other half is made from the output of Channel IV (PT-322). With the RCS pressure rising above the TIS RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated and this violation requires NRC notification.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, PORV 340 would not have opened and the NRC must be notified that the RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated. Plausible because the PORV would have remained closed even though its setpoint was exceeded and the PORV would have opened if the master controller had been in automatic (The other PORV would have opened even with the master controller in manual.) and the safety limit does contain a 5 minute requirement. But it is that the RCS pressure is required to be reduced below the safety limit within 5 minutes if the plant is in Mode 5 not to the required NRC notification.
B. Incorrect, PORV 340 would not have opened and the NRC must be notified that the RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated. Plausible because the PORV would have remained closed even though its setpoint was exceeded and the PORV would have opened if the master controller had been in automatic (The other PORV would have opened even with the master controller in manual.) and the NRC being required to be notified if the safety limit is exceeded is correct.
C. Incorrect, The PORV 340 would have remained close but the NRC must be notified that the RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated.
Plausible because the PORV would have remained closed even though its setpoint was exceeded and the PORV would have opened if the master controller had been in automatic (The other PORV would have opened even with the master controller in manual.) and the safety limit does contain a 5 minute requirement. But it is that the RCS pressure is required to be reduced below the safety limit within 5 minutes if the plant is in Mode 5 not to the required NRC notification.
D. CORRECT, With the master pressure controller in manual and its output at 28%, PORV 340 cannot open because the output of the master pressure controller has to be at an output that equates to 2335 psig (89%) to make one half of the logic for opening the valve. the other half is made from the output of Channel IV (PT-322). With the RCS pressure rising above the TIS RCS pressure Safety Limit has been violated and this violation requires NRC notification.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 36 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 010 G2.4.30 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)
Knowledge of events related to system operation/status that must be reported to internal organizations or external agencies, such as the State, the NRC, or the transmission system operator.
Importance Rating:
2.7/4.1 Technical
Reference:
Technical Specification Section 2.0, Safety Limits, Amendment 322 AOP-1.04, Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions, Rev. 9 10CFR50.36 OPT200.TS-lntro, Rev 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.TS-lntro B.2 Question Source:
Identify the five (2) sets of Facility Operating License Conditions list in parts 2A, B, C, D, and E, with which the facility must comply Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.11 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 36 Tier 2 Group 1 KJA 010 G2.4.30 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS)
Knowledge of events related to system operation/status that must be reported to internal organizations or external agencies, such as the State, the NRC, or the transmission system operator.
Importance Rating:
2.7/4.1 Technical
Reference:
Technical Specification Section 2.0, Safety Limits, Amendment 322 AOP-1.04, Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions, Rev. 9 10CFR50.36 OPT200TS-lntro, Rev 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.TS-lntro B.2 Identify the five (2) sets of Facility Operating License Conditions list in parts 2A, B, C, 0, and E, with which
(
the facility must comply Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New X
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.11 )
( n/a )
Comments: New question
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 012 K6.03 037 Given the following:
Unit 1 shutdown is in progress.
Reactor power is 14% and decreasing.
Intermediate Range NI-36 fails HIGH.
Which ONE of the following identifies how the failure of the NI will affect the reactor trip system and the effect the failure will have on the Source Range Nls?
Reactor Trip System A. Reactor trip will occur at the time of failure.
B. Reactor trip will occur at the time of failure.
C. Reactor trip will occur if the power reduction is continued.
D¥' Reactor trip will occur if the power reduction is continued.
Effect on Source Range Nls Source Range Nls will AUTOMATICALLY reinstate.
Source Range Nls will have to be MANUALLY reinstated.
Source Range Nls will AUTOMATICALLY reinstate.
Source Range Nls will have to be MANUALLY reinstated.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 012 K6.03 037 Given the following:
Unit 1 shutdown is in progress.
Reactor power is 14% and decreasing.
Intermediate Range NI-36 fails HIGH.
Which ONE of the following identifies how the failure of the NI will affect the reactor trip system and the effect the failure will have on the Source Range Nls?
Reactor Trip System A. Reactor trip will occur at the time of failure.
B. Reactor trip will occur at the time of failure.
C. Reactor trip will occur if the power reduction is continued.
D'! Reactor trip will occur if the power reduction is continued.
Effect on Source Range Nls Source Range Nls will AUTOMATICALLY reinstate.
Source Range Nls will have to be MANUALLY reinstated.
Source Range Nls will AUTOMATICALLY reinstate.
Source Range Nls will have to be MANUALLY reinstated.
)
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the failure of the NI-36 will not cause a trip of the reactor because the IR instrument trips are not automatically enabled until the power level is reduced below 10% (P-10) and the SR instruments will not automatically re-instate with an IR instrument failed high. Plausible because the reactor would have tripped if power level had been less than 10% at the time of the IR instrument failure and the SR instruments do require manual re-instatement.
B. Incorrect, the failure of the NI-36 will not cause a trip of the reactor because the IR trips are not automatically enabled until the power level is reduced below 10% (P-10). The SR instruments require manual re-instatement due to the failed IR instrument is correct. Plausible because the reactor would have tripped if power level had been less than 10% at the time of the IR instrument failure and the SR instruments would normally re-instate automatically following a reactor trip.
C. Incorrect, The reactor not tripped until power in further reduced is correct but the SR instruments will not automatically re-instate with an IR instrument failed high. Plausible because the reactor not tripping unless the power reduction is continued is correct and the SR instruments would normally re-instate automatically following a reactor trip.
D. CORRECT, the failure of the N/-36 will not cause a trip of the reactor until the IR instrument trips are automatically enabled when the power level is reduced below 10% (P-10). Both IR instruments must be less than 1.4 x10-4 (P-6) for the source range instruments to automatically re-instate.
With the NI-36 failed high, the source range instruments would have to be manually re-instated.
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the failure of the NI-36 will not cause a trip of the reactor because the IR instrument trips are not automatically enabled until the power level is reduced below 10% (P-10) and the SR instruments will not automatically re-instate with an IR instrument failed high. Plausible because the reactor would have tripped if power level had been less than 10% at the time of the IR instrument failure and the SR instruments do require manual re-instatement.
B. Incorrect, the failure of the NI-36 will not cause a trip of the reactor because the IR trips are not automatically enabled until the power level is reduced below 10% (P-10). The SR instruments require manual re-instatement due to the failed IR instrument is correct. Plausible because the reactor would have tripped if power level had been less than 10% at the time of the IR instrument failure and the SR instruments would normally re-instate automatically following a reactor trip.
C. Incorrect, The reactor not tripped until power in further reduced is correct but the SR instruments will not automatically re-instate with an IR instrument failed high. Plausible because the reactor not tripping unless the power reduction is continued is correct and the SR instruments would normally re-instate automatically following a reactor trip.
D. CORRECT, the failure of the NI-36 will not cause a trip of the reactor until the IR instrument trips are automatically enabled when the power level is reduced below 10% (P-10). Both IR instruments must be less than 1.4 x10-4 (P-6) for the source range instruments to automatically re-instate.
With the NI-36 failed high, the source range instruments would have to be manually re-instated.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 37 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 012 K6.03 Reactor Protection System Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on RPS: Trip Logic Circuits Importance Rating:
3.1 / 3.5 Technical
Reference:
0-47W611-99-1 R11 0-47W611-99-2, R13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.5.d operation Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Reactor Protection &
Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- d. How a component failure will affect system OPT200.NIS B.5.f, Describe the operation of the NIS system:
- f. How an instrument failure will affect system operation.
Bank #
X. __
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
WBN Bank Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis __ X_
1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments:
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 37 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 012 K6.03 Reactor Protection System Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on RPS: Trip Logic Circuits Importance Rating:
3.1 /3.5 Technical
Reference:
0-47W611-99-1 R11 0-47W611-99-2, R13 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.5.d operation Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Reactor Protection &
Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- d. How a component failure will affect system OPT200.NIS B.5.f, Describe the operation of the NIS system:
- f. How an instrument failure will affect system operation.
Bank #
X "--
Modified Bank # ----
New ---
Question History:
WBN Bank Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis __ X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 013 K5.02 038 Given the following:
A Safety Injection occurred 30 minutes ago due to a faulted S/G on Unit
- 1.
The crew has transitioned to ES-1.1, "SI Termination."
Reactor trip breaker "A" failed to open.
Both SIS Reset push buttons have been depressed.
Both SI Pump control switches have been placed to STOP and returned to A-Auto.
Which ONE of the following describes the status of "A" Train Safety Injection (SI) and the 1 A-A SI Pump?
RESET ON B.
RESET OFF C~
NOT RESET ON D.
NOT RESET OFF
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 013 K5.02 038 Given the following:
A Safety Injection occurred 30 minutes ago due to a faulted S/G on Unit
- 1.
The crew has transitioned to ES-1.1, "SI Termination."
Reactor trip breaker "A" failed to open.
Both SIS Reset pushbuttons have been depressed.
Both SI Pump control switches have been placed to STOP and returned to A-Auto.
Which ONE of the following describes the status of "A" Train Safety Injection (SI) and the 1 A-A SI Pump?
RESET ON B.
RESET OFF C~
NOT RESET ON D.
NOT RESET OFF
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, SI train '~" will not be reset as the "A" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train "A". Because'~"
train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position. The first part of this distracter is plausible because the train would reset if the trip breaker had opened. The second part of this distracter is plausible as the SI pump will stop whether SI is reset or not, but will only remain off if its train of SI had reset.
B. Incorrect, SI train '~" will not be reset as the "A" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train '~". Because'~"
train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position. The first part of this distracter is plausible because the train would reset if the trip breaker had opened. The second part of the distracter is correct.
C. CORRECT, SI train "A" will not be reset as the '~" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train "A". Because
'~" train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position.
D. Incorrect, SI train "A" will not be reset as the '~" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train '~". Because"A"
. train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position. The first part of this distracter is plausible as it is correct. The second part of this distracter is plausible as the SI pump will stop whether SI is reset or not, but will only remain off if its train of SI had reset.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, SI train "A" will not be reset as the "A" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train "A". Because'~"
train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position. The first part of this distracter is plausible because the train would reset if the trip breaker had opened. The second part of this distracter is plausible as the SI pump will stop whether SI is reset or not, but will only remain off if its train of SI had reset.
B. Incorrect, SI train '~" will not be reset as the '~" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train '~". Because'~"
train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position. The first part of this distracter is plausible because the train would reset if the trip breaker had opened. The second part of the distracter is correct.
C. CORRECT, SI train '~" will not be reset as the '~" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train '~". Because
'~" train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position.
D. Incorrect, SI train '~" will not be reset as the '~" reactor trip breaker will not make up P-4, which is necessary to reset SI train '~". Because"A"
. train SI did not reset, 1A-A SI pump will restart after its control switch is returned to the '~-Auto" position. The first part of this distracter is plausible as it is correct. The second part of this distracter is plausible as the SI pump will stop whether SI is reset or not, but will only remain off if its train of SI had reset.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 38 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 013 K5.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the ESFAS: Safety system logic and reliability Importance Rating:
2.9/ 3.3 Technical
Reference:
ES-1.1, SI Termination, Rev. 10 1-47W611-63-1 SI System, R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.5.e Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Reactor Protection System and the Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- e. How a support system failure will affect system operation.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # __ -,X __
New __ _
Question History:
SQN Exam Bank ES-1.2-B.2A 001 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis __ X_
1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: Modified stem for different initial conditions, changed ES-1.2 to ES-1.1 as procedure in effect. Added additional information to include equipment to satisfy operational implications. Added second part to answer and distracters, to accomplish testing of operational implications as well.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 38 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 013 K5.02 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the ESFAS: Safety system logic and reliability Importance Rating:
2.9/3.3 Technical
Reference:
ES-1.1, SI Termination, Rev. 10 1-47W611-63-1 SI System, R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.5.e Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Reactor Protection System and the Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems:
- e. How a support system failure will affect system operation.
Bank# -----
Modified Bank # __ -,X New ---
Question History:
SQN Exam Bank ES-1.2-B.2A 001 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis __ X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/45.7 )
( n/a )
Comments: Modified stem for different initial conditions, changed ES-1.2 to ES-1.1 as procedure in effect. Added additional information to include equipment to satisfy operational implications. Added second part to answer and distracters, to accomplish testing of operational implications as well.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 022 K3.02 039 Given the following:
Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
Due to a loss of Lower Compartment Cooling, lower containment temperature has risen from 103°F to 119°F.
Actions are in progress to restore cooling.
If the temperature continues to rise in containment, which ONE of the following describes the effect on pressurizer level indication?
The controlling pressurizer level channel will indicate slightly ______ _
A. higher than actual level, and remain lower than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level instrument.
B. lower than actual level, and remain lower than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level. instrument.
C!' higher than actual level, and remain higher than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level instrument.
D. lower than actual level, and remain higher than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level instrument.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 022 K3.02 039 Given the following:
Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
Due to a loss of Lower Compartment Cooling, lower containment temperature has risen from 103°F to 119°F.
Actions are in progress to restore cooling.
If the temperature continues to rise in containment, which ONE of the following describes the effect on pressurizer level indication?
The controlling pressurizer level channel will indicate slightly ______ _
A. higher than actual level, and remain lower than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level instrument.
- 8. lower than actual level, and remain lower than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level instrument.
C!" higher than actual level, and remain higher than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level instrument.
( "
D. lower than actual level, and remain higher than the cold-calibrated pressurizer level instrument.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, When the containment atmospheric temperature rises, the pressurizer reference leg will heat up, causing density to decrease, and exerting less pressure on the reference leg side of the transmitter, resulting in an increase in the indicated level, however the controlling level channel will remain higher than the cold -calibrated instrument. Plausible because the level indicating slightly higher is correct and the relationship with the cold calibrated instrument could be reversed.
B. Incorrect, The controlling level channel will indicate higher than the cold-calibrated channel not lower. Plausible if the effects of the temperature rise and relationship with the cold calibrated instrument are reversed.
C. Correct, The cold calibrated pressurizer level instrument is calibrated for temperatures far lower than normal operating temperatures and will indicate lower. When the containment atmospheric temperature rises, the pressurizer reference leg will heat up, causing density to decrease, and exerting less pressure on the reference leg side of the transmitter. This will result in an increase in indicated level.
D. Incorrect, The controlling level channel will indicate higher than the cold-calibrated channel not lower. Plausible if the effect of the temperature rise is reversed; because the relationship with the cold calibrated instrument is correct.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, When the containment atmospheric temperature rises, the pressurizer reference leg will heat up, causing density to decrease, and exerting less pressure on the reference leg side of the transmitter, resulting in an increase in the indicated level, however the controlling level channel will remain higher than the cold -calibrated instrument. Plausible because the level indicating slightly higher is correct and the relationship with the cold calibrated instrument could be reversed.
B. Incorrect, The controlling level channel will indicate higher than the cold-calibrated channel not lower. Plausible if the effects of the temperature rise and relationship with the cold calibrated instrument are reversed.
C. Correct, The cold calibrated pressurizer level instrument is calibrated for temperatures far lower than normal operating temperatures and will indicate lower. When the containment atmospheric temperature rises, the pressurizer reference leg will heat up, causing density to decrease, and exerting less pressure on the reference leg side of the transmitter. This will result in an increase in indicated level.
D. Incorrect, The controlling level channel will indicate higher than the cold-calibrated channel not lower. Plausible if the effect of the temperature rise is reversed; because the relationship with the cold calibrated instrument is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 39 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 022 K3.02 Containment Cooling System (CCS)
Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CCS will have on the following:
Containment instrumentation readings Importance Rating:
3.0 I 3.3 Technical
Reference:
0-GO-13, Reactor Coolant System Drain and Fill Operations, Rev 59 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200PZRLCS B.4.e,.h,&.j Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the Pressurizer Level Control System
- e. Component operation
- h. Instrumentation and indications
- j.
Failure Modes Bank #
X __
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question 022 K3.02 001 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 I 45.6) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments: SQN Audit 07 Originally from WTSI Bank
(
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 39 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 022 K3.02 Containment Cooling System (CCS)
Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CCS will have on the following:
Containment instrumentation readings Importance Rating:
3.0/3.3 Technical
Reference:
0-GO-13, Reactor Coolant System Drain and Fill Operations, Rev 59 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200PZRLCS B.4.e,.h,&.j Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the Pressurizer Level Control System
- e. Component operation
- h. Instrumentation and indications
- j.
Failure Modes Bank #
X --
Modified Bank # -----
New ---
Question History:
SQN bank question 022 K3.02 001 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 / 45.6 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN Audit 07 Originally from WTSI Bank
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 025 A4.02 040 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% RTP when a LOCA occurs.
A Safety Injection occurs due to containment pressure.
The containment pressure continues to rise above the Phase B setpoint.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) when the Containment Air Return Fans would automatically start and (2) the indicating light(s) on the MCR handswitch that would be LIT if the 1 A-A Air Return Fan tripped on overload when the start was attempted?
Containment Air Return Fans would automatically start...
A. 10 minutes after the Safety Injection signal.
B. 10 minutes after the Safety Injection signal.
C. 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal.
D~ 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal.
If 1 A-A tripped, the indicating light(s) LIT are the...
White ONLY.
Green, White, and Red.
White ONLY.
Green, White, and Red.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 025 A4.02 040 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% RTP when a LOCA occurs.
A Safety Injection occurs due to containment pressure.
The containment pressure continues to rise above the Phase 8 setpoint.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) when the Containment Air Return Fans would automatically start and (2) the indicating light(s) on the MCR handswitch that would be LIT if the 1 A-A Air Return Fan tripped on overload when the start was attempted?
Containment Air Return Fans would automatically start...
A. 10 minutes after the Safety Injection signal.
- 8. 10 minutes after the Safety Injection signal.
C. 10 minutes after the Phase 8 isolation signal.
D~ 10 minutes after the Phase 8 isolation signal.
If 1 A-A tripped, the indicating light(s) LIT are the...
White ONLY.
Green, White, and Red.
White ONLY.
Green, White, and Red.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The Containment Air Return Fans receive a start signal 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated (not 10 minutes after the SI initiation) and all 3 lights on the handswitch wi/J be lit, (not just the green and white.) Plausible because the applicant could misapply the timer start time to the Hi containment pressure SI signal instead of the HI-HI (Phase B signal) and white lights are used in other applications to identify abnormal plant conditions.
B. Incorrect, The Containment Air Return Fans receive a start signal 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated (not 10 minutes after the SI initiation) but all 3 lights on the handswitch will be lit.
Plausible because the applicant could misapply the timer start time to the Hi containment pressure SI signal instead of the HI-HI (Phase B signal) and all 3 indicating lights being lit is correct.
C. Incorrect, The Containment Air Return Fans do receive a start signal 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated, however all 3 lights on the hands witch wi/J be lit, (not just the green and white.)
Plausible because the start signal initiation is correct and white lights are used in other applications to identify abnormal plant conditions..
D. CORRECT, The Containment Air Return Fans are to maintain air flow through the ice condenser by pulling air from upper containment and discharge into lower containment during the accident. The fans receive a start signal 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated. Overload protection for the fan motor is provided by an
'amptector" device and if it actuates all 3 lights on the hands witch will be lit.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The Containment Air Return Fans receive a start signal 1 0 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated (not 10 minutes after the SI initiation) and all 3 lights on the handswitch will be lit, (not just the green and white.) Plausible because the applicant could misapply the timer start time to the Hi containment pressure SI signal instead of the HI-HI (Phase B signal) and white lights are used in other applications to identify abnormal plant conditions.
B. Incorrect, The Containment Air Return Fans receive a start signal 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated (not 10 minutes after the SI initiation) but all 3 lights on the hands witch will be lit.
Plausible because the applicant could misapply the timer start time to the Hi containment pressure SI signal instead of the HI-HI (Phase B signal) and all 3 indicating lights being lit is correct.
C. Incorrect, The Containment Air Return Fans do receive a start signal 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated, however all 3 lights on the hands witch will be lit, (not just the green and white.)
Plausible because the start signal initiation is correct and white lights are used in other applications to identify abnormal plant conditions..
D. CORRECT, The Containment Air Return Fans are to maintain air flow through the ice condenser by puffing air from upper containment and discharge into lower containment during the accident. The fans receive a start signal 10 minutes after the Phase B isolation signal (2.8 psig) is initiated. Overload protection for the fan motor is provided by an
'amptector" device and if it actuates all 3 lights on the handswitch wiff be lit.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 40 Tier 2 Group 1 KiA 025 A4.02 Ice Condenser System Ability to manually operate andlor monitor in the control room:
Containment vent fans Importance Rating:
2.7 I 2.5 Technical
Reference:
1,2-45N7791 R5 1,2-45N779-5 R13 1,2-47W611-30-3 R6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.lCE b.4.f &.i Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Ice Condenser system:
- f. Controls
- i. Protective Features Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X'--__
Question History:
New __
SQN bank question CTMT COMB GAS-B.12 003 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 to 45.8) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question CTMT COMB GAS-B. 12 003 modified QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 40 TIer 2 Group 1 KIA 025 A4.02 Ice Condenser System Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:
Containment vent fans Importance Rating:
2.7/2.5 Technical
Reference:
1,2-45N7791 R5 1,2-45N779-5 R13 1,2-47W611-30-3 R6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None learning Objective:
OPT2oo.ICE b.4.f &.i Question Source:
Describe the folloWing characteristics of each major component in the Ice Condenser system:
- f. Controls I. Protective Features Bank#_~ __
Modified Bank # _X __
Question History:
New __ _
SON bank question CTMT COMB GAS-B.12 003 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 to 45.8) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments: SON bank question CTMT COMB GAS-B.12 003 modified
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 025 G 2.2.42 041 With Unit 1 in Mode 3, which ONE of the following conditions associated with the Ice Condenser System would cause a Technical Specification LCO to be entered?
A. A floor drain isolation valve is determined to be open.
B~ One pair of inlet doors is discovered to be pinned closed.
C. The Ice Bed Temperature highest reading indicated 25°F.
D. Chemical sample determined the average pH of the stored ice to be 9.3.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Floor drain isolation vales are required to be open. Plausible because the floor drains are required to be operable in Mode 3.
B. CORRECT, A pair of inlet doors pinned closed would make the doors inoperable and the doors are required to be operable in Mode 3.
C. Incorrect, the maximum Ice bed temperature is 27°F. Plausible because the maximum temperature limit is applicable in Mode 3.
D. Incorrect, the pH is required to be between 9.0 and 9.5. Plausible because the pH limit is applicable in Mode 3.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 025 G 2.2.42 041 With Unit 1 in Mode 3, which ONE ofthe following conditions associated with the Ice Condenser System would cause a Technical Specification LCO to be entered?
A. A floor drain isolation valve is determined to be open.
B~ One pair of inlet doors is discovered to be pinned closed.
C. The Ice Bed Temperature highest reading indicated 2SoF.
D. Chemical sample determined the average pH of the stored ice to be 9.3.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Floor drain isolation vales are required to be open. Plausible because the floor drains are required to be operable in Mode 3.
B. CORRECT, A pair of inlet doors pinned closed would make the doors Inoperable and the doors are required to be opareble in Mode 3.
C. Incorrect, the maximum Ice bad temparature is 27"F. Plausible because the maximum temperature limit is applicable in Mode 3.
D. Incorrect, the pH is required to be between 9.0 and 9.5. Plausible because the pH limn is applicable in Mode 3.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 41 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 025 G 2.2.42 Ice Condenser System Ability to recognize system parameters that are entry-level conditions for Technical Specifications.
Importance Rating:
3.9/4.6 Technical
Reference:
Technical Specifications, Amendment 322 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.lCE B.6.a Question Source:
Describe the administrative controls and limits for the Ice Condenser System:
- a. State the Tech SpeclTRM LCOs that govern the Ice Condenser Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New Question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:.
( 41.7 I 41.10 I 43.2 I 43.3 I 45.3 )
( n/a )
Comments:
New Question QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Relake Exam Questions Question No. 41 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 025 G 2.2.42 Ice Condenser System Ability to recognize system parameters that are enrry-Ievel conditions for Technical Specifications.
Importance Rating:
3.9/4.6 Technical
Reference:
Technical Specifications, Amendment 322 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.ICE B.6.a Question Source:
Describe the administrative oontrols and limits for tile Ice Condenser System:
- a. State the Tech SpecITRM LCOs tilat govern the Ice Condenser Bank#. ___ _
Modified Bank # -:.,-__
New _ x __
Question History:
New Question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content (41.7/41.10/43.2/43.3/45.3 )
( nla )
Comments:
New Question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 026 K2.01 042 Given the following:
Unit 1 was in Mode 1 with all Tech Spec equipment operable when a reactor trip/safety injection occurred.
The following conditions are noted:
Time 0735 0738 0741 0746 0747 0749 Reactor trip/safety injection Containment Pressure is 1.8 psig Containment Pressure is 2.9 psig Containment Pressure is 3.1 psig Offsite power supply to 6.9 Kv 1 A-A SID Bd is lost Containment Pressure is 2.9 psig Which ONE of the following describes the status of the containment spray system at 0749?
A. The Containment Spray Signal is actuated.
1 A-A Containment Spray Pump is running.
B~ The Containment Spray Signal is actuated.
1 A-A Containment Spray Pump is NOT running.
C. The Containment Spray Signal is NOT actuated.
1 A-A Containment Spray Pump is running.
D. The Containment Spray Signal is NOT actuated.
1A-A Containment Spray Pump is NOT running.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 026 Kl.01 042 Given the following:
Un~ 1 was in Mode 1 with all Tech Spec equipment operable when a reactor trip/safety injection occurred.
The following cond~ions are noted:
Time 0735 0738 0741 0746 0747 0749 Reactor trip/safety injection Containment Pressure Is 1.8 pslg Containment Pressure is 2.9 psig Containment Pressure is 3.1 psig Offsite power supply to 6.9 Kv 1A-A SID Bd is lost Containment Pressure is 2.9 psig Which ONE of the following describes the status of the containment spray system at 0749?
A. The Containment Spray Signal is actuated.
1A-A Containment Spray Pump is running.
B~ The Containment Spray Signal is actuated.
1A-A Containment Spray Pump is NOT running.
C. The Containment Spray Signal is NOT actuated.
1A-A Containment Spray Pump is running.
D. The Containment Spray Signal is NOT actuated.
1A-A Containment Spray Pump is NOT running.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The containment spray signal would have been initiated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psid) and would have started the Containment spray pump but it would have been load shed when the board tripped and sequencer not timed out to restart the pump. Plausible if the correct time delays are not applied to the spray initiation signal and the pump sequencing back on.
B. CORRECT, The containment spray signal would have been initiated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psid) when he shutdown board de-energized the breakers would strip, DG start and recover the board.
Then the sequencer will prevent the CS pump from starting for 180 seconds after the board is energized.
C. Incorrect, The containment spray signal would have been initiated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psid) and would have started the Containment Spray Pump but it would have been load shed when the board tripped and sequencer not timed out to restart the pump. Plausible if the correct time delays are not applied to the spray initiation signal and the pump sequencing back on.
D. Incorrect, The containment spray signal would have been initiated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psid) and would have started the Containment Spray Pump but it would have been load shed when the board tripped and sequencer not timed out to restart the pump. Plausible if the correct time delays are not applied to the spray initiation signal and the pump sequencing back on.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTQR ANAL YSIS:
A. InCOlr9Cl, The contaInment spray signal would have been inftlated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psid) and would have started the Containment spray pump but ff would have been load shed when the board tripped and sequencer not timed out to restart the pump. Plausible if the correct time delays are not applied to the spray iniUation signal and the pump sequencing back on.
B. CORRECT, The containment sprey signal would have been inffiated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psld) when he shutdown board de-energized the breakers would strip, DG start and recover the board.
Then the sequencer will prevent the CS pump from starting for 180 seconds after the board Is energized.
C. Incorrect, The containment spray signal would have been initiated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psid) and would have started the Containment Spray Pump but ff would have been load shed when the board tripped and sequencer not timed out to restart the pump. Plausible if the correct time delays are not applied to the sprey inffiation signal and the pump sequencing back on.
D. Incorrect, The contsinment spray signal would have been initiated prior to 0749 (when pressure exceeded 2.8 psid) and would have started the Containment Sprey Pump but ff would have been load shed when the board tripped and sequencer not timed out to restart tha pump. Plausible if the correct time delays are not applied to the spray initiation signal and the pump sequencing back on.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 42 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 026 K2.01 Containment Spray System (CCS)
Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:
Containment spray pumps Importance Rating:
3.4* I 3.6 Technical
Reference:
1-47W611-72-1 R11 TI-28 Attachment 9, 06-28-2007 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.CS B.4.b Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the CS system as described in this lesson:
- b. Power supply (including control power as applicable)
Bank # _X ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __
Question History:
SQN bank question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __
Comprehension or Analysis _X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN Audit 07 question with minor wording changes QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 42 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 026 K2.01 Containment Spray System (CCS)
Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:
Containment spray pumps Importance Rating:
3.4" 13.6 Technical
Reference:
1-47W611-72-1 R11 TI-28 Attachment 9, 06-28-2007 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CS B.4.b Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the CS system as described In this lesson:
- b. Power supply (including control power as applicable)
Bank # _X, __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __
Question History:
SQN bank question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
10CFR55.43.b (nla )
Comments: SQN Audit 07 question with minor wording changes
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 0261(3.02 043 Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with Safety Injection Pump (SIP) 1A-A out of service when a LOCA occurs.
When a safety injection is initiated, the 6.9kV Shutdown Board 1B-B trips due to relay actuation and is determined to be damaged.
ES-1.3, "Transfer To RHR Containment Sump" has been completed.
FR-Z.1, "High Containment Pressure" has been performed.
2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> after the accident, the following conditions exist:
Containment Spray Pump 1 A-A trips.
Containment pressure rises from 5.0 to 9.7 psig.
Which ONE of the following describes the proper action associated with RHR spray and the reason why?
Residual Heat Removal (RHR) spray would...
A~ NOT be placed in service because neither SIP is running.
B. NOT be placed in service because only one CCP running.
C. be placed in service immediately due to the pressure in containment.
D. be placed in service after the minimum time since the accident elapses.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 026 10.02 043 Given the following cond~ions :
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with Safety Injection Pump (SIP) lA-A oU1 of service when a LOCA occurs.
When a safety injection is initiated, the 6.9kV ShU1down Board 1 B-B trips due to relay actuation and is determined to be damaged.
ES-l.3, "Transfer To RHR Containment Sump" has been completed.
FR-Z.l, "High Containment Pressure" has been performed.
2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> after the accident, the following conditions exist:
Containment Spray Pump 1 A-A trips.
Containment pressure rises from 5.0 to 9.7 psig.
Which ONE of the following describes the proper action associated with RHR spray and the reason why?
Residual Heat Removal (RHR) spray would...
A'I NOT be placed in service because neither SIP is running.
B. NOT be placed in service because only one CCP running.
C. be placed In service immediately due to the pressure In containment.
D. be placed in service after the minimum time since the accident elapses.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Requirements to place RHR spray in service include containment pressure greater than 9.5 psig spray flow at least 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> has elapsed since the start of the accident, and at least one CCP and one SI pump running. With SIP 1A-A out of service and the other shutdown board de-energized neither SIP is available to meet the required condition to place the RHR spray in service.
B. Incorrect, the RHR spray would not be immediately placed in service but having only one CCP is not the reason. Plausible because with only one CCP pump it could be concluded that the only RHR pump should remain dedicated for core cooling (via supplying CCP suction) and not used for containment spray.
C. Incorrect, the RHR spray would not be immediately placed in service even thought both the minimum time and the containment pressure requirements have been met. Plausible because two of the three requirements are met and the applicant may not determine neither of the SIPs are available.
D. Incorrect, the minimum time of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> has been met,. So the establishing of RHR spray is not awaiting the time requirement to be met. Plausible because the applicant may apply the time to go to Hot Leg recirculation (5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />) to the time requirement for RHR spray, as both are contained in ES-1.3.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YS/S:
A. CORRECT, Requirements to place RHR sprey In service include containment pressure greater than 9.5 psig spray now at least 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> has elapsed since the start of the accident, and at least one CCP and one SI pump running. Wdh SIP lA-A out of service and the other shutdown board de-energized neither SIP ;s available to mset the required condition to place the RHR sprey in service.
B. Incorrect, the RHR sprey would not be Immediately placed In service but having only one CCP is not the reason. Plausible because with only one CCP pump n could be concluded that the only RHR pump should remain dedicated for core cooling (via supplying CCP suction) and not used for containment spray.
C. Incorrect, the RHR spray would not be immediately placed in service even thought both the minimum time and the containment pressure requirements have been met. Plausible because two of the three requirements are met and the applicant may not determine neither of the SIPs are available.
D. Inco"ect, the minimum time of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> has been met,. So the establishing of RHR spray ;s not awaiting the time requirement to be met. Plausible because the applicant may apply the Ume to go to Hot Leg recirculation (5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />) to the time requirement for RHR spray, as both Bre contained in ES-l.3.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 43 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 026 K3.02 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CSS will have on the following: Recirculation spray system.
Importance Rating:
4.2* I 4.3 Technical
Reference:
ES-1.3, Transfer to RHR Containment Sump, Rev 16 EPM-3-ES-1.3, Basis Document for ES-1.3 Transfer to RHR Containment Sump, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
None Learning Objective:
OPL271 ES-1.3 B.6.a Question Source:
Given a set of initial plant conditions use ES-1.3 to correctly:
- a. Identify required actions Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X,--_
New __
Question History:
SQN bank question CSS B.11.B 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7/45.6 )
10CFR55.43.b (n/a)
Comments: SQN bank question CSS B.11.B 001 modified QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 43 TIer 2 Group I KIA 026 K3.02 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CSS will have on the following: Recirculation spray system.
Importance Rating:
4.2'/4.3 Technical
Reference:
ES-I.3, Transfer to RHR Containment Sump, Rev 16 EPM-3-ES-I.3, Basis Document for ES-I.3 Transferto RHR Conlainment Sump, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
None Learning Objective:
OPL27IES-I.3 B.6.a Question Source:
Givan a set of initial plant conditions use ES-I.3 to correctly:
- a. Identify requirad actions Bank #, _.,,--__
Modified Bank # _X, __
New ___ _
Question History:
SQN bank question CSS B.II.B 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge ___ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.6 )
IOCFR55.43.b (nla )
Comments: SQN bank question CSS B.II.B 001 modified
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 039 AI.03 044 Given the following plant conditions:
Unit 1 heatup in progress.
Operators are warming the main steam lines using the MSIV bypasses.
The OAC observes that the RCS has cooled down 96°F in the past hour.
The CRO observes that the main steam lines have heated up 103°F in the past hour.
Which ONE of the following identifies the status of the RCS cooldown and Main Steam line heatup rate limits?
A.
RCS cooldown rate limit was NOT exceeded.
Main Steam line heat-up rate limit was exceeded; B.
RCS cooldown rate limit was exceeded; Main Steam line heat-up rate limit was NOT exceeded.
C.
Both RCS cooldown and Main Steam line heat-up rate limits were exceeded.
D." Neither RCS cooldown NOR Main Steam line heatup rate limit was exceeded.
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The main steam line heatup rate is within the rate limit. Plausible because the candidate could mistake the main steam heatup rate limit to be 100°Flhr.
B. Incorrect, The RCS cooldown rate is within the rate limit. Plausible because the candidate could mistake the RCS cooldown rate limit to be the 75°Flhr ReS coo/down target value identified in GO-7.
C. Incorrect, Both the RCS cooldown and the Main steam heatup rates are within the respective rate limit.
D. Correct, Neither the RCS cooldown rate of 100°F/hr nor the Main steam heatup rate limit of 200°Flhr was exceeded.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 039 Al.03 044 Given the following plant conditions:
Unit 1 heatup in progress.
Operators are warming the main steam lines using the MSIV bypasses.
The OAC observes that the RCS has cooled down 96'F in the past hour.
The CRO observes that the main steam lines have heated up 103'F in the past hour.
Which ONE of the following Identifies the status of the RCS cooldown and Main Steam line heatup rate limits?
A.
RCS cooldown rate limit was NOT exceeded.
Main Steam line heat-up rate limit was exceeded; B. RCS cooldown rate lim~ was exceeded; Main Steam line heat-up rate lim~ was NOT exceeded.
C.
Both RCS cooldown and Main Steam line heat-up rate lim~s were exceeded.
D." Neither RCS cooldown NOR Main Steam line heatup rate lim~ was exceeded.
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. InC0fT9Ct, The main steam line hsstup rate is within the rate limit. Plausible because the candidate could mistake the main steam heatup fate limit to be 100°Flhr.
B. Incorrect, The RCS coo/down rate is within the rate limff. Plausible because the candidate could mistake the RCS cooldown rate limit to be the 75°Flhr RCS cooldown target value identified In GO-7.
C. Incorrect, Both the RCS cooldown and the Main steam heatup rates are within the respective rate limit.
D. CoITect. Nei/her the RCS coo/down rate of 100°Flhr nor the Main steam heatup rate limit of 200°Flhr was exceeded.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 44 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 039 A1.03 Main and Reheat Steam System:
Ability to predict and or monitor changes in parameters to prevent exceeding design limits associated with operating the MRSS controls including:
Primary system temperature indications and required values, during main steam system warm-up.
Importance Rating:
2.6 I 2.7 Technical
Reference:
Unit 1 Technical SpeCification 3.4.9.1,Amendment 297 Pressure Temperature Limits Report (PTLR), Rev 4 1-S0-1-1, Main Steam System, Rev 25 Precaution D.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.MS B.5.a &.b Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Main Steam system as it pertains to the following:
- a. Precautions and Limitations
- b. Major steps performed while placing the Main Steam in service OPT200.RCS B.6.a Describe the administrative controls and limits for the RCS as explained in this lesson:
- a. State Tech SpecslTRM LCOs that govern the RCS Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X'----__
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question 039 A 1.03 043 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or AnalysiS _X, __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/45.5 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN Audit exam 12107 QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 44 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 039 Al.03 Main and Reheat Steam System:
Ability to predict and or monitor changes in parameters to prevent exceeding design limits associated with operating the MRSS controls including:
Primary system temperature indications and required values, during main steam system warm-up_
Importance Rating:
2.6/2.7 Technical
Reference:
Unit 1 Technical Specification 3.4.9.1,Amendment 297 Pressure Temperature Limits Report (PTLR), Rev 4 l-S0-1-1, Main Steam System, Rev 25 Precaution D.
Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
Question Source:
OPT200.MS B.5.a &.b Oesaibe the operation of the Main Steam system as it pertains to the following:
8. Precautions and limitations
- b. Major steps performed while placing the Main Steam in service OPT200.RCS B.6.a Describe the administrative controls and limits for the RCS as explained in this lesson:
- a. State Tech SpecslTRM LCOs that govern the RCS Bank #
Modified Bank #-=-.-X,.,---
New __
Question History:
SQN bank question 039 Al.03 043 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X. __
10 CFR Part 55 Content (41.5/45.5 )
10CFR55.43.b (nla )
Comments: SQN Audit exam 12107
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 059 K4.02 045 Given the following Unit 1 is at 100% RTP.
Main Feed Pump Turbine 1 A trips.
Which ONE of the following describes the EHC indicating light that will be LIT during the automatic plant response to this condition?
(Assume no operator action taken)
A-I The VALVE POS LIMIT light lit and plant power reduces to -72%.
B. The VALVE POS LIMIT light lit and plant power reduces to -76%.
C. The RUN BACK OPER light lit and plant power level reduces to -72%.
D. The RUNBACK OPER light lit and plant power level reduces to -76%.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, If a main feed pump turbine trips with the plant above 76%
power a turbine runback occurs through the valve position limiter (VPL).
This causes the VALVE POS LIMIT light on the EHC panel to be lit. The VPL drives the turbine governor valves a 72% or less power equivalent power on the loss of the MFP.
B. Incorrect, The VPL light is lit during the runback but the runback is not to 76% power, it is to 72% power. Plausible because 76% is the unit power required to arm the runback circuit to allow the runback.
C. Incorrect, The RUNBACK OPER light is not lit during a runback due to a MFPT trip. It is lit during a primary runback (0 Tdelta Tor OPdelta T), the MFPT trip runback is a secondary runback and the runback is via the VPL.
Plausible because the RUNBACK OPER light is lit during primary runbacks and because the 72% is the value where the plant is runback due to a MFPT tripping if load is above 76% when the trip occurs.
D. Incorrect, The RUNBACK OPER light is not lit during a runback due to a MFPTtrip. It is lit during a primary runback (0 TdeltaTor OPdeltaT), the MFPT trip runback is a secondary runback and the runback is via the VPL.
Plausible because the RUNBACK OPER light is lit during primary runbacks and because the 76% is the unit power required to arm the runback circuit to allow the runback.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Relake Exam Questions 059 K4.02 045 Given the following Un~ 1 is at 100% RTP.
Main Feed Pump Turbine 1A trips.
Which ONE of the following describes the EHC indicating light that will be LIT during the automatic plant response to this cond~ion?
(Assume no operator action laken)
A~ The VALVE POS LIMIT light m and plant power reduces to -72%.
B. The VALVE POS LIMIT light I~ and plant power reduces to -76%.
C. The RUN BACK OPER light lij and plant power level reduces to -72%.
D. The RUN BACK OPER light I~ and plant power level reduces to -76%.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, If a main fBBd pump turbine flips with the plant above 76"/0 power a rurblne runbsck occurs through the valve posftion limfter (VPL).
This causes the VALVE POS UMIT light on the EHC panel to be 1ft. The VPL drives the turbine governor valves a 72% or less power equivalent power on the loss of the MFP.
B. tncorrect, The VPL light is 1ft during the runback but the runback is not to 76% powe" it is to 72% power. Plausible because 76% is the unit power required to arm the runback circuit to allow the runback.
C. Incorrect, The RUNBACK OPER light is not lit during a runback due to a MFPTtrip. It is lit during a primary runback (OTdaffaT or OPdeffaT), the MFPT flip runback is a sacondary runbsck and the runback is via the VPL.
Plausibla becausa the RUNBACK OPER light is lit during primary runbacks and becsusa the 72% is the value where the plant is runback due to a MFPT flipping if load is above 76% whan the flip occurs.
D. Incorrect, The RUNBACK OPER light is not lit during a runback due to a MFPTlrip. It is 1ft during a primary runback (0 TdeffaT or OPdeltaT), the MFPT flip runback is a sacondary runback and the runback is via the VPL.
Plausible because the RUNBACK OPER light is 1ft during primary runbacks and because the 76% ;s the unit power required to arm the runback circuit to allow the runbsck.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 45 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 059 K4.02 Main Feedwater (MFW) System Knowledge of MFW design feature{s) andlor interlock{s) which provide for the following:
Automatic turbinelreactor trip runback Importance Rating:
3.3 I 3.5 Technical
Reference:
AOP-S.01, Loss of Normal Feedwater, Rev. 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.MTGC; B. 4.e &.h Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Main Turbine-Generator Control System.
- e. Component Operation
- h. Instrumentation and Indications Bank # _X'--__
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question MGTC-B.S.D 001with minor changes Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question MGTC-B.S.D 001 with minor changes Correct answer relocated, Wording in stem and choices changed QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 45 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 059 K4.02 Main Feedwater (MFW) System Knowledge of MFW design feature(s) andlor inte~ock(s) which provide for the following:
Automatic turbine/reactor trip runback Importance Rating:
3.3/3.5 Technical
Reference:
AOP-S.Ol, Loss of Nonnal Feedwater, Rev. 14 Proposed referencas to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.MTGC; B. 4.e &.h Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Main Turbine-Generator Control System.
- e. Component Operation
- h. Instrumentation and Indications Bank#_X Modified Bank #
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question MGTC-B.S.D 00lwith minor changes Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamenlal knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question MGTC-B.S.D 001 with minor changes Correct answer relocated, Wording In stem and choices changed
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 061 A3.03 046 Given the following:
Unit 1 was operating at 25% power.
A #2 S/G low-low level reactor trip occurred due to a feedwater reg valve problem.
Following the trip, T avg dropped to 542°F.
The crew enters ES-O.1, "Reactor Trip Response."
Assuming NO action has been taken by the crew, which ONE of the following describes the status of the AFW system after the steam generator levels return to the programmed level setpoint ?
MDAFW Pumps running with...
A. LCVs full open.
B. LCVs full open.
C~ LCVs throttling in response to steam generator level.
D. LCVs throttling in response to steam generator level.
TDAFW Pump...
running with LCVs full open.
NOT running and LCVs closed.
running with LCVs full open.
NOT running and LCVs closed.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 061 AJ.03 046 Given the following:
Unit 1 was operating at 25% power.
A #2 SIG low-low level reactor trip occurred due to a feedwater reg valve problem.
Following the trip, T avg dropped to 542' F.
The crew enters ES-O.1, 'Reactor Trip Response.'
Assuming NO action has been taken by the crew, which ONE of the following describes the status of the AFW system after the steam generator levels return to the programmed level setpoint ?
MDAFW Pumps running with...
A. LCVs full open.
B. LCVs full open.
C\\" LCVs throttling in response to steam generetor level.
D. LCVs throttling In response to steam generator level.
TDAFW Pump...
running with LCVs full open.
NOT running and LCVs closed.
running with LCVs full open.
NOT running and LCVs closed.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions OISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
MO AFW LCVs control SG level at 33%. When above setpoint, valves will be throttling closed to control level. The TO AFW LCVs will get signal to come full open when the pump receives an accident start signal.
A. Incon-ect, the TO AFW LCVs will be full open, but with the SG levels above set point the MO LCVs will be throttling. Plausible because all of the AFW pumps are running and all LCVs would have been full open until the levels begins to recover, allowing the MO AFW LCV to start throttling.
B. Incon-ect, the TO AFW LCVs will not be full closed and with the SG levels above setpoint, the MO LCVs will be throttling. Plausible because initially one SG level being low would start the MOAFW pumps but not the TOAFW pump. However, following the trip with Tavg dropping below 550°F, a feedwater isolation occurs, both MFWPTs trip resulting in a TOAFW pump start and LCV open signal.
C. CORRECT, With the SG levels above set pOint the MO LCVs will be throttling and the TO AFW LCVs will come full open when the TO AFW pump receives a starts(due to the trip of both MFWPT because the reactor is tripped coincident with Tavg <550°F) and will remain full open.
O. Incon-ect, With the SG levels above setpoint the MO LCVs will be throttling but the TO AFW LCVs will not be full closed. Plausible because with the levels recovered the MOAFW valves would be throttling and initially one SG level being low would start the MOAFW pumps but not the TOAFW pump. However, following the trip with Tavg dropping below 550°F, a feedwater isolation occurs, both MFWPTs trip resulting in a TOAFW pump start and LCV open signal.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
MD AFW LCVs control SG level at 33%. When above setpoint, valves will be throWing closed to control level. The TO AFW LCVs will get signal to come full open when the pump receives an accident start signal.
A Incorrect, the TO AFW LCVs will be full open, but wfth the SG levels above satpoint the MD LCVs will be throWing. Plausible because all of the AFW pumps are running and all LCVs would have been full open until the levels begins to recover, allowing the MD AFW LCV to start throWing.
B. Incorrect, the TO AFW LCVs will not be full closed and wfth the SG levels above setpoint, the MD LCVs will be throttling. Plausible because innially one SG level being low would start the MDAFW pumps but not the TOAFW pump. However, following the trip wfth Tavg dropping below 550°F, a feedwater isolation occurs, both MFWPTs trip msulting in a TOAFW pump start and LCV open signal.
C. CORRECT, Wah the SG levels above setpoint the MD LCVs will be throttling and the TO AFW LCVs will come full open when the TO AFW pump receives a startsldue to the trip of both MFWPT because the reactor
- s tripped coincident with Tavg <550°F) and will remsin full open.
D. Incorrect, With the SG levels above setpoint the MD LCVs will be throttling but the TO AFW LCVs will not be full closed. Plausible because wfth the levels I8COvered the MDAFW valves would be throWing and innially one SG level being low would start the MDAFW pumps but not the TOAFW pump. However, following the trip wfth Tavg dropping below 550°F, a feedwater iso/ation occurs, both MFWPTs trip resuning in a TOAFW pump start and LCV open signal.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 46 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 061 A3.03 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the AFW, including:
AFW SIG level control on automatic start Importance Rating:
3.9 I 3.9 Technical
Reference:
1,2-47W611-3-3, R29 1,2-47W611-3-4, R20 1-47W611-99-7, R3 TI-28, Curve Book, Attachment 9, 6/28/07 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
None Learning Objective:
OPT200.AFW B.4.e,.f, &.I Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the AFW system:
- e. Component Operation
- f. Controls I. Types of accidents for which the AFW components are designed Question Source:
Bank # _X'---__
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __
Question History: SQN Bank question 061 A3.03 001 written for 2007 audit exam Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 I 45.5 )
( nla )
Comments: Bank question reformatted, Stem conditions changed to added plausibility to distracters, but answer remained to same.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 46 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 061 AJ.03 Ability to monitor automatic operation of the AFW, Including:
AFW S/G level control on automatic start Importance Rating:
3.9/3.9 Technical
Reference:
1,2-47W611-3-3, R29 1,2-47W611-3-4, R20 1-47W611-99-7, R3 TI-28, Curve Book, Attachment 9, 6/28107 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:
None Learning Objective:
OPT200.AFW B.4.e,.I, &.1 Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the AFW system:
- e. Component Operation
- f. Controls I. Types of accidents for which the AFW components are designed Bank#_X Modified Bank #
New __ _
Question History: SQN Bank question 061 A3.03 001wrltten for 2007 audit exam Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7/45.5) 10CFR55.43.b (nla)
Comments: Bank question refonmatted, Stem conditions changed to added plausibility to distracters. but answer remained to same.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 061 K6.02 047 Given the following:
Unit 1 tripped from 100% power.
TDAFW pump is tagged.
1 B-B AFW pump failed to start.
Which ONE of the following identifies the steam generators (S/G's) that would be supplied by AFW and which steam generators still have blowdown flow aligned?
A.
B~
- c.
D.
AFW flow to S/G's 1&2 1&2 1&3 1&3 Blowdown flow aligned to S/G's All 4 1&3 All 4 1&3 QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Queslions 061 K6.02 047 Given the following:
Unit 1 tripped from 100% power.
TDAFW pump Is tagged.
1 B-B AFW pump failed to start.
Which ONE of the following identifies the steam generators (S/G's) that would be supplied by AFW and which steam generators stili have blowdown flow aligned?
A.
B~
- c.
D.
AFW flow to S/G's 1&2 1&2 1&3 1&3 Blowdown flow aligned to S/G's All 4 1&3 All 4 1&3
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, AFW flow will be aligned to 1 & 2 as 1A-A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 S/G's, since this first half of the distracter is correct it makes this choice plausible. The second half of this choice is incorrect as the start of the 1A-A MDAFW pump only isolates blowdown flow to 2 & 4 S/G's. It is plausible if the student cannot remember it blowdown outside isolation valves 1 & 3 are the only affected valves on a 1A-A MDAFW pump start with no phase A isolation.
B. CORRECT, AFW flow will be aligned to 1 & 2 as 1A-A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 S/G's and blowdown will isolate to S/G's 2 & 4 with the pump start leaving SGBD aligned to S/G's 1 & 3.
C. Incorrect, AFW flow will be aligned to 1 & 2 ( verses 1 & 3) as 1A-A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 S/G's, S/G's 1 & 3 are plausible as some ~'
train components are designed as 1 & 3 and student will have to remember which specific S/G's are fed by the 1A-A AFW pump start. The second half of this choice is incorrect as the start of the 1A-A MDAFW pump only isolates blowdown flow to 2 & 4 S/G's. It is plausible if the student cannot remember it blowdown outside isolation valves 1 & 3 are the only affected valves on a 1A-A MDAFW pump start with no phase A isolation.
D. Incorrect, AFWflow will be aligned to 1 & 2 (verses 1 & 3) as 1A-A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 S/G's, S/G's 1 & 3 are plausible as some
~' train components are designed as 1 & 3 and student will have to remember which specific S/G's are fed by the 1A-A AFWpump start. The second half of this choice is correct and helps making this choice plausible.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. In""",,ct, AFW flow will be aligned to 1 & 2 BS lA*A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 SlG's, since this first half of the distracter is COtTect n makes this choice plausible. The second ha" of this choice is Incorrect as the stsrt of the lA*A MDAFW pump only isolates blowdown flow to 2 & 4 S/G's, It ;s plausible if the student cannot remember it blowdown outside IsolaUon vBlves 1 & 3 are the only affected valves on a lA*A MDAFW pump start wnh no phase A iso/ation.
B. CORRECT, AFW flow will be aligned to 1 & 2 as lA*A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 SlG's and blowdown will isolate to SlG's 2 & 4 wnh the pump start leeving SGBD aligned to SlG's 1 & 3.
C. Incorrect, AFW now will be aligned to 1 & 2 (verses 1 & 3) as 1A*A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 SlG's, SlG's 1 & 3 are plausible as some 'A' trsin components are designed 8S 1 & 3 and student will have to remember which specific SlG's are fed by the lA*A AFW pump start. The second half of this choice is incorrect as the start of the lA*A MDAFW pump only isolates blowoown flow to 2 & 4 SlG's. It is plausible if the student cannot remember n blowdown outside isolation valves 1 & 3 are the only affacted valves on a lA*A MDAFW pump stsrt wnh no phase A isolation.
D. Incorrect, AFW flow will be sJigned to 1 & 2 (verses 1 & 3) as lA*A MDAFW pump supplies 1 & 2 SlG's, SlG's 1 & 3 are plausible as some
'A I train components are designed 8S 1 & 3 and student will have to remember which specifiC SlG's are fed by the lA*A AFW pump start. The second half of this choice is correct and helps making this choice plausible.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 47 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 061 K6.02 Auxiliary Feedwater System Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the AFW components: Pumps Importance Rating:
2.6/2.7 Technical
Reference:
1,2-47W803-2 Flow Diagram Auxiliary Feedwater 1,2-45N601-3, Main Steam System Schematic Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.AFW B.5.d Describe the operation of the AFW system How a component failure will affect system operation Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New_X __
Question History:
__ New ___ _
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 47 Tter 2 Group 1 KIA 061 K6.02 Auxiliary Feedwater System Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the AFW oomponents: Pumps Importance Rating:
2.6/2.7 Technical
Reference:
1,2-47W603-2 Flow Diagram Auxiliary Feedwater 1,2-45N601*3, Main Steam System Schematic Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.AFW B.5.d Describe the operation of the AFW system How 8 oomponent failure will affect system operation Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #.----
New _
X __
Question HiStory:
__ New, ___ _
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content (41.7/45.7) 10CFR55.43.b (nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 062 K2.01 048 Given the following:
Both Units operating at 100% RTP when a loss of offsite power occurs.
All systems respond as designed.
Which ONE of the following identifies the Control and Station Air Compressors that can be placed in service prior to an offsite power supply being restored?
At! Only A and B compressors B. Only A and 0 compressors C. Only Band C compressors D. Only C and 0 compressors DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Control Air Compressors A and B both feed from Unit 1 480v Shutdown Boards which would be receiving EDG power during the loss of offsite power.
B. Incorrect, Control Air Compressor A would have an available power supply but the D air compressor feeds from the 480v Turbine Building common board which would not have power until offsite power was restored.
Plausible because only 2 of the 4 air compressors would have an available power source and the applicant must recall which 2 are correct.
C. Incorrect, Control Air Compressors B would have an available power supply but the C air compressor feeds from the 480v Turbine Building common board which would not have power until off site power was restored. Plausible because only 2 of the 4 air compressors would have an available power source and the applicant must recall which 2 are correct.
D. Incorrect, Control Air Compressors C and D both feed from the 480v Turbine Building Common Board which would not have power until offsite power was restored. Plausible because only 2 of the 4 air compressors would have an available power source and the applicant must recall which 2 are correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 062 K2.01 048 Given the following:
Both Un~s operating at 100% RTP when a loss of offsite power occurs.
All systems respond as designed.
Which ONE of the following identifies the Control and Station Air Compressors that can be placed in service prior to an offs~e power supply being restored?
A'I Only A and B compressors B. Only A and 0 compressors C. Only Band C compressors D. Only C and 0 compressors DISTRACTQR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Control Air Compressors A and B both feed from Unn 1 48Qv Shutdown Boards which would be receiving EDG power during the loss of off site power.
B. Incorrect, Control Air Compressor A would have an aV8i1able power supply but the D air compressor feeds from the 480V Turbine Building common board which would not have power until offsite power was restored.
Plausibla because only 2 of the 4 air compressors would haV8 an available powar source and tha applicant must recall which 2 ara correct.
C. Incorrect, Control Air Compressors B would have an avai/ebla power supply but the C air compressor feads from tha 480v Turbine Building common board which would not have power until off site power was restored. Plausible because only 2 of the 4 air compressors would have an available power source and the applicant must recall which 2 ars correct.
D. InCOlTac1, Control Air Compressors C and D both fead from the 480v Turbine Building Common Board which would not have power until offsite power was restored. Plausible because only 2 of the 4 a;r compressors would hava an available power source and tha applicant must racall which 2 are correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 48 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 062 K2.01 A.C. Electrical Distribution Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:
Major system loads Importance Rating:
3.31 3.4 Technical
Reference:
AOP-P.01, Loss of Offsite Power, Rev 23 0-50-32-1 Att 1, Control Air System Power Checklist 0-32-1.01, 6/26/2007 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CSA B.4.b Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the CSA:
- b. Power supply (include control power as applicable)
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X'---_
Question History:
New Question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X, __
Comprehension or Analysis __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 48 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 062 K2.01 A.C. Electrical Distribution Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:
Major system loads Importanoe Rating:
3.3/3.4 Technical Referenoe: AOP-P.Ol. Loss of Offsite Power. Rev 23 0-50-32-I At! 1, Control Air System Power Checklist 0-32-1.01, 6/26/2007 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CSA B.4.b Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the CSA:
- b. Power supply (include control power as applicable)
Bank #
Modified Bank #----
New _X. __
Question History:
New Question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X, __
Comprehension or AnalysiS __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 063 A4.02 049 An equalizing charge has been started on the 250V DC Battery #1 in accordance with 0-PI-EBM-000-001.1, "Battery Equalize Charge."
Which ONE of the following is the expected voltage ("250V Battery Volts") and current response ("250V Battery Amps") on 1-M-1?
250V Battery Volts A.
higher than before start of charge B~ higher than before start of charge C.
the same as before start of charge D.
the same as before start of charge 250V Battery Amps would be indicating upscale from zero would be indicating downscale from zero would be indicating upscale from zero would be indicating downscale from zero QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 063 A4.02 049 An equalizing charge has been started on the 250V DC Battery #1 In accordance with 0-PI-EBM-OOO-001.1, "Battery Equalize Charge."
Which ONE of the following is the expected voltage ("250V Battery Volts") and current response ("250V Battery Amps") on 1-M-1?
250V Battery Volts A.
higher than before start of charge B~ higher than before start of charge C.
the same as before start of charge D.
the same as before start of charge 250V Battery Amps would be indicating upscale from zero would be indicating downscale from zero would be indicating upscale from zero would be Indicating downscale from zero
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, for an equalizing charge the battery terminal voltage is raised to drive electrolytic components plated out on the plates back into solution.
Current will respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by indicating downscale on the board amp meter. The first part of the distracter is plausible as it is correct. The second part is plausible as the examinee will need to reason which way current indicates if it is going int%ut of the battery.
B. CORRECT, for an equalizing charge the battery terminal voltage is raised to drive electrolytic components plated out on the plates back into solution. Current will respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by indicating downscale on the board amp meter.
C. Incorrect, for an equalizing charge the battery terminal voltage is raised to drive electrolytic components plated out on the plates back into solution.
Current will respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by indicating downscale on the board amp meter. The first part of the distracter is plausible as the examinee will need to reason out that an equalizing charge noticeably raises battery terminal voltage above "normal" standby voltage or remember from experience. The second part is plausible as the examinee will need to reason which way current indicates if it is going int%ut of the battery.
D. Incorrect, for an equalizing charge the battery terminal voltage is raised to drive electrolytic components plated out on the plates back into solution. Current will respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by indicating downscale on the board amp meter. The first part of the distracter is plausible as the examinee will need to reason out that an equalizing charge noticeably raises battery terminal voltage above "normal" standby voltage or remember from experience. The second part is plausible as it is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, for an equalizing charge the battery terminal voltage is raised to drive electrolytic components plated out on the plates back into solution.
Current will respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by indicating downscale on /he board amp meter. The r"st part of the distractsr is plausible as it ;s correct. The second part is plausible as the examinee will need to reason which way current indicates If it is going Intafout of the battery.
B. CORRECT, for an equalizing charge the battery terminal voftage is raised to drive electrolytic components plated out on the plates back into soluUon. Current wfff respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by Indicating downscale on the board amp meter.
C. Incorrect, for an equalizing charge /he battery terminal voltage is raIsed to drive electrolytic components plated out on the plates back into solution.
Current will respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by indicating downscale on the board amp meter. The first part of the distractsr is plausible as the examinee will need to reason out that an equalizing charge noticeably raises battery terminal voltage above -normal" standby voltage or remember from experience. The second part ;s plausible 8S the examinee will need to reason which way cutTent indicates if ff is going Intafout of the battery.
D. InCOtTect, for an equalizing charge the battery terminal voltage ;s raised to drive electrolytiC components plated out on /he plates back into solution. Current wiff respond by flowing into the battery and is reflected by indicating downscale on the board amp meter. The first part of the distracter is plausible as the examinee will need to reason out that an equalizing charge noticeably raises battery terminal voltage above
-normal-standby voltage or remember from experience. The second part ;s plausible as it ;s correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 49 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 063 A4.02 Ability to manually operate andlor monitor in the control room:
Battery voltage indicator Importance Rating:
2.8/2.9 Technical
Reference:
0-50-250-5,250 Volt DC Power System, Rev 26 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271.200 B.4.d,.e,.h Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the DC electrical systems: Normal operating parameters, component operation, instrumentation and indications.
Bank #
Modified Bank #~-:x:-:----
New ---
Question History: SQN question 063 A4.01 048 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 to 45.8 )
( nla )
Comments: Modified question by changing stem to have an equalizing battery charge in progress and added the voltmeter component to stem, answer and distracters.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 49 TIer 2 Group 1 KIA 063 M.02 Ability to manually operate andlor monitor in the control room:
Battery voltage indicator Importance Rating:
2.8/2.9 Technical
Reference:
0-50-250-5, 250 Volt DC Power System, Rev 26 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271.200 SA.d *. e.. h Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the DC electrical systems: Normal operating parameters, component operation, instrumentation and indications, Bank#_v-__
Modified Bank # _X, __
New __ _
Question History: SQN question 083 M.01 048 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 to 45.8 )
( nla)
Comments: Modified question by changing stem to have an equalizing battery charge in progress and added the voltmeter component to stem. answer and distracters.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 064 K4.03 050 Given the following:
Shutdown board 1 A-A is being supplied by OG 1 A-A following a blackout signal.
An operating crew is in the process of implementing EA-202-1, "Restoring Off-Site Power to 6900V Shutdown Boards," for shutdown board 1A-A.
Black-out Relays have been reset and the 6.9kV Unit Board 1 B synchronize switch to SYN position.
The synchroscope is rotating fast in the FAST direction.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the direction the speed control switch will initially have to be manipulated to establish conditions for closing Shutdown Board 1 A-A NOR supply breaker, and (2) the mode of speed control after the SO Bd 1A-A NOR supply breaker is closed in parallel with the diesel?
Art (1) lower (2) speed droop B. (1) lower (2) without speed droop C. (1) raise (2) speed droop D. (1) raise (2) without speed droop QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 064 K4.03 050 Given the following:
Shutdown board 1A-A is being supplied by OG 1 A-A following a blackout signal.
An operating crew is in the process of implementing EA-202-1, "Restoring Off-Site Power to 6900V Shutdown Boards," for shutdown board 1A-A.
Black-out Relays have been reset and the 6.9kV Unit Board 1 B synchronize switch to SYN position.
The synchroscope is rotating fast in the FAST direction.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the direction the speed control switch will initially have to be manipulated to establish conditions for closing Shutdown Board 1 A-A NOR supply breaker, and (2) the mode of speed control after the SO Bd 1A-A NOR supply breaker is closed in parallel with the diesel?
M (1) lower (2) speed droop B. (1) lower (2) without speed droop C. (1) raise (2) speed droop O. (1)raise (2) without speed droop
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Even though the grid would appear to be the incdming and the DG the running component, the DG is always incoming and therefore the DG will need its speed lowered by going to lower on the speed control switch to achieve slow in the FAST direction and after the breaker is closed the mode of speed control would be speed droop.
B. Incorrect, the DG will need its speed lowered by going to lower on the speed control switch to achieve slow in the FAST direction but after the breaker is closed the mode of speed control would not be without speed droop (isochronous.) It would be in speed droop. Plausible because the system would appear to be the incoming and the mode of speed control would be without speed droop (isochronous) prior to closing the: breaker.
C. Incorrect, the DG will need its speed lowered (not raised) by going to lower on the speed control switch to achieve slow in the FAST direction but after the breaker is closed the mode of speed control would be speed droop. Plausible because the system would appear to be the incoming and the mode of speed control is correct.
D. Incorrect, the DG will need its speed lowered (not raised) by going to lower on the speed control switch to achieve slow in the FAST direction and after the breaker is closed the mode of speed control would not be without speed droop (isochronous.) It would be speed droop. Plausible because the system would appear to be the incoming and the mode of speed control would be without speed droop (isochronous) prior to cloSing the breaker.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. CORRECT, Even though the grid would appear to be the incdming and the DG the running component, the DG ;s always incoming and therefore the DG will nBBd fts speed lowered by going to lower on the speed control switch to achieve slow in the FAST direction and after the breaker is closed tha mode of speed control would be speed droop.
- 8. Incorrect, the DG will need fts spBBd lowered by going to lower on the speed control swftch to achieve slow in the FAST direction but after the breaker is closed the mode of speed control would not be without speed droop (isochronous.) It would be in speed droop. Plausible because the system would appear to be the Incoming and the mode of speed control would be without speed droop (isochronous) prior to closing the,breaker.
C. Incorrect, the DG will need fts speed lowered (not raised) by going to lower on the speed control switch to achieve slow in the FAST direction but after the breaker is closed the mode of speed control would be speed droop. Plausible because the system would appear to be the incoming and the mode of speed control is COIT8Ct.
D. Incorrect, the DG will need fts speed lowered (not raised) by going to lower on the speed control swftch to achieve slow in the FAST direction and after the breaker Is closed the mode of speed control would not be wfthout speed droop (isochronous.) It would be speed droop. Plausible because the system would appear to be the incoming and the mode of speed control would be wfthout speed droop (isochronous) prior to closing the breaker.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 50 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 064 K4.03 Knowledge of ED/G system design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide the following: Governor valve operation Importance Rating:
2.5 I 3.0 Technical
Reference:
EA-202-1, Restoring Off-Site Power to 6900V Shutdown Boards, Rev. 9 1-45N767 -4, Wiring diagrams 6900V Diesel Generators, R21 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.DG B.4.f Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the Diesel Generator System: Controls Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X, __ _
New __ _
Question History:
Modified Sequoyah exam bank question D/G-B.9 002 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
( n/a )
Comments:
Changed stem initial conditions to have the DG parallel to the grid as "incoming". Added required knowledge of droop/isochronous to tie to design feature of diesel in how GVs are controlled in various modes.
Rewrote answer and distracters to reflect additional knowledge requirement. Relocated correct answer.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 50 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 064 K4.03 Knowledge of EDIG system design feature(s) andlor interlock(s) which provide the following: Governor valve operation Importance Rating:
2.513.0 Technical
Reference:
EA-202-1. RestOring Off-Site Power to 6900V Shutdown Boands. Rev. g 1-45N767 -4. Wiring diagrams 6900V Diesel Generators. R21 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.DG B.4.f Question Source:
Oesaibe the following items for each major component in the Diesel Generator System: Controls Bank # -,,,-__
Modified Bank # _X __
New __
Question History:
Modified Sequoyah exam bank question DIG-B.9 002 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
10CFR55.43.b (nla )
Comments:
Changed stem Initial conditions to have the DG parallel to the grid as "incoming". Added required knowledge of drooplisochronous to tie to design feature of diesel in how GVs are controlled in various modes.
Rewrote answer and distracters to reflect additional knowledge requirement. Relocated oorrect answer.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 073 A2.01 051 Given the following:
Unit 1 is at 100% RTP.
Alarm "0-RA-90-212B STA SUMP DISCH INSTR MALFUNC" annunciates.
In accordance with the Annunciator Response, which ONE of the following is a condition that would cause the alarm and mitigating action required?
Cause A't Loss of power to the radiation monitor B. Loss of power to the radiation monitor C. High flow through the radiation monitor D. High flow through the radiation monitor Mitigating Action Release can continue, but ODCM actions for sampling must be implemented.
Release will automatically terminate, and cannot be restated until ODCM actions for sampling are implemented.
Release can continue, but ODCM actions for sampling must be implemented.
Release will automatically terminate, and cannot be restated until ODCM actions for samp1ing are implemented.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 073 A2.01 OS I Given the following:
Unit 1 Is at 100% RTP.
Alarm *0-RA-90-212B STA SUMP DISCH INSTR MALFUNC*
annunciates.
In accordance with the Annunciator Response, which ONE of the following is a condition that would cause the alarm and mitigating action required?
Cause A~ Loss of power to the radiation monitor B. Loss of power to the radiation monitor C. High flow through the radiation monitor D. High flow through the radiation monitor MItigating Action Release can continue, but ODCM actions for sampling must be implemented.
Release will automatically terminate, and cannot be restated until ODCM actions for sampliog are implemented.
Release can continue, but ODCM actions for sampling must be implemented.
Release will automatically terminate, and cannot be restated until ODCM actions for sampling are Implemented.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Loss of power to the monitor will cause the instrument malfunction alarm and the release could continue with sampling performed as required by the ODCM.
B. Incorrect, A loss of power to the monitor would cause the malfunction alarm but the release is not automatically terminated by an instrument malfunction. Plausible because loss of power causing an instrument malfunction alarm is correct and some radiation releases do automatically terminate on instrument malfunctions.
C. Incorrect, A low flow through the monitor would cause the malfunction alarm but not a high flow but the release can continue provided ODCM required actions are implemented. Plausible because flow does cause a instrument malfunction alarm but it is low flow not high flow and the release continuing with sampling performed as required by the ODCM is correct.
D. Incorrect, A low flow through the monitor would cause the malfunction alarm but not a high flow and the release is not automatically terminated by an instrument malfunction. Plausible because flow does cause an instrument malfunction alarm but it is low flow not high flow and some radiation releases do automatically terminate on instrument malfunctions.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTBACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. CORRECT, Loss of power to the manfter will cause the instrument malfunction alarm and the release could continue with sampling performed es required by the ODCM.
B. Incorrect, A loss of power to the monitor would CBuse the malfunction alarm but the release is not automatically terminated by an Instrument malfunction. Plausible because Joss of power causing an instrument malfunction alarm is COfTect and some radiation releases do automatically terminate on instrument malfunctions.
C. Incorrect, A low flow through the monitor would cause the malfunction a/arm but not 8 high flow but the release can continue provided aDeM required actions are implemented. Plausible because flow does cause 8 instrumant malfunction alarm but it is low flow not high flow and the release continuing wfth sampling performed as required by the ODCM is correct.
D. Incorrect, A low "ow through the manfter would ceuse the malfunction alarm but not B high flow and the release is not automatically terminated by an instrument malfunction. Plausible because flow does cause an instrument malfunction alarm but it is low flow not high flow and some radiation releases do automatically terminate on instrument malfunctions.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 51 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 073 A2.01 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the PRM system; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
Erratic or failed power supply Importance Rating:
2.51 2.9*
Technical
Reference:
0-AR-M12A, Unit 1 and Common Radiation Monitor 0-XA-55-12A, Rev 5 SQN ODCM, Offsite Dose Calculation Manual, Rev 55 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RM B.5.c Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Radiation Monitoring System:
- c. Alarms and alarm response Bank # ____ --
Modified Bank # _X, __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question 073 A2.01 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/43.5/45.3/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question 073 A2.01 001 modified.
Relocated correct answer, Changed Rad Monitor in the stem to a monitor not having an automatic isolation.
Change the Mitigating Actions in the correct answer and each of the distracters.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Relake Exam Questions Question No. 51 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 073 A2.01 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following ma~unctions or operations on the PRM system; and (b) based on thosa predictions, use proceduras to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
Erratic or failed power supply Importance Rating:
2.5/2.9' Technical
Reference:
O-AR-M12A. Unit 1 and Common Radiation Monitor 0-XA-55-12A, Rev 5 SON ODCM, Offsite Dose Calculation Manual, Rev 55 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RM B.5.c Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Radiation Monitoring System:
- c. AJarms and alarm response Bank #
Modified Benk #-=--_"""'X.,--
New __
Ouestion History:
SON bank question 073 A2.01 001 modified Ouestion Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Anatysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/43.5/45.3/45.13 )
10CFR55.43.b (n/a )
Comments: SON bank question 073 A2.01 001 modified.
Relocated correct answer, Changed Rad Monitor in the stem to a monitor not having an automatic isolation.
Change the Mitigating Actions in the corract answer and each of the distracters.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 07610.02 052 Given the following plant conditions:
Unit #1 is operating at 100%.
All systems aligned normal.
Loss of ERCW Supply header 2A occurs due to a rupture in the yard.
Which ONE of the following conditions would result from the loss of the ERCW Supply Header 2A? (Assume no operator actions).
A. Loss of cooling to Main Control Room Chiller A.
B. Loss of cooling to Shutdown Board Room Chiller A.
C. Increasing temperature on Control and Station Air Compressors.
D~ Increasing level in Component Cooling Water (CCS) surge tank.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incon-ect, Main Control Room Chiller A is supplied from ERCW Header 1A and would not be affected. Plausible because if the 1A header had been lost the Chiller cooling would have been affected.
B. Incon-ect, Shutdown Board Room Chiller A is supplied from ERCW Header 1A and would not be affected. Plausible because if the 1A header had been lost the Chiller cooling would have been affected.
C. Incon-ect, Control and Station Air compressor cooling was changed from ERCW to RCW during a plant modification in 2008 and would not be affected. Plausible because the cooling for the air compressors previously was from ERCW.
D. CORRECT, ERCW header 2A supplies the cooling water to the ~' CCS heat exchanger which cools Unit 1 CCS Train A. the loss of cooling to the
~' CCS heat exchanger would cause a heatup of Unit 1 ~' CCS train and expansion into the surge tank.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 0761O.02 0S2 Given the following plant conditions:
Unit #1 is operating at 100%.
All systems aligned normal.
Loss of ERCW Supply header 2A occurs due to a rupture in the yard.
Which ONE of the following conditions would result from the loss of the ERCW Supply Header 2A? (Assume no operator actions).
A. Loss of cooling to Main Control Room Chiller A.
B. Loss of cooling to Shutdown Board Room Chiller A.
C. Increasing temperature on Control and Station Air Compressors.
Dl'lncreasing level in Component Cooling Water (CCS) surge tank..
DIS TRACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. InCOfTeet, Main Control Room Chiller A is supplied from ERCW Header 1A and would not be affected. Plausible because if the 1A header had been lost the Chiller cooling would have been affeeted.
B. Incorrect, Shutdown Board Room Chiller A is supplied from ERCW Haader 1A and would not be affeeted. Plausible because if the 1A header had been lost the Chiller cooling would have been affected.
C. Incorrect, Control and Station Air compressor cooling was changed from ERCW to RCW during a plant modification in 2008 and would not be affected. Plausible because the cooling for the air compressors previously was from ERCW.
D. CORRECT, ERCW header 2A supplies the cooling water to the 'A' CCS heat exchanger which cools Una 1 CCS Train A. the loss of cooling to the
'A' CCS heat exchanger would cause a heatup of Una 1 'A' CCS train and expansion into the surge tank.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 52 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 076 K3.02 Service Water System (SWS)
Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the SWS will have on the following:
Secondary closed cooling water Importance Rating:
2.5* I 2.8*
Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.01, Loss of Essential Raw Cooling Water, Rev 20 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CCS B.5.e Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Component Cooling Water System:
- e. How a support system failure will effect Component Cooling Water System operation.
Bank # -----::-:--__
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question CCS-B.9.A 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.6) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question CCS-B.9.A 002 modified, Relocated correct answer, Modified all distracters and reworded correct answer, Minor wording changes in question stem QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 52 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 076 K3.02 Service Water System (SWS)
Knowledge of the errect that a loss or malfunction of the SWS will have on the following:
Secondary closed cooling water Importance Rating:
2.5' /2.8' Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.01, Loss of Essential Raw Cooling Water, Rev 20 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leamlng Objective:
OPT200.CCS B.5.e Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Component Cooling Water System:
- e. How a support system failure will errect Component Cooling Water System operation.
Bank #
Modified Bank #-=...'X----
New __
Question History:
SQN bank question CCS-B.9.A 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.6 )
( nla)
Comments: SQN bank question CCS-B.9.A 002 modified, Relocated correct answer, Modified all distracters and reworded correct answer, Minor wording changes in question stem
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 076 K4.03 053 Given the following plant conditions and information:
Unit 1 was operating at 100% power.
Both of the following valves are in the full open position.
1-FCV-67-146, RCCS HX 1A1 & 1A2 Outlet to Disch Hdr B."
0-FCV-67-152, RCCS HX OB1 & OB2 Outletto Disch Hdr B."
Which ONE of the following identifies how the position of the listed CCS heat exchanger ERCW outlet valves will be affected by a Unit 1 Safety Injection signal?
0-FCV-67-152...
1-FCV-67-146...
A. remains in full open position.
remains in full open position.
B. remains in full open position.
is positioned to the 35% position.
C" is positioned to the 35% position.
remains in full open position.
D. is positioned to the 35% position.
is positioned to the 35% position.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 076 K4.03 053 Given the following plant conditions and information:
Unit 1 was operating at 100'10 power.
Both of the following valves are in the full open position.
1-FCV-67-146. "CCS HX 1A1 & 1A2 Oulletto Disch Hdr B."
0-FCV-67-152. "CCS HX OB1 & OB2 Oullet to Disch Hdr B."
Which ONE of the following identifies how the position of the listed CCS heat exchanger ERCW outlet valves will be affected by a Unit 1 Safety Injection signal?
G-FCV-67-152...
1-FCV-67-146...
A. remains in full open position.
remains in full open position.
B. remains in full open position.
is positioned to the 35'10 position.
Cl' is positioned to the 35'10 position.
remains in full open poSition.
D. is positioned to the 35'10 position.
Is positioned to the 35'10 position.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, 0-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open position for an SI signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and CCS system back pressure for the B train ESF equipment for the accident unit.
1-FCV-67-146 remains in it's current position until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1.
B. Incorrect, 0-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open position for an SI signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and CCS system back pressure for the B train ESF equipment for the accident unit.
1-FCV-67-146 remains in it's current position until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1.
C. Incorrect, 0-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open position for an SI signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and CCS system back pressure for the B train ESF equipment for the accident unit.
1-FCV-67-146 remains in it's current position until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1. Each of these valves may be positioned manually from 0-M-27 to closed, 35% open, 50% open and 100% open. Full open is the preferred position in accordance with 0-SO-67-1.
D. Incorrect, 0-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open pOSition for an SI signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and CCS system back pressure for the B train ESF equipment for the accident unit.
1-FCV-67-146 remains in it's current position until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, O-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open posffion for an Sf signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and CCS system backpressure for the B train ESF equipment for the accident unff.
l-FCV-67-146 remains in ft's current posffion until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1.
B. Incorrect, O-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open position for an SI signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and CCS system backpressure for the B train ESF equipment for the accident unit.
1-FCV-67-146 remains in it's current position until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1.
C. lncorrect, O-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open pOSition for an SI signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and ecs system backpressure for the B train ESF equipment for the accident unff.
1-FCV-67-146 remains in it's current position until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1. Each of these valves may be positioned manually from O-M-27 to closed, 35% open, 50% open and 100"16 open. Full open is the preferred posffion in accordanca wffh 0-50-67-1.
D. Incorrect, O-FCV-67-152 automatically goes to the 35% open posffion for an SI signal on either unit. This ensures adequate flow and CCS system backpressure for tha B train ESF equipment for the accident unff.
1-FCV-67-146 remains in it's current position until manually realigned as directed by EA-67-1.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 53 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 076 K4.03 Service Water System (SWS)
Knowledge of SWS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:
Automatic opening features associated with SWS isolation valves to CCW heat exchanges Importance Rating:
2.9* / 3.4*
Technical
Reference:
0-S0-67-1, Essential Raw Cooling Water, Rev 80 1,2-47W611-99-3 R11 1,2-47W611-67-5 R35 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.ERCW, B.4.d,.e, &.f Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the ERCW system:
- d. Normal operating parameters e.Component operation
- f. Controls Bank # _X, __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
\\
SQN question ERCW-B-9.E 003 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41/7 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN Bank question with wording/format changes.
Relocated correct answer QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 53 TIer 2 Group 1 KIA 076 K4.03 Service Water System (SWS)
Knowledge of SWS design feature(s) andlor interlock(s) which provide for the following:
Automatic opening features assoclated with SWS isolation valves to CCW heat exchanges Importance Rating:
2.9' 13.4' Technical
Reference:
0-SO~7-1. Essential Raw Cooling Water. Rev 80 1,2-47W611-99-3 Rll 1,2-47W611~7-5 R35 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.ERCW, BAd,.e, &.f Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the ERCW system:
- d. Normal operating parameters
- e. Component operation
- f. Controls Bank#_X Modified Bank #
New __
Question History:
SQN question ERCW-B-9.E 003 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(4117 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN Bank question with wording/format changes.
Relocated correct answer
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 078 G2.2.38 054 Given the following:
Both Units operating at 100% power.
A problem with the control air system results in decreasing pressure on Train A essential air header.
Which ONE of the following identifies the decreasing air pressure on the Train A header where--.equipment supported by Aux Air would be considered to be INOPERABLE?
A. 78 psig B. 74 psig C~ 70 psig D. 66 psig DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, 70 psig not 78 psig is the pressure where equipment supported by aux air is to be considered inoperable. Plausible because 78 psig is below the pressure where the Aux air compressors auto load if running.
B. Incorrect, 70 psig not 74 psig is the pressure where equipment supported by aux air is to be considered inoperable. Plausible because 74 psig is below the pressure where the Aux air compressors auto start.
C. CORRECT, aux air pressure of 70 psig is identified in the Annunciator Response Procedures and in AOP-M.02 as the pressure where equipment supported by aux air is to be considered inoperable.
D. Incorrect, 70 pSig not 66 psig is the pressure where equipment supported by aux air is to be considered inoperable. Plausible because 66 psig is below the pressure where the Aux air auto isolates from control air.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Relake Exam Questions 078 0 2.2.38 054 Given the following:
Both Units operating at 100% power.
A problem wHh the control air system resutts In decreasing pressure on Train A essential air header.
Which ONE of the following identifies the decreasing air pressure on the Train A header where~equipment supported by Aux Air would be considered to be INOPERABLE?
A. 78 psig B. 74 psig C~ 70 psig D. 66 psig DIS TRACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. Incorrect, 70 psig not 78 psig is the pressure where equipment supported by aux air is to be considered inoperable. Plausible because 78 psig is be/ow the pressure where the AUK air compressors auto load if running.
B. Incorrect, 70 psig not 74 psig is the pressure where equipment supported by aux air is to be considered inoperable. Plausible because 74 psig is below the pressure where the AUK air compressors auto start.
C. CORRECT, awe air pressure of 70 psig is identified in the Annunciator Response Procedures and In AOP-M.02 as the pressure where equipment supported by aUK air is to be considered inoperable.
D. Incorrect, 70 psig not 66 psig is the pressure where equipment supported by aUK air is to be considered inoperable. Plausible because 66 psig is below the pressure where the AUK air auto isolates from control air.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 54 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 078 G2.2.38 Instrument Air System (lAS)
Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.
Importance Rating:
3.6 I 4.5 Technical
Reference:
1-AR-M15-B, Miscellaneous 1-XA-55-15-B, Rev. 27 AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev. 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CSA B.6.a Question Source:
Describe the administrative controls and limits for the CSA:
- a. State Tech SpeclTRM LCOs that govern the CSA.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7 I 41.10 I 43.1 145.13 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 54 Tier 2 Group 1 KiA 078 G2.2.38 Instrument Air System (lAS)
Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.
Importance Rating:
3.614.5 Technical
Reference:
1-AR-Ml5-B, Miscellaneous1-XA-55-15-B, Rev. 27 AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev. 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CSA B.6.a Question Source:
Describe the administrative controls and limits for the CSA:
- s. Slate Tech SpeclTRM LCOs that govern the CSA.
Bank #
Modified Bank #.----
New _x __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamenlal knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7141.10143.1145.13) 10CFR55.43.b (nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 103 K1.03 055 Which ONE of the following identifies two ventilation system fans that can exhaust out one of the Shield Building Exhaust Vents?
A. EGTS Fans and Annulus Vacuum Control Fans B~ EGTS Fans and Containment Purge Exhaust Fans C. Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans and Annulus Vacuum Control Fans D. Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans and Containment Purge Exhaust Fans DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, EGTS Fans can exhaust out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents but Annulus Vacuum Control Fans exhaust out the Auxiliary Building Vent.
Plausible because the EGTS Fans can exhausting out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents is correct and the annulus vacuum fans perform the same function of maintaining differential pressure between the containment and the annulus, only they run during normal operation and are isolated when the EGTS cleanup fans start.
B. CORRECT, the EGTS Fans and Containment Purge Exhaust Fans can exhaust out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents. The Containment Purge Exhaust Fans only exhaust through the Shield Building Exhaust Vent for the applicable unit. The EGTS Fans discharge to a Shield Building Exhaust Vent or recirculation back to the containment annulus depending on differential pressure.
C. Incorrect, Both the Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans and Annulus Vacuum Control Fans exhaust out the Auxiliary Building Vent. Plausible because the Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans are moving air that has the potential to have radioactivity and the annulus vacuum fans perform the same function of maintaining differential pressure between the containment and the annulus, only they run during normal operation and are isolated when the EGTS cleanup fans start.
D. Incorrect, Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans exhaust out the Auxiliary Building Vent (not the shield building vent) but Containment Purge Exhaust Fans do exhaust out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents. Plausible because the Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans are moving air that has the potential to have radioactivity and the Containment Purge Exhaust Fans exhausting out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 103 KI.03 055 Which ONE of the following identifies two ventilation system fans that can exhaust oUl one of the Shield Building Exhaust Vents?
A. EGTS Fans and Annulus Vacuum Control Fans B~ EGTS Fans and Containment Purge Exhaust Fans C. Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans and Annulus Vacuum Control Fans D. Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans and Containment Purge Exhaust Fans OISTRACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. Incorrect, EGTS Fans can exhaust out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents but Annulus Vacuum Control Fans exhaust out the Auxiliary Building Vent.
Plausible because the EGTS Fans can exhausting out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents is correct and the annulus vacuum fans perform the same function of maintaining differential pressure between the containment and the annulus, only they run during normal operation and are isolated when the EGTS cleanup fans start.
B. CORRECT, the EGTS Fans and Containment Purge Exhaust Fans can exhaust out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents. The Containment Purge Exhaust Fans only exhaust through the Shield Building Exhaust Vent for the applicable unit. The EGTS Fans discharge to a Shield Building Exhaust Vent or recirculation back to the containment annulus depending on differential pressure.
C. Incorrect, Both the Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans and Annulus Vacuum Control Fans exhaust out the Auxiliary Building Vent. Plausible because the Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans are moving air that has the potential to have radioactivity and the annulus vacuum fans perform the same function of maintaining differential pressure between the containment and the annulus, only they run during normal operation and are Isolated when the EGTS cleanup fans start.
D. Incorrect, Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans exhaust out the Auxifiary BuildIng Vent (not the shield building vent) but Containment Purge Exhaust Fans do exhaust out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents. Plausible because tha Fuel Handling Exhaust Fans a", moving air that has the potential to have radioactivity and the Containment Purge Exhaust Fans exhausting out the Shield Building Exhaust Vents Is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 55 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 103 K1.03 Containment System Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the containment system and the following systems:
Shield building vent system Importance Rating:
3.1 * / 3.5*
Technical
Reference:
1-47W866-1 R38 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CONTPURGE B.3 Question Source:
Explain the purpose/function of each major component in the flow path of the containment purge system as illustrated on a simplified system drawing.
OPT200.EGTS B.3 Explain the purpose/function of each major component in the flow path of the EGTS as illustrated on a simplified system drawing.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.2 to 41.9/45.7 to 45.8) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments: New question QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 55 Tier 2 Group 1 KIA 103K1.03 Containment System Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the containment system and the following systems:
Shield building vent system Importance Rating:
3.1' /3.5' Technical
Reference:
1-47W866-1 R38 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CONTPURGE B.3 Question Source:
Explain the purposelfunction of each major component In the flow path of the containment purge system as Illustrated on a simplified system drawing.
OPT200.EGTS B.3 Explain the purpose/function of each major component In the flow path of the EGTS as illustrated on a simplified system drawing.
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # -::-__
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.2 to 41.9/45.7 to 45.8) 10CFR55.43.b (nla)
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 011 A1.03 056 Given the following:
Unit 2 is at 100% power.
All systems are normally aligned.
2-XS-68-330E, "Level Control Channel Selector" is in the L T 339 &
335 position.
VCT level is at 38%
Pressurizer level transmitter 2-L T 339 loses the level in its reference leg.
No ESF actuations occur as a result of the reference leg leak.
If the operating crew takes no action, which ONE of the following describes how the VCT level will respond throughout the event?
The VCT level will...
A. rise and be maintained between 63% and 93%.
B. drop, then be maintained between 20% and 41 %.
C'" rise to between 63% and 93%, then drop and be maintained between 20%
and 41%.
D. drop to 7%, cause charging pump suction to transfer to the RWST, and remain low.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 011 A1.03 056 Given the following:
UnH 2 is at 100% power.
All systems are normally aligned.
2-XS-68-330E, "Level Control Channel Selector" is in the L T 339 &
335 pos~ion.
VCT level is at 38%
Pressurizer level transmitter 2-L T 339 loses the level in ~s reference leg.
No ESF actuations occur as a result of the reference leg leak.
If the operating crew takes no action, which ONE of the following describes how the VCT level will respond throughout the event?
The VCT level will...
A. rise and be maintained between 63% and 93%.
B. drop, then be maintained between 20% and 41 %.
C~ ri.... to between 63% and 93%, then drop and be maintained between 20%
and 41%.
D. drop to 7%, cause charging pump suction to transfer to the RWST, and remain low.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, VCT level will rise and start to divert as level reaches 63%, but with the pressurizer level dropping letdown will isolate. This causes the VCT to start dropping the divert valve to close. Plausible because the VCT level rising and causing the divert valve to open is correct but due to the isolation of letdown the level will not be maintained in the divert valve range.
B. Incorrect, VCT level will rise, not drop. Plausible because the effect on the level transmitter due to the loss of the reference leg could be reversed, making the pressurizer level indicate low and increasing charging flow which would cause VCT level to drop. The automatic makeup would then maintain VCT level between 20-41%.
C. CORRECT, Loss of the reference leg will cause the level transmitter to indicate high. This transmitter is the controlling level transmitter, thus charging will decrease to minimum. Letdown remaining the same will cause the VCT level to rise and be controlled between 63-93% by the divert valve. With reduced charging, the pressurizer level will decrease until letdown isolates causing the VCT level to start dropping. The VCT level will then be controlled by auto makeup between 20-41% band.
D. Incorrect, VCT level will rise, not drop. Plausible because the effect on the level transmitter due to the loss of the reference leg could be reversed, making pressurizer level indicate low and increasing charging flow which would cause VCT level to drop. 7% is plausible because 7% is the set point where the charging pump suction is swapped to the RWST.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, VCT level will rise and start to divert as level raaches 63%, but with the pressurizer level dropping letdown will isolate. This causes the VCT to stert dropping the divert valve to close. Plausible beceuse the VCT level rising and causing the divert valvB to open ;s correct but due to the isolation of letdown the level will not be maintained in the divert valve range.
B. Incorrect, VCT level will rise, not drop. Plausible beceuse the effect on the level transmitter due to the loss of the reference leg could be reversed, making the pressurizer level indicate low and increasing charging flow which would cause VCT level to drop. The automatic makeup would then maintein VCT level belween 20-41%.
C. CORRECT, Loss of the reference leg will ceuse the level trsnsmi/ter to indicate high. This trsnsmi/ter is the controlling level transmitter, thus charging will decrease to minimum. Letdown remaining the same will ceuse the VCT level to rise and be controlled belwaen 63-93% by the divert valVe. With reduced charging, the pressurizer level will decrease until letdown Isolates ceusing the VCT level to start dropping. The VCT level will then be controlled by auto makeup belween 20-41% bend.
D. Incorrect, VCT level will rise, not drop. Plausible beceuse the effeet on the level trsnsmi/ter due to the loss of the referance leg could be reversed, making pressurizer level indicate low and increasing charging flow which would cause VCT level to drop. 7"/0 Is plausible beceuse 7% is the setpoint whera tha charging pump suction is swapped to the RWST.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 56 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 011 A1.03 Pressurizer Level Control System (PZR LCS)
Ability to predict andlor monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the PZR LCS controls including:
VCTlevel Importance Rating:
3.1 13.3 Technical
Reference:
AOP-I.04, Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200PZRLCS B.5,t Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Pressurizer Level Control System as it relates to the following:
- f. How a instrument failure will affect system operation Bank # _X'--__
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
Braidwood question 011 OOOA 1.03 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/45.5 )
( nla )
Comments: Braidwood 2006 exam QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 56 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 011 Al.03 Pressurizer Level Control System (PZR LCS)
Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the PZR LCS controls including:
VCT level Importance Rating:
3.1 13.3 Technlcel
Reference:
AOP-I.04, Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions, Rev 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200PZRLCS B.5.1 Question Source:
Oescribe the operation of the Pressurizer Level Control System as ij relates to the following:
- f. How a instrument failure will affect system operation Bank#_X Modified Bank #
New __
Question History:
Braidwood question 011000Al.03 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5145.5 )
10CFR55.43.b (nla )
Comments: Braidwood 2006 exam
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 015 K2.01 057 Given the following:
Unit 1 startup in progress.
Reactor is critical in the source range.
Intennediate Range monitors read 2 X 10-5% power.
120VAC Vital Instrument Power Board 1-11 is deenergized.
Which ONE of the following describes effects associated with the loss of the instrument power board?
A. Reactor remains critical - Only one SRM is energized.
B. Reactor remains critical - Both SRMs remain energized.
C~ Reactor trips - Only one SRM is energized.
D. Reactor trips - Both SRMs remain energized.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Only one SRM would be energized but the reactor would trip due to NI-32 failure. Plausible because if the failure had been a different Instrument Power Board, the reactor could have remained critical and the failure would have been different on the SRMs.
I~J.*
,\\
B. Incorrect, The reactor would trip due to NI-32 failure and only one source range monitor would be energized. Plausible because if the failure had been a different Instrument Power Board, the reactor could have remained critical and the failure would have been different on the SRMs.
C. CORRECT, NI-32 and NI-36 would fail causing bistables to trip.
Failure of either one of these instruments would cause a reactor trip with the reactor power was stated in the question and with NI-32 failed, only SR instrument NI-31 would be energized D. Incorrect, The reactor tripping is correct but due to NI-32 losing power but only one source range monitor would be energized.
Plausible because the failure does result in the reactor tripping and the failure would have been different on the SRMs.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Relake Exam Questions 015 1(2,01 057 Given the following:
Unit 1 startup in progress.
Reactor is critical in the source range.
Intennediate Range monnors read 2 X 10"% power.
120VAC Vital Instrument Power Board 1-11 is deenergized.
Which ONE of the following describes effects associated with the loss of the instrument power board?
A. Reactor remains critical
- Only one SRM is energized.
B. Reactor remains critical - Both SRMs remain energized.
C~ Reactor trips - Only one SRM is energized.
D. Reactor trips - Both SRMs remain energized.
DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. InCOlT6ct, Only one SRM would be energized but the reactor would trip due to NI-32 failure. Plausible because if the failure had been a different Instrument Power Board, the reactor could have remained critical and the failure would have been different on the SRMs. "',
B. InCOlT6ct, The reactor would trip due to NI-32 failure and only one source range monitor would be energized. Plausible because if the failure had been a different Instrument Power Board, the reactor could have remained critical and the failure would have been different on the SRMs.
C. CORRECT, NI-32 and N/-36 would fail causing bistables to trip.
Failure of either one of these instruments would cause a reactor trip with the reactor power was stated in the question and with N/*32 failed, only SR instrument NI-31 would be energized D. InCOlT6ct, The reactor tripping is COIT6ct but due to NI-32 losing power but only one source range monitor would be energized.
Plausible because the failure does result in the reactor tripping and the failure would have been different on the SRMs.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 57 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 015 K2.01 Nuclear Instrumentation System Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:
NIS channels, components, and interconnections Importance Rating:
3.3 I 3.7 Technical
Reference:
AOP-1.01, Nuclear Instrument Malfunction, Rev. 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.NIS B.4.b,.i &.j Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the NIS system:
- b. Power Supply
- i. Protective Features
- j. Failure modes Bank # _X, __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
Cook Exam Bank 2004 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundam~ntal knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 57 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 015 K2.01 Nuclear Instrumentation System Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:
NIS channels, components, and interconnections Importance Rating:
3.3/3.7 Technical
Reference:
AOP-I.OI, Nuclear Instrument Ma~unction, Rev. 9 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.NIS B.4.b,.i &.j Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the NIS system:
- b. Power Supply
- i. Protective Features
- j. Failure modes Bank#_X Modified Bank #
New __
Question History:
Cook Exam Bank 2004 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7)
IOCFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 028 K.3.01 058 Given the following:
Unit 1 operating at 100% RTP when a large break LOCA occurs.
Offsite power is lost following the accident and Diesel Generator 1 B-B fails to start.
While performing FR-Z.1, "High Containment Pressure", the crew places Hydrogen Recombiner "A" in service and the recombiner stabilizes at an operating temperature of 700°F.
When Train B shutdown boards are restored, the containment hydrogen concentration is 1.2%
Which ONE of the following identifies the status of Hydrogen Recombiner A and the correct action relative to placing Hydrogen Recombiner B in service?
Hydrogen Recombiner A operating temperature is. "
Art below the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
B. below the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
C. within the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
D. within the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
Hydrogen Recombiner B can be placed in service...
with the current conditions.
ONLY if containment hydrogen.
concentration is reduced to <0.5%
with the current conditions.
ONLY if containment hydrogen.
concentration is reduced to <0.5%
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 02810.01 058 Given the following:
Unit 1 operating at 100% RTP when a large break LOCA occurs.
Offs~e power is lost following the accident and Diesel Generator 1 B-B fails to start.
While perfonning FR-Z.1, "High Containment Pressure', the crew places Hydrogen Recombiner "A' in service and the recombiner stabilizes at an operating temperature of 700"F.
When Train B shutdown boards are restored, the containment hydrogen concentration is 1.2%
Which ONE of the following identifies the status of Hydrogen Recombiner A and the correct action relative to placing Hydrogen Recombiner B in service?
Hydrogen Recombiner A operating temperature is...
A~ below the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
B. below the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
C. ~hin the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
D. within the range to cause oxygen &
hydrogen recombination.
J Hydrogen Recombiner B can be placed in service...
~h the current cond~ions.
ONLY if containment hydrogen.
concentration is reduced to <0.5%
~h the current cond~ions.
ONLY if containment hydrogen.
concentration is reduced to <0.5%
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Recombiner~' is operating below the 1150°F to 1400°F range where the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur and Recombiner
'B' can be placed in service with the current hydrogen concentration.
B. Incorrect, Recombiner~' is operating below the 1150°F to 1400°F range where the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur but Recombiner
'B' can be placed in service without reducing the current hydrogen concentration. Plausible because the recombiner operating below the temperature range is correct and the 0.5% hydrogen concentration is the minimum to direct placing the recombiners in service.
C. Incorrect, Recombiner ~' is not operating in the range of 1150°F to 1400°F range where the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur but Recombiner 'B' can be placed in service with the current hydrogen concentration. Plausible because the recombiner is operating at an elevated temperature that appears in the procedure and placing Recombiner 'B'in service with the current hydrogen concentration is correct.
D. Incorrect, Recombiner~' is not operating in the range of 1150°F to 1400°F range where the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur but Recombiner 'B' can be placed in service without reducing the current hydrogen concentration. Plausible because the recombiner is operating at an elevated temperature that appears in the procedure but still below the temperature range and the 0.5% hydrogen concentration is the minimum to direct placing the recombiners in service.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Recombiner 'A' is operating below the 1150'F to 1400'F range where the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur and Recombiner
'B' can be placed in service with the current hydrogen concentration.
B. Incorrect, Recombiner 'A' is operating below the 1150'F to 1400'F range where the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur but Recombine,
'B' can be placed in service wfthout raducing the current hydrogen concentration. Plausible because the recomblner operating be/ow the temperature range is correct and the 0.5% hydrogen concentration is the minimum to direct placing the recombiners in service.
C. Incorrect, Recombiner 'A' is not operating in the range of 1150'F /0 1400'F range where the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur but Recombiner 'B' can be placed in service wfth the current hydrogen concentration. Plausible because the recombiner Is operating at an elevated temperature that appears in the procedure and placing Recombiner 'B' in service with the cunent hydrogen concentration ;s correct.
D. Incorrect, Recombiner 'A' is not operating in the range of 1150'F to 1400'F range whera the recombination of hydrogen and oxygen occur but Recombinef 'S' can be placed in service without reducing the current hydrogen concentration. Plausible because the recombiner is operating at an elevated temperature that appears in the procedure but still below the temperature range and the 0.5% hydrogen concentration is the minimum to direct placing the recombiners in service.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 58 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 028 K3.01 Hydrogen Recombiner and Purg4FControl System (HRPS)
Knowledge of the effect tt1~t a loss or malfunction of the HRPS will have on the following:
Hydrogen concentration in containment Importance Rating:
3.3 I 4.0 Technical
Reference:
FR-Z.1, High Containment Pressure, Rev. 18 0-PI-OPS-083-151.A, Testing Hydrogen Recombiner System Train A, Rev 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.CGCS B.4.d Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Combustible Gas Control System
- d. Normal operating parameters Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X'---_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7/45.6) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments:
Question No. 58 TIer 2 Group 2 KJA 028 K3.01 QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Hydrogen Recombiner and Purg....control System (HRPS)
Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the HRPS will have on the following:
Hydrogen concentration in containment Importance Rating:
3.3/4.0 Technical
Reference:
FR-Z.I, High Containment Pressure, Rev. 18 0-PI-OPS-083-151.A, Testing Hydrogen Recombiner System Train A, Rev 2 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CGCS B.4.d Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Combustible Gas Control System
- d. Normal operating parameters Bank #
Modified Bank #----
New _X. __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7145.6 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 029 G 2.1.31 059 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% RTP.
The crew has been preparing to place! Train A Containment Purge in service in support of a containment lower"entry by an RCS leak investigation team.
Current plant conditions and indications are:
Containment Pressure is 0.16 psid.
GontaiAment-Purge Filter Assembly drain loop seal level is 60%.
Environmental Allowance Monitor (EAM) indicating lights are DARK.
Containment Rad Monitor 1-RM-90-112 is aligned to lower containment due to 1-RM-90-106 being out of service.
Which ONE of the following conditions must be changed to allow the purge to be placed in service?
A. Pressure in containment.
B. Radiation Monitor alignment.
C" Environmental Allowance Monitor alignment.
D. Purge Filter Assembly drain loop seal level.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
')
I I*
A. Incorrect, Containment pressure is below the 0.23 psid maximum allowed pressure. Plausible because there is a limit on the maximum containment pressure for placing the purge in service or the applicant could conclude pressure is too low.
B. Incorrect, The procedure allows the alignment of O-RM-90-112 to lower containment. Plausible because O-RM-90-106 is the normal lower containment radiation monitor and O-RM-90-112 is the normal upper containment radiation monitor. The applicant could conclude both upper and lower containment needed a radiation monitor aligned.
C. CORRECT, The EAMs must be placed in service which will cause the Blue lights on panel 1-M-3 to be illuminated.
D. Incorrect, The drain loop seal level is above the 50% minimum required level. Plausible because there is a limit on the minimum drain loop seal level for placing the purge in service or the applicant could conclude the level is too low.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 029 G 2.1.31 059 Given the following:
Untt 1 at 100% RTP.
The crew has been preparing to place Train A Containment Purge In service in support of a containment lower-entry by an RCS leak investigation team.
Current plant condttions and indications are:
Containment Pressure is 0.16 psld.
GontaiAmenH'urge Filter Assembly drain loop seal level is 60%.
Environmental Allowance Monitor (EAM) indicating lights are DARK.
Containment Rad Monitor 1-RM-90-112 is aligned to lower containment due to 1-RM-90-106 being out of service.
Which ONE of the following cond~ions must be changed to allow the purge to be placed in service?
A. Pressure in containment.
B. Radiation Mon~or alignment.
Cl' Environmental Allowance Monttor alignment.
D. Purge Fitter Assembly drain loop seal level.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Containment pressure is below the 0.23 psid maximum allowed pressure. Plausible because there is a limn on the maximum containment pressure for placing the purge in service or the applicant could conclude pressure ;s too low.
B. Incorrect, The procedure allows the alignment of O-RM-90-112 to lower containment. Plausible because O-RM-90-106 is the normal lower containment radiation monitor and O-RM-9fJ.112 is the normal upper containment radiation monitor. The applicant could conclude both upper and lower containment needed a radiation monitor aligned.
C. CDRRECT, The EAMs must be placed in service which will cause the Blue lights on paneI1-M-3 to ba illuminated.
D. Incorrect, The drain loop seal level is above the 50"/0 minimum required level. Plausible because there is a limit on the minimum drain loop seal level for placing the purge in service or the applicant could conclude the level is too low.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 59 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 029 G 2.1.31 Containment Purge System (CPS)
Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup.
Importance Rating:
4.6/4.3 Technical
Reference:
0-SO-30-3, Containment Purge System Operation, Rev 42 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CONTPURGE B.5.a &.b Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Containment Purge System:
- a. Precautions and limitations
- b. Major steps performed while placing the system in service Bank#_~ __
Modified Bank # _X, __
New __ _
Question History:
SQN question CTMTPURGE-B.5.B 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.10 145.12) 10CFR55.43.b (n/a )
Comments: SQN question CTMTPURGE-B.5.B 002 modified.
Stem conditions changed, Correct answer changed and relocated.
Distractor changed or reworded.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 59 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 029 G 2.1.31 Containment Purge System (CPS)
Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctty reflect the desired plant lineup.
Importance Reting:
4.6/4.3 Technical
Reference:
0-50-30-3, Containment Purge System Operation, Rev 42 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CONTPURGE B.5.a &.b Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Containment Purge System:
8. Precautions and limitations
- b. Major steps performed while placing the system in service Bank #
Modified Bank #-=..-_""'X,;---
New __
Question History:
SQN question CTMTPURGE-B.5.B 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X _
10 CFR Part 55 Content (41.10/45.12) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments: SON question CTMTPURGE-B.5.B 002 modified.
Stem conditions changed, Correct answer changed and relocated.
Oistractor changed or reworded.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 033 K04.01 060 Given the following:
Unit 1 in Mode 5 making preparations to go to Mode 4.
Unit 2 at 100% power A large leak occurs on the discharge line of the in-service Spent Fuel Pit Cooling System (SFPCS) pump.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) what would occur, without operator action, to stop the loss of level in the Spent Fuel Pit (SFP),
~
and (2) after the leak was isolated, which of the listed makeup supplies would be used to restore the Spent Fuel Pit level in accordance with AOP-M.06, "Loss of Spent Fuel Cooling?"
I,
(1 )
The SFPCS pump...
A. trips on low spent fuel pit level interlock.
B. trips on low spent fuel pit level interlock.
C. becomes air-bound when the suction line uncovers.
D~ becomes air-bound when the suction line uncovers.
(2)
. Makeup to the SFP would be from...
the Demin Water System the U-1 Refuel Water Storage Tank the U-1 Demin Water System the U-1 Refuel Water Storage Tank QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 033 K04.0 I 060 Given the following:
Un~ 1 In Mode 5 making preparations to go to Mode 4.
Un~ 2 at 100% power A large leak occurs on the discharge line of the In-service Spent Fuel Pit Cooling System (SFPCS) pump.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) what would occur. without operator action. to stop the loss of level in the Spent Fuel Pit (SFP).
and (2) after the leak was isolated. which of the listed makeup supplies would be used to restore the Spent Fuel Pit level in accordance with AOP-M.OB.
"Loss of Spent Fuel Cooling?"
(1 )
The SFPCS pump...
A. trips on low spent fuel pit level interlock.
B. trips on low spent fuel pit level interlock.
C. becomes air-bound when the suction line uncovers.
D~ becomes air-bound when the suction line uncovers.
(2)
Makeup to the SFP would be from...
the Demin Water System the U-1 Refuel Water Storage Tank the U-1 Demin Water System the U-1 Refuel Water Storage Tank
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the pump would not trip on low level, it would become air bound when the suction line uncovered and the makeup would not be from the Demin water system. It would be from a borated water source to maintain the minimum required boron concentration in the spent fuel pit. Plausible because there is a level switch that causes a low level alarm and many pumps do have a low level trip interlock with the pump controls. Also, the Demin water system is the preferred source when the makeup is due to evaporation causing the low level.
B. Incorrect, the pump would not trip on low level, it would become air bound when the suction line uncovered but the makeup being from the borated water in the RWST is correct. Plausible because there is a level switch that causes a low level alarm and many pumps do have a low level trip interlock with the pump controls. Also, the RWST being the source of makeup is correct.
C. Incorrect, the pump becoming air bound is correct, but the makeup would not be from the Demin water system. It would be from a borated water source to maintain the minimum required boron concentration in the spent fuel pit. Plausible because the pump becoming air bound is correct and the Demin water system is the preferred source when the makeup is due to evaporation causing the low level.
D. CORRECT, the suction line is located below the surface but near the normal level of the SFP and when the strainer on the line is uncovered, the pump would lose suction and become air bound. Makeup would be from a borated water source to maintain the minimum required boron concentration in the spent fuel pit.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the pump would not trip on low level, it would become air bound when the suction line uncovered and the makeup would not be from the Demin water system. It would be from a borated water source to maintain the minimum required boron concentration in the spent fuel pit. Plausible because there ;s a level switch that causes a low level alarm and many pumps do have a low level trip interlock wnh the pump controls. Also, the Demin water system Is the preferred source when the makeup is due to evaporation causing the low level.
B. tncorrect, the pump would not trip on low level, ft would become air bound when the suction line uncovered but the makeup being from the borated water in the RWST Is COmJCt. Plausible because there is B level switch that causes 8 low level alarm and many pumps do have a low level trIp interlock wfth the pump controls. Also, the RWST being the source of makeup Is correct.
C. Incorrect, the pump becoming air bound is correct, but the makeup would not be from the Demin water system. It would be from a borated water source to maintain the minimum required boron concentration in the spent fuel pit. Plausible because the pump becoming air bound is correct and the Demin water system is the preferred source when the makeup is due to evaporation causing the low level.
D. CORRECT, the suction line is located below the surface but near the normal level of the SFP and when the strainer on the line Is uncovered, the pump would Jose suction and become air bound. Makeup would be from B borated water source to maintain the minimum required boron concentration in the spent fuel pit.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 60 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 033 K04.01 Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System (SFPCS)
Knowledge of design feature(s) andlor interlock(s) which provide for the following:
Maintenance of spent fuel level Importance Rating:
2.9 I 3.2 Technical
Reference:
0-SO-78-1, Spent Fuel Pit Coolant System, Rev 41 AOP-M.06, Loss of Spent Fuel Pit Level, Rev 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.SFPC B.4.e &.i B.5.c &.d Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the SFPC system:
- e. Component operation
- i. protective features Describe the operation of the SFPC system:
- c. Alarms and alarm response
- d. how a component failure will affect system operation Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X, __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SON bank question SFPC-15.A 001 modified.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN bank question SFPC-15.A 001 modified.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 60 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 033 K04.01 Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System (SFPCS)
Knowledge of design feature(s) andlor interlock(s) which provide for the following:
Maintenance of spent fuelleve!
Importance Rating:
2.9/3.2 Technical
Reference:
0-SO-78-1, Spent Fuel Pit Coolant System, Rev 41 AOP-M.06, Loss of Spent Fuel Pit Level, Rev 4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.SFPC BAe &.1 B.5.c &.d Question Source:
Oescrlbe the following charecteristics of each major component in the SFPC system:
- e. Component operation I. protective features Oescrlbe the operation of the SFPC system:
- c. Alarms and alarm response
- d. how a component failure will affect system operation Bank#_-..,.,. __
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question SFPC-15.A 001 modified.
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7) 10CFR55.43.b (nia)
Comments: SQN benk question SFPC-15.A 001 modified.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 034 K6.02 061 Given the following:
Both Units at 100% RTP.
Fuel Assembly shuffles are being made in the Spent Fuel Pit.
An instrument malfunction occurs on Spent Fuel Pit Radiation Monitor "0-RM-90-102" Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) whether Technical Specifications would allow continued movement of fuel assemblies in the Spent Fuel Pit, and (2) the,Auxiliary Building isolation that would automatically initiate if the other Spent Fuel Pit Radiation Monitor "0-RM-90-103" subsequently detected Hi Radiation?
A. (1) Fuel assembly shuffles must stop; (2) Both trains of isolation would be automatically initiated.
B. (1) Fuel assembly shuffles must stop; (2) Only one train of isolation would be automatically initiated.
- c. (1) Fuel assembly shuffles can continue; (2) Both trains of isolation would be automatically initiated.
D~ (1) Fuel assembly shuffles can continue; (2) Only one train of isolation would be automatically initiated.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 034 K6.02 061 Given the following:
Both Units at 100% RTP.
Fuel Assembly shuffles are being made in the Spent Fuel Pit.
An Instrument malfunction occurs on Spent Fuel Pit Radiation Monitor
' 0-RM-90-1 02' Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) whether Technical SpeCifications would allow continued movement of fuel assemblies in the Spent Fuel Pit,
and (2) the.Auxiliary Building isolation that would automatically Initiate If the other Spent Fuel Pit Radiation Monitor '0-RM-90-103' subsequently detected Hi Radiation?
A. (1) Fuel assembly shuffles must stop; (2) Both trains of isolation would be automatically initiated.
B. (1) Fuel assembly shuffles must stop; (2) Only one train of isolation would be automatically initiated.
- c. (1) Fuel assembly shuffles can continue; (2) Both trains of isolation would be automatically initiated.
[),f (1) Fuel assembly shuffles can continue; (2) Only one train of isolation would be automatically initiated.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, Fuel shuffles would not have to be stopped, the movement could continue because only one Rad Mon is required in the Spent fuel Pit and both trains of isolation of the Aux Building would not be isolated if radiation was detected by the other SFP Radiation Monitor. The monitors are trained in respect to isolating the Auxiliary Building with 102 being Train A and 103 being Train B. Plausible because other conditions would cause fuel movement to be stopped and RM-09-101(on the Aux. Building Stack) would cause isolation of both trains.
B. Incorrect, Fuel shuffles would not have to be stopped, the movement could continue because only one Rad Mon is required in the Spent fuel Pit. Plausible because other conditions would cause fuel movement to be stopped and only one train of the isolation in the Aux Building is correct.
C. Incorrect, Tech Specs only require one SFP Radiation monitor and one ABGTS system to be operable for fuel movement in the Spent Fuel Pit.
Both trains would not be isolated if radiation was detected by the other SFP Radiation Monitor. The monitors are trained in respect to isolating the Auxiliary Building with 102 being Train A and 103 being Train B.
Plausible because fuel shuffle continuing is correct and RM-09-101(on the Aux. Building Stack) would cause isolation of both trains.
D. CORRECT, Tech Specs only require one SFP Radiation monitor and one ABGTS system to be operable for fuel movement in the Spent Fuel Pit. The SFP Radiation Monitors are trained in respect to isolating the Auxiliary Building with 102 being Train A and 103 being Train B.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. Incorrect, Fuel shuffles would not have to be stopped, the movement could continue because only one Rad Mon is required in the Spent fuel Pd and both trains of isolation of the Aux Buifding would not be isolated if radiation was detected by the other SFP Radiation Monitor. The monitors are trained in respect to isolating the Auxifiary Buifdlng wdh 102 being Train A and 103 being Train B. Plausible because other conditions would cause fuel movement to be stopped and RM-09-101(on the Aux. Buifding Stack) would cause isolation of both trains.
B. Incorrect, Fuel shuffles would not have to be stopped, the movement could continue because only one Rad Mon is required in the Spent fuel Pit. Plausible because other conditions would cause fuel movement to be stopped and only one train of the isolation in the Aux Buifding is correct.
C. Incorrect, Tech Specs only require one SFP Radiation monitor and one ABGTS system to be operabfe for fuel movement in the Spent Fuel Pd.
Both trains would not be isolated if radiation was detected by the other SFP Radiation Monitor. The monitors are trained in respect to isolating the Auxifiary Buifding with 102 being Train A and 103 being Train B.
Plausible because fuel shuffle continuing is correct and RM-09-101(on the Aux. Buifding Stack) would cause isolation of both trains.
D. CORRECT, Tech Specs only require one SFP Radiation monitor and one ABGTS system to be operable for fuel movement in the Spent Fuel Pd. The SFP Radiation Mondors are trained in respect to isolating the AUXiliary Building with 102 being Train A and 103 being Train B.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 61 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 034 K6.02 Fuel Handling Equipment System (FHES)
Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the Fuel Handling System:
Radiation monitoring systems Importance Rating:
2.6 I 3.3 Technical
Reference:
1,2-47W611-30-5 RB 1,2-47W611-30-6 R11 Technical Specifications, Amendment 322 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.ABVENT B.5.d & 7 Question Source:
Describe the operation of the AB Vent system as it relates to the following:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
State Tech SpecslTRM LCOs that govem the AB Vent system Bank# ___ --
Modified Bank # _X'--__
New __ _
Question History:
SQN question 072 K4.05 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7/45.7 )
( nla )
Comments: SON question 072 K4.05 modified Changes answer and distractors to test knowledge of conditions that allow systems to be used Fuel Handling.
Correct answer relocation.
Correct answer and distractor pertaining to Aux Building ventilation changed to address the isolation versus components within the isolation.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 61 Tier 2 Group 2 KiA 034 K6.02 Fuel Handling Equipment System (FHES)
Knowledge of the effect of a loss or ma~unction on the following will have on the Fuel Handling System:
Radiation monitoring systems Importance Rating:
2.6/3.3 Technical
Reference:
1.2-47W611-30-5 R8 1.2-47W611-30-6 Rll Technical Specifications, Amendment 322 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.ABVENT B.5.d & 7 Question Source:
Describa the operation of the AB Vent system as H relates to the following:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
State Tech SpecsITRM LCOs that govern the AB Vent system Bank # _""""" __
Modified Bank #_X~
New __ _
Question History:
SQN question 072 K4.05 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.7 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN question 072 K4.05 modified Changes answer and distractors to test knowledge of conditions that allow systems to ba used Fuel Handling.
Correct answer relocation.
Correct answer and distractor pertaining to Aux Building ventilation changed to address the isolation versus components within the isolation.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 041 KS.05 062 Given the following Unit 1 operating at 100% power when a 'total electrical loss of load event occurs.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) how the condenser steam dump system is designed to open the steam dump valves, and (2) if the steam dump valves failed to open, how the reactor coolant system (RCS) design pressure limit would be impacted?
Condenser Steam Dumps A. trip open due to bistable operation B~ trip open due to bistable operation C. ramp open due to controller demand D. ramp open due to controller demand RCS pressure...
would exceed design pressure would remain below the design pressure.
would exceed design pressure
\\'
would remain below'the design pressure.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 041 ICS.OS 062 Given the following Unit 1 operating at 100% power when a total electrical loss of load event occurs.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) how the condenser steam dump system is designed to open the steam dump valves, and (2) If the steam dump valves failed to open, how the reactor coolant system (RCS) design pressure limit would be impacted?
Condenser Steam Dumps A. trip open due to bistable operation B,. trip open due to bistable operation C. ramp open due to controller demand D. ramp open due to controller demand RCS pressure...
would exceed design pressure would remain below the design pressure.
would exceed deSign pressure would remain below'ihe design pressure.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as it is correct. The second part is plausible because the steam dumps not open would cause the pressure to rise in the RCS.
B. CORRECT, The condenser Steam Dump system is designed with a rapid blow open feature that is actuated by a bi-stable when the deviation of Tavg to Tref is> than 10°F. The essential components to protect the ReS from exceeding its design pressure limit in a large loss of load event are the RCS PZR Safeties working in concert with the S/G safeties so the RCS design pressure limit would not be exceeded.
C. Incorrect, The first part of the distracter is plausible as that on a small loss of load event the steam dump control system will operate by ramping or modulating on a Tavg - Tref mismatch. On a large loss of load event the control system will create a signal (from a bi-stable) that "pops" open the steam dump valves. The second part is plausible because the steam dumps not open would cause the pressure to rise in the RCS.
D. Incorrect, The first part of the distracter is plausible as that on a small loss of load event the steam dump control system will operate by ramping or modulating on a Tavg - Tref mismatch. On a large loss of load event the control system will create a signal (from a bi-stable) that "pops" open the steam dump valves. The second part is plausible as it is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANALYSIS:
A. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as it is correct. The second part is plausible because the steam dumps not open would cause the pressure to rise in the RCS.
B. CORRECT, The condenser Steam Dump system is designed with a rapid blow open feature that is actuated by a bi-stable when the deviation of Tavg to Tref is > than 10'F. The essential components to protect the ReS from exceeding its design pressure limit In a large loss of load event are the RCS PZR Safeties working in concert with the SlG safeties so the ReS design pressure limit would not be exceeded.
C. Incorrect, The first part of the distracter is plausible as that on a small loss of load event the steam dump control system will operate by ramping or modulating on a Tavg - Tref mismatch. On a large loss of load event the control system will create a signal (from a bi-stable) that *pops* open the steam dump valves. The second part is plausible because the steam dumps not open would cause the pressure to rise in the ReS.
D. InCOfTect, The first part of the distracter is plausible as that on a small loss of load event the steam dump control system will operate by ramping or modulating on a Tavg - Tref mismatch. On alerge loss of load event the control system will aeate a signal (from a b~stable) that "pops* open the steam dump valves. The second part is plausible as it is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 62 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 041 K5.05 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the SOS: Basis for the RCS design pressure limits Importance Rating:
2.6 I 3.2 Technical
Reference:
FSAR Chapter 15 47W611-1-2 Main Steam Logics R10 TI-28, Attachment 9,6/8/2007, Unit 1 & 2 Cycle Data Sheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.S0CS B.4.e, i & I Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major for each major component in the SOCS as described in this lesson: component operation, protective features and types of accidents for which the SOCS components are designed.
OPT200.SG B.2 State the design basis of the SIG system as described in the FSAR.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ X_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5 I 45.7 )
. ( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 62 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 041 K5.05 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the SOS: Basis for the RCS design pressure limits Importsnce Rating:
2.61 3.2 Technical
Reference:
FSAR Chapter 15 47W611 2 Main Steam Logics RIO TI-26, Attachment 9,61612007, Unit 1 & 2 Cycle Data Sheet Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Leaming Objective:
OPT200.S0CS B.4.e, i & I Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major for each major component in the soes as described in this lesson: component operation, protective features and types of accidents for which the soes components are designed.
OPT200.SG B.2 State the design basis of the SIG system as described in the FSAR.
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # _-..,., __
New _
_ X_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content (41.5145.7 )
.( nla)
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 071 A2.02 063 Given the following:
Waste Gas Decay Tank 'B' is being released through Unit 1 Shield Building Exhaust Stack in accordance with 0-SO-77-15.
Subsequently, the following occurs:
- ABGTS fan A-A trips due to overcurrent.
The AB AUO reports that Radiation Control Valve, 0-FCV-77-119 is OPEN.
0-RM-90-118, Waste Gas Effluent Radiation Monitor, is indicating normal.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) if the reported position of 0-FCV-77-119 is Expected or Unexpected?
and (2) If the release can be continued or is required to be terminated?
A. (1) Expected (2) can be continued B. (1) Expected (2) is required to be terminated C. (1) Unexpected (2) can be continued D", (1) Unexpected (2) is required to be terminated 1
I r
r QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 071 A2.02 063 Given the following:
Waste Gas Decay Tank 'B' is being released through Unit 1 Shield Building Exhaust Stack in accordance with 0-SO-77-15.
Subsequently, the following occurs:
ABGTS fan A-A trips due to overcurrent.
The AB AUO reports that Radiation Control Valve, 0-FCV-77-119 is OPEN.
0-RM-90-118, Waste Gas Effluent Radiation Monitor, is indicating normal.
Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) if the reported position of 0-FCV-77-119 is Expected or Unexpected?
and (2) If the release can be continued or is required to be terminated?
A. (1) Expected (2) can be continued B. (1) Expected (2) is required to be terminated C. (1) Unexpected (2) can be continued D~ (1) Unexpected (2) is required to be terminated
\\
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The first part of the distracter is plausible because the ABGTS low flow auto closing O-FCV-77-119 is one of three auto close signals. In addition, the ABGTS is train specific and the examinee will need to remember that the ABGTS fans are shield building vent stack specific.
Unit 1 is tied to the A ABGTS fan. The second part is plausible as the release is ongoing with the radiation monitor still operable and indicating normal.
B. Incorrect, The first part of the distracter is plausible because the ABGTS low flow auto closing 0-FCV-77-119 is one of three auto close signals. In addition, the ABGTS is train specific and the examinee will need to remember that the ABGTS fans are shield building. vent stack specific.
Unit 1 is tied to the A ABGTS fan. The second part is plausible because it is correct.
C. Incorrect, 0-FCV-77-119 should have automatically closed due to low flow on the ABGTS fan so the reported position would be unexpected and the release cannot be continued. The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is correct. The second part is plausible as the release is ongoing with the radiation monitor still operable and indicating normal.
D. CORRECT, The valve position is unexpected as the valve receives a close signal on the applicable ABGTS fan from flow switch 1501165. The correct response is to terminate the release because the calculated dilution flow has been lost and there is a caution in the procedure to terminate the release with a malfunction of FCV-77-119.
(
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The first part of the distracter is plausible because the ABGTS low flow auto closing O-FCV-77-119 is one of three auto close signals. In addition, the ABGTS is train specific and the examinee will need to remember that the ABGTS fans are shield building vent stack specific.
Unit 1 is tied to the A ABGTS fan. The second part is plausible as the release is ongoing with the radiation monitor still operable and indicating normal.
B. Incorrect, The first part of the distracter is plausible because the ABGTS low flow auto closing 0-FCV-77-119 is one of three auto close signals. In addition, the ABGTS is train specific and the examinee will need to remember that the ABGTS fans are shield building. vent stack specific.
Unit 1 is tied to the A ABGTS fan. The second part is plausible because it is correct.
C. Incorrect, 0-FCV-77-119 should have automatically closed due to low flow on the ABGTS fan so the reported position would be unexpected and the release cannot be continued. The first part of the distracter is plausible because it is correct. The second part is plausible as the release is ongoing with the radiation monitor still operable and indicating normal.
D. CORRECT, The valve position is unexpected as the valve receives a close signal on the applicable ABGTS fan from flow switch 1501165. The correct response is to terminate the release because the calculated dilution flow has been lost and there is a caution in the procedure to terminate the release with a malfunction of FCV-77-119.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 63 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 071 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Waste Gas Disposal System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
Use of waste gas release monitors, radiation, gas flow rate, and totalizer.
Importance Rating:
3.31 3.6 Technical
Reference:
0-50-77-15, Waste Gas Decay Tank Release, R16 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL200.GRW B.5.d & e Question Source:
Describe the operation of the GRW system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
- e. How a support system failure will affect GRW system operation Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X,--_
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5 1 43.5 I 45.3 145.13 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 63 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 071 A2.02 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Waste Gas Disposal System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:
Use of waste gas release monitors, radiation, gas flow rate, and totalizer.
Importance Rating:
3.3/3.6 Technical
Reference:
0-50-77-15, Waste Gas Decay Tank Release, R16 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL200.GRW B.5.d & e Question Source:
Describe the operation of the GRW system:
- d. How a component failure will affect system operation.
- e. How a support system failure will affect GRW system operation Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # ____ _
New _X __
Question History:
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.5/43.5/45.3/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 079 A4.01 064 Given the following:
Both units are operating at 100% power.
Control air system pressure begins to drop.
Which ONE of the following identifies the pressure setpoint that the 0-PCV-33-4, "Service Air isolation from Control Air", will close and the expected position of 0-FCV-32-82, "Train A Control Air Supply Valve", to the auxiliary air system if the air pressure is stabilized at 73 psig?
O-PCV-33-4 O-FCV-32-82 Art 88 psig 88 psig Open B.
C.
D.
Closed 77 psig Open 77 psig Closed DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, O-PCV-33-4 automatically closes at 88 psig decreasing on the control air system but O-FCV-82-32 does not close to isolate auxiliary air from control air until the air pressure drops to 69 psig, therefore it would have remained open.
B. Incorrect, O-PCV-33-4 automatically closes at 88 psig decreasing on the control air system is correct but O-FCV-82-32 would not be expected to be closed since the pressure stabilized above its auto close setpoint. Plausible because 88 psig is correct for O-PCV-33-4 and the aux air compressor do start at 77 psig which could be mistaken as the pressure that closes O-FCV-32-82.
C. Incorrect, 77 psig is the pressure that automatically starts the Aux Air Compressors, not the pressure that service air isolates from control air.
Plausible because 77 psig is a setpoint that causes action in the control air system and O-FCV-82-32 remaining open is correct because the pressure stabilized above the isolation set point of 69 psig.
D. Incorrect, 77 psig is the pressure that automatically starts the Aux Air Compressors, not the pressure that service air isolates from control air and O-FCV-32-82 would have remained open. Plausible because 77 psig is a setpoint that causes action in the control air system and O-FCV-32-82 automatic close set point could be mistaken for other set points above 78 psig that result in an action in the control air system.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 079 A4.01 064 Given the following:
Both units are operating at 100% power.
Control air system pressure begins to drop.
Which ONE of the following identifies the pressure setpoint that the 0-PCV-33-4, "Service Air isolation from Control Air", will close and the expected position of 0-FCV-32-82, "Train A Control Air Supply Valve", to the auxiliary air system if the air pressure is stabilized at 73 psig?
O-PCV-33-4 O-FCV-32-82 A':'
88 psig Open B.
88 psig Closed C.
77 psig Open D.
77 psig Closed DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, O-PCV-33-4 automatically closes at 88 psig decreasing on the control air system but O-FCV-82-32 does not close to isolate auxiliary air from control air until the air pressure drops to 69 psig, therefore it would have remained open.
B. Incorrect, O-PCV-33-4 automatically closes at 88 psig decreasing on the control air system is correct but O-FCV-82-32 would not be expected to be closed since the pressure stabilized above its auto close setpoint. Plausible because 88 psig is correct for O-PCV-33-4 and the aux air compressor do start at 77 psig which could be mistaken as the pressure that closes O-FCV-32-82.
C. Incorrect, 77 psig is the pressure that automatically starts the Aux Air Compressors, not the pressure that service air isolates from control air.
Plausible because 77 psig is a setpoint that causes action in the control air system and O-FCV-82-32 remaining open is correct because the pressure stabilized above the isolation setpoint of 69 psig.
D. Incorrect, 77 psig is the pressure that automatically starts the Aux Air Compressors, not the pressure that service air isolates from control air and O-FCV-32-82 would have remained open. Plausible because 77 psig is a setpoint that causes action in the control air system and O-FCV-32-82 automatic close set point could be mistaken for other setpoints above 78 psig that result in an action in the control air system.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 64 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 079 A4.01 Station Air System (SAS)
Ability to manually operate andlor monitor in the control room:
Cross-tie valves with lAS Importance Rating:
2.7 I 2.7 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examinatio.n: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CSA B.4.e &.i Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the CSA:
- e. Component operation
- i. Protective features (including sepoints)
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X'---__
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank questions AIR-B.14.A 001 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 to 45.8) 10CFR55.43.b
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 64 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 079 A4.01 Station Air System (SAS)
Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:
Cross-tie valves with lAS Importance Rating:
2.7/2.7 Technical
Reference:
AOP-M.02, Loss of Control Air, Rev 14 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.CSA B.4.e &.i Question Source:
Describe the following items for each major component in the CSA:
- e. Component operation
- i. Protective features (including sepoints)
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank questions AIR-B.14.A 001 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.7/45.5 to 45.8 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RORetake Exam Questions 086 A3.03 065 Given the following:
Both Units in service at 100% power.
An alarm is received on O-M-29.
The CRO determines the alarm to be Cross Zone alarms from Zones 522 and Zone 523, both in Unit 2 Aux Building Supply Duct.
Which ONE of the following identifies how the Aux Bldg Supply and Exhaust Fans are automatically affected by these detection signals and the requirements for dispatching the Fire Brigade?
Art All supply and exhaust fans trip; Immediately dispatch the Fire Brigade.
B. All supply and exhaust fans trip; Verify fire/exist prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
, *1 I""
C. Only the supply fans trip; Immediately dispatch the Fire Brigade.
D. Only the supply fans trip; Verify fire exist prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Separation relays are used to cause the both the supply and exhaust fans to trip if smoke is detected by the cross zone detector in the supply ductwork of either unit. O-AR-M-29 directs the Fire Brigade to be immediately dispatched if a cross zone alarm is received.
B. Incorrect, Both the supply and exhaust fans will trip if smoke is detected by the cross zone detector in the ductwork of either unit. O-AR-M-29 directs the Fire Brigade to be immediately dispatched if a cross zone alarm is received, not after a fire is confirmed. Plausible because both the supply and exhaust fans tripping is correct and if the detection signal had not been cross zoned. the alarm would be confirmed as real prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
C. Incorrect, Both the supply and exhaust fans will trip will trip (not just the supply fans) but the Fire Brigade is dispatched immediately. Plausible because the detectors are only indicating trouble on the supply ductwork on one unit and immediately dispatching the Fire Brigade is correct.
D. Incorrect, Both the supply and exhaust fans will trip (not just the supply fans) and O-AR-M-29 directs the Fire Brigade to be immediately dispatched if a cross zone alarm is received, not after a fire is confirmed.
Plausible because the detectors are only indicating trouble on the one unit supply ductwork and if the detection signal had not been cross zoned, the alarm would be confirmed as real prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 086 A3.03 065 Given the following:
Both Units in service at 100% power.
An alarm is received on O-M-29.
The CRO determines the alarm to be Cross Zone alarms from Zones 522 and Zone 523, both in Unit 2 Aux Building Supply Duct.
Which ONE of the following identifies how the Aux Bldg Supply and Exhaust Fans are automatically affected by these detection signals and the requirements for dispatching the Fire Brigade?
A~ All supply and exhaust fans trip; Immediately dispatch the Fire Brigade.
B. All supply and exhaust fans trip; Verify fire exist prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
C. Only the supply fans trip; Immediately dispatch the Fire Brigade.
D. Only the supply fans trip; Verify fire exist prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, Separation relays are used to cause the both the supply and exhaust fans to trip if smoke is detected by the cross zone detector in the supply ductwork of either unit. O-AR-M-29 directs the Fire Brigade to be immediately dispatched if a cross zone alarm is received.
B. Incorrect, Both the supply and exhaust fans will trip if smoke is detected by the cross zone detector in the ductwork of either unit. O-AR-M-29 directs the Fire Brigade to be immediately dispatched if a cross zone alarm is received, not after a fire is confirmed. Plausible because both the supply and exhaust fans tripping is correct and if the detection signal had not been cross zoned, the alarm would be confirmed as real prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
C. Incorrect, Both the supply and exhaust fans will trip will trip (not just the supply fans) but the Fire Brigade is dispatched immediately. Plausible because the detectors are only indicating trouble on the supply ductwork on one unit and immediately dispatching the Fire Brigade is correct.
D. Incorrect, Both the supply and exhaust fans will trip (not just the supply fans) and O-AR-M-29 directs the Fire Brigade to be immediately dispatched if a cross zone alarm is received, not after a fire is confirmed.
Plausible because the detectors are only indicating trouble on the one unit supply ductwork and if the detection signal had not been cross zoned, the alarm would be confirmed as real prior to dispatching the Fire Brigade.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 65 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 086 A3.03 Fire Protection System (FPS)
Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Fire Protection System including:
Actuation of fire detectors Importance Rating:
2.9 I 3.3 Technical
Reference:
0-AR-M-29, Fire Detection System, Rev 8 1,2-45W657 -31 R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.HPFP B.5.c Describe the operation of the Fire Protections Systems as it relates to the following:
- c. Alarms and alarm response OPT200.ABVENT B.4.i Describe the following items for each major component in the Auxiliary Building Ventilation System as described in this lesson:
- i. Protective features (including setpoints)
Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _~
New_X_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 )
( nla )
Comments: New question QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 65 Tier 2 Group 2 KIA 086 A3.03 Fire Protection System (FPS)
Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Fire Protection System including:
Actuation of fire detectors Importance Rating:
2.9/3.3 Technical
Reference:
0-AR-M-29, Fire Detection System, Rev 8 1,2-45W657-31 R4 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.HPFP B.5.c Describe the operation of the Fire Protections Systems as it relates to the following:
- c. Alarms and alarm response OPT200.ABVENT B.4.i Describe the following items for each major component in the Auxiliary Building Ventilation System as described in this lesson:
- i. Protective features (including setpoints)
Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ____ --
New _X_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.7/45.5 )
( nla )
Comments: New question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.1.41066 Given the following:
A reactor core re-Ioad is in progress with sixty asse"mblies loaded in the core.
The movement of a Source Bearing Fuel assembly is in progress.
Source Range Detector NI-31 indicating 9 cps.
Source Range Detector NI-32 failed to bottom of scale.
Both SRM High Flux at Shutdown switches are in "BLOCK" position -- /
Annun96t0r "SOURCE RANGE HIGH SHUTDOWN FLUX ALARM rl BLOCK"" is in alarm.
Source Range counts are audible in containment.
Anllunciator "LS-78-3 SPENT FJ.lEL PIT LEVetrltGH-LOW" is in alarn1.
Spent Fuel Pit level is at eJevatidn 726'11". "--" - "
/
Spent Fuel Pit Boron "concentration is 2180 ppm.
).
). )~) ?
The Control Room crew is required to notify the Refueling SRO to suspend Core Alterations because of which ONE of the following?
A. Spent Fuel Pit level is below the minimum.
B~ Only one Source Range Nuclear Monitor is in service.
C. Spent Fuel Pit boron concentration is below the minimum.
D. Source Range High Flux Level at Shutdown alarm must be in service.
\\ '"
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The level at the identified elevation is slightly above tfJfJ high level alarm setpointso the level is not below the Tech Spec minll1fJum.
Plausible because if the level were low the same alarm would be in and there is a Tech Spec requirement to have 23 feet of water above the fuel or immediately suspend fuel movement.
B. CORRECT, Tech Spec require both source range monitors to be in seNice.
and if not fuel movement is must be suspended immediately.
C. Incorrect, The boron concentration is above the Tech Spec minimum requirement of 2000ppm not below the Tech Spec minimum. Plausible because if the boron concentration was lower.than the minimum there is a Tech Spec requirement to immediately suspend fuel movement.
D. Incorrect, The High flux at Shutdown Alarm is not required to be in seNice with the identified conditions. Plausible because the alarm is normally in seN ice but may be blocked. 0-RT-NUC-000-002.0, Core Configuration, and GO-g, Refueling Operations, address blocking the alarm during movement of Source Bearing Fuel Assembly.
I
\\ Y
\\.
\\
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The level at the identified elevation is slightly above trye high level alarm setpoint so the level is not below the Tech Spec minimum.
Plausible because if the level were low the same alarm would be in and there is a Tech Spec requirement to have 23 feet of water above the fuel or immediately suspend fuel movement.
B. CORRECT, Tech Spec require both source range monitors to be in service.
and if not fuel movement is must be suspended immediately.
C. Incorrect, The boron cnncentration is above the Tech Spec minimum requirement of 2000ppm not below the Tech Spec minimum. Plausible because if the boron concentration was lower.than the minimum there is a Tech Spec requirement to immediately suspend fuel movement.
D. Incorrect, The High flux at Shutdown Alarm is not required to be in service with the identified conditions. Plausible because the alarm is normally in service but may be blocked. O-RT-NUC-OOO-002.0, Core Configuration, and GO-g, Refueling Operations, address blocking the alarm during movement of Source Bearing Fuel Assembly.
I i
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 66 Tier 3 KIA G 2.1.41 Conduct of Operations Knowledge of the refueling process.
Importance Rating:
2.8 1 3.7 Technical
Reference:
Technical Specifications, Section 9, Refueling, Amendment 322 q-RT-NUC-000-002.0, Core Reconfiguration, Rev 20 GO-9, Refueling Operations, Rev 34 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271GO-9 B.
Question Source:
Give the bases for the Tech Spec LCO associated with refueling.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X, __ _
New __
Question History:
SQN question REFUELING-B.1.C 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.2/41.10/43.6/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN question REFUELING-B.1.C 001 modified QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 66 Tier 3 KIA G 2.1.41 Conduct of Operations Knowledge of the refueling process.
Importance Rating:
2.8/ 3.7 Technical
Reference:
Technical Specifications, Section 9, Refueling, Amendment 322 0-RT-NUC-000-002.0, Core Reconfiguration, Rev 20 GO-9, Refueling Operations, Rev 34 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 GO-9 B.
Question Source:
Give the bases for the Tech Spec LCO associated with refueling.
Bank # ----
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN question REFUELING-B.1.C 001 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.2/41.10/43.6/45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN question REFUELING-B.1.C 001 modified
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.1.42 067 Given the following:
Unit 1 is in Mode 6 with core reloading in progress.
In accordance with FHI-3, "Movement of Fuel," which ONE of the following identifies a condition which would require fuel loading to be immediately stopped?
A. One Source Range Monitor increases by a factor of five (5) during the loading of the fourth (4th) fuel assembly.
B. Both Source Range Monitors increase by a factor of two (2) during the, loading of the seventh (7th) fuel assembly.
C. One Source Range Monitor increases by a factor of five (5) during the loading of the tenth (10th) fuel assembly.
D~ Both Source Range'Monitors increase by a factor of two (2) during the loading of the thirteenth (13th) fuel assembly.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the requirement to stop if one source range monitor increases by a factor of 5 is not applicable until after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded.
Plausible because one source range monitor increasing by a factor of 5 would require the fuel movement to be stopped after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded B. Incon-ect, the requirement to stop if both source range monitors increase by a factor of 5 is not applicable until after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded. Plausible because both source range monitor increasing by a factor of 5 would require the fuel movement to be stopped after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded C. Incon-ect, the requirement to stop if one source range monitor increases by a factor of 5 is not applicable until after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded.
Plausible because one source range monitor increasing by a factor of 5 would require the fuel movement to be stopped after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded D. CORRECT, if both of the source range monitors increase by a factor of 2 after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded, FHI-3 requires fuel movement to be stopped.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.1.42 067 Given the following:
Unit 1 is in Mode 6 with core reloading in progress.
In accordance with FHI-3, "Movement of Fuel," which ONE of the following identifies a condition which would require fuel loading to be immediately stopped?
A. One Source Range Monitor increases by a factor of five (5) during the loading of the fourth (4th) fuel assembly.
B. Both Source Range Monitors increase by a factor of two (2) during the*
loading of the seventh (7th) fuel assembly.
C. One Source Range Monitor increases by a factor of five (5) during the loading of the tenth (10th) fuel assembly.
D~ Both Source Range Monitors increase by a factor of two (2) during the loading of the thirteenth (13th) fuel assembly.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, the requirement to stop if one source range monitor increases by a factor of 5 is not applicable until after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded.
Plausible because one source range monitor increasing by a factor of 5 would require the fuel movement to be stopped after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded B. Incorrect, the requirement to stop if both source range monitors increase by a factor of 5 is not applicable until after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded. Plausible because both source range monitor increasing by a factor of 5 would require the fuel movement to be stopped after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded C. Incorrect, the requirement to stop if one source range monitor increases by a factor of 5 is not applicable until after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded.
Plausible because one source range monitor increasing by a factor of 5 would require the fuel movement to be stopped after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded D. CORRECT, if both of the source range monitors increase by a factor of 2 after the twelfth fuel assembly is loaded, FHI-3 requires fuel movement to be stopped.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 67 Tier 3 KIA G 2.1.42 Knowledge of new and spent fuel movement procedures.
Importance Rating:
2.5/3.4 Technical
Reference:
FHI-3, Movement of Fuel, Rev 55 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.FH B.5.a Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Fuel Handling system as it relates to the following:
- a. Precautions and limitations Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New ---
Question History:
SQN question FHI-B-18B 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.10/43.7/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: SQN question FHI-B-18B 002 modified Relocated correct answer.
Changed setup of information in the stem and moved information from the choices to the stem.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 67 Tier 3 KIA G 2.1.42 Knowledge of new and spent fuel movement procedures.
Importance Rating:
2.5/3.4 Technical
Reference:
FHI-3, Movement of Fuel, Rev 55 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.FH B.5.a Question Source:
Describe the operation of the Fuel Handling system as it relates to the following:
- a. Precautions and limitations Bank # -----
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN question FHI-B-18B 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 /43.7 /45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: SQN question FHI-B-18B 002 modified Relocated correct answer.
Changed setup of information in the stem and moved information from the choices to the stem.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.2.23 068 In accordance with OPDP-8, "Limiting Conditions for Operation Tracking,"
which ONE of the following identifies the official time of entry into an LCO action statement and the person responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log.
Official time is the time entered in the...
A.
Unit Log B~ Unit Log C.
LCO Tracking Log D.
LCO Tracking Log DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
Person responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log Control Room Operator (CRO)
Unit Supervisor (US)
Control Room Operator (CRO)
Unit Supervisor (US)
A. Incorrect, Unit Log being the official log is correct but the Unit Supervisor (not the Control Room Operator) is responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log. Plausible because the Unit Log is the official log and the Control Room Operator is responsible for other administrative control room activities.
B. CORRECT, OPDP-B section 3.2.2 identifies the Unit Log as the official log for LCOs and Sections 3.2.2 & 3.4.4 identify the Unit Supervisor as being the person responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log.
C. Incorrect, the Unit Log is the official log (not the LCO Tracking Log) and the Unit supervisor (not the Control Room Operator) is responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log. Plausible because the LCO Tracking Log is used to track current LCO entries and exits along with LCO that could become applicable if unit conditions changed and the Control Room Operator is responsible for other administrative control room activities..
D. Incorrect, the Unit Log is the official log (not the LCO Tracking Log) but the Unit supervisor (not the Control Room Operator) is responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log. Plausible because the LCO Tracking Log is used to track current LCO entries and exits along with LCO that could become applicable if unit conditions changed and the Unit supervisor being responsible for LCO Tracking entries is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.2.23068 In accordance with OPDP-8, "Limiting Conditions for Operation Tracking,"
which ONE of the following identifies the official time of entry into an LCO action statement and the person responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log.
Official time is the time entered in the...
A.
Unit Log B~ Unit Log C.
LCO Tracking Log D.
LCO Tracking Log DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
Person responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log Control Room Operator (CRO)
Unit Supervisor (US)
Control Room Operator (CRO)
Unit Supervisor (US)
A. Incorrect, Unit Log being the official log is correct but the Unit Supervisor (not the Control Room Operator) is responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log. Plausible because the Unit Log is the official log and the Control Room Operator is responsible for other administrative control room activities.
B. CORRECT, OPDP-B section 3.2.2 identifies the Unit Log as the official log for LCOs and Sections 3.2.2 & 3.4.4 identify the Unit Supervisor as being the person responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log.
C. Incorrect, the Unit Log is the official log (not the LCO Tracking Log) and the Unit supervisor (not the Control Room Operator) is responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log. Plausible because the LCO Tracking Log is used to track current LCO entries and exits along with LCO that could become applicable if unit conditions changed and the Control Room Operator is responsible for other administrative control room activities..
D. Incorrect, the Unit Log is the official log (not the LCO Tracking Log) but the Unit supervisor (not the Control Room Operator) is responsible for entering an LCO into the LCO Tracking Log. Plausible because the LCO Tracking Log is used to track current LCO entries and exits along with LCO that could become applicable if unit conditions changed and the Unit supervisor being responsible for LCO Tracking entries is correct.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 68 Tier 3 KIA G 2.2.23 Ability to track Technical Specification limiting conditions for operations.
Importance Rating:
3.1 I 4.6 Technical
Reference:
OPDP-8, Limiting Conditions for Operation Tracking, Rev 0002 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL2710PDP-8 B.3 Question Source:
What are the requirements of the responsibilities section in this procedure.
What are the documentation requirements for LCO entries and exits.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
WBN question OPDP-8.02 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.10/43.2/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments: WBN question OPDP-8.02 002 modified QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 68 Tier 3 KIA G 2.2.23 Ability to track Technical Specification limiting conditions for operations.
Importance Rating:
3.1 14.6 Technical
Reference:
OPDP-8, Limiting Conditions for Operation Tracking, Rev 0002 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL2710PDP-8 B.3 Question Source:
What are the requirements of the responsibilities section in this procedure.
What are the documentation requirements for LCO entries and exits.
Bank # ----
Modified Bank # _X. __ _
New __ _
Question History:
WBN question OPDP-8.02 002 modified Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 I 43.2 I 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments: WBN question OPDP-8.02 002 modified
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RORetake Exam Questions G 2.2.44069 Given the following:
Unit 1 is being returned to 100% power after a refueling outage.
The unit is at approximately 50% power with the following bistable conditions on the Status Panels.
Channel 1 P-9 Bistable Light LIT Channel 2 P-9 Bistable Light LIT Channel 3 P-9 Bistable Light DARK Channel 4 P-9 Bistable Light DARK Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) if an automatic reactor trip would currently occur if the turbine tripped, and (2) how the Status Panel P-9 bistable indications would be affected as the load increase was continued?
Art' (1) The Reactor would automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be LIT.
B. (1)* The Reactor would automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be DARK.
C. (1) The Reactor would NOT automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be LIT.
D. (1) The Reactor would NOT automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be DARK.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.2.44 069 Given the following:
Unit 1 is being returned to 100% power after a refueling outage.
The unit is at approximately 50% power with the following bistable conditions on the Status Panels.
Channel 1 P-9 Bistable Light LIT Channel 2 P-9 Bistable Light LIT Channel 3 P-9 Bistable Light DARK Channel 4 P-9 Bistable Light DARK Which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) if an automatic reactor trip would currently occur if the turbine tripped, and (2) how the Status Panel P-9 bistable indications would be affected as the load increase was continued?
A'I (1) The Reactor would automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be LIT.
B. (1) The Reactor would automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be DARK.
C. (1) The Reactor would NOT automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be LIT.
D. (1) The Reactor would NOT automatically trip.
(2) All four P-9 Status lights would be DARK.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the reactor would automatically trip if a turbine trip occurred and if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would result in the bistable being lit on all 4 channels.
B. Incorrect, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the reactor would automatically trip if a turbine trip occurred but if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would not result in the bistable being dark on all 4 channels (the bistables would be lit.) Plausible because the reactor tripping is correct and other bistables/permissive windows do go dark as power is raised.
The permissive window "P-9 Low POWER TURB TRIP-REAC TRIP BLOCK' DOES GO DARK" as power is raised above 50%.
C. Incorrect, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the automatic reactor trip due to a turbine trip would not be blocked (the reactor would trip) but if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would not result in the bistable being lit on all 4 channels. Plausible because it takes 3 of the 4 clearing to block the trip as power is reduced but only 2 of the 4 to make as power is raised (and the two can be confused) and all 4 bistables being lit is correct.
. D. Incorrect, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the automatic reactor trip due to a turbine trip would not be blocked (the reactor would trip) and if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would not result in the bistable being dark on all 4 channels (the bistables would be lit.) Plausible because it takes 3 of the 4 clearing to block the trip as power is reduced but only 2 of the 4 to make as power is raised (and the two can be confused) and other bistables/permissive windows do go dark as power is raised. The permissive window "P-9 Low POWER TURB TRIP-REAC TRIP BLOCK' DOES GO DARK" as power is raised above 50%.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the reactor would automatically trip if a turbine trip occurred and if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would result in the bistable being lit on all 4 channels.
B. Incorrect, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the reactor would automatically trip if a turbine trip occurred but if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would not result in the bistable being dark on all 4 channels (the bistables would be lit.) Plausible because the reactor tripping is correct and other bistableslpermissive windows do go dark as power is raised.
The permissive window "P-9 Low POWER TURB TRIP-REAC TRIP BLOCK' DOES GO DARK" as power is raised above 50%.
C. Incorrect, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the automatic reactor trip due to a turbine trip would not be blocked (the reactor would trip) but if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would not result in the bistable being lit on all 4 channels. Plausible because it takes 3 of the 4 clearing to block the trip as power is reduced but only 2 of the 4 to make as power is raised (and the two can be confused) and all 4 bistables being lit is correct.
D. Incorrect, With 2 of the 4 bistables made, the automatic reactor trip due to a turbine trip would not be blocked (the reactor would trip) and if the load increase was continued on the unit, it would not result in the bistable being dark on all 4 channels (the bistables would be lit.) Plausible because it takes 3 of the 4 clearing to block the trip as power is reduced but only 2 of the 4 to make as power is raised (and the two can be confused) and other bistableslpermissive windows do go dark as power is raised. The permissive window "P-9 Low POWER TURB TRIP-REAC TRIP BLOCK' DOES GO DARK" as power is raised above 50%.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 69 Tier 3 KIA G 2.2.44 Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.
Importance Rating:
4.2 I 4.4 Technical
Reference:
0-47W611-99-2 R13 0-47W611-99-6 R2 0-GO-5, Normal Power Operation, Rev 0062 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.4.d,.g,.h, and.i Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in ttie Reactor Protection & Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems;
- d. Normal operating parameters
- g. Interlocks (including setpoints)
- h. Instrumentation and Indications
- i. Protective features (including setpoints)
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ---:-__ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5/43.5/45.12 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 69 Tier 3 KIA G 2.2.44 Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions.
Importance Rating:
4.21 4.4 Technical
Reference:
0-47W611-99-2 R13 0-47W611-99-6 R2 0-GO-5, Normal Power Operation, Rev 0062 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPT200.RPS B.4.d,.g,.h, and.i Question Source:
Describe the following characteristics of each major component in the Reactor Protection & Engineered Safety Features Actuation Systems;
- d. Normal operating parameters
- g. Interlocks (including setpoints)
- h. Instrumentation and Indications
- i. Protective features (including setpoints)
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.5/43.5/45.12 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.3.11070 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% RTP.
The crew is performing AOP-R.06, "High RCS Activity" due to elevated RCS activity.
Which ONE; of the following is an action directed during performance of AOP-R.06\\to limit/reduce the potefltiaHef radioactive re1ease?
A. Align Turbine Building Sump to the LVWT Pond.
B. Raise the SG Atmospheric Relief Valves setpoint.
C~ Place the CVCS cation bed demineralizer in service.
D. Place the condensate polisher mixed beds in service.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
-A. Incorrect, Aligning the Turbine Building Sump to the L VWT Pond is not an action directed in AOP-R.08. Plausible because the action is directed during a SGTUSGTR to prevent a radioactive release.
B. Incorrect, Raising the setpoints on the SG Atmospheric Relief Valves is not an action directed in AOP-R.08. Plausible because the action is directed during a SGTUSGTR to prevent a radioactive release.
C. CORRECT, Place the CVCS cation bed demineralizer in service based on Chem Lab recommendation is directed in AOP-R. 08. Placing the bed in service would reduce the RCS activity level and thus reduce any release D. Incorrect, Placing the condensate polishers in service is not an action directed action in AOP-R.08. Plausible because the beds would limit the spread of radiation during a SGTL to prevent a radioactive release until the decision was made to bypass them.
\\.
\\~
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.3.11 070 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% RTP.
The crew is performing AOP-R.06, "High RCS Activity" due to elevated RCS activity.
Which ONE; of the following is an action directed during performance of AOP-R.06'io limit/reduce the potefltiallor radioactive release?
A. Align Turbine Building Sump to the L VWT Pond.
B. Raise the SG Atmospheric Relief Valves setpoint.
C~ Place the CVCS cation bed demineralizer in service.
D. Place the condensate polisher mixed beds in service.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
-A. Incorrect, Aligning the Turbine Building Sump to the L VWT Pond is not an action directed in A OP-R. 06. Plausible because the action is directed during a SGTUSGTR to prevent a radioactive release.
B. Incorrect, Raising the setpoints on the SG Atmospheric Relief Valves is not an action directed in AOP-R.06. Plausible because the action is directed during a SGTUSGTR to prevent a radioactive release.
C. CORRECT, Place the CVCS cation bed demineralizer in service based on Chem Lab recommendation is directed in A OP-R. 06. Placing the bed in service would reduce the RCS activity level and thus reduce any release D. Incorrect, Placing the condensate polishers in service is not an action directed action in A OP-R. 06. Plausible because the beds would limit the spread of radiation during a SGTL to prevent a radioactive release until the decision was made to bypass them.
\\'
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 70 Tier 3 KIA G 2.3.11 Ability to control radiation releases.
Importance Rating:
3.8 I 4.3 Technical
Reference:
AOP-R06, High RCS Activity, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-R06 B.5 Question Source:
Summarize the mitigating strategy that initiated entry into AOP-R06.
Bank # _X. __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question G2.3.11 070 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.11 I 43.4 I 45.10 )
( n/a )
Comments: Written for a SQN Audit exam in 2007.
Minor wording changes to stem and distractors, Changed distractor from 'Close MSIVs' to 'Align Turbine Building Sump to the L VWT Pond.'
Changed location of correct answer.
Originally from BVPS bank QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 70 Tier 3 KIA G 2.3.11 Ability to control radiation releases.
Importance Rating:
3.8 / 4.3 Technical
Reference:
AOP-R06, High RCS Activity, Rev 10 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-R06 B.5 Question Source:
Summarize the mitigating strategy that initiated entry into AOP-R06.
Bank#_X __ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New __ _
Question History:
SQN bank question G2.3.11 070 Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.11 /43.4/45.10 )
( n/a )
Comments: Written for a SQN Audit exam in 2007.
Minor wording changes to stem and distractors, Changed distractor from 'Close MSIVs' to 'Align Turbine Building Sump to the L VWT Pond.'
Changed location of correct answer.
Originally from BVPS bank
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.3.5 071 Which ONE of the following identifies the maximum number of alarm(s) that an individual exiting the RCA may receive without requiring RADCON support prior to exiting the area?
A'!
B.
C.
D.
Personnel Contamination Monitor One One Two Two Small Article Monitor None One None One QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.3.5 071 Which ONE of the following identifies the maximum number of alarm(s) that an individual exiting the RCA may receive without requiring RADCON support prior to exiting the area?
Personnel Contamination Monitor Small Article Monitor A~
One None B.
One One C.
Two None D.
Two One
'j
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, an individual exiting the RCA may receive one alarm on a PCM and subsequently try a second time in the same or another PCM. It second monitar1ng is clear the individual may exit the RCA. lt1s plant.
expectation/policy that all personnel on site carry gloves as PPE any time
. entering the operating spaces and it is RADCON policy to not carry gloves on the person into a PCM, but to use the SAM to check them for.
contamination. It the SAM alarms it will "Iock" and require RADCON to enter password to open the SAM and either do a recount or remove for closer examination. Therefore only no alarm will allow exit w/o RADCON support.
B. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as it is correct. The second part is plausible as it would seem that the standards for the PCM would be the same for the SAM allowing a second chance to clear the scan. In fact station policy does allow RADCON only to try a second scan to clear items.
C. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as a second chance is allowed in the same or another PCM. The examinee will need to discriminate that after receiving a second alarm on a separate PCM that
. he/she is done and needs RADCON support. The second part is plausible because it is correct.
D. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as a second chance is allowed in the same or another PCM. The examinee will need to discriminate that after receiving a second alarm on a separate PCM that he/she is done and needs RADCON support. The second part is plausible as it would seem that the standards for the PCM would be the same for the SAM allowing a second chance to clear the scan. In fact station policy does allow RADCON only to try a second scan to clear items.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. CORRECT, an individual exiting the RCA may receive one alarm on a PCM and subsequently try a second time in the same or another PCM. It second monitoring is clear the individual may exit the RCA. IUs plant expectation/policy that all personnel on site carry gloves as PPE any time entering the operating spaces and it is RADCON policy to not carry gloves on the person into a PCM, but to use the SAM to check them for contamination. It the SAM alarms it will "Iock" and require RADCON to enter password to open the SAM and either do a recount or remove for closer examination. Therefore only no alarm will allow exit w/o RADCON support.
B. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as it is correct. The second part is plausible as it would seem that the standards for the PCM would be the same for the SAM allowing a second chance to clear the scan. In fact station policy does allow RADCON only to try a second scan to clear items.
C. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as a second chance is allowed in the same or another PCM. The examinee wi/J need to discriminate that after receiving a second alarm on a separate PCM that he/she is done and needs RADCON support. The second part is plausible because it is correct.
D. Incorrect, The first part of this distracter is plausible as a second chance is allowed in the same or another PCM. The examinee wi/J need to discriminate that after receiving a second alarm on a separate PCM that he/she is done and needs RADCON support. The second part is plausible as it would seem that the standards for the PCM would be the same for the SAM allowing a second chance to clear the scan. In fact station policy does allow RADCON only to try a second scan to clear items.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 71 Tier 3 Group_
KIA G 2.3.5 Ability to use radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, personnel monitoring equipment, etc.
Importance Rating:
2.9 I 2.9 Technical
Reference:
RCI-01, Radiation Protection Program, Rev. 67 RCI-05.303, Calibration, Response Check and Operation of the Thermo Electron Small Article Monitor (SAM-11), Rev. 001 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
RWT010 CON-OB Explain how to monitor personnel and personal items for contamination including the use of: personnel contamination monitors.
Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # _-:-:-__
New _X __
Question History:
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.11 I 41.12 I 43.41 45.9 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 71 Tier 3 Group_
KIA G 2.3.5 Ability to use radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, personnel monitoring equipment, etc.
Importance Rating:
2.9/2.9 Technical
Reference:
RCI-01, Radiation Protection Program, Rev. 67 RCI-05.303, Calibration, Response Check and Operation of the Thermo Electron Small Article Monitor (SAM-11), Rev. 001 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
RWT010 CON-OB Question Source:
Explain how to monitor personnel and personal items for contamination including the use of: personnel contamination monitors.
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # ___ --
New_X __
Question History:
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ X_
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.11 1 41.12 143.41 45.9) 10CFR55.43.b
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G2.3.7072 Given the following:
Both Units at 100% power.
You are performing an observation of an AUO assigned to the Auxiliary Building and are logged on to RWP-003, "Routine Operations and Surveillance" activities.
Which ONE of the following identifies a condition that would require additional Rad Ops approval prior to performance of the activity while in the Auxiliary Building?
A. Obtaining a flashlight from the Hot Tool Room.
B. Enter a pump room posted as a "Radiation Area."
C. Access the Auxiliary Building Roof to perform equipment inspections.
0" Use a ladder to access a valve handwheel in the overhead on EI. 714.
DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The general RWP covers entry into contaminated areas without additional RAD OPS support. Plausible because the general RWP would not cover work in an area posted as a 'High Contamination Area".
B. Incorrect, The general RWP covers entry into radiation areas without additional RAD OPS support. Plausible because the general RWP would not cover work in an area posted as a "High Radiation Area. "
C. Incorrect, The general RWP covers entry onto the Auxiliary Building Roof without additional RAD OPS support. Plausible because the going onto the Auxiliary Building Roof could be construed as exiting the AUX building.
D. CORRECT, RCI-01, "Radiation Protection Program" General Requirement
'r identifies the requirement to notify RAD OPS for permission prior to accessing any overhead area except for permanently installed platforms.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.3.7 072 Given the following:
Both Units at 100% power.
You are performing an observation of an AUO assigned to the Auxiliary Building and are logged on to RWP-003, "Routine Operations and Surveillance" activities.
Which ONE of the following identifies a condition that would require additional Rad Ops approval prior to performance of the activity while in the Auxiliary Building?
A. Obtaining a flashlight from the Hot Tool Room.
B. Enter a pump room posted as a "Radiation Area."
C. Access the Auxiliary Building Roof to perform equipment inspections.
D!" Use a ladder to access a valve handwheel in the overhead on EI. 714.
DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, The general RWP covers entry into contaminated areas without additional RAD OPS support. Plausible because the general RWP would not cover work in an area posted as a 'High Contamination Area".
B. Incorrect, The general RWP covers entry into radiation areas without additional RAD OPS support. Plausible because the general RWP would not cover work in an area posted as a "High Radiation Area. "
C. Incorrect, The general RWP covers entry onto the Auxiliary Building Roof without additional RAD OPS support. Plausible because the going onto the Auxiliary Building Roof could be construed as exiting the AUX building.
D. CORRECT, RC/-Q1, "Radiation Protection Program" General Requirement
'T' identifies the requirement to notify RAD OPS for permission prior to accessing any overhead area except for permanently installed platforms.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 72 Tier 3 KIA:
G 2.3.7 Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions.
Importance Rating:
3.5 I 3.6 Technical
Reference:
RCI-01, Radiation Protection Program, Rev 66, General Requirement 'T' Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
No objective identified Question Source:
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ~-:--__
New_X. __
Question History:
New Questibn Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.12/45.10 )
( nla )
Comments: New Question QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 72 Tier 3 KIA:
G 2.3.7 Ability to comply with radiation work permit requirements during normal or abnormal conditions.
Importance Rating:
3.5 1 3.6 Technical
Reference:
RCI-01, Radiation Protection Program, Rev 66, General Requirement 'T' Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
No objective identified Question Source:
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank # --:-__
New X, __
Question History:
New Questibn Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.12/45.10 )
( nla )
Comments: New Question
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.4.11073 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% RTP.
A failure of the Pressurizer pressure controller occurs.
In accordance with AOP-1.04, "Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions," which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the immediate action step(s) required for the failure of the pressure controller and (2) how the immediate actions steps are identified in,the AOP? "
. }
A. (1) Check normal spray valves closed.
(2) The step taxt is written in boldface.
B~ (1) Check normal spray valves closed.
(2) By a note preceding the step.
C. (1) Check normal spray valves and pressurizer PORVs closed.
(2) The step text is written in boldface.
D. (1) Check normal spray valves and pressurizer PORVs closed.
(2) By a note preceding the step.
(
>,~~
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.4.11073 Given the following:
Unit 1 at 100% RTP.
A failure of the Pressurizer pressure controller occurs.
In accordance with AOP-1.04, "Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions," which ONE of the following identifies...
(1) the immediate action step(s) required for the failure of the pressure controller and (2) how the immediate actions steps are identified in Jhe AOP?*
A. (1) Check normal spray valves closed.
(2) The step tfiX1: is written in boldfa~.
B~ (1) Check normal spray valves closed.
(2) By a note preceding the step.
C. (1) Check normal spray valves and pressurizer PORVs closed.
(2) The step text is written in boldface.
D. (1) Check normal spray valves and pressurizer PORVs closed.
(2) By a note preceding the step.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, "CHECK normal spray valves CLOSED" is the immediate action step in AOP-1.04 but the Immediate Operator Action steps are not identified by boldface type. Plausible because Checking Spray valves closed being the required Immediate Operator Action step is correct and boldface type is used for Cautions in the procedures.
B. CORRECT, AOP-I.04 Section 2.3, "PressurizerPressure Instrument OR Controller Malfunction;" identifies Step1 "CHECK normal spray valves CLOSED" as the only immediate action and EPM-4, "User's Guide, " states that Immediate Operator Action steps will be identified by circling the step numbers or by a note preceding the step(s).
C. Incorrect, Checking PORVs closed is not an Immediate Operator Action step for a failed pressurizer pressure controller and the Immediate Operator Action steps are not identified by boldface type. Plausible because Checking PORVs closed is a required Immediate Operator Action step in other section of AOP-I.04 and boldface type is used for Cautions in the procedures.
D. Incorrect, Checking PORVs closed is not an Immediate Operator Action step for a failed pressurizer pressure controller. Immediate Operator Action steps are identified by circling the step numbers or by a note preceding the step(s). Plausible because Checking PORVs closed is a required Immediate Operator Action step in other section of AOP-I.04 and Immediate Operator Action steps are identified by circling the step numbers or by a note preceding the step(s)
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, "CHECK normal spray valves CLOSED" is the immediate action step in AOP-1.04 but the Immediate Operator Action steps are not identified by boldface type. Plausible because Checking Spray valves closed being the required Immediate Operator Action step is correct and boldface type is used for Cautions in the procedures.
B. CORRECT, AOP-I.04 Section 2.3, "Pressurizer Pressure Instrument OR Control/er Malfunction;" identifies Step1 "CHECK normal spray valves CLOSED" as the only immediate action and EPM-4, " User's Guide," states that Immediate Operator Action steps wil/ be identified by circling the step numbers or by a note preceding the step(s).
C. Incorrect, Checking PORVs closed is not an Immediate Operator Action step for a failed pressurizer pressure control/er and the Immediate Operator Action steps are not identified by boldface type. Plausible because Checking PORVs closed is a required Immediate Operator Action step in other section of AOP-I.04 and boldface type is used for Cautions in the procedures.
D. Incorrect, Checking PORVs closed is not an Immediate Operator Action step for a failed pressurizer pressure control/er. Immediate Operator Action steps are identified by circling the step numbers or by a note preceding the step(s). Plausible because Checking PORVs closed is a required Immediate Operator Action step in other section of AOP-I.04 and Immediate Operator Action steps are identified by circling the step numbers or by a note preceding the step(s)
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 73 Tier 3 KIA G 2.4.11 Emergency Procedures I Plan Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures.
Importance Rating:
4.0 I 4.2 Technical
Reference:
AOP-L04, Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions, Rev. 9 EPM-4, User's Guide, Rev. 20 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-1.04 B.3 Question Source:
Describe the initial operator respond to stabilize the plant upon entry into AOP-I.04.
OPL271 EPM-4 B.7 Given plant operating conditions, determine if EOP entry conditions have been met and state the resultant appropriate actions steps for those conditions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 I 43.5 I 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 73 Tier 3 KIA G 2.4.11 Emergency Procedures 1 Plan Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures.
Importance Rating:
4.0 1 4.2 Technical
Reference:
AOP-L04, Pressurizer Instrument and Control Malfunctions, Rev. 9 EPM-4, User's Guide, Rev. 20 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271AOP-L04 B.3 Question Source:
Describe the initial operator respond to stabilize the plant upon entry into AOP-L04.
OPL271 EPM-4 B.7 Given plant operating conditions, determine if EOP entry conditions have been met and state the resultant appropriate actions steps for those conditions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ____ _
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.10/43.5/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.4.16074 Consider the following two cases:
- 1 -
Unit 1 experiences a Reactor trip in conjunction with a loss of all Component Cooling Water (CCS).
- 2 -
Unit 1 experiences a Reactor trip in conjunction with a loss of all Essential Raw Cooling Water (ERCW).
. Which ONE of the following identifies how the.Emergency Operating Procedures (EOP's) and the Abnormal Operating Procedures (AOP's) would be prioritized to respond to these events?
A. E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection," would have priority over the applicable AOP in both cases.
B. The applicable AOP would have priority over E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection," in both cases.
C. The AOP for loss of CCS would have priority over E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection" but the AOP for the loss of ERCW would NOT have priority over E-O.
D~ The AOP for loss of ERCW would have priority over E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection" but the AOP for the loss of CCS would NOT have priority over E-O.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.4.16074 Consider the following two cases:
- 1 -
Unit 1 experiences a Reactor trip in conjunction with a loss of all Component Cooling Water (CCS).
- 2 -
Unit 1 experiences a Reactor trip in conjunction with a loss of all Essential Raw Cooling Water (ERCW).
Which ONE of the following identifies how the Emergency Operating Procedures (EOP's) and the Abnormal Operating Procedures (AOP's) would be prioritized to respond to these events?
A. E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection," would have priority over the applicable AOP in both cases.
B. The applicable AOP would have priority over E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection," in both cases.
C. The AOP for loss of CCS would have priority over E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety Injection" but the AOP for the loss of ERCW would NOT have priority over E-O.
D~ The AOP for loss of ERCW would have priority over E-O, "Reactor Trip or Safety I njection" but the AOP for the loss of CCS would NOT have priority over E-O.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, EPM-4 provides that EOPs have priority over AOPs except for 3 cases [Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C.04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1)]. Plausible because EOPs normally have priority over other type procedures including AOPs.
B. Incorrect, There are 3 cases that the AOPs have priority [Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C.04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1)]. Loss of CCS is not one of the priority AOPs.
Plausible because there are AOPs that have priority over EOPs.
C. Incorrect, There are 3 cases that the AOPs have priority[Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C;04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1)]. Loss of CCS is one not of the priority AOPs.
Plausible because there are AOPs that have priority over EOPs.
D. CORRECT, EPM-4 provides that EOPs have priority over AOPs except when a reactor trip or safety injection has occurred in conjunction with an Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C.04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1). AOP for the loss of ERCW is one of the listed priority A OPs.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, EPM-4 provides that EOPs have priority over AOPs except for 3 cases [Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C.04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1)]. Plausible because EOPs normally have priority over other type procedures including AOPs.
B. Incorrect, There are 3 cases that the AOPs have priority [Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C.04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1)]. Loss of CCS is not one of the priority AOPs.
Plausible because there are AOPs that have priority over EOPs.
C. Incorrect, There are 3 cases that the AOPs have priority[Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C;04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1)]. Loss of CCS is one not of the priority AOPs.
Plausible because there are AOPs that have priority over EOPs.
D. CORRECT, EPM-4 provides that EOPs have priority over AOPs except when a reactor trip or safety injection has occurred in conjunction with an Appendix R Fire (AOP-N.08), Control Room Abandonment (AOP-C.04), or Loss of all ERCW (AOP-M-1). AOP for the loss of ERCW is one of the listed priority AOPs.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 74 Tier 3 KIA G 2.4.16 Knowledge of EOP implementation hierarchy and coordination with other support procedures or guidelines such as, operating procedures, abnormal operating procedures, and severe accident management guidelines.
Importance Rating:
3.5 I 4.4 Technical
Reference:
EPM-4, Users Guide, Rev. 20 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 EPM-4, B.4.8 Question Source:
Given plant operating conditions, determine if AOP entry conditions have been met and state the resultant appropriate actions for those conditions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ~
New _X'---_
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X, __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 I 43.5 I 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 74 Tier 3 KIA G 2.4.16 Knowledge of EOP implementation hierarchy and coordination with other support procedures or guidelines such as, operating procedures, abnormal operating procedures, and severe accident management guidelines.
Importance Rating:
3.51 4.4 Technical
Reference:
EPM-4, Users Guide, Rev. 20 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271 EPM-4, B.4.8 Question Source:
Given plant operating conditions, determine if AOP entry conditions have been met and state the resultant appropriate actions for those conditions.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # __ ---
New _X __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge __ _
Comprehension or Analysis _X. __
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
( 41.10 1 43.5 1 45.13 )
( n/a )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.4.37 075 Given the following:
-A Site Area Emergency has been declared on Unit 1.
-The operating crew is responding in accordance with the emergency instructions.
(1) Which of the following describes the initial location the AUOs will report to?
and (2) When the emergency centers are staffed and activated, who will conduct the brief ot'the operations teams dispatched from the OSC?
Location A. 2 AUOs report to the MCR Remainder report to the OSC B. 2 AUOs report to the MCR Remainder report to the OSC C,.- 2 AUOs report to the OSC Remainder report to the MCR D. 2 AUOs report to the OSC Remaihder report to the MCR Briefed by the...
OSC Operations Advisor Control Room Operator OSC Operations Advisor Control Room Operator QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions G 2.4.37 075 Given the following:
-A Site Area Emergency has been declared on Unit 1.
-The operating crew is responding in accordance with the emergency instructions.
(1) Which of the following describes the initial location the AUOs will report to?
and (2) When the emergency centers are staffed and activated, who will conduct the brief ot'the operations teams dispatched from the OSC?
Location A. 2 AUOs report to the MCR Remainder report to the OSC B. 2 AUOs report to the MCR Remainder report to the OSC C~ 2 AUOs report to the OSC Remainder report to the MCR D. 2 AUOs report to the OSC Remainder report to the MCR Briefed by the...
OSC Operations Advisor Control Room Operator OSC Operations Advisor Control Room Operator
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DISTRACTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, first part is incorrect, two AUOs will report to the OSC (verses MCR) with remaining to the MCR (verse OSC), the second part is correct as teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO. This distracter is plausible, in the first part both locations are valid with only the number of AUOs reporting to each different and the second part is correct.
B. Incorrect, first part is incorrect, two AUOs will report to the OSC (verses MCR) with remaining to the MCR (verse OSC), the second part is incorrect as teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC (verses CRO) personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO. This distracter is plausible, in the first part both locations are valid with only the number of AUOs reporting to each different and the second part reflects who normally briefs AUOs.
C. CORRECT, two AUOs will report to the OSC with remaining to the MCR, teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO.
D. Incorrect, the first part is correct as two AUOs will report to the OSC with remaining to the MCR. The second part is incorrect as teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC (verses CRO) personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO. The distracter is plausible as the first part is correct and the second part reflects who normally briefs AUOs.
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions DIS TRA CTOR ANAL YSIS:
A. Incorrect, first part is incorrect, two AUOs will report to the OSC (verses MCR) with remaining to the MCR (verse OSC), the second part is correct as teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO. This distracter is plausible, in the first part both locations are valid with only the number of AUOs reporting to each different and the second part is correct.
B. Incorrect, first part is incorrect, two AUOs will report to the OSC (verses MCR) with remaining to the MCR (verse OSC), the second part is incorrect as teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC (verses CRO) personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO. This distracter is plausible, in the first part both locations are valid with only the number of AUOs reporting to each different and the second part reflects who normally briefs AUOs.
C. CORRECT, two AUOs will report to the OSC with remaining to the MCR, teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO.
D. Incorrect, the first part is correct as two AUOs will report to the OSC with remaining to the MCR. The second part is incorrect as teams dispatched by the OSC will be briefed by OSC (verses CRO) personnel, most likely the OSC Operations Advisor SRO. The distracter is plausible as the first part is correct and the second part reflects who normally briefs AUOs.
QUESTIONS. REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 75 Tier 3 KIA G 2.4.37 Knowledge of the lines of authority during implementation of the emergency plan Importance Rating:
3.0 I 4.1 Technical
Reference:
EPIP-7, "Activation and Operation of the OSC", R26 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271.REP B.O Question Source:
Demonstrate an understanding of NUREG 1122 Knowledge and Abilities associated with Radiological Emergency Plan that are rated ~ 2.5 during Initial License Training and ~ 3.0 during License Operator Requalification Training for the appropriate license position as identified in Appendix A.
Bank# ___ _
Modified Bank # ___ _
New_X. __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
10 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.10 I 45.13 )
( nla )
Comments:
QUESTIONS REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions Question No. 75 Tier 3 KIA G 2.4.37 Knowledge of the lines of authority during implementation of the emergency plan Importance Rating:
3.0 1 4.1 Technical
Reference:
EPIP-7, "Activation and Operation of the OSC", R26 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective:
OPL271.REP B.O Question Source:
Demonstrate an understanding of NUREG 1122 Knowledge and Abilities associated with Radiological Emergency Plan that are rated ~ 2.5 during Initial License Training and ~ 3.0 during License Operator Requalification Training for the appropriate license position as identified in Appendix A.
Bank# ____ _
Modified Bank# ___ _
New_X, __
Question History:
New question Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or fundamental knowledge _X __
Comprehension or Analysis __ _
1 0 CFR Part 55 Content:
(41.10/45.13 )
( nla )
Comments:
MCS BANK.
BANK. MOD NEW BRAIDWOOD COMMANCHEPEAK COOK 2004 EXAM NORTH ANNA POINT BEACH SQN WATTSBAR HIGHER LOWER RO SEQUOYAH 112009 RETAKE NO Saturday, July 11, 2009 2:42:23 PM BANK INFORMATION REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 75 Multiple choice: single 17 28 30 30 1
1 1
1 2
37 2
45 30 75 75 75 75 75 1
MCS BANK BANK MOD NEW BRAIDWOOD COMMANCHE PEAK COOK 2004 EXAM NORTH ANNA POINT BEACH SQN WATTSBAR HIGHER LOWER RO SEQUOYAH 112009 RETAKE NO Saturday, July 11, 2009 2:42:23 PM BANK INFORMATION REPORT for 2009 RO Retake Exam Questions 75 Multiple choice: single 17 28 30 30 1
2 37 2
45 30 75 75 75 75 75 1